DEPARTMENT OF SCHOOL EDUCATION

---------------------- DISTRICT

MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL

10
Social Science

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA
2023-2024

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 Mrs. C. Karpagam M.Sc., M.Ed., M.Phil. Mrs. K. Karthika. M.Sc., B.Ed.,
Chief Educational Officer Chief Educational Officer
Chengalpattu District Madurai District

Mr. T. Mohamed Kaleem M.Sc., M. Ed., M. Phil Mr. A. Karmegam M.Sc., M. Ed., M. Phil
Assistant Project Officer Assistant Project Officer
Samagra Shiksha Samagra Shiksha
Chengalpattu District Madurai Distric

Coordinators

Mr. S. Maria Anthony Raj Mr. K. Sathish Kumar,

District Coordinator, District Coordinator,
Samagra Shiksha, Samagra Shiksha,
Chengalpattu District Madurai District

Editorial Board

1. Mrs. S. Rajeswari 2. Mrs. M. Krishnaveni

B.T. Assistant, B.T. Assistant,
MPLHSS Zamin Royapet, GHS Mayandipatti,
Chengalpattu District. Madurai District.
3. Mr. P. Senthil Kumar 4. Mrs. O. Kavitha
B.T. Assistant, B.T. Assistant,
GHSS (Girls) Thirukazhukundram, GHS Kadupatti,
Chengalpattu District. Madurai District.

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 BOOK BACK QUESTIONS
ASSERTION AND
HISTORY FILL REASON AND ODD ONE 2 5 GIVE
CHOOSE MATCH DISTINGUISH
UNITS UPS CORRECT OUT MARKS MARKS REASON
SATEMENT
0 6 7 5 2 0 6 4 0 0
2 5 7 4 2 0 4 3 0 0
3 7 4 4 1 0 6 2 0 0
4 6 8 5 2 0 6 2 0 0
5 7 6 5 4 0 5 3 0 0
6 7 6 4 3 0 5 3 0 0
7 8 4 4 4 0 5 2 0 0
8 6 6 5 3 0 7 3 0 0
9 6 5 5 2 0 3 3 0 0
10 5 7 4 2 0 6 3 0 0
TOTAL 63 60 45 25 53 28 0 0
GEO
UNITS
1 7 0 5 0 5 3 3 3
2 7 0 5 1 2 9 2 3 2
3 8 0 5 2 3 8 4 4 2
4 7 0 5 0 0 7 2 4 0
5 7 0 5 0 0 7 3 5 0
6 8 4 5 1 0 7 4 1 2
7 4 4 4 2 0 5 4 2 2
TOTAL 48 8 34 6 5 48 22 22 11
CIVICS
UNITS
1 10 5 5 0 0 7 4 0 0
2 7 6 5 2 0 5 4 0 0
3 10 4 5 0 0 4 3 0 0
4 7 3 5 4 0 6 2 0 0
5 10 4 5 2 0 7 3 0 0
TOTAL 44 22 25 8 0 29 16 0 0
ECO
UNITS
1 8 3 5 0 0 7 4 0 0
2 6 3 4 0 0 7 3 0 0
3 6 3 4 1 0 5 5 0 0
4 8 5 5 1 0 8 3 0 0
5 5 2 4 0 2 7 3 0 0
TOTAL 33 16 22 2 2 34 18 0 0
OVER
ALL 188 106 126 41 7 164 84 23 11
TOTAL
3

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 DAYWISE SCHEDULE
FILL ASS & 2 5
DAY CHOOSE TIMELINE MAP REMARKS
UPS REA MARKS MARKS
1 8 2 1 H-5 1 3 5

2 8 2 1 H-5 1 3 5

3 8 2 1 H-5 1+1 3 5 TEST 20 MARKS

4 8 2 1 H-5 1 3 5
5 8 2 1 H-5 1 3 5 TEST 50 MARKS

6 8 2 1 H-5 1 3 5
7 8 2 1 H-3,G-2 1 3 5
8 7 2 1 G-5 1+1 3 5 TEST 20 MARKS

9 10 2 1 G-5 1 3 5
10 10 2 1 G-5 1 3 5 TEST 50 MARKS

11 10 2 1 G-5 1 3 5
12 10 2 1 G-5 1 3 5
13 10 2 1 G-5 1 3 5 TEST 20 MARKS

14 9 2 1 G - 3,C-2 1 3 5
15 9 2 1 C-5 1 3 5 TEST 50 MARKS

16 9 2 1 C-5 1 3 5
17 10 2 1 C-5 1+1 3 5
18 10 2 1 E-5 1 3 5 TEST 20 MARKS

19 9 2 1 E-5 1 3 5
20 9 2 1 E-5 1 3 5 TEST 50 MARKS

21 9 2 1 E-2 1 3 5
22 10 2 1 1+1 3 5

23 2 1 1 3 5 TEST 20 MARKS

24 2 1 1 3 5

25 2 1 1+1 3 5 TEST 50 MARKS

TOTAL 197 50 25 103 30

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 CONTENT

PAGE
SL.NO. DESCRIPTION
NO.
1 CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER - HISTORY 6

2 CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER - GEOGRAPHY 10

3 CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER - CIVICS 13

4 CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER - ECONOMICS 16

5 ASSERTION AND REASON 19

6 ANSWER IN BRIEF (2 MARKS) – HISTORY 22

7 ANSWER IN BRIEF (2 MARKS) – GEOGRAPHY 25

8 ANSWER IN BRIEF (2 MARKS) – CIVICS 29

9 ANSWER IN BRIEF (2 MARKS) – ECONOMICS 31

10 PARAGRAPH QUESTION AND ANSWERS 32

11 FILL UPS 44

12 DISTINGUISH BETWEEN 46

13 GIVE REASON 47

14 TIME LINE 48

15 HISTORY MAP 49

16 GEOGRAPHY MAP 62

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 MLM FOR SOCIAL SCIENCE
HISTORY
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) (b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) (d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
2. Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth
century?
(a) China (b) Japan (c) Korea (d) Mongolia
3. Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin (b) Marx (c) Sun Yat-sen (d) Mao Tsetung
4. What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare (b) trench warfare (c) submarine warfare (d) ship warfare
5. To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belong?
(a) Britain (b) France (c) Dutch (d) USA
6. Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany (b) Russia (c) Italy (d) France
7. With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany (b) Russia (c) Pope (d) Spain
8. With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) (b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) (c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) (d) Pedro I
9. Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English (b) Spaniards (c) Russians (d) French
10. Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin
America?
(a) Roosevelt (b) Truman (c) Woodrow Wilson (d) Eisenhower
11. Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe (b) Latin America (c) India (d) China
12. When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945 (b) 2 October, 1945
(b) (c) 15 August, 1945 (d) 12 October, 1945
13. Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt (b) Chamberlain (c) Woodrow Wilson (d) Baldwin
14. Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal (b) Battle of Midway (c) Battle of Leningrad (d) Battle of
El Alamein
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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 15. Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki (b) Innoshima (c) Hiroshima (d) Nagasaki
16. Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians (b) Arabs (c) Turks (d) Jews
17. Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain (b) Winston Churchill (c) Lloyd George (d) Stanley Baldwin
18. When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942 (b) June 26, 1945 (c) January 1, 1942 (d) January 1, 1945
19. Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson (b) Truman (c) Theodore Roosevelt (d) Franklin Roosevelt
20. When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959 (b) September 1948 (c) September 1954 (d) September 1949
21. The United States and European allies formed _______________ to resist any
Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO (b) NATO (c) SENTO (d) Warsaw Pact
22. Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad (b) Yasser Arafat (c) Nasser (d) Saddam Hussein
23. When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1973 (d) 1974
24. When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979 (b) 1989 (c) 1990 (d) 1991
25. In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827 (b) 1829 (c) 1826 (d) 1927
26. What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj (b) Brahmo Samaj (c) Prarthana Samaj (d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
27. Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform
Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar (b) Raja Rammohan Roy (c) Annie Besant (d) Jyotiba
Phule
28. Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement (b) Aligarh Movement (c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
29. Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das (b) Baba Ramsingh (c) Gurunanak (d) Jyotiba Phule
30. Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade (b) Devendranath Tagore (c) Jyotiba Phule (d) Ayyankali
31. Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash ?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi (b) Iyothee Thassar (c) Annie Besant (d) Swami
Shradanatha
32. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of
territorial aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers (b) Puli Thevar (c) Velunachiyar (d) Veerapandya
Kattabomman
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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 33. Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar (b) Kattabomman (c) Puli Thevar (d) Oomai thurai
34. Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar (b) Nagalapuram (c) Virupachi (d) Panchalamkurichi
35. Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers (b) Puli Thevar (c) Veerapandya Kattabomman (d) Gopala
Nayak
36. When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805 (b) 10 July 1805 (c) 10 July 1806 (d) 10 September 1806
37. Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations
in Vellore fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt (b) Major Armstrong (c) Sir John Cradock (d) Colonel Agnew
38. Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta (b) Mumbai (c) Delhi (d) Mysore
39. Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East
Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion (b) Farazi Movement (c) Tribal uprising (d) Kol Revolt
40. Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was
against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir (b) Sidhu (c) Dudu Mian (d) Shariatullah
41. Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins
under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals (b) Titu Mir (c) Munda (d) Kol
42. Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Justice Govind Ranade (c) Bipin Chandra pal (d) Romesh
Chandra
43. When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905 (b) 18 July 1906 (c) 19 August 1907 (d) 16 October 1905
44. What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt (b) Indigo Revolt (c) Munda Rebellion (d) Deccan Riots
45. Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant (b) Bipin Chandra Pal (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Tilak
46. Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation
through his play Nildarpan?
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra (b) Romesh Chandra Dutt (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Birsa
Munda
47. Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) Saifuddin Kitchlew (c) Mohamed Ali (d) Raj Kumar Shukla
48. In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation
approved?
(a) Bombay (b) Madras (c) Calcutta (d) Nagpur
49. Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 (a) 26th January 1930 (b) 26th December 1929 (c) 16th June 1946 (d) 15th
January 1947
50. When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858 (b) 1911 (c) 1865 (d) 1936
51. On 8 January 1933 which day was observed ____________.
(a) Temple Entry Day (b) Day of Deliverance (c) Direct Action Day (d)
Independence Day
52. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act (b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
53. Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair (b) P. Rangaiah (c) G. Subramaniam (d) G.A. Natesan
54. Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina (b) Mylapore (c) Fort St. George (d) Thousand Lights
55. Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with
subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant (b) M. Veeraraghavachari (c) B.P. Wadia (d) G.S. Arundale
56. Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurti (b) Kasturirangar (c) P. Subbarayan (d) Periyar EVR
57. Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) K. Kamaraj (b) C. Rajaji (c) K. Santhanam (d) T. Prakasam
58. Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode (b) Madras (c) Salem (d) Madurai
59. __________ established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell (b) F.W. Ellis (c) Ziegenbalg (d) Meenakshisundaram
60. __________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Rajaji (d) M. C. Rajah
61. India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed
in__________.
(a) 1918 (b) 1917 (c) 1916 (d) 1914
62. __________ was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of
Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board (b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board (d) Staff Selection Commission
63. __________ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class
in Madras Province.
(a) M. C. Rajah (b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan (c) T.M. Nair (d) P. Varadarajulu.

GEOGRAPHY

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER

1. The north-south extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km (b) 2,933 km (c) 3,214 km (d) 2,814 km
2. _________ River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
9

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 (a) Narmada (b) Godavari (c) Kosi (d) Damodar
3. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _________.
(a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) Strait
4. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _____________.
(a) Goa (b) West Bengal (c) Sri Lanka (d) Maldives
5. The highest peak in South India is
(a) Ooty (b) Kodaikanal (c) Anaimudi (d) Jindhagada
6. _____________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar (b) Tarai (c) Bhangar (d) Khadar
7. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
(a) West Bengal and Odisha (b) Karnataka and Kerala (c) Odisha and Andhra
Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
8. Western disturbances cause rainfall in ______________.
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kerala (c) Punjab (d) Madhya Pradesh
9. _________ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and
Karnataka.
(a) Loo (b) Norwester (c) Mango showers (d) Jet stream
10. ______________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets (b) Isobar (c) Isotherm (d) Latitudes
11. Climate of India is labelled as _______________.
(a) Tropical humid (b) Equatorial Climate (c) Tropical Monsoon Climate (d)
Temperate Climate
12. The monsoon forests are otherwise called as _______________.
(a) Tropical evergreen forest (b) Deciduous forest (c) Mangrove forest (d)
Mountain forest
13. Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in _________.
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
14. _________ is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri (b) Agasthiyamalai (c) Great Nicobar (d) Kachch
15. The soil which is rich in iron oxides is _______________.
(a) Alluvial (b) Black (c) Red (d) Alkaline
16. Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major
groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (b) Indian Meteorological
Department
(b) Soil Survey of India (d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
17. The soils formed by the rivers are:
(a) Red soils (b) Black soils (c) Desert soils (d) Alluvial soils
18. ____________ dam is the highest gravity dam in India.
(a) Hirakud dam (b) Bhakra Nangal dam (c) Mettur dam (d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Dam
19. __________ is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Maize
20. Black soils are also called as:
(a) Arid soils (b) Saline soils (c) Regur soils (d) Mountain soils

10

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 21. The longest dam in the world is ___________.
(a) Mettur dam (b) Kosi dam (c) Hirakud dam (d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
22. Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Jute (d) Tobacco
23. Manganese is used in ______________.
(a) Storage batteries (b) Steel Making (c) Copper smelting (d) Petroleum Refining
24. The Anthracite coal has _____________.
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon (b) Above 70% Carbon (c) 60 to 70% Carbon (d) Below
50% Carbon
25. The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
(a) Oxygen (b) Water (c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen
26. The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai (b) Salem (c) Madurai (d) Coimbatore
27. The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil nadu
28. The most abundant source of energy is
(a) Bio mass (b) Sun (c) Coal (d) Oil
29. The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Assam
30. The nucleus for the development of the Chotanagpur plateau region is
(a) Transport (b) Mineral Deposits (c) Large demand (d) Power Availability
31. The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
(a) Cartography (b) Demography (c) Anthropology (d) Epigraphy
32. ______________ transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways (b) Roadways (c) Airways (d) Waterways
33. The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km (b) 5942 km (c) 5630 km (d) 5800 km
34. The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at___________.
(a) Bengaluru (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Hyderabad
35. The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is
(a) Roadways (b) Railways (c) Airways (d) Waterways
36. Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India (b) Indian Airlines (c) Vayudoot (d) Pavan Hans
37. The major import item of India is
(a) Cement (b) Jewells (c) Tea (d) Petroleum
38. The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 8°5′N to 13°35′N (b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S (c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N (d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
39. The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E (b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W (c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E
(d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
40. The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi (b) Doddabetta (c) Mahendragiri (d) Servarayan
41. Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil
Nadu?
(a) Palghat (b) Shencottah (c) Bhorghat (d) Achankoil
42. Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?

11

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 (a) Periyar (b) Cauvery (c) Chittar (d) Bhavani
43. The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Ramanathapuram (b) Nagapattinam (c) Cuddalore (d) Theni
44. Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from
(a) Arabian sea (b) Bay of Bengal (c) Indian Ocean (d) Timor sea
45. Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni (b) Madurai (c) Thanjavur (d) Ramanathapuram
46. The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Dharmapuri (b) Vellore (c) Dindigul (d) Erode
47. The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta (b) Mahanadi delta (c) Godavari delta (d) Krishna delta
48. Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Pulses (b) Millets (c) Oilseeds (d) Rice
49. A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Mettur (b) Papansam (c) Sathanur (d) Thungabahdr
50. Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
(a) 3and15 (b) 4 and15 (c) 3 and16 (d) 4 and15

CIVICS

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER

1. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?

(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
2. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
3. A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent (b) Registration (c) Naturalisation (d) All of the above
4. Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation (c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
5. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
6. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart
and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality (c) Right to Constitutional
remedies (d) Right to property
7. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires (b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 (b) If the President orders it during the national emergency (d) All of the
above
8. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
9. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
10. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about
the Centre-State Relations?
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Rajamannar Committee
(c) M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(d) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
11. The Constitutional Head of the Union is
(a) The President (b) The Chief Justice (c) The Prime Minister (d) Council of
Ministers
12. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President (b) Attorney General (c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
13. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) The President (b) Lok Sabha (c) The Prime Minister (d) Rajya Sabha
14. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok
Sabha?
(a) 18 years (b) 21 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
15. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) State Government (d) Parliament
16. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial
Emergency
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 356 (d) Article 365
17. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President (b) The Attorney General (c) The Governor (d) The Prime
Minister
18. The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice
19. The Speaker of a State is a
(a) Head of State (b) Head of government (c) President’s agent (d) None of these
20. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial (d) Diplomatic
21. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the
State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
22. The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(b) Advocate General of the State (d) Judges of the High Court

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 23. The State Council of Ministers is headed by
(a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor (c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
24. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
25. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
26. The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta (c) Delhi, Calcutta,
Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
27. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala and Telangana (c) Punjab and
Haryana (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
28. Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister (b) Prime Minister (c) External Affairs Minister (d) Home
Minister
29. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
(a) India and Nepal (b) India and Pakistan (c) India and China (d) India and Sri
Lanka
30. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50 (b) Article 51 (c) Article 52 (d) Article 53
31. Apartheid is
(a) An international association (b) Energy diplomacy (c) A policy of racial
discrimination (d) None of these
32. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
(a) Trade and Commerce (b) Restoration of normal relations (c) Cultural
exchange programmes (d) The Five Principles of Co-existence
33. Which is not related to our foreign policy
(a) World cooperation (b) World peace (c) Racial equality (d) Colonialism
34. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia (b) Indonesia (c) Egypt (d) Pakistan
35. Find the odd one
(a) Social welfare (b) Health care (c) Diplomacy (d) Domestic affairs
36. Non-Alliance means
(a) being neutral (b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarization (d) none of the above
37. Non – military issues are
(a) Energy security (b) Water security (c) Pandemics (d) All the above.
38. Mc Mahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India (b) India and Nepal (c) India and China (d) India and
Bhutan
39. India is not a member of which of the following
1) G20
2) ASEAN
3) SAARC
4) BRICS

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 (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2, 4 and 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
40. OPEC is
(a) An international insurance Co (b) An international sports club
(c)An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries (d) An international company
41. With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Myanmar (c) Afghanistan (d) China
42. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan
iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
(a)3 1 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
43. How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
44. Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island (b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c)Maldieves and Nicobar island (d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
45. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim
46. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two
47. Who drew up the borders for independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten (b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe (c) Clement Atlee (d) None of the
above.

ECONOMICS

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER

1. GNP equals
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation (b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c)GDP plus net property income from abroad (d) NNP plus net property
income or abroad
2. National Income is a measure of
(a) Total value of money (b) Total value of producer goods (c) Total value of
consumption goods (d) Total value of goods and services
3. Primary sector consist of
(a) Agriculture (b) Automobiles (c) Trade (d) Banking
4. ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to
estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach (b) Value added approach (c) Income approach (d)
National Income
5. Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
(a) Agricultural sector (b) Industrial sector (c) Service sector (d) None of the
above.
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 6. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh
crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06 (b) 92.26 (c) 80.07 (d) 98.29
7. India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 2nd
8. India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
(a) 65 (b) 60 (c) 70 (d) 55
9. Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy (b) import and export policy (c) land-reform policy (d) wage
policy
10. Indian economy is
(a) Developing Economy (b) Emerging Economy (c) Dual Economy (d) All the
above
11. Who is the head of the World Trade Organization (WTO)
(a) Ministerial conference (b) Director General (c) Deputy Director General (d)
None of these
12. Colonial advent in India
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French (b) Dutch, English, Danish ,
French (c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English (d) Danish,
Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
13. GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo (b) Uruguay (c) Torquay (d) Geneva
14. India signed the Dunket proposal in
(a) 1984 (b) 1976 (c) 1950 (d) 1994
15. who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632
(a) Jahangir (b) Sultan of Golconda (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb
16. Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in
(a) June 1991 (b) July 1991 (c) July - Aug - 1991 (d) Aug 1991
17. Indian government was introduced ___________ in 1991
(a) Globalization (b) World Trade Organisation (c) New Economic Policy (d)
none
18. __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities,
which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food (b) Access to food (c) Absorption of food (d) none
19. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the
government through the __________.
(a) FCI (b) Consumer Cooperatives (c) ICICI (d) IFCI
20. Which is correct?
1. HYV–High Yielding Varieties
2. MSP–Minimum Support Price
3. PDS–Public Distribution System
4. FCI–Food Corporation of India
(a) i and ii are correct (b) iii and iv are correct (c) ii and iii are correct
(d) all are correct
21. __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America (b) India (c) Singapore (d) UK

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 22. __________ revolution was born in India paving way for self-sufficiency in food
grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution (b) White Revolution (c) Green Revolution (d) Grey
Revolution
23. __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
24. __________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health
and growth.
(a) Health (b) Nutrition (c) Sanitation (d) Security
25. The three levels of governments in India are
(a) Union, state and local (b) Central, state and village (c) Union, municipality
and panchayat (d) None of the above
26. In India, taxes are including
(a) Direct taxes (b) Indirect taxes. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
27. Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence (b) Foreign policy (c) Regulate the economy (d) all of above
28. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
(a) Service tax (b) Excise duty (c) Income tax (d) Central sales tax
29. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
(a) Value added tax (VAT) (b) Income tax (c) Goods and service tax (d) Sales tax
30. Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________.
(a) 1860 (b) 1870 (c) 1880 (d) 1850
31. __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax (b) wealth tax (c) Corporate tax (d) Excise duty
32. What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods (b) High tax rate (c) Smuggling (d) All of above
33. ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.
(a) Tuticorin (b) Coimbatore (c) Chennai (d) Madurai
34. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
(a) Salem (b) Coimbatore (c) Chennai (d) Dharampuri
35. ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) agriculture (b) industry (c) railway (d) none of these
36. Tiruppur is known for
(a) Leather tanning (b) Lock making (c) Knitwear (d) Agro-processing
37. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
(a) Hosur (b) Dindigul (c) Kovilpatti (d) Tirunelveli

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER

Ans: Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

1. Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged
Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western
Europe under its influence.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

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 b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

2. Assertion (A):Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious
conflict with the Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

3. Assersion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

4. Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.

Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the
elected Congress ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

5. Assertion (A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.

Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian
Sub-continent warm.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is true (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true

6. Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed
materials brought by the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

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 b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.

8. Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley
of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the states economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

9. Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.

Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and
Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong

10. Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the
purchasing power is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

(Note: words starting with below, having same answer i.e., A is correct, R is the
correct explanation of A )

1. America’s Marshall Plan

2. Puli Thevar
3. The Revolt of 1857
4. The Congress Ministries resigned
5. The Himalayas acts
6. Alluvial soil is formed
7. Tamil Nadu
8. Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode
9. India and France
10. Purchasing power

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 ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER

Ans: Both A and R are correct

1. Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in
bloody battles.
Reason : There was stiff resistance from the native population.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but A is wrong

2. Assertion : The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had resolved that Africa
should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason : The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in
defiance of this resolution.
a) Both A and R are right
b) A is right but R is not the right reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A

3. Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its
policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

4. Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-
1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of
Dyarchy.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A

5. Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.

Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture
and industrial production.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) Both are correct
d) Both are wrong

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 (Note: words starting with the following will have the same answer i.e. both A and
R are correct)
1. The first European attempts
2. The Berlin Colonial Conference
3. President Roosevelt
4. The Justice Party
5. OPEC

Pick out odd one

1. Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
2. Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPZ d) SIPCOT

Pick the odd one out

1. a) Wheat b) Rice c) Millets d) Coffee
2. a) Khadar b) Bhangar c) Alluvial soil d) Black soil
3. a) Inundational canals b) Perennial canals c) Tanks d) Canals

2 MARKS (HISTORY)

1. How do you asses the importance of Sino- Japanese war?

• Japan won.
• got Liaotung Peninsula
• So Japan became strong.

2. Name the countries of Triple Entente?

• Britain
• France
• Russia

3. What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?

• England - Jingoism
• France - Chauvinism
• Germany – Kultur

4. What do you know of Trench Warfare?

• Introduced in the First World War.
• Trenches dug by soldiers to protect from enemy fire.
• Running parallel to each other.

5. What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?

• Role for Turkey’s rebirth as a nation.
• Modernized Turkey.

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

6. What do you know about 'White Terror' in Indo-China?
• ln 1929 Vietnamese soldiers were mutinied.
• Peasant revolt led by communists was crushed.
• 1000 rebels were killed.

7. Define Dollar Imperialism?

• The term used to describe the policy of USA
• Maintaining and dominating over distant lands through economic aid.

8. Who were the three prominent dictators of the post-World war I?

1. Mussolini 2. Hitler 3. Franco.

9. Describe the Pearl Harbor incident.

• In 1941, Japan attacked Pearl Harbor
• USA’s Battle ships, planes were destroyed.

10. Name the Bretton Woods Twins.

1. World Bank 2. IMF

11. What was Marshal Plan?

• Marshall Plan was a USA Plan
• Helping the affected countries with US dollars.

12. Write a note on Third World Countries.

1. First World Countries - USA
2. Second World Countries - USSR
3. Third World Countries - Other countries

13. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.

• Compassion all living beings.
• Mercy on all living beings
• Free feeding house.

14. List the social evils eradicated by Brahma Samaj.

• Sati
• Child marriage
• Polygamy

15. Highlight the work done by Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the
marginalized.
• He opened the 1st first school for “untouchables’
• He devoted his lives for the uplift of the Depressed Classes and Women.

16. What are the duties of Palayakkarars?

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

• collect revenue
• administer the territory
• settle disputes
• maintain law order

17. Identify the palayams based on the division of east and west.
• Eastern palayams Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram,
• Western palayams Uthumalai, Thalavankotai

18. What was the significance of the battle of Kalakadu?

• Travancore forces and Pulithevar forces joined and defeated Mahfuzkhan's troops in the
battle of Kalakadu.

19. Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of 1801?

• Tiruchirappalli Proclamation issued by Marudhu Brothers.
• An early call to the Indians to unite against the British.

20. How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?

1. Restorative rebellions. 2. Religious movements.
3. Social banditry. 4. Mass in insurrection
21. Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
• Satara
• Jhansi
• Nagpur
• Sambalpur
• Parts of Punjab

22. Summarise essence of Lucknow pact?

• Congress and Muslim League agreed to self-government in India soon.
• Congress leadership accepted a separate electorate for Muslims.

23. Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre was held on April 13, 1919 in Amristar.
• General Dyer opened fire on people without any warning.
• 379 were killed and more than thousand injured.

24. Write a note on the Khilafat Movement?

• The Ali brothers started, Gandhiji supported.
• An opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims.

25. Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non Cooperation movement?

• Due to the Chauri Chaura Incident,
• Gandhi withdrew the Non Cooperation movement.

26. Write a note on Bhagat Singh.

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 • Reorganised the HRA in Punjab.
• Threw bomb on Central Legislative Assembly
• Threw pamphlets.

27. Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.

• V.O.C and Subramanya Siva were arrested.
• So uprising broke out in Tirunelveli.

28. What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India’s freedom struggle?

• Started Newspapers : New India and Commonweal
• Through this she carried forward her agenda.

29. List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their
writings.
• C. W. Damotharanar
• U. V. Swaminathar
• Thiru. Vi. Kaliyanasundaram
• Parithimar Kalaignar
• Maraimalai Adigal
• Subramania Bharathi
• S. Vaiyapuri
• Bharathidasan

30. Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
1. Dravidian - Tamil
2. Justice - English
3. Andhra Prakasika - Telugu

31. Estimate Periyar as a feminist.

• Periyar opposed Child marriage.
• He opposed Devadasi system.
• He fought for Women’s right to divorce and property.

2 MARKS (GEOGRAPHY)

1. Name the neighbouring countries of India. (PACN MBBS)

1. Pakistan
2. Afghanistan
3. China
4. Nepal
5. Myanmar
6. Bangladesh
7. Bhutan
8. Srilanka

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

2. Give the importance of IST.
• India’s central meridian is 82 ° 30 ’ E longitude.
• It passes through Mirzapur.
• IST is 5.30 hours of GMT

3. Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.

• It is the largest plateau in India.
• It is triangular in shape

4. State the west flowing rivers of India.

1. Narmada 2. Tapti 3. Mahi 4. Sabarmati

5. Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep.

• It is located in West Coast of India.
• It is a Coral Island.

6. List the factors affecting climate of India.

1. Latitude.
2. Distance from the sea
3. Monsoon winds
4. Relief features
5. Jet stream

7. What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?

• Temperature decreases 6.5 ° C for every 1000 m of height.

8. What are ‘jet streams’?

• Jet Streams are the fast moving winds.
• It blowing in a narrow Zone in the upper atmosphere.

9. Name the four distinct seasons of India.

1. Winter Season
2. Summer Season
3. South West Monsoon
4. North East Monsoon

10. What is ‘burst of monsoon’?

• The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with lightning and thunder.

11. Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.

1. The Western Coast
2. Assam
3. South Meghalaya
4. Tripura
5. Nagaland
6. Arunachal Pradesh
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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

12. Write any five biosphere reserves in India.
• Gulf of Mannar
• Agasthiyamalai
• Kachch
• Sundarbans
• Nicobar

13. Define soil.

• The upper most layer of the land surface is called soil.

14. Name the types of soil found in India.

1. Alluvial soil
2. Black soil
3. Red soil
4. Laterite soil
5. Forest and Mountain soil
6. Arid and Desert soil
7. Saline and Alkaline soil
8. Peaty and Marshy Soil

15. State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.

• It is black in colour.
• Sticky when wet.

16. Define Agriculture.

Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber and many
other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated
animals.

17. State the types of agriculture practices in India.

1. Subsistence Farming
2. Shifting Agriculture
3. Intensive Farming
4. Dry Farming
5. Mixed Farming
6. Terrace Farming

18. Name the seasons of agriculture in India.

1. Kharif season
2. Rabi Season
3. Zaid Season

19. Mention the plantation crops of India.

• Tea, Coffee, Rubber and Spices

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

20. Define the resource and state its types.
• Renewable resources
• Non Renewable resources

21. What are minerals and state its type ?

• Metallic Minerals
• Non-metallic Minerals

22. State the uses of Magnesium.

• It is an important used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material for
alloying.
• It is the most important mineral for making iron and steel.

23. What is natural gas?

• Formed by the decomposition of plants
• It is hydrocarbon mixture.
• Source of Energy

24. Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
1. Anthracite : 80% to 90% Carbon
2. Bituminous : 60% to 80% Carbon
3. Lignite : 40% to 60% Carbon
4. Peat : Less than 40% of Carbon

25. Mention the major areas of jute production in India.

West Bengal, Titagarh, Jagatdat, Bhadreshwar.

26. What is migration? State its types.

• Migration is the movement of the people across regions and territories.
• 1. Internal Migration 2. International Migration

27 Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India

• It is a very convenient mode of transport to connect oil and natural gas fields,
refineries.
• The initial cost of laying pipeline is high but subsequent running cost is minimum

28. What is communication? What are its types?

• Exchange of Information, thoughts and Ideas.
Types: 1. Personal Communication 2. Mass Communication

29. Define “International trade”.

• Trade carried on between two or more countries is called International Trade.
• It is also called as external trade or foreign trade. Export and Import are two
components of International trade

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SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

30. State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
1. Kerala.
2. Karnataka
3. Andhra pradesh
4. Bay of Bengal
5. Indian ocean

31. What is ‘Teri’?

• Teri are sand dunes.
• Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi

32. Name the major Islands of Tamil Nadu:

1. Pamban
2. Hare
3. Kurusadai
4. Nallathanni theevu
5. Srirangam

33. Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.

1. Karaiyar
2. Servalar
3. Manimuthar
4. Pachaiyar
5. Chittar

34. Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.

• It is the concept and practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to
analyze and reduce the causal factors of disasters.- UNDRR

35. Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.

• Sornavari
• Samba
• Navarai
36. Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
• There are more number of textile industries in and around Coimbatore.

37. Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu. (MMMAB)

• Mettur Dam
• Mullaiperiyar Dam
• Manimuthar Dam
• Amaravathi Dam
• Bhavani Sagar Dam

38. What is MRTS?

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 • MRTS means Mass Rapid Transport System.

39. List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu ?
1. Air ports: Chennai, Madurai
2. Sea ports: Chennai, Cuddalore

2 MARKS - CIVICS

1. What is meant by citizenship?

• Citizen is A Latin Term
• CIVICS - Resident of a city state

2. How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against Exploitation
4. Right to Religion
5. Cultural of Educational Rights
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies.

3. What is a Writ?
• A writ is an order of command issued by a court in writing under its seal.

4. What are the classical languages in India?

1. Tamil
2. Sanskrit
3. Telugu
4. Kannada
5. Malayalam
6. Odiya

5. What is national emergency?

• Article 352 by President
• Due to war, Foreign aggression, Armed rebellion

6. How is President of India elected?

• Elected by Electoral College.
• By single transferable Vote

7. List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
1. Legislative Relations
2. Administrative Relations
3. Financial Relations
8. What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
• He must be a citizen of India.
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 • 5 years practice as a High Court judge.

9. Write short note: Money Bill.

• Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha
• Income and expenditure of the government

10. What is the importance of the Governor of a state?

• Governor is the head of the state
• He enjoys the Executive powers.

11. What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?

• He should be a citizen of India. He must have completed 35 years of age.
• He should be a member of parliament or any state legislature.
• He should not hold any other profitable occupations.

12. What is foreign policy?

• Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.

13. Explain India’s nuclear policy.

• No first use
• Credible minimum deterrence.

14. List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?

• Mutual respect for each other‘
• Territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Mutual non-aggression
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and Co-operation for mutual benefit Peaceful co-existence
15. Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
• Treaties and executive agreements.
• Appointing Ambassadors
• Foreign aid

16. List out the member countries of SAARC. (PAIN MBBS)

1. P - Pakistan
2. A - Afghanistan
3. I - India
4. N - Nepal
5. M - Maldives
6. B - Bangladesh
7. B - Bhutan
8. S - Sri Lanka

17. Name the neighbouring countries of India? (PAN MBBS CM)

1. Pakistan 2. Afghanistan 3. Nepal
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 4. Maldives 5. Bangladesh 6. Bhutan
7. Sri Lanka 8. China 9. Myanmar.

18. Write a note on Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)

• Indo-Afghanistan relation was strengthened by the Strategic Partnership Relationship
Agreement (SPA)
• SPA provides assistance to rebuild Afghan’s infrastructure, agriculture, water,
education

19. Mention the member countries of BRICS.

B - Brazil
R - Russia
I - India
C - China
S - South Africa

20. What do you know about Kaladan Multi – Model Transit Transport?
• India is building the Kaladan Multi –Model transit transport, a road –river port cargo
transport project to link Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
• A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho Chi Minh City on the South sea for the
formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia
and Vietnam

2 MARKS - ECONOMICS

1. What is national income?

• Total value of country’s goods and services production in one year.

2. What is meant by Gross domestic product?

• Total value of output of goods and services - within the geographical boundaries of the
country.

3. Write the importance of Gross domestic product.

• Economic growth.
• Economic planning.

4. What is Per Capita Income?

National Income
PCI = ---------------------
Population

5. What is Globalization?
• Links our country with the world economy.

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6. Write the types of Globalization.
1. Archaic Globalization 2. Proto Globalization 3. Modern Globalization

7. Define food security according to FAO

• All people, at all times, have safe and nutritious food for an active and healthy life.

8. What are the basic components of food and nutrition security?

1. Availability of food 2. Access to food 3. Absorption of food

9. What are the effects of Green Revolution?

• HYV programme,
• Self-sufficiency in food production

10. Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.

1. MMP – Mid – Day meal Programme
2. PTMGRNMP – Puratchi Thalaivar M.G.R Nutrition Meal – Programme

11. Define tax.

• Taxes are compulsory payment to the government.

12. Why we pay tax to the government?

• We pay tax to the government because the government needs money.
• Transport, Education, Healthcare.

13. What are the types of tax? Give examples.

1. Direct Taxes: Income Tax, Wealth Tax and Corporate Tax
2. Indirect Taxes: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax and GST

14. Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.

• 1st July 2017.
• On goods and services.
• Motto ‘ One Nation, One Market, One tax

15. What is progressive tax?

• When income increases, the tax rate also increases.
• Ex. Income Tax

16. What is meant by an industrial cluster?

• Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share
common markets, technologies and skill requirements.
• An important aspect of clusters is the nature of inter-firm networks and interactions.

17. What is meant by Entrepreneur?

• Entrepreneur is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

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 • He possesses management skills, strong team building abilities and essential
leadership qualities to manage a business.

PARAGRAPH QUESTIONS (HIST0RY)

1. Discuss the main causes of the First World War.

1. Rivalry of Great Powers
2. Violent Forms of Nationalism.
3. Germany’s policy of Aggression
4. Alsace – Loorraine
5. Morrocco Problem
6. The Balkan Wars
7. Immediate Cause
Rivalry of Great Powers:
• European powers were divided into two armed camps.
• Triple Entente : Britain, France and Russia
• Triple alliances: Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.
Violent Forms of Nationalism.
• England’s - Jingoism
• France’s - Chauvinism
• Germany’s - Kultur were militant forms of nationalism.
They contributed to the outbreak of war.

2. Estimate the work done by the League of Nations.

• The league was solved a number of disputes between 1920 and 1925
• Alland Islands problem for Swedan and Finland.
• There was dispute between Poland and Germany.
• Greece – Bulgaria Problem.
• Treaty of Locarno in 1925.
• Peace was established in Western Europe.

3. Analyse the effects of World War – II.

• New Geo- Political power alignment - Europe was divided into Communist and Non-
Communist.
• Cold War - A Cold War was between the Union States and the Soviet Union.
• Development of Nuclear Weapons - The super powers increase their nuclear
weapons.
• International Agencies - 1. The United Nations 2. The World Band 3. The
International Monetary Fund
• Socio Economic Effects - Social and economical changes happened.

4. Write an essay on the role played by the 19 th century reformers towards the cause of
Women.

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 • Raja Ram Mohan Roy - Abolition of Sati, Opposed sati, child marriage, and
polygamy.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidhya Sagar - Promoting Women Education, Schools for Girls.
• Swami Dayananda Saraswathi - Opposed Child Marriage
• M. G. Ranede - Founder of the widow Marriage Association
• Jyotiba Phule & Savitribai Phule - Both worked for depressed classes and women.

5. Account for the Outbreak of the Vellore Revolt in 1806.

• 1806 - Vellore mutiny - In 1806 July 10, Indian Sepoys revolted against the British
in Vellore fort.
• Grievances of Indian soldiers - Low salary, treated unequally, no promotion.
• Outbreak of the Revolt - Sepoys shot down British officers. British brought it
under their control.
• Cl. Gillespie severely suppressed the revolution.
• Tippu’s sons were transferred to Calcutta.

6. Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil nadu.

• Congress ignored the foreign material.
• The Swadeshi movement made a deep impact in TamiNadu.
• Bharati‘s Patriotic songs raised Patriotic emotions.
• Bipin Chandrapal’s speech in Chennai attracted the youth.
• V. O. Chidambaranar started Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in Thoothukudi
• V.O.C and Subramanya Siva were arrested
• Many leaders left Tamil Nadu.

7. Assess the structure and activities of the UN.

STRUCTURE
• General Assembly
• Secretary General
• Secretariat
• The International Court of Justice : Hague - ECOSOC - Economic Council.
• The other Organs FAO, WHO, UNESCO, UNICEF, UNDP.
ACTIVITIES
• In the 1960s, colonial activities were completely abolished
• Human rights
• Problems of refugees
• Natural Calamities
• Gender Equality
• Peace keeping force
•
8. Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Tamilnadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• The Civil Disobedience Movement was a mass movement with the participation of
student s shopkeepers, workers, women, etc.
• In the city of Madras, shops were picked and foreign goods boycotted.
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 • Rajaji organized and led a salt Satyagraha march to vedaranyam.
• A special song was composed for the march by Namakkal. Mill workers struck work
across the province.
• Women participated enthusiastically.
• N.R.Subbaraman and K.Kamaraj also played an important role.

9. Estimate Periyar E.V. R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil nadu.
• E.V.R Periyar was the founder of the Self Respect Movement.
• Khadi sale - Supported Khadi Sale
• Social Reforms of Periyar - He led the temple entry movement at Vaikom.
• Newspapers - Kudi Arasu and Puratchi.
• Education - opposed the introduction of Hindi in schools and Kula Kalvi Thittam
• Periyar on Religion - opposed superstitions.
• Periyar, a Feminist - Fought for Women Empowerment. He condemned Child
marriage and Devadasi system.

10. Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of the 19th Century.
• English Education - Middle class people got English Education. The middle class
people were attracted by western ideas.
• Social Evils - Sati, Female Infanticide, Child Marriage
• Reform Movements - Brahmo Smaj, Pratana Samaj, Arya Samaj, Rama Krishna
Mission
• Reformers - Jyotiba bule, Narayanaguru, Ayyankali , Ramalinga Adigal,
Ayotheethasa.
• They controlled the Social Evils.
11. Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
• Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa after fighting the civil
rights of the Indians.
• He introduced Satyagraha which he had perfected in South Africa.
• The militants confronted the repression of the colonial state violently.
• His studying time experience in London.
• Gandhi faced racial discrimination in South Africa Durban railway incident.
• Inspired by Ruskin, Gandhi established the Phoenix settlement.
• Gandhi developed Satyagraha devotion to the truth, truth force a strategy.
• Communal Award, Untouchability, Hindu –Muslims Unity Gandhi popular unification.
12. Explore the reason of Civil Dis – Obedient movement is an important in Gandhian era.

• In 1929 Lahore Congress session Presided by Nehru passed a resolution and declared
Poorna Swaraj as their goal.
• Congress made demands to the Lord Irwin - Reduction of expenditure on army,
Reducing administrative costs.
• Dandi March - On 12th March 1930 Gandhi and his 78 followers reached Dandi
on 5th April 1930.
• Broken the Salt Law
• Gandhi was arrested and imprisoned in jail.
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 • First Round Table Conference - The Congress did not attend it.
• Gandhi Irwin pact - 1931 - The British agreed to the demand of Gandhi.
• Renewal of Civil disobedient Movement - Gandhi was arrested.

PARAGRAPH QUESTIONS (GEOGRAPHY)

1. Explain the Divisions of Northern Mountains and its importance to India.

Western Himalayas Central Himalayas Eastern Himalayas
• The Trans – Himalayas • Greater Himalayas - • Purvanchal Hills
• Location - Kashmir and Himadri • Location - Eastern States
Tibet • The Lesser Himalayas - of India
• Known as - Western Himachal • Many hills are located.
Himalayas. • The Outer Himalayas - • Ex. Kasi, Garo, Jainthiya.
• Ranges - Zaskar, Ladadh, Siwaliks
Kailash and Karakoram • Peaks, Glaciers, Hill
ranges Stations, Pass are
located.
• Ex. Shimla, Darjeeling,
Everest, Kanchenjunga,
Gangotri

IMPORTANCE OF HIMALAYAS
• Causes heavy rainfall.
• Source for perennial rivers.
• Many Hill stations are here.
• Pilgrim Centres are here.
• Provides raw materials.

2. Write about South West Monsoon.

• Most significant feature of the Indian climate.

• The Onset of the Monsoon - June to September
• Burst of Monsoon: The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with
lightning and thunder is called as ‘Burst of Monsoon’.
• Two branches. 1. The Arabian Sea 2. The Bay of Bengal
• Arabian sea branch - gives heavy rainfall to the Western Ghats, Meghalaya, Assam,
Himalayas, Tripura,
• Bay of Bengal Branch - The Bay Bengal branch moves towards North East India and
Myanmar.
• Mawsynram is heaviest rainfall place.
• Rainfall Rate - India receives 75 % of rainfall
• Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall. Situated in the leeward side.

3. Describe the forests of India.

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 FOREST RAINFALL TREES DISTRIBUTION
Tropical Evergreen 200 cm. or more. Rosewood Karnataka, Kerala
Forests
Tropical Deciduous 100 to 200 cm Rosewood Punjab, Haryana
Forests rainfall
Tropical Dry Forest 50 to100 cm Banyan Punjab, Haryana
Desert Vegetation Less than 50 cm Babul North – West India
Mountain Forests More than 200 cm Sal, Oak Jammu, Kashmir

4. What is Multipurpose Project and Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.

• Multipurpose project: Scientific management of water resources

• Various purposes: Irrigation, Hydro Power, Water Supply
• Name of Multipurpose Project: Bhakranangal( World largest gravitational dam )
• River: Sutlej
• Benefit States: 1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Rajasthan
• Name of Multipurpose Project: Hirakud (Longest dam in the World)
• River: Mahanadhi
• Benefit States: Odissa

5. Describe the major challenges of Indian industries.

Problems of Industry:
1. Lack of power supply.
2. Lack of Large Land.
3. Lack of cheap labourers.
4. Lack of trained employees
5. Lack of Technical employees

Challenges of Indian Industries

1. Wealth creation
2. Create jobs
3. GDP and Percapita income.
4. Standard of living
5. Exports.

6. What is urbanization? Explain its problem.

• Urbanization - Rural to Urban
• It leads to increase the size of population

PROBLEMS OF URBANISATION:
• Creates urban sprawl.
• Makes overcrowding
• Leads to shortage of houses
• Creates the formation of slums.
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 • Increases traffic jam
• Creates Water Scarcity
• Increases the crimes.

7. State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.

Types of Soil: Alluvial soil Black soil Red soil Laterite soil Desert soil

Characteristics/ growing
Types of Soil Distribution
crops
Alluvial Soil dark colour Ganga valleys, Plains of U.P,
Punjab, Haryana etc.
Black Soil Sticky when wet. Black in Maharashtra, Telengana,
colour Kathiawar
Red Soil Rich in iron and magnesium Deccan Plateau , Kerala,
Light texture Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
Laterite Soil Composed by iron and Assam Hills, Kerala,
aluminum Karnataka

Forest and Mountain Soil Light, sandy, thin with Jammu & Kashmir,
pieces of rocks Himachal Pradesh,

8. Write about the distribution of Cotton Textile Industries in India.

• Biggest sources of employment for millions of people.
• The third largest producer of cotton in the world.
• The largest loom arc and ring spindles in the world.
• At present, cotton industries modernized.
Cotton Textiles :
• Manchester of India – Mumbai
• (The higher concentration of textile mills in and around)
• Presence of black soil
• Humid climate
• Hydro power
• Good Market
• Transport facility
9. Classify and explain the roadways in India.
1.NATIONAL HIGHWAYS
• CONNECTED: Capitals, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
• MAINTAINED BY : Central Government
• Eg. 1. Longest NH 44 - Varanasi to Kanyakumari 2. Shortest NH-47A Ernakulam to
Kochi

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2.STATE HIGHWAYS
• CONNECTED: important cities, towns and district headquarters
• MAINTAINED BY : State Governments
3. DISTRICT ROADS district and taluk headquarters PWD of the States.
4. VILLAGE ROADS neighbouring towns. Village panchayats
5. BORDER ROADS BORDER ROADS (BRO)
6. INTERNATIONAL HIGHWAYS:.
• CONNECTED: neighbouring countries Pakistan, Nepal , Bhutan etc.
• MAINTAINED BY : Central Government (World Bank’s Aid)
7. EXPRESS WAYS:
• Multi-lane highwaysEx. MumbaiPune
• MAINTAINED BY : NHAI – Central India
8. GOLDEN QUDRILATERAL ROADS:
• 4 TO 6 WAYS NHAI
MAINTAINED BY – Central India

10. Examine the geographical conditions favourable for the cultivation of rice and wheat.

Rice Wheat
1. Needs a mean of 24° 1. Requires 10-15 ° at the time of
sowing.
2. Annual rainfall of 150 cm 2. Annual rainfall of 50-60 cm
3. Indigenous crop and it is mainly a 3. Second most important food crop of
tropical crop. the country.
4. Loam soil is the best Black soil 4. Clayey or loamy soils are suited
5. Tamil, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Uttar 5. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,
Pradesh. Madhya
Pradesh

11. Write an account on river Cauvery.

• Origin Kodagu hill of Karnataka.
• Length 416 KM
• Waterfall Hogenakkal - Dharmapuri district.
• Mettur Dam is located in Salem district.
• Tributaries are Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi
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• Agandra Cauvery The river is wider in Trichy.
• This region is called as ‘Agandra Cauvery’.
• It has two branches. the northern branch - Kollidam Southern branch – Cauvery
• Delta districts : Trichy Thanjavur and Nagai
• Cauvery delta called as the “ ‘Garden of Southern India’’

PARAGRAPH QUESTIONS (CIVICS)

1. Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.

• Written Constitution
• Lengthiest constitutions of the world.
• Partly Rigid and Partly Flexible
• Parliamentary democracy
• Secularism
• Federalism
• Judicial Independence

2. Point out the fundamental Rights.

6 TYPES OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE :

1. Right to Equality - Equality before law. Art 14

2. Right to Freedom - Freedom of speech, movement and residence.
Right to Elementary Education
3. Right to Religion - Right to manage religious affairs.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies - Solution for the violation of fundamental rights.
5. Right against Exploitation - Prohibition of child labour.
6. Cultural and Educational Rights - Protection of language and culture of minorities

3. Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?

• Geographical position
• Size of territory
• Natural resources
• Political stability of government
• Structure of government
• Military strength
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4. Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
• The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by V. Krishna Menon in 1953 and announced in
UNO.
• AIMS - Maintaining national independence
• MEMBERSHIP - 120 countries, 17 states (observers) and 10 international
organizations.

FOUNDING FATHERS OF NAM -

1. Jawaharlal Nehru - India
2. Tito - Yugoslavia
3. Nasser - Egypt
4. Sukarno - Indonesia and
5. Kwame Nkumarah – Ghana

• It is a political moment.
• But it has changed as an economic movement.
• It maintains Peace.

5. Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State
Policy.
Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Derived from USA. Drawn from Ireland.
2. Even the government cannot take away Few instructions to the Government
3. Enforceable by a court of law. Not enforceable in any court.
4. Have legal sanctions Have moral and political sanctions.
5. Strengthens political democracy Ensures social and economic democracy.
6. Natural rights Protection of human rights.

6. Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.

REASON FOR THE FORMATION OF BRICS :

• Alternate to world Bank
• To challenge U.S. supremacy.
• Headquarters – Shanghai, China

BRICS Countries: Brazil, Russia, India, China & South Africa

OBJECTIVES:
• Achieve regional development.
• Bridge between developed countries
• Abolition of poverty.
• Establishment fair world.

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• Boosting trade.
• To solve the problems of member nations

7. What are powers and functions of the Chief Minister?

• Real head of State
• Presides over meetings
• Responsible to Legislative Assembly
• He decides his ministry.
• He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers
• He guides all ministers.
• He controls all ministers.
• He coordinates with all ministers.
• He advises appointment of the officials.
• He announces the Government policies
• He can introduce the bills.

8. What are the duties of Prime minister of India?

• He is head of the other ministers
• He decides the rank of his ministers.
• He forms the ministry.
• He guides all ministers.
• He directs all ministers.
• He controls all ministers.
• He controls the party.
• He creates the government policies.
• He presides over meetings
• He talks government affairs with the President.
9. Describe the legislative powers of the Governor:
• The Governor is the head of the state.
• Enormous powers.
Legislative powers
• Address the state legislature - First session of each year. Right to summon, postpone
the state legislator and dissolve the state legislative assembly.
• Appoint the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
• Nominates one member Anglo- Indian Community.
• Nominates 1 /6 of the members - State legislative Council Every bill become law only
after his sign

10. Executive and Judicial powers of the president of India.

• The president is the nominal head.
• He is the First citizen of India.

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Executive powers:
• He appoints - Prime Minister - council of Ministers
• He appoints Governors of States.
• He appoints Chief justice of the Supreme Court
• He appoints other Judges of the Supreme Court
• He appoints the judges of high Court

Judicial Powers
• Article 72 gives power on the President.
• He can pardon, reprieves, respites , commute the sentence of any person convicted of any
offence.

PARAGRAPH QUESTIONS (ECONOMICS)

1. Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of National Income.

1. Gross National Product

• It is the total value of (goods and services) produced and income received in a year.
• GNP = C + I + G + (X - M) + NFIA.
2. Gross Domestic Product
• It is the total value of output of goods and services produced within the geographical
boundaries of the country.
3. Net National Product
• ( NNP = GNP – Depreciation)
4. Net Domestic Product
• NDP = GDP – Depreciation
5. Per Capita Income
National Income
Per capita Income = ---------------------
Population

2. What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product? and explain?
Expenditure Approach
• GDP is calculated by adding the expenditure of all final goods and services produced
in the country.
• Y=C+I+G+(X–M)
Income Approach:
• GDP is calculated by adding the income of men and women in the country.
• Y = wages + rent + interest + profit.
Value Added Approach:
• GDP is calculated by adding all the value of each intermediate goods.
• Tea Powder + Milk + Sugar = Tea
• Intermediate Goods = Final Good

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3. Write the challenges of Globalization.

CHALLENGES:
• Extending benefits to all countries
• Leading to Instability
• Leads to Inequality
• Increasing child labour and slavery
• People eating more fast food
• Consuming junk food
• Affects health
• Spread diseases
• Wages will decrease.
• 12. Leading environmental degradation

4. Write briefly some important objectives of India’s agriculture policy?

• The agricultural policy - Central government (2010)

• To raise agricultural production
• Raising the productivity of inputs
• Raising value added for hectare
• Protecting the interact of poor farmers
• Modernising agricultural sector
• Environmental degradation

5. Briefly explain the advantages and disadvantages of MNC.

MNC control production in more than one country.

Advantages of MNC:
• Production of goods at lower cost.
• Reduce prices
• increase the Purchasing power of consumers world wide
• Growth of job opportunities.

Disadvantages of MNC
• They effect on the environment.
• Lead to the downfall of smaller, local business.

6. Write about the World Trade Organization.

• Set up in 1994.
• Came into Force in January 1, 1995.
• 164 member countries.
• Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland.
PURPOSE:-
• Regulation and International Trade

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• Director General
• Four Deputy Director General

OBJECTIVES OF WTO:
• To resolve trade disputes.
• Introducing sustainable development and environment.
• Ensure full employment.

7. Explain some direct and indirect taxes.

I. Direct Taxes
• A tax imposed on an individual or organization
• It is paid directly.
• e.g., Income tax, Wealth tax, corporate tax

II. Indirect Taxes

• If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others.
• Stamp duty, Entertainment tax, Excise duty, GST

8. What is black money? Write the causes of Black Money.

• The unaccounted money.

• It is concealed from the tax payer.
• Funds earned on the black market.

CAUSES OF BLACK MONEY.

• Shortage of goods
• Licensing proceeding.
• Contribution of the industrial sector.
• Smuggling. Ex. Gold.
• Tax Structure – tax rate is high more black money is generated.

9. Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country.

Coimbatore
• Manchester of South India
• Most of the spinning mills are in Coimbatore.
• Palladam and Somanur

Erode and Salem region

• Have large number of power loom units.

Tiruppur
• Famous production of cotton Knitwear.

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Karur
• Major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers and
towels.

Bhavani and Kumrapalayam

• Major centres of production of carpets
• Domestic and the global markets.

Madurai and Kanchipuram

• The traditional artisanal clusters Produce
• Silk and cotton handloom sarees.

10. Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.

Famine
• Drought affected our country.
• Fall of Food production
U S A’s 480 Scheme
• USA helped India through the Public Law 480 scheme.
Ford of America
• It creased a scheme to increase the production of High yielding crops. (Rice, Wheat )
Effect of Green Revolution 1967
• Loans were given for chemical fertilizers.
• India got Self-sufficiency in food grain production.

11. Write the structure of GST.

• GST - Goods and service tax :
• The goods and service tax (GST) is one of the indirect taxes.
• The GST was passed in Parliament on 29 March 2017.
• The act came into effect on 1 July 2017.
• The motto is one nation, one market, one tax.
1. SGST - State Goods and Services Tax :
• Intra State (within the state)
• VAT / sales tax, purchase tax, cesses.
2. CGST - Central Goods and Services Tax :
• Intra state (within the state)
• Central Excise Duty, Service tax, countervailing duty,
3. IGST - Integrated Goods and Services Tax :
• Interstate (integrated GST)
46

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

• There are four major GST rates 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.
• Vegetables and food grains are exempted from this tax
IMPORTANT FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called Balance of Trade
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of London sign in May
1913.
3. Nepal is a buffer country between India and China.
4. Usha Metha established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
5. Secondary sector is otherwise called as Industrial Sector.
6. The constitution of India envisages a Federal government.
7. The palayakkarars system was introduced in Tamil Nadu by Viswanatha Nayaka.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year 1925
9. The goods and service tax act came into effect on -July 2017.
10. Non alignment was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the Cold War.
11. River Godhavari is called vridha Ganga.
12. Industrial sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
13. The wettest place in Tamilnadu Chinna kallar.
14. Latin America protested the Dollar Imperialism of USA.
15. India conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran
16. The trees of the Alpine forests are called Coniferous trees.
17. The soil which is rich in Iron oxide is Red Soil.
18. The most abundant source of energy is Solar Energy.
19. Ford Foundation foundation from USA introduced the HYV in India.
20. Kattabomman was hanged to Death at Kayathar
21. Satharur Dam is constructed across the river Thenpennai.
22. In the battle of Tannenberg Russia suffered heavy losses.
23. Nilgiris Tahr is the Tamil Nadu state animal.
24. In the year 2013 National food security act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
25. Dr Sun-Yat-Sen was known as the “Father of Modern China”.
26. Jute Crop is called as “Golden Fibre “in India.
27. The concept of constitution was first originated in USA.
28. The longest dam in the world is Hirakut Dam.
29. The first woman governor of Tamilnadu Fathima Beevi.
30. Fateh Hyde was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
31. The term Globalisation was invented by Prof Theodre Levitt.
32. The major tribal revolt which took place in chota Nagpur region was Kol Revolt.
33. The scientific study of population is called Demography
34. The Ex officio chairperson of Rajya Sabha is Vice President.
35. The Political Leader of Mahatma Gandhi is Gokalae.
36. Chennai High Court building is the Second largest Judicial Complex in the World after
London.
37. 42 Amendment of the constitution is known as the Mini Constitution.
38. The first female ruler to resist the British Colonial power in India is Velu Nachiyar.

47

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

39. The first of the Three Dimensions of Poverty Index is Health.
40. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiri and the Dharmapuri district is Coimbatore.

Distinguish between :

Western coastal Eastern coastal Alluvial soil Black soil

plains plains Found in the river Found in the
Narrow Wider plains deccan plateau
Not fertile Fertile Crops: rice, wheat Crops: cotton, millet
Western Ghats Eastern Ghats
Continuous range Not continuous Renewable Non-renewable
Run parallel to west Run parallel to east resources resources
coast coast Can be replaced Cannot be replaced
Himalayan river Peninsula river after utilisation after utilisation
Originate fromOriginate from Sunlight, water Coal, petroleum
himalayas western ghats.
Perennial rivers Non perennial rivers Metallic minarals Non- Metallic
Weather Climate minarals
Changes daily 35 years of weather Contains metal Contains non metal
report elements elements
Day to day Average of weather Gold, Copper, Iron Mica, Coal,
atmosphere. Limestone
Tropical evergreen Deciduous forests Agro based Mineral based
forests industry industry
Above 200cm of 100-200cm rainfall Agriculture product Minerals as raw
rainfall as raw material material
Also known as Also known as Sugar industry, Cement, iron and
evergreen forests monsoon forests. cotton textile steel industry
Southwest Northeast industry
monsoon monsoon Jute industry Sugar industry
Wind blow from sea Wind blow from Raw material: jute Raw material:
to land land to sea sugarcane
June to september October and Largest producer in Second largest
November the world. producer in the
world.
Rabi Kharif Density of Growth of
October to March June to September population population
Rice, Wheat Wheat, Millet Number of persons Expressed in
per sq. kms. percentage
Inundation canal Perennial canal Know the Know the
Useful only in rainy Useful throughout population population
season. the year. distribution
Water taken from Water taken from
river through canal. river through dam. Personal Mass

48

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 communication communication
Marine fishing Inland fishing Link two people Links millions of
Salt water fishing Fresh water fishing people
Kerala is the Andhra is the Mobile, SMS, e-mail Tv, radio,
leading producer. leading producer. newspaper
Internal trade International trade
Trade carried on Trade carried on Roadways Railways
within the country between two or Short distance long distance
more country services services
Nation’s currency Foreign currency Maintenance cost is Maintenance cost is
Waterways Airways less high
Oldest and cheapest Quickest and
transport costliest transport 8. Eastern Ghats are not a continuous
Fuel efficient Not Fuel efficient range.
Thamiraparani Cauvery • Eastern Ghats are cut through at
Originates at Originates at thalai many places by the major rivers.
pothigai hills kavery
Perennial river Non perennial river 9. Tamil Nadu receives low rain fall during
Food crops Non-food crops South West Monsoon.
For own use For earning money • Since Tamil Nadu is located in the
Paddy, Millets, Tea, Coffee, Rubber Leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Pulses
Give reasons: 10. Farmers switch over from inorganic to
1. Himalayas are called young fold mountains organic farming.
• Folding of earth crust due to tectonic • Gets food security
activities. • Not harmful
2. North Indian Rivers are perennial. • 3. Maintaining soil Productivity
• They are fed by the Himalayan glaciers
and monsoon rains. 11. Cities are densely populated than the
3. South Indian rivers are east flowing.
villages.
• Topography of South India slopes
Cities Provide
towards east.
4. India has a tropical monsoon climate. • More employment opportunities
• Indian climate is influenced by the • Educational institutions
Monsoon Winds • Hospitals
5. Mountains are cooler than the plains. • Transport
• Temperature decreases 6.5 ℃ for every • Trade
1000 mts. ascent.
6. Agriculture is the backbone of India.
• India gets 50% of employment and 25%
of National Income through agriculture.
7. Rain water harvesting is necessary.
• Indian Monsoon Rainfall is NOT uniform

49

SAMAGRA SHIKSHA MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL 2023-2024

 TIMELINE – INDIAN INCIDENTS

1900

Swadeshi Movement (1905)

1910

Home Rule Movement (1916)

Champaran Sathyagraha (1917)

1920 Kheda Satyagraha (1918)

Khilafat Movement (1920)
Chauri Chaura Incident (1922)

1930 First Round Table Conference (1930)

Second Round Table Conference (1931)

Third Round Table Conference (1932)
Government of India Act (1935)

1940

India got Independence (1947)

1950
 TIMELINE – WORLD INCIDENTS

1900

1910
Outbreak of World War I (1914)

Russian Revolution (1917)

End of World War I (1918)

1920 Paris Peace Conference (1919)

Musolini’s March on Rome (1922)

1930 The Great Depression (1929)

Mao’s Long March (1934)

Outbreak of World War II (1939)

1940 Battle of Britain (1940)

Pearl Harbour Incident (1941)

End of World War II (1945)

1950 Formation of NATO (1949)

 Q.NO: 42 MAP - HISTORY - INDIA
1. Delhi
2. Banaras(Varanasi)
3. Calcutta
4. Kanpur
5. Champaran
6. Vedaranyam
7. Madras(Chennai)
8. Gwalior
9. Bombay(Mumbai)
10. Jallian Wala Bagh ( Amristar)
11. Meerut
12. Barrackpore
13. Dandi
14. Chauri Chaura
15. Jhansi
16. Kheda
17. Wardha
18. Lucknow
19. Bareilly
20. Allahabad
21. Patna
22. Vellore
23. Poona
24. Ahmedabad(Sabarmati Ashram )
25. Kashmir
26. Assam
27. Satara
28. Agra
29. Lahore
30. Gorakhpur
31. Ambala
32. Nagpur
Ambala
Meerut
Delhi Bareilly
Lucknow

Kanpur
Gwalior
Jhansi

Barrackpore
Calcutta
Nagpur
Wardha
 Kashmir

Lahore Amritsar

Delhi
Agra

Varanasi
Allahabad
Patna

Ahmedabad
Kheda

Surat
Dandi

Mumbai
Pune

Satara

Madras
or
Vellore

Vedaranyam
Geography map
 Pamir Knot

Mt.K2
Karakoram Range
Ladakh
Zaskar

Mt.Everest

Thar Desert
Malwa Plateau

Kandla Chotanagpur plateau

Black soil and cotton

Mangrove forests

Nilgiris

Palk Strait

Gulf of Mannar
 Mountain Soil
Mountain Forests

Bhakra Nangal Dam

Delhi

Tea

Calcutta
Gulf of Kutch Hirakud Dam

Gulf of Khambhat

Mumbai High
Alluvial Soil
Paddy growing region

Chennai
Mettur Dam Nayeli

Cochin
 Wheat

Sugarcane
Panna

Jamshedpur
R. Narmada

Satpura
Paradeep
Chilika lake

Visakhapatnam

Coffee

Bangalore Chennai
Mangalore

Kerala-Highest Literacy Rate Tuticorin

Deccan Plateau
MLM HISTORY WORLD MAP
 Q.NO: 42 MAP - HISTORY – WORLD
1. Great Britain (England) 16. Morocco
2. Russia 17. Serbia
3. France 18. Hawaii Island
4. Japan 19. Australia
5. Italy 20. New Zealand
6. Germany 21. Rumania
7. Greece 22. Canada
8. China 23. Hiroshima
9. India 24. Nagasaki
10. Pacific Ocean 25. Brazil
11. Austria - Hungary 26. Ukraine
12. America 27. Saudi Araia
13. Poland 28. San Francisco
14. Bulgaria 29. Belgium
15. Turkey 30. Norway
 GERMANY

CANADA ENGLAND RUSSIA

TURKEY
USA FRANCE HIROSHIMA

ITALY
SAN FRANCISCO CHINA

NAGASAKI

SAUDI ARABIA

AUSTRALIA

NEW ZEALAND
 RUMANIA
NORWAY

UKRAINE

BULGARIA

MOROCCO
GREECE

PEARL HARBOUR, HAWAI ISLAND

 AUSTRIA HUNGARY

BELGIUM
POLAND
KOREA JAPAN
SERBIA

INDIA
PACIFIC OCEAN
PACIFIC OCEAN
BRAZIL
 Slip Test-1

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?

a Germany, Austria Hungary, and the b Germany, Austria – Hungary, and Russia
Ottomans

c Spain, Portugal and Italy d Germany, Austria – Hungary, Italy

2 Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close the nineteenth century?

a China b Japan

C Korea d Mongolia

3 Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?

A Lenin B Marx

C Sun Yat-sen D Mao Tsetung

4 What is the Battle of Marne remembered for ?

A Air warfare B Trench warfare

C Submarine warfare D Ship warfare

Short Answers: 3x2=6

5 Name the countries in the Triple Entente

6 What were 3 militant forms of nationalism in Europe?

7 What do you know of trench warfare?

Draw a timeline 1x5=5

Any five importance events between 1900 and 1920

 Slip Test-2

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 __________ River is known as Sorrow of Bihar

a Narmada b Godavari

c Kosi d Damodar

2 A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as?

a Coast b Island

c Peninsula d Strait

3 ___________Plains are formed by the older alluviums

a Bhabar b Tarai

c Bhangar d Khadar

Short Answers: 3x2=6

4. Name the neighbouring countries of India.

5. Write a short not on Deccan Plateau.

6. State the west flowing rivers of India.

Mark the following places on the India Map. 6x1=6

1. Everest 2. Palk Strait 3. Rann Of Kutch 4. Thar Dessert 5. Gulf of

Mannar 6. Lakshadweep
 Slip Test-3

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?

a Once b Twice

c Thrice d Never

2 A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through

a Descent b Naturalisation

c Registration d All of the above

3 Find the odd one out

a Right to Equality b Right against Exploitation

c Right to property d Cultural and Educational Rights

Short Answers: 3x2=6

4. List out the fundamental rights guaranteed by Indian Constitution.

5. What is a writ?

6. What are the classical languages in India?

Draw a timeline 1x6=6

1. Great Britain 2.France 3.Germany 4. Pacific Ocean 5. Japan 6. Morocco

 Slip Test-4

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 Indian economy is

a Developing Economy b Emerging Economy

c Dual Economy d All the Above

2 Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP

a Agricultural sector b Industrial sector

c Service sector d None of the Above

3 Primary sector consist of

a Agriculture b Automobiles

c Trade d Banking

4 National Income is a measure of

a Total value of money b Total value of Producer goods

c Total value of consumption goods d Total value of Goods and services

Short Answers: 3x2=6

5. Define “National Income”.

6. What is meant by Gross domestic product?

7. What is per capita income?

Write in detail answer 1x5=5

8. Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.

 Slip Test-5

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?

a Germany b Russia

c Pope d Spain

2 Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?

a Europe b Latin America

c India d China

3 Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?

a Roosevelt b Chamberlain

c Woodrow Wilson d Baldwin

4 Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?

a Kawasaki b Innoshima

c Hiroshima d Nagasaki

Short Answers: 3x2=6

5. Define dollar ‘imperialism’

6. Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?

7. Name the Bretton Woods Twins.

Draw a timeline 1x5=5

Any five importance events between 1920 - 1940

 Slip Test-6

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 Western disturbances cause rainfall in ______

a Tamilnadu b Kerala

c Punjab d Madhya Pradesh

2 ________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall

a Isohyets b Isobar

c Isotherm d Latitudes

3 Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in ______

a Tamil Nadu b Andhra Pradesh

c Madhya Pradesh d Karnataka

4 _________ is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO?

a Nilgiri b Agasthiyamalai

c Great Nicobar d Kachch

Short Answers: 3x2=6

5. List the factors affecting climate of India.

6. What are ‘jet streams’?

7. Name the four distinct seasons of India.

Mark the following in the outline map of India. 1x5=5

1. South-west Monsoon 2.Coromandal Coast 3. Mountain Forest 4.Panna

5.Aravalli
 Slip Test-7

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 The Constitutional Head of the Union is

a The President b The Chief Justice

c The Prime Minister d Council of Ministers

2 What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?

a 18 years b 21 years

c 25 years d 30 years

3 The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:

a The President b The Attorney General

c The Governor d The Prime Minister

4 Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency?

a Article 352 b Article 360

c Article 356 d Article 365

Fill in the blanks: 6x1=6

5. Locarno treaty was signed in for year _______

6. _______ is the line joining the places of equal Rainfall

7. The longest dam in the world is ________ dam.

8. The first women governor of Tamilnadu was ___________

9. The goods and services tax act came into effect on _________

10. The ______ river system is the largest drainage system of India.

Write in detail: 5x1=5

11. Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.

 Slip Test-8

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 6x1=6

1. ________ soil is suitable for tea and coffee.

2. ______________ was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.

3. The major tribal revolt took place in Chota Nagpur region was ____ revolt.

4. ______________ is called Vridha Ganga.

5. The scientific study of population is called _________

6. _________ Sector is the growth engine of Indian Economy.

Short Answers: 2x2=4

7. Write the types of globalization?

8. What are the basic 3 components of food and nutrition security?

Detail.
1x5=5

9. Write the challenges of globalization?

 Slip Test-9

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 Which American President followed the policy of containment of communism?

a Woodrow Wilson b Truman

c Theodore Roosevelt d Franklin Roosevelt

2 The United States and European allies formed __________ to resist any Soviet aggression in
Europe

a SEATO b NATO

c SENTO d Warsaw Pact

3 When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?

a 1979 b 1989

c 1990 d 1991

Short Answers: 1x2=2

4. What was Marshall Plan?

Detail 1x5=5

5. Analyse the effects of World War?

Map activity 5x1=5

1.Hiroshima 2. San Francisco 3. Moscow 4.Hawaii 5.Russia

 Slip Test-10

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 Black soils are also called as

a Arid Soils b Saline soils

c Regur soils d Mountain soils

2 ________ is a cash crop

a Cotton b Wheat

c Rice d Maize

3 The longest dam in the world is ______

a Mettur dam b Kosi dam

c Hirakud dam d Bhakra –Nangal dam

4 Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India

a Cotton b Wheat

c Jute d Tobacco

Short Answers: 3x2=6

5. Name the types of soil found in India.

6. Name the seasons of agriculture in India.

7. Mention the plantation crops of India.

Map 5x1=5

1.Mountain Soil 2.Jute growing area 3.Mettur Dam 4.Cochin

5. Paddy growing region

 Slip Test-11

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 The State Council of Ministers is headed by

a The Chief Minister b The Governor

c The Speaker d The Prime Minister

2 The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is

a 25 years b 21 years

c 30 years d 35 years

3 Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?

a Andhra Pradesh b Telangana

c Tamil Nadu d Uttar Pradesh

Short Answers: 1x2=2

4. What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor

Detail
2x5=10

5. What are the powers and functions of Chief minister?

6. Point out the fundamental rights?

 Slip Test-12

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 2x1=2

1 ______revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain
production

a Blue revolution b White revolution

c Green revolution d Grey revolution

2 __________is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS

a Kerala b Andhra Pradesh

c Tamilnadu d Karnataka

Fill in the blanks 8x1=8

3. __________ is the Tamilnadu”s State animal .

4. Indian Constitution provides _______form of government

5. _________ crop is called as” Golden fibre” in India.

6. India conducted its first nuclear test at _______

7. The concept of constitution was first originated in _________

8. The Vietnam National Party was formed in ________

9. Kattabomman was hanged to death at _______

10. ______ dam constructed across the river Pennar

Draw a timeline 5x1=5

11. 5 important events between 1930-1950

 Slip Test-13

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 In which year was Sati abolished?

a 1827 b 1829

c 1826 d 1927

2 Who was the founder of window Remarriage Association?

a M.G. Ranade b Devendranath Tagore

c Jyotiba Phule d Ayyankali

3 What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?

a Arya Samaj b Brahmo Samaj

c Prarthana Samaj d Adi Brahmo Samaj

Fill in the blanks 3x1=3

4. ______ is known as the land of thunderbolt

5. ___________ is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country

6. ___________is an important indication of navigation deficiency

Short Answers: 2x2=4

7. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal?

8. List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj?

Detail 1x5=5

9. Discuss the circumstances that led to the reform movements of 19th century.
 Slip Test-14

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 The Anthracite coal has _______

a 80 to 95% Carbon b Above 70% Carbon

c 60 to 70% carbon d Below 50% carbon 48

2 The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is

a Chennai b Salem

c Madurai d Coimbatore

3 The most abundant source of energy is

a Bio mass b Sun

c Coal d Oil

Short Answers: 2x2=4

4. What are the minerals and state its type?

5. Name the different types of coal with their carbon content?

Map 8x1=8

1.Jamshedpur 2. Visakapattinam 3. Coal mining region in Tamilnadu 4. Mettur Dam

5. Software Industry 6. Detroit of Asia 7. Nuclear power station 8.Natural Gas

 Slip Test-15

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 2x1=2

1 The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between

a India and Nepal b India and Pakistan

c India and China d India and Sri Lanka

2 Apartheid is

a An International Association b Energy Diplomacy

c A policy of racial discrimination d None of these

Fill in the blanks 4x1=4

3. The most abandoned source of energy is __________

4. _________ is an import commodity in India

5. The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamilnadu is ___________

6. The district which has largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is _______

Short Answers: 2x2=6

7. Explain India’s nuclear policy.

8. List out the member countries of SAARC.

Detail 1x5=5

9. Write a detail note on Non-alignment?

 Slip Test-16

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is

a Tuticorin b Coimbatore

c Chennai d Madurai

2 Tiruppur is known for

a Leather Tanning b Lock Making

c Knitwear d Agro-processing

3 Assertion(A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.

Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and
Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
a) (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of A
b) (A) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
d) Both are wrong.
4 Assertion(A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then
the purchasing power is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Short Answers: 3x2=6
5. Define tax.
6. What are the types of tax? Give example.
7. What is entrepreneurship?

Detail 1x5=5
8. Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
 Slip Test-17

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 4x1=4

1 Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s Policy of territorial
aggrandizement?

a Marudhu brothers b Puli Thevar

c Velunachiyar d Veerapandya Kattabomman

2 Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?

a Marudhu brothers b Puli Thevar

c Veerapandiya Kattabomman d Gopala Nayak

3 When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?

a 24 May 1805 b 10 July 1805

c 10 July 1806 d 10 September 1806

Short Answers: 3x2=6

4. What are the duties of Palayakkarars?

5. What was the significance of battle of Kalakadu?

6. Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.

Detail 1x5=5

7. Account for the outbreak of Vellore revolt.

 Slip Test-18

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 3x1=3

1 The scientific study of different aspects of population is called

a cartography b Demography

c Anthropology d Epigraphy

2 ______ transport provides door to door services

a Railways b Roadways

c Airways d Waterways

3 The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at ?

a Bengaluru b Chennai

c Delhi d Hyderabad

Short Answers: 2x2=4

4. What is migration? State its types?

5. Define ”International trade”

Mark in India outline Map

8x1=8

1. Densely populated state 2.Kandla 3. State with high literacy rate

4. International Airport. 5. Rail Route between Chennai to Delhi 6. Bangalore

7. Mumbai 8. Headquarters of Railway

 Slip Test-19

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 2x1=2

1 Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2 Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason: Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Fill in the Blanks 2x1=2

3. The first woman who fought against was __________

4. The Politician Leader of Mahatma Gandhi is _________

Short Answers: 2x2=4

5. Name the territories annexed by the British under the doctrine of Lapse

6. Why did Gandhi withdraw the non-cooperation movement?

Mark in India outline Map

7x1=7

1. Jhansi 2. Keda 3. Dandi 4.Amritser

5. Barrackpur 6. Lucknow 7.Vedaranyam

 Slip Test-20

Total Marks:15

Choose the correct answer: 2x1=2

1 The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is?

a Anaimudi b Doddabetta

c Mahendragiri d Servarayan

2 Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu

a Palghat b Shencottah

c Bhorghat d Achankoil

Short Answers: 4x2=8

3. What is “Teri”?

4. Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani?

5. Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.

6. Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?

Detail 1x5=5

7. Distinguish between

a) Renewable resource – non renewable

b) Weather - climate

Give reason.

c) North Indian rivers are perennial rivers