Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.

3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.

5. Section – B : Do any 5 questions out of 10 Questions.

6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-2

(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : For measuring the potential difference across a resistance of 600 , the voltmeter
with resistance 1000 will be preferred over voltmeter with resistance 4000 .
Reason R : Voltmeter with higher resistance will draw smaller current than voltmeter with lower
resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) A is not correct but R is correct
(C) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(D) A is correct but R is not correct

Q2. Two objects A and B are placed at 15cm and 25cm from the pole in front of a concave mirror
having radius of curvature 40cm. The distance between images formed by the mirror is
_________.
(A) 60cm (B) 40cm
(C) 160cm (D) 100cm

Q3. A coil is placed in magnetic field such that plane of coil is perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field. The magnetic flux through a coil can be changed :
A. By changing the magnitude of the magnetic field within the coil.
B. By changing the area of coil within the magnetic field.
C. By changing the angle between the direction of magnetic field and the plane of the coil.
D. By reversing the magnetic field direction abruptly without changing its magnitude.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) A, B and D only (B) A and B only
(C) A, B and C only (D) A and C only

Q4. The escape velocities of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2. If the ratio of their radii
respectively is 1 : 3, then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity of planet A to the acceleration of
gravity of planet B will be :
2 4
(A) (B)
3 3
3 3
(C) (D)
4 2

Q5. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational constant G and Planck’s constant h are chosen as
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in the new system is :
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) h 2 c 2 G 2
(B) h 2
c 2
G 2

1 1
(C) h1 c1 G 1
(D) h 2 c 2
G1

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-3

2 11
Q6. The Young’s modulus of a steel wire of length 6m and cross-sectional area 3 mm , is 2 × 10
2
N/m . The wire is suspended from its support on a given planet. A block of mass 4kg is attached
1
to the free end of the wire. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet is of its value on the
4
2
earth. The elongation of wire is (Take g on the earth = 10m/s ) :
(A) 1 cm (B) 0.1 cm
(C) 1 mm (D) 0.1 mm

Q7. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode :

(A) It work as a voltage regulator in forward bias behaves like simple pn junction diode in reverse
bias.
(B) It works as a voltage regulation in both forward and reverse bais.
(C) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias behaves like simple pn junction diode in
forward bias.
(D) It works as a voltage regulator only in forwards bias.

Q8. Given below are statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A : Two metallic spheres are charged to the same potential. One of them is hollow and
another is solid, and both have the same radii. Solid sphere will have charge than the hollow one.

Reason R : Capacitance of metallic sphere depend on the radii of sphere.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q9. In an amplitude modulation, a modulating signal having amplitude of X V is superimposed with a

carrier signal of amplitude Y V in first case. Then, in second case, the same modulating signal is
superimposed with different carrier signal of amplitude 2Y V. The ratio of modulation index in the
two cases respectively will be :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 2

Q10. Equivalent resistance between the adjacent corners of a regular n-sided polygon of uniform wire
of resistance R would be :
n 1R n 1R
(A) (B)
n2 n
2
n R n 1R
(C) (D)
n 1 2n 1

th nd
Q11. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4 energy state to 2 energy
state. The energy released in this process, will be :
(Given Rch = 13.6 eV)
Where R = Rydberg constant
c = Speed of light on vacuum
h = Planck’s constant
(A) 3.4 eV (B) 40.8 eV
(C) 10.5 eV (D) 13.6 eV

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-4

Q12. As shown in the figure, a long straight conductor with

semicircular arc of radius m is carrying current I = 3A.
10 O
I = 3A I = 3A
The magnitude of the magnetic field. at the centre O of the
arc is :
(The permeability of the vacuum = 4 10 7 NA 2 )
(A) 3 T
(B) 6 T
(C) 4 T
(D) 1 T

Q13. The ratio of average electric energy density and total average energy density of electromagnetic
wave is :
1
(A) 3 (B)
2
(C) 2 (D) 1

Q14. For three low density gases A, B, C pressure P(atm) Gas A

versus temperature graphs are plotted while Gas B
keeping them at constant volume, as shown
Gas C
in the figure. The temperature corresponding
to the point ‘K’ is : Temperature ( C )
(A) 273 C K 0 C
(B) 100 C
(C) 373 C
(D) 40 C

Q15. The threshold frequency of a metal of f 0. When the light of frequency 2f 0 is incident on the metal
plate, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons is 1. When the frequency of incident radiation is
increased to 5f 0, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted is 2 . The ratio of 1 to 2 is :
1 1 1 1
(A) (B)
2 2 2 4
1 1 1 1
(C) (D)
2 16 2 8

Q16. Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of force with time.
F(N) F(N)

0.5 0.5
(a) (b)

0 1.0 t(s) 0 2.0 t(s)

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-5

F(N) F(N)
0.5
0.5
(c) (d)

0 1.0 t(s) 0 2.0 t(s)

The impulse is highest in figure.
(A) Fig (b) (B) Fig (d)
(C) Fig (a) (D) Fig (c)
2
Q17. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T ) graph for a simple pendulum
executing simple harmonic motion.

T2 T2

(A) (B)

O L O L

T2 T2

(C) (D)

O L O L

Q18. As shown in the figure a bock of mass 10kg lying on a horizontal F

surface is pulled by a force F acting at an angle 30 , with
horizontal. For s 0.25, the block will just start to move for the 30
-2
value of F : [Given g = 10 ms ]
(A) 33.3 N (B) 25.2 N
(C) 35.7 N (D) 20 N
1
Q19. A Carnot engine operating between two reservoirs has efficiency . When the temperature of cold
3
1
reservoir raised by x, its efficiency decreases to . The value of x. if the temperature hot reservoir
6
is 99 C, will be :
(A) 66 K (B) 16.5 K
(C) 33 K (D) 62 K
Q20. For a body projected at an angle with the horizontal from the ground, choose the correct
statement.
(A) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at the highest point.
(B) The Kinetic Energy (K.E.) is zero at the highest point of projectile motion.
(C) The vertical component of momentum is maximum at the highest point.
(D) The horizontal component of velocity is zero at the highest point.

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-6

(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

I1 I3 10V 20V
Q1. In the given circuit, the value of is ________
I2
10
I1
10
I2

I3 10

MR2
Q2. Moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius ‘R’ about any of its diameter is . The
4
moment of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its
x
edge will be, MR 2 . The value of x is _________.
2
2 -2
Q3. A square shaped coil of area 70 cm having 600 turns rotates in a magnetic field of 0.4 wbm ,
about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of the coil and perpendicular to the direction of
field. If the coil completes 500revolution in a minute, the instantaneous emf when the plane of the
22
coil is inclined at 60 with the field, will be _______V. (Take )
7
2
Q4. The surface of water in a water tank of cross section area 750cm on the top of a house is h m
above the tap level. The speed of water coming out through the tap of cross section area 500
2 dh
mm is 30cm/s. At that instant, is x 10 3 m / s. The value of x will be _______.
dt

Q5. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its
equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless surface from rest. The energy of the block at x =
-1
5cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the spring is ________Nm .

Q6. Nucleus A having Z = 17 and equal number of protons and neutrons has 1.2 MeV binding energy
per nucleon.
Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26 nucleons and 1.8 MeV binding energy per nucleons.
The difference of binding energy of B and A will be _______ MeV.

Q7. A cubical volume is bounded by the surfaces x = 0, x = a, y = 0, y = a, z = 0, z = a. The electric

field in the region is given by E E0 x ˆi . Where E0 4 104 NC 1 m 1. If a = 2cm, the charge
14
contained in the cubical volume is Q 10 C. The value of Q is ________.
12 2 2
(Take 0 9 10 C / Nm )
-1
Q8. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms , the driver must apply brakes at a distance of
500m before the station for the train to come to rest at the station. If the breaks were applied at
half of this distance, the train engine would cross the station with speed x ms 1. The value of x is
_______.
(Assuming same retardation is produced by brakes)

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-7

Q9. A force F (5 3y 2 ) acts on a particle in the y-direction, where F is in newton and y is in meter.
The work done by the force during a displacement form y = 2m to y = 5m is ______J.

Q10. As shown in the figure, in Young’s double slit experiment, a thin

plate of thickness t = 10 m and refractive index 1.2 is inserted t
S1
infront of slit S1. The experiment is conducted in air 1 and uses
a monochromatic light of wavelength 500nm. Due to the P
insertion of the plate, central maxima is shifted by a distance of
x 0 . 0 is the fringe – width before the insertion of the plate. The
S2
value of the x is ________.

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-8

(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
2+ +
Assertion (A): Cu in water is more stable than Cu
2+ +
Reason (R): Enthalpy of hydration for Cu is much less than that of Cu
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): -halocarboxylic acid on reaction with dil NH3 gives good yield of -amino
carboxylic acid whereas the yield of amine is very low when prepared from alkyl halides.
Reason (R): Amino acids exist in zwitter ion form in aqueous medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1
Q3. The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol ) is:
(A) Si –Si > C – C > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
(B) C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
(C) C – C > Si – Si> Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
(D) Si – Si > C – C > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge

Q4. The structure of major products A, B and C in the following reaction sequence are.
O
NaHSO3, dil. HCl LiAlH4
H [A] [B]
NaCN, H2O
HCl / H2O
[C]

HO CN HO CHO HO CO 2H
(A) A = B=
H , H , C= H

HO CN HO NH2 HO CO2H
(B) A = B=
H , H , C= H

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-9

OSO 3 Na HO Cl
(C) A = B=
H , H , C =. H

HO SO3H HO SO2Cl
(D) A = B=
H , OH , C = H

Q5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Gypsum is used for making fireproof wall boards
Reason (R): Gypsum is unstable at high temperature
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q6.
HF
'X' is X
Major product

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q7. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sulphanilic acid gives esterification test for carboxyl group.
Statement II: Sulphanilic acid gives red colour in Lassigne’s test for extra element detection.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-10

Q8. In a reaction
OH OH OCOCH3

COOCH3 COOH COOH

'Y' 'X'

Reagents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are:

+ +
(A) (CH3CO)2O/H and CH3OH/H ,
+ +
(B) CH3OH/H , and (CH3CO)2O/H
+ +
(C) CH3OH/H , and CH3OH/H ,
+ +
(D) (CH3CO)2O/H and (CH3CO)2O/H

Q9. Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(Given: Atomic Number: F: 9, Cl: 17, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc= 21)
2+ 2+ + 2+ + + 2+ 2+
(A) Ba , Sr , K , Ca (B) Li , Na , Mg , Ca
+ 2+ 3+ 3 2 2
(C) K , Cl ,Ca , Sc (D) N ,O ,F ,S

Q10. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

(A) Oxygen (B) Mercury
(C) Iodine (D) Potassium

Q11. For electron gain enthalpies of the elements denoted as egH, the incorrect option is:
(A) egH(I) < egH(At) (B) egH(Te) < egH(Po)
(C) egH(Cl) < egH(F) (D) egH(Se)< egH(S)

Q12. The graph which represents the following reaction is:

OH
C6H5 3
C Cl C6H5 3
C OH
Pyridine

rate rate
(A) (B)

[OH ] [(C6H5)3C-Cl]

rate rate

(C) (D)

[Pyridine] [(C6H5)3C-Cl]

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-11

Q13. All structure given below are of vitamin C. Most stable of them is:
OH HO

HO O HO O O
O
(A) (B)
H H

O OH HO O

HO HO
HO O HO O
O OH
(C) (D)
H H

HO OH O OH
Q14. The Industrial activity held least responsible for global warming is:
(A) Electricity generation in thermal power plants
(B) Steel manufacturing
(C) Industrial production of urea
(D) manufacturing of cement

Q15. In figure, a straight line is given for Freundrich Adsorption Y

1
(y = 3x +2.505). The vale of and log K are respectively.
n x
log
(A) 0.3 and 0.7033 m
log K
(B) 3 and 2.505
(C) 0.3 and log 2.505
x
(D) 3 and 0.7033 log P

Q16. The complex cation which has two isomers is :

2+ +
(A) [Co(NH3)5Cl] (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]
2+ 3+
(C) [Co(NH3)5NO2] (D) [Co(H2O)6]
Q17. The starting material for convenient preparation of deuterated hydrogen peroxide(D2O2) in
laboratory is :
(A) K2S2O8 (B) BaO2
(C) 2- ethylanthraquinol (D) BaO
Q18. The effect of addition of helium gas to the following reaction in equilibrium state, is
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) Cl2 (g)
(A) The equilibrium will shift in the forward direction and more of Cl 2 and PCl3 gases will
be produced.
(B) The equilibrium will go backward due to suppression of dissociation of PCl5.
(C) Helium will deactivate PCl5 and reaction will stop.
(D) Addition of helium will not effect the equilibrium.
Q19. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): An aqueous solution of KOH when used for volumetric analysis, its concentration
should be checked before the use.
Reason (R): On aging, KOH solution absorbs atmospheric CO2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-12

Q20. O-O bond length in H2O2 is X than the O-O bond length in F2O2. The O-H bond length in H2O2 is
Y than that of the O-F bond in F2O2.
Choose the correct option for X and Y from those given below:
(A) X – shorter, Y = longer (B) X- longer, Y – shorter
(C) X- shorter, Y- shorter (D) X- longer, Y- longer

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-13

(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

Q1. The molality of a 10%(v/v) solution of di-bromine solution in CCl4 (Carbon tetrachloride) is ‘x’
2
x= ______________ 10 m. (Nearest integer)
1
[Given: molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol
1
Atomic mass of C = 12 g mol , Atomic mass of Cl 35.5 g mol 1
3
Density of dibromine = 3.2g cm
3
Density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm ]
o
Q2. 0.3 g of ethane undergoes combustion at 27 C in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of
o
calorimeter system (including the water) is found to rise by 0.5 C. The heat evolved during
1
combustion of ethane at constant pressure is_______ kJ mol .(Nearest integer)
1 1 1
[Given: The heat capacity of the calorimeter system is 20 kJ K , R = 8.3 JK mol .
Assume ideal gas behaviour.
1
Atomic mass of C and H are 12 and 1g mol respectively]

Q3. A B
The above reaction is of zero order. Half life of this reaction is 50 min. the time taken for the
concentration of A to reduced to one- fourth of its initial value is___________ min.
(Nearest integer)

Q4. 20% of acetic acid is dissociated when its 5 g is added to 500mL of water.
3o
The depression in freezing point of such water is___________ 10 C.
Atomic mass of C, H and O are 12,1 and 16 a.m.u respectively.
1 3
[Given: Molal depression constant and density of water are 1.86 K kg mol and 1g cm
respectively].

Q5. Among following compounds, the number of those present in copper matte is______.
(A) CuCO3 (B) Cu2S
(C) Cu2O (D) FeO

Q6. Among the following, the number of tranquilizer is / are____________.

(A) Chloroliazepoxide (B) Veronal
(C) Valium (D) Salvarsan

Q7. Testosterone, which is a steroidal hormone, has the following structure.

OH
CH3

CH3

O
Testosterone
The total number of asymmetric carbon atom/s in testosterone is___________.

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-14

5
Q8. 1 10 M AgNO3 is added to 1 L of saturated solution of AgBr. The conductivity of this solution at
298 K is__________ 10 8 Sm 1.
13
[Given : Ksp(AgBr) = 4.9 10 at 298 K
0
Ag
6 10 3 Sm2 mol 1
0
Br
8 10 3 Sm2 mol 1

0
NO3
7 10 3 Sm2 mol 1 ]

2+
Q9. The spin only magnetic moment of [Mn(H2O)6] complexes is_______B.M
(Nearest integer)
(Given: Atomic no. of Mn is 25)

Q10. A metal M crystallizes into two lattices:- face centred cubic (fcc) and body centred cubic (bcc) with
o
unit cell edge length of 2.0 and 2.5 A respectively. The ratio of densities of lattices fcc to bcc for
the metal M is___________.
(Nearest integer)

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-15

(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. The sum of the absolute maximum and minimum values of the function
f x x 2 5x 6 3x 2 in the interval 1, 3 is equal to :
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) 24

Q2. The area of the region given by x, y : xy 8, 1 y x2 is :

7 13
(A) 8loge 2 (B) 8loge 2
6 3
14 7
(C) 16loge 2 (D) 16loge 2
3 3

1
Q3. Let f : R 0,1 R be a function such that f x f 1 x .Then f 2 is equal to
1 x
7 7
(A) (B)
4 3
9 9
(C) (D)
4 2

Q4. The number of integral values of k, for which one root of the equation 2x 2 8x k 0 lies in the
interval 1, 2 and its other root lies in the interval 2, 3 , is :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

Q5. If y x x x ,x 0 , then y " 2 2y ' 2 is equal to :

(A) 8loge 2 2 (B) 4loge 2 2
2 2
(C) 4 loge 2 2 (D) 4 loge 2 2

Q6. Let a 2iˆ 7ˆj 5k,

ˆ b ˆi kˆ and c ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ be three given vectors. If r is vector such that

r a c a and r b 0 , then r is equal to :

914 11
(A) (B)
7 7
11 11
(C) 2 (D) 2
5 7

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-16

1 1 x 1 1 x2
Q7. Let S x R:0 x 1and 2 tan cos .
1 x 1 x2
If n S denotes the number of elements in S then :
1
(A) n S 1 and the element in S is less than .
2
1
(B) n S 1 and the elements in S is more than .
2
(C) n S 0
1
(D) n S 2 and only one element in S is less than .
2

Q8. Let P S denote the power set of S 1, 2, 3,....,10 . Define the relations R1 and R2 on P S as
C C
AR1B if A B B A and AR 2B if A BC B AC, A, B P S . Then :
(A) both R1 and R2 are not equivalence relations
(B) only R1 is an equivalence relation
(C) both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations
(D) only R2 is an equivalence relation

Q9. Let 9 x1 x2 .... x7 be in an A.P. with common difference d. If the standard deviation of
x1, x 2 ,....,x 7 is 4 and the mean is x , then x x 6 is equal to :
8 1
(A) 2 9 (B) 18 1
7 3
(C) 25 (D) 34

Q10. Let P x0 ,y 0 be the point on the hyperbola 3x 2 4y 2 36 , which is nearest to the line
3x 2y 1. Then 2 y0 x0 is equal to :
(A) 9 (B) 3
(C) 3 (D) 9

1 1 3
Q11. If A , then :
2 3 1
(A) A 30 A 25 A I (B) A 30 A 25 2I
(C) A 30 A 25 (D) A 30 A 25 A I

2n2 3n 4
Q12. The sum is equal to :
n 1 2n !
11e 7 11e 7
(A) (B) 4
2 2e 2 2e
13e 5 13e 5
(C) (D) 4
4 4e 4 4e

Q13. Which of the following statements is a tautology?

(A) p p q ~q (B) p p q
(C) p q ~ p q (D) p p p q

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-17

st
Q14. Two dice are thrown independently. Let A be the event that the number appeared on the 1 die is
nd st
less than the number appeared on the 2 die, B be the even that the number appeared on the 1
die is even and that on the second die is odd, and C be the event that the number appeared on
the 1st die is odd and that on the 2nd is even. Then :
(A) the number of favourable cases of the events A, B and C are 15, 6 and 6 respectively
(B) the number of favourable cases of the event A B C is 6
(C) A and B are mutually exclusive
(D) B and C are independent

1 ai
Q15. Let a, b, be two real numbers such that ab 0 . If the complex number is of unit modulus
b i
1 a
and a ib lies on the circle z 1 2z , then a possible value of , where t is greatest
4b
integer function, is :
1
(A) (B) 1
2
1
(C) (D) 1
2

4 x
Q16. The value of the integral 4 dx is :
2 cos 2x
4
2 2
(A) (B)
6 3 3 3
2 2
(C) (D)
6 12 3

Q17. Let x exp x y be the solution of the differential equation

2x 2 y dy 1 xy2 dx 0, x 0, y 2 loge 2 . Then equals :

(A) -1 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 0

Q18. For the system of linear equations x y z 1, x y z 1, x y z , which one of the

following statements is NOT correct?
(A) It has infinitely many solutions if 2 and 1
(B) It has no solution if 2 and 1
3
(C) x y z
if 2 and 1
4
(D) It has infinitely many solutions if 1 and 1

Q19. Let a 5iˆ ˆj 3kˆ and b ˆi 3ˆj 5kˆ be two vectors. Then which one of the following statements
is TRUE?
17
(A) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the projection vector is opposite to the
35
direction of b .

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-18

17
(B) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the projection vector is same as of b .
35
17
(C) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the projection vector is opposite to the
35
direction of b .
17
(D) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the projection vector is same as of b .
35

Q20. Let the plane P pass through the intersection of the planes 2x 3y z 2 and x 2y 3z 6,
and be perpendicular to the plane 2x y z 1 0 . If d is the distance of P from the point
2
7, 1, 1 , then d is equal to :
250 15
(A) (B)
83 53
25 250
(C) (D)
83 82

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (1st February-Second Shift)-PCM-19

(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

5cos x 1 cos x cos 3x cos 2 x cos3 x cos3x dx k

Q1. If , then k is equal to………
0
1 5cos x 16

Q2. Let x y yz 1 be the equation of a plane passing through the point 3, 2, 5 and
perpendicular to the line joining the points 1, 2, 3 and 2, 3, 5 . Then the value of is equal
to………..

Q3. Number of integral solutions to the equation x y z 21, where x 1, y 3, z 4 , is equal

to……….

Q4. The total number of six digit numbers, formed using the digits 4, 5, 9 only and divisible by 6,
is…………

Q5. The point of intersection C of the plane 8x y 2z 0 and the line joining the points A 3, 6, 1
and B 2, 4, 3 divides the line segment AB internally in the ratio k : 1. If
a,b,c, a , b , c are coprime are the directions ratios of the perpendicular from the point C on the
1 x y 4 z 2
line , then a b c is equal to………
1 2 3

Q6. The sum of the common terms of the following three arithmetic progressions
3,7,11,15,.......,399 ,
2,5,8,11,.....,359 and
2,7,12,17,.....,197 , is equal to…………

Q7. If the x-intercept of a focal chord of the parabola y 2 8x 4y 4 is 3, then the length of this chord
is equal to…….
m
log2 10 3x 5 x 2 log2 3
Q8. Let the sixth term in the binomial expansion of 2 2 , in the increasing

x 2 log 3
powers of 2 2
, be 21. If the binomial coefficients of the second, third and fourth terms in the
expansion are respectively the first, third and fifth terms of A.P., then the sum of the squares of all
possible values of x is………..

x2 y2
Q9. The line x = 8 is the directrix of the ellipse is E : 1 with the corresponding focus 2,0 . If
a2 b2
the tangent to E at the point P in the first quadrant passes through the point 0, 4 3 and
2
intersects the x-axis at Q, then 3PQ is equal to………..

22
2
Q10. If the term without x in the expansion of x 3
is 7315, then is equal to……….
x3

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