Chemistry Worksheet

56 2+
1. 26Fe ion has?
A. 26 proton, 28 neutron & 24 electron C. 24 proton, 28 neutron & 26 electron
B. 26 proton, 30 neutron & 26 electron D. 26 proton, 24 neutron & 28 electron
2. The properties of cathode rays do not depend on the nature of the gas in the discharge tube or on
the material of the cathode. This indicates that?
A. Cathode rays move in straight line C. Cathode rays are a particle nature
B. Cathode rays are present in the atom of all elements D. Cathode rays are negatively charged
3. 36 g sample of pipe water and 36 g sample of rain water were purified and subjected to electric
current separately, both samples of water released 4g Hydrogen and 32g Oxygen after the
electrolysis was accomplished. This finding confirms:
A. The law of conservation of mass C. The law of constant composition
B. The law of multiple proportion D. The law of mass action
4. Which conclusion was a direct result of the gold foil experiment?
A. An atom is mostly empty space with a dense, positively charged nucleus
B. An atom is composed of at least three types of subatomic particles
C. An electron has a positive charge and is located inside the nucleus
D. An electron has properties of both waves and particles
5. Which one of the following configurations for the electrons in P-orbital of carbon atom satisfies
Hund’s rule?
A. B. C. D.
6. Ionic compound is formed between the elements that has:
A. High ionization energy and high electron affinity
B. high ionization energy and low electron affinity
C. Low ionization energy and high electron affinity
D. Low ionization energy and Low electron affinity
7. Elements whose outer most shell electrons fall in the f- orbital are called?
A. Transition elements B. Metallic elements C. Rare-earth metals D. Alkaline
earth metals
8. An element ‘Y’ exists in two isotopic forms that is 100Y and 110Y, if the average atomic mass of
element ‘Y’ is 108, what is the percentage abundance of each isotope respectively?
A. 40% & 60% B. 30% & 70% C. 20% & 80% D. 50% & 50%
9. One of the following discoveries of sub-atomic particles is not relevant?
A. Robert Millikan – oil drop experiment C. James chad wick – nucleus
B. J.J Thomson – charge - to - mass ratio D. Rutherford – positively charge particle

10. What is the magnitude of quantum energy and the frequency for an object whose wavelength is
0.6 x 10-6m, respectively?
A. 3.31 x 10-19 J, 5 x 1014 s-1 C. 3.98 x 10-40 J, 2 x 10-15 s-1
B. 1.99 x 10-25 J, 3.98 x 10-40 s-1 D. 9.94 x 10-12 J, 1.99 x 10-25 s-1
11. The radii of the atoms become smaller from sodium to chlorine across period three. This is
primarily due to?
 A. the shielding effect C. Decreased metallic character.
B. The increased number of electrons. D. Increased nuclear charge.
12. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about quantum mechanical models?
A. The energy and position of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously.
B. Higher energy orbitals filled with electrons before lower energy orbitals.
C. When filling degenerate orbital (orbitals of equal energy), each orbital will occupy single
electron before receives a second electron.
D. No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers.
13. An atom containing two electrons with: n = 3, ι = 1, ml = 1, ms = -½ may not exist based on?
A. Hund’s rule C. Pauli exclusion principle
B. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle D. Building up principle
14. Which of the following correctly lists electromagnetic waves in order from shortest to longest
wavelength?
A. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
B. radio waves, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet
C. microwaves, ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays
D. gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet, microwaves
15. Which one of the following statements is NOT accepted in modern atomic theory?
A. An atom is divisible into electrons, protons and neutrons
B. Atoms of two or more elements combine in simple whole number ratios to from compounds
C. Atoms of different elements have different chemical properties
D. all atom of a given element are identical in mass
16. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is capable of inducing electron transitions with the
greatest energy?
A. Infrared B. Ultraviolet C. Microwave D. Visible
17. The rat eye possibly can view the light with a wave length of 380nm. What is the frequency of
this light wave?
A. 1.17 x 1020s-1 B. 1.14 x 1020s-1 C. 7.9 x 1014s-1 D. 3.83 x 1014s-1

ESSLCE 2015
18. How many non-bonding pair of electron are present in the valence shell of the central atom in
ClF3? A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 0
19. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. in Lewis model, electrons repel one another and a pair of bonding electrons lies far apart as possible
B. Valence bond model explains molecular shape from the interaction of atomic orbitals
C. Valence bond model simply shows the linkage b/n atoms and the presence of lone pair
D. Lewis model predicts the shape off molecules based on electrons pairs repulsion around a central atom
20. Which of the following is true about isotopes?
A. isotopes of the same element contains the same number of neutrons
B. isotopes of element have the same chemical properties
C. isotopes of element are atoms that have d/t number of electrons
D. isotopes of an element are identical in mass
21. Which of the following describes the quantum mechanics ?
A. an atom is a sphere with a positively charged matter, in which electrons are embedded
B. electrons moved around the nucleus of an atom in circular orbits
C. the location of electron in an atom are described in terms of probability
D. an atom is represented by a solid indestructible sphere
22. Which of the following is ionic compound?
A. PCl3 B. H2O C. CaCl2 CO2
23. An element is group VIIA and 3rd period of the modern periodic table. On the basis of this,
statement;
A. forms an acidic oxide C. generally forms an ion with -2 charge
B. has exactly low electro affinity D. has very low ionization energy
24. Carbon forms two stable compounds with oxygen, namely carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
For a fixed mass of carbon, the ratio of oxygen in carbon monoxide to oxygen in carbon dioxide is
1:2. This result is consistent with the law of:
A. constant composition B. definite proportion C. multiple proportion D. conservation of mass
25. Which of the following gas law states the volume of a fixed amount of gas maintained at constant
pressure is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas?
A. Avogadro’s law B. Combined gas law C. Charles’s law D. Boyle’s law
26. Which of the following would occur during formation of ions?
A. the electronic configuration of an atom forming the ion remains unaffected
B. valence electrons are transferred from one atom to another
C. inner most shell electrons are involved
D. valence electrons are shared b/n atoms
27. In order to illustrate the structure of and properties of a solid, a student puts hundreds of marble
balls in to a box that representing metal cations and the empty species b/n and around the marble
representing electron sea. Which one of the following bonding is represented by this model?
A. metallic bonding B. Dative bonding C. covalent bonding D. ionic bonding
28. Which of the following explains dipole-dipole force?
A. an attractive force resulting from temporary dipole in molecules
B. an electrostatic attraction b/n metal ions and valence elctrons
C. a type of intermolecular force that exists b/n non-polar molecule
D. the intermolecular attraction b/n oppositely charged poles of nearby polar molecules
29. Which of the following correctly relates the vapor pressure of liquid with its boiling point?
Boiling point is:
A. the temperature at which molecules present in the vapor phase back to the liquid state
B. the temperature at which the kinetic energy of molecule is much less than intermolecular force
C. the temperature at which all the three physical state co-exist
D. the temperature at which the vapor pressure becomes equal to the external pressure
30. Which of the following is the correct four quantum numbers for an electron in a 2s orbital?
A. 2, 0, 0, + B. 2, 0, 1, + C. 2, 1, 0, + D. 2, 1, 1, +

31. Which one of the following explains that has both wave and particle nature?
A. microscopic system, such as atoms and molecules can possess wave properties
B. light consists of electromagnetic waves which have an oscillating electric and magnetic
disturbance that spreads electromagnetic radiations
C. a beam of light is a stream of particles of electromagnetic energy, with energy proportional
to the observed frequency of light
D. an electron that is bound to the nucleus behave like a standing wave and its position is
given in terms of probability
32. A nuclear breakdown in which particles or electromagnetic radiation is emitted is?
A. radio wave B. radioactive decay C. radioactivity isotope D. radioactivity
33. Which statement describes valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory?
A. atomic orbitals are capable of combining to produce new electron distribution
B. a covalent bond is formed when orbitals of two atoms overlap and the overlap region is
occupied by a pair of electrons
C. each degenerated orbitals are occupied by a single electron before the second electrons of
opposite spin enters the orbitals
D. electron pairs will be as far apart from each other in three dimensional

ESSLCE 2014
34. Which of the following postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory was modified by the modern atomic
theory?
A. atoms are indivisible and indestructible
B. atoms are the smallest particles of all elements
C. compounds are formed when atoms of more than one elements combine
 D. atoms neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions
35. Which of the following includes all of the known atomic model?
A. Bohr model, Quantum mechanical model, Thomson model, Rutherford model
B. Bohr model, Quantum mechanical model, Dalton’s atomic model, valence bond model
C. Bohr model, Thomson model, Rutherford model, Dalton’s atomic model, de Broglie model
D. Bohr model, Quantum mechanical model, Thomson model, Rutherford model, Dalton’s atomic
model
36. The electron configuration of Cu (Z=29)?
A. [Ar]4s24d9 B. [Ar]4s23p6 C. [Ar]4s13d10 D. [Ar]4s23d9
37. What does Mendeleec’s periodic law states? Properties of elements are periodic function of:
A. atomic mass B. atomic number C. atomic radius D. electron configuration
38. Which of the following reaction shows coordinate covalent bond formation?

39. What is the significance of electron probability distribution? It tells us:

A. finding electron in its orbital at a particular time
B. the uncertainty to assign fixed path for electrons
C. the probability of finding an electron is very far away from the nucleus
D. finding the electron very close the nucleus at all time
40. Which group in the periodic table contains elements with the valence electron configuration of
ns2np1? A. II B. I C. IV D. III
41. Which of the structure is the correct Lewis structure for CH2N2?
42. Which of the following is a covalent molecule?
A. NaCl B. PCl5 C. CO32- [NH4]+
43. Which of the following the following is not correct about cathode rays? Cathode rays
A. travel straight lines from cathode to anode
B. contains particles which are negatively charged
C. are common constitute of all matter and their mass/charge is constant for all gases
D. contains particles which are positively charged
44. Which of the following statement is correct about the energy of photon?
A. it is inversely proportional to the observed frequency of light
B. it is directly proportional to the observed frequency of light
C. it is directly proportional to the wavelength of light
D. it is directly related to the intensity to of light
45. Which of the following explains the emission spectra of atoms consisting of a series of fine lines?
A. an electron undergoes a transition by energy change corresponding to photon of specific wave
length
B. an electron can have specific energy value in an atom
C. an electron that revolves around the nucleus emits radiation
D. the energy of the atom is continuous with discreet frequency
46. What are intermolecular forces? They are forces due to the attraction between:
A. cations and anions C. cations and delocalized electrons
B. molecules D. nuclei and electron pair
47. Which of the following belongs to chemical bonding theories?
A. valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory
B. kinetic molecular theory and valence shell electron pair theory
C. valence bond theory and valence shell electron pair repulsion theory
D. molecular orbital theory and kinetic molecular theory
48. Which of the following molecule is the central atom sp2 hybridized?
A. N2O B. CO2 C. CO D. SO2
49. Which statement describes the formation a covalent bond? In covalent bond electrons are:
A. transferred from metallic atom ton non-metal atom
B. shared between metallic atom
C. transferred from non-metallic atom to metallic atom
D. shared between non-metallic atom
50. How do the element of group IIA form ions?
A. by losing one electron C. by gaining two electrons
B. by gaining one electron D. by losing two electrons
51. How is hydrogen bonding formed? It is formed when a hydrogen atom is bonded to:
A. highly electronegative elements , fluorine, oxygen and phosphorus
B. highly electronegative elements, fluorine, chlorine and oxygen
C. highly electronegative elements, fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen
D. highly electronegative elements, chlorine, oxygen and nitrogen
52. The heating curve shown below shows a substance in the solid, liquid and gas phase. Which
segment represents only the liquid phase?

A. 2 B. 1 C. 5 D. 3
53. Which of the following is the reason for the large difference between the triatomic molecule H2O
and carbon dioxide CO2?
A. the presence of multiple in CO2 while single H2O
B. the bond in CO2 while single polarity reinforces each other
C. the presence of lone pair electron in H2O partially reinforces bond polarity
D. the higher electronegativity d/c among atoms in H2O than in CO2
 ESSLCE 2013
54. Which of the following is true about isotopes? Isotopes of an element have:
A. the same number of electrons and neutrons
B. d/t number of neutrons and same number of protons
C. d/t physical and chemical properties
D. the same atomic mass but d/t atomic number
55. Which of the following diagrammatic representation represents dx2 orbital?

A.

56. Silver(Z=47) has several known isotopes, but two occur naturally 107Ag and 109Ag. Given the
following mass spectrometric data, calculate the atomic mass of Ag.
Isotopes Mass (amu) Abundance (%)
107
Ag 106.90509 54.84
109
Ag 108.90476 48.16
A. 109.9amu B. . 107.94am C. . 107.4amu D. 107.86amu
57. Which statement correctly describes Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle?
A. if we measure the momentum of a particle precisely then its position will be
correspondingly precise
B. a particle with a mass moving at a given speed can be described by the wave characteristics
of material particles
C. a small particle like the electron can behave both as a particle and a waave
 D. both location and the momentum of a subatomic particles like the electron cannot be
precisely known.
58. Which of the following statement is correct about energy changes when an electron change its
energy level?
A. when an electron jumps from lower to higher energy level, the photon emitted is equal to
the d/c b/n the two energy level
B. when an electron falls from higher to lower energy level, the energy is equal to the d/c b/n
the two energy level is observed
C. when an electron jumps from lower to higher energy level, the energy is equal to the d/c
b/n the two energy level is absorved
D. when an electron falls from lower to higher energy level, the energy is higher than the d/c
b/n the two energy level is emitted
59. The correct electron configuration for chromium (Cr, Z =24) is:
A.1s22s22p63s23p63d44d2 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d5
B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s03d6 D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4
60. According to Hund’s rule equal energy level (degenerate) orbitals are filled with
A. two electrons of opposite spins placed first orbitals
B. maximum number of unpaired electrons with parallel spin
C. two electrons of parallel spins placed in the first orbitals
D. maximum number of unpaired electrons with opposite spins
61. In modern periodic table:
A. non-metals are place on the right hand side of the periodic table
B. elements with similar properties are placed in the same period
C. metals are placed on right hand side of the periodic table
D. transition and inner transition elements are placed in middle of the periodic table
62. Covalent compounds are liquids or gases at room temperature and have low melting and boiling
point. Which of the following statement explains these properties of covalent compounds?
A. the intermolecular forces of attraction in covalent compounds are strong
B. the unit of particles in covalent compounds are ions
C. there are no forces of attraction b/n the molecules in covalent compound
D. covalent compound exist as separate molecule
63. SCO (S=C=O) and CO2 (O=C=O) are linear molecules. SCO is polar, whereas CO2 is non-polar.
This is because:
A. CO2 has a net dipole moment of zero
B. the C=O bond in both SCO and CO2 are polar
C. region of high negative charge is distributed equally around the central atom is SCO
D. sulphur is more electronegative than oxygen
64. Which of the following statement is true about the formation of CH4?
A. the 2s two 2p orbitals in carbon hybridized to form sp2
B. the 2s three 2p orbitals in carbon hybridized to form sp3
C. the 2s one 2p orbitals in carbon hybridized to form sp
D. carbon can form two hybrid orbitals as it has got only two half-filled orbitals
65. Phosphorus (Z=15) has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p3 . What kind of hybridization
does Phosphorus undergo in the formation of PCl5
A. sp3 B. sp3d C. sp2 D. sp
66. Which of the following illustrates the formation of coordinate coordinate covalent bond?
A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O C. NH3 + HCl → NH4+ + Cl-
B. Be + F2 → BeF2 D. CaCO3 + HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
67. Hydrogen bonding occurs in compounds that contain H-N, H-O and H-F bonds. These bonds are
stronger than the ordinary dipole-dipole interactions because:
A. the typically positive H of one molecule is attracted to the partially negative lone pair on N,
O or F in another molecule
B. the H-N, H-O and H-F bonds are less polar than ordinary covalent bonds
C. the small size of N, O and F makes these atoms so electropositive that their covalently
bonded H is highly negative
D. the H-N, H-O and H-F bonds are non-polar and thus do not interact with their neighboring
molecules
68. Which of the following is an example of exception to the octet rule?
A. NH3 B. CCl4 C. H2O D. PCl5
69. When the boiling point of hydrides of group VIA elements H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te are arranged
in order of increasing boiling point, the trend is H2Te < H2Se < H2S< H2O, water having the
highest boiling point. This is due to:
A. the smallest size of O compared to the other group VIA elements
 B. the basic d/t structure of each hydride
C. increasing boiling point with increasing molecular mass.
D. hydrogen bonding presents in H2O molecule

ESSLCE 2012
70. Which of the following states the law of definite proportion?
A. every compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass
B. the total mass of in universe is always constant
C. the mass of the product in chemical reaction must be equal to the mass of the reactants
D. chemical compounds are formed when atoms combine in whole number ratio
71. What did JJ.Thomson contribute with his experiment in cathode ray tube in understanding the
atomic structure of the atom?
A. Cathode rays and electric charge were combined together and not separate entities
B. Cathode rays were actually electrons
C. The electric charge deposed were negative
D. The cathode rays and electric charge were separate entities and not combined together.
72. An element X has two naturally occurring isotopes, X(10.013amu) and X(11.01amu). the first
accounts for 19.9% of the total and the second accounts for remaining 80.1%. what is the average
atomic mass of the element X?
A. 10.812 B. 10.211 C. 10.521 D. 10.12
73. What are isotopes? Isotopes are atoms of the same number of proton but d/t number of:
A. electrons B. protons C. ions D. neutrons
74. Which statement is correct for the emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom?
A. the lines are produced when electrons move from second to fourth
B. the lines in the visible region involve electrons transition into the energy level closest to the
nucleus
C. the lines are produced when electrons move from lower to higher energy levels
D. the line corresponding to the greatest emission of energy is in the ultraviolet region
75. How many energy would be released as an electron is moved from the n=4 to the n=3 energy
level?
A. 1.050 x 10-19J B. 1.938x 10-19J C. 2.045 x 10-18J D. 3.981 x 10-18J
76. Which set of quantum numbers uniquely defines one of the electron in an atomic orbital with n=2
and l=o?
 A. n=2, l=0, ml=o, ms=+1 C. n=2, l=0, ml=1, ms=+1
B. n=2, l=0, ml=o, ms=+1/2 D. n=2, l=0, ml=1, ms=+1/2
77. The Pauli Exclusion principle states that:
A. all electron in an atom are in the same energy state
B. no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers
C. two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers
D. an orbital can hold maximum of two electrons with the same quantum number ms
78. Which of the following is the correct r/ship b/n the given parameter and the property of an EMR?
A. the higher the value of the wave length of EMR, the greater is its frequency.
B. the lower the value of the frequency of EMR, the higher the energy of an EMR
C. the higher the value of the wave length of EMR, the greater is its energy
D. the lower the value of the frequency of EMR, the higher the wave length of an EMR
79. Which of the following properties is true about covalent molecule?
A. high melting, but low boiling point C. low melting and boiling point
B. low melting, but high boiling point D. high electrical and thermal conductivity
80. For the molecule shown below, why do the lone pair and double bond affect the bond angles?

A. Lone pairs repel more due to a greater charge density than bonding pair.\
B. lone pairs repel smaller than bonded pair and multiple bonds have higher charge density
around the central atom
C. both multiple bond and lone pairs occupy less space
D. lone pair occupies less space, but multiple bonds occupy more space than single bonds
-
81. Based on the VSER model, what shape would you expect for molecule [I3]

A.

C
82. Given the reaction: NH3 + H+ → NH4+ . The bond formed b/n NH3 and H+ is:
A. ionic bond B. simple covalent C. coordinate covalent D. non-polar covalent
83. Which of the following is not the correct geometric configuration for the given molecule?
A. CH4, tetrahedral C. SF6, Octahedral
B. NF3, trigonal planar D. BF3, trigonal planar
84. Which one of the following substance has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular
force (No hydrogen bonding, no dipole-dipole force)?
A. CH3OH B. NH3 C. H2S D. CH4
85. Which of the following is a basic chemical bonding theory?
A. molecular orbital theory C. ionic bonding theory
B. covalent bonding theory D. valence shell electron repulsion (VSERP) theory
86. Which types of intermolecular forces are present in molecular crystalline solids?
A. ionic, dispersion, dipole-dipole, hydrogen bonding
B. dispersion, dipole-dipole, hydrogen bonding
C. covalent, dispersion, dipole-dipole, hydrogen bonding
D. metallic, dispersion, dipole-dipole, hydrogen bonding
87. Which statement is not correct about the valence bond theory?
A. according to valence bond theory, hybrid orbital are formed by overlapping of atomic orbital
B. according to valence bond theory, molecular orbital are formed by combining of atomic orbital
C. valence bond theory treats electrons as localized pair of atoms
D. according to valence bond theory, each bond only involves two atoms

ESSLCE 2011
88. According to the kinetic theory:
A. particles in gases are in fixed position
B. particles possess the kinetic energy but not potential energy
C. the motion of particles in gases is smaller than in liquid
D. the closeness of particles in solids is greater than in liquids
89. In an experiment, gas A was found to diffuse at a rate of two times faster than that of gas B. if the
molar mass of gas B was 16g/mol, what would be the molar mass of gas A in g/mol?
A. 8 B. 4 C. 64 D. 32
90. Which of the following combination correctly matched?
A. molar heat of fusion → the amount of heat released when one mole of liquid is converted
to a solid at its freezing point
B. solidification → changes from liquid to solid at the freezing point if liquid
C. sublimation → change from a solid to a liquid at a definite temperature
D. molar heat of solidification → the amount of heat needed to convert one mole of a solid to
liquid at its melting point
91. Which of the following statement about the class of element in the modern periodic table is
correct?
A. p-block elements are good conductor of electricity
B. d-block elements are those in group IIIA to VIIA
C. f-block elements are some times called the transition elements
D. s-block elements are those in group IA and IIA
92. Which of the following properties of elements decreases down a group of periodic table?
A. number of valence electrons B. effective nuclear charge C. atomic size D. ionization
energy
93. If the electro configuration of a certain elements is [Kr]5s24d5, to which block does the element
belong in the periodic table? A. p B. s C. f D. d
94. A gas law that describes the r/ship among the four variables, P, V, T and n is:
A. Avogadro’s law B. Boyle’s law C. Ideal gas law D. Charles’s law
95. The gases fill up any space available in a container because of:
A. rapid movement and negligible attractive forces b/n their molecule
B. large space b/n their molecule
C. mild inter-particle interaction
D. strong attraction force b/n their molecules
96. A sample of gas occupies 10cm3 at 100kpa. What volume will the same gas occupy at 50Kpa, if
the temperature is kept constant?
A. 5.0 cm3 B. 20 cm3 C. 500cm3 D. 200 cm3
97. A 0.5m hollow glass tube was held horizontally in a experiment. Some drops of concentrated
NH3 on one end of the glass tube and concentrated HCl on the other end were inserted and then
closed. After a while, a white ring was observed at a distance of one-third of the glass tube from
HCl end. Which statement is not true?
 A. HCl diffuse slowly b/c it is heavier gas
B. NH3 diffuse diffuses farter than HCl
C. the experiment demonstrates the Graham’s law of diffusion
D. the rate of diffusion of NH3 is smaller than that od HCl
98. The force of attraction b/n oppositely charged ion is called:
A. dative bond C. simple covalent bond
B. ionic bond D. a polar bond
99. The statement ‘water is always composed of 88.9% oxygen and 11.1% hydrogen by mass
regardless of its source’ refers to the lawof:
A. definite proportion C. indestructibility of matter
B. conservation of mass D. multiple proportion
100. Which of the following statement belongs to the Dalton’s atomic theory?
A. atoms of the same element may be d/t in mass
B. atoms are made of proton, neutron and electron
C. atoms can neither be created nor destroyed
D. atoms cannot be created or destroyed during ordinary chemical reaction
101.