IOBC REVIEW MODULAR EXAMINATION 1 SET A

No. QUESTIONNAIRE
01 This rule states that when a legal matter or controversy has come under the
jurisdiction of a court, nobody, including the press and other media should
interfere by publication or public clamor with the court’s proper handling of the
proceedings.
A. Sub Judice Rule C. Rules of Court
B. Rules of Criminal D. None of the above
Procedure
02 Which among the following may be considered as protected person during armed
conflict under RA 9851?
A. Personnel of Red Cross
B. Prisoner of War
C. Wounded members of the military who can no longer participate in the armed
Conflict
D. All of the above
03 You can borrow my newspaper _ Unless you bring it back before lunch.
A So that C. Unless
.
B Even though D. Provided
.
04 Based on the meaning of the operative act which constitutes violation of the Anti-
carnapping law, can file a carnapping case against the suspect/s even if the motor
vehicle was not stolen?
A. No. Because the law requires that the vehicle needs to be established as
stolen in all circumstances enumerated in the provision of the law.
B. No. Because there is no carnapping in the first place since the vehicle
was not stolen.
C. Yes. Because the law does not entirely say that the vehicle needs to be proven
as stolen before we can file the case of carnapping.
D. Yes. Because by implication, any provisions of the law stand out to be
independent of each other and which are not declared invalid, shall remain in
full force and effect, hence violation of other provisions of the law may be filed
even if the vehicle was not stolen.

05 Below are the laws enacted by the legislature, which one pertains to the new law
punishing carnapping in the Philippines?
A Republic Act 10883 C Republic Act 18308
. .
B. Republic Act 10881 D Republic Act 10913
.
06 PNP personnel who committed or participated in the commission of enforce
disappearance may be charged with:
A Criminal Case C. Civil Case
.
B Administrative Case D. All of the
. above

07 There is a presumption of fact that when property stolen is found in the possession of
a person who is unable to give a satisfactory explanation of his possession thereof,
he may be deemed to have committed the crime of theft of said property. Is the
presumption applicable to cases of carnapping?
A. No. The above presumption applies only to the crime of Robbery.
B. No. Because the crime of carnapping is different from the crime of
robbery or theft.

1
 C. Yes. The concept of unlawful taking in theft, robbery and carnapping is the
same.
D. Yes. But the unlawful taking of the motor vehicle would certainly do not fall
within the purview of either theft or robbery.
08 Mr. A was confined in a solitary cell and was threatened with summary execution if
he will not make any confession. Mr. A was:
A. Not a victim of torture because no medical certificate was presented indicating
that Mr. A was subjected to torture.
B. A victim of torture because acts of torture is not limited to physical torture.
C. A victim of torture because he was subjected to physical torture
D. None of the above
09 The Commanding Officer of a law enforcement agency who knew that his
subordinates were committing acts of torture and did not do anything to prevent it
or make corrective actions. The Commanding Officer is liable under RA 9745 as:
A. Accessory C. Principal
B. Accomplic D. Not liable
e
10 A threat of war is imminent, members of the military committed enforced
disappearance. They contend and argue that committing enforced disappearance is
justified taking into account the fact that there is threat of war. The aforesaid
contention and argument is:
A. Legally feasible
B. Not correct because only the members of PNP may commit enforced
disappearance if there is threat of war.
C. Does not have legal basis under RA 10353 since the commission of enforced
disappearance is prohibited at all times.
D. Justified if vital information was obtained from the victims of enforced
disappearance.
11 A communication strategy adopted once police operation and investigation is
done, has the best course of action and is much easy to manage. The media is fully
informed while providing background information to put facts into perspective.
A. Stonewall Strategy C Managing Issue Strategy
.
B. Open Communication Strategy D Tactical Communication Strategy
.
12 It is a set of rules that seek to limit the effects of armed conflict for humanitarian
reason.
A. Bill of Rights B. International Humanitarian
Law
C. Miranda Rights D. Human Rights
13 A state of war was declared, members of the military committed acts of torture. They
contend and argue that committing acts of torture is justified taking into account the
declaration of a state of war. The aforesaid contention and argument is:
A. Legally feasible
B. Not correct because only the members of PNP may commit acts of torture
during state of war
C. Justified if vital information was obtained from the victims of torture.
D. Does not have legal basis under RA 9745 since freedom from torture is an
absolute right.
14 RA 10353 was enacted last CY 2012. Jorge who was a victim of enforced
disappearance was deprived of his liberty last CY 1986. Just this year (2018), Jorge
reappears and went to the police station to complain against the perpetrators of
enforced disappearance. What will be your course of action?
A. Immediately coordinate with the designated AO 35 Prosecutor in your AOR
since enforced disappearance is an AO35 case
B. Inform Jorge that his complain will not prosper because more than 34 years

2
 have already lapsed from the time he was first deprived of his liberty
C. Bring Jorge to ABS-CBN so that his life experiences can be featured in “Mala-
ala Mo Kaya”
D. None of the aboveIn which case, the prescriptive period shall be twenty-five (25)
years from the date of such reappearance.

Thirty-five years from now, assuming that RA 9851 is not amended or repealed, a
case for violation of the aforesaid law was filed against government officials for War
15 Crimes committed today. Which of the following statement is correct:
A. Case will no longer prosper because of prescription.
B. Case will still prosper even if the War Crime was committed 35 years ago.
C. Case will still prosper because violation of RA 9851 only prescribe after 50
years.
D. Case will no longer prosper because violation of RA 9851 will prescribe after
30 years.
16 Armed Conflict under RA 9851 may be:
A State Armed Conflict C. Non-International Armed Conflict
.
B Global Armed Conflict D. Cross Boarder Armed Conflict
.
17 The CHR conducted unannounced visit and inspection to a custodial facility of the
PNP. Under IRR of RA 10353, CHR personnel will be allowed to conduct inspection
if:
A. It is daytime
B. The head of the custodial facility is present
C. The visit is covered by a mission order and the CHR personnel presented
their identification cards
D. All of the above
18 It refers on how the police should deal and interact with members of the working
press and how the media responds to them.
A Press Conference C Media Coverage
. .
B Media Interaction D Media Relations
. .
19 There is an ongoing non-international armed conflict between the Philippine
Government and an organized armed group called “Kamponni Jorgia.” During the
armed conflict, members of the “Kamponni Jorgia” ambushed members of a SOCO
Team directed to process a crime scene. “Kamponni Jorgia” is:
A. Liable for violation of RA 9851 (IHL, GENOCIDE,OTHERS CRIMES
AGAINST HUMANITY).
B. The case can be considered as AO35 Case
C. The case will be investigated by an AO35 Special Investigation Team (SIT)
composed of AO35 Prosecutor and AO35 Investigators
D. All of the above
20 What legislative act that stipulates the “Rights of Persons Arrested, Detained or
under Custodial Investigation, and Duties of the Arresting, Detaining and
Investigation Officer?
A RA 9262 C. RA 9344
.
B RA 9851 D. None of the above
.
(RA7438)
21 You should take a jacket with you In case it gets cold later.
A Provided C. So that
.
B In case D. Unless
3
 .
22 Dan says he won’t accept the position __ Even if they raise the salary.
A Although C Despite
. .
B Even if D Whereas
. .
23 It refers to any gender-based distinction, exclusion, or restriction which has the effect
or purpose of impairing or nullifying the recognition, enjoyment, or exercise by
women, irrespective of their status, on a basis of equality of women and men, of
human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political, economic, social, cultural,
civil or any other field.
A Discrimination Against Women C. Violence Against Women
.
B. Gender bias D. Sexual and Gender-based Violence
24 I’ll keep the dictionary until tomorrow Unless you need it now.
A Despite C. Unless
.
B In case D. Provide
.
25 Refers to problems and concerns that arise from the unequal status of women
and men, including the differential characteristics, roles and expectations attributed
by society to women and men.
A. Gender C. Gender Issues
B. Psychological D. Biological Structure
Differentiation
26 It is an art which requires memorizing security features of motor vehicles’ plates.
A. Motor Vehicle Plate Spotting C. Signs of Questionable MVs
B. Plates D. Regular MV Plates

27 In general, whose responsibility is it to provide information to the public through

media?
A. Unit Commander C. PCR Officer
B. Public Information D. Chief Investigator
Officer
28 It is the prohibition of the expulsion or return of a refugee in any manner
whatsoever to the frontiers of territories where his life or freedom would be
threatened on account of his race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular
social group or political opinion. ANS: REFOULER SEC. 25 10353 ENFORCED OR
INVOLUNTARY DISAPPEARANCE
A Enforce Disappearance C. Order of Battle
.
B Non-Refoulement D. None of the above
.

29 PNP members shall guard the confidentiality of classified information against

unauthorized disclosure, including confidential aspects of official business, special
orders, communications and other documents.
A. Respect for Human Rights C. Secrecy Discipline
B. Proper Care and Use of Public D. Non-Partisanship
Property
30 PNP members shall always uphold public interest over and above personal
interest.
A Command Responsibility C. Discipline
.
B Loyalty D. Commitment to Public Interest
.
4
 IDENTIFICATION. Write the correct answer on the space provided for in the answer
sheet.
31 It is a responsive pleading containing the respondent’s negative and affirmative
defenses. ANSWER
32
It reREfers to the authority vested by law to hear and decide a case.
JURISDICTION
33 Means to implement laws that provide equal protection to all persons from human
rights violations by state authorities or by non-state actors.
HUMAN RIGHTS
34 Means refraining from interrupting the enjoyment of people’s right.
HUMAN RIGHTS BASED APPROACH
35 It refers to the binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the
police organization, extending to the people they service, is manifested by the PNP
members’ deep commitment and concern for one another.
CAMADERIE
A complaint initiated before any of the disciplinary authorities or IAS after finding the
36 existence of probable cause.
___ FORMAL CHARGE
37 It is the specific type of moral excellence or other exemplary quality considered
meritorious. VIRTUE
38 It refers to an expeditious administrative proceeding conducted consistent with
due process to determine the culpability or innocence of the respondent.
SUMMARY PROCEEDING
39 Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve
the goal even in the face of internal or external difficulties and despite anything
which might weaken their resolve in the course of time. __PERSEVERANCE
40 It refers to the specific moral choices to be made by the individual in his
relationship with others. ETHICS
TRUE OR FALSE. Write True if the statement is correct and False if the statement is
wrong.
41 Irrelevance of official capacity is principle of criminal responsibility under the Act that
a superior shall be criminally responsible as a principal for such crimes committed by
subordinates under his/her effective command and control, or effective authority and
control as the case may be, as a result of his/her failure to properly exercise control
over such subordinates. FALSE
42 Judgment on the merits is one of the requisites of Res Judicata or Bar by Prior
Judgment. ___TRUE
43 The public information officer also usually becomes the spokesperson of the PNP.
_____________TRUE
44 The PNP must promoted and protect Human Rights because this task lies at the very
core of maintaining peace and order, ensuring public safety and upholding the rule of
law in the country. TRUE
45 War crimes means any of the acts enumerated in the act with intent to destroy, in
whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial, religious, social or any other similar stable
and permanent group. __(GENOCIDE)______FALSE______
46- ENUMERATION:
50 Give atleast Three Processes of Socialization

46. MANIPULATION

47. Canalization

5
 48. Activity Exposures

Give atleast Two (2) Philosophy of the PNP

49. SERVICE

50. HONOR

IOBC REVIEW MODULAR EXAMINATION ONE SET B

1 A written set of guidelines issued by an organization to its workers in accordance with the
primary values and ethical standards.

A. Virtue
B. Code of Ethics
C. Code of Ethical Standards
D. Values
It2 re In the performance of their duty, a law enforcer shall respect and _______________
maintain and uphold the human rights of all person.

A. Human rights
B. Protect Human dignity
C. Uphold the human rights
D. 9775

6
 3 Law enforcers shall not commit any act of __________. They shall also religiously
oppose and combat all such acts.
A. Torture
B. inhuman
C. Corruption
D. Degrading treatment
4 Public Office is a _________________.

A. Trust
B. Public Trust
C. Accountable
D. public Officers
5 Due to the bonds shared by police officers, police officers protect his fellow officers at all
cost.

A. Duty
B. Loyalty
C. misplaced loyalty
d. Camaraderie

Subjective imposition of penalties or downright sabotage of investigation process in

exchange for money or other things for personal gain of public accountability

3 6 A. Case fixing
B. Due process
C. reward
D. internal pay-offs
7 What are the significant reports needed to be furnished to PBDC, except.

A. Incident/spot/progress report on ERI

B. accomplished ERI form
C. post Blast Investigation Report
D. SOCO and Labortatory report
E. Statement or affidavit of arrested suspect.
8 Who will be the lead agency during the conduct of investigation in cases of explosive related
incident. These includes bombing and explosion incident where a joint investigation among the
AFP, PNP, NBI, PCG and BFP is being conducted?

A. NBI
B. PNP
C. PCG
D. BFP
E. APf

9 An incident in which a device designed or purposely contrived to detonate/ ignite but

fails to function.

A. incendiary bombing
B. noxious bombing
C. attempted Bombing
D. Bombing
10 Any criminally motivated bombing incident in which an incendiary/chemical device is
used.

A. noxious bombing
B. incendiary bombing

7
 C. Attempted bombing
D. Bombing
11 Information or warning claiming knowledge that a dangerous device has been or will be
placed in a building, aircraft or any facility

A. hoax device
B. found of explosive
C. Cache of explosive
D. Bomb threat
12 It is an inactive or dummy device designed or intended to appear as a bomb or
explosive material.

A. Cache of explosive
B. Hoax device
c. Found of explosive
D. Explosive
13 What are responsibilities of Philippine Bomb data center

A. Shall dispose all recovered physical evidence

b. To take custody of explosive materials/ evidence recovered from the crime scene.
C. to provide technical, operational support, and monitor all the unlawful use of
explosives, both domestic and international.
D. to conduct render safe procedure on the reported explosive related incident.
14 They regarded as the “Strategy partners” of the Police organization in the
implementation of the PNP PATROL plan 2030.

A. Strategy Management units SMUs)

B. Technical Working groups (TWGs)
C. Advisory Councils (ACs)
D. peace and Order Council (POC)
15 It is an inspirational description of what an organization would like to achieve or
accomplish in the long-term future.

A. mission
B. Vision
C. Core Values
D. Mandate
16 It is conducted on a monthly basis to monitor and assess performance

A. Strategy review
B. Operations Review
C. Strategy Refresh
D. Technical working Group
17 It is the information that may be of interest to the general public?

A. Information Operation
B. News Information
C. Public Information
d. General information
18 Is it proper to present suspects in “firing line position” during press conference?

A. Yes
B. nO
c. Maybe
d. All of the above

8
 Person officially designated authority responsible for addressing citizens concerns and
19 answering queries from the media and acts as the mouthpiece of the PNP.

A. spokesperson
B. Press Relation Officer
C. PIO
D. Media Relation Officer
20 Generally, can media have access to the Police Blotter?

a. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. All of the above
21 Which of the following is not the role of the media?

A. Educate
B. inform
C. Influence
D. Entertain
22 The house will ___________at the end of the year.

A. be sell
b. be sold
C. sold
23 I must get _______________I can’t use the internet at all.

A. my computer fixed
B. fixed my computer
C. my computer fix
24 It is a pleading in which a respondent or other adverse party sets forth the negative
and affirmative defenses upon which he relies

A. complaint
B. Formal Charge
C. Answer
D. Decision
25 This shall refer to the Regional Appellate board and National appellate Board (NAB) of
the other commission, and Secretary of the Interior and local Government (SILG)

A. Appellate Bodies
B. Commission
C. Quasi-judicial bodies
D. Administrative Bodies
26 It is any offense committed by a member of the PNP involving minor offense affecting
the order and discipline within the police organization.

A. Simple Misconduct
B. breach of Internal discipline
C. Citizens Complaint
D. grave misconduct
27 It is a formal charge initiated by a natural or juridical person or his/its duly authorized
representative or guardian on account of an injury damage or disturbance sustained as
a result of an irregular or illegal act or omission of a PNP member.

A. jurisdiction
9
 B. Territory
C. Complaint
D. Place of commission

28 The following are Supervisors equivalent to the Chief of Police except:

A. Chief, Provincial Public Safety Company

B. chief, District Public Safety battalion
C. chief, Police Station of Manila and Quezon City
D. Director, City Police Office of Highly urbanized or Chartered Cities
29 The following are supervisors equivalent to the Chief of Police except:

A. Chief, Regional Public Safety Battalion

B. Chief, Administrative Support Unit
C. chief, Police station of Manila and Quezon City
D. Director, City Police Office of Highly Urbanized or Chartered Cities
30 The following are supervisors equivalent to the Provincial Police Director except:

A. director, Police District Office, National Capital Region Police Office

B. Director, National Administrative Support Unit
C. Director, National Operational Support Unit
D. Director, City Police Office of Highly Urbanized or Chartered Cities
31 There is finality of decision when upon the lapse of the prescribed period from receipt, or
notice of such decision, no motion for reconsideration or appeal has been filed in
accordance with these rules.

A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 5 days
D. None of the above
32 A citizens complaints against any member of the municipal Police Station or City Police
Office/station where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to
specified limits; suspension or forfeiture of salary, any combination thereof for a period
not exceeding fifteen (15) days, may be filed before:

A. Chief of Police
B. Mayors of Cities and Municipalities
C. peoples Law Enforcement Board
D. Provincial or Regional Internal Affairs Services
33 Where the decision of the CPNP imposed a penalty of demotion or dismissal from the
service, it shall be brought before?

A. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government

B. Civil Service Commission
c. Regional Appellate Board
D. National Appellate Board
IDENTIFICATION. Write the correct answer in the space provided for in the answer
sheet.
34 MC No. 298-027 “Guidelines and procedures in the Management and Supervision of all
PNP custodial facilities and persons under PNP custody.
35 MC2019-023 Jurisdictional Crime scene Processing of robbery and theft incidents
36 Investigative directive Number 2019-004 Investigation, recording and reporting death
incidents
37 Memorandum Circular 2019-063 guidelines in accounting wanted persons

10
 38 Investigative directive Number 2019-003 Standard Encoding of Police Blotter Entry
Number in the Police Blotter
39 Avoid use of force when policing unlawful but non violent assemblies
40 Treat all victims of crime compassion and respect
41 Everyone is entitled to equal protection of the law without discrimination
42 Godly life is one that is no longer seeking satisfaction through a sinful lifestyle but is now
surrendered to God and His will
43 Habit is recurring and often subconscious pattern of behavior that is acquired through
repetition.
44-50 ENUMERATION
44- Give at least three (3) strategy partners in implementing the PNP Patrol Plan
46
SMU
TECHNICAL WORKING GROUP
ADVISORY COUNCIL
47- Give the classification of Constitutional Rights
50
POLITICAL
CIVIL
SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC
RIGHTS OF THE ACCUSED

1st modular exam set B

No. QUESTIONNAIRE
01 A document/card issued by the FEO as proof that the firearm is duly registered to a
licensed citizen or licensed juridical entity and recorded in the FIMS valid for 4 years.
A. LTOPF
B. License
C. Firearms Registration
D. Accreditation
02 What is RA 7192?
A. Indigenous People Rights Acts
B. Solo Parents Welfare Act
C. Magna Carta for Women of 2009
D. Women in Development and Nation Building Act

11
03 The use of psychoactive drugs to change the perception, memory, alertness or will of
a person is _______________.
A. Mental torture B. Psychological torture
C. Physical torture D. None of the above
04 It refers to any gender-based distinction, exclusion, or restriction which has the effect
or purpose of impairing or nullifying the recognition, enjoyment, or exercise by
women, irrespective of their status, on a basis of equality of women and men, of
human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political, economic, social, cultural,
civil or any other field.

A. Gender bias B. Violence Against Women

C. Discrimination Against Women D. Sexual and Gender-based Violence
05 Refers to problems and concerns that arise from the unequal status of women and
men, including the differential characteristics, roles and expectations attributed by
society to women and men.

A. Gender B. Gender Issues

C. Psychological Differentiation D. Biological Structure

06 It refers on how the police (PNP) should deal and interact with members of the
working press and how the media respond to them.
A. Media Interview B. Media Coverage
C. Media Interaction D. Media Relations

07 A communication strategy which deny that a crisis exists, refuse to answer media
questions or ignore the issue.
A. Open Communication Policy B. Stonewall
C. Manage the Issue D. Tactical Communication Policy
08 PNP members shall adhere to high standards of morality and decency and shall set
good examples for others to follow.
A. Integrity B. Morality
C. Judicious Use of Authority D. Justice
09 ___________________ is an act or omission involving breach of the rules of
decency, honesty and efficiency, for the purpose of obtaining undue advantage at the
expense of the government-owned resources. In our legal system, graft and
corruption is basically a crime.
A. Graft B. Corruption
C. Graft and Corruption D. Bribery
10 It is a sentence structure formed by one independent clause and one or more
dependent clauses.
A. Simple sentence B. Complex sentence
C. Compound sentence D. None of the abovei
11 It is a type of clause that needs an independent clause to form a complete sentence.
A. Dependent clause B. Independent clause
C. Coordinating clause D. All of the above
12 A formal charge initiated by a natural or juridical person or his/its duly authorized
representative or guardian on account of an injury damage or disturbance sustained
as a result of an irregular or illegal act or omission of a PNP member.
A. Light Offense B. Breach of Internal Discipline
C. Complaint D. Citizen’s Complaint
13 Existence of such facts and circumstances as would excite the belief, in a reasonable
mind, acting on the facts within the knowledge of the prosecutor, that the person
charged was guilty of the crime for which he/she was prosecuted.
A. Certificate of Non-Forum Shopping B. Complaint
C. Formal Charge D. Probable Cause

12
14 It is a set of rules that seek to limit the effects of armed conflict for humanitarian
reason.
A. Bill of Rights B. International Humanitarian
Law
C. Miranda Rights D. Human Rights
15 What rights should a law enforcer apprise a person under custodial investigation?
A. Human Rights B. Bill of Rights
C. C. Miranda Rights D. None of the above
16 An act penalizing torture and other cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment or
punishment and prescribing penalties therefor.
A. Republic Act No. 9742 B. Republic Act No. 9744
C. Republic Act No. 9743 D. Republic Act No. 9745
17 Is the term which refers to a person who is in the power of an adverse party or has
clearly expressed an intention to surrender or has been rendered unconscious or
otherwise incapacitated by wounds or sickness and therefore is incapable of
defending himself.
A. Agents of the State B. Hors de Combat
C. Armed Conflict D. None of the above
18 Firing mode and action of a firearm in which the discharge of the entire magazine
load with a single pull of its trigger is continuous until the triggering device is
disengaged.
A. Safe
B. Full Automatic or Fully Automatic
C. Single shot
D. Unsafe
19 Human rights is _____________, inalienable, and indivisible.
A. Supreme B. Relevant
C. Important D. All of the above
20 Location where the firearm/s shall be kept as indicated in the firearm registration
card/certificate of registration,
A. Residence of the licensee B. Firearms residence
B. PTCFOR D. LTOPF
21 No law shall be passed abridging the freedom of speech, of expression, or of the
press, or the right of the people ____________________ and petition the
government for redress of grievances.
A. Peaceably to protest B. Peaceably to assemble
C. Peaceably to march D. All of the above
22 Refers to a document made by the military, police or any law enforcement agency of
the government, listing the names of persons and organizations that it perceives to be
enemies of the State.
A. Enemies of the state B. Involuntary / Enforced
Disappearance
C. Forcible transfer D. Order of Battle
23 It is a sentence error formed when two or more sentences are incorrectly put together
and miss the proper punctuations.
A. Clause B. Run-on
C. Fragment D. Sentence
24 It is the process of putting together thoughts, ideas, and information into a symbolic
form to communicate a message. The symbols can take on numerous forms such as,
languages, words, or gestures. The sender’s goal is to encode the message in such a
manner so as to ensure that it will be understood by the receiver.
A. Sender B. Decoding
C. Transmission of message D. Encoding
25 It is a disciplinary measure that may be imposed by the proper disciplinary authority
during the pendency of a grave administrative or criminal charge against a
13
 subordinate police officer/s which may consist of confinement within the camp with
proper monitoring and accounting of their activities.

A. Detention
B. Restriction to specified limit
C. Custodial investigation
D. Restrictive custody
26 What principle is being referred to by a situation when a complaint or charge is filed
against a PNP member, it shall be heard and decided exclusively by the disciplinary
authority or IAS which fist acquired original jurisdiction over the case.

A. Principle of exhaustion of administrative remedies

B. Principle of double jeopardy
C. Principle of concurrent jurisdiction
D. Principle of exclusivity
27 Which of the following is the effect of failure/refusal of the respondent to file an
Answer?
A. The respondent shall be deemed to have waived his right to file to file Answer
and the case shall be decided based on the available records.
B. The respondent shall be deemed to have waived his right to invoke mitigating
circumstances considering that he lost his right to submit Position Paper.
C. The respondent shall be deemed to have waived his right to file Position Paper
and the Case shall be decided based on the available records.
D. The respondent have the right to submit Position Paper under the rules.
28 Under what instance where a mitigating circumstance be validly appreciated,
warranting the imposition of the corresponding penalty in its minimum period?

A. When the respondent alleged that he did nothing wrong throughout his 32
years of service in the PNP and to prove the same he presented his 400
awards and commendations
B. When there are two mitigating circumstances, two aggravating circumstances
C. When the only one aggravating circumstance was successfully objected to by
the respondent.
D. When the respondent alleged that he is not guilty, however, if in the event that
the disciplinary authority would ultimately find him liable, the minimum of the
penalty should be imposed appreciating his four Medalya ng Papuri as a
mitigating circumstance.
29 It is a remedy which a respondent may pursue to seek a reversal of an unfavourable
judgment or decision rendered by a disciplinary authority exercising original
jurisdiction. The said remedy is to be solved by the same disciplinary authority that
rendered the decision sought by the respondent to be reversed.
A. Appeal
B. Motion of extension of Time
C. Motion for reconsideration
D. Motion for a Bill of particulars

30 Refers to the import, export, acquisition, sale, delivery, movement or transfer of

firearms, their parts and components and ammunition, from or across the territory of
one country to that of another country which has not been authorized in accordance
with domestic law in either or both country/countries
A. Arms trafficking
B. Arms smuggling
C. Diversion
D. Illegal transfer
31 LOI 55/07 “Pamana” is otherwise known as the:

14
 A. PNP Humanitarian Development program
B. PNP Human Rights Plan
C. PNP Human Rights Development Plan
D. PNP Human Rights Development Program

32 What is RA 9851?

A. The Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian Rights Law,

Genocide, and Other Crimes Against Humanity
B. The Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian Law,
Genocide, and Other Crimes Against Humanity.
C. International Humanitarian Law
D. The Anti-Torture Act of 2009
33 These are the rights that cannot be suspended nor taken away nor restricted/limited
even in extreme emergency and even if the government invokes national security.
A. Derogable or Relative Rights
B. Non-Derogable or Absolute Rights
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
34 To ___________human rights means to refrain from interfering with enjoyment of
people’s rights.
A. Promote
B. Protect
C. Respect
D. Fulfill
35 Interchangeable, roles can be performed by both sexes. Uses terms like masculine
and feminine
A. Sex
B. Gender
C. Gender Bias
D. None of the above
TRUE OR FALSE. Write True if the statement is correct and False if the statement is
wrong.
36 Orders from a Superior, whether military or civilian, to commit genocide shall relieve
that person of criminal responsibility and the person who will be responsible is only
the person who issued the order.
37 War crimes means any of the acts enumerated in the act with intent to destroy, in
whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial, religious, social or any other similar stable
and permanent group as such:
38 Incommunicado is a form of imprisonment in which a prisoner(s) or detainee(s) is
denied contact with any other persons, except members of prison or detention staff.
Solitary confinement also exists when occasional access to the prisoner(s) or
detainee(s) is subjected to the discretion of the jailer or prison or detention authority.
39 An “Order of Battle” is lawful and can be invoked as a justifying or exempting
circumstance. Any person receiving such an order shall have the right to disobey it.
40 An act constituting enforced or involuntary disappearance shall be considered a
continuing offense as long as the perpetrators continue to conceal the fate and
whereabouts of the disappeared person and such circumstances have not been
determined with certainty.
IDENTIFICATION: Write the correct answer on the space provided for in the answer
sheet.
41 Also known as an Act Providing For A Comprehensive Law on Firearms and
Ammunition and Providing Penalties For Violations Thereof.

15
 42 Refers to persons who, by direct provision of the law, popular election or appointment
by competent authority, shall take part in the performance of public functions in the
government, or shall perform in the government or in any of its branches public duties
as an employee, agent or subordinate official, of any rank or class.
43 Refers to any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a
member of some court or government corporation, board, or commission.
44 Refers to any use of force or armed violence between States or a protracted armed
violence between governmental authorities and organized armed groups or between
such groups within that State.
45 Means acts which invite the confidence of an adversary to lead him/her to believe
he/she is entitled to, or is obliged to accord, protection under the rules of International
Humanitarian Law, with the intent to betray that confidence.
ENUMERATION:

Give atleast (2) perspectives in the PNP Roadmap?

46. __PROCESS OF EXCELLENCE__________________________________

47. __LEARNING AND GROWTH__________________________________

Give at least three (3) Characteristics/Principles of Human Rights

48. RESPECT

49. EQUALITY

50. _DIGNITY________________________________

IOBC REVIEW - MODULAR EXAMINATION 2 SET A

No. QUESTIONNAIRE
01 Amelia, a famous actress, bought the penthouse unit of a posh condominium building
in Taguig City. Every night, Amelia would swim naked in the private, but open air,
pool of her penthouse unit. It must have been obvious to Amelia that she could be
seen from nearby buildings. In fact, some residents occupying the higher floors of the
nearby residential buildings did indeed entertain themselves and their friends by
watching her swim in the nude from their windows. What crime did Amelia commit?

A. Alarms and scandals because her act of sw1mmmg naked disturbs the public
tranquility.
B. Grave scandal because she committed highly scandalous acts that are
offensive to decency or good customs.
C. Immoral doctrines, obscene publications and exhibitions, and indecent shows
under Article 201 of the Revised Penal Code, because her act of swimming
16
 naked is akin to an indecent live show
D. Amelia did not commit any crime because the swimming pool is
located in her private home.
02 A killed M. After the killing, A went to the Barangay Chairman of the place of incident
to seek protection against the retaliation of M's relatives. May voluntary surrender be
appreciated as a mitigating circumstance in favor of A?

A. Yes. A surrendered to the Barangay Chairman who is a person in authority.

B. Yes. The surrender of A would save the authorities the trouble and expense
for his arrest.
C. No. A did not unconditionally submit himself to the authorities in. order to
acknowledge his participation in the killing or to save the authorities the trouble
and expenses necessary for his search and capture.
D. No. The surrender to the Barangay Chairman is not a surrender to the proper
authorities.
03 At a wake, there were people watching a game of dice. With treachery and use of
unlicensed firearms, AA fired successively several gunshots at their direction. During
the shooting, four (4) persons were killed, and fourteen (14) others were injured and
brought to the hospital for the treatment of gunshot wounds. What should be the
proper charge against AA?

A. AA should be charged with multiple murder and attempted murder.

B. AA should be charged with four (4) counts of murder and fourteen (14) counts
of attempted murder.
C. AA should be charged with four (4) counts of murder, fourteen (14) counts of
serious physical injuries and illegal possession of firearms.
D. AA should be charged with complex crime of murder and attempted murder
with illegal possession of firearms.
04 What is the criminal liability, if any, of a pregnant woman who tried to commit suicide
by poison, but she did not die and the fetus in her womb was expelled instead?

A. The woman who tried to commit suicide is not criminally liable because the
suicide intended was not consummated.
B. The woman who tried to commit suicide is criminally liable for unintentional
abortion which is punishable when caused by violence.
C. The woman who tried to commit suicide is criminally liable for abortion that
resulted due to the poison that she had taken to commit suicide.
D. The woman who tried to commit suicide occurs no criminal liability for the
result not intended.

05 Out of spite and simply intending to put Gina to shame for breaking off with him,
Ritchie emptied a gallon of motor oil on the school's stairway where Gina usually
passed. Gina, unaware of what Ritchie did, used the slippery stairway and slipped,
hitting her head on the stairs. Gina died from brain hemorrhage. What crime did
Ritchie commit? (1%)

A. Murder
B. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
C. Homicide
D. Impossible crime of homicide
06 AB was driving a van along a highway. Because of her recklessness, the van hit a car
which had already entered the intersection. As a result, CD who was driving the car
suffered physical injuries, while damage to his car amounted to P8,500.00. What is
the proper charge against AB?

A. AB should be charged with the complex crime of reckless imprudence

resulting in damage to property with slight physical injuries.

17
 B. AB should be charged with reckless imprudence resulting in slight physical
injuries and reckless imprudence resulting in damage to property.
C. AB should be charged with complex crime of slight physical injuries with
damage to property.
D. AB should be charged with slight physical injuries and reckless imprudence
resulting in damage to property.

07 If Rod killed Irene, his illegitimate daughter, after taking her diamond earrings and
forcing her to have sex with him, what crime/s should Rod be charged with?

A. Robbery and rape with parricide.

B. Rape with homicide
C. Rape with homicide and theft
D. Robbery, rape and parricide
FF and his two (2) sons positioned themselves outside the house of the victim. The
two (2} sons stood by the stairs in front of the house, while the father waited at the
back. The victim jumped out of the window and was met by FF who instantly hacked
him. The two (2) sons joined hacking the victim to death. They voluntarily
surrendered to the police. How will the attendant circumstances be properly
appreciated?

A. Treachery and abuse of superior strength qualify the killing to murder.

B. Only treachery qualifies the killing to murder because abuse of superior
strength is absorbed by treachery.
C. Treachery is the qualifying aggravating circumstance, while abuse of superior
strength is treated as a generic aggravating circumstance.
D. The qualifying circumstance of treachery or abuse of superior strength can be
offset by the mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender.

08 Using his charms because of his movie star looks, Phil, in a movie date with Lyn, a
19-years old colegiala, kissed her on the cheek and stroked her pubic hair. Lyn
shouted for help and Phil was arrested. Phil is liable for __________.

A. Rape by sexual assault for using his fingers

B. Violation of the Anti-Child Abuse Law for lascivious conduct
C. Acts of lasciviousness
D. Unjust vexation
09 The death of the accused extinguishes his criminal liability, but civil liability is not
extinguished.
A. When the death of the accused occurred before conviction
B. When the death of the accused occurred after conviction and after he has
perfected his appeal from conviction
C. When the death of the accused occurred during the pendency of his appeal
D. When the death of the accused occurred after final judgment
10 A foreigner residing in Hong Kong counterfeits a twenty-peso bill issued by the
Philippine Government. May the foreigner be prosecuted before a civil court in the
Philippines?

A. No. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable only within the
Philippine Archipelago.
B. No. The Philippine Criminal Law is binding only on persons who reside or
sojourn in the Philippines.
C. No. Foreigners residing outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines are exempted
from the operation of the Philippine Criminal Law.
D. Yes. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable · also outside
the jurisdiction of the Philippines against those who should forge, or counterfeit
currency notes of the Philippines or obligations and securities issued by the

18
 Government of the Philippines.
11 The criminal acts punished by the Revised Penal Code.

A. Felonies C. Offenses
B. Crimes D. Misdeamor
12 Prof. Pascion gave a failing grade to one of his students, Marquez. When the two met
the following day, Marquez slapped Prof. Pascion on the face. What was the crime
committed by Marquez?

A. Corruption of Public Officials

B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
13 Who is duly authorized by law to file Information in Court?

A. Police Officer C. any person in authority

B. Prosecutor D. All of the above
14 Which of the following does not result in a valid warrantless search?
Plain view search
A. Search as an incident to a lawful arrest
B. Search of a domicile
C. Search of a moving vehicle
15 What is the quantum of evidence required in a criminal proceeding?
Prima facie evidence
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Substantial evidence
C. Probable cause
16 Which of the following circumstances may be appreciated as aggravating in the crime
of treason?
A. Cruelty and ignominy
B. Evident premeditation
C. Superior strength
D. Treachery
17 Under which of the following circumstances is an accused not liable for the result not
intended?
A. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is
mistake in the identity of the victim.
B. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is
mistake in the blow.
C. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when the wrongful
act is not the proximate cause of the resulting injury.
D. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is
mistake of fact constituting an involuntary act.
18 What is the criminal liability, if any, of a private person who enters the dwelling of
another against the latter's will and by means of violence or intimidation for the
purpose of preventing some harm to himself?

A The private person is criminally liable for qualified trespass to dwelling.

B The private person is criminally liable for simple trespass to dwelling.
C The private person incurs no criminal liability.
D The private person is criminally liable for light threats.
19 Felonies are classified according to manner or mode of execution into felonies
committed by means of deceit (dolo) and by means of fault (culpa). Which of the
following causes may not give rise to culpable felonies?

A. Imprudence
19
 B. Malice
C. Negligence
D. Lack of foresight
20 Mr. X, a private individual, Gen. T, an army colonel, and MF, former DOTC secretary,
were charged in conspiracy for rigging government contracts to the detriment of
government. If we are to file a case for violation of RA3019, who can we charge?

A. Mr. X, Gen. T and MF

B. Gen T and MF only, since Mr. X is not a public officer
C. Gen T only, since Mr. X is not a public officer, while MF is no longer a public
officer
D. None of the above
21 Under Section 103 of the Philippine Mining Act of 1995, it shall be unlawful for any
person to:
A. Extract minerals without a mining agreement, lease, permit, license.
B. Extract minerals and dispose the same without a mining agreement,
lease, permit, license.
C. Extract mineral without a mining agreement and corresponding payment
therefor.
D. None of the above
22 Presidential Decree No. 1586 or the Environmental Impact Assessment Act requires
any person, partnership, or corporation to secure environmental compliance
certificate in the following projects/ areas, except:
A. Construction of major roads
B. Mangrove areas
C. Releasing of endemic animals in the forest
D. Rizal Park
23 Under Republic Act No. 7586 or the National Integrated Protected Areas System Act
of 1992, it shall be unlawful for any person to commit the following acts within
protected areas, except:
A. Using motorized equipment without permit from the barangay
B. Dumping of any waste products detrimental to the protected area, or to the
plants and animals or inhabitants therein.
C. Squatting or occupying any part of the protected area
D. Conducting any business or enterprise without permit

24 On 02 January 2018, Serge de Guzman filed with the Department of Environment

and Natural Resources (DENR) an application to cut down 15 dead Benguet Pine
Trees in Baguio City to be used for the repairs of Teachers Camp. After inspecting
the trees to be cut, the DENR then issued a permit allowing the cutting of 15 dead
pine trees. Sometime in 14 February 2018, the Forest Ranger Malou Pit received
information that pine trees were being cut at Teachers Camp without proper authority.
When she proceeded to the site, she found Alack Dan, another forest ranger from
CENRO, supervising the cutting of trees. She also found out that the sawyers had cut
23 pine trees, out of which only 12 were covered by the permit. Alack Dan was then
charged for violation of Section 68 of PD 705, as amended. Will Alack Dan be held
liable for violation of Section 68 of PD 705?

A. Yes, because Alack Dan ordered the cutting, gathering, collecting or removing
of timber or other forest products from alienable or disposable public land,
without permit.
B. Yes, because Alack Dan was in possession of illegally cut pine trees.
C. No, because Alack Dan was merely charged by CENRO to supervise the
cutting of pine trees.
D. No, because there was a permit for the cutting of pine trees.

25 Which of the following is NOT an exception to the hearsay rule?

20
 A. Dying declaration
B. Admission by copartners
C. Res gestae
D. Common reputation
26 The rule that tenants are not permitted to deny the title of their landlords at the time of
the commencement of the landlord tenant relationship is an example of a:

A. Disputable presumption
B. Matter that need be proved
C. Conclusive presumption
D. Hearsay
27 In which instance is the opinion of a witness inadmissible?

A. Witness gives an expert testimony

B. Witness testifies on the identity of a person about whom he has adequate
knowledge
C. Witness testifies on the motive of the crime
D. None of the above
28 With intent to kill, GGG burned the house where F and D were staying. F and D died
as a consequence. What is the proper charge against GGG?

A. GGG should be charged with two (2) counts of murder.

B. GGG should be charged with arson.
C. GGG should be charged with complex crime of arson with double murder.
D. GGG should be charged with complex crime of double murder.
29 Conspiracy to commit a felony is punishable only in cases where the law specifically
provides a penalty. Which of the following combinations contain specific felonies
under the Revised Penal Code?

A. Conspiracy to commit treason, conspiracy to commit rebellion, conspiracy to

commit coup d'etat, conspiracy to commit misprision of treason.
B. Conspiracy to commit rebellion, conspiracy to commit coup d'etat, conspiracy
to commit treason, conspiracy to commit sedition.
C. Conspiracy to commit rebellion or insurrection, conspiracy to commit sedition,
conspiracy to commit illegal assemblies, conspiracy to commit treason.
D. None of the above.
30 From an extension line, Ricardo overheard a telephone conversation between Julito
and Atty. Hipolito. The latter (Atty. Hipolito) was asking money from Julito in
exchange for dropping the extortion charge filed against Julito. Ricardo was charged
of violating the Anti-Wire Tapping Act or R.A. 4200. Under these facts, was there a
violation as charged?

A. Yes, because the conversation was private in nature.

B. Yes, because the conversation was overheard without the consent of the
parties, Julito and Atty. Hipolito.
C. No, because what is punishable is intentional listening to a conversation
through a wire.
D. No, because a telephone extension line is not the device or arrangement
contemplated by the law and the use of an extension line cannot be
considered as wiretapping.

31 A entered the house of B. Once inside the house of B, A took and seized personal
property by compulsion from B with the use of violence and force upon things,
believing himself to be the owner of the personal property so seized. What is the
criminal liability of A?
21
 A. A is criminally liable for robbery with violence because he employed violence
in the taking of the personal property from B, robbery characterized by
violence being graver than ordinary robbery committed with force upon things.
B. A is criminally liable for robbery with force upon things in an inhabited house
because the act was committed in a house constituting the dwelling of one or
more persons.
C. A is criminally liable for grave coercion because the presumption of intent to
gain is rebutted.
D. A is criminally liable for qualified trespass to dwelling because he employed
violence.
32 Can there be a frustrated impossible crime?
A. Yes. When the crime is not produced by reason of the inherent impossibility of
its accomplishment, it is a frustrated impossible crime.
B. No. There can be no frustrated impossible crime because the means
employed to accomplish the crime is inadequate or ineffectual.
C. Yes. There can be a frustrated impossible crime when the act performed
would be an offense against persons.
D. No. There can be no frustrated impossible because the offender has already
performed the acts for the execution of the crime.
33 Operatives of the Optical Media Board carried a warrant to search for pirated video
discs allegedly being manufactured in a certain warehouse. During the search,
however, they also found 100 grams of shabu, two M-16 rifles, and a dildo. Which of
the following may they seize:

A. The discs, the shabu, the rifles and the dildo

B. The discs only, as these were the only items specified in the warrant
C. The discs and the shabu only
D. The discs, the shabu and the rifles only
34 A filing fee is necessary if:

A. There is a prejudicial question

B. If moral damages are sought
C. If actual damages are sought
D. All of the above
35 C is the child of the spouses H and W. H sued his wife W for judicial declaration of
nullity of marriage under Article 36 of the Family Code. In the trial, the following
testified over the objection of W: C, H and D, a Doctor of Medicine who used to treat
W. Which of the following is correct?

A. H cannot testify against her because of the rule on marital privilege

B. C cannot testify against her because of the doctrine on parental privilege; and
C. D cannot testify against her because of the doctrine of privileged
communication between patient and physician.
D. All of the above
36 A person who refuses to be fingerprinted during the booking process upon arrest,
may be charged with:

A. Direct assault
B. Disobedience to an agent of a person in authority
C. Violation of the law against obstruction of justice
D. None of the above

22
37 Which of the following is not necessary in a complaint or information?

A. The name of the accused;

B. The designation of the offense given by the statute;
C. The exact date of the commission of the offense;
D. The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense;
38 When is a crime deemed to have been committed by a band?

A. When armed men, at least four (4) in number, take direct part in the execution of
the act constituting the crime.
B. When three (3) armed men act together in the commission of the crime.
C. When there are four (4) armed persons, one of whom is a principal by
inducement.
D. When there are four (4) malefactors, one of whom is armed.
39 The following are lawful warrantless search, EXCEPT:

A. Consented warrantless search

B. Customs search
C. Exigent and emergency circumstances
D. None of the above
40 A jailer inflicted injury on the prisoner because of his personal grudge against the
latter. The injury caused illness of the prisoner for more than thirty (30) days. What is
the proper charge against the jailer?

A. The jailer should be charged with maltreatment of prisoner and serious

physical injuries.
B. The jailer should be charged with serious physical injuries only.
C. The jailer should be charged with complex crime of maltreatment of prisoner
with serious physical injuries.
D. The jailer should be charged with maltreatment of prisoner only.
41 The crime of theft committed by a person who, with intent to gain, takes a worthless
check belonging to another without the latter's consent.
A. Yes. All the elements of the crime of theft are present: that there be taking of
personal property; that the property belongs to another; and that the taking be
done with intent to gain and without the consent of the owner.
B. No. The taking of the worthless check, which has no value, would not amount
to the crime of theft because of the legal impossibility to commit the intended
crime.
C. Yes. Theft is committed even if the worthless check would be subsequently
dishonored because the taker had intent to gain from the check at the time of
the taking.
D. Yes. Theft is committed because the factual impossibility to gain from the
check was not known to the taker or beyond his control at the time of taking.
42 When are light felonies punishable?

A. Light felonies are punishable in all stages of execution.

B. Light felonies are punishable only when consummated.
C. Light felonies are punishable only when consummated, with the exception of
those committed against persons or property.
D. Light felonies are punishable only when committed against persons or
property.
43 The guard was entrusted with the conveyance or custody of a detention prisoner who
escaped through his negligence. What is the criminal liability of the escaping
23
 prisoner?

A. The escaping prisoner does not incur criminal liability.

B. The escaping prisoner is liable for evasion through negligence.
C. The escaping prisoner is liable for conniving with or consenting to, evasion.
D. The escaping prisoner is liable for evasion of service of sentence.

44 For treachery to qualify killing to murder, the evidence must show:

A. The time when the accused decided to employ treachery, the overt act
manifestly indicating that he clung to such determination, and a sufficient lapse
of time between the decision and the execution, allowing him to reflect upon
the consequence of his act.
B. Unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means to prevent or repel
the aggression, and lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the victim.
C. That the accused employed such means, methods or manner to ensure his
safety from the defensive or retaliatory acts of the victim, and the mode of
attack was consciously adopted.
D. Actual sudden physical assault or threat to inflict real imminent injury to an
unsuspecting victim.

45 Character evidence is admissible __________.

A. in criminal cases – the accused may prove his good moral character if
pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged
B. in criminal cases – the prosecution may prove the bad moral character of the
accused to prove his criminal predisposition
C. in criminal cases under certain situations, but not to prove the bad moral
character of the offended party
D. when it is evidence of the good character of a witness even prior to his
impeachment as witness
46 Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held liable for rape:
A. With the use of force or intimidation.
B. When the rape is committed by two or more persons.
C. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it m the mouth of the
victim.
D. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the victim's drink to enable her
husband to have intercourse with the victim.
47 Under the Rules of Electronic Evidence, "ephemeral electronic conversation" refers to
the following, except:

A. text messages
B. telephone conversations
C. faxed document
D. online chatroom sessions
48 X was shot by Y in the course of a robbery. On the brink of death, X told W, a
barangay tanod, that it was Y who shot and held him up. In the trial for robbery with
homicide, X's declaration can be admitted only as a dying declaration:

A. to prove robbery
B. to prove homicide
C. to prove robbery and homicide
D. to prove the "corpus delicti”
24
 49 After drinking a bottle of Jack Daniels, Jonjon drove his BMW sports car at high
speed, rammed into a group of crossing pedestrians, and hit a traffic light post. The
incident caused the death of one (1) pedestrian, serious injuries to three (3) others,
and the destruction of the traffic light post. If you were the prosecutor, what would you
charge Jonjon?

A. Homicide with serious physical injuries through simple negligence.

B. Damage to property, serious physical injuries, and homicide through reckless
negligence.
C. Simple negligence resulting in damage to property, serious physical injuries,
and homicide.
D. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide, serious physical injuries and
damage to property.
50 After drinking a bottle of Jack Daniels, Jonjon drove his BMW sports car at high
speed, rammed into a group of crossing pedestrians, and hit a traffic light post. The
incident caused the death of one (1) pedestrian, serious injuries to three (3) others,
and the destruction of the traffic light post. If you were the prosecutor, what would you
charge Jonjon?

A. Homicide with serious physical injuries through simple negligence.

B. Damage to property, serious physical injuries, and homicide through reckless
negligence.
C. Simple negligence resulting in damage to property, serious physical injuries,
and homicide.
D. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide, serious physical injuries and
damage to property.

1 MODULAR
st

1. The first to what man truly needs. Man’s greatest need is for God. GOD-FEARING C
2. ______ as a choice to be right in harmony to man’s personal values based on what
evidence and not on others want him to believe. COMMITMENT C
3. Why do the media and the PNP exist? IT IS PROVIDED FOR IN THE
CONSTITUTION C
4. It refers on how the police of the PNP should deal and interact with the members of
the working press and how the media respond to them. MEDIA RELATIONS A
5. A communication strategy that is derived that a crisis exist – Refuse to answer media
questions or ignore the issue. STONE WALL A
6. A communication strategy that allows partial release of information or delay of
information while concealing unfavorable facts. MANAGE THE ISSUE C

25
7. A communication strategy that has the best course of action and is much easy to
manage. The media is truly informed while providing background information to put
facts into perspective. OPEN COMMUNICATION POLICY B
8. It is a sentence error formed when two or more sentences are incorrectly put together
and miss the proper punctuation. RUN-ON
9. It is the process of putting together thoughts, ideas, and information into a symbolic
form to communicate a message. The symbols can take on numerous forms such as
language, gestures. The senders goal is to encode the message in such a manner or
so in order to be understood by the receiver. ENCODING B
10. It is a disciplinary measure that maybe inposed by proper disciplinary authority during
the pendency of a grave administrative or criminal charge against a subordinate police
officers made. This may consist of confinement within the camp with proper monitoring
and accounting of their activities. RESTRICTIVE CUSTODY A
11. What principle is being referred to be the situation when a complaint or charge is filed
against a PNP member. It shall be heard a decided exclusively by the disciplinary
authority or IAS. This acquired the original jurisdiction over the case. PRINCIPLE OF
EXCLUSIVITY C
12. Which of the following is the effect of failure or refusal of the respondent to file an
answer. THE RESPONDENT SHALL BE DEEMED TO HAVE WAIVED HIS RIGHT
TO FILE A POSITION PAPER AND THE CASE SHALL BE DECIDED BASED ON
THE AVAILABLE RECORD A
13. Under what instance where a mitigating circumstance be validly appreciated.
Warranting the imposing of the corresponding penalty in its minimum period. WHEN
THE RESPONDED ALLEGED THAT HE IS NOT GUILTY. HOWEVER IN THE
EVENT THAT THE DISCIPLINARY AUTHORITY WON’T ULTIMATELY FIND HIM
LIABLE, THE MINIMUM OF THE PENALTY SHALL BE IMPOSED.
14. It is a remedy which a respondent may pursue to seek a reversal of unfavorable
judgment or decision rendered by the disciplinary authority excercising original
jurisdiction. The said remedy is to be resolved by the same disciplinary authority that
rendered the decision sought by the respondent to be reversed. MOTION FOR
RECONSIDERATION B
15. What is the prescribe suspension penalty of a less grave offense? 31 DAYS TO 60
DAYS C
16. They are regarded as strategy partners of the police organization in the
implementation of the PNP Patrol Plan 2030. ADVISORY COUNCIL C
17. It is an inspirational description of what an organization would like to achieve or
accomplish in a long term future. VISION
18. It is conducted on a monthly basis to monitor and access performance. OPERATIONS
REVIEW B
19. Interchangable roles can be performed by both sexes. Uses terms like masculine and
feminine. GENDER A
20. Weak, emotional, secondary, can’t think is a _____. FEMININE PERCEPTION B
21. What is RA 7192? WOMEN IN DEVELOPMENT NATION BUILDING ACT C
22. It is about attaining a full and satisfying life for all. DEVELOPMENT B
23. These are the basic rights and freedom that all human beings have. HUMAN RIGHTS
B
24. Private properties shall not be taken for public use without ______. JUST
COMPENSATION B
25. It is the supreme, inherent, and inalienable rights to life, dignity, and self development.
It is the essence of these rights that make man human. HUMAN RIGHTS A
26. The law that protects the rights of children in armed conflict. RA 10630 A
27. The following are elements of genocide: acts is targeted towards ethnic, racial,
religious or similar group; act is done with intention of destroying the group whether
physically, psychologically, culturally, emotionally and merely not individual members;
act is any of those enumerated in the law. Except? NONE OF THE ABOVE D
28. What are the three sources that comprise the international bill of human rights?
UNIVERSAL DECLARATION OF HUMAN RIGHTS, INTERNATIONAL COVENANT
OF CIVIL AND POLITICAL RIGHTS, AND INTERNATION COVENANT ON
ECONOMIC, SOCIAL, AND POLITICAL RIGHTS

26
 29. LOI 55/07 “PAMANA” is known as ____. PNP HUMAN RIGHTS DEVELOPMENT
PROGRAM D
30. What is RA 9851? PHILIPPINE ACT ON CRIMES AGAINST INTERNATIONAL
HUMANITARIAN LAW, GENOCIDE, AND OTHER CRIMES AGAINST HUMANITY B
31. The Anti-Torture Act of 2009 is also known as. RA 9745 B
32. These are the rights that cannot be suspended nor taken away nor restricted, limited
even in extreme emergency and even if the government invokes national security.
NON-DEROGABLE OR ABSOLUTE RIGHTS B
33. To ____ human rights, means to refrain from interferring with enjoyment of peoples
rights. RESPECT D
34. It is a sentence structure formed by one independent clause and one or more
dependent clauses. COMPLEX SENTENCE B
35. It is a type of clause that needs a dependent clause to form a complete sentence.
DEPENDENT CLAUSE A
36. Orders from a superior whether military or civilian to commit genocide shall relieve the
person from criminal responsibility. The person who will be responsible is only the
person who issued the order. FALSE
37. War crimes means any of the acts enumerated in the act with intent to destroy involve
or inpart a national, ethnic, racial, religious, social or any other similar stable or
permanent group as such. FALSE
38. In communicado is a form of imprisonment in which the prisoners or detainees are
denied contact with any other persons except members of prison or detension staff.
Solitary confinement also exist when occassional access to a prisoners or detainees is
subjected to the discretion of the jailer or prison or retention authority. FALSE
39. Order of battle is lawful and can be invoked as a justifying or exempting circumstance.
Any person receiving such orders shall have the right to disobey. FALSE
40. An act constituting enforced or involuntary disappearance shall consider a continuing
offense as long as the perpetrators continue to conceal the fate and whereabouts of
the disappeared person and such circumstance have not been determined certainly.
TRUE
41. 4 perspective in the PNP Road Map:
1. COMMUNITY
2. PROCESS EXCELLENCE
3. LEARNING AND GROWTH
4. RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
42. 3 GAD budget:
1. MAINTAINANCE AND OTHER OPERATING EXPENSES
2. CAPITAL OUTLAY
3. PERSONAL SERVICES

43. 3 Characteristics of HR:

1. INHERENT
2. FUNDAMENTAL
3. INALIENABLE
4. INDIVISIBLE
5. UNIVERSAL
6. IMPRESCRIPTIBLE

2 MODULAR
ND

1. Which of the following aggravating circumstances does not qualify homicide to muder?
DWELLING NIGHT TIME AND SEX OFFENDED E
2. Lack of motive is indicative of the innocence of the accused. FALSE, MOTIVE IS NOT
A REQUISITE OF DOLO CRIMES B
3. In Kidnapping for Ransom, those who acted as runners in obtaining the ransom money
has no criminal liability. FALSE, THEY ARE CONSIDERED AS ACCOMPLISES B
4. In the crime of Illegal Discharge of Firearm, it is necessary to the firearm being
discharge at another but without _____. INTENT TO KILL B
5. What variant crimes can arise from discharge of firearms? Alarms and scandal,
threats, grave coercion. ALL OF THE ABOVE D

27
6. Legislative acts which prohibited certain acts in it establish penalties for their violation
are: PENAL LAWS A
7. When acts of violence hastened the death of a person who has a lingering heart
ailment, the offender shall be liable for. NO CRIME, THE HEART ATTACH IS AN
EFFICIENT INTERVENING CAUSE C
8. In a criminal case for attempted homicide where the victim is not physically injured at
all, _____ criminal intent is a burden at rest to the prosecution. SPECIFIC B
9. Even if there is conspiracy if a co-conspirator barely coorperated with the insignificant
or minimal acts, such conspirator should punished as an accomplish only except when
the felony constitutes: COMPOSITE CRIMES A
10. In felonies of theft, estafa, and malicious mischief, there is no criminal liability if the
offender is a brother-in-law of the offended party. PARTY TRUE
11. The distinction between Kidnapping with Rape and Forcible Abduction with Rape is
the presence or absence of _____. LEWD DESIGN D
12. Highway Robbery is different from Robbery committed in a highway under the RPC, in
Highway Robbery the victim is not ____. PRECONCIEVED A
13. During the party, C administered an injurious substance called ecstasy into the wine of
B who sustained less serious physical injuries as a consecquence. What felony did C
commit? LESS SERIOUS PHYSICAL INJURIES D
14. X threatened to kill Y if Y does not sign a deed of sale of Y’s property in favor of X. Y
signed the deed of sale. What penalty did X commit? ROBBERY C
15. X kidnapped children A, B, and C and asked for ransom from their parents. When the
parents failed to give the ransom money, X killed A, B, and C. What crime did X
commit? KIDNAPPING WITH HOMICIDE C
16. X was able to have carnal knowledge of his girlfriend while the latter was drunk. RAPE
B
17. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for
the purpose of applying same to that payment to the debt of his. LIGHT COERCION D
18. A PNP member inflicted physical injuries to a detainee to obtain information in the
commission of a crime. What crime did he commit? MALTREATMENT OF
PRISONERS B
19. A took B’s bag while walking along the crowded street in Quiapo. However, an
undercover cop immediately apprehended A. What crime did A commit?
CONSUMMATED THEFT C
20. A PNP member who entered the dwelling of X against the latter’s will to search for
unlicensed firearms is liable for? VIOLATION OF DOMICILE A
21. When is a preliminary investigation required? IN ALL CASES WHERE THE
PENALTY OF THE OFFENSE CHARGED IS AT LEAST 4Y2M1D OF THE PRISION
CORRECTIONAL C
22. It is a mandatory file search of laptops of departing passengers of airports, activation
of laptops, and the ransom opening of any of its files reasonable? NO, SEARCH
WITHOUT PROBABLE CAUSE VIOLATED THE PASSENGERS RIGHT TO
PRIVACY B
23. If the prosecutor made and unfavorable resolution of a complaint or preliminary
investigation or inquest investigation, the accused can file a petition of review.
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE D
24. X, a notorious criminal, killed Y. Moments later, W reported the killing to the police.
Knowing X personally, Police Officer Juan Dela Cruz swiftly arrested X. Was the arrest
lawful? NO B
25. Police officers A, B, C, and D implemented a valid search warrant in the house of X
who was then out of the country. The police officers found the 13 year old son of X and
the family cook, so they decided invite the barangay chairman and the president of the
home owner’s association to witness the implementation of the search warrant. What
felony if any did the police officers commit? SEARCHING DOMICILE WITHOUT
WITNESS C
26. The duty of the prosecution to present evidence to prove the guilt of the accused.
BURDEN OF PROOF A
27. The following are the requisites for the court can validly exercise jurisdiction except: IF
MUCH HAVE JURISDICTION OVER THE INVESTIGATION A

28
28. The wife dies before she could execute a criminal action of concubinage against her
husband and concubinage. The case is? NO LONGER PROSECUTED C
29. A and B lawfully apprehended C without a warrant. Which among the following is
improper? INFORM THE SUSPECT OF HIS MIRANDA RIGHTS C
30. Right against self-incrimination covers testimonial compulsion only. PARTLY TRUE C
31. The testimony of a single witness is. MAYBE BELIEVED EVEN IF NOT
COLLABORATED B
32. The police sought A for questioning in connection for killing a victim. A was seen
wearing a blood stained shirt. During A’s interrogation, A was not assisted by a
counsel. A admitted his guilt and surrendered the knife he used to commit the crime.
What pieces of evidence are admissible? NONE OF THE ABOVE B
33. X was charged of Robbery and Rape. X subsequently testified on direct examination.
On what matters may the prosecution cross-examine X? MATTERS ONLY TOUCHED
BY X ON DIRECT EXAMINATION B
34. A police officers testified in court. On direct examination subsequently he refused
without justifiable reason to be cross-examined. The remedy of the counsel for the
accused is to motion to judge to arrest the police officer to be cross-examined.
WRONG
35. Which of the following facts need not be proved? Those which the court may take
judicial notice of, those that are judicially admitted, those that are conclusively
presumed, those that are repeatedly presumed but contradicted. ALL OF THE
ABOVE E
36. Which of the following statement is true? Evidence admitted has probative value,
Evidence not admitted has no probative value, Evidence admitted has no probative
value, Evidence not admitted has probative value, Evidence admitted may or may not
have probative value. EVIDENCE ADMITTED MAY OR MAY NOT HAVE
PROBATIVE VALUE E
37. All the essential elements of the crime are made up of? EVIDENCE AND
DISPUTABLE ASSUMPTIONS D
38. A judicial admission verbal or written made by a party in the course of judicial
proceedings does not require proof. PARTY TRUE C
39. Should entries in the police blotter be given probable value? PARTLY NO B
40. In open court, the accused stated that he killed the victim in self-defense. This is
called? JUDICIAL ADMISSION C
41. Stalking under RA 9262 is the intetional act of a person who knowingly and without
lawful justification. Following women or her child, places women or her child in direct
surveillance, places the women or her child in indirect surveillance. ALL OF THE
ABOVE D
42. Under RA 9262, damage to property is? PSYCHOLOGICAL C
43. Receiving services from the child in the massage cleaning is. ATTEMPTED CHILD
PROSTITUTION B
44. Using a street child for begging violates? RA 7610 ANTI CHILD ABUSE C
45. Organizing tourism packages for sexual exploitation violates? RA 9208 HUMAN
TRAFFICKING A
46. Under Section 20 of RA 9344, if the parents/guardians/nearest relatives cannot be
located or refuse to take custody, the child in conflict with the law may not be released
to? THE MAYOR OF THE PLACE WHERE THE CICL RESIDES D
47. When a person is recruited to engage in prostitution with any member of the police
force. The crime is? QUALIFIED TRAFFICKING B
48. An owner or manager of the hotel who allows any person who takes with him to such
place a minor is liable under? RA 7610 C
49. Can an offender who had one night stand with the compalinant victim be held liable
under RA 9262? YES, BECAUSE THE LAW PROVIDES THAT VAWC CAN BE
COMMITTED BY ANYONE AGAINST A WOMAN WHOM THE OFFENDER HAD
SEXUAL RELATION. A SINGLE SEXUAL ACT IS CONSIDERED A SEXUAL
RELATION B
50. John and Alyana are married with two children. At some point of their cohabitation
their relationship turned sour. John left the conjugal dwelling but continuously send
support for the family. Consequently, John filed a petition before the court for him to
take custody for the children. While Alyana opposed, while the petition was pending,
29
 John’s mother talked to Alyana and asking the latter to voluntary give the custody to
children to John otherwise John will stop supporting the children. Alyana did not heed
the mother-in-law’s request. True enough the subsequent months, John did not give
any support to the children. Alyana filed a case of RA 9262 against John and including
her mother-in-law as correspondent. Will the action prosper? YES, THE ACTION
WILL PROSPER FOLLOWING THE PRINCIPLE OF CONSPIRACY WHEREIN THE
ACT ONE IS THE ACT OF ALL. HENCE, THE ACT OF JOHN IS CONSIDERED THE
ACT OF HIS MOTHER B

IOBC 2 MODULAR EXAMINATION SET B

nd

No. QUESTIONNAIRE
01 The criminal acts punished by the Revised Penal Code.

A. Felonies C. Offenses
B. Crimes D. Misdeamor
02 Prof. Pascion gave a failing grade to one of his students, Marquez. When the two met
the following day, Marquez slapped Prof. Pascion on the face. What was the crime
committed by Marquez?

A. Corruption of Public Officials

B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
03 Who is duly authorized by law to file Information in Court?

A. Police Officer C. any person in authority

B. Prosecutor D. All of the above
04 Which of the following does not result in a valid warrantless search?

A. Plain view search

B. Search as an incident to a lawful arrest
C. Search of a domicile
D. Search of a moving vehicle
05 What is the quantum of evidence required in a criminal proceeding?

A. Prima facie evidence

B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C. Substantial evidence
D. Probable cause
06 Which of the following circumstances may be appreciated as aggravating in the crime
of treason?

A. Cruelty and ignominy

B. Evident premeditation
C. Superior strength
D. Treachery
07 A foreigner residing in Hong Kong counterfeits a twenty-peso bill issued by the
Philippine Government. May the foreigner be prosecuted before a civil court in the
Philippines?

A. No. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable only within the
Philippine Archipelago.
B. No. The Philippine Criminal Law is binding only on persons who reside or
sojourn in the Philippines.

30
 C. No. Foreigners residing outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines are exempted
from the operation of the Philippine Criminal Law.
D. Yes. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable · also outside
the jurisdiction of the Philippines against those who should forge or counterfeit
currency notes of the Philippines or obligations and securities issued by the
Government of the Philippines.
08 What is the criminal liability, if any, of a private person who enters the dwelling of
another against the latter's will and by means of violence or intimidation for the
purpose of preventing some harm to himself?

A. The private person is criminally liable for qualified trespass to dwelling.

B. The private person is criminally liable for simple trespass to dwelling.
C. The private person incurs no criminal liability.
D. The private person is criminally liable for light threats.
09 Felonies are classified according to manner or mode of execution into felonies
committed by means of deceit (dolo) and by means of fault (culpa). Which of the
following causes may not give rise to culpable felonies?

A. Imprudence
B. Malice
C. Negligence
D. Lack of foresight
10 AB was driving a van along a highway. Because of her recklessness, the van hit a car
which had already entered the intersection. As a result, CD who was driving the car
suffered physical injuries, while damage to his car amounted to P8,500.00. What is
the proper charge against AB?

A. AB should be charged with the complex crime of reckless imprudence

resulting in damage to property with slight physical injuries.
B. AB should be charged with reckless imprudence resulting in slight physical
injuries and reckless imprudence resulting in damage to property.
C. AB should be charged with complex crime of slight physical injuries with
damage to property.
D. AB should be charged with slight physical injuries and reckless imprudence
resulting in damage to property.
11 With intent to kill, GGG burned the house where F and D were staying. F and D died
as a consequence. What is the proper charge against GGG?

A. GGG should be charged with two (2) counts of murder.

B. GGG should be charged with arson.
C. GGG should be charged with complex crime of arson with double murder.
D. GGG should be charged with complex crime of double murder.
12 A entered the house of B. Once inside the house of B, A took and seized personal
property by compulsion from B with the use of violence and force upon things,
believing himself to be the owner of the personal property so seized. What is the
criminal liability of A?

A. A is criminally liable for robbery with violence because he employed violence

in the taking of the personal property from B, robbery characterized by
violence being graver than ordinary robbery committed with force upon things.
B. A is criminally liable for robbery with force upon things in an inhabited house
because the act was committed in a house constituting the dwelling of one or
more persons.
C. A is criminally liable for grave coercion because the presumption of intent to
gain is rebutted.
D. A is criminally liable for qualified trespass to dwelling because he employed
violence.

31
13 At a wake, there were people watching a game of dice. With treachery and use of
unlicensed firearms, AA fired successively several gunshots at their direction. During
the shooting, four (4) persons were killed, and fourteen (14) others were injured and
brought to the hospital for the treatment of gunshot wounds. What should be the
proper charge against AA?

A. AA should be charged with multiple murder and attempted murder.

B. AA should be charged with four (4) counts of murder and fourteen (14) counts
of attempted murder.
C. AA should be charged with four (4) counts of murder, fourteen (14) counts of
serious physical injuries and illegal possession of firearms.
D. AA should be charged with complex crime of murder and attempted murder with
illegal possession of firearms.
14 C is the child of the spouses H and W. H sued his wife W for judicial declaration of
nullity of marriage under Article 36 of the Family Code. In the trial, the following
testified over the objection of W: C, H and D, a Doctor of Medicine who used to treat
W. Which of the following is correct?

A. H cannot testify against her because of the rule on marital privilege

B. C cannot testify against her because of the doctrine on parental privilege; and
C. D cannot testify against her because of the doctrine of privileged
communication between patient and physician.
D. All of the above
15 Which of the following is NOT an exception to the hearsay rule?

A. Dying declaration
B. Admission by copartners
C. Res gestae
D. Common reputation
16 In which instance is the opinion of a witness inadmissible?

A. Witness gives an expert testimony

B. Witness testifies on the identity of a person about whom he has adequate
knowledge
C. Witness testifies on the motive of the crime
D. None of the above
17 The rule that tenants are not permitted to deny the title of their landlords at the time of
the commencement of the landlord tenant relationship is an example of a:

A. Disputable presumption
B. Matter that need be proved
C. Conclusive presumption
D. Hearsay
18 Mr. X, a private individual, Gen. T, an army colonel, and MF, former DOTC secretary,
were charged in conspiracy for rigging government contracts to the detriment of
government. If we are to file a case for violation of RA3019, who can we charge?

A. Mr. X, Gen. T and MF

B. Gen T and MF only, since Mr. X is not a public officer
C. Gen T only, since Mr. X is not a public officer, while MF is no longer a public
officer
D. None of the above

19 Which of the following is not necessary in a complaint or information?

A. The name of the accused;
B. The designation of the offense given by the statute;
C. The exact date of the commission of the offense;
32
 D. The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense;
20 A filing fee is necessary if:

A. There is a prejudicial question

B. If moral damages are sought
C. If actual damages are sought
D. All of the above
21 A person who refuses to be fingerprinted during the booking process upon arrest,
may be charged with:

A. Direct assault
B. Disobedience to an agent of a person in authority
C. Violation of the law against obstruction of justice
D. None of the above
22 Operatives of the Optical Media Board carried a warrant to search for pirated video
discs allegedly being manufactured in a certain warehouse. During the search,
however, they also found 100 grams of shabu, two M-16 rifles, and a dildo. Which of
the following may they seize:

A. The discs, the shabu, the rifles and the dildo

B. The discs only, as these were the only items specified in the warrant
C. The discs and the shabu only
D. The discs, the shabu and the rifles only
23 The following are lawful warrantless search, EXCEPT:
A. Consented warrantless search
B. Customs search
C. Exigent and emergency circumstances
D. None of the above
24 Under Section 103 of the Philippine Mining Act of 1995, it shall be unlawful for any
person to:

A. Extract minerals without a mining agreement, lease, permit, license.

B. Extract minerals and dispose the same without a mining agreement,
lease, permit, license.
C. Extract mineral without a mining agreement and corresponding payment
therefor.
D. None of the above
25 On 02 January 2018, Serge de Guzman filed with the Department of Environment
and Natural Resources (DENR) an application to cut down 15 dead Benguet Pine
Trees in Baguio City to be used for the repairs of Teachers Camp. After inspecting
the trees to be cut, the DENR then issued a permit allowing the cutting of 15 dead
pine trees. Sometime in 14 February 2018, the Forest Ranger Malou Pit received
information that pine trees were being cut at Teachers Camp without proper authority.
When she proceeded to the site, she found Alack Dan, another forest ranger from
CENRO, supervising the cutting of trees. She also found out that the sawyers had cut
23 pine trees, out of which only 12 were covered by the permit. Alack Dan was then
charged for violation of Section 68 of PD 705, as amended. Will Alack Dan be held
liable for violation of Section 68 of PD 705?

A. Yes, because Alack Dan ordered the cutting, gathering, collecting or removing
of timber or other forest products from alienable or disposable public land,
without permit.
B. Yes, because Alack Dan was in possession of illegally cut pine trees.
C. No, because Alack Dan was merely charged by CENRO to supervise the
cutting of pine trees.
D. No, because there was a permit for the cutting of pine trees.

33
26 Under Republic Act No. 7586 or the National Integrated Protected Areas System Act
of 1992, it shall be unlawful for any person to commit the following acts within
protected areas, except:

A. using motorized equipment without permit from the barangay

B. dumping of any waste products detrimental to the protected area, or to the
plants and animals or inhabitants therein.
C. Squatting or occupying any part of the protected area
D. Conducting any business or enterprise without permit
27 Presidential Decree No. 1586 or the Environmental Impact Assessment Act requires
any person, partnership, or corporation to secure environmental compliance
certificate in the following projects/ areas, except:

A. Construction of major roads

B. Mangrove areas
C. Releasing of endemic animals in the forest
D. Rizal Park
28 Conspiracy to commit a felony is punishable only in cases where the law specifically
provides a penalty. Which of the following combinations contain specific felonies
under the Revised Penal Code?

A. Conspiracy to commit treason, conspiracy to commit rebellion, conspiracy to

commit coup d'etat, conspiracy to commit misprision of treason.
B. Conspiracy to commit rebellion, conspiracy to commit coup d'etat, conspiracy
to commit treason, conspiracy to commit sedition.
C. Conspiracy to commit rebellion or insurrection, conspiracy to commit sedition,
conspiracy to commit illegal assemblies, conspiracy to commit treason.
D. None of the above.
29 Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held liable for rape:

A. With the use of force or intimidation.

B. When the rape is committed by two or more persons.
C. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it m the mouth of the
victim.
D. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the victim's drink to enable her
husband to have intercourse with the victim.
30 The death of the accused extinguishes his criminal liability, but civil liability is not
extinguished.

A. when the death of the accused occurred before conviction

B. when the death of the accused occurred after conviction and after he has
perfected his appeal from conviction
C. when the death of the accused occurred during the pendency of his appeal
D. when the death of the accused occurred after final judgment
31 Under which of the following circumstances is an accused not liable for the result not
intended?

A. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is
mistake in the identity of the victim.
B. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is
mistake in the blow.
C. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when the wrongful
act is not the proximate cause of the resulting injury.
D. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is

34
 mistake of fact constituting an involuntary act.
32 Can there be a frustrated impossible crime?

A. Yes. When the crime is not produced by reason of the inherent impossibility of
its accomplishment, it is a frustrated impossible crime.
B. No. There can be no frustrated impossible crime because the means
employed to accomplish the crime is inadequate or ineffectual.
C. Yes. There can be a frustrated impossible crime when the act performed
would be an offense against persons.
D. No. There can be no frustrated impossible because the offender has already
performed the acts for the execution of the crime.
33 FF and his two (2) sons positioned themselves outside the house of the victim. The
two (2} sons stood by the stairs in front of the house, while the father waited at the
back. The victim jumped out of the window and was met by FF who instantly hacked
him. The two (2) sons joined hacking the victim to death. They voluntarily
surrendered to the police. How will the attendant circumstances be properly
appreciated?

A. Treachery and abuse of superior strength qualify the killing to murder.

B. Only treachery qualifies the killing to murder because abuse of superior
strength is absorbed by treachery.
C. Treachery is the qualifying aggravating circumstance, while abuse of superior
strength is treated as a generic aggravating circumstance.
D. The qualifying circumstance of treachery or abuse of superior strength can be
offset by the mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender.
34 When are light felonies punishable?

A. Light felonies are punishable in all stages of execution.

B. Light felonies are punishable only when consummated.
C. Light felonies are punishable only when consummated, with the exception of
those committed against persons or property.
D. Light felonies are punishable only when committed against persons or
property.
35 For treachery to qualify killing to murder, the evidence must show:

A. The time when the accused decided to employ treachery, the overt act
manifestly indicating that he clung to such determination, and a sufficient lapse
of time between the decision and the execution, allowing him to reflect upon
the consequence of his act.
B. Unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means to prevent or repel
the aggression, and lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the victim.
C. That the accused employed such means, methods or manner to ensure his
safety from the defensive or retaliatory acts of the victim, and the mode of
attack was consciously adopted.
D. Actual sudden physical assault or threat to inflict real imminent injury to an
unsuspecting victim.
36 What is the criminal liability, if any, of a pregnant woman who tried to commit suicide
by poison, but she did not die and the fetus in her womb was expelled instead?

A. The woman who tried to commit suicide is not criminally liable because the
suicide intended was not consummated.
B. The woman who tried to commit suicide is criminally liable for unintentional
abortion which is punishable when caused by violence.
C. The woman who tried to commit suicide is criminally liable for abortion that
resulted due to the poison that she had taken to commit suicide.

35
 D. The woman who tried to commit suicide occurs no criminal liability for the
result not intended.
37 The crime of theft committed by a person who, with intent to gain, takes a worthless
check belonging to another without the latter's consent.

A. Yes. All the elements of the crime of theft are present: that there be taking of
personal property; that the property belongs to another; and that the taking be
done with intent to gain and without the consent of the owner.
B. No. The taking of the worthless check, which has no value, would not amount
to the crime of theft because of the legal impossibility to commit the intended
crime.
C. Yes. Theft is committed even if the worthless check would be subsequently
dishonored because the taker had intent to gain from the check at the time of
the taking.
D. Yes. Theft is committed because the factual impossibility to gain from the
check was not known to the taker or beyond his control at the time of taking.
38 A killed M. After the killing, A went to the Barangay Chairman of the place of incident
to seek protection against the retaliation of M's relatives. May voluntary surrender be
appreciated as a mitigating circumstance in favor of A?

A. Yes. A surrendered to the Barangay Chairman who is a person in authority.

B. Yes. The surrender of A would save the authorities the trouble and expense
for his arrest.
C. No. A did not unconditionally submit himself to the authorities in. order to
acknowledge his participation in the killing or to save the authorities the trouble
and expenses necessary for his search and capture.
D. No. The surrender to the Barangay Chairman is not a surrender to the proper
authorities.
39 When is a crime deemed to have been committed by a band?

A. When armed men, at least four (4) in number, take direct part in the execution
of the act constituting the crime.
B. When three (3) armed men act together in the commission of the crime.
C. When there are four (4) armed persons, one of whom is a principal by
inducement.
D. When there are four (4) malefactors, one of whom is armed.
40 Out of spite and simply intending to put Gina to shame for breaking off with him,
Ritchie emptied a gallon of motor oil on the school's stairway where Gina usually
passed. Gina, unaware of what Ritchie did, used the slippery stairway and slipped,
hitting her head on the stairs. Gina died from brain hemorrhage. What crime did
Ritchie commit? (1%)

A. Murder
B. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
C. Homicide
D. Impossible crime of homicide
41 Amelia, a famous actress, bought the penthouse unit of a posh condominium building
in Taguig City. Every night, Amelia would swim naked in the private, but open air,
pool of her penthouse unit. It must have been obvious to Amelia that she could be
seen from nearby buildings. In fact, some residents occupying the higher floors of the
nearby residential buildings did indeed entertain themselves and their friends by
watching her swim in the nude from their windows. What crime did Amelia commit?

A. Alarms and scandals because her act of sw1mmmg naked disturbs the public
tranquility.

36
 B. Grave scandal because she committed highly scandalous acts that are
offensive to decency or good customs.
C. Immoral doctrines, obscene publications and exhibitions, and indecent shows
under Article 201 of the Revised Penal Code, because her act of swimming
naked is akin to an indecent live show
D. Amelia did not commit any crime because the swimming pool is
located in her private home.
42 After drinking a bottle of Jack Daniels, Jonjon drove his BMW sports car at high
speed, rammed into a group of crossing pedestrians, and hit a traffic light post. The
incident caused the death of one (1) pedestrian, serious injuries to three (3) others,
and the destruction of the traffic light post. If you were the prosecutor, what would you
charge Jonjon?

A. Homicide with serious physical injuries through simple negligence.

B. Damage to property, serious physical injuries, and homicide through reckless
negligence.
C. Simple negligence resulting in damage to property, serious physical injuries,
and homicide.
D. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide, serious physical injuries and
damage to property.
43 Using his charms because of his movie star looks, Phil, in a movie date with Lyn, a
19-year old colegiala, kissed her on the cheek and stroked her pubic hair. Lyn
shouted for help and Phil was arrested. Phil is liable for __________.

A. rape by sexual assault for using his fingers

B. violation of the Anti-Child Abuse Law for lascivious conduct
C. acts of lasciviousness
D. unjust vexation
44 From an extension line, Ricardo overheard a telephone conversation between Julito
and Atty. Hipolito. The latter (Atty. Hipolito) was asking money from Julito in
exchange for dropping the extortion charge filed against Julito. Ricardo was charged
of violating the Anti-Wire Tapping Act or R.A. 4200. Under these facts, was there a
violation as charged?

A. Yes, because the conversation was private in nature.

B. Yes, because the conversation was overheard without the consent of the
parties, Julito and Atty. Hipolito.
C. No, because what is punishable is intentional listening to a conversation
through a wire.
D. No, because a telephone extension line is not the device or arrangement
contemplated by the law and the use of an extension line cannot be
considered as wire tapping.
45 If Rod killed Irene, his illegitimate daughter, after taking her diamond earrings and
forcing her to have sex with him, what crime/s should Rod be charged with?
A. Robbery and rape with parricide.
B. Rape with homicide
C. Rape with homicide and theft
D. Robbery, rape and parricide
46 The guard was entrusted with the conveyance or custody of a detention prisoner who
escaped through his negligence. What is the criminal liability of the escaping
prisoner?

A. The escaping prisoner does not incur criminal liability.

37
 B. The escaping prisoner is liable for evasion through negligence.
C. The escaping prisoner is liable for conniving with or consenting to, evasion.
D. The escaping prisoner is liable for evasion of service of sentence.
47 A jailer inflicted injury on the prisoner because of his personal grudge against the
latter. The injury caused illness of the prisoner for more than thirty (30) days. What is
the proper charge against the jailer?

A. The jailer should be charged with maltreatment of prisoner and serious

physical injuries.
B. The jailer should be charged with serious physical injuries only.
C. The jailer should be charged with complex crime of maltreatment of prisoner
with serious physical injuries.
D. The jailer should be charged with maltreatment of prisoner only.
48 Character evidence is admissible __________.

A. in criminal cases – the accused may prove his good moral character if
pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged
B. in criminal cases – the prosecution may prove the bad moral character of the
accused to prove his criminal predisposition
C. in criminal cases under certain situations, but not to prove the bad moral
character of the offended party
D. when it is evidence of the good character of a witness even prior to his
impeachment as witness
49 X was shot by Y in the course of a robbery. On the brink of death, X told W, a
barangay tanod, that it was Y who shot and held him up. In the trial for robbery with
homicide, X's declaration can be admitted only as a dying declaration:

A. to prove robbery
B. to prove homicide
C. to prove robbery and homicide
D. to prove the "corpus delicti”
50 Under the Rules of Electronic Evidence, "ephemeral electronic conversation" refers to
the following, except:

A. text messages
B. telephone conversations
C. faxed document
D. online chatroom sessions

PLEASE SUBMIT TO THE EXAM ADMINISTRATOR / FACILITATOR AFTERWARDS. THANK YOU

& GOOD LUCK

3rd modular exam set a

38
No. QUESTIONNAIRE:
01 Following are authorized to conduct Preliminary Investigation, except?
A. Judges of the Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
B. National and Regional State Prosecutors
C. Assistant Regional State Prosecutor
D. None of the above

02 When a municipal judge conducts Preliminary Investigation. It merely binds the suspect
to stand trial. It is not a pronouncement of guilt. But, he may issue warrant of arrest
before the conclusion of PI if:
A. There is a no necessity of placing respondent under immediate custody.
B. He finds that probable cause exists
C. There is a prima facie evidence against the accused.
D. A and B

03 Criminal action be instituted, by?

A. By filing the complaint with the proper office for the purpose of conducting the
requisite preliminary investigation.
B. by filing the complaint or information directly with the MTC and MCTC or the
complaint with the office of the prosecutor.
C. A and B
D. None of the Above

04 All criminal actions shall be prosecuted by?

A. Private prosecutor C. PAO lawyer
B. Public prosecutor D. A and B

05 Refers to set of rules purposely to safeguard against the indiscriminate application of

criminal and special penal laws. It is a procedural law which govern the process on how
a legal case flows, including steps to process a case.
A. Criminal Procedure C. Rules of Court
B. Revised on Rules of Evidence D. None of the Above

06 It is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged.
A. Promulgation C. Judgement
B. Verdict D. Decision

07 When a bail is a matter of right, except?

A. Prosecution does not have the right to oppose or to present evidence for its
denial
B. Before or after conviction by the RTC
C. Before conviction, for all offenses punishable by lower than reclusion perpetua
D. Before or after conviction by the MTC

08 Following are the reason why criminal commit an offense except?

A. Physical, sexual or emotional abuse or neglect C. Death of a parent
B. Poverty D. Separated or divorce

39
09 Judicial affidavit shall contain the following, except:
A. A statement that the witness is answering the questions asked of him, fully
conscious that he does so under oath
B. Signature of the Judge
C. Attestation of the lawyer
D. Questions asked of the witness and his corresponding answers, consecutively
numbered

10 Other cases where warrantless searches and seizures are valid.

A. Moving vehicles
B. Consented search without a warrant
C. When search is based on probable cause under extraordinary circumstances
D. All of the Above

11 It is refers to an assessment or written or oral facts that are stated under oath, an
affidavit for example.
A. Complaint C. Counter Affidavit
B. Information D. Sworn Statement

12 Who is/are the PNP Units must submit their UCPER with corresponding Analysis,
Interpretation, and Complete Analysis?
A. CPS/MPS C. Directorate
B. Sub-Station of MPS D. All of the above

13 It is a response produced by the body when a person is subjected to different types of

demand, whether physical, mental, or emotional.
A. Crisis C. Stress Management
B. Stressor D. None of the Above

14 The execution of a suspect’s _____ as stipulated in Art 125 of the RPC shall always be
done in the presence of his chosen counsel or any independent .counsel.
A. Statement C. Alibi
B. Waiver D. Rights

15 Following are the stages of Stages in Criminal Case Investigation, except.

A. Case Conference C. Case Progress
B. Case Presentation D. Case Tracking

16 UCPER means?
A. Unit Calendar Periodic Report
B. Unit Criminality Performance Record
C. Unit Criminality Periodic Record
D. Unit Crime Periodic Report

17 Following are the type/s of Case Review, namely:

A. Informal (“Golden Hour”) Review
B. Self-inspection
C. Concluding Reviews
D. All of the Above

40
18 Principal Aims of Case Review
A. To identify the problem arises during Investigation
B. To identify, develop and disseminate good investigative practice
C. A and B
D. None of the above

19 Following are the content of Investigation Report except?

A. Facts of the Case C. Conclusion
B. Discussion D. Signature of the Witness

20 Directly addressed to the senses of the court and consists of tangible things.
A. Testimonial C. Competent
B. Material D. Object

21 Refers to matter incidental to the main fact and explanatory of it, including the acts and
words which are so closely connected therewith as to constitute a part of the
transaction, and without knowledge of which, the main fact might not be properly
understood.
A. Circumstantial Evidence C. Res gestae
B. Relevant D. Personal Knowledge

22 It is an act, declaration or omission of a party as to relevant fact may be given in

evidence against him.
A. Confession C. Admission
B. Extra Judicial Confession D. Plea Bargaining

23 It is a person who can perceive, and perceiving can make known their perception to
others, may be _________.
A. State Witness C. Witness
B. Individual D. Eyewitness

24 In criminal cases, the prosecution has ________________not only the commission of

the crime but likewise to establish, with the same quantum of proof, the identity of the
person or persons responsible therefor.
A. Quantum of Proof C. Burden of proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Burden of Proof D. Preponderance of Evidence

25 Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction if:

A. There are more than FOUR circumstances
B. There are more than THREE circumstances
C. There are more than TWO circumstances
D. There is more than one circumstance

26 The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects
against unreasonable searches and seizures of whatever nature and for any purpose
shall be inviolable, is what article under Bill of Rights, Philippine Constitution?
A. Sec. 3 Art. II C. Sec. 2 Art III
B. Sec. 3 Art. III D. Sec 2 Art II

41
27 It is a summon with the force of a court order, addressed to the custodian demanding
that a prisoner be taken before the court
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus C. Writ of Habeas Data
B. Writ of Amparo D. Writ of Kalikasan

28 It is a remedy available to any person whose right to privacy in life, liberty or security is
violated or threatened by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee, or
of a private individual or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or storing of data or
information regarding the person, family, home and correspondence of the aggrieved
party.
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus C. Writ of Habeas Data
B. Writ of Amparo D. Writ of Kalikasan

29 The interrogation of the witness upon a trial hearing, or taking a deposition, by the party
opposed to the one who produced, upon his evidence given in chief, to test its truth, to
further develop it.
A. Court Examination C. Examination
B. Cross Examination D. Re-cross Examination

30 What Windows Command is used by Investigators to unmask the IP Address of an

email or domain?
A. CACHE C. WHOIS Service
B. TRACERT Command D. PING Command
31-35 INDENTIFICATIONS: Write the correct answer on the space provided for in the
answer sheet.
31 The number of crime incidents in a given period of time for every 100,000 inhabitants
of an area.

CRIME RATE

32 Refers to construction of a psychological, behavioral and demographic profile of a

person who is likely to have committed a crime and it is usually applied to serial crimes.

CRIMINAL PROFILING

33 It refers to proper conduct in court like proper attire, courteous language, obedience to
court proceedings and due observance with the same with utmost care while in the
court room.

COURT DEMEANOR

34 Investigation e-programs include E-CIRS/e-Blotter, E-Rouges Gallery System, E-

WPIS/e-Warrant and _____________.

E-SUBPOENA

35 As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove any object until the evidence has been
processed through notes, sketches, ________ and proper measurements.

42
 PHOTOGRAPHS

36-40 MOHR Type. Write the letter corresponding to the correct answer:

M – if only statement A is true

O – if only statement B is true
H – if statements A and B are true
R – if statements A and B are false
36 A. In the majority of instances ,uniformed patrol officers will be sent to the
scene to conduct preliminary investigation.
B. The goal of the first responders is to control, contain and secure the crime
scene so evidence can be properly documented, collected and
preserved.

R
37 A. Proceed to the scene promptly is one of the six tasks of a first responder.
B. Locate and identify witnesses.

M
38 A, Inner perimeter is designated for crime scene investigators only.
B. Outer perimeter is designated for command post, support staff and
security personnel.

R
39 A. Documentation, collection and preservation of all e4vidence is part of
crime scene processing.
B. Reconstruct events that occurred based on evidence is part of crime
scene investigation.

M
40 A. Initial responsibility is follow-up duties of the investigator at the crime
scene.
B. Conduct briefing by first responder is also one of the duties of
investigators at the crime scene.

H
41-50 ENUMERATION
41-44 Give Four (4) Key Players of Criminal Investigation
FIRST RESPONDER
INVESTIGATOR ON CASE
SOCO TEAM
CASE MANAGER

45-48 Give Four (4) Types of Sketches

Location sketch/Neighborhood sketch

Floorplan or Bird’s eyeview sketch
Exploded sketch
Elevation

43
49-50 Give atleast Two (2) Tools of an Investigator in Investigation
INTERVIEW
INFORMATION
INSTRUMENTATION

PLEASE SUBMIT TO THE EXAM ADMINISTRATOR / FACILITATOR AFTERWARDS.

THANK YOU & GOOD LUCK!!

3rd modular exam set B

No QUESTIONNAIRE
01 Refers to matter incidental to the main fact and explanatory of it, including the acts
and words which are so closely connected therewith as to constitute a part of the
transaction, and without knowledge of which, the main fact might not be properly
44
 understood.
A. Circumstantial Evidence C. Res gestae
B. Relevant D. Dying Declaration

02 In criminal cases, the prosecution has ________________not only the commission of

the crime but likewise to establish, with the same quantum of proof, the identity of the
person or persons responsible therefor.
A. Quantum of Proof C. Burden of proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Burden of Proof D. Preponderance of Evidence

03 Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction if:

A. There are more than FOUR circumstances
B. There are more than THREE circumstances
C. There are more than TWO circumstances
D. There is more than one circumstance
04 The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects
against unreasonable searches and seizures of whatever nature and for any purpose
shall be inviolable, is what article under Bill of Rights, Philippine Constitution?
A. Sec. 3 Art. II C. Sec. 2 Art III
B. Sec. 3 Art. III D. Sec 2 Art II

05 It is a summon with the force of a court order, addressed to the custodian demanding
that a prisoner be taken before the court
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus C. Writ of Habeas Data
B. Writ of Amparo D. Writ of Kalikasan

06 The interrogation of the witness upon a trial hearing, or taking a deposition, by the
party opposed to the one who produced him, upon his evidence given in chief, to test
its truth, to further develop it.
A. Court Examination C. Examination
B. Cross Examination D. Re-cross Examination
07 It is a person who can perceive, and perceiving can make known their perception to
others, may be _________.
A. State Witness C. Witness
B. Individual D. Eyewitness

08 Provide an overview of a long-term investigation in order to aid decision-making with

respect to whether all operational resources should be removed from the
investigation.
A The 28-Day Progress C. Case Development Reviews (Cold Case
. Review Review)
B Detected Case Reviews D. Concluding Reviews
.
09 A review on a sample of their solved cases in an effort to identify good practices and
thereby learn from their past successes.
A. Concluding Reviews C Thematic Reviews
.
B. Case Development Reviews (Cold Case D Detected Case Reviews
Review) .
10 Principal Aims of Case Review
A. To identify the problem arises during Investigation
B. To identify, develop and disseminate good investigative practice
C. A and B
D. None of the above
11 What form that CIRAS produced?

45
 A Information Report Format C. Incident Report Form
.
B Incident Record Form D. National Crime Report System Form
.
12 What Memorandum Circular authorizing the implementation of CIRS?
A. MC 2014-006 C. MC 2014-009
B. MC 2014-008 D. MC 2014-010
13 What kind of documents should be encoded and uploaded in CIDMS?
A. Case Incidents C. Crime
Folder
B. Crime Incidents D. Case Folder
14 What system named as the investigator’s digital notebook?
A. Crime Information, Database Manager System
B. Case Investigation Database Management System
C. Crime Information Database Management System
D. Case Information Database Management System
15 It is refers to an assessment or written or oral facts that are stated under oath, an
affidavit for example.
A. Complaint C. Counter Affidavit
B. Information D. Sworn Statement

16 What kind of information does e-WPIS/e-Warrant produced?

A. Arrested Person without Warrant of
Arrest
B. Arrested Person with Warrant of Arrest
C. Warrant of Arrest Issued by the courts
D. All of the above
17 Who is/are the PNP Unit/s must submit their UCPER with corresponding Analysis,
Interpretation, and Complete Analysis?
A. CPS/MPS C. Directorate
B. Sub-Station of MPS D. All of the above

18 Judicial affidavit shall contain the following, except:

A. A statement that the witness is answering the questions asked of him, fully
conscious that he does so under oath
B. Signature of the Judge
C. Attestation of the lawyer
D. Questions asked of the witness and his corresponding answers, consecutively
numbered

19 UCPER means?
A. Unit Calendar Periodic Report
B. Unit Criminality Performance Record
C. Unit Criminality Periodic Record
D. Unit Crime Periodic Report

20 Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the

physical sciences in detecting crime.
A. Information C. Interview
B. Instrumentation D. None of the above

21 When a bail is a matter of right, except?

A. Prosecution does not have the right to oppose or to present evidence for its
denial

46
 B. Before or after conviction by the RTC
C. Before conviction, for all offenses punishable by lower than reclusion perpetua
D. Before or after conviction by the MTC

22 A Crime which occur with sufficient frequency and regularity that can serve as an
indicator of the crime situation.

A. Crime Volume C. Crime Rate

B. Cleared Case D. Index Crime
23 Who are those who may as part of their day-to-day duties come into contact with
trafficking cases like the local police, officers assigned with investigation units of the
Philippine National Police, the Women and Children Desk Officers and other law
enforcement officers such as the officers from the National Bureau of investigation.
A. Beat Patrollers C. Backup Law Enforcement Officers
B. Investigators D. Frontline law Enforcement Officers

24 Investigator’s tickler contains the following, EXCEPT:

A. Police Line C. investigator’s checklist
B. Anatomical diagram form D. Evidence checklist and Turn-over
receipt

25 Among the observed weaknesses in investigative response are the following,

EXCEPT:

A. Crime scene processing was not undertaken

B. Non-observance of the required angles of photographs to be taken on
the crime scene
C. Photographs of suspect/s were not shown to other potential
witness/es or identification
D.None of the above

TRUE OR FALSE: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and write FALSE if the
statement is wrong:
26 Criminal Profiling is most effectual in cases where an unknown perpetrator has
displayed indications of psycho-pathology.

TRUE
27 All stresses are caused by external pressures and demands.

FALSE

28 Criminal Profiling is a tool for conviction.

FALSE
29 Informal “Golden Hour” Review is conducted at the early stage of the investigation
usually around day seven (7) to ensure that the actions performed in the initial
stages of the investigation have been conducted properly and appropriately.

30 Investigative phase assess potential for escalation in crime seriousness &

frequency.

47
31 CHICKEN FEATHER (2 pts each ) INTRO TO CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
40
Instruction: Choose from the first column the item does not belong to the group and
cluster the rest of the items from the first column that identifies/belong to the opposite
column. There are two answers for each corresponding number the letter opposite
the number.
Example:

_D-1__ A. Carrot 1. Vegetable

B. Cabbage 2. Fruits
C. Egg Plant 3. Soil
D. Apple 4. Grass

31-
32. A. Incomplete Case Folder 1. Common investigation
B. Failure to prosecute oversights
C. Record time it was 2. General Investigative Procedure
reported 3. Protocols in Investigation
D. Chain of Custody
33-
34. A. What specific offense has been 1 Six (6) cardinal points of
committed Committed
B. B. How the offense was committed 2. Key players in Criminal
C. When it was committed Investigation
D. Do not be over confident 3. Tools of an Investigator
4. Protocols in Investigation
35-
36. A. Information 1. 1. Cardinal points in investigation
B. Interview 2. 2. Protocols in investigation
C. Instrumentation 3. Key Players in investigation
B. Interrogation 4. Tools of an investigator

37-
38. A. Photographs 1. Protocols in investigation
B. Sketching 2. Methods in Recording
C. Laboratory 3. Tools of an Investigators
Examination 4. Key Players in Criminal Investigation
D. Written Notes

39-
40. A. To identify the criminal 1. Protocols in investigation
B. To locate the guilty party 2.Three fold aims of investigation
C. To provide evidence of his guilt 3.Tools of an investigator
D. The complaint must charge 4.Golden Hour
an
Offense

41-50 ENUMERATION:

41-44. Give at least four (4) members composing the Post Blast Investigation Team

First responders
EOD/Bomb technicians
Investigators
SOCO personnel/Forensic experts
48
 45-46 Give atleast Two (2) Tools of an Investigator in Investigation

INTERVIEW
INFORMATION
INSTRUMENTATION

47-50 Give Four (4) Key Players of Criminal Investigation

FIRST RESPONDER
INVESTIGATOR ON CASE
SOCO TEAM
CASE MANAGER

PLEASE SUBMIT TO THE EXAM ADMINISTRATOR / FACILITATOR AFTERWARDS.

THANK YOU & GOOD LUCK!

3 MODULAR
RD

1. Panchromatic film is synonymous to ____ film. BLACK AND WHITE C

2. It is a place where a crime was perpetrated and physical evidence was found. CRIME
SCENE
3. The most common cause of blurred photographs is camera shake. Camera shake is
caused by ______. BODY MOVEMENT
4. A cellulose state imbedded with sensitize solution capable of occuring images through
light. FILM A
5. Derived from the word forum which means place for legal debate. FORENSIC B
6. The first to a type-face printing that is heavier on one side than the remainder of its
outline. OFF ITS FIT A
7. A type of face impression ordinarily spaced ten characters to a horizontal inch.
PEACOCK B
8. The overall character of an ink lies from the beginning of the ending strokes. The
visible cord of the written strokes of the movement and the manner of holding the
writing instruments is characterized by. CONNECTING STROKES B
9. These are the normal or usual deviation found between repeated specimen of any
individual handwriting. SHADING C
10. The flowing succession of motion which is recorded as harmonious recurrence of
stress and impulse motion. TREMOR B
11. Why is DNA evidence useful in criminal investigation? ALL OF THE ABOVE E
12. Most bacteria will eat up DNA and will result of ____ of the evidence. DEGRADATION
A
13. ABO Bloodtyping is more a more powerful tool in determining the biological
relationship of two individuals than DNA analysis. FALSE B
14. DNA is unique except. IDENTICAL TWINS C
15. This is a physiological derasement due to the that results in the mechanical of death.
HEMORRAGE A
16. This is how the cause of death came about homicide. MANNER OF DEATH C
17. The following can be caused to estimate the time of death. RIGOR MORTIS A
18. A medicolegal examination to determine the manner, mechanism and time of death.
AUTOPSY A
19. In the majority of instances, uniformed patrol officers with be sent to the scene to
conduct the preliminary investigation. The goal of first responders in the control,
contain, and secure the crime so the evidence can be collected. STATEMENTS A
AND B ARE TRUE

49
 4th modular exam set A

No. QUESTIONNAIRE:
01 It deals with the study of notion of photography, its application to law enforcement
work and the preparation of photographs for court presentation.
A. Forensic Photography C. Macro Photography
B. Infra-Red Photography D. None of the above

02 Under Victims Rights and Assistance, what is the referral form that can be used to
engage victim support services?
A. Referral for availability of social worker (DSWD)
B. Referral for Private Physician
C. Referral for Lawyer
D. None of the above

03 Following are the elements of Photography, except:

A. Light C. Camera
B. Subject D. Photograph

04 As to the Victim Identification, following are the process, except for.

A. Pre-interview indicators C. Invitation of Victim
B. Conduct interview D. Corroboration

05 Under Special Procedures for Child Victims, Investigators should ensure that :
A. If there is doubt about the age of a person, he/she is presumed to be a child
B. If there are any grounds to suspect that a child is a victim of trafficking, then

50
 this is presumed to be the case.
C. Presence of a guardian, parent, legal counsel during interview by a trained
Women and Children Protection Desk (WCPD) Officer.
D. All of the Above

06 It is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full length, half body, right
and left side views, and two quarter views. To unidentified cadavers, include marks
on the victim’s body especially tattoo/scar for identification.
A. Mug-shot C. Infra-Red Photography
B. Micro Photography D. Forensic Photography

07 Information concerning suspected trafficking cases may be brought to the attention of

front line law enforcement officials in ____ main ways:
A. Two C. Four
B. Three D. Five

08 Refers to the screening of evidence for body fluids..

A. Presumptive Testing C. Serology analysis
B. Confirmatory Testing D. DNA analysis

09 Which of the following defines the term fingerprint as an IMPRESSION?

A. It is the reproduction on some smooth surfaces of the pattern or design formed
by the ridges on the inside of the end joint of the fingers or thumb, through the
medium of ink or any coloring substance capable of producing visibility.
B. It is the identification of person by means of the ridges appearing on the
fingers, on the palms and on the soles of the feet.
C. That fingerprints do not change in its ridge characteristics throughout the life
time of an individual and they persist after death until the skin is decomposed.
D. None of the above
10 Which of the following is NOT included in the important points to be considered in
taking legible fingerprints?
A. Proper distribution of ink on the glass slab or inking plate.
B. The advice of the operator to the subject is to relax and never aid in the
operation.
C. The thumbs should be rolled towards the center of the subject’s body and all
other fingers away from the subject’s body.
D. None of the above
11 A number that is impressed intensely using electrical or Mechanical gadget.
A. Serial number C. Embossed number
B. Engraved number D. Mobile Number

12 What principle states that the fingerprints do not change in its ridge characteristics of
fingerprint pattern throughout the life time of an individual and they persist after death
until the skin is decomposed.
A. Principle of Individuality C. Principle of Judiciary
B. Principle of Infallibility D. Principle of Permanency
13 Those markings usually rather indistinct, left by the oily matters or perspiration
exuded from the finger tips or palms upon any substance which the fingers/palms
may have touched.
A. Latent Prints C. Foot Prints
B. Dactyloscopy D. Fingerprints
14 The DNA database that the PNP is currently using is known as:

51
 A. Combined DNA Index System (CODIS)
B. Integrated Ballistics Index System (IBIS)
C. Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS)
D. Philippine DNA Index System (PDIS)
15 It is an instrument attached to the surface of the hand, or to the fingers of the hand
which measures the difference in the electrical resistance of the skin as the question
sweats under pressure.
A. Galvanograph C. Polygraph
B. Pneumograph D. Sphymograph
16 The following are the different forms of LYING, EXCEPT :
A. Deception C. Bluffing
B. Perjury D. Integrity
17 This is how the cause of death came about e.g. Homicide.
A. Mechanism of death C. Manner of death
B. Cause of death D. Types of Death
18 A medico-legal examination to determine the presence of human blood, type and
characteristics and other body fluids.
A. Autopsy C. Serological examination
B. Genital examination D. Odontological examination
19 Within how many days should paraffin test be conducted?
A. Three days C. Four days
B. Five days D. Six days
20 This is the disease or injury that produces the physiological disruption in the body
resulting in the death of the individual e.g. gunshot wound to the chest.
A. Mechanism of death C. Manner of death
B. Cause of death D. Types of death
21 It is defined as comprehensive inquiry of a crime incident by conducting systematic
procedure of various investigative methodologies which involves recovery of physical
and testimonial evidence for the purpose of identifying the witnesses, and arrest of
perpetrator(s) for prosecution.
A. Crime Investigation C. Crime Scene Investigation
B. Arson Investigation D. Investigation

22 A method of chemical restoration where the chemical reagents vary according to the
type of metal from which the number has been obliterated.
A. Macro-Etching C. Stripsol
B. Micro-Etching D. Chemical Process
23 A number that is raised from the surface or produced a raised design, pattern or
lettering on a plain surface, e.g. metal.
A. Serial Number C. Embossed Number
B. Engraved Number D. Lifted Number
24 The gunshot wound is considered as a point of exit when:
A. There is smudging
B. The tissues surrounding the wound are everted
C. There is tattooing
D. There is an abrasion
25 Is the examination which determines the point of impact, position of the muzzle and
the probable caliber of the firearm used.
A. Cross matching examination
B. Bullet trajectory examination
C. Bullet examination
D. Caliber examination
26 Considered as contact fire.
52
 A. Presence of muzzle imprint C. Tattooing
B. Graze D. Smudging
27 A writing which the person has made a deliberate attempt to remove or modify all or
some of his normal writing habits.
A. Natural writing C. Guided writing
B. Disguised writing D. Standard writing
28 Refers to the writer’s proficiency in the art of writing.
A. Slant C. Skill
B. Alignment D. Habit
29 No apparent attempt at simulation or imitation.
A. Simple forgery C. Simulated forgery
B. Traced forgery D. Forgery
30 The application of ultraviolet light in the material to be investigated.
A. Ultraviolet powder examination C. Ultraviolet investigation
B. Ultraviolet entrapment operation D. Ultraviolet powder dusting
31 Defacement, mutilation, tearing, burning or destruction of Central Bank notes and
coins.
A. E.O. 35 C. B.P. 344
B. A.O. 22 D. P.D. 247
32 The following statements are true regarding the role of the investigator in the crime
scene, EXCEPT:
A. The investigator shall be present during the entire crime scene processing
B. The main source of information of the SOCO Team prior to crime scene
processing is the investigator
C. During the crime scene processing, the investigator may leave the scene when
a suspect needs to be interrogated
D. The investigator must be knowledgeable regarding the progress of crime scene
processing at all times
33 The following are the protocols of a crime scene, EXCEPT:
A. Interview C. Photograph, Sketch, Process
B. Examine D. Prosecute
34 The chain of custody is a document characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
A. The first man in the chain of custody is the collector
B. The date and time are accurately indicated for each transfer of custody
C. The chain of custody stops with the examiner
D. The document moves together with the evidence
35 What are the types of crime scene according to the source of evidence?
A. Indoor and outdoor crime scene
B. Day time and night time
C. Special locations, such as: vehicles, vessels, air planes, septic tanks, etc.
D. Primary and Secondary
36-40 TRUE OR FALSE. Write True if the statement is correct and False if the statement
is wrong.
36 Macro Photography is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full
length, half body, right and left side views, and two quarter views. To unidentified
cadavers, include marks on the victim’s body especially tattoo/scar for identification.

37 Use is any act of injecting, intravenously or consuming either by chewing, smoking,

sniffing, eating, swallowing or drinking.
38 Dactylography is the identification of person by means of the ridges appearing on the
fingers, on the palms and on the soles of the feet.
39 Galvanograph is a scientific instrument especially designed to record psycho-
physiological changes in the body.

53
40 Final Search is one of the most intrusive stages of all searches where the searchers
proceed to the concealed physical evidence and most difficult or hardly accessible
areas, i.e. ceilings, drawers, lockers or under carpets.
41-42 Give Two (2) Types of Fingerprint Identification

43-45 Give Three (3) Components of CSI

46-50 Give Five (5) Elements of Photography

Camera, Sensitue

4th modular exam set B

No. QUESTIONNAIRE
01 Women and Children Protect Center was created through PNP Memorandum
Circular No. 2001-002 dated January 16, 2001.
A. True C. Partly Agree
B. False D. Disagree

02 AFP/NBI/PCG EOD will provide the PNP and NBI with Technical Evaluation
Report or Post Blast Investigation and other reports. _______ personnel should
not be included as court witnesses unless otherwise compelled by court.
A. BFP C. BJMP
B. AFP D. NBI

03 Explosives that when subjected to heat, shock or friction will deflagrate rather than
detonate at a speed of 5,000 feet per second or less.

A. High Explosives C. Low Explosives

B. Explosives D. Improvised Explosive Device

04 Is a mandatory “file search” of laptops of departing passengers at airports

(activation of laptops and the random opening of any of its files) reasonable?

A. Yes. The search is just pro forma and there is reduced expectation of
privacy in airports.
B. No. Search without probable cause violates the passengers’ right to
privacy.
C. Yes. The Government’s interest in monitoring cases of violation of anti-
54
 piracy and pornographic laws is paramount over the passengers’ right to
privacy.
D. No. The Government’s interest in instituting screening measures in
transportation hubs such as airports and terminals relates to passenger
safety only.

05 Police Officers A, B, C, D & E implemented a valid search warrant in the house of

X who was then out of the country. The 5 Police Officers found the 13-year old
son of X and the family cook so they decided to invite the Barangay Chairman and
the President of the Homeowner’s Association to witness the implementation of
the search warrant. What felony, if any, did the Police Officers commit?
A. Illegal Search & Seizure C. Abuse of Authority
B. Violation of Domicile D. Searching Domicile without Witnesses

06 A person who cordon the area to preserve and secure crime scene. Cause the
immediate evacuation of the injured, maintain order, and control the crowd.
A. Investigator C. Patrol Officer
B. SOCO D. First Responder

07 Three standard method of crimes scene investigation, except:

A. Photography C. Note taking
B. Crime Scene Sketch D. Measurement

08 The duty of the prosecution to present evidence to prove the guilt of an accused.
A. Burden of proof C. Bill of particulars
B. Burden of evidence D. Presentation of evidence
09 The MTC shall exercise exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable
with imprisonment –
A. Not exceeding 6 years C. Not exceeding 4 years
B. Not exceeding 4 years & 2 months D. Not exceeding 6 months
10 Refers to the screening of evidence for body fluids..
A. Presumptive Testing C. Serology analysis
B. Confirmatory Testing D. DNA analysis

11 A number that is impressed intensely using electrical or Mechanical gadget.

A. Serial number C. Embossed number
B. Engraved number D. Mobile Number

12 All except one, of the following is hearsay:

A. An affidavit of a witness to the execution of a document who was not
presented as a witness in the trial.
B. The testimony of the building owner founded on the record prepared
according to the verbal statements of his employees.
C. The testimony of a complainant regarding text messages he received from
the accused.
D. The testimony of a Police Inspector that he received information that there
were several gambling houses in a town, among them the suspect’s house.

13 X was charged of Robbery with Rape. X subsequently testified on direct

examination. On what matters may the prosecution cross-examine X?
A. Matters involving the alleged rape.
B. Matters only touched by X on direct examination.
C. Matters involving X and other relevant matters.
D. All of the above.
14 Evidence to be credible must

55
 A. come from credible lips alone
B. be credible in itself
C. come from credible lips and must be credible in itself
D. come from a child
15 A police officer testified in court on direct examination. Subsequently, he refused,
without justifiable reason, to be cross-examined. The remedy of the counsel for
the accused is to Motion the Judge to arrest the police officer so he can be cross-
examined.
A. Correct C. Partly correct
B. Wrong D. Partly wrong
16 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. An extrajudicial confession is disputably presumed valid.
B. An extrajudicial confession is evidence.
C. Both of the above (a & b)
D. None of the above (a & b)
17 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Evidence admitted has probative value.
B. Evidence not admitted has no probative value.
C. Evidence admitted has no probative value.
D. Evidence admitted may or may not have probative value.
18 Generally refers to the detection and destruction of plantations of marijuana,
opium poppy, coca bush and other plants which source of dangerous drugs,
including the identification, arrest and prosecution of the planter, owner or
cultivator, and the escheating of the land where the plantations are located.

A. Transportation C. Eradication
B. Interdiction D. None of the above
19 Any act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to another, personally or
otherwise, and by any means, with or without consideration.

A. Transportation C. Eradication
B. Interdiction D. None of the above
20 What is the most commonly abused illegal drugs in the Philippines?

A. Shabu C. Ecstasy
B. Marijuana D. Solvent

21 It deals with the study of notion of photography, its application to law enforcement
work and the preparation of photographs for court presentation.
A. Forensic Photography C. Police Photography
B. Infra-Red Photography D. None of the above

22 It is otherwise known as the Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972?

A. RA 8551 C. RA 6425
B. RA 9165 D. RA 8552
23 Trafficking in Person is a violation of _______.

A. Human rights C. Child rights

B. Women rights D. All of the Above

56
24 It is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full length, half body,
right and left side views, and two quarter views. To unidentified cadavers, include
marks on the victim’s body especially tattoo/scar for identification.
A. Mug-shot C. Infra-Red Photography
B. Police Photography D. Forensic Photography

25 It is a grave violation of human rights specifically the right to be free from all forms
of abuse, exploitation and discrimination.

A. Human Rights violation C. Child Abuse

B. VAWC D. Trafficking in Person
26 What is the Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act?
A. RA 9208 as amended by RA 10364
B. RA 9208 as amended by RA 10635
C. RA 9208 as amended by RA 10354
D. RA 9208 as amended by RA 10365
27 Facilitate travel abroad of child alone without valid reason and permit of
parents/guardian/DSWD would constitute?
A. Qualified Trafficking in Person
B. Exploitation
C. Child abuse
D. Attempted Trafficking in person
28 Intended to expedite court proceedings, is new and far from complete,
necessitating an extensive discussion to thresh out various issues. Lawyers could
keep their observations to themselves and hope that the other party commits a
mistake, most likely gaining an edge by reason of technicality.

A. Judicial Affidavit Rule C. Sworn Statement

B. Judicial Affidavit D. None of the above
29 It is drawn free - hand by the sketcher at the crime scene and not drawn to scale.
A. Smooth Sketch C. Rough Sketch
B. Sketch D. Finish Sketch
30 It is defined as comprehensive inquiry of a crime incident by conducting systematic
procedure of various investigative methodologies which involves recovery of
physical and testimonial evidence for the purpose of identifying the witnesses, and
arrest of perpetrator(s) for prosecution.
A. Crime Investigation C. Crime Scene Investigation
B. Arson Investigation D. Investigation
TRUE OR FALSE: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and writes FALSE if the
statement is wrong.
31 In accordance with Section 16 of the Revised PNP Manual on Anti-Illegal Drug
Operation and Investigation, all pieces of evidence from the suspects or those
found in the area of operation are handled with proper care.

TRUE

32 Physical Evidence encompasses any or all of objects that can be addressed to

the senses of the court that is capable of being exhibited, examined, or viewed
by the court.

33 Act of Lasciviousness is any act, transaction, scheme or design involving the

use of a person by another, for sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct in
exchange for money, profit or any other consideration.

57
 FALSE
34 The Seizing Officer must mark the evidence with his initials indicating therein
the date, time and place where the evidence was found/recovered or seized.

TRUE
35 Use is any act of injecting, intravenously or consuming either by chewing,
smoking, sniffing, eating, swallowing or drinking.

TRUE
IDENTIFICATION: Write the correct answer on the space provided for in the
answer sheet.
36 Is a forensic procedure performed by the trained personnel of the PNP Crime
Laboratory and NBI Forensic Laboratory Experts through scientific methods of
investigation for the purpose of preserving the crime scene, gathering
information, documentation, collection and examination of all physical
evidence.

Crime Scene Procedure

37 Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for or underwrites any of
the illegal activities.

FINANCIER
38 Any document about which some issue have been raised or under scrutiny with
respect to its genuineness and its origin.

QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
39 refers to an analysis to individualize body fluids to a specific person.

DNA ANALYSIS
40 Is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the
prosecutor and filed with the court.

INFORMATION
41- 41-43. Enumerate the Three (3) Elements of Trafficking on Person.
50
ACTS
MEANS
EXPLOITATIVE PURPOSE

44-47 Give at least four (4) players/composition during buy-bus operation:

TEAM LEADER
ASSISTANT TEAM LEADER
POSEUR-BUYER
SEIZING OFFICER
ARRESTING OFFICER
INVESTIGATOR-ON-CASE
RECORD
BACK UP SECURITY

48-50. Give the Three (3) Components of Crime Scene Investigation

FIRST RESPONDER
INVESTIGATOR ON CASE
SOCO TEAM

58
PLEASE SUBMIT TO THE EXAM ADMINISTRATOR / FACILITATOR AFTERWARDS.
THANK YOU & GOOD LUCK!

59