Odisha LTR Practice Mock Test General Awareness

Q1. Which of the following is/are CORRECT about elections in India?

(a) Part XV of the Constitution is related to the elections
(b) Article 324 is related to Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
(c) The elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult
suffrage
(d) All of the given options

Q2. How many articles were there originally in the constitution of India?
(a) 355
(b) 395
(c) 414
(d) 448

Q3. What is the more popular name for the Council of States in India ?
(a) Sansad
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Vidhan Sabha

Q4. The “question hour” in the Parliament ensures _______.

(a) Executive accountability towards legislature.
(b) Judicial independence from legislature.
(c) Legislative control over judiciary.
(d) Judicial cooperation with the legislature.

Q5. Consider the following statements and identify the misuse of authority and power:
(A) A minister refuses to sanction a project of his ministry for sound technical reasons.
(B) A senior officer calling the police station to ask them not to register a complaint against a relative.
(C) Falsely accusing a poor student in a class by the class monitor.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only (B)
(b) Both (A) and (B)
(c) Both (B) and (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)

Q6. Which among the following statements is true about Judiciary in India ?
(a) There is no hierarchy between different levels of the judiciary.
(b) The Chief Justice of a High Court is the highest judge in the country.
(c) An appeal can be made in a High Court against a judgement passed by the Supreme Court.
(d) Different levels of court are connected with each other through an appellate system.

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Q7. Consider the following statements (A) and (B).
(A) Renewable resources are unlimited and are not affected by human activities
(B) Renewable resources get replenished quickly as compared to non-renewable resources.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true
(b) Both (A) and (B) are false
(c) (A) is true but (B) is false
(d) (A) is false (B) is true

Q8. What will be the sequence of the process of taking out minerals from rocks, if you move from earth's surface to inner
layers
(A) Open cast mining
(B) Shaft mining
(C) Quarrying
Choose the correct options :
(a) C – A – B
(b) A – C – B
(c) A – B – C
(d) B – A – C

Q9. Consider the following statements about practice of shifting cultivation

(A) There are areas of heavy rainfall
(B) It is practiced in areas of quick regeneration
(C) It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture.
The correct statements are:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) All (A), (B), and (C)

Q10. "Consider the given statements and choose the correct option.
(A) World's largest hot desert is located in Asia
(B) Equator passes through Asia
(C) Asia is the third largest continent
(D) Asia lies in the Eastern Hemisphere
(a) Only statement (A) is correct
(b) Only (A) and (B) are correct
(c) Only statement (D) is correct
(d) Only (C) is correct

Q11. When block mountains are created then :

(a) large areas are broken
(b) large areas are displaced
(c) large areas are broken and displaced at the same time
(d) only a small portion of land is broken or displaced

Q12. Which of the following country is not located in Sahara desert ?

(a) Algeria
(b) Mal
(c) Niger
(d) Zambia

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Q13. Which of the following is a significant effect of global warming?
(a) Expansion of polar ice caps
(b) Decrease in sea levels
(c) Increased frequency of extreme weather events
(d) Decline in greenhouse gases

Q14. In which of the following regions has the highest ozone depletion been observed?
(a) The North Pole
(b) The South Pole
(c) The Equator
(d) None of the above

Q15. Which of the following is NOT considered a "greenhouse gas" (GHG)?

(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Water vapor
(d) Methane

Q16. In which year was the capital of Odisha moved from Cuttack to Bhubaneswar?
(a) 1948
(b) 1949
(c) 1951
(d) 1936

Q17. How many distinct styles of temple architecture are found in Odisha?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5

Q18. In ancient times, the Bhumkar dynasty of Odisha had trade relations with which of the following countries?
(a) Egypt
(b) Rome
(c) Ceylon
(d) Java

Q19. Which of the following regions was ruled by the Sailodbhava Dynasty?
(a) South Kosala
(b) Ganjam
(c) Parlakhemundi
(d) Cuttack

Q20. Which of the following places in Odisha is referred to as Soma Tirtha?

(a) Gupteswar
(b) Kapilas
(c) Puri
(d) Ranipur Jharial

Q21. Who founded the Virashaiva Movement ?

(a) Jnaneshwar
(b) Shankara
(c) Basavanna
(d) Ramanuja

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Q22. Which one of the following tribal communities live in the forest areas of Odisha ?
(a) Khonds
(b) Munda
(c) Gouds
(d) Khasi

Q23. Read statements (A) and (R) considering the formation of Indian National Congress and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : The Indian National Congress was established in 1885 when delegates from all over the country met at
Bombay.
Reason (R) : A.O.Hume, a retired British official played a crucial role in bringing Indians from the various regions together
to form the INC.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q24. "Who among the following coined the slogan “Gandhi Maharaj Ki Jai” ?
(a) Mill workers
(b) Tea garden labourers
(c) Indigo Planters
(d) Peasants

Q25. Who among the following was the first Indian Governor General of free India ?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) C.Rajagopalachari
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q26.In Indian economy, the sectors are divided into Private and Public on what basis?
(a) Ownership of enterprises
(b) Usage of raw materials
(c) Nature of economic activities
(d) Employment policies

Q27. Which one of the following is not a scheme or project ?

(a) AMRUT
(b) Swachh Bharat
(c) AYUSH
(d) Jan Dhan Yojana

Q28. The major objective of monetary policy is to?

(a) Increase government's tax revenue
(b) Revamp the Public Distribution System
(c) Promote economic growth with price stability
(d) Weed out corruption in the economy

Q29. Trickle down theory ignores the impact of economic growth on -

(a) Investment
(b) Savings
(c) Income distribution
(d) Consumption

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Q30. In which situation, wages and prices chase each other at a very quick speed?
(a) Disinflation
(b) Reflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyper-inflation

Solutions
S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is d, All of the given option.
All the given options are correct about elections in India, Part XV of the constitution is related to the elections , Article 324
is related to Superintendence , direction and control of election to be vested in an Election Commission and the elections
to the house of the people and to the Legislative Assembly of every state shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is b, 395.
There are 395 article were there originally in the constitution of India. at present there are 448 articles in constitution,
each set of article covers important parts of the Constitution including, Legislature, executive, Schedules, Part of Indian
constitution, Constitutional Bodies, statutory bodies, Fundamental rights and more.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. The more popular name for the Council of States in India is the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of
India's bicameral Parliament, while the lower house is the Lok Sabha. The term "Council of States" represents the federal
structure of India, as members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies,
along with the two Union Territories. It plays a crucial role in reviewing, amending, and passing legislation, and it also
serves as a body that represents the interests of the states at the central level. Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is a
permanent body and cannot be dissolved, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.
Information Booster:
• The Rajya Sabha consists of a maximum of 250 members, of which 12 are nominated by the President for their
expertise in various fields such as literature, science, art, and social services.
• Members of the Rajya Sabha serve for a term of six years, with elections being held every two years for one-third of
the seats.
• The Rajya Sabha is known for representing the states at the national level, ensuring a balance between the powers of
the Union and the states.
• It can initiate non-money bills, but its role in financial legislation is limited, as the Lok Sabha holds primary control
over money bills.
• The Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. During the "question hour" in Parliament, members of the legislature have the opportunity to ask questions to the
executive branch, i.e., the government, regarding its policies, actions, and functioning. This one-hour session is crucial for
ensuring executive accountability to the Parliament. Members can raise questions on various government actions, plans,
or administrative decisions, providing transparency and allowing scrutiny of the government’s work. There are different
types of questions—starred, unstarred, and short notice questions. Starred questions require an oral response, while
unstarred questions receive a written reply. The question hour helps maintain a system of checks and balances by giving
legislators a platform to hold the executive accountable.
Information Booster:
• Question hour occurs during the first hour of a sitting session of the Parliament and is a significant tool for ensuring
transparency and accountability.

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• Starred questions demand oral answers, and supplementary questions can be asked, while unstarred questions are
answered in writing.
• The question hour is essential for exposing gaps in government policies, mismanagement, or any irregularities in
public administration.
• It allows the opposition and even ruling party members to seek clarification on various issues directly from the
concerned ministers.
• This practice also allows the government to clarify any misunderstandings, explain its position, and address concerns
raised by members.
Additional Knowledge:
• Rajya Sabha: It is the permanent house of Parliament and represents the states and Union Territories, providing
balance to the lower house, which represents the people directly.
• Question hour: This mechanism strengthens democratic accountability, allowing the Parliament to ensure that the
government remains answerable to the people through their elected representatives.
• Short notice questions: These are asked with a shorter notice period, requiring urgent attention, and are answered
orally by the concerned minister.
• Zero hour: After the question hour, this period allows members to raise urgent matters without prior notice.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Both (B) and (C)
• Statement (A): The minister's refusal to sanction a project for sound technical reasons does not indicate any misuse
of power or authority. It reflects the minister's adherence to proper procedures based on technical merit. This is not
a case of misuse but responsible governance.
• Statement (B): The senior officer's action of calling the police station to prevent the registration of a complaint against
a relative is a clear misuse of power. By using their position to influence law enforcement, the officer undermines the
rule of law, favoring personal interests over justice.
• Statement (C): The class monitor falsely accusing a poor student is a misuse of the small authority given to the
monitor. This behavior reflects the misuse of position for personal reasons or biases, which can negatively impact the
fairness and harmony of the classroom environment.
• Information Booster:
• Misuse of authority involves using one's position of power for personal gain, to harm others, or to exert undue
influence over others.
• Statement (A) represents responsible decision-making, where a person in authority is acting based on rational and
objective grounds.
• Statement (B) highlights how power can be used to bypass legal processes, which erodes trust in public institutions.
• Statement (C) shows how even minor authorities, like a class monitor, can misuse their power to manipulate
situations to their advantage.
• Misuse of power at any level—political, administrative, or even at the classroom level—can have serious
consequences for trust, fairness, and justice.
• Additional Knowledge:
• Statement (A): Reflects a legitimate use of authority, where decisions are made based on merit rather than any
personal gain or bias.
• Statement (B): Demonstrates nepotism, which is the act of favoring relatives or friends by someone in authority, often
by bypassing the law.
• Statement (C): Indicates abuse of position, where the class monitor uses their authority to wrongly accuse someone
for personal reasons, a common example of power imbalance in school environments.

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S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Different levels of court are connected with each other through an appellate system.
• Statement (a): This statement is incorrect. There is a clear hierarchy in the Indian judiciary. The Supreme Court is at
the top, followed by the High Courts, and then the subordinate courts, including district and session courts.
• Statement (b): This is also incorrect. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the highest-ranking judge in the country, not
the Chief Justice of a High Court. The CJI presides over the Supreme Court, which is the apex judicial body.
• Statement (c): Incorrect. An appeal cannot be made in a High Court against a judgment passed by the Supreme Court.
The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in India, and its decisions are final and binding.
• Statement (d): This statement is correct. The Indian judiciary operates through an appellate system, where decisions
made by lower courts can be appealed to higher courts. This ensures that the legal system provides opportunities for
review and correction of judicial errors, maintaining a check and balance system within the judiciary.
• Information Booster:
• Appellate system allows for appeals to be made from lower courts to higher courts, ensuring fairness and the
possibility of rectifying judicial errors.
• The hierarchy of courts in India begins with the Supreme Court, followed by the High Courts, and then the subordinate
courts (District and Sessions Courts).
• Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the highest judicial authority in the country, presiding over the Supreme Court.
• The Supreme Court's decisions are final, and no appeal can be made against its judgments in any other court.
• Additional Knowledge:
• Hierarchy in judiciary: Indian courts follow a strict hierarchy where the Supreme Court stands at the top, followed
by High Courts and subordinate courts.
• Chief Justice of India:The CJI is the highest judge in India, while Chief Justices of High Courts head their respective
state courts.
• Appellate system: This system allows appeals to be made to higher courts, ensuring a fair process where errors from
lower courts can be corrected.

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is d, A is false B is true.
The correct statement about renewable sources is that renewable resources get replenished quickly as compared to non-
renewable resources and this is wrong that renewable resources are unlimited and not affected by human activities.
Renewable Resources: These resources can be naturally replenished at a rate comparable to their usage. Eg. Sunlight is
constantly available, and technologies like solar panels can harness this renewable energy source. Wind is another
continuously generated source of power that can be captured using wind turbines.
Advantages:
• Renewable resources are sustainable and can be used for generations to come.
• They generally produce lower greenhouse gas emissions compared to non-renewable resources.
Non-Renewable Resources: These resources are formed over extremely long periods and are used up much faster than
they can be naturally replaced. Eg. Coal, oil, and natural gas are all formed from the decomposition of organic matter over
millions of years. Their use depletes these finite resources. Uranium, used in nuclear power plants, is a finite resource.
Metals and other minerals are mined from the earth's crust and cannot be readily replaced.
Advantages:
• Non-renewable resources have traditionally been a reliable and concentrated source of energy.
• The technology for extracting and using some non-renewable resources is well-established.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is a, C-A-B.
The correct sequence of the process of taking out minerals from rock is : Quarrying- Open cast mining- shaft mining.

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S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is d, All A, B, C are correct.
The correct statements about practice of shifting cultivation is that shifting cultivation can done in the areas of heavy
rainfall, it is practiced in areas of quick regeneration and it is also called slash and burn agriculture.
• In this process a small patch of forest or woodland is cleared by cutting and burning vegetation (slash-and-burn). This
creates a temporary field for cultivation, crops like rice, maize, or vegetables are then planted in the cleared area,
taking advantage of the increased fertility from the burned ash. Crops are grown for a few seasons (typically 1-3 years)
until the soil nutrients become depleted. The land is then left fallow (uncultivated) for an extended period (usually
10-20 years) to allow natural vegetation to regrow and restore soil fertility.
• Shifting cultivation is a complex issue with both historical and contemporary significance. Understanding its
traditional practices, environmental impact, and potential solutions is essential for promoting sustainable land
management and respecting the livelihoods of indigenous communities.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Only statement (D) is correct. Asia lies entirely in the Eastern Hemisphere, stretching from the Middle East to the Far
East.
Statement (A) is incorrect because the world's largest hot desert, the Sahara, is located in Africa, not Asia.
Statement (B) is incorrect because the equator does not pass through Asia; it passes through Africa and South America.
Statement (C) is incorrect because Asia is the largest continent by both area and population, not the third largest.

S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is large areas are broken and displaced at the same time
When block mountains are formed, large areas of the Earth's crust are both broken and displaced simultaneously. This
process occurs due to tectonic forces that create faults or fractures in the crust. Sections of the crust are uplifted to form
block mountains, while other sections sink to form valleys. Examples of block mountains include the Sierra Nevada in
North America and the Harz Mountains in Germany.

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is Zambia
The Sahara Desert is the largest hot desert in the world and spans several countries in North Africa, including Algeria,
Mali, and Niger. These countries have vast stretches of desert land within their borders. However, Zambia is located in
southern Africa, far south of the Sahara Desert. It is characterized by a different climate and geography, primarily
consisting of plateaus, hills, and river valleys.

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is: Increased frequency of extreme weather events.
Extreme Weather Events:
• Global warming causes an increase in the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events, including hurricanes,
heatwaves, droughts, and heavy rainfall.
Polar Ice Caps and Sea Levels:
• Contrary to increasing polar ice caps and lowering sea levels, global warming accelerates the melting of polar ice caps
and glaciers, which leads to rising sea levels.
Greenhouse Gases:
• Global warming is driven by elevated levels of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide (CO₂), in the atmosphere. It
does not contribute to a reduction in these gases.
Information booster:
Other Effects of Global Warming:
Rising Sea Levels:
• Melting ice caps and glaciers result in rising sea levels, which threaten coastal communities and ecosystems.
Ocean Acidification:
• Higher levels of CO₂ lead to increased ocean acidity, harming marine life, particularly coral reefs and shellfish.

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Ecosystem Disruption:
• Changes in temperature and weather patterns can disrupt ecosystems, placing species that cannot adapt quickly
enough at risk.
Agriculture and Food Security:
• Altered weather patterns can negatively impact crop production, potentially leading to food shortages and a decline
in food security.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. The highest ozone depletion has been observed over the South Pole, commonly referred to as the ozone hole. This
phenomenon was first discovered in the 1980s and is largely attributed to human-made chemicals, especially
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which are widely used in refrigeration, air conditioning, and other industrial applications.
When CFCs reach the stratosphere, they release chlorine atoms through photodissociation, which leads to the breakdown
of ozone molecules.
Information Booster:
• Ozone Layer:
• The ozone layer is found in the stratosphere and is crucial for absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the
Sun, protecting living organisms from its damaging effects such as skin cancer and DNA damage.
• Ozone Depletion:
• Since the 1980s, there has been a sharp decrease in the ozone layer, especially over the South Pole, resulting in what
is known as the "ozone hole."
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs):
• The major cause of ozone depletion is the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) into the atmosphere. These
compounds, used in refrigerators, air conditioners, and for industrial purposes, break down in the stratosphere,
releasing chlorine atoms that destroy ozone molecules.
• South Pole Depletion:
• The ozone hole is most prominent over the South Pole due to the extreme cold conditions that form polar stratospheric
clouds (PSCs), facilitating chemical reactions that lead to ozone depletion.
• Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs):
• These clouds help in the accumulation of chlorine compounds during the Antarctic winter. When sunlight returns in
the spring, ozone depletion accelerates due to chemical reactions with these compounds, leading to the most
significant ozone loss.
Additional Information:
• Ozone Molecule (O₃):
• Ozone is a triatomic molecule composed of three oxygen atoms. While ozone at ground level is a dangerous pollutant,
in the stratosphere, it plays a crucial role in protecting the Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. It has a pale
blue color and a strong odor.
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs):
• CFCs are synthetic compounds widely used in refrigeration, air conditioning, and foam production due to their non-
toxic and non-flammable properties. However, their stability allows them to rise into the stratosphere, where they
release chlorine atoms that catalyze the destruction of ozone molecules.
• Ozone Hole Discovery:
• The ozone hole over the South Pole was first reported by atmospheric scientists in the 1980s. The depletion is
particularly severe in this region due to cold temperatures that enable the formation of polar stratospheric clouds,
which facilitate the breakdown of ozone by chlorine and bromine compounds.
• Impact of Ozone Depletion:
• Ozone depletion allows more UV radiation to reach the Earth’s surface, increasing the risks of skin cancer, cataracts,
and other health issues in humans. It also affects marine ecosystems, especially plankton, which are sensitive to UV
radiation.
• Montreal Protocol:
• In response to the alarming rates of ozone depletion, the Montreal Protocol was established in 1987 to phase out the
use of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances globally. It has been a highly successful international environmental
agreement, leading to significant recovery of the ozone layer.

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S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Oxygen is not considered a greenhouse gas (GHG). Greenhouse gases are those gases in the Earth's atmosphere that
trap heat and contribute to the greenhouse effect, warming the planet. While oxygen is essential for life and constitutes
about 21% of the Earth's atmosphere, it does not significantly absorb heat in the infrared spectrum, which is a
characteristic of greenhouse gases.
On the other hand, carbon dioxide (CO₂), water vapor (H₂O), and methane (CH₄) are prominent greenhouse gases:
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is released by natural processes like respiration and volcanic eruptions, and by human
activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation. It is one of the most significant contributors to global warming.
• Water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas and plays a vital role in Earth's natural greenhouse effect. Its
concentration in the atmosphere is largely controlled by temperature.
• Methane (CH₄) is a potent greenhouse gas, with a higher heat-trapping potential than CO₂, although it is present in
smaller quantities. It is produced by natural sources like wetlands, as well as human activities like livestock farming
and landfills.
Information Booster:
• Greenhouse gases (GHGs): These gases trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere, contributing to the warming of the
planet. The major GHGs include carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water vapor, and ozone.
• Oxygen: While essential for respiration and various life processes, it does not have the infrared absorption
characteristics needed to be classified as a greenhouse gas.
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂): The most common GHG resulting from human activities such as burning fossil fuels.
• Water vapor (H₂O): The most abundant GHG, but its concentration is regulated by the Earth's temperature.
• Methane (CH₄): A more potent GHG than CO₂ but present in smaller concentrations.
Additional Information:
• Oxygen : Oxygen is not a GHG, as it does not absorb and trap heat in the atmosphere in the same way that GHGs do.
• Carbon dioxide: CO₂ is one of the primary greenhouse gases responsible for human-induced climate change,
primarily from burning fossil fuels.
• Water vapor: While water vapor is a natural component of the atmosphere, it contributes significantly to the
greenhouse effect, with its concentration varying depending on temperature.
• Methane: Methane is a potent GHG, with about 25 times the heat-trapping ability of CO₂ over a 100-year period,
though it remains in the atmosphere for a shorter time.

S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. The capital of Odisha was shifted from Cuttack to Bhubaneswar in the year 1949. Cuttack served as the capital for
many centuries, including during the British colonial period. However, post-independence, Bhubaneswar was chosen as
the new capital due to its strategic location, modern urban planning, and the availability of land for development.
Bhubaneswar, designed by the German architect Otto Königsberger, was conceived as a planned city and has since
developed into a cultural and educational hub. It was selected to accommodate the growing needs of the state government
and the urban expansion required for Odisha's capital.
Information Booster:
• Cuttack was the capital of Odisha (then Orissa) for more than 1,000 years and is one of the oldest cities in India.
• Bhubaneswar is known for its rich cultural heritage, including temples dating back to the 8th century AD.
• The city was developed into a modern capital post-independence, becoming an administrative, cultural, and
educational center.
• Bhubaneswar is also referred to as the Temple City of India due to its large number of historic temples.
• Bhubaneswar, along with Puri and Konark, forms the Golden Triangle of Odisha, a popular tourist route known for its
architectural and cultural significance.

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S17. Ans.(b)
Sol. Odisha is known for three distinct styles of temple architecture: Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. These
styles represent the traditional temple architecture of the state and are primarily distinguished by the shape of the temple
towers (deulas) and their overall structure. These architectural styles are a reflection of the rich heritage of Odisha and
are mostly found in and around Bhubaneswar, Puri, and Konark.
• Rekha Deula: These temples have tall, curvilinear towers (spires) rising above the sanctum, symbolizing the Mount
Meru. The Lingaraj Temple in Bhubaneswar is a classic example of this style.
• Pidha Deula: These temples have pyramidal roofs made of horizontal layers, resembling a stepped structure. The
Jagannath Temple in Puri follows this architectural form.
• Khakhara Deula: These temples are distinctive because they have a wagon-shaped (rectangular) roof. Temples
dedicated to goddess worship, such as the Baitala Deula in Bhubaneswar, are built in this style.
• Information Booster:
• Rekha Deula: These are vertically elongated, curvilinear structures, seen in most temples dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• Pidha Deula: Temples with stepped pyramidal roofs, commonly seen in temples dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
• Khakhara Deula: Recognized by their wagon-shaped design, they are mainly associated with temples of female
deities.
• These architectural styles evolved over centuries, combining local traditions with influences from other Indian
architectural trends.
• Odisha’s temple architecture is known for its intricate carvings, unique iconography, and historical significance,
particularly from the Kalinga School of Architecture.

S18. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Bhumkar dynasty of ancient Odisha had trade relations with Ceylon (modern-day Sri Lanka). Ancient Odisha,
particularly during the Bhumkar dynasty's reign, had strong maritime connections with Southeast Asian and South Asian
countries, including Ceylon. The region of Kalinga (now Odisha) was a significant hub for maritime trade, and it maintained
prosperous trade links with Ceylon, exchanging goods like spices, textiles, and precious stones. These trade routes played
a critical role in fostering economic and cultural exchanges between Odisha and Ceylon, enhancing their historical
relations.
Information Booster:
• Ceylon (Sri Lanka) was an important trading partner for ancient Odisha due to its strategic location in the Indian
Ocean, making it a hub for maritime trade.
• Kalinga's maritime strength: Ancient Odisha (Kalinga) was known for its naval power and played a significant role in
the maritime trade of the Indian Ocean region.
• Goods exchanged included textiles, spices, and precious stones, which were highly valued in Ceylon.
• The trade routes between Odisha and Ceylon also facilitated cultural and religious exchanges, with significant
Buddhist influences flowing between the two regions.
• Odisha’s seafaring traditions established it as a prominent trade power in the Bay of Bengal region.

S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Sailodbhava Dynasty ruled over the Ganjam region in Odisha during the 6th to 8th centuries AD. This dynasty
played a crucial role in the political history of early medieval Odisha. They were known for their contributions to temple
architecture and the promotion of art and culture. The Sailodbhavas are credited with building several temples in the
region, and their rule marked a period of stability and prosperity. The dynasty had its capital in Kongoda, a region located
in modern-day Ganjam, and they are often remembered for their patronage of religious and cultural activities.
Information Booster:
• Sailodbhava Dynasty: They ruled parts of present-day Odisha, especially the Ganjam region, and played a significant
role in shaping early medieval history in the area.
• The capital of the Sailodbhava dynasty was Kongoda, located in Ganjam.
• The Sailodbhavas were patrons of Hindu temple architecture, and they contributed to the development of unique
architectural styles in Odisha.
• The dynasty’s reign contributed to the cultural and religious development of the region, laying the foundation for
subsequent dynasties that ruled Odisha.

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S20. Ans.(d)
Sol. Ranipur Jharial, located in the Balangir district of Odisha, is referred to as Soma Tirtha. This ancient site is renowned
for its religious and historical significance, especially due to its unique combination of Hindu and Tantric influences.
Ranipur Jharial is home to a group of rock-cut temples, sandstone temples, and some of the earliest Chausath Yogini
shrines in India, dedicated to the Tantric worship of goddesses. The place is associated with Someshwara, a form of Lord
Shiva, which is why it is referred to as Soma Tirtha. The sacredness of the site stems from its historical status as a
pilgrimage center for both Shaiva and Tantric traditions.
Information Booster:
• Ranipur Jharial is a significant archaeological and religious site with over 50 temples dedicated to various deities,
including Shiva and Vishnu.
• The Chausath Yogini Temple at Ranipur Jharial is one of the few such temples in India, representing the worship of 64
goddesses associated with Tantric practices.
• Soma Tirtha refers to the association of this place with Someshwara (Shiva) and its importance as a sacred site for
Shaivism.
• This site is notable for its blend of rock-cut and sandstone temples, showing the architectural diversity of the region.
• Ranipur Jharial was an important pilgrimage site during the Somavamsi dynasty, which promoted both Hinduism and
Tantric practices in Odisha.
Additional Knowledge:
• Gupteswar: Known for the famous cave temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, but it is not referred to as Soma Tirtha.
• Kapilas: A pilgrimage site in Odisha, associated with Lord Shiva, but not referred to as Soma Tirtha.
• Puri: Home to the famous Jagannath Temple, but it is not connected to the title of Soma Tirtha.

S21. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is Basavanna.
The connection between the Tamil bhakti movement and temple worship prompted a reaction best represented by the
Virashaiva movement. Initiated by Basavanna and his companions, Allama Prabhu and Akkamahadevi, this movement
began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth century. The Virashaivas passionately advocated for the equality of all human
beings and opposed Brahmanical concepts of caste and the treatment of women. Additionally, they rejected all forms of
ritual and idol worship.

S22. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is Khonds
The Khonds are a tribal community that primarily lives in the forest areas of Odisha. They are known for their unique
culture and traditions and have historically inhabited the hilly and forested regions of the state. The Mundas are primarily
found in Jharkhand, the Gouds in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, and the Khasis in Meghalaya.

S23. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).
The Indian National Congress (INC) was established in 1885, with its first session held in Bombay (now Mumbai). This
session brought together delegates from across India to discuss common political goals. A.O. Hume, a retired British civil
servant, played a pivotal role in the formation of the INC. He worked to unite educated Indians from different regions to
create a platform for voicing their demands for political reforms.

S24. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is Tea Garden laborers
In Punjab, the Akali agitation of the Sikhs aimed to remove corrupt mahants, who were supported by the British, from
their gurdwaras. This movement became closely associated with the Non-Cooperation Movement. In Assam, tea garden
laborers, chanting "Gandhi Maharaj ki Jai," demanded a significant increase in their wages.

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S25. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is C. Rajagopalachari
C. Rajagopalachari, also known as Rajaji, was the first Indian Governor General of free India. He assumed office on June 21,
1948, succeeding Lord Mountbatten, the last British Governor-General. Rajagopalachari was a close associate of Mahatma
Gandhi and a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress. His tenure as Governor General lasted until January 26,
1950, when India became a republic and Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the first President of India. Rajagopalachari's
appointment marked the end of British authority in India and the beginning of full Indian governance.

S26. Ans.(a)
Sol. In the Indian economy, the division of sectors into Private and Public is based on the ownership of enterprises. The
Public Sector consists of enterprises that are owned and operated by the government (either Central or State), while the
Private Sector includes businesses that are owned and operated by private individuals or companies. The primary
distinction lies in who owns and controls the business activities. In the Public Sector, the government plays a significant
role in running industries that are essential for national development, like defense, railways, and public utilities, while the
Private Sector operates with the primary goal of profit maximization.
Information Booster:
• Public Sector: Enterprises are owned and controlled by the government (e.g., Indian Railways, Bharat Heavy
Electricals Limited (BHEL), and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)).
• Private Sector: Owned by private individuals or corporations (e.g., Tata Group, Reliance Industries, and Infosys).
• The Public Sector often operates in strategic areas important for national interest, while the Private Sector tends to
operate in areas with profit-making potential.
• This division is crucial for ensuring a balance between social welfare objectives and economic efficiency.
• The role of Public and Private sectors has evolved over time, especially with the economic liberalization of the 1990s,
which allowed more privatization and private sector participation in various industries.
Additional Knowledge:
• Usage of raw materials: This basis is not used to divide sectors but may classify industries as primary, secondary, or
tertiary based on the nature of raw material usage.
• Nature of economic activities: This basis classifies sectors into primary (agriculture), secondary (manufacturing), and
tertiary (services), but not as public or private sectors.
• Employment policies: Employment policies pertain to labor management and worker rights, and are not used as a
basis for dividing sectors into private or public.

S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. AYUSH is not a scheme or project but a governmental body in India that stands for Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, and
Homeopathy. The Ministry of AYUSH promotes these traditional medical systems through various programs and
institutions. The other options, AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation), Swachh Bharat (a
cleanliness drive), and Jan Dhan Yojana (a financial inclusion scheme) are specific government schemes or projects aimed
at improving infrastructure, sanitation, and financial inclusion in India.
Information Booster:
• AMRUT: Launched in 2015, it focuses on improving infrastructure in cities to ensure better water supply and sewage
facilities.
• Swachh Bharat Mission: Launched in 2014, this scheme aims to eliminate open defecation and promote sanitation
practices across India.
• Jan Dhan Yojana: A financial inclusion initiative launched in 2014 aimed at opening bank accounts for the unbanked
population.
• AYUSH: An umbrella term for traditional medicine systems in India, it is a governmental body under the Ministry of
Health.

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S28. Ans.(c)
Sol. The primary goal of monetary policy is to promote economic growth while maintaining price stability. This is done by
regulating the money supply and interest rates in the economy, usually under the guidance of the country's central bank
(in India, it is the Reserve Bank of India). By managing inflation and ensuring stable prices, monetary policy helps in
fostering an environment that is conducive to economic growth. Other objectives include controlling inflation, managing
liquidity, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the financial system.
Information Booster:
• Monetary policy involves controlling interest rates and money supply to manage inflation and stimulate economic
growth.
• Price stability refers to keeping inflation at a moderate, stable level to avoid negative impacts on purchasing power
and investment.
• Central banks, like the Reserve Bank of India, manage monetary policy by adjusting the repo rate, reverse repo rate,
and open market operations.
• While it may have secondary effects on tax revenue and corruption indirectly, these are not the direct objectives of
monetary policy.

S29. Ans.(c)
Sol. Trickle-down theory suggests that benefits provided to the wealthy or large businesses will "trickle down" to the rest
of the economy in the form of job creation and economic growth. However, this theory is often criticized because it ignores
the impact of economic growth on income distribution. The trickle-down theory does not directly address whether the
benefits of economic growth are equitably shared across all income groups, and it often leads to widening inequality, as
the rich tend to accumulate wealth at a faster rate than the poor.
Information Booster:
• Trickle-down theory focuses on wealth creation and assumes that benefits will eventually reach lower-income groups,
though evidence suggests it often leads to higher income inequality.
• It ignores the redistribution of wealth, which is essential for ensuring more balanced and inclusive growth.
• Critics argue that economic growth should be accompanied by policies that directly address income inequality to
ensure the benefits are widely shared.
• This theory has often been applied in supply-side economics, where tax cuts for the wealthy are justified on the basis
that they will lead to broader economic growth.

S30. Ans.(d)
Sol. Hyper-inflation refers to an economic situation where prices rise extremely rapidly and uncontrollably, often
exceeding 50% per month. In such a scenario, wages and prices begin to chase each other at a very fast pace. As prices for
goods and services increase dramatically, workers demand higher wages to keep up with the cost of living, and as wages
rise, businesses further increase prices to cover the higher wage costs. This creates a vicious cycle, where both wages and
prices continually rise, leading to an inflationary spiral that is difficult to control. Hyper-inflation severely impacts the
economy by eroding the value of the currency, reducing purchasing power, and causing instability.
Information Booster:
• Hyper-inflation typically occurs due to an excessive increase in money supply, often when a government prints more
money to cover its deficits.
• This type of inflation can lead to the collapse of a country's currency and severe economic crises, such as the ones seen
in Weimar Germany in the 1920s and more recently in Zimbabwe and Venezuela.
• Wages and prices chase each other because rising prices lead to higher wage demands, and higher wages lead to
increased production costs, further driving up prices.
• Price stability is crucial to avoid hyper-inflation, and central banks play a key role in maintaining inflation targets to
prevent such situations.

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Additional Knowledge:
• Disinflation: Refers to a slowdown in the rate of inflation, but prices are still increasing, just at a slower pace than
before.
• Reflation: Refers to the intentional inflation of an economy by the government or central bank, usually after a period
of deflation or economic stagnation.
• Stagflation: Refers to an economic condition where high inflation is accompanied by stagnant economic growth and
high unemployment, but wages and prices don't chase each other rapidly like in hyper-inflation.
• Hyper-inflation: A situation where wages and prices chase each other rapidly, resulting in uncontrollable inflation that
destabilizes the economy.

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