Class 12th JEE

CPT - 1
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 13/11/2024 M.MARKS: 300

Topic Covered
Physics : Gravitation, Electric Charges and Field, Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Electric Potential, Thermal
Properties, Heat Transfer, Electric Current
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding, d & f Block, Periodic Table, Co-ordination Compounds, Thermodynamics,
Solution
Maths : Logarithm & Modulus, Determinants, Quadratic Equation, Matrices, Sequence & Series, Relation
Function

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are Three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics),
Section-II (Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first
20 questions are Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are
compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response among 4 alternate choices provided for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 4. A two point charges 4q and –q are fixed on the x
1. A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q is d d
axis at x = − and x = , respectively. If a third
surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow 2 2
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between point charge ‘q’ is taken from the origin to x = d
the surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer along the semicircle as shown in the figure, the
surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now energy of the charge will
given a charge of – 4 Q, the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces is:
(A) – 2V (B) 2 V
(C) 4 V (D) V

2. The electric field in a region is given by q2

 (A) Decrease by
E (Ax + B)iˆ , where E is in NC–1 and x is in
= 4πε0 d
metres. The values of constants are A = 20 SI unit
and B = 10 SI unit. If the potential at x = 1 is V1 4q 2
(B) Decrease by
and that at x = – 5 is V2, then V1 – V2 is : 3πε0 d
(A) 320 V (B) – 48 V
(C) 180 V (D) – 520 V
2q 2
(C) Increase by
3πε 0 d
3. A charge Q is distributed over three concentric 3q 2
spherical shells of radii a, b, c (a < b < c) such that (D) Increase by
their surface charge densities are equal to one 4πε0 d
another. The total potential at a point at distance r
from their common centre, where r < a, would be:
5. Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of
Q ab + bc + ca radius R1 becomes n times when it is enclosed by a
(A)
12π ∈0 abc concentric conducting sphere of radius R2
Q (a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ) connected to earth. The ratio of their radii (R2/R1) is:
(B)
4π ∈0 (a 3 + b3 + c3 ) (A) n / n –1
(B) 2n / 2 n+1
Q
(C) (C) n+1 / n
4π ∈0 (a + b + c)
(D) 2n + 1 /n
Q(a + b + c)
(D)
4π ∈0 (a 2 + b 2 + c 2 )
Space for Rough Work

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6. Two identical thin metal plates has charge q1 and q2 9. A current of 15 mA flows in the circuit as shown in
respectively such that q1 > q2. The plates were figure. The value of potential difference between
brought close to each other to form a parallel plate the point A and B will be
capacitor of capacitance C. The potential difference
between them is:

(A)
( q1 + q2 )
C

(B)
( q1 – q2 )
C

(C)
( q1 – q2 )
2C
2 ( q1 – q2 ) (A) 50 V (B) 75 V
(D)
C (C) 150 V (D) 275 V

7. A parallel plate capacitor filled with a medium of

dielectric constant 10, is connected across a battery
and is charged. The dielectric slab is replaced by 10.
another slab of dielectric constant 15. Then the
energy of capacitor will:
(A) increase by 50% The value of current in the 6Ω resistance is:
(B) decrease by 15% (A) 4A (B) 8A
(C) increase by 25%
(C) 10 A (D) 6A
(D) increase by 33%

11. Drift speed of electrons, when 1.5A of current

8. Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected
flows in a copper wire of cross section 5 mm2, is v.
in parallel across a parallel combination of two
If the electron density in copper is 9 × 1028/m3 the
resistors each of resistance 20Ω. A voltmeter
connected in the circuit measures 1.2 V. The value of v in mm/s close to (Take charge of
internal resistance of each cell is electron to be = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(A) 2.5 Ω (B) 4Ω (A) 0.02 (B) 3
(C) 5Ω (D) 10 Ω (C) 2 (D) 0.2

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12. The pressure at two points in a liquid in pascal are 15. Two rods of different materials having coefficient
P and 2P. The piston attached to the mouth of the of thermal expansion α1 and α2 and Young’s
liquid is given a push with pressure 2 Pa. The modulus Y1 and Y2 respectively are fixed between
respective pressures at the two points now are in two rigid massive walls. The rods are heated such
the ratio that these undergo same increase in temperature.
P−2 There is no bending of the rods. If α1 : α2 = 2 : 3,
(A) the thermal stress developed in the two rods are
2P − 2
equal, provided Y1 : Y2 is
P+2
(B) (A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1
2P + 2
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 4 : 9
P +1
(C)
2P + 1 16. 50g ice at 0°C is dropped into a calorimeter
P −1 containing 100 g water at 30°C. If thermal capacity
(D)
2P − 1 of calorimeter is zero then amount of ice left in the
mixture at equilibrium is
13. A piece of brass weighs 175 gf in air and 150 gf (A) 12.5 g (B) 25 g
when fully submerged in water. The density of (C) 20 g (D) 10 g
water is 1 g/cm3. What is the volume of brass
piece? 17. The rectangular surface of area 4cm × 2cm of a
(A) 50 cm3 black body at a temperature of 127°C emits energy
(B) 25 cm3 at the rate of E. If the length and breadth of the
(C) 150 cm3 surface are each reduced to half of the initial value
(D) 175 cm3 and the temperature is raised to 327°C, the rate of
emission of energy will become:
14. In the figure shown, 3 81
(A) E (B) E
8 16
9 81
(C) E (D) E
16 64

18. The temperature of a body falls from 52°C to 36°C

in 10 minutes when placed in a surrounding of
Find the range R. constant temperature 20°C. What will be the
(A) 3H (B) 6H temperature of the body after another 10 min. (Use
Newton's law of cooling)
(C) 2H (D) 3 H
(A) 28°C (B) 20°C
(C) 32°C (D) 24°C

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19. In the diagram shown Qiaf = 80 cal and Wiaf = 50 23. A capacitor C1 of capacitance 5µF is charged to a
cal. If W = –30 cal for the curved path fi, value of potential of 30 V using a battery. The battery is then
Q for path fi, will be removed and the charged capacitor is connected to
an uncharged capacitor C2 of capacitance 10µF as
shown in figure. When the switch is closed charged
flows

24. The total current supplied to the circuit as shown in

figure by the 5V battery is ____ A.
(A) 60 cal (B) 30 cal
(C) –30 cal (D) –60 cal

20. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an

efficiency of 40%. By how much should the
temperature of source be increased so as to
increase its efficiency by 50% of original
efficiency? 25. Three rods made of the same material and having
(A) 380 K (B) 275 K the same cross-section have been joined as shown
(C) 325 K (D) 250 K in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The
left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 75°C
Integer Type Questions respectively. The temperature of the junction of the
21. As shown in the figure, in steady state, the charge three rods will be _____°C.
stored in the capacitor is ____ × 10–6C.

22. The equivalent capacitance between points A and B

in below shown figure will be ____ µF.

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 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 31. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4¯ is
26. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will (A) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4¯ is
be an/a tetrahedral
(A) transition metal (B) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4¯ is square
(B) inner-transition metal planar
(C) alkaline earth metal (C) Both are isostructural
(D) alkali metal (D) ICl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl4¯ is
tetrahedral
27. The correct order of the ionic radii of O2–, N3–, F–,
Mg2+, Na+ and Al3+ is 32. The ion that has sp3d2-hybridisation for the central
(A) N3– < O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ atom, is
(B) Al3+ < Na+ < Mg2+ < O2– < F– < N3– (A) [ICl2]¯ (B) [BrF2]¯
(C) [ICl4]¯ (D) [IF6]¯
(C) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–
(D) N3– < F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+ < Al3+
33. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine
atom in ClO2¯ is
28. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The
(A) sp3 (B) sp2
value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
(C) sp (D) None of these
(A) –2.55 eV (B) –5.1 eV
(C) –10.2 eV (D) +2.55 eV
34. Which of the following have not identical bond
order?
29. The incorrect statement among the following
(A) CN¯ (B) O2¯
(A) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than
(C) NO+ (D) None of these
the first ionisation potential of Mg
(B) The second ionisation potential of Mg is
35. The one that will show optical activity is (en =
greater than the second ionisation potential of
Na ethane-1, 2-diamine)
(C) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than
the first ionisation potential of Mg
(A) (B)
(D) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater
than third ionisation potential of Na

30. Which of the following has the maximum number

of unpaired electrons ? (C) (D)
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+
3+
(C) V (D) Fe2+

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36. Amongst Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(Cl)4]2– is 40. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following
2–
(A) Ni(CO)4 and NiCl4 are diamagnetic and compounds, which one will show the highest
[Ni(CO)4]2– is paramagnetic freezing point ?
(B) [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and (A) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic (B) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
2–
(C) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4] are diamagnetic and (C) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O
[NiCl4]2– is paramagnetic (D) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
2–
(D) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and [NiCl4] and
[Ni(CN)4]2– are paramagnetic 41. K2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The
value of its van't Hoff factor (i) is
37. The colour of KMnO4 is due to (A) 1.6 (B) 1.8
(where L = Ligand, M = Metal) (C) 2.2 (D) 2.0
(A) M → L charge transfer transition
(B) d → d transition 42. Among the following the set of parameters that
(C) L → M charge transfer transition represents path functions, is
* (I) q+W (II) q
(D) σ → σ transition
(III) W (IV) H – TS
(A) (I) and (IV) (B) (I), (II) and (III)
38. What would be the molality of 20% (mass/mass)
(C) (II), (III) and (IV) (D) (II) and (III)
aqueous solution of KI? (Molar mass of KI = 166 g
mol–1)
43. A process will be spontaneous at all temperature if
(A) 1.48 (B) 1.51
(C) 1.35 (D) 1.08 (A) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0 (B) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
(C) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (D) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0
39. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire
composition range. At 350 K, the vapour pressures 44. Which one of the following equations does not
of pure A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 × 103 correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics
Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapour in for the given processes involving an ideal gas?
equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole (Assume non-expansion work is zero)
percent of A at this temperature is (A) Cyclic process : q = –W
(A) xA = 0.76 ; xB = 0.24 (B) Adiabatic process : ∆U = –W
(B) xA = 0.28 ; xB = 0.72 (C) Isochoric process : ∆U = q
(C) xA = 0.4 ; xB = 0.6 (D) Isothermal process : q = –W
(D) xA = 0.37 ; xB = 0.63
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45. Identify the incorrect statement Integer Type Questions
(A) Reversible isothermal process is more efficient 46. Among the species given below, the total number of
than irreversible isothermal process diamagnetic species is ______.
(B) Reversible isothermal expansion is more H atom, NO2 monomer, OΘ2 (superoxide), dimeric
efficient than irreversible isothermal expansion
sulphur in vapour phase, Mn3O4, (NH4)2[FeCl4],
(C) Both process reversible and irreversible have (NH4)2[NiCl4], K2MnO4, K2CrO4
same efficiency
(D) Reversible isothermal compression is more 47. The coordination number of Th in
efficient than irreversible isothermal expansion
K4[Th(C2O4)4(OH)2] is (C2O42– = Oxalato)
Consider both process have same initial (starting
point) and same final point (finishing point)
48. A solution contain 62 g of ethylene glycol in 250 g
of water is cooled upto –10°C. If Kf for water is
1.86 K kg mol–1, then amount of water (in g)
separated as ice is

49. Highest oxidation number for Mn is generally

observed as ______.

50. Number of d-orbital used in hybridisation of MnO4¯

is ____.

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 SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 56. “The sum of 20 terms of the series whose rth term
51. If α and β are the two distinct roots of n2 + n + 1
is given by T ( n ) = ( −1) n

x 2 + 2 ( K − 3) x + 9 =0 , then the values of K such n!

that α, β ∈ (–6, 1) are 20 21
(A) −2 (B) −1
 27   27  19! 20!
(A) 6,  (B)  6, 
 4   4 21
(C) (D) None of these
 27   27  20!
(C)  6,  (D) 6, 
 4   4
57. Let x, y, z be positive reals. Which of the following
implies x = y = z?
52. If Q1 ( x ) = x 2 + ( k − 29 ) x − k and
I. x3 + y 3 + z 3 =
3 xyz
Q2 ( x ) = 2 x 2 + ( 2k − 43) x + k both are factors of a
cubic polynomial P(x), then the largest value of k is II. x3 + y 2 z + yz 2 =
3 xyz
(A) 0 (B) 33 III. x3 + y 2 z + z 2 x =
3 xyz
(C) 23 (D) 30
IV. ( x + y + z )3 =27 xyz
53. Let f ( x ) = ax 2 + bx + c be a polynomial. If (A) I, IV only (B) I, II, IV only
(C) I, II and III only (D) All of them
f (1 − x ) = f (1 + x ) , f ( 2 ) = 0 and f(3) = 6, then the
value of a + b + c =
58. Let a, b, c be the sides of a triangle whose
(A) –2 (B) 2
perimeter is P and area is A, then
(C) –4 (D) 4
(A) P 3 ≤ 27 ( b + c − a )( c + a − b )( a + b − c )
54. Given that a,b,c are the lengths of three sides of
∆ABC, a > b > c, 2b = a + c, and b is a positive
(
(B) P 2 ≥ 3 a 2 + b 2 + c 2 )
integer. If a 2 + b 2 + c 2 =
84 , then the value of b = (C) a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ≥ 4 3 A
(A) 5 (B) –5
(D) P 4 < 256 A2
(C) 4 (D) None of these
55. If x, y and z are distinct prime numbers, then
(A) x, y and z may be in A.P. but not in G.P.
(B) x, y and z may be in G.P. but not in A.P.
59.
3×3 {
If A =  aij  , such that aij = 2, when i = j , then
0, when i ≠ j
log1/2det(adj (adj (A)) =
(C) x, y and z can neither in A.P. nor in G.P.
(A) –12 (B) –10
(D) None of these
(C) –13 (D) –11

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60. Find c 2 + x 2 + y 2 if the matrix A given by 64. Consider a function f : A → B where n ( A ) = 6 ,
 a 2 / 3 2 / 3 n( B) = 4 Then choose the incorrect from

A = 2 / 3 1 / 3 b  - is orthogonal. following
 c x y  (A) Total number of functions = 46
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Number of one-one functions = 0
(C) 0 (D) 3 (C) Number of many-one functions = 46
(D) Number of onto functions = 1560
1 0 
61. Let A =   then, which of the following is
1 1  65. Consider the functions
false?
 sin x − cos x + 3 2 
 1 0 (i) f1 ( x ) = log 2  
(A)
= A− n  n∈ N 2
 −n 1   
1
(B) lim A− n = 
 0 0

(ii) f2 ( x ) = ( (
log 2 2 − log 2 16sin 2 x + 1 ))
n →∞ n
 −1 0  Then choose the correct from following
1 0 0  (A) Range f1 = [1, 2]
(C) lim 2 A− n =   (B) Range f 2 = ( −∞, 2 )
n →∞ n
0 0 
(C) Range f1 = (1, 2] (D) Range f 2 = ( −∞, 2]
(D) None of these

62. Let A and B be two matrices different from I such 66. The midpoint of domain of the function
that AB = BA and An − B n is invertible for some
positive integer n. g ( x) = 4 − 2x + 5
If An − B n = An +1 − B n +1 = An + 2 − B n + 2 , then, −2 1
(A) (B)
which of the following is false? 5 4
(A) I – A is singular
2 3
(B) I – B is singular (C) (D)
3 2
(C) A + B = AB + I
(D) (I – A) (I – B) is non-singular
x2 + x + 2
63. If the function f satisfies the relation 67. Range of the function
= f ( x) ; x ∈ R is
x2 + x + 1
f ( x + y) + f ( x − y) =2 f ( x ). f ( y ) for all
 11 
(A) (1, ∞) (B) 1, 
x, y ∈ R and f ( 0 ) ≠ 0 , then f ( x ) is  7
(A) An odd function
 7  7
(B) An even function (C) 1,  (D) 1, 
 3  5
(C) Neither even nor odd function
(D) None of these
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68. The number of reflexive relations of a set with four Integer Type Questions
elements is equal to 71. Suppose a1 , a2 , 2, a3 , a4 be in an arithmetic-
(A) 216 (B) 212 geometric progression. If the common ratio of the
(C) 28 (D) 24 corresponding geometric progression is 2 and the
sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetic-geometric
69. Let R be a relation on the set N of natural numbers 49
progression is , then a4 is equal to _________.
defined by nRm ⇔ n is a factor of m (i.e., n|m). 2
Then R is
(A) Reflexive and symmetric 72. Let α and β be two real numbers, such that α + β =
(B) Transitive and symmetric 1 and αβ = –1. Let pn = ( α ) + ( β ) , pn −1 = 11 and
n n

(C) Equivalence
pn +1 = 29 , for some integer n ≥ 1 . Then, the value
(D) Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
of pn2 is ________.
70. Domain of the function
1
2 x − 1  3tan −1 x 73. The number of all 3 × 3 matrices A, with entries
(1 3x ) 3 + 3cos −1 
f ( x ) =− 3 is from the set {–1, 0, 1} such that the sum of the
 3 
diagonal elements of AAT is 3, is _________.
 1 1  1 
(A)  − ,  (B)  − ,1
 3 3  2  74. Let A = {1, 2,3,5,8,9} . Then, the number of
 1 1 possible functions f : A → A such that
(C) [–1, 2] (D)  − , 
 4 2
( m.m ) f ( m ) . f ( n ) , ∀m, n ∈ A with m ⋅ n ∈ A is
f=
equal to ________.

75. Let A = {1, 2,3, 4,...,10} and B = {0,1, 2,3, 4} . The

number of elements in the relation
R
= {( a, b ) ∈ A × A : 2 ( a − b ) 2
}
+ 3( a − b ) ∈ B is

________.

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