Since eπ 6= 0 and we want B 6= 0,
√
=⇒ sin( λπ) = 0 = sin(nπ), n ∈ Z
=⇒ λ = n2 , n ∈ N \ {0}.
Since for distinct values of natural numbers one obtains different eigenvalue, so it is more appro-
priate to index the set of eigenfunctions as ψn for each n ∈ N,
ψn (z) = Bez sin(nz) for some constant B ∈ R \ {0}.
Now going back to our original coordinate system “t” by using the relation log t = z, we get
yn (t) = ψn (z) = Bez sin(nz) = Bt sin(n log t)
=⇒ yn (t) = Bt sin(n log t),
are the countable sequence of eigenfunctions for the above problem.
What happens in the case λ ≤ 0 ? Do it yourself.
SOLUTION OF PART 3(d) and 3(e) are kept as exercise for you.
7. It is given to you that the following is an orthogonal family of functions on the interval (−π, π):
n o
sin(nx), cos(nx)) .
n∈N
Using this fact prove that the following family of functions are also orthogonal on the interval
(−1, 1) :
n o
sin(nπx), cos(nπx)) .
n∈N
Solution: Do it yourself by appropriately changing the variable and the using the given information
in the question.
8. Show that the following family of functions
n o
sin(nπ log(t)} ,
n∈N
are orthogonal. The domain of definition for each function in the above family is assumed to be
(1, e). Are they orthonormal ? If not, can it be turned in to a orthonormal family ?
Hint: Try finding eigenvalues and eigenfunctions for the following problem:
00
t2 y (t) + ty 0 (t) + λy = 0, on (1, e), y(1) = y(e) = 0.
Further Hint: Change the independent variable t = log(x) to reduce the above problem to a more
known problem.
Solution: Consider the problem
00
t2 y (t) + ty 0 (t) + λy(t) = 0, on (1, e), y(1) = y(e) = 0 (29)
Put x = log(t) and define ψ(x) = y(t). Then
dψ dx 1 dψ
y 0 (t) = =
dx dt t dx
1 d2 ψ 1
00 dψ −1
y (t) = +
t dx2 t dx t2
8
Putting the values in (29) we get
00
0 = t2 y (t) + ty 0 (t) + λy(t)
= ψxx − ψx + ψx + λψ(x)
= ψxx + λψ(x)
The boundary condition changes as x = log(t) at t = 1 =⇒ x = 0 and at t = e =⇒ x = 1.
Therefore the change problem in x co-ordinate becomes as
ψxx + λψ(x) = 0 on (0, 1) and ψ(0) = ψ(1) = 0.
For this problem it is well known that EV and EF are
ψn (x) = sin(nπx), n ∈ N.
Going back to t co-ordinate we get
yn (t) = ψn (x) = sin(nπx) = sin(nπ log t), n ∈ N.
are EF of (29).
Now since (29) RSLVP, we know that the set of EF are orthogonal. This finishes the proof.
For the second part let us calculate
Z e
1 e
Z
yn2 (t)dt = 2 sin2 (nπ log t)dt
1 2
Z1
1 e
= 1 − cos(2nπ log t)dt
2 1
Z e
e−1 1 e
Z
2
yn (t)dt = − cos(2nπ log t)dt (30)
1 2 2 1
Let
Z e
In = cos(2nπ log t)dt
1
Z e
e 2nπt
= cos(2nπ log t)t|1 + sin(2nπ log t)dt
1 t
Z e
e 2nπ
= (e − 1) + 2nπ t sin(2nπ log t)|1 − cos(2nπ log t)tdt
1 t
= (e − 1) − 4n2 π 2 In
e−1
=⇒ In = .
1 + 4n2 π 2
Therefore from (30) we get
e
e−1 1 e−1
Z
yn2 (t)dt = −
1 2 2 1 + 4n2 π 2
e−1 1
= 1−
2 1 + 4n2 π 2
e − 1 4n π 2
2
= 6= 1
2 1 + 4n2 π 2
Hence they are not orthonormal. Now
Z e s !2
1 + 4n2 π 2
2
yn (t) dt = 1.
1 e−1 4n2 π 2
r
2 1+4n2 π 2
Thus the functions e−1 4n2 π 2
yn (t) are orthonormal.
n∈N
