05/09/2020 Code-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

MM : 720 Test – 32 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

Instructions :

(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. In an experiment on Ohm’s law, voltage drop 4. Position x of a body of mass 2 kg is given by
across resistor is (100 ± 4) volt and current is x  (2t 3  t 2 ) m. Work done by the force in time
(10.0 ± 0.1) A. The permissible error in R is interval t = 0 to t = 2 s is
(1) 5% (2) 7% (1) 525 J (2) 625 J
(3) 4.1% (4) 4% (3) 284 J (4) 784 J
5. A body of mass 1 kg is moving in a circular track
2. In a motion with constant acceleration, in of radius 2 m with a speed that varies with time t
5 seconds, velocity is reduced to zero momentarily as v = (6t2 – 2t) m s–1. The net force acting on the
and body covers a distance of 50 m. The distance body at t = 1 s is
covered in next 10 seconds will be
(1) 2 41 N (2) 3 29 N
(1) 50 m (2) 200 m
(3) 2 37 N (4) 4 21 N
(3) 250 m (4) Zero
6. The third overtone a closed organ pipe of length lc
3. A ball is thrown from ground with velocity has the same frequency as the fifth overtone of an
(30i  40 j ) m/s . The angle between acceleration open organ pipe of length l0. The ratio lc / l0 is equal
to
and velocity just after 4 second from throw will be
7 12
(Taking horizontal as x-axis and vertical y-axis) (1) (2)
12 7
(1) 90° (2) 0°
5 7
(3) 127° (4) 53° (3) (4)
7 5

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

7. If momentum of a body increases by 30% then 13. Young’s modulus for rigid material is
percentage increase in its KE will be (1) Zero (2) Infinite
(1) 30% (2) 39% (3) One (4) Between 0 and 1
(3) 69% (4) 35%
14. A cylindrical vessel when completely filled with
8. Three identical blocks A, B and C are placed on water, takes 10 minutes to become empty through
horizontal smooth surface. The blocks B and C are a narrow orifice in its bottom, time taken to
at rest, but A is approaching B with speed 10 m/s. become empty when half filled is
The coefficient of restitution for all collisions is 0.5.
The speed of block C just after the collision is (1) 5 min (2) 7 min

(1) 8.6 m/s (2) 4.8 m/s (3) 8 min (4) 10 min
(3) 5.4 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s 15. The gauge pressure of water in a tank at its bottom
9. A massless thin hollow sphere is completely filled is 3.92 × 105 Pa. If the density of water is
with water of mass m. If hollow sphere rolls with a 1000 kg/m3, then the water emerges from the
velocity v, then kinetic energy of sphere of water orifice at bottom in the tank with velocity
is (1) 14.14 m/s (2) 1.414 m/s
2 2 (3) 28 m/s (4) 7.8 m/s
(1) mv 2 (2) mv 2
3 5 16. Bulk modulus of an ideal gas for a process
7 1 
(3) mv 2 (4) mv 2 P  2 , is (where  is positive constant)
5 2 T
10. Figure shows a uniform triangular plate of mass
3P 2
m. What is the moment of inertia about the line (1) (2) P
2 3
passing through AB?
P
(3) P (4)
2

17.

ml 2 ml 2
(1) (2)
6 3
2ml 2 ml 2
(3) (4) Work done by the gas in cyclic process is
3 2
11. A particle is projected from earth with speed less P0V0
(1)  4P0V0 (2)
than the escape speed. The sum of KE and PE of 4
particle is P0V0
(3) 4P0V0 (4) 
(1) Positive and constant 4
(2) Negative and constant 18. The minimum amount of steam (LV = 540 cal/g) at
(3) Zero 100°C needed to melt ice (LF = 80 cal/g) at 0°C is
(4) Positive but decreases upto zero
1
12. The total energy of a satellite revolving in a circular (1) times the mass of ice to be melted
8
path of radius r, is – E. The weight of the satellite
is 1
(2) times the mass of ice to be melted
E E 3
(1) (2)
r 2r (3) 3 times the mass of ice to be melted
2E 2E
(3) (4) (4) 8 times the mass of ice to be melted
r r2

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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

19. With increase in pressure at constant 25. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to 1000 V.
temperature, rms speed of gases Find the p.d. between the plates if separation is
doubled and dielectric of dielectric constant 4 is
(1) Increases
inserted completely between plates
(2) Decreases
(1) 2000 V
(3) Remains same
(2) 500 V
(4) First decreases then increases
(3) 1000 V
20. Maximum average speed of particle during SHM,
having time period T and amplitude A during a (4) 250 V
phase change of 60°, is 26. The current through resistor of 10  will be
6A 6A
(1) (2)
T 2T
12A 3A
(3) (4)
T T
21. The tension in a wire is decreased by 19%, the
percentage decrease in frequency of vibration will
be
(1) 0.19% (1) Zero (2) 2 A
(2) 10% (3) 1 A (4) 5 A
(3) 19% 27. Find the equivalent resistance between the points
A and B if each resistor is R.
(4) No change in frequency
22. If two coherent sources of sound of intensities I
and 4I are superimposed at a point with a phase

difference of   , then resultant intensity is
3
(1) 5 I (2) 3 I
(3) 7 I (4) 9 I
R 3R
23. Two identical small conducting spheres A and B (1) (2)
each having charge q are separated by distance r 4 4
such that electrostatic force between them is F. R
Third uncharged and similar sphere is first (3) 2R (4)
2
touched to A, then to B and then kept at r/2
28. The resistance of a coil of an ammeter is R. The
distance from A between them. Net force on third
shunt required to increase its range n-fold should
sphere will be
have a resistance of value
9F 3
(1) (2) F R
4 4 (1) (n – 1) R (2)
n 1
F 4F
(3) (4) R
2 9 (3) (4) nR
n
24. Equipotential surfaces corresponding to a uniform
29. Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of circular
electric field are
coil, at a distances of 1 m and 5 m from centre, are
(1) Straight lines in ratio 27 : 1. The radius of coil is
(2) Planar (1) 1 m (2) 2 m
(3) Spherical 1
(3) 2m (4) m
(4) Ellipsoidal 2

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

30. A current carrying square shaped loop has edge 36. How much water should be filled in a container
1 m. The magnetic field at the centre of square 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled when
loop in its plane is (current in the loop is I)  4
viewed from top?  w  
 3
0 I 2 2 0I
(1) (2)
2  (1) 8 cm
(2) 10.5 cm
2  0I 20I
(3) (4) (3) 12 cm
 
31. The material suitable for making electromagnets (4) 18 cm
should have 37. The tube length of telescope in normal adjustment
(1) High retentivity and low coercivity is 100 cm, if its magnifying power is 24 then focal
length of eye piece is
(2) High retentivity and high coercivity
(3) Low retentivity and high coercivity (1) 4 cm (2) 96 cm

(4) Low retentivity and low coercivity (3) 25 cm (4) 10 cm

32. The direction of induced current in circular coil in 38. The equivalent optical path length of two media in
given figure is contact of lengths x1 and x2 of refractive index 1
and  2 respectively, is

x1x2
(1) 1x1   2 x2 (2)
1 2

x1  x2
(3) 1x2  2 x1 (4)
1 2
(1) Clockwise 39. When a metallic surface is illuminated by light of
(2) Anticlockwise wavelength , the stopping potential is 3V0. When
(3) First clockwise then anticlockwise the same surface is illuminated by light of
wavelength 2, the stopping potential is V0. The
(4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
threshold wavelength for this surface is
33. The rms value of an alternating voltage given by
an equation e = (8 sin  t – 4 cos  t) volt is (1) 6 (2) 3

(1) 2 5 V (2) 4 5 V (3) 4 (4) 8

40. If KE of a particle is increased to 16 times, the
(3) 2 10 V (4) 4 10 V percentage change in its de-Broglie wavelength is
34. A capacitor of capacitance C, initial charge Q0 and (1) –25% (2) –75%
energy V0 is connected to an inductor of
inductance L. The energy stored in inductor at the (3) –40% (4) –50%
moment when charge on capacitor is reduced by 41. In an electron transition inside a hydrogen atom,
75% of its initial charge will be orbital angular momentum may change by
V0 15V0 h
(1) (2) (i) h (ii)
16 16 
V0 3V0
(3) (4) h h
4 4 (iii) (iv)
2 4
35. An EMW travels in a medium with speed
(1) (i) and (ii)
2 × 108 m/s. If relative permeability of medium is
1.0, then relative permittivity is (2) (ii) and (iii)
(1) 1.75 (2) 2.25 (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) 4.5 (4) 3.25 (4) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

42. Half life of a material is 100 days then in how many

days it will disintegrate by approximately 30%?
(1) 50 days (2) 100 days (1) 1 mA
(3) 75 days (4) 33 days (2) 1  A
43. Average binding energy of a nucleon inside an
(3) 0
atomic nucleus is about
(4) 2 mA
(1) 8 MeV
45. Which gate is also called as inverter?
(2) 8 eV
(1) AND
(3) 10 eV
(2) OR
(4) 4 eV
(3) NOT
44. What is current in given circuit, assume both p-n
junction diodes as ideal? (4) XOR

CHEMISTRY
46. If 50% of N2O5 is decomposed into NO2(g) and (1) I and II
O2(g) at constant pressure then the percentage (2) I and III
increase in volume will be
(3) II and III
(1) 50% (2) 80%
(4) I, II and III
(3) 75% (4) 125%
51. Total number of tetrahedral angles present in
47. Which of the following has maximum dipole CH4(g) molecule is
moment?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) NH3 (2) PCl5
(3) 6 (4) 8
(3) NF3 (4) PCl3F2
52. The root mean square speed of CH4(g) molecules
48. Select the correct statement(s) among the in a sample of methane at 27°C is nearly
following. (1) 680 ms–1 (2) 68 ms–1
I. The Zeff experienced by the orbital decreases (3) 6.8 ms–1 (4) 0.68 ms–1
with increase of azimuthal quantum number.
53. Choose the incorrect statement among the
II. For multielectron atom, lower the value of following.
(n + l) for an orbital, the lower is its energy.
(1) The normal boiling point of water is 100°C,
III. Energy of 2s orbital (E2s) follows the order whereas its standard boiling point is 99.6°C
E2s(H) > E2s(Na) > E2s (K) (2) Boiling does not occur when liquid is heated in
(1) I and II only a closed vessel
(2) II and III only (3) Viscosity of liquids increases as the
(3) I and III only temperature rises
(4) All of these (4) 1 poise = 1 g cm–1 s–1 = 10–1 kg m–1 s–1
49. The number of valence shell orbitals present in the 54. S and H for the reaction
elements of the third period of the periodic table is 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)  2Fe2O3(s)
(1) 1 (2) 2 At 300 K are found to be –550 J K–1 mol–1 and
(3) 9 (4) 3 –1647 kJ mol–1 respectively. What will be the total
50. Sigma() bond in benzene is formed by the entropy change for the reaction?
overlapping of which orbitals. (1) 4940 JK–1 mol–1
I. s and s (2) 5490 JK–1 mol–1
II. sp2 and s (3) 550 JK–1 mol–1
III. sp2 and sp2 (4) 6040 JK–1 mol–1
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

55. Consider the following two reactions : 61. For binary solution, showing +ve deviation from
X  2Y; Hreaction  H1 Raoult’s law, the set of conditions which is true is
(1) Smix   ve, Hmix   ve, Gmix   ve
1
X  Z; Hreaction  H2
2 (2) Smix  ve, Hmix  ve, Gmix  ve
What would be the enthalpy change for the (3) Smix   ve, Hmix   ve, Gmix  ve
process Y  Z ?
(4) Smix   ve, Hmix  ve, Gmix   ve
1
(1) H2  H1 (2) H2  H1 62. If elevation in boiling point for aqueous Na2SO4
2
having   40% is Tb , then its depression in
1 1
(3) H1  H2 (4) ( H1  H2 ) freezing point for the solution would be
2 2
Tb  K f Tb  K f
56. Total number of electrons that can be (1) (2)
accommodated in the sub-shell (l = 1) are Kb 1.8  K b
(1) 6 (2) 10 1.8  K b Kb
(3) (4)
(3) 2 (4) 14 Tb  K f Tb  K f
57. KP and KC ratio for the following reaction 63. What would be the standard free energy change
1 ( G) for the following reaction at 25°C?
SO2 (g)  

 SO3 (g) will be
O2 (g) 
2 2Au(s) + 3Ca2(+) (1.0 M) 
RT 1 2Au3(+) (1.0 M) + 3Ca(s)
(1) (2)
2 RT Eo 2  2.87 V; Eo 3  1.50 V 
 Ca /Ca Au /Au 
1
(3) RT (4) (1) 1.26 ×103 kJ/mol (2) 793.230 kJ/mol
RT
2
58. Consider the following statement about the (3) 8.4 ×10 kJ/mol (4) 4.2 ×102 kJ/mol
following reactions : 64. The reduction potential for two half reactions are
A : 2H2 O(l)  2F2 (g)  4HF(g)  O2 (g) given :
2H2O(l) + 2e(–)  H2(g) + 2OH(–)(aq);E° = –0.8 V
B : BF3  HF  HBF4
Na (aq)  e(  )  Na(s); E  2.7 V
I. Reaction (A) is redox reaction whereas
reaction (B) is acid-base reaction Aqueous sodium ion cannot be reduced to solid
II. In reaction (A) H2O is oxidising agent. sodium in an electrolytic cell because
III. In reaction (B), BF3 is Lewis base. (1) Na(+)(aq) will combine with OH(–)(aq) to form
NaOH(s)
Choose the correct statement(s) :
(2) H2O(l) is more easily reduced than aqueous
(1) Only I (2) II and III
sodium ion
(3) Only II (4) I and III
2–
(3) NaOH is a strong base
59. In a mixed oxide, O has fcc arrangement,
(4) H2 is gas whereas Na is solid at room
univalent B  is present in all octahedral voids and
temperature
1
divalent A 2 is present in th of tetrahedral o
65. If EFe o
is ‘a’; EFe o
is ‘b’ then EFe will be
4 2
/Fe 3
/Fe 3
/Fe2
voids, then formula of the oxide should be (1) 3b – 2a (2) a + b
(1) AB2O4 (2) A2B2O3 (3) b – a (4) 3a + b
(3) A3B2O4 (4) AB2O2 66. As temperature is increased in an gaseous
60. The number of octahedral voids per sphere in reaction in a closed container, which of the
H.C.P. structure is following option(s) remain constant?
(1) 8 (2) 4 (1) Rate constant (2) Rate of reaction
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) Activation energy (4) Both (1) and (3)

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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

67. The rate of reaction is independent from 76. According to CFT, both high-spin and low-spin
concentration for octahedral complexes are not possible for the
(1) First order reaction configuration.
(2) Zero order reaction (1) d8 (2) d5
(3) Second order reaction (3) d4 (4) d6
(4) Third order reaction 77. Identify the anti-aromatic system.
68. Colloidal system of solid in gas is known as
(1) (2)
(1) Aerosol (2) Foam
(3) Emulsion (4) Gel
69. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
I. Zeolites (3) (4)
II. By boiling
III. Ion-exchange method
(1) Only II (2) Only III 78.

(3) Both I and III (4) I, II and III

70. Minimum density in group-2 of periodic table is of
‘X’ should be
(1) Be (2) Ca
(3) Mg (4) Ba (1) (2)
71. Which of the following is the amorphous form of
silica used in filtration plants?
(1) Quartz (2) Calgon (3) (4)
(3) Zeolite (4) Kieselguhr
72. Choose the incorrect match. 79. Consider the following statements.

(1) Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 I. is much more stronger acid

(2) Calamine : CaCO3.xH2O
(3) Magnetite : Fe3O4
than
(4) Sphalerite : ZnS
73. For which of the following element, its highest II. Amides are protonated on oxygen rather than
oxidation state is not achieved in its fluoride? nitrogen
(1) Ti (2) V
(3) Cr (4) Mn III. is protonated on C-2 not on
2(+)
74. All halides of Cu are known except
(1) CuF2 (2) CuCl2
nitrogen.
(3) CuBr2 (4) CuI2
Choose the correct statement(s).
75. Consider the following statements.
(1) I and III only
I. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ shows geometrical isomerism
(2) I and II only
II. [Co(NH3)3Cl3] exists as fac-mer isomers
(3) II and III only
III. [Pt(NH2CH2COO)2] is a square planar
complex and exists in two stereoisomers. (4) I, II and III
Choose the correct statement(s). 80. On monochlorination of isobutane, total possible
structural isomers obtain are
(1) Only II (2) I and II only
(1) 4 (2) 9
(3) I and III only (4) I, II, and III
(3) 2 (4) 6

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

81. 84.

‘Y’ should be
Major product in each case when P, Q and R
heated separately with HNO3/H2SO4, respectively
(1) (2)
are

(3) (4)
(1)

(2)
82.

(3)
The compound (X) is

(4)
(1) (2)

85.

(3) (4)
Reaction (A) and reaction (B) follow the path
respectively.
(1) E2, SN1
(2) E1, SN2

83. (3) E2, SN2

(4) SN1, E2
86. Which of the following reaction is an example of
disproportionation reaction?
The compound (B) is
(1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(2) Kolbe reaction
(3) Cannizzaro reaction
(1) (2)
(4) Etard reaction
87.   D(  ) -glucopyranose is an example of cyclic

(1) Ketal
(2) Acetal
(3) (4) (3) Hemiacetal
(4) Hemiketal

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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

88. Repeating unit of natural rubber is 89. Artificial sweetener that contains chlorine is
(1) Sucralose
(1) (2) Alitame
(3) Aspartame
(4) Saccharin

(2)

90.

(3)
are respectively
(1) Chloroxylenol and terpineol
(2) Chloroxylenol and bithionol
(4)
(3) Bithionol and terpineol
(4) Terpineol and chloramphenicol

BOTANY
91. In eukaryotes, functioning of which RNA 95. Which of the given respiratory substrate has
polymerase provides a template for polypeptide maximum RQ under aerobic respiration?
synthesis (1) Glucose (2) Fat
(1) Sigma factor of RNA polymerase (3) Malic acid (4) Oxalic acid
(2) RNA polymerase I 96. Which of the given traits express itself in only
(3) RNA polymerase II homozygous condition?
(4) RNA Polymerase III (1) Dwarf stem (2) Round seed
92. Commercially produced blood – cholesterol
(3) Yellow seed (4) Violet flower
lowering agents are
97. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed
(1) Cyclosporin A produced by fungus
by
Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Statins produced by yeast Monascus (1) Mendel (2) Sutton and Boveri
purpureus (3) T.H. Morgan (4) Altmann
(3) Streptokinase produced by bacterium 98. Which of the given organisms have maximum life-
Streptococcus span?
(4) Amylase produced by fungus Rhizopus
(1) Butterfly (2) Dog
93. Which of the given is not an anthropogenic
ecosystem? (3) Cow (4) Tortoise

(1) Crop fields (2) Garden 99. Mark the correct statement.
(3) Forest (4) Aquarium (1) Meiocyte and gamete mother cell are always
diploid
94. Which of the given is pacemaker enzymes of EMP
pathway? (2) Meiocytes are always diploid but gamete
mother cell may be haploid or diploid
(1) Hexokinase
(3) Meiocyte and gamete mother cell are always
(2) Phosphofructokinase (PFK) haploid
(3) Enolase (4) Meiocytes always lead to formation of gamete
(4) Aldolase mother cell

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

100. In the bundle sheath cells of C4 plant the 106. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. symbols used in
intracellular concentration of CO2 is increased by pedigree analysis.
(1) Breakdown of C4 acid in bundle sheath cells (1) – Unaffected male
(2) Carboxylation by RuBisCO leading to (2) – Affected male
formation of C3 compound
(3) – Consanguineous mating
(3) Competitive binding of RuBisCO with CO2 and
O2 (4) – Sex unspecified
(4) Carboxylation by PEPCase in mesophyll cells 107. Mark the incorrect statement.
to form C4 acid (1) Free 2OH of RNA makes it more labile
101. Zygote divides by meiosis to form haploid spores (2) RNA is better material for the transfer of
that grow into haploid individuals. Such individuals genetic information
have (3) DNA is chemically more reactive but
(1) Haplontic life cycle structurally less-stable than RNA
(2) Diplontic life cycle (4) RNA being unstable, mutates at faster rate
108. Which one of the following is incorrect w.r.t. rules
(3) Haplodiplontic life cycle
of binomial nomenclature.
(4) Diplohaplontic life cycle
(1) Each organism is given two names consisting
102. The developing pollen grains are nourished by of two words
(1) All the wall layers of anther (2) The biological names are generally taken from
Latin language irrespective of their origin
(2) Outer three wall layers of anther
(3) The scientific name is printed in italics
(3) Innermost wall layer of anther
(4) The first word denoting the genus starts with
(4) Inner two walls layers of anther capital letter while the specific epithet starts
103. In flowering plants, free nuclear divisions are with a small letter
involved in development of 109. Oxidation of inorganic substances such as
nitrates, nitrites is done by
(a) Male gametophyte
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(b) Female gametophyte
(2) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(c) Endosperm
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria
(d) Embryo
(4) Photolithotrophic bacteria
(1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) 110. Mark the incorrect match.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) Oogamous reproduction - Fucus
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) Anisogamous reproduction - Eudorina
(4) (b) and (c) only (3) Isogamous reproduction - Volvox
104. In Pinus, the development of endosperm is (4) Isogamous reproduction - Ulothrix
(1) A pre-fertilization event 111. Mark the correct set of characteristics for
Phaeophyceae.
(2) A post-fertilization event
(1) Chlorophyll a, b; cellulose; salt water
(3) Absent
(2) Chlorophyll a, c; mannitol, cellulose and algin
(4) Parthenogenetic
(3) Fucoxanthin, starch, 2 unequal apical flagella
105. Gametes with unequal number of chromosomes (4) Chlorophyll a, d; floridean starch, salt water
are formed by
112. Which of the given plants flower when they receive
(1) Humans light hours which are above than a critical
(2) Birds photoperiod?
(3) Drosophila (1) Wheat (2) Tomato
(4) Grasshopper (3) Tobacco (4) Cucumber

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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

113. Law of limiting factors was given by 121. Mark true and false for the following statements
(1) Hatch and Slack (2) Blackman w.r.t. population growth curves.

(3) Melvin Calvin (4) Joseph Priestley (a) Exponential growth of a population can be
114. Necrosis of leaf tissue occurs due to deficiency of calculated by Nt = N0ert
which of the given set of elements? (b) Under unlimited resource conditions,
(1) N, K, Fe, Zn (2) N, K, S, Mo enormous population densities can be
attained in a short time
(3) Ca, Mg, Cu, K (4) N, S, Mo
115. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. apoplast (c) In the equation dN/dt = rN, r is an important
pathway. parameter for assessing the birth rate of a
population
(1) It occurs through intercellular spaces
(2) It involves movement of water by crossing the (d) Growth for most animal population is finite as
cell wall and cell membrane along animals always have a large body
concentration gradient
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) This movement is dependent on the gradient
(1) T T F F
(4) It does not provide any barrier to water
movement (2) T F T F
116. Which of the given roots arise from the branches (3) T T T F
of stem for providing mechanical support to heavy
branches, as pillars? (4) T F T T

(1) Pneumatophores (2) Stilt roots 122. Match the columns.

(3) Prop roots (4) Respiratory roots
Column I Column II
117. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. various types of
placentation and their examples. a. Flagella (i) Cis-trans face
Placentation Example
b. Cristae (ii) Chlorophyll pigments
(1) Free central China rose
(2) Marginal Pea c. Cisternae (iii) Increase surface area

(3) Parietal Argemone d. Thylakoids (iv) 9+2 arrangement

(4) Axile Lemon
118. A fruit with a stony endocarp surrounded by a (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
fibrous mesocarp is (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) Coconut (2) Mango (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Wheat (4) Maize
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
119. Which of the given plants has flower of bilateral
symmetry? 123. Which of the following distribution pattern of birds
(1) Cassia (2) Canna depicts the latitudinal gradient of biodiversity?

(3) Datura (4) Chilli No. of species of birds

120. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. dicot leaf. 1400 1200 105 56
(1) Leaf is isobilateral (1) India New York Columbia Green land
(2) Vascular bundles differ in size due to presence (2) Columbia India Green New York
of reticulate venation land
(3) Mesophyll cells are differentiated into two (3) Columbia India New York Green
types of tissues palisade and spongy land
parenchyma
(4) New York Green India Columbia
(4) Stomata is usually more in number on lower land
epidermis
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

124. How many of the following animals have become 130. How many SAT chromosomes are present in
extinct due to over-exploitation? humans?
(1) 5
Steller’s sea cow, Catfish, Cichlid fish, Lantana,
Soyabean, Passenger pigeon, Parthenium (2) 7
(3) 10
(1) One
(4) 14
(2) Two
131. Which of the following substrates will give
(3) Three
maximum ATP by oxidative phosphorylation, if
(4) Four completely get oxidised?
125. Mark the incorrect match. (1) Pyruvic acid
Crop Variety Resistance to
(2) Acetyl CoA
(1) Brassica Pusa Swarnim Aphids
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) Cow pea Pusa Komal Bacterial blight
(4) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(3) Okra Pusa Sawani Shoot and fruit borer
132. Which of the given plant hormone stimulates root
(4) Flat Bean Pusa Sem 2 Jassids
formation on stem cutting?
126. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. stratification in
(1) Gibberellin
an ecosystem.
(2) Auxin
(1) Tropical rain forest show maximum
stratification (3) Ethylene

(2) Stratification reduces competition by creating (4) ABA

a large variety of spatial niche 133. In lac operon system, which of the given gene
(3) In a ecosystem species diversity increase with receives the product of regulator gene?
increase in stratification (1) Operator gene
(4) A pond does not show any form of stratification (2) Inhibitor gene
as it is a water body (3) Promoter gene
127. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere is a serious (4) Structural gene
environmental issue. However it may not lead to 134. Curling of root hair during development of root
(1) Snow blindness nodules in soyabean occurs
(2) Minimata disease (1) Before entry of Rhizobium into root hair
(3) Skin cancers (2) Upon successful infection of the root hair
(4) Aging of skin (3) On contact with any bacterial species with root
128. Which of the given green house gases contribute hair
maximum to the total global warming? (4) When Rhizobium penetrate inside the root
vascular cambium
(1) CO2
135. Mark the incorrect statement.
(2) CFC
(1) Root pressure does not play a major role in
(3) CH4
water movement up tall trees
(4) N2O
(2) The upward movement of water in tall trees is
129. The synaptonemal complex formed during mainly due to negative hydrostatic pressure
zygotene dissolves in which of the given stages of
(3) The water vapour diffuses from the stomatal
prophase-I?
chamber to the dry air due to vapour gradient
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
(4) Root pressure is seen when transpiration is
(3) Pachytene (4) Diakinesis high
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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. 141. Which of the following is marine?
specialised connective tissue (Blood)? (1) Ascidia (2) Spongilla
(1) Blood consists of very few elastic fibres (3) Hydra (4) Labeo
(2) Its matrix is secreted by its cells. 142. Read the following statements A and B.
(3) Plasma is straw coloured viscous fluid (A) Arrival of disturbance at neuron’s endings, or
consisting nearly 55% of the blood output zone triggers event, that may always
(4) Neutrophils are the most abundant cells of cause stimulation of adjacent neurons or other
blood cells.
137. Given below are some features (B) Neuroglial cells protect and support neurons
and make up more than one half the volume
(a) Sexes are separate of neural tissue.
(b) Endoskeleton is fully ossified Choose the correct option.
(c) Warm blooded animal (1) Only A is correct
(d) Oviparous (2) Only B is correct
(e) Direct development (3) Both A and B are correct
Given features are present in (4) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Chelone (2) Hemidactylus 143. Match the following.
(3) Columba (4) Macaca a. Squamous (i) Ureter
epithelium
138. Complete the following analogy
b. Columnar (ii) Walls of blood vessels
Bombyx : Tracheal system : : Limulus : ___
epithelium
(1) Lungs (2) Book lungs
c. Cuboidal (iii) Intestine
(3) Tracheal system (4) Book gills epithelium

139. In which of the following the genus name, its two d. Transitional (iv) Proximal convoluted
characters and its phylum are not correctly epithelium tubule

matched?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
Genus Characters Phylum (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
name
144. Respiratory system of cockroach consists a
(1) Wuchereria Tissue level of Aschelminthes network of trachea that open through ____ small
organisation,
monoecious
holes called spiracles.
Select the option which correctly fills the given
(2) Culex Internal Arthropoda
fertilisation, blank.
bilateral symmetry
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) Pila Mouth contains Mollusca (3) 40 pairs (4) 5
radula, feather like
gills in mantle 145. In cockroach, ovaries are present laterally in which
cavity
of the following abdominal segments?
(4) Echinus Water vascular Echinodermata
system, indirect
(1) 4th to 8th (2) 6th to 7th
development (3) 2nd to 6th (4) 4th to 7th
140. Flame cells are present in 146. All of the following are aromatic amino acids,
except
(1) Fasciola (2) Wuchereria
(1) Phenylalanine (2) Tyrosine
(3) Pheretima (4) Loligo
(3) Tryptophan (4) Alanine

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

147. Select the incorrect statement. 154. In nephron, reabsorption is minimum in

(1) At each step of ascent, strand of DNA turns (1) Collecting duct
36°
(2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(2) Living state is equilibrium steady state to be
(3) Distal convoluted tubule
able to perform work
(4) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(3) Catalytic activity of enzyme is lost when
cofactor is removed from enzyme 155. Which of the following is not associated with
(4) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme flagellar movement?
carboxypeptidase (1) Water current in sponges
148. On increasing which of the following factor (2) Swimming of spermatozoa
enzyme activity increases
(3) Locomotion in Trypanosoma
(1) Temperature beyond optimum limit (4) Movement of ova in female reproductive tract
(2) Product concentration
156. All are paired bones of skull except
(3) Substrate concentration
(1) Occipital (2) Temporal
(4) pH beyond optimum range
(3) Parietal (4) Zygomatic
149. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from
157. Unipolar neurons are present in
substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
leaving double bonds belong to class (1) Retina of eye (2) Hydra
(1) I (2) II (3) Brain (4) Embryo
(3) III (4) IV 158. Select the correct one w.r.t. depolarisation of
neuron
150. Which of the following structure is not present in
mucosa of small intestine? (1) Transportation of 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into
the cell
(1) Villi
(2) Rapid influx of Na+ ion
(2) Brunner’s gland
(3) Rapid influx of K+ ion
(3) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(4) Rapid efflux of K+ ion
(4) Goblet cells
159. In internal ear, organ of corti is located on
151. All of the following are common symptoms for
Kwashiorkor and Marasmus except (1) Reissner’s membrane
(1) Thinning of limbs (2) Tectorial membrane
(2) Failure of growth (3) Tympanic membrane
(3) Impaired brain development (4) Basilar membrane
(4) Extensive oedema 160. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by
adenohypophysis?
152. Volume of air that will remain in lungs after a
normal expiration is (1) Somatostatin
(1) RV (2) Prolactin
(2) TLC - IC (3) Gonadotropins
(3) TV + ERV (4) Growth hormone
(4) VC - IRV 161. Choose the correct role of hormone of pineal
gland.
153. Hepatic portal vein carries blood from
(1) Loss of water through urine
(1) Liver to intestine
(2) Contraction of uterus during child birth
(2) Liver to heart
(3) Maintaining diurnal rhythm of body
(3) Intestine to liver
(4) Increase in blood pressure
(4) Intestine to heart

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Test-32 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020

162. Hormone which interacts with membrane-bound 167. Choose the incorrect pair of STD with its
receptor and generate secondary messenger is causative agent
(1) Cortisol (1) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria
(2) Aldosterone (2) Genital warts – HPV
(3) Thyroxine (3) Syphilis – Treponema
(4) Insulin
(4) Chancroid – Streptococcus
163. The source of estrogen during proliferative phase
168. Which of the following features of Archaeopteryx
of menstrual cycle is
may not be considered as reptilian characters?
(1) Placenta
(1) Presence of very long tail
(2) Corpus luteum
(2) Presence of non pneumatic bone
(3) Growing follicle
(3) Presence of weak sternum
(4) Hypothalamus
164. Given below are some stages of human (4) Intimate fusion of skull bones
embryonic development 169. Flowering plants (angiosperms) appeared in
which of the following period?

(1) Cretaceous
(2) Cambrian
(3) Ordovician
(4) Triassic
170. Natural selection cannot lead to a situation in
which
(1) More individuals acquire mean character
value
(2) More individuals with low fitness level to
outlive individuals with high fitness level

Which of the following stages is implanted in (3) More individuals acquire peripheral values at
uterus? both ends of distribution curve
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (4) More individuals reproduce sexually
(3) (iii) (4) (iv) 171. Which of the following is not the cause of variation
165. Which set includes hormones secreted from according to Neo-Darwinism?
placenta? (1) Recombination
(1) Estrogen, progesterone, prolactin (2) Genetic drift
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogen (3) Mutations
(3) hCG, progesterone, oxytocin
(4) Random mating in a large population
(4) hCG, relaxin, prolactin
172. Branching descent and natural selection are the
166. After IVF, the embryo with more than 8 two key concepts given by
blastomeres is transferred into
(1) Ernst Heckel
(1) Fallopian tube
(2) Darwin
(2) Ovary
(3) Alfred Wallace
(3) Vagina
(4) Uterus (4) de Vries

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET - 2020 Test-32 (Code-A)

173. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. crack/coke. 177. Which of the following often helps to overcome
(1) Obtained from Erythroxylum coca inbreeding depression?
(1) Mating of more closely related individuals
(2) It is a depressant and slows down body
within same breed
functions
(2) Mating of superior male and female of two
(3) It interferes with the transport of neuro- different breeds
transmitter dopamine
(3) Mating of individuals within same breed
(4) Its excessive dose causes hallucinations having no common ancestor
174. The property not applicable to cancerous cell is (4) Mating of individuals of two different related
species
(1) Grow faster than benign tumour cells
178. All of the following are used in PCR except
(2) Lack of normal cell signalling response
(1) dNTPs
(3) Show contact inhibition
(2) Oligonucleotide primers
(4) Show metastasis (3) Taq polymerase
175. Select the correct set of diseases which are cured (4) Restriction enzyme
by using antibiotics?
179. Reptile with four chambered heart is
(1) Smallpox and dengue
(1) Tortoise
(2) Tuberculosis and pneumonia (2) Chameleon
(3) Rabies and plague (3) Crocodile
(4) Measles and leprosy (4) Wall lizard
176. HCl in stomach belongs to same barrier of innate 180. ____ are being developed for use in testing the
immunity as that of safety of vaccines before they are used on human
(1) PMNL and Macrophage (1) Transgenic pig
(2) Lysozyme in tear and saliva (2) Transgenic mice
(3) Transgenic sheep
(3) Skin and mucus membrane
(4) Interferons and cerumen
(4) Transgenic goat

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