VICTORIOUS TUITION CENTER

ONE MARKS TEST - VOLUME - I

10th Standard
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Exam Time : 00:02:00 Hrs Total Marks : 329
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 148 x 1 = 148
1) What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, (b) Germany, Austria- (c) Spain, Portugal (d) Germany, Austria-
and the Ottomans Hungary, and Russia and Italy Hungary, Italy
2) Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville (b) Orange State (c) Adowa (d) Algiers
3) Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China (b) Japan (c) Korea (d) Mongolia
4) Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin (b) Marx (c) Sun Yat-sen (d) Mao Tsetung
5) What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare (b) trench warfare (c) submarine warfare (d) ship warfare
6) Which country after the World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain (b) France (c) Germany (d) USA
7) To which country did the first Secretary-General of League of Nations belongs?
(a) Britain (b) France (c) Dutch (d) USA
8) Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland
(a) Germany (b) Russia (c) Italy (d) France
9) With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany (b) Russia (c) Pope (d) Spain
10) With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes (b) Francisco Pizarro (c) Toussaint Louverture (d) Pedro I
11) Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English (b) Spaniards (c) Russians (d) French
12) Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America
(a) Roosevelt (b) Truman (c) Woodrow Wilson (d) Eisenhower
13) Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe (b) Latin America (c) India (d) China
14) Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd (b) Smut (c) Herzog (d) Botha
15) Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US (b) Napoleonic Invasion (c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement (d) French Revolution
16) Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American intervention in the
affairs of Latin America
(a) Theodore Roosevelt (b) Truman (c) Eisenhower (d) Woodrow Wilson
17) When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945 (b) 2 October, 1945 (c) 15 August, 1945 (d) 12 October, 1945
18) Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt (b) Chamberlain (c) Woodrow Wilson (d) Baldwin
19) Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal (b) Battle of Midway (c) Battle of Leningrad (d) Battle of El Alamein
20) Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki (b) Innoshima (c) Hiroshima (d) Nagasaki
21) Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians (b) Arabs (c) Turks (d) Jews
22) Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain (b) Winston Churchill (c) Lloyd George (d) Stanley Baldwin
23) When was the Charter of the UN signed?
 (a) June 26, 1942 (b) June 26, 1945 (c) January 1, 1942 (d) January 1, 1945
24) Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
(a) New York (b) Chicago (c) London (d) The Hague
25) Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen (b) Chiang Kai-Shek (c) Michael Borodin (d) Chou En Lai
26) Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson (b) Truman (c) Theodore Roosevelt (d) Franklin Roosevelt
27) When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959 (b) September 1948 (c) September 1954 (d) September 1949
28) The United States and European allies formed _______________ to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO (b) NATO (c) SENTO (d) Warsaw Pact
29) Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad (b) Yasser Arafat (c) Nasser (d) Saddam Hussein
30) When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1973 (d) 1974
31) Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo (b) Jordan (c) Lebanon (d) Syria
32) When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979 (b) 1989 (c) 1990 (d) 1991
33) In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827 (b) 1829 (c) 1826 (d) 1927
34) What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj (b) Brahmo Samaj (c) Prarthana Samaj (d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
35) Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar (b) Raja Rammohan Roy (c) Annie Besant (d) Jyotiba Phule
36) Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement (b) Aligarh Movement (c) Ramakrishna Mission (d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
37) Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das (b) Baba Ramsingh (c) Guru Nanak (d) Jyotiba Phule
38) Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami (b) one who caused a split in the (c) one who caused a split (d) founder of
Vivekananda Brahmo Samaj of India in the Arya Samaj Samathuva Samajam.
39) Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade (b) Devendranath Tagore (c) Jyotiba Phule (d) Ayyankali
40) Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi (b) Vaikunda Swamy (c) Annie Besant (d) Swami Shradanatha
41) The north-south extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km (b) 2,933 km (c) 3,214 km (d) 2,814 km
42) The Southern most point of India is
(a) Andaman (b) Kanyakumari (c) Indira Point (d) Kavaratti
43) The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about
(a) 2,500 km (b) 2,400 km (c) 800 km (d) 2,200 km
44) _________ River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
(a) Narmada (b) Godavari (c) Kosi (d) Damodar
45) Deccan Plateau covers an area of about __________ sq.km.
(a) 8 lakh (b) 6 lakh (c) 5 lakh (d) 7 lakh
46) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _________.
(a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) Strait
47) The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _______
(a) Goa (b) West Bengal (c) Sri Lanka (d) Maldives
48) The highest peak in South India is
(a) Ooty (b) Kodaikanal (c) Anaimudi (d) Jindhagada
49) _____________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar (b) Tarai (c) Bhangar (d) Khadar
50) Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
(a) West Bengal and (b) Karnataka and (c) Odisha and Andhra (d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra
Odisha Kerala Pradesh Pradesh
51) Meteorology is the science of _________.
(a) Weather (b) Social (c) Political (d) Human
52) We wear cotton during _________.
(a) Summer (b) Winter (c) Rainy (d) Northeast monsoon
53) Western disturbances cause rainfall in _________.
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kerala (c) Punjab (d) Madhya Pradesh
54) _________ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo (b) Norwester (c) Mango showers (d) Jet stream
55) _________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets (b) Isobar (c) Isotherm (d) Latitudes
56) Climate of India is labelled as _________.
(a) Tropical humid (b) Equatorial Climate (c) Tropical Monsoon Climate (d) Temperate Climate
57) The monsoon forests are otherwise called as _________.
(a) Tropical evergreen forest (b) Deciduous forest (c) Mangrove forest (d) Mountain forest
58) _________ forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests (b) Alpine forests (c) Mangrove forests (d) Tidal forests
59) Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in _________.
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
60) _________ is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO
(a) Nilgiri (b) Agasthiyamalai (c) Great Nicobar (d) Kachch
61) The soil which is rich in iron oxides is __________.
(a) Alluvial (b) Black (c) Red (d) Alkaline
62) Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural (b) Indian Meteorological (c) Soil Survey of (d) Indian Institute of Soil
Research Department India Science
63) The soils formed by the rivers are:
(a) Red soils (b) Black soils (c) Desert soils (d) Alluvial soils
64) _________ dam is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam (b) Bhakra Nangal dam (c) Mettur dam (d) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
65) __________ is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Maize
66) Black soils are also called as:
(a) Arid soils (b) Saline soils (c) Regur soils (d) Mountain soils
67) The longest dam in the world is ___________.
(a) Mettur dam (b) Kosi dam (c) Hirakud dam (d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
68) The leading producer of rice in India is ________.
(a) Punjab (b) Maharashtra (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
69) Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Jute (d) Tobacco
70) The state which leads in the production of coffee is
(a) West Bengal (b) Karnataka (c) Odisha (d) Punjab
71) Manganese is used in______.
(a) Storage batteries (b) Steel Making (c) Copper smelting (d) Petroleum Refining
72) The Anthracite coal has ___________.
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon (b) Above 70% Carbon (c) 60 to 7% Carbon (d) Below 50% Carbon
73) The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
(a) Oxygen (b) Water (c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen
74) The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai (b) Salem (c) Madurai (d) Coimbatore
75) The first Jute mill of India was established at
(a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai (c) Ahmedabad (d) Baroda
76) The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil nadu
77) The most abundant source of energy is
(a) Bio mass (b) Sun (c) Coal (d) Oil
78) The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Assam
79) The nucleus for the development of the Chota Nagpur plateau region is
(a) Transport (b) Mineral Deposits (c) Large demand (d) Power Availability
80) One of the shore-based steel plants of India is located at ___________.
(a) Kolkata (b) Tuticorin (c) Goa (d) Visakhapatnam
81) The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
(a) Photography (b) Demography (c) Choreography (d) Population density
82) The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is _________.
(a) Tamil nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Kerala (d) Uttarpradesh
83) Human Development is measured in terms of _________.
(a) Human Resource Index (b) Per capita index (c) Human Development Index (d) UNDP
84) ______________ transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways (b) Roadways (c) Airways (d) Waterways
85) The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km (b) 5847 km (c) 5849 km (d) 5800 km
86) The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is
(a) 17,500 km (b) 5000 km (c) 14,500 km (d) 1000 km
87) The National Remote sensing Centre(NRSC) is located at ____________.
(a) Bengaluru (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Hyderabad
88) The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is
(a) Roadways (b) Railways (c) Airways (d) Waterways
89) Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India (b) Indian Airlines (c) Vayudoot (d) Pavan Hans
90) The major import item of India is
(a) Cement (b) Jewells (c) Tea (d) Petroleum
91) Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, (b) Sovereign, socialist, (c) Sovereign, republic, (d) Sovereign, socialist,
secular, socialist, sovereign secular, republic, secular, socialist, secular, democratic,
democratic democratic republic
92) How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
93) The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens
(a) Double (b) Single (c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in (d) None of the
Citizenship Citizenship others above
94) A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent (b) Registration (c) Naturalisation (d) All of the above
95) Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation (c) Right to Property (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
96) One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka (b) Christian missions set (c) Men and Women (d) Parents property is
go to Kerala to work on the up a chain of missionary government employees got the inherited by their
farms schools same salary. children
97) If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to
(a) The Parliament (b) The Attorney General (c) The President of India (d) The Supreme court of India
98) Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the
Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality (c) Right to Constitutional remedies (d) Right to property
99) How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court (b) If the Prime Minister orders(c) If the President orders it during the (d) All of the
so desires to this effect national emergency above
100) We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) Russian Constitution (d) Irish Constitution
101) The Directive Principles can be classified into
(a) Liberal and (b) Socialist and (c) Liberal, Gandhian and (d) Socialist, Gandhian and
Communist principles Communist principles Communist principles Liberal principles
102) Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
103) The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
104) Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State
Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
105) The Constitutional Head of the Union is
(a) The President (b) The Chief Justice (c) The Prime Minister (d) Council of Ministers
106) Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army (b) The Prime Minister (c) The President (d) Judiciary
107) Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President (b) Attorney General (c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
108) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) The President (b) Lok Sabha (c) The Prime Minister (d) Rajya Sabha
109) The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of (b) Speaker of the Lok (c) The President of (d) The Chairman of the Rajya
Parliament Sabha India Sabha
110) What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 years (b) 21 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
111) The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) State Government (d) Parliament
112) Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 356 (d) Article 365
113) The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President (b) The Attorney General (c) The Governor (d) The Prime Minister
114) Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction (b) Original Jurisdiction (c) Advisory Jurisdiction (d) None of these
115) If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of (b) Ask for reconsideration (c) Select the person (d) Dismiss a Prime Minister
your choice to the council of of a bill passed by both the you like as Prime who has a majority in the Lok
minister Houses Minister Sabha
116) The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice
117) The Speaker of a State is a
(a) Head of State (b) Head of government (c) President’s agent (d) None of these
118) Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial (d) Diplomatic
119) Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative
Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Chief Minister (d) The Speaker of State legislature
120) The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief (b) Chairman of the State Public Service (c) Advocate General of the (d) Judges of the High
Minister Commission State Court
121) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by
(a) The State Legislature (b) The Governor (c) The President (d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
122) The State Council of Ministers is headed by
 (a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor (c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
123) The Legislative Council
(a) Has a term of five years (b) Has a term of six years (c) Is a permanent house (d) Has a term of four years
124) The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
125) The members of Legislative Council are
(a) Elected by the (b) Mostly (c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, (d) Directly elected by
Legislative Assembly nominated Legislative Assembly etc the people
126) Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
127) The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta (c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
128) Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra (b) Kerala and (c) Punjab and (d) Maharashtra and
Pradesh Telangana Haryana Gujarat
129) GNP equals
(a) NNP adjusted for (b) GDP adjusted for (c) GDP plus net property income (d) NNP plus net property
inflation inflation from abroad income or abroad
130) National Income is a measure of
(a) Total value of (b) Total value of producer (c) Total value of consumption (d) Total value of goods and
money goods goods services
131) Primary sector consist of
(a) Agriculture (b) Automobiles (c) Trade (d) Banking
132) ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the
final good.
(a) Expenditure approach (b) Value added approach (c) Income approach (d) National Income
133) Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP.
(a) Agricultural sector (b) Industrial sector (c) Service sector (d) None of the above.
134) Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06 (b) 92.26 (c) 80.07 (d) 98.29
135) India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 2nd
136) India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
(a) 65 (b) 60 (c) 70 (d) 55
137) Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy (b) import and export policy (c) land-reform policy (d) wage policy
138) Indian economy is
(a) Developing Economy (b) Emerging Economy (c) Dual Economy (d) All the above
139) Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(a) Ministerial conference (b) Director General (c) Deputy Director General (d) None of these
140) How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159 (b) 164 (c) 148 (d) 128
141) Colonial advent in India
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, (b) Dutch, English, (c) Portuguese , Danish, (d) Danish, Portuguese,
English, Danish, French Danish , French Dutch, French, English French, English, Dutch
142) Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire (b) Portuguese (c) Dutch (d) Danish
143) When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 BC (b) 1602 BC (c) 1498 BC (d) 1616 BC
144) GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo (b) Uruguay (c) Torquay (d) Geneva
145) India signed the Dunkel proposal in
(a) 1984 (b) 1976 (c) 1950 (d) 1994
146) who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632
(a) Jahangir (b) Sultan of Golconda (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb
147) Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in
(a) June 1991 (b) July 1991 (c) July - Aug - 1991 (d) Aug 1991
148) Indian government was introduced ___________ in 1991
(a) Globalization (b) World Trade Organisation (c) New Economic Policy (d) none
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS: 73 x 1 = 73
149) Japan forced a war on China in the year _________
150) The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of _________ signed in May 1913.
151) Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year _________
152) In the Balkans _________ had mixed population.
153) In the battle of Tannenberg _____________ suffered heavy losses.
154) _____________ as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
155) _____________ became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists before
Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
156) Locarno Treaty was signed in the year _____________.
157) The founder of the Social Democratic Party was _____________.
158) The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by _____________.
159) The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in _____________.
160) The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as _____________.
161) The Union of South Africa came into being in May _____________.
162) The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ________ years
163) _____________ were a military nation.
164) Boers were also known as _____________.
165) Hitler attacked---------------- which was a demilitarised zone.
166) The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as -----------.
167) --------- started the Lend Lease programme.
168) Britain Prime Minister --------------- resigned in 1940.
169) Saluting the bravery of the ------------------- Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so many
to so few”.
170) ------------- is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
171) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in --------------articles.
172) After the World War II ---------------- was voted into power in Great Britain.
173) __________________ was known as the “Father of modern China”.
174) In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ____________ University.
175) After the death of Dr. Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was _________.
176) _____________ treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
177) The treaty of _____________ provided for mandates in Turkish - Arab Empire.
178) Germany joined the NATO in _________________.
179) _____________ was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
180) _____________ treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
181) __________ founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
182) The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was __________
183) Satyashodak Samaj was launched by __________
184) Gulumgir was written by __________
185) Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of __________
186) Ramakrishna Mission was established by __________
187) __________ was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
188) __________ brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
189) Oru paisa Tamilan was started by __________
190) The concept of constitution first originated in ________.
191) ________was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
192) The Constitution of India was adopted on________.
193) ________ writs are mentioned in Article 32.
194) Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article________.
195) _________ Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
196) __________ is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
197) __________ is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
198) The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ________ community to the Lok
Sabha.
199) ________ has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
200) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ________years.
201) ____________ is the Guardian of the Constitution.
202) At present, the Supreme Court consists of _______ judges including the Chief Justice.
203) Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to _______.
204) Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the _______.
205) _______ is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
206) _______ acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
207) The Seventh Amendment Act of _______ authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court
for two or more states.
208) The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the
_______.
209) _____ sector is largest sector in India.
210) GDP is the indicator of _____ economy.
211) Secondary sector otherwise called as _____.
212) _____ sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
213) India is _____ largest economy of the world.
214) India is _____ fastest growing nation of the world.
215) _____ policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic growth
of GDP.
216) The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ___________.
217) A better economy introduce rapid development of the ___________.
218) The East India Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ___________.
219) WTO agreement came into force from ___________.
220) The term globalization invented by ___________.
221) French East India company established second factory at _________.
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING: 80 x 1 = 80
222) Treaty of Brest- Litovsk (1) Responsible for the Assembly
223) Jingoism (2) Gross National Product
224) Kemal Pasha (3) enforce international trade
225) Emden (4) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
226) Hall of Mirrors (5) guerilla activities
227) Transvaal (6) Head of the Government
228) Tongking (7) Desert and semi desert vegetation
229) Hindenburg (8) Highest peak in India
230) Third Reich (9) Turkey
231) Matteotti (10) Germany
232) Blitzkrieg (11) Karnataka
233) Royal Navy (12) Nirankari
234) Lend Lease (13) 1990
235) Volga (14) cannot vote for grants
236) Guadalcanal (15) 1955
237) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen (16) Littoral forest
238) Syngman Rhee (17) Tributary of River Ganga
239) Anwar Sadat (18) River Brahmaputra in Tibet
240) Ho-Chi Minh (19) The Himalayas
241) Ngo Dinh Diem (20) 1975
242) Ayyavazhi (21) Italy
243) Thiruvarutpa (22) 42nd Amendment
244) Baba Dayal Das (23) South Korea
245) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar (24) Solomon Island
246) Debendranath (25) lightning strike
247) Tsangpo (26) National Income/Population
248) Yamuna (27) Stalingrad
249) New alluvium (28) Tamil
250) Mt. Godwin Austen (K2) (29) Madras
251) Coromandel Coast (30) Impact of Urbanization
252) Project Elephant (31) Coal
253) Biodiversity hotspot (32) Satellite communication
254) Northeast monsoon (33) Tax on goods and service
255) Tropical thorn forests (34) Minimize cost of production
256) Coastal forests (35) England
257) Sugar bowl of India (36) South Vietnam
258) Coffee (37) Thiruvananthapuram
259) Tehri (38) 1947
260) Hirakud (39) Golden revolution
261) Horticulture (40) Widows Remarriage Reform Act
262) Bauxite (41) Egypt
263) Gypsum (42) Executive power of President
264) Black Gold (43) Infosis
265) Iron ore (44) 1960
266) Mica (45) Mahanadi
267) Detroit of India (46) Highest dam in the India
268) Thermal power plant (47) Internal Emergency
269) Wind farm (48) Aircraft
270) Tidal energy (49) Mumbai
271) Solar power (50) Industry Sector
272) Border Road Organisation (51) Britain
273) INSAT (52) Chennai
274) Mazagaon Dock (53) Vaikunda Swamigal
275) Urban sprawl (54) gold
276) Konkan Railways (55) Versailles
277) Citizenship Act (56) Adi Bramo Samaj
278) The Preamble (57) Khadhar
279) The mini-Constitution (58) North Vietnam
280) Classical language (59) Jawaharlal Nehru
281) National Emergency (60) Electrical goods
282) Article 53 (61) Agriculture
283) Article 63 (62) Hitler
284) Article 356 (63) State Emergency
285) Article 76 (64) Southern part of East Coastal Plain
286) Article 352 (65) Tribunals
287) Governor (66) Gujarat
288) Chief Minister (67) Office of the Attorney General
289) Council of Ministers (68) Head of the State
290) MLC (69) Office of the Vice President
291) Armed forces (70) Songs of Grace
292) Electricity/Gas and Water (71) Cement
293) Price policy (72) Roosevelt
294) GST (73) October-December
295) Per capita income (74) Kuomintang
296) C + I + G + (X-M) (75) 1962
297) Multination corporation in India (76) Russia with Germany
298) MNC (77) Protect the elephants
299) GATT (78) 1986
300) 8th Uruguay Round (79) Andhra Pradesh
301) WTO (80) Magnetite
IV. CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENTS: 26 x 1 = 26
302) i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria, and the South Tyrol.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) iii) is correct
c) iv) is correct
d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
303) i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iv) is correct
d) i), ii) and iv) are correct
304) i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern
Front
ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) iii) is correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct
d) i), ii) and iii) are correct
305) i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
 iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct
d) (i ) is correct and ii), iii) and iv) are wrong
306) i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated minority, initiated a series
of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of Japan
to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
307) i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left-wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe that
had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the
region.
iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
308) i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
ii) He encouraged idolatry
iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
a) i) is correct
b) i) and ii) are correct
c) i), ii) and iii) are correct
d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
309) i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
iv) Prarthana Samaj had its origin in the Punjab.
a) i) is correct
b) ii) is correct
c) i) and ii) are correct
d) iii) and iv) are correct
310) i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in
time of calamities.
ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
a) i) is correct
b) i) and ii) are correct
c) iii) is correct
d) iv) alone correct
311) Assertion (A): Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
 (b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
312) Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by the
rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
313) i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst person experience in the
field of literature, science, art, or social service
iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct
b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct
d) i, ii & iii are correct
314) i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) ii & iv are correct
b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct
d) i & ii are correct
315) Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are
elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is false but (R) is true
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for(A)
316) i) Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.
ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
a) ii & iv are correct
b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & ii are correct
d) i, ii & iii are correct
317) Assertion (A): Th ere are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the
President’s approval.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is true but (R) is false
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
318) The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
I. Low per capita income.
II. Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
III. Poor contribution of household sector.
IV. Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
a) I, II, IV are correct
 b) I, II and III are correct
c) I, II, III and IV are correct
d) I, III and IV are correct
319) I) The East Indian Company specially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added
cotton, silk, Indigo.
II) Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
III) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
a) I is correct
b) II and III are correct
c) I and III are correct
d) I, II and III are correct
320) Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing
England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
321) Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
322) Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the
world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries. a)
Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
323) Assertion: The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884–85 had resolved that Africa should be divided into
spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this
resolution.
a) Both A and R are right
b) A is right but R is not the right reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
324) Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
325) Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under its
influence.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
326) Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
 a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
c) Both are wrong
d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
327) Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon
Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
a) Both (A) and (B) are true R explains A
b) Both (A) and (B) are true R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true
328) Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keeps the Indian Sub-continent
warm. (Give option for this questions)
a) Both (A) and (B) are true R explains A
b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true
V. CHOOSE THE INAPPROPRIATE ANSWER: 2x1=2
329) Tidal forests are found in and around____.
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
330) Climate of India is affected by__________.
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil

VICTORIOUS TUITION CENTER - 9840483601/ 9791074594

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 VICTORIOUS TUITION CENTER
ONE MARKS TEST - VOLUME 2
10th Standard
Social Science
Exam Time : 00:02:00 Hrs Total Marks : 295
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS: 108 x 1 = 108

1) Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers (b) Puli Thevar (c) Velunachiyar (d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
2) Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar (b) Kattabomman (c) Puli Thevar (d) Oomai thurai
3) Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar (b) Nagalapuram (c) Virupachi (d) Panchalamkurichi
4) Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers (b) Puli Thevar (c) Veerapandya Kattabomman (d) Gopala Nayak
5) When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805 (b) 10 July 1805 (c) 10 July 1806 (d) 10 September 1806
6) Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt (b) Major Armstrong (c) Sir John Cradock (d) Colonel Agnew
7) Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta (b) Mumbai (c) Delhi (d) Mysore
8) Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during
the Carnatic wars?
(a) Velunachiyar (b) Puli Thevar (c) Nawab of Arcot (d) Raja of Travancore
9) Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion (b) Farazi Movement (c) Tribal uprising (d) Kol Revolt
10) Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir (b) Sidhu (c) Dudu Mian (d) Shariatullah
11) Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent
Settlement?
(a) Santhals (b) Titu Mir (c) Munda (d) Kol
12) Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion (b) Farazi Movement (c) Tribal uprising (d) Kol Revolt
13) Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir (b) Sidhu (c) Dudu Mian (d) Shariatullah
14) Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent
Settlement?
(a) Santhals (b) Titu Mir (c) Munda (d) Kol
15) Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Justice Govind Ranade (c) Bipin Chandra pal (d) Romesh Chandra
16) When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905 (b) 18 July 1906 (c) 19 August 1907 (d) 16 October 1905
17) What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt (b) Indigo Revolt (c) Munda Rebellion (d) Deccan Riots
18) Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant (b) Bipin Chandra Pal (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Tilak
19) Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpan?
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra (b) Romesh Chandra Dutt (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Birsa Munda
20) Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) Saifuddin Kitchlew (c) Mohamed Ali (d) Raj Kumar Shukla
21) In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay (b) Madras (c) Lucknow (d) Nagpur
22) Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
 (a) 26th January 1930 (b) 26th December 1929 (c) 16th June 1946 (d) 15th January 1947
23) When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858 (b) 1911 (c) 1865 (d) 1936
24) On 8 January 1933 which day was observed ____________.
(a) Temple Entry Day (b) Day of Deliverance (c) Direct Action Day (d) Independence Day
25) Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909(c) Government of India Act, 1919(d) Government of India Act, 1935
26) Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the Congress
in1939?
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Subhas Chandra Bose (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
27) Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
(a) New Dehi (b) Ahmedabad (c) Wardha (d) Noakhali
28) Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair (b) P. Rangaiah (c) G. Subramaniam (d) G.A. Natesan
29) Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina (b) Mylapore (c) Fort St. George (d) Thousand Lights
30) Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant (b) M. Veeraraghavachari (c) B.P. Wadia (d) G.S. Arundale
31) Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian (b) Andhra Prakasika (c) Justice (d) New India
32) Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurti (b) Kasturirangar (c) P. Subbarayan (d) Periyar EVR
33) Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj (b) Rajaji (c) K. Santhanam (d) T. Prakasam
34) Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode (b) Madras (c) Salem (d) Madurai
35) Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode (b) Madras (c) Salem (d) Madurai
36) __________ was the pioneer of social Reformers in India
(a) C.W. Damotharanar (b) Periyar (c) Raja Rammohan Roy (d) Maraimalai Adigal
37) __________ establisheda full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar
(a) Caldwell (b) F.W. Ellis (c) Ziegenbalg (d) Meenakshisundaram
38) __________ was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement
(a) KudiArasu (b) Puratchi (c) Viduthalai (d) Paguththarivu
39) Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by __________
(a) Nationalism (b) Iconoclasm (c) Rationalism (d) Spiritualism
40) __________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Rajaji (d) M. C. Rajah
41) India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in__________.
(a) 1918 (b) 1917 (c) 1916 (d) 1914
42) __________ was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials
(a) Staff Selection (b) Public Service (c) Provincial Staff Recruitment (d) Staff Selection
Board Commission Board Commission
43) __________ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras
Province.
(a) M. C. Rajah (b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan (c) T.M. Nair (d) P. Varadarajulu
44) The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 8°5′N to 13°35′N (b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S (c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N (d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
45) The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E (b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W (c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E (d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
46) The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi (b) Doddabetta (c) Mahendragiri (d) Servarayan
47) Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat (b) Shencottah (c) Bhorghat (d) Achankoil
48) Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar (b) Cauvery (c) Chittar (d) Bhavani
49) The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Ramanathapuram (b) Nagapattinam (c) Cuddalore (d) Theni
50) The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is
(a) 20.21% (b) 20.31% (c) 21.20% (d) 21.30%
51) Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from
(a) Arabian sea (b) Bay of Bengal (c) Indian Ocean (d) Timor sea
52) Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni (b) Madurai (c) Thanjavur (d) Ramanathapuram
53) The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Dharmapuri (b) Vellore (c) Dindigul (d) Erode
54) The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta (b) Mahanadi delta (c) Godavari delta (d) Krishna delta
55) Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Pulses (b) Millets (c) Oilseeds (d) Rice
56) Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is
(a) 80.32% (b) 62.33% (c) 73.45% (d) 80.33%
57) A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Mettur (b) Papansam (c) Sathanur (d) Thungabahdra
58) Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
(a) 3and15 (b) 4 and15 (c) 3 and16 (d) 4 and15
59) Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister (b) Prime Minister (c) External Affairs Minister (d) Home Minister
60) The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
(a) india and Nepal (b) India and Pakistan (c) India and China (d) India and Sri Lanka
61) Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50 (b) Article 51 (c) Article 52 (d) Article 53
62) Apartheid is
(a) An international association (b) Energy diplomacy (c) A policy of racial discrimination (d) None of these
63) The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
(a) Trade and (b) Restoration of normal (c) Cultural exchange (d) The Five Principles of Co
Commerce relations programmes existence
64) Which is not related to our foreign policy
(a) World co operation (b) World peace (c) Racial equality (d) Colonialism
65) Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia (b) Indonesia (c) Egypt (d) Pakistan
66) Find the odd one
(a) Social welfare (b) Health care (c) Diplomacy (d) Domestic affairs
67) Non-Alliance means
(a) being neutral (b) freedom to decide on issues independently (c) demilitarisation (d) none of the above
68) Non – military issues are
(a) Energy security (b) Water security (c) Pandemics (d) All the above.
69) Mc Mahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India (b) India and Nepal (c) India and China (d) India and Bhutan
70) India is not a member of which of the following
1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2, 4 and 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
71) OPEC is
(a) An international (b) An international (c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting (d) An international
insurance Co sports club Countries company
72) With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Myanmar (c) Afghanistan (d) China
73) Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan
iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
74) How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
75) Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman (b) Maldieves and (c) Maldieves and Nicobar (d) Sri Lanka and
island Lakshadweep island island Maldieves
76) Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim
77) How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two
78) Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten (b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe (c) Clement Atlee (d) None of the above.
79) __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which
is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food (b) Access to food (c) Absorption of food (d) none
80) Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through
the __________.
(a) FCI (b) Consumer Cooperatives (c) ICICI (d) IFCI
81) Which is correct?.
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties
ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System
iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
(a) i and ii are correct (b) iii and iv are correct (c) ii and iii are correct (d) all are correct
82) __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America (b) India (c) Singapore (d) UK
83) __________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution (b) White Revolution (c) Green Revolution (d) Grey Revolution
84) __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
85) __________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health (b) Nutrition (c) Sanitation (d) Security
86) Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in __________.
(a) 1980 (b) 1975 (c) 1955 (d) 1985
87) __________ status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources
development.
(a) Health (b) Nutritional (c) Economic (d) Wealth
88) Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ________ service at free of cost.
(a) 106 ambulance (b) 108 ambulance (c) 107 ambulance (d) 105 ambulance
89) The three levels of governments in India are
(a) Union, state and (b) Central, state and (c) Union, municipality and (d) None of the
local village panchayat above
90) In India, taxes are including
(a) Direct taxes (b) Indirect taxes. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
91) Which is the role of government and development policies?.
(a) Defence (b) Foreign policy (c) Regulate the economy (d) all of above
92) The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
(a) Service tax (b) Excise duty (c) Income tax (d) Central sales tax
93) Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
 (a) Value added tax (VAT) (b) Income tax (c) Goods and service tax (d) Sales tax
94) Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________ .
(a) 1860 (b) 1870 (c) 1880 (d) 1850
95) __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership
(a) Income tax (b) Income tax (c) Corporate tax (d) Excise duty
96) What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods (b) High tax rate (c) Smuggling (d) All of above
97) Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by
(a) Individuals (b) Corporations (c) Trusts (d) All of the above
98) Payments are
(a) Fees and fines (b) Penalities and forfeitures (c) None of the above (d) a and b
99) ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.
(a) Tuticorin (b) Coimbatore (c) Chennai (d) Madurai
100) Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
(a) Salem (b) Coimbatore (c) Chennai (d) Dharampuri
101) Tuticorin is known as
(a) Gateway of India (b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu (c) Pump city (d) None of these
102) ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) agriculture (b) industry (c) railway (d) none of these
103) Tiruppur is known for
(a) Leather tanning (b) Lock making (c) Knitwear (d) Agro-processing
104) Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ___________ is also a centre for leather goods exports
(a) Chennai (b) Sivakasi (c) Coimbatore (d) Madurai
105) IT means
(a) Indian Technology (b) Information Technology (c) Institute of Technology (d) Initiative Technology
106) A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
(a) Hosur (b) Dindigul (c) Kovilpatti (d) Tirunelveli
107) SIPCOT was formed in the year
(a) 1972 (b) 1976 (c) 1971 (d) 1978
108) Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT (b) TANSIDCO (c) TIDCO (d) All of these
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS: 81 x 1 = 81
109) The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by ____________.
110) Except the Palayakkarars of ____________,all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.
111) Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of __________ for eight years.
112) Bennerman deputed __________ to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
113) Kattabomman was hanged to death at ____________.
114) The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the ___________.
115) ___________ was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
116) _____________ suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.
117) In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ____________, the moneylenders of Bengal.
118) ____________ was an anti–imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around 1827.
119) The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ____________.
120) The ____________ Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
121) Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ____________.
122) The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ____________.
123) Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ____________.
124) W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year ____________
125) Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment in __________ station.
126) Gandhi regarded __________ as his political guru.
127) Khilafat Movement was led by _________.
128) Government of India Act 1919 introduced__________ in the provinces.
129) The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by __________.
130) Ramsay Macdonald announced __________ which provided separate electorates to the minorities and
the depressed classes.
131) __________ established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
132) __________ coined the term ‘Paksitan'.
133) ____________ was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court
134) The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ____________ through his writings.
135) Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named ____________.
136) The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by ____________.
137) The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by ____________.
138) ____________ formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
139) ____________ was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
140) ____________ hoisted the national flagatop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932
141) __________ was the first non-European language that went into print.
142) The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.
143) __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
144) __________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics
145) __________ was the first non-European language that went into print.
146) The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.
147) __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
148) __________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
149) The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as __________
150) __________ gave prominence to Tamil music.
151) The first Woman Legislator in India was __________.
152) The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is __________.
153) __________ is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
154) The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between __________ and __________ branches of cauvery.
155) __________ soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
156) __________is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in __________
157) Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ____________ % of its economy.
158) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ____________.
159) Tamil Nadu ranks ____________ in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation
in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP).
160) ___________ is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
161) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ___________.
162) India conducted its first nuclear test at ___________.
163) At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ____for domestic growth and development.
164) ____________is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
165) _____________ was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
166) Our tradition and national ethos is to practice____________.
167) ____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.
168) India’s gateway to South East Asia is ____________.
169) ____________ is a buffer country between India and China.
170) A strip of land ____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
171) ____________ is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
172) India and Sri Lanka are separated by ____________.
173) __________ foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
174) __________ is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency
175) In the year ___________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
176) ___________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common
people.
177) ___________ is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one
unit of money can buy.
178) __________ is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy.
179) The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word __________.
180) The burden of the __________ tax cannot be shifted to others.
181) __________ tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
182) The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on __________.
183) The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called __________.
184) ___________ are very important in the modern economic activates of man
185) ___________ are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and
technologies.
186) Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ___________ District in Tamil Nadu.
187) ___________ is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.
188) Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in ___________.
189) ___________ is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING: 58 x 1 = 58
190) Theerthagiri (1) Indirect tax
191) Gopala Nayak (2) Dyarchy
192) Bannerman (3) Direct Action Day
193) Subedar Sheik Adam (4) Direct tax
194) Col. Fancourt (5) 2013
195) Wahhabi Rebellion (6) Salem
196) Munda Rebellion (7) Vellore Revolt
197) Begum Hazarat Mahal (8) Lucknow
198) Kunwar Singh (9) M.N. Roy
199) Nana Sahib (10) supply of quality goods
200) Rowlatt Act (11)
Vaikom Hero
201) Non Cooperation Movement (12) Vienna
202) Government of India Act, 1919 (13) Titu Mir
203) Communist Party of India (14) 1 July 2017
204) 16th August 1946 (15) Pre-monsoon
205) MNA (16) Maraimalai Adigal
206) EVR Periyar (17) Coimbatore
207) S.N. Somayajulu (18) 1954
208) Vedaranyam (19) Aravankadu
209) Thalamuthu (20) Servaroy hills
210) Dravidian Home (21) Singaravelar
211) Thozhilalan (22) Myanmar
212) Tani Tamil Iyakkam (23) Surrender of titles
213) Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam (24) June to September
214) Winter season (25) Tiruchirapalli
215) Summer season (26) Export Processing Zone
216) Southwest monsoon (27) Bihar
217) North east monsoon (28) Coimbatore
218) Mango Shower (29) Peshwa Baji Rao II
219) Bauxite (30) Subedar Sheik Adam
220) Gypsum (31) Maldives
221) Iron (32) Karur
222) Limestone (33) Smuggling
223) Indian Ocean island (34) October to December
224) Land bridge to ASEAN (35) Ranchi
225) Panchsheel (36) Dindigul
226) Afro Asian Conference (37) January and February
227) World Peace (38) Salt Satyagraha
228) Brandix (39) Anti-Hindi agitation
229) COMCASA (40) Shanghai
230) Shinkansen system (41) Ramalinganar
231) BRICS (42) Japan
232) OPEC (43) Removal of Neill Statue
233) Consumer cooperatives (44) Garment city in Vishakapatnam
234) Public Distribution System (45) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
235) UNDP (46) least poor region
236) National Food Security Act (47) Value added tax
237) Kerala (48) Foreign Policy
238) Income Tax (49) United Nations Development Programme
239) Excise duty (50) Odanilai
240) VAT (51) Organizer
241) GST (52) USA
242) Black money (53) March to May
243) Entrepreneur (54) subsidized rates
244) MEPZ (55) Torture Commission
245) Indian Ordance Factory (56) 1955
246) TNPL (57) Natesanar
247) Machester of south India (58) Black Act
IV. ASSERTION AND REASON 5x1=5
248) Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
249) Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false
250) Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the states economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
251) Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu
Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
252) Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power
is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
V.CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENTS: 34 x 1 = 34
253) i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company
administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
254) i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in
restoring the throne to her.
iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv )are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
255) Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the
Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
256) Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a
leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
257) (i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial
revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and
moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion. (iv) In 1879, an Act was
passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
 a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
258) (i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to
God”
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be
annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives
of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indian princes and zamindars
remained loyal to the British
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
259) (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an
economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for
the growing poverty
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist
movement.
a) (i) and (iii) are correct
b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
260) Assersion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct
proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
261) Assersion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
262) (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Mino
Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
263) (i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
 b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) is correct
d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
264) Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason: Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) A is wrong but R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
265) Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected Congress
ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
266) (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct
d) All are correct
267) (i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) is correct
d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
268) Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement. Reason
(R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
269) Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature. Reason
(R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
270) (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and
literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with
Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
d) (iv) is correct
e) (ii) and (iii) are correct
271) (i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists
Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from
the North
a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
272) Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras
Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
273) Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the
introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
b) Both A and R are wrong
c) Both A and R are right
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
274) Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code
given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
275) Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only
276) Write true or false against each of the statement.
a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done underSubterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
277) Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(B): This began with a disastrous Indo –China war of 1962
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is Wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong.
278) Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
279) Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to
redeemed from
a) acute poverty
b) illiteracy
c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
d) all the above
280) The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of
transport?
1. Roads 2. Railways
3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
281) Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for
co-operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
282) Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
283) Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial
production.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) Both are correct
d) Both are wrong
284) Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State
governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) All are correct
285) Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iv) c) (i) d) (ii) and (iii)
286) I. Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
II. They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and
professionals.
III. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income
IV. Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
a) I and IV is correct
b) I only correct
c) III and IV is correct
d) I and III is correct
VI. ODD ONE OUT: 2x2=4
287) Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
288) Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPG d) SIPCOT

VICTORIOUS TUITION CENTER - 9840483601/9791074594

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ONE MARKS TEST - VOLUME - I
10th Standard

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Time : 00:02:00 Hrs

Total Marks : 329

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 148 x 1 = 148

1) What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, (b) Germany, Austria- (c) Spain, Portugal (d) Germany, Austria-
and the Ottomans Hungary, and Russia and Italy Hungary, Italy
2) Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville(b) Orange State(c) Adowa(d) Algiers
3) Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China(b) Japan(c) Korea(d) Mongolia
4) Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin(b) Marx(c) Sun Yat-sen(d) Mao Tsetung
5) What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare(b) trench warfare(c) submarine warfare(d) ship warfare
6) Which country after the World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain(b) France(c) Germany(d) USA
7) To which country did the first Secretary-General of League of Nations belongs?
(a) Britain(b) France(c) Dutch(d) USA
8) Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland
(a) Germany(b) Russia(c) Italy(d) France
9) With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany(b) Russia(c) Pope(d) Spain
10) With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes(b) Francisco Pizarro(c) Toussaint Louverture(d) Pedro I
11) Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English(b) Spaniards(c) Russians(d) French
12) Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America
(a) Roosevelt(b) Truman(c) Woodrow Wilson(d) Eisenhower
13) Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe(b) Latin America(c) India(d) China
14) Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd(b) Smut(c) Herzog(d) Botha
15) Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US(b) Napoleonic Invasion(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement(d) French Revolution
16) Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American intervention in the
affairs of Latin America
(a) Theodore Roosevelt(b) Truman(c) Eisenhower(d) Woodrow Wilson
17) When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945(b) 2 October, 1945(c) 15 August, 1945(d) 12 October, 1945
18) Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt(b) Chamberlain(c) Woodrow Wilson(d) Baldwin
19) Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal(b) Battle of Midway(c) Battle of Leningrad(d) Battle of El Alamein
20) Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki(b) Innoshima(c) Hiroshima(d) Nagasaki
21) Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians(b) Arabs(c) Turks(d) Jews
22) Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain(b) Winston Churchill(c) Lloyd George(d) Stanley Baldwin
23) When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942(b) June 26, 1945(c) January 1, 1942(d) January 1, 1945
24) Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
(a) New York(b) Chicago(c) London(d) The Hague
25) Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen(b) Chiang Kai-Shek(c) Michael Borodin(d) Chou En Lai
26) Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson(b) Truman(c) Theodore Roosevelt(d) Franklin Roosevelt
27) When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959(b) September 1948(c) September 1954(d) September 1949
28) The United States and European allies formed _______________ to resist any Soviet aggression in
Europe.
(a) SEATO(b) NATO(c) SENTO(d) Warsaw Pact
29) Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad(b) Yasser Arafat(c) Nasser(d) Saddam Hussein
30) When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975(b) 1976(c) 1973(d) 1974
31) Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo(b) Jordan(c) Lebanon(d) Syria
32) When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979(b) 1989(c) 1990(d) 1991
33) In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827(b) 1829(c) 1826(d) 1927
34) What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj(b) Brahmo Samaj(c) Prarthana Samaj(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
35) Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar(b) Raja Rammohan Roy(c) Annie Besant(d) Jyotiba Phule
36) Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement(b) Aligarh Movement(c) Ramakrishna Mission(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
37) Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das(b) Baba Ramsingh(c) Guru Nanak(d) Jyotiba Phule
38) Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of (b) one who caused a split in the (c) one who caused a split (d) founder of
Swami Vivekananda Brahmo Samaj of India in the Arya Samaj Samathuva Samajam.
39) Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade(b) Devendranath Tagore(c) Jyotiba Phule(d) Ayyankali
40) Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi(b) Vaikunda Swamy(c) Annie Besant(d) Swami Shradanatha
41) The north-south extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km(b) 2,933 km(c) 3,214 km(d) 2,814 km
42) The Southern most point of India is
(a) Andaman(b) Kanyakumari(c) Indira Point(d) Kavaratti
43) The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about
(a) 2,500 km(b) 2,400 km(c) 800 km(d) 2,200 km
44) _________ River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
(a) Narmada(b) Godavari(c) Kosi(d) Damodar
45) Deccan Plateau covers an area of about __________ sq.km.
(a) 8 lakh(b) 6 lakh(c) 5 lakh(d) 7 lakh
46) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _________.
(a) Coast(b) Island(c) Peninsula(d) Strait
47) The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _______
(a) Goa(b) West Bengal(c) Sri Lanka(d) Maldives
48) The highest peak in South India is
(a) Ooty(b) Kodaikanal(c) Anaimudi(d) Jindhagada
49) _____________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar(b) Tarai(c) Bhangar(d) Khadar
50) Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
(a) West Bengal and (b) Karnataka and (c) Odisha and Andhra (d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra
Odisha Kerala Pradesh Pradesh
51) Meteorology is the science of _________.
(a) Weather(b) Social(c) Political(d) Human
52) We wear cotton during _________.
(a) Summer(b) Winter(c) Rainy(d) Northeast monsoon
53) Western disturbances cause rainfall in _________.
(a) Tamilnadu(b) Kerala(c) Punjab(d) Madhya Pradesh
54) _________ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo(b) Norwester(c) Mango showers(d) Jet stream
55) _________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets(b) Isobar(c) Isotherm(d) Latitudes
56) Climate of India is labelled as _________.
(a) Tropical humid(b) Equatorial Climate(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate(d) Temperate Climate
57) The monsoon forests are otherwise called as _________.
(a) Tropical evergreen forest(b) Deciduous forest(c) Mangrove forest(d) Mountain forest
58) _________ forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests(b) Alpine forests(c) Mangrove forests(d) Tidal forests
59) Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in _________.
(a) Tamil Nadu(b) Andhra Pradesh(c) Madhya Pradesh(d) Karnataka
60) _________ is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO
(a) Nilgiri(b) Agasthiyamalai(c) Great Nicobar(d) Kachch
61) The soil which is rich in iron oxides is __________.
(a) Alluvial(b) Black(c) Red(d) Alkaline
62) Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of (b) Indian Meteorological (c) Soil Survey of (d) Indian Institute of Soil
Agricultural Research Department India Science
63) The soils formed by the rivers are:
(a) Red soils(b) Black soils(c) Desert soils(d) Alluvial soils
64) _________ dam is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam(b) Bhakra Nangal dam(c) Mettur dam(d) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
65) __________ is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton(b) Wheat(c) Rice(d) Maize
66) Black soils are also called as:
(a) Arid soils(b) Saline soils(c) Regur soils(d) Mountain soils
67) The longest dam in the world is ___________.
(a) Mettur dam(b) Kosi dam(c) Hirakud dam(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
68) The leading producer of rice in India is ________.
(a) Punjab(b) Maharashtra(c) Uttar Pradesh(d) West Bengal
69) Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton(b) Wheat(c) Jute(d) Tobacco
70) The state which leads in the production of coffee is
(a) West Bengal(b) Karnataka(c) Odisha(d) Punjab
71) Manganese is used in______.
(a) Storage batteries(b) Steel Making(c) Copper smelting(d) Petroleum Refining
72) The Anthracite coal has ___________.
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon(b) Above 70% Carbon(c) 60 to 7% Carbon(d) Below 50% Carbon
73) The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
(a) Oxygen(b) Water(c) Carbon(d) Nitrogen
74) The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai(b) Salem(c) Madurai(d) Coimbatore
75) The first Jute mill of India was established at
(a) Kolkata(b) Mumbai(c) Ahmedabad(d) Baroda
76) The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat(b) Rajasthan(c) Maharashtra(d) Tamil nadu
77) The most abundant source of energy is
(a) Bio mass(b) Sun(c) Coal(d) Oil
78) The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand(b) Bihar(c) Rajasthan(d) Assam
79) The nucleus for the development of the Chota Nagpur plateau region is
(a) Transport(b) Mineral Deposits(c) Large demand(d) Power Availability
80) One of the shore-based steel plants of India is located at ___________.
(a) Kolkata(b) Tuticorin(c) Goa(d) Visakhapatnam
81) The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
(a) Photography(b) Demography(c) Choreography(d) Population density
82) The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is _________.
(a) Tamil nadu(b) Karnataka(c) Kerala(d) Uttarpradesh
83) Human Development is measured in terms of _________.
(a) Human Resource Index(b) Per capita index(c) Human Development Index(d) UNDP
84) ______________ transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways(b) Roadways(c) Airways(d) Waterways
85) The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km(b) 5847 km(c) 5849 km(d) 5800 km
86) The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is
(a) 17,500 km(b) 5000 km(c) 14,500 km(d) 1000 km
87) The National Remote sensing Centre(NRSC) is located at ____________.
(a) Bengaluru(b) Chennai(c) Delhi(d) Hyderabad
88) The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is
(a) Roadways(b) Railways(c) Airways(d) Waterways
89) Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India(b) Indian Airlines(c) Vayudoot(d) Pavan Hans
90) The major import item of India is
(a) Cement(b) Jewells(c) Tea(d) Petroleum
91) Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, (b) Sovereign, socialist, (c) Sovereign, republic, (d) Sovereign, socialist,
secular, socialist, secular, republic, secular, socialist, secular, democratic,
sovereign democratic democratic republic
92) How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once(b) Twice(c) Thrice(d) Never
93) The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens
(a) Double (b) Single (c) Single Citizenship in some States and double (d) None of the
Citizenship Citizenship in others above
94) A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent(b) Registration(c) Naturalisation(d) All of the above
95) Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to (b) Right against (c) Right to (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Equality Exploitation Property
96) One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from (b) Christian missions set (c) Men and Women (d) Parents property
Karnataka go to Kerala to up a chain of missionary government employees got is inherited by their
 work on the farms schools the same salary. children
97) If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to
(a) The Parliament(b) The Attorney General(c) The President of India(d) The Supreme court of India
98) Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the
Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of (b) Right to (c) Right to Constitutional (d) Right to
religion equality remedies property
99) How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme (b) If the Prime Minister (c) If the President orders it during the (d) All of the
Court so desires orders to this effect national emergency above
100) We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution(b) Canadian Constitution(c) Russian Constitution(d) Irish Constitution
101) The Directive Principles can be classified into
(a) Liberal and (b) Socialist and (c) Liberal, Gandhian and (d) Socialist, Gandhian and
Communist principles Communist principles Communist principles Liberal principles
102) Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352(b) Article 356(c) Article 360(d) Article 368
103) The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in
(a) Article 352(b) Article 356(c) Article 360(d) Article 368
104) Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State
Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
(a) 1, 2 & 3(b) 1 & 2(c) 1 & 3(d) 2 & 3
105) The Constitutional Head of the Union is
(a) The President(b) The Chief Justice(c) The Prime Minister(d) Council of Ministers
106) Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army(b) The Prime Minister(c) The President(d) Judiciary
107) Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President(b) Attorney General(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
108) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) The President(b) Lok Sabha(c) The Prime Minister(d) Rajya Sabha
109) The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of (b) Speaker of the Lok (c) The President of (d) The Chairman of the Rajya
Parliament Sabha India Sabha
110) What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 years(b) 21 years(c) 25 years(d) 30 years
111) The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President(b) The Prime Minister(c) State Government(d) Parliament
112) Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352(b) Article 360(c) Article 356(d) Article 365
113) The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President(b) The Attorney General(c) The Governor(d) The Prime Minister
114) Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction(b) Original Jurisdiction(c) Advisory Jurisdiction(d) None of these
115) If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your
own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of (b) Ask for reconsideration (c) Select the person (d) Dismiss a Prime Minister
your choice to the council of of a bill passed by both the you like as Prime who has a majority in the
minister Houses Minister Lok Sabha
116) The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister(b) Chief Minister(c) President(d) Chief Justice
117) The Speaker of a State is a
(a) Head of State(b) Head of government(c) President’s agent(d) None of these
118) Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative(b) Executive(c) Judicial(d) Diplomatic
119) Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative
Assembly?
(a) The President(b) The Governor(c) The Chief Minister(d) The Speaker of State legislature
120) The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief (b) Chairman of the State Public Service (c) Advocate General of (d) Judges of the High
Minister Commission the State Court
121) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by
(a) The State Legislature(b) The Governor(c) The President(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
122) The State Council of Ministers is headed by
(a) The Chief Minster(b) The Governor(c) The Speaker(d) The Prime Minister
123) The Legislative Council
(a) Has a term of five (b) Has a term of six years(c) Is a permanent house(d) Has a term of four years
years
124) The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(a) 25 years(b) 21 years(c) 30 years(d) 35 years
125) The members of Legislative Council are
(a) Elected by the (b) Mostly (c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, (d) Directly elected
Legislative Assembly nominated teachers, Legislative Assembly etc by the people
126) Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh(b) Telangana(c) Tamil Nadu(d) Uttar Pradesh
127) The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, (b) Delhi and (c) Delhi, Calcutta, (d) Calcutta, Madras,
Madras Calcutta Madras Delhi
128) Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra (b) Kerala and (c) Punjab and (d) Maharashtra and
Pradesh Telangana Haryana Gujarat
129) GNP equals
(a) NNP adjusted for (b) GDP adjusted for (c) GDP plus net property (d) NNP plus net property
inflation inflation income from abroad income or abroad
130) National Income is a measure of
(a) Total value of (b) Total value of producer (c) Total value of (d) Total value of goods and
money goods consumption goods services
131) Primary sector consist of
(a) Agriculture(b) Automobiles(c) Trade(d) Banking
132) ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of
the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach(b) Value added approach(c) Income approach(d) National Income
133) Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP.
(a) Agricultural sector(b) Industrial sector(c) Service sector(d) None of the above.
134) Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06(b) 92.26(c) 80.07(d) 98.29
135) India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st(b) 3rd(c) 4th(d) 2nd
136) India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
(a) 65(b) 60(c) 70(d) 55
137) Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy(b) import and export policy(c) land-reform policy(d) wage policy
138) Indian economy is
(a) Developing Economy(b) Emerging Economy(c) Dual Economy(d) All the above
139) Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(a) Ministerial conference(b) Director General(c) Deputy Director General(d) None of these
140) How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159(b) 164(c) 148(d) 128
141) Colonial advent in India
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, (b) Dutch, English, (c) Portuguese , Danish, (d) Danish, Portuguese,
English, Danish, French Danish , French Dutch, French, English French, English, Dutch
142) Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire(b) Portuguese(c) Dutch(d) Danish
143) When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 BC(b) 1602 BC(c) 1498 BC(d) 1616 BC
144) GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo(b) Uruguay(c) Torquay(d) Geneva
145) India signed the Dunkel proposal in
(a) 1984(b) 1976(c) 1950(d) 1994
146) who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632
(a) Jahangir(b) Sultan of Golconda(c) Akbar(d) Aurangzeb
147) Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in
(a) June 1991(b) July 1991(c) July - Aug - 1991(d) Aug 1991
148) Indian government was introduced ___________ in 1991
(a) Globalization(b) World Trade Organisation(c) New Economic Policy(d) none
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS: 73 x 1 = 73
149) Japan forced a war on China in the year _________
1894
150) The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of _________ signed in May 1913.
London
151) Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year _________
1902
152) In the Balkans _________ had mixed population.
Macedonia
153) In the battle of Tannenberg _____________ suffered heavy losses.
Russia
154) _____________ as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
Clemenceau
155) _____________ became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists
before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
Kerensky
156) Locarno Treaty was signed in the year _____________.
1925

157) The founder of the Social Democratic Party was _____________.

Ferdinand Lassalle
158) The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by _____________.
Josef Goebbels
159) The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in _____________.
1927

160) The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as _____________.
Gestapo
161) The Union of South Africa came into being in May _____________.
1910
162) The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ________ years
27
163) _____________ were a military nation.
The Aztecs
164) Boers were also known as _____________.
Afrikaners
165) Hitler attacked---------------- which was a demilitarised zone.
 Rhineland
166) The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as -----------.
Rome - Berlin - Tokyo - Axis
167) --------- started the Lend Lease programme.
Roosevelt
168) Britain Prime Minister --------------- resigned in 1940.
Chamberlain
169) Saluting the bravery of the ------------------- Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so
many to so few”.
Royal Air Force
170) ------------- is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
Radar
171) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in --------------
articles.
30
172) After the World War II ---------------- was voted into power in Great Britain.
Labour party
173) __________________ was known as the “Father of modern China”.
Dr. Sun Yat Sen
174) In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ____________ University.

Peking
175) After the death of Dr. Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was _________.
Chiang Kai-shek
176) _____________ treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
Central
177) The treaty of _____________ provided for mandates in Turkish - Arab Empire.
Versailles
178) Germany joined the NATO in _________________.
1955
179) _____________ was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
Strasbourg
180) _____________ treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
The Maastricht
181) __________ founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
Ramalinga Adigal
182) The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was __________
Mahadev Govind Ranade
183) Satyashodak Samaj was launched by __________
Jyotiba Govindrao Phule
184) Gulumgir was written by __________
Jyotiba Phule
185) Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of __________
Strict monotheism, condemnation of idolatry, and rejection of Brahman domination of ritual and
social practices
186) Ramakrishna Mission was established by __________
Swami Vivekananda

187) __________ was the forerunner of Akali Movement.

Singh Sabha
188) __________ brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
189) Oru paisa Tamilan was started by __________
Iyothee Thassar
190) The concept of constitution first originated in ________.
U.S.A
191) ________was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
192) The Constitution of India was adopted on________.
November 26, 1949
193) ________ writs are mentioned in Article 32.
Five
194) Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article________.
51A
195) _________ Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
Money
196) __________ is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
The Prime Minister
197) __________ is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
The Vice-President
198) The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ________ community to the Lok
Sabha.
Anglo-Indian
199) ________ has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the
Parliament.
Attorney General
200) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of
________years.
65
201) ____________ is the Guardian of the Constitution.
The Supreme Court
202) At present, the Supreme Court consists of _______ judges including the Chief Justice.
28
203) Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to _______.
The President
204) Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the _______.
people
205) _______ is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
M. Fathima Beevi
206) _______ acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
The Governor
207) The Seventh Amendment Act of _______ authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court
for two or more states.
1956
208) The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the
_______.
President
209) _____ sector is largest sector in India.
Service
210) GDP is the indicator of _____ economy.
Health of the
211) Secondary sector otherwise called as _____.
Industrial Sector
212) _____ sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
SME
213) India is _____ largest economy of the world.
Sixth
214) India is _____ fastest growing nation of the world.
 Fifth
215) _____ policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic
growth of GDP.
Industrial Policy
216) The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ___________.
1693

217) A better economy introduce rapid development of the ___________.

Capital Market
218) The East India Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ___________.
Fort St. George
219) WTO agreement came into force from ___________.
January 1, 1995
220) The term globalization invented by ___________.
Prof. Theodore Levitt
221) French East India company established second factory at _________.
Infosis
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING: 80 x 1 = 80
222) Treaty of Brest- Litovsk
Russia with Germany
223) Jingoism
England
224) Kemal Pasha
Turkey
225) Emden
Madras
226) Hall of Mirrors
Versailles
227) Transvaal
gold
228) Tongking
guerilla activities
229) Hindenburg
Germany
230) Third Reich
Hitler
231) Matteotti
Italy
232) Blitzkrieg
lightning strike
233) Royal Navy
Britain
234) Lend Lease
Roosevelt
235) Volga
Stalingrad
236) Guadalcanal
Solomon Island
237) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
Kuomintang
238) Syngman Rhee
South Korea
239) Anwar Sadat
Egypt
240) Ho-Chi Minh
North Vietnam
241) Ngo Dinh Diem
South Vietnam
242) Ayyavazhi
Vaikunda Swamigal
243) Thiruvarutpa
Songs of Grace
244) Baba Dayal Das
Nirankari
245) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
Widows Remarriage Reform Act
246) Debendranath
Adi Bramo Samaj
247) Tsangpo
River Brahmaputra in Tibet
248) Yamuna
Tributary of River Ganga
249) New alluvium
Khadhar
250) Mt. Godwin Austen (K2)
Highest peak in India
251) Coromandel Coast
Southern part of East Coastal Plain
252) Project Elephant
Protect the elephants
253) Biodiversity hotspot
The Himalayas
254) Northeast monsoon
October-December
255) Tropical thorn forests
Desert and semi desert vegetation
256) Coastal forests
Littoral forest
257) Sugar bowl of India
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
258) Coffee
Karnataka
259) Tehri
Highest dam in the India
260) Hirakud
Mahanadi
261) Horticulture
Golden revolution
262) Bauxite
Aircraft
263) Gypsum
Cement
264) Black Gold
Coal
265) Iron ore
Magnetite
266) Mica
Electrical goods
267) Detroit of India
Chennai
268) Thermal power plant
1975
269) Wind farm
Gujarat
270) Tidal energy
Thiruvananthapuram
271) Solar power
Andhra Pradesh
272) Border Road Organisation
1960
273) INSAT
Satellite communication
274) Mazagaon Dock
Mumbai
275) Urban sprawl
Impact of Urbanization
276) Konkan Railways
1990
277) Citizenship Act
1955
278) The Preamble
Jawaharlal Nehru
279) The mini-Constitution
42nd Amendment
280) Classical language
Tamil
281) National Emergency
1962
282) Article 53
Executive power of President
283) Article 63
Office of the Vice President
284) Article 356
Internal Emergency
285) Article 76
Office of the Attorney General
286) Article 352
State Emergency
287) Governor
Head of the State
288) Chief Minister
Head of the Government
289) Council of Ministers
Responsible for the Assembly
290) MLC
cannot vote for grants
291) Armed forces
Tribunals
292) Electricity/Gas and Water
Industry Sector
293) Price policy
Agriculture
294) GST
Tax on goods and service
295) Per capita income
National Income/Population
296) C + I + G + (X-M)
Gross National Product
297) Multination corporation in India
Infosis
298) MNC
Minimize cost of production
299) GATT
1947
300) 8th Uruguay Round
1986
301) WTO
enforce international trade
IV. CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENTS: 26 x 1 = 26
302) i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria, and the South Tyrol.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) iii) is correct
c) iv) is correct
d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
Answer : (a) (i) and (ii) are correct
303) i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iv) is correct
d) i), ii) and iv) are correct
Answer : (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
304) i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern
Front
ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) iii) is correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct
d) i), ii) and iii) are correct
Answer : (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) correct
305) i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
a) i) and ii) are correct
b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct
d) (i ) is correct and ii), iii) and iv) are wrong
Answer : (a) (i) and (ii) are correct
306) i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated minority, initiated a
series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of
Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer : (c) (i) and (iii) are correct
307) i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left-wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe that
had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the
region.
iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer : (b) (i) and (ii) are correct
308) i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
ii) He encouraged idolatry
iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
a) i) is correct
b) i) and ii) are correct
c) i), ii) and iii) are correct
d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
Answer : d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
309) i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
iv) Prarthana Samaj had its origin in the Punjab.
a) i) is correct
b) ii) is correct
c) i) and ii) are correct
d) iii) and iv) are correct
Answer : c) i) and ii) are correct
310) i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief
in time of calamities.
ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
a) i) is correct
b) i) and ii) are correct
c) iii) is correct
d) iv) alone correct
Answer : a) i) is correct
311) Assertion (A): Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
 (c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
312) Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by
the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
313) i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst person experience in
the field of literature, science, art, or social service
iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct
b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct
d) i, ii & iii are correct
Answer : d) i, ii & iii are correct
314) i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) ii & iv are correct
b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct
d) i & ii are correct
Answer : a) ii & iv are correct
315) Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are
elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is false but (R) is true
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for(A)
Answer : c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
316) i) Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.
ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
a) ii & iv are correct
b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & ii are correct
d) i, ii & iii are correct
Answer : c) i & ii are correct
317) Assertion (A): Th ere are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the
President’s approval.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is true but (R) is false
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer : b) (A) is true but (R) is false
318) The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
I. Low per capita income.
II. Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
III. Poor contribution of household sector.
IV. Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
a) I, II, IV are correct
b) I, II and III are correct
c) I, II, III and IV are correct
d) I, III and IV are correct
Answer : d) I, III and IV are correct
319) I) The East Indian Company specially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added
cotton, silk, Indigo.
II) Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
III) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
a) I is correct
b) II and III are correct
c) I and III are correct
d) I, II and III are correct
Answer : c) I and III are correct
320) Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and
capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer : (b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
321) Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer : (a) Both A and R are correct
322) Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the
world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries. a)
Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer : (b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
323) Assertion: The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884–85 had resolved that Africa should be divided
into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this
resolution.
a) Both A and R are right
b) A is right but R is not the right reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer : (a) Both A and R are right
324) Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
 c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer : (a) Both A and R are correct
325) Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under
its influence.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer : (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
326) Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
c) Both are wrong
d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer : a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
327) Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon
Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
a) Both (A) and (B) are true R explains A
b) Both (A) and (B) are true R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer : a) Both (A) and (B) are true R explains A
328) Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keeps the Indian Sub-continent
warm. (Give option for this questions)
a) Both (A) and (B) are true R explains A
b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer : a) Both (A) and (B) are true R explains A
V. CHOOSE THE INAPPROPRIATE ANSWER: 2x1=2
329) Tidal forests are found in and around____.
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer : (a) Desert
330) Climate of India is affected by__________.
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer : (d) Soil
 VICTORIOUS TUITION CENTER
ONE MARKS TEST - VOLUME 2
10th Standard

Social Science

Time : 00:02:00 Hrs

Total Marks : 295

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS: 108 x 1 = 108

1) Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial
aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers(b) Puli Thevar(c) Velunachiyar(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
2) Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar(b) Kattabomman(c) Puli Thevar(d) Oomai thurai
3) Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar(b) Nagalapuram(c) Virupachi(d) Panchalamkurichi
4) Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers(b) Puli Thevar(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman(d) Gopala Nayak
5) When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805(b) 10 July 1805(c) 10 July 1806(d) 10 September 1806
6) Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt(b) Major Armstrong(c) Sir John Cradock(d) Colonel Agnew
7) Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta(b) Mumbai(c) Delhi(d) Mysore
8) Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during
the Carnatic wars?
(a) Velunachiyar(b) Puli Thevar(c) Nawab of Arcot(d) Raja of Travancore
9) Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion(b) Farazi Movement(c) Tribal uprising(d) Kol Revolt
10) Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir(b) Sidhu(c) Dudu Mian(d) Shariatullah
11) Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent
Settlement?
(a) Santhals(b) Titu Mir(c) Munda(d) Kol
12) Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion(b) Farazi Movement(c) Tribal uprising(d) Kol Revolt
13) Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir(b) Sidhu(c) Dudu Mian(d) Shariatullah
14) Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent
Settlement?
(a) Santhals(b) Titu Mir(c) Munda(d) Kol
15) Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji(b) Justice Govind Ranade(c) Bipin Chandra pal(d) Romesh Chandra
16) When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905(b) 18 July 1906(c) 19 August 1907(d) 16 October 1905
17) What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt(b) Indigo Revolt(c) Munda Rebellion(d) Deccan Riots
18) Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
 (a) Annie Basant(b) Bipin Chandra Pal(c) Lala Lajpat Rai(d) Tilak
19) Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil
darpan?
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt(c) Dadabhai Naoroji(d) Birsa Munda
20) Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew(c) Mohamed Ali(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
21) In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay(b) Madras(c) Lucknow(d) Nagpur
22) Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930(b) 26th December 1929(c) 16th June 1946(d) 15th January 1947
23) When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858(b) 1911(c) 1865(d) 1936
24) On 8 January 1933 which day was observed ____________.
(a) Temple Entry Day(b) Day of Deliverance(c) Direct Action Day(d) Independence Day
25) Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 (b) Indian Councils Act, (c) Government of India Act, (d) Government of India Act,
Act 1909 1919 1935
26) Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the Congress
in1939?
(a) Rajendra Prasad(b) Jawaharlal Nehru(c) Subhas Chandra Bose(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
27) Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
(a) New Dehi(b) Ahmedabad(c) Wardha(d) Noakhali
28) Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair(b) P. Rangaiah(c) G. Subramaniam(d) G.A. Natesan
29) Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina(b) Mylapore(c) Fort St. George(d) Thousand Lights
30) Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant(b) M. Veeraraghavachari(c) B.P. Wadia(d) G.S. Arundale
31) Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian(b) Andhra Prakasika(c) Justice(d) New India
32) Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurti(b) Kasturirangar(c) P. Subbarayan(d) Periyar EVR
33) Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj(b) Rajaji(c) K. Santhanam(d) T. Prakasam
34) Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode(b) Madras(c) Salem(d) Madurai
35) Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode(b) Madras(c) Salem(d) Madurai
36) __________ was the pioneer of social Reformers in India
(a) C.W. Damotharanar(b) Periyar(c) Raja Rammohan Roy(d) Maraimalai Adigal
37) __________ establisheda full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar
(a) Caldwell(b) F.W. Ellis(c) Ziegenbalg(d) Meenakshisundaram
38) __________ was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement
(a) KudiArasu(b) Puratchi(c) Viduthalai(d) Paguththarivu
39) Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by __________
(a) Nationalism(b) Iconoclasm(c) Rationalism(d) Spiritualism
40) __________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan(b) B. R. Ambedkar(c) Rajaji(d) M. C. Rajah
41) India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in__________.
(a) 1918(b) 1917(c) 1916(d) 1914
42) __________ was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials
(a) Staff Selection (b) Public Service (c) Provincial Staff Recruitment (d) Staff Selection
Board Commission Board Commission
43) __________ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras
Province.
(a) M. C. Rajah(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan(c) T.M. Nair(d) P. Varadarajulu
44) The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 8°5′N to 13°35′N(b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S(c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N(d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
45) The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E(b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W(c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E(d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
46) The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi(b) Doddabetta(c) Mahendragiri(d) Servarayan
47) Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat(b) Shencottah(c) Bhorghat(d) Achankoil
48) Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar(b) Cauvery(c) Chittar(d) Bhavani
49) The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Ramanathapuram(b) Nagapattinam(c) Cuddalore(d) Theni
50) The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is
(a) 20.21%(b) 20.31%(c) 21.20%(d) 21.30%
51) Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from
(a) Arabian sea(b) Bay of Bengal(c) Indian Ocean(d) Timor sea
52) Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni(b) Madurai(c) Thanjavur(d) Ramanathapuram
53) The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Dharmapuri(b) Vellore(c) Dindigul(d) Erode
54) The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta(b) Mahanadi delta(c) Godavari delta(d) Krishna delta
55) Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Pulses(b) Millets(c) Oilseeds(d) Rice
56) Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is
(a) 80.32%(b) 62.33%(c) 73.45%(d) 80.33%
57) A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Mettur(b) Papansam(c) Sathanur(d) Thungabahdra
58) Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
(a) 3and15(b) 4 and15(c) 3 and16(d) 4 and15
59) Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister(b) Prime Minister(c) External Affairs Minister(d) Home Minister
60) The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
(a) india and Nepal(b) India and Pakistan(c) India and China(d) India and Sri Lanka
61) Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50(b) Article 51(c) Article 52(d) Article 53
62) Apartheid is
(a) An international association(b) Energy diplomacy(c) A policy of racial discrimination(d) None of these
63) The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
(a) Trade and (b) Restoration of normal (c) Cultural exchange (d) The Five Principles of Co
Commerce relations programmes existence
64) Which is not related to our foreign policy
(a) World co operation(b) World peace(c) Racial equality(d) Colonialism
65) Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia(b) Indonesia(c) Egypt(d) Pakistan
66) Find the odd one
(a) Social welfare(b) Health care(c) Diplomacy(d) Domestic affairs
67) Non-Alliance means
(a) being neutral(b) freedom to decide on issues independently(c) demilitarisation(d) none of the above
68) Non – military issues are
(a) Energy security(b) Water security(c) Pandemics(d) All the above.
69) Mc Mahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India(b) India and Nepal(c) India and China(d) India and Bhutan
70) India is not a member of which of the following
1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only(b) 2 and 4(c) 2, 4 and 1(d) 1, 2 and 3
71) OPEC is
(a) An international (b) An international (c) An Organisation of Oil (d) An international
insurance Co sports club Exporting Countries company
72) With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh(b) Myanmar(c) Afghanistan(d) China
73) Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan
iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
(a) 3 1 4 2(b) 3 1 2 4(c) 3 4 1 2(d) 4 3 2 1
74) How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5(b) 6(c) 7(d) 8
75) Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and (b) Maldieves and (c) Maldieves and Nicobar(d) Sri Lanka and
Andaman island Lakshadweep island island Maldieves
76) Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh(b) Meghalaya(c) Mizoram(d) Sikkim
77) How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five(b) Four(c) Three(d) Two
78) Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe(c) Clement Atlee(d) None of the above.
79) __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which
is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food(b) Access to food(c) Absorption of food(d) none
80) Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through
the __________.
(a) FCI(b) Consumer Cooperatives(c) ICICI(d) IFCI
81) Which is correct?.
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties
ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System
iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
(a) i and ii are correct(b) iii and iv are correct(c) ii and iii are correct(d) all are correct
82) __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America(b) India(c) Singapore(d) UK
83) __________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution(b) White Revolution(c) Green Revolution(d) Grey Revolution
84) __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala(b) Andhra Pradesh(c) Tamil Nadu(d) Karnataka
85) __________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health(b) Nutrition(c) Sanitation(d) Security
86) Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in __________.
(a) 1980(b) 1975(c) 1955(d) 1985
87) __________ status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources
development.
(a) Health(b) Nutritional(c) Economic(d) Wealth
88) Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ________ service at free of cost.
 (a) 106 ambulance(b) 108 ambulance(c) 107 ambulance(d) 105 ambulance
89) The three levels of governments in India are
(a) Union, state and (b) Central, state and (c) Union, municipality and (d) None of the
local village panchayat above
90) In India, taxes are including
(a) Direct taxes(b) Indirect taxes.(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of these
91) Which is the role of government and development policies?.
(a) Defence(b) Foreign policy(c) Regulate the economy(d) all of above
92) The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
(a) Service tax(b) Excise duty(c) Income tax(d) Central sales tax
93) Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
(a) Value added tax (VAT)(b) Income tax(c) Goods and service tax(d) Sales tax
94) Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________ .
(a) 1860(b) 1870(c) 1880(d) 1850
95) __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership
(a) Income tax(b) Income tax(c) Corporate tax(d) Excise duty
96) What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods(b) High tax rate(c) Smuggling(d) All of above
97) Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by
(a) Individuals(b) Corporations(c) Trusts(d) All of the above
98) Payments are
(a) Fees and fines(b) Penalities and forfeitures(c) None of the above(d) a and b
99) ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.
(a) Tuticorin(b) Coimbatore(c) Chennai(d) Madurai
100) Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
(a) Salem(b) Coimbatore(c) Chennai(d) Dharampuri
101) Tuticorin is known as
(a) Gateway of India(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu(c) Pump city(d) None of these
102) ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) agriculture(b) industry(c) railway(d) none of these
103) Tiruppur is known for
(a) Leather tanning(b) Lock making(c) Knitwear(d) Agro-processing
104) Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ___________ is also a centre for leather goods exports
(a) Chennai(b) Sivakasi(c) Coimbatore(d) Madurai
105) IT means
(a) Indian Technology(b) Information Technology(c) Institute of Technology(d) Initiative Technology
106) A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
(a) Hosur(b) Dindigul(c) Kovilpatti(d) Tirunelveli
107) SIPCOT was formed in the year
(a) 1972(b) 1976(c) 1971(d) 1978
108) Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT(b) TANSIDCO(c) TIDCO(d) All of these
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS: 81 x 1 = 81
109) The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by ____________.

110) Except the Palayakkarars of ____________,all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.

111) Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of __________ for eight years.

112) Bennerman deputed __________ to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.

113) Kattabomman was hanged to death at ____________.

114) The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the ___________.
115) ___________ was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.

116) _____________ suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

117) In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ____________, the moneylenders of Bengal.

118) ____________ was an anti–imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around
1827.

119) The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ____________.

120) The ____________ Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.

121) Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ____________.

122) The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ____________.

123) Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ____________.

124) W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year ____________

125) Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment in __________ station.

126) Gandhi regarded __________ as his political guru.

127) Khilafat Movement was led by _________.

128) Government of India Act 1919 introduced__________ in the provinces.

129) The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by __________.

130) Ramsay Macdonald announced __________ which provided separate electorates to the minorities and
the depressed classes.

131) __________ established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.

132) __________ coined the term ‘Paksitan'.

133) ____________ was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court

134) The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ____________ through his writings.

135) Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named ____________.

136) The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by ____________.

137) The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by ____________.

138) ____________ formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.

139) ____________ was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.

140) ____________ hoisted the national flagatop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932
141) __________ was the first non-European language that went into print.

142) The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.

143) __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.

144) __________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics

145) __________ was the first non-European language that went into print.

146) The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.

147) __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.

148) __________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.

149) The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as __________

150) __________ gave prominence to Tamil music.

151) The first Woman Legislator in India was __________.

152) The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is __________.

153) __________ is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.

154) The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between __________ and __________ branches of cauvery.

155) __________ soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.

156) __________is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in __________

157) Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ____________ % of its economy.

158) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ____________.

159) Tamil Nadu ranks ____________ in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under
operation in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP).

160) ___________ is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

161) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ___________.

162) India conducted its first nuclear test at ___________.

163) At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ____for domestic growth and development.

164) ____________is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.

165) _____________ was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.

166) Our tradition and national ethos is to practice____________.

167) ____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.

168) India’s gateway to South East Asia is ____________.

169) ____________ is a buffer country between India and China.

170) A strip of land ____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.

171) ____________ is known as the Land of thunderbolt.

172) India and Sri Lanka are separated by ____________.

173) __________ foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.

174) __________ is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency

175) In the year ___________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.

176) ___________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common
people.

177) ___________ is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that
one unit of money can buy.

178) __________ is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy.

179) The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word __________.

180) The burden of the __________ tax cannot be shifted to others.

181) __________ tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.

182) The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on __________.

183) The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called __________.

184) ___________ are very important in the modern economic activates of man

185) ___________ are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and
technologies.

186) Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ___________ District in Tamil Nadu.

187) ___________ is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.

188) Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in ___________.

189) ___________ is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING: 58 x 1 = 58

190) Theerthagiri
Vellore Revolt
191) Gopala Nayak
Ramalinganar
192) Bannerman
Dindigul
193) Subedar Sheik Adam
Subedar Sheik Adam
194) Col. Fancourt
Odanilai
195) Wahhabi Rebellion
Lucknow
196) Munda Rebellion
Peshwa Baji Rao II
197) Begum Hazarat Mahal
Titu Mir
198) Kunwar Singh
Ranchi
199) Nana Sahib
Bihar
200) Rowlatt Act
Surrender of titles
201) Non Cooperation Movement
Dyarchy
202) Government of India Act, 1919
M.N. Roy
203) Communist Party of India
Direct Action Day
204) 16th August 1946
Black Act
205) MNA
Anti-Hindi agitation
206) EVR Periyar
Removal of Neill Statue
207) S.N. Somayajulu
Salt Satyagraha
208) Vedaranyam
Torture Commission
209) Thalamuthu
Vaikom Hero
210) Dravidian Home
Maraimalai Adigal
211) Thozhilalan
Rettaimalai Srinivasan
212) Tani Tamil Iyakkam
Singaravelar
213) Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam
Natesanar
214) Winter season
Pre-monsoon
215) Summer season
June to September
216) Southwest monsoon
March to May
217) North east monsoon
January and February
218) Mango Shower
October to December
219) Bauxite
Salem
220) Gypsum
Servaroy hills
221) Iron
Coimbatore
222) Limestone
Tiruchirapalli
223) Indian Ocean island
1955
224) Land bridge to ASEAN
1954
225) Panchsheel
Maldives
226) Afro Asian Conference
Foreign Policy
227) World Peace
Myanmar
228) Brandix
Vienna
229) COMCASA
Japan
230) Shinkansen system
Shanghai
231) BRICS
USA
232) OPEC
Garment city in Vishakapatnam
233) Consumer cooperatives
subsidized rates
234) Public Distribution System
2013
235) UNDP
least poor region
236) National Food Security Act
supply of quality goods
237) Kerala
United Nations Development Programme
238) Income Tax
Value added tax
239) Excise duty
1 July 2017
240) VAT
Smuggling
241) GST
Direct tax
242) Black money
Indirect tax
243) Entrepreneur
Export Processing Zone
244) MEPZ
Coimbatore
245) Indian Ordance Factory
Organizer
246) TNPL
Aravankadu
247) Machester of south India
Karur
IV. ASSERTION AND REASON 5x1=5
248) Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer :
249) Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false
Answer :
250) Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the states economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer :
251) Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu
Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer :
252) Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing
power is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer :
V.CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENTS: 34 x 1 = 34
253) i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company
administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer :
254) i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in
restoring the throne to her.
 iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv )are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer :
255) Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the
Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer :
256) Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a
leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer :
257) (i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial
revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and
moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion. (iv) In 1879, an Act
was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer :
258) (i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to
God”
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be
annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the
lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indian princes and
zamindars remained loyal to the British
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer :
259) (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of
an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary reason
for the growing poverty
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the
nationalist movement.
a) (i) and (iii) are correct
 b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer :
260) Assersion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct
proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer :
261) Assersion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer :
262) (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and
Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer :
263) (i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) is correct
d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer :
264) Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason: Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) A is wrong but R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer :
265) Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected Congress
ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer :
266) (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891
 (iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct
d) All are correct
Answer :
267) (i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) is correct
d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer :
268) Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement. Reason
(R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer :
269) Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature. Reason
(R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer :
270) (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and
literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with
Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
d) (iv) is correct
e) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer :
271) (i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists
Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins
from the North
a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer :
272) Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras
Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
 a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer :
273) Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the
introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
b) Both A and R are wrong
c) Both A and R are right
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer :
274) Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the
code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer :
275) Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only
Answer :
276) Write true or false against each of the statement.
a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done underSubterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer :
277) Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(B): This began with a disastrous Indo –China war of 1962
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is Wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer :
278) Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer :
279) Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to
redeemed from
a) acute poverty
b) illiteracy
c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
d) all the above
Answer :
280) The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of
transport?
1. Roads 2. Railways
3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer :
281) Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
for co-operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer :
282) Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer :
283) Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial
production.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) Both are correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer :
284) Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State
governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) All are correct
Answer :
285) Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iv) c) (i) d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer :
286) I. Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
II. They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and
professionals.
III. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income
IV. Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
a) I and IV is correct
b) I only correct
c) III and IV is correct
d) I and III is correct
Answer :
VI. ODD ONE OUT: 2x2=4
287) Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
Answer :
288) Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPG d) SIPCOT
Answer :