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1. The supernatural tradition in the history of psychopathology primarily attributed

abnormal behavior to:

a) Brain abnormalities
b) Genetic inheritance
c) Demonic possession and witchcraft
d) Environmental stressors

c) Demonic possession and witchcraft

Rationale: The supernatural tradition linked abnormal behavior to spiritual or
demonic forces, such as witchcraft and possession, commonly accepted during the
Middle Ages.

2. Hippocrates is often credited with the concept of:

a) Humorism
b) Phrenology
c) Psychoanalysis
d) Behaviorism

a) Humorism
Rationale: Hippocrates proposed the humoral theory, which linked health to the
balance of four bodily fluids or "humors."

3. In the humoral theory of Hippocrates, which humor was associated with a melancholic
temperament?

a) Blood
b) Black bile
c) Yellow bile
d) Phlegm

b) Black bile
Rationale: In Hippocrates’ theory, an excess of black bile was thought to cause
melancholia (depression).

4. The term “lunatic” is derived from the Latin word for:

a) Moon
b) Sun
c) Fire
d) Water
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a) Moon
Rationale: "Lunatic" is derived from "luna," the Latin word for the moon, as it
was believed that lunar phases influenced mental health.

5. An integrative approach to psychopathology considers which of the following factors?

a) Biological
b) Psychological
c) Social
d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Rationale: An integrative approach involves biological, psychological, and social
factors in understanding psychopathology.

6. The diathesis-stress model suggests that psychopathology results from:

a) Only genetic factors

b) Only environmental stressors
c) A combination of genetic vulnerability and environmental stress
d) None of the above

c) A combination of genetic vulnerability and environmental stress

Rationale: This model proposes that both genetic predispositions (diathesis) and
environmental stressors contribute to mental disorders.

7. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with mood regulation and implicated in

depression?

a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA

b) Serotonin
Rationale: Serotonin is a key neurotransmitter involved in mood regulation, and
its dysfunction is linked to depression.

8. The concept of "reciprocal gene-environment interaction" refers to:

a) The independent impact of genes and environment on behavior

b) Genes influencing the likelihood of experiencing certain environments
c) Environmental factors altering genetic structure
d) None of the above
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b) Genes influencing the likelihood of experiencing certain environments

Rationale: This theory suggests that genetic predispositions can affect an
individual’s exposure to specific environmental experiences.

9. Which part of the brain is primarily involved in the regulation of emotions and is often
studied in psychopathology?

a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla
c) Limbic system
d) Occipital lobe

c) Limbic system
Rationale: The limbic system, particularly the amygdala, plays a central role in
emotional regulation and is often implicated in psychopathology.

10. Which of the following is the primary goal of clinical assessment?

a) To conduct research
b) To diagnose psychological disorders
c) To administer medication
d) To perform surgery

b) To diagnose psychological disorders

Rationale: The main purpose of clinical assessment is to diagnose mental
disorders by gathering comprehensive information.

11. The process of determining whether a particular problem meets the criteria for a specific
psychological disorder is called:

a) Treatment
b) Therapy
c) Diagnosis
d) Prognosis

c) Diagnosis
Rationale: Diagnosis is the process of identifying whether an individual's
symptoms align with a recognized psychological disorder.

12. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a good clinical assessment tool?

a) Complexity
b) Ambiguity
c) Standardization
d) Subjectivity
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c) Standardization
Rationale: A reliable assessment tool must be standardized to ensure consistency
in administration and scoring across different contexts.

13. What does the term "reliability" refer to in the context of clinical assessment?

a) The accuracy of the assessment tool

b) The consistency of the assessment tool
c) The cost of the assessment tool
d) The ease of use of the assessment tool

b) The consistency of the assessment tool

Rationale: Reliability refers to how consistently an assessment tool measures
what it is intended to measure over time.

14. Which type of reliability measures the extent to which different raters agree on their
assessments?

a) Test-retest reliability
b) Inter-rater reliability
c) Internal consistency
d) Face reliability

b) Inter-rater reliability
Rationale: Inter-rater reliability assesses the level of agreement among different
clinicians using the same tool.

15. What does "validity" refer to in the context of clinical assessment?

a) The cost-effectiveness of the assessment tool

b) The consistency of the assessment results
c) The accuracy of what the assessment tool measures
d) The ease of administration of the assessment tool

c) The accuracy of what the assessment tool measures

Rationale: Validity reflects how accurately a tool measures the specific construct
it is intended to assess.

16. What is the primary goal of research in abnormal psychology?

a) To diagnose disorders
b) To develop treatments
c) To understand the causes of psychological disorders
d) To assess personality traits
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c) To understand the causes of psychological disorders

Rationale: The main goal of research in abnormal psychology is to uncover the
underlying causes of mental health conditions to inform treatment.

17. Which research method involves the intensive examination of an individual or small
group?

a) Survey research
b) Case study
c) Experimental research
d) Correlational research

b) Case study
Rationale: Case studies involve in-depth investigations of individuals or small
groups, often used for rare or complex conditions.

18. What is a key advantage of using a case study method?

a) It provides generalizable findings

b) It allows for causal inferences
c) It offers a detailed and in-depth understanding of an individual case
d) It is quick and easy to conduct

c) It offers a detailed and in-depth understanding of an individual case

Rationale: Case studies provide a comprehensive view of a person’s behavior and
mental processes, which is particularly valuable for unique or rare cases.

19. In experimental research, the variable that is manipulated by the researcher is called the:

a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Control variable
d) Confounding variable

b) Independent variable
Rationale: The independent variable is the factor that the researcher controls or
changes to observe its effects on the dependent variable.

20. The variable that is measured to assess the effect of the manipulation in an experiment is
called the:
a) Independent variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Control variable
d) Confounding variable
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b) Dependent variable
Rationale: The dependent variable is the outcome that is measured to see how it is
affected by the independent variable.

21. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder

(GAD)?

a) Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks

b) Excessive worry about a variety of topics
c) Fear of specific objects or situations
d) Compulsions to relieve anxiety

b) Excessive worry about a variety of topics

Rationale: GAD is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry about multiple life areas,
not limited to any one subject.

22. Panic disorder is characterized by:

a) Persistent and excessive worry about everyday things

b) Intense fear or discomfort accompanied by physical symptoms such as heart
palpitations
c) Fear of being in places where escape might be difficult
d) Obsessions and compulsions

b) Intense fear or discomfort accompanied by physical symptoms such as heart palpitations

Rationale: Panic disorder involves sudden and intense episodes of fear (panic attacks) often
accompanied by physical symptoms such as heart palpitations, dizziness, or sweating.

23. Agoraphobia is most accurately described as:

a) Fear of specific objects or situations

b) Fear of social situations
c) Fear of open or public spaces
d) Fear of contamination

c) Fear of open or public spaces

Rationale: Agoraphobia is the fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult or help
unavailable, often leading to avoidance of public places or crowds.
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24. Which disorder is characterized by persistent, unwanted thoughts and repetitive

behaviors?

a) Generalized anxiety disorder

b) Social anxiety disorder
c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
d) Panic disorder

c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Rationale: OCD is marked by obsessions (intrusive, unwanted thoughts) and compulsions
(repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing anxiety).

25. In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), re-experiencing symptoms refer to:

a) Avoiding reminders of the trauma
b) Having difficulty concentrating
c) Reliving the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares
d) Exhibiting hypervigilance

c) Reliving the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares

Rationale: Re-experiencing is a key symptom of PTSD, where individuals relive traumatic
events through flashbacks, nightmares, or intrusive thoughts.

26. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by:

a) Physical symptoms with no identifiable medical cause

b) Fear of having a serious illness despite medical reassurance
c) Intentional production of symptoms for external incentives
d) A preoccupation with a perceived defect in physical appearance

a) Physical symptoms with no identifiable medical cause

Rationale: Somatic symptom disorder involves significant physical symptoms that cannot be
explained by medical conditions, causing distress.

27. Which of the following is a common feature of illness anxiety disorder?

a) Excessive concern about weight and body shape

b) Persistent worry about having or acquiring a serious illness
c) Intentionally producing symptoms to assume a sick role
d) Experiencing pain without a medical explanation

b) Persistent worry about having or acquiring a serious illness

Rationale: Illness anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worry about having a
serious illness, despite medical reassurance.
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28. Factitious disorder is best described as:

a) Physical symptoms that are intentionally produced for external incentives

b) Physical symptoms that are not intentionally produced and have no medical
cause
c) The presence of multiple distinct identities or personality states
d) Fear of having a serious illness despite medical reassurance

a) Physical symptoms that are intentionally produced for external incentives

Rationale: In factitious disorder, individuals deliberately produce or exaggerate symptoms to
assume the sick role without external rewards.

29. Conversion disorder involves:

a) Persistent preoccupation with having a serious illness

b) Loss of sensory or motor function without a medical cause
c) Excessive worry about minor physical symptoms
d) Intentional production of symptoms for external incentives

b) Loss of sensory or motor function without a medical cause

Rationale: Conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness)
without a medical explanation, typically linked to psychological distress.

30. Which disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct identities or
personality states?

a) Somatic symptom disorder

b) Dissociative identity disorder
c) Illness anxiety disorder
d) Factitious disorder

b) Dissociative identity disorder

Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is marked by the presence of two or more
distinct identities or personality states, each with its own pattern of thinking and behaving.

31. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of major depressive disorder?

a) Elevated mood and increased energy

b) Persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest in activities
c) Fluctuating periods of happiness and sadness
d) Chronic worry and anxiety
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b) Persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest in activities

Rationale: Major depressive disorder involves persistent sadness, lack of interest in
activities, and other symptoms that significantly impact daily functioning.

32. Bipolar I disorder is defined by:

a) Episodes of major depression only

b) Hypomanic episodes and major depressive episodes
c) Manic episodes and major depressive episodes
d) Chronic low-level depression

c) Manic episodes and major depressive episodes

Rationale: Bipolar I disorder involves episodes of mania, which can include extreme
elevated mood, followed by episodes of major depression.

33. The difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder is:

a) Bipolar I involves hypomanic episodes, while Bipolar II involves manic

episodes
b) Bipolar I involves manic episodes, while Bipolar II involves hypomanic
episodes
c) Bipolar I involves chronic depression, while Bipolar II involves major
depression
d) Bipolar I involves anxiety, while Bipolar II involves mood swings

b) Bipolar I involves manic episodes, while Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes

Rationale: Bipolar I disorder includes full-blown manic episodes, while Bipolar II disorder
is characterized by hypomanic episodes (less severe than mania) and major depression.

34. Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by:

a) Alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms without meeting

criteria for hypomanic or depressive episodes
b) Persistent major depressive episodes
c) Severe manic episodes without depressive symptoms
d) Chronic anxiety and panic attacks

a) Alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms without meeting criteria

for hypomanic or depressive episodes
Rationale: Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic mood fluctuations that do not meet the
full criteria for a hypomanic or depressive episode.

35. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with depression?

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a) Dopamine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Serotonin
d) GABA

c) Serotonin
Rationale: Serotonin is strongly associated with mood regulation, and lower levels are linked
to depression.

36. Which of the following is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

a) Binge eating without compensatory behaviors

b) Maintaining a body weight significantly below normal
c) Frequent consumption of non-food items
d) Recurrent episodes of excessive eating followed by purging

b) Maintaining a body weight significantly below normal

Rationale: Anorexia nervosa is characterized by severe restriction of food intake leading to
dangerously low body weight.

37. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:

a) Severe restriction of food intake

b) Episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors
c) Chronic overeating without purging
d) Avoidance of specific foods due to fear of weight gain

b) Episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors

Rationale: Bulimia nervosa involves episodes of binge eating followed by behaviors like
vomiting or excessive exercise to prevent weight gain.

38. Which of the following is a common compensatory behavior in bulimia nervosa?

a) Fasting
b) Excessive exercise
c) Self-induced vomiting
d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Rationale: Individuals with bulimia nervosa often engage in various compensatory
behaviors, including fasting, excessive exercise, and self-induced vomiting, to control
weight.
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39. Binge eating disorder involves:

a) Eating large amounts of food without feeling in control and without

compensatory behaviors
b) Restricting food intake to lose weight
c) Purging after consuming small amounts of food
d) Consuming only specific types of food

a) Eating large amounts of food without feeling in control and without compensatory
behaviors
Rationale: Binge eating disorder is characterized by episodes of overeating without
compensatory behaviors (e.g., purging).

40. The main difference between bulimia nervosa and binge eating disorder is:

a) The presence of compensatory behaviors in bulimia nervosa

b) The amount of food consumed
c) The age of onset
d) The gender of the affected individuals

a) The presence of compensatory behaviors in bulimia nervosa

Rationale: Bulimia involves compensatory behaviors to counteract binge eating, whereas
binge eating disorder does not.

41. Which of the following is NOT considered a sexual dysfunction?

a) Erectile disorder
b) Female orgasmic disorder
c) Gender dysphoria
d) Premature ejaculation

c) Gender dysphoria
Rationale: Gender dysphoria is not a sexual dysfunction; it refers to distress due to a
mismatch between gender identity and assigned sex. Sexual dysfunctions are related to
problems with sexual desire, arousal, or performance (e.g., erectile disorder, orgasmic
disorder).

42. A recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the exposure of one's genitals to an
unsuspecting person is called:

a) Voyeuristic disorder
b) Exhibitionistic disorder
c) Frotteuristic disorder
d) Sexual sadism disorder
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b) Exhibitionistic disorder
Rationale: Exhibitionistic disorder involves exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting
person for sexual arousal. Voyeuristic disorder involves observing others, frotteuristic
disorder involves rubbing against non-consenting individuals, and sexual sadism involves
deriving pleasure from inflicting pain.

43. Gender dysphoria refers to:

a) A sexual attraction to non-consenting individuals

b) Discomfort or distress due to a mismatch between gender identity and assigned
sex at birth
c) Difficulty in achieving sexual arousal
d) Lack of interest in sexual activity

b) Discomfort or distress due to a mismatch between gender identity and assigned sex at
birth
Rationale: Gender dysphoria refers to the distress experienced when an individual's gender
identity does not align with their biological sex.

44. Which of the following treatments is often used for erectile disorder?

a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
c) Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (e.g., Viagra)
d) Antipsychotic medications

c) Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (e.g., Viagra)

Rationale: Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (e.g., Viagra) are commonly used to treat
erectile dysfunction by increasing blood flow to the penis.

45. Frotteuristic disorder involves:

a) Arousal from rubbing against non-consenting individuals

b) Arousal from inflicting pain on others
c) Arousal from non-living objects
d) Arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked or engaging in
sexual activity

a) Arousal from rubbing against non-consenting individuals

Rationale: Frotteuristic disorder involves sexual arousal from rubbing against or touching
non-consenting individuals in crowded places.
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46. Which of the following substances is classified as a stimulant?

a) Alcohol
b) Heroin
c) Cocaine
d) Marijuana

c) Cocaine
Rationale: Cocaine is a stimulant that increases the activity of the nervous system. Alcohol
and heroin are depressants, while marijuana is considered a separate category with both
stimulant and depressant properties.

47. What is the term for a maladaptive pattern of substance use leading to clinically
significant impairment or distress?

a) Substance tolerance
b) Substance withdrawal
c) Substance use disorder
d) Substance intoxication

c) Substance use disorder

Rationale: Substance use disorder is characterized by a problematic pattern of substance use
leading to significant impairment or distress.

48. Which of the following is a common withdrawal symptom for alcohol?

a) Euphoria
b) Increased energy
c) Tremors
d) Hallucinations

c) Tremors
Rationale: Tremors, along with anxiety and hallucinations, are common symptoms of
alcohol withdrawal.

49. Which therapy approach is often used to treat substance use disorders?

a) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
c) Psychoanalysis
d) Light therapy

b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

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Rationale: CBT is widely used for treating substance use disorders, helping individuals
modify their behavior and thought patterns related to substance use.

50. The primary psychoactive ingredient in marijuana is:

a) THC (tetrahydrocannabinol)
b) CBD (cannabidiol)
c) MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
d) LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide)

a) THC (tetrahydrocannabinol)
Rationale: THC is the main psychoactive component in marijuana, responsible for its
mind-altering effects.

51. Which of the following is NOT a cluster B personality disorder?

a) Antisocial personality disorder

b) Borderline personality disorder
c) Narcissistic personality disorder
d) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

d) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) is classified under cluster C
personality disorders, while antisocial, borderline, and narcissistic personality disorders fall
under cluster B.

52. Individuals with which personality disorder are often described as "drama queens" or
excessively emotional?

a) Paranoid personality disorder

b) Schizoid personality disorder
c) Histrionic personality disorder
d) Avoidant personality disorder

c) Histrionic personality disorder

Rationale: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior,
emotional excess, and dramatic expressions.

53. Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from

social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression?

a) Schizotypal personality disorder

b) Schizoid personality disorder
c) Avoidant personality disorder
d) Borderline personality disorder
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b) Schizoid personality disorder

Rationale: Schizoid personality disorder involves detachment from social relationships and a
limited range of emotional expression.

54. A person who exhibits a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, such that their
motives are interpreted as malevolent, is likely suffering from:

a) Paranoid personality disorder

b) Borderline personality disorder
c) Narcissistic personality disorder
d) Dependent personality disorder

a) Paranoid personality disorder

Rationale: Paranoid personality disorder is marked by pervasive distrust and suspicion of
others’ motives, which are often seen as malicious.

55. Which of the following personality disorders is most closely associated with a lack of
empathy and an inflated sense of self-importance?

a) Borderline personality disorder

b) Histrionic personality disorder
c) Narcissistic personality disorder
d) Antisocial personality disorder

c) Narcissistic personality disorder

Rationale: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity, a need for
admiration, and a lack of empathy.

56. The primary feature of REM sleep behavior disorder is:

a) Sleepwalking
b) Acting out dreams
c) Difficulty falling asleep
d) Excessive daytime sleepiness

b) Acting out dreams

Rationale: REM sleep behavior disorder involves physically acting out vivid dreams, often
leading to injury.

57. Which eating disorder has the highest mortality rate?

a) Anorexia nervosa
b) Bulimia nervosa
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c) Binge eating disorder

d) Night eating syndrome

a) Anorexia nervosa
Rationale: Anorexia nervosa has the highest mortality rate of any eating disorder, due to
complications such as malnutrition and suicide.

58. Polysomnography is a diagnostic tool used to assess:

a) Eating behaviors
b) Sleep disorders
c) Anxiety levels
d) Mood disorders

b) Sleep disorders
Rationale: Polysomnography is a comprehensive sleep study used to diagnose sleep
disorders such as sleep apnea and insomnia.

59. Which treatment is often used for individuals with anorexia nervosa?

a) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
b) Electroconvulsive therapy
c) Deep brain stimulation
d) Family-based treatment

d) Family-based treatment
Rationale: Family-based treatment (FBT) is an evidence-based therapy for anorexia nervosa,
particularly for adolescents, and involves the family in the recovery process.

60. Which neurotransmitter is implicated in the regulation of mood, appetite, and sleep, and
is often targeted in the treatment of eating and sleep disorders?

a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) GABA
d) Acetylcholine

b) Serotonin
Rationale: Serotonin plays a crucial role in mood, appetite, and sleep regulation, and many
treatments for mood, eating, and sleep disorders target serotonin.

61. Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a) Anhedonia
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b) Avolition
c) Hallucinations
d) Alogia

c) Hallucinations
Rationale: Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations, delusions, and
disorganized thinking. Negative symptoms involve deficits like anhedonia, avolition, and
alogia.

62. What is the term for false beliefs held despite evidence to the contrary?

a) Hallucinations
b) Delusions
c) Disorganized thinking
d) Negative symptoms

b) Delusions
Rationale: Delusions are false beliefs maintained despite contradictory evidence, often found
in disorders like schizophrenia.

63. Which type of hallucination is most common in schizophrenia?

a) Visual
b) Olfactory
c) Auditory
d) Tactile

c) Auditory
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations, such as hearing voices, are the most common type of
hallucination in schizophrenia.

64. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a) Delusions
b) Disorganized speech
c) Anhedonia
d) Catatonia

c) Anhedonia
Rationale: Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia.
Negative symptoms reflect a decrease or absence of normal functions.
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65. Which subtype of delusional disorder involves the belief that one is loved by someone,
often of higher status?

a) Grandiose type
b) Persecutory type
c) Erotomanic type
d) Jealous type

c) Erotomanic type
Rationale: In erotomanic delusional disorder, the person believes that someone, usually of
higher status, is in love with them.

66. The most common age range for the onset of schizophrenia is:

a) Childhood
b) Early adolescence
c) Late adolescence to early adulthood
d) Middle adulthood

c) Late adolescence to early adulthood

Rationale: Schizophrenia typically begins in late adolescence to early adulthood, between
ages 16 and 30.

67. Which of the following is a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotic

medications?

a) Weight gain
b) Tardive dyskinesia
c) Increased energy
d) Insomnia

b) Tardive dyskinesia
Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of first-generation antipsychotics,
involving involuntary movements, usually of the face and mouth.

68. What is the primary goal of family therapy in the treatment of schizophrenia?

a) To resolve childhood conflicts

b) To reduce expressed emotion in the family
c) To provide medication management
d) To increase family members' independence

b) To reduce expressed emotion in the family

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Rationale: Family therapy aims to reduce expressed emotion (EE), which can increase stress
and the risk of relapse in individuals with schizophrenia.

69. Which of the following brain abnormalities is often found in individuals with
schizophrenia?

a) Enlarged ventricles
b) Increased brain volume
c) Thicker cortex
d) Increased gray matter

a) Enlarged ventricles
Rationale: Enlarged ventricles are a common brain abnormality found in individuals with
schizophrenia, indicating a loss of brain tissue.

70. Which psychological intervention has shown promise in helping individuals with
schizophrenia manage their symptoms and improve functioning?

a) Psychoanalysis
b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
c) Hypnotherapy
d) Humanistic therapy

b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

Rationale: CBT has been effective in helping individuals with schizophrenia manage
symptoms like delusions and hallucinations, and improve overall functioning.

71. Which of the following is a core feature of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

a) Hallucinations
b) Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
c) Impaired social communication and interaction
d) Delusions

c) Impaired social communication and interaction

Rationale: A core feature of ASD is difficulty in social communication and interaction,
along with restricted and repetitive behaviors.

72. What is the most common learning disorder in children?

a) Dysgraphia
b) Dyscalculia
c) Dyslexia
d) Dyspraxia
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c) Dyslexia
Rationale: Dyslexia, which involves difficulties with reading, is the most common learning
disorder in children.

73. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by:

a) Only inattentiveness
) Only hyperactivity
c) Inattentiveness and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity
d) Impulsivity only

c) Inattentiveness and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity

Rationale: ADHD is characterized by symptoms of inattentiveness, hyperactivity, and
impulsivity, which can occur individually or together.

74. Which of the following is a symptom of inattention in ADHD?

a) Fidgeting
b) Interrupting others
c) Easily distracted
d) Climbing excessively

c) Easily distracted
Rationale: Being easily distracted is a symptom of inattention in ADHD. Fidgeting and
interrupting others are symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity.

75. Which neurodevelopmental disorder is characterized by intellectual and adaptive

functioning deficits?

a) Specific learning disorder

b) Autism spectrum disorder
c) Intellectual disability
d) ADHD

c) Intellectual disability
Rationale: Intellectual disability is marked by significant limitations in intellectual
functioning and adaptive behaviors.

76. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of delirium?

a) Gradual onset
b) Rapid onset
c) Irreversible cognitive impairment
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d) Normal consciousness

b) Rapid onset
Rationale: Delirium is characterized by a rapid onset of confusion and cognitive impairment,
often reversible with treatment.

77. Alzheimer's disease is most commonly associated with which type of neurocognitive
disorder?

a) Major neurocognitive disorder

b) Minor neurocognitive disorder
c) Delirium
d) Amnestic disorder

a) Major neurocognitive disorder

Rationale: Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder
(dementia), involving progressive cognitive decline.

78. What is the hallmark symptom of Alzheimer's disease?

a) Severe
b) Hallucinations
c) Progressive memory loss
d) Motor

c) Progressive memory loss

Rationale: Progressive memory loss is the hallmark symptom of Alzheimer's disease, along
with other cognitive impairments.

79. Which neurotransmitter is most significantly affected in Alzheimer's disease?

a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA

c) Acetylcholine
Rationale: Acetylcholine is significantly affected in Alzheimer's disease, and medications
often aim to increase its levels to improve memory and cognition.

80. Which type of neurocognitive disorder is associated with chronic alcohol abuse?

a) Parkinson's disease
b) Huntington's disease
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c) Korsakoff's syndrome
d) Vascular neurocognitive disorder

c) Korsakoff's syndrome
Rationale: Korsakoff's syndrome, a form of neurocognitive disorder, is associated with
chronic alcohol abuse and severe memory impairments.

81. Which of the following is a fundamental principle of the American Psychological

Association (APA) Ethics Code?

a) Competence
b) Wealth accumulation
c) Political engagement
d) Personal opinion

a) Competence
Rationale: The APA Ethics Code emphasizes competence, which ensures that psychologists
provide services within their areas of expertise. Other core principles include beneficence,
nonmaleficence, justice, and respect for people's rights.

82. Informed consent in therapy must include which of the following elements?

a) Confidentiality limitations
b) Therapist’s political beliefs
c) Patient's financial status
d) Therapist’s personal background

a) Confidentiality limitations
Rationale: Informed consent must include the limitations of confidentiality, such as
situations involving harm to self or others, or legal requirements for disclosure.

83. Which ethical principle emphasizes the importance of doing no harm to the client?

a) Beneficence
b) Nonmaleficence
c) Justice
d) Fidelity

b) Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Nonmaleficence refers to the ethical principle of "do no harm," ensuring that
actions taken do not cause unnecessary harm to the client.

84. What is the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
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a) To protect clients' health information

b) To limit healthcare coverage
c) To increase healthcare costs
d) To regulate insurance companies

a) To protect clients' health information

Rationale: HIPAA is a federal law designed to protect the privacy and security of
individuals' health information, ensuring that personal health data is handled confidentially.

85. What is the legal term for the duty to protect a client from harm, even if it involves
breaking confidentiality?

a) Duty to warn
b) Duty to inform
c) Duty to report
d) Duty to advise

a) Duty to warn
Rationale: Duty to warn requires a therapist to break confidentiality if a client poses a clear
risk of harm to others, based on legal and ethical guidelines.

86. Which court case established the duty to warn in the United States?

a) Brown v. Board of Education

b) Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California
c) Roe v. Wade
d) Miranda v. Arizona

b) Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California

Rationale: The Tarasoff case established the duty to warn, requiring mental health
professionals to notify potential victims or authorities if a client poses a credible threat.

87. What is considered an ethical violation in dual relationships?

a) Maintaining professional boundaries

b) Entering into a romantic relationship with a client
c) Providing competent care
d) Keeping client information confidential

b) Entering into a romantic relationship with a client

Rationale: Dual relationships, such as romantic involvement with clients, are considered
ethical violations due to potential conflicts of interest and boundary issues.
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88. Which of the following is true about confidentiality in therapy?

a) It is absolute and without exceptions

b) It can be broken if the client is a danger to themselves or others
c) It does not apply to minors
d) It is optional for therapists

b) It can be broken if the client is a danger to themselves or others

Rationale: While confidentiality is a fundamental aspect of therapy, it can be breached in
cases where a client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others.

89. What is the primary focus of forensic psychology?

a) Treating mental illness

b) Understanding the legal implications of mental health issues
c) Conducting psychological research
d) Providing family therapy

b) Understanding the legal implications of mental health issues

Rationale: Forensic psychology involves applying psychological principles to legal matters,
including assessments for court cases, criminal behavior, and mental competency.

90. Which type of legal commitment involves a person being admitted to a psychiatric
facility against their will?

a) Voluntary commitment
b) Involuntary commitment
c) Partial hospitalization
d) Outpatient commitment

b) Involuntary commitment
Rationale: Involuntary commitment is when an individual is admitted to a psychiatric
facility without their consent, typically due to concerns about their safety or the safety of
others.