Version C
Indian National Earth Science Olympiad (INESO 2024)
National Entrance Test
Maximum marks 100
Date: January 27, 2024 (Sunday) Time: 10.30 a.m. to 12.00 noon
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Do not open the Booklet until you are told to do so.
2. There are 100 objective type questions in this booklet, and each question carries 1
mark.
3. You will not be permitted to leave the examination hall until after 30 minutes of
commencement of the test.
4. Each question has four answer options marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Answers are to be
marked on the Answer Sheet (OMR Sheet) which is provided separately.
5. The right to exclude any question(s) from final evaluation rests with the testing authority.
6. Do not seek clarification on any item in the Question Booklet from the test invigilator.
7. Please use a BLACK/BLUE ball point pen to mark your answers. DO NOT use pencil.
8. Choose the MOST appropriate answer.
9. Darken the circle corresponding to the answer of your choice. Please do not darken more
than one circle against any question, as scanner will read such marking as wrong answer.
10. Answer the questions in the OMR sheet as given in the example below.
Question
The shape of the Earth is A B C D
(a)Spherical ○ ● ○ ○
(b) Spheroidal
(c) Ovoid
(d) Ellipsoidal
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1). If the ocean remains in a steady state and the rate of input of a dissolved constituent
increases, the rate of removal of that constituent
a) must remain the same.
b) must decrease.
c) must increase.
d) may increase and decrease both depending upon the residence time.
2). The process of cooling and solidification of magma to form intrusive igneous rocks takes
place:
a) Beneath the Earth's surface
b) On the Earth's surface
c) At the ocean floor
d) In the Earth's mantle
3) What is best described in the given equation:
Mg2SiO4 + 4CO2 + 4H2O → 2Mg2+ + 4HCO−3 + H4SiO4
a) Carbonate formation
b) Silicate-silicate transition
c) Nutrient recycling
d) Weathering
4). If a seawater sample of 2°C temperature and 34.5 salinity were collected from a depth of
4000 m in the ocean, its density would be
a) greater than its true density.
b) less than its true density.
c) same as its true density.
d) same as that of 4°C temperature and 34.5 salinity water.
5). If a 1 L seawater sample has Cl-/Na+ ratio 1.8. After 500 mL of evaporation, Cl-/Na+ ratio
a) will remain the same.
b) will become 0.9.
c) will become 3.6.
d) cannot be determined.
6). Nitrification in the ocean is mediated by
a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooplankton
c) Bacteria and Archaea
d) Virus
7). The baby fossil mammoth shown below was found in Siberia. The process of fossilisation
it underwent is known as
a) carbonisation
b) permineralisation
c) cryo-conservation
d) petrification
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8). Mangrove wetlands on the east coast of India which have been declared as RAMSAR sites
are
a) Godavari
b) Bhitarkanika
c) Vizag
d) Pichavaram and Sundarbans
9). Oceanic pelagic fish typically inhabit waters below
a) Continental Shelf
b) Delta
c) Estuaries
d) Mangroves
10). While comparing the vertical profiles of particle reactive and bio-limiting elements for the
Atlantic and the Pacific Ocean, why are the deep-water concentrations are always higher
in the Pacific?
a) The particle flux to depth is stronger in the Pacific than in the Atlantic.
b) The deep water in the Pacific is older than that in the Atlantic, so it has accumulated
more of those elements with time.
c) Particles in the Atlantic sink faster, so much of the material reaches the sediments
rather than being remineralized in the water column.
d) The Pacific is bigger than the Atlantic
11). In general, the ocean does not respond to the seasonally changing insolation as strongly as
the atmosphere. However, there is a region where the ocean circulation changes
dramatically every year between summer and winter. Where and why?
a) In the northern Indian Ocean due to changing wind patterns (monsoons) causing a
reversal of currents
b) In the Pacific, due to the changing wind patterns caused by the so-called El Niño events.
c) In the Antarctic, winds change direction completely which becomes visible through the
reversal of the circumpolar current.
d) In the wind-driven ocean gyres plastic accumulates every summer when the gyres spin
up, and where the plastic is released when the gyres slow down.
12). Identify the mineral which has specific gravity >5, hardness <3 and gives grey streak.
(a) Barite
(b) Sphalerite
(c) Graphite
(d) Galena
13). The mineral phases associated with biogenic, hydrogenic, and hydrothermal processes,
respectively, are:
(a) carbonate, phosphorite, sulphide
(b) carbonate, sulphide, phosphorite
(c) phosphorite, sulphide, carbonate
(d) phosphorite, carbonate, sulphide
14). According to Koppen's climate classification, AW is
(a) tropical desert climate
(b) tropical steppe climate
(c) tropical savanna climate
(d) tropical dry-summer climate
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15). Compared to the Earth, the Moon has a lower average density, because the Moon
(a) is a satellite
(b) is smaller in size
(c) has lighter crustal rocks
(d) has a thinner core
16). When dust around stars absorbs starlight and re-emits it, in which wavelength will the
radiation be most intense?
a) Infrared
b) Optical
c) Ultraviolet
d) Microwave
17). Out of following, which one can be considered as the best reference point in a stratigraphic
section?
(a) Turbidity deposit
(b) Tsunami deposit
(c) Limestone deposit
(d) Tephra deposit
18). The average density of continental crust is
a) 2.70 g/cm³
b) 3.50 g/cm³
c) 4.80 g/cm³
d) 5.50 g/cm³
19). Shear strain is measured by changes in
(a) length
(b) angle
(c) volume
(d) viscosity
20). The last part of body of Trilobite is :
(a) Thorax
(b) Cephalon
(c) Glabella
(d) Pygidium
21). The San Andreas Fault in California is an example of what type of fault?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Thrust fault
22). Which type of seismic wave is responsible for the most significant damage during an
earthquake?
a) S-waves
b) P-waves
c) Surface waves and Love waves
d) All of the above
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23). The value of Poisson’s ratio lies between
(a) –1 and –2
(b) –1 and +1/2
(c) –1/2 and + 1
(d) –1 and –1/2
24). Breccia and conglomerate differ in
(a) size of the clasts
(b) shape of the clasts
(c) cementing material
(d) environment of deposition
25). The planet with the maximum greenhouse gases in its atmosphere is
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Pluto
26). What is the most abundant element in Earth's crust?
a) Iron
b) Nickel
c) Aluminium
d) Silicon
27). Which scale is used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes based on the energy
released?
a) Richter scale
b) Mercalli scale
c) Beaufort scale
d) Fujita scale
28). In which type of stress do rocks deform by changing their shape without changing their
volume?
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Confining stress
29). The erosive power of a river depends on its velocity. If the velocity is doubled, the erosive
power increases by:
(a) Two times
(b) Eight times
(c) Four times
(d) Thirty two times
30) Troposphere extends at the pole is to a height of
a) 10km
b) 6 km
c) 18 km
d) 20 km
31). The dry atmosphere lapse rate value is
a) 6.5 °C/km
b) 9.8 °C/km
c) 5.6 °C/km
d) 12.5 °C/km
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32). Trace fossils are signatures of activities of ancient organisms, depicting specific behaviour,
left behind in soft sediments. From the morphology of trace fossils, geologists can infer
substrate condition, sedimentation rate energy conditions, availability of food etc. The
photo below is of a trace fossil found in limestone showing how an organism utilised
limited resources with high efficiency.
What is the most likely environment this trace fossil depicts?
a) Inter tidal flat
b) lagoon
c) lake
d) deep marine
33). Ocean eastern boundary currents are.
a) Warm currents in both hemispheres
b) Cold currents in the both the hemispheres
c) Warm currents in the Northern and cold currents in the Southern Hemisphere
d) Cold currents in the Northern and warm currents in the Southern Hemisphere
34). While trekking in the Himalayas, you come across a bed of coral reefs. This observation
suggests that
a) This area was once a deep ocean floor
b) It is most likely that area was a continental shelf located in area with rather warm waters
c) It was a continental shelf with rather cold waters
d) The area represents a subduction zone
35). Climatic change due to greenhouse gasses favours
a) Reduction in short wave coming to earth atmosphere
b) Reduction in long wave coming to earth atmosphere
c) Reduction in long wave going out of atmosphere
d) Increase in the longwave gong out of atmosphere
36). In the northern hemisphere if strong easterly winds is blowing then what should be the
nature of the pressure gradient
a) High pressure is in east and low in the west
b) High pressure in west and low in the east
c) High pressure in high latitudes and low pressure in low latitudes
d) High pressure in low latitudes low pressure in high latitudes
37). Which climate type is a direct result of air subsidence (sub-tropical high-pressure belt)?
a) Desert
b) Tropical
c) Highland
d) Humid sub-tropic
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38). Tropical Easterly Jet is observed in
a) Lower troposphere
b) Mid-troposphere
c) Upper troposphere
d) Stratosphere
39). Re-ionisation of the universe 400 million years ago means
a) The atoms were once again ionised under the gravitational compression
b) The universe became electrically neutral as all protons and electrons combined to
become atoms.
c) The atoms colliding with each other at high energy ionised each other.
d) Atoms exchanged electrons and as a result, a dynamic but neutral universe was created.
40). The El Nino phenomena occurs in
a) Atlantic Ocean
b) Pacific Ocean
c) Indian Ocean
d) Southern Ocea
41). y increases exponentially with x, which combination of the following is true?
a) Temperature and relative humidity
b) Rainfall and wind speed
c) Atmospheric pressure and altitude
d) Saturation vapour pressure and temperature
42). Which one of the following is high cloud?
a) Stratus
b) Cumulus
c) Cirrus
d) Nimbostratus
43). Which one of the following represents the lines joining the places of equal rainfall?
a) Isohytes
b) Isohypes
c) Isorain
d) Isoline
44). At which of the following tectonic settings, volcanism is likely to be more explosive than
others?
a) Mid-Oceanic Ridge
b) Hotspot
c) Subduction Zone
d) Transform Fault
45). What is the approximate difference between the energy released from a Richter-magnitude
6 and 5 earthquakes?
a) Ten times higher in 6 magnitudes compared to the 5 magnitudes
b) Thirty-one times higher in 6 magnitude than the 5 magnitude
c) Six times higher in 6 magnitudes than the 5 magnitudes
d) Twice in 6 magnitudes than the 5 magnitude.
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46). The value of gravitational acceleration ‘g’ is the maximum at
a) surface of the Earth
b) centre of the Earth
c) the Core-Mantle boundary
d) the D” layer
47). Deep-focus earthquakes can originate only at
a) Mid-Oceanic Ridges
b) Subduction Zones
c) Transform Faults
d) Beneath the mountain belts.
48). The heaviest object or group of objects in the Solar System is
a) Inner Rocky Planets
b) Outer Gaseous Planets
c) Kuiper Belt objects
d) The Sun
49). Which of the following is a rower in the south polar region of the moon?
a) Vikram
b) Pragyan
c) Chang’e 5
d) Luna 25
50). Which of the following minerals is a framework silicate
a) Orthoclase
b) Biotite
c) Olivine
d) Topaz
51). An extrusive igneous rock made up of Quartz, K-Feldspar and Plagioclase is
a) Granite
b) Rhyolite
c) Basalt
d) Syenite
52). Which of the following minerals is NOT a mafic mineral?
a) Olivine
b) Pyroxene
c) Biotite
d) Muscovite
53). Which of the following rock will NOT become a gneiss by increasing grade of
metamorphism?
a) Granite
b) Andesite
c) Shale
d) Limestone
54). In two out of four Si-tetrahedra in Quartz, Si is substituted by Al, and one atom of Ca per
formula unit is accommodated in the structure to keep it charge neutral. Resulting mineral
is
a) Anorthite
b) Albite
c) Microcline
d) Topaz
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55). Which of the following pairs is NOT a pair of polymorphs
a) Calcite, Aragonite
b) Biotite, Phlogopite
c) Kyanite, Sillimanite
d) Diamond, Graphite
56). A garnet having dominantly magnesium and aluminium as major cations other than Si is
a) Pyrope
b) Almandine
c) Spessartine
d) Grossular
57). The age of the Earth, as known today, was first determined using decay of radioactive to
radiogenic isotopes of which of the following elemental pair?
a) U to Pb
b) K to Ar
c) Rb to Sr
d) Sm to Nd
58). The samples that gave the age of the Earth were sourced from
a) Interior of the Earth
b) Surface of the Earth
c) Meteorites
d) Apollo mission to the moon
59). The mineral zircon is considered best suited for U-Pb dating, because, at the time of its
crystallization it
a) accommodates a significant amount of U but an insignificant amount of Pb
b) accommodates a significant amount of Pb but an insignificant amount of U
c) accommodates both U and Pb in almost equal amounts
d) forms euhedral crystal devoid of any defects.
60). A sample of wood discovered from an archaeological site is found to have 12.5% of the
original C-14 activity. If the half-life of C-14 is 6000 years, how old is the sample?
a) 12000 years
b) 18000 years
c) 7500 years
d) 24000 years
61). Which of the following elements’ isotopic ratios measured in samples of stalactites and
stalagmites can help understand the climatic conditions during their growth?
a) O
b) S
c) Sr
d) H
62). Which of the following minerals might release water on breakdown of its crystal structure?
a) Hornblende
b) Augite
c) Forsterite
d) Beryl
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63). Which of the following observations is best explained by the sea-floor spreading theory?
a) lack of volcanism at some places along mid-oceanic ridges
b) magnetic reversals preserved in the rocks symmetrically on either sides of the mid-
oceanic ridges
c) deep-focus earthquakes at mid-oceanic ridges
d) black smokers at mid-oceanic ridges.
64). We assume that the distribution of different types of stars in a globular cluster is the same
as that in the galaxy. If we observe this cluster at 4000 and 7000 Å with a low-resolution
telescope where we cannot fully resolve all the stars and with a low sensitivity filter, which
of the following statements will be true?
a) The cluster will appear bigger at 7000
b) The cluster will appear bigger at 4000
c) The cluster will appear to be the same size in 4000 and 7000
d) The data is now enough to make any definitive conclusion.
65). Which one of the following is the oldest supercontinent?
a) Pangea
b) Gondwana
c) Rodinia
d) Columbia
66). Which one of the following marks a plate-boundary of Indian plate?
a) Laccadive islands
b) Western Ghats
c) Katchatheevu Island
d) Indo-Mynamar Ranges
67). Silica-rich viscous magmas often produce:
a) Stratovolcano
b) Shield volcano
c) Dome
d) Fissure eruption
68). Wilson orogenic cycle in continents is initiated by
a) rifting
b) Over riding
c) collision
d) subduction
69). Conglomerates are commonly deposited in
a) aeolian dunes
b) tidal flats
c) alluvial fans
d) river flood plains
70). The correct order(s) of stability of silica polymorphs with increasing pressure is/are
a) Quartz – Stishovite – Coesite
b) Tridymite – Coesite – Stishovite
c) Tridymite – Stishovite – Coesite
d) None of the above
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71). Major mass extinction events occurred in the
a) end Silurian
b) end Carboniferous
c) end Permian
d) early Devonian
72). Atoll is a geomorphic feature formed by
a) glacial erosion
b) wind flow abrasion
c) fluvial deposition
d) coral reef accumulation
73). In clastic sediments, the correct order of decreasing grain size is
a) Boulder > pebble > silt > sand
b) Granule > pebble > clay > silt
c) Cobble > granule > silt > clay
d) Granule > pebble > sand > silt
74). Which of the following crystal systems has all three crystallographic axes equal in size?
a) Isometric
b) Tetragonal
c) Orthorhombic
d) Triclinic
75). A polished, striated rock surface on a fault caused by the frictional movement of fault
blocks against each other is known as
a) Slickensides
b) Plunge
c) Buckle
d) Pitch
76). The first mineral to form as per the discontinuous series of Bowen’s Reaction Series is
a) hornblende
b) forsterite
c) fayalite
d) augite
77). The Si:O ratio for a framework silicate is
a) 5:11
b) 1:2
c) 2:7
d) 1:4
78). Which mineral(s) among the following represent(s) AB2O4 composition?
a) Spinel
b) Magnetite
c) Chromite
d) Ilmenite
79). The downward movement of wet soil along the slopes under the influence of gravity is
known as
a) Creep
b) Subsidence
c) Solifluction
d) Landslides
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80). The reservoir rock of petroleum in the Bombay High oil field is
a) Oligocene sandstone
b). Oligocene limestone
c). Miocene sandstone
d). Miocene limestone
81). In the cores of stars which nuclear reactions are most common?
a. 4H → 4He + 2e+.
b. 12C + 4H → 12C + 4He + 2e+.
c. 3 He4 → 12C.
d. All occur with equal frequency.
82). Mesozoic Era is also known as the Age of the
a) Fishes
b) Mammals
c) Reptiles
d) Angiosperms
83). Fossil biota, in sedimentary strata, dominant in fossil fish suggest
a) Permian age
b) Ordovician age
c) Miocene age
d) Devonian age
84). During the process of fossilisation, the soft tissues of an organism are replaced by mineral
matter. What type of fossilisation has taken place?
a) Permineralisation
b) Carbonisation
c) Recrystallisation
d) Impression
85). Seafloor drilling and seismic analysis reveal a thick layer of salt at a certain depth in a
large part of the Arabian Sea. From these observations, it can be concluded that
a) The Arabian Sea has an important deposit of economic value that has not yet been
exploited.
b) There was a period in the history of the Arabian Sea when it almost dried out.
c) The Arabian Sea is very young.
d) The Arabian Sea is a relic of the Tethys Sea.
86). The diagram below shows the soil texture of samples from five (A to E) farms. The soil
of which farm has the highest permeability?
a) Farm A & E
b) Farm B & C
c) Farm C
d) Farm D
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87). The rock unit in the picture below consists of rounded grains ranging in size from sand to
small pebbles. In which sedimentary environment did this rock form?
a) Dune
b) River
c) Lake
d) Beach
88). A, B, M, and Q are fossils occurring in rocks exposed in continents X and Y. If you want
to correlate these two rock successions which fossil will help you best in the correlation?
a) A
b) B
c) M
d) Q
Continent X Continent Y
89). If the Earth’s rotation axis becomes perpendicular to its plane of rotation, which of the
following is true?
a) There will be no difference in the length of day and night over the year.
b) Sun won’t move through different zodiacs over a year.
c) The Phases of Moon will be constant.
d) There will be no land winds and sea winds.
90). The heaviest element that can be created in the stars that stabilise the star is:
a) Carbon
b) Uranium
c) Oxygen
d) Iron
91). Average temperature of the Universe is:
a) 2.73 K
b) 3.00 K
c) 0.27 K
d) 20.0 K
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92). The ratio of the diameter of the Sun: Jupiter: Earth is approximately
a) 100:8:1
b) 110:11:1
c) 50:10:1
d) 120:10:1
93). Re-ionisation of the universe 400 million years ago means
a) The atoms were once again ionized under the gravitational compression
b) The universe became electrically neutral as all protons and electrons combined to
become atoms.
c) The atoms colliding with each other at high energy ionised each other.
d) Atoms exchanged electrons and as a result a dynamic but neutral universe was created.
94). We assume that the distribution of different types of stars in a globular cluster is the same
as that in the galaxy. If this cluster has 105 stars, how many B-type stars do you expect?
a) About 1000
b) About 100
c) About 1
d) About 10
95). We assume that the distribution of different types of stars in a globular cluster is the same
as that in the galaxy. If we observe this cluster at 4000 and 7000 Å with a low resolution
telescope where we cannot fully resolve all the stars and with a low sensitivity filter, which
of the following statements will be true?
a) The cluster will appear bigger at 7000
b) The cluster will appear bigger at 4000
c) The cluster will appear to be the same size in 4000 and 7000
d) The data is now enough to make any definitive conclusion.
96). When dust around stars absorbs starlight and re-emits it, in which wavelength will the
radiation be most intense?
a) Ultraviolet
b) Optical
c) Infrared
d) Microwave
97). Green animals at 500 m in the ocean will appear
a) Green
b) Blue
c) White
d) Black
98). Which of the following parameters limit marine primary production the least in the
euphotic zone?
a) Light
b) Carbon
c) Nitrate
d) Silicate
99). Which one is known as fossil water
(a). Juvenile water
(b) Cosmic water
(c) Connate water
(d) Meteoric water
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100). Which of the following statements about the telescope mounts is true?
a) Alt-Azimuth mount is best for scanning the sky while Equatorial Mount is best for
tracking objects.
b) Alt-Azimuth mount is best for tracking objects while Equatorial Mount is best for
scanning the sky.
c) Alt-Azimuth Mount is best for reflecting telescope while Equatorial Mount is best for
refracting telescope.
d) Alt-Azimuth Mount is best for refracting telescope while Equatorial Mount is best for
reflecting telescope.
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