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N10-009 Dumps

CompTIA Network+ Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 3)
A network technician is attempting to harden a commercial switch that was recently purchased. Which of the following hardening techniques best mitigates the use
of publicly available information?

A. Changing the default password

B. Blocking inbound SSH connections
C. Removing the gateway from the network configuration
D. Restricting physical access to the switch

Answer: A

Explanation:
Changing the default password is a hardening technique that best mitigates the use of publicly available information, such as vendor documentation, online
forums, or hacking tools, that may reveal the default credentials of a commercial switch. By changing the default password to a strong and unique one, the network
technician can prevent unauthorized access to the switch configuration and management. References:
? Network Hardening - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 4.3 - YouTube1
? CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 151

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following would most likely affect design considerations when building out an IDF?

A. The source panel amperage

B. The fire suppression system
C. The humidity levels
D. The cable transmission speeds

Answer: B

Explanation:
The fire suppression system is a design consideration when building out an IDF because it can affect the safety and reliability of the network equipment and
cabling. A fire suppression system is a system that detects and extinguishes fires in a building, using water, gas, or chemicals. Depending on the type of fire
suppression system, it can have different impacts on the IDF design, such as:
? Water-based systems, such as sprinklers, can damage the network equipment and cabling if they are activated by a fire or a false alarm. Therefore, the IDF
should be designed to protect the equipment and cabling from water exposure, such as using waterproof cabinets, drip pans, and conduits.
? Gas-based systems, such as clean agent systems, can displace the oxygen in the IDF and cause suffocation for anyone inside. Therefore, the IDF should be
designed to allow for ventilation and air circulation, as well as warning signs and alarms to alert anyone in the IDF before the gas is released.
? Chemical-based systems, such as dry chemical systems, can leave a residue on the network equipment and cabling that can affect their performance and
lifespan. Therefore, the IDF should be designed to minimize the contact between the chemical and the equipment and cabling, as well as provide a means for
cleaning and restoring them after a fire.
The other options are not correct because:
? The source panel amperage is not a design consideration when building out an IDF, as it is determined by the electrical circuit and the power needs of the
network equipment and cabling. The source panel amperage does not affect the layout, location, or protection of the IDF.
? The humidity levels are not a design consideration when building out an IDF, as they are controlled by the HVAC system and the ventilation of the IDF. The
humidity levels do not affect the layout, location, or protection of the IDF.
? The cable transmission speeds are not a design consideration when building out an IDF, as they are determined by the type and quality of the network cabling
and the network equipment. The cable transmission speeds do not affect the layout, location, or protection of the IDF.

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following compromises internet-connected devices and makes them vulnerable to becoming part of a botnet? (Select TWO).

A. Deauthentication attack
B. Malware infection
C. IP spoofing
D. Firmware corruption
E. Use of default credentials
F. Dictionary attack

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 3)
During an incident, an analyst sends reports regularly to the investigation and leadership teams. Which of the following best describes how Pll should be
safeguarded during an incident?

A. Implement data encryption and store the data so only the company has access.
B. Ensure permissions are limited to the investigation team and encrypt the data.
C. Implement data encryption and create a standardized procedure for deleting data that is no longer needed.
D. Ensure the permissions are open only to the company.

Answer: C

Explanation:
PII stands for Personally Identifiable Information, which is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, such as name, address,
phone number, email, social security number, and so on. PII should be safeguarded during an incident to protect the privacy and security of the individuals
involved, and to comply with the legal and ethical obligations of the organization. One way to safeguard PII during an incident is to implement data encryption,

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which is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed by authorized parties who have the decryption key. Data encryption
can prevent unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure of PII by malicious actors or third parties. Another way to safeguard PII during an incident is to create
a standardized procedure for deleting data that is no longer needed, such as after the incident is resolved or the investigation is completed. Deleting data that is no
longer needed can reduce the risk of data breaches, data leaks, or data theft, and can also save storage space and resources. A standardized procedure for
deleting data can ensure that the data is erased securely and completely, and that the deletion process is documented and audited.
References
? 1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 304-305
? 2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 13
? 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 5
? 4: Data Encryption – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.1

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 3)
A PC and a network server have no network connectivity, and a help desk technician is attempting to resolve the issue. The technician plans to run a constant ping
command from a Windows workstation while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. ping —w
B. ping -i
C. ping —s
D. ping —t

Answer: D

Explanation:
ping -t is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to send continuous ping requests to a target until stopped by pressing Ctrl-C. This can
help the technician run a constant ping command while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. ping -w is an option for the ping command in
Windows that allows the user to specify a timeout value in milliseconds for each ping request. ping -i is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the
user to specify the time interval in seconds between each ping request. ping -s is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the size of
the data payload in bytes for each ping request.
References: How to Use the Ping Command in Windows - Lifewire (https://www.lifewire.com/ping-command-2618099)

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 3)
A company's publicly accessible servers are connected to a switch between the company's ISP-connected router and the firewall in front of the company network.
The firewall is stateful, and the router is running an ACL. Which of the following best describes the area between the router and the firewall?

A. Untrusted zone
B. Screened subnet
C. Trusted zone
D. Private VLAN

Answer: B

Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network segment that is isolated from both the internal and external networks by firewalls or routers. It is used to host publicly accessible
servers that need some protection from external attacks, but also need to be separated from the internal network for security reasons.
References
? 1: Seven-Second Subnetting – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.4
? 2: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-008, 5th Edition, page 56
? 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 22

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 3)
A network is experiencing extreme latency when accessing a particular website. Which of the following commands will BEST help identify the issue?

A. ipconfig
B. netstat
C. tracert
D. ping

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 3)
A user in a branch office reports that access to all files has been lost after receiving a new PC. All other users in the branch can access fileshares. The IT engineer
who is troubleshooting this incident is able to ping the workstation from the branch router, but the machine cannot ping the router. Which of the following is MOST
likely the cause of the incident?

A. Incorrect subnet mask

B. Incorrect DNS server
C. Incorrect IP class
D. Incorrect TCP port

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 3)
A company is moving to a new building designed with a guest waiting area that has existing network ports. Which of the following practices would BEST secure the

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network?

A. Ensure all guests sign an NDA.

B. Disable unneeded switchports in the area.
C. Lower the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area.
D. Enable MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses.

Answer: B

Explanation:
One of the best practices to secure the network would be to disable unneeded switchports in the guest waiting area. This will prevent unauthorized users from
connecting to the network through these ports. It's important to identify which switchports are not in use and disable them, as this will prevent unauthorized access
to the network. Other practices such as ensuring all guests sign an NDA, lowering the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area and enabling
MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses are not as effective in securing the network as disabling unneeded switchports. Enforcing an NDA with guests
may not stop a malicious user from attempting to access the network, reducing the radio strength only limits the Wi-Fi coverage, and MAC filtering can be easily
bypassed by hackers.

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 3)
A technician is monitoring a network interface and notices the device is dropping packets. The cable and interfaces, however, are in working order. Which of the
following is MOST likely the cause?

A. OID duplication
B. MIB mismatch
C. CPU usage
D. Encapsulation errors

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following types of attacks can be used to gain credentials by setting up rogue APs with identical corporate SSIDs?

A. VLAN hopping
B. Evil twin
C. DNS poisoning
D. Social engineering

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is trying to create a subnet, which is the most efficient size possible, for 31 laptops. Which of the following network subnets would be best
in this situation?

A. 10.10.10.0/24
B. 10.10.10.0/25
C. 10.10.10.0/26
D. 10.10.10.0/27

Answer: D

Explanation:
A /27 subnet mask has 32 IP addresses, of which 30 are usable for hosts. This is the smallest subnet that can accommodate 31 laptops, as the other options have
either too few or too many IP addresses. A /27 subnet mask is equivalent to 255.255.255.224 in decimal notation, and has a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.31. The
network address is 10.10.10.0, and the broadcast address is 10.10.10.31. The usable host range is 10.10.10.1 to 10.10.10.30.
References
1: Subnet Cheat Sheet – 24 Subnet Mask, 30, 26, 27, 29, and other IP Address CIDR Network References
2: IP Subnet Calculator

NEW QUESTION 18
- (Topic 3)
A user calls the help desk to report being unable to reach a file server. The technician logs in to the user's computer and verifies that pings fall to respond back
when trying to reach the file server. Which of the following would BEST help the technician verify whether the file server is reachable?

A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. traceroute

Answer: D

Explanation:
Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that allows you to trace the path that network packets take from one device to another. By running traceroute to the file
server, the technician can see the sequence of devices and networks that the packets pass through on their way to the file server. This can help the technician to
determine if there is a problem with the network connection between the user's computer and the file server, or if the issue is with the file server itself.

NEW QUESTION 23

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- (Topic 3)
A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician
connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light
does not come on. Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Reverse the fibers.

B. Reterminate the fibers.
C. Verify the fiber size.
D. Examine the cable runs for visual faults.

Answer: A

Explanation:
One of the most common causes of fiber connectivity issues is the reversal of the fibers. This means that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) ports on one end of
the fiber link are not matched with the corresponding ports on the other end. For example, if the TX port on one device is connected to the TX port on another
device, and the same for the RX ports, then the devices will not be able to communicate with each other. This can result in no indicator light, no link, or no data
transmission12.
To troubleshoot this issue, the technician should first try to reverse the fibers. This can be done by swapping the connectors at one end of the fiber patch cable, or
by using a crossover adapter or cable that reverses the polarity of the fibers. The technician should then check if the indicator light comes on and if the devices can
communicate properly12. The other options are not the first steps to troubleshoot this issue. Reterminating the fibers is a time-consuming and costly process that
should be done only if there is evidence of physical damage or poor quality of the termination. Verifying the fiber size is not relevant in this scenario, as multimode
fiber is compatible with multimode fiber, and any mismatch in core diameter or bandwidth would result in high attenuation, not complete loss of signal. Examining
the cable runs for visual faults is a useful technique, but it requires a special tool called a visual fault locator (VFL) that emits a visible red light through the fiber and
shows any breaks or bends along the cable. However, a VFL cannot detect polarity issues or connector problems, so it is not sufficient to troubleshoot this issue

NEW QUESTION 28
- (Topic 3)
A company receives a cease-and-desist order from its ISP regarding prohibited torrent activity. Which of the following should be implemented to comply with the
cease-and-desist order?

A. MAC security
B. Content filtering
C. Screened subnet
D. Perimeter network

Answer: B

Explanation:
Content filtering is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of web content, based on predefined criteria or policies. Content filtering can be used
to comply with the cease-and-desist order by preventing users from accessing torrent sites or downloading torrent files, which are often used for illegal file sharing
or piracy. Content filtering can also protect the network from malware, phishing, or inappropriate content. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide -
O’Reilly Media, Chapter 14: Securing a Basic Network, page 520

NEW QUESTION 32
- (Topic 3)
A technician discovered that some information on the local database server was changed during a tile transfer to a remote server. Which of the following should
concern the technician the MOST?

A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. DDoS
D. On-path attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
The technician should be most concerned about data integrity and security. If information on the local database server was changed during a file transfer to a
remote server, it could indicate that unauthorized access or modifications were made to the data. It could also indicate a failure in the file transfer process, which
could result in data loss or corruption. The technician should investigate the cause of the changes and take steps to prevent it from happening again in the future.
Additionally, they should verify the integrity of the data and restore it from a backup if necessary to ensure that the correct and complete data is available. The
technician should also take appropriate actions such as notifying the system administrator and management of the incident, and following the incident
management process to minimize the damage caused by the incident.

NEW QUESTION 36
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following protocols is widely used in large-scale enterprise networks to support complex networks with multiple routers and balance traffic load on
multiple links?

A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. QoS
D. STP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 39
- (Topic 3)
A Wi-Fi network was recently deployed in a new, multilevel budding. Several issues are now being reported related to latency and drops in coverage. Which of the
following is the FIRST step to troubleshoot the issues?

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A. Perform a site survey.

B. Review the AP placement
C. Monitor channel utilization.
D. Test cable attenuation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Topic 3)
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity from a wall jack. Readings from a multimeter indicate extremely low ohmic values instead of the rated
impedance from the switchport. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. Incorrect transceivers
B. Faulty LED
C. Short circuit
D. Upgraded OS version on switch

Answer: C

Explanation:
A short circuit is a condition where two conductors in a circuit are connected unintentionally, creating a low resistance path for the current. This causes the voltage
to drop and the current to increase, which can damage the circuit or cause a fire. A multimeter can measure the resistance or impedance of a circuit, and if it
shows extremely low values, it indicates a short circuit.

NEW QUESTION 41
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following technologies would MOST likely De used to prevent the loss of connection between a virtual server and network storage devices?

A. Multipathing
B. VRRP
C. Port aggregation
D. NIC teaming

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIC teaming is a technology that allows multiple network interface cards (NICs) to work together as a single logical interface, providing redundancy and load
balancing. This can prevent the loss of connection between a virtual server and network storage devices if one of the NICs fails or becomes disconnected.
References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking Concepts, Objective 2.5: Explain the purposes and use cases for
advanced networking devices, Subobjective: NIC bonding/teaming

NEW QUESTION 44
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is most likely to be implemented to actively mitigate intrusions on a host device?

A. HIDS
B. MDS
C. HIPS
D. NIPS

Answer: A

Explanation:
HIDS (host-based intrusion detection system) is a type of security software that monitors and analyzes the activity on a host device, such as a computer or a
server. HIDS can detect and alert on intrusions, such as malware infections, unauthorized access, configuration changes, or policy violations. HIDS can also
actively mitigate intrusions by blocking or quarantining malicious processes, files, or network connections1.
HIPS (host-based intrusion prevention system) is similar to HIDS, but it can also prevent intrusions from happening in the first place by enforcing security policies
and rules on the host device2. MDS (multilayer switch) is a network device that combines the functions of a switch and a router, and it does not directly protect a
host device from intrusions3. NIPS (network-based intrusion prevention system) is a network device that monitors and blocks malicious traffic on the network level,
and it does not operate on the host device level4.

NEW QUESTION 47
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following combinations of single cables and transceivers will allow a server to have 40GB of network throughput? (Select two).

A. SFP+
B. SFP
C. QSFP+
D. Multimode
E. Cat 6a
F. Cat5e

Answer: CD

Explanation:
QSFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 40 gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) over four lanes of 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) each. QSFP+ stands for quad small form-
factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into a QSFP+ port on a network device. QSFP+ transceivers can support various
types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. Multimode is a type of fiber optic cable that
supports multiple modes of light propagation within the core. Multimode fiber optic cable can carry higher bandwidth and data rates than single-mode fiber optic

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cable, but over shorter distances. Multimode fiber optic cable is commonly used for short-reach applications, such as within a data center or a campus network.
Multimode fiber optic cable can be paired with QSFP+ transceivers to achieve 40GbE connectivity.
The other options are not correct because they do not support 40GbE. They are:
? SFP+. SFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over a single lane. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a
compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP+ port on a network device. SFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors,
such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. However, SFP+ transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless
they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
? SFP. SFP is a type of transceiver that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over a single lane. SFP stands for small form-factor pluggable, and it is a compact and
hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP port on a network device. SFP transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as twisted-
pair copper, coaxial cable, or fiber optic cable. However, SFP transceivers cannot
support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
? Cat 6a. Cat 6a is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 10 gigabit
Ethernet (10GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 6a stands for category 6 augmented, and it is an enhanced version of Cat 6 cable that offers better
performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 6a cable can be paired with 10Gbase-T transceivers to achieve 10GbE connectivity. However, Cat 6a cable cannot
support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
? Cat 5e. Cat 5e is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 1 gigabit
Ethernet (1GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 5e stands for category 5 enhanced, and it is an improved version of Cat 5 cable that offers better
performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 5e cable can be paired with 1000base-T transceivers to achieve 1GbE connectivity. However, Cat 5e cable cannot
support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
References1: QSFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Multimode Fiber - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT
Certifications4: SFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: SFP - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics6: Cat 6a - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics7: [Cat 5e -
an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

NEW QUESTION 52
- (Topic 3)
Users in a branch can access an ln-house database server, but II is taking too long to fetch records. The analyst does not know whether the Issue is being caused
by network latency. Which of the following will the analyst MOST likely use to retrieve the metrics that are needed to resolve this issue?

A. SNMP
B. Link state
C. Syslog
D. QoS
E. Traffic shaping

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 54
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following focuses on application delivery?

A. DaaS
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
SaaS is the cloud computing model that focuses on application delivery. SaaS stands for Software as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides
software applications over the internet. SaaS allows customers to access and use software applications without installing or maintaining them on their own devices
or servers. SaaS offers advantages such as scalability, accessibility, compatibility, and cost-effectiveness.
Customers can use SaaS applications on demand and pay only for what they use. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is
Software as a Service (SaaS)? | IBM

NEW QUESTION 56
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following, in addition to a password, can be asked of a user for MFA?

A. PIN
B. Favorite color
C. Hard token
D. Mother's maiden name

Answer: A

Explanation:
MFA stands for Multi-Factor Authentication, which is a method of verifying the identity of a user by requiring two or more pieces of evidence that belong to different
categories: something the user knows, something the user has, or something the user is. A password is something the user knows, and it is usually combined with
another factor such as a PIN (Personal Identification Number) or a hard token (a physical device that generates a one- time code) that the user has. A favorite
color or a mother’s maiden name are not suitable for MFA, as they are also something the user knows and can be easily guessed or compromised.
References
? 1: Multi-Factor Authentication – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.1
? 2: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13
? 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 250
? 4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 14

NEW QUESTION 58
- (Topic 3)
Users are reporting poor wireless performance in some areas of an industrial plant The wireless controller is measuring a tow EIRP value compared to me

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recommendations noted on me most recent site survey. Which of the following should be verified or replaced for the EIRP value to meet the site survey's
specifications? (Select TWO).

A. AP transmit power
B. Channel utilization
C. Signal loss
D. Update ARP tables
E. Antenna gain
F. AP association time

Answer: AE

Explanation:
? AP transmit power: You should check if your APs have sufficient power output and adjust them if needed. You should also make sure they are not exceeding
regulatory limits for your region.
? Antenna gain: You should check if your antennas have adequate gain for your coverage area and replace them if needed. You should also make sure they are
aligned properly and not obstructed by any objects.
In the scenario described, the wireless controller is measuring a low EIRP value compared to the recommendations noted in the most recent site survey. EIRP is
the combination of the power transmitted by the access point and the antenna gain. Therefore, to increase the EIRP value to meet the site survey's specifications,
the administrator should verify or replace the AP transmit power (option A) and the antenna gain (option E). This can be achieved by adjusting the transmit power
settings on the AP or by replacing the AP's antenna with one that has a higher gain

NEW QUESTION 59
- (Topic 3)
Network traffic is being compromised by DNS poisoning every time a company's router is connected to the internet. The network team detects a non-authorized
DNS server being assigned to the network clients and remediates the incident by setting a trusted DNS server, but the issue occurs again after internet exposure.
Which of the following best practices should be implemented on the router?

A. Change the device's default password.

B. Disable router advertisement guard.
C. Activate control plane policing.
D. Disable unneeded network services.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 60
- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is adding a new switch to the network. Which of the following network hardening techniques would be BEST to use once the switch is in
production?

A. Disable unneeded ports

B. Disable SSH service
C. Disable MAC filtering
D. Disable port security

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 62
- (Topic 3)
A company has multiple offices around the world. The computer rooms in some office locations are too warm Dedicated sensors are in each room, but the process
of checking each sensor takes a long time. Which of the following options can the company put In place to automate temperature readings with internal resources?

A. Implement NetFlow.
B. Hire a programmer to write a script to perform the checks
C. Utilize ping to measure the response.
D. Use SNMP with an existing collector server

Answer: D

Explanation:
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate with a management server. By using SNMP, the
company can set up an SNMP agent on each sensor, which will report its temperature readings to an existing collector server. This will enable the company to
monitor the temperatures of all their sensors in real-time without the need for manual checks. Additionally, SNMP's scalability means that even if the company
adds more rooms or sensors, the existing system can be easily expanded to accommodate them.

NEW QUESTION 67
- (Topic 3)
A network technician needs to ensure that all files on a company's network can be moved in a safe and protected manner without interception from someone who
is not the intended recipient. Which of the following would allow the network technician to meet these requirements?

A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SMTP
D. SFTP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 70

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- (Topic 3)
A network architect is developing documentation for an upcoming IPv4/IPv6 dual-stack implementation The architect wants to shorten the following IPv6 address:
ef82:0000:00O0:000O:0O00:1ab1:1234:1bc2. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate shortened version?

A. ef82:0:lab1:1234:1bc2
B. ef82:0:;1ab1:1234:1bc2
C. ef82:0:0:0:0:1ab1:1234:1bc2
D. ef82::1ab1:1234:1bc2

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most appropriate shortened version of the IPv6 address ef82:0000:00O0:000O:0O00:1ab1:1234:1bc2 is ef82::1ab1:1234:1bc2. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit
hexadecimal values that are divided into eight groups of 16 bits each, separated by colons. IPv6 addresses can be shortened by using two rules: omitting leading
zeros within each group, and replacing one or more consecutive groups of zeros with a double colon (::). Only one double colon can be used in an address.
Applying these rules to the given address results in ef82::1ab1:1234:1bc2. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 114; The
Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 5-7.

NEW QUESTION 72
- (Topic 3)
A company is reviewing ways to cut the overall cost of Its IT budget. A network technician suggests removing various computer programs from the IT budget and
only providing these
programs on an as-needed basis. Which of the following models would meet this requirement?

A. Multitinency
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. VPN

Answer: C

Explanation:
SaaS stands for Software as a Service and is a cloud computing model where software applications are hosted and delivered over the internet by a service
provider. SaaS can help the company cut the overall cost of its IT budget by eliminating the need to purchase, install, update, and maintain various computer
programs on its own devices. The company can access the programs on an as-needed basis and pay only for what it uses. Multitenancy is a feature of cloud
computing where multiple customers share the same physical or virtual resources. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service and is a cloud computing model
where computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking are provided over the internet by a service provider. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network
and is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.9: Compare and contrast common network service types.

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Topic 3)
The Chief Executive Officer of a company wants to ensure business operations are not disrupted in the event of a disaster. The solution must have fully redundant
equipment, real-time synchronization, and zero data loss. Which Of the following should be prepared?

A. Cloud site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Cold site

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hot site is a backup site that is fully equipped and ready to take over the operations of the primary site in the event of a disaster. A hot site has real-time
synchronization with the primary site and can provide zero data loss. A hot site is the most expensive and reliable option for disaster recovery.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.3: Explain common scanning, monitoring and patching processes and summarize their expected outputs.

NEW QUESTION 76
- (Topic 3)
The power company notifies a network administrator that it will be turning off the power to the building over the weekend. Which of the following is the BEST
solution to prevent the servers from going down?

A. Redundant power supplies

B. Uninterruptible power supply
C. Generator
D. Power distribution unit

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 78
- (Topic 3)
A user calls the IT department to report being unable to log in after locking the computer The user resets the password, but later in the day the user is again unable
to log in after locking the computer Which of the following attacks against the user IS MOST likely taking place?

A. Brute-force
B. On-path
C. Deauthentication
D. Phishing

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 81
- (Topic 3)
An IT administrator is creating an alias to the primary customer's domain. Which of the following DNS record types does this represent?

A. CNAME
B. MX
C. A
D. PTR

Answer: A

Explanation:
A CNAME record is a type of DNS record that maps an alias name to a canonical name, or the primary domain name. A CNAME record is used to create
subdomains or alternative names for the same website, without having to specify the IP address for each alias. For example, a CNAME record can map
www.example.com to example.com, or mail.example.com to example.com. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 2, Section 2.4

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 3)
A VOIP phone is plugged in to a port but cannot receive calls. Which Of the following needs to be done on the port to address the issue?

A. Trunk all VLANs on the port.

B. Configure the native VLAN.
C. Tag the traffic to voice VLAN.
D. Disable VLANs.

Answer: C

Explanation:
To enable a VOIP phone to receive calls on a port, the traffic needs to be tagged to the voice VLAN that is configured on the switch. This allows the phone to
communicate with the voice network and the PBX server. Tagging the traffic also separates the voice traffic from the data traffic that may be coming from a
computer connected to the phone. The port should be configured to tag the traffic for the voice VLAN and untag the traffic for the data VLAN1. Trunking all VLANs
on the port is unnecessary and may cause security issues. Configuring the native VLAN is not relevant for this issue. Disabling VLANs would prevent the phone
from working at all.
References:
Optical Fiber Connectors – CompTIA Network+ N10-007 – 2.13
? VoIP and computer on separate VLANs through one cable1

NEW QUESTION 87
- (Topic 3)
A network administrator installed an additional IDF during a building expansion project. Which of the following documents need to be updated to reflect the
change? (Select TWO).

A. Data loss prevention policy

B. BYOD policy
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Non-disclosure agreement
E. Disaster recovery plan
F. Physical network diagram

Answer: AF

NEW QUESTION 91
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following topologies is designed to fully support applications hosted in on- premises data centers, public or private clouds, and SaaS services?

A. SDWAN
B. MAN
C. PAN
D. MPLS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 92
- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is preparing new switches that will be deployed to support a network extension project. The lead network engineer has already provided
documentation to ensure the switches are set up properly Which of the following did the engineer most likely provide?

A. Physical network diagram

B. Site survey reports
C. Baseline configurations
D. Logical network diagram

Answer: C

Explanation:

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Baseline configurations are the standard settings and parameters that are applied to network devices, such as switches, routers, firewalls, etc., to ensure
consistent performance, security, and functionality across the network. Baseline configurations can include aspects such as IP addresses, VLANs, passwords,
protocols, access lists, firmware versions, etc. Baseline configurations are usually documented and updated regularly to reflect any changes or modifications made
to the network devices.
The lead network engineer most likely provided baseline configurations to the network administrator to ensure that the new switches are set up properly and in
accordance with the network design and policies. Baseline configurations can help to simplify the deployment process, reduce errors and inconsistencies, and
facilitate troubleshooting and maintenance.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely documentation that the lead network engineer provided to the network administrator. They
are:
? Physical network diagram. A physical network diagram is a graphical representation of the physical layout and connections of the network devices and
components, such as cables, ports, switches, routers, servers, etc. A physical network diagram can help to visualize the network topology, identify the locations
and distances of the devices, and plan for cabling and power requirements. However, a physical network diagram does not provide the specific settings and
parameters that need to be configured on the network devices, such as the switches.
? Site survey reports. A site survey report is a document that summarizes the findings and recommendations of a site survey, which is a process of assessing the
suitability and readiness of a location for installing and operating network devices and components. A site survey report can include aspects such as environmental
conditions, power and cooling availability, security and safety measures, interference and noise sources, signal coverage and quality, etc. A site survey report can
help to identify and resolve any potential issues or challenges that may affect the network performance and reliability. However, a site survey report does not
provide the specific settings and parameters that need to be configured on the network devices, such as the switches.
? Logical network diagram. A logical network diagram is a graphical representation of the logical structure and functionality of the network devices and
components, such as subnets, IP addresses, VLANs, protocols, routing, firewall rules, etc. A logical network diagram can help to understand the network design,
architecture, and policies, as well as the data flow and communication paths between the devices. However, a logical network diagram does not provide the
specific settings and parameters that need to be configured on the network devices, such as the switches.
References1: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications2: What is a Baseline Configuration? - Definition from Techopedia3: What is a Physical
Network Diagram? - Definition from Techopedia4: What is a Site Survey? - Definition from Techopedia5: [What is a Logical Network Diagram? - Definition from
Techopedia]

NEW QUESTION 94
- (Topic 3)
A technician received a report that some users in a large, 30-floor building are having intermittent connectivity issues. Users on each floor have stable connectivity,
but do not have connectivity to other floors. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. User devices
B. Edge devices
C. Access switch
D. Core switch

Answer: D

Explanation:
A core switch is the most likely device causing the issue where users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. A core
switch is a high-performance switch that connects multiple access switches in a network. An access switch is a switch that connects end devices, such as
computers and printers, to the network. A core switch acts as the backbone of the network, providing interconnection and routing between different subnets or
VLANs. If the core switch is malfunctioning or misconfigured, it can prevent communication between different segments of the network, resulting in intermittent
connectivity issues. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Core Switch vs Access Switch: What Are the Differences?

NEW QUESTION 99
- (Topic 3)
While setting up a new workstation, a technician discovers that the network connection is only 100 full duplex (FD), although it is connected to a gigabit switch.
While reviewing the interface information in the switch CLI, the technician notes the port is operating at IOOFD but Shows many RX and TX errors. The technician
moves the computer to another switchport and experiences the same issues.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the low data rate and port errors?

A. Bad switch ports

B. Duplex issues
C. Cable length
D. Incorrect pinout

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 103

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is the most secure connection used to inspect and provide controlled internet access when remote employees are connected to the
corporate network?

A. Site-to-site VPN
B. Full-tunnel VPN
C. Split-tunnel VPN
D. SSH

Answer: B

Explanation:
A full-tunnel VPN is a type of virtual private network (VPN) that encrypts and routes all the traffic from the remote device to the corporate network, regardless of the
destination or protocol. This provides a secure connection for the remote employees to access the corporate resources, as well as inspect and control the internet
access through the corporate firewall and proxy servers. A full-tunnel VPN also prevents any leakage of sensitive data or exposure to malicious attacks from the
public internet. A full-tunnel VPN is more secure than a split-tunnel VPN, which only encrypts and routes the traffic destined for the corporate network, while
allowing the traffic for other destinations to bypass the VPN and use the local internet connection. A site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN that connects two or more
networks, such as branch offices or data centers, over the internet. It is not suitable for connecting individual remote employees to the corporate network. SSH
stands for Secure Shell, and it is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over an encrypted channel. It is not a type of VPN, and it does
not provide

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controlled internet access. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 5, Section 5.3

NEW QUESTION 108

- (Topic 3)
A malicious user is using special software 10 perform an on-path attack. Which of the following best practices should be configured to mitigate this threat?

A. Dynamic ARP inspection

B. Role-based access
C. Control plane policing
D. MAC filtering

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following architectures is used for FTP?

A. Client-server
B. Service-oriented
C. Connection-oriented
D. Data-centric

Answer: A

Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a client-server based protocol, meaning that the two computers involved communicate with each other in a request-response
pattern. The client sends a request to the server and the server responds with the requested data. This type of architecture is known as client-server, and it is used
for many different types of applications, including FTP. Other architectures, such as service-oriented, connection- oriented, and data-centric, are not used for FTP.

NEW QUESTION 115

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is working to configure a new device to provide Layer 2 connectivity to various endpoints including several WAPs. Which of the following
devices will the administrator MOST likely configure?

A. WLAN controller
B. Cable modem
C. Load balancer
D. Switch
E. Hub

Answer: D

Explanation:
A switch is a device that provides Layer 2 connectivity to various endpoints by forwarding frames based on MAC addresses. A switch can also connect to several
WAPs (wireless access points) to provide wireless connectivity to wireless devices.

NEW QUESTION 120

- (Topic 3)
A technician completed troubleshooting and was able to fix an issue. Which of the following is the BEST method the technician can use to pass along the exact
steps other technicians should follow in case the issue arises again?

A. Use change management to build a database

B. Send an email stating that the issue is resolved.
C. Document the lessons learned
D. Close the ticket and inform the users.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Documenting the lessons learned is the best method for passing along the exact steps other technicians should follow in case the issue arises again. Lessons
learned are the knowledge and experience gained from completing a project or solving a problem. Documenting the lessons learned helps to capture the best
practices, challenges, solutions, and recommendations for future reference and improvement. Documenting the lessons learned can also help to update the
knowledge base, standard operating procedures, or policies related to the issue. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Lessons
Learned: Definition & Examples for Project Managers

NEW QUESTION 123

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following protocols uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the LOWEST cost between routers?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. EIGRP

Answer: B

Explanation:

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OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First and is a link-state routing protocol that uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the lowest cost between routers. OSPF
assigns a cost value to each link based on factors such as bandwidth, delay, or reliability, and builds a map of the network topology. OSPF then uses Dijkstra’s
algorithm to find the shortest path from each router to every other router in the network1. RIP stands for Routing Information Protocol and is a distance-vector
routing protocol that uses hop count as the metric to find the best path. BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol and is a path-vector routing protocol that uses
attributes such as AS path, local preference, or origin to select the best route. EIGRP stands for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol and is a hybrid
routing protocol that uses a composite metric based on bandwidth, delay, load, and reliability.
References: 1 Dijkstra’s algorithm - Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dijkstra%27s_algorithm)

NEW QUESTION 124

- (Topic 3)
A company's web server is hosted at a local ISP. This is an example of:

A. allocation.
B. an on-premises data center.
C. a branch office.
D. a cloud provider.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 126

- (Topic 3)
A technician is deploying a new SSID for an industrial control system. The control devices require the network to use encryption that employs TKIP and a
symmetrical password to connect. Which of the following should the technician configure to ensure compatibility with the control devices?

A. WPA2-Enterprise
B. WPA-Enterprise
C. WPA-PSK
D. WPA2-PSK

Answer: C

Explanation:
"WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) for enhanced encryption. TKIP uses RC4 for the encryption algorithm, and the CompTIA Network+ exam may
reference TKIP-RC4 in a discussion of wireless."
" WPA2 uses Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) for integrity checking and Advanced Encryption Standard
(AES) for encryption. On the Network+ exam, you might find this referenced as simply CCMP-AES"

NEW QUESTION 128

- (Topic 3)
A network engineer needs to change an entire subnet of SLAAC-configured workstation addresses. Which of the following methods would be the best for the
engineer to use?

A. Change the address prefix in ARP in order for the workstations to retrieve their new addresses.
B. Change the address prefix in a router in order for the router to advertise the new prefix with an ND.
C. Change the address prefix scope in a DHCP server in order for the workstations to retrieve their new addresses.
D. Change the workstations' address prefix manually because an automated method does not exist.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration) is a mechanism that enables each host on the network to auto-configure a unique IPv6 address without any device
keeping track of which address is assigned to which node12. SLAAC uses link-local addresses and the interface’s MAC address or a random number to generate
the host portion of the IPv6 address2. SLAAC also relies on Router Solicitation (RS) and Router Advertisement (RA) messages to obtain the network prefix and
other information from a router12. Therefore, to change an entire subnet of SLAAC-configured workstation addresses, the network engineer needs to change the
address prefix in a router and let the router advertise the new prefix with an ND (Neighbor Discovery) message. This way, the workstations will receive the new
prefix and update their IPv6 addresses accordingly3.
References1 - IPv6 Stateless Address Auto-configuration (SLAAC) | NetworkAcademy.io2 - IPv6 SLAAC – Stateless Address Autoconfiguration - Study-CCNA3 -
Mastering IPv6
SLAAC Concepts and Configuration - Cisco Press

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Topic 3)
To access production applications and data, developers must first connect remotely to a different server From there, the developers are able to access production
data Which of the following does this BEST represent?

A. A management plane
B. A proxy server
C. An out-of-band management device
D. A site-to-site VPN
E. A jump box

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 131

- (Topic 3)
A help desk technician is concerned that a client's network cable issues may be causing intermittent connectivity. Which of the following would help the technician
determine if this is the issue?

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A. Run the show interface command on the switch

B. Run the tracerouute command on the server
C. Run iperf on the technician's desktop
D. Ping the client's computer from the router
E. Run a port scanner on the client's IP address

Answer: A

Explanation:
To determine if a client's network cable issues may be causing intermittent connectivity, the help desk technician can run the show interface command on the
switch.
This command allows the technician to view the status and statistics of the various interfaces on the switch, including the physical link status and the number of
transmitted and received packets. If the interface is experiencing a large number of errors or dropped packets, this could indicate a problem with the network cable
or with the connection between the client's device and the switch.
"Cisco routers and switches have a show interfaces IOS command that provides interface statistics/status information, including link state (up/down),
speed/duplex, send/receive traffic, cyclic redundancy checks (CRCs), and protocol packet and byte counts."

NEW QUESTION 132

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?

A. Honeynet
B. Data-at-rest encryption
C. Time-based authentication
D. Network segmentation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnets or segments, each with its own security policies and access controls. This can help
isolate OT devices from IT devices, guest networks, and other potential threats, as well as improve network performance and efficiency. Network segmentation is a
recommended security practice for OT environments, as it can limit the attack surface, contain the damage of a breach, and comply with regulatory standards.
https://sectrio.com/complete-guide-to-ot-network-segmentation/

NEW QUESTION 137

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following documents dictates the uptimes that were agreed upon by the involved parties?

A. MOU
B. BYOD
C. SLA
D. NDA

Answer: C

Explanation:
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expected level of service and performance guaranteed by a service provider to a customer. It
usually specifies metrics such as uptime, availability, reliability, response time, and compensation or penalties for not meeting the agreed standards. An SLA is a
way of ensuring that both parties are clear about their roles and responsibilities, and that the customer receives the quality of service they paid for.

NEW QUESTION 140

- (Topic 3)
During a risk assessment which of the following should be considered when planning to mitigate high CPU utilization of a firewall?

A. Recovery time objective

B. Uninterruptible power supply
C. NIC teaming
D. Load balancing

Answer: D

Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum tolerable length of time that a computer, system, network or application can be down after a failure or disaster
occurs. This does nothing to help with CPU utilization. Load balancing does this.

NEW QUESTION 142

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is reviewing the following metrics from a network management system regarding a switchport. The administrator suspects an issue
because users are calling in regards to the switchport's performance:

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Based on the information in the chart above, which of the following fs the cause of these performance issues?

A. The connected device is exceeding the configured MTU.

B. The connected device is sending too many packets
C. The switchport has been up for too long
D. The connected device is receiving too many packets.
E. The switchport does not have enough CRCs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 143

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following would be BEST suited for a long cable run with a 40Gbps bandwidth?

A. Cat 5e
B. Cat 6a
C. Cat 7
D. Cat 8

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cat 7 is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports up to 40 Gbps bandwidth and up to 100 meters cable length. Cat 7 is suitable for long cable runs that
require high-speed data transmission. Cat 7 has better shielding and crosstalk prevention than lower categories of cables.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.5: Compare and contrast network cabling types, features and their purposes.

NEW QUESTION 146

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following options represents the participating computers in a network?

A. Nodes
B. CPUs
C. Servers
D. Clients

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 149

- (Topic 3)
To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact
for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is
the best choice for the organization?

A. Public
B. Hybrid
C. SaaS
D. Private

Answer: B

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is a combination of on-premise and cloud solutions, where some resources are hosted in-house and some are hosted by a cloud
provider. A hybrid cloud model can offer the benefits of both public and private clouds, such as scalability, cost-efficiency, security, and control12. A hybrid cloud
model can also reduce the impact for users, as they can access the key services from the on-site data center and the enterprise services from the cloud

NEW QUESTION 153

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following DHCP settings would be used to ensure a device gets the same IP address each time it is connected to the network?

A. Scope options
B. Reservation
C. Exclusion
D. Relay

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E. Pool

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 158

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is having issues connecting an loT sensor to the internet The WLAN settings were enabled via a custom command line, and a proper IP
address assignment was received on the wireless interlace. However, when trying to connect to the internet, only HTTP redirections are being received when data
Is requested. Which of the following will point to the root cause of the Issue?

A. Verifying if an encryption protocol mismatch exists.

B. Verifying If a captive portal is active for the WLAN.
C. Verifying the minimum RSSI for operation in the device's documentation
D. Verifying EIRP power settings on the access point.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that is displayed to a user before they can access the internet or other network resources. This is often used in public or guest
networks to present users with a login or terms and conditions page before they can access the internet. If a captive portal is active on the WLAN, it would explain
why the IoT sensor is only receiving HTTP redirections when trying to connect to the internet.

NEW QUESTION 160

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue. All users within the network report that they are unable to navigate to websites on the internet;
however, they can still access local network resources. The technician issues a command and receives the following results:

Which of the following best explains the result of this command?

A. Incorrect VLAN settings

B. Upstream routing loop
C. Network collisions
D. DNS misconfiguration

Answer: D

Explanation:
The users are unable to navigate to websites on the internet but can access local network resources, indicating a possible DNS issue. The ping command result
showing “TTL expired in transit” suggests that packets are not reaching their destination due to a DNS misconfiguration that is not resolving website names into IP
addresses correctly3. A possible solution is to check and correct the DNS server settings on the network devices4.
References: 3: What does “TTL expired in transit” mean?54: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - Chapter 14: Network Monitoring2

NEW QUESTION 161

- (Topic 3)
A firewall administrator observes log entries of traffic being allowed to a web server on port 80 and port 443. The policy for this server is to only allow traffic on port
443. The firewall administrator needs to investigate how this change occurred to prevent a reoccurrence. Which of the following should the firewall administrator do
next?

A. Consult the firewall audit logs.

B. Change the policy to allow port 80.
C. Remove the server object from the firewall policy.
D. Check the network baseline.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Firewall audit logs are records of the changes made to the firewall configuration, policies, and rules. They can help the firewall administrator to track who, when,
and what changes were made to the firewall, and identify any unauthorized or erroneous modifications that could cause security issues or network outages. By
consulting the firewall audit logs, the firewall administrator can investigate how the change that allowed traffic on port 80 to the web server occurred, and prevent it
from happening again

NEW QUESTION 165

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following topologies requires me MOST connections when designing a network?

A. Mesh
B. Star
C. Bus
D. Ring

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 169

- (Topic 3)
A network client is trying to connect to the wrong TCP port. Which of the following responses would the client MOST likely receive?

A. RST
B. FIN
C. ICMP Time Exceeded
D. Redirect

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174

- (Topic 3)
An employee working in a warehouse facility is experiencing interruptions in mobile applications while walking around the facility. According to a recent site survey,
the WLAN comprises autonomous APs that are directly connected to the internet, providing adequate signal coverage. Which of the following is the BEST solution
to improve network stability?

A. Implement client roaming using an extended service deployment employing a wireless controller.
B. Remove omnidirectional antennas and adopt a directional bridge.
C. Ensure all APs of the warehouse support MIMO and Wi-Fi 4.
D. Verify that the level of EIRP power settings is set to the maximum permitted by regulations.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Client roaming refers to the ability of a wireless device to seamlessly connect to a different access point (AP) as the user moves around the facility. This can help
to improve network stability and reduce interruptions in mobile applications. An extended service deployment is a type of wireless network configuration that uses
multiple APs to cover a large area, such as a warehouse facility. By using a wireless controller to manage the APs, the network can be better optimized for client
roaming, which can improve network stability.
"Roaming With multiple WAPs in an ESS, clients will connect to whichever WAP has the strongest signal. As clients move through the space covered by the
broadcast area, they will change WAP connections seamlessly, a process called roaming."

NEW QUESTION 179

- (Topic 3)
A technician was cleaning a storage closet and found a box of transceivers labeled 8Gbps. Which of the following protocols uses those transceivers?

A. Coaxial over Ethernet

B. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface
C. Fibre Channel
D. Gigabit interface converter

Answer: C

Explanation:
The transceivers labeled 8Gbps are likely to be used with the Fibre Channel protocol. Fibre Channel is a high-speed networking technology that is primarily used
to connect storage devices to servers in storage area networks (SANs). It is capable of transmitting data at speeds of up to 8 Gbps (gigabits per second), and uses
specialized transceivers to transmit and receive data over fiber optic cables.
Coaxial over Ethernet (CoE) is a networking technology that uses coaxial cables to transmit data, and is not related to the transceivers in question. Internet Small
Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is a protocol that allows devices to communicate over a network using the SCSI protocol, and does not typically use
specialized transceivers. Gigabit interface converter (GBIC) is a type of transceiver used to transmit and receive data over fiber optic cables, but it is not capable of
transmitting data at 8 Gbps.

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is decommissioning a server. Which of the following will the network administrator MOST likely consult?

A. Onboarding and off boarding policies

B. Business continuity plan
C. Password requirements
D. Change management documentation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 186

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following commands can be used to display the IP address, subnet address, gateway address, and DNS address on a Windows computer?

A. netstat -a
B. ifconfig
C. ip addr
D. ipconfig /all

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ipconfig command is a utility that allows you to view and modify the network configuration of a Windows computer. By running the command "ipconfig /all",
you can view detailed information about the network configuration of your computer, including the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server
addresses.

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Option A (netstat -a) is a command that displays active network connections and their status, but it does not display IP address or other network configuration
information. Option B (ifconfig) is a command used on Linux and Unix systems to view and modify network configuration, but it is not available on Windows. Option
C (ip addr) is a command used on Linux and Unix systems to view and modify network configuration, but it is not available on Windows.

NEW QUESTION 189

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following cloud components can filter inbound and outbound traffic between cloud resources?

A. NAT gateways
B. Service endpoints
C. Network security groups
D. Virtual private cloud

Answer: C

Explanation:
Network security groups are cloud components that can filter inbound and outbound traffic between cloud resources based on rules and priorities. Network security
groups can be applied to virtual machines, subnets, or network interfaces to control the network access and security. Network security groups can allow or deny
traffic based on the source, destination, port, and protocol of the packets. Network security groups are different from NAT gateways, service endpoints, and virtual
private clouds, which are other cloud components that have different functions and purposes.
References
? 1: Network Security Groups – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.2
? 2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 329-330
? 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 17
? 4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 10

NEW QUESTION 191

- (Topic 3)
During an annual review of policy documents, a company decided to adjust its recovery time frames. The company agreed that critical applications can be down
for no more than six hours, and the acceptable amount of data loss is no more than two hours. Which of the following should be documented as the RPO?

A. Two hours
B. Four hours
C. Six hours
D. Eight hours

Answer: A

Explanation:
“ RPO designates the variable amount of data that will be lost or will have to be re-entered during network downtime. RTO designates the amount of “real time”
that can pass before the disruption begins to seriously and unacceptably impede the flow of normal business operations."

NEW QUESTION 192

- (Topic 3)
All packets arriving at an interface need to be fully analyzed. Which of me following features should be used to enable monitoring of the packets?

A. LACP
B. Flow control
C. Port mirroring
D. NetFlow exporter

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port mirroring is a feature that can be used to enable monitoring of all packets arriving at an interface. This feature is used to direct a copy of all traffic passing
through the switch to a monitoring device, such as a network analyzer. This allows the switch to be monitored with the network analyzer in order to identify any
malicious or suspicious activity. Additionally, port mirroring can be used to troubleshoot network issues, such as latency or poor performance.

NEW QUESTION 196

- (Topic 3)
A company has a geographically remote office. In order to connect to the internet, the company has decided to use a satellite WAN link. Which of the following is
the GREATEST concern for this type of connection?

A. Duplex
B. Collisions
C. Jitter
D. Encapsulation

Answer: C

Explanation:
itter is the variation in latency or delay of packets in a network. Satellite WAN links have high latency and are prone to jitter, which can affect the quality of voice
and video applications. Jitter is the greatest concern for this type of connection

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity performance issue. As part of the troubleshooting process, the administrator performs a traceout from the
client to the server, and also from the server to the client. While comparing the outputs, the administrator notes they show different hops between the hosts. Which

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of the following BEST explains these findings?

A. Asymmetric routing
B. A routing loop
C. A switch loop
D. An incorrect gateway

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 201

- (Topic 3)
An organization would like to implement a disaster recovery strategy that does not require a facility agreement or idle hardware. Which of the following strategies
MOST likely meets the organization's requirements?

A. Cloud site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. Hot site

Answer: A

Explanation:
A cloud site is a type of disaster recovery site that uses cloud computing services to provide backup and recovery of data and applications in the event of a
disaster1. A cloud site does not require a facility agreement or idle hardware, as the cloud provider manages the infrastructure and resources on demand. A cloud
site can also offer scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness compared to other types of disaster recovery sites.

NEW QUESTION 204

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following would be used to enforce and schedule critical updates with supervisory approval and include backup plans in case of failure?

A. Business continuity plan

B. Onboarding and offboarding policies
C. Acceptable use policy
D. System life cycle
E. Change management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 207

- (Topic 3)
A customer calls the help desk to report that users are unable to access any network resources_ The issue started earlier in the day when an employee
rearranged the wiring closet A technician goes to the site but does not observe any obvious damage. The statistics output on the switch indicates high CPI-J
usage, and all the lights on the switch are blinking rapidly in unison_ Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

A. The switch was rebooted and set to run in safe mode.

B. The line between the switch and the upstream router was removed
C. A cable was looped and created a broadcast storm.
D. A Cat 6 cable from the modem to the router was replaced with Cat 5e.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A cable was looped and created a broadcast storm is the most likely explanation for the symptoms of high CPU usage and blinking lights on the switch. A cable
loop is a situation where a switch port is connected to another switch port on the same switch or another switch, creating a circular path for network traffic. A cable
loop can cause a broadcast storm, which is a network phenomenon where a large number of broadcast or multicast packets are flooded on the network,
consuming bandwidth and CPU resources. A broadcast storm can cause network congestion, performance degradation, or failure. A cable loop can occur when an
employee rearranges the wiring closet without proper documentation or verification. A cable loop can be prevented or detected by using Spanning Tree Protocol
(STP) or loop detection features on the switch. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is a Broadcast Storm? |
Definition & Examples | Forcepoint

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Topic 3)
Users within a corporate network need to connect to the Internet, but corporate network policy does not allow direct connections. Which of the following is MOST
likely to be used?

A. Proxy server
B. VPN client
C. Bridge
D. VLAN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 211

- (Topic 3)
To comply with an industry regulation, all communication destined to a secure server should be logged and archived on a storage device. Which of the Mowing can
be configured to fulfill this requirement?

A. QoS traffic classification

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B. Port mirroring
C. Flow control
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 214

- (Topic 3)
An engineer is using a tool to run an ICMP sweep of a network to find devices that are online. When reviewing the results, the engineer notices a number of
workstations that are currently verified as being online are not listed in the report.
The tool was configured to scan using the following information: Network address: 172.28.16.0
CIDR: /22
The engineer collected the following information from the client workstation: IP address: 172.28.17.206
Subnet mask: 255.255.252.0
Which of the following MOST likely explains why the tool is failing to detect some workstations?

A. The scanned network range is incorrect.

B. The subnet mask on the client is misconfigured.
C. The workstation has a firewall enabled.
D. The tool is unable to scan remote networks.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block ICMP packets,
which are used for ping and other diagnostic tools. If the workstation has a firewall enabled, it may not respond to the ICMP sweep and appear as offline. The
engineer should check the firewall settings on the workstation and allow ICMP traffic if needed.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool.

NEW QUESTION 218

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is in the process of installing 35 PoE security cameras. After the administrator installed and tested the new cables, the administrator
installed the cameras. However, a small number of the cameras do not work. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A. Incorrect wiring standard

B. Power budget exceeded
C. Signal attenuation
D. Wrong voltage

Answer: B

Explanation:
The power budget is the total amount of power that a PoE switch or injector can provide to the connected PoE devices. If the power budget is exceeded, some of
the PoE devices may not receive enough power to function properly. To troubleshoot this issue, the network administrator should check the power consumption of
each PoE device and the power capacity of the PoE switch or injector.
References:
? PoE Troubleshooting: The Common PoE Errors and Solutions1
? Security Camera Won’t Work - Top 10 Solutions to Fix2
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Objectives https://www.comptia.org/certifications/network#examdetails

NEW QUESTION 220

- (Topic 3)
A security team would like to use a system in an isolated network to record the actions of potential attackers. Which of the following solutions is the security team
implementing?

A. Perimeter network
B. Honeypot
C. Zero trust infrastructure
D. Network segmentation

Answer: B

Explanation:
The solution that the security team is implementing to record the actions of potential attackers in an isolated network is a honeypot. A honeypot is a decoy system
that simulates a real network or service, but has no actual value or function. A honeypot is designed to attract and trap attackers who try to infiltrate or compromise
the network, and then monitor and analyze their behavior and techniques. A honeypot can help the security team learn about the attackers’ motives, methods, and
tools, and improve their defense
strategies accordingly. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 358; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam
N10-008), page 14-1.

NEW QUESTION 221

- (Topic 3)
An organization has a security staff shortage and must prioritize efforts in areas where the staff will have the most impact. In particular, the focus is to
avoid expending resources on identifying non-relevant events. A security analyst is reviewing web server logs and sees the following:

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Which of the following should the analyst recommend?

A. Configuring the web server log to filter out 404 errors on image files
B. Updating firewall rules to block 202.180.155.1
C. Resyncing the network time server and monitoring logs for future anomalous behavior
D. Checking with the penetration testing team to see if the team ran any scans on January 14, 2021

Answer: A

Explanation:
This answer will help the organization to avoid expending resources on identifying non- relevant events, as the 404 errors on image files are not indicative of any
security threat or issue, but rather a misconfiguration or a broken link on the web server. The 404 errors on image files are also very frequent and repetitive, as
shown by the web server log, which can clutter the log and make it harder to spot any relevant events. By filtering out these errors, the analyst can focus on more
important events and reduce the noise in the log. The other answers are not as good as A, because they either do not address the problem of identifying non-
relevant events, or they are based on incorrect assumptions or information. For example:
? B. Updating firewall rules to block 202.180.155.1 is not a good answer, because the IP address 202.180.155.1 is not doing anything malicious or suspicious, but
rather requesting image files that do not exist on the web server. Blocking this IP address will not improve the security of the web server, but rather create
unnecessary firewall rules and possibly deny legitimate access to the web server.
? C. Resyncing the network time server and monitoring logs for future anomalous behavior is not a good answer, because there is no evidence that the network
time server is out of sync or causing any problems. The web server log shows that the entries are all within a few minutes of each other, which is normal and
expected. Resyncing the network time server will not help the analyst to identify non-relevant events, but rather waste time and resources on an unrelated task.
? D. Checking with the penetration testing team to see if the team ran any scans on January 14, 2021 is not a good answer, because the web server log does not
show any signs of a penetration test or a scan. The log shows only 404 errors on image files, which are not typical of a penetration test or a scan, which would
usually target different types of files, ports, or vulnerabilities. Checking with the penetration testing team will not help the analyst to identify non-relevant events, but
rather distract the analyst from the actual events and possibly create false alarms.
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NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 3)
After upgrading to a SOHO router that supports Wi-Fi 6, the user determines throughput has not increased. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the
issue?

A. The wireless router is using an incorrect antenna type.

B. The user's workstation does not support 802.11 ax.
C. The encryption protocol is mismatched
D. The network is experiencing interference.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The user’s workstation does not support 802.11 ax, which is the technical name for Wi-Fi 6. Wi-Fi 6 is a new wireless standard that offers faster speeds, higher
capacity, and lower latency than previous standards. However, to take advantage of these
benefits, both the router and the workstation need to support Wi-Fi 6. If the workstation only supports an older standard, such as 802.11 ac or Wi-Fi 5, then the
throughput will not increase even if the router supports Wi-Fi 6. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What is Wi-Fi 6? Here’s what you
need to know | PCWorld

NEW QUESTION 227

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is installing a new server in the data center. The administrator is concerned the amount of traffic generated will exceed 1GB. and higher-
throughput NiCs are not available for installation. Which of the following is the BEST solution for this issue?

A. Install an additional NIC and configure LACP.

B. Remove some of the applications from the server.
C. Configure the NIC to use fun duplex
D. Configure port mirroring to send traffic to another server.
E. Install a SSD to decrease data processing time.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 228

- (Topic 3)
During a recent security audit, a contracted penetration tester discovered the organization uses a number of insecure protocols. Which of the following ports should
be disallowed so only encrypted protocols are allowed? (Select TWO).

A. 22
B. 23
C. 69
D. 443
E. 587
F. 8080

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Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 233

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is troubleshooting a connection to a web server. The Technician Is unable to ping the server but is able to verify connectivity to the web
service using Tenet. Which of the following protocols is being blocked by me firewall?

A. UDP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. TCP

Answer: C

Explanation:
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a protocol that is used to send error and control messages between network devices, such as ping requests and
replies. ICMP is being blocked by the firewall, which prevents the network technician from pinging the web server. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a
protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of data between network devices, such as web service requests and responses using HTTP (Hypertext
Transfer Protocol). TCP is not being blocked by the firewall, which allows the network technician to verify connectivity to the web service using Telnet. UDP (User
Datagram Protocol) is a protocol that provides fast and efficient delivery of data between network devices, but does not guarantee reliability or order. UDP is used
for applications such as streaming media or online gaming. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on a
local network. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking Concepts, Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast OSI and
TCP/IP models, Subobjective: TCP/IP model layers (Application/Transport/Internet/Network Interface)

NEW QUESTION 235

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator wants to know which systems on the network are at risk of a known vulnerability. Which of the following should the administrator
reference?

A. SLA
B. Patch management policy
C. NDA
D. Site survey report
E. CVE

Answer: E

Explanation:
A Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a publicly available database of known security vulnerabilities and exposures that affect various software and
hardware products. A CVE entry provides a standardized identifier, a brief description, and references to related sources of information for each vulnerability or
exposure. A network administrator can reference the CVE database to check if any of the systems on the network are affected by a known vulnerability, and if so,
what are the potential impacts and mitigations.
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level and quality of service, such as
availability, performance, and security. An SLA does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the systems or services.
A Patch Management Policy is a set of rules and procedures that govern how patches are applied to systems and software to fix bugs, improve functionality, or
address security issues. A patch management policy can help prevent or reduce the risk of vulnerabilities or exposures, but it does not provide information on
specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the systems or software.
A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a legal contract between two or more parties that prohibits the disclosure of confidential or proprietary information to
unauthorized parties. An NDA does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the systems or information.
A Site Survey Report is a document that summarizes the results of a physical inspection and assessment of a network site, such as the layout, infrastructure,
equipment, and environmental conditions. A site survey report can help identify and resolve potential network issues, such as interference, signal strength, or
coverage, but it does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the network devices or software.
References
What is CVE?
What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning
NDA, MSA, SOW and SLA. Confidentiality agreements when you outsource QA Site Survey Report

NEW QUESTION 239

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is setting up a new phone system and needs to define the location where VoIP phones can download configuration files. Which of the
following DHCP services can be used to accomplish this task?

A. Scope options
B. Exclusion ranges
C. Lease time
D. Relay

Answer: A

Explanation:
To define the location where VoIP phones can download configuration files, the network administrator can use scope options within the Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service. Scope options are a set of values that can be configured within a DHCP scope, which defines a range of IP addresses that
can be leased to clients on a network. One of the scope options that can be configured is the option for the location of the configuration file server, which specifies
the URL or IP address of the server where the configuration files can be downloaded.
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NEW QUESTION 244

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator received a report staling a critical vulnerability was detected on an application that is exposed to the internet. Which of the following Is the

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appropriate NEXT step?

A. Check for the existence of a known exploit in order to assess the risk
B. Immediately shut down the vulnerable application server.
C. Install a network access control agent on the server.
D. Deploy a new server to host the application.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The appropriate next step in this situation would be to check for the existence of a known exploit in order to assess the risk. This is important because it will help
the network administrator determine the severity of the vulnerability and the potential impact it could have on the organization. Once the network administrator has
assessed the risk, they can then take appropriate action to address the vulnerability. This might include patching the application, deploying a new server to host
the application, or implementing other security measures to mitigate the risk. It is generally not advisable to immediately shut down the vulnerable application
server, as this could disrupt business operations and cause significant downtime. Similarly, installing a network access control agent on the server may not be the
most effective solution, as it would not address the underlying vulnerability.

NEW QUESTION 245

- (Topic 3)
A network deployment engineer is deploying a new single-channel 10G optical connection. Which of the following optics should the engineer MOST likely use to
satisfy this requirement?

A. QSFP
B. QSFP+
C. SFP
D. SFP+

Answer: D

Explanation:
SFP+ is a type of optical transceiver that supports 10G single-channel transmission over fiber optic cables. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it
is compatible with SFP slots on switches and routers.

NEW QUESTION 248

- (Topic 3)
A security vendor needs to add a note to the DNS to validate the ownership of a company domain before services begin. Which of the following records did the
security company MOST likely ask the company to configure?

A. TXT
B. AAAA
C. CNAME
D. SRV

Answer: A

Explanation:
TXT stands for Text and is a type of DNS record that can store arbitrary text data associated with a domain name. TXT records can be used for various purposes,
such as verifying the ownership of a domain, providing information about a domain, or implementing security mechanisms such as SPF (Sender Policy Framework)
or DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). In this scenario, the security company most likely asked the company to configure a TXT record with a specific value that
can prove the ownership of the domain. AAAA stands for IPv6 Address and is a type of DNS record that maps a domain name to an IPv6 address. CNAME stands
for Canonical Name and is a type of DNS record that maps an alias name to another name. SRV stands for Service and is a type of DNS record that specifies the
location of a service on a network.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.8: Explain the purposes and use cases for advanced networking
devices.

NEW QUESTION 249

- (Topic 3)
A device is connected to a managed Layer 3 network switch. The MAC address of the device is known, but the static IP address assigned to the device is not.
Which of the following features of a Layer 3 network switch should be used to determine the IPv4 address of the device?

A. MAC table
B. Neighbor Discovery Protocol
C. ARP table
D. IPConfig
E. ACL table

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ARP table is a database that is used by a device to map MAC addresses to their corresponding IP addresses. When a device sends a packet to another
device on the same network, it uses the MAC address of the destination device to deliver the packet. The ARP table allows the device to determine the IP address
of the destination device based on its MAC address.

NEW QUESTION 252

- (Topic 3)
After installing a series of Cat 8 keystones, a data center architect notices higher than normal interference during tests. Which of the following steps should the
architect
take to troubleshoot the issue?

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A. Check to see if the end connections were wrapped in copper tape before terminating.
B. Use passthrough modular crimping plugs instead of traditional crimping plugs.
C. Connect the RX/TX wires to different pins.
D. Run a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cat 8 keystones are shielded to prevent interference from external sources, but they also require proper grounding to avoid interference from within the cable.
Wrapping the end connections with copper tape before terminating them is one way to ensure a good ground connection and reduce interference. Using
passthrough modular crimping plugs, connecting the RX/TX wires to different pins, or running a speed test on a slow device are not relevant or effective steps to
troubleshoot the issue.
References:
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 191
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Deluxe Edition, page 362
? CAT8 RJ45 Keystone Problem : r/HomeNetworking2
? How to Terminate Cat8 Shielded Keystone Jacks3

NEW QUESTION 255

- (Topic 3)
A technician is concerned about unauthorized personnel moving assets that are installed in a data center server rack. The technician installs a networked sensor
that sends an alert when the server rack door is opened. Which of the following did the technician install?

A. Cipher lock
B. Asset tags
C. Access control vestibule
D. Tamper detection

Answer: D

Explanation:
Tamper detection is a physical security feature that can alert the technician when someone opens the server rack door without authorization. Tamper detection
sensors can be installed inside the equipment or on the rack itself, and they can send an alert via email, SMS, or other methods. Tamper detection can help
prevent unauthorized access, theft, or damage to the network assets.
References:
? Physical Security – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 4.51

NEW QUESTION 259

- (Topic 3)
Following the implementation of a BYOO policy. some users in a high-density environment report slowness over the wireless connection. Some wireless controller
reports indicate high latency and airtime contention. Which of the following is the most probable root cause?

A. The AP is configured with 2.4GHz frequency, which the new personal devices do not support.
B. The AP is configured with 2.4GHz frequency without band-steering capabilities.
C. The AP is configured with 5Ghz frequency with band-steering capabiäties.
D. The AP is configured with 5Ghz frequenc
E. which the new personal devices do not support

Answer: B

Explanation:
Band-steering is a feature that allows an AP to steer dual-band capable clients to the less congested 5GHz frequency, leaving the 2.4GHz frequency for legacy
clients. Without band- steering, the AP may have more clients competing for the same channel on the 2.4GHz frequency, resulting in high latency and airtime
contention.
References:
? According to the CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, one of the topics covered in the exam is “Given a scenario, use appropriate wireless
technologies and configurations”. One of the subtopics is “Band steering” 1.
? According to the PoliFi: Airtime Policy Enforcement for WiFi paper, “Band steering allows the access point to disable the 2.4 GHz band from probing the client
device, so it responds only to the 5 GHz band, reducing the congestion on the 2.4 GHz band while taking advantage of the faster 5GHz band to improve user’s
network experience.” 2.
? According to the Aruba Air Slice Tech Brief, “Air Slice minimizes airtime contention and efficiently groups Wi-Fi 6 and non-Wi-Fi 6 client devices to guarantee bit
rate, and provide bounded latency and jitter simultaneously.” 3.

NEW QUESTION 263

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator installed a new data and VoIP network. Users are now experiencing poor call quality when making calls. Which of the following should the
administrator do to increase VoIP performance?

A. Configure a voice VLAN.

B. Configure LACP on all VoIP phones.
C. Configure PoE on the network.
D. Configure jumbo frames on the network.

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Benefits of Voice VLAN
It ensures that your VoIP (Voice over Internet Phone) devices do not have to contend directly with all the broadcasts and other traffic from the data VLAN. A voice
VLAN can simplify network configuration in some circumstances."
https://community.fs.com/blog/auto-voip-vs-voice-vlan-what-s-the-difference.html Jumbo Frames

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"When jumbo frames on a VoIP/UC network are enabled, it can cause the same kind of
delay to your network transmissions."
"VoIP uses will always not benefit from jumbo frame, as VoIP like gaming, is latency and time sensitive. Jumbo Frame for Internet Purpose: You will not see any
performance boost as the files that came across the internet does not support jumbo frame."
https://www.ankmax.com/newsinfo/1358641.html#:~:text=VoIP%20uses%20will%20always
%20not,does%20not%20support%20jumbo%20frame.
"To summarize this general best practice guide, you should NOT enable jumbo frame feature as a general home user."

NEW QUESTION 267

- (Topic 3)
A company needs a redundant link to provide a channel to the management network in an incident response scenario. Which of the following remote access
methods provides the BEST solution?

A. Out-of-band access
B. Split-tunnel connections
C. Virtual network computing
D. Remote desktop gateways

Answer: A

Explanation:
Out-of-band access is a remote access method that provides a separate, independent channel for accessing network devices and systems. Out-of-band access
uses a dedicated network connection or a separate communication channel, such as a dial- up or cellular connection, to provide access to network devices and
systems. This allows an administrator to access the management network even if the primary network connection is unavailable or impaired. Out-of-band access is
a good solution for providing a redundant link to the management network in an incident response scenario because it can be used to access the network even if
the primary connection is unavailable or impaired.

NEW QUESTION 272

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following can be used to identify users after an action has occurred?

A. Access control vestibule

B. Cameras
C. Asset tag
D. Motion detectors

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cameras can be used to identify users after an action has occurred by recording their faces, clothing, or other distinctive features. Cameras are often used as a
deterrent and a forensic tool for security purposes. Access control vestibules, asset tags, and motion detectors are not effective in identifying users, but rather in
controlling access, tracking assets, and detecting movement.
References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Network Security, Subobjective 5.1: Summarize the importance of physical security
controls, page 231 CompTIA Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition (Exam N10-008), Chapter 18: Network Security, Section: Physical
Security, page 7372

NEW QUESTION 276

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following situations would require an engineer to configure subinterfaces?

A. In a router-on-a-stick deployment with multiple VLANs

B. In order to enable inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch
C. When configuring VLAN trunk links between switches
D. After connecting a router that does not support 802.1Q VLAN tags

Answer: A

Explanation:
A router-on-a-stick is a configuration that allows a single router interface to route traffic between multiple VLANs on a network1. A router-on-a-stick requires sub-
interfaces to be configured on the router interface, one for each VLAN. Each sub-interface is assigned a VLAN ID and an IP address that belongs to the
corresponding VLAN subnet. The router interface is connected to a switch port that is configured as a trunk port, which allows traffic from multiple VLANs to pass
through. The router then performs inter-VLAN routing by forwarding packets between the sub-interfaces based on their destination IP addresses. Inter-VLAN
routing is a process that allows devices on different VLANs to communicate with each other. Inter-VLAN routing can be performed by a router-on-a-stick
configuration, as explained above, or by a multilayer switch that has routing capabilities. A multilayer switch does not require sub-interfaces to be configured for
inter-VLAN routing; instead, it uses switch virtual interfaces (SVIs) that are associated with each VLAN. An SVI is a logical interface that represents a VLAN on a
switch and has an IP address that belongs to the VLAN subnet. The switch then performs inter-VLAN routing by forwarding packets between the SVIs based on
their destination IP addresses.
VLAN trunking is a method that allows traffic from multiple VLANs to be carried over a single link between switches or routers. VLAN trunking requires the use of a
tagging protocol, such as 802.1Q, that adds a header to each frame that identifies its VLAN ID. VLAN trunking does not require sub-interfaces to be configured on
the switches or routers; instead, it uses trunk ports that are configured to allow or deny traffic from specific VLANs. The switches or routers then forward packets
between the trunk ports based on their VLAN IDs.
* 802.1Q is a standard that defines how VLAN tagging and trunking are performed on Ethernet networks.
* 802.1Q adds a 4-byte header to each frame that contains a 12-bit field for the VLAN ID and a 3-bit field for the priority level. 802.1Q does not require sub-
interfaces to be configured on the switches or routers; instead, it uses trunk ports that are configured to support 802.1Q tagging and untagging. The switches or
routers then forward packets between the trunk ports based on their VLAN IDs and priority levels.

NEW QUESTION 278

- (Topic 3)

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A technician is equipped with a tablet, a smartphone, and a laptop to troubleshoot a switch with the help of support over the phone. However, the technician is
having issues interconnecting all these tools in troubleshooting the switch. Which Of the following should the technician use to gain connectivity?

A. PAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. MAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
A PAN stands for Personal Area Network and it is a type of network that connects devices within a small range, such as a few meters. A PAN can use wireless
technologies such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to interconnect devices such as tablets, smartphones, and laptops. A technician can use a PAN to gain connectivity
among these tools and troubleshoot the switch.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.2: Explain devices, applications, protocols and services at their appropriate OSI layers.

NEW QUESTION 279

- (Topic 3)
Which of me following security controls indicates unauthorized hardware modifications?

A. Biometric authentication
B. Media device sanitization
C. Change management policy
D. Tamper-evident seals

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 283

- (Topic 3)
An ISP is unable to provide services to a user in a remote area through cable and DSL. Which of the following is the NEXT best solution to provide services
without adding external infrastructure?

A. Fiber
B. Leased line
C. Satellite
D. Metro optical

Answer: C

Explanation:
If an ISP is unable to provide services to a user in a remote area through cable and DSL, the next best solution to provide services without adding external
infrastructure would likely be satellite. Satellite is a wireless communication technology that uses a network of satellites orbiting the Earth to transmit and receive
data. It is well-suited for providing connectivity to remote or rural areas where other types of infrastructure may not be available or may be cost-prohibitive to install.

NEW QUESTION 285

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the problem has
been identified?

A. Establish a theory.
B. Implement the solution.
C. Create a plan of action.
D. Verify functionality.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Creating a plan of action is the step of the troubleshooting methodology that would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the
problem has been identified. According to the web search results, the troubleshooting methodology consists of the following steps: 12
? Define the problem: Identify the symptoms and scope of the problem, and gather relevant information from users, devices, and logs.
? Establish a theory: Based on the information collected, hypothesize one or more possible causes of the problem, and rank them in order of probability.
? Test the theory: Test the most probable cause first, and if it is not confirmed, eliminate it and test the next one. Repeat this process until the root cause is found
or a new theory is needed.
? Create a plan of action: Based on the confirmed cause, devise a solution that can resolve the problem with minimal impact and risk. The solution may involve
checking through each level of the OSI model to ensure that all layers are functioning properly and that there are no configuration errors, physical damages, or
logical inconsistencies34
? Implement the solution: Execute the plan of action, and monitor the results. If the problem is not solved, revert to the previous state and create a new plan of
action.
? Verify functionality: Confirm that the problem is fully resolved and that the network is restored to normal operation. Perform preventive measures if possible to
avoid recurrence of the problem.
? Document the findings: Record the problem description, the solution, and the outcome. Update any relevant documentation, such as network diagrams, policies,
or procedures.
References1: Troubleshooting Methods for Cisco IP Networks 2: Troubleshooting Methodologies - CBT IT Certification Training 3: How to use the OSI Model to
Troubleshoot Networks 4: How is the OSI model used in troubleshooting? – Sage-Answer

NEW QUESTION 288

- (Topic 3)
A desktop support department has observed slow wireless speeds for a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image. No other devices have
experienced the same issue. Which of the following should the network administrator recommend troubleshooting FIRST to resolve this issue?

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A. Increasing wireless signal power

B. Installing a new WAP
C. Changing the protocol associated to the SSID
D. Updating the device wireless drivers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Wireless drivers can affect the performance and compatibility of your wireless connection5. If only a new line of laptops using the organization’s standard image
has experienced slow wireless speeds, it could be that their wireless drivers are outdated or incompatible with the network. Updating the device wireless drivers
could resolve this issue.
Wireless drivers play an important role in the performance of a wireless connection, as they control how the device interacts with the wireless network. If the
laptops in question are using an outdated version of the wireless driver, it could be causing the slow speeds. The network administrator should recommend
updating the device wireless drivers first to see if this resolves the issue.

NEW QUESTION 292

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for enforcing bandwidth limits when the performance of an application is not affected by the use of buffering but is
heavily impacted by packet drops?

A. Traffic shaping
B. Traffic policing
C. Traffic marking
D. Traffic classification

Answer: B

Explanation:
Traffic policing is a mechanism that monitors the traffic in any network and enforces a bandwidth limit by discarding packets that exceed a certain rate1. This can
reduce congestion and ensure fair allocation of bandwidth among different applications or users. However, discarding packets can also affect the performance and
quality of some applications, especially those that are sensitive to packet loss, such as voice or video. Traffic shaping is a congestion control mechanism that
delays packets that exceed a certain rate instead of discarding them1. This can smooth out traffic bursts and avoid packet loss, but it also introduces latency and
jitter. Traffic shaping can be beneficial for applications that can tolerate some delay but not packet loss, such as file transfers or streaming.
Traffic marking is a mechanism that assigns different priority levels to packets based on their type, source, destination, or other criteria2. This can help to
differentiate between different classes of service and apply different policies or treatments to them. However, traffic marking does not enforce bandwidth limits by
itself; it only provides information for other mechanisms to act upon.
Traffic classification is a process that identifies and categorizes packets based on their characteristics, such as protocol, port number, payload, or behavior. This
can help to distinguish between different types of traffic and apply appropriate policies or actions to them. However, traffic classification does not enforce
bandwidth limits by itself; it only provides input for other mechanisms to use.

NEW QUESTION 297

- (Topic 3)
A coffee shop owner hired a network consultant to provide recommendations for installing a new wireless network. The coffee shop customers expect high speeds
even when the network is congested. Which of the following standards should the consultant recommend?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Answer: B

Explanation:
802.11ax is the latest and most advanced wireless standard, providing higher speeds, lower latency, and more capacity than previous standards. It also supports
OFDMA, which allows multiple devices to share a channel and reduce congestion. The other options are older standards that have lower bandwidth, range, and
efficiency than 802.11ax. Therefore, 802.11ax is the best option for the coffee shop owner who wants to provide high speeds even when the network is congested.

NEW QUESTION 301

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following types of connections would need to be set up to provide access from the internal network to an external network so multiple satellite offices
can communicate securely using various ports and protocols?

A. Client-to-site VPN
B. Clientless VPN
C. RDP
D. Site-to-site VPN
E. SSH

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 306

- (Topic 3)
After a company installed a new IPS, the network is experiencing speed degradation. A network administrator is troubleshooting the issue and runs a speed test.
The results from the different network locations are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely issue?

A. Packet loss
B. Bottlenecking
C. Channel overlap

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D. Network congestion

Answer: B

Explanation:
The most likely issue is bottlenecking. Bottlenecking occurs when a component or device limits the performance or capacity of the network. In this case, the IPS
(intrusion prevention system) may be causing a bottleneck by inspecting and filtering the incoming and outgoing traffic, which reduces the speed and bandwidth
available for the network devices12
To confirm this issue, the network administrator can compare the speed test results before and after installing the IPS, and check the IPS configuration and logs for
any errors or warnings. The network administrator can also try to bypass the IPS temporarily and run the speed test again to see if there is any improvement3
If the IPS is indeed the cause of the bottleneck, the network administrator can try to optimize the IPS settings, such as adjusting the inspection rules, thresholds,
and priorities, to reduce the processing overhead and latency. Alternatively, the network administrator can upgrade the IPS hardware or software, or add more IPS
devices to balance the load and increase the throughput45
1: What is Network Congestion? Common Causes and How to Fix Them? -
GeeksforGeeks 2: Network congestion - Wikipedia 3: How to Fix Packet Loss - Lifewire 4: How to Optimize Your IPS Performance - Cisco 5: How to Avoid
Network Bottlenecks - TechRepublic

NEW QUESTION 309

- (Topic 3)
A large metropolitan city is looking to standardize the ability tor police department laptops to connect to the city government's VPN The city would like a wireless
solution that provides the largest coverage across the city with a minimal number of transmission towers Latency and overall bandwidth needs are not high
priorities. Which of the following would BEST meet the city's needs?

A. 5G
B. LTE
C. Wi-Fi 4
D. Wi-Fi 5
E. Wi-Fi 6

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 313

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following most likely occurs when an attacker is between the target and a legitimate server?

A. IP spoofing
B. VLAN hopping
C. Rogue DHCP
D. On-path attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
An on-path attack (also known as a man-in-the-middle attack) is a type of security attack where the attacker places themselves between two devices (often a web
browser and a web server) and intercepts or modifies communications between the two1. The attacker can then collect information as well as impersonate either
of the two agents. For example, an on-path attacker could capture login credentials, redirect traffic to malicious sites, or inject malware into legitimate web pages.
The other options are not correct because they describe different types of attacks:
•IP spoofing is the practice of forging the source IP address of a packet to make it appear as if it came from a trusted or authorized source2.
•VLAN hopping is a technique that allows an attacker to access a VLAN that they are not authorized to access by sending packets with a modified VLAN tag3.
•Rogue DHCP is a scenario where an unauthorized DHCP server offers IP configuration parameters to clients on a network, potentially causing network disruption
or redirection to malicious sites4.
References
2: Understanding Targeted Attacks: What is a Targeted Attack? 3: Types of attacks - Security on the web | MDN
1: What is an on-path attacker? | Cloudflare
4: [What is a Rogue DHCP Server? - Definition from Techopedia]

NEW QUESTION 318

- (Topic 3)
A customer has an attached USB printer that needs to be shared with other users. The desktop team set up printer sharing. Now, the network technician needs to
obtain the necessary information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the printer. Which of the following commands should the
technician use to get the required information? (Select TWO).

A. arp
B. route
C. netstat
D. tcpdump
E. hostname
F. ipconfig

Answer: EF

Explanation:
The hostname and ipconfig commands should be used to get the required information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the
printer. The hostname command displays the name of the computer on a network. The ipconfig command displays the IP configuration of the computer, including
its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. These information are necessary for other users to locate and connect to the shared printer on the
network. For example, other users can use the UNC path \\hostname\printername or \\ipaddress\printername to access the shared printer. References: [CompTIA
Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], How to Share a Printer in Windows 10

NEW QUESTION 323

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- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is looking for a solution to extend Layer 2 capabilities and replicate backups between sites. Which of the following is the best solution?

A. Security Service Edge

B. Data center interconnect
C. Infrastructure as code
D. Zero trust architecture

Answer: B

Explanation:
Data center interconnect (DCI) is a solution that allows Layer 2 connectivity and data replication between geographically dispersed data centers. DCI can be
implemented using various technologies, such as optical networks, MPLS, VPNs, or Ethernet. DCI can provide benefits such as improved disaster recovery, load
balancing, resource pooling, and cloud services.
References:
? Data Center Interconnect - CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Domain 1.4 - YouTube1
? CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 92

NEW QUESTION 325

- (Topic 3)
When accessing corporate network resources, users are required to authenticate to each application they try to access. Which of the following concepts does this
BEST represent?

A. SSO
B. Zero Trust
C. VPN
D. Role-based access control

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 329

- (Topic 3)
A technician is contracted to install a redundant cluster of devices from the ISP In case of a hardware failure within the network. Which of the following would
provide the BEST redundant solution in Layer 2 devices?

A. Multiple routers
B. Multiple switches
C. Multiple firewalls
D. Multiple budges

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 333

- (Topic 3)
A company realizes that only half of its employees work in the office, and the employees who work from home no longer need a computer at the office. Which of
the following security measures should the network administrator implement when removing a computer from a cubicle?

A. Disable DHCP on the computer being removed.

B. Place the switch port in a private VLAN.
C. Apply a firewall rule to block the computer's IP address.
D. Remove the employee's network access.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best security measure to implement when removing a computer from a cubicle is to remove the employee’s network access. This will prevent the employee
from accessing any network resources or data from the computer, as well as prevent any unauthorized users from using the computer to access the network.
Removing the employee’s network access can be done by deleting or disabling the user account, revoking the credentials, or changing the permissions.
The other options are not as effective or necessary as removing the employee’s network access. They are:
•Disabling DHCP on the computer being removed will prevent the computer from obtaining an IP address from the network, but it will not prevent the computer
from using a static IP address or accessing the network through another device.
•Placing the switch port in a private VLAN will isolate the computer from other devices on the network, but it will not prevent the computer from accessing the
network through another port or device.
•Applying a firewall rule to block the computer’s IP address will prevent the computer from communicating with the network, but it will not prevent the computer
from changing its IP address or accessing the network through another device.
References
1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - O’Reilly Media 2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: 10 Ways to Secure Office Workstations - Computer Security

NEW QUESTION 335

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer?

A. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery.

B. It checks independently for packet loss.
C. It encrypts data in transit.
D. It performs address translation.

Answer: A

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Explanation:

The application layer is the highest layer of the OSI model, and it provides the interface between the user and the network. It does not handle the details of packet
delivery, such as addressing, routing, error checking, or encryption. Those functions are performed by the lower layers of the OSI model. The application layer only
focuses on the format, content, and presentation of the data.
References:
? Understanding the OSI Model – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.11
? CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 92

NEW QUESTION 337

- (Topic 3)
Users report they cannot reach any websites on the internet. An on-site network engineer is able to duplicate the issue on a different PC. The network engineer
then tries to ping a website and receives the following message:
Ping request could not find host www.google.com. Please check the name and try again. Which of the following is the next step the engineer should take?

A. Ping 127. 0. 0. 1 to test local hardware.

B. Test the website from outside the company.
C. Ping internal name server functionality.
D. Check internet firewall logs for blocked DNS traffi

Answer: C

Explanation:

The error message “Ping request could not find host www.google.com” indicates that the network engineer’s PC cannot resolve the hostname www.google.com
to its corresponding IP address. This means that there is a problem with the DNS (Domain Name System) service, which is responsible for translating hostnames
to IP addresses and vice versa. The DNS service can be provided by internal or external name servers, depending on the network configuration.
The next step the engineer should take is to ping the internal name server functionality, which means to test if the PC can communicate with the name server that
is configured in its network settings, and if the name server can resolve internal hostnames, such as those of the company’s servers or devices. To do this, the
engineer can use the following commands:
? To find out the IP address of the name server, use ipconfig /all and look for the DNS Servers entry.
? To ping the name server, use ping <name server IP address> and check if the packets are sent and received successfully.
? To test the name resolution, use nslookup <internal hostname> and check if the name server returns the correct IP address.
If the ping or the nslookup commands fail, it means that the internal name server is not working properly, and the engineer should troubleshoot the name server
configuration or connectivity. If the ping and the nslookup commands succeed, it means that the internal name server is working properly, but there is a problem
with the external name resolution, and the engineer should check the internet firewall logs for blocked DNS traffic, or test the website from outside the company.
ReferencesWindows 10 can’t resolve hostnames - ping with IP works but not with hostnamePing request could not find host xyz.local. Please check the name and
try againDNS problem, nslookup works, ping doesn’t Users are connected to a switch on an Ethernet interface of a campus router. The service provider is
connected to the serial 1 interface on the router. The output of the interfaces is:
E1/0: 192.168.8.1/24 S1: 192.168.7.252/30

NEW QUESTION 341

- (Topic 3)
After a firewall replacement, some alarms and metrics related to network availability stopped updating on a monitoring system relying on SNMP. Which of the
following should the network
administrator do first?

A. Modify the device's MIB on the monitoring system.

B. Configure syslog to send events to the monitoring system.
C. Use port mirroring to redirect traffic to the monitoring system.
D. Deploy SMB to transfer data to the monitoring syste

Answer: A

Explanation:

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate with a monitoring system and provide information about
their status, performance, and configuration. SNMP relies on MIBs (Management Information Bases), which are collections of objects that define the types of
information that can be accessed or modified on a device1.
When a firewall replacement occurs, the new firewall may have a different MIB than the old one, which means that the monitoring system may not be able to
recognize or interpret the data sent by the new firewall. This can cause some alarms and metrics related to network availability to stop updating on the monitoring
system. To fix this, the network administrator should modify the device’s MIB on the monitoring system, so that it matches the MIB of the new firewall and can
correctly process the SNMP data2.
The other options are not relevant to the issue. Configuring syslog to send events to the monitoring system would not affect the SNMP data, as syslog is a different
protocol that sends log messages from network devices to a central server. Using port mirroring to redirect traffic to the monitoring system would not help, as port
mirroring is a technique that copies traffic from one port to another for analysis or troubleshooting purposes, but does not change the format or content of the
traffic. Deploying SMB to transfer data to the monitoring system would not work, as SMB is a protocol that allows file sharing and access between network devices,
but does not support SNMP data.
ReferencesGrafana & Prometheus SNMP: advanced network monitoring guideConfiguring Windows Systems for Monitoring with SNMP - ScienceLogic

NEW QUESTION 342

......

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