Level 1

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SAMPLE TEST ONLY
Last First Middle

TOEFL ITP TEST FORM ST001A

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Copyright © 2018 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
Test booklet published by EDUCATIONAL TESTING SERVICE®

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registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service.

Some or all of the passages for this test have been adapted from published material to provide
examinees with significant problems for analysis and evaluation. To make the passages suitable
for testing purposes, the style, content, or point of view of the original may have been altered in
some cases. The ideas contained in the passages do not necessarily represent the opinions of the
TOEFL Board or Educational Testing Service.
 Section 1
Listening Comprehension 1
In the listening comprehension section of the test, you will have an opportunity to
demonstrate your ability to understand spoken English. There are three parts to this
section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of
what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test.

Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After
each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations
and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer

A B C D

In your test book, you read: (A) He does not like the painting either.
(B) He does not know how to paint.
(C) He does not have any paintings.
(D) He does not know what to do.

You learn from the conversation, that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting.
The best answer to the question, “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He does not like the
the painting neither.” Therefore, the correct choice is (A).

Go on to the next page

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 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1. (A) Lock the computer lab later.
(B) Leave with the man.
(C) Buy a new lock for the computer lab.
(D) Show the man where the lab is.

2. (A) The man should watch the program too.

(B) The man should leave the television on.
(C) The program will be over soon.
(D) She’ll watch television later.

3. (A) He isn’t sure what course to take.

(B) The math course is too short.
(C) He may not meet the graduation requirements.
(D) The graduation date has been changed.

Go on to the next page

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 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Part B
Directions: In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation you
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

4. (A) Work opportunities for students

(B) The professor‘s work at the museum
(C) The man‘s qualifications for a job
(D) Possible careers for the man after he graduates

5. (A) He has to quit his job at the library.

(B) The professor will not allow him to take her class.
(C) The university recently closed its museum.
(D) The internship he wants is unavailable.

6. (A) Rare books

(B) Paintings
(C) Photographs
(D) Historical reports

7. (A) She will select the library‘s volunteers.

(B) She studied art with the student‘s professor.
(C) She used to work at the art museum.
(D) She joined the library staff recently.

Go on to the next page

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 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Part C
Directions: In Part C of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you
will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you hear:

Now listen to a sample question. Sample Answer

A B C D

In your test book, you read: (A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer
graphics.
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic
depression.
(C) To explain the workings of the brain.
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story.

The best answer to the question, “What is the main purpose of the program?” is (C),
“To explain the workings of the brain.” Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Now listen to another sample question. Sample Answer

A B C D

In your test book, you read: (A) It is required of all science majors.
(B) It will feature the professor‘s research.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
(D) It will help with course work.

The best answer to the question, “Why does the speaker recommend watching the
program?” is (D), “It will help with course work.” Therefore, the correct choice is answer
(D).

Go on to the next page

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 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
8. (A) Animals yawn for a number of reasons.
(B) Yawning results only from fatigue or boredom.
(C) Human yawns are the same as those of other animals.
(D) Only social animals yawn.

9. (A) When they are swimming.

(B) When they are quarreling.
(C) When they are socializing.
(D) When they are eating.

10. (A) To exercise the jaw muscles.

(B) To eliminate fatigue.
(C) To get greater strength for attacking
(D) To gain more oxygen.

This is the end of Section 1.

Stop work on Section1.

STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP

Do NOT read or work on any other section of the test.

The supervisor will tell you when to begin work on Section 2.

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 Section 2
Structure and 2
Written Expression
Time: 6 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.

Structure
Directions: Questions 1-4 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that
best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example I
Sample Answer
Geysers have often been compared to volcanos ------- A B C D
they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth‘s surface.
(A) due to
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of

The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because
they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth’s surface.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).
Example II
Sample Answer
During the early period of ocean navigation, ------- A B C D
any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.
(A) so that hardly
(B) when there was
(C) hardly was
(D) there was hardly

The sentence should read, “During the early period of ocean navigation, there was
hardly any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, you should
choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.

Go on to the next page

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 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1. Refrigerating meats ------- the spread of bacteria.
(A) retards
(B) retarding
(C) to retard
(D) is retarded

2. Throughout the animal kingdom, ------- bigger than the elephant.

(A) whale is only the
(B) only the whale is
(C) is the whale only
(D) only whale is the

3. The fact ------- money orders can usually be easily cashed has made them a
popular form of payment.
(A) of
(B) that
(C) is that
(D) which is

4. The first article of the United States Constitution gives Congress ------- to pass laws.
(A) the power
(B) has the power
(C) the power is
(D) of the power

Go on to the next page

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 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Written Expression
Directions: In questions 5-10, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example I
Sample Answer
Guppies sometimes call rainbow fish because of A B C D
A B C
the males’ bright colors.
D

The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because
of the males’ bright colors.” Therefore, you should choose answer (A).
Example II
Sample Answer
Serving several term in Congress, shirley Chisholm A B C D
A B
became an important United States politician.
C D

The sentence should read, “Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became
an important United States politician.” Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now begin work on the questions.

Go on to the next page

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 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
5. Electrical disturbances on Earth are frequently caused
A B
with storms on the surface of the sun.
C D

6. Inventor Granville Woods received him first patent on

A B
January 3, 1884, for a steam boiler furnace.
C D

7. A deficient of folic acid is rarely found in humans

A B
because the vitamin is contained in a wide variety of foods.
C D

8. The gopher digs with the big strong claws of its two front
A B
foot and with its overhanging front teeth.
C D

9. An internationally famous ballerina, Maria Tallchief demonstrated that the quality

A B C
of ballet in North America could equal those of the ballet in Europe.
D

10. As two nuclei move closer together, their mutual electrostatic potential
A B
energy becomes more large and more positive.
C D

This is the end of Section 2.

If you finish before time is called, check your work on Section 2 only.

STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP

The supervisor will tell you when to begin work on Section 3.

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 Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time: 11 minutes
3
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by
several questions about it. For questions 1-10, you are to choose the one best answer, (A),
(B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.
Read the following passage:
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to
draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants
have set out their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated,
Line people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The
5 value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public
acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic:
the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in
fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.

Example I
Sample Answer
What is the main idea of the passage? A B C D
(A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be
measured in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).
Example II
Sample Answer
In line 5, the phrase ‘‘this tradition’’ refers to A B C D
(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C) the railroad’s reliance on time schedules
(D) people’s agreement on the measurement of time

The phrase ‘‘this tradition’’ refers to the preceding clause, ‘‘people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day.’’ Therefore, you should choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
Go on to the next page

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 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Questions 1-10

The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward
across the largest and northernmost state in the United States, ending at a remote ice-free
seaport village nearly 800 miles from where it begins. It is massive in size and extremely
Line complicated to operate.
5 The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless miles of delicate tundra that tops the
frozen ground. It weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer mountains, plunges over
rocky crags, makes its way through thick forests, and passes over or under hundreds of rivers
and streams. The pipe is 4 feet in diameter, and up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons)
of crude oil can be pumped through it daily.
10 Resting on H-shaped steel racks called “bents,” long sections of the pipeline follow a
zigzag course high above the frozen earth. Other long sections drop out of sight beneath
spongy or rocky ground and return to the surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline’s
up-and-down route is determined by the often harsh demands of the arctic and subarctic
climate, the tortuous lay of the land, and the varied compositions of soil, rock, or
15 permafrost (permanently frozen ground). A little more than half of the pipeline is elevated
above the ground. The remainder is buried anywhere from 3 to 12 feet, depending largely
upon the type of terrain and the properties of the soil.
One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost approximately $8 billion and is by far the
biggest and most expensive construction project ever undertaken by private industry. In fact,
20 no single business could raise that much money, so 8 major oil companies formed a
consortium in order to share the costs. Each company controlled oil rights to particular shares
of land in the oil fields and paid into the pipeline-construction fund according to the size of its
holdings. Today, despite enormous problems of climate, supply shortages, equipment
breakdowns, labor disagreements, treacherous terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement,
25 and even theft, the Alaska pipeline has been completed and is operating.

1. The passage primarily discusses the 2. The word “it” in line 3 refers to
the pipeline’s (A) pipeline
(A) operating costs (B) ocean
(B) employees (C) state
(C) consumers (D) village
(D) construction

Go on to the next page

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 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
3. According to the passage, 84 million 7. How many companies shared the costs
gallons of oil can travel through the of constructing the pipeline?
pipeline each (A) Three
(A) day (B) Four
(B) week (C) Eight
(C) month (D) Twelve
(D) year
8. The word “particular” in line 21 is
4. The phrase “Resting on” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
closest in meaning to
(A) peculiar
(A) Consisting of (B) specific
(B) Supported by (C) exceptional
(C) Passing under (D) equal
(D) Protected with
9. Which of the following determined
5. The author mentions all of the following what percentage of the construction
as important in determining the costs each member of the consortium
pipeline’s route EXCEPT the would pay?
(A) climate (A) How much oil field land each
(B) lay of the land itself company owned
(C) local vegetation (B) How long each company had
(D) kind of soil and rock owned land in the oil fields
(C) How many people worked for
6. The word “undertaken” in line 19 is
each company
closest in meaning to
(D) How many oil wells were located
(A) removed on the company’s land
(B) selected
(C) transported 10. Where in the passage does the author
(D) attempted provide a term for an earth covering
that always remains frozen?
(A) Line 2
(B) Line 10
(C) Line 15
(D) Line 23

This is the end of Section 3.

STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP

If you finish before time is called, check your work on Section 3 only.
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 Answer Key
Section 1: Listening Comprehension: Part A
1. A
2. B
3. C

Section 1: Listening Comprehension: Part B

4. A
5. D
6. C
7. A

Section 1: Listening Comprehension: Part C

8. A
9. B
10. D

Section 2: Structure
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A

Section 2: Written Expression

5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. D

Section 3: Reading Comprehension

1. D
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C

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 General Directions

This is a test of your ability to understand and use the English language. The test is divided
into three sections, and each section or part of a section begins with a set of specific
directions. The directions include sample questions. Before you begin to work on a section
or part, be sure that you understand what you will need to do.

The supervisor will tell you when to start each section and when to stop and go on to the
next section. You should work quickly but carefully. Do not spend too much time on any one
question. If you finish a section early, you may review your answers on that section only.
You may not go on to the next section, and you may not return to a section you have
already left.

You will find that some of the questions are more difficult than others, but you should try to
answer every one. Your score will be based on the number of correct answers you give. If
you are not sure of the correct answer to a question, make the best guess you can. It is to
your advantage to answer every question, even if you guess the answer.

Do not mark your answers in your test book. You must mark all of your answers on the
separate answer sheet that the supervisor will give to you. When you mark your answer to
a question on your answer sheet, you must:

• Use a medium-soft (#2 or HB) black lead pencil.

• Check the number of the question, and find that number on your answer sheet. Then
after that number, find the circle with the letter of the answer you have chosen.
• Carefully make a dark mark that completely fills the circle so that you cannot see
the letter inside the circle.
• Mark only one answer to each question.
• Erase all extra marks completely. If you change your mind about an answer after
you have marked it on your answer sheet, erase your old answer completely, and
mark your new answer.
• After the supervisor tells you to stop your work, you will not be permitted to make
any additional corrections.

The examples below show you the correct way and wrong ways of marking an answer
sheet.

CORRECT WRONG WRONG WRONG WRONG

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D

Be sure to fill in the circles on your answer sheet the correct way.

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are registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service.