DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, HYDERABAD

WORK SHEETS

SUBJECT: PHYSICS

CLASS: XI

Academic Session
2023 – 2024
2024-2025
Disclaimer!!

All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on

Class 11 NCERT Physics Text Books Volume 1 and 2,

Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker, Move Fast with Physics by S L

Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and

Student Support Material- by KVS RO.

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, HYDERABAD
Subject: Physics Class: XI

CHAPTER-WISE ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

ASSERTION: A
REASON: R
Answer: (1) Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (2) Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (3) A is true and Reason is wrong.
Answer: (3) A is wrong and Reason is true.

Chapter 1, 2 Physical World; Units and Measurements

Q.1. Assertion: Dimensional constants are the quantities whose values are constant.
Reason: Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

Answer: (c) Dimensional constants are not dimensionless.

Q.2. Assertion: When we change the unit of measurement of a quantity, its numerical
value changes.
Reason: Smaller the unit of measurement smaller is its numerical value.

Answer: (c)

Q.3. Assertion: Parallax method cannot be used for measuring distances of stars more
than 100 light years away.
Reason: Because parallax angle reduces so much that it cannot be measured accurately.

Answer: (a) As the distance of star increases, the parallax angle decreases, and great
degree of accuracy is required for its measurement. Keeping in view the practical
limitation in measuring the parallax angle, the maximum distance of a star we can
measure is limited to 100 light years.

Q.4. Assertion: A.U. is much bigger than Å.

Reason: A.U. stands for astronomical unit and A stands for Angstrom.

Answer: (b)

Q.5. Assertion: The cesium atomic clocks are very accurate

Reason: The vibration of cesium atom regulates the rate of cesium atomic clock.

Answer: (b)

Q.6. In the measurement of physical quantities direct and indirect methods are used.
Reason: The accuracy and precision of measuring instruments along with errors in
measurements should be taken into account, while expressing the result.

Answer: (a)

Q.7. Assertion: Now a days a standard metre is defined in terms of the wavelength of
light.
Reason: Light has no relation with length.

Answer: (c) Light has well defined relation with length.

Q.8. Assertion: The error in the measurement of radius of the sphere is 0.3%.The
permissible error in its surface area is 0.6%.
Reason: The permissible error is calculated by the formula ΔA/A=4Δr/r

Answer: (c)

Q.9. Assertion: The number of significant figures depends on the least count of
measuring instrument.
Reason: Significant figures define the accuracy of measuring instrument.

Answer: (b)

Q.10. Assertion: Out of three measurements I = 0.7 m; I = 0.70 m and I = 0.700 m, the last
one is most accurate.
Reason: In every measurement, only the last significant digit is not accurately known.

Answer: (b) The last number is most accurate because it has greatest significant figure
(3).

Q.11. Assertion: Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 is three
Reason: This is because zeros are not significant.

Answer: (c) Since zeros placed to the left of the number are never significant, but zeros
placed to right of the number are significant

Q.12. Assertion: Absolute error may be negative or positive.

Reason: Absolute error is the difference between the real value and the measured value
of a physical quantity.
Answer: (a)

Q.13. Assertion: Energy cannot be divided by volume.

Reason: Dimensions for energy and volume are different.

Answer: (d)

Q.14. Assertion: ‘Light year’ and ‘Wavelength’ both measure distance.

Reason: Both have dimension of time.

Answer: (c) Light year and wavelength both represent the distance, so both have
dimension of length not of time.

Q.15. Assertion: Avogadro’s number is the number of atoms in one gram mole.
Reason: Avogadro’s number is a dimensionless constant.

Answer: (c)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Q.1. Assertion: A body may be accelerated even when it is moving uniformly.

Reason: When direction of motion of the body is changing, the body must have
acceleration.

Answer: (a) In uniform circular motion, there is acceleration of constant magnitude.

Q.2. Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not
zero.
Reason: The displacement is the longest distance between initial and final position.

Answer: (c) The displacement is the shortest distance between initial and final position.
When final position of a body coincides with its initial position, displacement is zero,
but the distance travelled is not zero.

Q.3. Assertion: For one dimensional motion the angle between acceleration and velocity
must be zero.
Reason: One dimensional motion is always on a straight line.

Answer: (d) One dimensional motion is always along straight line. But acceleration may
be opposite of velocity and so angle between them will be 180°.

Q.4. Assertion: Displacement of a body is vector sum of the area under velocity– time
graph.
Reason: Displacement is a vector quantity.

Answer: (a) According to definition, displacement = velocity × time. Since displacement

is a vector quantity so its value is equal to the vector sum of the area under velocity-
time graph.
Q.5. Assertion: The position-time graph of a uniform motion, in one dimension of a
body cannot have negative slope.
Reason: In one – dimensional motion the position does not reverse, so it cannot have a
negative slope.

Answer: (c)

Q.6. Assertion: Position-time graph of a stationary object is a straight line parallel to

time axis.
Reason: For a stationary object, position does not change with time.

Answer: (a) Position-time graph for a stationary object is a straight line parallel to time
axis showing that not change in position with time.

Q.7. Assertion: Velocity-time graph for an object in uniform motion along a straight
path is a straight
line parallel to the time axis.
Reason: In uniform motion of an object velocity increases as the square of time elapsed.

Answer: (c) In uniform motion the object moves with uniform velocity, the magnitude
of its velocity at different instance i.e., at t = 0, t =1, sec, t = 2sec ….. will always be
constant. Thus velocity-time graph for an object in uniform motion along a straight path
is a straight line parallel to time axis.

Q.8. Assertion: The average and instantaneous velocities have same value in a uniform
motion.
Reason: In uniform motion, the velocity of an object increases uniformly.

Answer: (c) In uniform motion the speed is same at each instant of motion.
Q.9. The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or
equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.
Reason: Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

Answer: (a) Because displacement ≤ distance and so average velocity ≤ average speed.

Q.10. Assertion: The speedometer of an automobile measure the average speed of the
automobile.
Reason: Average velocity is equal to total displacement per total time taken.

Answer: (d) Speedometer measures instantaneous speed of automobile.

Q.11. Assertion: An object can have constant speed but variable velocity.
Reason: Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector quantity.

Answer: (a) Since velocity is a vector quantity, hence as its direction changes keeping
magnitude constant, velocity is said to be changed. But for constant speed in equal time
interval distance travelled should be equal.

Q.12. Assertion: position-time graph of a body moving uniformly in a straight line

parallel to position axis. Says body is at rest.
Reason: The slope of position-time graph in a uniform motion gives the velocity of an
object.

Answer: (c) If the position-time graph of a body moving uniformly in a straight line
parallel to position axis, it means that the position of body is changing at constant time.
The statement is abrupt and shows that the velocity of body is infinite.
Q.13. Assertion: A particle starting from rest and moving with uniform acceleration
travels’ a length of x and 3x in first two and next two-seconds.
Reason: Displacement is directly proportional to velocity.

Answer: (c)

Q.14. Assertion: A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses the direction.

Reason: A body cannot have acceleration if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.

Answer: (c)

Q.15. Assertion: The position-time graph of a uniform motion in one dimension of a

body can have negative slope.
Reason: When the speed of body decreases with time, the position-time graph of the
moving body has negative slope.

Answer: (c) Negative slope of position time graph represents that the body is moving
towards the negative direction and if the slope of the graph decrease with time then it
represents the decrease in speed i.e. retardation in motion.

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Q.1. Assertion: In projectile motion, the angle between the instantaneous velocity and
acceleration at the highest point is 180°.
Reason: At the highest point, velocity of projectile will be in horizontal direction only.

Answer: (d)

Q.2. Assertion: Two particles of different mass, projected with same velocity at same
angles. The maximum height attained by both the particle will be same.
Reason: The maximum height of projectile is independent of particle mass.

Answer: (a)

Q.3. Assertion: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is proportional to square of

velocity.
Reason: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is equal to maximum height
attained by projectile.

Answer: (c)

Q.4. Assertion: If there were no gravitational force, the path of the projected body
always be a straight line.
Reason: Gravitational force makes the path of projected body always parabolic.

Answer: (c)

Q.5. Assertion: Horizontal range is same for angle of projection θ and (90 – θ).
Reason: Horizontal range is independent of angle of projection.
Answer: (c)

Q.6. Assertion: If dot product and cross product of A and B are zero, it implies that one
of the vector A and B must be a null vector
Reason: Null vector is a vector with zero magnitude.

Answer: (b)

Q.7. Assertion: The scalar product of two vectors can be zero.

Reason: If two vectors are perpendicular to each other, their scalar product will be zero.

Answer: (a)

Q.8. Assertion: A physical quantity cannot be called as a vector if its magnitude is zero.
Reason: A vector has both magnitude and direction.

Answer: (d) If a vector quantity has zero magnitude then it is called a null vector. That
quantity may have some direction even if its magnitude is zero.

Q.9. Assertion: Minimum number of non-equal vectors in a plane required to give zero
resultant is three.
Reason: If sum of vectors A+B+C=0 , then they must lie in one plane.

Answer: (a)
Q.10. Assertion: If A.B= B.C, then A may not always be equal to C.
Reason: The dot product of two vectors involves cosine of the angle between the two
vectors.

Answer: (b)

Q.11. Assertion: If a body of mass m is projected upwards with a speed V making an

angle θ with the vertical, than the change in the momentum of the body along X–axis is
zero.
Reason: Mass of the body remains constant along X–axis

Answer: (b) When a body is projected up making an angle θ the velocity component
along-axis remains constant.
Therefore, Momentum along x-axis is constant. Along horizontal, mass and velocity
both are constant.

Q.12. Assertion: The magnitude of velocity of two boats relative to river is same. Both
boats start simultaneously from same point on one bank may reach opposite bank
simultaneously moving along different paths.
Reason: For boats to cross the river in same time. The component of their velocity
relative to river in direction normal to flow should be same.

Answer: (b)

Q.13. Assertion: Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same
speed. They will pass through their point of projection in the downward direction with
the same speed.
Reason: The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of
projection are independent of the mass of the ball.

Answer: (a)
Q.14. Assertion: τ = r x F and τ ≠ F x r
Reason: Cross product of vectors is commutative.

Answer: (c)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Q.1. Assertion: On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive a car or bus at high speed.
Reason: The value of coefficient of friction is lowered due to wetting of the surface.

Answer: (a) On a rainy day, the roads are wet. Wetting of roads lowers the coefficient of
friction between the types and the road. Therefore, grip on a road of car reduces and
thus chances of skidding increases.

Q.2. Assertion: A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

Reason: Whenever there is change in momentum of one body, the same change occurs
in the momentum of the second body of the same system but in the opposite direction.

Answer: (a)

Q.3. Assertion: An object can move with constant velocity if no net force acts on it.
Reason: No net force is needed to move an object with constant velocity.

Answer: (a)

Q.4. Assertion: If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero.
Reason: Acceleration does not depend on force.

Answer: (c)
Q.5. Assertion: For the motion of electron around nucleus, Newton’s second law is
used.
Reason: Newton’s second law can be used for motion of any object.

Answer: (c) Newton’s second law can not be used for any object.

Q.6. Assertion: Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in linear motion.

Reason: Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or of
uniform motion.

Answer: According to Newton’s second law of motion a = F/m i.e. magnitude of the
acceleration produced by a given force is inversely proportional to the mass of the
body. Higher is the mass of the body, lesser will be the acceleration produced i.e. mass
of the body is a measure of the opposition offered by the body to change a state, when
the force is applied i.e. mass of a body is the measure of its inertia.

Q.7. Assertion: Impulse of force and momentum are same physical quantities.
Reason: Both quantities have same unit.

Answer: (d) Impulse and momentum are different quantities, but both has same unit
(N–s).

Q.8. Same force applied for the same time causes the same change in momentum for
different bodies
Reason: The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting bodies remains
conserved.

Answer: (b)
Q.9. Assertion: A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the rifle recoils freely, the kinetic energy
of rifle is more than that of the bullet.
Reason: In case of rifle bullet system, the law of conservation of momentum violates.

Answer: (d)

Q.10. Assertion: A cricketer moves his hands forward to catch a ball so as to catch it
easily without hurting.
Reason: He tries to decrease the distance travelled by the ball so that it hurts less.

Answer: (d) A cricket player moves his hands backward to increase the time interval for
reducing the momentum of the ball to zero. Thus the ball does not hit him hard as force
is directly proportional to change of momentum.

Q.11. Assertion: The two bodies of masses M and m (M > m) are allowed to fall from
the same height if the air resistance for each be the same then both the bodies will reach
the earth simultaneously.
Reason: For same air resistance, acceleration of both the bodies will be same.

Answer: (a)

Q.12. Assertion: A block placed on a table is at rest, because action force cancels the
reaction force on the block.
Assertion: The net force on the block is zero.

Answer: (d) The net force on the block is zero, but action cannot cancel the reaction
because these two act on different bodies.
Q.13. Assertion: Frictional forces are conservative forces.
Reason: Potential energy can be associated with frictional forces.

Answer: (d)

Q.14. Assertion: A man and a block rest on smooth horizontal surface. The man holds a
rope which is connected to block. The man cannot move on the horizontal surface.

Reason: A man standing at rest on smooth horizontal surface cannot start walking due
to absence of friction (The man is only in contact with floor as shown).

Answer: (d) The man can exert force on block by pulling the rope. The tension in rope
will make the man move. Hence statement-1 is false.

Q.15. Friction is a necessary evil

Reason: Though friction dissipates power, but without friction we cannot walk.

Answer: (a) Friction causes wear & tear and loss of energy, so it is an evil but without
friction walking. Stopping a vehicle etc. would not be possible. So it is necessary for us.
Q.16. Assertion: There is a stage when frictional force is not needed at all to provide the
necessary centripetal force on a banked road.
Reason: On a banked road, due to its inclination the vehicle tends to remain inwards
without any chances of skidding.

Answer: (c) The assertion is true for a reason that when the car is driven at optimum
speed. Then the normal reaction component is enough to provide the centripetal force.

Q.17. Assertion: A cyclist always bends inwards while negotiating a curve.

Reason: By bending, cyclist lowers his centre of gravity

Answer: (c) The purpose of bending is to acquire centripetal force for circular motion.
By doing so component of normal reaction will counter balance the centrifugal force.

Q.18. Assertion: Force is required to move a body uniformly along a circle.

Reason: When the motion is uniform, acceleration is zero.

Answer: (b) When a body is moving in a circle, its speed remains same but velocity
changes due to change in the direction of motion of body. According to first law of
motion, force is required to change the state of a body. As in circular motion the
direction of velocity of body is changing so the acceleration cannot be zero. But for a
uniform motion acceleration is zero (for rectilinear motion).

Q.19. Assertion: Linear momentum of a body changes even when it is moving

uniformly in a circle.
Reason: In uniform circular motion, velocity remains constant.
Answer: (c) In uniform circular motion, the direction of motion changes, therefore
velocity changes. As P = mv therefore momentum of a body also changes uniform
circular motion.

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Q.1. Assertion: A work done by friction is always negative.

Reason: If frictional force acts on a body its K.E. may decrease.

Answer: (d) When frictional force is opposite to velocity, kinetic energy will decrease.

Q.2. Assertion: A spring has potential energy, both when it is compressed or stretched.
Reason: In compressing or stretching, work is done on the spring against the restoring
force.

Answer: (a)

Q.3. Assertion: A force applied on the body always does work on the body.
Reason: If a force applied on a body displaces the body along the direction of force
work done will be maximum.

Answer: (d)

Q.4. Assertion: A man rowing a boat upstream is at rest with respect to the bank. He is
doing no external work.
Reason: Work done by constant force, W = F s cosθ.

Answer: (a) In this case, s = 0, and so W = 0.

Q.5. Assertion: The work done in moving a body over a closed loop is zero for every
force in nature.
Reason: Work done depends on nature of force.
Answer: (b) In close loop, s = 0, and so W = Fs = 0.

Q.6. Assertion: The rate of change of total momentum of a many particle system is
proportional to the sum of the internal forces of the system.
Reason: Internal forces can change the kinetic energy but not the momentum of the
system.

Answer: (d)

Q.7. Assertion: The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it
by the net force.
Reason: Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to work done only in case of a
system of one particle.

Answer: (c) Change in kinetic energy = work done by net force. This relationship is
valid for particle as well as system of particles.

Q.8. Assertion: Kinetic energy of a system can be increased or decreased without

applying any external force on the system.
Reason: This is because K.E. =mV2/2, so it independent of any external forces.

Answer: (c) K.E. can be increased or decreased without applying any external force, as
internal forces can do work e.g., explosion of a bomb.

Q.9. Assertion: Kinetic energy of a body is quadrupled, when its velocity is doubled.
Reason: Kinetic energy is proportional to square of velocity. If velocity is doubled the
K.E. will be quadrupled

Answer
Q.10. Assertion: If the velocity of a body is tripled, then K.E. becomes 9 times.
Reason: Kinetic energy, K.E.=mv2/2

Answer: (a)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 7 System of Particles and Rotational Motion

Q.1. Assertion: The centre of mass of a body may lie where there is no mass.
Reason: Centre of mass of body is a point, where the whole mass of the body is
supposed to be concentrated.

Answer: (a) As the concept of centre of mass is only theoretical, therefore in practice no
mass may lie at the centre of mass. For example, centre of mass of a uniform circular
ring is at the centre of the ring where there is no mass.

Q.2. Assertion: The earth is slowing down and as a result the moon is coming nearer to
it.
Reason: The angular momentum of the earth moon system is conserved.

Answer: (d) The earth is not slowing down. The angular momentum of the earth –
moon system is conserved.

Q.3. Assertion: When you lean behind over the hind legs of the chair, the chair falls
back after a certain angle.
Reason: Centre of mass lying outside the system makes the system unstable.

Answer: (c)

Q.4. Assertion: The centre of mass of system of n particles is the weighted average of
the position vector of the n particles making up the system.
Reason: The position of the centre of mass of a system in independent of coordinate
system.

Answer: (b)
Q.5. Assertion: Centre of mass of a ring lies at its geometric centre though there is no
mass.
Reason: Centre of mass is independent of mass.

Answer: (b)

Q.6. Assertion: The centre of mass of an isolated system has a constant velocity.
Reason: If centre of mass of an isolated system is already at rest, it remains at rest.

Answer: (b)

Q.7. Assertion: The position of center of mass of body depends upon shape and size of
the body.
Reason: Centre of mass of a body lies always at the centre of the body

Answer: (c) The position of centre of mass of a body depends on shape, size and
distribution of mass of the body. The centre of mass does not lie necessarily at the centre
of the body.

Q.8. Assertion: If no external force acts on a system of particles, then the centre of mass
will not move in any
direction.
Reason: If net external force is zero, then the linear momentum of the system remains
constant.

Answer: (a)
Q.9. Assertion: A particle is moving on a straight line with a uniform velocity, its
angular momentum is always zero.
Reason: The momentum is not zero when particle moves with a uniform velocity.

Answer: (d)

Q.10. Assertion: The centre of mass of a two particle system lies on the line joining the
two particle, being closer to the heavier particle.
Reason: Product of mass of particle and its distance from centre of mass is numerically
equal to product of mass of other particle and its distance from centre of mass.

Answer: (a)

Q.11. Assertion: For a system of particles under central force field, the total angular
momentum is conserved.
Reason: The torque acting on such a system is zero.

Answer: (a) Both the assertion and reason are true.

Q.12. Assertion: Torque is a vector quantity directed opposite to the applied force.
Reason: Torque τ=- r x F

Answer: (d)

Q.13. Assertion: It is harder to open and shut the door if we apply force near the hinge.
Reason: Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.
Answer: (c) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance of line of action of force from the
axis of rotation (d).
Hence for a given applied force, torque or true tendency of rotation will be high for
large value of d. If distance d is smaller, then greater force is required to cause the same
torque, hence it is harder to open or shut down the door by applying a force near the
hinge.

Q.14. Assertion: Torque is equal to rate of change of angular momentum.

Reason: Angular momentum depends on moment of inertia and angular velocity.

Answer: (b)

Q.15. Assertion: When no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity remains
constant as long as moment of inertia is constant.
Reason: Torque τ = 0; dL/dt = 0, L = constant. L = Iω = constant

Answer: (a)

Q.16. Assertion: When axis of rotation passes through the centre of gravity, then the
moment of inertia of a rigid body increases.
Reason: At the centre of gravity mass gets concentrated and moment of inertia
increases.

Answer: (d) The moment of inertia of a rigid body reduces to its minimum value, when
the axis of rotation passes through its centre of gravity because the weight of a rigid
body always acts through its centre of gravity.
Q.17. Assertion: An ice-skater stretches out arms-legs during performance.
Reason: Stretching out arms-legs helps the performer to balance his or her body so that
he or she does not fall.

Answer: (c) An ice-skater stretches out arms and legs during performance to take
advantage of principle of conservation of angular momentum. As on doing so, their
moment of inertia increases or decreases respectively and hence the angular velocity of
spin motion decreases or increases accordingly.

Q.18. Assertion: If polar ice melts, days will be longer.

Reason: Moment of inertia decreases and thus angular velocity increases.

Answer: (c) As the polar ice melts, water so formed flows towards the equator. The
moment of inertia of the earth increases. To conserve angular momentum, angular
velocity decreases. This increases the length (T = 2π/ω) of the day.

Q.19. Assertion: The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere is the sum of
translational and rotational kinetic energies.
Reason: For all solid bodies total kinetic energy is always twice the translational kinetic
energy.

Answer: (c)

Q.20. Assertion: Moment of inertia of a particle is same, whatever be the axis of rotation
Reason: Moment of inertia depends on mass and distance of the particles.

Answer: (d) The moment of inertia of a particle about an axis of rotation is given by the
product of the mass of the particle and the square of the perpendicular distance of the
particle from the axis of rotation. For different axis, distance would be different,
therefore moment of inertia of a particle changes with the change in axis of rotation

Q.21. Assertion: Radius of gyration of body is a constant quantity.

Reason: The radius of gyration of a body about an axis of rotation may be defined as the
root mean square distance of the particle from the axis of rotation.

Answer: (d)

Q.22. Assertion: A rigid disc rolls without slipping on a fixed rough horizontal surface
with uniform angular velocity. Then the acceleration of lowest point on the disc is zero.
Reason: For a rigid disc rolling without slipping on a fixed rough horizontal surface, the
velocity of the lowest point on the disc is always zero.

Answer: (d) For a disc rolling without slipping on a horizontal rough surface with
uniform angular velocity, the acceleration of lowest point of disc is directed vertically
upwards and is not zero (Due to translation part of rolling, acceleration of lowest point
is zero. Due to rotational part of rolling, the tangential acceleration of lowest point is
zero and centripetal acceleration is non-zero and upwards). Hence assertion is false.

Q.23. Assertion: When a sphere is rolls on a horizontal table it slows down and
eventually stops.
Reason: When the sphere rolls on the table, both the sphere and the surface deform near
the contact. As a result, the normal force does not pass through the centre and provide
an angular declaration.

Answer: (b)
Q.24. Assertion: The velocity of a body at the bottom of an inclined plane of given
height, is more when it slides down the plane, compared to when it is rolling down the
same plane.
Reason: In rolling, down, a body acquires both, kinetic energy of translation and
rotation.

Answer: (a) In sliding down, the entire potential energy is converted into kinetic
energy. While in rolling down some part of potential energy is converted into K.E. of
rotation. Therefore linear velocity acquired is less.

Q.25. Assertion: A wheel moving down a frictionless inclined plane will slip and not
roll on the plane.
Reason: It is the frictional force which provides a torque necessary for a body to roll on
a surface.

Answer: (b)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 8 Gravitation

Q.1. Assertion: A body loses weight when it is at the centre of the earth.
Reason: At the centre of earth, g = 0. Therefore, weight = mg = 0.

Answer: (a)

Q.2. Assertion: If earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis, then the value of
acceleration due to gravity will become same at all the places.
Reason: The value of acceleration due to gravity depends upon the rotation of the earth.

Answer: (c)

Q.3. Assertion: A body becomes massless at the centre of earth.

Reason: This follows from g’ = g (1 – d/R)

Answer: (d) At the centre of the earth, weight is zero but mass cannot be and never
zero.

Q.4. Assertion: Space rockets are usually launched in the equatorial line from west to
east.
Reason: The acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the equator.

Answer: (c)

Q.5. Assertion: Gravitational force between two particles is negligibly small compared
to the electrical force.
Reason: The electrical force is experienced by charged particles only.
Answer: (b)

Q.6. Assertion: The gain in potential energy of an object of mass m raised to height
equal to the radius of earth is mgR/2
Reason: Kinetic energy at surface = P.E at the top mv2/2 and at the top v = √gR. PE =
mgR/2.

Answer: (c)

Q.7. Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity i.e. ‘g’ is different at different
places on the surface of earth.
Reason: Earth is flattened at poles and bulging out at the equator. Therefore radius is
smaller at poles and larger at equator and g α 1/R2, so, g is smaller at equator than at
poles.

Answer: (a)

Q.8. Assertion: Smaller the orbit of the planet around the sun, shorter is the time it takes
to complete one revolution.
Reason: According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, square of time period is
proportional to cube of mean distance from sun.

Answer: (a)

Q.9. Assertion: Moon travelers tie heavy weight at their back before landing on the
moon.
Reason: The acceleration due to gravity on moon is smaller than that of earth.
Answer: (a) To counter balance the effect of gravity.

Q.10. Assertion: Generally, the path of a projectile from the earth is parabolic but it is
elliptical for projectiles going to a very large height.
Reason: The path of a projectile is independent of the gravitational force of earth.

Answer: (c)

Q.11. Assertion: Gravitational potential is maximum at infinity.

Reason: Gravitational potential is the amount of work done to shift a unit mass from
infinity to a given point in gravitational attraction force field.

Answer: (b)

Q.12. Assertion: The tidal waves in sea are primarily due to the gravitational effect of
earth.
Reason: The intensity of gravitational field of earth is maximum at the surface of earth.

Answer: (d)

Q.13. Assertion: For the planets orbiting around the sun, angular speed, linear speed
and K.E. changes with time, but angular momentum remains constant.
Reason: No torque is acting on the rotating planet. So its angular momentum is
constant.

Answer: (a)
Q.14. Assertion: Gravitational potential of earth at every place on it is negative.
Reason: Everybody on earth is bound by the attraction of earth.

Answer: (a) Because gravitational force is always attractive in nature and everybody is
bound by this gravitational force of attraction of earth.

Q.15. Assertion: Planets appear to move slower when they are farther from the sun
than when they are nearer.
Reason: All planets move in elliptical orbits with sun at one of the foci of the ellipse.

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not correct explanation of
the assertion.

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Q.1. Assertion: Steel is more elastic than rubber.

Reason: Under given deforming force, steel is deformed less than rubber.

Answer: (a) Elasticity is a measure of tendency of the body to regain its original
configuration. As steel is deformed less than rubber therefore steel is more elastic than
rubber.

Q.2. Assertion: Glassy solids have sharp melting point.

Reason: The bonds between the atoms of glassy solids get broken at the same
temperature.

Answer: (d) In a glassy solid (i.e., amorphous solid) the various bonds between the
atoms or ions or molecules of a solid are not equally strong. Different bonds are broken
at different temperatures. Hence there is no sharp melting point for a glassy solid.

Q.3. Assertion: Bulk modulus of elasticity (K) represents incompressibility of the

material.
Reason: Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional to change in pressure.

Answer: (a)

Q.4. Assertion: A hollow shaft is found to be stronger than a solid shaft made of same
material.
Reason: The torque required to produce a given twist in hollow cylinder is greater than
that required to twist a solid cylinder of same size and material.

Answer: (a)
Q.5. Assertion: The stretching of a coil is determined by its shear modulus.
Reason: Shear modulus change only shape of a body keeping its dimensions
unchanged.

Answer: (a) Because, the stretching of coil simply changes its shape without any change
in the length of the wire used in coil. Due to which shear modulus of elasticity is
involved.

Q.6. Assertion: Young’s modulus for a perfectly plastic body is zero.

Reason: For a perfectly plastic body, restoring force is zero.

Answer: (a)

Q.7. Assertion: Strain is a unit less quantity.

Reason: Strain is equivalent to force.

Answer: (c) Strain is the ratio of change in dimensions of the body to the original
dimensions. Because this is a ratio, therefore it is dimensionless quantity.

Q.8. Assertion: Identical springs of steel and copper are equally stretched. More work
will be done on the steel spring.
Reason: Steel is more elastic than copper.

Answer: (a)
Q.9. Assertion: The bridges declared unsafe after a long use.
Reason: Elastic strength of bridges losses with time.

Answer: (a) A bridge during its use undergoes alternating strains for a large number of
times each day, depending upon the movement of vehicles on it when a bridge is used
for long time, it losses its elastic strength. Due to which the amount of strain in the
bridge for a given stress will become large and ultimately, the bridge may collapse. This
may not happen, if the bridges are declared unsafe after long use.

Q.10. Assertion: Two identical solid balls, one of ivory and the other of wet-clay are
dropped from the same height on the floor. Both the balls will rise to same height after
bouncing.
Reason: Ivory and wet-clay have same elasticity.

Answer: (d) Ivory is more elastic than wet-clay. Hence the ball of ivory will rise to a
greater height. In fact the ball of wet-clay will not rise at all, it will be somewhat
flattened permanently.

Q.11. Assertion: Stress is the internal force per unit area of a body.
Reason: Rubber is less elastic than steel.

Answer: (b) Stress is defined as internal force (restoring force) per unit area of a body.
Also, rubber is less elastic than steel, because restoring force is less for rubber than steel.

Q.12. Assertion: Spring balances show correct readings even after they had been used
for a long time interval.
Reason: On using for long time, spring balances do not losses its elastic strength.
Answer: (d) Because, the stretching of coil simply changes its shape without any change
in the length of the wire used in coil. Due to which shear modulus of elasticity is
involved.

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Q.1. Assertion: It is easier to spray water in which some soap is dissolved.

Reason: Soap is easier to spread.

Answer: (c) When a liquid is sprayed, the surface area of the liquid increases. Therefore,
work has to be done in spraying the liquid, which is directly proportional to the surface
tension.
Because on adding soap, surface tension of water decreases, the spraying of water
becomes easy.

Q.2. Assertion: The angle of contact of a liquid decrease with increase in temperature.
Reason: With increase in temperature, the surface tension of liquid increase.

Answer: (c) With increase in temperature surface tension of the liquid decreases and
angle of contact also decreases.

Q.3. Assertion: When height of a tube is less than liquid rise in the capillary tube, the
liquid does not overflow.
Reason: Product of radius of meniscus and height of liquid in capillary tube always
remains constant.

Answer: (a) As h decreases, R increases and the liquid meniscus becomes more and
more flat, but the liquid does not overflow.

Q.4. Assertion: A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a
ball of the same material will always sink.
Reason: The buoyancy of an object depends both on the material and shape of the
object.
Answer: (c)

Q.5. Assertion: A large force is required to draw apart normally two glass plates
enclosing a thin water film.
Reason: Water works as glue and sticks two glass plates.

Answer: (c) The two glass plates stick together due to surface tension.

Q.6. Assertion: The impurities always decrease the surface tension of a liquid.
Reason: The change in surface tension of the liquid does not depend upon the degree of
contamination of the impurity.

Answer: (d) The presence of impurities either on the liquid surface or dissolved in it,
considerably affect the force of surface tension, depending upon the degree of
contamination. A highly soluble substance like sodium chloride when dissolved in
water increase the surface tension. But the sparing soluble or substance like phenol
when dissolved in water reduces the surface tension of water.

Q.7. Assertion: The concept of surface tension is held only for liquids.
Reason: Surface tension does not hold for gases.

Answer: (b) We know that the intermolecular distance between the gas molecules is
large as compared to that of liquid. Due to it the forces of cohesion in the gas molecules
are very small and these are quite large for liquids. Therefore, the concept of surface
tension is applicable to liquid but not to gases.
Q.8. Assertion: At critical temperature, surface tension of a liquid becomes zero.
Reason: At this temperature, intermolecular forces for liquids and gases become equal.
Liquid can expand without any restriction.

Answer: (a) Zero surface tension means no opposition to expansion.

Q.9. Assertion: A large soap bubble expands while a small bubble shrinks, when they
are connected to each other by a capillary tube.
Reason: The excess pressure inside bubble (or drop) is inversely proportional to the
radius.

Answer: (a) Since the excess pressure due to surface tension is inversely proportional to
its radius, it follows that smaller the bubble, greater is the excess pressure. Thus, when
the larger and the smaller bubbles are put in communication, air starts passing from the
smaller into the large bubble because excess pressure inside the former is greater than
inside the latter. As a result, the smaller bubble shrinks and the larger one swells.

Q.10. Assertion: It is better to wash the clothes in cold soap solution.

Reason: The surface tension of cold solution is less than the surface tension of hot
solution.

Answer: (d) The soap solution, has less surface tension as compared to ordinary water
and its surface tension decreases further on heating. The hot soap solution can,
therefore spread over large surface area and also it has more wetting power. It is on
account of this property that hot soap solution can penetrate and clean the clothes better
than the ordinary water.

Q.11. Assertion: Tiny drops of liquid resist deforming forces better than bigger drops.
Reason: Excess pressure inside a drop is directly proportional to surface tension.
Answer: (b) When a drop of liquid is poured on a glass plate, the shape of the drop is
governed by two forces, the force of gravity. For very small drops, the potential energy
due to gravity is insignificant compared to that due to surface tension. Hence, in this
case the shape of the drop is determined by surface tension alone and drop becomes
spherical.

Q.12. Assertion: The shape of a liquid drop is spherical.

Reason: The pressure inside the drop is greater than that of outside.

Answer: (b) The free surface of liquid tries to acquire a minimum area due to surface
tension, hence liquid drop is spherical because sphere has minimum area than other
shape.

Q.13. Assertion: The water rises higher in a capillary tube of small diameter than in the
capillary tube of large diameter.
Reason: Height through which liquid rises in a capillary tube is inversely proportional
to the diameter of the capillary tube.

Answer: (a) For smaller r the value of h is higher.

Q.14. Assertion: Hot soup tastes better than the cold soup.
Reason: Hot soup has high surface tension and it does not spread properly on our
tongue.

Answer: (c) With increase in temperature of liquid its surface tension decreases so that
it tends to acquire larger area. Hence hot soup having low value of surface tension
spread properly on our tongue & provides better taste than cold soup.

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics Text Books
Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker, Move Fast with Physics
by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of Matter

Q.1. Assertion: Specific heat capacity is the cause of formation of land and sea breeze.
Reason: The specific heat of water is more than land.

Answer: (a)

Q.2. Assertion: A brass disc is just fitted in a hole in a steel plate. The system must be
cooled to loosen the disc from the hole.
Reason: The coefficient of linear expansion for brass is greater than the coefficient of
linear expansion for steel.

Answer: (a)

Q.3. Assertion: The coefficient of volume expansion has dimension K–1.

Reason: The coefficient of volume expansion is defined as the change in volume per
unit volume per unit change in temperature.

Answer: (a)

Q.4. Assertion: The temperature at which Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers

read the same is – 40°.
Reason: There is no relation between Fahrenheit and Centigrade temperature.

Answer: (c)

Q.5. Assertion: The melting point of ice decreases with increase of pressure.
Reason: Ice contracts on melting.
Answer: (a) With rise in pressure melting point of ice decreases. Also ice contracts on
melting

Q.6. Assertion: When a solid iron ball is heated, percentage increase is its volume is
largest.
Reason: Coefficient of superficial expansion is twice that of linear expansion whereas
coefficient of volume expansion is three time of linear expansion.

Answer: (a)

Q.7. Assertion: A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It will overflow, both
when heated and cooled.
Reason: There is expansion of water below and above 4°C.

Answer: (a)

Q.8. Assertion: Latent heat of fusion of ice is 336000 Jkg–1.

Reason: Latent heat refers to change of state without any change in temperature

Answer: (b)

Q.9. Assertion: Two bodies at different temperatures, if brought in thermal contact do

not necessary settle to the mean temperature.
Reason: The two bodies may have different thermal capacities.

Answer: (a)
Q.10. Assertion: Specific heat of a body is always greater than its thermal capacity.
Reason: Thermal capacity is the required for raising temperature of unit mass of the
body through unit degree.

Answer: (d)

Q.11. Assertion: Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of
the moon.
Reason: The temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point
of the water.

Answer: (a)

Q.12. Assertion: Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring temperature.

Reason: Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale used for measuring temperature.

Answer: (c)

Q.13. Assertion: The molecules at 0ºC ice and 0ºC water will have same potential
energy.
Reason: Potential energy depends only on temperature of the system.

Answer: (d)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 12 Thermodynamics

Q.1. Assertion: When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms
around the opening.
Reason: Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and
condensation of water vapours.

Answer: (a) When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened. A slight fog forms
around the opening. This is because of adiabatic expansion of gas causes lowering of
temperature and condensation of water vapours.

Q.2. Assertion: The heat supplied to a system is always equal to the increase in its
internal energy.
Reason: When a system changes from one thermal equilibrium to another, some heat is
absorbed by it.

Answer: (d)

Q.3. Assertion: In adiabatic compression, the internal energy and temperature of the
system get decreased.
Reason: The adiabatic compression is a slow process

Answer: (d) Adiabatic compression is a rapid action and both the internal energy and
the temperature increases.

Q.4. Assertion: In isothermal process whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is
converted into internal energy.
Reason: According to the first law of thermodynamics ΔQ = ΔU.

Answer: (d)
Q.5. Assertion: We cannot change the temperature of a body without giving (or taking)
heat to (or from) it.
Reason: According to principle of conservation of energy, total energy of a system
should remain conserved.

Answer: (d) We can change the temperature of a body without giving (or taking) heat to
(or from) it. For example in an adiabatic compression temperature rises and in an
adiabatic expansion temperature false, although no heat is given or taken from the
system in the respective changes.

Q.6. Assertion: The specific heat of a gas is an adiabatic process is zero and in an
isothermal process is infinite.
Reason: Specific heat of a gas in directly proportional to change of heat in system and
inversely proportional to change in temperature.

Answer: (a)

Q.7. Assertion: Reversible systems are difficult to find in real world.

Reason: Most processes are dissipative in nature

Answer: (a) In a perfectly reversible system, there is no loss of energy. Losses can be
minimised, friction can be reduced, the resistance in L-C oscillating system can also be
negligible. But one cannot completely eliminate energy losses. This makes a perfectly
reversible system, an ideal.

Q.8. Assertion: Air quickly leaking out of a balloon becomes coolers

Reason: The leaking air undergoes adiabatic expansion.

Answer: (a) Adiabatic expansion produces cooling.

Q.9. Assertion: Thermodynamic process in nature is irreversible.
Reason: Dissipative effects cannot be eliminated.

Answer: (a) In reversible process, there always occurs some loss of energy. This is
because energy spent in working against the dissipative force is not recovered back.
Some irreversible process occurs in nature such as friction where extra work to cancel
the effect of friction. Salt dissolves in water but a salt does not separate by itself into
pure salt and pure water.

Q.10. Assertion: Work and heat are two equivalent form of energy.
Reason: Work is the transfer of mechanical energy irrespective of temperature
difference, whereas heat is the transfer of thermal energy because of temperature
difference only.

Answer: (a) Heat is similar to work in that both represent ways of transferring energy.
Neither heat nor work is an intrinsic property of a system, that is, we cannot say that a
system contains a certain amount of heat or work.

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

Q.1. Assertion (A): The number of degrees of freedom of linear triatomic molecules is 7.
Reason (R): The number of degree of freedom depends on number of particle in the
system.

Answer: (b)

Q.2. Assertion (A): Absolute zero is not the temperature corresponding to zero energy.
Reason (R): The temperature at which no molecular motion ceases is called absolute
zero
temperature.

Answer: (a)

Q.3. Assertion (A): The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and specific
heat at constant volume for a diatomic gas is more than that for a monatomic gas.
Reason (R): The molecules of a monatomic gas have more degree of freedom than those
of a diatomic gas.

Answer: (d)

Q.4. Assertion (A): An undamped spring-mass system is simplest free vibration system.
Reason (R): It has three degrees of freedom.

Answer: (c)

Q.5. Assertion (A): Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.
Reason (R): Absolute zero degree temperature is not zero energy temperature.
Answer: (b)

Q.6. Assertion (A): Specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is greater than its specific
heat at constant volume.
Reason (R): At constant pressure, some heat is spent in expansion of the gas.

Answer: (a)

Q.7. Assertion (A): The total translational kinetic energy of all the molecules of a given
mass of an ideal gas is 1.5 times the product of its pressure and its volume.
Reason (R): The molecules of a gas collide with each other and the velocities of the
molecules
change due to collision.

Answer: (b)

Q.8. Assertion (A): Mean free path of gas molecules varies inversely as density of the
gas.
Reason (R): Mean free path of gas molecules is defined as the average distance travelled
by a molecule between two successive collisions.

Answer: (b)

Q.9. Assertion (A): The root mean square velocity of molecules of a gas having Maxwell
distribution of velocities is higher than their most probable velocity, at any temperature.
Reason (R): A very small number of molecules of a gas molecule which possess very
large velocities.

Answer: (c)
Q.10. Assertion (A): Vibrational energy of diatomic molecule corresponding to each
degree of freedom is kBT.
Reason (R): For every molecule, vibrational degree of freedom is 2.

Answer: (c)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 14 Oscillations

Q.1. Assertion: Sine and cosine functions are periodic functions.

Reason: Sinusoidal functions repeat it values after a definite interval of time.

Answer: (a)

Q.2. Assertion: Simple harmonic motion is a uniform motion.

Reason: Simple harmonic motion is not the projection of uniform circular motion.

Answer: (d)

Q.3. Assertion: Acceleration is proportional to the displacement. This condition is not

sufficient for motion in simple harmonic.
Reason: In simple harmonic motion direction of displacement is also considered.

Answer

Q.4. Assertion: The graph between velocity and displacement for a harmonic oscillator
is a parabola.
Reason: Velocity changes uniformly with displacement in harmonic motion.

Answer: (d)

Q.5. Assertion: When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate on the surface of moon,
its time period increases.
Reason: Moon is much smaller as compared to earth.
Answer: (b)

Q.6. Assertion: All oscillatory motions are necessarily periodic motion but all periodic
motion is not oscillatory.
Reason: Simple pendulum is an example of oscillatory motion.

Answer: (b)

Q.7. Assertion: Resonance is special case of forced vibration in which the natural
frequency of vibration of the body is the same as the impressed frequency of external
periodic force and the amplitude of forced vibration is maximum.
Reason: The amplitude of forced vibrations of a body increases with an increase in the
frequency of the externally impressed periodic force.

Answer: (c)

Q.8. Assertion: The graph of total energy of a particle in SHM w.r.t., position is a
straight line with zero slope.
Reason: Total energy of particle in SHM remains constant throughout its motion.

Answer: (a)

Q.9. Assertion: The frequency of a second pendulum in an elevator moving up with an

acceleration half the acceleration due to gravity is 0.612 s–1.
Reason: The frequency of a second pendulum does not depend upon acceleration due
to gravity.

Answer: (c)
Q.10. Assertion: Damped oscillation indicates loss of energy.
Reason: The energy loss in damped oscillation may be due to friction, air resistance etc.

Answer: (b)

Q.11. Assertion: The percentage change in time period is 1.5%, if the length of simple
pendulum increases by 3%.
Reason: Time period is directly proportional to length of pendulum.

Answer: (c)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Chapter 15 Waves

Q.1. Assertion: Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each other.
Reason: There is no atmosphere on moon.

Answer: (a) Sound waves require material medium to travel. As there is no atmosphere
(vacuum) on the surface of moon, therefore the sound waves cannot reach from one
person to another.

Q.2. Assertion: The velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity.

Reason: Velocity of sound does not depend upon the medium.

Answer: (c)

Q.3. Assertion: Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to
the shore.
Reason: Ocean waves are longitudinal waves.

Answer: (c) Ocean waves are transverse waves travelling in concentric circles of ever
increasing radius. When they hit the shore, their radius of curvature is so large that they
can be treated as plane waves. Hence they hit the shore nearly normal to the shore.

Q.4. Assertion: Transverse waves are not produced in liquids and gases.
Reason: Light waves are transverse waves.

Answer: (b) Transverse waves travel in the form of crests and troughs involving change
in shape of the medium. As liquids and gases do not possess the elasticity of shape,
therefore, transverse waves cannot be produced in liquid and gases. Also light wave is
one example of transverse wave.
Q.5. Assertion: Compression and rarefaction involve changes in density and pressure.
Reason: When particles are compressed, density of medium increases and when they
are rarefied, density of medium decreases.

Answer: (a) A compression is a region of medium in which particles come closer i.e.,
distance between the particles becomes less than the normal distance between them.
Thus there is a temporary decrease in volume and a consequent increase in density of
medium. Similarly in rarefaction, particle gets farther apart and a consequent decrease
in density.

Q.6. Assertion: Sound would travel faster on a hot summer day than on a cold winter
day.
Reason: Velocity of sound is directly proportional to the square of its absolute
temperature.

Answer: (c)

Q.7. Assertion: The basic of Laplace correction was that, exchange of heat between the
region of compression and rarefaction in air is not possible.
Reason: Air is a bad conductor of heat and velocity of sound in air is large.

Answer: (c) According to Laplace, the changes in pressure and volume of a gas, when
sound waves propagated through it, are not isothermal, but adiabatic. A gas is a bad
conductor of heat. It does not allow the free exchange of heat between compressed
layer, rarefied layer and surrounding.

Q.8. Assertion: The flash of lightening is seen before the sound of thunder is heard.
Reason: Speed of sound is greater than speed of light

Answer: (c) Speed of light is greater than that of sound; hence flash of lightening is seen
before the sound of thunder.
Q.9. Assertion: When we start filling an empty bucket with water, the pitch of sound
produced goes on decreasing.
Reason: The frequency of man voice is usually higher than that of woman.

Answer: (d)

Q.10. Assertion: A tuning fork is made of an alloy of steel, nickel and chromium.
Reason: The alloy of steel, nickel and chromium is called elinvar.

Answer: (b) A tuning fork is made of a material for which elasticity does not change.
Since the alloy of nickel, steel and chromium (elinvar) has constant elasticity, therefore
it is used for the preparation of tuning fork.

Q.11. Assertion: The change in air pressure effect the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to square root of
pressure.

Answer: (d)

Q.12. Assertion: Solids can support both longitudinal and transverse waves but only
longitudinal waves can propagate in gases.
Reason: For the propagation of transverse waves, medium must also necessarily have
the property of rigidity.

Answer: (a) For the propagation of transverse waves, medium must have the property
of rigidity. Because gases have no rigidity, (they do not posses shear elasticity), hence
transverse waves cannot be produced is gases. On the other hand, the solids possess
both volume and shear elasticity and likewise both the longitudinal and transverse
waves can be transmitted through them.
Q.13. Assertion: Under given conditions of pressure and temperature, sound travels
faster in a monoatomic gas than in diatomic gas.
Reason: Opposition for wave to travel is more in diatomic gas than monoatomic gas.

Answer: (c)

Q.14. Assertion: The speed of sound in solids is maximum though their density is large.
Reason: The coefficient of elasticity of solid is large.

Answer: (a)

Q.15. Assertion: On a rainy day sound travel slower than on a dry day.
Reason: When moisture is present in air the density of air increases.

Answer: (d) When moisture is present in air, the density of air decreases. It is because
the density of water vapours is less than that of dry air. The velocity of sound is
inversely proportional to the square root of density, hence sound travel faster in moist
air than in the dry air. Therefore, on a rainy day sound travels faster than on a dry day.

Q.16. Assertion: To hear distinct beats, difference in frequencies of two sources should
be less than 10.
Reason: More the number of beats per sec more difficult to hear them.

Answer: (b)
Q.17. Assertion: Sound produced by an open organ pipe is richer than the sound
produced by a closed organ pipe.
Reason: Outside air can enter the pipe from both ends, in case of open organ pipe.

Answer: (b) Sound produced by an open organ pipe is richer because it contains all
harmonics and frequency of fundamental note in an open organ pipe is twice the
fundamental frequency in a closed organ pipe of same length.
Reason is also correct, but it is not explaining the assertion.

Q.18. Assertion: It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by
two violins.
Reason: For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must
remain constant.

Answer: (a) Since the initial phase difference between the two waves coming from
different violins changes, therefore, the waves produced by two different violins does
not interfere because two waves interfere only when the phase difference between them
remain constant throughout.

Q.19. Assertion: Beats can also be observed by two light sources as in sound.
Reason: Light sources have constant phase deference.

Answer: (d) As emission of light from atom is a random and rapid phenomenon. The
phase at a point due to two independent light source will change rapidly and randomly.
Therefore, instead of beats, we shall get uniform intensity. However if light sources are
LASER beams of nearly equal frequencies, it may possible to observe the phenomenon
of beats in light.

Q.20. Assertion: In the case of a stationary wave, a person hears a loud sound at the
nodes as compared to the antinodes.
Reason: In a stationary wave all the particles of the medium vibrate in phase.
Answer: (c) The person will hear the loud sound at nodes than at antinodes. We know
that at anti-nodes the displacement is maximum and pressure change is minimum
while at nodes the displacement is zero and pressure change is maximum. The sound is
heard due to variation of pressure.
Also in stationary waves particles in two different segments vibrates in opposite phase.

Q.21. Assertion: Velocity of particles, while crossing mean position (in stationary
waves) varies from maximum at antinodes to zero at nodes.
Reason: Amplitude of vibration at antinodes is maximum and at nodes, the amplitude
is zero, And all particles between two successive nodes cross the mean position
together.

Answer: (a)

Q.22. Assertion: Where two vibrating tuning forks having frequencies 256 Hz and 512
Hz are held near each other, beats cannot be heard.
Reason: The principle of superposition is valid only if the frequencies of the oscillators
are nearly equal.

Answer: (c) The principle of superposition does not state that the frequencies of the
oscillation should be nearly equal. For beats to be heard the condition is that difference
in frequencies of the two oscillations should not be more than 10 times per seconds for a
normal human ear to recognize it. Hence we cannot hear beats in the case of two tuning
forks vibrating at frequencies 256 Hz and 512 Hz respectively.

Q.23. Assertion: The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe increases as the
temperature is increased.
Reason: As the temperature increases, the velocity of sound increases more rapidly than
length of the pipe.

Answer
Q.24. Assertion: Sound waves cannot propagate through vacuum but light waves can.
Reason: Sound waves cannot be polarized but light waves can be polarized.

Answer: (b) Sound waves cannot propagate through vacuum because sound waves are
mechanical waves. Light waves can propagate through vacuum because light waves are
electromagnetic waves. Since sound waves are longitudinal waves, the particles moves
in the direction of propagation, therefore these waves cannot be polarized.

Q.25. Assertion: Sound travel faster in solids than gases.

Reason: Solid possesses greater density than gases.

Answer: (b)

Q.26. Assertion: Like sound, light cannot propagate in vacuum.

Reason: Sound is a square wave. It propagates in a medium by a virtue of damping
oscillation.

Answer: (d)

Q.27. Assertion: When a beetle moves along the sand with in a few tens of centimeters
of a sand scorpion the scorpion immediately turn towards the beetle and dashes to it
Reason: When a beetle disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sands surface one set
of pulses is longitudinal while other set is transverse.

Answer: (a)
Q.28. Assertion: Speed of wave = Wave length/Time period
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.

Answer: (b)

Disclaimer!!
All the questions in the following Worksheets are based on Class 11 NCERT Physics
Text Books Volume 1 and 2, Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker,
Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora, Comprehensive Physics, Physicsgurukul.com and
Student Support Material- by KVS RO.
 Bibliography

• Class 11 NCERT Physics Text Books Volume 1 and 2

• Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday-Resnick-Walker

• Comprehensive Physics

• https://physicsgurukul.com/

• Move Fast with Physics by S L Arora

• Student Support Material- by KVS RO