CLASS: LT NEET GT - 12 DATE: 30.04.

2023

PHYSICS
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen
only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all
questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10
question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered as
answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

SECTION – A
1. What should be the displacement of a simple pendulum of amplitude A, at which potential energy
1
is th of the total energy?
4

A A A 3A
a) b) c) d)
2 2 4 2

K
2. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is E  in the x-direction. (K is a constant).
x3
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at the a distance x is
K K K K
a) b) c) d)
x 2x x2 2 x2
3. If the polar ice caps melt suddenly
a) The length of the day will be more than 24 hours
b) The length of the day will less than 24 hours
c) The length of the day will remain same as 24 hours
d) The length of the day will become more than 24 hours initially and then becomes equal to 24
hours
1
 Kx 2
4. If the linear density of a rod of length L varies as   , where K is a constant and x is the
L
distance of any point from one end, then the distance of centre of mass from the end at x = 0 is
3L L K 3K
a) b) c) d)
4 8 4L 4L
5. A ball A moving with a certain velocity collides, with another ball B of the same mass at rest. If
the coefficient of restitution is e, the ratio of the velocities of A and B just after the collision is
1 e 1 e 1 e 1 e
a) b) c) d)
1 e 2 2 1 e

6. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless horizontal surface collides with the spring of
spring constant k and compresses it by length L. The maximum momentum of the block
before collision is

kl 2
a) zero b) ML2 / k c) Mk L d)
2M
7. The minimum acceleration that must be imparted to the cart in the figure so that the block A will
not fall (given = 0.5 is the coefficient of friction between the surfaces of block and cart) is given
by

a) 2 m/s 2 b) 20 m/s 2 c) 5 m/s 2 d) 7.5 m/s 2

8. A ring rotates about z axis as shown in figure. The plane of rotation is

xy. At a certain instant the acceleration of a particle P (shown in figure)
 
on the ring is 6iˆ  8 ˆj m / s 2 . Find magnitudes of angular acceleration
of the ring and its angular velocity at that instant. Radius of the ring is
2m:
a) 4 rad / s 2 , 3 rad / s b) 2 rad / s 2 , 3 rad / s
c) 3 rad / s 2 , 2 rad / s d) 5 rad / s 2 , 5 rad / s

9. A boat sent perpendicular to a river with a velocity of 8 kmh -1. If the resultant velocity of
the boat is 10 kmh-1, the river is flowing with a velocity
a) 6 kmh 1 b) 8 kmh 1 c) 10 kmh 1 d) 128 kmh 1

10. A body starts with an initial velocity of 10ms-1 and moving along a straight line with constant
acceleration. When the velocity of the particle is 50ms-1, the acceleration is reversed in direction.
The speed of the particle when it again reaches the starting point is
2
 a) 70 ms 1 b) 60 ms 1 c) 10 ms 1 d) 30 ms 1
11. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying cross section are maintained at 2000C and 00C
respectively. In steady state

a) Temperature differences across AB and CD are equal

b) Temperature difference across AB is greater than that across CD
c) Temperature difference across AB is less than that across CD
d) Temperature difference may be equal or different depending upon thermal conductivity of the
rod.
12. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and
finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using
a) Wien’s displacement Law b) Kirchoff’s Law
c) Newton’s Law of cooling d) Stefan’s Law
1
13. The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is 220 Hz. If of the pipe is filled with water, the
4
frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now is
a) 220 Hz b) 1760 Hz c) 440 Hz d) 880 Hz
14. A person at rest is observing two trains one coming towards him and other leaving with the same
speed 4 m/s. If their whistling frequencies are 240 Hz each, then the number of beats per second
heard by the person will be (if velocity of sound is 320 m/s)
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) zero
1
15. A diatomic ideal gas is compressed to of its initial volume in Carnot cycle during adiabatic
32
compression. The efficiency of cycle is
a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 75%
16. The r.m.s. velocity of a gas at a certain temperature is 2 times than that of the oxygen
molecules at that temperature. The gas can be
a) H2 b) He c) CH4 d) SO2
17. A plane electromagnetic wave E  100 cos(6 108 t  4 x)v / m Propagates in a dielectric medium.
The refractive index of medium is
a) 1.5 b) 2.0 c) 2.4 d) 4.0

18. The resistance of the given diode in F.B. condition is 20  and in

R.B. condition it is 2500  the current in the circuit is
a) 20 mA b) 40 mA
c) 50 mA d) 10 Ma

3
19. In N-type semiconductor the Fermi-energy level lies near by
a) valence band b) conduction band
c) at mid point b/w valence and conduction band d) none
20. A  – photon is emitted
a) after ionization of an atom
b) due to conversion of a neutron into a proton in the nucleus
c) after de-excitation of a nucleus
d) due to conversion of a proton into a neutron in the nucleus
21. A light beam of frequency
ur
 incident on a metal of work function , which is kept in region of
uniform magnetic field B . What will be greatest radius of circle traced by photo electrons

hv   hv   2m(hv   ) 2m(hv   )
a) b) c) d)
B eB eB eB
22. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the force on the electron depends on the principle quantum
number as
a) F  1/ n 3 b) F  1/ n 4 c) F  1/ n 5 d) Does not depend on n
23. The sky is blue because
a) there is more blue light in the sunlight b) of scattering of sunlight by clouds
c) of scattering of sunlight by air molecules in the atmosphere
d) of the colours absorbed by heavenly bodies
24. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of convex lens of focal length 40cm
in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25cm. The power of this lens combination in
dioptre is
a) + 1.5 b) – 6.6 7 c) + 6.67 d) – 1.5
25. A wave front AB passing through a system C emerges as DE. The system C could be

. a) a slit b) a biprism c) a prism d) a glass slab

26. The electric field due to a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of radius R as a function of
the distance from its centre is represented graphically by

4
27. To a solid insulating sphere charge Q given, R is it’s radius then it’s potential

3KQ KQ
a) V  at centre b) V  3
(3R 2  r 2 ) at a distance r where (r < R)
2R 2R
KQ
c) V  if (r > R) d) all of the above
r

28. In absence of dielectric medium, capacity of a parallel plate capacitor is C0. A sheet of dielectric
constant K and thickness of one third of the plate separation is inserted between the plates. If new
capacity is C, then
C 3K C 2K C 3K  1 C 2K  1
a)  b)  c)  d) 
C0 2 K  1 C0 3K  1 C0 2K C0 3K

29. From the graph between current (I) and voltage (V) shown below. Identify the portion
corresponding to negative resistance

a) AB b) BC c) CD d) DE
30. In the given potentiometer arrangement a cell is balanced on length l across potentiometer wire as
shown in figure. If cross sectional radius at potentiometer wire is made double then balancing
length on wire would be

l l
a) 2l b) c) d) l
4 2
31. A current carrying power line carries current from west to east. The direction of magnetic field at
a short distance, above it, is
a) North to South b) South to North c) East to West d) West to East

5
32. A wire in the form of semi circle lies on a friction less table. The ends of semi circle are attached
to springs S1 and S2 whose other ends a and b are fixed. If the current in the wire is I then tension
in each spring is

a)  RIB b) 2RIB c) IRB d) Zero

33. A magnetic substances has susceptibility – 0.05 at 300K. The magnetic susceptibility of the
substance at 600K will be
a) – 0.025 b) – 0.1 c) – 0.05 d) – 0.0125
34. In the circuit shown X is joined to Y for a long time and then X is joined to Z. The total heat
produced in R2 is

LE 2 LE 2 LE 2 LE 2 R2
a) b) c) d)
2R12 2R22 2 R1 R2 2R23
35. Alternating current in circuit is given by I  I 0 sin 2 nt . Then the time taken by the current to rise
from zero it r.m.s. value is equal to
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
2n n 4n 8n

SECTION – B
36. In the relation P is pressure, Z is distance, K is Boltzmann constant and  is the temperature, The
dimensional formula of  will be
(a)  M 0 L2 T 1  (b)  M1 L2 T 1  (c)  M1 L0 T 1  (d)  M 0 L2 T 1 

37. When an elastic material with Young’s modulus Y is subjected to a stretching stress S, the elastic
energy stored per unit volume of the material is
YS S 2Y S2 S
a) b) c) d)
2 2 2Y 2Y

6
 3
38. The difference in the value of ‘g’ at pole and at a latitude is R 2 then latitude angle is
4
a) 60o b) 30o c) 45o d) 95o
39. The moment of inertia of a uniform rod of mass ‘M’ and length ‘L’ an axis passing through centre
parallel to its length
ML2 ML2 ML2
a) b) c) d) zero
12 6 3
40. Two ice skaters A and B approach each other at right angles. Skater A has a mass 30kg and
velocity 1 m/s and skater B has a mass 20kg and velocity 2 m/s. They meet and cling together.
Their final velocity of the couple is
a) 2 m/s b) 1.5 m/s c) 1 m/s d) 2.5 m/s

41. A car is going due north at 10 2 m / s turns right through an angle 90o and moves with same
velocity. The change in the velocity of the car is
a) 20 m / s in South – East direction b) 20 2 m / s in South – East direction
c) 20 m / s in North – East direction d) 20 m / s in North – West direction
42. If y = 3 sin (4t – 3x) then speed of wave is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8
43. A copper wire and a steel wire of the same diameter and length are connected end to end and a
force is applied which stretches their combined length by 1cm. Then the two wires will have
a) The same stress and strain b) The same stress but different strain
c) The same strain but different stresses d) Different stresses and strain
44. A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating in a water tank. What would happen to the
water level if few stones are unloaded into water
a) Rises b) Falls c) Remains unchanged d) Rise till half the number
of stones are unloaded and then begin to fall
45. The breakdown in a reverse biased p – n junction diodes is more likely to occur due to
a) large velocity of the minority charge carries if the doping concentration is small.
b) large velocity of the minority charge carries if the doping concentration is lage.
c) strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping concentration is small
d) Both 1 and 3

46. An electron is moving with an initial velocity V = V0 ˆi in a magnetic field B = B0 j . Then its de-
Broglie wavelength
a) remains constant b) increases with time
c) decreases with time d) first increases then decreases
47. Material A has critical angle iA , and material B has critical angle iB ( I B  i A ) . Then which of the
following is true:
(i) Light can be totally internally reflected when it passes from B to A
(ii) Light can be totally internally reflected when it passes from A to B
(iii) Critical angle for total internal reflection is I B  iA

7
  sin iA 
(iv) Critical angle between A and B is sin 1  
 sin iB 
a) i, and iii b) i and iv c) ii and iii d) ii and iv

48. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm-2 passes through three polarisers such that the transmission
axis of the last polariser is crossed with first. If the intensity of the emerging light is 3Wm-2, the
angle between the axes of the first two polarisers is
a) 45o b) 90o c) 30o d) Zero

49. A wire length increased to 2 times of original value. If 10 it’s initial resistance then new
resistance is
a) 20  b) 40  c) 30  d) 60 

50. If plane of dip circle is at an angle of 30o to the magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle
of 45o with the horizontal. The real dip is


a) tan 1 2 / 3  b) tan 1  3 c) tan 1  3/ 2  d) tan 1  3/2 
CHEMISTRY
SECTION A
51. Which of the following compounds gives blood red colouration when its Lassaigne's extract is
treated with alkali and ferric chloride :
a) Benzamide b) Diphenyl sulphide c) Phenylhydrazine d) Thiourea

52. A and B are respectively :

a) b)

c) d)

53. In the given sequence of reactions If C gives neoprene upon

polymerisation, Identify B:
a) Chloroprene b) Vinyl acetylene c) Copper acetylide d) Isoprene
54. Match the following columns :
Column I Column II
a) Finkelstein reaction i. Synthetic petrol
b) Bergius process ii. Bromobenzene

8
 c) Sandmeyer's iii. Biphenyl reaction
d) Ulmann's reaction iv. Alkyl iodide
a) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii b) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii c) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii d) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

55. , Compound 'B' does not give :

a) Idoform test b) ppt with tollen's reagent
c) blue colour with neutral FeCl3 d) both A and B
56. What is DDT among the following :
a) A fertilizer b) Biodegradable pollutant
c) Non-biodegradable pollutant d) Green house gas
57. Compounds A and C in the following reaction are:

a) identical b) positional isomers c) functional isomers d) optical isomers

58. Which of the following alkene is most stable :

a) b) c) d)
59. Enol content is maximum in :
a) acetone b) acetophenone c) acetic acid d) acetylacetone
60. Kjeldahl method for estimation of nitrogen is not applicable to :
a) pyridine b) hexamethylenediamine c) propan-1-amine d) 2-phenylethanamine
61. The nitrogen oxide that does not contain N–N bond is:
a) b) c) d) Both (a) and (b)
62. Which oxide is most acidic :
a) b) c) d) None
63. Correct order of acidic character of the compounds , , , , is
a) < < < < b) < < < <
c) < < < < d) < < < <
64. Correct order of hydration enthalpy of alkaline earth metal ion is :
a) < > > b) < < <
c) > > > d) > > >

65. Compound B is:

a) b) c) d)
66. Producer gas is :

9
 a) mixture of CO and H2 b) mixture of N2 and O2
c) mixture of CO and N2 d) mixture of N2 and H2O
67. ZSM-5 is used to convert :
a) Alcohols into gasoline b) Alcohols into acid
c) Aldehyde into alcohol d) None
68. +4 → +2 . Compound A is :
a) Si b) c) d) None
69. Which oxide is neutral in nature :
a) b) c) d) none
70. Galena is ore of :
a) Sb b) Pb c) Hg d) Mg
71. The compound [ ( )( ) ] and [ ( )( ) ] represents:
a) Linkage isomerism b) Ionisation isomerism
c) Coordination isomerism d) No any isomerism
72. In which of the following pair both species have hybridisation :
a) and b) and c) and d) and
73. Correct order of bond angle for the following is
a) > > b) > >
c) > > d) > >
74. Oleum is:
a) + b) + c) + d) +
75. Which compound give pure gas on heating :
a) ( ) b) c) ( ) d) All
76. The equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction : ⇌2
is related to degree of dissociation a of A and total pressure P as :

a) b) c) d)

77. For the reaction ( )+ ( )⇌2 ( ) the rate law is, Rate = [ ][ ]
Which of the following statements is true about this reaction :
a) The reaction is of second order b) Molecularity of reaction is 3/2
c) The unit of k is s-1 d) Molecularity of reaction is 2
78. The vant Hoff factor for [ ( ) ], if it is 75% dissociated :
a) 3.5 b) 4.0 c) 3.25 d) 3.75
79. Adiabatic reversible expansion of a gas is represented by :

10
 a) b) c) d) All of the above
80. At very low pressure, the Vander Waal’s equation for one mole is written as
a) PV – pb = RT b) PV + a = RT c) PV > RT d) (P + a/V2)(V) = RT
81. Which of the following would exert maximum osmotic pressure :
a) Decinormal aluminium sulphate b) Decinormal barium chloride
c) Decinormal sodium chloride d) Decinormal KCl solution

82. What is ∆ for this reaction :

a) – 26.5 b) – 11.5 c) – 2.2 d) – 0.97
83. Equal volume of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl are mixed. The concentration of ions in the
mixture will be :
a) 0.1 M b) 0.05 M c) 0.2 M d) 0.15 M
84. The number of mole of in acidic medium to oxidised 1 mole ferrous oxalate :
a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 2/3 d) 4/3
85. Which of the following does not show disproportionation reaction :

a) b)
c) d)
SECTION B
86. What is the pH of solution after mixing 100 ml of A having pH 3 and 100 ml of B having pH 5 :
a) 2.28 b) 3.28 c) 4 d) 3
87. The reaction, + → is carried out by taking 24 g carbon and 96g . Which one is
limiting reagent:
a) C b) c) d) None of these.
88. The depression in freezing point for 1 M urea, 1 M glucose and 1 M NaCl are in the ratio :
a) 1 : 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 : 2 c) 1 : 1 : 2 d) None of these
89. Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the
radius of copper atom in pm :
a) 108 b) 128 c) 157 d) 181
90. Orbital angular momentum of a 3d-electron is :

a) √2. b) √6. c) d)

91. Isopropyl ethylene ⎯ . A (predominantly) is :

11
 a) b)

c) d)
92. How many chiral carbon atom are produces on monohalogenation of 2-methylbutane :
a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 8
93. Benzylamine reacts with nitrous acid to form :
a) Azobenzene b) Benzene c) Phenol d) Benzyl alcohol
94. Identify (Z) in the following sequence of reactions:

a) aqueous KOH b) ethanol c) alcoholic KOH d) bromoethane

95. How many phenols can be represented by :
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 6
96. The charge (in coulomb) on 1 gm ion of is:
a) 2.89 × 10 b) 4.50 × 10
c) 6.80 × 10 d) 3.50 × 10
97. Bond lengths of ethane (I), ethene (II), acetylene (III) and benzene (IV) follows the order :
a) I > II > III > IV b) I > II > IV > III c) I > IV > II > III d) III > IV > II > I
98. Which one of the following will have largest number of atoms :
a) 1g Au(s) b) 1g Na(s) c) 1g K(s) d) 1g of ( )
99. 40 mL of 0.1 M ammonium hydroxide is mixed with 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl. What is the pH of the
mixture : ( of ammonia solution is 4.74)
a) 4.74 b) 2.26 c) 9.26 d) 5
100. Which of the following has − bonding:
a) b) c) d)
BOTANY
SECTION A
101. Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is not produced by distillation of the fermented
broth?
a) Brandy b) Wine c) Rum d) Whisky
102. Two kingdoms those are common to all biological classifications
a) Monera and Plantae b) Plantae and Animalia
c) Protista and Monera d) Animalia and Fungi
103. The last step of biogas formation is

12
 a) Methanogenesis b) Acidogenesis
c) Solubilisation of organic compound d) Hydrolysis of organic substances
104. A common bio-control agent in root ecosystems for the control of plant diseases is
a) Glomus b) Bacillus thuringiensis c) Baculovirus d) Trichoderma
105. Archaegonium is
a) Female sex organ b) Aggregation of sporophylls
c) Vegetatively reproducing structure d) Male sex organ
106. Calyptrogen is a precursor of
a) Ground tissue b) Dead tissue c) Stele d) Root cap
107. Which of the following gases are produced by methanogens?
a) H2, CO2, H2SO4 b) CH4 , H2 , H2O2 c) CO2 , Cl2, CH4 d) H2S, CH4 , CO2
108. The aerial 'stem' in banana is a
a) True herbaceous stem b) False stem c) Corm d) Rhizome
109. Select the wrong statement
a) Mycorrhizal association helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil and passes it to the
plant.
b) The rumen of cattle harbors methanogens
c) Methanogens are anaerobic microbes
d) The spent slurry in a biogas plant is used as pesticide.
110. A test cross
a) Is performed to determine the unknown genotype of recessive individual of f2 generation
b) uses recessive parent as tester
c) can be represented as AA X Aa
d) Show more proportion of dominant phenotype in progeny in unlinked genes
111. Parent ‘A’ produces one kind of gametes and parent ‘B’ produces different gametes in equal
proportion. Choose correct option w.r.t. parents
a) A-Homogametic, B-Heterogametic b) A-Heterozygous, B-Homozygous
c) A-Homozygous, B-Heterozygous d) Both (a) and (c)
112. The promoter is said to be located towards
a) 5’-end, upstream b) 5’-end, downstream
c) 3’-end, upstream d) 3’-end, downstream
113. If ‘B’ gene is incompletely dominant for starch grain size then ‘Bb’ genotype represents which
kind of starch grain with respect to size
a) Large b) Small c) Intermediate d) Very large
114. Totipotent cells are basically
a) Meristematic cells b) Cork cells c) Xylem vessels d) Fibres
115. The F2 genotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross will be
a) 1:1 b) 1:2:2:1 c) 9:3:3:1 d) 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1

13
116. The number of genotypes and phenotypes in F2 generation of dihybrid cross respectively are
a) 9, 4 b) 3, 2 c) 16, 16 d) 16, 4
117. In a dihybrid cross, the probability of obtaining the individuals with all recessive alleles in
F2 generation will be
a) 12.75 % b) 37.25% c) 82.5% d) 6.25%
118. In which way collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma?
a) Retaining protoplasm at maturity b) Having thick walls
c) Having wide lumen d) Being meristematic
119. Largest cell is
a) Egg of Ostrich b) RBC c) WBC d) Mesophyll cell
120. Most basic amino acid is
a) Arginine b) Histidine c) Glycine d) Glutamine
121. Spindle fibers of mitotic cell are made up of
a) Tubulin b) Myosin c) Actin d) Collagen
122. Osmoregulation is maintained by
a) Plasma membrane b) Nuclear membrane
c) Tonoplast d) Plasma membrane and Tonoplast
123. Genetic map is the one that
a) Establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome
b) Establishes the various stages in gene evolution
c) Shows the stages during the cell division
d) Shows the distribution of various species in a region
124. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
a) Molybdenum b) Magnesium c) Zinc d) Boron
125. Behavior of chromosomes is parallel to the behavior of genes during inheritance. It was noted
by
a) Sutton and Boveri b) Morgan and Mendel
c) Punnet and Bateson d) Carnot and Calvin
126. Functional unit of photosynthesis is known as
a) Electron b) Photon c) Chlorophyll d) Quantasome
127. The term 'kranz' anatomy refers to
a) Presence of large size chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells
b) Presence of thick walls in bundle sheath cells
c) Appearance of wreath of cells surrounding the vascular bundles in C4 leaf
d) Presence of 3 types of cells (palisade, spongy and bundle sheath) in C4 leaf
128. Human chromosome 1 has many genes, nearly
a) 2.4 million genes b) 2968 genes c) 231 genes d) 30,000 genes
129. In glycolysis two redox equivalents are removed from
14
 a) G3P b) DHAP c) PEP d) 1, 3-Bis PGA
130. In anaerobic condition, producing alcohol value of RQ will be
a) One b) Two c) Infinity d) Zero
131. The kind of growth in unicellular organisms like bacteria is
a) Logarithmic b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Plasticity
132. Potatoes are vegetatively propagated from
a) Tubers b) Offsets c) Bulbils d) Rhizomes
133. Pollination in Lotus is by
a) Abiotic agent b) Hydrophilly c) Insects d) Water
134. A gamete normally contains how many alleles?
a) All alleles of a gene b) Many alleles of a gene
c) One allele of each gene d) Two alleles of a gene
135. DNA resists changes by evolving a process of
a) Replication b) Translation c) Transcription d) Repair
SECTION B
136. The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed by
a) GAI b) ONGC c) IARI & KVC d) IOC
137. Alcoholic drinks produced by fermentation using
a) Yeast b) Mycoplasma c) Protozoan protists d) Slime moulds
138. Anatomically all hydrophytes are similar in having
a) Aerenchyma b) Collenchyma c) Stomata d) Cuticle
139. Following features belong to
I. Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red depending on pigment in cell.
II. Stiff cellulose plate forms cell wall.
III. One longitudinal and one transverse flagella present.
IV. Photosynthetic.
a) Diatoms b) Desmids c) Dinoflagellates d) Euglenoids
140. Baker’s body is a name of
a) Golgi b) Vacuole c) Chloroplast d) Lysosome
141. Meiosis involves
a) Two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions
b) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division
c) One nuclear division and one chromosome division
d) One nuclear division and two chromosome divisions
142. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate
a) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
b) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
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 c) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell Wall
d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
143. Permanent cure for ADA deficiency is
a) Genetically engineered lymphocyte b) Bone marrow transplantation
c) Enzyme replacement therapy d) ADA gene introduced in early embryonic stages
144. Large scale production of the following is the source of good protein
a) Earthworms b) Potato c) Starfish d) Microbes
145. Bt-crops are not affected by Bt-toxin because
a) Toxin exist as inactive pro-toxin b) It has special antibodies against toxin
c) Its intracellular medium is alkaline so toxin remain inactive d) All of the above
146. Select correct matching.
a) Lepidopterans - Tobacco bud worm, armyworm
b) Coleopterans - Beetles and bud worm
c) Dipterans - Flies, Mosquitoes, Spiders
d) Aves - Ladybird, Humming bird
147. Select the incorrect statement.
a) More than 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria.
b) In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in
Escherichia coli were isolated.
c) Some key tools for recombinant DNA technology are restriction enzyme, polymerase, ligase,
vectors and host root organisms.
d) EcoRI cut the DNA between bases A and T only when the sequence GAATTC is present in the
DNA.
148. The %weight of Sodium, Calcium and Magnesium in Human body is found to be
respectively
a) 0.2, 0.1, 1.5 b) 0.2, 1.5, 0.1 c) 0.1, 0.2, 1.5 d) 1.5, 0.2, 0.1
149. How many Nitrogen atoms are present in adenine?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
150. When Apoenzyme is separated from its metal component, its activity is
a) Decreased b) Increased c) Lost d) Unaffected
ZOOLOGY
SECTION A
151. Read The statement w.r.t connective tissue
(1) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin
(2) The ground substance between cells and fibres occupied by modified polysaccharides secreted
by the cells
(3) Adipose is a loose connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue is mainly present in the skin
Find the incorrect statements from the above
a) 4 b) 2 & 3 c) 2 &4 d) None

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152. Match the following :
Column I (Cockroach) Column II
(1) Gastric caeca (a) 10 pairs
(2) No.of ootheca (b) 10
(3) Spiracles (c) 100 – 150
(4) Abdominal segments (d) 6 – 8
(e) 9 – 10
(f) 14 – 16
a) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c , 4 – d b) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a , 4 – b
c) 1 – e, 2 – f, 3 – b , 4 – a d) 1 – d, 2 – f, 3 – a , 4 – b
153. In which group of the following animals tympanum do not represents the ear?
a) Bufo, ichthyophis b) Rana, Hyla
c) Iathyophis, Calotes d) Pteropus, canis
154. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, reproduction takes place only by sexual means and
fertilization is external. These characters represent
a) Porofera b) Cnidaria c) Ctenophora d) Echinodermata
155. Assertion (A) : Earthworm is metamerically segmented animal.
Reason (R): In earthworm, the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a
serial repetition of atleast some organs .
a) Both A and R are correct. R is correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R are correct . R is not the correct explanation for A
c) A is correct R is wrong d) A is wrong R is correct
156. Statement I : The keys are based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair called couplet.
Statement II : Separate taxonomic keys are not required for each taxonomic category such as
family, genus and species for identification purpose
a) I and II correct b) I and II wrong
c) I correct II wrong d) I wrong II correct
157. Which hormone among the following acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of
ions?
a) Gastrin b) Secretin
c) Cholecystokinin d) Gastric Inhibitory peptide
158. ______ helps in maintenance of electrolytes ( ) body fluid volume, osmotic pressure
and blood volume
a) Aldosterone b) ADH c) Vassopressin d) Both b & c
159. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, the membrane is :
a) impermeable to sodium ions b) impermeable to potassium ions
c) impermeable to negatively charged proteins d) Both a & c
160. ( ) generated by the muscles is used to carry out movements through ( )

a) A – action potential ; B – bones b) A – Energy ; B – joints

c) A – force; B – joints d) A – power; B – skeletal muscles
161. (1) True ribs, dorsally attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum
with the help of fibrous cartilage

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 (2) The number of vertebrae in our vertebral column are 26.
(3) Glenoid cavity is present above to acromian process
(4) Ankle bones are called phalanges
Find out the incorrect statements from the above :
a) All b) 2 c) 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
162. An increase in body fluid volume can ( ) the osmoreceptors and ( ) the ( ) release to
complete the feedback .
a) A – switch on, B – Supress, C – ADH b) A – switch off, B – suppress, C – ADH
c) A – switch on, B – JGC, C – Renin d) A – switch off, B – JGC, C – Renin
163. Statement I : Collecting duct maintains the pH and ionic balance of blood by the selective
secretion of and ions
Statement II : Reabsorption is minimum in ascending limb of loop of Henle
a) Both I and II wrong b) I correct II wrong
c) Both I and II correct d) I wrong II correct
164. (1) Human heart is auto excitable
(2) Human heart functions can be moderated by neural and hormonal mechanisms
(3) When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate supply of blood that leads to
cardiac arrest
(4) Acute chest pain due to inadequate supply of oxygen to heart muscle is called angina
Find out the correct statement/s:
a) All b) 1 and 3 c) 1,2 and 4 d) 1,3 and 4
165. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The number of RBC in human female is 5 to 5.5 millions /
(b) WBC are the most abundant cells of the blood
(c) Human’s RBCs is spherical and nucleated
(d) Average life span of RBCs is 120 days
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
166. How many statements is/ are true?
(a) In blood comparitively diffuse easily because of its high solubility
(b) Carbonic anhydrase present only in plasma
(c) diffuses into blood passes to RBCs and react with to form
(d) Chloride ions diffuse from plasma into RBC’s to maintain ionic balance
a) a, b and c b) a, c and d c) b, c and d d) b and d
167. Select the correct option that represents the enzyme composition of succus entericus:
a) pepsin, amylase, rennin, lipase b) enterokinase, lactase, nucleosidase, dipeptidose
c) ∝ −amylase, lipase, enterokinase, sucrase
d) DNA ase, enterokinase, RNA ase, steapsin, −amylase
168. dissociates from carbamino haemoglabin when condition is
a) is high and is low b) is high and is low
c) and high and low d) All the above
169. Zygote Divides to form ______ which is implanted in uterus
a) morula b) blastula c) blastocyst d) embryo

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170. Which age group is highly vulnerable for getting STI’s is ?
a) 13 – 19 b) 15 – 24 c) 16 – 25 d) 14 – 22
171. ( ) ( ) had an explosive impact on the growth of population

a) A – decrease in MMR,; B -decrease in IMR

b) A – decrease in death rate; B – increase in number of people under reproducible age
c) A – increase in birth rate ; B – decrease in death rate
d) A – increased health facilities ; B – better living conditions
172. Among various theories and ideas about origin of life, which is the favourite idea for some
astronomers ?
a) Panspermia b) Chemical theory of evolution
c) Big-Bang theory d) Abiogenesis theory
173. Assertion (A) : The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of
earth.
Reason (R): All the existing life forms share similarities and share common ancestors. However,
these ancestors were present at different periods in the history of earth
a) A is correct R is wrong b) A is wrong R is correct
c) A and R correct d) A and R wrong
174. (1) Different aged rock sediments contains fossils of different life forms who probably died during
the formation of the particular sediments
(2) Special creation theory states that all living organisms that we see today were created as such.
(3) The world we see imitate and intimate, is only the success stories of evolution
(4) Nature selects for fitness
Find out the correct statements:
a) All b) 1,2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1,2 and 4
175. The type of natural selection where more individuals acquire value other than the mean character
value is :
a) Stabilising b) directional c) disruptive d) both a and c
176. ( ) , ( ) , ( ) are very important to maintain good health.

a) A – immunity, B – Vaccination , C – Balanced diet

b) A – proper sleep; B – balanced diet, C – regular exercise
c) A – no physical stress , B – balanced diet, C – regular exercise
d) A – balanced diet, B – personal hygiene, C- regular exercise
177. Sporozoites of plasmodium are stored in which part of mosquito ?
a) salivary glands b) Crop c) gizzard d) pharynx
178. Which one among the following diseases are not spread by the vector Aedes aegypti
a) Yellow fever, typhus fever b) Chikungunya, dengue
c) kalaazar, filaria d) both a & c
179. _______ associated with increased incidence of cancers of urinary bladder and throat, bronchitis,
coronary heart diseases, gastric ulcer etc.
a) alcohol comsumption b) smoking
c) intake of opium d) steroid drugs

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180. Assertion (A) : The rotation of the earth around the sun and the tilt of its axis results in distinct
seasons.
Reason (R): The intensity and duration of temperature causes annual variations on earth
a) Both A and R correct. R is correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R correct. R is not an explanation for A
c) Both A and R are wrong d) A correct and R wrong
181. (1) Birth rate, Death rate , sex ratio, Age diversity, population density
(2) Birth rate, Death rate, sex ratio, Immigration, Emigration
(3) Natality, Morality, Immigration, Emigration Age diversity
(4) Natality, Mortality, Immigration, Emigration, Population density
Population attributes from the above:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
182. Productivity is expressed in terms of :
a) (or) b) ( )( )
c) (or) ( ) d) ( )( )
183. (1) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major conduit for energy flow
(2) In a terrestrial ecosystem, the amount of energy flows through the detritus food chain is less
than the GFC
(3) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the
sanding state
(4) The reservoir for sulphur cycle is located in earth’s crust
Identify the incorrect statement :
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2
184. The species diversity of plants is much less than that of animals. What would be the reason how
animals achieved greater diversification?
(1) Plants are fixed and require fever evolutionary adaptations
(2) Animals are mobile so they can migrate to other regions and their exploration is much larger
(3) Due to the difference in enzyme and hormones in plants and animals and reproductive ability
of animals is higher than plants
(4) For animals no need to prepare their own food through photosynthesis
Find out the correct reason/s from the above:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1,2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4 d) 1,3 and 4
185. Iron, copper, gold, zinc, silicon, lead, nickel, mercury, tungsten. From the above what metals can
be extracted by recycling of e-wastes?
a) Iron, Copper, silicon, lead, nickle b) Silicon, copper , lead, iron, zinc
c) Silicon, copper, gold, lead, iron d) nickle, iron, gold, copper, silicon
SECTION B
186. What are the major serious inherent problems in using nuclear energy?
a) high explosive nature, emission of radiation
b) decrease in soil fertility, threat to environment
c) accidental leakage, disposal of radio active wastes
d) high explosive nature, disposal of radio active wastes
187. The animals that has a central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening mouth on hypostome
is/ are:
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 a) Pennatula, Pleurobrachia b) Physalia, Fasciola
c) Physalia, Wuchereria d) Pennatula, physalia
188. In cockroach, ( ) ganglia lie in the thorax, and ( ) in the abdomen.

a) A – six, B – three b) A – four , B – five

c) A – three, B -Six d) A – five, B – four
189. The ( ) of ( ) produce a ( ) hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates
erythropoiesis
a) A – macula densa of DCT, C – nephron, C-protein b) C – peptide, A – JGC, B – Kidney
c) A – JGC, B – kidney, C – protein d) A – JGC, B – kidney, C – steroid
190. Decreased respiratory surface due to damaged alveolar walls seen in _____ disorder
a) Emphysema b) Asthma c) Tuberculosis d) Pneumonia
191. Statement I : The interstitial fluid tissue fluid has the same mineral distribution as that in blood
Statement II : Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory system which is considered to be
more advantageous
a) Both I and II correct b) I correct II wrong
c) I wrong II correct d) Both I and II are wrong
192. Vestibular apparatus in the inner ear is influenced by ( ) ( ) , and helps us in
maintaining balance of the body and posture
a) A – position, B – gravity b) A – gravity, B – movements
c) A – movement, B – speed d) A – acceleration, B – movement
193. (1) Plants respond to external factors like pollutants
(2) Properties of tissues are present in the constituent cells but arise as a result of interaction
among the cell organelles
(3) Biology is the story of evolution of living organisms on earth
(4) Mosses multiply by budding
Find out incorrect statements:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4
194. Animal with organ system level of organization, radial symmetry and with true coelom
a) Cucumaria b) Balanoglossus c) Octopus d) Petromyzon
195. (1) The malignant tumors have a mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic cells
(2) Proto oncogenes have been identified in oncogenic viruses
(3) Biopsy involves histopathalogical studies
(4) The slogan – “don’t die of ignorance”, is for cancer
Identify the correct statements:
a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 2 and 4
196. In India, Ministry of Environment and Forests established in the year:
a) 1972 b) 1974 c) 1984 d) 1988
197. (1) Death of organism is the beginning of the detritus food chain/ web.
(2) Molluscs are some common herbivores in an aquatic ecosystem
(3) Ecosystems need a constant supply of energy to synthesise the molecules they require, to
constant universal tendency toward decreasing disorderliness.
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 (4) Warm and moist environment favour decomposition . From the above find the correct
statement :
a) All b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 , 3 and 4 d) 1 , 2 and 4
198. Statement I : Adaptive ability has a genetic basis
Statement II : Fitness is based on characteristics which are inherited
a) I and II are correct b) I and II are wrong
c) I correct II wrong d) II correct I wrong
199. Match the following
Column I Column II
(1) Steller’s sea cow (a) Africa
(2) Quagga (b) Australia
(3) Dodo (c) Russia
(4) Thylacine (d) Mauritius
a) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d b) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – d
c) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b d) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
200. Shape of the uterus is
a) bean b) Inverted spear c) inverted pear d) inverted sac

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