Namma Kalvi

UNIT 8 - Ionic Equilibrium

Book inside one marks

1. Which one among the following in the strongest Bronsted base
a) ClO4- b) ClO3- c) ClO2- d) ClO-
2. Pick the strongest conjugate base among the following
a) Cl- b) NO-2 c) SO42- d) CH3COO-
3. Pick out the incorrect statement regarding Lewis acids and bases.
a) A Lewis acid is a electron deficient molecule
b) Lewis bases is one which donates an electron pair
c) Lewis base is a cation
d) Both (a) and (c)
4. With regard to the strength of acids and bases, find the incorrect statement among the
following.
a) strong acids is one that completely dissociates in water.
b) Ka is the dissociation constant
c) CH3COOH is a weak acid
d) smaller the Ka value, greater is the acid strength.
5. The conjugate base of NH2- is
a) NH- b) NH3 c) NH3+ d) NH2-
6. For two acids A and B, Ka values at 25˚C are 2×106 and 1.8×10-4 respectively .Which
among the following is true with respect to the above data.
a) A and B are equally acidic. b) A is stronger than B
c) B is stronger than A d) Ka value is not a measure of acid
strength.
7. Which among the following has the highest pH?
a) 1 M NH4OH b) 1 M HCl c) 1 M NaOH d) 0.1
M NaOH
8. The pH of pure water at 25˚C is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 7 d) 14
9. The relationship between degree of dissociation of a weak acid and its dissociation
constant in a very dilute solution is
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a) Ka = α2C b)Ka=2C(1+α ) c) Ka =2(1-αC) d) Ka =

C(1-α)
10. Degree of dissociation α is
𝑲𝒂
a) α = √ b) α = C2Ka c) α = KaC d) α = Ka
𝑪

11. Addition of sodium chloride to a saturated solution of silver chloride

a) dissociation of AgCl increases. b) concentration of Cl- decreases.
c) dissociation of AgCl- decreases. d) concentration of Ag+ increases.
12. An example of basic buffer is
a) NH4OH and NH4Cl b) NH4OH and NaOH
c) NaOH and NH4Cl d) NaOH and KOH
13. Buffer index is
a) β = db/pKa b) β = dB/d(pH) c) β = dB/pH d) β=dB/pOH
14. XmYn (s) H2O⇔ mXn+(aq) + nYm+(aq)
Solubility product Ksp is
a) [Xn+]m [Ym-]n b) [Xn+] [Ym-] c) [Xn+]m/ [Ym-]n d) [Xn+]/[Ym-]
15. The condition for a compound to be precipitated is
a) Ionic product = solubility product b) Ionic product < solubility product
c) Ionic product > solubility product d) Ionic product ≤ solubility product
16. Degree of dissociation is nearly equal to 1 for
a) Strong acids and strong bases b) Strong acids and weak bases
c) Weak acids and strong bases d) Weak acids and weak bases
17. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid.
a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) becomes zero
18. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicaple in the case of the solution of
a) CH3COOH b) NaCl c) NaOH d) H2SO4
19. When 10-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of
the solution is
a) 6 b) 7 c) less than 6 d) more than 7
20. When the pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre -1 is
a) 1 × 10-12 b) 1 × 10-2 c) 1 × 10-7 d) 1 × 10-4
21. The pH of the solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is
a) 1 b) 10-1 c) 13 d) 10-13
22. A solution which is resistant to changes of pH on addition of small amounts of an acid or
a base is known as
a) buffer solution b) true solution c) isohydric solution d) ideal solution
23. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salt
is given by
[𝒂𝒄𝒊𝒅}
a) [H+]=Ka b) [H+]= Ka[Salt] c) [H+]= Ka[Acid] d) [H+]=KaSaltAcid
[𝒔𝒂𝒍𝒕]

24. Henderson equation for a weak acid and its salt is

a) pH = pKb + log(Salt) / (Acid) b) pH = pKa + log(Salt) / (Acid)
c) pH = pKa + log(Salt) / (Base) d) pH = pKa + log(Acid) / (Salt)
25. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.1 M solution of ammonium acetate is 8.48 × 10-5. The
dissociation constant of the weak base is
a) 1.39×10-4 b) 1.39×10-5 c) 1.45×10-10 d) 1.45×10-9
26. The Lewis base among the following is
a) BF3 b) NH3 c) AlCl3 d) NH4+
27. conjugate acid of hydride ion is
a) hydronium ion b) hydroxide ion c) hydrogen d) water
28. If Ionic product < solubility product then the solution is
a) saturated b) super saturated c) unsaturated d) none of the above
29. The solution whose pH is maintained constant even upon the addition of small amounts
of acid or base is called.
a) acidic solution b) basic solution c) buffer solution d) true solution
30. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionization of acetic acid
a) Increases b) decreases c) does not change d) becomes zero
31. Ostwald,s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of
a) CH3COOH b) NaCl c) NaOH d) H2SO4
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Unit – 9 ELECTROCHEMISTRY

Book inside one marks

1. Which one of the following solution has highest equivalent conductance?
a) 0.1 M NaCl b) 0.5 M NaCl c) 0.005 M NaCl d) 0.25 M NaCl
2. Pick out the correct statement regarding resistance of an electrolytic solution?
a) It is inversely proportional to the length (l).
b) It is inversely proportional to the cross sectional area (A).
c) It is directly proportional to the cross sectional area (A).
d) Resistivity is denoted by ρ (rho).
3. Which among the following is the strongest reducing agent?
a) F2 b) Cl2 c) Zn d) Li
4. Which of the statements about electrolytic conductance is not true?
a) Conductivity increases with decrease in viscosity.
b) Higher dielectric constant shows lower conductance in solution.
c) Temperature increases, conductance also increases.
d) Molar conductance increases with increase in dilution.
5. Kohlraush’s law is applied to calculate?
a) molar conductance at infinite dilution of a weak electrolyte.
b) degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte.
c) solubility of a sparingly soluble salt.
d) all the above.
6. The limiting molar conductivities of HCl,CH3COONa and NaCl are respectively 425,190
and 150 mho cm2 mol-1 at 25˚C. The molar conductivity of 0.1 M acetic acid is 9.2 mho cm2
mol-1 .The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M acetic acid is
a) 0.10 b) 0.02 c) 0.19 d) 0.03
7. Recharging of lead storage battery involves
a) anode is reduced to pb b) cathode is reduced to pb
c) cathode is oxidised to pb d) anode is oxidised to pbO2
8. For the given cell
Cr(s)|Cr3+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s) which is correct?
a) Cr is the anode b) Cu is the anode
c) Overall cell reaction is 2Cr3+(aq)+3Cu(s)2Cr(s)+3Cu2+(aq)
d) Both (b) and (c).
9.The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm-1cm-1 at 25˚C. Its
equivalent conductance is
a) 14 ohm-1cm2eq-1 b) 140 ohm-1cm2eq-1 c) 1.4 ohm-1cm2eq-1 d) 0.14 ohm-1cm2eq-1.
10. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25˚C is 80 ohm-1cm2eq-1 and at infinity
dilution 400 ohm-1cm2eq-1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is
a) 1 b) 0.2 c) 0.1 d) 0.3
11. Which among the following has same equivalent and molar conductance.
a) H2SO4 b) CH3COOH c) NaCl d)Na2SO4
12. When λc decreases linearly with increase in C , then it is
a) an insulator b) a semiconductor c) a weak electrolyte d) a strong electrolyte
13. Debye, Huckel and Onsager equation for strong electrolytes is λ c = λ∞ (A+Bλ∞)C .
The slope value is
a) λ∞ b) (A+Bλ∞) c) A d) C.
14. If 0.2 ampere can deposit 0.1978 g of copper in 50 minutes, how much of copper will be
deposited by 600 coulombs?
a) 19.78 g b) 1.978 g c) 0.1978 g d) 197.8 g.
15.The relationship between free energy change and emf of a cell is
a) ∆G = -nFE b) ∆H = -nFE c) ∆E = -nFG d) ∆F = -nFG.
16.The metal near the bottom of the electro chemical series are
a) strong reducing agents b) strong oxidising agents
c) weak reducing agents d) weak oxidising agents.
17. Calculate the standard emf of the cell, provided the standard reduction potentials of
cathode and anode are -0.763 V and 0.80 V.
a) -1.563 V b) 0.037 V c) -0.610 V d) None of these
18. How will you predict whether a reaction is not feasible?
a) E˚cell = -ve b) E˚cell = +ve c) E˚cell = 0 d) both (a) and (c).
19. In an electrochemical cell, the wrong statement is
a) electrons move from cathode to anode. b) anode is negative charged .
c) cathode is positive charged. d) chemical energy is converted to electrical energy.
20. The maximum work that can be derived from a chemical reaction is
a) Wmax =∆H b) Wmax =∆G c) Wmax =∆E d) Wmax =∆S.
21. The quantity of charge required to obtained 1 mole of aluminum from Al2O3 is
a) 2F b) 3F c) 6F d) 12F
22. Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s)
In the above cell diagram, the single vertical line represents.
a) salt bridge b) cathode c) anode d) phase boundary
23. IF equals to
a) 96500 moles b) 96500 C c) 1.6×10-19C d) 1.6×10-19 moles.
24. The cathode in Leclanche cell is
a) Zinc container b) spongy lead c) graphite rod in contact with MnO2
d) HgO mixed with graphite.
25. Standard electrode potential of Sn4+ | Sn2+
Couple is +0.15 V and that of Cr3+ | Cr is 0.85 V
When connected, the cell potential will be
a) 1.10 V b) 1.00 V c) 0.70 V d) 0.30 V
26. Debye constants A and B depend on
a) nature of the solvent b) temperature
c) concentration of the solvent d) both (a) and (b).
27. The electrolyte used in mercury button is
a) KOH and ZnO b) NH4Cl and ZnCl2 in water
c) 38% H2SO4 d) Li salt in organic solvent.
28. The battery used in pacemakers is
a) Lead storage battery b) Daniel cell
c) Leclanche cell d) Mercury button battery
29. Rust is a mixture of
a) Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)3 b) Fe + H2O + O2
c)FeO + Fe(OH)3 d) Fe + Fe(OH)3
30. The metal to be protected from corrosion is treated with conc HNO3. The process is
called
a) galvanizing b) passivation c) cathodic protection d) formation of alloys
31. The gas that bubbles over the platinum electrode in SHE is
a) hydrogen b) helium c) neon d) oxygen
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Unit – 10 Surface Chemistry

Book inside one mark

1.Which of the following process does not occur at the interface of phases?
(i) crystallisation (ii) heterogenous catalysis
(iii) homogeneous catalysis (iv) corrosion
Explanation: In homogeneous catalysis, only, the reactant and product are in same phase
and composition is uniform throughout
2.At the equilibrium position in the process of adsorption ___________.
(i) ΔH > 0 (ii) ΔH = TΔS (iii) ΔH > TΔS (iv) ΔH < TΔS
Explanation: At equilibrium ΔG=0 ΔG=ΔH-TΔS
3.Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with ___________.
(i) increase in temperature.
(ii) decrease in temperature.
(iii) decrease in surface area of adsorbent.
(iv) decrease in strength of van der Waals forces.
Explanation: Since the adsorption (Solid+ Gas=Gas/Solid+ Heat) process is exothermic, the
physical adsorption occurs readily at low temperature and decreases with increasing
temperature as the equilibrium will shift in backward direction. (Le-Chatelier’s principle).
4.Which one of the following is not applicable to the phenomenon of adsorption?
(i) ΔH > 0 (ii) ΔG < 0 (iii) ΔS < 0 (iv) ΔH < 0
Explanation: Since adsorption is an exothermic process ΔH cannot be greater than zero.
5.Which of the following is not a favourable condition for physical adsorption?
(i) high pressure (ii) negative ΔH
(iii) higher critical temperature of adsorbate (iv) high temperature
Explanation: High temperature is not favourable for physical adsorption since it is an
exothermic process.
6.Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change to chemical adsorption with
(i) decrease in temperature
(ii) increase in temperature
(iii) increase in surface area of adsorbent
(iv) decrease in surface area of adsorbent
Explanation: On increasing the temperature activation energy of the adsorbate molecule
increases. Which can convert physical adsorption into chemisorptions.
7. In physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas
because______________.
(i) involved van der Waals forces are universal
(ii) gases involved behave like ideal gases.
(iii) enthalpy of adsorption is low.
(iv) it is a reversible process.
8. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice cream in order to
a) prevent making of colloid.
b) to stabilize the colloid and to prevent the crystallization.
c) to stabilize the mixture.
d) to enrich the aroma.
9. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric chloride. This is because _________.
a) ferric chloride seal the blood cells.
b) blood starts flowing in other direction.
c) blood is coagulated and blood vessels is sealed.
d) blood is peptised.
10. Adsorption is always ________.
a) endothermic b) exothermic c) Iso thermic d) either a (or) b
11. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases because
a)Adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction.
b)Adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction
c)The concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes high
due to adsorption.
d)In the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules become large.
12.Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by ____.
(i) coagulation (ii) electrolysis (iii) diffusion (iv) peptisation
Explanation: Peptisation is the process in which freshly prepared precipitate can be
converted into colloidal solution.
13.Which of the following process is responsible for the formation of delta at a place where
rivers meet the sea?
(i) Emulsification (ii) Colloid formation (iii) Coagulation (iv) Peptisation
14.Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge
on the sol particles?
(i)Electron capture by sol particles. ii) Adsorption of ionic species from solution.
(iii) Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer
(iv) Absorption of ionic species from solution.
Explanation: The charge on the sol particles is due to one or more reasons, Viz.,
(a) due to electron capture by sol particles during electrodispersion of metals,
(b) due to preferential adsorption of ions from solution and/or
(c) due to formulation of electrical double layer.
15.Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Mixing two oppositely charged sols neutralises their charges and stabilises the colloid.
(ii) Presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles provides stability to the
colloids.
(iii) Any amount of dispersed liquid can be added to emulsion without destabilising it.
(iv) Brownian movement stabilises sols.
16.Which of the following substances will precipitate the negatively charged emulsions?
(i) KCl (ii) glucose (iii) urea (iv) NaCl
Explanation: Negatively charged emulsion can be precipitated by oppositely charged
electrolyte. Na+ and K+ from the electrolyte can neutralize the negatively charge emulsion
and precipitate the colloid.
17.What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a lyophobic sol?
(i) Lyophobic sol is protected.
(ii) Lyophilic sol is protected.
(iii) Film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic sol.
(iv) Film of lyophobic sol is formed over lyophilic sol.
18.Which of the following phenomenon occurs when a chalk stick is dipped in ink?
(i) adsorption of coloured substance (ii) adsorption of solvent
(iii) absorption and adsorption both of solvent (iv) absorption of solvent
Ans. (i) and (iv)
Explanation: When a chalk stick is dipped in ink, the surface retains the colour of the ink
due to adsorption of coloured When a chalk stick is dipped in ink, the surface retains the
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colour of the ink due to adsorption of coloured molecules while the solvent of the ink goes
deeper into the stick due to absorption.
19. Which among the following does not affect adsorption?
a) surface area of the adsorbent b) catalyst
c) temperature d) pressure
20. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm,
a) xm = kp b) mx = (kp)1/n c) xm = kp1/n d) xm = kp1n
21. Which of the following is true regarding Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation?
a) Purely empirical
b) Valid only over a limited pressure range.
c) The value of constants k and n varies with temperature
d) All the above
22. Adsorption is accompanied by
a) decrease in free energy b) increase in free energy
c) increase in entropy d) both (b) and (c)
23. Which of the following interface cannot be obtained?
a) solid – solid b) solid – liquid c) gas – gas d) liquid – liquid
24. Auto catalysis is observed in the reaction given b elow.
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O→ CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Identify the auto catalyst.
a) CH3COOC2H5 b) H2O c) CH3COOH d) C2H5OH
25. Which among the following reactions is an example of auto catalysis?
i) CH3COOC2H5 + H2O→ CH3COOH+ C2H5OH
ii) 2H2O2 2H2O + O2
iii) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
iv) 2AsH3 2As + 3H2
a) only (i) b) (i) and (ii) c) (i) and (iii) d) (i) and (iv)
26. Fog is a colloidal solution of
a) gas in liquid b) liquid in gas c) gas in solid d) solid in gas
27. The intermediate compound formation theory does not explain
a) action of catalytic poison
b) specificity of a catalyst
c) the mechanism of heterogeneous catalysed reaction
d) both (a) and (c)
28. Colloidal solution of ink is prepared by
a) mechanical dispersion b) electro dispersion
c) ultrasonic dispersion d) peptisation
29. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as
a) electro – osmosis b) cataphoresis c) electrodialysis d) dialysis
30. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in _______.
a) emulsion b) colloidal solution c) true solution d) none
31. For selective hydrogenation of alkynes into alkene the catalyst used is _____.
a) Ni at 250˚C b) Pt at 25˚C
c) Pd, partially inactive by guinoline d) Raney nickel
32. Emulsion can be broken into constituent liquids by _______
a) heating b) freezing c) centrifuging d) all the above
32.Which among the following is found to be solvent loving in nature?
a) Lyophilic b) Lyophobic c) Gel d) Sol
33. A substance that enhances the catalytic activity of the catalyst is______
a) gel b) sol c) promoter d) poison
34. Peptisation is not used to prepare
a) silver chloride sol b) ferric hydroxide so c) both (a) and (b) d) colloidal platinum
35. The combination of two layers of charges around the sol particle is called
a) Brownian movement b) Tyndall effect c) Helmholtz double layer d) None of these
36. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in the presence of colloidal platinum is a/an
a) positive catalysis b) negative catalysis c) auto – catalysis d) induced catalysis
37. The iron catalyst used in the synthesis of ammonia in Haber’s process is poisoned by
a) As2O3 b) V2O5 c) H2S d) Glycerine
38. Haze is a colloidal solution of
a) gas in liquid b) liquid in gas c) gas in solid d) solid in gas
39. Emulsifying agent used for O/W type emulsion is:
a) proteins b) heavy metal salts of fatty acids
c) long chain alcohol d) lamp black
40. In the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide __________ acts a negative catalyst.
a) H2S b) glycerol c) pt d) Fe
41. Brownian movement of colloidal particles is a ___________ property.
a) Kinetic b) Electrical c) Optical d) Magnetic
42.The process of separation of emulsion into two separate layers is called _______.
a) Emulsification b) Deemulsification c) Coagulation d) Flocculation
43. The process of hardening of leather is called __________.
a) coagulation b) tanning c) centrifuging d) stabilization
44. The platinum catalyst used in the oxidation of SO2 by contact process is poisoned by
a) As2O3 b) V2O5 c) Fe2O3 d) CuCl2
45. The process of sorption of gases on metal surface is called ___________.
a) Desorption b) Dissolution c) Occlusion d) Condensation
46. The catalyst and promoter used in Haber’s process are respectively ___________.
a) Mo, Fe b) Fe, Mo c) Pt, H2S d) Pt, V2O5
47. In the reaction 2H2 + O2 2H2O acts as a catalytic poison for Pt catalyst.
a) Co b) Mo c) As2O3 d) H2S
48. Which of the following act as catalyst in the oxidation of alcohol into acetic acid?
a) pepsin b) diastase c) micoderma d) urease
49. Enzymes can be active in human body at a temperature of __________.
a) 98˚F b) 105˚F c) 37˚F d) 50˚F
49. The migration of sol particles under the influence of electric field is called ________.
a) electro osmosis b) electro dialysis c) electrophoresis d) dialysis
50. Which of the following colloid is used as a medicine for stomach troubles?
a) colloidal Au b) colloidal Ca c) milk of magnesia d) silver sol
51.Which of the following is used in tanning of leather?
a) chromium salt b) colloidal Au c) Argyrol d) Fe(OH)3
52. Which one of the following is used to distinguish Natural honey and artificial honey?
a) Ammonical AgNO3 b) Fehling’s solution c) Arsenic sulphide sol d) gelatin
53. Gold number gives __________.
a) the amount of gold present in the colloid
b) the amount of gold required to break the colloid.
c) the amount of gold required to protect the colloid.
d) the measure of protective power of a lyophilic colloid.
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54. The place where rivers meet the sea is the delta region. Which of the following?
a) Emulsification b) Peptisation c) Gel formation d) Coagulation
 Unit – 11 Hydroxy compounds and ethers
Book inside one marks
1. 1-methoxy propane and 2-methoxy propane are____________
a) chain isomers b) position isomers c) metamers d) functional isomers
2. Which one of the alcohol cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent?
a) Methanol b) ethanol c) iso propyl alcohol d) phenyl methanol
3. Which among the following statement are correct with regard to alkyl halides?
a) Alkyl halides on heating with aq NaOH gives alcohol
b) 1˚ alkyl halides proceed by SN2 mechanism.
c) 2˚ and 3˚ alkyl halides undergo substitution by SN1 mechanism.
d) all the above.
4. Which among the following reagent is not used to differentiate ethanol and phenol?
a) neutral FeCl3 b) C6H5N2Cl c) NaOH d) anhydrous ZnCl2
5. Which one of the following alcohols on oxidation gives carboxylic acid with lesser
number of carbon atoms?
a) (CH3)2 – CH – CH2OH b) CH3CH2CHOHCH3
c) CH3–(CH2)3–CH2OH d) both (a) and (c)
6. An organic compound ‘A’ reacts with methyl magnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis
to form ‘B’. ‘B’ gives a blue colour with Victor Meyers test. Identify A and B respectively.
a) acetaldehyde, tert butyl alcohol b) acetone, isopropyl alcohol
c) acetaldehyde, isopropyl alcohol d) acetone, ethanol.
7. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is
a) 1-pentanol b) 3-pentanone c) 2-pentanone d) pentanal
8. The compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is
a) butan-1-ol b) butan-2-ol c) 2-methyl propan -1ol d) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
9. Which has the highest boiling point?
a) CH3CH3 b) CH3OH c) C2H5OH d) C3H8
10. Which is soluble in H2O?
a) Phenol b) Alkanes c) Alcohols d) Alkenes
11. Ethyl alcohol cannot be used as a solvent for CH3MgI because
a) CH3MgI reacts with alcohol giving methane
b) the reaction between them is explosive in nature
c) CH3MgI is converted to C2H5MgI
d) alcohol is immisible with CH3MgI
12. Which is optically active?
a) n-butyl alcohol b) isobutyl alcohol c) 2-butanol d) t-butyl alcohol
13. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because
a) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide.
b) phenoxide ion is stronger base than ethoxide
c) phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization.
d) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide.
14. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with
a) (CH3)3COH b) (CH3)2CHOH c) CH3(CH2)2OH d) CH3CH2OH
15. The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives
a) ICH2CH2I b) CH2=CH2 c) CH2=CHI d) ICH=CHI
16. p-Nitrophenol is having lower pKa value than phenol because
a) phenol is more acidic than p-nitro phenol
b) anion of p-nitro phenol is more stabilized by resonance than that of phenol.
c) degree of ionisation of p-nitro phenol is less than that of phenol.
d) anion of p-nitro phenol is less stable than that of phenol.
17. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust it gives
a) benzaldehyde b) benzoic acid c) toluene d) benzene
18. Ethylene diamine is converted to ethylene glycol using
a) Na2CO3 solution b) nitrous acid c) NaHCO3 (aqueous) d) Baeyer’s reagent
19. 1-propanol and 2-propanol can be best distinguished by
a) oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
b) oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
c) oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
d) oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
20. Predict the structure of propane-1,2 diol
a) CH2(OH)–CH2CH2OH
b) HOCH2 – CH2OH
c) CH3CH(OH)CH2OH
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d) None of these
21. The reactivity of alcohols with respect to oxidation decreases with
a) increase in α-H b) decrease in α-H c) increase in β-H d) decrease in β-H
22. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethylene glycol leads to its
a) high viscosity b) high boiling point c) hydroscopic nature d) all the above
23. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because
a) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide
b) phenoxide ion is stronger base than ethoxide
c) phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
d) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion
24. Alcohols are isometric with
a) aldehyde b) ketones c) ethers d) esters
25. Alcohols are soluble in polar solvents like water due to
a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding b) intramolecular hydrogen
c) co-ordiate bonding d) ionic bonding.
26. Higher alcohols are not soluble in water because of
a) hydrophilic alkyl group b) hydrophobic alkyl groups
c) hydrophilic aryl group d) hydrophobic aryl groups.
27. With concentrated sulphuric acid, glycol undergoes intermolecular dehydration to give
cyclic compound
a) diethylene glycol b) dioxin c) paraldehyde d) glyoxal
28. Glycerol when heated with conc. H2SO4 gives
a) allyl alcohol b) propyl alcohol c) acrolein d) propylene
29. Glycerose is a mixture of
a) glyceric acid + dihydroxy acetone
b) glyceraldehyde + dihydroxy acetone
c) glyceraldehyde + glyceric acid
d) dihydroxy acetone + mesoxalic acid
30. Which is the group that decreases the acid strength of phenol?
a) –NO2 b) –CN- c) –NH2 d) both (a) and (b)
31. Which of the following has an offensive odour?
a) Phenol b) Benzyl alcohol c) Acrolein d) Benzyl benzoate.
32. Which one of the following has the highest boiling point?
a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
c) CH3CH2CH2CH3 d) CH3CH2CH2Cl
33. The compound that does not undergo Cannizaro reaction is:
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde c) Benzaldehyde d) Trimethyl acetaldehyde
34. The compound that acts as a solvent for Grignard reagent is:
a) Ethyl alcohol b) Diethyl ether c) Acetone d) Benzene
35. Which one of the following is simple ether?
a) CH3–O–C2H5 b) C2H5–O–CH3 c) C2H5–O–C2H5 d) C3H7–O–C2H5
36. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
a) HI b) KMnO4 c) NaOH d) H2O
37. Ethers are insoluble in water due to the
a) absence of co-ordinate bond b) presence of co-ordinate bond
c) absence of H–bond d) presence of H–bond
38. Which of the following produces ether, when heated with conc.H2SO4 at 413 K?
a) organic acid b) aldehyde c) Alcohol d) Ketone
39. Lower alcohols like ethanol and methanol are miscible in water due to
a) their acidic character b) vanderwaals force of attraction
c) dipole-dipole interaction d) inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
40. RX + NaOH(aq) → ROH + NaX
The above reaction proceed by _______ mechanism
a) nucleophilic addition b) elimination
c) electrophilic substitution d) nucleophilic substitution.
41. Addition of water across the double bond of an alkene in presence of sulphuric acid
giving alcohol follows _____ rule.
a) Markownikoff’s b) anti Markownikoff c) Sayt zeff’s d) Swern
42. In swern method of oxidation of alcohols to aldehyde/ketones_______ is used as an
oxidising agent.
a) dimethyl sulfoxide b) pyridimium chloro chromate
c) CrO3 in anhydrousmedium d) Na2Cr2O7 | H+
43. Glycerol an oxidation with ______ gives glyceric acid and tartronic acid.
a) dil HNO3 b) conc.HNO3 c) bismuth nitrate d) Fenton’s reagent
44. The major product obtained when phenol is treated with sodium hydroxide and carbon
dioxide is ______
a) Salicyaldehyde b) Salicylic acid c) benzaldehyde d) benzoic acid
45. Picric acid is ______.
a) 2,4,6 trinitro toluene. b) 2,4,6 trinitro benzaldehyde
c) 2,4,6 trinitro phenol d) 2,4,6 trinitro benzoic acid.
46. The correct order of reactivity of alcohol during dehydration is______.
a) primary > secondary > tertiary b) primary < secondary < tertiary
c) tertiary < secondary < primary d) secondary < tertiary < primary.
47. Ethers in the presence of atmospheric oxygen oxidises to give hydroperoxides and
dialkyl peroxides such a spontaneous reaction by atmospheric oxygen is called ______.
a) auto oxidation b) acylation c) alkylation d) dehydration.
48. Phenol is less acidic than _____.
a) ethanol b) o-nitrophenol c) o-methyl phenol d) m-chlorophenol
49. order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is______.
a) primary < secondary > tertiary b) primary > secondary > tertiary
c) primary < secondary < tertiary d) primary > secondary < tertiary
50. On oxidation of an alcohol gives an aldehyde having the same number of carbon atoms
and that of alcohol is______.
a) 1˚ alcohol b) 2˚ alcohol c) 3˚ alcohol d) None
51. Oxidation of glycerol using bismuth nitrate gives
a) Tartaric acid b) Mesoxalic acid c) Oxalic acid d) Glyceric acid
52. The number of primary alcoholic groups in glycerol is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
53. Ethylene glycol is dehydrated to diethylene glycol by ________.
a) conc.H3PO4 b) conc.H2SO4 c) anhy.ZnCl2 d) heat at 773K
54. The test used to distinguish wish 1˚,2˚ and 3˚ alcohol is_______.
a) Lucas test b) Victor Meyer’s c) dehydrogenation d) all the above
55. The ultimate product obtained when glycerol reacts with oxalic acid at 533K is________.
a) formic acid b) glycerol oxalate c) allyl alcohol d) acrolein
56. The reaction between phenol and benzoyl chloride is the present of sodium hydroxide is
named as _______ reaction.
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a) Cannizaro b) Reimer-Tiemann c) Kolbe’s d) Schotten-Baumann

57. Ethanol and methoxy methane are__________.
a) chain isomers b) position isomers c) functional isomers d) metamers
58. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of _______.
a) nucleophilic addition. b) electrophilic addition.
c) electrophilic substitution. d) nucleophilic substitution.
59. Ether is formed when alkylhalide is treated with sodium alkoxide, this method is known
as______.
a) Hoffmann reaction.
b) williamson’s synthesis
c) Wurtz synthesis
d) Kolbe’s reaction.
60. A compound that undergoes bromination easily is
a) benzoic acid b) phenol c) benzene d) toluene
 Unit – 12 Carbonyl Compounds
Book inside one marks
1. Give the common and IUPAC name of the compound HO-CH2-CH-CHO

OH
a) glyceraldehyde, hydroxyl propanal
b) glyceraldehyde, 2,3 - dihydroxy propanal
c) crotonaldehyde, hydroxyl propanal
d) crotonaldehyde, 2,3 - dihydroxy propanal
2. Which among the following on oxidation with alk.KMnO4 will give butanone?
a) Butan -1- ol b) Butan -2- ol c) Both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
3. The compound which does not reduce Fehling solution is
a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde
4. Which among the carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by Rosenmund reduction?
a) Ketones b) Formaldehyde
c) Acetaldehyde d) both (a) and (b)
5. A compound ‘X’ when mixed with ethanol and a drop of concentrated H 2SO4 gave a
compound with fruity odour. Identify ‘X’.
a) HCHO b) CH3OH c) CH3COOH d) CH3NH2
6. Isopropyl alcohol vapours with air over silver catalyst at 520K gives
a) tert.butyl alcohol b) acetaldehyde c) acetone d) 2-propanol
7. Methyl ketones are usually characterized by
a) the Fehling’s solution b) the iodoform test
c) the Schiff’s test d) the tollen’s test
8. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a precipitate of
a) Cu2O b) CuO c) CuO + Cu2O d) Cu
9. Tincture brnzoin is obtained from
a) benzoyl chloride b) benzoin c) benzyl alcohol d) benzoic acid
10. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presence of Pd on BaSO4 gives
a) phenol b) benzoic acid c) benzyl alcohol d) benzaldehyde
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
11. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate → give
a) benzophenone b) benzaldehyde c) acetophenone d) phenyl benzoate
12. Bakelite is a product of reaction between
a) formaldehyde and NaOH b) phenol and methanol
c) aniline and NaOH d) phenol and chloroform
13. The common name of CH3-CH=CH-CHO
a) acraldehyde b) crotonaldehyde c) cinnamaldehyde d) isobutyraldehyde
14. Aldehydes are functional isomers of
a) ethers b) alcohols c) ketones d) esters
15. Pick out the compound that reduces Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution.
a) CH3CHO b) CH3COCH3 c) CH3COOH d) both (a) and (b)
16. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give
a) (CH2)4N6 b) (CH2)5N5 c) (CH2)6N4 d) (CH2)6N3
17. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent
a) acetic acid b) formic acid c) butyric acid d) benzoic acid
18. Which order of arrangement is correct in terms of the strength of the acid
a) CH3-CH2COOH > CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH
b) ClCH2COOH < HCOOH < CH3COOH < CH3CH2COOH
c) CH3-CH2COOH < CH3COOH < HCOOH< ClCH2COOH
d) HCOOH > CH3CH2COOH < CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH
19. When chlorine is passed through acetic acid in presence of red phosphorous, it forms
a) acetyl chloride b) trichloro acetaldehyde
c) trichloro acetic acid d) methyl chloride
20. Which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt
and CO2?
a) Acetic acid b) n-hexanol c) Phenol d) Both (a) and (c)
21. Carboxylic acids are more acidic from phenol and alcohol because of
a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding b) formation of dimmers
c) highly acidic hydrogen d) greater resonance stabilisation of their conjugate base.
22. The high boiling points of carboxylic acids is due to
a) weak vanderwaal’s forces b) intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
c) intramolecular hydrogen bonding. d) delocalisation of π electrons.
23. Schiffs reagent gives pink colour with
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a) acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethyl alcohol d) methyl acetate

24. Which of the following compounds is oxidized to give ethyl methyl ketone?
a) 2-propanol b) 2-pentanone c) 1-butanol d) 2-butanol
25. Tollen’s reagent is
a) ammoniacal cuprous chloride b) ammoniacal cuprous oxide
c) ammoniacal silver nitrate d) ammoniacal silver chloride
26. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) trimethyl acetaldehyde
27. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example
a) electrophilic addition b) nucleophilic addition
c) nucleophilic substitution d) electrophilic substitution
28. Aldol obtained from acetaldehyde is
a) 2-hydroxy butanol b) 3-hydroxy butanol
c) 3-hydroxy butanal d) 2-hydroxy butanal
29. In the reduction of acetaldehyde using LiAlH4 the hydride ion acts as
a) electrophile b) nucleophile c) both (a) and (b) d) a free radical
30. A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid. The X is
a)HCHO b) (CH3)2CO c) CH3CHO d) C6H5CH2CHO
 UNIT -13 ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
One marks (Book inside)
1. Which of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood
cells?
a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B1 d) Vitamin C
2. Which one of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves and skin?
a) Pyridoxine b) Cobalamine
c) Dopamine d) Histamine
3. Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?
a) Pyridoxine b) Histamine
c) Dopamine d) Cyano cobalamine
4. Which one of the following dilates blood vessels?
a) Histamine b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin d) Dopamine
5. 1–nitrobutane and 2–methyl–1– nitropropane are belong to ________.
a) position isomerism b) functional isomerism
c) tautomerism d) chain isomerism
6. Which of the following pair shows functional isomerism?
a) 1-nitro butane and 2-nitro butane
b) 1-nitro butane and butyl nitrite
c) 1- nitro butane and 2- methyl -1-nitropropane
d) 2- nitro butane and 2- methyl -2-nitropropane
7. Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ______
a) Position isomerism b) chain isomerism
c) metamerism d) Tautomerism
8. Which one of the following does not exhibit tautomerism?
a) 1-nitro ethane b) Nitro methane
c) methyl nitrite d) 2-methyl-2-nitro propane
9. What is the product formed when α – chloro acetic acid is boiled with aqueous solution of
sodium nitrite?
a) nitro ethane b) nitro methane
c) Acetamide d) α – chloro acetamide
10. The reagent used in the conversion of acetaldoxime to nitro ethane (1˚) is ________.
a) aqueous KMnO4 b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid
c) alcoholic KOH d) conc. HNO3
11. Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?
a) Nitro methane b) nitro propane c) Nitro benzene d) nitro ethane
12. Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by____________.
a) Caro’s acid b) Fuming mixture of conc.HNO3 + conc.H2SO4
c) NaNO2+HCl d) Ethanolic KNO2
13. Which of the following does not react with conc.HCl?
a) Nitro ethane b) 2-methyl-2-nitropropane c) 2-nitro propane d) Aniline
14. Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with conc.HNO 3 in
H2SO4 473 K?
a) 1,2 – dinitro benzene b) 1,4 – dinitro benzene
c) 1,3 –dinitro benzene d) 1,3,5 - trinitro benzene
15. What will be the product formed when 1,3,5 – trinitro toluene is treated with acidified
Na2Cr2O7 and sodalime?
a) TNB b) TNT c) TNG d) GTN
16. What is the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine?
a) 109˚.5’ b) 107˚ c) 108˚ d) 108˚.31’
17. Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?
a) Hoffmann ammonolysis b) Rosenmund’s reduction
c) Gattermann synthesis d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
18. The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with
Alumina is _______.
a) HVZ reaction b) Sabatier - mailhe method
c) Carbylamine reaction d) Mendius reaction
19. The correct order of basic strength in the case of alkyl substituted amines is________.
a) (CH3)2NH > CH3-NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3
b) NH3 > (CH3)3-N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
c) (CH3)3N < CH3-NH2 > NH3 < (CH3)2NH
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d) (CH3)2NH2 < (CH3)-N < NH3 > (CH3)2NH

20. The relative basicity of amine follows the order as_________.
a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N-aralklamine > Arylamine.
b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amines > N-aralklamine.
c) Arylamine < Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amine < Ammonia > N-aralklamine
d) N-aralklamine < Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine
21. The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as ______.
a) Carbylamine reaction b) mustard oil reaction
c) Diazotisation d) Sand meyer’s reaction
22. The conversion of benzene diazonium chloride into chlorobenzene is known as
a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis b) Carbylamine reaction
c) Sand meyer reaction d) Coupling reaction
23. In the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of KOH and Br2
used per moles of amine produced are __________.
a) four moles of KOH and two moles of Br2
b) two moles of KOH and two moles of Br2
c) four moles of KOH and one mole of Br2
d) one mole of KOH and one mole of Br2
24. Replacement of diazonium group by fluorine is known as ________.
a) Gattermann reaction b) Sand meyer reaction
c) Baltz-Schiemann reaction d) Comberg reaction
25. Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing _______.
a) 1˚ amine b) 2˚ amine c) 3˚ amine d) all the above
26. A positive carbylamines test is given by ___________.
a) N,N – dimethyl aniline b) 2,4 - dimethyl aniline
c) N – methyl – O – methyl aniline d) p – methyl benzylamine
27. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of ___________.
a) aliphatic 2˚ amine b) aromatic 1˚ amine
c) aliphatic 1˚ amine d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1˚ amine
28. The reaction between benzene diazonium chloride and benzene in presence of NaOH
is_________.
a) Perkin’s reaction. b) Gattermann’s reaction
c) Sandmeyer reaction d) Gomberg-Bachmann reaction
29. Nitro – acinitro tautomerism is exhibited by _________.
a) nitro methane b) nitro benzene c) chloropicrin d) o-toluidine
30. Aniline react with benzoyl chloride in the presence of sodium hydroxide and gives
benzanilide. This reaction is known as_____________.
a) Gattermann’s reaction b) Sandmeyer reaction
c) Schotten – Baumann reaction d) Gomberg-Bachmann reaction
31. Chloropicrin (CCl3NO2) is used as
a) dyes b) pharmaceuticals c) explosives d) soil sterilizing agents
32. The basic character of amines is due to the
a) tetrahedral structure b) presence of nitrogen atom
c) lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom d) high electronegativity of nitrogen
33. Which gives an yellow oil with nitrous acid
a) 1˚ amine b) 2˚ amine c) 3˚ amine d) quarternary salt
34. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is_____________.
a) Hydronium ion b) sulphonic acid c) nitronium ion d) bromide ion
35. Bromo ethane reacts with silver nitrite to give
a) C2H5NO2 b) C2H5-O-NO c) C2H5Ag + NaBr d) C2H5NC
36. When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl in neutral medium, we get
a) CH3NH2 b) C2H5NH2 c) CH3NHOH d) C2H5COOH
37. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
a) Toluene b) benzene c) benzoic acid d) nitrobenzene
38. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in
a) o-dinitro benzene b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene
c) p-dinitro benzene d) m-dinitro benzene
39. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
a) hydronium ion b) sulphonic acid c) nitronium ion d) bromide ion
40. The reduction of CH3 – CH2 – C ≡ N with sodium and alcohol results In the formation of
a) CH3-CH(NH2)-CH3 b) CH3CH2CH2 OH + N2
c) CH3CH2CH2NH2 d) CH3CH2NH2
41. The basic character of amines is due to the
a) tetrahedral structure
b) presence of nitrogen atom
c) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom
d) high electronegativity of nitrogen
42. Primary amine acts as
a) Electrophile b) Lewis base c) Lewis acid d) Free radical
43. Which one of the following is a secondary amine?
a) aniline b) diphenyl amine c) sec.butylamine d) tert.butylamine
44. C6H5NH2 is treated with NaNO2 / HCl it forms X.ldentify X.
a) C6H5Cl b) C6H5NHOH c) C6H5N2Cl d) C6H5OH
45. Which of the following will not undergo diazotization?
a) m-toluidine b) aniline c) p-amino phenol d) benzyl amine
46. Aniline differs from ethylamine by the reaction with
a) metallic sodium b) an alkyl halide
c) chloroform and caustic potash d) nitrous acid
47. Which of the following reagent cannot be used for the conversation of nitrobenzene to
aniline
a) Sn / HCl b) LiAlH4 c) H2/Ni d) Zn / NaOH
48. The reaction between a primary amine, chloroform and alcoholic KOH is known as
a) Sandmeyer reaction b) Hoffmann’s reaction
c) Wurtz reaction d) Carbylamine reaction
49. When aniline is treated with sodium nitrite and HCl at 0oC it forms ______
a) Chlorobenzene b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
c) Benzene diazonium chloride d) Phenol
50. Conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to chloro benzene is called
a) Sandmeyer’s reaction b) Stephen’s reaction
c) Gomberg reaction d) Schotten – Baumann reaction
51. The compound that does not show tautomerism is
a) nitrobenzene b) nitromethane c) nitroethane d) 2-nitropropane
52. Nitro-acinitro tautomerism is exhibited by
a) nitromethane b) nitrobenzene c) chloropicrin d) o-toluidine
53. The reaction between benzene diazonium chloride and benzene in the presence of
NaOH is
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a) Perkin’s reaction b) Gattermann’s reaction

c) Sandmeyer reaction d) Gomberg-Bachmann reaction
54. Aniline reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of sodium hydroxide and gives
benzanilide. This reaction is known as
a) Gattermann reaction b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
c) Schotten-Baumann reaction d) Gomberg-Bachmann reaction
55. The product obtained when nitrobenzene is treated with Zn / NaOH is
a) aniline b) azoxy benzene c) azo benzene d) hydrazo benzene
56. Which one of the following is the most basic ?
a) ammonia b) methylamine c) dimethylamine d) aniline
57. Methyl isocyanide on reduction using LiAlH4 is
a) Methyl amine b) Ethyl amine
c) Dimethyl amine d) Trimethyl amine
 Unit – 14 Biomolecules

Choose the best answers (Book inside) a) oxidation of sucrose

1. Which among the following is called b) reduction of sucrose
fruit sugar? c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and
a) Glucose b) Fructose fructose
c) Sucrose d) Maltose d) polymerization of sucrose.

2. Disaccharides have general formula 8. The amino acid without chiral carbon is.
a) Cn(H2O)n b)(CO2)nHn a) Glycine b) Alanine
c) Cn(H2O)n-1 d) Cn(H2O)2n-1 c) Proline d) Tyrosine
9. The building block of proteins are
3. Name the base present only in RNA a) α – hydroxy acids
a) adenine b) guanine b) α – amino acids
c) uracil d) thymine c) β – hydroxy acids
d) β – amino acids
4. Which is a monosaccharide among the 10. Denaturation does not involve
following? a) breaking up of H – bonding in proteins.
a) sucrose b) cellulose b) the loss of biological action of enzyme.
c) maltose d) glucose c) the loss of secondary structure.
d) loss of primary structure of proteins.
5. Identify the reducing sugar.
a) sucrose b) cellulose 11. Ultimate products of hydrolysis of
c) starch d) glucose proteins is
a) aniline b) aliphatic acid
6. Sucrose is not c) amino acid d) aromatic acid
a) a di-saccharide
b) a non-reducing sugar 12. Which contains a long chain ester?
c) hydrolysed to only glucose a) Wax b) Cooking oil
d) hydrolysed to glucose and fructose c) Turpentine oil d) Cellulose

7. Inversion of sucrose refers to 13. Hair and Nail contains

a) cellulose b) fat d) absence of ketonic group
c) keratin d) lipid
20. The amino acids that are synthesized
14. Fructose on reduction with HI/P gives by the tissues of the body are called
a) n-hexane b) iso-hexane a) essential amino acid
c) 1˚ alcohol d) no reaction b) non essential amino acid.
c) zwitter ion
15. Starch when heated with enzyme d) none of the above
diastase yields
a) glucose b) sucrose 𝑃𝑦𝑟𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑒
21. Glucose + acetic anhydride → ?
c) maltose d) glycogen
a) di acetate b) tetra acetate
c) penta acetate d) hexa acetate
16. Carbohydrates are
a) polyhydroxy aldehydes
22. Which of the following polysaccharide
b) polyhydroxy ketones
is found in the liver and muscles of
c) polyhydroxy acids
animals?
d) both (a) and (b)
a) cellulose b) glycogen
c) starch d) heparin
17. sugars that yield two to ten
monosaccharide molecules on hydrolysis is
23. The disaccharide found in milk of
a) monosaccharides b) disaccharides
mammals and referred as milk sugar is
c) oligosaccharides d) polysaccharides
______
a) Lactose b) Engthrose
18. The number of primary and secondary
c) Galactose d) Erythrulose
alcoholic groups in fructose is
a) 2,3 b) 3,2 c) 4,3 d) 5,4
24. Sprouting barley is the main source of
____ sugar.
19. Fructose is not oxidised by bromine
a) glucose b) fructose
water indicates c) cellulose d) maltose
a) the presence of aldehydic group
b) presence of ketonic group
c) absence of aldehydic group
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25. Starch contains 20% of ______ and c) starch d) hyaluronate

80% of _________.
a) ribulose , amylose 31. The vitamin used in the building of
b) mylopectin , amylose collagen is__________.
c) amylose , amylopectin a) vitamin A b) vitamin C
d) amylopectin , ribulose c) vitamin E d) vitamin K

26. __________ enzyme catalyses the 32. Vitamin B2 is called _________.

hydrolysis of sucrose. a) Retinol b) folic acid
a) glycosidase b) cellulose c) Ascorbic acid d) Riboflavin
b) lactase d) Sucrase
33. A mixture of D (+) glucose and D (-)
27. Deficiency of vitamin D fructose is known as __________.
causes_______. a) cane sugar b) sweetless sugar
a) neurological dysfunction c) invert sugar d) starch sugar
b) pellagra
c) Beri - Beri d) Rickets 34. The number of asymmetric carbon
atoms present in glucose and fructose are
28. The general formula of carbohydrates _______.
is _______. a) 3,4 b) 4,3 c) 4,5 d) 5,4
a) Cn(H2O) b) Cn(H2O)n 35. The precipitation of protein is called
c) C(H2O)n d) H(CO2) ___________.
a) peptisation b) denaturation
29. Honey is a mixture of _______. c) renaturation d) none of these
a) glucose and fructose
b) glucose, fructose and sucrose 36. Sorbitol and Mannitol are _________.
c) glucose and galactose a) isomers b) polymers
d) glucose, fructose and galactose c) epimers d) dimers

30. ________ acts as a shock absorber and 37. What is the proportion of hydrogen and
lubricant. oxygen in molecule of all member of
a) glycogen b) Ribose carbohydrate ?
a)2:1 b) 1:1 44. Which vitamin’s source is yeast?
c) 1:2 d) no certain ratio a)B1 b) H c) B6 d) all
d)none of these 45. By which bond , base of one nucleotide
and base of another nucleotide are joined
38. Which carbohydrate isn’t soluble in together ?
water and tasteless ? a)hydrogen bond b) covalent bond
a)monosaccharide b) trisaccharide c) coordination covalent bond d) ionic
c) oligosaccharide d) none of above
46.How many hydrogen bonds between
39. which carbon is anomeric carbon in base G and Base C are present in structure
cyclic structure of glucose? of DNA ?
a)Cl b) C2 c) C3 d) C4 a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) no certain number

40.Which is non-reducing sugar? 47.If a person bleeds by his gingiva , so

a)glucose b) fructose what would you suggest to eat to prevent
c) sucrose d) A&B both the disease ?
a)vegetable oil b) citrus fruits
41. On hydrolysis of which substance, we c) cheese d) milk
obtain two molecules of glucose?
a)sucrose b) maltose 48. Glucose is known as glucopyranose
c) lactose d)A&B because
a)cyclic structure of glucose contains 6
42. By which bond the polypeptide chains member ring
are held together in fibrous protein ? b)cyclic structure of glucose contains 5
a)hydrogen bond b) covalent carbon atoms and one oxygen atoms
bondc) disulphide bond d) A&C c)glucose is aldohexose
d) glucose is ketohexose
43. Which vitamin isn’t synthesizes from
vegetable ? 49. Essential amino acid is
aCyanocobalamine b) pyridoxine a)valine b)histidine
c)thiamine d) Tocopherol c)methionine d)all
 Chemistry In Everyday Life

1. Ampicillin is an example of 8. Which among the following is an ester

________drugs. linked local anaesthetic.
a) anaesthetic b) antibiotic a) procaine b) lidocaine
c) tranquilizer d) none of the above c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
2. Mental diseases like schizophrenia are 9. The drug used in major surgical
treated using ________ drugs. procedure is________.
a) tranquilizers b) antacid a) procaine b) lidocaine
c) opioids d) NSAID c) propofol d) morphine
3. Which among the following is a 10. The class of drugs used to slow down
modification of penicillin? the growth of micro organisms in
a) amoxicillin b) catechaloamine inanimate objects is ________.
c) crythromycin d) all the above a) disinfectants b) antiseptics
4. The class of drugs used for the treatment c) antimicrobials d) narcotic analgesics
of stress is _________. 11. Sulphur dioxide acts as ______.
a) antihistamine b) tranquilizens a) antimicrobial agents b) antioxidants
c) antimicrobials d) aminoglycosides c) enzyme inhibitors d) all the above
5. Aspirin is _________. 12. Oxidation of fats and oils is prevented
a) benzoyl salicylic acid by ________.
b) acetyl salicylic acid a) BHT (butyl hydroxy toluene)
c) methyl salicylic b) BHA (butyl hydroxy anisole)
d) both (b) and (c) c) Both (a) and (b)
6. ________ is an antipyretic. d) neither (a) nor (b)
a) quinine b) paracetamol 13. Nylon-66 is an example of _______
c) cephalosporins d) brompheniramine polymer.
7. 2–acetoxy benzoic acid is used as an a) addition b) condensation
a) anti malarial b) antihistamin c) both (a) and (b) d) natural
c) antipyretic d) antidepressant 14. Which of the following is not a non-
narcotic analgesic?

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a) codeine b) acetaminophen a) LDPE b) HDPE

c) aspirin d) ibuprofen c) TFM (Total fatty matter)
15. Zeiglar Natta catalyst is _______. d) LFM (Low fatty matter)
a) TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al b) –(CF2 – CF2)– 22. Cellulose is an example of ______
c) TiCl4 d) (C2H5)3Al polymer.
16. Teflon is an _______ polymer. a) synthetic b) Natural
a) LDPE b) HDPE c) semisynthetic
c) condensation d) all the above d) none of the above
17. The polymer obtained by the 23. ________ is used in the manufacture of
condensation of phenol with formaldehyde hoses and tank linings.
is ________. a) Buna-S b) Neo prene
a) Terylene b) Nylon-6 c) PHBV d) Buna-N
c) Bakelite d) Neoprene 24. The medicine used for curing rabies is
18. The free radical polymerisation of the called ________.
monomer 2 – chloro buta – 1,3 – diene a) antibacterial b) antiviral
gives c) antifungal d) antibiotics
a) Buna N b) Buna S 25. Phenacetin is __________.
c) Neoprene d) PHB a) antipyretic b) analgesic
19. The drug that binds to the receptor site c) antibiotic d) antiseptic
and inhibits its natural function are called 26. Drug formulation which provide relief
a) anomers b) agonists from burning sensation are known as
c) antagonists d) none of the above a) antacids b) antiseptic
20. ________ is used mainly as c) analgen’s d) antipyretics
preservative for the preparation of pickels. 27. Which is not an artificial sweetener is _
a) sodium meta bisulphite a) Dulcin b) Nectarin
b) potassium meta bisulphite c) Sucralose d) sodium benzoate
c) benzoic acid 28. Non stick cookery is made from
d) acetic acid a) polythene b) Teflon
21. The quality of a soap is described in c) PVC d) Terylene
terms of _____. 29. Glyptal is a polymer of _______.

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a) ethylene glycol and terypthalic acid a) Tranquilizer b) antibiotic
b) ethylene glycol and pthalic acid c) analgesic d) opioids
c) adipic acid and hexamethelene diamine 36. Identify the medicine that is used to
d) phenol and formaldehyde treat stress, anxiety, depression and
30. The monomer unit of natural rubber is schizopherenia.
a) cis isoprene b) trans isoprene a) valium b) cimetidine
c) orlon d) capro lactam c) chloroform d) adenosine
31. Which one of the following inhibits the 37. Which one of the following is used in
initiation of protein synthesis? the prevention of heart attacks?
a) streptomycin b) erythromycin a) aspirin b) ibuprofen
c) atenolol d) amlodipine c) paracetamol d) morphine
32. Which one of the following inhibits the 38. Which of the following are used for
bacterial growth? post operative pain and pain of terminal
a) p – amino benzoic acid cancer?
b) sulphanilamide a) morphine, codeine
c) folic acid d) sodium benzoate b) ibuprofen, aspirin
33. Which of the following is called c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid
PABA? d) histidine, ranitidine
a) p – nitro benzanilic acid 39. Which one of the following is used to
b) p – amino butyric acid treat urinary tract infection and respiratory
c) p – amino benzene sulphonic acid infections?
d) p – amido benzene sulphonyl chloride a) doxycycline b) karamycin
34. Which of the following is not an c) ciprofloxacin d) ibuprofen
example of antacid? 40. Which one is used as preservatives for
a) Histamine b) cimetidine fresh vegetables and fruits?
c) ranitidine d) erythromycin a) Palmitic acid b) Palm oil
35. Which one of the following is used to c) sodium meta sulphite
treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep d) sulphur dioxide
disorder and schizopherenia? 41. Which method is used to preserve
food?

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a) pasteurization & irration
b) chilling & freezing
c) drying & dehydration
d) all the above
42. What are the raw materials required for
the manufacture of terylene?
a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid
b) phthalic auhydride + phenol
c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
d) phenol + methanol
43. What are the raw materials required to
prepare Buna – S rubber?
a) phenol + methanol
b) melamine + methanal
c) styrene + butadiene
d) adipic acid + methanol
44. The role of phosphate in detergent
powder is________.
a) control pH level of the detergent water
mixture.
b) remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from
water that causes hardness of water.
c) provide whiteness to the fabric.
d) more soluble in soft water.
45. Commonly used antiseptic ‘dettol’ is a
mixture of ___________.
a) O – chloro phenozylenol + terpineol
b) O – cresol + terpeneol
c) phenol + terpineol
d) chloroxylenol + terpineol

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