WACHEMO UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

Program: - Bachelor of Science Degree in Civil Engineering

Second Round Model Exit Exam

Introduction
The Civil Engineering department aims to produce professionals equipped with relevant
knowledge, skills and attitude that would contribute to the development of the country. Well-
qualified Civil engineers with adequate knowledge in the area of structural, highway,
geotechnical and water resources. The aim of this second round model exit exam is to equip
students with the ability to score better results in the upcoming university exit exam.
Instructions
1. This exit exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions.
2. This second round exit exam contains all the courses included in Core Courses
3. Choice the best answer among the given alternative for each questions.
4. Try each questions by yourself and do not try to cheat.
 BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

1. The safety valve of a dam is its __________________.

a. drainage gallery
b. inspection gallery
c. Spillway
d. outlet sluices
2. Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams?
a. Ogee spillway
b. Chute spillway
c. Side‐channel spillways
d. Shaft spillway
3. Which of the following spillway is an improvement over free overflow spillway?
a. Straight drop spillway
b. Open channel spillway
c. Overflow spillway
d. Siphon spillway
4. The spillway, which can be called as an overflow spillway, is essentially _____.
a. an ogee spillway
b. a shaft spillway
c. a chute spillway
d. a syphon spillway
5. The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is ______.
a. deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b. deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c. wide gorge with a gradual slope
d. wide valley with moderate slope
6. Weirs are normally used to calculate:
a. Volume
b. Head loss
c. Discharge
d. Velocity
7. Which one of the following statement is false?
a. Shallows foundations are used when surface soils are not sufficiently strong and stiff
to support the imposed loads.
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

b. Foundation is the part of the structure which is in direct contact with the ground to
which the loads are transmitted.
c. The combined footing for columns will be rectangular in shape if they carry equal
load and trapezoidal shape for unequal loads.
d. Shallow foundations are not suitable in weak or highly compressible soils, such as
poorly-compacted fill, peat, alluvial deposits
8. Which one of the following is a type of Shallow foundations?
a. Pile foundation
b. Pier foundation
c. Well foundation
d. Mat foundation
9. A commonly used form of roof that have a slopes in two directions
a. Hip Roof
b. Butterfly roof
c. Gable roof
d. Shed roof
10. A type of roof considered suitable for buildings in plains or in hot regions where rainfall is
moderate and snowfall is not there.
a. Pitched roof
b. Flat roof
c. Shed roof
d. Pyramid roof
11. Which one of the following is a stationary type of vertical circulation in a building?
a) Elevators
b) Ramp
c) Escalators
d) Wall

12. ________ Provide a level surface with sufficient strength to support the imposed loads of
people and furniture.
1. Roof
2. Floor
3. Foundation
4. Wall
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

13. Which one of the following is the advantage of build operate transfer contract delivery
system?
a. It maximizes owners’ scarcity of financial resources
b. It increases of considerable risks from the project owners
c. The facility will not be transferred with free of charge or minimum compensations to
project owners
d. It minimizes owners’ scarcity of financial resources
14. __________is a process that ensures the successful completion of the project under
consideration with substantial compliance of the terms of the contract.
a. Contract Formulation
b. Contract Administration
c. Closing of Contract
d. Contract preparation
15. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-qualification criteria in tendering?
a. Experience is used for pre-qualification
b. Organizational arrangement and facilities is used for pre-qualification
c. Schedule of Commitments is used for pre-qualification
d. Past performance is not used for pre-qualification
16. Which one of the following is not true?
a. Contract is a process of reaching contractual agreement for implementation, its
administration and finally concluding the contract.
b. Capacity refers to the legal status of parties to make a legally binding contract.
c. Offer is an expression that one party is willing to be bound by specific terms which
are set out in the contract.
d. Intent is willingness or consent by the contracting parties to create a legal contract.
17. Which one of the following is not characteristics of tendering?
a. Notice of advertisement
b. Proof of Competition
c. Partiality
d. Avoidance of subjectivity
18. ___________ensures that a contractor will honor its bid and enter into a contract if awarded
the project.
a. Bid bond
b. Payment bond
c. Maintenance bond
d. Performance bond
19. During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to
a. Increase in rates of only important materials
b. Variation in cost in materials element, labour element
c. Variation in total cost of the project
d. Rate of inflation

20. Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

a. Safe workplace
b. Land
c. Insurance
d. Estimation
21. Concept of quality control does not depends on ___________
a. Quality control
b. Quality assurance
c. Quality management
d. Schedule
22. A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called
a. Mitigation
b. Modification
c. Avoidance
d. Transfer
23. Which one of the following is an importance of planning?
a. Reducing uncertainty
b. Identifying alternatives critically
c. Developing leadership
d. Selecting the most appropriate plan
24. Organizing process includes one of the following
a. Grouping of activities
b. Prescribing disciplinary action
c. Determining objectives
d. Prescribing work schedule
25. How does the strength of concrete differ with age of concrete?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
d. Increases, then decreases
26. What are the environmental factors affecting durability of concrete?
a. Amount of water
b. Amount of oxygen
c. PH of the aggregate
d. Temperature
27. What is the method of reducing bleeding in concrete?
a. Increasing water content
b. Reducing cement to the mix design
c. Increasing water content
d. Reducing water content
28. How do you avoid segregation occurrence in concrete?
a. The design of the concrete mix should not be done properly
b. Water content should be added more than the desired amount
c. Concrete should be dropped from more heights
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

d. Concrete should not be dropped from more heights

29. What precautions should be taken while placing concrete?
a. Concrete should not be laid continuously to avoid irregular and unsightly lines
b. To avoid sticking of concrete, formwork should not be oiled before concreting
c. The position of formwork and reinforcement should get disturbed
d. The position of formwork and reinforcement should not get disturbed
30. Which one of the following is not properties of hardened concrete?
a. Creep
b. Modulus of elasticity
c. Impermeability
d. Drying shrinkage
31. Which mechanical property of concrete refers to its ability to resist deformation under
stress?
a. Compressive strength
b. Tensile strength
c. Flexural strength
d. Modulus of elasticity
32. Which mechanical property of concrete describes its ability to withstand sudden impact or
shock loading?
a. Toughness
b. Hardness
c. Ductility
d. Elasticity
33. Which design method aims to prevent excessive deflection, vibration, or deformation that
may affect the performance and usability of a structure?
a. Allowable Stress Design (ASD)
b. Limit State Design (LSD)
c. Ultimate Limit State Design (ULSD)
d. Serviceability Limit State Design (SLSD)
34. Which property of a beam section influences its resistance to bending?
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Area moment of inertia
c. Shear modulus
d. Poisson's ratio
35. In the design of a one-way slab, where should the main reinforcement be placed?
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

a. In the shorter span direction

b. In the longer span direction
c. Equally in both directions
d. It does not matter
36. When designing a reinforced concrete beam for flexure, what is the purpose of providing
stirrups?
a. To increase the beam's flexural strength
b. To control deflection
c. To enhance the beam's resistance to shear forces
d. To improve the bond between concrete and reinforcement
37. In column design, what is the primary design consideration?
a. Flexural strength
b. Shear strength
c. Axial strength
d. Torsional strength
38. In flat slab design, what is the purpose of providing a drop panel below the column capital?
a. To reduce the punching shear forces on the column
b. To increase the slab's flexural stiffness
c. To improve the slab's fire resistance
d. To accommodate mechanical and electrical services
39. What is the role of load redistribution in frame collapse mechanisms?
a. Load redistribution has no impact on frame collapse behavior.
b. Load redistribution can accelerate the collapse process.
c. Proper load redistribution can prevent progressive collapse.
d. Load redistribution primarily affects beam behavior.
40. What is the primary objective of using the yield line method in the design of slabs?
a. To calculate the deflection of the slab
b. To determine the bending moment distribution in the slab
c. To identify critical failure patterns and calculate the ultimate load capacity
d. To optimize the reinforcement layout in the slab
41. In the design of cantilever beam, main steel reinforcement is provided along __________
face of the beam.
a. tension
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

b. Compression
c. Central
d. Side
42. The creep strains are:
a. Caused due to dead loads only
b. Caused due to live load only
c. Caused due to both dead load and live load only
d. Independent of loads
43. Which of the following is a disadvantage of steel?
a. High durability
b. reusable
c. High strength per unit mass
d. Fire and corrosion resistance.
44. Which one of the following is the property of high carbon steel?
a. Reduce strength
b. High toughness
c. Reduce ductility
d. High strength
45. What is the net section area of steel plate 40cm wide and 10cm thick with one bolt if the
diameter of the bolt is 18mm?
a. 38.2𝑐𝑚2
b. 24𝑐𝑚2
c. 578𝑐𝑚2
d. 465𝑐𝑚2
46. Which of the following is not a compression member?
a. Tie
b. strut
c. rafter
d. boom
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

47. Generally, the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
a. Axial force in rafter
b. Shear force in rafter
c. Deflection of rafter
d. Bending moment in rafter
48. What are steel tension members?
a. Structural elements that are subjected to direct compressive loads
b. Structural elements that are subjected to direct tensile loads
c. Structural elements that are subjected to indirect compressive loads
d. Structural elements that are subjected to indirect tensile loads
49. The type of limit state that ensure local and global strength and stability to resist the
specified load combinations that a bridge is to be subjected during its design life is,
a. Service limit state
b. Strength limit state
c. Fatigue and fracture limit state
d. Extreme event limit states
50. In a Load and Resistance Factor Design (LRFD) method, each component and
connection of a bridge should be designed to satisfy,
a. Factored force effect must be greater than the factored resistance.
b. There is no relationship between factored load and factored resistance.
c. Factored resistance should be greater; or at least equal to factored load.
51. Which one of the following is true for bridge investigation, to select a suitable site from
possible alternatives, in a first stage of design?
a. The likely traffic volumes is will not be investigated
b. The resources available for the project is not important
c. The required design life of the bridge is not important
d. The local terrain conditions knowledge is not important
e. The site conditions knowledge is important
52. Which one of the following is true for the decision of the location of the bridge in relation
to the alignment of the approaches.
a. If the total span > 60m-the alignment of the approaches will govern.
b. If 60m>Total span > 300m-both the alignment and good bridge site govern.
c. Total span <300m-Good bridge site governs.
d. If the total span < 60m-the alignment of the approaches will govern.
53. For a given lineal waterway, the most economical span length where the total cost of the
bridge is minimum is,
a. When the total cost of the superstructure increase and the total cost of the
substructure decrease.
b. The cost of superstructure equals the cost of substructure.
c. The cost of superstructure is greater than the cost of substructure.
d. No relationship between the two.
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

54. Bridges in which the load effects are governed by a single actual vehicle on the span can
be considered as.
a. Short span bridges.
b. Long span bridges.
c. Medium span bridge
55. Which one of the following is not true about fully plasticized section?
a. The total force in compression and in tension over that section are equal.
b. The tensile and compressive stress distributions over the section are
rectangular.
c. The tensile and compressive stress distributions over the section are triangular.
d. The overall fibers of the section are stressed.
56. One of the following is true about the particular I-beam subjected to a uniformly
distributed load?
a. Its bottom fibers are subjected to a compressive stress.
b. Its upper most fibers are subjected a tensile stress.
c. Its middle part is more stressed comparatively with the upper and lower fibers
of the section.
d. This section does not provide an economical choice relative to equivalent
rectangular section.
e. Its bottom fibers are subjected to a tensile stress
57. If the internal wind pressure on the surface is -20kN/m 2 and the external wind pressure is
20kN/m2, what is the total wind load on that surface?
a.-20kN/m2
b. 20kN/m2
c.40kN/m2
d. 0 KN/m2
58. What are the numbers of plastic hinges required to form a mechanism, in a propped
cantilever beam loaded by a concentrated load on its mid span?
a. 2
b. 0
c. 1
d. 3
59. In a linear analysis, the design spectrum Sd(T), normalized by the acceleration of
gravity, is not directly related with:
a. The design response factor for the site
b. The behavior factor to account for energy dissipation capacity.
c. The ratio of bedrock acceleration to the acceleration of gravity.
d. Seismic dead loads
60. The bedrock acceleration ratio (α0) for the site depends on,
a. Seismic zone
b. importance factor
c. dead load
d. gravitational acceleration
61. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil
a. decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
b. increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

c. increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio

d. decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
62. If D60=4mm , D10= 1.5mm D30=3mm, then what will be the coefficient curvture of
this soil?
a. 0.67 b. 1.5 c. 0.87 d. 2
63. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of
a. Effective stress only b. Total stress only c. Both effective and total
64. Principal stress of a soil is:
a. A normal stress on minor plane
b. A normal stress where shear stress is maximum
c. Either major or minor normal stresses on a plane of maximum shear stress.
d. A normal stress on principal plane
65. The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil
mainly by reducing
a. effective angle of shearing resistance
b. cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
c. cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
d. effective angle of shearing resistance
66. Select the correct statement.
a. The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability
b. The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability
c. The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability
d. Unit weight does not affect permeability
67. Terzaghi's bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Ng are functions of
a. cohesion only
b. angle of internal friction only
c. both cohesion and angle of internal friction
68. What GW-GM stands for according to Unified soil classification system?
a. Well graded gravelly sand
b. B. Poorly graded sandy gravel
c. Well graded silty gravel
d. Well graded gravelly silt
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

69. A consolidated-drained triaxial test was conducted on a normally consolidated clay. The

corresponding results of the test are: s3 =18kN/m.2 and F’=28o. What will be an angle b
that the failure plane makes with the principal plane?
a. 35o
b. 59o
c. 52o
d. 25o
70. One of the following is the basic principle applied in area proportioning of combined
footing in order to avoid differential settlement
a. Line of action of resultant and centre of gravity of the footing must coincide
b. Maximum pressure developed should exceed presumptive pressure
c. Allowable pressure should be exceeded by pressure applied.
71. A soil not fully consolidated under the existing over-burden pressure, is called
a. Over-consolidated
b. Pre-consolidated
c. Normally consolidated
72. For shear strength, triaxial shear test is suitable because
a. Stress distribution, is not uniform
b. Precise measurement of the pore pressure and volume change during the test is
not possible
c. It cannot be performed under all three drainage conditions
d. Stress distribution on the failure plane, is uniform
73. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
a. Compressibility
b. Permeability
c. Both compressibility and permeability
74. Expansive soils experience all of the following except.
a. They don’t exhibit volume change with change in soil moisture
b. High plasticity
c. They swell when moisture increases and shrink when moisture decreases
d. Foundation constructed on such soils are subjected to large uplifting forces caused
by swelling.
75. The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

a. Proportional to the square of the depth of the soil

b. Is equal to mass of the soil retained
c. Proportional to the internal friction of the soil
d. Proportional to the depth of the soil
76. Terzaghi’s theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes
a. Deformation of the soil, is entirely due to change in water content
b. Soil is heterogeneous and fully saturated
c. Water and soil particles are compressible
d. Deformation of the soil, is entirely due to change in volume
77. One of the following is different from the others. Which one is it?
a. Ultimate bearing capacity
b. Gross bearing pressure
c. Ultimate bearing pressure
d. Gross bearing capacity
e. Net bearing capacity
78. Which of the following piles is used to compact loose granular soil?
a. End bearing piles
b. Compaction piles
c. Tension piles
d. Friction piles
79. With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
a. Optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
b. Both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease
c. Optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
d. Both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
80. The quantity of seepage of water through soils is dependent of
a. Coefficient of permeability of soil
b. Total head loss through the soil
c. Permeability of soil
d. Water content of soil
81. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is
uniform
B. Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test
C. Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

D. In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined

82. Which one of the following is Not True about ground improvement technique?
A. It is geotechnical construction method used to alter ground condition
B. It is the way thereby bearing capacity of ground increased
C. It is used where soil replacement technique is not feasible for some reasons.
D. Bearing capacity of ground decreased
83. What are the components of good site exploration report?
a. It does not comprises a general description of the nature of the project
b. It does not encompasses a general description of the topographical features
c. It does not includes the analysis and discussion of test results
d. It comprises a general description of the nature of the project
84. The weight of a container is W1 and that of container with soil sample is W2. If the weight of
the container and oven dried soil sample is W3, the moisture content of the soil, is
a. [(W2 - W3)/(W3 - W1)] × 100
b. [(W3 - W2)/(W1 - W2)] × 100
c. [(W1 - W2)/(W2 - W3)] × 100
d. [(W2 - W1)/(W1 - W3)] × 100
85. Rankine's theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the retaining wall is:
a. Plane and smooth
b. Plane and rough
c. Vertical and smooth
d. Vertical and rough
86. Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super-elevation, sight distance and grades, is
worst affected by
a. width of the vehicle
b. length of the vehicle
c. height of the vehicle
d. speed of the vehicle
87. Traffic engineering only includes ________
a. Does not includes planning of regulatory measures
b. Does not includes design and application of control devices
c. Does not includes analysis of traffic characteristics
d. Does not includes traffic operation
e. Includes design and application of control devices.
88. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The super-elevation on roads is
a. directly proportional to width of pavement
b. directly proportional to velocity of vehicles
c. inversely proportional to acceleration due to gravity
d. Inversely proportional to the radius of curvature.
89. The maximum safe speed on roads, does not depends on the
a. Type of the highway
b. Type of road surface
c. Type of curves
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

d. Sight distance
e. Subgrade condition
90. Maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point on a lane during one hour
without creating unreasonable delay, is known as
a. Traffic density of lane
b. Travel time
c. Spot speed
d. Capacity of lane
91. If the cross slope of a is 25% to 50%, the terrain is classified as
a. Plain
b. Rolling
c. Steep
d. Mountainous
92. The safe stopping sight distance SD, may be computed from the equation

a. SD =

b. SD =

c. SD =

d. SD =
93. The surface of the pavement should be __________
a. Smooth
b. Rough
c. Sufficient enough to resist skid
d. Very rough
94. The drainage layer is __________
a. Surface course
b. Sub base
c. Base
d. Sub grade
95. The vertical alignment of a highway includes_____________ .
a. Highway lighting
b. Design of valley curves and gradients
c. Sight distance and traffic intersection
d. Widening of pavements
96. The highway drainage system consists of how many types?
a. Four
b. Three
c. One
d. Two
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

97. The maximum dry density of the soil can be achievement by __________
a. Compaction
b. Consolidation
c. Removal of voids
d. Removal of rocks
98. The layer not required in cement road is __________
a. Sub grade
b. Sub base
c. Base
d. Surface
99. The length visible to driver at any instance of time is called ___________
a. Sight distance
b. Visibility limit
c. Head light distance
d. Overtaking sight distance
100.The reaction time considered in SSD is ___________
a. 1.5 sec
b. 2 sec
c. 2.5 sec
d. 3 sec
BSc IN CIVIL ENGINEERING SECOND ROUND MODEL EXIT EXAM

1 C 21 D 41 A 61 A 81 C
2 A 22 D 42 A 62 B 82 D
3 C 23 A 43 D 63 A 83 D
4 A 24 A 44 C 64 D 84 A
5 A 25 A 45 A 65 B 85 C
6 C 26 D 46 A 66 A 86 D
7 A 27 D 47 D 67 B 87 E
8 D 28 D 48 B 68 C 88 B
9 C 29 D 49 B 69 B 89 E
10 B 30 C 50 C 70 A 90 D
11 B 31 D 51 E 71 A 91 D
12 B 32 A 52 D 72 D 92 A
13 D 33 D 53 B 73 C 93 C
14 B 34 B 54 A 74 A 94 B
15 D 35 A 55 C 75 C 95 B
16 A 36 C 56 E 76 D 96 D
17 C 37 C 57 C 77 E 97 A
18 A 38 A 58 D 78 B 98 C
19 B 39 C 59 D 79 C 99 A
20 B 40 C 60 A 80 D 100 C