Namma Kalvi

UNITWISE
EVALUATION and ADDITIONAL
ONE MARK QUESTIONS with
ANSWER KEY

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 CONTENTS
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SN TOPIC PAGE NO

1 Metallurgy 3

2 p-Block Elements-I 7

3 p-Block Elements - II 11

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4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements

5 Coordination Chemistry 19

6 Solid State 23

7 Chemical Kinetics 27

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 1. METALLURGY

Choose the correct answer:

1. Bauxite has the composition
a) Al2O3 b) Al2O3.nH2O c) Fe2O3.2H2O d)None of these
2. Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas (A).(A) is a colourless gas. Aqueous solution of (A)
is acidic. The gas (A) is
a)CO2 b)SO3 c)SO2 d)H2S
3. Which one of the following reaction represents calcinations?
a) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO b) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 d) Both (a) and (c)
4. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is
a) PbO b) Al2O3 c) ZnO d) FeO
5. Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Herold process?
a) Al b) Ni c) Cu d) Zn
6. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before
reduction is not true?
a) ΔGfo of sulphide is greater than those for CS 2 and H2S .
b) ΔGro is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
c) Roasting of the sulphide to its oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides
7.Match items in column - I with the items of column – II and assign the correct code
Column – I Column – 2 A B C D
A Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B Froth flotation process (ii) Dressing of ZnS b) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
C Electrolytic refining (iii) Extraction of Al c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
D Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au d) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(v) Purification of Ni

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8. Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of
a) Smelting b) Calcination c) Roasting d) Electromagnetic separation
9. Which one of the following is not feasible
a) Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq) b) Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)
c) Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) →Ag(s) + Cu2+(aq) d) Fe(s) + Cu2+(aq) →Cu(s) + Fe2+(aq)
10. Electrochemical process is used to extract
a) Iron b) Lead c) Sodium d) silver
11. Flux is a substance which is used to convert
a) Mineral into silicate b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities
c) Soluble impurities to infusible impurities d) All of these
12. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth – floatation method?
a) Magnetite b) Hematite c) Galena d) Cassiterite
13. In the extraction of aluminium from alumina by electrolysis, cryolite is added to
a) Lower the melting point of alumina b) Remove impurities from alumina
c) Decrease the electrical conductivity d) Increase the rate of reduction
14. Zinc is obtained from ZnO by
a) Carbon reduction b) Reduction using silver
c) Electrochemical process d) Acid leaching
15. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with cyanide ion. silver is later recovered By
a) Distillation b) Zone refining c) Displacement with zinc d) liquation
16. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce
alumina? a) Fe b) Cu c) Mg d) Zn
17.The following set of reactions are used in refining Zirconium

a) Liquation b) van Arkel process c) Zone refining d) Mond’s process

18. Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in metallurgy?
a) Leaching b) Roasting c) Froth floatation d) Both (a) and (c)

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19. The incorrect statement among the following is

a) Nickel is refined by Mond’s process b) Titanium is refined by Van Arkel’s process
c) Zinc blende is concentrated by froth floatation
d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute sodium chloride solution
20. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which one of the following is used as anode?
a) Pure copper b) Impure copper c) Carbon rod d) Platinum electrode
21. In the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of carbon monoxide
a)ΔSo/ΔT is negative b) ΔGo/ΔT is positive
c) ΔGo/ΔT is negative d) initially ΔT/ ΔGo is positive, after 700oC , ΔGo /ΔT is negative
22.Which of the following plot gives Ellingham diagram
a)ΔS Vs T b) ΔGo Vs T c) ΔGo Vs 1/T is negative d) ΔGo Vs T2 is negative
23.Which of the following reduction is not thermodynamically feasible?
a) Cr2O3+ 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr b) Al2O3 + 2Cr → Cr2O3 + 2Al
c) 3TiO2 + 4Al → 2 Al2O3 + 3Ti d) none of these
24.Which of the following is not true with respect to Ellingham diagram?
a) Free energy changes follow a straight line. Deviation occurs when there is a phase change.
b) The graph for the formation of CO2 is a straight line almost parallel to free energy axis.
c) Negative slope of CO shows that it becomes more stable with increase in temperature.
d) Positive slope of metal oxides shows that their stabilities decrease with increase in
temperature.
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1.Which metal is used for extraction of Au and Ag and also for galvanization of iron object?
a)Mg b) Zn c)Cr d)Co
2.Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?
a)Bauxite b) Cryolite c) China clay d) Malachite
3.Name the process by which elements such as germanium ,silicon and galium are refined.
a) Vapour phase method b) Electrolytic refining
c) Zone refining d) Van–Arkel method.

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4.In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the
reduction of cuprous oxide with a)Iron sulphide(FeS) b) Carbon monoxide(CO)
c) Copper (I)sulphide (Cu2S) d) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
5.Concentration 0f copper glance is done by
a) leaching b) magnetic separation c) froth flotation d) hydraulic washing
6. Zone refining is based on a) fractional distillation b) simple distillation
c) sublimation d) fractional crystallization
7.The process of heating of copper pyrites to remove sulphur is called
a)froth flotation b)roasting c) calcination d) smelting
8.Malachite has ___________ composition.
a) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 b) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 c) Cu2O d) Cu2S
9.Zinc blende is ___________ a)ZnS b) PbS c) Ag2S d) Cu2S
10.In acid leaching process, the insoluble sulphide is converted into soluble sulphate and
elemental ___________a)Carbon b) Lead c) Sulphur d) Zinc
11.Gibb’s free energy is given by __________
a) ΔGo = -nFEo b) ΔGo = nF c) Δ Go = nFEo d) ΔEo = -nFGo
12.In the metallurgy of iron, limestone is added to coke .which acts as a________
a) reducing agent b) oxidizing agent c) slag d) Flux
13.Froth flotation process is suitable for concentrating ___________ore.
a) Oxide b) Carbonate c) Sulphide d)Halide
14.Metal oxide is converted into metal by
a) Calcination b) Roasting c) Smelting d) Bessemerisation
15.In Hall-Herold process, __________act as an anode.
a)Carbon blocks b) Hydrogen c)Copper rods d)Zinc rods
16. In froth floatation sodium ethyl Xanthate is used as a
a) Collector b) depressing agent c) frothing agent d) Flux
17. Which method is based on the solubility of the ore in a suitable solvent
a) Gravity separation b) Hydraulic wash c) Leaching d) Magnetic separation

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 18. Tin stone , Chromite and Pyrolusite are concentrated by ------------- process.
a) Gravity separation b) Hydraulic wash c) Froth flotation d) Magnetic separation
19.The process of ore into metal oxide with absence of air is called
a) Oxidation b) Cementation c) Galvanization d) Calcination
20. Metals having low melting points such as tin, lead, mercury and bismuth are refined by
a) Distillation b) Liquation c) Electrolytic d) Zone refining
21. Which one is used in the manufacture of many products such as paints, rubber,
cosmetics. a) Zinc carbonate b) Zinc oxide c) Zinc metal d) Zinc sulphide
22. Which one is used for cutting tools and crushing machines.
a) Nickel steel b) Chrome steel c) Chrome vanadium steel d) Nichrome
23.Elingham diagram helps to select a) suitable reducing agent b) appropriate temperature
c) both (a) and (b) d) oxidizing agent
24. The complex formed when NaCN is added to galena in which ZnS is the impurity
a) 2Na[Zn(CN)4] b) Na2[Zn(CN)4] c) 2Zn[Na(CN)2] d) Na4[Zn(CN)4]
25. Depressing agents used to separate ZnS from PbS is
a) NaCN b) NaCl c) NaNO3 d) NaNO2
26. Which type of leaching process convert insoluble sulphide ore into soluble sulphates?
a) cyanide leaching b) alkali leaching c) acid leaching d) hand picking

2. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – I

1. An aqueous solution of borax is …………

(a) neutral (b) acidic (c) basic (d) amphoteric
2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule …………
(a) contains replaceable H+ ion (b) gives up a proton
(c) combines with proton to form water molecule
(d) accepts OH– from water, releasing proton.
3. Which among the following is not a borane?
(a) B2H6 (b) B3H6 (C) B4H10 (d) none of these
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4. Which of the following metals has the largest abundance in the earth’s crust?
(a) Aluminium (b) calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Sodium
5. In diborane, the number of electrons that accounts for banana bonds is …………
(a) six (b) two (c) four (d) three
6. The element that does not show catenation among the following p-block elements is …………
(a) Carbon (b) silicon (c) Lead (d) germanium
7. Carbon atoms in fullerene with formula C60 have ………… (a) sp3 hybridised
(b) sp hybridized (c) sp2 hybridised (d) partially sp2 and partially sp3 hybridised
8. Oxidation state of carbon in its hydrides …………
(a) +4 (b) -4 (c) +3 (d) +2
9. The basic structural unit of silicates is …………
(a) (SiO3)2- (b) (SiO4)2- (c) (SiO)– (d) (SiO4)4-
10. The repeating unit in silicone is …………

11. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?
(a) Me3SiCl (b) PhSiCl3 (c) MeSiCl3 (d) Me3SiCl3
12. Which of the following is not sp2 hybridised?
(a) Graphite (b) grapheme (c) Fullerene (d) dry ice
13. The geometry at which carbon atom in diamond are bonded to each other is …………
(a) Tetrahedral (b) hexagonal (c) Octahedral (d) none of these
14. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate (b) Mg2SiO4 is an orthosilicate
(c) SiO44- is the basic structural unit of silicates (d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate

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 15. Match items in column – I with the items of column – II ans assign the correct code

16. Duralumin is an alloy of …………

(a) Cu, Mn (b) Cu, Al, Mg (c) Al, Mn (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg
17. The compound that is used in nuclear reactors as protective shields and control rods is …………
(a) Metal borides (b) metal oxides (c) Metal carbonates (d) metal carbide
18. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence …………
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) Tl < In < Ga < Al (c) In < Tl < Ga < Al (d) Ga< In < Al < Tl
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. More common oxidation state for halogens is …………
(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) -1 (d) -2
2. Electronic configuration of noble gases is …………
(a) ns2 (b) ns2np5 (c) ns1np6 (d) ns2np6
3. Noble gases are chemically inert. This is due to …………
(a) unstable electronic configuration (b) stable electronic configuration
(c) only filled p-orbital (d) only filled 5-orbital
4. Noble gases are chemically inert. This is due to …………
(a) unstable electronic configuration (b) stable electronic configuration
(c) only filled p-orbital (d) only filled 5-orbital
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5. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
6. Some elements exist in more than one crystalline or molecular forms in the same physical state
is called …………(a) isomerism (b) allotropism (c) isomorphism (d) isoelectronics
7. How many allotropes possible for boron? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
8. Important ore of boron is (a) bauxite (b) borosilicate (c) borax (d) P-tetragonal boron
9. Borontrifluoride reacts with sodium hydride at 450 K gives …………
(a) diborane (b) tetraborane (c) pentaborane (d) decaborane
10. Boron reacts with fused sodium hydroxide to forms …………
(a) Borax (b) Boric acid (c) Sodium borate (d) Sodium tetraborate
11. Which isotope is used as moderator in nuclear reactors?
(a) 10B5 (b) nC6 (c) 4He2 (d) 40Ca2
12. Compounds used as an eye lotion …………
(a) H3BO3 (b) HBO2 (c) H2B4O7 (d) B2O3
13. Which one of the following is called as inorganic benzene?
(a) B2H6 (b) BN (c) H2B4O7 (d) B3N3H6
14. Diborane reacts with excess ammonia at high temperature to give …………
(a) Boron nitride (b) Boron oxide (c) Borazole (d) Diborane diammonate
15. Consider the following statements.
(i) Diborane contains two centre-two electron bond.
(ii) In diborane, the boron has sp3 hybridis ed.
(iii) Diborane has two terminal B – H bonds and four B – H – B bonds.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) only (d) (i) and (ii)
16. The structure of graphite is ………… (a) planner (b) hexagonal
(c) octahedral (d) bucky balls
17. CO and N2 mixture is …………
(a) natural gas (b) producer gas (c) water gas (d) LPG

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18. Syn gas is …………(a) CO + N2 (b) CO + H2 (c) CO2 + H2 (d) CO2 + N2

19. Critical temperature of CO2 is ………..
(a) -31°C (b) -13°C (c) 31°C (d) 13°C
20. Ortho silicates are also called as ……….. (a) Ino silicates (b) Soro silicates
(c) Neso silicates (d) Cyclic silicates
21. Example of Ring silicate is ………. (a) Olivine (b) Beryl
(c) Spodumene (d) Asbestos
22. Compound used to remove the permanent hardness of water is ………..
(a) Zeolite (b) Feldspar (c) Talc (d) Mica

23. Pick out the three dimensional silicates? (a) Talc (b) Mica (c) Quartz (d) Asbestos

3. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – II

1. In which of the following, NH3 is not used?

(a) Nessler’s reagent (b) Reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical
(c) Reagent for the analysis of III group basic radical (d) Tollen’s reagent
2. Which is time regarding nitrogen?
(a) least electronegative element (b) has low ionisation enthalpy than oxygen
(c) d-orbitals available (d) ability to form pπ – pπ bonds with itself
3. An element belongs to group 15 and 3 rd period of the periodic table, its electronic
configuration would be ………… (a) 1s22s22p4 (b) 1s22s22p3
(c) 1s22s22p63s23p2 (d) 1s22s22p63s23p3
4. Solid (A) reacts with strong aqueous NaOH liberating a foul smelling gas(B) which
spontaneously bum in air giving smoky rings. A and B are respectively …………
(a) P4(red) and PH3 (b) P4(white) and PH3
(c) S8 and H2S (d) P4(white) and H2S
5. On hydrolysis, PCl3 gives (a) H3PO3 (b) PH3 (c) H3PO4 (d) POCl3
6. P4O6 reacts with cold water to give …………
(a) H3PO3 (b) H4P2O7 (c) HPO3 (d) H3PO4
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 7. The basicity of pyrophosphorous acid ( H4P2O5) is …………
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
8. The molarity of given orthophosphoric acid solution is 2M. its normality is …………
(a) 6N (b) 4N (c) 2N (d) none of these
9. Assertion – bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas
Reason – chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
10. Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) Cl2 (b) F2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
11. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halide is …………(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI (d) HI > HCl > HF > HBr
12. Which one of the following compounds is not formed?
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO3 (c) XeF2 (d) NeF2
13. Most easily liquefiable gas is …………
(a) Ar (b) Ne (c) He (d) Kr
14. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces …………
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO2F4 (c) XeO3 (d) XeO2
15.Which of the following is strongest acid among all?
(a) HI (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HCl
16. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules? (a) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2 (b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (d) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
17. Among the following the correct order of acidity is …………
(a) HClO2 < HCIO < HClO3 < HClO4 (b) HClO4 < HClO2 < HCIO < HClO3
(c) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HCIO (d) HCIO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

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 18. When copper is heated with cone HNO3 it produces …………
(a) Cu(NO3)2 , NO and NO2 (b) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
(c) CU(NO3)2 and NO2 (d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. Nitrogen gas in atmosphere is separated industrially from liquid air by …………
(a) simple distillation (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Sublimation (d) Distillation under reduced pressure
2. Which one of the following is used in cryosurgery?
(a) Liq N2 (b) Liq NH3 (c) Liq Na (d) Liq H2
3. The dielectric constant of ammonia is (K) …………
(a) 10-30 (b) 10-14 (c) 1030 (d) 1014
4. H – N – H bond angle in NH3 is …………(a) 109° 28’ (b) 107° 28’ (c) 104° (d) 107°
5. Shape of ammonia is ……(a) Planar (b) Square planar (c) Pyramidal (d) Square pyramidal
6. Nitric acid prepared in large scales using …………(a) Ostwald’s process (b) Haber’s process
(c) Contact process (d) Deacon’s process
7. Benzene undergoes nitration reaction to form nitrobenzene in this reaction takes place due to
the formation of …………(a) Hydronium ion (b) Hydride ion
(c) Nitronium ion (d) Nitrasonium ion
8. Compound used in photography is …………(a) AgNO3 (b) AgBr (c) AgCl (d) AgI
9. Sodium nitrate (a) Photography (b) Firearms (c) Royal water (d) Cryosurgery
10. White (Yellow) phosphorous glows in the dark due to oxidation which is called …………
(a) phosphorescence (b) phosphorus (c) Fluorescence (d) Liminoscence
11. Yellow phosphorous reacts with alkali on boiling in an inert atmosphere liberates …………
(a) Phosphorous acid (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Phosphine (d) Pyrophosphoric acid
12. Hybridisation of P in phosphine is …………(a) sp 3d (b) sp3d2 (c) sp3d3 (d) sp3
13. Compounds used in Holme’s signal are …………(a) Phosphine + Acetylene (b) H3PO3+H3PO3
(c) Calcium carbide + calcium phosphide (d) Calcium carbonate + calcium phosphate
14. Shape of ozone ……(a) V-shape (b) Linear shape (c) bent shape (d) spherical shape

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15. Sulphur di oxide, how many times heavier than air?
(a) 2 times (b) 2.5 times (c) 2.2 times (d) 2.3 times
16. Sulphuric acid can be manufactured by …………(a) Ostwald’s process (b) Lead chamber process
(c) Deacon’s process (d) Haber’s process
17. Sulphuric acid is manufactured by contact process, catalyst used in contact process is …………
(a) V2O5 (b) TiCl4 (c) Fe (d) Mo
18. Deacon’s process is used to manufacture …………(a) Cl2 (b) F2 (C) Br (d) I2
19. Catalyst used in Deacon’s process is …………(a) CuCl2 (b) Cu2Cl2 (c) CuBr (d) Cu2Br2
20. Passing chlorine gas through dry slaked lime to produce …………(a) CaOCl (b) CaOCl2
(c) CaO (d) CaCl2
21. Which one of the following is a weak acid? (a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
22. Reagent not stored in glass bottles? (a) HCI (b) HBr (c) HF (d) HI
23. The correct order of the acidity of hydrohalic acids? (a) HF > HCI > HBr > HI
(b) HCI >HF >HBr >HI (c) HBr > HCI >HF > HI (d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF
24. Shape of ClF3 is …………(a) Linear (b) T-shape (c) Pyrimidal (d) Square planar
25. Which one of the following is more acidic? (a) HOCl (b) HCIO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4
26. Shape of XeF6 is …………(a) Octahedron (b) Distorted octahedron
(c) Pyramidal (d) Tetrahedron
27. Which one of the following can penetrate through dense fog?
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Kr (d) Rn
28. Aquaregia a) 3 parts of con.HCl, one part of con.HNO3 b) 1 part of con.HCl, 3 parts of con.HNO3
c) 3 parts of con.HCl, one part of con.H2SO4 d) 1 part of con.H2SO4, one part of con.HNO3
29. Shape of AX7 inter halogen compound
a) Square pyramidal b) pentagonal bipyramidal c) T shaped d) Linear
30. Structure of XeOF4 a) Square pyramidal b) pentagonal bipyramidal c) T shaped d) Linear
31. Hybridisation in XeF4 (a) sp3d (b) sp3d2 (c) sp3d3 (d) sp3

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4. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS

1. Sc ( Z=21) is a transition element but Zinc (z=30) is not because ……………..

(a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
(b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
(c) last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of zinc
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
2. Which of the following d block element has half filled penultimate d sub shell as well as half filled
valence sub shell? (a) Cr (b) Pd (c) Pt (d) none of these
3. Among the transition metals of 3d series, the one that has highest negative (M2+/ M) standard
electrode potential is …………….. (a) Ti (b) Cu (c) Mn (d) Zn
4. Which one of the following ions has the same number of unpaired electrons as present in V3+?
(a) Ti3+ (b) Fe3+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Cr3+
5. The magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is ……………..
(a) 5.92BM (b) 2.80BM (c) 8.95BM (d) 3.90BM
6. The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly due to
(a) their magnetic behavior (b) their unfilled d orbitals
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states(d) their chemical reactivity
7. The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series ……………..
(a) VO+2 < Cr2O7−2 < MnO4– (b) Cr2O7−2 < VO+2 < MnO4–
(c) Cr2O7−2 < MnO4–< VO+2 (d) MnO4–< Cr2O7−2 < VO+2

8. In acid medium, potassium permanganate oxidizes oxalic acid to ……………..

(a) Oxalate (b) Carbon dioxide (c) acetate (d) acetic acid
9. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) on passing H2S, through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
(c) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange in colour
(d) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7

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 10. Permanganate ion changes to in acidic medium ……………..
(a) MnO4−2 (b) Mn2+ (c) Mn3+ (d) MnO2
11. How many moles of I2 are liberated when 1 mole of potassium dichromate react with
potassium iodide? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
12. The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to oxidize 1 mole of ferrous oxalate(FeC2O4)
is ………….. (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 0.6 (d) 1.5
13. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?
(a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
(c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
(d) Ce4+ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in volumetric analysis.
14. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(a) Eu2+ (b) Yb2+ (c) Ce2+ (d) Sm2+
15. Which of the following oxidation states is most common among the lanthanoids?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3
16. Assertion: Ce4+ is used as an oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
Reason: Ce4+ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. .
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
17. The most common oxidation state of actinoids is (a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +4 (d) +6
18. The actinoid elements which show the highest oxidation state of +7 are ……………
(a) Np, Pu, Am (b) U, Fm, Th (c) U, Th, Md (d) Es, No, Lr
19. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3 (b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
(c) La is actually an element of transition metal series rather than lanthanide series
(d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction

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ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. Identify the transition metal present in Hemoglobin …………..
(a) Cobalt (b) Iron (c) Manganese (d) Copper
2. Which of the following transition metal is present in Vitamin B12?
(a) Cobalt (b) Platinum (c) Copper (d) Iron
3. The correct electronic configuration of Cr is …………..
(a) [Ar] 3d4 4s2 (b) [Ar] 3d5 (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (d) [Ar] 3d6
4. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of copper?
(a) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 (c) [Ar] 3d9 4s2 (d) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 4p1
5. Which one of the following is the general electronic configuration of transition elements?
(a) [Noble gas] ns2 np6 (b) [Noble gas] ( n – 2 ) f1-14(n-l)d1-10 ns2
(c) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 (n-l)f1-14 ns2 (d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 ns2
6. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest electrical conductivity at room
temperature? (a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Aluminium (d) Tungsten
7. Which one of the following is diamagnetic in nature?
(a) Ti3+ (b) Cu2+ (c) Zn2+ (d) V3+
8. Which of the following pair has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mn2+, Fe3+ (b) CO3+, Fe2+ (c) Cr3+, Mn4+ (d) Ti2+, V3+
9. Which one of the following is Zeigler – Natta catalyst?
(a) CO2(CO)8 (b) Rh/Ir complex (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 (d) Fe / Mo
10. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the polymerisation of propylene?
(a) V2O5 (b) Pt (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 (d) Fe / Mo
11. Which one of the following oxide is amphoteric in nature?
(a) CrO (b) Cr2O3 (c) Mn2O7 (d) MnO
12. The oxidation state of Chromium in CrO4−2 and in Cr2O7−2 are …………..
(a) +3, +6 (b) +7, +4 (c) +6, +6 (d) +4, +6
13. Which one of the following is the formula of chromyl chloride?
(a) CrOCl2 (b) CrCl3 (c) CrO2 Cl2 (d) CrCl

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14. Which one of the following geometry is possesed by permanganate ion?

(a) Pyramidal (b) Tetrahedral (c) Octahedral (d) linear
15. Which one of the following is known as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 (b) Chromyl Chloride
(c) Acidified potassium dichromate (d) Acidified potassium manganate
16. Baeyer’s reagent is used to detect unsaturation in an organic compound.
(a) Chloride ion (b) unsaturated organic compound
(c) Sulphate ion (d) Chromate ion
17. Which one of the following is the main cause of lanthanoid contraction?
(a) Poor shielding effect of 5f sub-shell (b) More shielding effect of 4f sub-shell
(c) Poor shielding effect of 4f sub-shell (d) More shielding effect of 5f sub-shell
18. Which of the following pair has more or less same atomic radius due to lanthanide contraction?
(a) Ti and V (b) Fm and Md (c) No and Lr (d) Zr and Hf
19. Which one of the following is more basic in nature?
(a) La(OH)3 (b) Ce(OH)3 (c) Gd(OH)3 (d) Lu(OH)3
20. Assertion (A) – In transition metal series, the ionization enthalpy increases.
Reason (R) – This is due to increase in nuclear charge corresponding to the filling of d electrons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
21. Which one of the following elements show high negative electrode potential?
(a) Copper (b) Manganese (c) Cobalt (d) Zinc
22. Which one of the following transition element has maximum oxidation states?
(a) Manganese (b) Copper (c) Scandium (d) Titanium

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 5. COORDINATION CHEMISTRY

1. The sum of primary valance and secondary valance of the metal M in the complex
[M(en)2(Ox)]Cl is …………….. (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) -3 (d) 9
2. An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100ml of a 0.01M solution of penta aquachlorido
chromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be ……………..
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.002 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.2
3. A complex has a molecular formula MSO4Cl. 6H2O. The aqueous solution of it gives white
precipitate with Barium chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is treated with
silver nitrate solution. If the secondary valence of the metal is six, which one of the following
correctly represents the complex?
(a) [M(H2O)4Cl] SO2. 2H2O (b) [M(H2O)6] SO4
(C)[M(H2O)5Cl] SO4. H2O (d) [M(H2O)3Cl] SO4. 3H2O
4. Oxidation state of Iron and the charge on the ligand NO in [Fe(H 2O)5NO] SO4 are ……………..
(a) +2 and 0 respectively (b) +3 and 0 respectively
(c) +3 and -1 respectively (d) +1 and +1 respectively
5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the name of the complex [CO(en)2(ONO)Cl]Cl is ……………..
(a) chlorobisethylenediaminenitritocobalt (III) chloride
(b chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro k – Ocobaltate (III) chloride
(c) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diammine) nitrito k – Ocobalt (II) chloride
(d) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro k – Ocobalt (III) chloride
6. IUPAC name of the complex K3[Al(C2O4)3] is ……………..
(a) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium (III) (b) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (II)
(c) potassiumtrisoxalatoaluminate (III) (d) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
7. A magnetic moment of 1.73BM will be shown by one among the following ……………..
(a) TiCl4 (b) [COCl6]4- (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
8. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d5 octahedral complex is ……………..
(a) – 0.6∆0 (b) 0 (c) 2 (P – ∆0) (d) 2 (P + ∆0)

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9. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of ∆0 will be maximum?
(a) [CO(CN)6]3- (b) [CO(C2O4)3]3- (c) [CO(H2O)6]3+ (d) [CO(NH3)6]3+
10. Which one of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
(a) [Cr(NH3)6][CO(CN)6] (b) [CO(en)2Cl2]Cl
(c) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl4] (d) [CO(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
11. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] ?
(a) Coordination isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Optical isomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
12. How many geometrical isomers are possible for [ Pt (Py) (NH 3) (Br) (Cl) ]?
(a) 3 (6) 4 (c) 0 (d) 15
13. Which one of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
(a) [Cu(NH3)4] [PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]
(b) [CO(NH3)5(NO3)]SO4 and [CO(NH3)5(ONO)]
(c) [CO(NH3)4(NCS)2]Cl and [CO(NH3)4(SCN)2]Cl
(d) both (b) and (c)
14. Which kind of isomerism is possible for a complex [CO(NH3)4Br2]Cl ?
(a) geometrical and ionization (b) geometrical and optical
(c) optical and ionization (d) geometrical only
15. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?
(a) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ (b) [Pt(NH3)2 Cl2] (C) [CO(NH3)5SO4]Cl (d) [Fe(en)3]3+
16. A complex in which the oxidation number of the metal is zero is ……………..
(a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (b) [Fe(CN)3(NH3)3] (c) [Fe(CO)5] (d) both (b) and (c)
17. Formula of tris (ethane-1, 2-diamine) iron (II) phosphate ……………..
(a) [Fe(CH3 – CH(NH2)2)3] (PO4)3 (b) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3] (PO4)
(c) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3](PO4)2 (d) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3](PO4)2
18. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
(a) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (b) [CO(NH3)6]3+ (c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-

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19. Facmer isomerism is shown by ……………..

(a) [CO(en)3]3+ (b) [CO(NH3)4(Cl)2]+ (c) [CO(NH3)3(Cl)3] (d) [CO(NH3)5Cl]SO4
20. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Square planar complexes are more stable than octahedral complexes
(b) The spin only magnetic moment of [Cu(Cl) 4]2- is 1.732 BM and it has square planar structure.
(c) Crystal field splitting energy (Δ0) of [FeF6]4- is higher than the (Δ0) of [Fe(CN)6]4-
(d) crystal field stabilization energy of [V(H2O)6]2+ is higher than the crystal field stabilization of
[Ti(H2O)6]2+
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. What are primary and secondary valency of cobalt in COCl3.6NH3?
(a) 3, 3 (b) 6, 3 (c) 3, 6 (d) 6, 6
2. Consider the following statements.
(i) The outer sphere in coordination compound is called ionisation sphere.
(ii) The primary valences are non directional while secondary valences are directional.
(iii) The primary valances of a metal ion is negative and it is satisfied by positive ions.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? .
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only
3. Which of the following is called Lewis acid in [Ni (CO)4]?
(a) Ni2+ (b) CO (c) Ni4+ (d) CO
4. The oxidation state of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]4- is ……………..
(a) II (b) III (c) VI (d) IV
5. What is the coordination number of Pt in [Pt(NO2)(H2O)(NH3)2]Br?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
6. Which one of the following is a homoleptic complex?
(a) [CO(NH3)3](Cl3)] (b) [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] (c) [Pt(NO2)(H2O)(NH3)2]Br (d) [Co (NH3)6]Cl3
7. Which one of the following is called as Zeise’s salt?
(а) [Pt (NH3)4] [Pt Cl4] (b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)] (c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (d) [Fe (CO)5]

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8. [Pt (NH3)4] [Pt Cl4] is called as ……………..
(a) Zeigler Natta Catalyst (b) Zeises’ salt (c) Magnus’s green salt (d) Mohr’s salt
9. The IUPAC name of K4[Fe (CN)6] is ……………..
(a) Potassium hexacyanido Ferrate (III) (b) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (II)
(c) Potassium ferrocyanide (d) Potassium ferricyanide
10. The IUPAC name of [CO(NH3)4Cl2] Cl is ……………..
(a) Tetrammine dichlorido cobalt (III) chloride (b) Dichlorido tetrammine cobalt (III) chloride
(c) Tetrammine cobalt (III) trichloride (d) Tetrammine dichlorido cobaltate (III)
11. The formula of Hexafluorido ferrate (II) ion is ……………..
(a) [Fe F6]4- (b) [Fe F6]3- (c) [FeF6]2- (d) [FeF6]3+
12. [Cr (NH3)4Cl Br]NO, and [Cr (NH3)4Cl NO2] Br are examples of ……………..
(a) Linkage isomerism (b) Ionisation isomerism
(c) Coordination isomerism (d) Hydrate isomerism
13. Square planar complexes have type of hybridisation ……………..
(a) sp3 (b) dsp2 (c) sp3d (d) sp3d2
14. In octahedral geometry, the type of hybridisation involved is ……………..
(a) sp3d2 (b) d2sp3 (c) dsp3 (d) a or b
15. The geometry of [Fe (CN)6]3- is …………….. (a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral
(c) Square planar (d) Trigonamal bipyramidal
16. Which is used for the separation of lanthanides, in softening of hard water and also in
removing lead poisoning?
(a) [Ni (CO)4] (b) EDTA (c) [Ni(DMG)2] (d) Ti Cl4 + AI (C2H5)3
17. Which complex is used as an antitumor drug in cancer treatment?
(a) Ca – EDTA chelate (b) EDTA (c) Ti Cl4 + Al(C2H5)3 (d) Cis – Platin
18. The IUPAC name of Zeise’s salt is ……………..
(a) Tetramminecopper (II) sulphate (b) FerrousAmmoniumsulphate
(c) Tetracyanocopper (II) Sulphate (d) Potassiumtrichloro (ethene) platinate (II)

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 19. The CFSE is the highest for ……………..
(a) [CO F4]2- (b) [CO (NCS)4]2- (c) [CO (NH3)]3+ (d) [CO Cl4]2-
20. The hybridization involved in the complex [Ni (CN)4]2- is ……………..
(a) sp3 (b) d2 sp3+ (c) dsp2 (d) sp3d2
21. Assertion (A) – [CO(NH3)4Br2]CI and [CO(NH3)4Cl Br] Br are examples of ionisation isomers.
Reason (R) – The exchange of counter ions with one or more ligands in the coordination
entity will result in ionisation isomers.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A and R are wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

6. SOLID STATE

1. Graphite and diamond are ……….. (a) Covalent and molecular crystals
(b) ionic and covalent (c) both covalent crystals (d) both molecular crystals
2. An ionic compound Ax By crystallizes in fee type crystal structure with B ions at the centre of
each face and A ion occupying centre of the cube, the correct formula of A B is ………..
(a) AB (b) AB3 (c) A3B (d) A8B6
3. The rano of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing is ………..
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:4
4. Solid CO2 is an example of ………..
(a) Covalent solid (b) metallic solid (c) molecular solid (d) ionic solid
5. Assertion: monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system.
Reason: for a monoclinic system, a ≠ b ≠ c and α = γ = 90° , β ≠ 90°.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
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6. In calcium fluoride, having the flurite structure the coordination number of Ca2+ ion and F Ion
are ……….. (a) 4 and 2 (b) 6 and 6 (c) 8 and 4 (d) 4 and 8
7. The number of unit cells in 8gm of an element X (atomic mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc
pattern is (NA is the Avogadro number)
(a) 6.023 x 1023 (b) 6.023 x 1022 (c) 60.23 x 1023 (d) (6.023×1023/ (8×40)
8. In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and (1/3) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N.
Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.
(a) MN (b) M3N (C) MN3 (d) M3N2
9. The ionic radii of A+ and B– are 0.98 x 10-10 m and 1.81 x 10-10 m , the coordination number of
each ion in AB is ……….. (a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4
10. CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm, its inter atomic distance is ………..
(a) 400pm (b) 800pm (c) √3 x 100pm (d) (√3/2) x 400 pm
11. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure, if the radius of the cation is 100pm , the radius of the
anion will be ……….. (a) (100/0.414) (b) (0.732/100) (c) 100 x 0.414 (d) (0.414/100)
12. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is ………..
(a) 48% (b) 23% (c) 32% (d) 26%
13. The radius of an atom is 300pm, if it crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice, the length of
the edge of the unit cell is ………..
(a) 488.5pm (b) 848.5pm (c) 884.5pm (d) 484.5pm
14. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a simple cubic is ………..
(a) (π/ 4√2 ) (b) (π/6) (c) (π/4) (d) (π/ √3/2)
15. The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to ………..
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers (b) reflection of light from Cl– ion on the surface
(c) refraction of light from Na+ ion (d) all of the above
16. If ’a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc ,bcc, and fcc. Then the ratio of radii of
spheres in these systems will be respectively.

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17. If a is the length of the side of the cube, the distance between the body centered atom and
one comer atom in the cube will be ………..
(a) (2/√3)a (b) (4/√3)a (c) (√3/4)a (d) (√3/2)a
18. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbor distance 4.52 A. its atomic weight is 39.
Its density will be ………..
(a) 915 kg m-3 (b) 2142 kg m-3 (c) 452 kg m-3 (d) 390 kg m-3
19. Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when ………..
(a) unequal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(b) equal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(e) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(d) no ion is missing from its lattice.
20. The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial position, the
defect in the crystal is known as ………..
(a) Schottky defect (b) F center (c) Frenkel defect (d) non-stoichiometric defect
21. Assertion – due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases.
Reason – in Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
22. The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is ………..
(a) NaCI (b) FeO (c) ZnO (a) KCI
23. A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different atoms X and Y is shown below. The
black and white squares represent atoms X and Y respectively. The simplest formula for the
compound based on the unit cell from the pattern is ………..

(a) XY8 (b) X4Y9 (c) XY2 (d) XY4

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ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. Which one of the following is an amorphous solid?
(a) Glass (b) SiO2 (c) NaCl (d) Na
2. Which one of the following is an example for molecular crystals?
(a) Diamond (b) Silica (c) Glass (d) Naphthalene
3. Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?
(a) Glass (b) Diamond (c) Anthracene (d) Glucose
4. In an ionic crystal, both cations and anions are bound together by ………..
(a) Strong electrostatic attractive forces (b) Weak electrostatic attractive forces
(c) Vanderwaals forces of attraction (d) Weak cohesive forces
5. In non polar molecular solids, molecules are held together by ………..
(a) London forces (b) weak vanderwaals forces
(c) Strong electrostatic forces (d) strong cohesive forces
6. Solid NH3 solid CO2 are examples of ………..
(a) Covalent solid (b) polar molecular solids (c) molecular solids (d) ionic solids
7. Each atom in the comer of the cubic unit cell is shared by how many unit cells?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 12
8. The number of atoms belongs to fcc unit cell is ………..
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12
9. The atoms the face centre is being shared by ………..
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
10. Which is the packing fraction in simple cubic unit cell?
(a) 52.31% (b) 100% (c) 68% (d) 75%
11. The packing fraction in bcc arrangement is ………..
(a) 52.3 1% (b) 68% (c) 100% (d) 80%
12. Which is the coordination number in both hep and ccp arrangements?
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 8

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13. The coordination number of zinc sulphide is ………..

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
14. Which one of the following is the coordination number of NaCl?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
15. Which one of the following is an example for Frenkel defect?
(a) NaCl (b) AgCI (c) AgBr (d) AgNO3
16. Which one of the following is the metal deficiency defect?
(a) FeO (b) ZnO (c) KCl (d) NaCl
17. Which one of the following shows non- stoichiometric defect?
(a) FeO (b) AgBr (c) ZnO (d) Both a and c
18. Which one of the following is the packing efficiency in fcc unit cell?
(a) 74% (b) 52.6 1% (c) 100% (d) 68%
19. The coordination number of CSCI ¡s ………..
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
20. Which one of the following formula is used to calculate the density of the unit cell ?
(a) ρ = nMa3/NA (b) ρ = a3NA/ nM (c) ρ = NAa3/ NM (d) ρ = a3NAn
21. Which one of the following is known as Bragg’s equation’?
(a) d = 2sinθnλ (b) d = nλ2sinθ (c) d = dsinθ (d) d = 2sinθnλ
22. Naphthalene is an example of ……….. (a) ionic solid
(b) covalent solid (c) non polar molecular solid (d) polar molecular solid
7. CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. For a first order reaction A → B the rate constant is x min-1. If the initial concentration of A is 0.01
M, the concentration of A after one hour is given by the expression.
(a) 0.01 e-x (b) 1 x 10-2 (1 – e-60x) (c) (1 x 10-2) e-60x (d) none of these
2. A zero order reaction X → Product, with an initial concentration 0.02M has a half life of 10 min. If
one starts with concentration 0.04M, then the half life is …………….
(a) 10 s (b) 5 min (c) 20 min (d) cannot be predicted using the given information

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 3. Among the following graphs showing variation of rate constant with temperature (T) for a
reaction, the one that exhibits Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is ……………

4. For a first order react ion A → product with initial concentration x mol L-1, has a half life period of
2.5 hours. For the same reaction with initial concentration mol L -1 the half life is
(a) (2.5 x 2) hours (b) (2.5/2) hours (c) 2.5 hours
(d) Without knowing the rate constant, t 1/2 cannot be determined from the given data
5. For the reaction, 2NH3 → N2 + 3H2, if

then the relation between k1, k2 and k3 is

(a) k1 = k2 = k3 (b) k1 = 3 k2 = 2 k3 (c) 1.5k1 = 3 k2 = k3 (d) 2k1 = k2 = 3 k3
6. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is
because the …………….
(a) rate is proportional to the surface coverage
(b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
(d) rate of decomposition is slow
7. For a reaction Rate = k [acetone]3/2 then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction respectively is
(a) (mol L-1 s-1), (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1) (b) (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1)
(c) (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1) (d) (mol L s-1), (mol1/2 L1/2 s)
8. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
(a) Enthalpy (b) Activation energy (c) Entropy (d) Internal energy

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 9. Consider the following statements:
(i) increase in concentration of the reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
(ii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = o
(iii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = o
(iv) a plot of ln (k) vs T is a straight line.
(v) a plot of In (k) vs (1T) is a straight line with a positive slope.
Correct statements are
(a) (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (v)
10. In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward direction
are respectively – x kJ mol-1 and y kJ mol-1. Therefore, the energy of activation in the backward
direction is ………..
(a) (v – x)kJ mol-1 (b) (x + y) J mol-1 (c) (x – y) kJ mol-1 (d) (x + y) x 103 J mol-1
11. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised
from 200K to 400K? (R 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
(a) 234.65 kJ mol-1 K-1 (b) 434.65 kJ mol-1 K-1
(c) 434.65 J mol-1 K-1 (d) 334.65 J mol-1 K-1
12.

This reaction follows first order kinetics. The rate constant at particular temperature is 2.303 x 10-
2
hours. The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.25 M. What will be the concentration of
cyclopropane after 1806 minutes? (Log 2 = 0.30 10)
(a) 0.125 M (b) 0.215 M (c) 0.25 x 2.303 M (d) 0.05 M

13. For a first order reaction, the rate constant is 6.909 min-1.The time taken for 75% conversion in
minutes is ………… (a) (32) log 2 (b) (32) log 2 (c) (32) log (3 (d) (23) log (43)
14. In a first order reaction x → y; if k is the rate constant and the initial concentration of the
reactant x is 0.1 M, then, the half life is ……..
(a) (log2k) (b) (0.693(0.1)k) (c) (In2k) (d) none of these

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15. Predict the rate law of the following reaction based on the data given below:
2A + B → C + 3D
(a) rate = k [A]2 [B]
(b) rate = k [A][B]2
(c) rate = k [A][B]
(d) rate = k [A]1/2 [B]3/2
16. Assertion: rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of the reactant is doubles if it is a
first order reaction.
Reason: rate constant also doubles
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
17. The rate constant of a reaction is 5.8 x 10-2 s-1. The order of the reaction is ………….
(a) First order (b) zero order (c) Second order (a) Third order
18. For the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) +1/2 O2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is
given as 6.5 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1 The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as
(a) (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) and (1.3 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1)
(b) (1.3 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) and (3.25 x 102 mol L-1s-1)
(c) (1.3 x 10-1 mol L-1s-1) and (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1)
(d) None of these
19. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48g O2 is formed per minute at certain
point of time. The rate of formation of water at this point is …………….
(a) 0.75 mol min-1 (b) 1.5 mol min-1 (c) 2.25 mol min-1 (d) 3.0 mol min-1
20. If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time for half reaction is also doubled.
Then the order of the reaction is …………
(a) Zero (b) one (c) Fraction (d) none

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21. In a homogeneous reaction A ? B + C + D, the initial pressure was P0 and after time t it was P.
Expression for rate constant in terms of P0, P and t will be ……….

22. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction under
the same conditions would be completed in ………
(a) 20 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 35 minutes (d) 75 minutes
23. The half life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 560 days, 1 g of element will be
reduced to (a) 12 g (b) 14 g (c) 18 g (d) 116 g
24. The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that …………
(a) A first order reaction can be catalysed a second order reaction cannot be catalysed.
(b) The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on [A0] the half life of a second order
reaction does depend on [A0].
(c) The rate of a first order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.
(d) The rate of a first order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
second order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations,
25. After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes (116)th of original amount. Then the half life
(in mm) is ………………
(a) 60 minutes (b) 120 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 15 minutes

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ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. Which one of the following is the unit of rate of reaction?
(a) s-1 (b) mol s-1 (c) mol L-1 s-1 (d) mol L s
2. Which of the following is the order of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide catalysed by I –
(a) First order (b) Second order (c) Zero order (a) Third order
3. Which one of the following is the unit of rate constant for a first order reaction?
(a) mol-1 L s-1 (b) mol L-1 s-1 (c) s-1 (d) mol L S
4. What is the order of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene?
(a) 1.5 (b) 3/2 (c) 5/2 (d) 1
5. Which one of the following is called pseudo first order reaction?
(a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde (b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester
(c) Isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene (d) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
6. The half life period of first order reaction is 10 seconds. What is the time required for 99.9%
completion of that reaction?
(a) 20 seconds (b) 1000 seconds (c) 100 seconds (d) 999 seconds
7. Which one of the following does not affect the rate of the reaction?
(a) Nature of the reactant (b) Concentration of the reactants
(c) Surface area and temperature (d) pressure
8. What is the order of radioactive decay?
(a) first order (b) zero order (c) second order (d) third order
9. t1/2 of the reaction increases with increase in initial concentration of the reaction means the
order of the reaction will be …………
(a) first order (b) zero order (c) second order (d) third order
10. Identify the reaction order if the unit of rate constant is s-1 ……….
(a) zero order reaction (b) second order reaction
(c) first order reaction (d) third order reaction
11. What is unit of zero order reaction?
(a) s-1 (b) mol-1 L-1 s-1 (c) mol L-1 s-1 (d) mol L s-1

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12. Polymerisation reactions follows ………………. order kinetics.

(a) fractional (b) first (c) zero (d) Pseudo first
13. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by ……….
(a) changing concentration of the reactants
(b) Evaluating rate constants at standard temperature
(c) Evaluating rate constants at two different temperature
(d) Evaluating reIocities of reaction at two different temperature
14. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to ………
(a) the decrease in the number of collisions
(b) increase in the number of activated molecules
(c) the shortening of mean free path
(d) the lowering of activation energy
15. The minimum energy of a molecule would possess in order to enter into a fruitful collision is
known as (a) Reaction energy (b) collision energy (c) Activation energy (d) Threshold energy
16. Assertion (A): Powdered calcium carbonate reacts much faster with dilute
HCL than with the same mass of CaCO3 as marble.
Reason (R): For a given mass of a reactant, when the particle size decreases, surface area
increases. Increase in surface area of the reactant leads to more collisions per litre per second
and hence the rate of the reaction also increases.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R arc correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
17. Assertion (A): Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional
Reason (R): We cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

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 18. Assertion (A): If the activation enery of a reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on the
rate constant
Reason (R): Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

ANSWER KEY

1. METALLURGY 20. b) Impure copper 19. d) Calcination

21. c) ΔGo/ΔT is negative 20. b) Liquation
1. b) Al2O3.nH2O 22. b) ΔGo Vs T 21. b) Zinc oxide
2. c)SO2 23. b) Al2O3 + 2Cr → Cr2O3 + 2Al 22. b) Chrome steel
3. c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2
24. b) The graph for the formation 23. c) both (a) and (b)
4. b) Al2O3
of CO2 is a straight line almost 24. b) Na2[Zn(CN)4]
5. a) Al parallel to free energy 25. a) NaCN
6. d) Carbon and hydrogen are axis. 26. c) acid leaching
suitable reducing agents for
metal sulphides ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
7. c) A – (iv) , B – (ii) , C – (iii) , D – 2. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – I
1. b) Zn
(i) 1. (c) basic.
2. d) Malachite
8. d) Electromagnetic separation 2. (d) accepts OH– from water,
3. c) Zone refining
9. b) Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Zn(s) + releasing proton
4. c)Copper (I)sulphide (Cu2S)
Cu2+(aq) 3. (a) B2H6
5. c) froth flotation
10. c) Sodium 4. (a) Aluminium
6. d) fractional crystallization
11. b) Infusible impurities to 5. (c) four
7. b)roasting
soluble impurities 6. (c) Lead
8. b) CuCO3Cu(OH)2
12. c) Galena 7. (c) sp2 hybridised
9. a)ZnS
13. a) Lower the melting point of 8. (a) +4
10. c) Sulphur
alumina 9. (d) (SiO4)4-
11. a) ΔGo = -nFEo
14. a) Carbon reduction 12. d) Flux
15. c) Displacement with zinc 10.
13. c) Sulphide
16. c) Mg 14. c) Smelting
17. b) van Arkel process 15. a)Carbon blocks
18. d) Both (a) and (c) 11. (a) Me3SiCl
16. a) Collector
19. d) In the metallurgy of gold, 12. (a) dry ice
17. c) Leaching
the metal is leached with dilute 13. (a) Tetrahedral
18. d) Magnetic separation
sodium chloride solution
34
14. (d) Feldspar is a three 8. (a) 6N 28. a) 3 parts of con.HCL, one part
dimensional silicate 9. (d) Both assertion and reason of con.HNO3
15. (a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 are false. The converse is true. 29. b) pentagonal bipyramidal
16. (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg 10. (b) F2 30. a) Square pyramidal
17. (a) Metal borides 11. (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI 31. (d) sp3
18. (a) Al < Ga < In < Tl 12. (d) NeF2
13. (c) He 4. Transition and Inner
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 14. (c) XeO3 Transition Elements
1. (c) -1 15. (a) HI
2. (d) ns2np6 16. (d) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 1. (c) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are
3. (b) stable electronic 17. (d) HCIO < HClO2 < HClO3 < partially filled but in Zn these
configuration HClO4 are completely filled
4. (b) stable electronic 18. (c) CU(NO3)2 and NO2 2. (a) Cr
configuration 3. (a) Ti
5. (a) Fluorine 4. (c) Ni2+
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
6. (b) allotropism 5. (a) 5.92BM
1. (b) Fractional distillation
7. (c) 6 6. (c) their ability to adopt
2. (a) Liq N2
8. (c) borax variable oxidation states
3. (a) 10-30
9. (a) diborane 7. VO+2 < Cr2O2−7 < MnO–4
4. (d) 107°
10. (c) Sodium borate 8. (b)Carbondioxide
5. (c) Pyramidal
11. (a) 10B5 9. (b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over
6. (a) Ostwald’s process
12. (a) H3BO3 K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
7. (c) Nitronium ion
13. (d) B3N3H6 10. (b) Mn2+
8. (a) AgNO3
14. (c) Borazole 11. (c) 3
9. (b) Firearms
15. (d) (i) and (ii) 12. (c) 0.6
10. (a) phosphorescence
16. (b) hexagonal 13. (c) All the lanthanons are
11. (c) Phosphine
17. (b) producer gas much more reactive than
12. (d) sp3
18. (b) CO + H2 aluminium
13. (c) Calcium carbide + calcium
19. (c)31°C 14. (6) Yb2+
phosphide
20. (c) Neso silicates 15. (d) 3
14. (c) bent shape
21. (b) Beryl 16. (a) Both assertion and reason
15. (c) 2.2 times
22. (a) Zeolite are true and reason is the
16. (b) Lead chamber process
23. (c) Quartz correct explanation of
17. (c) V2O5
assertion.
18. (a) Cl2
3. p-Block Elements – II 19. (b) Cu2Cl2
17. (c) +4
18. (a) Np, Pu, Am
20. (b) CaOCl2
1. (a) Nessler’s reagent 19. (a) La(OH)2 is less basic than
21. (a) HF
2. (d) ability to form pπ – pπ Lu(OH)3
22. (c) HF
bonds with itself
23. (d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF
3. (d) 1s22s22p63s23p3 ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
24. (b) T-shape
4. (b) P4(white) and PH3 1. (b) Iron
25. (d) HClO4
5. (a) H3PO3 2. (a) Cobalt
26. (b) Distorted octahedron
6. (a) H3PO3 3. (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1
27. (c) Kr
7. (b) 2 4. (b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1
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5. (d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1- 15. (d) [Fe(en)3]3+ 2. (b) AB3

10 ns2 16. (c) [Fe(CO)5] 3. (b) 1:2
6. (b) Silver 17. (d) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – 4. (c) molecular solid
7. (c) Zn2+ NH2)3](PO4)2 5. (a) Both assertion and reason
8. (a) Mn2+, Fe3+ 18. (c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ are true and reason is the
9. (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 19. (c) [CO(NH3)3(Cl)3] correct explanation of
10. (c)TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 20. (d) crystal field stabilization assertion
11. (b) Cr2O3 energy of [V(H2O)6]2+ is is 6. (c) 8 and 4
12. (c) +6, +6 higher than the crystal field 7. (b) 6.023 x 1022
13. (c) CrO2 Cl2 stabilization of [Ti(H2O)6]2+ 8. (d) M3N2
14. (b) Tetrahedral ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 9. (c) 6
15. (a) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 1. (c) 3, 6 10. (d) (3√2) x 400 pm
16. (b) unsaturated organic 2. (c) (iii) only 11. (a) (1000.414)
compound 3. (a) Ni2+ 12. (c) 32%
17. (c) Poor shielding effect of 4f 4. (a) II 13. (b) 848.5pm
sub-shell 5. (b) 4 14. (b) (π6)
18. (d) Zr and Hf 6. (d) [Co (NH3)6]Cl3 15. (a) excitation of electrons in F
19. (a) La(OH)3 7. (b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)] centers
20. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct 8. (c) Magnus’s green salt 16.
and (R) explains (A). 9. (b) Potassium hexa cyanido
21. (d) Zinc Ferrate (II)
22. (a) Manganese 10. (a) 17. (d) (3√2)a
Tetramminedichloridocobalt 18. (a) 915 kg m-3
5. Coordination Chemistry (III) chloride 19. (b) equal number of anions and
11. (a) [Fe F6]4- anions are missing from the
1. (d) 9 12. (b) Ionisation isomerism lattice
2. (b) 0.002 13. (b) dsp2 20. (c) Frenkel defect
3. (c) [M(H2O)5Cl]SO4. H2O 14. (d) a or b 21. (d) Both assertion and reason
4. (d) +1 and +1 respectively 15. (b) Octahedral are false
5. (d) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2- 16. (b) EDTA 22. (b) FeO
diamine) nitro k – Ocobalt (III) 17. (d) Cis – Platin 23. (a) XY8
chloride 18. (d) Potassiumtrichloro (ethene)
6. (d) platinate(II) ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate 19. (d) [CO Cl4]2- 1. (a) Glass
(III) 20. (c) dsp2 2. (d) Naphthalene
7. (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ 21. (b) Both A and R are correct 3. (b) Diamond
8. (b) 0 and R is the correct 4. (a) Strong electrostatic
9. (a) [CO(CN)6]3- explanation of A. attractive forces
10. (b) [CO(en)2Cl2]Cl 5. (a) London forces
11. (d) Geometrical isomerism 6. (b) polar molecular solids
12. (a) 3 7. (a) 8
13. (c) [CO(NH3)4(NCS)2]Cl and 6. Solid State 8. (a) 2
[CO(NH3)4(SCN)2]Cl 9. (c) 2
14. (a) geometrical and ionization 1. (c) both covalent crystals 10. (a) 52.3 1%
36
11. (b) 68% 10. ( 7. (d) pressure
12. (a) 12 d 8. (a) first order
13. (b) 4 ) 9. (b) zero order
14. (c) 6 (x + y) x 103 J mol-1 10. (c) first order reaction
15. (c) AgBr 11. (c)434.65 J mol-1 K-1 11. (c) mol L-1 s-1
16. (a) FeO 12. (b) 0.2 15 M 12. (a) fractional
17. (d) Both a and c 13. (b) (32) log 2 13. (c) Evaluating rate constants at
18. (a) 74% 14. (c) (In2k) two different temperature
19. (d) 8 15. (b) rate = k [A][B]2 14. (b) increase in the number of
20. (a) ρ = nm / a3NA 16. (c) Assertion is true but reason activated molecules
21. (b) d = nλ / 2sinθ is false 15. (a) Threshold energy
22. (c) non polar molecular solid 17. (a) First order 16. (a) Both A and R are correct
18. (c) (1.3 x 10-1 mol L-1s-1) and and R is the correct
7. Chemical Kinetics (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) explanation of A.
19. (d) 3.0 mol min-1 17. (a) Both A and R are correct
1. (c) (1 x 10-2) e-60x 20. (a) Zero and R is not correct
2. (c) 20 min 21. (b) 30 minutes explanation of A
3. 22. (d) 116 g 18. (b) Both A and R are correct
23. (b) The half life of a first order but R is not correct explanation
reaction does not depend on of A
[A0]; the half life of a second
4. (d) Without knowing the rate order reaction does depend on
constant, t1/2 cannot be [A0]
determined from the given 24. (c) 30 minutes
data
5. (c) 1.5k1 = 3 k2 = k3 ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
6. (c) rate is independent of the 1. (c) mol L-1 s-1
surface coverage 2. (a) First order
7. (b) (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L- 3. (c) s-1
1 s-1) 4. (d) 1
8. (b) Activation energy 5. (b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester
9. (a) (ii) only 6. (c) loo seconds

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37
 Note:

 I hope this material will be useful for practice the evaluation and additional MCQ with
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 If any mistakes or your suggestions, please send your valuable thoughts to that email
to help the students
 It has been updated on January 2021

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P.G. ASSISTANT IN CHEMISTRY
&
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UTHAMAPALAYAM

THENI [DT]

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“THANK GOD AND THANK YOU ALL”

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 Namma Kalvi

UNITWISE
EVALUATION and ADDITIONAL
ONE MARK QUESTIONS with
ANSWER KEY

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CONTENTS

SN TOPIC PAGE NO

1 8. Ionic Equilibrium 3

2 9. Electro Chemistry 7

3 10. Surface Chemistry 14

4 11. Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 19

5 12. Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 26

6 13. Organic Nitrogen Compounds 33

7 14. Biomolecules 39

8 15. Chemistry in Everyday Life 45

2
 8. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

Choose the correct answer:

1. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.24 ×10-4mol L-1
solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is a) 2.42 ×10-8mol3L-3 b) 2.66 ×10-12 mol3L-3
c) 4.5 ×10-11 mol3L-3 d) 5.619 × 10–12 mol3L-3
2. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH of HCl different
concentrations.
i. 60 mL M/10 HCl + 40mL M/10 NaOH
ii. 55 mL M/10 HCl + 45 mL M/10 NaOH
iii. 75 mL M/5 HCl + 25mL M/5 NaOH
iv. 100 mL M/10 HCl + 100 mL M/10 NaOH
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? a) iv b) i c) ii d) iii
3. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 ×10-3gL-1 at 298K. The value of its solubility product
Ksp will be (NEET -2018). (Given molar mass of BaSO4 =233g mol -1)
a) 1.08 ×10-14mol2L-2 b)1.08 ×10-12mol2L-2
c) 1.08 ×10-10mol2L-2 d) 1.08 ×10-8mol2L-2
4. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The Solubility product of Ca(OH)2
a) 0.5 ×10-15 b) 0.25 ×10-10 c) 0.125 ×10-15 d) 0.5 ×10-10
5. Conjugate base for bronsted acids H O 2 and HF are
a) OH- and H2 FH+ , respectively b) H3O+ and F- , respectively
c) OH- and F- , respectively d) H3O+ and H2F+ , respectively
6. Which will make basic buffer?
a) 50 mL of 0.1M NaOH+25mL of 0.1M CH3COOH
b) 100 mL of 0.1M CH3 COOH+100 mL of 0.1M NH4OH
c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+200 mL of 0.1M NH4OH
d) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+100 mL of 0.1M NaOH
7. Which of the following fluro – compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
a) BF3 b) PF3 C) CF4 d) SiF4
3
8. Which of these is not likely to act as lewis base? a) BF3 b) PF3 C) CO d) F–
9. The aqueous solutions of sodium formate, anilinium chloride and potassium cyanide are
Respectively a) acidic, acidic, basic b) basic, acidic, basic
c) basic, neutral, basic d) none of these
10. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5NH) in a 0.10M
aqueous pyridine solution Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 ×10 -9) is
a) 0.006% b) 0.013% c) 0.77% d) 1.6%
11. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 1,2 and 3 are mixed in a vessel. What will be
the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?
a) 3.7 ×10-2 b) 10-6 c) 0.111 d) none of these
12. The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility product 1.6 ×10-10 in 0.1M NaCl solution would be
a) 1.26 × 10-5M b) 1.6 ×10-9M c) 1.6 ×10-11M d) Zero
13. If the solubility product of lead iodide is 3.2 ×10-8 , its solubility will be
a) 2×10-3M b) 4 ×10-4M c) 1.6 ×10-5M d) 1.8 ×10-5M
14. MY and NY3 , are insoluble salts and have the same Ksp values of 6.2 ×10-13 at room
temperature. Which statement would be true with regard to MY and NY3 ?
a) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5M KY than in pure water
b) The addition of the salt of KY to the suspension of MY and NY3 will have no effect
on their solubility’s
c) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
d) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
15. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1M NaOH and 0.01M
HCl are mixed? a) 2.0 b) 3 c) 7.0 d) 12.65
16. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1×10-3 . In order to prepare a buffer solution
with a pH = 4, the [Acid] / [Salt] ratio should be a) 4:3 b) 3:4 c) 10:1 d) 1:10
17. The pH of 10-5M KOH solution will be
a) 9 b) 5 c) 19 d) none of these

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18. H2 PO 4-- the conjugate base of

a) PO43− b) P2O5 c) H3 PO4 d) HPO42-
19. Which of the following can act as lowery – Bronsted acid well as base?
a) HCl b) SO42− c) HPO42− d) Br-
20. The pH of an aqueous solution is Zero. The solution is
a) slightly acidic b) strongly acidic c) neutral d) basic
21. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salts
is given by
a) [H ] + =Ka [acid] / [salt] b) [H+] = Ka [salt] c) [H+]=Ka [acid] d) [H= ]=Ka [salt] / [acid]
22. Which of the following relation is correct for degree of hydrolysis of ammonium
acetate? a) h = (Kh/C) ½ b) h = (Ka/Kb) ½ c) h = (Kh/Ka Kb) ½ d) h = (Ka Kb / Kh) ½
23. Dissociation constant of NH4 OH is 1.8 x 10-5 the hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl would be
a) 1.8 ×10-19 b) 5.55 ×10-10 c) 5.55 ×10-5 d) 1.80 ×10-5

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
1. Which of the following is present in an antacid tablet?
(a) NaOH (b) Mg(OH)2 (c) Al(OH)3 (d) either (b) or (c)
2. Which of the following can act as an acid as well as base by Lowry – Bronsted theory?
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) NH4OH (d) Ca(OH)2
3. In the reaction HCI + H2O ⇌ H3O + Cl– which one of the acid-base pair?
(a) HCl + H3O+ (b) HCI + CI– (c) H3O + Cl (d) H2O + Cl–
4. In [Cr(H2O)6]3+ which one of the following acts as Lewis acid?
(a) Cr (b) Cr3+ (c) (HO)6 (d) Cr3-
5. The value of ionic product of water at 25°C is ………………..
(a) 1 x 10-7 (b) 1 x 107 (c) 1 x 10-14 (d) 1 x 1014
6. The pH of 0.001 M HCI solution is ………
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 11

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7. Which of the following is not a buffer solution?
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (b) NH4OH + NH4Cl (c) H2CO3 + NaHCO3 (d) NaOH + NaCI
8. The conjugate base of H2O and H2SO4 are …………..
(a) OH– and HSO4 (b) H4O and SO42 -
(c) OH and SO42- (d) H3O and HSO4
9. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1.0 x 10-10. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
with strong base is (a) 1.0 x 10-5 (b) 1.0 x 10-9 (c) 1.0 x 109 (d) 1.0 x 1014
10. The pH of a solution at 25°C containing 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.03 M acetic acid is …………..
(pKa for CH3COOH = 4.57) (a) 4.09 (b) 5.09 (c) 6.10 (d) 7.09
11. A weak acid is 0.1% ionised in 0.1 M solution. Its pH is …………..
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
12. The pH of pure water or neutral solution at 50°C is …………… (pKw = 13.2613 at 50°C)
(a) 7.0 (b) 7.13 (c) 6.0 (d) 6.63
13. What is the pH of 1 M CH3COOH solution?. Ka of acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5. K = 10-14 mol2 litre2.
(a) 9.4 (b) 4.8 (c) 3.6 (d) 2.4
14. The pH of 0.001 M NaOH will be ………….(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 12
15. When solid potassium cyanide is added in water then ……………
(a) pH will increase (b) pH will decrease
(c) pH will remain the same (d) electrical conductivity will not change
16. pH of a solution is 5. Its hydroxyl ion concentration is …………..
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 10-5 (d) 10-9
17. Which one of the following is a buffer?
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
(c) NaOH + NaCI (d) CH3COOH + NH4CI
18. By adding a strong acid to the buffer solution, the pH of the buffer solution ……………..
(a) remains constant (b) increases (c) decreases (d) becomes zero
19. The unit of ionic product of water K is ……………
(a) mol-1 L-1 (b) mol-2 L-2 (c) mol-2 L-1 (d) mol2 L-2

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20. What is the correct representation of the solubility product constant of Ag2CrO4?
(a) [Ag+]2 [CrO4-2] (b) [Ag+] [CrO4-2] (c) [2Ag+] [CrO4-2] (d) [2Ag+]2 [CrO4-2]
21. Which pair will show common ion effect?
(a) BaCI2 + Ba(NO3)2 (b) NaCI + HCI (c) NH4OH + NH4CI (d) AgCN + KCN

9. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. The number of electrons that have a total charge of 9650 coulombs is
a) 6.22 ×1023 b) 6.022 ×1024 c) 6.022 ×1022 d) 6.022 ×10−34
2. Consider the following half cell reactions: Mn2+ + 2e− → Mn E° = -1.18V
Mn2+ → Mn3+ + e- E = -1.51V
The E° for the reaction 3Mn2+ →Mn+2Mn3+ , and the possibility of the forward reaction
are respectively. a) 2.69V and spontaneous b) -2.69 and non spontaneous
c) 0.33V and Spontaneous d) 4.18V and non spontaneous
3. The button cell used is watches function as follows
Zn (s) + Ag2 O (s) + H2 O (l ↔) 2 Ag (s) + Zn2+ (aq) + 2OH- (aq)
the half cell potentials are Ag 2O (s) + H O (l) + 2e- → 2Ag (s) + 2 OH- (aq) E° = 0.34V
The cell potential will be a) 0.84V b) 1.34V c) 1.10V d) 0.42V
4. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity
of 5.76 ×10−3 S cm−1at 298 K is a) 2.88 S cm2mol-1 b) 11.52 S cm2mol-1
c) 0.086 S cm2mol-1 d) 28.8 S cm2 mol -1
5.

Calculate Λ° HOAC using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at
infinite dilution in water at 25° C . a) 517.2 b) 552.7 c) 390.7 d) 217.5
6. Faradays constant is defined as
a) charge carried by 1 electron b) charge carried by one mole of electrons
c) charge required to deposit one mole of substance d) charge carried by 6.22 ×1010 electrons.

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7. How many faradays of electricity are required for the following reaction to occur
MnO4- → Mn2+ a) 5F b) 3F c) 1F d) 7F
8. A current strength of 3.86 A was passed through molten Calcium oxide for 41minutes and
40 seconds. The mass of Calcium in grams deposited at the cathode is (atomic mass of Ca
is 40g / mol and 1F = 96500C). a) 4 b) 2 c) 8 d) 6
9. During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.1mol of
chlorine gas using a current of 3A is
a) 55 minutes b) 107.2 minutes c) 220 minutes d) 330 minutes
10. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1A in
60 seconds is (charge of electron = 1.6 ×10 −19C )
a) 6.22 ×1023 b) 6.022 ×1020 c) 3.75 ×1020 d) 7.48 ×1023
11. Which of the following electrolytic solution has the least specific conductance
a) 2N b) 0.002N c) 0.02N d) 0.2N
12. While charging lead storage battery
a) PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to Pb b) PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to PbO2
c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb d) PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb
13. Among the following cells I) Leclanche cell II) Nickel – Cadmium cell
III) Lead storage battery IV) Mercury cell
Primary cells are a) I and IV b) I and III c) III and IV d) II and III
14. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is
Because a) Zinc is lighter than iron b) Zinc has lower melting point than iron
c) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
d) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
15. Assertion : pure iron when heated in dry air is converted with a layer of rust.
Reason : Rust has the compositionFe3O4
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.

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16. In H2 -O2 fuel cell the reaction occur at cathode is
a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e− → 4OH− (aq) b) H+(aq) + OH− (aq) → H2O (l)
c) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) d) H+ + e- → ½ H2
17. The equivalent conductance of M/36 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 6mho cm2
equivalent -1 and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2 equivalent -1. The dissociation constant of this
acid is a) 1.25 ×10−6 b) 6.25× 10 -6 c) 1.25 ×10−4 d) 6.25× 10 -5
18. A conductivity cell has been calibrated with a 0.01M, 1:1 electrolytic solution (specific
conductance ( k =1. 25 × 10-3 S cm−1) in the cell and the measured resistance was 800 ohm at
25°C . The cell constant is, a) 10−1 c m−1 b) 101 c m−1 c) 1 c m−1 d) 5.7 10 -12
19. Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB (1:1 electrolyte) at 298K is
1.85 ×10−5 S m−1 . Solubility product of the salt AB at 298K (Λ° m ) –AB = 14 ×10−3 S m2 mol−1 .
a) 5.7 × 10 -12 b) 1.32 ×10 -12 c) 7.5 ×10 -12 d) 1.74 10 -12
20. In the electrochemical cell: Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01M) || CuSO4 (1.0M) | Cu , the emf of this Daniel
cell is E1. When the concentration of is changed to 1.0M and that CuSO4 changed
to 0.01M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between
E1 and E2? a) E1 < E2 b) E1 > E2 c) E2 E1 d) E1 = E2
21. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the diagram below: Then the species undergoing disproportional is

a) Br2 b) BrO4− c) BrO3- d) HBrO

22. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq) + 2l−(aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + l2 (aq)
E° cell = 0.24V at 298K. The standard Gibbs energy (Δ, G°) of the cell reactions is :
a) -46.32 KJ mol−1 b) -23.16 KJ mol−1 c) 46.32 KJ mol−1 d) 23.16 KJ mol−1
23. A certain current liberated 0.504gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper
can be liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution
a) 31.75 b) 15.8 c) 7.5 d) 63.5

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24. A gas X at 1 atm is bubble through a solution containing a mixture of 1MY- and 1MZ- at
25°C . If the reduction potential of Z > Y > X, then
a) Y will oxidize X and not Z b) Y will oxidize Z and not X
c) Y will oxidize both X and Z d) Y will reduce both X and Z
25. Cell equation : A + 2B- →A2++2B;
A2 + + 2e- → A E° = +0.34 V and log 10 K = 15.6 at 300K for cell reactions find E° for
B + + e− → B (AIIMS – 2018) a) 0.80 b) 1.26 c) -0.54 d) -10.94

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
1. Electro chemical reactions are generally (a) Reduction reactions (b) oxidation reactions
(c) Redox reactions (d) condensation reactions
2. The unit of resistivity is (a) Ω m-1 (b) Ω m (c) m-1Ohm2 (d) Ω-1m-1
3. The unit of specific resistance is equal to
(a) Ohm metre (b) Ohm-1 metre (c) Ohm-1 metre-1 (d) Ohm
4. Which is the SI unit of conductance?
(a) Siemen-1 (or) S-1 (b) Siemen (or) S (c) Sm-1 (d) S-1m-1
5. Which one is the unit of specific conductance?
(a) Ohm m (b) Ohm-1 m (c) Ohm m-1 (d) Ohm-1 m-1.
6. The unit of equivalent conductance is …………
(a) Sm2g equivalent (b) Sm-1 (c) Ohm-1m-1 (d) Ohm m
7. Which one of the following is used to measure conductivity of ionic solutions?
(a) metre scale (b) wheat stone bridge (c) Dynamo (d) Ammeter
8. Which of the following is used to calculate the conductivity of strong electrolytes?
(a) Kohlraush’s law (b) Henderson equation
(c) Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation (d) Ostwald’s dilution law
9. Which one of the following represents Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation?

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10. Kohlrausch’s law is applied to calculate
(a) molar conductance at infinite dilution of a weak electrolyte
(b) degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte
(c) solubility of a sparingly soluble salt
(d) all the above
11. The salt bridge used in Daniel cell contains
(a) Na2SO4 + NaCl (b) Agar-Agar gel + Na2SO4
(c) Silica gel + CuSO4 (d) ZnSO4 + CuSO4
12. Which one of the following can act as an inert electrode?
(a) Graphite (b) Copper (c) Platinum (d) either a (or) e
13. The emf of Daniel cell Zn(s) + Zn2+aq(1m) || Cu2+aq(1m) | Cu(S) iS equal to …………
(a) – 1.107 Volts (b) 1.107 Volts (c) 3.4 Volt (d) 7.6 Volt
14. The value of EMF of standard hydrogen electrode at 25°C is …………
(a) maximum (b) zero (c) negative (d) positive
15. The electrode used in SHE is made of ………….
(a) graphite (b) copper (c) platinum (d) iron
16. The maximum work that can be obtained from a galvanic cell is ………..
(a) + nFE (b) – nFE (c) 2F (d) 96500 F
17. For all spontaneous cell reactions, the value of ?G should be ………….
(a) constant (b) zero (c) negative (d) positive
18. The value of one Faraday is equal to …………..
(a) 96400 C (b) 96500 C (c) 1 .602 x 10-19C (d) 1 .602 x 1019C
19. Which equation relates the cell potential and the concentration of the species involved in an
electro chemical reaction? (a) Henderson equation (b) Arrhenius equation
(c) Debye Huckel Onsagar equation (d) Nemst equation

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20. Which one of the following is Nernst equation.

21. Which one of the following represents Faraday’s first law?

(a) m = Zit (b) m = Z/It (c) m = It/Z (d) Z = mIt
22. When 1 coulomb of electric current is passed the amount of substance deposited or liberated is
known as (a) equivalent mass (b) electro chemical equivalent
(c) molar mass (d) 1 Faraday
23. Which one of the following is used in cell phone, dry cell in flashlight?
(a) Zn – Cu battery (b) Li – ion battery (c) Ag – Cu battery (d) Na, NaCI battery
24. The primary batteries are ………..
(a) rechargeable (b) non – rechargeable (c) reversible (d) renewable
25. The anode and cathode used in Leclanche cell are ………… respectively.
(a) Zinc, Graphite rod with MnO2 (b) Graphite rod in MnO2 and Zinc container
(c) Zn container and copper rod (d) Copper container and Zinc rod
26. Which electrolyte is used in Leclanche cell?
(a) ZnSO4 + CuSO4 (b) NH4CI + ZnCl2 (c) NaCI + CuSO4 (d) MnSO4 + MnO2
27. Which one of the following is used as cathode in Mercury button cell?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Zinc amalgamated with mercury (d) HgO mixed with graphite
28. Which one of the following is used as anode in Mercury button cell?
(a) HgO mixed with graphite (b) Zinc amalgamated with mercury
(c) Copper amalgamated with Mercury (d) HgO mixed with Copper
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29. The value of cell emf of Mercury button cell is ………..

(a) 1.35V (b) – 076V (c) 0.34V (d) 100V
30. The electrolyte used in Mercury button cell is (a) Paste of kOH and ZnO
(b) CuSO4 + ZnSO4 (c) NaCl + MgCl2 (d) NH4CI + ZnCl2
31. Which of the following is an example of secondary batteries?
(a) Mercury button cell (b) Leclanche cell (c) Lead storage battery (d) Daniel cell
32. Which of the following act as cathode and anode in Lead storage battery?
(a) Lead plate bearing PbO2, spongy Lead (b) Spongy lead, lead plate bearing PbO2
(c) Lead Copper (d) Mercury oxide, PbO
33. Which one of the following is used as an electrolyte in H2O2 fuel cell?
(a) Aqueous CuSO4 (b) Aqueous CoO2 (c) Aqueous KOH (d) NH4CI + ZnCI2
34. The formula of rust is ………..
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe2O3.xH2O (c) FeO (d) FeO.xH2O
35. The electro plating of Zinc over a metal is called …………..
(a) Electrolysis (b) Redox reaction (c) Galvanisation (d) Passivation
36. Which amount of chlorine gas liberated at anode, if 1 ampere current is passed for 30 minutes
from NaCI solution? (a) 0.66 moles (b) 0.33 moles (c) 0.66 g (d) 0.33 g

10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY

1. For freudlich isotherm a graph of log x/m is plotted against log P. The slope of the line and
its y – axis intercept respectively corresponds to
a) 1/n, k b) log 1/n, k c) 1/n, log k d) log 1/n, log k
2. Which of the following is incorrect for physisorption?
a) reversible b) increases with increase in temperature
c) low heat of adsorption d) increases with increase in surface area
3. Which one of the following characteristics are associated with adsorption? (NEET)
a) ΔG and ΔHare negative but ΔS is positive b) ΔGand ΔS are negative but ΔH is positive
c) ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive d)ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative.
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4. Fog is colloidal solution of a) solid in gas b) gas in gas c) liquid in gas d) gas in liquid
5. Assertion : Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Na+ .
Reason : greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause
precipitation
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.
6. Statement : To stop bleeding from an injury, ferric chloride can be applied. Which comment
about the statement is justified? a) It is not true, ferric chloride is a poison.
b) It is true, Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol
c) It is not true; ferric chloride is ionic and gets into the blood stream.
d) It is true, coagulation takes place because of formation of negatively charged sol with Cl -.
7. Hair cream is a) gel b) emulsion c) solid sol d) sol.
8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Emulsion – Smoke
b) Gel – butter
c) foam – Mist
d) whipped cream – sol
9. The most effective electrolyte for the coagulation of As2 S3 Sol is
a) NaCl b) Ba (NO3) 2 c) K3 [Fe(CN)6] d) Al2 (SO4) 3
10. Which one of the is not a surfactant? a) CH3 (CH2)15 N+ (CH3)2 CH2Br
b) CH3 (CH2) 15 NH2 c) CH3 ( CH2 ) 16 CH2 OSO2 - Na+ d) OHC (CH2) 14 CH2 COO- Na+
11. The phenomenon observed when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution is
a) Cataphoresis b) Electrophoresis c) Coagulation d) Tyndall effect
12. In an electrical field, the particles of a colloidal system move towards cathode. The
coagulation of the same sol is studied using K2 SO4 (i), Na3 PO4 (ii),K4 [Fe(CN6) ] (iii)
and NaCl (iv) Their coagulating power should be
a) II > I>IV > III b) III > II > I > IV c) I > II > III > IV d) none of these

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13. Collodion is a 4% solution of which one of the following compounds in alcohol – ether
mixture? a) Nitroglycerine b) Cellulose acetate c) Glycoldinitrate d) Nitrocellulose
14. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?
a) manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process b) manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact
process c) hydrogenation of oil d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of all HCl
15. Match the following
A) V2O5 - i) High density polyethylene
B) Ziegler – Natta - ii) PAN
C) Peroxide - iii) NH3
D) Finely divided Fe - iv) H2 SO4
A B C D
a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
16. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of
As2S3 are given below (I) (NaCl)=52 (II) ((BaCl2 )=0.69 (III) (MgSO4 )=0.22
The correct order of their coagulating power is
a) III > II > I b) I > II > III c) I > III > II d) II > III>I
17. Adsorption of a gas on solid metal surface is spontaneous and exothermic, then
a) ΔH increases b) ΔS increases c) ΔG increases d) ΔS decreases
18. If x is the amount of adsorb ate and m is the amount of adsorbent, which of the following
relations is not related to adsorption process?
a) x/m=f(P) at constant T b) x/m=f(T) at constant P
c) P = f(T) at constant m/x d) x/m= PT
19. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?
(NEET – 2018) a) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion. b) Size of the ion alone
c) the magnitude of the charge on the ion alone d) the sign of charge on the ion alone.

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20. Match the following

A) Pure nitrogen - i) Chlorine
B) Haber process - ii) Sulphuric acid
C) Contact process - iii) Ammonia
D) Deacons Process - iv) sodium azide (or) Barium azide
Which of the following is the correct option?
A B C D
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. When gas molecules are held to the surface by the formation of chemical bond the heat energy
released is nearly equal to
(a) 40 kJ/mole (b) 800 kJ/mole (c) 400 kJ/mole (d) 4 kJ/mole
2. Consider the following statements:
(i) In chemisorption, heat of adsorption is high
(ii) Monolayer of the adsorbate is formed during chemisorption
(iii) Physisorption increases with increase in temperature.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct’?
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) only (c) (ii) only (d) (i) only
3. Which of the following gases is not a permanent gas?
(a) NH3 (b) H2 (c) N2 (d) O2
4. Which is employed in the softening of hardwater to absorb Ca 2+ and Mg2+ ions?
(a) Alumina (b) Silica gel (c) Permutit (d) Charcoal
5. Which of the following is used in petroleum refining and refining of vegetable oils?
(a) Charcoal (b) Silica gel (c) Pcrmutit (d) Nickel

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6. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils to obtain vanaspathi is …………
(a) Iron (b) Molybdenum (c) Nickel (d) Copper
7. The catalyst and promoter used in Haber’s process are respectively ………..
(a) Mo, Fe (b) Fe, Mo (c) Pt, H2S (d) Pt, V2O5
8. Which method is used for identification, detection and estimation of many substances even if
they are in micro quantities?
(a) Lassaigne’s test (b) Canus method (c) Kjeldhals method (d) Chromatography
9. Which one of the following is an example for heterogeneous catalysis?
(a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde by I2 catalyst
(b) Decomposition of H2O2 in the presence of Pt catalyst
(c) Acid hydrolysis of ester
(d) Hydrolysis of cane sugar with mineral acid
10. The catalyst poison in contact process of manufacture of SO3 is …………
(a) As2O3 (b) H2S (c) CO (d) As2S3
11. In Haber’s process of manufacture of ammonia, the Fe catalyst is poisoned by the pressure of
(a) Mo (b) Co (c) H2S (d) As2O3
12. In the reaction 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O acts as a catalytic poison for Pt catalyst.
(a) Co (b) Mo (c) As2O3 (d) H2S
13. The negative catalyst in the decomposition of H2O2 is …………..
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Ethanoic acid (d) Methanol
14. The energy required for the reactants to reach the activated complex is called …………
(a) threshold energy (b) activation energy (c) internal energy (d) Gibbs free energy
15. Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of glucose into ethanol?
(a) maltase (b) invertase (c) diastase (d) zymase
16. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the conversion of Lindane to cyclohexane?
(a) Fe°/Pd° (b) Ni (c) Zn + HCl (d) LiAIH4
17. An example of liquid aerosol is ………..
(a) Soda water (b) Milk (c) Fog (d) Inks

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18. Which method is used to prepare metal sols?
(a) ultrasonic dispersion (b) mechanical dispersion (c) Bredigs arc method (d) peptisation
19. Which method is used to prepare mercury colloid?
(a) peptisation (b) mechanical dispersion (c) ultrasonic dispersion (d) Bredig’s arc method
20. The conversion of a precipitate into colloid is called …………..
(a) coagulation (b) hydrolysis (c) condensation (d) peptisation
21. The process of conversion of colloidal solution into precipitate is known as …………..
(a) peptisation (b) dispersion (c) coagulation (d) decomposition
22. Which of the following is the size of the colloidal particle?
(a) 100 μm diameter – 1000 μm diameter (b) 1 mμ to 1 μm diameter
(c) 1 mμ to 100 μm diameter (d) 1 μm to 1 μm diameter
23. The shape of tungstic acid W3O5 sol is ………….
(a) spherical (b) disc (c) plate like (d) rod like
24. Which one of the following colloid has spherical shape?
(a) AS2S3 (b) Fe(OH)3 (c) W3O5 (d) dust
25. Tyndall effect is possible in colloid due to ……………
(a) absorption of light (b) adsorption of light (c) scattering of light (d) reflection of light
26. The migration of sol particles under the influence of electric field is called ……………
(a) electro osmosis (b) electro dialysis (c) electrophoresis (d) dialysis
27. The movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric potential is called ………….
(a) Electrophoresis (b) Cataphoresis (c) Electro osmosis (d) Electro dialysis
28. Which one of the following is not used to identify the types of emulsion?
(a) dye test (b) viscosity test (c) conductivity test (d) Tollen’s test
29. Which one of the following is used in the purification of drinking water?
(a) silver sol protected by gelatin (b) milk of magnesia
(c) Alum containing Al3+ (d) Argyrol
30. Which one of the following is used in tanning of leather?
(a) chromium salt (b) colloidal Au (c) Argyrol (d) Fe (OH)3

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31. Which one of the following is used to distinguish Natural honey and artificial honey?
(a) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (b) Fehling’s solution (c) Arsenic suiphide sol (d) gelatin
32. Gold number gives ………………..
(a) the amount of gold present in the colloid
(b) the amount of gold required to break the colloid
(c) the amount of gold required to protect the colloid
(d) the measure of protective power of a lyophillic colloid

11. HYDROXY COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS

1. An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in victormayer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with
metallic sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the
possible structure of X? a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3 b) CH3 – CH (OH) – CH3
c) CH3 – C (OH) – (CH3) 2 d) CH3- CH2 –CH (OH) – CH2 – CH3
2. Which of the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide will give
tertiary alcohol. a) benzaldehyde b) propanoic acid c) methyl propanoate d) acetaldehyde

3.

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4. In the reaction sequence, . A and X respectively are
a) Chloroethane and NaOH b) ethanol and H2SO4
c) 2 – chloroethan -1-ol and NaHCO3 d) ethanol and H2O
5. Which one of the following is the strongest acid
a) 2 - nitrophenol b) 4 – chlorophenol c) 4 – nitrophenol d) 3 – nitrophenol
6. on treatment with Con H SO 2 4, predominately gives

7. Carbolic acid is
a) Phenol b) Picri cacid d) benzoic acid d) phenylacetic acid
8. Which one of the following will react with phenol to give salicyladehyde after hydrolysis.
a) Dichlo methane b) trichloroethane c) trichloro methane d) CO2

9. (CH3) 3 - C - CH(OH) CH3 X (major product)

a) (CH3) 3 CCH = CH2 b) (CH3 ) 2 C = C (CH3 ) 2
c) CH2 = C(CH3 )CH2 – CH2 - CH3 d) CH2 = C (CH3 ) – CH2 – CH2 - CH3
10. The correct IUPAC name of the compound,
a) 4 – chloro – 2,3 – dimethyl pentan – 1-ol
b) 2,3 – dimethyl – 4- chloropentan -1-ol
c) 2,3,4 – trimethyl – 4- chlorobutan -1-ol
d) 4 – chloro – 2,3,4 – trimethyl pentan – 1-ol
11. Assertion : Phenol is more acidic than ethanol Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.

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12. In the reaction
The ‘Z’ is
a) ethane b) ethoxyethane c) ethylbisulphite d) ethanol
13. The reaction Can be classified as

a) dehydration b) Williams on alcoholsynthesis

c) Williamson ether synthesis d) dehydrogenation of alcohol
14. Isoprophylbenzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives
a) C6H5 COOH b) C6 H5 COCH3 c) C6 H5 COC6 H5 d) C6 H5 - OH
15. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized by
resonance.
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.
16. HO CH2 CH2 – OH on heating with periodic acid gives
a) methanoic acid b) Glyoxal c) methanol d) CO2
17. Which of the following compound can be used as artireeze in automobile rediators?
a) methanol b) ethanol c) Neopentyl alcohol d) ethan -1, 2-diol
18. The reactions is an example of
a) Wurtz reaction b) cyclic reaction
c) Williamson reaction d) Kolbe reactions
19. One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C3 H8 O reacts completely with
two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the
iodoform test. The compound (A) is
a) propan – 2-ol b) propan -1-ol c) ethoxy ethane d) methoxy ehane
20. Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot
HI?

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21. Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an /

a) SN1 reactions b) SN2 reaction
c) electrophilic addition d) electrophilic substitution
22. On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives
a) red colour b) violet colour c) dark green colour d) no colouration.
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
1. Which one of the following is named as sorbital?

2. Which one of the following is a primary alcohol?

3. Which of the following is a dihydric alcohol?

(a) Ethenol (b) Ethanol ] (c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol (d) Propan – 2 – ol
4. Which one of the following is an example of secondary (2°) alcohol?
(a) Propan – 2 – ol (b) Phenyl methanol (c) Ethenol (d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol
5. Which acts as an additive to petrol?
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethanol (c) Phenol (d) Methanol

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6. The IUPAC name of

(a) 1 – methyl – 2 – propanol (b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol

(c) Tertibutyl alcohol (d) 2 – propanol
7. The TUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH2OH is …………
(a) Allyl alcohol (b) Propenc – 2 – ol (c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI (d) Isopropyl alcohol
8. Which one of the following is named as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) acidified K2Cr2O7 (b) acidified KMnO4 (c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 (d) LiAlH4
9. Which one of the following is called Lucas reagent?
(a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous A1CI3
(c) LiAIH4 + H2O (d) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4
10. Which colour is given by secondary alcohol in Victor Meyer’s test?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Yellow
11. Which mechanism is followed in the conversion of ethanol to bromoethane by HBr?
(a) SN1 mechanism (b) SN2 mechanism (c) E1 mechanism (d) E2 mechanism
12. Which one of the following is the correct order of relative reactivities of alcohols in the
dehydration reaction? (a) 1° < 2° < 3° (b) 2° < 1° < 3° (c) 3° < 2° < 1° (d) 3° < 1° < 2°
13. Which reaction is used to convert alcohol to ketone / aldehyde in the presence of DMSO?
(a) Lucas test (b) Swern oxidation (c) Biological oxidation (d) Kolbe’s reaction
14. What is the name of the reaction between ethanol and ethanoic acid?
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification (c) Ethenfication (d) Hydroxylation
15. What is the product formed when ethylene glycol is heated at 773 K?
(a) Ethanal (b) Ethene (c) Ethane (d) Oxirane
16. Which one of the following is formed when ethane – 1, 2 – diol is treated with Conc. H2 SO4?
(a) 1, 4 – dioxane (b) Ethanal (c) Ethanoic acid (d) Ethene

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17. Which one of the following is formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?
(a) Methanal (b) Methanol (c) Ethanol (d) Ethanal
18. Identify the product formed when glycerol is treated with nitric acid and conc. H 2SO4?
(a) Nitroglycerine (b) Glyceryl triacetate (c) Prop – 2 – enal (d) Glyceric acid
19. Oxidation of glycerol with dil.HNO3 gives ………
(a) Meso oxalic acid (b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid
(c) Glycerose (d) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxy acetone
20. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidity in alcohol?
(a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol (b) 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol
(c) 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol > 3° alcohol (d) 3° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol
21. The other name of 1 , 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is called ……….
(a) Pholoroglucinol (b) Quinol (c) Pyrogallol (d) Hydroxy quinol
22. The IUPAC name of Catechol is known as ………..
(a) 1 , 3 – dihydroxy benzene (b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene
(c) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene (d) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene
23. The reaction of chiorobenzene with NaOH is known as ………..
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Riemcr – Ticmann reaction (c) Dow’s process (d) Cumene synthesis
24. What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with zinc dust?
(a) Cumene (b) Toluene (c) Ethyl benzene (d) Benzene
25. The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ……….
(a) Dow’s process (b) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(c) Reimer – Tiemann reaction (d) Williamson ether synthesis
26. Which one of the following is formed when phenol reacts with a mixture of Conc. HNO3 and
Conc.H2SO4? (a) Ortho nitro phenol (b) Para nitro phenol
(c) 1, 2 – dinitro phenol (d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol
27. The conversion reaction of phenol of salicylic acid is known as
(a) Schottan – Baumann reaction (b) Riemer – Ticmann reaction
(c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction (d) Williamson’s synthesis

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28. What is the name of the reaction of phenol with chloroform and aqueous alkali?
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Cumene synthesis
(c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction (d) Schottan – Baumann reaction
29. Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with chloroform and sodium
hydroxide. (a) Chiorobenzene (b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Salicylic acid (d) Aniline
30. Which one of the following is formed when Phenol reacts with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) P – hyclroxy diazo phenol (b) P – hydroxy azo benzene
(c) O – hydroxy benzene (d) O – hydroxy azo benzene
31. Bakelite is formed when phenol reacts with ………..
(a) Methanol (b) Methanal (c) Ethanal (d) Ethanol
32. Which one of the following is an example for mixed ether?
(a) Methoxy methane (b) Phenoxy benzene (c) Methoxy benzene (d) Ethoxy ethane
33. Identify the product formed when ethanol is treated with Conc.H 2SO4 at 413 K?
(a) Ethene (b) Ethane (c) 2 – butanol (d) Diethyl ether
34. The mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis is …………
(a) E1 (b) E2 (c) SN2 (d) SN1
35. Anisole undergoes bromination with Br2 in acetic acid in the absence of catalyst, the major
product formed is (a) O – bromoan isole (b) P – bromoan isole
(c) Benzyl bromide (d) Bromo benzene
36. Which one of the following is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery?
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethoxy ethane (c) Methoxy ethane (d) Methoxy propane
37. Oxygen atom in ether is …………
(a) very active (b) replacable (c) comparatively inert (d) less active

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 12. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS

1. The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction (NEET)

2. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of

a) nucleophilic substitution b) electrophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition d) Nucleophilic addition
3. Reaction of acetone with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition
followed by elimination of water. The reagent is
a) Grignard reagent b) Sn / HCl
c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution d) hydrocyanic acid
4. In the following reaction,
Product ‘X’ will not give
a) Tollen’s test b) Victor meyer test c) Iodoform test d) Fehling solution test
5.

a) Formaldelyde b)diacetoneammonia c) hexamethylenetetraamine d) oxime

6. Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions

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7. Assertion: 2,2 – dimethyl propanoic acid does not give HVZ reaction.
Reason: 2 – 2, dimethyl propanoic acid does not have – - hydrogen atom
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.
8. Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds

9.
a) anilinium chloride b) O – nitro aniline
c) benzene diazonium chloride d) m – nitro benzoic acid

10 . Ethanoic acid 2 – bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is called

a) Finkelstein reaction b) Haloform reaction
c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction d) none of these
11 .

a) acetylchloride b) chloro acetic acid c) α- chlorocyano ethanoic acid d) none of these

12. Which one of the following reduces tollens reagent a) formic acid b) acetic acid
c) benzophenone d) none of these
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14. The IUPAC name of

a) but – 3- enoicacid b) but – 1- ene-4-oicacid
c) but – 2- ene-1-oic acid d) but -3-ene-1-oicacid
15.

16.

17. Assertion : p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin condensation

Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.

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18. Which one of the following reaction is an example of disproporationation reaction
a) Aldol condensation b) cannizaro reaction c) Benzoin condensation d) none of these
19. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to
give the corresponding alcohol and acid a) Phenylmethanal b) ethanal
c) ethanol d) methanol
20. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
a) Tollens reagent b) Fehling’s solution c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine d) semicarbazide
21. Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y. X
reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are
a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol
c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate d) none of these
22. In which of the following reactions new carbon – carbon bond is not formed?
a) Aldol condensation b) Friedel craft reaction c) Kolbe’s reaction d) Wolf kishner reduction
23. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn – H2 O gives propanone and ethanol in equimolar
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product
“B” is

24. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their (NEET)
a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
b) formation of carboxylate ion
c) formation of intramolecular H-bonding d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding

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 ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
1. The IUPAC name of Acrolein is (a) Prop – 2 – enal (b) Propanal
(c) Ethenal (d) 1 – butanal
2. The conversion of acetyl chloride to acetaldehyde by the action of Pd/BaSO 4 is called ………………..
(a) Perkin’s reaction (b) Stephens reaction (c) Clemmenoon reduction (d) Rosenmund reduction
3. In Rosenmunds reduction, the action of BaSO4 is …………….
(a) Promoter (b) Catalyst poison (c) Positive catalyst (d) Negative catalyst
4. The conversion reaction of Benzene to Benzaldehyde is known as ……………..
(a) Rosenmund reduction (b) Stephen reduction
(c) Gattermann koch reaction (d) Friedel – crafts reaction
5. The product formed when Benzoyl chloride reacts with benzene is ………….
(a) Benzyl benzoate (b) Benzophenone (c) Benzyl chloride (d) Benzyl alcohol
6. Which one of the following is used as catalyst in Friedel Crafts reaction?
(a) Anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Anhydrous CuCl2 (c) Anhydrous AlCl3 (d) Androus CaCl2
7. Which one of the following is formed when methanal reacts with ammonia?
(a) Tetramethylene hexamine (b) Hexamethylene tetramine
(c) Formaldehyde ammonia (d) Aldimine
8. Which one of the following is used as, an urinary antiseptic?
(a) Urotropine (b) Urea formaldehyde (c) Formalin (d) Aldimm
9. Which one of the reactions gives an explosive RDX? (a) Nitration of phenol
(b) Nitration of glycol (c) Nitration of urotropine (d) Nitration of glycerol
10. The product formed when Acetone is subjected to Clemmenson reduction is ……………..
(a) Acetic acid (b) Propanoic acid (c) Propane (d) Propanal
11. The reaction of benzaldehyde with 50% NaOH is called …………..
(a) Benzoin condensation (b) Claisen – schmidt reaction
(c) Perkin’s reaction (d) Cannizaro reaction

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12. The reaction of phenyl methanal and ethanal in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as ……
(a) Cannizaro reaction (b) Aldol condensation
(c) Claisen – schmidt condensation (d) Perkin’s reaction
13. Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with alcoholic KOH?
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Potassium henzoate (c) Benzoin (d) Benzoic acid
14. What is the name of the reaction between Benzaldehyde and acetic anhydride?
(a) Peridn’s reaction (b) Knoerenagal reaction (c) Cannizaro reaction (d) Kolbe’s reaction
15. Which one of the following is the formula of Schiff’ s base’?
(a) C6H5 – NH NH2 (b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5 (b) Perkin’s reaction (d) Aldol condensation
16. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in Knoevenagal reaction?
(a) Pyrimidine (b) Pyridine (c) PCC (d) CdCl2
17. Which one of the following is used to test ketones?
(a) lodoform test (b) Tollen’s reagent test (c) Fehling’s solution test (d) Benedict’s solution test
18. Which one of the following is used as a hypnotic?
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Formalin (c) Paraldehyde (d) Formaldehyde
19. Which one of the following is used as nail polish remover?
(a) CH3CHO (b) HCHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) C6H5COCH3
20. The reaction of acetic acid with Cl2 and red phosphorous is named as ………………
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(c) HeII – volhard – zelinsky reaction (d) Knoevenagal reaction
21. Which is one the correct order of strength of carboxylic acid?

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22. The correct increasing order acid strength of carboxylic acid is …………
(a) F – CH2 – COOH > I – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2 – COOH > Br – CH2 – COOH
(b) Br – CH2 – COOH > F – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH > Cl – CH2 – COOH
(c) F – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH
(d) Br – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2 – COOH > I – CH2COOH > F – CH2COOH
23. The conversion of Ethyl acetate to propyl acetate by the action of propyl alcohol is named as
(a) Esterification (b) Transesterfication
(c) Acid hydrolysis of ester (d) Alkaline hydrolysis of ester
24. Which one of the following is used as food preservative?
(a) Sodium formate (b) Sodium acetate (c) Sodium benzoate (d) Acetamide
25. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of medicine like aspirin and phenacetin?
(a) Acetyl chloride (b) Acetic acid (c) Acetamide (d) Acetic anhydride
26. Which of the following will not give iodoform test?
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Ethanol (c) Eth anal (d) Benzyl alcohol
27. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of ………….. reaction.
(a) N ucleophilic substitution (b) Electrophil ic addition
(c) Nucleophilic addition (d) Electrophilic substitution
28. The molecular formula of Urotropine is …………..
(a) (CH2)6N4 (b) (CH2)4N6 (c) (CH2)2N2 (d) (CH2)6N6

13. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS

1. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline

a) Sn / HCl b) ZnHg / NaOH c) LiAlH4 d) All of these
2. The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is
a) degradation of benzamide with Br2 / NaOH b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated
with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.
c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with acidic solution d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn / HCl

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3. Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction
a) CH3CONHCH3 b) CH3 CH2 CON2 c) CH3 CONH2 d) C6 H5 CONH2
4. Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic acid
Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide.
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.
5.

a) bromomethane b)α - bromo sodium acetate c) methanamine d) acetamide

6. Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid

7. Aniline + benzoylchloride C6 H5 - NH - COC6 H5 this reaction is known as

a) Friedel – crafts reaction b) HVZ reaction
c) Schotten – Baumann reaction d) none of these
8. The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a prmary amine (NEET)
a) carboxylic acid b) aromatic acid c) schiff ’s base d) ketone
9. Which of the following reaction is not correct.

10. When aniline reacts with acetic anhydride the product formed is
a) o – aminoacetophenone b) m-aminoacetophenone
c) p – aminoacetophenone d) acetanilide

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11. The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is

12.

13.

14. Nitrobenzene on reaction with Con.HNO3 / H2SO4at 80-100°C forms which one of the following
products? a) 1,4 – dinitrobenzene b) 2,4,6 – tirnitrobenzene
c) 1,2 – dinitrobenzene d) 1,3 – dinitrobenzene
15. C5H13 N reacts with HNO2 to give an optically active compound – The compound is
a) pentan – 1- amine b) pentan – 2- amine
c) N,N – dimethylpropan -2-amine d) N – methylbutan – 2-amine
16. Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form
a) red solution b) blue solution c) green solution d) yellow solution
17. Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?
a) t – butylamine b) ethylamine c) diethylamine d) triethylamine

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18. Which one of the following is most basic?
a) 2,4 – dichloroaniline b) 2,4 – dimethyl aniline
c) 2,4 – dinitroaniline d) 2,4 – dibromoaniline
19. When is reduced with Sn / HCl the pair of compounds formed are

a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide

c) Ethanol, .NH2OH d) C3 H5 NH2 , H2 O
20. IUPAC name for the amine
a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane
b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3- amino pentane
c) 3 – N,N – trimethyl pentanamine
d) 3 – (N,N – Dimethyl amino) – 3- methyl pentane
21.

22. Ammonium salt of benzoic acid is heated strongly with P2O5and the product so formed is
reduced and then treated with NaNO2 / HCl at low temperature. The final compound
formed is a) Benzene diazonium chloride b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Phenol d) Nitrosobenzene
23. Identify X in the sequence give below.

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 24. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is :

25. The major product of the following

reaction

Additional Questions :
1. Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?
(a) Pyridoxine (b) Histamine (c) Dopamine (d) Cyano cobalamine
2. Which one of the following is an example of primary nitro alkane?
(a) 2 – nitropropane (b) Ethyl nitrite (c) Nitro ethane (d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
3. Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ……………
(a) Position isomerism (b) chain isomerism (c) metarnersm (d) Tautomerism
4. Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?
(a) Nitro methane (b) Nitro propane (c) Nitro benzene (d) Nitro ethane
5. On direct nitration of nitro benzene gives ………………
(a) 0 – dinitro benzene (b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) p – dinitro benzene (d) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrobenzene
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6. Which one of the following is formed when nitro methane reacts with chlorine and NaOH?
(a) CH3CI (b) CH3COCl (c) CCI3NO2 (d) CHCI2NO2
7. What is the IUPAC name of
(a) Tertiary butyl amine (b) Trimethyl amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine (d) N – methyl ethanamine
8. The IUPAC name of
(a) Methyl iso propyl amine (b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine (d) propan – 1 – amine
9. In which reaction acetamide is changed to methylamine by the action of Br 2/KOH?
(a) Gapriel phthalimide synthesis (b) Hoffmann degration reaction
(c) Mendius reaction (d) Mustard oil reaction
10. Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?
(a) Hoffmann ammonolysis (b) Rosenmund’s reduction
(c) Carbylamine reaction (d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
11. The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with Alumina
is (a) HVZ reaction (b) Sabatier – mailhe method
(c) Carbylamine reaction (d) Mendius reaction
12. The relative basicity of amine follows the order as ………….
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
(b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amine > N – aralkylamine
(c) Arylamine Alkyl amine N – aralkylanilne
(d) N – aralkylamine < Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine
13. Identify the name of the reaction in which aniline reacts with Benzoyl chloride to form N –
Phenyl benzamide? (a) Hoffmann degradation reaction (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction (d) Mustard oil reaction
14. The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as …………
(a) Carbylamme reaction (b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation (d) Sand meyer’s reaction

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15. Which one of the following reaction is used to identify primary amines?
(a) Schotten – Baumann reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction (d) Gattermann reaction
16. The reaction between methylamine and CS2 is known as ……………
(a) mustard oil reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction (d) Gabriel phthalirnide synthesis
17. The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride into chlorobenzene is known as …………
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer reaction (d) Coupling reaction
18. What is the name of the reaction in which benzene diazonium chloride react with benzene to
give Biphenyl? (a) Sandmeyer’s reaction (b) Gomberg reaction
(c) Gattermann reaction (d) Baltz – schiemann reaction
19. Chloropicrin is used as (a) antiseptic (b) analgesic (c) insecticide (d) fertilizer
20. Replacement of diazonium group by fluorine is known as …………..
(a) Gattennann reaction (b) Sandmeyer reaction
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction (d) Comberg reaction
21. Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Trimethyl amine (c) Dimethyl amine (d) methyl amine (b) Aniline
22. Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing ………….
(a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine (c) 3° amine (d) all the above
23. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of …………
(a) aliphatic 2° amine (b) Aromatic 1° amine
(c) Aliphatic l amine (d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine

38
 14. BIOMOLECULES
1. Which one of the following rotates the plane polarized light towards left?
(NEET Phase – II) a) D(+) Glucose (b) L(+) Glucose (c)D(-) Fructose d) D(+) Galactose
2. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below
Respectively is, (NEET Phase – I)1551
a) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose, D-Threose
b)D-Threose,D-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose,
c)L-Erythrose, L-Threose, D-Erythrose, D-Threose
d) D-Erythrose, D-Threose, L-Erythrose, L-Threose
3. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? (NEET Phase – I)
a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) maltose d) Lactose.
4. Glucose(HCN) Product (hydrolysis) Product (HI + Heat) A, the compound A is
a) Heptanoic acid b) 2-Iodohexane c) Heptane d) Heptanol
5. Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the
presence of little hydrochloric acid, it becomes levorotatory. (AIIMS)
Reason: Sucrose hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this
change in sign of rotation is observed.
a)If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) if both assertion and reason are false.
6. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from
(NEET Phase – II)
a) Amino acids Protein DNA
b) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
c) DNA RNA Proteins
d) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
7. In a protein, various amino acids liked together by (NEET Phase – I)
a) Peptide bond b) Dative bond c) α - Glycosidic bond d) β - Glycosidic bond

39
8. Among the following the achiral amino acid is (AIIMS)
a) 2-ethylalanine b) 2-methylglycine c) 2-hydroxymethylserine d) Tryptophan
9. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is (NEET Phase – I)
a) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinos and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
b) the sugar component in RNA is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
c) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is
2’-deoxyribose
d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
10. In aqueous solution of amino acids mostly exists in, a) NH2-CH(R)-COOH b) NH2-CH(R)-COO
c)H3N+-CH(R)-COOH d) H3N+-CH(R)-COO-
11. Which one of the following is not produced by body?
a) DNA b) Enzymes c) Harmones d) Vitamins
12. The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose are respectively
a) 1 and 4 b) 4 and 2 c) 5 and 1 d) 1 and 5
13. Vitamin B2 is also known as
a) Riboflavin b) Thiamine c) Nicotinamide d) Pyridoxine
14. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are a) Cytosine and Adenine b) Cytosine and Guanine
c) Cytosine and Thiamine d) Cytosine and Uracil
15. Among the following L-serine is
16. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone b) hydrophobic interaction
c) sequence of α-amino acids d) α-helical backbone.
17. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
18. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
a) L-Glucose b) D-Fructose c) D-Ribose d) D-Glucose

40
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19. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
c) Denaturation makes protein more active
d) Insulin maintains the sugar level of in the human body.
20. Glucose is an aldose. Which one of the following reactions is not expected with glucose?
a) It does not form oxime b) It does not react with Grignard reagent
c) It does not form osazones d) It does not reduce tollens reagent
21. If one strand of the DNA has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, then the sequence of
complementary strand would be
a) TACGAACT b) TCCGAACT c) TACGTACT d) TACGRAGT
22. Insulin, a hormone chemically is
a) Fat b) Steroid c) Protein d) Carbohydrates
23. α-D (+) Glucose and β-D (+) glucose are
a) Epimers b) Anomers c) Enantiomers d) Conformational isomers
24. Which of the following are epimers
a) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Galactose (b) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Mannose
c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
25. Which of the following amino acids are achiral?
a) Alanine b) Leucine c) Proline d) Glycine

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. How many isomers are possible for glucose that have 4 asymmetric carbon atoms?
(a) 8 isomers (b) 16 isomers (c) 2 isomers (d) 4 isomers
2. How many asymmetric carbon atoms are in glucose?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
3. Which one of the following will reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution?
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Sucrose (d) Maltose

41
4. The specific rotation of pure α and β (D) glucose are respectively.
(a) 18.7°, 112° (b) 112°, 18.7° (c) 90°, 90° (d) 120°, 20°
5. Sugar differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre is known as ……………….
(a) epimers (b) isomers (c) anomers (d) monomers
6. Which is the product formed when fructose undergoes partial reduction with sodium amalgam
and water? (a) Sorbital + mannitol (b) D – mannose + D – galactose
(c) Gluconic acid + saccharic acid (d) Aldehyde + ketone
7. How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in fructose?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 6
8. Two monosaccharides are linked by to form a disaccharide.

9. The enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is …………….
(a) zymase (b) invertase (c) diastase (d) maltase
10. Which one of the following is an example of non – reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose (b) Dextrose (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
11. Which one of the following gives blue colour with amylose and purple colour with amylopectin?
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Fehling’s solution (c) Iodine solution (d) Bromic water
12. Which of the amino acid is optically inactive?
(a) Alanine (b) Valine (c) Glycine (d) Proline
13. Which one of the following is an example for globular protein?
(a) Kerating (b) Myoglobin (c) Collagen (d) Etastin

42
14. The chemical name of vitamin B9 is …………….
(a) biotin (b) folic acid (c) niacin (d) thiamin
15. The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is …………….
(a) thymine (b) cytosine (c) guanine (d) adenine
16. Which one of the following is a protein hormone?
(a) Insulin (b) Androgen (c) Cortisol (d) Estrogen
17. Which one of the following is a steroid?
(a) Insulin (b) Epinephrine (c) mutin (d) Estrogen
18. A nucleotide consists of (a) base and sugar (b) base and phosphate
(c) sugar and phosphate (d) base, sugar and phosphate
19. Which one is fouñd in ATP ribonucleotide?
(a) Guanine (b) Uracil (c) Adenine (d) Inulin
20. In nucleic acid, the correct sequence is ……………..
(a) base – phosphate sugar (b) phosphate – base – sugar
(c) sugar – base – phosphate (d) base – sugar – phosphate
21. In DNA, the complementary bases are
(a) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine (d) adenine and guanine; thymine and uracil
22. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains ……………
(a) Ribose sugar and tymine (b) Ribose sugar and uracil
(c) Doxyribose sugar and thymine (d) Deoxy ribose sugar and uracil
23. Haemoglobin is (a) an enzyme (b) a globular protein
(c) a vitamin (d) carbohydrate
24. The number of essential amino acid in man is …………….
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 18
25. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are …………..
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4

43
 15. CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

1. Which of the following is an analgesic?

a) Streptomycin b) Chloromycetin c) Asprin d) Penicillin
2. Dettol is the mixture of
a) Chloroxylenol and bithionol b) Chloroxylenol and α-terpineol
c) phenol and iodine d) terpineol and bithionol
3. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify
which of the following statement is not true.
a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.
b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues.
c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.
d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants.
4. Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from
a) cellulose b) toluene c) cyclohexene d) starch
5. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
a) antagonists b) agonists c) enzymes d) molecular targets
6. Aspirin is a/an a) acetylsalicylic acid b) benzoyl salicylic acid
c) chlorobenzoic acid d) anthranilic acid
7. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

44
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8. Natural rubber has

a) alternate cis- and trans-configuration b) random cis- and trans-configuration
c) all cis-configuration d) all trans-configuration
9. Nylon is an example of
a) polyamide b) polythene c) polyester d) poly saccharide
10. Terylene is an example of
a) polyamide b) polythene c) polyester d) polysaccharide
11. Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

12. Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?

a) HDPE b) PVC c) Nylon 6 d) PHBV
13. Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is
a) ethane b) prop-2-enenitrile c) chloroethene d) 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane
14. Assertion: 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerisation.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
15. An example of antifertility drug is
a) novestrol b) seldane c) salvarsan d) Chloramphenicol
16. The drug used to induce sleep is
a) paracetamol b) bithional c) chloroquine d) equanil

45
 17. Which of the following is a co-polymer?
a) Orlon b) PVC c) Teflon d) PHBV
18. The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is
a) polystyrene b) PAN c) polyester d) polythene
19. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
20. A mixture of chloroxylenol and terpinecol acts as (NEET)
a) antiseptic b) antipyretic c) antibiotic d) analgesic
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
1. Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin (b) atenolol (c) amlodipine (d) propranolol
2. Which one of the following is an example tbr antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol (b) amoxicillin (c) cefixime (d) tetracycline
3. Which one of the following inhibits the bacterial growth?
(a) p – amino benzoic acid (b) sulphanilamide (c) folic cid (d) sodium benzoate
4. Which of the following is needed by many bacteria to produce folic acid?
(a) PABA (b) DHPS (c) TNB (d) GTN
5. Which one of the following binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function?
(a) antacids (b) antioxidant (c) antibiotics (d) antagonists
6. Which one of the following is used as an antacid?
(a) magnesium hydroxide (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) ranitidine (d) all the above
7. Which one of the following is used as painkiller?
(a) lodoform (b) chloropicrin (c) morphine (d) coffeine

46
8. Which one of the following is used to treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disorder and
schizopherenia?
(a) Tranquilizer (b) antibiotic (c) analgesic (d) opioids
9. Which one of the following is an example for tranquilizer?
(a) cimetidine (b) diazepam (c) histamine (d) PABA
10. Identify the medine that is used to treat stress, anxiety. depression and schizophrenia.
(a) valium (b) cimetidinc (c) chiorofom (d) adenosine
11. Which one of the following is used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation?
(a) antibiotic (b) antiseptic (c) antioxidant (d) antipyretic
12. Which of the following are used for post operative pain and pain of terminal cancer?
(a) morphine, codeine (b) ibuprofen, aspirin
(c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid (d) histidine, ranitidine
13. Which one of the following is an local anaesthetic?
(a) lidocaine (b) Propofol (c) iso flurane (d) ibuprofen
14. Which one of the following is an example of general anaesthetic?
(a) propofol (b) isoflurane (c) ranitidine (d) omeprazole
15. Identify the intraveneous general anaesthetics?
(a) milk of magnesia (b) lidocaine (c) omeprazole (d) iso fharane
16. Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine (b) ampicillin (c) erythromycin (d) milk of magnesia
17. Which of the following is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract
and skin infections?
(a) ampicillin (b) penicillin (c) terfenadine (d) azithromycin
18. Which one of the following is used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery?
(a) povidone – iodine (b) ethynyles tradiol
(c) norethindrone (d) acetyl salicylic acid
19. Which one is used as preservatives for fresh vegetables and fruits?
(a) Palmitic acid (b) Palm oil (c) sodium meta suiphite (d) sulphur dioxide

47
20. Sodium salt of long chain allyl benzene sulphomc acids are called ……………….
(a) soap (b) detergent (c) disinfectant (d) antiseptic
21. Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) cellulose, silk (b) PVC, Polythene (c) Buna – N, Buna – S (d) Bakelite, Nylon 6,6
22. Which one of the following catalyst is used in the preparation of high density polyethylene?
(a) benzoyi peroxide (b) zeigler natta catalyst
(c) ammonium per sulphate (d) hydrogen peroxide
23. Identify the zeiglar natta catalyst.
(a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI (b) (C2H5)4Pb + TiCl4 (c) AICl3 + HCI (d) ZnCI2 + Cone. HCI
24. Which one of the following is used as glass reinforcing material in safety helmets?
(a) nylon (b) Bakelite (c) terylene (d) orlon
25. Which one of the following is used to prepare combs and pens?
(a) navolac (b) soft Bakelite (c) hard Bakelite (d) neoprene
26. Which one of the following is used for making unbreakable crockery?
(a) phenol formal dehyde (b) melamine formal dehyde
(c) urea formal dehyde (d) navolac
27. What are the raw materials required to prepare Buna – S rubber?
(a) phenol + methanol (b) melamine + methanal
(c) styrene + butadiene (d) adipic acid + methanal
28. Which one of the following element is used in vulcanization of rubber?
(a) oxygen (b) nitrogen (c) carbon (d) sulphur

----ALL THE BEST----

48
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ANSWER KEY 9. (c) 1.0 x 109 18. (c) 1 cm-1

10. (b) 5.09 19. (d) 1.74 x 10-12
8. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM 20. (b) E1 > E2
11. (c) 4
21. (d) HBrO
1. (d) 5.619 x 10-12 mol3 L-3 12. (d) 6.63 22. (a) – 46.32 KJ mol-1
2. (d) (iii) 75 mL M5 HCI + 25 13. (a) 9.4 23. (b) 15.8
mL M5 NaOH 24. (a) Y will oxidize X and not Z
14. (c) 11
3. (c) 1.08 x 10-10 mol2 L2 25. (a) 0.80
4. (a) 0.5 x 10-15 15. (a) pH will increase
5. (c) OH– and F–, 16. (d) 10-9 ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
respectively
17. (a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa 1. (c) Redox reactions
6. (c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCI +
2. (b) Ω m
200 mL of 0.1M NH4OH 18. (a) remains constant
3. (a) Ohm metre
7. (b) PF3 19. (d) mol2 L-2 4. (b) Siemen (S)
8. (a) BF3
20. (a) [Ag+]2 [CrO4-2] 5. (d) Ohm-1m-1
9. (b) basic, acidic, basic
21. (c) NH4OH + NH4CI 6. (a) Sm2g equivalent-1
10. (b) 0.013%
7. (b) wheat stone bridge
11. (a) 3.7 x 10-2
9. ELECTROCHEMISTRY 8. (c) Debye-Huckel and
12. (b) 1.6 x 10-9 M
Onsagar equation
13. (a) 2 x 10-3M
14. (d) The molar solubility of 1. (c) 6.022 x 1022 9.
MY in water is less than 2. (b) – 2.69 and non 10. (d) all the above
that of NY3 spontaneous 11. (b) Agar-Agar gel + Na2SO4
3. (c) 1.10V 12. (a) either a (or) c
15. (d) 12.65
16. (d) 1:10 4. (b) 11.52 S cm2 mol-1 13. (b) 1.107 Volts
17. (a) 9 5. (c) 390.7 14. (b) zero
18. (c) H3PO4 6. (b) charge carried by one 15. (c) Platinum
19. (c) HPO42- mole of electrons 16. (b) – Nfe
20. (b) strongly acidic 7. (a) 5F 17. (c) negative
8. (b) 2 18. (b) 96500 C
21. 9. (b) 107.2 minutes 19. (a) Nernst equation
22. C 10. (c) 3.75 x 1020
23. (b) 5.55 x 1010 11. (b) 0.002N
20.
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 12. (c) PbSO4 on anode is
21. (a) m = Zit
1. (d) either (b) or (c) reduced to Pb.
22. (b) electro chemical
13. (a) I and IV
2. (a) H2O equivalent
14. (d) Zinc has higher negative
3. (b) HCI + CI– 23. (b) Li – ion battery
electrode potential than
24. (b) non – rechargeable
4. (b) Cr3+ iron
25. (a) Zinc, Graphite rod with
5. (c) 1 x 10-14 15. (d) both assertion and
MnO2
reason are false.
6. (a) 3 26. (b) NH4Cl + ZnCl2
16. (a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e–
27. (c) Zinc amalgamated with
7. (d) NaOH + NaCI → 4OH–(aq)
mercury
8. (a) OH– and HSO4 17. (b) 6.25 x 10 -6

49
28. (a) HgO mixed with 20. (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 11. HYDROXY
graphite. COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS
29. (a) 1.35 V ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
30. (a) Paste of kOH and ZnO 1. (c) 400 kJ/mole 1. (a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3
31. (c) Lead storage battery 2. (b) (iii) only 2. (c) methyl propanoate
32. (a) Lead plate bearing 3. (a) NH3 3. A
PbO2, Spongy lead 4. (c) Permutit 4. (c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol
33. (c) Aqueous KOH 5. (b) Silica gel and NaHCO3
34. (b) Fe2O3.xH2O 6. (c) Nickel 5. c) 4 – nitrophenol
35. (c) Galvanisation 7. (b) Fe, Mo 6. b
36. (c) 0.66 g 8. (d) Chromatography 7. (a) Phenol
9. (b) Decomposition of 8. (c) trichloro methane
10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY H2O2 in the presence of Pt (Riemer Tiemann reaction)
catalyst 9. (b) (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2
1. (c) 1/n, log k
10. (a) As2O3 10. (a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 –
2. (b) increases with increase
11. (c) H2S dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
in temperature
12. (a) Co 11. (a) if both assertion and
3. (d) ∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are
13. (a) Ethanol reason are true and reason
negative.
14. (b) activation energy is the correct explanation
4. (c) liquid in gas
15. (c) diastase of assertion.
5. (a) if both assertion and
16. (a) Fe°/Pd° 12. (d) ethanol
reason are true and reason
17. (c) Fog 13. (c) Williamson ether
is the correct explanation
18. (c) Bredigs arc method synthesis
of assertion
19. (c) ultrasonic dispersion 14. (a) C6H5 – OH (phenol)
6. (b) It is true, Fe3+ ions
20. (d) peptisation 15. (a) if both assertion and
coagulate blood which is a
21. (c) coagulation reason are true and reason
negatively charged sol
22. (b) 1 mμ to 1 μm diameter is the correct explanation
7. (b) emulsion
23. (d) rod like of assertion.
8. (b) Gel – butter
24. (a) AS2S3 16. (c) methanol
9. (d) AI3+
25. (c) scattering of light 17. (d) ethan -1, 2-diol
10. (b) CH3 – (CH2)15 – NH2
26. (c) electrophoresis 18. (c) Kolbe reactions
11. (d) Tyndall effect-scattering
27. (c) Electro osmosis 19. (d) methoxy ehane
of light
28. (d) Tollen’s test 20. A
12. (b) III > II > I > IV
29. (c) Alum containing Al3+ 21. (b) SN2 reaction
13. (a) Nitrocellulose
30. (a) chromium salt 22. (b) violet colour
14. (a) Hydrolysis of sucrose in
31. (a) Ammoniacal AgNO3
presence of all HCl
32. (d) the measure of ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
15. (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
protective power of a
16. (a) III > II > I 1.
lyophillic colloid
17. (a) ∆S decreases – ∆S is –ve
18. (d) x/m = mPT
2.
19. (a) Both magnitude and 3. (c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol
sign of the charge on the 4. (a) Propan – 2 – ol
ion. 5. (b) Ethanol
50
6. (b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 12. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS 3. (b) Catalyst poison
– ol 1. A 4. (c) Gattermann koch
7. (c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – Oi 2. (d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
8. (c) Cold dilute alkaline 3. (c) hydrazine in presence of 5. (b) Benzophenone
KMnO4 slightly acidic solution 6. (c) Anhydrous AlCl3
9. (a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous 4. (b) Victor meyer test 7. (b) Hexamethylene
ZnCl2 5. (c) tetramine
10. (c) Blue hexamethylenetetraamlne 8. (a) Urotropine
11. (c) E1 mechanism 6. A 9. (c) Nitration of urotropine
12. (a) 1° < 2° < 3° 7. (a) if both assertion and 10. (c) Propane
13. (b) Swern oxidation reason are true and reason 11. (d) Cannizaro reaction
14. (a) Esterification is the correct explanation 12. (c) Claisen – schmidt
15. (d) Oxirane of assertion. condensation
16. (a) 1, 4 – dioxane 8. (a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH 13. (c) Benzoin
17. (a) Methanal > BrCH2COOH > 14. (a) Peridn’s reaction
18. (a) Nitroglycerine CICH2COOH 15. (b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5
19. (b) Glyceric acid and 9. (c) benzene diazonium 16. (b) Pyridine
tartronic acid chloride 17. (a) lodoform test
20. (a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 10. (c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky 18. (c) Paraldehyde
3° alcohol reaction 19. (c) CH3COCH3
21. (c) Pyrogallol 11. (a) acetylchloride 20. (c) HeII – volhard – zelinsky
22. (b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy 12. (a) formic acid reaction
benzene 13. B
23. (c) Dow’s process 21.
14. (a) but – 3 – enoicacid 22. (c) F – CH2 – COOH > CI –
24. (d) Benzene 15. D CH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH
25. (b) Schotten – Baumann 16. A > I – CH2COOH
reaction 17. (b) if both assertion and 23. (b) Transesterfication
26. (d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol reason are true but reason 24. (c) Sodium benzoate
27. (c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction is not the correct 25. (d) Acetic anhydride
28. (c) Rlemer – Tiemann explanation of assertion. 26. (d) Benzyl alcohol
reaction 18. (b) cannizaro reaction 27. (c) Nucleophilic addition
29. (b) Salicylaldehyde 19. (a) Phenylmethanal 28. (a) (CH2)6N4
30. (b) P – hydroxy azo 20. (b) Fehling’s solution
benzene 21. (c) phenyl methanol and 13. ORGANIC NITROGEN
31. (b) Methanal sodium benzoate
32. (c) Methoxy benzene COMPOUNDS
22. (d) Wolf kishner reduction
33. (d) Diethyl ether 23. C 1. (a) Sn / HCl
34. (c) SN2 24. (d) formation of 2. (b) potassium salt of
35. (b) P – bromoan isole intermolecular H – bonding phthalimide treated with
36. (b) Ethoxy ethane chlorobenzene followed by
37. (c) comparatively inert ADDITIONAL QUESTONS hydrolysis with aqueous
1. (a) Prop – 2 – enal NaOH solution
2. (d) Rosenmund reduction 3. (a) CH3CONHCH3

51
4. (d) both assertion and 10. (d) Gabriel phthalimide 14. (c) Cytosine and Thiamine
reason are false synthesis 15. C
5. (c) methanamine 11. (b) Sabatier – mailhe 16. (d) α – helical backbone
6. (c) (CH3)3CNO2 – method 17. (b) Vitamin K
30 nitroalkane 12. (a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl 18. (d) D – Glucose
7. (c) Schotten – Baumann amines > Ammonia > N – 19. (c) Denaturation makes
reaction aralkylamine > Arylamine protein more active
8. (c) schiff ‘s base 13. (c) Schotten – Baumann 20. (b) It does not react with
9. B reaction Grignard reagent
10. (d) acetanilide 14. (c) Diazotisation 21. (a) TACGAACT
11. (d) N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)H2 > 15. (b) Carbylamine reaction 22. (c) Protein
N(CH3)3 > NH3 16. (a) mustard oil reaction 23. (b) Anomers
12. (a) H3PO2 and H2O 17. (c) Sand meyer reaction 24. (d) Both (a) and (b)
13. (a) C6H5 – OH 18. (b) Gomberg reaction 25. (a) Alanine
14. (d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene 19. (c) insecticide
15. (d) N – methylbutan – 2 – 20. (c) Baltz – Schiemann ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
amine reaction 1. (b) 16 isomers
16. (b) blue solution 21. (c) Dimethyl amine 2. (a) 4
17. (d) triethyl amine (3°amine) 22. (b) 2° amine 3. (a) Glucose
18. (b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline 23. (d) both aliphatic and 4. (b) 112°, 18.7°
19. (a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine aromatic 1° amine 5. (a) epimers
hydrochloride 14. BIOMOLECULES 6. (a) Sorbital + mannitol
20. (d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl 1. (c) D(-) Fructose 7. (b) 3
amino) – 3 – methyl 2. (d) D – Erythrose, D – 8. (a) glycosidic linkage
pentane Threose, L – Erythrose, L – 9. (b) invertase
21. B Threose 10. (d) Sucrose
22. (b) Benzyl alcohol 3. (b) Sucrose 11. (c) Iodine solution
23. A 4. (a) Heptanoic acid 12. (c) Glycine
24. B 5. (a) If both accretion and 13. (b) Myoglobin
25. B reason are true and reason 14. (b) folic acid
is the correct explanation 15. (c) guanine
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS of assertion 16. (a) Insulin
1. (c) Dopamine 6. (c) DNA RNA Proteins 17. (d) Estrogen
2. (c) Nitro ethane 7. (a) Peptide bond 18. (d) base, sugar and
3. (d) Tautomerism 8. (c) 2 – hydroxymethylserine phosphate
4. (c) Nitro benzene 9. (d) the sugar component in 19. (c) Adenine
5. (b) m – dinitro benzene RNA is ribose and the sugar 20. (d) base – sugar –
6. (c) CCI3NO2 component in DNA is 2’ – phosphate
7. (c) N, N – dimethyl deoxyribose 21. (b) Adenine and thymine;
methanamine 10. (d) H3N+ – CH(R) – COO– guanine and cytosine
8. (b) N – methyl propan – 1 – 11. (d) Vitamins 22. (b) Ribose sugar and uracil
amine 12. (d) 1 and 5 23. (b) a globular protein
9. (b) Hoffmann degration 13. (a) Riboflavin 24. (b) 10
reaction 25. (c) 8
52
 14. (c) assertion is true but 11. (d) antipyretic
15. CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY reason is false 12. (a) morphine, codeine
LIFE 15. (a) novestrol 13. (a) lidocaine
16. (d) equanil 14. (b) isoflurane
1. (c)Asprin
17. (d) PHBV 15. (d) iso fharane
2. (b) Chioroxylenol and a –
18. (b) PAN 16. (a) cetrizine
terpineol
19. (d) They contain strong 17. (d) azithromycin
3. (a) dilute solutions of boric
covalent bonds in their 18. (a) povidone – iodine
acid and hydrogen
polymer chain 19. (c) sodium meta suiphite
peroxide are strong
20. (a) antiseptic 20. (b) detergent
antiseptics
21. (a) cellulose, silk
4. (b) toluene
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 22. (b) zeigler natta catalyst
5. (a) antagonists
1. (a) erythromycin 23. (a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI
6. (a) acetylsalicylic acid
2. (a) atenolol 24. (c) terylene
7. D
3. (b) sulphanilamide 25. (a) navolac
8. (c) all cis – conflguration
4. (a) PABA 26. (b) melamine formal
9. (a) polyamide
5. (d) antagonists dehyde
10. (c) polyester
6. (d) all the above 27. (c) styrene + butadiene
11. A
7. (c) morphine 28. (d) sulphur
12. (d) PHBV
8. (a) Tranquilizer
13. (d) 1, 1, 2, 2 –
9. (b) diazepam
tetrafluoroethane
10. (a) valium

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53
 Note:

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 It has been updated on January 2021

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