COMMERCIAL DEPARTMENT – MODEL QUESTION BANK

forthe post of Commercial cum Ticket Clerk (CCTC) in Level 3 of 7th

CPC Pay Matrix RS (RP) Rules, 2016 [in Pay Band Rs.5200-20200 +
GP Rs.2000/-] against 33 1/3 % Departmental Quota and 16 2/3 %
LDCE

Arithmetic Operations

1. Which of the following fractions is equal to 4/6 ?

a) 3/2 b) 2/3 c) 1/4 d) 2/4

2. 30% of 150 is
a) 45 b) 30 c) 42 d) 15

3. 1469 divided by 13
a) 113 b) 130 c) 190 d) 107

4. Sum of Two angles in a triangle is equal 110°. What is the

measure of the third angle?
a) 3600 b) 1200 c) 700 d) 1400

5. 36,993 when rounded off to nearest Thousand is

a) 36000 b) 37 500
c) 37000 d) 36900

6. Find the missing term in the sequence: 4, 9, 19, __, 79

a) 36 b) 37 c) 38 d) 39

7. Marked price of an article is Rs.500/-, if 10% discount is given

its cost price is
a) 50 b) 400 c) 450 d) 550

8. If a car travels at a speed of 32 KMPH, Find thedistance covered

in 6 hours?
a) 192kmph b) 217 kmph
c) 162 kmph d) 170kmph
9. If distance travelled by a train in 2 hours 30 minutes is 250
km, what is its speed per hour?
a) 50kmph b) 100kmph
c) 110kmph d) 70kmph

10. 1 hour is equal to how many seconds?

a) 60 seconds b) 120 seconds
c) 400 seconds d) 3600 seconds

11. The cost of 1m of cloth is Rs.160/-, then the cost of 17m of

cloth is
a) Rs.2,720/- b) Rs.1,960/-
c)Rs.2,000/- d) Rs.1,500/-

12. A train moves at a constant speed of 75 km/hour. How far will

it travel in 20 minutes?
a) 20 km b) 25 km c) 30 km d) 5 km

13. A truck travels 14km in 30minutes. If the speedremains the

same, how far can it travel in 3 hours?
a) 84 km b) 129 km c) 50 km d) 98 km

14. If diameter of a circle = 8 cm, then radius =

a) 23 cm b) 4 cm c) 5 cm d) 6 cm

15. 6pm in 24 hrs time format is written as

a) 18:00 b) 14:00 c) 06:00 d) 60:00

16. 72 + 52 = ?
a) 70 b) 74 c) 75 d) 76

17. 30% of 40 =
a) 22 b) 7 c) 12 d) 48

18. If 2t= 0, then ‘t’ =

a) 1/2 b) 0
c) -3 d) cannot be determined
19. If an item is bought for Rs.250 and sold for Rs. 375, what is the
profit
a) Rs.135 b) Rs.125
c) Rs.115 d) Rs.145

20. If 4 items are bought for Rs.180, what is the price of each item?
a) Rs.35 b) Rs.52
c) Rs. 40 d) Rs. 45

21. A train moves with a speed of 108 kmph. Its speed in

meter/second is:
a) 10.8 b) 18 c) 30 d) 38.8

22. If x=12, x+y= 20, find the value of y.

a) 12 b) 10
c) 8 d) cannot be determined

23. 16.7 + 12.38 - _____ = 10.09

a) 17.89 b) 18.99 c) 16.98 d) 20.09

24.2, 4, 6, 8, __, 12. Which number shall come in place of blank ?

a) 10 b) 9 c) 11 d) 4

25. 6, 12, 18, __, 30. Which number shall come in place of blank ?
a) 27 b) 24 c) 28 d) 22

26. 1027.05 – 314.005 + 112.25 = ?

a) 825.095 b) 825.295
c) 825.305 d) 1024.2526

27. 758 - _____ = 343. Which number shall come in place of blank ?
a) 424 b) 415 c) 412 d) 310

28. The value of (1 + 0.1 + 0.01 +0.001) is:

a) 1.001 b) 1.011 c) 1.003 d) 1.111

29.6.4 x 7.9=
a) 50.56 b) 505.6 c) 5.056 d) 0.056

30. If a = 2, b = 4, c = 3, then 2a+3b-c is

a) 12 b) 10 c) 18 d) 13
31. Sum of 1/4 + 3/4 is
a) 1 b) 2/4 c) 1/3 d) 4/2

32. Cost of 2m pipe is Rs. 12/-, then cost of 50 m of pipe is

a) Rs. 380/- b) Rs. 350/-
c) Rs. 330/- d) Rs. 300/-

33. Time of 10:15 AM in 24 hour clock will be

a) 25:15 b) 20:15 c) 10:15 d) 15:10

34. Largest number formed by digits 2, 4, 0, 3, 6, 8 is

a) 432800 b) 382460
c) 864320 d) 803642

35. 158 = ________ + 106?

a) 164 b) 152 c) 158 d) 264

36. The addition of 99999 + 9999 + 99 + 9 is ____

a) 111105 b) 110106
c) 111015 d) 101105

37. Find the Simple interest to be paid at the end of one year on
Rs.3250 at 10% per annum.
a)Rs.325 b)Rs.359 c)Rs.225 d) Rs.350

38.(-2) + (-6) = ___

a) 8 b) -8 c) 0.8 d) 1.2

39. Convert 2hrs 30 minutes into minutes

a) 210mins b) 150mins c) 115mins d) 120mins

40. 6/8 + 2/ 8 = ______

a) 7/8 b) 1/8 c) 1 d) 8/16

41. Srikanthhad Rs.100/-, if he purchases 3 note books for Rs.28

each, 2 pencils for Rs.3 each and 2 erasers for Rs.2 each, how
much will be left with him?
a) 8 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
42. Sum of first 5 multiples of 2
a)30 b)28 c)32 d)24

43. 48.48 / 8 = ____

a)6.6 b)6.060 c)0.666 d)6.066

44. Largest 4 digit number is

a)9897 b)9999 c)1000 d)4444

45. If 1meter cloth costs Rs.15/, how many metres of cloth can be
purchased with Rs.300 ?
a) 18 b) 20 c) 25 d) 26

46. If x>y, y>z, then x ___ z

a) > b) <
c) = d) can’t be determined

47. 6 apples can be packed in a box. How many boxes are

required to fill 300 apples?
a) 50 b) 40 c) 45 d) 60

48. 3 Shirts and 1 pant costs Rs.4000/-. If 1 pant cost is Rs.1600,

what is the cost of 1 shirt?
a) 400 b) 800 c) 500 d) 600

49. One apple costs Rs.15. What is the cost of 1 dozen apples?
a) 228 b) 24 0 c) 180 d) 160

50. XII in Roman stands for

a) 18 b) 14 c) 17 d) 12

51. IX stands for

a) 8 b) 14 c) 9 d) 16

52. Father’s age is 24 years more than his son. If son’s age is 29,
Father’s age will be
a) 58 b) 44 c) 53 d) 56

53. Arun has a jug which measures 250ml. To fill 5 litres Jar, how
many times should he fill with his jug?
a) 18 b) 20 c) 25 d) 26
54. Shopkeeper offered Rs.70/- discount to Sunitha on a purchase
of a handbag for Rs.300/-. How much Sunitha should pay the
shopkeeper?
a) Rs.280 b) Rs.220
c) Rs.250 d) Rs.230

55. Value of XIV is

a) 21 b) 16 c)15 d)14

56. Honey bought 6 pens for Rs.180/-, what is the cost of each
pen?
a) Rs.30/- b) Rs.35/-
c) Rs.25/- d)Rs.44/-

57. Average of 15,10,12,11 and 12 is

a) 18 b) 16 c) 15 d) 12

58. What is the value of 15 × 40 × 3 × 0?

a) 18 00 b) 0 c) 2400 d)4300

59. Which unit will you use to measure distance between Delhi and
Agra?
a) Kms b) cm
c) mts d) mm

60. What is the difference between the smallest four digit number
and the largest three digit number?
a) 1 b) 0 c) 99 d) 999
General Knowledge

1. Capital of Sri Lanka is

a) Madrid b) Stockholm
c) Colombo d) Rameshwaram

2. Capital of Orissa is
a) Cuttack b) Bhubaneswar
c) Puri d) Paradeep

3. What is the expanded form of A.P.S.R.T.C.

a) Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation
b) Andhra Pradesh State Rail Transport Corporation
c) Andhra Pradesh State Rail Ticket Checking
d) Andhra Pradesh State Revenue Tax Commission

4. Sania Mirza is associated with

a) Swimming b) Tennis
c) Table Tennis d) Archery

5. Koneru Humpy is associated with

a) Athletics b) Hockey
c) Chess d) Squash

6. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence from the

lowest level
1) Nation 2) City 3) Village 4) District 5) State
a) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 b) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
c) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

7. Famous hill station in Tamilnadu is

a) Ooty b) Darjeeling
c) Chirrapunji d) Mount Abu

8. How many continents are there in the world?

a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8

9. President of the United States of America is

a) Kennedy b) Barack Obama
c) Washington d) Donald Trump
10. Expand w.w.w. in relation to internet
a) world wide web b) world wealth web
c) worst world web d) web without world

11. Ajanta-Ellora caves are located near

a) Hyderabad b) Bellary
c) Aurangabad d) Mysore

12. Gadwal in Andhra Pradesh is famous for

a) dhotis b) salwar suits c) kurtas d) sarees

13. Thousand Pillar temple is situated at

a) Warangal b) Nizambad
c) Karimnagar d) Kurnool

14. India Gate is in

a) Delhi b) Mumbai
c) Kolkatta d) Chennai

15. Pullela Gopichand Academy is associated with

a) Badminton b) Swimming
c) Cricket d) Chess

16. Viswanath Anand is associated with

a) Hockey b) Swimming
c) Cricket d) Chess

17. Saina Nehwal is associated with

a) Badminton b) Chess
c) Football d) Tennis

18. How many days are there in a leap year?

a) 365days b) 366days
c) 364 days d) 367days

19. Polio is affected to which part of the body?

a) Heart b) Hands
c) Legs d) Heart

20. Which is the biggest Continent in the World?

a) Australia b) North America
c)Africa d) Asia
21. Which animal is known as the ‘Ship of the Desert?
a) Dog b) Yak
c) Camel d) Vulture

22. How many letters are there in the English alphabet?

a) 25 b) 27
c) 26 d) 24

23. How many weeks are there in one year?

a) 52 b) 50
c) 56 d) 54

24. Which is the highest mountain in the world?

a) Mount Abu b) Mount Everest
c) Mount Kailash d) Kilimanjaro

25. Which is the largest animal in the world?

a) Giraffe b) Sea Shark
c) Blue whale d) African Elephant

26. Which festival is known as the festival of colours?

a) Sankranthi b) Diwali
c) Dussehra d) Holi

27. Which festival is known as the festival of Lights?

a) Sankranthi b) Diwali
c) Dussehra d) Holi

28. Which is the biggest desert in the world?

a) Sahara Desert b)The Namib Desert
c) TharDesert d) The Atacama Desert

29. Where is the smallest bone located in the human body?

a) Nose b)Ear
c) Fingers d) Toes

30. Which is the largest animal on land?

a)Crocodile b)Lion
c) Rhinoceros d) Elephant
31. Which organ pumps blood in our body?
a)Kidneys b)Lungs
c) Heart d) Skin

32. Who is the Father of our Nation?

a)Jawaharlal Nehru b)Mahatma Gandhi
c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel d) Abdul Kalam

33. Who is the Father of Indira Gandhi?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel d) Ravindranath Tagore

34. Which is the smallest state in India?

a) Meghalaya b) Sikkim
c) Assam d) Goa

35. Which is our National Tree?

a) Neem b) Lemon
c) Banyan d) Mango

36. Which is our National Sport?

a) Hockey b) Kabaddi
c) Cricket d) Golf

37. What is the percentage of water on Earth?

a) 85% b)23%
c) 71% d) 38%

38. What is our National animal?

a) Lion b) Tiger
c) Elephant d) Monkey

39. What is our National Flower?

a) Jasmine b) Lotus
c) Rose d) Lilly

40. What is our National Anthem?

a) Jana gana mana
b) Sare jahan se achha
c) Vandemataram
d) Raghupathi Raghava Rajaram
41. Sun is a _____
a) Star b) Planet
c) Satellite d) Comet

42. We get solar energy from

a) Star b) Sun
c) Satellite d) Sky

43. Which bird cannot fly?

a) Peacock b) Pigeon
c) Penguin d) Bat

44. Full form of RBI

a) River banks of India
b) Rural Bank of India
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Risk based Inspection

45. Full form of SBI

a) State Bank of Indore
b) States Bank of India
c) Southern bank of India
d) State Bank of India

46. Red fort is located at

a) Agra b) Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Hyderabad

47. Golconda fort is located at

a) Agra b) Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Hyderabad

48. Ranji Trophy is related to_____.

a) Cricket b) Kho-Kho
c) Hockey d) Kabaddi

49. Which of the following is our National Fruit?

a) Mango b) Apple
c) Banana d) Pear

50. Capital city of Kerala

a) Chennai b) Pondicherry
c) Coimbatore d) Thiruvananthapuram
English

1. Past tense of run

a) running b) ran
c) runned d) runs

2. ______ are not playing.

a) He b) Girls
c) Boy d) Us

3. They have four ______.

a) table b) sheep
c) fruit d) bus

4. Sugar is sweet but a lemon is ______.

a) Sour b) Salty
c) Spicy d) Tasty

5. I am going ____ School

a) Into b) to
c) for d) up to

6. _______ is your house?

a) What b) When
c) Who d) Where

7. ______ name is Arun.

a) I b) My
c) Me d) I am

8. Past tense of sing

a) Singing b) Sang
c) Singed d) Sings

9. I ______ not meet him yesterday.

a) can b) did
c) do d) will
10. we______ oxygen
a)breadth b)breathed
c)breathe d)breathes

11. A _______ is a wild animal.

a) Horse b) Bull
c) Wolf d) Wolves

12. She is _______ than you.

a) prettier b) prettiest
c) pretty d) prettily

13. Which is a meaningful sentence?

a) I play like to Cricket
b) I like to play Cricket
c) I play to like Cricket
d) Play to like Cricket

14. Which is a meaningful sentence?

a) I will go there
b) I go there
c) There I will go
d) None of these

15. Which is a meaningful sentence?

a) I will born in March
b) I was born in March
c) I will birth in March
d) I’m born in March

16. They ____ in the room

a) are b) is
c) was d) none of these

17. I _____ not present

a) are b) is
c) was d) none of these

18. Baby of a cat is known as ______

a) Puppy b) Kitten
c) Chick d) duckling
19. The flowers _____ not fresh.
a) are b) is
c) was d) none of these

20. Ravi is ______ than Ajay.

a) tall b) tallest
c) taller d) talled

21. Which is the verb in ‘Sita is singing sweetly’.

a) sweetly b) singing
c) sita d) is

22. Which is the Noun in ‘Ramu is running towards temple’.

a) Ramu b) towards
c) running d) temple

23. Uday is a ______ boy.

a) cleverly b) clever
c) cleverliest d) cleverest

24. Plural of Furniture

a) Furniture b) Furnitures
c) Furnituries d) Furnituree

25. Plural of Tooth

a) Teeth b) Tooths
c) Toothes d) Teeths

26. Plural of Man

a) Mens b) Men
c) Man d) Mans

27. Plural of Child

a) Children b) Childs
c) Childrens d) Child

28. Change the Gender ‘Actress’.

a) Actor b) Actresses
c) Actors d) Acts
29. Change the Gender ‘King’ .
a) Prince b) Princess
c) Queen d) Kings

30. Change the Gender ‘Lion’ .

a) Lions b) Liones
c) Lionees d) Lioness

31. " ___________ is she?" "She's my friend from London"

a) Who b) Which
c) Why d) What

32. ___________ lots of animals in the zoo.

a) There b) There are
c) There is d) They are

33. How many people ___________ in your family?

a) are there b) there are
c) there is d) they are

34. Why _____ you crying?

a) do b) are
c) is d) was

35. What _____ you say?

a) have b) are
c) is d) did

36. Plural of Wife

a) wifes b) wive
c) wives d) none of the above

37. Plural of sheep

a) sheeps b) sheep
c) sheps d) none of the above
38. Pick the correct spelling
a) Educasion b) Educashion
c) Educassion d) Education

39. See you _____ Saturday evening.

a) in b) on
c) into d) at

40. I ______ your dad tomorrow.

a) am seeing b) would be seeing
c) watch d) watching

41. Baby dog is known as ______.

a) Puppy b) Lolly
c) Kitty d) Kitten

42. Cricket is popular ____ Hockey in India.

a) then b) thus
c) then the d) than

43. Keep the book ____ the table.

a) in b) into
c) on d) by

44. I’m tired, _____ I didn’t slept yesterday night.

a) so b) then
c) because d) but

45. It was raining, ____ I took my umbrella.

a) because b) so
c) as d) in

46. Sun rises _____ the East.

a) in b) on
c) into d) at

47. This is _________ man behind the success of this institute.

a) a b) one c) an d) the
48. What is the plural of fungus?
a) Funges b) Fungi c) Funguses d) None of these

49. Write the opposite gender of Bachelor

(a) spinster (b) Sprinter (c) Sprint (d) Sportstar

50. Write the opposite gender of Brother

(a) Sister (b) sister –in –law (c) Cousin (d) Nephew

51. Write the opposite gender of Mare -

(a) Horse (b) Hare
(c) Hurricane (d) Howl

52. Write the opposite gender of Dog

a)Bowl (b) Batch (c) Bitch (d)Butcher

53. Give the Antonym of Accept

(a) Reject (b) Return (c) Refine (d) Rolling

54. Give the Antonym of Ancient

(a) Modern (b) Old
(c) Past (d) Back

55. Give the Antonym of Beautiful

(a) Ugly (b) Good
(c) Fine (d) Attractive

56. Give the Antonym of Bold

(a) Better (b) Strong (c) Coward (d) Tall

57. Find out the past form of Bite

(a) Bit (b) Bitten
(c) Bite (d) None of the above

58. Find out the past form of Win

(a) Won (b) Win
(c) Wins (d) None of the above
59. Fill in the blank with suitable Pronoun in the following
sentence.
We always like those boys --------- speak the truth.
(a) What (b) Who (c) That (d) Why

60. Fill in the blank with correct form of verb.

The earth _____________ round the Sun
(a) revolves (c) rotates
(b) moves (d) None of the above
RAILWAY KNOWLEDGE:

1. Head of Public Relations department at Zonal Railway is

(a) CPRO (b) CCM (c) COM (d) Sr.DCM

2. Functions of Commercial department are

(a) Sale of transport
(b) Creation and development of traffic
(c) Maintaining public relations
(d) All of these

3. Head of Public complaints at Divisional level is

(a) Sr. DCM (b) ADRM
(c) Sr. DOM (d) DRM

4. The particulars that are mandatory to be printed on a journey

ticket as per section 50 of Railway Act 1989
(a) Station from and station to (b) Fare
(c) Class (d) All these

5. No. of languages mandatory on II class printed card tickets are

_________
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

6. Children under _____ years of age are to be carried free in all

classes.
(a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) None

7. Platform tickets are valid for ___________ hours.

(a) One hour (b) Two hours
(c) Three hours (d) Whole day

8. Cost of platform ticket is Rs.________

(a) RS.10/- (b) Rs.5/-
(c) Rs.8/- (d) Rs.12/-

9. Service Tax is leviable at the rate of -----------% on total fare of

FC and AC classes.
(a) 3.708% (b) 4.2%
(c) 4.5% (d) 5%

10. Minimum distance for charge in sleeper class

 (a) 15 kms (b) 100 kms
(c) 150 kms (d) 200 kms

11. Which of the following is a journey ticket.

(a) B.P.T. (b) Retiring room ticket
(c) Luggage ticket (d) Cloakroom ticket

12. Which of the following is a non-journey ticket.

(a) B.P.T. (b)Circular Journey ticket
(c) Indrail Pass Ticket (d) Retiring room ticket

13. Charges per bedroll by garibrath trains are

(a) Rs. 20/- (b) Rs. 25/- (c) Rs.30/- (d) Rs.35/-

14. Check soldier ticket is issued to

(a) Military Individuals (b) Groups
(c) Families (d) None of these

15. When a check soldier ticket is issued, charges are

(a) Debited to defence department
(b) Collected in cash
(c) Debited to Railways
(d) Debited to State Government.

16. Soldier tickets can be issued to

(a) Small Parties (b) Invalid persons
(c) Family members of soldier (d) All these

17. Check soldier ticket is issued in exchange of military warrant

No.________________
(a) IAFT 1707 (b) IAFT 1707A
(c) IAFT 1720 (d) IAFT 1752

18. Soldier ticket is issued in exchange of military warrant

No._____________________
(a) IAFT 1707 & 1707 A
(b) IAFT 1728
(c) IAFT 1720
(d) IAFT 1752

19. Free allowance of luggage for II class season ticket is

(a) 15 kgs (b) 10 kgs
 (c) 5 kgs (d) 35 kgs

20. On return journey M.V.S.T. holders can carry

(a) 60 kgs. (b) Empties
(c) 35 kgs (d) 20 kgs

21. Izzat season tickets are issued to those whose monthly income
is upto
(a) Rs.400/- (b) 1000/-
(c) Rs. 500/- (d) Rs.1500/-

22. Fare for season ticket is rounded off to

(a) Next higher rupee
(b) Nearest rupee
(c) Next higher 5 rupees
(d) Next higher 10 rupees

23. Season tickets for general public are given up to a distance of

_______ kms.
(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 200 (d) 250

24. Age limit for general students for issue of concessional season
ticket is _____ years.
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 32 (d) 30

25. Age limit for SC / ST students for issue of concessional season

ticket is _____ years.
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 32 (d) 35

26. Market Vendor Season Ticket is issued up to _______ kms only.

(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 200 (d) 250

27. Free Monthly Season Tickets are valid for travel in _________
class
(a) II Ord (b) II M/ Express
(c) Sleeper (d) Both A & B

28. On outward journey, Market Vendor Season Ticket holders are

allowed ______ kgs of free allowance of luggage.
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 80
29. Free season tickets are issued to boy students studying upto
_____ standard
(a) 10th class (b) Intermediate
(c) Graduation (d) Post Graduation

30. Free season tickets are issued to girl students studying upto
_____ standard
(a) 10th class (b) Intermediate
(c) Graduation (d) Post Graduation

31. Season tickets can be renewed ________ days in advance of the

date of expiry.
(a) One day (b) 2 days (c) 5 days (d) 10 days

32. Quarterly season ticket fare is ___ times of monthly season

ticket fare
(a) 2.7 (b) 2.5 (c) 2 (d) 1.5

33. Market Vendor season ticket fare is ____ times of normal season
ticket fare
(a) 2.7 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.5 (d) 2

34. Identity card issued by Railways along with season ticket is

valid for
(a) One year (b) Two years
(c) Seven years (d) Four years

35. Izzat season tickets are issued for a maximum distance of

(a) 80 kms (b) 100 kms
(c) 150 kms (d) 125 kms

36. Indrail pass tickets are issued on collection of

(a) US dollars (b) British pounds
(c) Euros (d) All these

37. Indrail pass ticket holders are exempted from payment of

(a) Reservation charges
(b) Super Fast charges
(c) Meals charges by Rajdhani / Shatabdi trains
(d) All these

38. The requisition portion of HOR retained at station is treated as

 (a) Cash Voucher
(b) Traveling Authority
(c) Special Credit Letter
(d) None of these

39. HOR is issued to high officials such as

(a) General Manager
(b) Governer
(c) C.C.M.
(d) FA&CAO

40. Break journey endorsement consists of

(a) Station Code (b) Date
(c) Initials of SM / TE (d) All these

41. When a ticket is reserved upto destination , Break Journey

before booked destination is
(a) Permitted (b) Not Permitted
(c) Permitted once (d) Permitted twice

42. Maximum number of break journeys permitted on a circular

journey ticket is
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 2

43. Break Journey is permitted on journey tickets for a distance

beyond
(a) 200 kms (b) 300 kms
(c) 500 kms (d) 1000 kms

44. Break Journey rules are not applicable to

(a) Season ticket holders
(b) Railway pass holder
(c) Indrail pass ticket holder
(d) All these

45. Break journey is not permitted at

(a) Junction stations
(b) Intermediate station
(c) Suburban stations
(d) Non-suburban stations

46. Break Journey is not allowed on

 (a) Blind concession ticket
(b) Senior citizen concession ticket
(c) Concession tickets issued for a specific purpose
(d) Physically handicapped concession ticket

47. Duplicate ‘Tatkal Ticket’ can be issued in exceptional cases on

payment of ___
(a) Full fare including ‘Tatkal Charges’
(b) Full fare excluding ‘Tatkal Charges’
(c) 25% of the fare including ‘tatkal Charges
(d) Not permitted

48. Facility ‘Not’ available on ‘Tatkal Tickets’

(a) Change of Name
(b) Change of Boarding point
(c) Upgradation
(d) None of the above

49. Concession is not admissible in respect of

(a) Reservation charges
(b) Super fast surcharge
(c) Safety surcharge
(d) All these

50. Number of concessions allowed at one time is

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

51. SC / ST students are charged at _____ of the normal

concessional fare admissible for general students
(a) 25% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 33.3%

52. Student concession on season ticket is allowed in

(a) II class (b) I class
(c) ACCC (d) I and II class

53. Concession is allowed for senior citizens in

(a) II class (b) AC 3 tier
(c) AC 2 tier (d) All classes

54. The element of concession allowed for female senior citizen

(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 30% (d) 75%
55. Reservation charges for Sleeper class ticket is
(a) Rs. 35/- (b) Rs.25/-
(c) Rs.20/- (d) Rs.30/-

56. Tatkal tickets are NOT issued for the following Class
(a) AC III (b) AC I (c) AC II (d) SL

57. Tatkal Booking for AC Classes opens at -------hrs on the

previous day of journey excluding date of journey from the train
originating station.
(a) 9 hrs (b) 8 hrs (c) 10 hrs (d) 11 hrs

58. Minimum cancellation charges on reserved AC First class ticket

is
(a) Rs.240/- (b) Rs. 200/-
(c) Rs.180/- (d) Rs.120/-

59. When a 3AC reserved ticket is cancelled more than 48 hours in

advance, the cancellation charge is
(a) 50% of fare
(b) 25% of fare
(c) 75% of fare
(d)Minimum cancellation charges

60. If a train is cancelled, full amount can be refunded on reserved

tickets upto
(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours
(c) 3 hours (d) 3 days

61. When a train is running late by more than 3 hours, ______ on

cancellation of reserved tickets.
(a) Cancellation charge is due
(b) Clerkage is due
(c) Full amount is refunded
(d) No refund is due

62. For trains leaving between 21.00 hours and 06.00 hours (actual
departure), refunds shall be admissible within first ______ after
the opening of reservation office, where current counters are
not available.
(a) 2 hours (b) 3 hours
(c) 6 hours (d) 8 hours
63. Minimum cancellation charge per passenger in sleeper class is
(a) Rs.240/- (b) Rs.200/-
(c) Rs.180/- (d) Rs.120/-

64. When train services are dislocated due to bandh, agitation or

rail roko enroute
(a) Fare for the traveled portion is retained and the balance is
refunded
(b) 25% of fare is refunded
(c) 50% of fare is refunded
(d) Full fare is refunded

65. The purpose of having ticket checking organization on Railways

is
(a) To eradicate the evil of ticket less travel
(b) To guide passengers correctly
(c) To ensure that the passenger amenities are maintained
properly.
(d) All these

66. T.E. should remit cash at

(a) DCM Office (b) Cash Office
(c) Booking Office (d) CCM Office

67. A passenger without ticket or G.C. is charged

(a) Fare + EC (b) EC only
(c) Double the fare (d) Basic fare

68. Cost of Izzat Monthly Season Ticket is Rs.___

(a) 15/- (b) 20/- (c) 25/- (d) 35/-

69. Transfer of certain tickets is prohibited as per section

(a) 49 (b) 54 (c) 53 (d) 55

70. Separate accommodation should be provided for ladies as per

Section ____ of the Railway Act, 1989.
(a) 53 (b) 54 (c) 58 (d) 59 26

71. A person found traveling without ticket and without intention

to cheat the Railway is dealt as per section ___ of Railway Act
1989.
 (a) 138 (b) 137 (c) 55 (d) 54

72. A person found traveling without ticket and with an intention to

defraud the Railway is dealt as per section ___ of Railway Act
1989.
(a) 138 (b) 137 (c) 55 (d) 54

73. ______ Section of the Railway Act, 1989 empowers Railways to

remove passengers traveling without ticket.
(a) 137 (b) 138 (c) 139 (d) 141

74. Person found transferring reserved ticket with business motive

should be prosecuted as per section ____ of Railway Act 1989.
(a) 141 (b) 143 (c) 142 (d) 144

75. Person found transferring reserved ticket without business

motive should be prosecuted as per section ____ of Railway Act
1989.
(a) 141 (b) 143 (c) 142 (d) 144

76. Male passenger found travelling in ladies compartment is dealt

as per section ____ of the Railway Act, 1989.
(a) 58 (b) 141 (c) 162 (d) 164

77. Maximum Fine for hawking or begging upon a railway is

Rs.________
(a) Rs.500/- (b) Rs.1000/-
(c) Rs.2000/- (d) 3000/-

78. Drunkenness or nuisance upon a railway will be dealt as per

section ______ of Railway Act 1989.
(a) 141 (b) Rs.143
(c) 144 (d) 145

79. A person detected traveling with altered / defaced ticket / pass

shall be dealt as per section____ of Railway Act 1989.
(a) 155 (b) 157
(c) 145 (d) 147

80. Foreign Tourists are permitted to reserve tickets _____ days in

advance.
(a) 90 (b) 60 (c) 360 (d) 30
81. Holders of MVST found selling their products in the railway
premises will be prosecuted as per section ________ of Railway
Act 1989.
(a) 142 (b) 144 (c) 146 (d) 147

82. Maximum Fine as per section 137 of Railway Act 1989 is

Rs._________
(a) Rs.500/- (b) Rs.1000/-
(c) Rs.2000/- (d) 3000/-

83. A person prosecuted as per section 142 of Railway Act 1989 is

liable to pay a fine upto Rs.__________
(a) Rs.500/- (b) Rs.1000/-
(c) Rs.2000/- (d) 3000/-

84. A person prosecuted as per section 143 of Railway Act 1989 is

liable to pay a fine upto Rs.__________
(a) Rs.5000/- (b) Rs.10000/-
(c) Rs.20000/- (d) 30000/-

85. Free allowance of luggage on AC I class ticket per passenger is

(a) 70 kg (b) 150 kg
(c) 50 kg (d) 100 kg

86. Free allowance on I class privilege pass per passenger is

(a) 50 kg (b) 70 kg
(c) 100 kg (d) 140 kg

87. Articles exempted from weighment on II class ticket are

(a) Umbrella (b) Walking stick
(c) Tiffin box (d) All these

88. Free allowance of luggage permitted to be carried in sleeper

class is
(a) 70 kg (b) 80 kg (c) 40 kg (d) 100 kg

89. Dog is permitted to be carried with owner in the following class.

(a) 2 AC (b) I AC (c) 3 AC (d) SL

90. Break journey period is _______ days excluding the date of

arrival and departure.
 (a) One day (b) 2 days
(c) 8 days (d) No limit

91. Maximum number of break journey permitted on single journey

ticket is __________
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Eight (d) No limit

92. Ticket Deposit Receipt is issued up to ________ days after the

scheduled departure of the train.
(a) 15 days (b) 3 days
(c) 60 days (d) 90 days

93. The Passenger issued with TDR may apply for refund to CCM
within _____ days from the schedule day of journey.
(a) 10 days (b) 30
(c) 60 days (d) 90 days

94. Stationary staff are permitted to have a private cash upto

Rs._______.
(a) Rs.2000/- (b) Rs.750/-
(c) Rs.1000/- (d) Rs.1500/-

95. For extension of Retiring Rooms for the next 24 hours ___% of
extra charges are collected.
(a) Nil (b) 10 (c) 25 (d) 50

96. Which of the following ID is not accepted as valid proof for

travelling in reserved classes
(a) Voter ID card (b) Bank Pass book
(c) Debit Card (d) Passport

97. A maximum of ___ passengers can be booked on ‘Tatkal Ticket’

(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2

98. Concession given to Orthopedically Handicapped/ Paraplegic

passengers in 3AC/ACCCof Rajdhani /Shatabdhi trains is___%
(a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 50 (d) 75

99. In case of temporary disability, doctor certificate given to a

Orthopedically Handicappedpassenger is valid for ____ years.
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) life long
100.___ along with any of the prescribed ID proofs in original
constitute travel authority for E-Ticket passenger.
(a) ERS (b) VRM
(c) MRM (d) Any of the above

101. Sr. Citizen concession is not allowed by

(a) Rajdhani /Shatabhdhi
(b) Duronto
(c) Garibh Rath
(d) None

102. Smoking in Railway Premises is prohibited under Section____ of

Railway Act
(a) 144 (b) 145 (c) 162 (d) 167

103. PNR stands for ___

(a) Passenger Number record
(b) Passenger Name Record
(c) Passenger Not required
(d) Passenger No Room

104. Ticket checking staff will issue ___ tickets only

(a) CST (b) MST (c) QST (d) EFT

105. Children aged _________Years and above and below______ years

are charged with Half of Adult basic fare.
(a) 4 to 10 (b) 5 to 10
(c) 3 to 8 (d) 5 to 12

106. Private Cash limit for Mobile Staff is ____

(a) Rs. 1400 (b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 500

107. Immediately after taking over the charge a TE/TTE must

declare ____
(a) Voucher (b) Private Cash
(c) Earnings (d) None of these

108. ICCRP entitles MP’s to travel in ___ Class alongwith spouse all
over railways
(a) AC I (b) AC II (c) SL (d) AC III 32
109. Refund under CCRS is given upto__________days from schedule
departure time of train from train originating station.
(a) 15 days (b) 10 days
(c) 45 days (d) 60 days

110. Refund under CCRS is given for following tickets

(a) Lower Class Travel
(b) AC failure in Coach
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) Waitlisted

111. Season ticket issued to students upto a distance of __Kms

(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200

112. MVST is issued for travel in ___ class only

(a) I class (b) II Class
(c) Sleeper Class (d) ACCC

113. Normal Season tickets are issued for ____ periods

(a) Monthly (b) Yearly
(c) Half Yearly (d) All

114. Izzat season ticket is issued for ___ period only

(a) Monthly (b) Quarterly
(c) Half-yearly (d) Yearly

115. Reservation on Season tickets are

(a) Permitted
(b) Not Permitted
(c) Permitted Once, Monthly
(d) Permitted once Quarterly

116. Extension of Journey on Season ticket is

(a) Permitted when demanded
(b) Not Permitted
(c) Permitted Once, Monthly
(d) Permitted once Quarterly

117. Free allowance of luggage permitted on CST/ST is___ Kgs.

(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 60
118. Refund on season ticket is
(a) Granted at PRS Counters
(b) Granted at UTS Counter
(c) Not Granted
(d) Granted through TDR

119. Normal Break Journey rules are Not applicable for

(a) Railway Pivelege Pass
(b) ICCRP
(c) Indrail Pass
(d) All of these

120. Break Journey are Not permitted for

(a) Rajadhani/Shatabdhi trains ticket holders
(b) Reserved ticket short of destination
(c) Concession tickets issued for specific purpose
(d) All of these.

121. When a High Official is travelling with ‘Unexchanged’ HOR the

duty of Ticket checking staff is_______
(a) Collect fare only
(b) Collect fare + EC
(c) Issue free EFT after collecting HOR
(d) Collect clerkage

122. Number of escort allowed for every 4 girl students travelling

under concession
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1

123. Number of escort allowed for every 10 boy students travelling

under concession on educational tour.
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1

124. Cancer Concession certificate is valid for a period of ________

(a) 1 month (b) 3 months
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year

125. War widows are allowed ______% age of concession in II /SL

class
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100

126. Modification on reserved ticket is permitted only _____ times

 (a) Two (b) One (c) No limit (d) Three

127. Sleeping accommodation is provided between ____ & ___ hours

(a) 18-00 to 06.00 (b) 19.00 to 07.00
(c) 20.00 to 08.00 (d) 22.00 to 06.00

128. RAC stands for

(a) Reservation Against Cancellation
(b) Reserve And Cancel
(c) Railway Accomodation Centre
(d) Refund And Clerkage

129. P.O.E.T stands for

(a) Passenger Operated Enquiry Terminal
(b) *-Passenger Online Energy Terminal
(c) Passenger Open end Terminal
(d) Passenger On Education Tour.

130. I.V.R.S stands for

(a) Inter Active Voice Responsive System
(b) International Voice Repeater System
(c) Indian Vendors Reservation System
(d) Inter Active Voice Repeater Solution

131. N.T.E.S stands for

(a) National Ticket Enquiry Squad
(b) National Train Enquiry System
(c) National Terminal Enquiry Solution
(d) National Ticket Examiners System

132 Passengers with reserved accommodation should occupy their

seats / berths ____ minutes before the departure of the train.
(a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 20

133. A.R.T stands for

(a) Accident Relief Train
(b) Accident Restore Track
(c) Accident Review Terminal
(d) Accident Release Terminal

134. M.R.V stands for

(a) Medicine Review Van (b) Medical Relief Van
 (c) Medical Restoration Vehicle (d) Medical Room Van

135. Check conducted all over Indian railways for 96 hours is known
as
(a) CRB check (b) Massive Check
(c) Spot Check (d) Magisterial Check

136. Check conducted with the assistance of NCC, NSS , Scouts etc
is known as
(a) CRB check (b) Fortress Check
(c) Spot Check (d) Ambush Check

137. Check conducted at Mid-Section by stopping train

(a) CRB check (b) Massive Check
(c) Ambush Check (d) Replacement Check

138. Check conducted by fresh staff from other stations for 3 days to
revise target is
(a) CRB check (b) Massive Check
(c) Spot Check (d) Replacement Check

139. The minimum excess charge is ___

(a) Rs. 250/- (b) Rs. 100/-
(c) Rs. 500/- (d) Rs. 1000/-

140. Exgratia payable in case of death in a train accident

(a) Rs.50000/- (b) Rs. 10000/-
(c) Rs. 15000/- (d) Rs. 1000/-

141. Exgratia payable in case of Serious Injury in a train accident

(a) Rs.5000/- (b) Rs. 10000/-
(c) Rs. 25000/- (d) Rs. 1000/-

142. Exgratia payable in case of Simple injury in a train accident

(a) Rs.5000/- (b) Rs. 10000/-
(c) Rs. 15000/- (d) Rs. 500/-

143. Minimum Luggage charge is Rs._____

(a) 20/- (b) 50/- (c) 40/- (d) 30/-
144. Luggage is booked on the strength of Valid
(a) Pass or Ticket (b) Only Pass
(c) Only ticket (d) None of the above

145. Marginal allowance on II class season ticket is

(a) 10 kgs (b) 20 kgs (c) 15 kgs (d) 5 kgs

146. Packages exceeding ___cms x ___cms ____cms dimensions are

not permitted to be carried in II class compartment.
(a) 100 x 60 x 25 (b) 75 x 25 x 10
(c) 75 x 75 x 100 (d) 25 x 100 x 75

147. Packages exceeding ____cms x cms___cms dimensions are not

permitted to be carried in AC3 tier class
(a) 100 x 60 x 25 (b) 55 x 45 x 22.5
(c) 75 x 75 x 100 (d) 25 x 100 x 75

148. Chargeable weight of a baby tricycle booked as luggage is ____

(a) 10 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 30

149. Chargeable weight of a DOG for booking in AC First class is____

kgs.
(a) 60 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 30 39

150. TDR contains ___ number of foils.

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 3

151. The minimum Weight for charging luggage is ___ .

(a) 10 Kgs (b) 20Kgs (c) 30 Kgs (d) 40 Kgs

152. The minimum Distance for charging luggage is ___ .

(a) 10 Kms (b) 50Kms (c) 30 Kms (d) 40 Kms

153. Articles not accepted as luggage are

(a) Acids (b) Dry Grass
(c) Explosive goods (d) All of these

154. Following are permitted as luggage within free allowance.

(a) Laptop (b) Musical Instrument
(c) Portable TV (d) All
155. TDR is issued under abnormal circumstances such as floods /
Bunds etc upto---------------days from the date of scheduled
departure of the train.
(a) 10 Days (b) 3 Days (c) 30 Days (d) 15 Days

156. EDR is prepared in ___ No of copies.

(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

157. EDR to be handed over at DEP station within___ Hours/Hour of

arrival of train.
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

158. ______ is responsible for preparation of EDR.

(a) ECRC (b) TTE (c) SM (d) RPF

159. Chargeable weight of a Dog when booked in Break-Van.

(a) 25kgs (b) 30 Kgs (c) 40 Kgs (d) 60 Kgs

160. UTS in relation to booking means

a) Unreserved Ticketing system
b) Unified Ticket server
c) Uninterrupted traffic supply
d) Unified traffic service

161. Complaint book consist of ___ number of foils

(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

162. When passenger travelling under E-ticket is not able to produce

Original ID proof , he will be treated as.
(a) Travelling without Ticket
(b) Rs. 50/- is collected
(c) Permitted to travel
(d) None of these

163. Code used on the PRS chart to indicate E-Ticket holder is

(a) E (b) X (c) Z (d) DP

164. Fully Waitlisted E-ticket holder is

(a) Not permitted to travel
(b) Permitted to travel in General coach
(c) Permitted to travel in lower class
(d) TTE can permit
165. Upgradation of passengers is done .
(a) Automatically while chart preparation
(b) Done by TTE freely
(c) Done in DCM’s office
(d) Done by ECRC selectively

166. Passengers who are upgraded automatically by system must

occupy.
(a) Upgraded Seat/berth
(b) Original Seat/berth
(c) Can occupy as per passenger choice
(d) Can occupy both

167. System upgraded passenger on occupation of upgraded

seat/berth shall.
(a) Pay difference of fare
(b) Pay Reservation fee
(c) Pay 10% of fare
(d) Not to pay any charges.

168. Which of the following options is correct with respect to

provision of Bed Rolls for RAC passengers travelling by AC
Classes of Mail/Exp trains.
(a) Complete set to be provided
(b) Not to be provided
(c) To be provided on payment
(d) To be provided Partially

169. Passenger can register complaints through SMS on following

Number in SC Rly.
(a) 8121281212 (b) 139
(c) 131 (d) 1345

170. Super fast charges for II class is.

(a) Rs.10/- (b) Rs. 15/-
(c) Rs. 20/- (d) Rs.30/-
171. Passengers detected with unbooked luggage exceeding FA but
within FA + MA is charged at.
(a) 6 times of Scale “L”
(b) 1.5 times of Scale “L”
(c) 5 times of Scale
(d) No charges are collected

172. Passengers detected with unbooked luggage exceeding FA + MA

is charged at
(a) 6 times of Scale “L”
(b) 15 times of Scale “L”
(c) 5 times of Scale
(d) No charges are collected

173. Passengers detected with unbooked Dog will be charged at

(a) 6 times of Scale “L”
(b) 1.5 times of Scale “L”
(c) 5 times of Scale
(d) No charges are collected

174. Expand TCR

(a) Ticket coaching refund
(b) Ticket commercial rules
(c) Ticket Collector’s report
(d) Ticket Cancellation report

175. On completion of Coach checking with original chart by TTE___

chart is prepared .
(a) Original (b) Amended
(c) Cancellation (d) Refund

176. Headquarters of South East Railway.

a) Kolkatta b) Mumbai
c) Chennai d) New Delhi

177. Diesel Locomotives are manufactured at

a) Secunderabad b) Kazipet
c) Varanasi d) Salem

178. Headquarters of East Central Railway.

a) New Delhi b) Allahabad
c) Hazipur d) Dehradun
179. Integral Coach Factory is located at
a) Erode b) Bitragunta
c) Perambur d) Hubli

180. How many divisions are there in South Western Railway.

a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

181. Reserved tickets on Indian Railways are issued through ___

a) PMS b) PRS c)COIS d)CRIS

182. Who is the Head of Commercial Department at Zonal level.

a) PCOM b) PCCM
c) PCE d) PFCA

183. Who is the Head of Commercial Department at Railway Board

level.
a) MT b) EDPM
c) MS d) CRB

184. Minimum charge in II ordinary is ___

a) Rs.10/- b) Rs.5/-
c) Rs.15/- d) Rs.20/-

185. Which is the Superfast train among the following:

a) 12711 b) 17225
c) 17255 d) 07245

186. Minimum penalty to be collected from ticketless passenger.

a) Rs.500/- b) Rs.400/-
c) Rs.250/- d) Rs.200/-

187. Unbooked luggage is charged at how many times of actual

charge.
a) 3 times b) 4 times
c) 5 times d) 6 times.

188. What is the period of validity of II Class Privilege Pass.

a) 2 months b) 4 months
c) 5 months d) 6 months
189. Maximum number of passengers allowed in one reservation
form for Tatkal reservation.
a) 03 b) 05 c) 04 d) 06

190. What is the Alhpabetical code of Chirala Railway station.

a) CHI b) CLX c) CRA d) CHA

191. Chennai is the Headquraters of ______ Railway.

a) SWR b) SER c) SR d) SCR

192. Who is the head of a Railway Division?

a) GM b) DRM c) PCCM d) Sr. DCM

193. Who is the head of Vigilance department at Zonal level?

a) GM b) AGM c) SDGM d) GGM

194. What is the full form of I.R.C.T.C. ?

a) Indian Railways Catering and Tourism Corporation.
b) International Railways Commercial Trading Corporation.
c) Indian Roadways Commercial Trading Council.
d) International Roads Catering Tourism Council.

195. What is the full form of R.V.N.L.

a) Rail Vikas Nominal Limited
b) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited.
c) Rail Village Nomination Limited.
d) Railway Vocational Nigam Limited.

196. What is the full form of R.L.D.A.

a) Rail Land Development Authority.
b) Rail Load Dealing Act.
c) Railway Leasing Development Association.
d) Railway Legal Dealing Authority.

197. What is the full form of A.T.V.M.

a) Auto Ticket Vehicle Machine
b) Automatic Ticket Vending Machine
c) Automatic Taxi Vending Mechanic.
d) Association of Ticket Vending Members.

198. How many scales are there in Parcel Booking.

a) 03 b) 08 c) 09 d) 07
199. Which one among the following is a covered wagon.
a) BCN b) BOBN c) BOXN d) BTPN

200. Interchanging point of Vijayawada Division to Secunderabad

Division is _____
(a) Vijayawada (b) Kondapalli
(c) Krishna Canal (d) Gunadala
Current Affairs

1. Who is the Chief Minister of Telangana?

a) N.Chandrababu Naidu
b) Y.S. Jagan
c) K.Chandra Sekhar Rao
d) K.Taraka Rama Rao

2. Who is the President of India ?

a) RamNath Kovind
b) Amit Shah
c) Venkaiah Naidu
d) Aravind Kejriwal

3. Who is the Chief Minister of Delhi ?

a) RamNath Kovind
b) Amit Shah
c) Venkaiah Naidu
d) Aravind Kejriwal

4. Who is the President of U.S.A ?

a) Barrack Obama
b) Donald Trump
c) Ivanka
d) Mike Pence

5. Who is the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh ?

a) N.Chandrababu Naidu
b) Y.S. Jagan
c) K.Chandra Sekhar Rao
d) K.Taraka Rama Rao

6. Who is the present Captain of Indian Cricket Team ?

a) Virat Kohli
b) M.S.Dhoni
c) Rishabh Pant
d) Jasprit Bumra

7. Who is the present Captain of Women’s Indian Cricket Team ?

 a) Smriti Mandhana
b) Harmanpreet Kaur
c) Poonam Yadam
d) Mithali Raj

8. ICC One day International World cup in the year 2019 was won
by
a) Bangladesh b) England
c) Pakistan d) Australia

9. Who is the presentGoverner of Telnagana?

a) E.S.L.Narasimhan
b) Tamilisai Soundararajan
c) Swaraj koushal
d) Pocharam Srinivas Reddy

10. Who is the Union Minister for Railways?

a) SureshPrabhu
b)Piyush Goyal
c) D. V. Sadananda Gowda
d) Mallikarjun Kharge

11. Union budget for the year 2020-21 was proposed by whom?
a) Nirmala Sitaraman
b) Tamilisai Soundararajan
c) Arun Jaitley
d) Pranab Mukherjee
Arithmetic Operations

01. b 11. a 21. d 31. a 41. d 51. c

02. a 12. b 22. c 32. d 42. a 52. c

03. a 13. a 23. c 33. c 43. b 53. b

04. c 14. b 24. a 34. c 44. b 54. d

05. c 15. a 25. b 35. d 45. b 55. c

06. d 16. b 26. b 36. b 46. a 56. a

07. c 17. c 27. b 37. a 47. a 57. d

08. a 18. b 28.d 38. b 48. b 58. b

09. a 19. b 29. a 39. b 49. c 59. a

10. d 20. d 30. d 40. c 50. d 60. a

General Knowledge

01. c 11. a 21. c 31. c 41. a

02. b 12. d 22. c 32. b 42. b
03. a 13. a 23. a 33. a 43. c
04. c 14. a 24. b 34. d 44. c
05. b 15. a 25. c 35. c 45. d
06. c 16. d 26. d 36. a 46. b
07. a 17. a 27. b 37. c 47. d
08. a 18. b 28.a 38. b 48. a
09. c 19. c 29. b 39. b 49. a
10. d 20. d 30. d 40. a 50. d
English
01. b 11. c 21. b 31. a 41. a 51. a
02. b 12. a 22. a 32. a 42. d 52. c
03. b 13. b 23. a 33. a 43. c 53. a
04. a 14. a 24. a 34. b 44. c 54. a
05. b 15. b 25. a 35. d 45. b 55. a
06. d 16. a 26. b 36. c 46. a 56. c
07. b 17. c 27. a 37. b 47. d 57. a
08. b 18. b 28. a 38. d 48. b 58. a
09. b 19. a 29. c 39. b 49. a 59. b
10. c 20. c 30. d 40. b 50. a 60. a
Railway Knowledge:

1a 26 b 51 c 76 c 101 c 126 b 151 a 176 a

2d 27 a 52 d 77 b 102 d 127 d 152 b 177 c
3b 28 c 53 d 78 d 103 b 128 a 153 d 178 c
4d 29 b 54 b 79 b 104 d 129 a 154 d 179 c
5c 30 c 55 c 80 c 105 d 130 a 155 a 180 b
6b 31 d 56 b 81 b 106 c 131 b 156 d 181 b
7b 32 a 57 c 82 a 107 b 132 c 157 b 182 b
8a 33 b 58 a 83 a 108 a 133 a 158 b 183 a
9d 34 c 59 d 84 b 109 b 134 b 159 b 184 a
10 d 35 b 60 d 85 a 110 c 135 a 160 a 185 a
11 a 36 d 61 c 86 a 111 c 136 b 161 d 186 c
12 d 37 d 62 a 87 d 112 b 137 c 162 a 187 d
13 b 38 a 63 d 88 c 113 d 138 d 163 a 188 c
14 a 39 b 64 a 89 b 114 a 139 a 164 a 189 c
15 a 40 d 65 d 90 b 115 b 140 a 165 a 190 b
16 d 41 b 66 c 91 b 116 a 141 c 166 a 191 c
17 d 42 a 67 a 92 b 117 c 142 a 167 d 192 b
18 a 43 c 68 c 93 b 118 c 143 d 168 d 193 c
19 b 44 d 69 c 94 b 119 d 144 a 169 a 194 a
20 b 45 c 70 c 95 c 120 d 145 d 170 b 195 b
21 d 46 c 71 a 96 c 121 c 146 a 171 b 196 a
22 c 47 a 72 b 97 c 122 d 147 b 172 a 197 b
23 b 48 a 73 c 98 a 123 d 148 c 173 a 198 a
24 a 49 d 74 b 99 b 124 b 149 a 174 c 199 a
25 b 50 a 75 c 100 d 125 c 150 d 175 b 200 b
 Official Language (Rajbhasha)
Question Bank on Official Language Policy of the union for Departmental Examination

1. What is the official language of the India?

a) Telugu b) Hindi c) Marathi d) Hindi in Devnagari Script
[Answer: d]

2. In which article of the constitution of India Hindi has been declared as Official Language?
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) 3Article 351
[Answer: c]

3. As per the provisions of the Constitution of India Official Language Hindi shall be written in which
script?
a) Brahmi Script b) Sanskrit Script c) Roman Script d) Devnagari Script
[Answer: d]

4. Which forms of the numerals should be used in official purposes of the Union of India?
a) International form of Indian Numerals b) Devnagari numerals
c) Roman numerals d) None of the above
[Answer: a]

5. Hindi Day is celebrated in India on ........ every year.

a) 10th January b) 26th January c) 15th August d) 14th September
[Answer: d]

6. Why Hindi Day is celebrated in India on 14th September?

a) Constituent Assembly of India had adopted Hindi as Official Language of India on that day.
b) Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language had ordered to do so.
c) Railway Board had ordered to do so d) None of the above
[Answer: a]

7. In which article of the Constitution of India envisages setting up of Official Language Commissions?
a) Article 343 b) Article 344 c) Article 345 d) Article 346
[Answer: b]

8. Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Indian states to choose their own Official
Language?
a) Article 343 b)Article 351 c) Article 210 d) Article 345
[Answer: d]

9. If a state does not choose Official Language for itself from the languages spoken in the state what
language will be its Official Language?
a) All the languages spoken in the state b) Hindi Language
c) English Language d) None of the above
[Answer: c]
10. The authoritative texts of all Bills to be introduced or amendments thereto to be moved in either
House of Parliament or in the House or either House of the Legislature of a State shall be in which
language?
a) In Hindi b) In English
c) In any of the Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India
d) None of the above
[Answer: b]

11. As per the prevailing provisions of the Constitution of India all proceedings in the Supreme Court and
in every High Court shall be in ........... language.
a) In Hindi b) In English
c) In any of the Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India
d) None of the above
[Answer: b]

12. In which article of the constitution of India the duty to promote the spread of the Hindi language
assigned to the Union of India?
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) Article 351
[Answer: d]

13. Which of the following languages not included in the VIII Schedule of the Constitution of India?
a) Chhattisgarhi b) Maithili c) Dogri d) Bodo
[Answer: a]

14. As per the provisions of the Constitution of India vocabulary should be drawn primarily from which
language wherever necessary or desirable for enrichment of Hindi Language to serve as medium of
expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India?
a) English Language b) Hindustani Language c) Lingua Franca d) Sanskrit Language
[Answer: d]

15.In which article of the Constitution of India the provision contains that if a Member of Parliament does
not adequately express himself in Hindi or in English he/she would be permitted by the Chairman of the
Council of the States or speaker of the House of the People or person acting as such as the case may be,
to address the house in his mother tongue?
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) Article 351
[Answer: a]

16. In which article of the Constitution of India the provision regarding the language to be used in
parliament has been contained.
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) Article 351
[Answer: a]

17. In which article of the Constitution of India the provision regarding the language to be used in state
legislatures has been contained.
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) Article 351
[Answer: b]
18. In which article of the Constitution of India a provision contains that if a Member does not adequately
express himself in Hindi or in English he/she would be permitted by the Chairman of the Council of the
States or speaker of the House of the People or person acting as such as the case may be, to address the
house in his mother tongue?
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) Article 351
[Answer: b]

19. In clause-3 of which article of the Constitution of India empowers the parliament to make rule
regarding continuation of the use of English language even after the expire of 15 years of the
commencement of the constitution.
a) Article 343 b) Article 344 c) Article 348 d) Article 351
[Answer: a]

20. In which article of the Constitution of India a provision to constitute Official Language Commission at
the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration
of ten years from such commencement has been envisaged.
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 344 d) Article 348
[Answer: c]

21. The 1st Official Language Commission has been constituted on 7th June 1955 as per the provisions of
the Constitution of India. Who was the Chairman of this commission?
a) K. M. Munshi b) Gopal Swami Ayengar c) B. G. Kher d) Govind Vallabh Pant
[Answer: c]

22. Who was the Chairman of the 2nd Official Language Commission?
a) Lal Bahadur Shastry b) Guljarilal Nanda c) Smt. Indira Gandhi d) None of the above
[Answer: d]

23. What is the Official Language of Unioin of India

a) Hindi in Devnagari Script b) Hindi c) Sanskrit d) None of these
[Answer: a]

24. On which date part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament
a)12.09.1949 b)14.09.1949 c)15.09.1949 9)21.09.1949
[Answer: b]

25. When was official language act 1963 passed

a)10.05.1963 b)10.05.1964 c)10.05.1965 d)10.05.1966
[Answer: a]

26. When was official language Act 1963 ammended

a)1963 a)1965 c)1967 d)1969
[Answer: c]

27. Union of India is classified into ------------Regions under Official Language Rules
a) A & B Regions a) C & D Regions c) A,B & C Regions d) None of these
[Answer: c]
28. When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year
a) November 14 b) September 14 c) Noveember 21 d) September 21
[Answer: b]

29. According to official language rules, under which region Andaman and Nicobar islands come?
a) Region ‘A’ b) Region ‘B’ c) Region ‘C’ d) None of these
[Answer: a]

30. Which is the only Union territory classified under region ‘B’
a)Union territory of Chandigarh b)Union territory of Daman & Dieu
c) Pondicherry d) None of these
[Answer: a]

31. What is the official language of Arunachal Pradesh

a)Mizo b)English c)Hindi d) None of these
[Answer: b]

32. What is the act passed to give legal form to the assurances given to Non-Hindi speaking people?
a)Official Language Act (amended)-1967 b)Official Language Act (amended)-1969
c)Official Language Act (amended)-1965 d) None of these
[Answer: a]

33. From when did the section3(3) of official languages act take effect?
a)26.01.1961 b)26.01.1963 c)26.01.1965 d)26.01.1967
[Answer: c]

34. In which part of the constitution are the articles 343-351 that give information about Official Language
available?
a)Part XV b)Part XVI c)Part XVII d)Part XVIII
[Answer: c]

35. Maximum how many Artists can participate in Hindi drama competitions?
a) Maximum 10 artists b) Maximum 15 artists
c) Maximum 18 artists d) Maximum 21 artists
[Answer: b]

36. How many inspections in a month are mandatory for Rajbhasha Adhikari of railways
a) One inspection per month b) Two inspections per month
c) Three inspections per month d) Four inspection per month
[Answer: a]

37. At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth schedule of the constitution
a)20 b)21 c)22 d)23
[Answer: c]

38. In which article is the provision regarding OL policy available in part V of the constitution
a) Article 120 b) Article 343 c) Article 344 d) None of these
[Answer: a]
39. Name the article in which the provision of the Eighth schedule of the Constitution is available
a) Article 120 b) Article 343 c) Article 344 d) Article 344 (1) & 351
[Answer: d]

40. When was the Official Language Rules passed?

a)1974 b)1975 c)1976 d) None of these
[Answer: c]

41. How many articles are there in part XVII of the Constitution?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
[Answer: c]

42. In compliance of article 344 when was the official language commission formed in the year?
a) 1955 b) 1956 c) 1957 d) 1958
[Answer: a]

43. Who was the first chairman of the Official Language Commission?
a) B.G.Kher b) G.B.Pant c) Lal Bahadur Shastri d) None of these
[Answer: a]

44. Who was the first chairman of the committee which was formed on the recommendation of the
official language commission
a) B.G.Kher b) G.B.Pant c) Lal Bahadur Shastri d) None of these
[Answer: b]

45. As per the constitution, who is translating the statutory Rules, Regulations and Orders?
a)Law ministry b) Home ministry c) HRD ministry d) None of these
[Answer: a]

46. Which Official Language Rule of 1976, mentions about the working knowledge of the Officer/
Employee?
a) Rule-8 b) Rule-9 c) Rule-10 d) None of these
[Answer: c]

47. Which article comes under part VI?

a) Article 120 b) Article 343 c) Article 344 d) Article 210
[Answer: d]

48. Who chaired the first railway Hindi Salahkar Samiti constituted in 1973?
a) Sri Lalit Narayan Mishra b) Sri B.G.Kher c) Sri G.B.Pant d) Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
[Answer: a]

49. Who was the chairman of the parliamentary committee on official language constituted in the year
1976?
a) OM Mehta b) Sri B.G.Kher c) Sri G.B.Pant d) Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
[Answer: a]
50. In which year the post of Hindi Asst. was created in General Branch of Railway Board in compliance of
president’s order 1952?
a) 1952 b) 1953 c) 1954 d) 1955
[Answer: a]

51. In which year the Hindi translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the Railway Minister
a) 1956- Lal Bahadur Shastri b) 1956- G.B.Pant
c) 1957- B.G.Kher d) 1957- L.M.Gupta
[Answer: a]

52. In which year Hindi (Parliament) section was established in Railway Board
a) 1956 b) 1958 c) 1960 d) None of these
[Answer: c]

53. a) Region’A’ b) Region’B’ c) Region’C’ d) None of these

[Answer: a]

54. The state of Jarkhand comes under which Region?

a) Region’A’ b) Region’B’ c) Region’C’ d) None of these
[Answer: c]

55. Which sub-committee of the parliamentary committee on official language inspects Railway Ministry
a) First sub-committee b) Second sub-committee
c) Third sub-committee d) Fourth sub-committee
[Answer: d]

56. What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi
a) Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme b) Rajbhasha group cash award scheme
c) Rajbhasha Samman award scheme d) None of these
[Answer: a]

57. What is the expansion for OLIC used by department of official language?
a) Official Language Implementation committee
b) Oriental Language Implementation committee
c) Other Languages Improvement committee
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

58. How many Hindi courses are prescribed for central government employees?
a)One b)Two c)Three d)Four
[Answer: d]

59. Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for central government employees?
a) Praveen b) Pragya c) Parangat d) Prabodh
[Answer: d]
60. Who is the chairman of central Hindi Committee?
a) Prime Minister b) Home Minister c) President of India d) Vice President
[Answer: a]

61. Which committee reviews the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in particular ministry/
department?
a) Hindi Salahkar Samiti b)Parliamentary Committee
c) Official Language Committee d) None of these
[Answer: a]

62. When was the present parliamentary committee on official language constituted?
a) September 1975 b) January 1975 c) September 1976 d) January 1976
[Answer: d]

63. How many members are there in the committee of parliamentary on official Language?
a)21 b)25 c)27 d)30
[Answer: d]

64. How many Lok Sabha members will be there in the committee of parliamentary on official language?
a)21 b)25 c)27 d) 20
[Answer: d]

65. At present, how many sub-committees are there in the parliamentary committee on official language
a) 2 sub-committees b) 3 sub-committees c) 4 sub-committees a) 5 sub-committees
[Answer: b]

66. What is the main duty of the committee of parliament on official language?
a) To review the progressive use of Hindi
b) To review the expenditure incurred for implementation of Hindi
c) To review the regions based on use of Hindi
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

67. Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee constituted in major
cities
a) Senior most central government officer of the city
b) Senior most state government officer of the city
c) Senior most railway officer of the city
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

68. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Official Language Implementation Committee?
a) once in 3 months b) once in 6 months c) once in 9 months d) once in 12 months
[Answer: a]

69. What is the periodicity meeting of Town Officials Language Implementation Committee?
a) once in 3 months b) once in 6 months c) once in 9 months d) once in 12 months
[Answer: b]
70. Who prepares the annual program on Official Language?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of LAW
c) Ministry of HRD d) None of these
[Answer: a]

71. What are the Hindi courses prescribed for central government employees
a) Prabodh & Praveen b) Praveen & Pragya
c) Praveen, Pragya & Parangat d) Prabodh, Praveen, Pragya and Parangat
[Answer: d]

72. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for Clerical Cadre Employees Of Central Government
a) Praveen b) Pragya c) Parangat d) Prabodh
[Answer: c]

73. What are the training facilities available to a central government employee to get trained in the Hindi
courses
a) Regular b) Intensive c) Correspondence and Private d) All of these
[Answer: d]

74. How many times the regular Hindi exams are conducted in a year?
a) One Time b) Two Times c) Three Times d) Four Times
[Answer: b]

75. In which months regular Hindi examinations are conducted

a) April and October b) May and November c) June and December d) None of these
[Answer: b]

76. Who are eligible to be trained in the Hindi courses

a) All the central government employees b) All the central government employees in class III
c) All the central government employees in class III and above officials d) None of these
[Answer: c]

77. Name the newly introduced course in Hindi by Hindi teaching scheme?
a) Praveen b) Pragya c) Parangat d) Prabodh
[Answer: c]

78. Which course a category ‘C’ employee required to be trained

a) Praveen b) Pragya c) Parangat d) Prabodh
[Answer: b]

79. From which course a category ‘D’ employee required to be trained

a) Praveen b) Pragya c) Parangat d) Prabodh
[Answer: d]

80. What is the Lumpsum award for passing pragya?

a) Rs.1200 b) Rs.1600 c) Rs.2000 d) Rs.2400
[Answer: d]
81. How many officers/ employees are warded every year from southern railway under Railway Board’s
Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme
a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Eight
[Answer: d]

82. How many first prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit under home
ministries award scheme?
a) Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b) Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c) Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d) None of these
[Answer: c]

83. How many second prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit under
home ministries award scheme?
a) Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b) Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c) Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d) None of these
[Answer: b]

84. How many third prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit under home
ministries award scheme?
a) Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b) Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c) Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

85. In which order name, designation and sign boards are to be exhibited?
a) 1. Regional Language 2. Hindi and 3. English
b) 1. Hindi 2. English and 3. Regional Language
c) 1. English 2. Hindi and 3. Regional Language
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

86. In which order the forms used by public are to be prepared

a) 1. Regional Language 2. Hindi and 3. English
b) 1. Hindi 2. English and 3. Regional Language
c) 1. English 2. Hindi and 3. Regional Language
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

87. In which order rubber stamps are to be prepared

a) Hindi- English bi-lingual form-one line Hindi and one line English
b) English - Hindi bi-lingual form-one line English and one line Hindi
c) Both a and b d) None of these
[Answer: a]
88. What is the Lumpsum award for passing Hindi type writing examination by private study?
a) Rs.1200 b) Rs.1600 c) Rs.2000 d) Rs.2400
[Answer: b]

89. What is the foreign language included in the Eighth schedule

a) English b) Bhutanese c) Nepali d)Russian
[Answer: c]

90. Who is the chairman of the Divisional Official Language Implementation Committee?
a) Sr.DPO b) ADRM c) DRM d) Senior Rajbhasha Adhikari
[Answer: c]

91--------- ministry/ office is conducting the exams under Hindi Teaching Scheme for the central
government employees
a) Law ministry b) Home ministry c) HRD ministry d) None of these
[Answer: b]

92. Who is eligible for Lumpsum award

a) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by more than 95%
b) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by more than 85%
c) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by private efforts
d) None of these
[Answer: c]

93. In which order are the station announcements made?

a) Tri lingual (Hindi, Regional and English)
b) Tri lingual (English, Regional and Hindi)
c) Tri lingual (Regional, Hindi and English)
d) None of these
[Answer: c]

94. In which proportion the roof board has to be displayed

a) In equal proportion- Tri lingual
b) In equal proportion- bi lingual
c) 1:2:3 proportion- Tri lingual
d) None of these
[Answer: a]

95. How the panel board of a train has to be displayed

a) Tri lingual (Hindi, Regional and English)
b) Tri lingual (English, Regional and Hindi)
c) Tri lingual (Regional, Hindi and English)
d) None of these
[Answer: c]

96. What is the amount of honorarium given to the OLIC clerks?

a)Rs.600/- b) Rs.800/- c)Rs.1000/- d) Rs.1200/-
[Answer: a]
97. What is the duration for Hindi conversation course?
a) 15 hours b) 20 hours c) 25 hours d) 30 hours
[Answer: d]

98. What is the amount of cash award for passing Hindi typing with 88% or more but less than 92%
Of marks
a)Rs.600/- b) Rs.800/- c)Rs.1000/- d) Rs.1200/-
[Answer: b]

99. What is the amount for passing Hindi stenography with 95% or more marks
a)Rs.2400 b) Rs.2600 c)Rs.2800 d)Rs.3000
[Answer: a]

100. What is the honorarium amount given to part-time Hindi Librarian per month?
a)Rs.600/- b) Rs.800/- c)Rs.1000/- d) Rs.1200/-
[Answer: c]

101. What is the Lumpsum award given for passing Hindi Stenography examination?
a)Rs.2400 b) Rs.2600 c)Rs.2800 d)Rs.3000
[Answer: d]

102. Mention the name of Rajbhasha Padak awarded to Senior Administrative Grade or higher official
a) Railmantri Rajbhasha Swarna Padak b) Railmantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award d) Adarsh Rail Award
[Answer: b]

103. Name the Railway Mantri Rajbhasha shield/ trophy awarded to Head of Office of Zonal Railways
a) Railmantri Rajbhasha Swarna Padak b) Railmantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award d) Adarsh Rail Award
[Answer: d]

104. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing original Hindi books on technical subjects by
Railway Board
a) Maithili Sharan Gupta Award b) Prem chand Award
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award d) Adarsh Rail Award
[Answer: c]

105. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing story/ novel in Hindi by Railway Board
a) Maithili Sharan Gupta Award b) Prem chand Award
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award d) Adarsh Rail Award
[Answer: b]

106. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing the book of Hindi poems, by Railway Board
a) Maithili Sharan Gupta Award b) Prem chand Award
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award d) Adarsh Rail Award
[Answer: a]
107. What is the cash award given under, Kamalapati Tripati Rajbhasha Swarna Padak
a) Swarna Padak + 5,000 cash and certificate b) Swarna Padak + 10,000 cash and certificate
c) Swarna Padak + 15,000 cash and certificate d) None of these
[Answer: d]
108. Kamalapathi Tripathi Rajbhasha swarna padak is awarded to how many members every year
a) Awarded to 01 officer b) Awarded to 02 officer
c) Awarded to 03 officer d) None of these
[Answer: a]

109. What is the cash award given under, Railmantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak
a) Rajat Padak + 6,000 cash and certificate b) Rajat Padak + 8,000 cash and certificate
c) Rajat Padak + 10,000 cash and certificate d) None of these
[Answer: b]

110. Rail Mantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak is given to how many members every year
a) Awarded to 30 officers b) Awarded to 30 officers
c) Awarded to 30 officers d) Awarded to 30 officers
[Answer: d]

111. What is the amount given under Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme?
a) Rs.2000/- + Certificate b) Rs.3000/- + Certificate
c) Rs.5000/- + Certificate d) Rs.10,000/- + Certificate
[Answer: b]