Operating System MCQs

Chapter No 01:- Introduction and Operating system structures

1. Which of the following is not an operating system?
a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Oracle
d. DOS

2. What is the maximum length of the filename in DOS?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 8
d. 12

3. When was the first operating system developed?

a. 1948
b. 1949
c. 1952
d. 1951

4. When were MS windows operating systems proposed?

a. 1994
b. 1990
c. 1992
d. 1985

5. What else is a command interpreter called?

a. Prompt
b. Kernel
c. Shell
d. Command

6. What is the full name of FAT?

a. File Attribute Table
b. File Allocation Table
c. Font Attribute Table
d. Format Allocation Table

7. BIOS is used?
a. By operating system
b. By compiler
c. By interpreter
 d. By application Software

8. When does page fault occur?

a. The page is present in memory.

b. The deadlock occurs.

c. The page does not present in memory.
d. The buffering occurs.

9. Banker's algorithm is used?

a. To prevent deadlock
b. To deadlock recovery
c. To solve the deadlock
d. None of these

10. When you delete a file in your computer, where does it go?
a. Recycle bin
b. Hard disk
c. Taskbar
d. None of these

11. Which is the Linux operating system?

a. Private operating system
b. Windows operating system
c. Open-source operating system
d. None of these

12. What is the full name of the DSM?

a. Direct system module
b. Direct system memory
c. Demoralized system memory
d. Distributed shared memory

13. What is the full name of the IDL?

a. Interface definition language
b. Interface direct language
c. Interface data library
d. None of these
14. What is the fence register used for?
a. To disk protection
b. To CPU protection
c. To memory protection
d. None of these

15. Which of the following is a single-user operating system?

a. Windows
b. MAC
c. Ms-Dos
d. None of these

16. The size of virtual memory is based on which of the following?

a. CPU
b. RAM
c. Address bus
d. Data bus

17. Which of the following supports Windows 64 bit?

a. Window XP
b. Window 2000
c. Window 1998
d. None of these

18. Which of the following windows does not have a start button?
a. Windows 7
b. Windows 8
c. Windows XP
d. None of these

19. Which of the following operating systems does not support more than one program at a
time?
a. Linux
b. Windows
c. MAC
d. DOS

20. Which of the following is a condition that causes deadlock?

a. Mutual exclusion
 b. Hold and wait
c. Circular wait
d. No preemption
e. All of these

21. Who provides the interface to access the services of the operating system?
a. API
b. System call
c. Library
d. Assembly instruction

22. Where are placed the list of processes that are prepared to be executed and waiting?
a. Job queue
b. Ready queue
c. Execution queue
d. Process queue

23. Who among the following can block the running process?
a. Fork
b. Read
c. Down
d. All of these

24. Which of the following does not interrupt the running process?
a. Timer interrupt
b. Device
c. Power failure
d. Scheduler process

25. What is Microsoft window?

a. Operating system
b. Graphics program
c. Word Processing
d. Database program

26. Which of the following is group of programs?

a. Accessories
 b. Paint
c. Word
d. All of above

27. Which of the following is an example of a Real Time Operating System?

a. MAC
b. MS-DOS
c. Windows 10
d. Process Control

28. What type of commands are required to perform various tasks in DOS?
a. Internal commands
b. External commands
c. Valuable commands
d. Primary commands

29. What is the number of characters contained in the primary name of the file of MS-DOS?
a. Up to 8 characters
b. 3 characters
c. Up to 10 characters
d. None of the above

30. Which command is used to fetch a group (.doc) of files that have just been deleted?
a. Undelete
b. Undelete/all
c. Undelete *.doc
d. All of above

31. Which of the following is system software?

a. Operating system
b. Compiler
c. Utilities
d. All of the above

32. Which program runs first after booting the computer and loading the GUI?
a. Desktop Manager
 b. File Manager
c. Windows Explorer
d. Authentication

33. What is an operating system?

a. collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b. system service provider to the application programs
c. interface between the hardware and application programs
d. all of the mentioned
34. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________
a. System calls
b. API
c. Library
d. Assembly instructions
35. Which one of the following is not true?
a. kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b. kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
c. kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating
system
d. kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
36. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating system?
a. power failure
b. lack of paper in printer
c. connection failure in the network
d. all of the mentioned
37. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a. to get and execute the next user-specified command
b. to provide the interface between the API and application program
c. to handle the files in operating system
d. none of the mentioned
38. In Operating Systems, which of the following is/are CPU scheduling algorithms?
a. Round Robin
b. Shortest Job First
c. Priority
d. All of the mentioned
39. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a. log file
 b. another running process
c. new file
d. none of the mentioned
40. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user processes and in
the kernel?
a. DTrace
b. DLocate
c. DMap
d. DAdd
41. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a. VxWorks
b. QNX
c. RTLinux
d. Palm OS
42. The OS X has ____________
a. monolithic kernel
b. hybrid kernel
c. microkernel
d. monolithic kernel with modules
43. In real time operating system ____________
a. all processes have the same priority
b. a task must be serviced by its deadline period
c. process scheduling can be done only once
d. kernel is not required
44. Hard real time operating system has ______________ jitter than a soft real time operating
system.
a. Less
b. More
c. Equal
d. none of the mentioned
45. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be ____________
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Zero
d. dependent on the scheduling
46. In rate monotonic scheduling ____________
a. shorter duration job has higher priority
 b. longer duration job has higher priority
c. priority does not depend on the duration of the job
d. none of the mentioned
47. In which scheduling certain amount of CPU time is allocated to each process?
a. earliest deadline first scheduling
b. proportional share scheduling
c. equal share scheduling
d. none of the mentioned

48. The problem of priority inversion can be solved by ____________

a. priority inheritance protocol
b. priority inversion protocol
c. both priority inheritance and inversion protocol
d. none of the mentioned

49. Time duration required for scheduling dispatcher to stop one process and start another is
known as ____________
a. process latency
b. dispatch latency
c. execution latency
d. interrupt latency

50. Time required to synchronous switch from the context of one thread to the context of
another thread is called?
a. threads fly-back time
b. jitter
c. context switch time
d. none of the mentioned

51. Which one of the following is a real time operating system?

a. RTLinux
b. VxWorks
c. Windows CE
d. All of the mentioned

52. VxWorks is centered around ____________

a. wind microkernel
b. linux kernel
c. unix kernel
d. none of the mentioned
53. What is the disadvantage of real addressing mode?
a. there is a lot of cost involved
b. time consumption overhead
c. absence of memory protection between processes
d. restricted access to memory locations by processes

54. Preemptive, priority based scheduling guarantees ____________

a. hard real time functionality
 b. soft real time functionality
c. protection of memory
d. none of the mentioned

55. Real time systems must have ____________

a. preemptive kernels
b. non preemptive kernels
c. preemptive kernels or non preemptive kernels
d. neither preemptive nor non preemptive kernels

56. What is Event latency?

a. the amount of time an event takes to occur from when the system started
b. the amount of time from the event occurrence till the system stops
c. the amount of time from event occurrence till the event crashes
d. the amount of time that elapses from when an event occurs to when it is serviced.

57. Interrupt latency refers to the period of time ____________

a. from the occurrence of an event to the arrival of an interrupt
b. from the occurrence of an event to the servicing of an interrupt
c. from arrival of an interrupt to the start of the interrupt service routine
d. none of the mentioned

58. Real time systems need to __________ the interrupt latency.

a. Minimize
b. Maximize
c. not bother about
d. none of the mentioned

59. The amount of time required for the scheduling dispatcher to stop one process and start
another is known as ______________
a. event latency
b. interrupt latency
c. dispatch latency
d. context switch

60. The most effective technique to keep dispatch latency low is to ____________
a. provide non preemptive kernels
b. provide preemptive kernels
c. make it user programmed
d. run less number of processes at a time

61. Priority inversion is solved by use of _____________

a. priority inheritance protocol
b. two phase lock protocol
c. time protocol
d. all of the mentioned
62. In a real time system the computer results ____________
a. must be produced within a specific deadline period
b. may be produced at any time
c. may be correct
 d. all of the mentioned

63. In a safety critical system, incorrect operation ____________

a. does not affect much
b. causes minor problems
c. causes major and serious problems
d. none of the mentioned

64. Antilock brake systems, flight management systems, pacemakers are examples of
____________
a. safety critical system
b. hard real time system
c. soft real time system
d. safety critical system and hard real time system

65. In a ______ real time system, it is guaranteed that critical real time tasks will be completed
within their deadlines.
a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Critical
d. none of the mentioned

66. Some of the properties of real time systems include ____________

a. single purpose
b. inexpensively mass produced
c. small size
d. all of the mentioned

67. The amount of memory in a real time system is generally ____________

a. less compared to PCs
b. high compared to PCs
c. same as in PCs
d. they do not have any memory

68. What is the priority of a real time task?

a. must degrade over time
b. must not degrade over time
c. may degrade over time
d. none of the mentioned

69. Memory management units ____________

a. increase the cost of the system
b. increase the power consumption of the system
c. increase the time required to complete an operation
d. all of the mentioned

70. The technique in which the CPU generates physical addresses directly is known as
____________
a. relocation register method
b. real addressing
c. virtual addressing
 d. none of the mentioned

71. Earliest deadline first algorithm assigns priorities according to ____________

a. Periods
b. Deadlines
c. burst times
d. none of the mentioned

72. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a
CPU burst of 35. The total CPU utilization is ____________
a. 0.90
b. 0.74
c. 0.94
d. 0.80

73. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a
CPU burst of 35., the priorities of P1 and P2 are?
a. remain the same throughout
b. keep varying from time to time
c. may or may not be change
d. none of the mentioned

74. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a
CPU burst of 35., can the two processes be scheduled using the EDF algorithm without
missing their respective deadlines?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. None of the mentioned

75. Using EDF algorithm practically, it is impossible to achieve 100 percent utilization due to
__________
a. the cost of context switching
b. interrupt handling
c. power consumption
d. all of the mentioned

76. T shares of time are allocated among all processes out of N shares in __________
scheduling algorithm.
a. rate monotonic
b. proportional share
c. earliest deadline first
d. none of the mentioned

77. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is
assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
A will have ______ percent of the total processor time.
a. 20
b. 15
c. 50
 d. none of the mentioned

78. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is
assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
B will have ______ percent of the total processor time.
a. 20
b. 15
c. 50
d. none of the mentioned

79. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is
assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
C will have ______ percent of the total processor time.
a. 20
b. 15
c. 50
d. none of the mentioned

80. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is
assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
If a new process D requested 30 shares, the admission controller would __________
a. allocate 30 shares to it
b. deny entry to D in the system
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned
 Operating System MCQs
Chapter No 02:- Processes and CPU Scheduling
01. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?
a. Dispatcher
b. Interrupt
c. Scheduler
d. none of the mentioned

02. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called _____________
a. job queue
b. ready queue
c. execution queue
d. process queue

03. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as ____________
a. waiting time
b. turnaround time
c. response time
d. throughput

04. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?
a. first-come, first-served scheduling
b. shortest job scheduling
c. priority scheduling
d. none of the mentioned

05. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________

a. CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b. CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c. Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d. None of the mentioned
06. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of ____________
a. all process
b. currently running process
c. parent process
d. init process

07. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

a. shortest job scheduling algorithm
b. round robin scheduling algorithm
c. priority scheduling algorithm
d. multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
08. Process are classified into different groups in ____________
a. shortest job scheduling algorithm
b. round robin scheduling algorithm
c. priority scheduling algorithm
d. multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

09. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________

a. a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b. classification of ready queue is permanent
c. processes are not classified into groups
d. none of the mentioned

10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a. kernel level thread
b. user level thread
c. process
d. none of the mentioned

11. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________

a. multiprocessor systems
b. multiprogramming operating systems
c. larger memory sized systems
d. none of the mentioned

12. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.

a. Time
b. Space
c. Money
d. all of the mentioned

13. What are the two steps of a process execution?

a. I/O & OS Burst
b. CPU & I/O Burst
c. Memory & I/O Burst
d. OS & Memory Burst

14. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________

a. a few very short CPU bursts
b. many very short I/O bursts
c. many very short CPU bursts
d. a few very short I/O bursts

15. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.
a. blocked, short term
b. wait, long term
c. ready, short term
d. ready, long term

16. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?

 a. When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b. When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c. When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d. All of the mentioned

17. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called ____________
a. process switch
b. task switch
c. context switch
d. all of the mentioned

18. What is Dispatch latency?

a. the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b. the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU
idle
c. the time to stop one process and start running another one
d. none of the mentioned

19. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a. increase CPU utilization
b. decrease CPU utilization
c. keep the CPU more idle
d. none of the mentioned

20. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a. increase the throughput
b. decrease the throughput
c. increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d. none of the mentioned

21. What is Turnaround time?

a. the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
b. the total time spent in the ready queue
c. the total time spent in the running queue
d. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

22. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a. ncrease the turnaround time
b. decrease the turnaround time
c. keep the turnaround time same
d. there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time

23. What is Waiting time?

a. the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b. the total time spent in the ready queue
c. the total time spent in the running queue
d. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

24. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a. increase the waiting time
 b. keep the waiting time the same
c. decrease the waiting time
d. none of the mentioned

25. What is Response time?

a. the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b. the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c. the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d. none of the mentioned

26. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________

a. Non-preemptive scheduling
b. Preemptive scheduling
c. All of the mentioned
d. None of the mentioned

27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________
a. using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
b. using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
c. using extremely small time slices increases performance
d. using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

28. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with ____________
a. assigning ready processes to CPU
b. assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c. assigning running processes to blocked queue
d. all of the mentioned

29. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________

a. are very appropriate for very large computers
b. use minimal resources
c. use many resources
d. all of the mentioned

30. What is FIFO algorithm?

a. first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b. first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c. first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d. first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

31. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called ____________
a. Non preemptive scheduling
b. Preemptive scheduling
c. Shortest job first
d. First come First served
32. What is Scheduling?
a. allowing a job to use the processor
b. making proper use of processor
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned

33. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for
an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin
time sharing method. Which out of the following quantum times is the best value for
small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
a. tQ = 15ms
b. tQ = 40ms
c. tQ = 45ms
d. tQ = 50ms

34. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a. earliest due date
b. slack time remaining
c. first come, first served
d. critical ratio

35. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a. First come First served
b. Shortest Job First
c. Earliest Deadline First
d. Longest Job First

36. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that
for long jobs is slightly ___________
a. Lengthened; Shortened
b. Shortened; Lengthened
c. Shortened; Shortened
d. Shortened; Unchanged

37. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a. I only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III

38. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

a. FCFS – First come First served
b. SJF – Shortest Job First
c. RR – Round Robin
d. None of the mentioned

39. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
 a. it is too good an algorithm
b. knowing the length of the next CPU request
c. it is too complex to understand
d. none of the mentioned

40. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________

a. time sharing systems
b. multiprogramming systems
c. multiprocessor systems
d. operating systems

41. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in
milliseconds.

Process Burst time

P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a. The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b. The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c. The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d. The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms

42. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called ____________

a. Fast SJF scheduling
b. EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c. HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d. SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next

43. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a. the predicted next CPU burst
b. the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c. the current CPU burst
d. anything the user wants

44. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?

a. it schedules in a very complex manner
b. its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c. it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d. none of the mentioned

45. What is ‘Aging’?

a. keeping track of cache contents
b. keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c. keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d. increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
46. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is
____________
a. Starvation
b. Wait queue
c. Ready queue
d. Aging

47. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a. FCFS
b. SJF
c. Round – robin
d. Priority

48. The OS maintains all PCBs in?

a. Process Scheduling Queues
b. Job queue
c. Ready queue
d. Device queues
49. The processes which are blocked due to unavailability of an I/O device constitute this
queue.
a. Process Scheduling Queues
b. Job queue
c. Ready queue
d. Device queues
50. Two-state process model refers to?
a. running states
b. non-running states
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
51. Which is not a type of Schedulers?
a. Long-Term Scheduler
b. Short-Term Scheduler
c. Medium-Term Scheduler
d. None of the above
52. Which scheduler is also called a job scheduler?
a. Long-Term Scheduler
b. Short-Term Scheduler
c. Medium-Term Scheduler
d. All of the above
53. When the suspended process is moved to the secondary storage. This process is called?
a. process mix.
 b. Swapping
c. Swap-In
d. Swap-Out

54. Which scheduler Speed is fastest?

a. Long-Term Scheduler
b. Short-Term Scheduler
c. Medium-Term Scheduler
d. Swapping
55. Which Schedular is a part of Time sharing systems?
a. Long-Term Scheduler
b. Short-Term Scheduler
c. Medium-Term Scheduler
d. Swapping
56. A_________ is the mechanism to store and restore the state
a. PCB
b. Program Counter
c. Scheduling information
d. context switch
57. Which of the following information is stored when the process is switched?
a. I/O State information
b. Accounting information
c. Base and limit register value
d. All of the above
58. The algorithms are ________.
a. non-preemptive
b. preemptive
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
59. Which of the following is process scheduling algorithms?
a. FCFS
b. SJN
c. RR
d. All of the above

60. Which of the following algorithms work based on priority?

a. non-preemptive
 b. preemptive
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

61. Which of the following is false regarding First Come First Serve (FCFS)?
a. FCFS performance is high
b. average wait time is high.
c. Its implementation is based on FIFO queue.
d. FCFS is easy to understand and implement.
62. Shortest Job Next is also known as?
a. Batch job
b. Advance job
c. shortest job first
d. shortest job last
63. Which of the following is non-preemptive algorithm?
a. Priority Based Scheduling
b. Shortest Remaining Time
c. FCFS
d. shortest job first
64. In Round Robin Scheduling, Each process is provided a fix time to execute, it is called
a?
a. Batch Time
b. Job Time
c. Quantum
d. Period
65. Which of the following is preemptive algorithm?
a. Round Robin Scheduling
b. Shortest Remaining Time
c. Multiple-Level Queues Scheduling
d. Both A and B
66. __________ is used to save states of preempted processes.
a. Context switching
b. Quantam
c. Process Period
d. Batch Jobs
67. In Priority Based Scheduling, if Processes have same priority then which Scheduling
algorithm is used?
a. SJN
 b. FCFS
c. SRT
d. Round Robin

68. What is true about thread?

a. Thread switching does not need to interact with operating system.
b. All threads can share same set of open files, child processes.
c. Multiple threaded processes use fewer resources.
d. All of the above
69. A thread is also called ?
a. heavyweight process
b. lightweight process
c. data segment process
d. overhead process
70. In how many ways Threads are implemented?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
71. Which of the following is not an advantage about thread?
a. Threads minimize the context switching time.
b. Use of threads provides concurrency within a process.
c. kernel is single threaded
d. All of the above
72. Which of the following is true about kernal level thread?
a. Implementation is by a thread library at the user level.
b. Kernel-level threads are slower to create and manage.
c. Multi-threaded applications cannot take advantage of multiprocessing.
d. Both B and C
73. Which of the following is true about user level thread?
a. User level thread is specific to the operating system.
b. User-level routines themselves can be multithreaded.
c. User-level threads are faster to create and manage.
d. All of the above
74. Multithreading models are _________ types?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
 d. 5
75. The kernel is _______ of user threads.
a. a part of
b. the creator of
c. unaware of
d. aware of
76. Multithreading on a multi : CPU machine ___________
a. decreases concurrency
b. increases concurrency
c. doesn't affect the concurrency
d. can increase or decrease the concurrency
77. The jacketing technique is used to ___________
a. convert a blocking system call into non blocking system call
b. create a new thread
c. communicate between threads
d. terminate a thread
 Operating System MCQs
Chapter No 03:- Process Synchronization

01. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a. cooperating process
b. child process
c. parent process
d. init process

02. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the
execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place is called
_______
a. dynamic condition
b. race condition
c. essential condition
d. critical condition

03. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in
their critical section. What is this condition called?
a. mutual exclusion
b. critical exclusion
c. synchronous exclusion
d. asynchronous exclusion

04. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?

a. Thread
b. Pipe
c. Semaphore
d. Socket

05. A semaphore is a shared integer variable __________

a. that can not drop below zero
b. that can not be more than zero
c. that can not drop below one
d. that can not be more than one

06. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________

a. mutex locks
b. binary semaphores
c. both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d. none of the mentioned

07. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively
inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a. priority inversion
b. priority removal
c. priority exchange
 d. priority modification

08. Process synchronization can be done on __________

a. hardware level
b. software level
c. both hardware and software level
d. none of the mentioned

09. A monitor is a module that encapsulates __________

a. shared data structures
b. procedures that operate on shared data structure
c. synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d. all of the mentioned

10. To enable a process to wait within the monitor __________

a. a condition variable must be declared as condition
b. condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c. semaphore must be used
d. all of the mentioned

11. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________

a. data consistency
b. data insecurity
c. data inconsistency
d. none of the mentioned

12. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently
and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes
place is called ____________
a. data consistency
b. race condition
c. aging
d. starvation

13. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables,
write into files is known as ____________
a. Program
b. critical section
c. non – critical section
d. synchronizing

14. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?
a. Mutual Exclusion
b. Progress
c. Bounded Waiting
d. All of the mentioned

15. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________

a. if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be
executing in their critical sections
 b. if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing
in their critical sections
c. if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system
must be blocked until it finishes execution
d. none of the mentioned

16. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is
allowed to enter its critical section ____________
a. after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the
request is granted
b. when another process is in its critical section
c. before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
d. none of the mentioned

17. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve
the critical section problem.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

18. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem ____________
a. each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b. each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the
lowest number is served next
c. each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d. each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next

19. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________

a. Single
b. Atomic
c. Static
d. none of the mentioned

20. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________

a. after a particular process
b. periodically
c. atomically
d. none of the mentioned

21. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.

a. hardware for a system
b. special program for a system
c. integer variable
d. none of the mentioned

22. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?

a. Wait
b. Stop
c. Hold
 d. none of the mentioned

23. What are Spinlocks?

a. CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b. Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c. Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d. All of the mentioned

24. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a. they are not sufficient for many process
b. they require busy waiting
c. they are unreliable sometimes
d. they are too complex for programmers

25. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a. stop()
b. block()
c. hold()
d. wait()

26. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a. continue()
b. wakeup()
c. getup()
d. start()

27. If the semaphore value is negative ____________

a. its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b. it is invalid
c. no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on
it
d. none of the mentioned

28. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ___________
a. remainder section code
b. non – critical section code
c. critical section code
d. none of the mentioned

29. The following program consists of 3 concurrent processes and 3 binary semaphores. The
semaphores are initialized as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0.
Process P0
while(true)
{
wait(S0);
print '0';
release(S1);
release(S2);
}
Process P1
wait(S1);
release(S0);

Process P2
wait(S2);
release(S0);
How many times will P0 print ‘0’?
a. At least twice
b. Exactly twice
c. Exactly thrice
d. Exactly once

30. Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is coded as follows.

repeat
P(mutex)
{Critical Section}
V(mutex)
forever
The code for P10 is identical except that it uses V(mutex) instead of P(mutex). What is the
largest number of processes that can be inside the critical section at any moment (the mutex
being initialized to 1)?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the mentioned

31. Two processes, P1 and P2, need to access a critical section of code. Consider the
following synchronization construct used by the processes.
Process P1 :
while(true)
{
w1 = true;
while(w2 == true);
Critical section
w1 = false;
}
Remainder Section

Process P2 :
while(true)
{
w2 = true;
while(w1 == true);
Critical section
w2 = false;
}
Remainder Section
Here, w1 and w2 have shared variables, which are initialized to false. Which one of the
following statements is TRUE about the above construct?

a. It does not ensure mutual exclusion

b. It does not ensure bounded waiting
c. It requires that processes enter the critical section in strict alternation
d. It does not prevent deadlocks but ensures mutual exclusion

32. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a. Starvation
b. Deadlock
c. Aging
d. Signaling

33. What is a semaphore?

a. is a binary mutex
b. must be accessed from only one process
c. can be accessed from multiple processes
d. none of the mentioned

34. What are the two kinds of semaphores?

a. mutex & counting
b. binary & counting
c. counting & decimal
d. decimal & binary

35. What is a mutex?

a. is a binary mutex
b. must be accessed from only one process
c. can be accessed from multiple processes
d. none of the mentioned

36. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P

operations and 15 V operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of
the semaphore is? (GATE 1987)
a. 42
b. 2
c. 7
d. 12

37. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________

a. 1
b. -1
c. 0.8
d. 0.5

38. The following pair of processes share a common variable X.

Process A
int Y;
A1: Y = X*2;
A2: X = Y;

Process B
int Z;
B1: Z = X+1;
B2: X = Z;
X is set to 5 before either process begins execution. As usual, statements within a process are
executed sequentially, but statements in process A may execute in any order with respect to
statements in process B.
How many different values of X are possible after both processes finish executing?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. eight

39. The program follows to use a shared binary semaphore T.

Process A
int Y;
A1: Y = X*2;
A2: X = Y;
signal(T);

Process B
int Z;
B1: wait(T);
B2: Z = X+1;
X = Z;
T is set to 0 before either process begins execution and, as before, X is set to 5.
Now, how many different values of X are possible after both processes finish executing?
a. One
b. Two
c. three
d. four
40. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________
a. System calls
b. IPC mechanisms
c. System protection
d. None of the mentioned

41. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.

a. Mutual Exclusion
b. Bounded Waiting
c. Aging
d. Progress

42. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________

a. Readers – Writers problem
 b. Dining – Philosophers problem
c. Producer – Consumer problem
d. None of the mentioned

43. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that
____________
a. count the number of empty and full buffers
b. count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c. count the number of empty and full queues
d. none of the mentioned

44. In the bounded buffer problem ____________

a. there is only one buffer
b. there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c. there are infinite buffers
d. the buffer size is bounded

45. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem _______ are given
exclusive access to the shared object.
a. Readers
b. Writers
c. readers and writers
d. none of the mentioned

46. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________

a. 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b. 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c. 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d. 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks

47. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem ___________

a. necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b. does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c. eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
d. none of the mentioned
48. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must
execute wait(mutex) before entering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
signal(mutex);
.....
critical section
.....
wait(mutex);
In this situation :
a. a deadlock will occur
b. processes will starve to enter critical section
c. several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d. all of the mentioned
 49. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must
execute wait(mutex) before entering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
wait(mutex);
.....
critical section
.....
wait(mutex);
a. a deadlock will occur
b. processes will starve to enter critical section
c. several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d. all of the mentioned

50. Consider the methods used by processes P1 and P2 for accessing their critical sections
whenever needed, as given below. The initial values of shared boolean variables S1 and
S2 are randomly assigned. (GATE 2010)
Method used by P1 :
while(S1==S2);
Critical section
S1 = S2;

Method used by P2 :
while(S1!=S2);
Critical section
S2 = not(S1);
Which of the following statements describes properties achieved?

a. Mutual exclusion but not progress

b. Progress but not mutual exclusion
c. Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
d. Both mutual exclusion and progress

51. A monitor is a type of ____________

a. Semaphore
b. low level synchronization construct
c. high level synchronization construct
d. none of the mentioned

52. A monitor is characterized by ____________

a. a set of programmer defined operators
b. an identifier
c. the number of variables in it
d. all of the mentioned

53. A procedure defined within a ________ can access only those variables declared locally
within the _______ and its formal parameters.
a. process, semaphore
b. process, monitor
c. semaphore, semaphore
 d. monitor, monitor

54. The monitor construct ensures that ____________

a. only one process can be active at a time within the monitor
b. n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor (n being greater than
1)
c. the queue has only one process in it at a time
d. all of the mentioned

55. What are the operations that can be invoked on a condition variable?
a. wait & signal
b. hold & wait
c. signal & hold
d. continue & signal

56. Which is the process of invoking the wait operation?

a. suspended until another process invokes the signal operation
b. waiting for another process to complete before it can itself call the signal operation
c. stopped until the next process in the queue finishes execution
d. none of the mentioned

57. If no process is suspended, the signal operation ___________

a. puts the system into a deadlock state
b. suspends some default process execution
c. nothing happens
d. the output is unpredictable

58. Which of the following variable wait within the to enable a process
a. a condition is defined by a condition variable
b. objects Boolean objects can be used by condition variables
c. semaphore must be used
d. all of the mentioned
e. both a and b
f. None of these
59. In which the access takes place when different processes try to access the same data
concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the specific order, is called
a. dynamic condition
b. race condition
c. essential condition
d. critical condition
e. both a and b
f. None of these

60. Which of the following option is suitable when a process is executing in its critical
section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical section
a. mutual exclusion
b. critical exclusion
c. synchronous exclusion
d. d asynchronous exclusion
e. e. both a and b
 f. f. none of these

61. Synchronization tool is?

a. Thread
b. Pipe
c. Semaphore
d. Socket
e. both a and b
f. None of these

62. A semaphore is a shared integer variable that can not

a. drop below zero
b. be more than zero
c. drop below one
d. that cannot be more than one
e. both a and b
f. None of these

63. Which of the following for Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
a. mutex locks
b. binary semaphores
c. both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d. none of the mentioned
e. both a and b
f. None of these

64. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority the scenario is called
a. priority inversion
b. priority removal
c. priority exchange
d. priority modification
e. both a and b
f. None of these

65. Process synchronization can be done on which of the following levels

a. Hardware
b. Software
c. both hardware and software
d. none of the mentioned
e. both a and b
f. None of these

66. A monitor is a module and monitor which of the following can encapsulates
a. shared data structures
b. procedures that operate on shared data structure
c. synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d. all of the mentioned
e. both a and b
f. none of these
67. Which of the following process can be affected by other processes during execution in
the system?
a. init process
b. child process
c. parent process
d. cooperating process
e. both a and b
f. None of these

68. How can we avoid deadlock

a. resource allocation must be done at once
b. there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
c. all deadlock process must be aborted
d. inversion technique can be used
e. A and B both
f. None of these
 Operating System MCQs
Chapter No 04:- Deadlocks
01. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is applicable when
____________
a. all resources have a single instance
b. all resources have multiple instances
c. all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d. all of the mentioned

02. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that ____________
a. Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs
b. Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c. Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d. Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

03. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________

a. then a deadlock does not exist
b. then a deadlock exists
c. then the system is in a safe state
d. either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

04. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be invoked ________
a. Rarely
b. Frequently
c. rarely & frequently
d. none of the mentioned

05. What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for every request?
a. overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory
b. excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory
c. considerable overhead in computation time
d. all of the mentioned

06. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU utilization to
______
a. Increase
b. Drop
c. stay still
d. none of the mentioned

07. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately, the detection
algorithm is invoked. This will help identify ____________
a. the set of processes that have been deadlocked
b. the set of processes in the deadlock queue\
c. the specific process that caused the deadlock
d. all of the mentioned
08. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with ‘n’ processes competing for them. Each
process may need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of ‘n’ for which the system is
guaranteed to be deadlock free is?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1

09. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2
units then, deadlock ____________
a. can never occur
b. may occur
c. has to occur
d. none of the mentioned

10. ‘m’ processes share ‘n’ resources of the same type. The maximum need of each process
doesn’t exceed ‘n’ and the sum of all their maximum needs is always less than m+n. In
this setup, deadlock ____________
a. can never occur
b. may occur
c. has to occur
d. none of the mentioned

11. What is a reusable resource?

a. that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b. that can be used by more than one process at a time
c. that can be shared between various threads
d. none of the mentioned

12. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?

a. mutual exclusion
b. a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c. no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d. all of the mentioned

13. A system is in the safe state if ____________

a. the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a
deadlock
b. there exist a safe sequence
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned

14. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________

a. defining a linear ordering of resource types
b. using thread
c. using pipes
d. all of the mentioned

15. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?

a. banker’s algorithm
b. round-robin algorithm
 c. elevator algorithm
d. karn’s algorithm

16. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?

a. in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b. the number of processes changes as time progresses
c. resource once available can disappear
d. all of the mentioned

17. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?

a. every time a resource request is made
b. at fixed time intervals
c. every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d. none of the mentioned

18. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary

resources is called ____________
a. Deadlock
b. Starvation
c. Inversion
d. Aging

19. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock
occurrence?
a. resource allocation graph
b. starvation graph
c. inversion graph
d. none of the mentioned

20. To avoid deadlock ____________

a. there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b. resource allocation must be done only once
c. all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d. inversion technique can be used

21. The number of resources requested by a process ____________

a. must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b. must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c. must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d. must exceed the total number of resources available in the system

22. The request and release of resources are ___________

a. command line statements
b. interrupts
c. system calls
d. special programs

23. What are Multithreaded programs?

a. lesser prone to deadlocks
b. more prone to deadlocks
c. not at all prone to deadlocks
 d. none of the mentioned

24. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a. Mutual exclusion
b. No preemption
c. Hold and wait
d. All of the mentioned

25. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________

a. at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b. the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c. there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d. all of the mentioned

26. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________

a. A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then
request to acquire it
b. A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire
additional resources that are being held by other processes
c. A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional
resources
d. None of the mentioned

27. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________

a. to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b. to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c. to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d. to recover from a deadlock

28. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________
a. must exist
b. must not exist
c. may exist
d. none of the mentioned

29. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________

a. is required
b. is not required
c. may be or may not be required
d. none of the mentioned

30. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured
that ____________
a. whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b. each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its
execution
c. a process can request resources only when it has none
d. all of the mentioned

31. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its
execution is ____________
 a. Low CPU utilization
b. Low resource utilization
c. Very high resource utilization
d. None of the mentioned

32. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another
resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it ___________
a. then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b. the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c. the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d. then all resources currently being held are preempted

33. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________
a. impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one
precedes another in the ordering
b. to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c. to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d. all of the mentioned

34. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
a. resources currently available
b. processes that have previously been in the system
c. resources currently allocated to each process
d. future requests and releases of each process

35. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of each type that
maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures
that the system will never enter a deadlock state.
a. Minimum
b. average
c. maximum
d. approximate

36. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.
a. resource allocation state
b. system storage state
c. operating system
d. resources

37. A state is safe, if ____________

a. the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence
b. the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a
deadlock
c. the state keeps the system protected and safe
d. all of the mentioned

38. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________\

a. safe allocation
b. safe resource
 c. safe sequence
d. all of the mentioned

39. All unsafe states are ____________

a. Deadlocks
b. not deadlocks
c. fatal
d. none of the mentioned

40. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0
requires 10 tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape drives.
Process
P0
P1
P2
Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top to bottom)
10
4
9
Currently allocated (process-wise)
5
2
2
Which of the following sequence is a safe sequence?
a. P0, P1, P2
b. P1, P2, P0
c. P2, P0, P1
d. P1, P0, P2

41. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________

a. then the system will not be in a safe state
b. then the system will be in a safe state
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned

42. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource allocation system
____________
a. with multiple instances of each resource type
b. with a single instance of each resource type
c. single & multiple instances of each resource type
d. none of the mentioned

43. The Banker’s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation graph algorithm.
a. less efficient
 b. more efficient
c. equal
d. none of the mentioned

44. The data structures available in the Banker’s algorithm are ____________
a. Available
b. Need
c. Allocation
d. All of the mentioned

45. The content of the matrix Need is ____________

a. Allocation – Available
b. Max – Available
c. Max – Allocation
d. Allocation – Max

46. A system with 5 processes P0 through P4 and three resource types A, B, C have A with
10 instances, B with 5 instances, and C with 7 instances. At time t0, the following
snapshot has been taken:
Process
P0
P1
P2
P3
P4

Allocation (process-wise : P0 through P4 top TO bottom)

A B C
0 1 0
2 0 0
3 0 2
2 1 1
0 0 2

MAX (process-wise: P0 through P4 top TO bottom)

A B C
7 5 3
3 2 2
9 0 2
2 2 2
4 3 3

Available
A B C
3 3 2
The sequence <P1, P3, P4, P2, P0> leads the system to ____________
a. an unsafe state
b. a safe state
c. a protected state
d. a deadlock
47. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a. abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b. abort all the process in the system
c. preempt all resources from all processes
d. none of the mentioned

48. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are ____________
a. Abort all deadlocked processes
b. Abort all processes
c. Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d. All of the mentioned

49. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of

which?
a. is more time consuming
b. incurs minimum cost
c. safety is not hampered
d. all of the mentioned

50. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?
a. priority of the process
b. process is interactive or batch
c. how long the process has computed
d. all of the mentioned

51. Cost factors for process termination include ____________

a. Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b. CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c. Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its
execution
d. All of the mentioned

52. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its normal
execution and it must be ____________
a. Aborted
b. rolled back
c. terminated
d. queued

53. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about the states of
processes.
a. abort the process
b. roll back the process
c. queue the process
d. none of the mentioned

54. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can occur.
a. Deadlock
b. system crash
c. aging
d. starvation
55. What is the solution to starvation?
a. the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor
b. the number of resources must be included in resource preemption
c. resource preemption be done instead
d. all of the mentioned
 Operating System MCQs
Chapter No 05:- Memory Management

01. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of ____________
a. program counter
b. status register
c. instruction register
d. program status word

02. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called ____________

a. stack pointer
b. cache
c. accumulator
d. disk buffer

03. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?

a. physical address
b. absolute address
c. logical address
d. none of the mentioned

04. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by ____________
a. Memory management unit
b. CPU
c. PCI
d. None of the mentioned

05. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from
secondary storage for use in main memory is called?
a. Fragmentation
b. Paging
c. Mapping
d. none of the mentioned

06. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________

a. stack pointer
b. page table base register
c. page register
d. program counter

07. Program always deals with ____________

a. logical address
b. absolute address
c. physical address
d. relative address

08. The page table contains ____________

a. base address of each page in physical memory
 b. page offset
c. page size
d. none of the mentioned

09. What is compaction?

a. a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b. a paging technique
c. a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d. a technique for overcoming fatal error

10. Operating System maintains the page table for ____________

a. each process
b. each thread
c. each instruction
d. each address

11. What is Address Binding?

a. going to an address in memory
b. locating an address with the help of another address
c. binding two addresses together to form a new address in a different memory space
d. a mapping from one address space to another

12. Binding of instructions and data to memory addresses can be done at ____________
a. Compile time
b. Load time
c. Execution time
d. All of the mentioned

13. If the process can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to another,
then binding must be ____________
a. delayed until run time
b. preponed to compile time
c. preponed to load time
d. none of the mentioned

14. What is Dynamic loading?

a. loading multiple routines dynamically
b. loading a routine only when it is called
c. loading multiple routines randomly
d. none of the mentioned

15. What is the advantage of dynamic loading?

a. A used routine is used multiple times
b. An unused routine is never loaded
c. CPU utilization increases
d. All of the mentioned

16. The idea of overlays is to ____________

a. data that are needed at any given time
b. enable a process to be larger than the amount of memory allocated to it
c. keep in memory only those instructions
 d. all of the mentioned

17. The ___________ must design and program the overlay structure.
a. Programmer
b. system architect
c. system designer
d. none of the mentioned

18. The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.

a. Memory manager
b. CPU
c. CPU manager
d. User

19. If a higher priority process arrives and wants service, the memory manager can swap out
the lower priority process to execute the higher priority process. When the higher priority
process finishes, the lower priority process is swapped back in and continues execution.
This variant of swapping is sometimes called?
a. priority swapping
b. pull out, push in
c. roll out, roll in
d. none of the mentioned

20. If binding is done at assembly or load time, then the process _____ be moved to different
locations after being swapped out and in again.
a. Can
b. Must
c. can never
d. may

21. In a system that does not support swapping ____________

a. the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses (variables) to relocatable
addresses
b. the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses to physical addresses
c. the loader binds relocatable addresses to physical addresses
d. binding of symbolic addresses to physical addresses normally takes place during
execution

22. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. Overlays are used to increase the size of physical memory
b. Overlays are used to increase the logical address space
c. When overlays are used, the size of a process is not limited to the size of the
physical memory
d. Overlays are used whenever the physical address space is smaller than the logical
address space

23. The address generated by the CPU is referred to as ____________

a. Physical address
b. Logical address
c. Neither physical nor logical
d. None of the mentioned
24. The address loaded into the memory address register of the memory is referred to as
____________
a. Physical address
b. Logical address
c. Neither physical nor logical
d. None of the mentioned

25. The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a hardware device
called the ___________
a. Virtual to physical mapper
b. Memory management unit
c. Memory mapping unit
d. None of the mentioned

26. The base register is also known as the ____________

a. basic register
b. regular register
c. relocation register
d. delocation register

27. The size of a process is limited to the size of ____________

a. physical memory
b. external storage
c. secondary storage
d. none of the mentioned

28. If execution time binding is being used, then a process ______ be swapped to a different
memory space.
a. has to be
b. can never
c. must
d. may

29. Swapping requires a _________

a. Motherboard
b. Keyboard
c. Monitor
d. backing store

30. The backing store is generally a ___________

a. fast disk
b. disk large enough to accommodate copies of all memory images for all users
c. disk to provide direct access to the memory images
d. all of the mentioned

31. The ________ consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or
in memory and are ready to run.
a. wait queue
b. ready queue
c. cpu
 d. secondary storage

32. The _________ time in a swap out of a running process and swap in of a new process
into the memory is very high.
a. context – switch
b. waiting
c. execution
d. all of the mentioned

33. The major part of swap time is _______ time

a. Waiting
b. Transfer
c. Execution
d. none of the mentioned

34. Swapping _______ be done when a process has pending I/O, or has to execute I/O
operations only into operating system buffers.
a. Must
b. Can
c. must never
d. maybe

35. Swap space is allocated ____________

a. as a chunk of disk
b. separate from a file system
c. into a file system
d. all of the mentioned

36. The main memory accommodates ____________

a. operating system
b. cpu
c. user processes
d. all of the mentioned

37. What is the operating system?

a. in the low memory
b. in the high memory
c. either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
d. none of the mentioned

38. In contiguous memory allocation ____________

a. each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
b. all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
c. the memory space is contiguous
d. none of the mentioned

39. The relocation register helps in ____________

a. providing more address space to processes
b. a different address space to processes
c. to protect the address spaces of processes
d. none of the mentioned
40. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be _______ the limit
register.
a. less than
b. equal to
c. greater than
d. none of the mentioned

41. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an
already running process because ____________
a. they are in different memory spaces
b. they are in different logical addresses
c. they have a protection algorithm
d. every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and
limit registers

42. Transient operating system code is code that ____________

a. is not easily accessible
b. comes and goes as needed
c. stays in the memory always
d. never enters the memory space

43. Using transient code, _______ the size of the operating system during program execution.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Changes
d. Maintains

44. When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition may contain
________
a. exactly one process
b. at least one process
c. multiple processes at once
d. none of the mentioned

45. In fixed size partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by ___________

a. the number of partitions
b. the CPU utilization
c. the memory size
d. all of the mentioned

46. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a ______
a. process from a queue to put in memory
b. processor to run the next process
c. free hole from a set of available holes
d. all of the mentioned

47. In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and ____________

a. is being used
b. is not being used
c. is always used
 d. none of the mentioned

48. A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is ____________

a. Compaction
b. larger memory space
c. smaller memory space
d. none of the mentioned

49. Another solution to the problem of external fragmentation problem is to ____________

a. permit the logical address space of a process to be noncontiguous
b. permit smaller processes to be allocated memory at last
c. permit larger processes to be allocated memory at last
d. all of the mentioned

50. If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load time, compaction _________
a. cannot be done
b. must be done
c. must not be done
d. can be done

51. The disadvantage of moving all process to one end of memory and all holes to the other
direction, producing one large hole of available memory is ____________
a. the cost incurred
b. the memory used
c. the CPU used
d. all of the mentioned

52. __________ is generally faster than _________ and _________

a. first fit, best fit, worst fit
b. best fit, first fit, worst fit
c. worst fit, best fit, first fit
d. none of the mentioned

53. External fragmentation exists when?

a. enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous
b. the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
c. a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
d. none of the mentioned

54. External fragmentation will not occur when?

a. first fit is used
b. best fit is used
c. worst fit is used
d. no matter which algorithm is used, it will always occur

55. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be ____________

a. larger than the memory
b. larger than the hole itself
c. very small
d. all of the mentioned
56. 10. When the memory allocated to a process is slightly larger than the process, then
____________
a. internal fragmentation occurs
b. external fragmentation occurs
c. both internal and external fragmentation occurs
d. neither internal nor external fragmentation occurs

57. Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________

a. Frames
b. Pages
c. backing store
d. none of the mentioned

58. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called _________
a. Frames
b. Pages
c. backing store
d. none of the mentioned

59. Every address generated by the CPU is divided into two parts. They are ____________
a. frame bit & page number
b. page number & page offset
c. page offset & frame bit
d. frame offset & page offset

60. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.

a. frame bit
b. page number
c. page offset
d. frame offset

61. The _____ table contains the base address of each page in physical memory.
a. Process
b. Memory
c. Page
d. frame

62. The size of a page is typically ____________

a. Varied
b. power of 2
c. power of 4
d. none of the mentioned

63. If the size of logical address space is 2 to the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the
power of n addressing units, then the high order _____ bits of a logical address designate
the page number, and the ____ low order bits designate the page offset.
a. m, n
b. n, m
c. m – n, m
d. m – n, n
64. With paging there is no ________ fragmentation.
a. Internal
b. External
c. either type of
d. none of the mentioned

65. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames
have been allocated, how many are there, and how many are available.
a. Page
b. Mapping
c. Frame
d. memory

66. Paging increases the ______ time.

a. Waiting
b. Execution
c. context – switch
d. all of the mentioned

67. Smaller page tables are implemented as a set of _______

a. Queues
b. Stacks
c. Counters
d. registers

68. The page table registers should be built with _______

a. very low speed logic
b. very high speed logic
c. a large memory space
d. none of the mentioned

69. For larger page tables, they are kept in main memory and a __________ points to the
page table.
a. page table base register
b. page table base pointer
c. page table register pointer
d. page table base

70. For every process there is a __________

a. page table
b. copy of page table
c. pointer to page table
d. all of the mentioned

71. Time taken in memory access through PTBR is ____________

a. extended by a factor of 3
b. extended by a factor of 2
c. slowed by a factor of 3
d. slowed by a factor of 2

72. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TLB) consists of ____________

 a. Key
b. Value
c. bit value
d. constant

73. If a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is known as a ____________
a. TLB miss
b. Buffer miss
c. TLB hit
d. All of the mentioned

74. An ______ uniquely identifies processes and is used to provide address space protection
for that process.
a. address space locator
b. address space identifier
c. address process identifier
d. none of the mentioned

75. The percentage of times a page number is found in the TLB is known as ____________
a. miss ratio
b. hit ratio
c. miss percent
d. none of the mentioned

76. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by ____________

a. protection algorithm with each page
b. restricted access rights to users
c. restriction on page visibility
d. protection bit with each page

77. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page
____________
a. is in the TLB
b. has data in it
c. is in the process’s logical address space
d. is the system’s physical address space

78. Illegal addresses are trapped using the _____ bit.

a. Error
b. Protection
c. valid – invalid
d. access

79. When there is a large logical address space, the best way of paging would be
____________
a. not to page
b. a two level paging algorithm
c. the page table itself
d. all of the mentioned
80. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access a page in
secondary memory is equal to 100 ns. The time required to access a page in primary
memory is 10 ns. The average time required to access a page is
a. 3.0 ns
b. 68.0 ns
c. 68.5 ns
d. 78.5 ns

81. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is called. For implementing dynamic loading
____________
a. special support from hardware is required
b. special support from operating system is essential
c. special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
d. user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support
from hardware or operating system

82. In paged memory systems, if the page size is increased, then the internal fragmentation
generally ____________
a. becomes less
b. becomes more
c. remains constant
d. none of the mentioned

83. In segmentation, each address is specified by ____________

a. a segment number & offset
b. an offset & value
c. a value & segment number
d. a key & value

84. In paging the user provides only ________ which is partitioned by the hardware into
________ and ______
a. one address, page number, offset
b. one offset, page number, address
c. page number, offset, address
d. none of the mentioned

85. Each entry in a segment table has a ____________

a. segment base
b. segment peak
c. segment value
d. none of the mentioned

86. The segment base contains the ____________

a. starting logical address of the process
b. starting physical address of the segment in memory
c. segment length
d. none of the mentioned

87. The segment limit contains the ____________

a. starting logical address of the process
 b. starting physical address of the segment in memory
c. segment length
d. none of the mentioned

88. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be ____________

a. greater than segment limit
b. between 0 and segment limit
c. between 0 and the segment number
d. greater than the segment number

89. If the offset is legal ____________

a. it is used as a physical memory address itself
b. it is subtracted from the segment base to produce the physical memory address
c. it is added to the segment base to produce the physical memory address
d. none of the mentioned

90. When the entries in the segment tables of two different processes point to the same
physical location ____________
a. the segments are invalid
b. the processes get blocked
c. segments are shared
d. all of the mentioned

91. The protection bit is 0/1 based on ____________

a. write only
b. read only
c. read – write
d. none of the mentioned

92. If there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the logical address should have
____________
a. 13 bits
b. 14 bits
c. 15 bits
d. 16 bits

93. Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of main memory and a 128K cache. The cache
block size is 4 K. It uses a direct mapping scheme for cache management. How many
different main memory blocks can map onto a given physical cache block?
a. 2048
b. 256
c. 64
d. 8

94. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because ____________
a. it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location
b. it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual
address space of a process
c. it is required by the translation lookaside buffer
d. it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms
 Operating System MCQs
Chapter No 05:- I/O Hardware

01. If one or more devices use a common set of wires to communicate with the computer
system, the connection is called ______
a. CPU
b. Monitor
c. Wirefull
d. Bus

02. A ____ a set of wires and a rigidly defined protocol that specifies a set of messages that
can be sent on the wires.
a. Port
b. Node
c. Bus
d. none of the mentioned

03. When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, and device B has a cable that plugs
into device C and device C plugs into a port on the computer, this arrangement is called a
_________
a. Port
b. daisy chain
c. bus
d. cable

04. The _________ present a uniform device-access interface to the I/O subsystem, much as
system calls provide a standard interface between the application and the operating
system.
a. Devices
b. Buses
c. Device drivers
d. I/O systems

05. A ________ is a collection of electronics that can operate a port, a bus, or a device.
a. Controller
b. Driver
c. Host
d. Bus

06. An I/O port typically consists of four registers status, control, ________ and ________
registers.
a. system in, system out
b. data in, data out
c. flow in, flow out
d. input, output
07. The ______ register is read by the host to get input.
a. flow in
b. flow out
c. data in
d. data out

08. The ______ register is written by the host to send output.

a. Status
b. Control
c. data in
d. data out

09. The hardware mechanism that allows a device to notify the CPU is called _______
a. Polling
b. Interrupt
c. Driver
d. Controlling

10. The CPU hardware has a wire called __________ that the CPU senses after executing
every instruction.
a. interrupt request line
b. interrupt bus
c. interrupt receive line
d. interrupt sense line

11. The _________ determines the cause of the interrupt, performs the necessary processing
and executes a return from the interrupt instruction to return the CPU to the execution
state prior to the interrupt.
a. interrupt request line
b. device driver
c. interrupt handler
d. all of the mentioned

12. In general the two interrupt request lines are ____________

a. maskable & non maskable interrupts
b. blocked & non maskable interrupts
c. maskable & blocked interrupts
d. none of the mentioned

13. The _________ are reserved for events such as unrecoverable memory errors.
a. non maskable interrupts
b. blocked interrupts
c. maskable interrupts
d. none of the mentioned

14. The ________ can be turned off by the CPU before the execution of critical instruction
sequences that must not be interrupted.
a. nonmaskable interrupt
b. blocked interrupt
 c. maskable interrupt
d. none of the mentioned

15. The __________ is used by device controllers to request service.

a. nonmaskable interrupt
b. blocked interrupt
c. maskable interrupt
d. none of the mentioned

16. The interrupt vector contains ____________

a. the interrupts
b. the memory addresses of specialized interrupt handlers
c. the identifiers of interrupts
d. the device addresses

17. Division by zero, accessing a protected or non existent memory address, or attempting to
execute a privileged instruction from user mode are all categorized as ________
a. Errors
b. Exceptions
c. interrupt handlers
d. all of the mentioned

18. For large data transfers, _________ is used.

a. Dma
b. programmed I/O
c. controller register
d. none of the mentioned

19. A character stream device transfers ____________

a. bytes one by one
b. block of bytes as a unit
c. with unpredictable response times
d. none of the mentioned

20. A block device transfers ____________

a. bytes one by one
b. block of bytes as a unit
c. with unpredictable response times
d. none of the mentioned

21. What is a dedicated device?

a. opposite to a sharable device
b. same as a sharable device
c. can be used concurrently by several processes
d. none of the mentioned

22. A keyboard is an example of a device that is accessed through a __________ interface.

a. block stream
b. set of blocks
 c. character stream
d. none of the mentioned

23. In polling ____________

a. busy – wait cycles wait for I/O from device
b. interrupt handler receives interrupts
c. interrupt-request line is triggered by I/O device
d. all of the mentioned

24. A non blocking system call _________________

a. halts the execution of the application for an extended time
b. does not halt the execution of the application
c. does not block the interrupts
d. none of the mentioned

25. An asynchronous call ____________

a. returns immediately, without waiting for the I/O to complete
b. does not return immediately and waits for the I/O to complete
c. consumes a lot of time
d. is too slow

26. Buffering is done to ____________

a. cope with device speed mismatch
b. cope with device transfer size mismatch
c. maintain copy semantics
d. all of the mentioned

27. Caching is ________ spooling.

a. same as
b. not the same as
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned

28. Caching ____________

a. holds a copy of the data
b. is fast memory
c. holds the only copy of the data
d. holds output for a device

29. Spooling ____________

a. holds a copy of the data
b. is fast memory
c. holds the only copy of the data
d. holds output for a device

30. The ________ keeps state information about the use of I/O components.
a. CPU
b. OS
c. Kernel
d. Shell
31. The kernel data structures include ____________
a. process table
b. open file table
c. close file table
d. all of the mentioned

32. Windows NT uses a __________ implementation for I/O.

a. message – passing
b. draft – passing
c. secondary memory
d. cache

33. A ________ is a full duplex connection between a device driver and a user level process.
a. Bus
b. I/O operation
c. Stream
d. Flow

34. I/O is a _________ in system performance.

a. major factor
b. minor factor
c. does not matter
d. none of the mentioned

35. If the number of cycles spent busy – waiting is not excessive, then ____________
a. interrupt driven I/O is more efficient than programmed I/O
b. programmed I/O is more efficient than interrupt driven I/O
c. both programmed and interrupt driven I/O are equally efficient
d. none of the mentioned
 File Management
36. MFD stands for?
a. Main File Directory
b. Memory File Directory
c. Master File Directory
d. Master Format Directory

37. The users are allowed to read information in directories.

a. True
b. False

38. is created when a user opens an account in the computer system.

a. RFD
b. Subdirectory
c. MFD
d. SFD

39. A filename without path information.

a. File name
b. Complete filename
c. Directory name
d. Relative filename

40. Two or three characters appended to relative filename separated by a period.

a. Status
b. Identifier
c. Extension
d. descriptor

41. Files that maintain the hierarchical structure of the file system.
a. Descriptors
b. Directories
c. Modifiers
d. Relative files

42. Files in which users store information?

a. Info files
b. Ordinary files
c. Special files
d. Complex files

43. The files that appear as entries in the directories.

a. Ordinary files
b. Special files
c. Duplicate files
d. Sub directories
44. Number of regions of the disk in a UNIX files management system.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

45. Several instructions execution simultaneously in _________

a. Processing
b. parallel processing
c. serial processing
d. multitasking

46. A basic element of data in a file.

a. Memory
b. Record
c. Field
d. Value

47. Records are treated as a unit.

a. True
b. False

48. __________________ refers to the logical structuring of records.

a. Physical organization
b. Logical organisation
c. Structural organization
d. File organization

49. Which of the following is not an appropriate criterion for file organisation?
a. Larger access time
b. ease of update
c. simple maintenance
d. economy of storage

50. ___________ itself is a file owned by the operating system

a. Logical file
b. Record
c. Database
d. Directory

51. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

a. Attributes
b. Protocol
c. Location
d. Ownership

52. Allocated size of a file comes under?

a. basic information
b. address information
 c. access control information
d. usage information

53. Which of the following is not a part of the usage information?

a. data created
b. identity of creator
c. owner
d. last date modified

54. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is _________
a. Simultaneous access
b. Compaction
c. External Fragmentation
d. Division

55. The user can load and execute a program but cannot copy it. This process is?
a. Execution
b. Appending
c. Reading
d. Updating

56. A ……………….. is the basic element of data where individual field contains a single value,
such as an employees last name, a data or the value of the sensor reading.
a. Field
b. Record
c. File
d. Database

57. A ……………………. is collection of related fields that can be treated as a unit by some
application program.
a. Field
b. Record
c. File
d. Database

58. …………………….. communicate directly with peripheral devices or their controllers or

channels.
A. Device drivers
B. Physical I/O
C. Basic I/O supervisor
D. Logical I/O

59. The ……………………. is responsible for all file I/O initiation and termination.
a. Device drivers
b. Physical I/O
c. Basic I/O supervisor
d. Logical I/O
60. ……………………….. provides a general purpose record I/O capability and maintains basic
data about files.
a. Device drivers
b. Physical I/O
c. Basic I/O supervisor
d. Logical I/O
61. In the ……………………… file organization, data are collected in the order in which they
arrive where each record consists of one burst of data.
a. Pile
b. Sequential
c. Indexed sequential
d. Indexed

62. In …………………….. file organization, a fixed format is used for records where all records
are of the same length, consisting of the same number of fixed length fields in a particular
order.
a. Pile
b. Sequential
c. indexed sequential
d. indexed

63. The ……………………… maintains the key characteristic of the sequential file: Records are
organized in sequence based on a key field.
a. Pile
b. sequential file
c. indexed sequential file
d. indexed file

64. The ……………………… retains one limitation of the sequential file: effective processing is
limited to that which is based on a single field of the file.
a. Pile
b. sequential file
c. indexed sequential file
d. indexed file

65. …………………… are used mostly in applications where data are rarely processed
exhaustively.
a. Pile
b. sequential file
c. indexed sequential file
d. indexed file

66. Airline reservation systems and inventory control system are the examples of
…………………….. system.
a. Pile
b. sequential file
c. indexed sequential file
d. indexed file
67. The …………………. greatly reduced the time required to access a single record, without
sacrificing the sequential nature of the file.
a. Pile
b. sequential file
c. indexed sequential file
indexed file
68. In free space management, ………………….. method has negligible space overhead because
there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain
and the length of the first portion.
a. Bit tables
b. Chained Free Portions
c. Indexing
d. Free Block List

69. In …………………….. method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

reserved portion of the disk.
a. Bit tables
b. Chained Free Portions
c. Indexing
d. Free Block List

70. A ………………… on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find
one or a contiguous group of free blocks.
a. Bit table
b. Chained Free Portion
c. Indexing
d. Free Block List

71. In ………………………….. method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.
a. Chained allocation
b. Indexed allocation
c. Contiguous allocation
d. Variable allocation

72. ………………….. is a preallocation strategy, using variable size portions where the file
allocation table needs just a single entry for each file, showing the starting block and the length
of the file.
a. Chained allocation
b. Indexed allocation
c. Contiguous allocation
d. Variable allocation

73. Typically, ………………… is on an individual block basis where each block contains a
pointer to the next block in the chain.
a. Chained allocation
b. Indexed allocation
c. Contiguous allocation
d. Variable allocation
74. Which of the following is/are the types of operations that may be performed on the directory.
i) Search ii) Create file iii) Create directory iv) List directory
a. i, ii and iii only
b. ii, iii and iv only
c. i, ii and iv only
d. All i, ii, iii and iv

75. …………………. are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length
records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.
a. Indexed files
b. Direct files
c. Sequential files
d. Indexed Sequential files

76. An alternative is to organize the sequential file physically is a ……………..

a. List
b. Linked List
c. Queue
d. Stack

77. …………………… are typically used in batch applications and are generally optimum for
such applications if they involve the processing of all the records.
a. Indexed files
b. Direct files
c. Sequential files
d. Indexed Sequential files

78. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of ……………….
a. Indexed files
b. Direct files
c. Sequential files
d. Indexed Sequential files

79. An interactive user or a process has associated with pathname is a current directory which is
often referred to as the …………………….
a. update directory
b. list directory
c. working directory
d. create directory

80. ……………………….. are small fixed portions which provide greater flexibility which may
require large tables or complex structures for their allocation.
a. Blocks
b. Columns
c. Segments Partitions
d. create directory