Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Basics – 1

1. The IETF standards documents are called [Answer: a]

a) RFC b) RCF c) ID d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Request For Comments.
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers
are [Answer: A]
a) Added b) Removed c) Rearranged d) Modified
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer.
3. The structure or format of data is called [Answer: A]
a) Syntax b) Semantics c) Struct d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines
how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that
interpretation.
4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ___________transmission.
a) Automatic b) Half-duplex c) Full-duplex d) Simplex
Explanation: Data flows in single direction. [Answer: D]
5. The first Network [Answer: D]
a) CNNET b) NSFNET c) ASAPNET d) ARPANET
Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks was the first
network to be implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol.
6. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels [Answer: B]
a) Path b) Medium c) Protocol d) Route
Explanation: Message travel from sender to reciever via a medium using a protocol.
7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field? [Answer : C]
a) ITU-T b) IEEE c) FCC d) ISOC
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission. FCC is
responsible for regulating all interstate communications originating or terminating in USA.
8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC b) Smartphones c) Servers d) Switch [Answer: d]
Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host systems, which can host applications like
web browser.
9. A set of rules that governs data communication
a) Protocols b) Standards c) RFCs d) None of the mentioned [Answer: a]
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow
a network of nodes to transmit and receive information.
10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection . [Answer : B]
a) Unipoint b) Multipoint c) Point to point d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network nodes
are connected to each other.
1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it
is called a) computer network b) distributed system
c) networking system d) none of the mentioned [Answer: b]
Explanation: Computer networks is defined as a collection of interconnected computers
which uses a single technology for connection.
A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main difference is that the
whole collection of computers appears to its users as a single coherent system
Example :- World wide web
2. Two devices are in network if
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same d) none of the mentioned
[Answer: A]
Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a digital telecommunications network
which allows nodes to share resources. In computer networks, computing devices exchange
data with each other using connections between nodes.
3. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?
a) prior network b) chief network c) prime network d) overlay network
[Answer: d]
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of another
network.
4. In computer network nodes are
a) the computer that originates the data b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data d) all of the mentioned [Answer: d]
Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be anything that is capable of sending data
or receiving data or even routing the data to the destination.
5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
a) broadcast network b) unicast network c) multicast network [Answer: a]
Explanation: In a broadcast network, an information is sent to all station in a network
whereas in a multicast network the data or information is sent to a group of stations in the
network. In unicast network, information is sent to only one specific station.
6. Bluetooth is an example of a) personal area network
b) local area network c) virtual private network d) none of the mentioned [Answer: A]
Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is the interconnection of information
technology devices within the range of an individual person, typically within a range of 10
meters.
7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the
routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge b) firewall c) router d) all of the mentioned [Answer: c]
Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device that forwards data packets between
computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called [Answer : B]
a) protocol architecture b) protocol stack c) protocol suite d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of protocols that are running concurrently
that are employed for the implementation of network protocol suite.
9. Network congestion occurs [Answer : A]
a) in case of traffic overloading b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: A network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than the
network could handle.
10. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network b) virtual private network c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network [Answer: b]
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network,
and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their
computing devices were directly connected to the private network.
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel d) None of the mentioned [Answer: c]
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone channel.
2. In DSL telco provides these services [Answer: c]
a) Wired phone access b) ISPc) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The same company which provides phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.
3. The function of DSLAM is
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals d) None of the mentioned [Answer: a]
Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central Office does this function.
4. The following term is not associted with DSL
a) DSLAM b) CO c) Splitter d) CMTS [Answer: d]
Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in cable internet access.
5. HFC contains [Answer : C]
a) Fibre cable b) Coaxial cable c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a
broadband network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable.
6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM [Answer: d]
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS.
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is
a) AON b) PON c) NON d) None of the mentioned
[Answer:a]
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially switched ethernets.
8. StarBand provides a) FTTH internet access b) Cable access
c) Telephone access d) Satellite access [Answer: d]
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in the
U.S. from 2000–2015.
9. Home Access is provided by
a) DSL b) FTTP c) Cable d) All of the mentioned [Answer: d]
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, Cable.
10. ONT is connected to splitter using
a) High speed fibre cable b) HFC c) Optical cable
d) None of the mentioned [Answer: c]
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the
Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable.
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel d) None of the mentioned [Answer: c]
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone channel.
2. In DSL telco provides these services
a) Wired phone access b) ISP c) All of the mentioned [Answer: c]
Explanation: The same company which provides phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.
3. The function of DSLAM is
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals d) None of the mentioned [Answer: a]
Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central Office does this function.
4. The following term is not associted with DSL
a) DSLAM b) CO c) Splitter d) CMTS [Answer: d]
Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in cable internet access.
5. HFC contains a) Fibre cable b) Coaxial cable
c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable [Answer: c]
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a
broadband network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable.
6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM [Answer: d]
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS.
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is
a) AON b) PON c) NON [Answer:a]
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially switched ethernets.
8. StarBand provides [Answer: D]
a) FTTH internet access b) Cable access c) Telephone access d) Satellite access
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in the
U.S. from 2000–2015.
9. Home Access is provided by [Answer: D]
a) DSL b) FTTP c) Cable d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, Cable.
10. ONT is connected to splitter using [Answer: C]
a) High speed fibre cable b) HFC c) Optical cable d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the
Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable.
1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack
a) 5 b) 7 c) 6 d) None of the mentioned [Answer: a]
Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers in Internet
Protocol stack is Application, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model
a) 5 b) 7 c) 6 [Answer: b]
Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application, Presentation,
Session, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.
3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model
a) Application layer b) Presentation layer c) Session layer
d) Both Session and Presentation layer [Answer: d]
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that in OSI
model two layers namely Presentation and Session layer have been added.
4. Application layer is implemented in
a) End system b) NIC c) Ethernet [Answer: a]
Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and transport
layer are also implemented in the end system.
5. Transport layer is implemented in
a) End system b) NIC c) Ethernet [Answer: a]
Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are implemented in the
end system.
6. The functionalities of presentation layer includes
a) Data compression b) Data encryption c) Data description d) All of the mentioned
[Answer: d]
Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer include character-code translation,
data conversion, data encryption and decryption, and data translation.
7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by
a) Application layer b) Session layer c) Transport layer d) Link layer [Answer: b]
Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a
session between end-user application processes. The session layer 5 is responsible for
establishing managing synchronizing and terminating sessions.
8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at
B is
a) Application layer b) Transport layer c) Link layer d) Session layer [Answer: d]
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session layer provides
the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end-user application
processes.
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is
a) Application layer b) Transport layer c) Link layer d) Session layer [Answer: a]
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is application layer. when data is sent from
device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is application layer.
10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
a) Added b) Removed c) Rearranged [Answer: b]
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers to higher
layer, headers get removed. Whereas when data packet move from higher layer to lower
layers, headers are added.
11. Identify the statement which cannot be associated with OSI model
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer [Answer: c]
Explanation: One layer may use the information from another layer Ex: timestamp value.
1. OSI stands for
a) open system interconnection b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation [Answer: a]
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model provides
a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network, which also helps us to
have a structured plan for troubleshooting.
2. The OSI model has _______ layers.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 [Answer: d]
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation,
Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and Physical layer.
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer b) transport layer c) application layer [Answer: a]
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present in TCP/IP
model. They are Presentation and Session layer.
4. Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers
a) session layer b) data link layer c) transport layer d) network layer [Answer: c]
Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and session,
presentation and application layers are user support layers.
5. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address b) port address
c) specific address d) all of the mentioned [Answer: d]
Explanation: All of the mentioned above addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. All the
addressing scheme, that is physical (MAC) and logical address, port address and specific
address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI model.
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to b) after c) simultaneous to [Answer: a]
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research centers
between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was developed in the year 1984.
7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?
a) network layer b) transport layer c) session layer d) data link layer [Answer: b]
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end
connection between two system in a network. The protocols used in Transport layer is TCP
and UDP.
8. Which address identifies a process on a host?
a) physical address b) logical address c) port address d) specific address [Answer: c]
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an Internet or
other network message is to be forwarded when it arrives at a server.
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer b) session layer c) presentation layer d) none of the mentioned [Ans :A]
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to create and
send information to other computer or network.
10. Transmission data rate is decided by a) network layer b) physical layer
c) data link layer d) transport layer Answer: b
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which deals with network cables or the
standards in use like connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically the transmission
speed is determined by the cables and connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that
determines the transmission speed in network.
1. The physical layer concerns with
a) bit-by-bit delivery p) process to process delivery c) application to application delivery
d) none of the mentioned [Answer: a]
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery in networking. The data unit in the
physical layer is bits. Process to process delivery is dealy in the transport layer.
2. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?
a) coaxial cable b) twisted pair cable c) optical fiber d) electrical cable [Answer: c]
Explanation: Fibre optics is considered to have the highest transmission speed among the all
mentioned above. The fibre optics transmission runs at 1000Mb/s. It is called as 1000Base-
Lx whereas IEEE stndard for it is 802.3z.
3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low frequency baseband signal (digital bitstream)
are transmitted over a higher frequency. Whereas in digital modulation the only difference is
that the base band signal is of discrete amplitude level.
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is
called
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The portion of physcial layer that interfaces with the medium access control
sublayer is Physical Signaling Sublayer. The main function of this layer is character
encoding, reception, decoding and performs optional isolation functions.
5. physical layer provides
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Anything dealing with a network cable or the standards in use – including pins,
connectors and the electric current used is dealt in the physical layer (Layer 1).
6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides
a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In asynchronous serial communication, the communication is not synchronized
by clock signal. Instead of a start and stop signaling and flow control method is followed.
7. The physical layer is responsible for
a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for line coding, channel coding and
modulation that is needed for the transmission of the information.
8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into
hardware specific operations. [Answer : A]
a) data link layer b) network layer c) trasnport layer d) application layer
Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or information from the data link layer and converts
it into hardware specific operations so as to transfer the message through physical cables.
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by
a) analog modulation b) digital modulation c) multiplexing [Answer: c]
Explanation: In communication and computer networks, the main goal is to share a scarce
resource. This is done by multiplexing, where multiple analog or digital signals are
combined into one signal over a shared medium.
10. Wireless transmission can be done via
a) radio waves b) microwaves c) infrared d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out by radio waves, microwaves and IR waves.
These waves range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and are more suitable for wireless
transmission because they allow a wider band for modulating signals, so you can obtain
higher frequency transmission.
1. The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames
for transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from application layer is sent to transport layer
and is converted to segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer and
these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are
encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the
frames are converted to bits.
2. Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical layer. Data link layer mainly deals
with framing, error control and flow control.
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the
type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with transmission of data packets to and
from the network-interface card, and also to and from another remotely shared channel.
4. Header of a frame generally contains
a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networks, the header is a part of the data that contains all the
required information about the transmission of the file. It contains information like
synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier etc.
5. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The logical link control is a sublayer of data link layer whose main function is
to manage traffic, flow and error control. This layer also acts as an interface between MAC
layer and network layer.
6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is
called
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a single bit error occurs in a data, it is called single bit error. When more
than a single bit of data is corrupted or has error, it is called burst error.
7. CRC stands for
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclic redundancy check is a code that is added to a data which helps us to
identify any error that occurred during the transmission of the data.
8. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?
a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) hdlc
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are many data link layer protocols. Some of them are SDLC
(synchronous data link protocol), HDLC (High level data link control), SLIP (serial line
interface protocol), PPP (Point to point protocol) etc.
9. Which one of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of collision after collision has occurred.
Whereas CSMA/CA deals with preventing collision. CSMA/CD is abbreviation for Carrier
Sensing Multiple Access/Collision detection. CSMA/CA is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing
Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance.
10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be
hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) fletcher’s checksum
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piggybacking is a technique in which the acknowledgment is temporarily
delayed so as to be hooked with the next outgoing data frame.
1. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to the
transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then transferred to the
network layer and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer
where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer
where the frames are converted to bits.
2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third layer and it provides data routing
paths for network communications.
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of
a) network address
b) host address
c) both network address & host address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed
of a network and host portion and it depends on address class.
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of
identifier which is used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a connection
oriented circuit switched network.
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go next. There are
several routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static and dynamic routing,
decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc.
6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free
logical topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and
switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have
redundant paths in your network.
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. The network layer protocol of internet is
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP,
CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for application layer and ethernet
protocol is for data link layer.
10. ICMP is primarily used for
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by
networking devices to send error messages and operational information indicating a host or
router cannot be reached.
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before
passing it to
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner Application ->
Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical.
2. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in networking?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both TCP and UDP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP is an
abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation for User
Datagram Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless.
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used for those purposes where speed
matters most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP is connectionless whereas TCP is
connection oriented.
4. Transmission control protocol is
a) connection oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) recievs data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Major internet applications like www, email, file transfer etc rely on tcp. TCP
is connection oriented and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than timely delivery.
It can incur long delays.
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way communication link in the network. TCP
layer can identify the application that data is destined to be sent by using the port number
that is bound to socket.
6. Socket-style API for windows is called
a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output requests for
internet applications in windows OS. It defines how windows network software should
access network services.
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol which deals with
reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit congestion notification,
feature negotiation.
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port identifies the
application or service running on the computer. A port number is 16 bits.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals
with logical communication between process. It is responsible for delivering a message
between network host.
10. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are many protocols in transport layer. The most prominent are TCP and
UDP. Some of the other protocols are RDP, RUDP, SCTP, DCCP etc.
1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________
a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Topology in networks is the structure or pattern in which each and every node
in the network is connected. There are many topologies in networking like bus, tree, ring,
star, mesh, hybrid.
2. In which topology there is a central controller or hub?
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In star topology a main hub is present to which all other nodes of the network is
connected. Every data or information being transmitted or received in this topology has to
pass through the hub. The hub directs the data to its destination.
3. This topology requires multipoint connection
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In bus topology, there is a single cable to which all the network nodes are
connected. So whenever a node tries to send a message or data to other nodes, this data
passes through all other nodes in the network.
4. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a
large geographical area. These are used to connect cities, states or even countries.
5. Data communication system within a building or campus is________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area Network. This network interconnects
computers in a small area such as schools, offices, residence etc.
6. Expand WAN?
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a
large geographical area. These are used to connect cities, states or even countries. They can
be connected through leased lines or satellites.
7. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is technique for
combining several low rate channel to a single high rate channel. For a certain time slot, the
several channels could use the maximum bandwidth.
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM is an abbreviation for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This technique is
used when the bandwidth of the channel is greater than the combined bandwidth of all the
signals which are to be transmitted.
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing
d) Duplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one can send multiples signals through a
shared medium at the same time. This helps in using less resources and thus saving the cost
of sending messages.
2. Multiplexing is used in _______
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching
d) Packet & Circuit switching
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by which one can obtain a physical
path between end points. Circuit switching method is also called a connection oriented
network.
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time DIvision Multiplexing is a method used for digital
signals. Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for Frequency DIvision Multiplexing and
Wavelength Division Multiplexing are used for analog signals.
4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate than TDM link has _______ slots.
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When it comes to TDM, each and every slots are dedicated to the source.
5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of
circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number os bits in a slot.
6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called __________
a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are instances when connection between two endpoints have been
established, but no communication or transfer of messages occur. This period of time is
called silent period.
7. Multiplexing can provide _________
a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our messages over a shared channel. This
brings up the issue of privacy and efficiency. Fortunately, Multiplexing has high efficiency
and high privacy when implemented.
8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the
transmission rates of the signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by the path that is multiplexed will
always be greater than the sum of transmission rates of the single sources.
9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In TDM time is divided into a frame. These same frames are then divided into
slots.
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system to
another ?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay
is(in milliseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2milli seconds.
3. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to direct the packet
is part of
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L = number of bits in the packet a = average rate R =
transmission rate
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is
10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The throughput is generally the transmission rate of bottleneck link.
6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested
network. The number of routers between source and destination is
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. The total nodal delay is given by
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier
transmission, which of the following delays could be zero
a) Propogation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Transmission delay does not depend on
a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / transmission rate
10. Propagation delay depends on
a) Packet length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit to propagate from one router to the
next.
1. The attackers a network of compromised devices known as
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or
fully open TCP connections at the target host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. Packet sniffers involve
a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.
6. Sniffers can be deployed in
a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. Firewalls are often configured to block
a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier
transmission, which of the following delays could be zero
a) Propogation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Which of this is not a guided media?
a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
2. UTP is commonly used in __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is commonly used in home access.
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coaxial cable has an inner conductor surrounded by a insulating layer,
which is surrounded by a conducting shield. Coaxial cable is used to carry high
frequency signals with low losses.
4. Fiber optics posses following properties __________
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In fibre optics the transmission of information is in the form of light or
photons. Due to all above properties mentioned in options fibre optics can be
submerged in water and are used at more risk environments.
5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals(in
Mbps) __________
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The base unit of transmission rates in optical fibre is 51.8 Mbits/s. So
an optical carrier represented as OC-n has n*51.8 Mbits/s transmission speed. For
eg. OC-3 has 3*51.8 Mbits/s speed.
6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed into _____ groups.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over very short distance, those
that operate in local areas, those that operate in the wide area.
7. Radio channels are attractive medium because __________
a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio channels can penetrate walls, can be used to provide
connectivity to mobile users and can also carry signals for long distances.
8. Geostationary satellites ___________
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.
1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched
d) Line switched
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented switching technique. Whereas
in the case of packet switching, it is connectionless. Circuit switching is implemented
in the Physical layer, whereas packet switching is implemented in the Network layer.
2. Most packet switches use this principle ____________
a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward
d) Stop and forward
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first bit to outbound link until it
receives the entire packet.
3. If there are N routers from source to destination, a total end to end delay in
sending packet P(L-> number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate)
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation to find the end to end delay when no. of bits,
transmission rate and no. of routers is given by (N*L)/R.
4. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Both Packet switching and Circuit switching
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Packet switching and Circuit switching are two different types of
switching methods used to connect the multiple communicating devices with one
another.
5. The resources needed for communication between end systems are reserved for
the duration of the session between end systems in ________
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In circuit switching, a physical path between the sender and receiver is
established. This path is maintained until the connection is needed.
6. As the resouces are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit
switching, this is achieved ___________
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented and is always implemented in
the physical layer. Once a path is set, all transmission occurs through the same
path.
7. In _________ resources are allocated on demand.
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In packet switching, the bits are received in out of order and need to be
assembled at the receiver end. Whereas in the case of Circuit switching, all the bits
are received in order.
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Network virtual terminal, mail service, file transfer, access and
management are all services of an application layer.
1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.
2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session layers there is no data
format for message. Message is message as such in these three layers. But when it
comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer they have data in format of
segments, packets, frames and bits respectively.
3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?
a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer
side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface between applications and the
network. So application developer can decide what transport layer to use and what
should be its maximum buffer size.
5. Application layer offers _______ service.
a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the application layer. Whereas
process to process service is provided at the transport layer.
6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.
7. Pick the odd one out.
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are services provided by the
application layer and there are message and data oriented.
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application layer are network virtual
terminal, file transfer, access and management, mail services, directory services,
various file and data operations.
9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the
_______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the network is located. Whereas MAC
address is a unique address for every device. Port address identifies a process or
service you want to carry on.
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.
11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________
a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transport services that are provided to application are reliable data
transfer, security and timing. These are very important for proper end to end
services.
12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?
a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Email uses various protocols like SMTP, IMAP and POP. The most
prominent one used in application layer is SMTP.
1. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the internet domain names are stored
and translated to IP addresses. The domain names systems matches the name of
website to ip addresses of the website.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote computers. Using telnet a user can
access computer remotely. With Telnet, you can log on as a regular user with
whatever privileges you may have been granted to the specific application and data
on the computer.
3. Application layer protocol defines ____________
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user interface, what message is to be
sent or the message format, syntax and semantics. A user has access to application
layer for sending and receiving messages.
4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application
layer protocol. A client who wishes to send a mail creates a TCP connection to the
SMTP server and then sends the mail across the connection.
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of applications including email
via MIME, and storing complex data in XML. Problem with sending normal binary
data to a network is that bits can be misinterpreted by underlying protocols, produce
incorrect data at receiving node and that is why we use this code.
6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices
on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network management and monitoring.
This protocol is included in the application layer. SNMP uses 7 protocol data units.
7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in transport layer. It is designed
to reserve resources across a network for quality of service using the integrated
services model.
8. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling
multimedia communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its function includes initiating,
maintaining and terminating real time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and
controlling multimedia sessions.
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices
during a communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Whereas TCP is a transport
layer protocol.
10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer protocol. It is the foundation
of data communication for world wide web. This protocol decides how the message
is formatted and transmitted etc.
1. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML
text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection. In
persistent connection server leaves connection open after sending response. As
little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client to server and back) is
required for all referenced objects.
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the
client is called __________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
4. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with the
server. In the second the step the client waits for the acknowledgement to be
received from the server. After receiving the acknowledgement, the client sends
actual data in the third step.
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response
takes __________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection will be persistent connection. Hence it
will take only 1 RTT to fetch a webpage from a server.
6. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line
is the initial part of response message.
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP
message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request
message.
8. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body
empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to request a response from a
server. Those are GET and POST. In GET method, the client requests data from
server. In POST method the client submits data to be processed to the server.
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when
____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET method. In HEAD method
much smaller amount of data is transferred. The HEAD method asks only for
information about a document and not for the document itself.
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.
11. Which of the following is not correct?
a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Web cache or also known as HTTP cache is a temporary storage
where HTML pages and images are stored temporarily so that server lag could be
reduced.
12. The conditional GET mechanism
a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The HTTP protocol requests the server of the website its trying to
access so that it can store its files, images etc. in cache memory. This request of
asking the server for a document considering a specific parameter is called
conditional GET Request.
13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Status line is the the start line of an HTTP response. It contains the
information such as the protocol version, a status text, status code.
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in
a) persistent HTTP
b) nonpersistent HTTP
c) both persistent HTTP and nonpersistent HTTP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular
port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. In HTTP pipelining
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for
the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) active mode
b) passive mode
c) both active mode and passive mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. The file transfer protocol is built on
a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Expansion of SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers mail adress is written with this
command
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence
it is push protocol.
7. Internet mail places each object in
a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. A session may include
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Example of user agents for e-mail
a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Apple Mail
c) None of the above
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer
protocol for electronic mail transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as
a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. SMTP uses the TCP port
a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
d) 25
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages?
a) smtp
b) post office protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?
a) protocol for SMTP security
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. A SMTP session may include
a) zero SMTP transaction
b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
8. SMTP defines
a) message transport
b) message encryption
c) message content
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that
anyone on the internet can send e-mail through it?
a) open mail relay
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to
a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
c) both user’s terminal and mailbox
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
1. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________
a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum of 255 characters. Although
each label must be from 1 to 63 characters long. Host name is actually a label that is
given to a device in a network.
2. A DNS client is called _________
a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver also known as DNS lookup
helps to resolve DNS requests using an external DNS server.
3. Servers handle requests for other domains _______
a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server from other domains, it
handles this situation by contacting remote DNS server.
4. DNS database contains _______
a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with mapping IP addresses with
the hostname but also deals with exchange of information in the server.
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then
_______
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c) request is not processed
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very important and critical as they are
the first step in translating human readable hostnames into IP addresses for carrying
out communication.
6. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP
address change?
a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or DynDNS helps in automatically
updating a name server in the DNS. This does not require manual editing.
7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a) @
b) *
c) &
d) #
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests to a non existent domain
name. This wildcard DNS record is specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting of a
domain name.
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are
accredited by _______
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers)
deals with IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic and
country code Top Level domain name system management (gTLD and ccTLD).
9. The domain name system is maintained by _______
a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a distributed database
system. It is a collection of multiple, logically interrelated databases distributed over
a computer network.
10. Which one of the following is not true?
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will correspond to a ip address.
For example facebook.com and fb.com both correspond to same ip address. So
there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address.
1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for __________
a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SSH provides high encryption and security features while
communicating through a network. It is a cryptographic network protocol.
2. SSH can be used in only _____________
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH isn’t confined to a certain network or operating system. It can be
implemented over different networks and on different operating systems.
3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) both public-key & private-key
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Public encryption key is slower but more flexible. Every cryptographic
security system requires a private key for private access and a public key for
location.
4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Port 22 is used for contacting ssh servers, used for file transfers (scp,
sftp) and also port forwarding.
5. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote
host except SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and rlogin.
6. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SCP (Secure copy protocol), SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) and
Rsync all are file transfer protocols which are used by SSH.
7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________
a) transport layer
b) user authentication layer
c) physical layer
d) connection layer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH2 is a more secure, portable and efficient version of SSH that
includes SFTP, which is functionally similar to FTP, but is SSH2 encrypted.
8. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a) password changing
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned features are provided by SSH-2 and that SSH-1
only provide strong authentication and guarantee confidentiality.
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.
a) RCP protocol
b) DHCP protocol
c) MGCP protocol
d) GCP protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RCP is the abbreviation for Rate Control Protocol is a congestion
control algorithm for fast user response times.
10. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SSH used public key authentication, Password authentication, Host
based authentication, keyboard authentication and authentication of servers.
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire their ip addresses
dynamically which is better than visiting each and every host on the network and
configure all of this information manually.
2. DHCP is used for ________
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. With DHCP you get
to let the hosts know about the change dynamically, and hosts update their info
themselves.
3. The DHCP server _________
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request from a client it responds with
a DHCP offer containing IP address being offered, network mask offered, the
amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip address of the DHCP
server making this offer.
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only for a limited period of time.
There is actually a certain amount of time that the client can use and keep this IP
address.
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as the destination port of a
server. Whereas UDP port number 68 is used by the client.
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP addresses from different
DHCP servers, the host will broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server whose
offer has been accepted.
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless service, which is provided by
UDP, since TCP is connection oriented. It is implemented with two UDP port
numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution protocol is used for mapping
IP addresses to MAC addresses that are present in the local network.
9. What is DHCP snooping?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used in OS of a network in
the layer 2. This technology prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP
addresses to DHCP clients.
10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific
______ can access the network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both MAC address and IP address
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent unauthorized IP addresses
being offered by unauthorized servers. This features allows only specific mac
addresses and IP addresses to access the network.
1. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the
a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network layer is used for transferring the data from transport layer to
another layers.
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits to the packets.
3. Which component is included in IP security?
a) Authentication Header (AH)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.
4. WPA2 is used for security in
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi connection.
5. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is
called
a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Denial of service attack.
6. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in
a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:Most data transfer is with wireless networks.
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PGP is at email security.
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called
a) International data encryption algorithm
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called international data
encryption algorithm.
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has
no authority giving that information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNS spoofing is the phenomenon for the above mentioned transaction.
1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public
network such as the internet, creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: VIRTUAL PRIVATE NETWORK.
2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?
a) Early 80’s
b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: LATE 90’S.
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?
a) PPTP
b) IPsec
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: YNUM.
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a backbone of the internet.
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP address.
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a) Always more expensive than leased lines
b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is very cheap.
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over a L2TP VPN?
a) IP
b) IPX
c) Neither IP or IPX
d) Both IP or IPX
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Data roming layer.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following
standards?
a) IPsec
b) PPTP
c) PPP
d) L2TP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec.
9. L2F was developed by which company?
a) Microsoft
b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cisco is the second best company to design and make the computer
networks.
10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Presentation layer.
11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Session layer.
1. Storage management comprises of
a) SAN Management
b) Data protection
c) Disk operation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk operation are the main things of storage
management.
2. Identify the storage devices
a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays
c) Tape drives
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape drives are main storage devices.
3. Which protocols are used for Storage management?
a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
d) MIB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol is for storage management.
4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator incur while dealing with diverse
vendors
a) Proprietary management interfaces
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center
c) No single view
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Proprietary management interfaces, multiple applications management
and no single view are main difficulties.
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices:
a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage administrators ensure secure access to
storage devices.
6. Effective Storage management includes
a) Securities
b) Backups
c) Reporting
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In storage management all necessities like security, backups and
reporting facilities are included.
7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Capacity management
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and Tracking are main tasks involved in SCM.
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s)
a) Standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and
single providers
c) Builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Driver software, old style dependence and strong foundation.
9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is to
a) To promote interoperability among the management solution providers
b Acts as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide
solution to manage various environments
c) Only To promote interoperability among the management solution providers
d) Both To promote interoperability among the management solution providers and
Acts as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide solution
to manage various environments
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Promote interoperability and interface between various buildings.
10. SMI-S Standard uses
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) CORBA
d) .NET
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S standard.
1. An application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of
agents is called
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a
set of agents is called SNMP.
2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each domain from
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased on each domain in full duplex mode.
3. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems those are
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Both Reconfiguration and documentation and Management and configuration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reconfiguration and documentation are two subsystems of
configuration management.
4. To use Simple Network Management System (SNMP), we need
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To use Simple Network Management System (SNMP), we need rules.
5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is the
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main difference between SNMPv3 and
SNMPv2.
6. In Network Management System, a term that responsible for controlling access to
network based on predefined policy is called
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A term that responsible for controlling access to network based on
predefined policy is called security management.
7. BER stands for
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic encoding rules.
8. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main
responsibilities of
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are
main responsibilities of accounting management.
9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the
TCP/IP protocol.
10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is guideline of
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP.
1. The protocol used by Telnet application is
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. In “character at a time” mode
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote
system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. The correct syntax to be written in the web browser to Telnet to
www.sanfoundry.com is
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server
a) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
https://www.sanfoundry.com/computer-networks-mcqs-telnet/