CHAPTER

5 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

5.1 The DNA Transcription 5.5

5.1.1 Structure of Polynucleotide Chain 5.5.1 Transcription Unit
5.1.2 Packaging of DNA Helix 5.5.2 Mechanism of Transcription
5.5.3 Additional Complexities in Eukaryotic
Transcription

Genetic code 5.6

5.2 The Search for Genetic Material
5.6.1 Discovery of Genetic Code
5.2.1 Transforming Principle 5.6.2 Salient Features of Genetic Code
5.2.2 The Genetic Material is DNA 5.6.3 Mutations and Genetic Code
5.2.3 Properties of Genetic Material
Translation 5.7

5.3 RNA World

Regulation of Gene Expression 5.8
5.8.1 Operon Model

Human Genome Project 5.9

5.4 Replication of DNA
5.9.1 Salient Features of Human Genome
5.4.1 The Experimental Proof for Semi-conservative
Mode of DNA Replication
5.4.2 Replication Machinery and Enzymes
DNA Fingerprinting 5.10
Qualitative & Quantitative Analysis

Exam Difficulty Level Revision Rating Total Number of Questions

NEET 7/10 9/10 332

Year Wise Number of Questions Analysis Topic Wise Number of Questions Analysis
(2023-2014) (2023-2014)
16 4 4 5 12 4 4 7 5 8
Number of Questions

9
25
Regulation of Gene Expression

8
Number of Questions

7
Search For Genetic Material

6 20
Human Genome Project

5
DNA Fingerprinting

4 15
3
Genetic Code
Transcription

2 10
Translation
RNA World

1
Replication
The DNA

5
2023 2022 2021 2020 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2016 2015 2015 2014
Covid II I Re
Years Topics
 LP
Learning Plus (LP) illustrates outside
NCERT concepts to enhance your
understanding

Key Note
RNA acts as the genetic material in
some viruses.

Key Note
Cytosine is common for both DNA
and RNA and thymine is present in
DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the
place of thymine.

Key Note
Nucleoside consists of nitrogenous
base and a pentose sugar.
Double helix of DNA

 Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of nucleic acids found in living systems.
 DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms.
 RNA mostly functions as a messenger. It also functions as adapter, structural, and in some cases as a catalytic molecule.

5.1 THE DNA

 DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.

 Number of nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred to as base pairs) present in DNA define it’s length. This also is the characteristic
of an organism.
1
 For example, a bacteriophage known as f × 174 has ________ nucleotides, Bacteriophage lambda has 48502 base pairs (bp),
Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp, and haploid content of human DNA is __________
2 bp.

5.1.1 Structure of Polynucleotide Chain

 A nucleotide has three components:
(i) A nitrogenous base
(NEET 2019)
● Purines - Adenine and Guanine ● Pyrimidines - Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine
(ii) A pentose sugar
● Ribose in RNA ● Deoxyribose in DNA
Key Note (iii) A phosphate group
3
 A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1' C pentose sugar through a __________________
● The chemical name for thymine
is 5-methyl uracil.
linkage to form a nucleoside, such as adenosine or deoxyadenosine, guanosine or
deoxyguanosine, cytidine or deoxycytidine and uridine or deoxythymidine.
● In RNA, every nucleotide residue
has an additional –OH group 4
 When a phosphate group is linked to OH of ______ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester
present at 2' -position in the ribose. linkage, a corresponding nucleotide (or deoxynucleotide depending upon the type of sugar
present) is formed.

1 “NCERT Focused Fill-ins” offers an interactive learning method where students “fill in” blanks in textbook passages, enhancing their understanding and recall of NCERT Textbook.

44 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 Two nucleotides are linked through 3′ - 5′ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide.
 More nucleotides can be joined in such a manner to form a polynucleotide chain. A polymer
LP
thus formed has a free phosphate moiety at 5′ -end of sugar, which is referred to as 5′-end of The ratio of A + T/G + C is constant
polynucleotide chain. Similarly, at the other end of the polymer the sugar has a free OH of for a species.
3′ C group which is referred to as 3′ -end of the polynucleotide chain.
5
 DNA is an __________ substance present in nucleus. Key Note
(NEET 2020-Covid) The base pairing confers a
 In 1869, DNA was first identified by Friedrich Meischer and named it as ‘Nuclein’. very unique property to the
polynucleotide chains. They are
 In 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick proposed Double Helix model for the structure of said to be complementary to each
DNA. Their studies were based on the X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins other, and therefore if the sequence
and ________________________.
6 of bases in one strand is known
then the sequence in other strand
 The base pairing between the two strands of polynucleotide chains was one of the hallmarks can be predicted.
of DNA double helix model.
 Francis Crick proposed the Central dogma in molecular biology, which states that the
Key Note
genetic information flows from DNA → RNA → Protein.
Since, a purine always comes
(NEET 2021) opposite to a pyrimidine. This
generates approximately uniform
replication distance between the two strands
transcription of the helix.
translation
DNA mRNA Protein

Fig. 5. 1: Central dogma LP

The two polynucleotide chains are
Chargaff’s Rule helically coiled around the same
 Erwin Chargaff states that for a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and axis in such a way that these can
separate from one another only
7
Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals __________. by uncoiling. Helical coiling is
 In other words, Amount of Adenine = Amount of Thymine supposed to be right handed. Such
Amount of Guanine = Amount of Cytosine a form of DNA is called B-DNA.

 Adenine + Guanine = Thymine + Cytosine

Salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA NCERT Fill-ups
(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by 1. In a nucleotide, a phosphate
sugar-phosphate, and the bases project inside. group is linked to 5'-OH
of a nucleotide through
_____________ linkage.
2. 5-methyl uracil is another
chemical name for _______.
3. The two chains of DNA are
coiled in a _____________
handed fashion.
4. The pitch of helix is
________________ nm
and there are roughly
_____________ bp in each
turn.
5. Francis Crick proposed
the central dogma,
which states that genetic
Fig. 5.2: Double stranded polynucleotide chain information flows from
DNA → _____________ →
(ii) The two chains or strands are antiparallel, i.e., they run in opposite directions. It means, _____________.
if one chain has the polarity 5′→ 3′, the other has 3′→5′.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 45

 (iii) The nitrogenous bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond forming base
NCERT True-False
pairs. There are ___________
8 hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine and
6. If the sequence of bases in ___________
9 hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine.
one strand is known then the
sequence in other strand can
be predicted. T/F
7. DNA Double-helix is made
MNEMONICS
of two polynucleotide
chains, where the backbone This mnemonic is to identify purines and pyrimidines.
is constituted by sugar-
phosphate, and the bases
C U T the PY 2 hearts P ure As G old
project inside. T/F
8. The two chains of helix Cytosine Uracil Thymine Pyrimidines Purines Adenine Guanine
are coiled in a left-handed
fashion. T/F
5'

Fig. 5.3 Fill-ins

3'
♦ __________bond
12 connects
the individual nucleotide 0.34 nm
monomers in the DNA
backbone.
♦ A sequence of DNA reads
5′-ATGCCTGA-3′. The
complementary strand that
would form would read
13
________________. 3.4 nm
♦ If a segment of DNA
has 30 percent adenine,
then the percentage of
guanine in the DNA will be
14
________________.

5'
LP 3'
2 nm
Pyrimidine bases are made of only
one ring of carbon. Fig. 5.3: Structure of DNA double helix
(iv) The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm
LP 10
(a nanometre is one billionth of a metre, that is 10–9 m) and there are roughly ________bp
Purine bases are made of two ring of in each turn. Consequently, the distance between a bp in a helix is approximately 0.34 nm.
carbon and nitrogen bases of DNA.
(v) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This, in addition to
11
________-bonds, confers stability of the helical structure.
Key Note
The nucleosomes in chromatin are 5.1.2 Packaging of DNA Helix
seen as ‘beads-on-string’ structure
when viewed under electron  The distance between two consecutive base pairs of DNA duplex is 0.34 nm (0.34 ×10–9 m).
microscope (EM).
(NEET 2020)

LP  The length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is calculated by multiplying the
15
total number of bp with distance between two consecutive bp, that is, _________________
The acidic nature of nucleic acids is bp × 0.34 × 10–9m/bp and it is about 2.2 metre that is far greater than the dimension of a
due to the presence of phosphoric 16
typical nucleus (approximately __________m).
acid or phosphate group.

46 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
DNA Packaging in Prokaryotes
 Prokaryotes, such as E. coli, do not have a defined nucleus and DNA is not scattered
Key Note
throughout the cell. A protein acquires charge
(NEET 2023) depending upon the abundance of
amino acids residues with charged
 DNA (being negatively charged) is held with some proteins (that have positive charges) in a side chains.
region known as ‘nucleoid’.
17
 The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by ___________.
DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes LP
 The DNA is folded with the help of a set of positively charged basic proteins called The histones are of low molecular
________________.
18 weight, acting as repressor of genes
(NEET 2021, 2022) to prevent transcription.
 Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine which carry positive
charge in their side chains.
(NEET 2021)
LP
 Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules known as histone octamer. The nucleosomes are structural
sub- units of chromatin.
(NEET 2022, 2023)
 The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to
form a structure called nucleosome. NCERT Fill-ups

19 20 9. In prokaryotes, DNA being

_____________ charged is
held with some proteins that
have _________ charges in a
region termed as nucleoid.
10. Nucleosomes contains
__________ bp of DNA helix.
11. Nucleosomes constitute the
repeating unit of a structure
in nucleus called _______.
They are seen as ______
structure when viewed
under electron microscope.
12. The chromatin fibres,
Fig. 5.4: Nucleosome
coiled and condensed
 Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called chromatin. at _____________ stage
of cell division to form
21
 Chromatin refers to thread-like stained (coloured) bodies seen in _____________. chromosome.
22
 A typical nucleosome contains _______ bp of DNA helix. 13. In nucleus, region of chromatin
that are loosely packed and
Types of chromatin stains light are referred as
(i) Euchromatin _____ and chromatin that is
(NEET 2022) densely packed and stains
™ Loosely packed regions of chromatin in nucleus. dark are called ____________.

™ They are light stained bodies.

™ It is said to be transcriptionally __________
23 chromatin. NCERT True-False
(ii) Heterochromatin
14. Heterochromatin is said
™ More densely packed regions of chromatin in nucleus. to be transcriptionally
™ They are dark stained bodies. active chromatin, whereas
euchromatin is inactive. T/F
24
™ It is said to be transcriptionally ____________ chromatin.
15. Histones are rich in acidic
 The beads-on-string structure in chromatin is packaged to form chromatin fibers that are amino acids. T/F
further coiled and condensed at _____________
25 stage of cell division to form chromosomes. 16. The length of DNA double
 The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins that collectively helix is 2.2 nm. T/F
are referred to as Non-histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 47

 LP 5.2 THE SEARCH FOR GENETIC MATERIAL
The transfer of genetic material
from one bacterium to another  Genetic material controls the inheritance of traits from one generation to the next generation
through bacteriophage is called and is also able to express its effect through the formation and functioning of the traits.
transduction.
5.2.1 Transforming Principle
 In 1928, Frederick Griffith performed a series of experiments with Streptococcus
26
pneumoniae. This bacterium is responsible for ______________. He witnessed a miraculous
transformation in the bacteria.
 When Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) bacteria are grown on a culture plate,
some produce smooth shiny colonies (S) while others produce rough colonies (R).
 Smooth (S) type have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat. These bacteria are of ___________
27
strain and cause pneumonia.
LP  Rough (R) type lack mucous coat. Therefore, these bacteria are of _____________
28 strain
● DNase is a deoxyribo-nuclease and do not cause pneumonia.
enzyme which catalyzes The Experiment was Described in Following Four Parts–
the hydrolytic cleavage of
phosphodiester bonds in DNA.
(i) When S- type bacteria injected into mice. The latter died as a result of pneumonia caused
by bacteria.
● RNase or ribonuclease is a type
of nuclease enzyme which S strain → Inject into mice → Mice die
catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage (ii) When R- type bacteria injected into mice. The latter lived and pneumonia was not
of RNA produced.
R strain → Inject into mice → Mice live
(iii) S- type bacteria which normally cause disease were heat killed and then injected into the
mice. The mice lived and pneumonia was not caused.
S strain (heat-killed) → Inject into mice → Mice live
(iv) The mixed solution of Rough type bacteria (living) and smooth type heat-killed bacteria
(both known not to cause disease) injected into mice. Some mice died due to pneumonia
29
and virulent ___________ type living bacteria could also be recovered from their bodies.
S strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live) → Inject into mice → Mice die
LP Conclusion
Transformation is the conversion  Some R-type bacteria were transformed into S- type of bacteria. Some transforming principle
in the genetic constitution of an transferred from the heat-killed S strain, had enabled the R strain to synthesise a smooth
organism by picking up genes polysaccharide coat and become virulent. This must be due to the transfer of the genetic
present in the remains of its dead
30
material. The phenomenon is called _________________. However, the biochemical nature
relatives.
of genetic material was not defined from this experiment.

CONCEPTUAL PITFALLS

Students can have a tough time understanding how the mice died even though the S strain was heat killed. Heating the bacterial
denatured DNA, breaking hydrogen bonds and causing double-stranded DNA to separate. The heat-killed S strain released DNA,
taken up by live R strain bacteria. Acquired DNA led to a heritable change, transforming R strain into S strain, acquiring virulence.
Despite DNA denaturation, a substance from the heat-killed S strain retained the ability to transform the R strain, identified as
DNA—a pivotal discovery revealing DNA’s transformative and hereditary nature in genetic material understanding.

Biochemical Characterisation of Transforming Principle

 Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (l933-44) repeated the experiment in vitro to identify transforming principle
31
in Griffith’s experiment. They concluded that this substance is in fact __________.
 They purified biochemicals (protein, DNA, RNA, etc.) from the heat killed S-type bacteria to see which ones could transform live
R cells into S cells.
32
 They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (____________) and RNA-digesting enzymes (RNases) did not affect
transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or RNA.

48 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 33
 Digestion with ___________ did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the DNA caused the
Fig. 5.5 Fill-ins
transformation. They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material, but not all biologists
were convinced. ♦ In the Hershey-Chase
experiment, bacteriophages
5.2.2 The Genetic Material is DNA labeled with radioactive
(NEET 2023) sulfur were used to trace
 The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of 35
the ____________ during
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952). infection of bacteria.
♦ The presence of
34
 They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called ____________________. radioactivity in the
 The virus attaches to the bacteria and its genetic material then enters the bacterial cell. supernatant after
 The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic material as if it was its own and subsequently centrifugation when
manufactures more virus particles. radioactive sulfur was
used indicates that the
 Hershey and Chase worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the viruses that
36
_______________ did not
entered the bacteria.
enter the bacteria.
Bacteriophage
Radioactive (32P) ♦ If the radioactive
Radioactive (35S)labelled labelled DNA phosphorus had been
protein capsule detected in the supernatant
rather than in the cells,
it would suggest that the
37
_______________ did not
contribute genetic material
to the bacteria.
1. Infection

NCERT Fill-ups
17. In Griffith’s experiment,
_____________ bacterium
was used.
2. Blending 18. S-strain of bacteria produces
smooth colonies because
they have _____________
coat that was absent in
R-stains.
3. Centrifugation
19. The unequivocal proof that
DNA is the genetic material
No Radioactive (35S) Radioactive (32P) came from the experiments
detected in cells detected in cells of ________ and _______ in
1952.
Radioactive (35S) No Radioactivity (32P)
detected in supernatant detected in supernatant
NCERT True-False
Fig. 5.5: The Hershey-Chase experiment
20. Some ‘transforming
principle’, transferred from
 They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus and some others the heat-killed S strain,
on medium that contained radioactive sulfur. had enabled the R strain
to synthesise a smooth
 Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not
polysaccharide coat and
radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but protein does not. become virulent. T/F
 Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained radioactive protein but not 21. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulfur. worked to determine only
 Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to __________
38 bacteria. Then, as the infection the biological nature of
‘transforming principle’ in
proceeded, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender.
Griffith’s experiment. T/F
 The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a_____________.
39

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 49

  Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive,
Key Note indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria.
The presence of thymine at  Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive.
the place of uracil also confers  This indicates that proteins did not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore the
additional stability to DNA.
genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria.

5.2.3 Properties of Genetic Material

As a genetic material, a molecule must fulfill the following criteria:
 It should be able to generate its replica (replication).
 It should be stable chemically and structurally. The genetic material should be stable enough
not to change with different stages of life cycle, age or with change in physiology of the
LP organism.
In some viruses, RNA is the genetic  It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for_____________.
40
material (for example, Tobacco Mosaic  It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘_______________characters’.
41
viruses, QB bacteriophage, etc.)
These requirements are found in DNA thus, DNA is now recognized as genetic material. Although
RNA also fulfil most of the requirements so this is also a genetic material in some viruses but
DNA is found in most of the organisms.
DNA Versus RNA
 Griffith’s transforming principle explained that the two strands of DNA being complementary
if separated by heating come together, when appropriate conditions are provided.
42
 __________ group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA
Key Note labile and easily degradable. RNA is also now known to be catalytic, hence reactive.
For the transmission of genetic  DNA chemically is __________
43 reactive and structurally _________stable
44 when compared
information, RNA is better. to RNA.
 Therefore, among the two nucleic acids, the DNA is a better genetic material. In fact, the
presence of thymine at the place of uracil also confers additional stability to DNA.
(NEET 2023)
 Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. In fact, RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. Consequently, viruses having RNA
genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.

 RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the characters. DNA, however, is dependent on RNA
for synthesis of proteins.
 The protein synthesising machinery has evolved around ____________.
45
 Both RNA and DNA can function as genetic material, but DNA being more stable is preferred for ___________
46 of genetic information.

5.3 RNA WORLD

 RNA was the first genetic material.

LP
 Evidences suggest that essential life processes (such as metabolism, translation, splicing,
Three nucleotides are present in etc.), evolved around RNA.
a particular sequence at 3′ end of
tRNA and the sequence is CCA.
 RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst. E.g., there are some important
biochemical reactions in living systems that are catalysed by RNA catalysts and not by
protein enzymes)
47
 RNA being a catalyst was ______________ and hence unstable. Therefore, DNA has
LP evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable. DNA being
double stranded and having complementary strand further resists changes by evolving a
rRNA is the most stable form of RNA.
process of repair.

50 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
Types of RNA
Key Note
Three major types of RNA are found in bacteria. These are:
The secondary structure of tRNA
 rRNA looks like a clover-leaf. In actual
 tRNA structure, the tRNA is a compact
molecule which looks like inverted L.
 mRNA
(i) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) LP
™ Eukaryotic cells have 80S type of ribosomes. Their subunits are 60S and ________.
48
The anticodon of tRNA recognises its
™ Prokaryotic cells have 70S type of ribosomes and its subunits are 50S and 30S. complimentary sequence on mRNA.
™ Function: rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during ____________.
49 This complimentary sequence is
known as codon.
(ii) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
50
™ It was known as ___________ RNA (sRNA) before the genetic code was postulated. LP
™ tRNA serves as an adapter molecule by aligning amino acids with the appropriate
codons on mRNA during protein synthesis. Wobble Hypothesis
● It was put forward by Crick.
™ Function: At the time of protein synthesis, it acts as a carrier of amino-acids. It brings
● Normally an anticodon
aminoacids and reads the genetic code. recognises only one codon,
but sometimes an anticodon
recognises more than one codon.
This is known as wobbling.
Wobbling normally occurs for
third nucleotide of codon.
● For e.g., anticodon AAG can
recognise two codons, i.e.,
UUU and UUC, both stands for
phenylalanine.

51 NCERT Fill-ups
52
22. mRNA is produced by genetic
DNA in the _____________.
Fig. 5.6: tRNA - the adapter molecule 23. There are _____________
tRNA for stop codons.
™ On the basis of anticodon, there are total 61 types of tRNA or we can also say that 24. The secondary structure
of tRNA is also called
there are 61 types of anticodon. _____________.
™ There are no tRNAs for ___________
53 codons. 25. ______ was the first genetic
material.

CONCEPTUAL PITFALLS
NCERT True-False
Students may confuse codons and anticodons .A Codon is a three-nucleotide sequence on 26. The genetic material should
mRNA, directing amino acids during protein synthesis and an anticodon is found on tRNA, be stable enough to change
it’s a complementary three-nucleotide sequence to codons on mRNA, ensuring correct amino with different stages of life
cycle, age or with change in
acid placement.
physiology of the organism.
 T/F
Parts of transfer RNA 27. DNA chemically is less
(i) Anticodon loop – It has bases complementary to the code. reactive and structurally less
(ii) Amino acid acceptor end (3′ end) – This end binds to amino acids. tRNAs are specific stable when compared to
RNA. T/F
for each amino acid. For initiation, there is another specific tRNA that is referred to as
_____________
54 tRNA. 28. RNA used to act as a genetic
material as well as a catalyst
(iii) Messenger RNA (mRNA) but RNA being a catalyst was
™ The mRNA is produced by genetic DNA in the nucleus. reactive and hence unstable.
 T/F
55
™ mRNA provides the template for ______________.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 51

LP 5.4 REPLICATION OF DNA
Helicase enzyme acts over the Ori
site of DNA template and unwinds  Watson and Crick had proposed a scheme
the two strands of DNA. for replication of DNA. To quote their
original statement that is as follows: ‘‘It has
not escaped our notice that the specific pairing
we have postulated immediately suggests a
Key Note possible copying mechanism for the genetic
The main enzyme of DNA material’’ (Watson and Crick, 1953).
replication is DNA polymerase.
 The scheme suggested that the two strands
would separate and act as a template for the
synthesis of new _________________
56 strands.
Key Note  After the completion of replication, each
DNA molecule would have one parental and
Any mistake during replication
would result into mutations.
one newly synthesised strand. This scheme
57
was termed as __________________ DNA
5′ 3′
replication.
 The synthesis of DNA from DNA is called
Key Note replication.
● A failure in cell division after 5.4.1 The Experimental Proof for
DNA replication results into
polyploidy (a chromosomal Semi-conservative Mode of
anomaly). DNA Replication
● In eukaryotes, the replication  Semi conservative mode of DNA replication
of DNA takes place at S-phase was first proposed by Watson & Crick.
of the cell-cycle. The replication Fig. 5.7: Watson-Crick model for
Later on it was experimentally proved by
of DNA and cell division cycle semiconservative DNA replication
should be highly coordinated. Meselson & Stahl (1958) on __________
58
and Taylor on _______________.
59
Steps of the Experiment
Fig. 5.8 Fill-ins (i) E. coli was grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl (15N is the heavy isotope of
nitrogen) as the only __________
60 source for many generations. It was found that 15N
♦ If Meselson and Stahl was incorporated into newly synthesised DNA (as well as other nitrogen containing
had observed only one compounds). This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from the normal DNA
intermediate band after by centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.
the first generation, it (ii) Then, they transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and took samples
would have suggested a at various definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted the DNA that
61
______________ model of remained as double-stranded helices. The various samples were separated independently
DNA replication. on CsCl gradients to measure the densities of DNA.
♦ The technique used to Generation I Generation II
separate DNA molecules 15 N-DNA 14 N-DNA
14 N-DNA
of different densities in 15 N-DNA
this experiment is called 15 N-DNA
_____________________
62
20 min 40 min 14 N-DNA
centrifugation.
♦ Understanding DNA Gravitational force 14 N-DNA
replication is crucial
for biotechnological
63
applications such as ____ 15N 15N 14N 15N 14N 14N 14N 15N
_____________________
________, which relies on Heavy Hybrid Light Hybrid
making multiple copies of
(Separation of DNA by Centrifugation)
DNA.
Fig. 5.8: Meselson and Stahl’s experiment

52 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
Result of the Experiment
 After one generation (that is after 20 minutes; E. coli divides in 20 minutes), the DNA
Key Note
extracted had a hybrid or intermediate density. Besides DNA-dependent DNA
 After second generation, (that is after 40 minutes) DNA extracted was composed of polymerases, a variety of other
enzymes are also necessary to ensure
__________
64 amounts of this hybrid DNA and of ‘light’ DNA.
the replication process is completed
accurately and with high fidelity.
CONCEPTUAL PITFALLS
To calculate the ratio of light and hybrid densities of DNA molecules, there is an easy way. Fig. 5.9 Fill-ins
2n where n is the number of generations. Whatever the answer comes, subtract 2 from it, that ♦ If the enzyme helicase
will give the light density DNA. 2 will always be fixed for hybrid.
were to malfunction, the
Experiment by Taylor and Colleagues replication fork would not
be able to ___________,
72
 They used radioactive _____________
65 to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in
halting the process of
the chromosomes.
replication.
 They performed the experiment on Vicia faba (faba beans) in 1958.
♦ An experiment that includes
 They proved the semiconservative nature of DNA replication in chromosomes. treating cells with a drug
that inhibits the function
5.4.2 Replication Machinery and Enzymes
of DNA ligase would
66
 Energetically replication is a very _______________ process. result in accumulation of
 DNA replication initiates at a definite region in E. coli termed as origin of replication (ori). 73
_____________.
 Origin of replication is required as during recombinant DNA procedure, a piece of DNA
needed to be propagated requires a vector. The vectors provide the origin of replication.
Key Note
 For long DNA molecules, since the two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire
length (due to very high energy requirement), the replication occur within a small opening of E. coli, which has a significantly
the DNA helix, referred to as _____________________.
67 smaller genome of only 4.6 million
base pairs (in contrast to the 6.6
 DNA-dependent DNA polymerase is the main enzyme of DNA replication. It calayses the billion base pairs in a human’s
elongation of DNA strand. It uses a DNA template to catalyse the polymerisation of diploid genome), is able to
68
________________. complete DNA replication within 18
 These enzymes are highly efficient enzymes as minutes. This indicates an average
polymerization rate of about 2000
they have to catalyse polymerisation of a large
base pairs per second.
number of nucleotides in a very short time with
high degree of accuracy. NCERT Fill-ups
69
 The ___________ terminal phosphates in a
deoxynucleoside triphosphates are high-energy 29. The replication of DNA is
phosphates. _____________ as each DNA
molecule have one parental
 Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual and one newly synthesized
purposes. strand.
70
(i) Act as _____________ 30. In 1958, _____________
(ii) Provides energy for polymerisation reaction. and _____________ had
 Since, DNA-dependent DNA polymerases prove that DNA replicates
catalyze polymerisation only in one direction, semiconservatively.
71
i.e., __________. This creates some additional 31. In Meselson and Stahl’s
complications at the replicating fork. Fig. 5.9: Replication Fork experiments the heavy DNA
molecule was distinguished
 On the template strand (3′ → 5′ polarity), the from normal DNA by
replication is continuous, while on the other strand (5′ → 3′ polarity), it is discontinuous. centrifugation in __________
 The discontinuously synthesized fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase. density gradient.

CONCEPTUAL PITFALLS
Direction of leading and lagging strand synthesis
During DNA replication, the leading strand is synthesized continuously in a 5′ to 3′ direction, akin to a smooth, uninterrupted drive.
Conversely, the lagging strand is replicated in short, discontinuous segments called Okazaki fragments, resembling a series of brief,
stop-and-go journeys, due to the opposite orientation of the template strand.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 53

32. In E.coli, the average 5.5 TRANSCRIPTION
rate of polymerisation is
_____________ bp per
second.
 The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is called
transcription.
33. The DNA replication in the
template with 5' → 3' polarity Why both strands of DNA are not copied during transcription?
is discontinuous and the
discontinuously synthesized  If both strand of DNA acts as template, they would translate into two RNA of different
fragment are joined by sequences and in turn if they code for proteins, the sequence of amino acids in the protein
enzyme _____________. would be different. Hence one segment of DNA would be coding for two different proteins.
 The two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to each other,
hence will form double stranded RNA. This would prevent RNA translation into protein.
NCERT True-False MNEMONICS
34. 15N is a radioactive isotope, This mnemonic is to memorize which RNA polymerase helps in transcribing which RNA .
and it can be separated from
14N only based on densities. RoMaTe (roommate):
 T/F Ro M a Te
35. Only DNA-dependent DNA
polymerases is required to
complete the process of rRNA (ribosomal RNA) mRNA (messenger RNA) tRNA (transfer RNA)
replication with high degree
of accuracy.  T/F
RNA Polymerase I RNA Polymerase II RNA Polymerase III
36. The vectors provide the
origin of replication. T/F
5.5.1 Transcription Unit
 The part of DNA which takes part in transcription is called transcription unit. A transcription
unit has three components:
LP (i) Promoter
At promoter site, RNA polymerase ™ Promoter is a short sequence of DNA that provides binding site for RNA polymerase.
enzyme breaks H–bonds between 74
™ Promoter is situated upstream of structural gene at 5′ end of ____________ strand.
two DNA strands and separates
them. ™ Promoter defines the template and coding strands.
(ii) Structural gene
™ Structural gene is a part of strand of DNA having 3′ → 5′ polarity on which
Key Note transcription proceeds only in 5′ → 3′ direction of new strand. This strand of DNA is
called template strand.
If the position of promoter is
changed with terminator the
™ The other strand having polarity 5′ → 3′ is non-template strand that does not code
definition of coding and template for anything. It is called coding strand.
strand will be reversed. 3′ -ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-5′ Template Strand
5′ -TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG-3′ Coding Strand

Key Note
Associations with initiation and
termination factors alter the 75
specificity of the RNA polymerase
to either initiate or terminate.

76
LP Fig. 5.10: Schematic structure of a transcription unit
Polycistronic: A structural gene (iii) Terminator
that codes for more than one ™ Terminator is a short segment of DNA which recognizes the termination factor,
polypeptides. It is mostly found 77
_________ factor. It usually defines the end of the process of transcription.
in bacteria or prokaryotes. ™ The terminator is located towards ________
78 -end (downstream) of the coding strand.

54 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
Transcription Unit and the Gene
 A gene is defined as the functional unit of
inheritance.
79
 ___________________ is a segment of DNA
coding for a polypeptide.
 Monocistronic gene: A structural gene codes for
single polypeptide is called monocistronic gene.
80
It is mostly found in _______________.
 The monocistronic structural genes have 83
interrupted coding sequences thus the genes in
eukaryotes are said to be split genes.
 The coding sequences or expressed sequences are
defined as exons.
 Exons are said to be those sequence that appear in 84
mature or processed RNA.
 The exons are interrupted by introns. Introns or
intervening sequences do not appear in mature or Fig. 5.11: Process of Transcription in Bacteria
processed RNA.
 Inheritance of a character is also affected by promoter and regulatory sequences of a structural gene. LP
 Regulatory genes do not code for any RNA or protein. RNA polymerase enzyme
establishes phosphodiester bond
5.5.2 Mechanism of Transcription between adjacent ribonucleotides.
81
 There is a single ________ dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription or
synthesis of all three types of RNAs in prokaryotes. Key Note
 The process of transcription completed in three steps:
(i) Initiation In bacteria, since the mRNA does not
require any processing to become
RNA polymerase associates transiently with initiation-factor (σ) of the promoter to active, and also since transcription
initiate transcription. and translation take place in the
(ii) Elongation same compartment (as there is no
RNA polymerase uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerizes in a separation of cytosol and nucleus in
82
___________ depended fashion following the rule of complementarity. It also facilitates bacteria), many times the translation
can begin much before the mRNA is
opening of the helix and continues elongation. Only a short stretch of RNA remains
fully transcribed. Consequently, the
bound to the enzyme. transcription and translation can be
(iii) Termination coupled in bacteria.
(NEET 2021)
™ Once the polymerase reaches the terminator region, RNA polymerase binds to NCERT Fill-ups
termination-factor (ρ), the nascent RNA falls off, so also the RNA polymerase.
37. The process of copying
™ This results in termination of transcription. genetic information from
one strand of the DNA into
5.5.3 Additional Complexities in Eukaryotic Transcription RNA is termed as _________.
38. During transcription, the
 There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus. DNA strand having polarity
(i) RNA polymerase-I transcribes rRNA (28S, ______S
85 and 5.8S) _____________ is referred to
as template strand.
(ii) RNA polymerase-II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA
39. _________ strand of DNA is
(hnRNA).
used as reference point while
(NEET 2021, 2023) defining transcription and its
(iii) RNA polymerase-III transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs). polarity is _____________.
40. _____________ is a DNA
 The primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns and are non-functional. Hence, sequence that provides
binding site for RNA
it is subjected to a process of splicing, capping and tailing. After these processes, it is the fully
polymerase and is located
86
processed hnRNA, now called mRNA, that is transported out of the _________ for translation. _____________ upstream of
™ In splicing, the introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order. hnRNA structural gene.
undergoes additional processing called as capping and tailing.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 55

 NCERT True-False (NEET 2021)
 In capping, an unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the
41. The principle of 5′-end of hnRNA.
complementarity governs
the process of transcription, 87
 In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3′-end in a template _____________
except the adenosine manner.
complements now forms
base pair with uracil instead
of thymine. T/F
42. The strand which has the
polarity (3' → 5') and the
sequence same as RNA
(except thymine at the place
of uracil), is displaced during
transcription. T/F
43. The DNA sequence coding
for tRNA or rRNA molecule is
not defined as gene. T/F
44. Introns or intervening
sequences do appear in
mature or processed RNA.
T/F
45. RNA polymerase uses
nucleotide triphosphates as
substrate and polymerises
in a template depended
fashion following the rule of
complementarity. T/F

Fig. 5.12: Process of Transcription in Eukaryotes

5.6 GENETIC CODE

5.6.1 Discovery of Genetic Code

 The process of translation is the transfer of genetic
information from a polymer of nucleotides to a polymer Table 5.1: The Codons for the Various Amino Acids
of amino acids. There is no complementarity which exist
First Third
between nucleotides and amino acids. position position
 If there is a change in the nucleic acid (genetic material), Second position
there is a change in amino acids in proteins.
 There must be a genetic code that could direct the sequence
of amino acids in proteins during translation.
 George Gamow proposed the code should be combination
of bases. He suggested that in order to code for all the 20
amino acids, the code should be made up of three nucleotides.
 Har Gobind Khorana synthesized RNA molecules
with desired combinations of bases (homopolymer and
copolymers) and proved that codon was a triplet.
 Marshall Nirenberg’s cell – free system for protein
synthesis finally helped the discovery of genetic code.
 Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase)
was also helpful in polymerizing RNA with defined
sequences in a template independent manner (enzymatic
synthesis of RNA).

56 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
5.6.2 Salient Features of Genetic Code
Key Note
 The codon is triplet. Three nitrogen base sequences constitute one codon.
UAA, UAG, UGA are stop terminator
 There are 64 codons, 61 codes for amino acids and 3 codons are stop codons. codons.
 One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence it is unambiguous and specific.
 Degeneracy: Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
 Comma less: The codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion. There are no punctuation.
 Universal: From bacteria to human, UUU codes for phenylalanine. Some exceptions to this LP
88
rule have been found in mitochondrial codons, and in some ____________.
Since there are 64 triplet codons
(NEET 2021) and only 20 amino acids, the
 Initiation codon: AUG is the first codon (initiator codon) of all mRNA. And also it codes incorporation of some amino
for methionine (met), hence has dual function. acids is influenced by more than
one codon. Only Tryptophan
(UGG) and Methionine (AUG) are
specified by single codons. All
MNEMONICS other amino acids are specified by
2–6 codons. The later are called
To remember the stop codons. degenerated codons.
U Go Away, U Are Annoying, U Are Gone.
U Go Away, U Are Annoying

UGA UAA Key Note

U Are Gone Translation refers to the process of
formation of proteins.
UAG

5.6.3 Mutations and Genetic Code

 Relationship between DNA and genes are best understood by mutation studies. LP
Point Mutation Amino acid binds to 3’ end tRNA by
its– COOH group.
 It occurs due to change of single base pair within the gene.
 It only affects the change of particular amino acid.
 It is best understood by studying a diseased condition called sickle cell anemia.
 89
In the gene for beta globin, an amino acid residue _____________ is changed to valine due to
point mutation. NCERT Fill-ups
Frame Shift Mutation 46. The number of codons
 It occurs due to insertion or deletion of one or more nitrogen bases in the gene that changes the that code for amino acid
is _______ and _______
reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion. However, such mutations are referred to codons are stop codons.
as frameshift insertion or deletion mutations.
47. One codon codes only for
 Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or delete in one or multiple one amino acid, hence it is
codon hence one or multiple amino acids and reading frame remains unaltered from the _____ and specific. Some
point onwards. amino acids are coded by
more than one codon, hence
the code is _____________.
5.7 TRANSLATION 48. The cellular factory
responsible for synthesizing
proteins is ______. It consists
 Translation refers to the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. of structural RNAs and about
 The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the mRNA. _______ different proteins.
 The amino acids are joined by a bond which is known as a peptide bond. Formation of a 49. 23rRNA in bacteria
peptide bond requires energy. is the enzyme called
 The presence of a catalyst would enhance the rate of peptide bond formation. It occurs in _____________.
two phases:

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 57

 (i) Charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA – In this phase, amino acids are activated
NCERT True-False
in the presence of _________
90 and linked to their cognate tRNA.
50. George Gamow suggested (ii) Formation of peptide bonds between two charged tRNA.
that in order to code for all
the 20 amino acids, the code  Ribosome is the cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins.
should be made up of four (NEET 2023)
nucleotides. T/F
 It consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins.
51. The codon is read in mRNA
in an uncontiguous fashion  In its inactive state, it exists as two subunits; a large subunit and a small subunit.
and there are punctuations.
(NEET 2022)
T/F
52. Effects of small deletions  When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to
and rearrangements in a protein begins.
segment of DNA are easy to
 The large subunit of ribosome consists of two sites for binding of subsequent amino acids.
comprehend as it may result
in loss or gain of a gene and 91
 The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme- ____________)
so a function. T/F for the formation of peptide bond.
53. A classical example of  A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon
point mutation is a change (AUG) and the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide.
of single base pair in the
gene for alpha globin chain
 An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as
that results in the change untranslated regions (UTR).
of amino acid residue  The UTRs are present at both 5′ -end (before start codon) and at 3′ -end (after stop codon).
glutamate to valine. T/F They are required for efficient translation process.
54. During elongation stage the  After activation of amino acids, translation starts with its three steps:
tRNA moves from codon to (i) Initiation
codon along the mRNA. T/F
™ For initiation, the
ribosome binds to
Fig. 5.13 Fill-ins the mRNA at the
start codon (AUG)
♦ The tRNA anticodon
that is recognised
sequence is complementary
only by the initiator
to the mRNA codon and
tRNA.
ensures correct _________
92
placement into the growing (ii) Elongation
polypeptide chain. ™ The ribosome
♦ Sequencing data from proceeds to the
a completed translation elongation phase of
process would reveal the protein synthesis.
sequence of amino acids in ™ During this
the polypeptide, determined stage, complexes Fig. 5.13: Translation
by the ________________
93 composed of an
sequence on the mRNA. amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to the appropriate codon in mRNA by
forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon.

™ The ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA.

™ Amino acids are added one by one, translated into Polypeptide sequences dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA.
(iii) Termination
™ At the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation and releasing the complete polypeptide from the
ribosome.

5.8 REGULATION OF GENE EXPRESSION

 Regulation over the functioning of genes is called regulation of gene expression. It can be exerted at four levels:
(i) Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript).
(ii) Processing like splicing, terminal additions or modifications.

58 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 (iii) Transport of mRNAs from nucleus to cytoplasm.
(iv) Translational level.
Key Note
 The genes in a cell are expressed to perform a particular function or a set of functions. Lactose is the substrate for the
enzyme beta-galactosidase and
 It is the metabolic, physiological or environmental conditions that regulate the expression of it regulates switching on and off
genes. E.g., the development and differentiation of embryo into adult organisms are also a of the operon. Hence, it is termed
result of the coordinated regulation of expression of several sets of genes. as inducer. In the absence of a
 In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for preferred carbon source such as
glucose, if lactose is provided in the
control of gene expression.
growth medium of the bacteria, the
 In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn regulated lactose is transported into the cells
by interaction with accessory proteins, which affect its ability to recognize start sites. These through the action of permease.
regulatory proteins can act both positively (activators) and negatively (repressors).

5.8.1 Operon Model Key Note

 An operon is a segment of DNA that functions as single regulated unit comprising a regulator
Regulation of lac operon by
gene, a promoter gene, an operator gene, one or more structural genes, a repressor and an
repressor is referred to as negative
inducer or corepressor, these systems are common in prokaryotes. regulation. Lac operon is under
 The accessibility of promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA is regulated by the interaction of control of positive regulation as
proteins with sequences termed operators. well

94
 The operator region is adjacent to the ___________ elements in most operons and in most
cases the sequences of the operator bind a repressor protein. NCERT Fill-ups
 Each operon has its specific operator and specific repressor. 55. The accessibility of promoter
The Lac operon region of prokaryotic
DNA is regulated by the
 First operon, lac–operon, was discovered by a geneticist, Francois Jacob and a biochemist, interaction of proteins with
Jacque Monod (1961) in E.coli. DNA sequence termed as
 In lac operon (here lac refers to lactose), a polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a _____________.
common promoter and regulatory genes. Such arrangement is very common in bacteria. 56. The lac operon consists
Lac operon consists of following components: of one regulatory gene - i
(i) Structural genes: gene, where 'i' refers to
_____________.
● They actually control the synthesis of m-RNA through transcription. They determine
57. In lac operon, 'z' gene codes
primary structure of polypeptide chain. for _____________, 'y' gene
● Lac operon consists of 3 structural genes – z gene, y gene and a gene. codes for _____________
● All the three gene products in lac operon are required for metabolism of lactose and 'a' gene codes for
_____________.
(NEET 2019, 2023)
58. Regulation of lac operon by
 The z gene codes for beta-galactosidase (β-gal), which is primarily responsible for the repressor is referred to as
hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose into its monomeric units, galactose and glucose. _____________ regulation.
 The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to β-galactosides.
 The a gene encodes a transacetylase.
NCERT True-False
(ii) Operator gene: It controls the activity of structural genes. When repressor of regulator
gene binds to the operator gene. the latter becomes switched off. 59. Lac operator is present only
95
(iii) Promoter gene: It acts as initiation signal. It bears __________________ enzyme. in the lac operon and it
When operator gene is functional, its RNA polymerase travels on structural gene and interacts specifically with lac
perform transcription. repressor only. T/F

(iv) Regulator gene: It regulates the synthesis of repressor. It is also called inhibitor gene 60. Jacob and Monod were
the first to elucidate a
or i gene. The i gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon.
transcriptionally regulated
 The repressor of the operon is synthesised (all-the-time – constitutively) from the I gene. system. T/F
 The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase 61. β-gal is primarily responsible
from transcribing the operon. for the hydrolysis of the
disaccharide, lactose into its
 In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or allolactose, the repressor is inactivated monomeric units, glucose
by interaction with the inducer. This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and and glucose. T/F
transcription proceeds.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 59

  Essentially, regulation of lac operon can also be visualised as regulation of enzyme synthesis
LP by its substrate.
Types of gene expression
● Inducible: In this type, the gene
is switched on in response to the
presence of substrate (Inducer).
● Constitutive: Genes and their
enzymes remain operational.
● Repressible: It is of two types:
Positive Control: The product
of regulatory gene initiates
expression of genes under its
control.
Negative control: The product
of a regulatory gene switches off
the expression of genes under
its control.

96
Key Note
Genetic make-up of an organism
or an individual lies in the DNA
sequences.
Fig. 5.14: The lac operon

MNEMONICS

LP LAC operon LACks expression when LACtose is LACking

When there is a lack of lactose in the environment, the lac operon is generally not expressed.
Expressed sequence tags (ESTs) are
This is because the lac operon is an example of an inducible operon, meaning it is usually
short DNA sequences randomly
selected from the genomic library.
“turned on” (expressed) in the presence of a specific inducer, which, in this case, is lactose.

5.9 HUMAN GENOME PROJECT

Key Note  HGP was a mega project started by U.S. Department of Energy and National Institute of
The commonly used hosts for Health for sequencing human genome launched in 1990.
cloning of DNA fragments are  Wellcome Trust (UK) joined the project as a major partner. Later on Japan, France,
bacteria and yeast, and the vectors Germany, China and some other countries also joined it.
were called as BAC (bacterial
artificial chromosomes), and YAC  The project was completed in 2003.
(yeast artificial chromosomes).  Many non-human model organisms, such as bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans (a free
living non-pathogenic nematode), Drosophila (the fruit fly), plants (rice and Arabidopsis),
etc., have also been sequenced.
Goals of HGP
Key Note Some of the important goals of HGP were as follows:
(i) Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA.
The sequence of chromosome 1
was completed only in May 2006 97
(ii) Determine the sequences of the _______ billion chemical base pairs that make up human
(this was the last of the 24 human DNA.
chromosomes – 22 autosomes and (iii) Store this information in databases.
X and Y – to be sequenced).
(iv) Improve tools for data analysis.

60 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 (v) Transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industries.
(vi) Address the ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project.
Key Note
Methodology The Human Genome Project, with
an estimated cost of $9 billion,
 Two approaches have been recognized for analysing the human genome. aimed to sequence 3 billion base
(NEET 2019, 2023) pairs at $3 per base pair. To store
this data in book form, 3300 books,
(i) ESTs or expressed sequence tags: To Identify all the genes that are expressed as RNA. each with 1000 pages and 1000
letters per page, would be needed
(ii) Sequence annotation: Sequencing both coding and non-coding regions of whole to represent the DNA sequence
genome and assigning the different regions in the sequence with functions. from a single human cell.
 For sequencing, the total DNA from a cell is isolated and converted into random fragments
of relatively smaller sizes and cloned in suitable host using specialised vectors.
 The cloning resulted into amplification of each piece of DNA fragment so that it subsequently could be sequenced with ease.
Sanger’s Sequencing Method
 The DNA fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that worked on the principle of a method developed by
Frederick Sanger.
 Sanger is also credited for developing method for determination of amino acid sequences in proteins.
 These sequences were then arranged based on some overlapping regions present in them.
Key Note
 Specialised computer based programs were developed for generation of overlapping
The vast data generated by the
fragments for sequencing.
Human Genome Project required
 These sequences were subsequently annotated and were assigned to each chromosome. high-speed computational devices
for storage, retrieval, and analysis,
5.9.1 Salient Features of Human Genome contributing significantly to the
development of bioinformatics,
Some of the salient observations drawn from human genome project are as follows:
a new field blending biology and
(i) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. computing.
(ii) The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known
98
human gene being _______________ at 2.4 million bases.
(iii) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000–much lower than previous estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all
(99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
(iv) The functions are unknown for over 50 percent of the discovered genes.
(v) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
(vi) Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes hundred to thousand times. They
are thought to have no direct coding functions, but they shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
(vii) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
(viii) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA differences Key Note
(SNPs – single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in humans.
This information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal The Human Genome Project’s DNA
sequences enable a new approach
locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history.
to biological research, shifting from
studying a few genes to analyzing
entire genomes and interconnected
5.10 DNA FINGERPRINTING gene networks. This requires global
collaboration among thousands
of scientists across disciplines,
 Sir Alec Jeffreys (1984) discovered the DNA fingerprinting technique. revolutionizing our understanding
 He used a satellite DNA as probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was called of life’s molecular basis.
as Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTR).
 DNA Fingerprinting is a technique to find out variations in individuals of a population at DNA level.
(NEET 2021)
 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because
in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 61

  These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during
LP density gradient centrifugation.
Repetitive DNA: Type of DNA
 The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are referred to as satellite DNA.
containing multiple copies of  Depending on base composition (A : T rich or G:C rich), length of segment, and number of
identical sequences of nitrogen repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many categories, such as micro-satellites,
bases. Repeated sequences account mini-satellites, etc.
for more than 50% of the human
genome. Repetitive DNA is inert  These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of
in the synthesis of RNA, i.e, it is human genome. These sequence show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of
heritable but does not transcribe DNA fingerprinting.
and translate into any protein.  Since DNA from every tissue (such as blood, hair-follicle, skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.), from
an individual show the same degree of polymorphism, they become very useful identification
tool in forensic applications.
Principle of DNA Fingerprinting
 Jeffreys observed that DNA of each individual contains some non-cistronic hyper-variable
repeat minisatellite sequences. These repeat minisatellite sequences are called variable
number of tandem repeats or VNTRs.
 The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-satellite. A small DNA
LP sequence is arranged tandemly in many copy numbers.
 The copy number varies from chromosome to chromosome in an individual. The numbers of
● Microsatellite sequences: 1– repeat show very high degree of polymorphism. As a result the size of VNTR varies in size
6 bp repeat units flanked by
from 0.1 to 20 kb. Consequently, after hybridisation with VNTR probe, the autoradiogram
conserved sequences.
gives many bands of differing sizes. These bands give a characteristic pattern for an
● Minisatellite sequences: 10– individual DNA.
60 bp flanked by conserved
restriction sites. These are  It differs from individual to individual in a population except in the case of monozygotic
hypervariable and are specific (identical) twins.
for each individual. They are  These sequence show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting.
used in DNA fingerprinting.
Since DNA from every tissue (such as blood, hair-follicle, skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.),
from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism.
What is DNA polymorphism?
 DNA Polymorphism (variation at genetic level) arises due to mutations or if an inheritable
mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred to as DNA polymorphism
99
(frequency greater than ______________).
 The later are similar only in monozygotic twins and vary in number from person to person.
These repeats are inherited in the offsprings by their parents. These are used as genetic
Key Note markers in a personal identity test. One half of VNTR alleles of the offspring resemble that
of the mother and other half that of the father.
DNA fingerprinting has immense
applications in the field of forensic Technique of DNA fingerprinting
science, genetic biodiversity and
 The technique involved Southern blot hybridisation using radiolabelled VNTR as a probe.
evolutionary biology.
 It included the following steps:
(i) Isolation of DNA
(ii) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
(iii) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(iv) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon
(v) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
Key Note (viii) The dark bands on X-ray film show the DNA fingerprints.
Applications of DNA Fingerprinting
Polymorphism in DNA sequence
is the basis of genetic mapping of (i) It is very useful in the detection of crime and illegal pursuits in forensic sciences.
human genome as well as of DNA (ii) Paternity maternity disputes can be solved by DNA fingerprinting.
fingerprinting.
(iii) It helps in determining population and genetic diversities.

62 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 NCERT Fill-ups
62. Human Genome Project
was launched in year
__________________ and
completed in year _______.
63. The genes that are expressed
as RNA are referred to as
_____________.
64. Assigning different regions
in the DNA sequence with
function is called _________.
65. In Human Genome Project,
the fragments were
sequenced using automated
DNA sequences that work
on the principle of a method
developed by __________.
66. In human genome, less
than ______% of genome
codes for proteins. The
chromosome _______ has
most genes (2968) and
chromosome ______ has the
fewest (231).

NCERT True-False
67. DNA fingerprinting involves
identifying differences in
some specific regions in DNA
sequence called as repetitive
DNA, because in these
sequences, a long stretch of
Fig. 5. 15: Schematic representation of DNA fingerprinting : Few representative DNA is repeated many times.
chromosomes have been shown to contain different copy number of VNTR. For the sake  T/F
of understanding different colour schemes have been used to trace the origin of each 68. Repetitive sequences
band in the gel. normally code for any
proteins and form a large
portion of human genome.
CONCEPTUAL PITFALLS  T/F
69. DNA sequence differs from
Students can get confused between DNA fingerprinting and DNA sequencing.DNA
individual to individual
sequencing is a comprehensive technique used to determine the exact order of nucleotides in a population except in
in an individual’s entire genome or a specific DNA segment. It provides a complete the case of monozygotic
genetic blueprint and is primarily used for scientific research, medical diagnosis, (identical) twins. T/F
and understanding genetic variations or mutations causing diseases. However, DNA 70. The sensitivity of the DNA
fingerprinting focuses on analyzing specific regions of an individual’s DNA, such as fingerprinting technique has
minisatellites or microsatellites, to create a unique pattern for identification purposes. It is been decreased by use of
used in forensic science, paternity testing, and criminal investigations to establish identity polymerase chain reaction.
or relationships among individuals.  T/F

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 63

 Topic-wise Questions

THE DNA 10. DNA packaging in eukaryotes is done by formation of

(1) Chromosomes (2) Chromatin
1. If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, then how many base
(3) Chromophore (4) Nucleosome
pairs are present in E. coli?
(1) 3.6 × 104 (2) 3.6 × 106 11. Pitch of DNA is ________.
(3) 4.0 × 106 (4) 4.6 × 106 (1) 4.3 nm (2) 3.4 nm (3) 2.4 nm (4) 3.1 nm
2. Purine always paired with pyrimidine base via H-bonds in 12. Which of the following group is present in 5’ end of a
the DNA double helix, that leads to polynucleotide chain?
(1) The antiparallel nature (1) Hydroxyl group (2) Ethyl group
(2) Uniform length in all DNA (3) Carboxyl group (4) Phosphate group
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA 13. Nucleosome is defined as:
(4) The semiconservative nature (1) Intron interrupted DNA
(2) Double helix DNA
3. During analysis of the DNA of an organism having 5386
(3) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively
nucleotides, it was found out that A = 29%, G = 17%,
charged histone octamer
C = 32%, T = 17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can
(4) Octamer DNAs
be concluded that
(1) It is double stranded linear DNA 14. In DNA, total number of ‘A and T’ is 45%. What will be the
(2) It is double stranded circular DNA amount of guanine in DNA?
(3) It is single stranded DNA (1) 22.5% (2) 27.5% (3) 45% (4) 75%
(4) Both (1) and (2) 15. A = T and G = C. This relationship of DNA is
4. Histones proteins consists of (1) Chargaff’s rule (2) Le-Chatelier’s principle
(1) Arginine and histidine (3) Coulomb’s law (4) van’t Hoff’s rule
(2) Lysine and histidine 16. The two strands of DNA are joined together by
(3) Arginine, histidine and lysine (1) Peptide bonds (2) Phosphodiester bonds
(4) Arginine and lysine (3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Ester bonds
5. 48502 bp are present in 17. What is distance between two consecutive base pairs in a
(1) Escherichia coli DNA?
(2) Bacteriophage lambda (1) 0.34 × 10–9 nm (2) 0.34 nm
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae (3) 0.34 × 10–9 m (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) None of these 18. The formation of nucleoside occurs when a N-glycosidic
6. Which is the transcriptionally inactive chromatin? linkage joins
(1) Euchromatin (1) Oxygen group with sulphur base
(2) Heterochromatin (2) Nitrogen base with nitrogen base
(3) Loosely packed chromatin (3) Nitrogen base with pentose sugar
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Pentose sugar with phosphate group
7. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double 19. Variable part of DNA molecule is
helix. This provides (1) Phosphate (2) Sugar
(1) Antiparallel nature to DNA double helix (3) Nitrogen base (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Uniform length in all DNA 20. Amino acids lysines and arginines are ________ in nature.
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA (1) Acidic (2) Basic
(4) Additional stability to DNA (3) Neutral (4) None of these
8. 5-methyl uracil is 21. DNA double helix is
(1) Also known as thymine (1) Parallel and complementary
(2) A purine base (2) Complementary and antiparallel
(3) A double ring structure (3) Without peptide bond
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct (4) Always circular
9. Who said that the ratios between adenine and thymine and 22. In DNA segment of six coils, 22 bp are held together via two
guanine and cytosine are constant and equals one? hydrogen bonds. The number of cytosine bases present in
(1) Erwin Chargaff (2) Maurice Wilkins DNA are:
(3) Friedrich Meischer (4) James Watson (1) 22 (2) 38 (3) 44 (4) 68

64 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
23. How many hydrogen bonds are present between A and T of 37. Nitrogenous base not found in DNA is
DNA? (1) Cytosine (2) Guanine
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 5 (3) Uracil (4) Adenine
24. In DNA molecule, antiparallel strands means 38. State true (T) and False (F) for following statements
(1) One strand turns clockwise. A. Euchromatin is transcriptionally active
(2) Having one strand DNA with anticlockwise arrangement B. Heterochromatin is loosely packed and darkly stained.
of base. C. Histones are rich in acidic amino acid residues.
(3) Phosphate groups of the two strands share the same (1) A-T, B-F, C-T (2) A-T, B-F, C-F
position at their ends. (3) A-F, B-T, C-F (4) A-F, B-F, C-T
(4) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in 39. Which of the following DNA melt at the lowest temperature?
opposite position. (1) 5′—AATAAAGC—3′ (2) 5′—AATGCTGC—3′
25. How many nucleotide pairs are present in one turn of DNA 3′—TTATTTCG—5′ 3′—TTACGACG—5′
helix? (3) 5′—CTGCTGCT—3′ (4) 5′—GCATAGCT—3′
(1) 20 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 5 3′—GACGACGA—5′ 3′—CATATCGA—5′
26. How many complete turns in 45000 bp DNA? 40. What is the number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and
(1) 4.5 (2) 450 (3) 4500 (4) 45,000 cytosine?
27. Which of the following amino acids is/are present in histone (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
octamer? 41. In eukaryotic chromosomes, the ends are
(1) Lysines (2) Adenine (1) Single-stranded and must be bound by transcription
(3) Arginines (4) Both (1) and (3) complexes.
28. DNA is acidic due to (2) Highly repetitive sequences that hold replicated
(1) Sugar (2) Purine chromosomes linked.
(3) Phosphoric acid (4) Pyrimidine (3) Shorten every time a cell divides.
(4) Require telomerase to move to other sites in the
29. What is the number of base pair in a typical nucleosome? chromosome.
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 350 (4) 500
42. Why DNA is called a genetic material?
30. What will be the length of one coil of B-DNA helix? A. Due to its stability B. Its ability to mutate
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 3.4 nm (3) 3.4 Å (4) 10 nm C. Its ability to multiply D. Its ability to express itself
31. The chromatin fibres are condensed at which stage of cell Choose the correct combination.
division? (1) A and B (2) A, C and D
(3) C and D (4) A, B, C and D
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase (4) Prophase 43. Plasmid DNA consist of genes that
(1) Confer drug resistance to the host cell
32. DNA strands are antiparallel because of
(2) Control conjugation
(1) Peptide bonds (2) Disulphide bonds
(3) Can confer resistance the heavy metals
(3) H-bonds (4) Phosphodiester bonds
(4) All of these
33. Circular DNA is found in
44. In the model of DNA, the two strands of a double helix are
(1) Viruses
join together via hydrogen bonds between
(2) Bacteria, chloroplasts and mitochondria (1) Sugar and phosphate groups
(3) Chloroplasts and mitochondria alone (2) Sugar and nitrogenous bases
(4) All of the above (3) Sulphur groups and nitrogenous bases
34. In AGCT of DNA, hydrogen bonds and base pairing occur (4) Nitrogenous bases
between 45. Double helix model of Wilkins and Franklin was based on
(1) A—G, C—T (2) A—C, G—T the observation of
(3) A—T, C—G (4) All of the above (1) Chargaff (2) Meselson
35. DNA and RNA differ by (3) Meischer (4) Francis crick
(1) Nitrogen bases and sugars 46. Chargaff’s rules are mainly applicable to
(2) Nitrogen bases and phosphate groups (1) Double stranded RNA
(3) Number of C-atoms in sugars (2) Single stranded DNA and RNA
(4) Sugar and phosphate groups (3) Single stranded DNA only
36. A DNA nucleotide chain has 5′-AGCTTCGA-3′ sequence. The (4) Double stranded DNA
nucleotide sequence of the corresponding chain would be 47. Which nitrogenous base is replaced by ‘uracil’ in RNA?
(1) 3′-TCGAAGCT-5′ (2) 3′-GCTAAGCT-5′ (1) Adenine (2) Guanine
(3) 3′-UCAUUGAC-5′ (4) 5′-GATCCTAG-3′ (3) Cytosine (4) Thymine

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 65

48. Who proposed central dogma? 59. Pyrimidine base that has conferred additional stability to
(1) Watson and Crick (2) Beadle and Tatum DNA over RNA is
(3) Klug (4) Crick (1) Adenine (2) Cytosine
49. Hereditary information is represented by (3) Guanine (4) Thymine
(1) Number of nucleic acids (2) Position of nucleic acids 60. How many of following features are relatable to a molecule
(3) Size of nucleic acids (4) Both (1) and (2) which act as genetic material?
50. In modern biology, central dogma or information flow is A. The molecule should be able to generate its own replica.
(1) RNA—Proteins—DNA (2) Proteins—DNA—RNA B. The molecule should provide the scope for mutation.
(3) RNA—DNA—Proteins (4) DNA—RNA—Proteins C. The molecule should change its structure rapidly.
D. The molecule should be able to express itself.
THE SEARCH FOR GENETIC MATERIAL (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

51. RNA is labile and degradable due to the presence of ______ RNA WORLD
group at every nucleotide. 61. Comment on the following two statements.
(1) –OH (2) –NH3 A. RNA can act as a catalyst as well as genetic material.
(3) –H (4) All of these B. DNA can resist change by evolving a process of repair
52. Radioactive 32P was used to culture bacteriophages in (1) Statement ‘A’ is correct while ‘B’ is incorrect
Hershey and Chase experiment. It resulted in radioactive (2) Statement ‘B’ is correct while ‘A’ is incorrect
(1) Viral proteins (3) Both the statements are correct
(2) Viral DNA (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Cell wall of bacteriophage
62. What is a nucleotide in terms of RNA and DNA structure?
(4) Bacterial capsule
(1) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base.
53. In which of the following experiment stability is shown as (2) A nucleotide is a sugar molecules covalently bonded to
one of the properties of genetic material? a heterocyclic base.
(1) Griffith’s transforming principle (3) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule bonded to phosphate
(2) Hershey and Chase experiment group and a heterocyclic base.
(3) Messleson and Stahl’s centrifugation technique (4) A nucleotide is a homocyclic base joined to hydrogen
(4) George Mendel’s experiment group.
54. The bacterium used by Griffith is
(1) Streptococcus pyogenes 63. Genetic RNA is defined as:
(2) Streptococcus agalactiae (1) Genetic material of RNA viruses
(3) Streptococcus thermophilus (2) RNA that carries genetic message
(4) None of these (3) RNA that helps gene regulation in lac operon
(4) RNA present in semi-autonomous organelle
55. Griffith’s experiments showing the transformation of R strain
pneumococcus bacteria to S strain pneumococcus bacteria in 64. Why RNA is less stable genetic material than DNA?
the presence of heat-killed S strain bacteria indicates that (1) In RNA, 2′ position has –OH group while DNA does not
(1) An external factor was affecting the R strain bacteria (2) RNA is also known as unstable DNA
(2) DNA was definitely the transforming factor. (3) RNA has uracil while DNA has thymine
(3) After heat killing, S strain bacteria could be reactivated (4) Both (1) & (3) are correct
(4) All of these 65. The bases of RNA are similar as those of DNA with the
56. Who among the following discovered nuclein? exception that RNA consist of
(1) Meischer (2) Sutton (1) Cysteine instead of cytosine.
(3) Mc Leod (4) Morgan (2) Uracil instead of thymine.
57. Bacteriophage with radioactivity both in DNA and protein (3) Guanine instead of cytosine.
infects a bacterium. Bacterium also becomes radioactive. (4) Uracil instead of adenine.
Radioactivity take place in 66. Select the option which is not true.
(1) Protein (2) DNA (1) DNA has evolved from RNA.
(3) All parts (4) All the option are correct (2) Both DNA as well as RNA is double stranded.
58. Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was (3) DNA is more stable as compared to RNA.
allowed to multiply in non-radioactive medium for two (4) DNA was the first genetic material.
generations. What will be the percentage of bacteria with 67. In RNA, the addition OH’ group is found at ______ of the ribose.
radioactive DNA? (1) 5’ position (2) 2’ position
(1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 75% (3) 3’ position (4) 4’ position

66 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 REPLICATION (3) One strand from parent and one strand newly formed in
the two daughter molecules.
68. DNA replication is (4) One daughter receives both the parental strands while
(1) Conservative and discontinuous the other daughter receives newly formed strands.
(2) Semiconservative and semi-discontinuous
(3) Semiconservative and discontinuous 79. What is the time of division of E.coli?
(4) Conservative (1) 25 minutes (2) 21 minutes
(3) 20 minutes (4) 35 minutes
69. Discontinuous fragments are formed in the direction of
(1) 3′ → 5′ (2) 5′ → 3′ (3) 5′ → 5′ (4) 3′ → 3′ 80. In the study of DNA replication, experimental material has
been used was
70. When did Meselson and Stahl performed the experiment to (1) Escherichia coli (2) Neurospora crassa
show semiconservative nature of DNA? (3) Pneumococcus (4) Pisum sativum
(1) 1958 (2) 1800 (3) 1999 (4) 2001
81. What is the number of base pairs in the genetic material of
71. Which of the following is a correct pair of combinations? E.coli?
i. 16C—Distinction between PSI and PSII (1) 3.2 × 1010 bp (2) 6.6 × 109 bp
ii. 14N—Semiconservative replication of DNA (3) 6.0 × 106 bp (4) 4.6 × 106 bp
iii. 35S—Polypeptide synthesis
82. During DNA replication leading strand is formed
iv. 32P—Identification of chemical nature of genetic
(1) Continuously (2) In short segments
material
(3) At the end of replication (4) Ahead of replication
(1) ii, iii (2) ii, iv (3) i, ii (4) iv, iii
83. In Escherichia coli mode of DNA replication is
72. In the Meselson and Stahl experiment heavy, 15N is used to (1) Conservative and unidirectional
prove semi-conservative nature of DNA, the first generation (2) Semiconservative and unidirectional
was found to have (3) Fragmented and no direction
(1) 15N only (2) 14N only (4) Semiconservative and bidirectional
14
(3) N and N 15 (4) None of these
84. Taylor demonstrated chromosome replication to be
73. How many high energy phosphate bonds are present in a
semiconservative in
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates?
(1) Vicia faba (2) E. coli
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 8
(3) Pea (4) Mouse liver cell
74. For long DNA molecules, since the two strands of DNA
85. DNA synthesis can be measured by estimating incorporation
cannot be set apart in its entire length (because of the very
of radio-labelled
high energy requirement), the replication take place within a
(1) Uracil (2) Ribose sugar
small opening of the DNA helix, called as
(3) Thymidine (4) Adenine
(1) Okazaki fragments
(2) Semiconservative replication 86. The main role of DNA polymerase is to
(3) Replication fork (1) Add nucleotides to the growing daughter strand.
(4) End terminal of telomerase (2) Seal nicks along the sugar-phosphate backbone of the
daughter strand.
75. Which of the following chemical compound was present in
(3) Relaxes positive super coiling tension in the parent
the centrifugation medium in the experiment of Meselson
DNA double helix.
and Stahl?
(4) Prevent reassociation of the denatured parent DNA strands.
(1) CaCl (2) CsCl (3) CaCO3 (4) CsSO4
76. Continuous and discontinuous fragments of DNA are formed
TRANSCRIPTION
during
(1) Transduction (2) Transcription 87. In capping
(3) Replication (4) Translation (1) Adenylate is added at 5′ end
77. DNA replication is semiconservative in nature as (2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5′ end
(1) Only one parent strand acts as template (3) Cysteine is added at 3′ end terminal
(2) Both strands of new molecule are synthesized de nova (4) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 3′ end
(3) One of the strand in each new molecule is parental and 88. Synthesis of RNA molecules is terminated by a signal
the other is new recognised by
(4) Daughter strands are dispersive (1) Alpha factor (2) Sigma factor
78. During replication of DNA (3) Delta factor (4) Rho factor
(1) The two daughter molecules develop from both the 89. Information transfer from RNA to DNA is called
parental strands. (1) Transcription (2) Translation
(2) Both parental strand of RNA acts as templete. (3) Replication (4) Reverse transcription

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 67

 90. The term ‘Transcription’ refers to 101. In split genes, the coding sequences are called
(1) Duplication of the genetic material (1) Exons (2) Introns (3) Cistrons (4) Operons
(2) Copying of genetic information from one strand of DNA 102. Which of the following play both structural and catalytic
to RNA role during translation?
(3) Recombination of genetic material (1) RNA polymerase (2) rRNA
(4) All of the above (3) Exon (4) Terminator
91. The terminator site and the promoter site for transcription 103. RNA polymerase requires for initiation
are present at (1) Sigma factor (2) Alpha subunit
(1) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively (3) P-factor (4) rho factor
of the transcription unit 104. Enzyme required for transcription is
(2) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively (1) RNase (2) Endonuclease
of the transcription unit (3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase
(3) Both at the 5′ (upstream) end
105. Transcription initiate at
(4) Both at the 3′ (downstream) end
(1) Initiator region and ends at stop region
92. Choose the statements that correctly explains why both the (2) Repressor region and ends at promotor terminal
strands of DNA are not copied (3) Promoter region and ends at terminator
A. If both the strand act as template then they would code (4) CAA box and ends at TATA box
for RNA molecule with different sequences.
106. RNA polymerase III transcribes
B. It will lead to the formation of double stranded RNA.
(1) tRNA (2) ssDNA
C. It Serves dual purpose by acting as substrate. Which (3) mRNA (4) Reverse transcriptase
provide energy for polymerisation.
D. It leads to the aminoacylation of tRNA. 107. Monocistronic condition is present in all following organism
(1) A & C (2) A, C & D (3) B & C (4) A & B except
(1) Monkey (2) Bacteria
93. State true and false for the following two statements. (3) Human (4) None of these
A. The promoter present in the transcriptional unit is
108. In coding strand of DNA sequence of nitrogen bases was
located downstream.
found to be 5′-CATGTTTATCGC-3′. The sequence of
B. The terminator present in the transcriptional unit is
nitrogen bases in mRNA synthesised over the corresponding
located upstream.
region of template strand is:
(1) A - True, B - False (2) A - True, B - True
(1) 5′-CAU GUU UAU CGC-3′
(3) A - False, B - False (4) A - False, B - True
(2) 5′-CAAGAATAUGCC-3′
94. Which of the following defines the position and presence of (3) 3′-GUACAAAUAGCC-5′
template and coding strands in transcription unit? (4) 3′-CTAGUTTUTCCA-5′
(1) Promoter (2) Operator
(3) Repressor (4) Inducer GENETIC CODE
95. Portion of DNA having information for an entire polypeptide/
trait is 109. Addition or deletion of a single nucleotide produces mutation
(1) Cistron (2) Recon (3) Muton (4) Operon (1) Frameshift mutation (2) Inversion mutation
(3) Transversion mutation (4) Duplication mutation
96. On template segment of DNA sequence of
110. Who suggested that in order to code for 20 amino acids, the
5′-AATGCTTAGGCA-3′ will be represented over the
code should constitute a combination of 3 nucleotides?
transcribed mRNA as
(1) Har Gobind Khorana (2) Marshall Nirenberg
(1) 3′-UUACGTTUCCGU-5′
(3) George Gamow (4) Alec Jeffreys
(2) 5′-GGTGCTGGCGGC-3′
(3) 3′-UUACGAAUCCGU-5′ 111. Hargobind Khorana is known for
(4) 3′-TTACGAATCCGT-5′ (1) Discovery of DNA
(2) Discovery of DNA ligase
97. In eukaryotic cell, transcription, RNA splicing and RNA (3) Discovery of tRNA
capping take place inside (4) Synthesis of proteins
(1) Nucleus (2) Ribosomes
(3) E.R. (4) Dictyosomes 112. Out of 64 codons, 61 code for 20 types of amino acids. It is
because of:
98. Which RNA carries the amino acids from the amino acid (1) Unambiguous nature of code
pool to mRNA during protein synthesis? (2) Degeneracy of genetic code
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA (3) mRNA (4) hnRNA (3) Corresponding pair of codons
99. Split genes include (4) Universality of codons
(1) Exons (2) Introns 113. Arrange the amino acids according to increasing number of
(3) Pseudoalleles (4) Both (1) and (2) triplet codes.
100. Which of the following rRNA is not transcribed by RNA 1. Leucine 2. Tryptophan
polymerase I? 3. Valine 4. Phenylalanine
(1) 5S (2) 28S (3) 18S (4) 5.8S (1) 4-1-3-2 (2) 1-2-3-4 (3) 2-4-3-1 (4) 2-3-4-1

68 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
114. Mark the odd one out with respect to stop codon. 127. What is the function of tRNA?
(1) UAA (2) UGC (3) UGA (4) UAG (1) Transcription
115. From bacteria to humans, a universal code for phenylalanine is. (2) Adapter for attaching amino acids over mRNA template
(1) UUU (2) UUA (3) UUG (4) CUU (3) Transferring information to mRNA
116. How many triplet codons are having all three bases same in (4) Transmit genetic information to other cell’s cytoplasm
64 triplet codons?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8 TRANSLATION
117. Find the correct match.
128. A segment of DNA, AGCTTCGAA, has lost first base.
(1) UUA–Valine (2) AUG–Cysteine
Assuming that translation initiate from the next base the
(3) AAA–Lysine (4) CCC–Alanine
effect would be
118. A coding sequence made of alternating C and U bases would (1) No specific alteration change in polypeptide chain
form a polypeptide having
(2) Only first amino acid will be different
(1) Alternating leu and ser residues
(3) A complete change in type and sequence of amino acids
(2) Either leu or ser residues
(4) Last amino acid of polypeptide will be different
(3) Only ser residues
(4) Only leu residues 129. Amino acid sequence in protein synthesis is determined by
sequence of
119. Choose the pair which is not incorrect.
(1) AGG - Arg (2) UGC - Stop (1) rRNA (2) tRNA (3) mRNA (4) cDNA
(3) AGA - Ser (4) GCU - Val 130. Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for
120. Codon with dual function is (1) Replication of RNA
(1) UGA (2) UUU (3) AUG (4) AAA (2) Formation of peptide bond
(3) Splicing
121. There are 64 codons in the genetic code dictionary as
(1) 64 amino acids are to be coded (4) Initiation of transcription
(2) 64 types of tRNAs are present 131. What type of bond is formed when two charged tRNA are
(3) There are 24 sense codon and 40 nonsense codons brought close enough?
(4) Genetic code is triplet. (1) Glycosidic bond (2) Peptide bond
122. Amino acid that specified by genetic codes ACC, ACU, (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
ACA, ACG showing degeneracy is:
132. What do we call the process in which transfer RNA are
(1) Alanine (2) Methionine
activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their cognate
(3) Glycine (4) Threonine
RNA?
123. Why are some amino acids are coded by more than one codon? (1) Transacetylation (2) Translation
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code (3) Aminoacylation (4) Transcription
(2) Continuous nature of genetic code
(3) Punctuation in genetic code 133. What does the following signify?
(4) Both (1) & (3) Amino acid + ATP → Aminoacyl AMP + PPi
(1) Chain termination (2) Activation of amino acids
124. In sickle cell anemia, amino acid residue glutamate is
(3) Elongation of chain (4) None of the above
changed to
(1) Valine (2) Alanine 134. Ribozyme in bacteria refers to
(3) Glutamine (4) Serine (1) 23 SrRNA (2) mRNA
125. In ATGACCAGGACCCCAACA sequence the first base (3) tRNA (4) 5sRNA
gets mutated. It will effect 135. Total number of amino acids present in a polypeptide chain
(1) Change in type and sequence of amino acids is 150. How many mRNA bases will be required?
(2) Change in first amino acid only (1) 150 (2) 450 (3) 100 (4) 250
(3) No change
136. The primary role of tRNA in relation to protein synthesis is to:
(4) No coding
(1) Initiates transcription
126. Select the false statement from the following. (2) Inhibits protein synthesis
(1) AUG act as initiator codon.
(3) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes.
(2) UUU would code for Phenylalanine from bacteria to
(4) Proofreading
human.
(3) The genetic code is universal. 137. RNA that picks up specific amino acid from amino acid pool of
(4) In mRNA, codon is read in non-contiguous manner with cytoplasm to carry it to ribosome during protein synthesis is
punctuations. (1) tRNA (2) mRNA (3) rRNA (4) hnRNA

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 69

138. Some factors are given below: 145. Enzyme involved in the hydrolysis of disaccharide is
1. Initiation codon 2. GTP and ATP (1) Alpha - galactosidase (2) Beta - galactosidase
3. Peptidyl transferase 4. tRNA (3) Lactase (4) All of the above
5. mRNA 146. State (T) for true and (F) for false for following statements.
6. Amino acid activating enzyme A. Control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the
7. rRNA predominant site for control of gene expression in
Select the correct combination of factors required for protein prokaryotes.
synthesis.
B. Lac operator is present in all type of operon.
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 3, 4 and 5
(1) A-T, B-F (2) A-F, B-F
(3) 5, 6 and 7 (4) All of the above
(3) A-T, B-T (4) A-F, B-T
147. The product of i gene combines with _______ in Escherichia
REGULATION OF GENE EXPRESSION coli.
139. What is operon? (1) Operator gene to switch off structural genes
(1) RNA polymerase that determines single amino acid (2) Inducer gene to switch off structural genes
(2) A set of closely placed genes regulating a metabolic (3) Operator gene to switch on structural genes
pathway in prokaryotes (4) Both (1) & (3) are correct
(3) Segment of DNA specifying a polypeptide 148. Escherichia coli growing on medium having glucose is
(4) Gene responsible for switching on and switching off of transferred to lactose containing medium. Which change
other genes occurs?
140. Escherichia coli with mutated z gene of lac operon cannot (1) Lac operon is induced
grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of (2) Lac operon is suppressed
energy because (3) All operons are induced
(1) Lac operon is constitutively active in these cells (4) The bacterium stops dividing
(2) They cannot synthesise functional beta-galactosidase
149. If gene expression of the lac operon were completely
(3) Escherichia coli cannot use lactose in the presence of
repressed what effect would occur?
glucose
(1) The cell would be more efficient without ‘wasting’ the
(4) The bacterium cannot transport lactose from the medium
energy required for the low level of Lac z, Lac y, and
into the cell
Lac a gene expression.
141. In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of gene (2) Allolactose would accumulate within the cell and
expression is become toxic.
(1) Transcriptional initiation
(3) Lactose would not be changed into the inducer and the
(2) Translation level
operon could not be induced.
(3) Initiation of replication
(4) All of these
(4) Processing level
150. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when:
142. Which one event would take place in ‘Lac-operon’ of E. coli (1) Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
when growth medium has high concentration of lactose?
(2) Repressor binds to operator
(1) Cytoplasmic genes unable to produce polycistronic
(3) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
DNA.
(4) Lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
(2) Repressor protein binds to RNA polymerase and
prevents translation. 151. Which of the following is responsible for switching the
(3) Repressor protein attaches to the promoter sequence and operon on and off?
represses the operator. (1) Transacetylase (2) Lac mRNA
(4) Inducer molecule binds to repressor protein and RNA (3) Lactose (4) Permease
polymerase binds to promoter sequence. 152. Sequence of structural genes of lac operon is
143. At what level in eukaryotic organism, regulation of gene is (1) y, z, a (2) z, y, a (3) a, y, z (4) a, z, y
exerted? 153. In lac operon genes a, i, y and z code for
(1) Formation of primary transcript (1) Repressor protein, permease, b-galactosidase,
(2) Regulation of splicing transacetylase
(3) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm (2) Transacetylase, repressor protein, permease,
(4) All of these b-galactosidase
144. Environmental agent that triggers transcription from an (3) Transacetylase, permease, β-galactosidase, repressor
operon is protein
(1) Inducer (2) Regulator (4) Permease, transacetylase, repressor protein,
(3) Repressor (4) Controlling factor β-galactosidase

70 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 HUMAN GENOME PROJECT DNA FINGERPRINTING
154. In HGP, the commonly used hosts was 162. The probe used initially by Alec Jeffreys during development
(1) Bacteria and yeast of DNA fingerprinting was
(2) Bacteria and human being (1) Ribozyme (2) SAT chromosomes
(3) Protozoa and bacteria (3) VNTR (4) rDNA
(4) Fungi and plants 163. Which of the following act as the basis of gene mapping of
155. In year _________ sequence of human genome project was human genome?
launched. (1) Mitosis (2) Dihybrid cross
(3) Transacetylation (4) Polymorphism
(1) 1980 (2) 1990 (3) 1995 (4) 2010
164. Which of the following processes is used for multiplication
156. What is the cost of sequencing of 1 bp in human genome
or amplification of DNA for fingerprinting?
project?
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(1) $ 4 (2) $ 5 (2) Polymerisation
(3) $ 3 (4) None of these (3) Southern blotting
157. Many non-humans model organisms have also been (4) Electrophoresis
sequenced along with the human genome, these are 165. What is the full form of VNTRs?
(1) Bacteria and yeast (1) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
(2) Plants (rice and Arabidopsis) (2) Very Narrow Tandem Repeats
(3) Fruitfly and Caenorhabditis (nematode) (3) Variable Non-cistronic Transposon Repeats.
(4) All of the above (4) Valuable Non-cistronic Transposon Regions.
158. Which of the following is not a goal of HGP? 166. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high
A. To identify all the approximately 20 to 25 thousand gene frequency, it is referred as
in human DNA. (1) DNA polymorphism (2) Expressed sequence tag
B. To store the information in databases. (3) Sequence annotation (4) Linkage
C. Ethical, legal and social issues has nothing to do with 167. Matching DNA sequence of criminal with suspect is
this project. known as
D. To determine the sequence of 6 billion chemical base (1) DNA fingerprinting (2) DNA amplification
pairs that make up human DNA. (3) Gene mapping (4) DNA resolution
(1) A, B and C (2) C and D 168. What percentage of base sequence is same among humans?
(3) B and D (4) A and D (1) 99.9% (2) 1% (3) 0.1% (4) 0.2%
159. In human DNA haploid content is 169. Which cannot be used for DNA fingerprinting in humans?
(1) 1.65 × 109 bp (2) 3.3 × 109 bp (1) Leucocytes (2) Erythrocytes/RBCs
6 (3) Hair bulbs (4) Sperms
(3) 4.6 × 10 bp (4) 5.9 × 106 bp
170. Choose the correct statement from the following
160. Select the goal(s) of the human genome project?
(1) Mini-satellites do not code for any protein
(1) To store the information in the database
(2) Repetitive DNA are same as bulk DNA in our body
(2) To eliminate all diseases (3) Satellite DNA forms major peaks as compared to
(3) To consider social, ethical and legal aspects of genetic repetitive DNA.
information (4) Different degree of polymorphism is shown by a
(4) All of these hair‑follicle and saliva.
161. Which of the following countries contributed in HGP? 171. The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as
(1) Japan (2) Germany (1) Gene mapping (2) Mega-Satellite
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (3) Mini-Satellite (4) Micro-Satellite

Morale Booster Questions

1. An alien DNA-like molecule is isolated from the frozen for every base Z, there is 2 times the amount of the base
remains of a martian life form that was found beneath designated S. If the molecule contains 12% R. How much Z
the martian polar ice caps. It is found that for every base would you expect?
designated Q, there is 2 times the amount of the base R, and (1) 6% (2) 12% (3) 24% (4) 27.33%

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 71

 2. Chromatin structure must be altered in order for gene (3) Only proteins from the infecting phage can also be
expression to occur because detected in progeny phage.
(1) Condensed chromatin is replicated but not transcribed. (4) Only nucleic acids enter the cell.
(2) Condensed chromatin makes most DNA sequence
inaccessible to the transcription complex. 9. Size of VNTR varies from
(3) Decondensed chromatin has more nucleosomes per (1) 1 to 2 kb (2) 0.1 to 20 kb
DNA molecule. (3) 20 to 40 kb (4) 0.1 to 2.0 kb
(4) Heterochromatin is actively transcribed and euchromatin 10. From the experiments carried out by Avery, Macleod and
is not transcribed. McCarty using various enzymes, which of the following
3. The primary purpose of Griffith’s experiments on the results prominently proved that DNA is the transforming
Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium was to material?
(1) Find a cure for pneumonia in humans. (1) DNA of heat killed ‘S’ strain + R strain + DNase →
(2) Prevent cancers caused by exposure to ultraviolet light. Virulent strain
(3) To test whether or not the bacteria synthesized their own (2) DNA of heat killed ‘S’ strain + R strain + RNAse →
polysaccharide capsule. virulent strain
(4) Discover the molecular structure of DNA. (3) DNA of heat killed ’s strain + R strain → virulent strain
(4) DNA of heat killed ‘S’ strain + R strain + Protease →
4. A murder has occurred, and you are asked to help solve it. virulent strain
The police bring you a sample from the crime scene of what
11. Why glucose and galactose cannot serve the function of
they believe is the killer’s DNA and ask you for a chemical
inducer in lactose operon?
analysis. Your study of this sample reveals the presence of
(1) They contain binding site for attaching the operator
adenine, thymine, ribose and uracil, leading you to conclude protein.
that the sample is (2) They do not possess the binding sites for attaching the
(1) Pure DNA repressor protein.
(2) Pure RNA (3) They contain binding site for attaching the permease
(3) Probably a mixture of DNA and RNA. enzyme.
(4) Probably a mixture of rRNA and mRNA. (4) They lack the binding site for attaching the inducers
5. Prior to mutation, a sequence of DNA reads protein.
GAGCCTATGCCAGTA. After the mutation, the sequence 12. The lagging daughter strand of DNA is synthesised in
reads GAGCGTACGCCATTA. Which of the following best what appears to be the “wrong” direction. This synthesis is
explains the change in DNA that has occurred? accomplished by
(1) There was a single base deletion. (1) Connecting short Okazaki fragments that are synthesized
(2) There was a single base substitution. in short spurts in the “right” direction.
(3) There were multiple base deletions. (2) Primase
(4) There were multiple base substitutions. (3) Using multiple primers and DNA polymerase I.
6. Experiments by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty supported (4) Both (1) and (2)
DNA as the genetic materials by showing that 13. If in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th
(1) Both protein and DNA sample provided the transforming codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA then what will happen?
factor. (1) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
(2) DNA was not complex enough to be the genetic material. (2) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(3) Two polypeptide of 24 and 25 amino acids will be
(3) Only samples with DNA provided activity.
formed
(4) Even though DNA was molecularly simple, it provided
(4) Three polypeptide of 10 amino acids will be produced
adequate variation to act as the genetic material.
14. Select the code which do not code for alanine.
7. Which of the following is the correct statement for Chargaff’s (1) GCU (2) GCC
rules of base pairing? (3) CCA (4) GCG
(1) The ratio of purines to pyrimidines is roughly equal in 15. Few viruses have RNA instead of DNA shows that
all tested organisms. (1) Their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA before
(2) The ratio of A to T is roughly equal in all tested organisms. replication
(2) No replication occur in DNA
(3) In all the organism, the ratio of A + T and G + C is equal.
(3) There is no hereditary information
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) RNA can act to transfer heredity
8. During infection of E. coli cells by bacteriophage T2 16. What is the average rate of polymerisation of enzyme DNA
(1) Proteins are the only phage components that actually polymerase?
enter the infected cell. (1) 2000 bp per second (2) 3600 bp per second
(2) Both proteins and nucleic acids enter the cell. (3) 200 bp per second (4) 320 bp per second

72 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
17. What would happen if a mutation occurred in the DNA such 27. Which one of the following is true with respect to AUG?
that the second codon of a polypeptide, UGC, was changed (1) Codes for methionine only
to UAG? (2) Is also an termination codon
(1) The ribosome would skip that codon and translation (3) Codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
would continue. (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Translation would continue, but the reading frame of the 28. The first genetic material could be:
ribosome would be shifted. (1) Protein (2) Carbohydrates
(3) Translation would stop at the second codon and no (3) DNA (4) RNA
functional protein would be made. 29. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes:
(4) Translation would continue, but the second amino acid (1) Exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
in the protein would be different. (2) Exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature
18. Which of the following is not a salient feature of RNA.
double-helix structure of DNA? (3) Introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature
(1) The backbone is formed of sugar-phosphate. RNA.
(4) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA.
(2) The pitch of the helix is 3.2 nm.
(3) There are roughly 10 bp in each turn of DNA. 30. Which is the human chromosome with the highest and least
(4) The plane of one bp stacks over the other in double number of genes
helix. (1) Chromosome 21 and Y (2) Chromosome 1 and X
(3) Chromosome 1 and Y (4) Chromosome 6 and X
19. In lac operon, structural gene ‘z’ synthesises
31. Which of the following is present in the supernatant in
(1) b-galactosidase
Hershey-chase experiment?
(2) Galactosidase permease
(1) 35S (2) 32P (3) 20S (4) 40P
(3) Galactosidase transacetylase
(4) None of the above 32. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each
other by 3′-5′ phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation
20. The correct sequence of Hershey-Chase experiment is of nucleotides, which of the following modifications would
(1) Infection → Centrifugation → Blending you choose?
(2) Infection → Blending → Centrifugation (1) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(3) Centrifugation → Infection → Blending (2) Replace 3′ OH group in deoxyribose
(4) Blending → Centrifugation → Infection (3) Replace 2′ OH group with some other group in
21. How many members are present in the ring of pyrimidine deoxyribose
base? (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Six (4) Seven 33. Why discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in only one
strand?
22. In a DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by:
(1) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long.
(1) Glycosidic bonds (2) Phosphodiester bonds
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
(3) Peptide bonds (4) Hydrogen bonds
polymerisation only in one direction (5′ → 3′).
23. A nucleoside is different from a nucleotide due to the absence (3) It is a more efficient process.
of (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Ribosomal site (2) Sugar 34. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by
(3) Phosphate group (4) Hydroxyl group RNA polymerase?
24. What is the number of carbon and nitrogen in the double ring (1) Initiation (2) Elongation
system of purine base? (3) Termination (4) All of these
(1) 5 carbon and 4 nitrogen (2) 4 carbon and 6 nitrogen 35. Control of gene expression takes place at the level of:
(3) 4 carbon and 2 nitrogen (4) 6 carbon and 4 nitrogen (1) DNA replication
(2) Transcription
25. The fact that a purine always base paired through hydrogen
(3) Translation only
bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to ______ in the DNA
(4) None of these
double helix:
(1) The antiparallel nature 36. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact
with RNA polymerase and affect its role in transcription. Which
(2) The semiconservative nature
of the following statements is correct about regulatory protein?
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA
(1) They acts as activator only
(4) Uniform length in all DNA
(2) They acts as repressor only
26. The net electric charge on histones and DNA is, respectively (3) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect
(1) Neutral (2) Both negative the expression
(3) Negative and positive (4) Positive and negative (4) They can act both as activators and as repressors

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 73

 37. The functions of RNA: 47. Which of the following correctly describes chromatin?
(1) It carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes (1) The complex of DNA and protein from which
synthesizing polypeptides chromosomes are composed.
(2) It carries amino acids to ribosomes (2) The total genetic content of a cell.
(3) It is a constituent component of ribosomes (3) The proteins that give structural support to a
(4) All of these chromosome.
(4) Unpacked DNA
38. If E.coli was allowed to grow for 80 minutes then what
48. The first codon to be deciphered and the ‘amino acid’ it
would be the proportions of light and hybrid densities DNA
codes for, respectively, are
molecule?
(1) AUG, methionine (2) GGG, alanine
(1) 75% light strand and 25% hybrid strand.
(3) UUU, phenylalanine (4) TTT, arginine
(2) 12.5% light strand and 87.5% hybrid strand.
49. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive
(3) 50% light strand and 50% hybrid strand.
thymidine is allowed to duplicate in an environment
(4) 87.5% light strand and 12.5% hybrid strand.
containing non-radioactive thymidine. What will be the
39. If Messelson and Stahl′s experiment is continued for four correct number of DNA molecules that contain some
generations in bacteria, the ratio of 15N/15N : 15N/14N : radioactive thymidine after three duplications?
14N/14N containing DNA in the fourth generation would be:
(1) There will be four such molecules
(1) 1:1:0 (2) 1:4:0 (3) 0:1:3 (4) 0:1:7 (2) There will be eight such molecules
40. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of (3) There will be only one such molecule
DNA in a transcription unit is: (4) There will be two such molecules

5′-ATGAATG-3′, then the sequence of bases in its RNA 50. In a piece of DNA, adenine is 22.4%, cytosine is 31.3%,
transcript would be : guanine is 13.4% and 5-methyl uracil is 32.9%. Polymer
(1) 5′-AUGAAUG-3′ (2) 5′-UACUUAC-3′ is 31,005 nucleotides long. Find out the most relevant
conclusion for the given data.
(3) 5′-CAUUCAU-3′ (4) 5′-GUAAGUA-3′
(1) DNA is double stranded
41. The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes: (2) DNA is single stranded
(1) The promoter, structural gene and the terminator region (3) Given data belongs to RNA
(2) The promoter and the terminator region (4) Data is insufficient
(3) The structural gene and the terminator regions 51. In a 136 nm long B–DNA molecule adenine constitute 25%.
(4) The structural gene only How many hydrogen bonds would be present between the
42. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5′-AUG-3′, the strands?
sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be: (1) 500 (2) 700
(3) 1000 (4) Data insufficient
(1) 5′ - UAC - 3′ (2) 5′ - CAU - 3′
(3) 5′ - AUG - 3′ (4) 5′ - GUA - 3′ 52. In the first phase, itself amino acids are activated in the
presence of ATP and linked to their cognate t-RNA, a process
43. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:
commonly called as:
(1) 5′-end (2) 3′-end (1) Charging of t-RNA
(3) Anticodon site (4) DHU loop (2) Aminoacylation of t-RNA
44. In which phase of cell cycle replication of DNA takes place? (3) Discharging of t-RNA
(1) M-phase (2) S-phase (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Growth I phase (4) None of these 53. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of
45. A messenger RNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the (1) Double helical structure of DNA
initiator and termination codons. The number of amino acids (2) Coding sequence are identical in all individuals.
in the protein translated from this mRNA is: (3) Polymorphism in non-coding sequences
(1) 999 (2) 630 (3) 330 (4) 111 (4) Semi-conservative mode of replication
46. If DNA of a particular species was analyzed and it was found 54. In E.coli, rho–factor is required for:
that it contains 27 percent A, what would be the percentage (1) Initiation of transcription at specific site
of C? (2) Initiation of transcription at many site
(1) 27 percent (2) 30 percent (3) Termination of transcription at specific site
(3) 23 percent (4) 54 percent (4) Termination of transcription at many sites

74 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 Multi-Concept Questions

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 4. Study the following table and choose the correct combination

1. Match the Column-I with Column-II

Scientist Proved By using
Column-I Column-II
Hershey and Proved that DNA is
(Process) (Enzyme involved) (A) Bacteriophage
Chase the genetic material
Reverse Double helix model
(A) (I) DNA polymerase Watson and X-ray
transcription (B) for the Structure of
Crick diffraction
DNA
Avery,
(B) Translation (II) Peptidyl transferase Genetic material
(C) Macleod and Virus
through a protein
McCarty
Transformation in Streptococcus
(C) Transcription (III) Reverse transcriptase (D) Griffith
bacteria pneumonia

(1) A and C only (2) B, C and D only

(D) Replication (IV) RNA polymerase
(3) A, B and D only (4) All of these
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 5. Match the columns and find out the correct combination:
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Function of the
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Gene Product
product
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Hydrolysis of
2. Which of the following is correctly matched RNA? (A) z-gene β-galactosidase
lactose
(1) Anticodon—Site of tRNA having complementary bases
to a codon (B) y-gene Transacetylase Uptake of lactose
(2) Transcription—mRNA synthesis
(3) Ribosomal RNA—Carries amino acid to site of protein Permease
(C) a-gene Function not-known
synthesis protein
(4) Translation—Process of mRNA carrying information Inhibitor Repressor Switch off operator
from nucleus to ribosome (D)
gene protein gene
3. Match the following
(1) B and C (2) A and C (3) A, C, D (4) A and D
Column-I Column-II 6. Match the columns and find out the correct combination:
A sequence of three Column-I Column-II
Frederick
(A) (I) nucleotides codes for (Process) (Enzyme involved)
Griffith
single amino acid
Reverse
(A) (I) Protein synthesis
transcription
(B) Gamow (II) Double helical structures
At 5′ end of
(B) polynucleotide (II) Splicing
Watson and
(C) (III) Induced mutation chain
Crick
Removal of introns Phosphate group is
Meselson and Semiconservative (C) (III)
(D) (IV) and joining of exon attached
Stahl replication of DNA
(D) Exons (IV) Fatty acids
Phenomenon of RNA dependent
transformation. DNA polymerase
(1) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-IV (1) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-II (2) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 75

 IMAGE BASED QUESTIONS A B C
7. The following figure represents the (1) RNA Non-histone DNA
(2) DNA Histone octamer H1 histone
Non-histone
(3) RNA H1 histone
protein
(4) DNA H1 histone Histone octamer
(1) Central dogma (2) Lac operon
(3) Sequence Annotation (4) DNA fingerprinting 11. What does the given diagram represent?
8. Given diagram represents the components of a transcription
unit. Select the correct answer regarding it.

(1) Nucleosome (2) Spliceosome

(3) Histone complex (4) Both (1) and (2)
A B C D
12. Given figure represents the DNAdouble helix model as
Template Coding proposed by Watson and Crick (1953). Select the option that
(1) Terminator Promoter shows correct measurements of A, B and C.
strand strand
Coding Template
(2) Promoter Terminator
strand strand
Template Coding
(3) Promoter Terminator
strand strand
B
Coding Template
(4) Terminator Promoter A
strand strand

9. Schematic structure of a transcription unit is shown.

Correctly identify the promoter and coding strand.
C
A B (1) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm
B C
3′ 5′ (2) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm
5′ 3′ (3) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å
D
(4) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å
Promoter region Coding strand 13. Refer the given diagram. What does it represent?
5′ 5′
(1) B D 3′ 3′
(2) B C
(3) A D 3′
(4) A C
5′
10. Choose the option with correct identification.
A 3′
B 5′

5′
3′
C 5′

(1) Transcription in prokaryotes

(2) Transcription in eukaryotes
(3) Translation in prokaryotes
(4) Translation in eukaryotes

76 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 MULTI-STATEMENT QUESTIONS C. The pitch of the DNA helix is 6.4 Å.
D. Stability of the DNA helical structure is conferred by
14. With respect to experiments performed by Hershey and
H-bonds and the plane of one base pair stacks over the
Chase, incorrect Statement-Is
other.
(1) Only DNA enters the bacterial host and not the protein.
E. The average rate of polymerisation of DNA polymerase III
(2) DNA is the infective part of virus and also carries all the
is 2000 bp per second.
genetic information.
(3) Bacterial cells showed the presence of radioactive DNA (1) A, B & C (2) A, D & E
labelled with P32 while radioactive protein labelled with (3) A, B, D & E (4) A, C, D & E
S35 appeared on the outside of bacterial cells (i.e., in the 21. Incorrect Statement-Is/are
medium). A. If two charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the
(4) DNA is a better material for transmission of information. formation of peptide bond between them would be
15. Select the incorrect statement about lac operon when lactose favoured energetically.
is present in the medium. B. UTRs are required for efficient translation process.
(1) Gene a gets transcribed into mRNA which produces C. Operator sequence and repressor proteins may be
β-galactosidepermease common for more than one operons.
(2) Lactose inactivates repressor protein D. Addressing of ELSI (Ethical, Legal, Social, Issues) is
(3) RNA polymerase transcribe z-gene, y-gene and a-gene one of the important goals of HGP.
(4) Allolactose is the inducer of lac operon (1) A and C (2) B and D
16. Incorrect Statement-Is: (3) C only (4) D only
(1) There are no tRNA for stop codons. 22. Choose the wrong Statement-In the process of protein
(2) In tertiary structure, the tRNA looks like a clover-leaf. synthesis.
(3) tRNAs are specific for each amino acid. (1) After uncoiling of DNA molecule, one strand acts as a
(4) Amino acids has no structural specialities to read the
template for the formation of mRNA
code uniquely.
(2) In the presence of DNA polymerase enzyme, the mRNA
17. Consider the following statement w.r.t. human genome is formed based on the triplet codes
project and select the wrong option. (3) The mRNA that leaves nucleus reaches cytoplasm and
(1) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations gets attached with 30S ribosomal subunit
where SNPs occur.
(4) The amino acids are transferred from the intracellular
(2) The human genome contains 3164.7 billion nucleotide
amino acids pool to the active ribosomes by the tRNA
base.
(3) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. 23. Given below are two statements (A and B) each with two
(4) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins. blanks. Select the option which correctly fill up the blanks in
18. Incorrect Statement-Is: two statements.
(1) Transcriptionally active chromatin is loosely packed A. Use of the radioactive thymidine to detect distribution
and stains light. of newly synthesised DNA in the chromosomes
(2) The negatively charged DNA of nucleoids is organized was performed on Vicia faba (faba beans) by 1 and
in large loops held by positively charged proteins. colleagues in 1958. The experiments proved that the
(3) Non-histone chromosomal proteins are required for the DNA in chromosomes also replicate 2
packaging of chromatins at higher level. B. The chemical method developed by Har Gobind khurana
(4) Reversal of central dogma, proposed by Francis Crick was instrumental in synthesising RNA molecules with
is almost universal for all the life forms. defined combination of bases (homopolymers and
19. Select the correct statement from the following regarding copolymers). 1 cell-free system for protein synthesis
transcription. finally helped the code to be deciphered. Severo Ochoa
A. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) was also
the strands is copied into RNA. helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in
B. Terminator is located at upstream of the structural gene. a 2 independent manner (enzymatic synthesis of RNA)
C. Intervening sequences do appear in processed RNA. Options:
D. In bacteria, translation can begin much before the (1) A - 1. Taylor, 2. Conservatively;
mRNA is fully transcribed. B - 1. Marshall Nirenberg’s, 2 - Replica
(1) A & D (2) B & C (3) A & C (4) B & D (2) A - 1. Watson, 2. Semiconservatively;
20. Consider the following statements and select correct set. B - 1.Crick’s, 2. Template
A. Total number of N-glycosidic linkages in bacteriophage (3) A - 1. Messelson, 2-Semiconservatively;
ϕ × 174 is 5386. B - 1. Marshall Nirenberg’s, 2. Primer
B. Two nucleotides are linked through 5′-3′ phosphodiester (4) A - 1. Taylor, 2-Semiconservatively;
bond. B - 1. Marshall Nirenberg’s, 2. Template

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 77

 ASSERTION & REASON 28. Assertion: Prokaryotes require three types of RNA
polymerase for transcription
Directions: These questions consist of two statements each, Reason: Prokaryotes use only one type of RNA
printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, polymerase for transcription.
you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(1)  If both Assertion and Reason are True and the STATEMENT BASED QUESTIONS
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2)  If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is Directions: These questions consist of two statements each, printed
as Statement-I and Statement-II. While answering these questions,
not a correct explanation of the Assertion. you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(3)   If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1)   Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4)   If Assertion is False but Reason is True. (2)  Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
24. Assertion: Two DNA strands are antiparallel. (3)   Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
Reason: The phosphodiester bonds in one strand of DNA (4)   Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
go from 3ʹ→5ʹ just reverse in other strand. 29. Statement-I: In Griffiths experiment, S-strain bacteria got
transformed to R-strain.
25. Assertion: RNA polymerase binds to promoter and Statement-II: S-strain is non-virulent and R-strain is
initiates the process of transcription. virulent.
Reason: The RNA polymerase is only capable of
30. Statement-I: Lac operon is repressible operon.
catalysing the process of elongation. Statement-II: Lac operon has multiple promoters.
26. Assertion: The 2ʹ-OH group present at every nucleotide 31. Statement-I: tRNA recognises its corresponding codon
in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA labile and on mRNA.
easily degradable. Statement-II: There is an individual t-RNA for each codon.
Reason: DNA chemically is more reactive and structurally 32. Statement-I: DNA replication is semi-conservative in
less stable when compared to RNA. nature.
Statement-II: One strand is new and one is old in the
27. Assertion: Replication and transcription occur in the daughter DNA.
nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
33. Statement-I: Human genome consists of 3-4 repetitive
Reason: mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the sequences.
cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available Statement-II: Repetitive sequence do not have direct coding
for protein synthesis. functions.

NEET Past 10 Year Questions

1. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of 4. How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
transcription in Eukaryotes? (2023) (2023)
(1) Transcription of only snRNAS
(2) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) (1) 20 (2) 80
(3) Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA (3) 60 (4) 40
(4) Transcription of precursor of mRNA 5. Given below are two statements: (2023)
2. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to (2023) Statement-I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
(1) Certain important expressed genes.
(2) All genes that are expressed as RNA. Statement-II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life
(3) All genes that are expressed as proteins. span mutate and evolve faster.
(4) All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
3. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first
answer from the options given below.
proposed by (2023)
(1) Wilkins and Franklin (1) Statement-I false but Statement-II is true.
(2) Fedrick, Griffith (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(3) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(4) Avery, Macleod and McCarty (4) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.

78 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 6. Match List-I with List-II. (2023) C. Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged
DNA in nucleosome
List-I List-II
D. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(A) Gene ‘a’ (I) β-galactosidase E. A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
(B) Gene ‘y’ (II) Transacetylase Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(C) Gene ‘i’ (III) Permease (1) A, C and E only (2) B, D and E only
(D) Gene ‘z’ (IV) Repressor protein (3) A, C and D only (4) B and E only
12. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III function to different segments, the methodology adopted by
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II him is called as: (2022)
7. Given below are two statements: (2023) (1) Bioinformatics (2) Sequence annotation
Statement-I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA (3) Gene mapping (4) Expressed sequence tags
is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region 13. In an E.coil strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not
called nucleoid. bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided
with lactose, what will be the outcome? (2022)
Statement-II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA
(1) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to
(2) Only z gene will get transcribed
form nucleosome. (3) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer (4) z, y, a genes will not be translated
from the options given below: 14. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is true. the approximate number of base pairs? (2022)
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(1) 6.6 × 106 bp (2) 3.3 × 109 bp
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) 6.6 × 109 bp (4) 3.3 × 106 bp
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is false.
15. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. (2021)
8. Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding
coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA formed is as follow (B) (C)
(A) DNA mRNA (D)
5′-AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG (2023)
(1) (A)-Translation; (B)-Replication;
AUCG-3′? (C)-Transcription; (D)- Transduction
(1) 3′-ATCGATCGATCGTCGATCG (2) (A)-Replication; (B)-Transcription;
ATCGATCG-5′ (C)-Translation; (D)-Protein
(2) 5′-UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUA (3) (A)-Transduction; (B)-Translation;
GCUAGC UAGC-3′ (C)-Replication; (D)-Protein
(3) 3′-UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUA (4) (A)-Replication; (B)-Transcription
(C)-Transduction; (D)-Protein
GCUAGCUAGC-5′
(4) 5′-ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG 16. What is the role of RNA ploymerase III in the process of
transcription in eukaryotes? (2021)
ATCGATCG-3′
(1) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
9. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as (2) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
soon as: (2022)
(3) Transcribes only snRNAs
(1) The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome
(4) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
encounters mRNA
(2) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA 17. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some
(3) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA specific regions in DNA sequence, called as: (2021)
(4) Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA (1) Repetitive DNA (2) Single nucleotides
10. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of: (2022) (3) Polymorphic DNA (4) Satellite DNA
(1) Translation 18. Identify the correct statement. (2021)
(2) Genetic mapping (1) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the
(3) DNA fingerprinting process of transcription in bacteria.
(4) Both genetic mapping and DNA fingerprinting (2) The coding strand in transcription unit is copied to an
11. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct mRNA.
statements (2022) (3) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
A. Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (4) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to
B. Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active the 3′ end of hnRNA.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 79

19. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be 28. Choose the correct pair from the following: (2020)
the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
Break the DNA into
 (2021) (1) Polymerases _
fragments
(1) T : 20; G : 20; C : 30 (2) T : 30; G : 20; C : 20
(3) T : 20; G : 25; C : 25 (4) T : 20; G : 30; C : 20 Separate the two strands of
(2) Nucleases _
DNA
20. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse
Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of Make cuts at specific
(3) Exonucleases _
transcription in prokaryotes? (2021) positions within DNA
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) Ligases _ Join the two DNA molecules
(2) DNA Ligase
(3) DNase
29. The term ‘Nuclein’ for the genetic material was used by:
(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
 (2020-Covid)
21. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the (1) Meischer (2) Chargaff
synthesis of protein? (2021) (3) Mendel (4) Franklin
(1) tRNA (2) rRNA (3) siRNA (4) mRNA
30. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is
22. Statement-I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and linked to the –OH of: (2020-Covid)
phenylalanine. (1) 3′C pentose sugar (2) 5′C pentose sugar
Statement-II: ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the (3) 1′C pentose sugar (4) 2′C pentose sugar
amino acid lysine. 31. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct well as DNA fingerprinting? (2020-Covid)
answer from the options given below. (2021) (1) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false (2) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false (3) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true (4) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
32. E. Coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and completes the
23. Which one of the following statement about histones is wrong? process of replication within 18 minutes; then the average
 (2021) rate of polymerisation is approximately- (2020-Covid)
(1) The pH of histones is slightly acidic. (1) 3000 base pairs/second (2) 4000 base pairs/second
(2) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine. (3) 1000 base pairs/second (4) 2000 base pairs/second
(3) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain. 33. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are (2019)
(4) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules. (1) Adenine and thymine (2) Adenine and guanine
24. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix (3) Guanine and cytosine (4) Cytosine and thymine
during transcription. (2020) 34. Under which of the following conditions will there be no
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase change in the reading frame of following mRNA? (2019)
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase 5′AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3′
25. Which of the following statements is correct? (2020) (1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond (2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds. (3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
35. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to : (2019)
26. The first phase of translation is: (2020) (1) Genes expressed as RNA
(1) Recognition of DNA molecule (2) Polypeptide expression
(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA (3) DNA polymorphism
(3) Recognition of an anti-codon (4) Novel DNA sequences
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
36. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow
27. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA
nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix technology? (2019)
in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length (1) Genetic code is not ambiguous
of the DNA is approximately: (2020) (2) Genetic code is redundant
(1) 2.5 meters (2) 2.2 meters (3) Genetic code is nearly universal
(3) 2.7 meters (4) 2.0 meters (4) Genetic code is specific

80 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
37. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their 47. DNA fragments are: (2017-Delhi)
respective products: (2019) (1) Positively charged
(2) Negatively charged
List-I List-II
(3) Neutral
(A) i gene (I) β-galactosidase (4) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(B) z gene (II) Permease 48. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with
(C) a gene (III) Repressor 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such
(D) y gene (IV) Transacetylase that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many
codons will be altered? (2017-Delhi)
Select the correct option.
(1) 1 (2) 11 (3) 33 (4) 333
(1) A-I B-III C-II D-IV
(2) A-III B-I C-II D-IV 49. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in
(3) A-III B-I C-IV D-II animal cell? (2017-Delhi)
(4) A-III B-IV C-I D-II (1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA (3) m-RNA (4) mi-RNA
38. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of 50. Select the wrong statement: (2017-Gujarat)
DNA was first shown in a:  (2018) (1) DNA stores genetic information
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium (3) Plant (4) Virus (2) There is now enough evidence that essential processes
39. Select the correct match:  (2018) like metabolism, translation and splicing evolved around
(1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae RNA
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV (3) DNA may act as a catalyst
(3) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum (4) RNA can splice itself and is also able to act as a catalyst
(4) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
51. A couple claimed in court that a child belonged to them.
40. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of Their claim can be true if the DNA fingerprint pattern of the
a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the child shows: (2017-Gujarat)
transcribed mRNA?  (2018)
(1) 50% bands similar to father and 50% similar to mother
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
DNA fingerprint pattern
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
(2) 100% similarity to both the parents’ DNA fingerprint as
41. All of the following are part of an operon except:  (2018)
both contribute equally to zygote formation
(1) An operator (2) Structural genes
(3) 100% similarity to mother’s DNA fingerprint because of
(3) An enhancer (4) A promoter
maternal inheritance
42. Select the correct match  (2018)
(4) 100% similarity to father’s DNA fingerprint due to large
(1) Ribozyme Nucleic acid
number of mitochondria in sperm
(2) F2 × Recessive parent Dihybrid cross
(3) T.H. Morgan Transduction 52. The technique of DNA fingerprinting is superior to
(4) G. Mendel Transformation conventional fingerprinting because it can: (2017-Gujarat)
43. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates: (1) Be generated more rapidly and is inexpensive
 (2017-Delhi) (2) Generate unique fingerprints for each finger
(1) Transcription is occurring (3) Compare the whole DNA sequence of two individuals
(2) DNA replication is occurring (4) Differentiate between polymorphic DNA sequences
(3) The DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre among individuals
(4) The DNA double helix is exposed 53. Which of the following enzymes is not protein?
44. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from  (2017-Gujarat)
the experiments of (2017-Delhi) (1) Ribozyme (2) Polymerase
(1) Griffith
(3) Ligase (4) Lysozyme
(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty 54. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
(4) Hargobind Khorana option: (2017-Gujarat)
45. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to A Six codons do not code for any amino–acid
elongate (2017-Delhi) B. Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion
(1) The leading strand towards replication fork C. Three codons function as stop codons
(2) The lagging strand towards replication fork D. The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork Option:
(4) The lagging strand away from the replication fork (1) (A) is wrong
46. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of: (2017-Delhi) (2) (A), (B) and (D) are wrong
(1) Plants (2) Fungi (3) (A), (B) and (C) are wrong
(3) Animals (4) Bacteria (4) (B), (C) and (D) are wrong

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 81

55. If the ratio (A + G)/(T + C) in one strand of DNA is 0.7, (3) Positive and inducible because it can be induced lactose
what is the same ratio in the complementary strand? (4) Negative and inducible because repressor protein
 (2017-Gujarat) prevents transcription
(1) 2.10 (2) 0.35 (3) 0.70 (4) 1.43 66. Satellite DNA is important because it: (2015-Re)
56. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on (1) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and
one strand of the DNA which is called the: (2016-II) also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual,
which are heritable from parents to children.
(1) Alpha strand (2) Antistrand
(2) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of
(3) Template strand (4) Coding strand
the population.
57. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the (3) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication.
traits given below, except: (2016-II) (4) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
(1) It should be unstable structurally and chemically 67. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material
(2) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are from largest to smallest: (2015-Re)
required for evolution (1) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(3) It should be able to express itself in the form of (2) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
‘Mendelian characters’ (3) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(4) It should be able to generate its replica (4) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
58. The equivalent of a structural gene is: (2016-II) 68. Which of the following biomolecules does have
(1) Operon (2) Recon (3) Muton (4) Cistron phosphodiester bond? (2015-Re)
(1) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
59. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove semi- conservative (2) Amino acids in a polypeptide
mode of chromosome replication on: (2016-II) (3) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(1) Drosophila melanogaster (2) E. coli (4) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(3) Vinca rosea (4) Vicia faba 69. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
60. Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well  (2015-Re)
as ribozyme in bacteria? (2016-II) (1) 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5.8 S rRNA (2) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(3) 5 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA (3) Chargaff’s rule
(4) Complementary base pairing
61. Which one of the following is the starter codon? (2016-I)
(1) AUG (2) UGA (3) UAA (4) UAG 70. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:
 (2014)
62. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques (1) T/A Cloning Vectors (2) T-DNA
of DNA fingerprinting available at present? (2016-I) (3) BAC and YAC (4) Expression Vectors
(1) Polymerase chain reaction 71. Transformation was discovered by: (2014)
(2) Zinc finger analysis (1) Watson and Crick (2) Messelson and Stahl
(3) Restriction enzymes (3) Hershey and Chase (4) Griffith
(4) DNA-DNA hybridisation 72. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern
63. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the hybridisation technique does not use: (2014)
expression of Lac operon? (2016-I) (1) PCR (2) Electrophoresis
(1) Glucose (2) Galactose (3) Blotting (4) Autoradiography
(3) Lactose (4) Lactose and Galactose 73. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (2014)
64. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases (1) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three (2) Transcription-Writing information from DNA to tRNA
(3) Translation-Using information in mRNA to make protein
bases expected to be present in this DNA are: (2015)
(4) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop enzyme
(1) G = 17%, A = 33%, T = 33%
synthesis
(2) G = 8.5 %, A = 50 %, T = 24.5 %
74. Select the correct option: (2014)
(3) G = 34%, A = 24.5%, T = 24.5%
(4) G = 17%, A = 16.5%, T = 32.5% Direction of RNA Direction of reading of the
65. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that synthesis template DNA strand
involves the lac I gene product is: (2015) (1) 3′ → 5′ 3′ → 5′
(1) Negative and repressible because repressor protein
(2) 5′ → 3′ 3′ → 5′
prevents transcription
(3) 3′ → 5′ 5′ → 3′
(2) Feedback inhibition because excess of β-galactosidase
can switch off transcription (4) 5′ → 3′ 5′ → 3′

82 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7
 ANSWER KEY
NCERT FOCUSED FILL-INS
1. 5386 26. Pneumonia 51. Anticodon 75. Structural gene
2. 3.3 × 109 27. Virulent 52. Codon 76. Coding
3. N-glycosidic 28. Non-virulent 53. Stop 77. Rho
4. 5′ 29. Smooth 54. Initiator 78. 3′
5. Acidic 30. Transformation 55. Transcription 79. Cistron
6. Rosalind Franklin 31. DNA 56. Complementary 80. Eukaryotes
7. One 32. Proteases 57. Semiconservative 81. DNA
8. Three 33. DNase 58. E. coli 82. Template
9. Two 34. Bacteriophages 59. Vicia faba 83. Terminator
10. 10 35. Protein 60. Nitrogen 84. RNA polymerase
11. H 36. Protein capsule 61. Seme-conservative 85. 18
12. Phosphodiester 37. DNA 62. Density gradient 86. Nucleus
13. 3′-TACGGACT-5′ 38. E. coli 63. Polymerase chain reaction 87. Independent
14. 20 39. Centrifuge (PCR) 88. Protozoans
15. 6.6 × 109 40. Evolution 64. Equal 89. Glutamate
16. 10–6 41. Mendelian 65. Thymidine 90. ATP
17. Proteins 42. 2′ -OH 66. Expensive 91. Ribozyme
18. Histones 43. Less 67. Replication fork 92. Amino acid
19. DNA 44. More 68. Deoxynucleotides 93. Codon
20. H1 histone 45. RNA 69. Two 94. Promoter
21. Nucleus 46. Storage 70. Substrates 95. RNA polymerase
22. 200 47. Reactive 71. 5′ → 3′ 96. Inducer
23. Active 48. 40S 72. Unwind 97. 3
24. Inactive 49. Translation 73. Okazaki fragments 98. Dystrophin
25. Metaphase 50. Soluble 74. Coding 99. 0.01
NCERT FILL UPS AND TRUE-FALSE
1. Phosphoester 18. Mucous 36. True 56. Inhibitor
2. Thymine 19. Alfred Hershey, Martha 37. Transcription 57. Beta-galactosidase,
3. Right Chase 38. 3′ →5′ permease, transacetylase
4. 3.4,10 20. True 39. Coding, 5′→3′ 58. Negative
5. RNA, protein 21. False 40. Promoter, 5′ 59. True
6. True 22. Nucleus 41. True 60. True
7. True 23. No 42. False 61. False
8. False 24. Clover leaf 43. False 62. 1990, 2003
9. Negatively, positive 25. RNA 44. False 63. Expressed Sequence Tags
10. 200 26. True 45. True 64. Sequence Annotation
11. Chromatin, beads-on- 27. False 46. 61,3 65. Frederick Sanger.
string 28. True 47. Unambiguous, degenerate 66. 2,1,Y
12. Metaphase 29. Semiconservative 48. Ribosome,80 67. False
13. Euchromatin, 30. Matthew Meselson, 49. Ribozyme 68. False
heterochromatin Franklin Stahl 50. False 69. True
14. False 31. Cesium chloride 51. False 70. False
15. False 32. 2000 52. False
16. False 33. DNA ligase 53. False
17. Streptococcus 34. False 54. False
pneumoniae 35. False 55. Operators

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 83

TOPIC-WISE QUESTIONS
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (2)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (2)
41. (3) 42. (4) 43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (4) 50. (4)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (1) 57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (1)
61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (1)
81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (1) 85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (2)
91. (2) 92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (1) 98. (2) 99. (4) 100. (1)
101. (1) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (3) 106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (1) 109. (1) 110. (3)
111. (4) 112. (2) 113. (3) 114. (2) 115. (1) 116. (3) 117. (3) 118. (1) 119. (1) 120. (3)
121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (1) 124. (1) 125. (2) 126. (1) 127. (2) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (2)
131. (2) 132. (3) 133. (2) 134. (1) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137. (1) 138. (4) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (1) 142. (4) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (2) 146. (1) 147. (1) 148. (1) 149. (3) 150. (1)
151. (3) 152. (2) 153. (2) 154. (1) 155. (2) 156. (3) 157. (4) 158. (2) 159. (2) 160. (4)
161. (3) 162. (3) 163. (4) 164. (1) 165. (1) 166. (1) 167. (1) 168. (1) 169. (2) 170. (1)
171. (3)

MORALE BOOSTER QUESTIONS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (3)
31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (1)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (2)
51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3)

MULTI-CONCEPT QUESTIONS
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (2)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (4)

NEET PAST 10 YEAR QUESTIONS

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (1) 30. (3)
31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (1) 50. (3)
51. (1) 52. (4) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1)
61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (3) 64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (2)

84 BIOLOGY MODULE – 7