PRESTORMING – 2024-25

TEST 06 – ENVIRONMENT- EXPLANATION

INDEX
1. ....................................................................................................................... 5
2. ....................................................................................................................... 6
3. ....................................................................................................................... 7
4. ....................................................................................................................... 8
5. ....................................................................................................................... 9
6. ..................................................................................................................... 10
7. ..................................................................................................................... 11
8. ..................................................................................................................... 13
9. ..................................................................................................................... 15
10. ..................................................................................................................... 16
11. ..................................................................................................................... 17
12. ..................................................................................................................... 18
13. ..................................................................................................................... 19
14. ..................................................................................................................... 23
15. ..................................................................................................................... 23
16. ..................................................................................................................... 26
17. ..................................................................................................................... 27
18. ..................................................................................................................... 29
19. ..................................................................................................................... 31
20. ..................................................................................................................... 34
21. …………. ....................................................................................................... 35
22. ..................................................................................................................... 36
23. ..................................................................................................................... 37
24. ..................................................................................................................... 38
25. ..................................................................................................................... 40
26. ..................................................................................................................... 40
27. ..................................................................................................................... 43
28. ……….. ......................................................................................................... 45
29. ..................................................................................................................... 46
30. ..................................................................................................................... 49
31. ..................................................................................................................... 50
32. ..................................................................................................................... 52
33. ..................................................................................................................... 52
34. ..................................................................................................................... 53

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35. ..................................................................................................................... 55
36. ..................................................................................................................... 57
37. ..................................................................................................................... 58
38. ..................................................................................................................... 60
39. ..................................................................................................................... 62
40. ..................................................................................................................... 63
41. ..................................................................................................................... 64
42. ..................................................................................................................... 65
43. ..................................................................................................................... 67
44. ..................................................................................................................... 68
45. ..................................................................................................................... 69
46. ..................................................................................................................... 71
47. ..................................................................................................................... 73
48. ..................................................................................................................... 74
49. ..................................................................................................................... 76
50. ..................................................................................................................... 78
51. ………….. ...................................................................................................... 80
52. ..................................................................................................................... 81
53. ..................................................................................................................... 83
54. ..................................................................................................................... 84
55. ..................................................................................................................... 86
56. ..................................................................................................................... 87
57. ..................................................................................................................... 88
58. ..................................................................................................................... 90
59. ……….. ......................................................................................................... 92
60. ..................................................................................................................... 93
61. ..................................................................................................................... 94
62. ..................................................................................................................... 96
63. ..................................................................................................................... 97
64. ..................................................................................................................... 98
65. ..................................................................................................................... 99
66. ................................................................................................................... 100
67. ................................................................................................................... 103
68. ................................................................................................................... 104
69. ................................................................................................................... 105
70. ................................................................................................................... 106
71. ................................................................................................................... 107

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72. ................................................................................................................... 108
73. ................................................................................................................... 109
74. ................................................................................................................... 111
75. ................................................................................................................... 112
76. ................................................................................................................... 113
77. ................................................................................................................... 115
78. ................................................................................................................... 117
79. ................................................................................................................... 119
80. ................................................................................................................... 120
81. ................................................................................................................... 121
82. ………….. .................................................................................................... 123
83. ................................................................................................................... 124
84. ................................................................................................................... 126
85. ................................................................................................................... 127
86. ................................................................................................................... 129
87. ................................................................................................................... 130
88. ................................................................................................................... 132
89. ................................................................................................................... 133
90. ................................................................................................................... 134
91. ................................................................................................................... 135
92. ................................................................................................................... 136
93. ................................................................................................................... 137
94. ................................................................................................................... 138
95. ................................................................................................................... 140
96. ................................................................................................................... 141
97. ................................................................................................................... 143
98. ................................................................................................................... 145
99. ................................................................................................................... 147
100. ................................................................................................................... 148

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4
1. Which of the following are examples of ecotone zones?
1. Grasslands
2. River banks
3. Mangrove forests
4. Deserts
5. Estuaries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
An ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For example, mangrove forests
represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems. Other examples are: Grassland (between
forest and desert), Estuary (between fresh water and saltwater) and Riverbank or Marshland (between dry
and wet).
The desert ecosystem is not an ecotone since the ecosystem is not a transition between two or more
diverse ecosystems. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ECOTONE
About An ecotone is the geographic intersection of as well as the transition between
ecozones. Since ecozone boundaries may also be biome boundaries, ecotones exist
between biomes as well.
➢ For example, ecotone includes estuaries (places where freshwater meets saltwater,
such as where a river empties into the ocean), shorelines, and areas where forests
and grasslands meet.
➢ An ecotone is usually a more productive place than either of the individual
ecozones because species of both zones intermingle within it. Even in cases where
there is less diversity, an ecotone is a good place for an organism to be located, as
access to both ecozones is easier.
➢ This same concept could be applied directly to cultural systems, where the border
between two cultures would form a cultural ecotone.

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 Characteristics ➢ It may be very narrow or quite wide.
➢ It has conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence, it is a zone of
tension.
➢ It is linear as it shows a progressive increase in species composition of one in the
coming community and a simultaneous decrease in species of the other outgoing
adjoining community.
➢ A well developed ecotones contain some organisms which are entirely different from
that of the adjoining communities.
➢ Sometimes, the number of species and the population density of some of the
species is much greater in this zone than in either community. This is called
the edge effect.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Community Reserves are non-statutory protected areas where communities engage in wildlife
conservation activities.
2. The inhabitants of such reserves might benefit from the improvement in their socio-economic
conditions.
3. Changes in the land use pattern by inhabitants are permitted inside such reserves.
How many of the above statements are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Community reserves fall under protected areas, along with marine protected areas, national parks, wildlife
sanctuaries and conservation reserves, according to the Wild Life (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972. The
provisions of the WLPA apply to an area once it has been declared a community reserve. Section 33 of the
WLPA passes the authority of the sanctuary to the chief wildlife warden. Community Reserves are
statutory protected areas where communities engage in wildlife conservation activities. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.
The declaration of Community reserves is aimed at improving the socio-economic conditions of the people
living in such areas as well as conserving wildlife. The Reserve is managed through a Community Reserve
Management Committee. So, Statement 2 is correct.
No change in the land use pattern shall be made within the community reserve after the issue of
notification under sub-section (1) of the WLPA, except in accordance with a resolution passed by the
management, committee. And approval of the same shall be given by the state government, according to
Section 36 C (3) of WLPA. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
CONSERVATION RESERVE AND COMMUNITY RESERVES
Conservation ➢ Conservation Reserves are the outcome of Amendments to the Wild life protection act
Reserves in 2003.
➢ It provided for a mechanism to provide recognition and legal backing to the community
initiated efforts in wildlife protection.
➢ It is an area owned by the State Government adjacent to National Parks and
sanctuaries for protecting the landscape, seascape and habitat of fauna and flora. It is
managed through a Conservation Reserve Management Committee
➢ The State Government may, after having consultations with the local communities,
declare any area owned by the Government as conservation reserve.
➢ Tiruppadaimarathur conservation reserve in Tirunelveli, tamilnadu is the first

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 conservation reserve established in the Country. It is an effort of the village community
to protect the birds nesting in their village and acted for declaration of conservation
reserve.
Community ➢ The Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the creation of a new type of protected area
reserves called a Community Reserve.
➢ The State Government may notify any community land or private land as a
Community Reserve, provided that the members of that community or individuals
concerned are agreeable to offer such areas for protecting the fauna and flora, as well
as their traditions, cultures and practices.
➢ The State Government may, where the community or an individual has volunteered to
conserve wildlife and its habitat, declare the area by notification as community reserve

3. Consider the following information:

Conservation effort Mode of Conservation
1. Conserving rare and threatened species of - Ex-situ conservation
plants in botanical gardens
2. Reintroduction of cheetahs in the wild - In-situ conservation
3. Saving individual animals in Biological - In-situ conservation
parks
In how many of the above rows is the given information incorrectly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Botanic gardens are institutions that hold documented collections of living plants for scientific research,
conservation, display, and education. In 2018, Botanic Gardens Conservation International (BGCI)
updated the criteria for defining a botanic garden to place a greater emphasis on conserving rare and
threatened plants, compliance with international policies, and sustainability and ethical initiatives.
In situ conservation involves maintaining the plants within their natural habitat, and ex situ conservation,
which entails preserving plant species outside of their natural habitat, typically in gene banks or botanical
gardens. So, Pair (1) is correct.
The cheetah’s status in Asia is alarming and the species has been extirpated from 98% of its historical
range. A critically endangered population of Asiatic cheetahs survives only in Iran. The species is
“protection-reliant” and, hence, needs to be fostered through in-situ conservation actions in several
protected areas spread across its historical range globally. The cheetah initiative is based on an action
plan, a collaborative effort of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Wildlife Institute of India
(WII) and the state of Madhya Pradesh.
In India, African cheetahs have been subjected to in-situ conservation in Kuno national park, in a section
with predator-proof fencing; could take about 5 years to release the cheetahs outside the fenced area.
So, Pair (2) is correct.
Ex situ Conservation– In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural
habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care. Zoological parks,
botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks serve this purpose. There are many animals that have become
extinct in the wild but continue to be maintained in zoological parks. In recent years ex situ conservation
has advanced beyond keeping threatened species in enclosures. Saving individual animals in Biological
parks are comes under Ex-situ conservation.So, Pair (3) is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MODES OF CONSERVATION
About ➢ Conservation of biological diversity leads to conservation of essential ecological diversity and
preserve the continuity of food chains.
➢ When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected -
we save the entire forest to save the tiger. This approach is called in situ (on site) conservation.
➢ However, when there are situations where an animal or plant is endangered or threatened and
needs urgent measures to save it from extinction, ex situ (off site) conservation is the desirable
approach.
There are two prevailing approaches to preserving plant genetic resources:
➢ Ex-situ conservation: Conserving biodiversity outside the areas where they naturally occur is
known as exsitu conservation.
• Here, animals are reared or plants are cultivated like zoological parks or botanical gardens.
Reintroduction of an animal or plant into the habitat from where it has become extinct is
another form of ex situ conservation.
• For example, the Gangetic gharial has been reintroduced in the rivers of Uttar Pradesh,
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan where it had become extinct.
• Seed banks, botanical, horticultural and recreational gardens are important centres for ex-
situ conservation.
➢ In-situ conservation: Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats is known as
in-situ conservation. The established natural habitats are:
• National parks
• Sanctuaries
• Biosphere reserves and
• Reserved forests
• Protected forests

4. Which of the following organisations released the Global Gender Gap Index?
(a) International Labour Organization
(b) United Nations Commission on the Status of Women
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) United Nations Development Programme
EXPLANATION :
The Global Gender Gap Index, introduced in 2006 and released by the World Economic Forum, is a précis
measure. It combines four different sub-indices, economic participation and opportunity, educational
attainment, health and survival and political empowerment — each summarising multiple indicators. The
index lies between 0 and 1, with 1 denoting complete parity. It is important to note that this index focuses
on gender gaps, that is, the focus is on the position of women relative to men (gender equality) rather than
on their absolute position. The idea is to track changes in gender gaps both over time and across
countries.
The 2024 edition of the Global Gender Gap Index places India at 129 out of the 146 countries it surveyed.
This puts India at the 18th position from the bottom. For comparison, of the 156 countries included in
2021, India was at the 17th position from the bottom. Thus, overall, India's ranking has remained in the
bottom 20 over the years. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
WORLD ECONOMIC FORUM
About ➢ The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
➢ It provides a global, impartial, not-for-profit platform for meaningful connections between
stakeholders to establish trust and build initiatives for cooperation and progress.
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 ➢ The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Geneva-based international organization that works
toward global cooperation on the day's major economic and social issues.
➢ It is best known for its annual meeting in Davos, Switzerland, which brings together business
and political leaders and thinkers to discuss global issues and solutions.
➢ The environment and related issues such as biodiversity destruction and human-made
disasters dominate the WEF's current list of most pressing global concerns.
➢ The WEF has no independent decision-making power but seeks to influence people to make
decisions that benefit the global community.
➢ The organisation is funded through its membership, which includes many prominent
business and political figures.

5. Consider the following statements with respect to Lake Ecosystems:

1. Dissolved oxygen level is higher in the lentic system than in the lotic system.
2. The oxygen content decreases with an increase in depth.
3. The Thermal stratification is minimal during the summer season.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Lentic ecosystems include all those systems which have a static body of water. Lakes, impoundments and
wetlands are all lentic ecosystems. The lotic or flowing water habitats include rivers. Streams, brooks, etc.
The environment of static waters of lakes and ponds sharply contrasts with those of lotic ecosystems. Light
penetration in lakes usually goes up to a certain depth, which is affected by turbidity. Temperature and
dissolved oxygen also vary with depth. Dissolved oxygen in stagnant water is generally less compared to
lotic systems because only a relatively small surface of the water body is in direct contact with air. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
Decomposition of organic matter usually takes place at the bottom of the lake. The oxygen content usually
decreases with depth. The gradations of temperature, sunlight, and oxygen are directly responsible for
vertical zonation or stratification in lakes. They are also indirectly responsible for horizontal zonations of
lakes as they profoundly influence the distribution of lake organisms, which contribute to the
characteristic horizontal zonations. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Thermal stratification means distribution of water layers with respect to temperature gradient. Thermal
stratification is maximum during the summer season, primarily due to two reasons. Firstly, due to the fact
that solar intensity increases during this period, it heats the surface layer greatly while the lower layers
remain comparatively cool. Secondly, the thermally stratified layers offer resistance to mixing by wind. The
fairly pronounced stratification of lakes developed in summer is called summer stratification or stagnation.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
LENTIC AND LOTIC ECOSYSTEM
Lentic ➢ Lakes: Most lakes occur in regions that have recently been subjected to geological
ecosystem changes, say, within the past 20,000 years. However, a few lakes, such as Lake
Baikal in Russia and Lake Tanganyanitia in Africa, are ancient and are estimated to
have originated twenty million years ago. Lakes arise in several ways. Some, like the
tectonic lakes, are formed in basins created by geological activities such as warping
and faulting of the earth's crust. Most of the Himalayan lakes are tectonic in origin.
Some are formed in crater depressions of extinct volcanoes and are called crater
lakes, such as Lake Kunsaranag in Kashmir. Others may be a result of glacial

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 activity. For example, most lakes in North America originated due to glacial erosion
and deposition.
➢ Impoundments: There are a number of lakes, both small and large, artificially created
by man called reservoirs or impoundments. These have been built to fulfil specific
requirements - hydroelectric power generation, fisheries, water supply, irrigation,
industries, recreation, control of floods, etc.
➢ Wetlands: Wetlands are permanently or periodically water-covered areas. They can be
defined as submerged or saturated lands either artificially or naturally, and either
periodically or permanently up to a depth of six metres by water, which may be fresh,
brackish or saline.
➢ Characteristics:
• Light Stratification: The penetration of light in water bodies is limited depending
on the transparency of water and its ability to absorb light. On the basis of light
penetration, lakes become vertically stratified into two basic layers: the
trophogeniczone and the tropholytic zone.
• Oxygen Stratification: In most lakes, oxygen stratification nearly parallels that of
temperature during the summer season. The amount of oxygen is greatest on the
surface, gradually decreasing with depth. The surface layer has the maximum
oxygen content due to two main reasons. First, being well-lighted, maximum
photosynthetic oxygen is produced here. Secondly, being in intimate contact with
the atmosphere it permits free diffusion of oxygen into it from the air. The oxygen
content beneath the surface water decreases as both these oxygen sources
disappear. At the bottom, the oxygen content decreases further due to the
utilisation of oxygen by decomposers.
Lotic ➢ The most outstanding feature of such habitats is the continuously flowing water, which
Ecosystem moulds the characteristics of the water bed and influences the distribution of organisms
within it.
➢ To differentiate between the lotic and lentic habitats, let us see how rivers (lotic habitats),
differ from lakes that represent the lentic habitat.
• Rivers are open or heterotrophic systems, whereas lakes are closed or self-
contained systems except for some gains or losses from inflowing or outflowing
streams.
• Nutrients in a lake may be used several times, whereas in' rivers. At any point,
plants and animals must temporarily avail themselves of available nutrients.
• In rivers, prolonged stagnation is absent. Rivers, in comparison to lakes, depend
more on the surrounding land for nutrients, manufacturing little basic food
materials themselves.

6. Which of the following activities are prohibited if the area is declared as Eco Sensitive Zone?
1. Introduction of exotic species
2. Establishment of major hydroelectric power projects
3. Commercial use of Firewood
4. Commercial use of natural water resources
5. Commercial Mining
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only

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EXPLANATION :
The National Environment Policy (2006) defined Eco-Sensitive Zones “as areas/zones with identified
environmental resources having incomparable values which require special attention for their
conservation” because of its landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical and natural values.
Activities that are prohibited in the areas that are declared as Eco-sensitive zone are:
➢ Establishment of a major hydroelectric project.
➢ Use or production of any hazardous substance.
➢ Undertaking activities related to tourism, like over-flying the National Park area by any aircraft or
hot-air balloons.
➢ Commercial mining
➢ The setting of sawmills
➢ Setting of industries causing pollution(Water, Air, Soil, Noise,Etc.,)
➢ Commercial use of Firewood
➢ Discharge of effluents and solid waste in natural water bodies or terrestrial areas.
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
ECO SENSITIVE ZONE
About ➢ To protect the environment and the biological integrity of the area outside the
protected areas and other such areas where an ecosystem has been adversely affected
due to anthropogenic and climatic factors, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change has been declaring such areas as Eco-sensitive zones/ areas. In other
words, it is a type of designation of an area which is rich in environmental resources
and needs special protection.
Purpose ➢ Protect the environment and avoid its degradation due to anthropogenic activities.
➢ Create some kind of barrier/ shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem (PAs).
➢ Act as a transition zone from areas of higher protection to areas involving lesser
protection.
Objective ➢ Maintaining the response level of an ecosystem within permissible limits with respect
to environmental parameters.
➢ To notify the area of being an eco-sensitive zone and to regulate developmental
activities in a sustainable manner, taking into consideration the needs and aspirations
of the local people.

7. Consider the following passage:

Trees in this forest shed their leaves in autumn, and new foliage grows in spring. These forests
occur in areas with moderate climatic conditions, such as temperatures ranging from 10 to 20°C, a
six-month-long winter, and an annual rainfall of 75 to 150 cm. They have brown soils that are rich
in nutrients. These forests show stratification and have an understory of saplings, shrubs, and tall
herbs. Hibernation or winter sleep is a common feature of animals found in these forests.
Which of the following types of forests is described in the above passage?
(a) Boreal forest
(b) Tropical rainforest
(c) Temperate rainforest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest
EXPLANATION :
The given passage describes temperate deciduous forests characterized by a moderate climate and broad-
leafed deciduous trees that shed their leaves in fall. They are bare over winter and grow new foliage in the
spring. The precipitation is fairly uniform throughout. Soils of temperate forests are podzolic and fairly
deep.

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➢ Distribution: They occur mostly in northwest, central and eastern Europe, eastern North America,
north China, Korea, Japan, far eastern Russia and Australia.
➢ Climate: These forests occur in areas with moderate climatic conditions, such as temperatures ranging
from 10 to 20oC, a six-month-long winter, and an annual rainfall between 75 and 150 cm. They have
brown soils that are rich in nutrients.
➢ Flora and fauna: Common trees are oak, beach, heath, chestnut, birch, and pine. These forests also
show stratification and have an under-storey of saplings, shrubs and tall herbs. Prominent grazers
include deer, bison and rodents. Rodents play a very important role in these forests. They feed on
seeds, fruits and tree leaves. Black bears, raccoons, wild cats, wolves, foxes and skunks are the
omnivores found in these forests. Hibernation, or winter sleep during winter, is a common feature of
animals found in these forests. Invertebrate fauna comprises green flies, aphids, certain moths and
butterflies. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
FOREST ECOSYSTEM
Boreal ➢ Distribution: Coniferous forests are also known as 'Taiga'. They extend as a continuous
forest belt across North America and north Eurasia below the arctic tundra. There is no
counterpart of these forests in the southern hemisphere as there is no land at this
latitude. The climate is cold, with long, harsh winters with mean annual temperature
below 0C. The soils are acidic and poor in nutrients.
➢ Flora and fauna: Coniferous forests are characterized by evergreen, drought-resistant
and woody Conifers (gymnosperms), e.g. spruce, fir and pine trees which bear naked
seeds in cones. The animals found in these forests are red squirrels, deer, goats, mules,
moose, etc. The carnivores which feed upon them are timber wolves, lynxes, and bears.
Some common birds are crossbills, thrushes, warblers, flycatchers, robins and sparrows.
Tropical ➢ The temperate rainforests exhibit a marked seasonality with regard to temperature and
Rain rainfall.
Forest ➢ Rainfall is high, and fog may be very heavy. It is a more important source of water than
rainfall itself.
➢ The biotic diversity of temperate rainforests is high compared to other temperate forests.
However, the diversity of plants and animals is much lower than that of the tropical
rainforest.
Temperate ➢ The temperate rainforests exhibit a marked seasonality with regard to temperature and
Rain rainfall.
Forest ➢ Rainfall is high, and fog may be very heavy. It is a more important source of water than
rainfall itself.
➢ The biotic diversity of temperate rainforests is high compared to other temperate forests.
However, the diversity of plants and animals is much lower than that of the tropical
rainforest.
Tropical ➢ Tropical seasonal forests, also known as monsoon forests, occur in regions where total
Seasonal annual rainfall is very high but segregated into pronounced wet and dry periods.
Forests ➢ This kind of forest is found in Southeast Asia, Central and South America, northern
Australia, western Africa and tropical islands of the Pacific, as well as in India.
Grasslands ➢ Distribution: Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. They occupy about 20% of the
land on the earth's surface. Grasslands occur in both tropical and temperate regions
where rainfall is not enough to support the growth of trees. Grasslands are known by
various names in different parts of the world.

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 ➢ Grasslands are found in areas with well-defined hot and dry, warm and rainy seasons.
Tropical grasslands are commonly called Savannas. They occur in eastern Africa, South
America, Australia and India. Savannas form a complex ecosystem with scattered
medium-sized trees in grasslands.
➢ Flora and fauna: Grasses are the dominating plants with scattered drought-resistant
thorny trees in the tropical grasslands. Badgers, foxes, asses, zebra, and antelope are
found grazing on grasslands that support the dairy and leather industries. Grasslands
also support large populations of rodents, reptiles and insects.
Tundra The word tundra means "barren land" since they are found in those regions of the world
where environmental conditions are very severe. There are two types of tundra- arctic and
alpine.
➢ Distribution: The Arctic tundra extends as a continuous belt below the polar ice cap and
above the tree line in the northern hemisphere. It occupies the northern fringe of
Canada, Alaska, European Russia, Siberia and the island group of the Arctic Ocean. On
the south pole, the Antarctica tundra in the south pole is very small since most of it is
covered by ocean.
➢ Alpine tundra occurs at high mountains above the tree line. Since mountains are found
at all latitudes, alpine tundra shows temperature variation in day and night.
➢ Flora and fauna: Typical vegetation of arctic tundra is cotton grass, sedges, dwarf heath,
willows, birches and lichens. Animals of tundra are reindeer, musk ox, arctic hare,
caribous, lemmings and squirrels.

8. With reference to 'Pump and Dump Scheme', sometimes seen in the news, consider the following
statements :
1. It is a form of financial manipulation aimed at artificially inflating the stock's price through false
information.
2. It enables the sale of the stock at an inflated price, leaving investors with maximum profits.
3. In India, it is legalized under the guidelines of SEBI.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
In the stock market, a pump-and-dump scheme is a type of manipulation activity that involves artificially
inflating the price of a stock through false and misleading information.
The perpetrators of a pump-and-dump scheme already have an established position in the company's
stock and will sell their positions after the hype has led to a higher share price. This manipulative tactic is
particularly prevalent in the micro-cap and small-cap sectors, where companies often have limited public
information and trading volumes are lower. So, Statement 1 is correct.

13
The Impact on investors is negative, only to sell the stock at an inflated price and leave investors with
significant losses. Investors who bought into the hype and purchased the stock at inflated prices typically
face substantial losses when the stock price crashes. These schemes undermine confidence in the
financial markets, making legitimate investors wary of potential fraud. Participants in pump-and-dump
manipulation can face severe legal penalties, including fines, disgorgement of profits, and imprisonment.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Under the Securities and Exchange Board of India’s (Sebi) guidelines, pump-and-dump schemes are
completely banned and not legal.
Recently, SEBI ordered cracking down on a YouTube-run share pump-and-dump operation as a precursor
to the regulations on financial influencers (influencers) that the watchdog is in the process of framing. The
steady rise of influencers in India doling out financial and investment advice without being qualified to do
so has been detrimental at times, especially in the case of recent start-up listings. With the proliferation of
social media channels on platforms like Telegram and Instagram, the task for the regulators is cut out. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
PUMP AND DUMP SCHEME
Recently The Securities Exchange Board of India (Sebi), on June 1, 2024, slapped a fine of Rs 7.75
in news crore on 11 individuals for allegedly operating a ‘pump and dump’ scheme in the scrip of
Svarnim Trade Udyog.
The pump and dump scheme was operated through recommendations shared through
Telegram channels, resulting in public shareholders purchasing the stock at an inflated price.
About In the stock market, while many participate with the aim of long-term investment or
legitimate trading, some exploit the market. One such stock manipulation activity is known as
a ‘pump and dump’ scheme. This practice is illegal and can have severe consequences for
investors and the integrity of the market.
➢ Pump-and-dump schemes usually target micro- and small-cap stocks.
➢ People found guilty of running pump-and-dump schemes are subject to heavy fines.
➢ Pump-and-dump schemes are increasingly found in the cryptocurrency industry.
Modus First, a significant amount of stock in a relatively small or thinly traded company is acquired.
Operandi These stocks are often referred to as ‘penny stocks’ because they trade at low prices and are
more susceptible to price manipulation due to low trading volumes.
➢ Then, the stock is aggressively promoted to create a buzz and attract investors. This
promotion can take various forms, including sending out mass emails or newsletters with
exaggerated claims about the company’s prospects, as well as misleading social media
posts.
➢ Promoters aim to create buzz and drive interest in the stock.
➢ As the promotion gains traction, more investors buy into the stock, driving up its price
14
 due to increased demand. Sometimes, fraudsters may also engage in coordinated buying
to further boost the price.
➢ During this phase, the stock often experiences rapid and significant price increases,
creating the illusion of a hot, high-potential investment.
➢ Once the stock price has been pumped up sufficiently, the sell-off begins at the inflated
prices.
This selling pressure causes the stock price to plummet, often leaving unsuspecting investors
with significant losses as the stock returns to its actual value or even lower.

9. With reference to Environmental legislations in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Environment Protection Act is key to realizing and implementing the objectives of the
Stockholm conference.
2. As per the Wildlife Protection Amendment Act 2023, any wild animals killed or wounded in
defense of any person shall not be an offense.
3. As per the Forest Conservation Amendment Act 2023, prior consent from the tribal Gram Sabha
was mandatory for any alterations to forests for non-forest purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
In 1972, under the umbrella of The United Nations, a conference was held in Stockholm (Sweden), known
as the Stockholm Conference on Environment and Development 1972. It was the first World Conference on
Human Environment to make the Environment a major issue, and the theme was “Only One Earth”.
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 (EPA Act) implements the decision made at the U.N. Conference,
held in Stockholm in 1972, on the Human Environment to protect the Environment and environmental
conditions and to take strict actions against those who harm the Environment. In India, the Environment
Protection Act, 1986 defines Environment as follows-“Environment includes water, air, and land and the
interrelationship which exists between them on the one hand and human beings, other living creatures,
plants micro organisms and property on the other. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Indian law on Wildlife, The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 prohibits hunting wild animals. No person
shall hunt any wild animals as specified in the Schedules. However, there are certain exceptions. The
State Govt. may order to kill or wound in good faith any wild animal for self-defence or to protect or save
another. Any animal so killed or wounded is not an offence and shall be govt. Property. The Govt. may
permit the killing certain wild animals for academic purposes.
Wildlife Protection Amendment Act 2023 also reiterates that killing or wounding a wild animal in good
faith in defence of oneself or any other person shall not be an offence. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Forest Conservation Act underwent important amendments in 2016 and 2017, which stipulated that
prior consent from the tribal gram sabha was mandatory for any alterations to forests for non-forest
purposes.
However, the Forest Conservation Amendment Act 2023 to the legislation has removed the necessity for
such consent. The amendment primarily aims to tackle the critical issues of climate change and
deforestation’s adverse effects, focusing on effective management and afforestation. The law further aims
to determine how forests can be utilized for economic gain, and the manner in which it seeks to achieve
this goal is outlined in the legislation. The primary method to achieve this objective involves removing
forests from the law’s jurisdiction, facilitating various forms of economic exploitation. So, Statement 3
is not correct.

15
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION IN INDIA
Environment The Indian Constitution is amongst the few codified documents in the world which
Protection in contains specific provisions on Environmental protection. The Directive Principles of
the Indian State Policy and the Fundamental Duties explicitly enunciate the National
Constitution commitment to protect and improve the Environment.
➢ Following the decisions taken at the U.N. Conference on Human Environment,
held in Stockholm in 1972, the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India
was made in 1976, which added Article 48-A, which states, “The State shall
endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and
wildlife of the Country.”
➢ As a sequel, Article 51-A (g) was also added, which states that “it shall be the duty
of each and every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment
including lakes, rivers, forests and wildlife and to have compassion for living
creatures.”
➢ Article 253 states that Parliament has the power to make any law for the whole or
any part of the Country for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with
any other country. Parliament’s use of Article 253 to enact the Air Act and
Environment Act confirms this view.
➢ The fundamental rights to equality under Article 14 states the power to impose
reasonable restrictions, particularly on Trade, Commerce and Industry, for
preventing environmental protection under Article 19 (g) and the right of the people
to live in a healthy and safe environment under Article 21 have been applied by the
Courts for protection of Environment from pollution.
➢ The Supreme Court and High Courts in India, when moved by writ petitions
under Articles 32 and 226, have done a lot to protect the Environment from
damage and pollution by applying Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution. Thus,
in India, the scope of action for environmental protection is very promising.
Laws Relating Apart from the Constitutional mandate to protect and improve the environmental
to conditions, there are certain significant laws, regulations and policies passed by the
Environmental Indian Parliament available on the subject, which are as follows:
Protection ➢ The Indian Forest Act, 1927
➢ The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
➢ The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
➢ The Forest Conservation Act, 1980
➢ The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
➢ Environment Protection Act, 1986
➢ The National Forest Policy, 1988
➢ The National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995
➢ The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
➢ The Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement)
Rules, 2008
➢ The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

10. In which of the following regions of India will you most likely come across the ‘Asiatic wild Gaur’ in
its natural habitat ?
(a) Higher Himalayas of Uttarakhand regions
(b) Desert Regions of northwest India
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Salt marshes of western Gujarat

16
EXPLANATION :
The Indian bison, or Asiatic wild gaur, is the largest wild cattle species in the world. Native to South and
Southeast Asia, the gaur is severely threatened by poaching for meat, horns, and medicine, as well as
habitat loss and food scarcity from grassland destruction. The species has lost over 70% of its population
in many areas. Listed as vulnerable by the IUCN, the gaur is protected in India, but reintroduction of
native plants and regulation of cattle grazing are needed.
➢ This animal is kept well – protected in some of the famous national parks of India like Nagarhole,
Bandipur, Kabini, Masinagudi and BR Hills.
➢ The Indian Bison is very much prevalent in the Western Ghats.
➢ The Gaur is a social animal. They generally live in group size of about 30 to 40. They have an alarm
call also which is a high pitched snort followed by a growling boo.
➢ They prefer evergreen forests and moist deciduous forests. However, they can survive in dry deciduous
forests also.
➢ They are not found in the Himalayas with an altitude greater than 6,000 ft. They generally stick to the
foothills only. They are attracted to grounds which are impregnated with salts and minerals. So,
Option (c) is correct.

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
In India, any transfer of possession and birth of offsprings of Asian elephants shall be registered
with the Chief Wildlife Warden.
Statement II:
Wild life Protection Act mandates the registration of transfer and birth of species listed in the
IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct Explanation for
Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct Explanation
for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
EXPLANATION :
The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provides the legal framework for the protection of various species of
wild animals, the management of their habitat, and the regulation and control of trade in the products
derived from various parts of wild animals.
The Act was last amended in 2022. The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, has come into force
since 1st April 2023. Section 49 M of the Act provides for the registration of possession, transfer and
birth and reporting of death of living scheduled animal species, which are listed in the Appendices of
CITES (Not inthe IUCN Red List of Threatened Species) and, as such, listed in Schedule IV of the Wild Life
(Protection) Act, 1972. Asian elephants are listed in the appendices of CITES.
All persons possessing a living specimen of such animal species are required to apply for registrations of
such possession within a period of six months from the date of commencement of these rules and
thereafter within thirty days of possession of such animal species to the concerned State Chief Wild Life
Warden, through the PARIVESH 2.0 portal. So, Statement I is correct & Statement II is not correct.
17
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
PARIVESH 2.0 PORTAL
About Under ‘Digital India’ and capturing the spirit of Minimum Government and Maximum
Governance, a Single-Window named PARIVESH (Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by
Interactive, Virtuous, and Environmental Single Window Hub) has been developed by the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) through National
Informatic Centre (NIC).
The Objectives are
➢ Robust Scientific Appraisal & Informed Decision Making.
➢ Data Validation, Synchronization, and Integration
➢ E-Compliance and Monitoring
➢ Minimum Government and Maximum Governance
Asian Asian elephants are gentle and super-social. Related females live with their young in
Elephant herds. (Adult males go off on their own.) To communicate with each other, they use
rumbles, bellows, growls, and moans. Some of their vocalizations can be heard more than
a mile away.

12. Consider the following pairs :

Active volcanoes often seen in Location
the news
1. Kilauea - Andaman Archipelago

2. Mount Kanlaon - Pacific Ring of Fire

3. Hunga Tonga - Sumatra Island

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
18
EXPLANATION:
Kilauea, the world’s most active volcanic mass, is located on the southeastern part of the island of
Hawaii, US (Not in Andaman Archipelago). Kilauea’s frequent eruptions are usually non-explosive and
are contained within Halema‘uma‘u as a boiling lake of active lava, which sometimes rises and overflows
along the floor and flanks of the caldera proper.Kilauea’s slopes merge with those of the nearby volcano
Mauna Loa on the west and north.
The volcano located in the Andaman Archipelago is Barren Island Volcano, the only active volcano in
India. So, Pair (1) is not correct.

Mount Kanlaon is a part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, and it is an active volcano north-central portion of
the island of Negros, Philippines. The massive 2435-m-high stratovolcano is dotted with fissure-
controlled pyroclastic cones and craters, many of which are filled by lakes. So, Pair (2) is correct.

Tonga is located on the Pacific Ring of Fire, which stretches for about 40,000 km around the Pacific
Ocean. The Hunga Tonga-Hunga Ha’apai volcano includes the small islands of Hunga Tonga and Hunga
19
Ha’apai along with shallow reefs along the caldera rim of a much larger submarine edifice in the western
South Pacific Ocean. It is one of 12 confirmed submarine volcanoes along the Tofua Arc, a segment of
the larger Tonga-Kermadec volcanic arc. The Tonga-Kermadec arc formed as a result of subduction of
the Pacific Plate beneath the Indo-Australian Plate.
The most active volcanoes of Sumatra Island (Indonesia) are Marapi and Karinci, followed by Talang and
Kawa volcanoes.So, Pair (3) is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VOLCANO
Recently Indonesia's Mount Merapi erupts again. Marapi is known for sudden eruptions that are
in News difficult to predict because they are not caused by a deep movement of magma..
About When magma erupts at the surface as lava, it can form different types of volcano depending
on:
➢ the viscosity, or stickiness, of the magma
➢ the amount of gas in the magma
➢ the composition of the magma
➢ the way in which the magma reached the surface
Types of There are two broad types of volcanoes:
Volcanoes ➢ Shield volcanoes:
• Where a volcano produces low viscosity, runny lava, it spreads far from the source
and forms a volcano with gentle slopes.
• Mauna Kea and Mauna Loa are shield volcanoes.
• They are the world’s largest active volcanoes, rising over 9 km above the sea floor
around the island of Hawai’i.
➢ Stratovolcano:
• Stratovolcanoes have relatively steep sides and are more cone-shaped than shield
volcanoes.
• They are formed from viscous, sticky lava that does not flow easily.
• Andesite (named after the Andes` Mountains) is perhaps the most common rock
type of stratovolcanoes.
Pacific ➢ The Pacific Ring of Fire is known variously as Ring of Fire, Circum-Pacific Belt, or Girdle of
Ring of Fire. It is an underwater region on the edges of the Pacific Ocean where numerous
Fire earthquakes and volcanic eruptions take place.
➢ The majority of the world’s earthquakes and volcanic activities take place around the Ring
of Fire.

20
 13. With respect to Ecological succession, consider the following statements:
1. Based on the nature of the habitat, hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas while xerarch
succession takes place in dry areas.
2. Primary succession is a slow process compared to secondary succession for the climax to be
reached.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
An important characteristic of all communities is that their composition and structure constantly change
in response to the changing environmental conditions. This change is orderly and sequential, parallel with
the changes in the physical environment. These changes finally lead to a community that is in near
equilibrium with the environment, which is called a climax community. The gradual and fairly predictable
change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession.
Based on the nature of the habitat, whether it is in water (or very wet areas) or it is in very dry areas, the
succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession occurs in wetter
areas, and the successional series progresses from hydric to mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch
succession takes place in dry areas, and the series progresses from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both
hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too

21
wet (hydric). So, Statement 1 is correct.
In primary succession on rocks, these are usually lichens, which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock,
helping in weathering and soil formation. These later pave way to some very small plants like bryophytes,
which are able to take hold in the small amount of soil. They are, with time, succeeded by bigger plants,
and after several more stages, ultimately, a stable climax forest community is formed. The climax
community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged. With time, the xerophytic
habitat is converted into a mesophytic one.
In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, they are replaced with time by
rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms, followed by free-floating plants, then reed swamp,
marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. With time, the water body
is converted into land.
In secondary succession, the species that invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water,
the environment as also the seeds or other propagules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of
succession is much faster and hence, climax is also reached more quickly.
Therefore, the difference between primary and secondary succession is that secondary succession starts
on a well-developed soil already formed at the site. Thus secondary succession is relatively faster as
compared to primary succession, which may often require hundreds of years. Primary succession is a very
slow process, taking maybe thousands of years for the climax to be reached. So, Statement 2 is correct.

22
14. Consider the following:
1. Fragmentation
2. Leaching
3. Catabolism
4. Humification
5. Mineralization
How many of the above are involved in the process of decomposition in a terrestrial ecosystem?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
The Decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water
and nutrients and the process is called decomposition. Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers
and dead remains of animals, including fecal matter, constitute detritus, which is the raw material for
decomposition.
The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification
and mineralization.
➢ Detritivores (e.g., earthworms) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called
fragmentation.
➢ By the process of leaching, water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts.
➢ Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is
called as catabolism.
➢ Humification and mineralization occur during decomposition in the soil. Humification leads to the
accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance called humus that is highly resistant to
microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature
it serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
➢ The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the
process known as mineralization. So, Option (d) is correct.

23
 ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DECOMPOSITION
About ➢ Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process.
➢ The rate of decomposition is controlled by the chemical composition of detritus and climatic
factors. In a particular climatic condition, the decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in
lignin and chitin and quicker if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like
sugars.
➢ Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate
decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes.
➢ Warm and moist environments favour decomposition, whereas low temperature and
anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition, resulting in a build-up of organic materials.

15. With reference to Biosphere reserves, consider the following statements:

1. Biosphere reserves aim to maintain every level of biodiversity, from genes to ecosystems of
organisms.
2. Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national governments and remain under the sovereign
jurisdiction of the states where they are located.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under UNESCO's Man and the
Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote sustainable development based on local community efforts and
sound science. The programme of the Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971. The purpose
of the formation of the biosphere reserve is to conserve in situ all forms of life, along with its support
system, in its totality(at all levels of biodiversity ranging from genes to ecosystems), so that it could serve
as a referral system for monitoring and evaluating changes in natural ecosystems.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Biosphere Reserve Programme is guided and designated under the intergovernmental MAB

24
Programme( Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme) by the Director-General of UNESCO following the
MAB International Coordinating Council (MAB-ICC) decisions. India is a signatory to the landscape
approach supported by the MAB programme.
A scheme called Biosphere Reserve has been implemented by the Government of India since 1986, in
which financial assistance is given in a 90:10 ratio to the North Eastern Region States and three
Himalayan states and in the ratio of 60:40 to other states for maintenance, improvement and development
of certain items. The State Government prepares the Management Action Plan which is approved and
monitored by the Central MAB Committee.
Biosphere reserves are nominated by national governments and remain under the sovereign jurisdiction of
the states where they are located. Their status is internationally recognized. Member States can submit
sites through the designation process.So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BIOSPHERE RESERVE
About ➢ Biosphere Reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal / marine ecosystems or a
combination thereof, which are internationally recognized within the framework of
UNESCO’s flagship programme on Man and Biosphere (MAB) and are recognized in
accordance with the statutory framework formulated MAB programme of UNESCO.
➢ Biosphere Reserves are nominated by National Governments and are required to meet
a minimal set of criteria for designation as defined under Article 4 of the statutory
framework of the MAB Program of UNESCO.
Structure of In order to undertake complementary activities of biodiversity conservation and
Biosphere development of sustainable management aspects, Biosphere Reserves are demarcated
reserve (BR) into three inter-related zones. They are
➢ The Core Zone
• The core zone should be kept absolutely undisturbed. It must contain suitable
habitat for numerous plant and animal species, including higher order predators
and may contain centres of endemism. A core zone secures legal protection and
management and research activities that do not affect natural processes and
wildlife are allowed.
• Strict nature reserves and wilderness portions of the area are designated as core
areas of BR. The core zone is to be kept free from all human pressures external to
the system.
➢ The Buffer Zone
• Buffer Zone adjoins or surrounds core zone. Its uses and activities are managed in
ways that protect the core zone.
• These uses and activities include restoration, demonstration sites for enhancing
value addition to the resources, limited recreation, tourism, fishing and grazing,
which are permitted to reduce its effect on core zone.
• Research and educational activities are to be encouraged. Human activities, if
natural within BR, are likely to be permitted to continue if these do not adversely
affect the ecological diversity.
➢ The Transition Zone
• The Transition Zone is the outermost part of a Biosphere Reserve. This is usually
not delimited one and is a zone of cooperation where conservation, knowledge and
management skills are applied and uses are managed in harmony with the
purpose of the Biosphere Reserve.
• This includes settlements, crop lands, managed forests and area for intensive
recreation, and other economic uses characteristic of the region.

25
 16. Consider the following with respect to the 'Phenome India' Project :
1. It is an initiative launched by the Indian Council for Medical Research.
2. The Project aims to assess risk factors in non-communicable diseases and develop new
strategies for preventing major diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
The ‘Phenome India’ Project is an initiative launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR), not the Indian Council for Medical Research. The key objectives of this CSIR initiative
are to ensure “Swasthya Bharat Viksir Bharat” through health and wellness checks. CSIR is one of
India's largest research and development organizations, and it is a network of 37 laboratories situated
across the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The first phase of its groundbreaking longitudinal health monitoring project, the 'Phenome India-CSIR
Health Cohort Knowledgebase' (PI-CheCK), aims to assess risk factors in non-communicable (cardio-
metabolic) diseases, especially diabetes, liver diseases and cardiac diseases.
This project has already enrolled nearly 10,000 participants who have provided extensive health data,
including clinical questionnaires, lifestyle and dietary habits, and biochemical and molecular data. It is
essential to understand the mechanisms that underlie the increasing risk and incidence of
cardiometabolic disorders in the Indian population and develop new strategies for risk stratification,
prevention, and management of these major diseases. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
'PHENOME INDIA' PROJECT
Recently in news CSIR's 'Phenome India' project launched on December 7 2023, the PI-CHeCK
project aims to assess risk factors in noncommunicable (cardio-metabolic)
diseases within the Indian populace. This unique initiative has already enrolled
nearly 10,000 participants, who have volunteered to provide comprehensive
health data.
About Phenome India-CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CHeCK) is the flagship
project designed by CSIR to identify India-specific risk factors for cardiometabolic
diseases.
➢ This groundbreaking study, conducted in collaboration with experts and
participants from various CSIR labs across the nation, seeks to provide
valuable scientific insights, marking a significant stride toward personalized
and precision medicine.
➢ CSIR-National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research
(CSIR-NIScPR) is dedicated to advancing science communication, evidence-
based Science Technology and Innovation policy research and promoting
scientific awareness among the public.
➢ Through innovative initiatives and collaborative efforts, CSIR-NIScPR strives
to bridge the gap between the scientific community and the general public.
Biobanks in India There are 19 registered biobanks in India that host many biological specimens,
including cancer cell lines and tissues. Earlier this year, the ‘Genome India
programme’ finished sequencing 10,000 genomes from 99 ethnic groups to
identify treatments for rare genetic diseases, among others.
➢ The pan-India ‘Phenome India’ project has collected 10,000 samples to create
better prediction models for cardio-metabolic diseases.

26
 ➢ The Paediatric Rare Genetic Disorders (PRaGeD) mission could help identify
new genes or variants to develop targeted therapies for genetic diseases that
affect children.
However, biobank regulations in India are a significant hurdle to realizing the full
potential of precision medicine.
Noncommunicable ➢ Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), including heart disease, stroke, cancer,
Diseases (NCDs) diabetes and chronic lung disease, are collectively responsible for 74% of all
deaths worldwide.
➢ More than three-quarters of all NCD deaths, and 86% of the 17 million people
who died prematurely or before reaching 70 years of age, occur in low- and
middle-income countries.
➢ NCDs share five major risk factors: tobacco use, physical inactivity, the
harmful use of alcohol, unhealthy diets and air pollution.

17. Avicennia, Bruguiera and Sonneratia are species of :

(a) Bamboos
(b) Mosses
(c) Mangroves
(d) Coral Reefs
EXPLANATION :
Mangroves are the characteristic littoral plant formation of tropical and subtropical sheltered coastlines.
Mangroves are trees and bushes growing below the high-water level of spring tides, exhibiting remarkable
saltwater tolerance capacity.
The mangroves of Sundarbans are the largest single block of tidal holophytic mangroves in the world. The
major species of this dense mangrove forest include Herritiera fames, Rhizophora spp., Bruguiera spp.,
Ceriopsdecandra, Sonneratia spp. and Avicennia spp.
➢ Avicennia is a genus comprising at least eight species of trees or shrubs in the Acanthaceae
family. Avicennia has a wide geographical distribution, with members found in
intertidal estuaries along many of the world's tropical and warm temperate coasts.
➢ Bruguiera is a plant genus in the family Rhizophoraceae. It is a small genus of five mangrove species
and three hybrids of the Indian and West Pacific Ocean region, its range extending from East
Africa and Madagascar through coastal India, Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia to
northern Australia, Melanesia and Polynesia.
➢ Keora Mangrove, also known as Sonneratiaapetala, is a type of mangrove tree that belongs to the
family Lythraceae. It is native to the coastal regions of South and Southeast Asia, including India,
Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, and Malaysia. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MANGROVES
Characteristics ➢ They are evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal
flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and barrier islands.
➢ The best locations are where rivers bring abundant silt down or on the backshore
of accreting sandy beaches.
➢ Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and water-logged anaerobic mud
is high.
➢ They require high solar radiation and can absorb fresh water from
saline/brackish water.
➢ It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problems in
anaerobic soil conditions.
➢ Mangroves occur in a variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora)
27
 send arching prop roots into the water. Meanwhile, others (e.g., Avicennia) send
vertical "Pneumatophores" or air roots up from the mud.
➢ Most mangrove vegetation has a lenticellate bank, facilitating more water loss
and producing coppices. Leaves are thick and contain salt-secreting glands.
➢ Mangroves exhibit a Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the
tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to
overcome the problem of germination in saline water.
➢ Some secrete excess salt through their leaves as if you look closely, you can see
salt crystals on the back of the leaves; others block the absorption of salt at their
roots.
➢ Adventitious roots that emerge from a tree's main trunk above ground level are
called stilt roots.
Sonneratiaapetala ➢ Sonneratiaapetala, or Keora Mangrove, is a small to medium-sized tree that can
grow up to 20 meters tall.
➢ It has a broad, spreading crown with dense foliage, and its leaves are elliptical,
shiny, and leathery, with a dark green colour on the upper surface and a pale
green colour on the underside.
➢ The tree blooms with small, white or pale pink flowers, followed by fruit that is a
woody, pear-shaped capsule containing numerous seeds.
➢ Keora Mangrove is well adapted to the harsh coastal environment and can
survive in areas with high salinity, fluctuating tides, and waterlogging.
➢ Its roots are specialized to breathe air and can absorb water and nutrients
directly through its leaves.
➢ The tree also plays an important ecological role by providing habitat and food for
various species, including birds, fish, and crabs.
➢ It also helps to stabilize coastal soils and protect against erosion.

Bruguiera ➢ It is a medium-sized tree up to 20 m tall.

➢ Its bark is dark grey to brown and rough, with distinct lenticels.
➢ The plant is buttressed at the base and produces kneed roots which protrude
above the substrate.
➢ When in flower, small clusters of reddish calyxes can be seen throughout the
tree.

28
 Avicennia ➢ Avicennia officinalis, also known as ApiApiLudat, is a mangrove tree. It has large
orange-yellow flowers that smell rancid. The leaves are oblong-shaped, and the
underside is distinctly yellowish-green.
➢ It is a medium-sized tree, usually reaching up to 12 - 15 m, sometimes 20 m.
➢ It has thin, pencil-like pneumatophores, which are covered with lenticels. The
pneumatophores protrude from the soil, allowing root respiration in the
anaerobic, muddy soil. Aerial stilt roots may also develop.

18. Consider the following statements:

1. Species richness helps to know if particular species dominate a given site.
2. Alpha diversity is the change in the amount of species between different ecosystems.
3. Gamma diversity measures the diversity of different ecosystems within a given region.
How many of the above statements are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Species richness measures the number of different species present in an ecosystem. A large number of
different species in a habitat represents a higher species richness and an overall more diverse ecosystem.
While species richness does not consider the population sizes of individual species in the area or the
distribution of each species, it is an important component of biodiversity.
Species richness is often used to compare the biodiversity of different biological communities, compare the
number of species within a particular taxonomic grouping (such as birds or mammals) at different
29
locations, and monitor changes in a particular biological community over time.
Species abundance refers to the number of individuals of a particular species within a given area. It is a
crucial factor in determining whether a species dominates a site. Dominant species are typically the most
abundant, exerting a strong influence over the occurrence and distribution of other species. Thus it is
Species abundance not Species richness that helps to know if particular species dominate a given site.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Alpha diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by
the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem. It is not the change in the amount of
species between different ecosystems.
Beta diversity is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change in
amount of species between the ecosystems.
Gamma Diversity refers to the overall diversity of an ecosystem or region, combining alpha and beta
diversity. So, Statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct.

30
 19. Consider the following statements:
1. The inclusion of a wetland in the Ramsar List can ensure that the government takes the
necessary steps to maintain its ecological character.
2. The Montreux Record contains Ramsar Sites, which are at risk only due to natural reasons.
3. Keoladeo National Park, Chilika Lake and Loktak Lake are Indian sites currently placed on the
Montreux Record.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
The Convention on Wetlands [waterfowl convention] is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the
framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of
wetlands and their resources. It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force
in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem. The
inclusion of a site to the Ramsar List confers upon it the prestige of international recognition and
expresses the government’s commitment to take all steps necessary to ensure the maintenance of the
ecological character of the site. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance
where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of
technological developments, pollution or other human interference. Montreux Record is maintained as
part of the Ramsar List.
The Montreux Record, adopted at the 4th meeting of the Conference of the Contracting Parties in
Montreux (Switzerland) in 1990, identifies Ramsar sites that need priority conservation attention at the
national or international level. The Montreux Record contains Ramsar Sites, which are at risk due to
natural and anthropogenic causes.So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Only Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur, were included in the Montreux
Record in 1990 and 1993, respectively, while Chilika Lake, Orissa, was included in the Montreux Record
in 1993 was removed in November 2002.
It is placed on the Montreux Record due to problems caused by siltation and sedimentation, which was
choking the mouth of the lake; removed from the Record in 2002 following rehabilitation efforts for
which the Chilika Development Authority received the Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for 2002.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

31
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
RAMSAR CONVENTION
About The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance, more commonly known as the
Ramsar Convention, is an international agreement promoting the conservation and wise
use of wetlands. It is the only global treaty to focus on a single ecosystem.
Wetlands The definition of the word ‘wetland’, under the Convention, is any land area that is
saturated or flooded with water, either seasonally or permanently. Inland wetlands
include aquifers, lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, peatlands, ponds, flood plains and
swamps. Coastal wetlands include all coastlines, mangroves, saltmarshes, estuaries,
lagoons, seagrass meadows
and coral reefs.
Ramsar As of August 2024, there are 85 Ramsar sites in India, covering a total area of 1,358,068
Sites in hectares.
India ➢ India’s Ramsar wetlands comprise around 10% of the total wetland area across 18
States. No other South Asian country has as many sites, though this has much to do
with India’s geographical breadth and tropical diversity.
➢ The United Kingdom (175) and Mexico (142), smaller countries than India, have the
maximum Ramsar sites, whereas Bolivia spans the largest area, with 148,000 sq. km.
under the Convention’s protection.
➢ The 81st and 82nd Ramsar site in India is the Nagi Bird Sanctuary and Nakti Bird
Sanctuary in Bihar. The three new sites are the 83 rd Naaraayan Bird Sanctuary, 84th
the Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu, and 85th the Tawa Reservoir in Madhya
Pradesh.
RAMSAR WETLANDS SITES (As of June 2024)

32
33
 20. This method of afforestation can generate dense and biodiverse forests within a brief period of time.
The emphasis of the method is on planting indigenous flora that can withstand local climate and
soil conditions. This approach has the potential to reduce air and noise pollution, and to recharge
the groundwater table.
Which of the following denotes the afforestation method described above?
(a) Agroforestry
(b) Direct seeding
(c) Natural regeneration
(d) Miyawaki Plantations
EXPLANATION :
Afforestation refers to the process of planting trees on barren land or converting non-forest land into
forested areas.
Miyawaki's method involves planting two to four different types of indigenous trees within every square
metre.
➢ In this method, the trees become self-sustaining and grow to their full length within three years. The
methodology was developed in the 1970s with the basic objective to densify green cover within a small
parcel of land.
➢ The dense green cover of indigenous trees plays a key role in absorbing the dust particles of the area
where the garden has been set up.
➢ These forests enhance groundwater recharge and reduce surface runoff, preventing soil erosion and
flooding.Miyawaki forests grow 10 times faster than conventional forests.The plantations act as a
sound and dust barrier, thus it has potential to reduce air and noise pollution.
➢ These forests sequester carbon dioxide more effectively than monoculture plantations, helping to
mitigate climate change.
➢ The plants also help in regulating surface temperature. Some common indigenous plants used for
these forests include Anjan, Amala, Bel, Arjun and Gunj. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MIYAWAKI METHOD
Recently The PM cited the example of a Kerala-based teacher, Raafi Ramnath, who used the Miyawaki
in news technique to transform a barren land into a mini forest called Vidyavanam by planting 115
varieties of trees in the 'Mann kibaat' episode.
About ➢ This method of afforestation was developed by the Japanese botanist and plant ecology
expert Professor Akira Miyawaki, and draws inspiration from nature’s ecosystems to
create 100% organic, dense and diverse pioneer forests in as little as 20-30 years.
➢ The essential principle of the Miyawaki method is using species of trees that would occur
naturally in that area, and that work together to create a diverse, multi-layered forest
community.
➢ This creates a resilient and thriving forest ecosystem with species that complement each

34
 other, restoring “native forests by native trees”.
➢ The selection of species to plant in a given area was originally linked to the theory
of potential natural vegetation (PNV), in other words, the vegetation that would occur in a
specific area without further human interference.
➢ One of the most noticeable differences in a Miyawaki forest is that the seedlings are
planted at very high densities. This replicates the regeneration process that occurs in a
natural forest when a clearing in the canopy opens up due to a larger tree falling.
➢ The saplings grow very fast to compete for the light, and then natural selection will favour
the fastest-growing individuals and act to thin out the trees.

21. With reference to Indian wild ass (Equushemionuskhur) species, consider the following statements:
1. The little Rann of Kutch is the only remaining habitat of this species.
2. Their digestive systems are adept at processing xerophytic vegetation.
3. These species are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
The Indian wild ass (Equushemionuskhur), also called the Indian onager or, in the local Gujarati
language, Ghudkhur and Khur, is a subspecies of the onager native to South Asia.
Wild asses are animals protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act. As per a report by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature in 2008, wild asses are found in very few numbers. They
are listed as an “endangered species”. In the past, the wild ass could be found in North-West India,
Pakistan, and even in Central Asia. However, now they are found only in the Little Rann of Kutch and
Great Rann of Kutch.
The population of the Indian wild ass has increased in the last 5 years. The number of Indian wild asses in
Gujarat has increased by over 26 per cent in the past five years. The total population of the wild ass is
estimated to be at 7,672, compared to 6,082 counted in 2020. They are primarily found in six districts of
the state of Gujarat - Surendranagar, Kutch, Patan, Banaskantha, Morbi and Ahmedabad.
So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The Indian wild ass, like donkeys and other members of the Asinus subgenus, possesses a remarkable
ability to locate sustenance in desolate environments. The terrain they occupy is harsh through most of
the year, and the vegetation is dry and xerophytic. Their digestive systems are adept at processing even the
most arid vegetation.
Xerophytic vegetation refers to plant communities that have adapted to survive in arid or dry environments
with limited water availability. These plants have evolved unique mechanisms to conserve water, reduce
water loss, and store available water. Xerophytic vegetation is a characteristic feature of regions with low
rainfall, such as deserts, scrublands, and dry forests. So, Statement 2 is correct.

35
 22. With respect to Biological Diversity Amendment Act 2023, consider the following statements:
1. As per the act, the National Biodiversity Authority takes measures to oppose the grant of
intellectual property rights to Indian biological resources outside India.
2. As per the act, biological resources include the genetic material of plants and animals, human
genetic material and their by-products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
According to the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), a
statutory autonomous body established by the Government of India in 2003 under the Biological Diversity
Act, 2002, on behalf of the Central Government, may take any measures necessary to oppose the grant of
intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource which is found in or
brought from India, including those deposited in repositories outside India, or traditional knowledge
associated thereto accessed. Headquartered in Chennai, India, the NBA is responsible for implementing
the provisions of the Act, which aims to conserve and sustainably use India’s biological resources.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
According to the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, “biological resources” include plants,
animals, microorganisms or parts of their genetic material and derivatives (excluding value-added
products) with actual or potential use or value for humanity, but they do not include human genetic
material. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY AMENDMENT ACT 2023
Recently in The amended Biological Diversity Act exempts “AYUSH practitioners and traditional
News knowledge holders” from paying Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS), potentially denying
fair compensation to tribal and local communities. The amended Act removes criminal
penalties for violations, replacing them with fines only.
Highlights ➢ The amended Act removes criminal penalties for violations, replacing them with
fines only. This weakens accountability for large corporations exploiting
36
 biodiversity resources.
➢ An overview of Ayurveda companies’ turnovers suggests significantly higher
potential Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) revenue compared to current
collections, justifying stricter implementation of the Act.
Convention The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding multilateral
on Biological environmental agreement with 194 contracting Parties (Countries) as its members
Diversity with three objectives – conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of the
diversity and ensuring fair and equitable sharing of benefits of such use. It has
entered into force on 29th December 1993.
Biodiversity The Biodiversity Act - 2002 primarily addresses issues of conservation, sustainable
Act - 2002 use of biological resources in the country, issues related to access to genetic resources
and associated knowledge and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from
utilization of biological resources to the country and its people.
National The National Biodiversity Authority is mandated to regulate the use of India’s
Biodiversity biological resources, facilitate/enable conservation action, and advise central and
Authority state governments on conservation, sustainable use, access, and benefit sharing.

23. Which one of the following has not been constituted under the Wildlife Protection amendment act,
2022 ?
1. National Board for Wildlife
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority
3. National Green Tribunal
4. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION :
The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is constituted by the Central Government under Section 5 A of
the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (WLPA). The National Board for Wildlife has 47 members with the
Prime Minister in the Chair. The Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment & Forests in the
Central Government is the Vice-Chairperson. The Standing Committee’s of NBWL is to regulate land
diversion within Protected Areas and Eco-Sensitive Zones, making it a purely project clearance body.
The NBWL, on the other hand, has the power to deal with policy-level decisions on wildlife. Thus,
National Board for Wildlife been constituted under the Wildlife Protection amendment act.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has been constituted under section 38 L (1) of Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972. The authority consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment
and Forests (as Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-
Chairperson), three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other
members. It provides statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives become
legal. NTCA Address livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves. Thus,
National Tiger Conservation Authority is constituted under the Wildlife Protection amendment act.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for
effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of
forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and
giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith
37
 or incidental thereto.
It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes
involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under
the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Thus, National
Green Tribunal is not constituted under the Wildlife Protection amendment act.
So, Statement 3 is correct.
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of
India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
The Bureau was constituted by an amendment to the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
It has been envisaged as a multi-disciplinary statutory body that will have officials from forests, police,
customs and other similar agencies. Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is
mandated to collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to
disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend
the criminals; to establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank; co-ordinate actions by various agencies
in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the Act; assist foreign authorities and
international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime
control. Thus, Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is constituted under the Wildlife Protection amendment
act. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
THE WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) AMENDMENTACT, 2022
About ➢ The WLPA was originally intended to regulate the use of various species (including
hunting), restrict trade, and police the trafficking of species. The original Act is
written in this form, with research being an exception under the hunting clause. The
new Act goes one step further by aligning itself with CITES, and including the CITES
appendices.
➢ The Act provides for registration of possession, transfer and birth and reporting of
death of living scheduled animal species which are listed in the Appendices of CITES
and as such listed in the Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Significant ➢ Section 6 now establishes a Standing Committee with delegated powers from the State
Changes in Board for Wildlife.
Act ➢ Section 43 of the act has been modified, allowing the use of elephants for religious or
other purposes.
➢ Section 49E has been added, granting the Central Government the authority to
appoint a Management Authority.
➢ The Central Government can now appoint a Scientific Authority for guidance on the
impact on the survival of the specimens on being traded.
➢ The amendment grants the Central Government the power to regulate and halt the
import, trade, or possession of invasive alien species.
➢ There has been an increase in penalties. The maximum fine for general violations has
risen from 25,000 to 1 lakh, and the minimum fine for specially protected animals has
increased from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 25,000.

24. With reference to the Post Office Act 2023, consider the following statements:
1. The Act provides for the office of Director General of Postal Services to regulate postal services in
India.
2. The Act prescribes penal punishment for unauthorised interception of postal articles by a
central government officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

38
 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Postal services come under the Union List of the Constitution. The Indian Post Office Act, of 1898
regulates the postal services offered by the central government. It grants the central government exclusive
privilege over the conveying of letters. Post Office Act 2023 replaces the Indian Post Office Act 1898. The
Act regulates India Post, a departmental undertaking of the central government.
➢ The Act provides for the appointment of the Director General of Postal Services.
➢ Under the Act, the Director General has powers to decide the time and manner of delivery of postal
services.
➢ Under the Act, the central government can notify charges for postal services through notifications.
➢ The Act provides that the Director General can make regulations on supply and sale of postage
stamps and postal stationery. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The objective of the Act is to create a simple legislative framework for the delivery of citizen centric
services, banking services and benefits of Government schemes at the last mile.
➢ The Act does away with provisions such as the exclusive privilege of collecting, processing and
delivering letters to enhance the ease of doing business and ease of living.
➢ No penal provisions have been prescribed in the Act. This provides a framework for prescribing
standards for addressing the items, address identifiers and usage of postcodes.
➢ The Act deals with the power to intercept, open or detain any item or deliver item to the customs
authority. The grounds for interceptions are the interest of the security of the State, friendly
relations with foreign states, public order, emergency, or public safety.
➢ The Act allows interception of an article being transmitted through post on certain grounds. Such
interceptions may be carried out by the central government, state governments, or any officer
specially authorised by them. An intercepted shipment can be detained or disposed of by the
officer in charge.
➢ The officer also has powers to open, detain, or destroy shipments carrying items prohibited under
the Act or any other law. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
OTHER PROVISIONS
Recently in New Post Office Act 2023 comes into effect in June.
news
About ➢ Power to give effect to arrangements with other countries
• The Central Government may make rules to give effect to arrangements made with
any foreign country or territory for services provided by the Post Office between
India and the said foreign country or territory.
➢ Recovery of sums due in respect of services provided by Post Office
• Every person who avails a service provided by the Post Office shall be liable to pay
the charges in respect of such service.
• If any person refuses or neglects to pay the charges referred to in subsection (1),
such amount shall be recoverable as if it were an arrear of land revenue due from
him.
➢ Exemption from liability
• Notwithstanding anything in any other law for the time being in force, the Post
Office shall not incur any liability except such liability as may be prescribed
with regard to a service provided by the Post Office.
• No officer of the Post Office shall incur any liability with regard to a service
provided by the Post Office unless the officer has acted fraudulently or wilfully
caused loss, delay or misdelivery of service.

39
25. Consider the following pairs:
Species Activity pattern
1. Andaman White-toothed Shrew Diurnal
2. Pygmy hog Nocturnal
3. Malabar Civet Nocturnal
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Shrews are small and mouse-like mammals, and they live in sub-leaf stratum in the forests. Insects are
the primary diet of these animals.This is the first discovery of a shrew from this volcanic island
(Narcondam Island) and it increases the number of White-toothed shrew (genus Crocidura) species in
India. Andaman White-toothed Shrew is endemic to India, found in the South Andaman Islands. They are
usually active by twilight or at night.
This is a nocturnal animal, that lives in tropical moist deciduous and evergreen forests, where it inhabits
leaf litter and rock crevices. So, Pair 1 is not correct.

The Pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) is a suid found in the Himalayas. It is the smallest and the rarest wild
pig in the world and is now listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Pygmy hogs are diurnal and spend
daylight hours foraging. The pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) is a critically endangered suid, previously
spread across Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Nepal, but now only found in India (Assam- Manas Wildlife
Sanctuary). The current world population is about 150 individuals or fewer. Throughout the year they
make sleeping nests by digging a small trench and lining it with vegetation. They also rest within these
nests during the heat of the day and warm up in winter. So, Pair 2 is not correct.

The Malabar large-spotted civet (Viverra civettina ), also known as the Malabar civet, is a viverrid endemic
to the Western Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List as the population
is estimated to number fewer than 250 mature individuals.The Small Indian Civet, which is commonly
found in rural areas, is a nocturnal and shy animal that does not venture out in broad daylight. So, Pair 3
is correct.
40
 26. Which of the following ecological pyramids can’t be inverted?
(a) Pyramid of Energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of numbers
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION :
Ecological pyramids are the graphic representations of trophic levels in an ecosystem. They are
pyramidal in shape, and they are of three types: The producers make the base of the pyramid, and the
subsequent tiers of the pyramid represent herbivore, carnivore and top carnivore levels.
The pyramid of energy represents the total amount of energy at each trophic level. An energy pyramid is
most suitable to compare the functional roles of the trophic levels in an ecosystem. An energy pyramid
reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat
energy at each trophic level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer to another trophic
level. Hence, the pyramid is always upward; Energy pyramids are never inverted, with a large energy
base at the bottom. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
ECOLOGICAL PYRAMID
About The structure of ecosystems can be visualized with ecological pyramids, which were
first described by the pioneering studies of Charles Elton in the 1920s. Ecological
pyramids show the relative amounts of various parameters (such as a number of
organisms, energy, and biomass) across trophic levels. Ecological pyramids can also be
called trophic pyramids or energy pyramids.
Pyramid of The pyramid of energy represents the total amount of energy at each trophic level.
Energy Energy is expressed in terms of rate, such as kcal/unit area /unit time or cal/unit
41
 area/unit time. E.g. in a lake, autotroph energy is 20810 kcal/m/year. Energy
pyramids are never inverted.

Pyramid Of The pyramid of biomass represents the total standing crop biomass at each trophic
Biomass level. Standing crop biomass is the amount of living matter at any given time. It is
expressed as gm/unit area or kilo cal/unit area.
➢ In most of the terrestrial ecosystems the pyramid of biomass is upright. However, in
the case of aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may be inverted, e.g. in a
pond, phytoplankton are the main producers; they have very short life cycles and a
rapid turnover rate (i.e. they are rapidly replaced by new plants).
➢ Therefore, their total biomass at any given time is less than the biomass of
herbivores supported by them.

Pyramid Of ➢ A graphic representation of the total number of individuals of different species

Numbers belonging to each trophic level in an ecosystem is known as a pyramid of numbers.
➢ This represents the number of organisms at each trophic level. For example, in a
grassland, the number of grasses is more than the number of herbivores that feed
on them, and the number of herbivores is more than the number of carnivores. In
some instances, the pyramid of numbers may be inverted, i.e. herbivores are more
than primary producers as you may observe that many caterpillars and insects feed
on a single tree.

42
27. With reference to the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), consider the following statements:
1. NBA is a constitutional body that advises State Governments to notify areas of biodiversity
importance as heritage sites
2. NBA’s headquarters is situated in New Delhi.
3. TungkyongDho in Ladakh and Gupteswar forest in Odisha are Biodiversity Heritage Sites under
the Biological Diversity Act of 2002.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
EXPLNATION:
The NBA is a Statutory body (not a constitutional body) and that performs facilitative, regulatory and
advisory function for Government of India on issue of Conservation, sustainable use of biological resource
and fair equitable sharing of benefits of use. The State Biodiversity Board (SBBs) focuses on advice the
State Governments, subject to any guidelines issued by the Central Government, on matters relating to the
conservation of biodiversity. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 by the Central Government to
implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA with its Headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu,
India, delivers its mandate through a structure that comprises of the Authority, secretariat, State
Biodiversity Board (SBBs), Biodiversity Management committees (BMCs) and Expert Committees. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
Biodiversity Heritage Site is a unique conservation approach recognised under the Section 37 of the
Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Biodiversity Heritage Sites have rich biodiversity with wild as well as
domesticated species; high endemism; rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of
evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domesticated/ cultivated species; fossil beds; cultural, ethical
or aesthetic values for maintaining cultural diversity, with or without long human association with them.
➢ Gupteswar Forest, adjacent to Gupteswar Shiva temple in Odisha’s Koraput district has been
declared as the fourth Biodiversity-Heritage Site (BHS) of odisha.
➢ The Sikkim state government has notified the sacred TunkyongDho (lake) in Dzongu as Sikkim’s
first Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) (not in Ladakh). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
NATIONAL BIODIVERSITY AUTHORITY (NBA)
About
S. Name of Biodiversity
No. Heritage Site District& State
1 Majuli River Island Majuli, Assam
2 Borjuli Wild Rice Site Sonitpur, Assam
3 Hajong Tortoise Lake DimaHasao, Assam
4 PurvataliRai North Goa, Goa
Sacred Grove at
5 SuralBhatori Monastery Chamba, Himachal Pradesh
High Altitude Meadow,
6 HudanBhatori Chamba, Himachal Pradesh
Birch-pine Forest Patch, Lahaul&Spiti, Himachal
7 Nain Gahar Pradesh
8 Nallur tamarind groves Bengaluru, Karnataka

43
9 Hogrekan Chikmagalur, Karnataka
University of Agricultural
10 Sciences, GKVK Campus Bengaluru, Karnataka
11 Ambaragudda Shimoga, Karnataka
12 Asramam Kollam, Karnataka
13 Naro Hills Satna, Madhya Pradesh
Chhindwara, Madhya
14 Patalkot Pradesh
15 Amarkantak Amarkantak, Madhya
Pradesh
16 Glory of Allapallii Gadchiroli
BambardeMyristica
17 Swamps Dodamarg, Maharastra
18 Ganeshkhind Garden Pune, Maharastra
19 Landorkhori Jalgaon, Maharastra
20 Schisturahiranyakeshi Sindhudurg, Maharastra
21 Dialong Village Tamenglong, Manipur
22 KhlawKurSyiemKmielng Ri-Bhoi, Meghalaya
23 Mandasaru Kandhamalc
24 Mahendragiri GajapatiMaharastra
Bolangir and
25 Gandhamardan Hill BargarhMaharastra
26 TungkyongDho North Sikkim, Sikkim
27 Arittapatti Madurai, Tamil Nadu
28 Ameenpur Lake Sangareddy, Telangana
Gharial Rehabilitation
29 Centre Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
30 Baramura waterfall Khowai, Tripura
31 Unakoti Unakoti, Tripura
32 Silachari Caves Gomati, Tripura
33 Debbari or Chabimura Gomati, Tripura
Betlingshib and its
34 surroundings Tonglu North district, Tripura
35 Tonglu Darjeeling, West Bengal
36 Dhotrey Darjeeling, West Bengal
37 ChilkigarhKanakDurga Jhargram, West Bengal
State Horticulture
Research and Development
38 Station Nadia, West Bengal
39 Char Balidanga Nadia, West Bengal
40 Amkhoi Wood Fossil Park Birbhum, West Bengal
41 Baneswar Shiva Dighi Coochbehar. West Bengal
42 NamthingPokhari Darjeeling, West Bengal
43 Birampur-BaguranJalpai PurbaMedinipur, West Bengal
44 Haldir Char Island PurbaMedinipur, West Bengal

44
 28. With reference to the Ayush survey conducted from July 2022 to June 2023, consider the following
statements:
1. The National Sample Survey Office collected information on the prevalence of traditional
systems of healthcare in India through the Ayush survey.
2. Urban areas saw prevalence of Ayush for prevention of illnesses more than the rural areas of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
The first exclusive all-India survey on 'Ayush' was conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
from July 2022 to June 2023 as part of the 79th round of the National Sample Survey (NSS). This survey
covered the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Information was collected from 1,81,298 households, including 1,04,195 in rural areas and 77,103 in
urban areas. The broad objectives of the survey were to collect information on:
➢ Awareness of people about the traditional system of healthcare (Ayush system of medicine),
➢ Uses of Ayush for prevention or treatment of ailments,
➢ Awareness of the households about home remedies, medicinal plants, and local health traditions/folk
medicine.
Additionally, the survey gathered information on household expenditure for treatments using Ayush
medicine systems. Hence, the National Sample Survey Office collected information on the prevalence of
traditional systems of healthcare in India through the Ayush survey. So, Statement 1 is correct.
In rural India, about 95% male as well as female aged 15 years and above have been found to be aware
about Ayush while in urban India it has been around 96%. About 79% of households in rural India and
about 80% of the households in urban India have at least one member aware about medicinal plants and
home medicines, while around 24% of the households have at least one member aware about folk
medicine or local health tradition in both rural and urban India. Estimates of the percentage of persons
(aged 15 years or more) aware of Ayush system by gender at the all-India level are shown in below figure

Hence, From above, it is clear that Urban areas saw a prevalence of Ayush for the prevention of illnesses
more than the rural areas of India. So, Statement 2 is correct.

45
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
NATIONAL SAMPLE SURVEY OFFICE
About ➢ The National Sample Survey Office(NSSO), headed by a Director General, is responsible
for conducting large-scale sample surveys in diverse fields on All India basis.
➢ Primarily data are collected through nation-wide household surveys on various socio-
economic subjects, Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), etc. Besides these surveys, NSSO
collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the improvement
of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation
surveys of the State agencies.
➢ It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.
➢ The NSSO has four Divisions:
• Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD)
• Field Operations Division (FOD)
• Data Processing Division (DPD)
• Survey Coordination Division (SCD)

29. Consider the following statements with respect to Bird species endemism in India:
1. Though India is home to many bird species, only 5% of the species are endemic to India.
2. The Western Ghats Bio-geographic zone has the highest number of bird species endemism
followed by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
3. Among the states, Tamil Nadu has more number of endemic bird species in the country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Endemic species are those species of plants and animals which are found exclusively in a particular area.
They are not naturally found anywhere else. A particular type of animal or plant may be endemic to a
zone, a state or a country. India is a country known for its incredible biodiversity and is home to many
endemic wildlife species. India is home to 1,353 bird species, representing approximately 12.40% of global
bird diversity. Of these, 78 (5%) are endemic to the country. As per recent Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
publication points out. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Areas rich in endemism are north-east India, the Western Ghats and the north-western and eastern
Himalayas. At the same time, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands contribute at least 220 species to the
endemic flora of India (Botanical Survey of India, 1983). Among the bird species present in India, there are
79 that are endemic, meaning they are found nowhere else in the world. The Western Ghats Bio-
geographic zone has the highest number of these species at 28, with the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
being the next most important area for endemism. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The global avian population comprises of 11,188 species that are grouped into 36 orders and 247 families.
India is represented by 1358 species of birds under 26 orders and 114 families.

46
From the above table, it is clear that Kerala has more endemic bird species (38) than Tamil Nadu (36). So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

47
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
NEWLY FOUND ENDEMIC SPECIES
Indian black ➢ A new species of endemic honeybee has been discovered in the Western Ghats. The
honeybee new species has been named ApisKarinjodian and given the common name Indian
black honeybee. Spotted from the Western Ghats after a gap of more than 200 years.
The last honeybee described from India was Apis indica in 1798 by Fabricius.
➢ ApisKarinjodian has evolved from Apisceranamorphotypes that got acclimatised to the
hot and humid environment of the Western Ghats.
➢ The species has been classified as near threatened (NT) in the State based on the IUCN
Red List Categories and Criteria.

Conjoined ➢ A new species of silverline butterfly has been identified in the biodiversity hotspots in
silverline India’s Western Ghats. Belongs to the Lycaenidae family.
➢ In India, there are 16 species of silverline butterflies, with 11 of them found in both
peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
➢ The newly described conjoined silverline butterfly is only the second endemic species
discovered in the Western Ghats and is primarily found in dense mid-elevation
evergreen forests, indicating specialised habitat preferences.
➢ Fused bands on the underside of the wings led to the species being named ”conjoined
silverline”.

48
 30. Which of the following sets of insects are considered to be indicators of freshwater quality in lakes
and rivers?
(a) Fruit flies and damselflies
(b) Dragonflies and damselflies
(c) Dragonflies and Butterflies
(d) Fruit flies and Butterflies
EXPLANATION :
Bioindicators are living organisms such as plants, planktons, animals, and microbes, which are utilized to
screen the health of the natural ecosystem in the environment. They are used for assessing environmental
health and biogeographic changes taking place in the environment.
➢ Damselflies are found mainly near shallow, freshwater habitats and are graceful fliers with slender
bodies and long, filmy, net-veined wings. Damselflies are generally smaller, more delicate, and fly
weakly in comparison with dragonflies.
➢ Dragonflies are large colorful insects usually found near fresh water such as riverbanks, canals,
ditches, ponds and lakes. Their smaller relatives, the damselflies, are also found in similar habitats.
Most of a dragonfly’s lifecycle is spent underwater and it is only the short-lived adults that we normally
see.
➢ Clean water is an essential requirement for dragonflies and damselflies and they are therefore good
environmental indicators, their presence suggesting a healthy water environment. Being strong fliers
many dragonflies can be found a long way from water, but all do require water to complete their life
cycle.
➢ The dragonflies and damselflies are best bio-indicators of freshwater quality. The moment the water is
polluted, the population of these odonates decline. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
INDICATOR SPECIES
About ➢ An indicator species is any biological species that defines a trait or characteristic of the
environment. For example, a species may delineate an ecoregion or indicate an
environmental condition such as a disease outbreak, pollution, species competition or
climate change. Indicator species can be among the most sensitive species in a region, and
sometimes act as an early warning to monitoring biologists.
➢ Many indicator species of the ocean systems are fish, invertebrates, periphyton, macrophytes
and specific species of ocean birds (like the Atlantic Puffin).
➢ Amphibian indicates chemicals, global warming and air pollution. Lichens are indicators of
air quality and are sensitive to sulfur dioxide
➢ Lichens serve as good bio-indicators for air pollution. In the variety of pH around 6.0, several
animals, which are important food items for fish, decline. These include the freshwater
shrimp, crayfish, snails and some small mussels.
➢ Seaweeds are also used as the potential indicators of pollution in coastal ecosystem,
particularly heavy metal pollution due to their ability to bind and accumulate metals
strongly.
➢ Pygmy Hog is one of the most useful indicators of the management status of grassland
habitats. The grasslands where the pygmy hog resides are crucial for the survival of other
endangered species such as Indian Rhinoceros, Swamp Deer, Wild Buffalo, Hispid Hare,
Bengal Florican and Swamp Francolin.
➢ Sea turtles are an indicator of healthy marine ecosystems and provide a source of revenue for
local communities through tourism.

49
 31. As per International standards, which of the following metals can be present in the Drinking Water?
1. Fluoride
2. Aluminium
3. Sulphate
4. Manganese
5. Cadmium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION :
WHO produces international norms on water quality and human health in the form of guidelines that are
used as the basis for regulation and standard setting in developing and developed countries worldwide.
The quality of drinking water is a powerful environmental determinant of health. Assurance of drinking
water safety is a foundation for preventing and controlling waterborne diseases. As per International
standards, the following metals can be present in the Drinking Water.
➢ Fluoride: Water should be tested for fluoride ion concentration for drinking purposes. Its drinking
water deficiency harms man and causes diseases such as tooth decay etc. Soluble fluoride is often
added to drinking water to bring its concentration up to 1 ppm or 1 mg dm–3.
➢ Aluminium is used as a structural material in the construction, automotive, and aircraft industries, in
producing metal alloys, in the electric industry, in cooking utensils, and in food packaging. Aluminium
compounds are used as antacids, antiperspirants, and food additives. The prescribed concentration of
lead in drinking water is 0.2 ppm. Excess aluminium in drinking water can cause symptoms including
nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, mouth ulcers, skin ulcers, skin rashes, and arthritic pain were noted. The
symptoms were mostly mild and short-lived. No lasting effects on health could be attributed to the
known exposures from aluminium in the drinking water.
➢ Lead: Drinking water gets contaminated with lead when lead pipes are used for the transportation of
water. The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking water is about 50 ppb. Lead can
damage the kidneys, liver, reproductive system, etc.
➢ Sulphate: Excessive sulphate (>500 ppm) in drinking water causes a laxative effect; otherwise, at
moderate levels, it is harmless.
➢ Nitrate: The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is 50 ppm. Excess nitrate in drinking water
can cause diseases such as methemoglobinemia (‘blue baby’ syndrome).
➢ Manganese naturally occurs in rocks and soil and seeps into groundwater. It is used as an additive in
gasoline and is released into the environment in exhaust gases. The permissible level of manganese in
drinking water is 0.05 ppm.Some of the most common health and aesthetic impacts of high levels of
manganese in water are cognitive problems, manganese toxicity, dark brown or black stains on objects,
and poor taste in water.
➢ Cadmium is a metal chemically similar to zinc and occurs naturally with zinc and lead in sulfide ores.
Cadmium metal is used mainly as an anticorrosive, electroplated onto steel. Cadmium sulfide and
selenide are commonly used as pigments in plastics. Cadmium compounds are used in electric
batteries, electronic components and nuclear reactors. Cadmium concentrations in unpolluted natural
waters are usually below 1 µg/l. The maximum contaminant level for cadmium in drinking water is
0.005 mg/L. Chronic cadmium exposure is associated with kidney disease, osteoporosis,
cardiovascular diseases and cancer. Itai-Itai disease is a well-known chronic cadmium poisoning
occurring among inhabitants of the Jinzu River basin in Japan during and after World War II.
➢ Therefore, all the metals given, such as fluoride, aluminium, sulphate, manganese, and cadmium, can
be present in drinking water at permissible levels. So, Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct.

50
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MAJOR WATER POLLUTANTS AND THEIR SOURCE

51
 32. In the context of space technology, the ‘Pushpak’ refers to:
(a) A remote sensing satellite
(b) A rover on Chandrayaan 3
(c) A sounding rocket
(d) A reusable launch vehicle
EXPLANATION :
Pushpak, is ISRO’s third reusable launch vehicle. “Pushpak” executed a precise horizontal
landing, showcasing advanced autonomous capabilities under challenging conditions. With the objectives
of RLV LEX accomplished, ISRO embarks into RLV-ORV, the orbital reusable vehicle. To bring down
launch costs and to remain competitive, the reusable launch vehicle is designed to take satellites up to
space and return and land on a runway like an aeroplane. The vehicle uses multiple sensors such as
inertial sensor, radar altimeter, pseudolite system (a ground-based positioning system), as well as the
country’s own NaVIC satellite-based positioning system. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
SOUNDING ROCKET
About ➢ Sounding rockets are one or two stage solid propellant rockets used for probing the upper
atmospheric regions and for space research.
➢ They also serve as easily affordable platforms to test or prove prototypes of new components
or subsystems intended for use in launch vehicles and satellites.
➢ Their overall time in space is brief, typically 5-20 minutes, and at lower vehicle speeds for a
well-placed scientific experiment. The short time and low vehicle speeds are more than
adequate (in some cases they are ideal) to carry out a successful scientific experiments.
➢ There are some important regions of space that are too low for satellites and thus sounding
rockets provide the only platforms that can carry out measurements in these regions.
➢ Sixteen different sounding rocket vehicles, ranging from a single-stage Orion to a four-stage
Black Brant XII, are available to support science research between 100 to 1400 kilometers
into the atmosphere.

33. Which of the following are reasons for maintaining flora at botanical gardens?
1. To study the acclimatisation process of exotic plants.
2. To secure plant diversity by acting as a germplasm collection.
3. To provide information on the taxonomy of plant species.
4. To spread awareness about threats to plants and to evolve possible solutions.
5. To develop improved varieties of plants for commercial purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION :
A botanical garden refers to a scientifically planned collection of living trees, shrubs, herbs, climbers and
other plants from various parts of the world. The Purpose of botanical gardens are as follows:
➢ To study the taxonomy as well as the growth of plants.
➢ To study the introduction and acclimatization (Acclimatization refers to the ability of an organism to
adjust its characteristics to new environmental conditions during its lifetime) process of exotic plants.
➢ It acts as a germplasm collection. Germplasm is the term used to describe the seeds, plants, or plant
parts useful in crop breeding, research, and conservation efforts.
➢ It helps the development of new hybrids and improved varieties of economically important plants of the

52
 region for commercial exploitation by conducting various horticultural researches such as
hybridization, selection, cross-pollination, trial, etc
➢ To make people aware of the major threats to plants and augment the conservation of rare and
threatened species. So, Statements 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BOTANICAL GARDENS
About A botanical garden refers to a scientifically planned collection of living trees, shrubs,
herbs, climbers and other plants from various parts of the world.
Objectives of ➢ Conservation, study and propagation of rare plants.
Botanical ➢ Collection, documentation and maintenance of indigenous and exotic plant
Garden species.
➢ Serve as a conservation and education centre.
➢ Acclimatization and field evaluation of indigenous & exotic plants from various
agroclimatic regions.
➢ Establishing a herbarium of authentic specimens for identification of plants.
➢ Sale and exchange of seeds, plants and other planting materials to individuals and
research institutions.
➢ Provide recreation facilities to the public in general and expose them to different
hands-on learning.
Activities of ➢ Collection, introduction and maintenance of native, Indigenous, and exotic plants
the Botanical ➢ Ex-situ and in-situ conservation of endemic, threatened and other useful plants.
Garden ➢ Collection, germination test, and storage of seeds in the seed bank
➢ Education regarding conservation, classification, and uses of plants
➢ Technology development for plant propagation
➢ Landscape development and beautification to improve the garden’s aesthetic appeal
for visitors
➢ Production and sale of ornamental plants and MAPs
➢ Participation in the flower exhibition
➢ Dissemination of botanical information to raise awareness
➢ Extra-curricular activities and plantation on various occasions
➢ Technical support in plant propagation and garden development

34. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1:
The Boreal Forest soils are acidic and mineral deficient, characterized by thin podzols.
Statement 2:
In boreal forests, essential soluble nutrients are leached away due to the absence of a counter-
upward movement of evaporation.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

53
EXPLANATION :
The boreal forest, also known as taiga or coniferous forest, the world’s largest terrestrial biome, is found
south of the Arctic Circle and across most of Canada, Alaska, Russia, and northern Europe.
Boreal forest soils are characterized by thin podzols and are rather poor and these soils are acidic and
are mineral deficient. Both are because the weathering of rocks proceeds slowly in cold environments
and because the litter derived from conifer needles (leaf) decomposes very slowly and is not rich in
nutrients. So, Statement I is correct.
In boreal forests, soils are acidic and mineral deficient. This is due to the movement of a large amount of
water through the soil without a significant counter-upward movement of evaporation, which leaches
essential soluble nutrients like calcium, nitrogen and potassium, sometimes beyond the reach of roots.
This process leaves no alkaline-oriented cations to encounter the organic acids of the accumulating
litter. The productivity and community stability of a boreal forest are lower than those of any other forest
ecosystem.
The acidic and mineral deficiencies of boreal forest soils are directly related to the leaching of nutrients
due to the lack of upward evaporation, which results in the formation of podzols. So, Statement II is
correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
THE BOREAL FOREST
About Boreal forests, are part of the largest terrestrial biome, accounting for 27% of the
world’s total forest area.
The Russian Federation, Canada, and the United States account for the majority
(93%) of the global boreal forest area.Cold regions with high rainfall and strong
seasonal climates with long winters and short summers are characterized by boreal
coniferous forests.

Characteristics ➢ This biome has cold, dry winters and short, cool, wet summers. Temperatures
vary from −54°C – 30°C (-65°F – 86°F) throughout the whole year.
➢ The summers, while short, are generally warm and humid. In much of the Taiga, -
20°C (-4°F) would be a typical winter day temperature, while 18°C (64°F) would be

54
 an average summer day.
➢ The annual precipitation, from 40 cm to -100 cm (15.7–39 in), usually takes the
form of snow. Little evaporation occurs because of the cold temperatures.
➢ The long and cold winters in the boreal forest have led to the predominance of
cold-tolerant, cone-bearing plants.
➢ This benefits evergreen trees, which grow faster than deciduous trees in the boreal
forest. In addition, soils in boreal forest regions tend to be acidic, with little
available nitrogen. Leaves are a nitrogen-rich structure that deciduous trees must
produce yearly.
➢ Therefore, coniferous trees that retain nitrogen-rich needles may have a
competitive advantage over the broad-leafed deciduous trees.
➢ The net primary productivity of boreal forests is lower than that of temperate
forests and tropical wet forests.
Podzol ➢ Podzols are infertile and highly acidic soil that appear as either white or grey ash.
➢ They are located on the subsurface layer of the soil as evidence of minerals that
have leached into a lower stratum. Typically, podzols are found in boreal zones
and mountainous regions.
➢ Podzols form when soluble metal complexes such as aluminium, silicon, and iron
move from the upper parts of the soil profile to the deeper parts of the earth by
means of percolating water. As a result, the ash-grey component forms within the
eluvial horizon.
➢ The metals combine with iron/aluminium oxide to create humus in the sub-soil.
➢ There’s also a movement of the metal complexes to the illuviated horizons found
underneath the earth surface. These horizons are commonly black, brown, or red
and made up of organic compounds.

35. Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of Eutrophication?

1. Species richness due to nutrient enrichment
2. Increased biomass production of epiphytic algae
3. Increase in bloom of gelatinous zooplankton
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION :
Eutrophication is characterized by excessive plant and algal growth due to the increased availability of one
or more limiting growth factors needed for photosynthesis, such as sunlight, carbon dioxide, and nutrient
fertilizers.Eutrophication occurs naturally over centuries as lakes age and are filled in with sediments.
However, human activities have accelerated the rate and extent of Eutrophication through both point-
source discharges and non-point loadings of limiting nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, into
aquatic ecosystems, with dramatic consequences for drinking water sources, fisheries, and recreational
water bodies.
Species richness measures the number of species found in a community. Eutrophication typically leads to
a decrease in species richness because the excessive nutrients favour the growth of a few dominant
species; often, algal blooms restrict the sunlight to penetrate & affect the photosynthesizing plants. And a
decline in overall biodiversity. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The most common signs of Eutrophication are dense algal blooms that cause high turbidity in aquatic
systems, decreasing dissolved oxygen and increasing hypoxia conditions in the deeper parts of water
bodies because of plant decay in sediments. There is also an increased biomass of inedible toxic

55
phytoplankton and benthic and epiphytic algae (which grow on submerged aquatic vegetation).
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Gelatinous zooplankton comprise a diverse group of organisms with jellylike tissues and transparent
bodies that contain a high percentage of water. They have representatives from all major and minor phyla,
ranging from protists to chordates. Gelatinous zooplankton (GZ), consisting of members of the cnidarian
medusae, ctenophores (comb jellies) and pelagic tunicates (salps, doliolids, pyrosomes).
Gelatinous zooplankton blooms appear to have occurred frequently over the past two centuries. The bloom
occurrences are attributed to various human-related causes, such as Eutrophication, climate change,
overharvesting of fish, etc. Gelatinous zooplankton are significant consumers of plankton, feeding mostly
on zooplankton using tentacles and oral arms. Eutrophication increases phytoplankton and, in turn, more
zooplankton consumed by gelatinous zooplankton. Therefore, Eutrophication increases the bloom of
gelatinous zooplankton.So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
EUTROPHICATION
About The term ‘eutrophication’ comes from the Greek word ‘eutrophos,’ which means well-fed or
enriched. In context with the environment, Eutrophication can be defined as the addition of
artificial or non-artificial substances, such as nitrates and phosphates, through fertilizers
or sewage to a freshwater system, which leads to an increase in the primary productivity of
phytoplankton.
Types Natural
➢ Deposition of nutrients such as depositional environments. When the nutrients flow
into the system on temporal basics.
➢ It Occurs over centuries
➢ Example: Seasonally inundated tropical floodplains
Manmade
➢ Occurs in decades
➢ These inputs may come from untreated sewage discharges, runoff of fertilizer from farm
fields, golf courses, parks, etc. & from animal wastes.
➢ Combustion of fossil fuel produces gases –nitrogen oxides
➢ Growing urban population in the coastal areas
Effects ➢ Some algal blooms, when eaten or eaten, release neuro & hepatotoxins, which can kill
aquatic organisms & pose a threat to humans. (e.g.) Shellfish poisoning.
➢ Depletion of dissolved oxygen level.
➢ Increased incidences of fish kills & loss of desirable fish species & reduction in
harvesting.
➢ Loss of coral reefs.
➢ Decrease in water transparency and increased turbidity.
➢ Affects navigation due to increased turbidity.
➢ Colour (yellow, green, red), smell and water treatment problems.
➢ Unsuitable for aesthetic recreation and reduction in value of water body
Harmful ➢ Algae or phytoplankton are microscopic organisms that can be found naturally in
Algal coastal waters. They are major producers of oxygen and food for many of the animals
Blooms that live in these waters.
➢ When environmental conditions are favourable for their development, these cells may
multiply rapidly and form high numbers of cells, which is called an algal bloom.
➢ A bloom often results in a colour change in the water. Algal blooms can be any colour,
but the most common ones are red or brown. These blooms are commonly referred to as
red or brown tides.
➢ Most algal blooms are not harmful, but some produce toxins that affect fish, birds,
marine mammals, and humans. The toxins may also make the surrounding air difficult
to breathe. These are known as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs).
56
 36. Consider the following:
1. Nakti Bird Sanctuary
2. Sirpur Lake
3. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary
4. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve
How many of the above wetlands in India have been included in the Ramsar List in the year 2023 ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION :
The Nakti Bird Sanctuaries in Bihar were added to the Ramsar list on 11-10-2023. The Site is a man-
made wetland which was developed primarily for irrigation through the construction of the Nakti Dam.
Since the dam's construction, the Wetland and its surrounding area have provided habitat for over 150
species of birds, mammals, fish, aquatic plants, reptiles and amphibians.
They include globally threatened species, including the endangered Indian elephant and a vulnerable
native catfish. The Nakti Bird Sanctuary is located in the Jamui district of the State of Bihar.
According to the Asiatic Waterbird Census (AWC) 2023, the Nakti bird sanctuary is the Wetlands with
the highest number of birds reported, with a count of 7,844 birds, followed by the Nagi bird sanctuary
with 6,938 birds. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Sirpur Wetland is located in the Indore district of Madhya Pradesh and was declared a Ramsar Site on
07-01-2022 (not in 2023). The Sirpur wetland is an important historical lake commonly named Pakshi
Vihar (bird sanctuary). The Wetland area is 161 ha, and the catchment area is about 1000 ha. It has a
mixed watershed, mostly rural, with some parts falling in the urban areas and also on the northern,
southern, and western sides. The Wetland comes under the jurisdiction of Indore City Municipal
Corporation, which is the custodian of the Wetland. The Wetland is a man-made wetland, but over the
centuries, it has acquired all its natural characteristics.. The diverse flora & fauna provide an ideal
habitat in the form of food and shelter for a large number of migratory birds during the winter season.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary was officially designated as a Ramsar site by the convention on
24-05-2023, which is located in Tamil Nadu. The Site is one of the largest inland freshwater lakes in the
State of Tamil Nadu. It provides an important stopover and foraging ground for birds migrating along the
Central Asian Flyway. The gum Arabic tree provides roosting and nesting grounds for threatened species
such as spotted eagle, tawny eagle and Indian darter. When the water level starts receding after
January, larger birds such as painted storks flock to the Site; it has recorded one of the largest
congregations of waterbirds among all lakes in the State of Tamil Nadu. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, located in Karnataka, was declared a Ramsar site on 14-02-
2023. The Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve near Gadag is a human-made wetland with an area of
nearly 50 hectares which was constructed to store rainwater for irrigation purposes and is home to over
166 species of birds, of which 130 are migratory, and two are vulnerable species, and four are near-
threatened species. In addition, 8,000 birds visit the Site during winter, and the Wetland is also one of
the largest wintering grounds for the Bar-headed goose in Southern India. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
WETLANDS
About The Ramsar convention, established in Iran in 1971, defines wetlands as "Areas of
marsh, fen, peatland, or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary,
with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine
water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed 6m."

57
 Wetland ecosystems provide support to both the livelihoods of local communities and
a habitat for diverse plant and animal species.
Since the Ramsar convention, the global community has recognized the need to
conserve these areas and their biodiversity. India became a signatory to the Ramsar
Convention in 1982.
World World Wetlands Day is observed on February 2 every year worldwide to commemorate
Wetlands Day the signing of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance in
(WWD) 1971.
AmritDharohar ➢ AmritDharohar initiative, part of the 2023-24 budget announcement, was
initiative launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in
June 2023 to promote the unique conservation values of the Ramsar Sites in the
country while generating employment opportunities and supporting local
livelihoods.
➢ This initiative is to be implemented over three years in convergence with various
Central Government ministries and agencies, State Wetland Authorities, and a
network of formal and informal institutions and individuals working together for a
common cause.

37. Consider the following statements:

1. Increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to an organism is called
biomagnification.
2. The tendency of pollutants to increase in concentration from one link in a food chain to another
is bioaccumulation.
3. Pollutants that are long-lived, mobile and soluble in fats aid biomagnification.
How many of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to
the next. Thus, in biomagnification, there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant from one link
in a food chain to another.
It is traditional to measure the amount of pollutants in fatty tissues of organisms such as fish. In
mammals, we often test the milk produced by females, since the milk has a lot of fat in it are often more
susceptible to damage from toxins (poisons). If a pollutant is not active biologically, it may biomagnify, but
we really don’t worry about it much since it probably won’t cause any problems. Examples: Dichloro-
Diphenyl-Trichloroethane (DDT). The statement given is about bioaccumulation.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Bioaccumulation refers to how pollutants enter a food chain. In bioaccumulation, there is an increase in
the concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
It occurs at the base of a food web, usually within primary producers like phytoplankton. These
microscopic photosynthetic organisms absorb Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) directly from the
seawater and accumulate them in their bodies over time. The toxins build up in their tissues because they
are absorbed from the water at a rate faster than they can be metabolized. The statement given is about
biomagnification. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The pollutant must be long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, and biologically active for biomagnification. If a
pollutant is short-lived, it will be broken down before becoming dangerous. If it is not mobile, it will stay in
one place and is unlikely to be taken up by organisms. If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be

58
excreted by the organism. However, pollutants that dissolve in fats may be retained for a long time. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
FOOD CHAIN AND FOOD WEB
Food chain ➢ Organisms in the ecosystem are related to each other through feeding mechanisms or
trophic levels, i.e. one organism becomes food for the other.
➢ A sequence of organisms that feed on one another forms a food chain. A food chain
starts with producers and ends with top carnivores.
➢ The sequence of eating and being eaten produces a transfer of food energy, and this is
known as the food chain.
➢ The plant converts solar energy into chemical energy by photosynthesis. Small
herbivores consume the plant matter and convert them into animal matter. These
herbivores are eaten by large carnivores.
➢ Types of Food Chains
• Grazing food chain

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 • Detritus food chain

Food web ➢ A food chain represents only one part of the food or energy flow through an ecosystem
and implies a simple, isolated relationship, which seldom occurs in the ecosystems.
➢ An ecosystem may consist of several interrelated food chains. More typically, the
same food resource is part of more than one chain, especially when that resource is
at the lower trophic levels.
➢ “A food web illustrates all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among the
organisms in an ecosystem, whereas a food chain traces only one pathway of the
food.
➢ For example, grasses may serve as food for rabbits, grasshoppers, goats, or cows.
Similarly, an herbivore may be the food source for many carnivorous species.

38. Consider the following statements with respect to Kelp Forest:

1. They are underwater ecosystems formed in shallow water by dense growth of larger blue-green
algae.
2. They are heterotrophs found in cold and nutrient-rich waters.
3. El Niño southern oscillation (ENSO) events lead to distortion of the kelp ecosystem.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
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EXPLANATION :
Kelp forests are underwater ecosystems formed in shallow water by the dense growth of several different
species known as kelp. Though they look very much like plants, kelps are actually extremely large brown
algae. Some species can reach heights (underwater) of 150 feet (45 m), and under ideal physical
conditions, kelp can grow 18 inches (45 cm) in a single day. As a result of this incredible growth, kelp
forests can develop very quickly in areas where they did not exist. Hence, kelp is not blue-green algae; it is
large brown algae. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Kelp are not heterotrophs. They are autotrophs, meaning they produce their own food through
photosynthesis using sunlight. It thrives in cold, nutrient-rich waters. Because kelp attaches to the
seafloor and eventually grows to the water’s surface and relies on sunlight to generate food and energy,
kelp forests are always coastal and require shallow, relatively clear water. Generally speaking, kelps live
further from the tropics than coral reefs, mangrove forests, and warm-water seagrass beds, so kelp forests
do not overlap with those systems.
Like those systems, though, kelp forests provide an important three-dimensional underwater habitat that
is home to hundreds or thousands of species of invertebrates, fishes, and other algae. Some species
aggregate and spawn in kelp forests or utilize these areas as juvenile nursery habitats.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a naturally occurring large-scale climatic phenomenon involving
fluctuating ocean temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific, coupled with changes in the
overlying atmosphere. El Niño and La Niña are the oceanic components, while the Southern Oscillation is
the atmospheric counterpart, thus giving rise to the term El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
Kelp forests face a variety of threats, such as commercial kelp harvesting, pollution, and climate change,
which exacerbate El Niño southern oscillation (ENSO) events and negatively impact kelp reproduction and
survival. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
EL NIÑO SOUTHERN OSCILLATION (ENSO)
About ➢ El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is one of the most important sources of annual global
climate variability, second only to the earth–sun relationship that drives the seasons. El Niño
and its counterpart La Niña are associated with characteristic patterns of rainfall and
temperature, which can include extreme events such as flooding and drought.
➢ ENSO affects many parts of the globe, but most intensely impacts the tropics, including
countries and areas in Africa, Latin America and South and South-East Asia that are
particularly vulnerable to natural hazards.
➢ By altering climate conditions, ENSO can have severe effects on key health determinants
through, among other factors, impacts on food security, air and water quality, ecosystems
and health infrastructure safety. ENSO is also associated with altered transmission patterns
of vector-borne, rodent-borne and waterborne diseases, as well as fish and shellfish

61
 poisoning.
➢ Early warning systems and anticipatory action can help reduce the impacts of extreme
weather conditions exacerbated by ENSO.

39. Consider the following statements:

1. The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme promotes
restoration and reforestation of Mangroves only on salt pan lands.
2. India is not a member of the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) which aims to restore
mangrove belts to help limit coastal flooding and the effect of sea level rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Salt pan lands are low-lying areas around the shore that are used for salt cultivation. They are a coastal
area’s natural defence against flooding. They help intertidal activity, and are home to diverse flora and
fauna. The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme is a
government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and on saltpan
lands.Objective of the scheme is to conserve and restore the mangrove ecosystem, preventing coastal
erosion, and sustaining local livelihoods not only on saltpan lands. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC), which is spearheaded by the United Arab Emirates in partnership
with Indonesia, will promote mangroves as a nature-based solution to climate change. Nature-based
solutions include restoring mangrove belts to help limit coastal flooding and the effect of sea level rise. The
MAC was launched at COP27; India became a member of the Mangrove Alliance for Climate, initiated by
the UAE and Indonesia, during COP 27 at Egypt. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MISTHI
About ➢ The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme is a
government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and
on saltpan lands.
➢ The scheme is primarily focused on the Sundarbans delta, Hoogly Estuary in West
Bengal, India and other bay parts of country, but also includes other wetlands in the
country.
➢ To conserve and restore the mangrove ecosystem, which is critical to mitigating the
effects of climate change, preventing coastal erosion, and sustaining local livelihoods.
➢ The government is providing financial assistance to local communities to undertake
mangrove plantation activities.
➢ The scheme also involves awareness campaigns to educate people about the importance
of mangroves and their role in protecting the environment.
Mangrove ➢ The MAC seeks to scale up, accelerate conservation, restoration and growing plantation
Alliance efforts of mangrove ecosystems for the benefit of communities globally, and recognize the
for Climate importance of these ecosystems for climate change mitigation and adaption.
(MAC) INITIATIVES-Blue Carbon initiative
• Blue Carbon’ refers to the functional attributes of coastal and marine ecosystems to
sequester and store carbon.
• Blue Carbon ecosystems of the UAE include mangrove forests, salt marshes and
seagrass beds.
• Another potential Blue Carbon ecosystem identifyed as a result of this project is
cyanobacterial “bluegreen algal”
• When these ecosystems are destroyed, buried carbon can be released into the
atmosphere, contributing to climate change.
62
 40. Consider the following statements with reference to the Competition Commission of India(CCI):
1. CCI is empowered to approve equity stake acquisitions of a firm by another firm.
2. CCI is mandated to protect consumers against anti-profiteering practices.
3. CCI can approve the realignment of legal ownership within firms of India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
According to Section 43 of The Companies Act, 2013, an equity share is a share that does not enjoy any
preferential right in the payment of dividends or repayment of capital. Equity shareholders are entitled
to share the company's distributable profits after satisfying the dividend rights of the preference
shareholders.
Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 states that, No person or enterprise shall enter into a
combination that causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the
relevant market in India. Such a combination shall be void. Subject to the provisions contained in sub-
section (1),
Any person or enterprise, who or which proposes to enter into a combination, shall give notice to the
Commission, in the form as may be specified, and the fee which may be determined, by regulations,
disclosing the details of the proposed combination.
Recently, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) approved Mitsubishi Corporation's acquisition of a
certain equity stake in TVS Certified Private Limited and TVS Vehicle Mobility Solution Private Limited.
The Proposed Combination relates to Mitsubishi Corporation (Acquirer) acquiring an equity stake in TVS
Certified Private Limited (Target 1) and TVS Vehicle Mobility Solution Private Limited (Target 2).
The Competition Act also states that the following provisions do not apply to certain acquisitions:
➢ Share subscription
➢ Financing facility
➢ Acquisitions by a public financial institution, foreign portfolio investor, bank, or Category I
alternative investment fund.
Hence the recent acquisition is not included in the above types of acquisitions, So, Statement 1 is
correct.
The Commission must eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition, promote and sustain
competition, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) was initially constituted on 28th November 2017 under
section ‘7’ (2) of the central Goods and Service Tax (GST) Act, 2017. In the 45th GST Council meeting it
was decided to explore the possibility of transferring all cases to the Competition Commission of India
(CCI). Hence CCI is mandated to protect consumers against anti-profiteering practices. So, Statement 2
is correct.
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposed combination involving the
realignment of interests, legal ownership, and management of various entities within the Godrej group.
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) can approve the realignment of legal ownership within firms
of India under Section 31 of the Competition Act. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION;
COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA (CCI)
Recently Recently, The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the acquisition of certain
in news equity stake of TVS Certified Private Limited and TVS Vehicle Mobility Solution Private
Limited by Mitsubishi Corporation.
About The Competition Commission of India(CCI) is for ensuring that the ‘Common Man’ has

63
 access to the broadest range of goods and services at the most competitive prices. Fair
competition in the market is essential to achieve this objective. CCI’s goal is to create and
sustain fair competition in the economy that will provide a ‘level playing field’ to the
producers and make the markets work for the welfare of the consumers.
The objectives of the Act are sought to be achieved through the Competition Commission of
India, which has been established by the Central Government with effect from 14th October
2003. The Commission shall consist of a Chairperson and not less than two and not more
than six other Members to be appointed by the Central Government.
Divisions ➢ Antitrust Division- assists the Commission in the discharge of its enforcement mandate
relating to the prohibition of anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant
position.
➢ Combination Division- facilitates the Commission in its role as an ex-ante regulator of
acquisitions, mergers, and amalgamations. All combinations above a certain financial
threshold are mandatorily required to be notified to the Commission and cannot be
consummated until approved by the Commission. The Division provides inputs for
competition assessment of notified combinations as per the provisions of the
Competition Act, 2002, to determine whether a combination is likely to have an
appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.
➢ Advocacy Division- The advocacy division is entrusted with the following functions:
• Creating awareness about the Commission’s activities through the publication
and dissemination of advocacy material.
• Conducting training programs on competition law.
• Sponsoring Moot court events/seminars/lectures on competition law at premier
academic institutions.
• Regularly scheduling roadshows and conferences to engage with stakeholder

41. Lion-tailed Macaques are habitat specialists confined to a narrow range of which of the following
types of forest?
(a) Thorny forest
(b) Evergreen forest
(c) Deciduous forest
(d) Alpine forest
EXPLANATION :
Lion tailed macaque is a species inhabiting evergreen rain forests in the Western-Ghats of India. It is a
primate endemic to small and severely fragmented rainforests of the Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala
and Tamil Nadu, continues to be in the ‘endangered’ category in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
The Lion Tailed Macaques are named so not because of their manes but because of their tails which
resembles a lion’s.This monkey, therefore, is not only an indicator of the health of rainforests, its
management in the fragmented habitats also makes it an umbrella species for the conservation of other
wildlife species in the region. According to the IUCN, there are only 2400 - 2500 Macaques across Tamil
Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka. They are reducing in number because of habitat destruction caused by
tourism and encroachment, poaching and road kills. Tamil Nadu in its State budget this year announced
it will establish Tamil Nadu Endangered Species Conservation Fund with a corpus of ₹50 crore. LTM is
one of the species to be covered under the fund. Thus, the LTMs are habitat specialists confined to a
narrow range of evergreen forests. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
LION-TAILED MACAQUE
About ➢ The Lion-tailed macaque (Macacasilenus) is an endangered primate endemic to
evergreen rainforests of the southern part in Western Ghats.
64
 ➢ The Lion-Tailes macaque was reassessed and classified as an ‘endangered’ species in
the IUCN Red List in 2020, with about 2,500 mature individuals distributed in the
Western Ghats hill ranges between the Kalakkad Hills in the south and Sirsi-
Honnavara in the north.
➢ The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 gives LTM the highest conservation priority by
listing it under the Schedule-I. Biologists say their current numbers in the wild could
range between 3,000 and 3,500. The Valparai plateau is believed to have around 500
LTMs, making it one of the important populations.
➢ The population is expected to suffer an estimated decline of over 20% in the next 25
years due to varied reasons including hunting, roadkills and habitat loss.

Conservation ➢ Nature Conservation Foundation, an NGO, and the Tamil Nadu State Forest
measures Department built a bridge out of wooden ladders to link the canopies across a road.
Eventually, the monkeys started using this and reduced their habit of crossing the
road.
➢ Governmental policy mainly includes stopping encroachment into lion-tailed
macaque habitats, and controlling hunting, road-kills and electrocution.
➢ Captive breeding of lion tailed macaque is done in Arignar Anna Zoological Park,
Chennai and in mysore zoo.

42. With respect to Environment Impact Assessment (EIA), consider the following statements:
1. EIA is an important management tool for ensuring optimal use of natural resources for
sustainable development.
2. The Appraisal committee is constituted to screen and evaluate the environmental projects both
at the central and State levels.
3. EIA is mandatory for all projects under the Environmental Protection Act 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
EIA is a systematic process used to evaluate the potential positive and negative environmental effects of
a proposed project or development before it is approved. The primary objectives of EIA include the
prediction and evaluation of the environmental, economic, and social impacts of development
projects. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is an important management tool for ensuring the
optimal use of natural resources for sustainable development. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The EIA Notification calls (Ministry of Environment & Forests [MoEF]&State Environment Impact
Assessment Authority [SEIAA]) these two authorities as Regulatory Authorities.
➢ For bigger projects that fall under Category A in the Schedule, the MoEF issues the Environmental

65
 Clearance (EC).
➢ For smaller projects- Category B, the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA)- a
Central Government authority operating in each state, issues the clearance. If an SEIAA has not
been constituted in a state, then all projects requiring an EC will be considered by the MoEF.
➢ The MoEF will issue EC for projects being evaluated by it, based on the recommendations of the
Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC.) Likewise, the SEIAA will issue EC based on the recommendations
of the State Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC).
Category A projects (Harbours, airports, nuclear power and related projects, individual projects,
construction or expansion of ports, primary metallurgical industries) do not require screening but
Category B1 (Thermal power plants based on coal/ lignite/ naphtha and gas of capacity> 5MV and <500
MW) requires the screening step.
Both EAC &State Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC) are created to recommend projects at both levels.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Category A project will require clearance from the Central Government (MoEF). Category B will require
clearance from the State Government. However, the state government will first classify if the B project
falls under the B1 or B2 category. B1 projects will require the preparation of EIA reports, while the
remaining projects will be termed B2 projects and will not require EIA reports. Therefore, EIA is not
mandatory for all projects under the Environmental Protection Act 1986.So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
About: ➢ Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) has emerged as a mechanism to aid
nations in walking the tightrope between economic development and
environmental protection, ensuring that growth does not come at the expense of
ecological sustainability.
➢ EIA is a systematic process used to evaluate the potential environmental effects –
both positive and negative – of a proposed project or development before it is
approved. The primary objectives of EIA include the prediction and evaluation of
the environmental, economic and social impacts of development projects.
➢ EIA also fosters popular participation in developmental decision-making by holding
public consultations where citizens can express their concerns regarding a project.
Environmental To ensure the multi-disciplinary input required for the environmental appraisal of
Appraisal development projects, Expert Committees have been constituted for the following
Committees sectors:
(EAC) ➢ Mining Projects
➢ Industrial Projects
➢ Thermal Power Projects
➢ River Valley, Multipurpose, Irrigation and H.E. Projects
➢ Infrastructure Development and Miscellaneous Projects
➢ Nuclear Power Projects
The Appraisal Committees evaluate the impact of the project based on the data
furnished by the project authorities, and if necessary, site visits or on-the-spot
assessments of various environmental aspects are also undertaken. Based on such
examination, the Committees make recommendations for approval or rejection of the
project, which are then processed in the Ministry for approval or rejection.
Monitoring Monitoring of cleared projects is undertaken by the six regional offices of the Ministry
functioning at Shillong, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Bangalore, Lucknow and
Bhopal. The primary objective of such a procedure is to ensure the adequacy of the
suggested safeguards and also to undertake mid-course corrections required, if any.

66
 The procedure adopted for monitoring is as follows:
➢ Project authorities are required to report every six months on the progress of the
project.
➢ Field visits of officers and expert teams from the Ministry and/ or its Regional
Offices are undertaken to collect and analyse performance data.
➢ In case of substantial deviations and poor or no response, the matter is taken up
with the concerned State Government.
➢ Changes in the scope of the project are identified to check whether or not the
review of earlier decisions is called for.
Category A Crude oil refineries, Thermal power stations with a heat output of at least 300
and B Projects megawatts, and Nuclear power stations are examples of Category A projects.
Industrial estates, parks/ complexes/areas, export processing Zones(EPZs), and
Special Economic Zones(SEZs) are examples For category B projects.

43. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I :
Starfish act as a Keystone species in North America.
Statement-II :
Starfish feed upon the mussel and do not allow it to dominate the ecosystem.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
EXPLANATION :
Keystone species, in ecology, are species that have a disproportionately large effect on
the communities in which they live; many are apex predators (meaning without a natural predator or
enemy). Such species help maintain local biodiversity within a community by controlling populations of
other species that would otherwise dominate the community or by providing critical resources for a wide
range of species.
The starfish (Pisasterochraceus) is a keystone species in the rocky marine intertidal communities off the
northwest coast of North America.
This predatory starfish feeds on the mussel Mytilus californianus and is responsible for maintaining much
of the local diversity of species within certain communities. When the starfish were removed
experimentally, the mussel populations expanded rapidly and covered the rocky intertidal shores so
exclusively that other species could not establish themselves. This shows the starfish does not allow
Mussel to dominate the ecosystem.So, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement
II explains Statement I.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
KEYSTONE SPECIES
About ➢ Keystone species is a species whose addition to or loss from an ecosystem leads to major
changes in abundance or occurrence of at least one other species.
➢ Certain species in an ecosystem are considered more important in determining the presence
of many other species in that ecosystem.
➢ All top predators (Tiger, Lion, Crocodile and Elephant) are keystone species because they
indirectly regulate all other animals’ populations. Hence, top predators are given much
consideration in conservation.
➢ Keystone species deserve special attention from the conservation point of view.
Conservation of keystone species encourages the conservation of all other relevant species

67
 associated with this.
➢ If keystone species are lost, it will result in the degradation of the whole ecosystem. For
example, certain plant species (ebony tree, Indian laurel) exclusively depend upon bats for
their pollination.
➢ If the bat population is reduced, then regeneration of particular plants becomes more
difficult. This changes the vegetation structure, which adversely influences the dependent
animals.

44. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India mentions that a pro-tem Speaker presides over the Parliament house
until the Speaker is elected.
2. The pro-tem Speaker administers the oath of office to the newly elected members of the house.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
The Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-
elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro
Tem. Usually, the seniormost member is selected for this. The President himself administers oath to the
Speaker Pro Tem. The pro-tem Speaker is chosen to administer some important duties. ‘Pro-tem’
essentially means ‘for the time being’ or ‘temporarily’. The Constitution does not mention the post.
However, the official ‘Handbook on the Working of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs’ speaks about the
‘Appointment and Swearing in of Speaker pro tem’. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. He presides over the first sitting of the newly-
elected Lok Sabha. His main duty is to administer oath to the new members. He also enables the House
to elect the new Speaker. When the new Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Speaker Pro
Tem ceases to exist. Hence, this office is a temporary office, existing for a few days.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
About ➢ The position of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is more or less similar to the Speaker of the
English House of Commons. The office of the Speaker is a symbol of high dignity and
authority.
➢ Once elected to the office, the speaker does not have affiliation to any party but works in
an impartial manner. He/ She acts as the guardian of the rights and privileges of the
members.
Powers ➢ He maintains order and decorum in the House for conducting its business and regulating
and its proceedings. This is his primary responsibility and he has final power in this regard.
Duties ➢ He is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents,
within the House.
➢ He adjourns the House or suspends the meeting in absence of a quorum. The quorum to
constitute a meeting of the House is one-tenth of the total strength of the House.
➢ He does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercise a casting vote in the case of a
tie. In other words, only when the House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is
entitled to vote. Such vote is called casting vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.
➢ He presides over a joint setting of the two Houses of Parliament. Such a sitting is

68
 summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill.
➢ He can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House. When
the House sits in secret, no stranger can be present in the chamber, lobby or galleries
except with the permission of the Speaker.
➢ He decides whether a bill is a money bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to
the President for assent, the Speaker endorses on the bill his certificate that it is a money
bill.
➢ He decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the
ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. In 1992, the Supreme
Court ruled that the decision of the Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.
➢ He acts as the ex-officiochairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group which is a link
between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the world. He also acts as
the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative bodies in the
country.
➢ He appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and
supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory
Committee, the Rules Committee and the General Purpose Committee.

45. Consider the following:

1. Calcium Cycle
2. Phosphorus Cycle
3. Magnesium Cycle
How many of the above is/are examples of gaseous nutrient cycles?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Gaseous nutrient cycles refer to the biogeochemical cycles that involve the exchange of gaseous forms of
essential elements between the atmosphere, living organisms, and the environment. Examples of these
cycles are the nitrogen Cycle, the Oxygen Cycle, the Carbon Cycle, and the Water Cycle.
Calcium is primarily present in rock, minerals, or structural calcium built into mineral crystal lattices of
soil particles and is not readily available. Calcium can also be added as fertilizer, lime or by-products.
Water can carry calcium into the soil through weathering and natural dissolution.
➢ Most of the calcium is insoluble in the soil until it is ‘weathered off’ of minerals or when microbes
break down organic matter into soluble calcium. However, some calcium is held loosely or tightly on
the soil’s cation exchange complex (CEC) or in the soil solution and is available to plants and
microorganisms.
➢ When animals, microorganisms, or plants decay, their bodies decompose, and the calcium is
mineralised and released back into the soil. Roots also regularly leak minerals, sugars, and other
compounds back into the soil, including calcium.
➢ Since calcium is a positively charged ion, it is adsorbed in the soil to the surface of clay and organic
particles, which are negatively charged. Positively charged ions (cations) adsorb to soil particles and
are termed “exchangeable ions” because they can be exchanged by other ions in the soil solution.
Calcium circulates by means of the sedimentary cycle (Not by gaseous cycle). So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
Phosphorus plays a central role in aquatic ecosystems and water quality. Unlike carbon and nitrogen,
which come primarily from the atmosphere, phosphorus occurs in large amounts as a mineral in
phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities. This is the nutrient considered to

69
be the main cause of excessive growth of rooted and free-floating microscopic plants in lakes.
The main storage for phosphorus is in the earth’s crust. On land, phosphorus is usually found in the form
of phosphates. By the process of weathering and erosion, phosphates enter rivers and streams that
transport them to the ocean. In the ocean, the phosphorus accumulates on continental shelves in the form
of insoluble deposits. After millions of years, the crustal plates rise from the sea floor and expose the
phosphates on land. After more time, weathering will release them from the rock, and the cycle’s
geochemical phase begins again. The phosphorus Cycle is part of the sedimentary cycle (Not the gaseous
cycle). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Magnesium plays an important part in the synthesis of chlorophyll. Rocks undergo erosion and
weathering, allowing magnesium ions to dissolve in soil water. At the same time, fertilizers, sewage, and
manure are dissolving. Both instances lead to runoff entering the ocean from rivers. This runoff creates a
reservoir of dissolved magnesium ions at the ocean surface. This is taken up by marine organisms that
eventually die.
The dead and decayed organisms sink to the depths of the ocean. This concocts magnesium compounds in
the seabed. The cycle is continuously rotating as the magnesium in the seabed is upwelled back into the
reservoir. The cycle starts again with the addition of runoff in the reservoir. Magnesium circulates by
means of the sedimentary cycle, not by the gaseous cycle. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BIO-GEO-CHEMICAL CYCLE
Gaseous ➢ Water Cycle (Hydrologic)
Cycles • The hydrologic cycle is the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-
atmosphere system which is driven by solar energy. Water on our planet is stored
in major reservoirs like the atmosphere, oceans, lakes, rivers, soils, glaciers,
snowfields, and groundwater. Water moves from one reservoir to another by the
processes of evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, deposition,
runoff, infiltration, and groundwater flow.
➢ The Carbon Cycle
• Carbon is present in the atmosphere, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2).
The carbon cycle involves a continuous exchange of carbon between the
atmosphere and organisms. Carbon from the atmosphere moves to green plants
by the process of photosynthesis and then to animals. By the process of
respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns to the
atmosphere. It is usually a short-term cycle.
➢ Nitrogen Cycle
• Nitrogen is an essential constituent of protein and is a basic building block of all
living tissue. It constitutes nearly 16% of the weight of all the proteins.
• There is an inexhaustible supply of nitrogen in the atmosphere, but the elemental
form cannot be used directly by most of the living organisms. Nitrogen needs to be
‘fixed’, that is, converted to ammonia, nitrites or nitrates before plants can take it
up.
Sedimentary Phosphorus, calcium and magnesium circulate by means of the sedimentary cycle. The
Cycle element involved in the sedimentary cycle normally does not cycle through the
atmosphere but follows a basic pattern of flow through erosion, sedimentation, mountain
building, volcanic activity and biological transport through the excreta of marine birds.
Nutrient The nutrient cycle is a concept that describes how nutrients move from the physical
Cycling environment to living organisms and are subsequently recycled back to the physical
environment.
This movement of nutrients from the environment into plants and animals and again
back to the environment is essential for life, and it is a vital function of the ecology of any
region. In any particular environment, to maintain its organism in a sustained manner,
the nutrient cycle must be kept balanced and stable.

46. Which of the following leads to desertification of land?

1. Increase in mining activities
2. Afforestation activities
3. Overgrazing by cattle
4. Decrease in population pressure
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION :
Desertification is the destruction of the biological potential of the land, which can ultimately lead to desert-
like conditions. In arid and semiarid regions, the restoration of the fragile ecosystem is very slow, and
issues like deforestation and mining enhance desertification. Desertification is a major problem faced by
adjoining desert areas, which stretch across parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, and Haryana. The cause
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of this process is not climatic changes, droughts, etc., but human actions.
Mining is essential to the economy, especially the economies of developing countries, but results in
desertification. Specific consequences include deforestation, water and air pollution, soil erosion, increased
dust, greenhouse gas emissions, etc. The impacts don’t stop even when mines are abandoned, which
makes mining a complex and persistent problem. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Afforestation is establishing a forest in an area where the preceding vegetation or land use was not a
forest. Afforestation can be done artificially by sapling trees, plants, and seeds. New plantations and
afforestation programmes not only help increase forest cover but also help create a healthy ecosystem. The
tree species used for afforestation should be native and suitable to local geographical conditions.
Afforestation is used to control desertification. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
When plants are exposed to grazing for too long or without rest periods, the land starts to degrade.
Overgrazing has led to serious issues. In a study published by Global Change Biology, researchers
discovered that overgrazing by sheep and goats degraded about 70% of the grasslands in the Mongolian
Steppe. That meant overgrazing was responsible for 80% of the vegetation loss, while the remaining 20%
was lost because of a decrease in rain. Gobi Desert is expanding due to desertification, a desert larger than
France and Germany combined. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Declining populations will ease the pressure eight billion people put on the planet. Slow population growth
helps reduce carbon emissions and its impact. Population Health Environment (PHE) projects that
integrate choice-based family planning programs alongside education on sustainable land management
can reduce population pressure on natural resources and prevent a wide range of environmental impacts
such as climate change, desertification, etc. Thus, decreasing population will ease pressure on the land,
reducing desertification. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
DESERTIFICATION
About There are two main types of desertification: desertification as a natural process and
desertification as a result of human activity. Because humans have such a significant
impact on the climate, the types of desertification often
➢ Natural process
• Most deserts form on the eastern sides of big subtropical high-pressure cells.
These are wheels of wind that move clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
counterclockwise in the South. When moist air rises near the Equator and cools
down, it turns into clouds and rain. As this air moves toward the pole, it releases
its rain, but the air starts descending when it starts wheeling back to the
Equator.
• The air becomes warmer and more compressed, which does not allow for cloud
and rain formation. Without much rain, the areas below become deserts.
• The world’s oldest desert is likely the Sahara Desert, whose origins remain a
mystery. At its youngest, this North African desert could be thousands of years
old, but many believe it’s around 5 million years old.
➢ Human-driven desertification
• Humans are responsible for the second type of desertification. Without activities
like poor land management, overconsumption, agricultural land expansion, and
so on, this type of desertification would not have been as severe.
• Desertification affects four main areas: irrigated croplands, rain-fed croplands,
grazing lands and dry woodlands.
Status of ➢ As per the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas of India, 2007, the percentage
Indian of countries under dry lands is 69.6%.
Desertification ➢ The total area undergoing the process of land degradation in India is 105.48 million
hectares, which constitutes 32.07 per cent of India’s total land area.
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 ➢ 81.45 million hectares of land in the country are under desertification (land
degradation within drylands).
➢ Land restoration is the best solution for biodiversity loss, and therefore, there is an
urgent need to restore degraded lands.
➢ “India has committed to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030, more
than its earlier target of 21 million hectares.
➢ India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD). The National Action Programme for combating desertification was prepared
in 2001 to take appropriate action in addressing the problems of desertification.

47. With reference to algal blooms, consider the following statements:

1. All algal blooms are harmful as they produce toxins that affect marine organisms and humans.
2. Phosphates and nitrogen enrichment in water and unusually warm water are ideal conditions
for algal bloom occurrence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Algae or phytoplankton are microscopic organisms found naturally in coastal waters. They are major
producers of oxygen and food for many animals living in these waters. When environmental conditions are
favourable for their development, these cells may multiply rapidly and form high numbers of cells, which is
called an algal bloom.
A bloom often results in a colour change in the water. Algal blooms can be any colour, but red or brown
are the most common. These blooms are commonly referred to as red or brown tides. Most algal blooms
are not harmful, but some produce toxins that affect fish, birds, marine mammals, and humans. The
toxins may also make the surrounding air difficult to breathe. These are known as Harmful Algal Blooms
(HABs). So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Blooms occur when several colonies start combining rapidly when conditions such as nutrient
concentrations, salinity and temperature are optimal. Blooms can be due to a number of reasons. Two
common causes are nutrient enrichment and warm waters.
Nutrient enrichment of water, especially phosphates and nitrogen, is often the result of pollution and can
cause algal blooms. Water temperature has also been related to the occurrence of algal blooms, with
unusually warm water being conducive to blooms. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
HARMFUL ALGAL BLOOMS (HABS)
About ➢ HABs can deplete oxygen in water and lead to low dissolved oxygen levels. It depletes
oxygen; when masses of algae die and decompose, the decaying process can deplete oxygen
in the water, causing the water to become so low in oxygen. When oxygen levels become too
low, fish suffocate and die.
➢ Some algae species in blooms produce potent neurotoxins that can be transferred through
the food web, where they affect and even kill the higher forms of life such as zooplankton,
shellfish, fish, birds, marine mammals, and even humans that feed either directly or
indirectly on them.
➢ Because of the growth, toxicity, and distribution of harmful algal bloom (HAB) species are
all tied to the environment, climate changes can change the occurrence, severity, and
impacts of HAB events.
Red ➢ “Red Tide” is a common name for a phenomenon where certain phytoplankton species

73
 Tide contain pigments and “bloom” such that the human eye perceives the water as discoloured.
➢ Blooms can appear greenish, brown, and even reddish-orange depending upon the type of
organism, the type of water, and the concentration of the organisms.
➢ The term “red tide” is thus a misnomer because blooms are not always red, are not
associated with tides, are usually not harmful, and some species can be harmful or
dangerous at low cell concentrations that do not discolour the water.
➢ They are scientifically referred to as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs)

48. What is the importance of developing Mongla Port by India ?

(a) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(b) India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(c) It is the only feasible land route for trade between India and Myanmar.
(d) India will establish a strategic foothold in the Bay of Bengal.
EXPLANATION :
India is looking to operate the Mongla Port in Bangladesh and build a new terminal, aiming to
counterbalance China's strategic presence in the region. This move would expand India's port
management in the Indian Ocean Region, following its operations in Chabahar (Iran) and Sittwe
(Myanmar) ports. This comes amid concerns over China's infrastructure projects in neighbouring
countries.
Mongla Port, the second-largest seaport in Bangladesh, is located near the Bay of Bengal's coastline. The
port is strategically significant as it provides India with a foothold in the Bay of Bengal, an area
increasingly becoming a theatre for geopolitical competition. So, Option (d) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
IMPORTANT OVERSEAS PORTS HANDLED BY INDIA
Recently The second largest seaport in Bangladesh, Mongla Port will have rail connectivity
in News operational on Khulna-Benapole-Mongla route.
Chabahar ➢ It is Iran’s first deepwater port that puts the country on the global oceanic trade route
Port map.
➢ It offers New Delhi an alternative route that bypasses Pakistan, which does not allow
India land access for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia.
➢ The port is also part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor
(INSTC)
➢ A multi-modal transportation project linking the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf to the
Caspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern Europe via St Petersburg in Russia.
➢ Recently India and Iran signed a 10-year contract for its operation.
➢ India is participating in the development of the first phase of the ShahidBehesti
terminal of the Chabahar port.

Sittwe ➢ Sittwe Port in Myanmar was inaugurated that creating immense hope of boosting trade
Port and the economy in the northeastern region of India as well as South East Asia.
➢ The port has been built under grant assistance from India as part of the Kaladan
Multimodal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP).
➢ The Sittwe Port was built as an alternative route to the 20-km Siliguri corridor, also
known as the Chicken's Neck corridor.

75
 Other ➢ Duqm Port (Oman): It holds a strategic benefit for India as it overlooks the Gulf of
Ports Oman, Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea.
➢ Haifa Port (Isreal): India’s ambition of having a larger strategic and commercial
presence in the Middle East has found an anchor in the Haifa Port.
➢ Colombo Port (Srilanka).

49. Consider the following fauna:

1. Kangaroo
2. Opossum
3. Koala
4. Red panda
How many of the above are considered Marsupials?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION :
Marsupial is a mammal that belongs to the infraclass Metatheria, Marsupials are characterized by
premature birth and continued development of the new-born while attached to the nipples on the mother’s
lower belly. While not a universal feature, many marsupial species have a pouch, also called a
marsupium.Examples of marsupials include but are not limited to kangaroos, wallabies, wombats, the
koala, the Tasmanian devil, and opossums.

Red Pandas are not a marsupial Red pandas are mammals that belong to the order Carnivora (primarily
eating flesh)classified under the Ursidae family (comprises 8 species of bears in five genera),Only three
species mentioned belongs to marsupial category, So, Option (c) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MARSUPIALS
About ➢ Metatherian mammals, also known as marsupials, comprise around 272 species. They are
an ancient group, very diverse in body form, and they occupy an enormous range of
ecological niches.
➢ Today, most marsupials are found in Central and South America (around 70 species) and
Australasia (around 200 species). Most marsupials are found in Central and South
America (around 70 species) and Australasia (around 200 species). One species is found
in temperate North America (Didelphis virginianus).
➢ These animals occupy an enormous variety of terrestrial habitats throughout these two
continents. The single species found in temperate North America (Didelphisvirginia)
naturally inhabits moist woodlands, but is common in towns and small cities.
Opossum ➢ The opossum, Didelphis marsupials, is the only marsupial found in the United States.
➢ The opossum is a cat-sized mammal that resembles a silver rat, with its naked ears, long
scaly tail, and silver-tipped fur. After birth, the young of opossums live in the pouch for
about two months and production of several litters occurs between January and July.
➢ Opossums are nocturnal animals, but they are often seen during the day when their
natural habitat has been destroyed, when they are searching for food, or when young and
inexperienced youngsters – not yet street-wise – are looking for food.
➢ Opossums are solitary animals, except when females are with their young, or for brief
interludes during breeding season. Only male opossums are territorial, and they will fight
violently during mating season.

Koala ➢ They are more closely related to kangaroos, bandicoots and possums than to true bears.
➢ Koalas are classed as marsupials, a different group of mammals, where females have a
special pouch (front-facing or backwards facing) for rearing their young.

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 50. Consider the following with respect to the mode of distribution of organisms within a population:
Mode of
Characteristics Reason
Distribution

Every individual has an

Resources are equally available throughout
a. Random equal chance to occur at
the year.
a place.

Individuals congregate in Severe competition between individuals of

b. Uniform
groups. the same species.

Even spacing is found Non-uniformity of Climatic Conditions and

c. Clumped
between individuals. Social Behaviour.
In how many of the rows given above the information provided are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Dispersion refers to mode of distribution of organisms within a population. The individuals in a population
are distributed in space and time. Accordingly, the distribution is called as spatial dispersion and temporal
dispersion. Spatial dispersion can be categorizes into three categories are Random, Uniform and Clumped
distribution.
Random distribution: In this type of distribution, the individuals are uniformly and randomly distributed
in the area. It emphasizes that every individual has equal chance to occur at a place. Random distribution
is rare as it occurs in the environment which is uniform and where resources are equally available
throughout the year or there is positive antagonism. There is no tendency of aggregation. Spiders in the
forest floor and the clam (Mulinialateralis) of the intertidal mudflats of the northeastern coast of North
America show random distribution. So, Row (1) is correct.

Uniform distribution implies even spacing of individuals. It occurs when competition between individuals
of same species is severe. The competition involves moisture requirement in desert bushes, severe
competition for light among forest plants, competition for territory maintenance in carnivore birds.
Autotoxicity among plants of arid region also result in uniform distribution of plants in these areas.
Individual congregate in groups is a clumping distribution (Not an Uniform distribution). So, Row (2) is
not correct.
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Clumping distribution is also known as clustered or aggregated distribution. It is the most common
pattern of distribution in which individuals congregate in groups with some scattered individuals outside
the group. The environment is never uniform due to differences in the habitat, climatic conditions, social
behaviour and reproductive pattern. As a result, population frequently produces attraction and avoidance
and results in clumped distribution pattern. Even spacing between individuals is found in uniform
distributions (Not in Clumping distribution).So, Row (3) is not correct.

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 ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
OTHER DISPERSION
About ➢ Refuging:
• It is another special type of aggregation of a large socially organized group of animals
to a place from which they disperse and return regularly to satisfy their needs like
food and material comforts.
• Human populations follow refuging type of aggregation.
• It is a common phenomenon in developing and under developed countries.
➢ Temporal Dispersion:
• It is related to daily change in light and dark (circadian cycle) as observed in the
activities of some nectar feeding insects and oceanic planktons etc.
• It is related to lunar cycles, seasons and tidal cycles e.g. certain activities of marine
animals are regulated by periods of moon and intensity of tides whereas in terrestrial
animals photoperiodism play an important role in regulating their activities.
Allee’s ➢ Human population show clumped distribution due to their economic condition,
Principle geographic factors and social behaviour.
➢ The large aggregation of fern occurs due to vegetative propagation. Some birds eject
number of undigested seeds in their fecal matter (e.g English robin may eject 20
raspberry seeds in a pellet) which germinates in a cluster of seedlings.
➢ The degree of aggregation and density that result in optimum population growth and
survival varies with the species and conditions.
➢ Therefore, under crowding (lack of aggregation) and overcrowding may be limiting to the
population. This is Allee’s Principle.

51. Who establishes the Biodiversity Management Committee within the area to promote conservation,
sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity?
(a) National Biodiversity Board
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION :
Under Section 41(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body in the State shall constitute a
Biodiversity Management Committee within its area of jurisdiction for the purpose of promoting
Conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity, including preservation of
habitats, Conservation of land races, folk varieties & cultivars, domesticated stocks and breeds of animals
and micro-organisms and chronicling of knowledge relating to biological diversity.
o The Committee shall consist of a Secretary and not more than six persons nominated by the local body, of
whom not less than one-third should be women and not less than 18% should belong to the Scheduled
Castes/Scheduled Tribes Provided that the members of the Committee shall be the proven resident of the
local body and their names should be included in the electoral roll of the concerned local body. Hence, the
Committee is constituted by every local body. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
NATIONAL BIODIVERSITY AUTHORITY
About ➢ The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 by the Central
Government to implement India's Biological Diversity Act (2002).
➢ The NBA is a Statutory body that performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions
for the Government of India on issues of Conservation, sustainable use of biological
resources and fair, equitable sharing of benefits of use.
➢ The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates implementation of the provisions of the Act
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 through a decentralized system with the NBA focusing on advice to the Central
Government on matters relating to the Conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of
its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of
biological resources; advice the State Government in the selection of areas of biodiversity
importance to be notified under Sub-Section (1) of Section 37 as heritage sites and
measures for the management of such heritage sites.
➢ The State Biodiversity Board (SBB) focus on advice to the State Governments, subject to
any guidelines issued by the Central Government, on matters relating to the
Conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of
the benefits arising out of the utilisation of biological resources.
➢ The SBBs also regulate by granting approvals or otherwise upon requests for commercial
utilization or bio-survey and bio-utilization of any biological resource by the Indians.
➢ The NBA, with its Headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India, delivers its mandate
through a structure that comprises the Authority, secretariat, SBBs, BMCs and Expert
Committees.
➢ Since its establishment, the NBA has supported the creation of SBBs in 28 States and 8
UTs and facilitated the establishment of around 2,77,688 BMCs.

52. Which of the following are true about applications of Technical Textiles?
1. They help in harvesting of crops
2. They aid in soundproofing buildings
3. They can act as reinforcement in dam engineering
4. They can be used in producing higher-end tyres
5. They can be used in the packaging of food items
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION :
Technical textiles are defined as high-performance textile products, materials, and fibres that are used for
their functional use rather than for aesthetic purposes. Technical textiles have varied applications in
several vital industries, including aerospace, packaging, hazard protection, shipping, sports, agriculture,
defence, healthcare, construction, etc.
Technical textiles are divided into several categories depending on their applications in various industries.
The major types of these engineered textiles are:
➢ Agro-Textiles
• The textiles that are specially used in agriculture are called agro-textiles. These textiles include
nets, mulch mats, crop covers, and shade nets and are weather-protective. All these properties help
with the growth and harvesting of crops and other foodstuffs. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Construction Textiles
• These textiles are utilized in construction for various purposes, such as concrete reinforcement,
façade systems, insulation, air conditioning, noise prevention, visual protection, building safety,
architectural membranes, sound Proofing and signage. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ Geo-Textiles
• Geotextiles are permeable fabrics used in civil engineering, earth and road construction, dam
engineering, soil sealing, and drainage systems. These fabrics help to prevent building materials
from cracking. So, Statement 3 is correct.
➢ Mobiltech
• It has applications in automobiles, railways, ships, aircraft and spacecraft. Mobiltech products can

81
 be subdivided according to its visibility into two typesVisible components and Concealed
components. The visible components include seat upholstery, carpets, seat belts, headliners,
airbags, etc. The concealed components include Noise Vibration and Harness (NVH) components,
tyre cords, liners, etc.
• Mobiltech textiles are used in the manufacturing of automobiles and aircraft. Carbon composites
are mostly used in the manufacture of aeroplane parts while carbon fibre is used for making higher
end tyres. So, Statemenrt 4 is correct.
➢ Packaging Textiles
• Packing textiles include bags, wrapping fabric, soft luggage products, tea bag filter paper, jute
hessian and sacks, woven sacks, packaging of food items and others. So, Statement 5 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
TECHNICAL TEXTILE
Other ➢ Clothing Textiles
Uses • This technical textile is designed for clothing applications such as zip fasteners, sewing
threads, umbrella cloth, interlinings, elastic narrow fabrics, labels, shoelaces, and more.
➢ Domestic Textiles
• Domestic textiles are used in interior decoration, furniture, carpeting, sun protection,
cushion materials, fireproofing, floor coverings, and furniture fabrics. Besides that, they
are also used in fiberfill, stuffed toys, blinds, mattress components, carpet backing
cloths, mosquito nets, and vacuum cleaner filters.
➢ Industrial Textiles
• These technical textiles are used in chemical, electrical, and mechanical engineering
applications, including industrial brushes, paper-making fabrics, filtration products, and
composites.
➢ Medical Textiles
• Medical textiles are used in various surgical applications, such as bandages, sutures,
dressings, artificial implants, baby diapers, sanitary napkins, surgical disposables,
surgical gowns, and drapes.
➢ Eco-Friendly Textiles
• This technical textile is utilized in environmental engineering, landfill waste management,
and chemical/oil industries for secondary protection, including ground covers and
process tank containment for tank leaks.
➢ Protective Textiles
• This technical textile with high-performance fibers offers various protection options,
including heat, radiation, molten metals, bulletproof jackets, high-altitude clothing,
ballistic protective clothing, and industrial gloves.
➢ Sports Textiles
• These types of textile materials include tents, swimwear, footwear components, sports
nets, hot air balloons, parachute fabrics, sports composites, and others.

82
 53. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory body constituted as per the Biological Diversity Act of
2002.
2. Zoos conserve specific species through biobanking of their genetic materials.
3. CZA is in charge of sanctioning the exchange of organisms between Indian and abroad zoos.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory body of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change, Government of India. The Central Zoo Authority was created by the Government of India in 1992
through an amendment to the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972. The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten
members and a Member Secretary. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is not constituted as per the Biological
Diversity Act, 2002.
The main objective of this Authority is to complement and strengthen the national effort in the
conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country, particularly the fauna, as per the National Zoo Policy,
1998. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Zoos conserve specific species through Biobanking of their genetic material, including gametes, cells, and
tissues, which has tremendous potential in conservation breeding and genetic management of threatened
wildlife species. These stored biological samples can be retrieved as and when required for application in
various assisted reproductive technologies. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Every zoo in the country is required to obtain recognition from the Central Zoo Authority for its operation.
The exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos is also approved by the Authority before the
requisite clearances under EXIM Policy and the CITES permits are issued by the competent Authority. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
CENTRAL ZOO AUTHORITY (CZA)
About ➢ The main objective is to oversee the functioning of zoos and to enforce minimum

83
 standards and norms for the upkeep and health care of animals in Indian zoos.
➢ This complements and strengthens the national efforts in the conservation of wild
fauna.
➢ Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is to enforce minimum standards and norms for the
upkeep and healthcare of animals in Indian zoos and to control the mushrooming of
unplanned and ill-conceived zoos.
Biobanking For a pilot project, CZA has identified 6 zoos across the country to be a part of a
in India Consortium of Indian Zoos for Biobanking of Wildlife Genetic Resources; these include,
➢ National Zoological Park, Delhi,
➢ Bannerghatta Biological Park, Karnataka,
➢ Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park, West Bengal,
➢ Nehru Zoological Park, Telangana,
➢ Sakkarbaug Zoological Park, Gujarat, and
➢ Sepahijala Zoological Park, Tripura
Function Zoos in India are regulated under the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and
are guided by the National Zoo Policy, 1998. The Government of India formulated
Recognition of Zoo Rules 1992 and revised it as Recognition of Zoo Rules 2009 on the
recommendation of the Central Zoo Authority. These rules lay down standards and norms
for the management of zoos in the country.
The statutory functions of the Authority under the Act are:
➢ To specify the minimum standards for housing, upkeep, and veterinary care of the
animals kept in zoos;
➢ To evaluate and assess the functioning of the zoos with respect to the prescribed
standards or norms;
➢ To recognize or derecognize zoos;
➢ To identify endangered species of wild animals for purposes of captive breeding and
assigning responsibility in this regard to a zoo.
➢ To coordinate the acquisition, exchange, and loaning of animals for breeding
purposes.
➢ To ensure maintenance of studbooks of endangered species of wild animals bred in
captivity.
➢ To identify priorities and themes with regard to the display of captive animals in zoos.
➢ Coordinate training of zoo personnel in India and outside India.
➢ Coordinate research in captive breeding and educational programmes for the
purposes of zoos.
➢ To provide technical and other assistance to zoos for their proper management and
development on scientific lines.
➢ To perform such other functions as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of
this Act with regard to zoos.

54. Consider the following plant species:

1. Lantana camara
2. Mikania micrantha
3. Senna spectabilis
4. Chromolaenaodorata
Which of the above invasive plant species predominantly found in the Western Ghats, create a
serious environmental issue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

84
EXPLANATION :
Lantana camarais a flowering shrub. It is among the world’s top 10 invasive species, and was introduced
to India as an ornamental plant in the early 1800s. Since, it has taken over entire ecosystems, and eaten
into forests across the country. It grows extensively and creates a mat-like structure leading to
the degradation and destruction of the biodiversity. As a result, herbivores like Gaur, Chital and Sambar
are deprived of their food. This also affects the survival of carnivores such as tigers and panthers, which
are interlinked to the ecological equilibrium. The Lantana Project was launched by the non-profit
conservation organization based in Gudalur, at the edge of the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve in the Nilgiri
Biosphere Reserve. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Mikania micrantha is a perennial twining herb with 5-ribbed branches, pubescent or glabrous. It is an
alien invasive weed that causes serious havoc to natural forests and plantations. It is also a serious threat
to the agricultural production system. Mikania micrantha remain dominant in western ghats. Bio control
method is not successful though pathogens were recorded from the plant. Though herbicide is effective in
controlling the weed, it is not environment friendly. Biological control appears to be the best option to
control mikania. Growth of young plants is extremely fast (8 - 9 cm in 24 h) and, using trees as support,
the weed rapidly forms a dense cover over entangled leafy stems. Mikania reduces the growth and
productivity of several crops such as oil palm, rubber, citrus, cassava, teak, eucalypt, acacia, albizia,
pineapple, coconut and plantain in its introduced regions. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Sennaspectabilis is a invasive plant species which is a matter of serious concern to the conservation of
wildlife habitats of the Western Ghats. This invasive species has now spread through the most iconic
wildlife habitats of the Western Ghats, destroying habitats of elephants, deer, gaur and tigers by pushing
out native flora. It is a form of chemical warfare where the shed leaves decompose and change the
chemical composition of the soil, rendering it unsuitable for the growth of other plant species.This
drastically affects primary productivity at the ground level. The forest floor is almost bare under the
invasive species. Grasses and herbs get completely wiped out and herbivores are deprived of their forage.
The carrying capacity of forests to feed wildlife is drastically declining under the invasion, which
accelerates man-animal conflict. So, Statement 3 is correct.

85
 Chromolaenaodorata, a shrub of the sunflower family, was introduced in India in the 1840s and is
considered to be one of the most ecologically destructive invasives in the Western Ghats. It spreads very
rapidly after disturbances like fire or clearing of land for agriculture, and suppresses the growth of native
understorey species.
It is a perennial herb that has wind-dispersed seeds, that can also attach to fur, clothes, etc and this
facilitates long distance seed dispersal. Leaves release a pungent odour when crushed, and are used as
traditional medicine in Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand and Nigeria. However, it is toxic to cattle, and can
cause allergies in humans. So, Statement 4 is correct.

55. With reference to the Red Data Book, consider the following statements:
1. The Red Data Book is published by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora(CITES).
2. It contains information on threatened species of animals, plants as well as fungi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Species judged as threatened are listed by various agencies as well as by some private organizations. The
most cited of these lists is the Red Data Book.The Red Data Book is a loose-leaf volume of information on
the status of many kinds of species. This volume is continually updated and is issued by the International
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) located in Morges, Switzerland. The lUCN Mammal Red Data
Book was published in 1966, as the first volume in what has become the authoritative international
register of threatened species.So, Statement 1 is not correct.
In Red data Book, information for endangered mammals and birds are more extensive than for other
groups of animals and plants, coverage is also given to less prominent organisms facing extinction.The
International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species has evolved to become the
world’s most comprehensive information source on the global extinction risk status of animal, fungus and
plant species. So, Statement 2 is correct.

86
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
RED DATA BOOK
About ➢ The Species that are threatened are listed by various agencies and private
organisation is put in red list. The most cited of these lists is in the Red data book.
➢ It is issued by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) located in
Morges, Switzerland.
➢ The Red Data Book was first issued in 1966 by the IUCN’s Special Survival
Commission as a guide for formulation, preservation and management of species
listed.
➢ In this Book, information for endangered mammals and birds are more extensive
than for other groups of animals and plants, coverage is also given to less prominent
organisms facing extinction.
➢ The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species. As the
status of the species changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
➢ Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered, but have now
recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened. With passing time, the
number of pink pages continues to increase. There are pitifully few green pages.
IUCN Red list ➢ Established in 1964, the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of
Threatened Species has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive
information source on the global extinction risk status of animal, fungus and plant
species.
➢ The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity.
➢ It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use or
trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation
decisions.
➢ Currently, there are more than 163,000 species on The IUCN Red List, with more
than 45,300 species threatened with extinction, including 41% of amphibians, 37%
of sharks and rays, 36% of reef building corals, 34% of conifers, 26% of mammals
and 12% of birds.

56. Which of the following is not a part of the 'Five Eyes Alliance'?
(a) Australia
(b) Russia
(c) New Zealand
(d) Canada
EXPLANATION :
The ‘Five Eyes’ is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five
English-speaking countries — Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United
87
 States.
It is both surveillance-based and signals intelligence (SIGINT). Intelligence documents shared between the
member countries are classified ‘Secret—AUS/CAN/NZ/UK/US Eyes Only,’ which gave the group its title
‘Five Eyes’. Here Russia is not a part of this Alliance. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
INDIA AND ‘FIVE EYES’ COUNTRIES
Recently in As India navigates its role in the global intelligence landscape, it faces a myriad of
News converging and diverging interests with Five Eyes.
Areas of Counterterrorism:
convergence • Intelligence sharing regarding terrorist activities, networks, and potential threats
is crucial for pre-emptive measures and joint operations.
• India’s geographical location and historical experiences with terrorism make it a
valuable partner in the Five Eyes’ efforts to combat extremist organisations.
Cyber security:
• India’s burgeoning IT sector and expertise in cybersecurity, this collaboration will
only enhance the capabilities of the Five Eyes alliance in combating cyber threats.
Maritime security:
• Cooperation in maritime domain awareness, naval exercises, and anti-piracy
operations strengthens the collective ability to safeguard vital sea lanes and
maritime interests.
Area of Strategic autonomy:
Divergence • India seeks to maintain friendly relations with all nations,
including those outside the Five Eyes. Its approach is often
divergent from the alliance’s unified stance on certain
geopolitical issues.
Regional dynamics:
• India’s approach to regional diplomacy often involves
nuanced engagement and balancing acts to safeguard its
interests without escalating tensions.
Data privacy and sovereignty:
• India’s regulatory frameworks, such as data localisation laws and restrictions on
foreign technology companies, may clash with the alliance’s push for open data
flows and liberal market access.

57. Consider the following statements:

1. All heterotrophs are herbivores.
2. Heterotrophs can act as decomposers
3. Both bacteria and Viruses are heterotrophic organisms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
The organism unable to produce their own food directly from the abiotic environment is called consumers
or heterotrophs. Such organisms have to depend on other organisms, plants or animals, for their food.
Almost all animals are heterotrophic in nature. Almost all animals are consumers. There are a number of
groups in which they can be categorized.
They can be herbivorous or plant-eating. For example, a rabbit is an herbivorous. Some of them are
88
carnivorous or animal eating only. Lion is an example of a carnivorous animals. The third group is made
up of omnivorous animals, i.e., animals eating plants and animals. Human beings are omnivorous. So not
all heterotrophs are herbivores. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter. It is made up of decomposers, which are
heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by
degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sapro: to decompose).
Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste materials into simple, inorganic
materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Heterotrophic component: It consists of the decomposers (micro-organisms such as bacteria and fungi)
that are concerned with the utilization, rearrangement, and degradation of complex food substances.
Viruses are non-living entities and, therefore, are not heterotrophic organisms. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
ECOSYSTEM
About ➢ The ecosystem represents the basic functional unit of ecology, which comprises the
biotic communities mutually related to their nonliving or abiotic environment.
➢ Thus, a biotic community and its abiotic environment together represent an ecosystem.
The ecosystem, therefore, includes both the living organisms and the nonliving
environment, which are inseparably interrelated and interact with each other.
The ecosystem has been divided into four components:
➢ Abiotic substances:
• The nonliving or abiotic substances of an ecosystem include basic inorganic materials
such as water, carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium, phosphate etc. and their
compounds such as nitrates, carbonates, phosphates etc.
• These occur either free in nature or in the form of compounds dissolved in water or in
the soil.
• Some of them are recycled by the action of micro-organisms on the dead bodies of
plants and animals.
➢ Producers:
• The biotic components of the biosphere can be classified as producers and
consumers.
• All organisms capable of producing their own food directly from the abiotic
environment are called producers or autotrophs.
• Almost all plants are autotrophic in character as they make their food themselves.
➢ Consumers:
• These are heterotrophic organisms, which are called macro consumers or
phagotrophs. These consume the producers directly or indirectly.
➢ Decomposers:
• Decomposers or detritus feeders are organisms that feed on the dead bodies of plants
or animals. Bacteria and fungi are examples of such organisms.

89
 58. Consider the following protected areas:
1. Kaziranga National park
2. Pallikaranai marshland
3. Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary
4. Ranthambore national park
How many of the above mentioned protected areas are in transitional zones present in two different
ecosystems?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION :
Ecotone is a transitional zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove
forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems. Other examples are – grassland,
estuary and river banks. Wetlands are an example of ecotone.
➢ Kaziranga National Park is a Protected area. The forest region of Kaziranga Park is home to the world’s
largest population of Indian Rhinoceros. Other animals that can be seen in the elephant grass,
marshland and dense tropical moist broadleaf forests of Kaziranga are Hoolock Gibbon, Tiger, Leopard,
Indian Elephant, Sloth Bear, Wild water buffalo, swamp deer, etc. Therefore, Kaziranga is a transitional
zone between different ecosystems of marshland and dense tropical moist broadleaf forests.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Pallikaranai marshland is a protected area and a transitional zone because it is a wetland. Wetland is
a transitional zone between dry land and water bodies. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary is in Kazhuveli wetlands, which is a transitional zone and protected area.
Located close to Marakkanam on the East Coast Road, the Kazhuveli wetland, spread over an expanse of
670 sq km of catchment area, is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after the
PulicatLake.
The lake is connected to the Bay of Bengal by the Uppukalli Creek and the Yedayanthittu estuary and is
visited for nesting by migratory birds on the Central Asian flyway. The southern part of the wetland has
been reserved land since 2001. Wetland is a transitional zone between dry land and water bodies. So,
Statement 3 is correct.
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Ranthambore National Park is a protected area under the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act of
1972. It is located at the edge of a plateau between the Banas River and the Chambal River and
encompasses many perennial lakes, narrow valleys, slender river streams and steep hills. It is a dense
tropical dry forest with raw bushland and grassy meadowland.So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
PROTECTED AREAS
About The Protected Areas are constituted and governed under the provisions of the Wild Life
(Protection) Act, 1972, which has been amended from time to time, with the changing
ground realities concerning wildlife crime control and PAs management. Implementation
of this Act is further complemented by other Acts viz. Indian Forest Act, 1927, Forest
(Conservation) Act, 1980, Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Biological Diversity Act,
2002 and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006. There are 4 categories of the Protected Areas. They are
➢ National Parks
➢ Sanctuaries
➢ Conservation Reserves
➢ Community Reserves.
Wildlife ➢ The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain areas
Sanctuary by the State Government as wildlife sanctuaries if the area was thought to be of
adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance.
➢ The Sanctuary is declared for the purpose of protecting, propagating or developing
wildlife or its environment. Certain rights of people living inside the Sanctuary
could be permitted. Further, during the settlement of claims, before finally
notifying the Sanctuary, the Collector may, in consultation with the Chief Wildlife
Warden, allow the continuation of any right of any person in or over any land
within the limits of the Sanctuary.

National Park ➢ The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of
National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife
sanctuaries.
➢ National Parks are declared in areas that are considered to be of adequate
ecological, geomorphological and natural significance
Conservation ➢ Conservation reserves can be declared by the State Governments in any area
Reserves owned by the Government, particularly the areas adjacent to National Parks and
Sanctuaries and those areas which link one Protected Area with another. Such
declaration should be made after having consultations with the local
communities.
➢ Conservation Reserves are declared for the purpose of protecting landscapes,
seascapes, flora and fauna and their habitat. The rights of people living inside a
Conservation Reserve are not affected.
Community ➢ Community Reserves can be declared by the State Government in any private or
Reserves community land, not comprised within a National Park, Sanctuary or a
Conservation Reserve, where an individual or a community has volunteered to
conserve wildlife and its habitat.
➢ Community Reserves are declared for the purpose of protecting fauna, flora and
traditional or cultural conservation values and practices. As in the case of a
Conservation Reserve, the rights of people living inside a Community Reserve are
not affected.

91
 59. Consider the following statements with respect to the characteristics of the Mangrove ecosystem:
1. They are present in the littoral forest ecosystem.
2. Halophytic plants are more dominant in this ecosystem.
3. Dominance of benthic fauna communities.
4. Roots bear pneumatophore, which is an aerating system
5. It includes a diverse composition of trees and shrubs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION :
Mangroves represent a characteristic littoral (near the seashore) forest ecosystem. These forests grow in
sheltered low lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks backwaters (current less, coastal waters held
back on land), marshes and lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions. They are distributed over the east
and west coast and island of Andaman and Nicobar. Since mangroves are located between the land and
sea they represent the best example of ecotone.
Characteristics of mangrove ecosystem:-
➢ The mangrove forests include a diverse composition of trees and shrubs.
➢ Roots bear pneumatophore (or aerial roots), which is an aerating system.
➢ They are characterized by halophytic (salt-loving) trees, shrubs and other plants growing in brackish to
saline tidal waters.
➢ The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting
sandy beaches.
➢ Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water-logged anaerobic mud is high.
➢ Benthic communities are the organisms that reside on the sediments of aquatic habitats. They are very
diverse and also, they can occur in a wide range of habitats. The permanent fauna of the mangrove
ecosystem, mainly benthic, are molluscs, crustaceans, polychaetes, insects and birds like kingfishers.
So, there is the dominance of benthic fauna communities. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MANGROVES
About ➢ Mangroves are the characteristic littoral plant formation of tropical and subtropical
sheltered coastlines. Mangroves are trees and bushes growing below the high water
level of spring tides which exhibits remarkable capacity for salt water tolerance.
➢ Mangroves are highly productive ecosystems and the trees may vary in height from 8
to 20 m. They protect the shoreline from the effect of cyclones and tsunamies.
➢ Resistant to tidal effect and tolerant to high temperature.
➢ Plants are well adapted to high salinity(halophytic).
Indian ➢ Indian mangroves are distributed along the east and the west coasts and Andaman
mangroves and Nicobar islands.
➢ Mangroves along the east coast are more luxuriant and considerably diverse due to
the presence of nutrient rich deltas formed by the rivers Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari,
Krishna and Cauvery.
➢ The mangroves of Sundarbans are the largest single block of tidal holophytic
mangroves of the world.
➢ The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), which is the second largest in the Indian
sub-continent, harbour high concentration of typical mangrove species and high
genetic diversity.
➢ On the west coast of India, mangroves, mostly scrubby and degraded occur along the
intertidal region of estuaries and creeks in Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.
92
 Role of ➢ Mangrove plants have (additional) special roots such as prop roots, pneumatophores
mangroves which help to impede water flow and thereby enhance the deposition of sediment in
areas (where it is already occurring), stabilize the coastal shores, provide breeding
ground for fishes.
➢ Mangroves moderate monsoonal tidal floods and reduce inundation of coastal
lowlands.
➢ It prevents coastal soil erosion.
➢ It protects coastal lands from tsunami, hurricanes and floods.
➢ Mangroves enhance natural recycling of nutrients.
➢ Mangrove supports numerous flora, avifauna and wild life.
➢ Provide a safe and favorable environment for breeding, spawning, rearing of several
fishes.
➢ It protects coastal inland from adverse climatic elements.
Conservation ➢ The Government has taken a number of steps to protect and enhance mangrove
measures forests in coastal States/Union Territories through promotional as well as regulatory
measures.
➢ The promotional measures are being implemented through a Central Sector Scheme
namely ‘Conservation and Management of Mangroves and Coral Reefs’ under
National Coastal Mission Programme of the Ministry of Environment, Forest &
Climate Change.
➢ Union Budget 2023-24 announced ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats &
Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)’ to promote and conserve mangroves as unique, natural
eco-system having very high biological productivity and carbon sequestration
potential, besides working as a bio shield.
➢ MISHTI envisages restoration/reforestation of Mangroves covering approximately 540
km2, spreading across 9 States and 3 Union Territories for a period of five years
commencing 2023-24 onwards.

60. Consider the following :

1. Abu Musa
2. Greater Tunb
3. Lesser Tunb
What is the correct sequence of the above three islands in the strategic Strait of Hormuz from the
west to the east ?
(a) 1 – 2 - 3
(b) 2 – 1 - 3
(c) 1 – 3 - 2
(d) 2 – 3 - 1
EXPLANATION :
Iran has the most islands, with some of its Islands like Abu Musa, Greater Tunb, and Lesser Tunb claimed
by some of the UAE’s emirates. The three disputed islands, the Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb and Abu Musa
are governed by Iran since 1971 and its navy took control after withdrawal of British troops. These Islands
situated from west to east are Abu Musa, Lesser Tunb and Greater Tunb. So, Option (c) is correct.

93
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
STRAIT AND GULF BORDERING IRAN
Recently in Iran summoned the Russian Ambassador to Tehran to register protest about Russia
News signing a joint statement with Arab states calling for negotiations over three disputed
islands claimed by the UAE.
Strait of ➢ The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway between Iran and Arabian Peninsula,
Hormuz specifically the United Arab Emirates, and Musandam (Oman).
➢ Iran is located on the north coast, while the UAE is on the south coast.
➢ The Gulf of Oman is on the Strait's east, while the Persian Gulf is on the west.
Persian Gulf ➢ The Persian Gulf, a mediterranean sea, is part of the Indian Ocean.
➢ It is an extension of the Gulf of Oman and connects to the Indian Ocean via
the Strait of Hormuz in the east.
➢ The Persian Gulf is also referred to as the Arabian Gulf or Gulf of Iran.
Gulf Of ➢ Gulf of Oman, northwest arm of the Arabian Sea, between the eastern portion
Oman (Oman) of the Arabian Peninsula to the southwest and Iran to the north.
➢ The Gulf of Oman offers the only entrance from the Arabian Sea and the Indian
Ocean into the Persian Gulf.
➢ The world’s major oil exporters and importers have a joint interest in its security.

61. Consider the following statements with reference to Succession:

1. Autotrophic Succession is the Succession in which only green plants are present in substantial
amounts initially.
2. Allogenic Succession is the Succession in which external forces bring changes to a site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Ecological Succession is a universal process of directional change in vegetation on an ecological time scale.
Succession occurs when a series of communities replace one another due to large-scale destruction, either
natural or manmade. This process continues - one community replacing another community until a
stable, mature community develops. Succession is a progressive series of changes that lead to the
establishment of a relatively stable climax community.
Autotrophic Succession is characterized by early and continued dominance of autotrophic organisms like
green plants. It begins in a predominantly inorganic environment, and the energy flow is maintained
94
indefinitely. There is a gradual increase in the organic matter content supported by energy flow. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Allogenic Succession is due to major environmental changes beyond the control of the indigenous
organisms. Dust bowls, winds, dry periods change the pattern of vegetation. The habitat is changed by the
action of outside factors like change in climate, leaching of soil nutrients, increase in salt concentration of
the soil and deposition of salt or sand. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
DIFFERENT KINDS OF SUCCESSIONS
Primary If Succession proceeds from a primary bare area or primitive substratum which has
Succession not been changed physically by organisms, it is called primary Succession. The first
group of plants establishing there are known as pioneers. The series of development
stages are called prisere. For example, Succession on a bare rock (lithosere).
Secondary If Succession starts in a secondary area previously colonized, but has been cleared
Succession off, it is called secondary Succession. The series of developmental stages are called
subseres. In subseres, the substratum contains already formed soil, humus and
may contain seeds. The rate of change is more rapid and the time required for the
completion of sere is much shorter than in primary Succession. For example,
Succession in a forest area where vegetation has been devastated by natural
catastrophes.
Heterotrophic Succession characterized by an early dominance of heterotrophs, i.e., fungi, bacteria
Succession and animals. It begins in a predominantly organic environment, and there is a
progressive decline in the energy content.
Induced The climax community has low productivity as compared to initial communities. In
Succession a climax community respiration almost balances the production of organic matter.
Therefore, very little is left for man to harvest.
Autogenic Succession resulting from the resident population altering its own environment. For
Succession example, plants of a developmental state produce changes in the habitat initially to
favor their growth but the changes go on beyond the optimum so that the habitat
becomes unsuitable for them. It paves the way for the growth of another type of
plant community.
Retrogressive At times a climax vegetation may deteriorate and get replaced by a community of an
Succession earlier stage of Succession due to destructive effects of organisms. Sometimes the
development of the disturbed communities does not occur and the process of
successive instead of progressive becomes retrogressive, e.g., forest may change to
shrubby or grassland.
Deflected A succession in which the vegetation does not pass through the normal stages of
Succession development but either adds or replaces a successional type.
Serule (Microsere) It refers to the miniature Succession of microorganisms like fungi, bacteria,
actinomycetes, etc., that occurs within a microhabitat like fallen logs of decaying
wood, tree, bark, etc. Serule is heterotrophic in nature and begins on substratum
rich in organic matter.

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 62. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden may permit a person to enter a National Park for scientific research.
2. In India, only State Governments can declare an area of the reserve forest as a National Park.
3. Grazing of livestock subject to certain restrictions is permitted in National Parks.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
The Chief Wildlife Warden may, on application, grant to any person a permit to enter or reside in a
sanctuary/National Park for all or any of the following purposes:
➢ Investigation or study of wildlife and purposes ancillary or incidental thereto
➢ Photography
➢ Scientific research
➢ Tourism
➢ Transaction of lawful business with any person residing in the sanctuary
The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) is the statutory authority under the Wildlife Protection Act, who heads
the Wildlife Wing of the department and exercises complete administrative control over Protected Areas
(PAs) within a state. Every PA is typically classified as a Wildlife Division and is headed by a Deputy
Conservator of Forests (DCF). So, Statement 1 is correct.
The State Government may, by notification, declare its intention to constitute any area within or outside
any reserve forest as a sanctuary/ National Park if it considers that such area is of adequate ecological,
faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural or zoological significance, for the purpose of protecting,
propagating or developing wildlife or its environment.
The Central Government may, if satisfied that an area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral,
geomorphological, natural or zoological significance for protecting, propagating or developing wildlife or its
environment, declare it a sanctuary/ National Park by notification. Therefore, Apart from the State
Government, the Central Government may also declare Wild Life Sanctuary and National Park under
certain conditions. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
No grazing of any livestock shall be permitted in a National Park, and no livestock shall be allowed to enter
therein except where such livestock is used as a vehicle by a person authorised to enter such National
Park. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
DECLARATION OF NATIONAL PARKS
About ➢ Whenever it appears to the State Government that an area, whether within a sanctuary or
not, is, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological or zoological
association or importance, needed to be constituted as a National Park for the purpose of
protecting, propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment, it may, by
notification, declare its intention to constitute such area as a National Park.
➢ No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park by the State Government shall be made
except on a recommendation of the National Board.
➢ No person shall destroy, exploit or remove any wildlife Life, including forest produce from
a National Park or destroy, damage or divert the habitat of any wild animal by any act
whatsoever or divert, stop or enhance the flow of water into or outside the National Park,
except under and in accordance with a permit granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden, and
no such permit shall be granted unless the State Government being satisfied in
consultation with the National Board that such removal of wildlife from the National Park
or the change in the flow of water into or outside the National Park is necessary for the
improvement and better management of wildlife therein, authorises the issue of such
permit: Provided that where the forest produce is removed from a National Park, the same
may be used for meeting the personal bona fide needs of the people living in and around
the National Park and shall not be used for any commercial purpose.

63. Consider the following pairs:

Species Description
1. Ringed caecilians - It is the first egg-laying amphibian that
feed milk to its young ones.
2. Minervaryacharlesdarwini - It is the only frog species that deposits its
eggs in a vertical, upside-down position.
3. Long-beaked echidna - It is critically endangered egg-laying mammal
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
Ringed caecilians are snake-shaped amphibians. The ringed caecilian moms feed their hatchlings a kind of
“milk” brewed in the reproductive tract. The long, cylindrical creatures are the first egg-laying amphibians
known to feed hatchlings this way. Ringed caecilian hatchlings, which remain with their mother for the
first two months after hatching, often gather near the end of her body at the vent, where the reproductive,
digestive, and urinary systems converge. The mother occasionally releases a thick fluid from this area, and
the young eagerly consume it. So, Pair (1) is correct.

Charles Darwin’s frog (Minervaryacharlesdarwini) is an endangered species endemic to the Andaman

Islands. Darwin’s frog exhibits an unparalleled reproductive behaviour: upside-down spawning. Unlike
other frogs, this species deposits its eggs in a vertical, upside-down position on the inner walls of water-
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 filled tree cavities or root buttresses. Once laid, the eggs eventually fall into the water below, where they
develop into tadpoles. So, Pair (2) is correct.

Long-beaked echidna is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
The Echidna species is so special because it is one of only five remaining species of monotremes, the sole
guardians of this remarkable branch of the tree of life. Echidnas are notoriously difficult to find since they
are nocturnal, live in burrows, and tend to be very shy. It belongs to an evolutionarily distinct group of
egg-laying mammals that includes the platypus. So, Pair (3) is correct.

64. Lal, Mursan and Hilsa are the names given to which of the following?
(a) Craters on Mars
(b) Spots where water was found on the Moon
(c) Moons of Jupiter
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION :
Three recently discovered craters on the surface of Mars have been named for renowned cosmic ray
physicist late Devendra Lal and the towns of Mursan and Hilsa in northern India. While the discovery was
made by a team of scientists which included researchers working at the Physical Research Laboratory
(PRL) here in 2021, the naming was approved by an international body in June.
The three craters are situated in the Tharsis volcanic region of the Red Planet. Tharsis is a vast volcanic
plateau centred near the equator in the western hemisphere of Mars. The region is home to the largest
volcanoes in the Solar System. The Lal crater is 65 km wide, and the biggest among the three, Mursan and
Hilsa craters, are around 10 km wide and superimposed on the eastern and western sides of the rim of the
Lal crater. The discovery was made within the Mangala crater of Mars using SHARAD (Mars
SHAllowRADar sounder), a subsurface sounding radar mounted on the Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter
(MRO) probe — a spacecraft designed to search for the existence of water on Mars as part of NASA's Mars
Exploration Program.
The entire area of Lal crater, in the Tharsis volcanic region on Mars, is covered with lava. There is
geophysical evidence of material other than lava in this crater, with a 45-m thick sedimentary deposit in
the subsurface of the crater, obtained using subsurface radar SHARAD/MRO. Thus, Lal, Mursan and
Hilsa are the names of the craters on Mars. So, Option (a) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
MARS ORBITER MISSION
About Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), India's first interplanetary mission to planet Mars was launched on
board PSLV-C25 on November 05, 2013. ISRO has become the fourth space agency to successfully
send a spacecraft to Mars orbit. Though the designed mission life is 6 months, MOM completed 7
years in its orbit on Sept 24, 2021.
➢ The objectives of this mission are primarily technological and include design, realisation and
launch of a Mars Orbiter spacecraft capable of operating with sufficient autonomy during the
journey phase, Mars orbit insertion/capture and in-orbit phase around Mars. MOM carries
five scientific payloads to study the Martian surface features, morphology, mineralogy and
Martian atmosphere.
➢ Mars continues to be an object of keen interest to scientists in the context of planetary
evolution and extra-terrestrial life. Based on our understanding of Mars, which was thought to
be probably a warm and wet planet earlier, it is now seen to be dry with a thin atmosphere.
How this evolution has taken place is still a topic of research. In this backdrop, the Indian
Mars Orbiter Mission carried the following five scientific payloads:
• Mars Color Camera (MCC)
• Thermal Infrared Imaging Spectrometer (TIS)
• Methane Sensor for Mars (MSM)
• Mars Exospheric Neutral Composition Analyser (MENCA)
• Lyman Alpha Photometer (LAP)

65. With respect to types of ecosystems, consider the following statements.

1. In terrestrial ecosystems, the detritus food chain has a larger energy flow than the grazing food
chain.
2. The grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem than the
terrestrial ecosystem.
3. The detritus food chain is absent in an aquatic ecosystem.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Organisms in the ecosystem are related to each other through their feeding mechanism. A sequence of
organisms that feed on one another forms a food chain.
A food chain starts with producers and ends with top carnivores. The plant converts solar energy into
chemical energy by photosynthesis. Small herbivores consume the plant matter and convert them into
animal matter. These herbivores are eaten by large carnivores.
There are two main types of food chains which are Detritus food chain and Grazing food chain. A detritus
food chain originates from dead organic matter, whereas, a grazing food chain is where energy at the
lowest trophic level is acquired via photosynthesisIn terrestrial ecosystems, the detritus food chain plays a
dominant role in energy flow, whereas the grazing food chain has a relatively smaller energy flow.
This is because decomposers, such as fungi and bacteria, break down dead organic matter (detritus) into
simple nutrients, which are then absorbed by them. This process supports a diverse array of detritivores,
like insects and worms, that feed on decomposing matter.
In contrast, the grazing food chain, which involves herbivores consuming live plants, has a more limited
energy flow. This is because a significant portion of plant material is not consumed by herbivores, but

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instead dies and enters the detritus food chain. As a result, a larger fraction of energy is channeled
through the detritus food chain in terrestrial ecosystems. So, Statement 1 is correct.
In an aquatic ecosystem, grazing food chain(GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow. As against this, in a
terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through
the GFC. The grazing food chain in aquatic ecosystems involves primary producers, such as phytoplankton
and aquatic plants, being consumed by herbivorous zooplankton and small invertebrates. These
organisms are then preyed upon by larger predators, such as fish and aquatic mammals, ultimately
transferring energy to apex predators.
In terrestrial ecosystems, the detritus food chain plays a more significant role in energy flow. Dead organic
matter and decomposers (saprophytes) form the base of this food chain, which supports a diverse range of
organisms, from detritivores to apex predators. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Detritus food chain starts from dead organic matter. The dead organic matter is broken down into simple
nutrients by microorganisms like fungi and bacteria. These simple nutrients and decomposers are then
consumed by smaller carnivores which in turn become food for larger carnivores.
In an aquatic ecosystem, dead and decaying organic materials or fecal matter from organisms flow through
water currents and settle down at the bottom of water bodies. Microbes break down those decomposing
materials (detritus) into simpler compounds. The detritivores, like snails or small crustaceans, feed on the
detritus and thus obtain energy from them. Large organisms like fish consume those detritivores and thus
energy transfers from detritivores to fish. Thus we can conclude that detrivores food chain is present in
aquatic ecosystem. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

66. Consider the following :

1. Sea stars
2. Sea horses
3. Sea urchins
4. Sea cucumbers
Which of the above mentioned marine animals are classified as ‘Echinoderms’?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION :
Echinoderm, any of a variety of invertebrate marine animals belonging to the phylum
Echinodermata, characterized by a hard, spiny covering or skin. Beginning with the dawn of the Cambrian
Period (542 million to 488 million years ago), echinoderms have a rich fossil history and are well
represented by many bizarre groups, most of which are now extinct. Living representatives include the
classes
➢ Crinoidea (sea lilies and feather stars),
➢ Echinoidea (sea urchins),
➢ Holothuroidea (sea cucumbers),
➢ Asteroidea (starfishes or sea stars),
➢ Ophiuroidea (basket stars and serpent stars, or brittle stars), and
➢ Concentricycloidea (sea daisies; discovered in the 1980s). So, Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

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A sea horse is an unusual fish with a horse like head. There are more than 20 species, or types, of sea
horses. They live in warm and mild seas. Echinoderm is Invertebrates while Sea horses are also a fish and
all fishes are vertebrates. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
VERTEBRATES AND INVERTEBRATES
About ➢ Vertebrates:
• Vertebrates are animals with
backbones and spinal columns.
• Vertebrates are the most advanced
organisms on Earth.
• Although vertebrates represent only a
very small percentage of all animals,
their size and mobility often allow
them to dominate their environment.
• E.g., Fishes, Amphibians, Reptiles,
Aves and Mammals.
➢ Invertebrates:
• They do not have backbones.
• More than 98% of animal species in
the world are invertebrates.
• Invertebrates don’t have an internal
skeleton made of bone.

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 • Many invertebrates have a fluid-filled,
hydrostatic skeleton, like the jelly fish
or worm.
• Others have a hard outer shell, like
insects and crustaceans.

Invertebrates Some of the Invertebrates are:

➢ Annelids
• Annelids have bodies that are divided into segments. They have very well-developed
internal organs. Found almost anywhere in the world. They don’t have any limbs.
• E.g., earthworms, leeches, roundworms, etc.
➢ Molluscs
• Most molluscs have a soft, skin-like organ covered with a hard outside shell. Some
molluscs live on land, such as the snail and slug.
• Other molluscs live in water, such as oysters, mussels, clams, squid and octopuses.
➢ Echinoderms
• Echinoderms are marine animals that live in the ocean. Most echinoderms have
arms or spines that radiate from the centre of their body.
• Common echinoderms include the sea star, sea urchin, sand dollar and sea
cucumber.
➢ Protozoa
• Protozoa are simple, single-celled animals. They are the smallest of all animals.
Most protozoa are microscopic. They breathe, move and reproduce like multicelled
animals.
• E.g., amoebas, Flagellates, etc.
➢ Arthropods
• Arthropods have limbs with joints that allow them to move. They also have an
exoskeleton, which is a hard, external skeleton.
• Arthropods include crustaceans and insects, arachnids.
➢ Crustaceans
• Live mostly in the ocean or other waters. Crustaceans have a hard external shell
which protects their body.
• The most commonly known crustaceans are the crab, lobster and barnacle.
➢ Insects
• Insects have an exoskeleton that covers their entire body. An insect consists of 3
body parts and 6 legs and antennae.
• E.g., beetle, butterfly, moth, dragonfly, bee, wasp and praying mantis.
➢ Arachnids
• Common arachnids are spiders, scorpions, ticks and mites. Arachnids do not have
antennae. Arachnids have 2 body parts and 4 pairs of legs.

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 67. Which of the following statements is incorrect about cloud forests?
(a) They are found at altitudes between 1,000 and 2,500 metres.
(b) They have trees with reduced statute and high stem density.
(c) They are primarily composed of coniferous trees.
(d) The trees are covered with mosses, climbing ferns and lichens.
EXPLANATION :
The cloud forest is the vegetation of tropical mountainous regions in which rainfall is often heavy,
and condensation is persistent because of the cooling of moisture-laden air currents deflected upward by
the mountains. Cloud forests typically are found at altitudes between 1,000 and 2,500 metres (3,000 and
8,000 feet), and a layer of clouds at the canopy level is common year-round. So, Option (a) is correct.
Cloud forests form an ecosystem characterized by dense forests and shorter trees, coupled with increased
stem density and a lower diversity of woody plants. The trees here are generally shorter, and their leaves
become thicker, harder, and smaller as the altitude increases. So, Option (b) is correct.
Coniferous forests consist mostly of conifers, which are trees that grow needles instead of leaves and cones
instead of flowers. Conifers tend to be evergreen—they bear needles all year long. These adaptations help
conifers survive in areas that are very cold or dry. A Cloud forest of extremely stunted moss-covered trees
that occurs in tropical or temperate mountainous regions is sometimes known as elfin woodland. So,
Option (c) is not correct.
In Cloud Forest, the high humidity supports a wide range of mosses, climbing ferns, lichens, and
other epiphytes (air plants, such as orchids), which form thick blankets on the trunks and branches of
trees. Begonias, terrestrial ferns, and many other herbaceous plants may grow exceptionally large in
clearings. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
CLOUD FOREST
About ➢ Cloud forests (the forest catches the clouds) are rainforests’ rarer, mountainous cousins
and experience high rainfall and moisture levels, giving them their characteristic,
dreamlike mist.
➢ Their humidity produces abundant wildlife, including high numbers of epiphytes plants
that grow on other plants.

Formation In cloud forest formation, there is a two-step process known as ‘lateral cloud filtration’.
➢ Air currents travel inland from the sea, cooling and collecting as clouds when
encountering high mountain slopes. This atmospheric process is what gives cloud forests
their enchanting shroud of fog.
➢ Next, the clouds filter through the vegetation. Water collects on leaves, saturates moss
and precipitates as rain, supporting a vast diversity of animal and plant life.
It also condenses into rivers and streams, which are often shallow, rocky, and fast-flowing.
Cloud ➢ They are found in the tropics, on either side of the equator, and exclusively in

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 Forest mountainous areas.
Located ➢ They are located across the western side of Central and South America, southern Brazil,
and central and South Africa, including Madagascar, northern Australia, South India,
Vietnam, Cambodia, and Indonesia.

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Yoga was practised by the people of the Indus Valley Civilization.
2. Yogasūtra, written by Vātsyāyana, is a compilation of the rules of Yoga.
3. Yoga can bring about positive changes in the behaviour of Opioid Use Disorder patients.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
The Number of seals and fossil remains of the Indus Saraswati valley civilization with Yogic motives and
figures performing Yoga Sadhana suggest the presence of Yoga in ancient India. The phallic symbols, seals
of idols of mother Goddess are suggestive of Tantra Yoga. The presence of Yoga is available in folk
traditions, Indus Valley civilization, Vedic and Upanishadic heritage, Buddhist and Jain traditions,
Darshanas, epics of Mahabharat and Ramayana, theistic traditions of Shaivas, Vaishnavas, and Tantric
traditions. In addition, there was a primordial or pure Yoga which has been manifested in mystical
traditions of South Asia. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Patanjali (flourished 2nd century BCE or 5th century CE) was the author or one of the authors of two
great Hindu classics: the first, Yoga-sutras, a categorization of Yogic thought arranged in four volumes
with the titles “Psychic Power,” “Practice of Yoga,” “Samadhi” (state of profound contemplation of the
Absolute), and “Kaivalya” (separateness). In the Yoga-sutras, God is defined as a distinct self (purusha),
untouched by sufferings, actions, and their effects; his existence is proved on the ground that the degrees
of knowledge found in finite beings, in an ascending order, has an upper limit—i.e., omniscience, which is
what characterizes God. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
A yoga module developed by the Integrated Centre for Yoga of National Institute of Mental Health and
Neurosciences (NIMHANS) can be used as a low-cost and low-risk adjunct therapy to reduce substance
use among Opioid Use Disorder (OUD) patients. Opioids are natural, semi-synthetic, or synthetic
chemicals that interact with opioid receptors in the body and brain and reduce the perception of pain. It
was found that yoga increases gamma-aminobutyric acid levels in the brain, as well as oxytocin which
contributes in the management of opioid withdrawal symptoms and the attenuation of relapse. It has also
been found to be useful in enhancing prefrontal activation, reducing impulsivity, and promoting positive
behavioural changes with better self-regulation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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 69. With reference to Coral reefs, consider the following statements:
1. Dinoflagellate helps in reef formation.
2. They are found in shallow waters.
3. They require high-salinity and silt-free water.
4. Atoll and barrier reefs are mature corals while fringing reefs are considered immature as they do
not produce lagoons.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION :
Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and photosynthetic organisms which appear in yellow, green, brown,
blue or red, depending on the main pigments present in their cells. Zooxanthellae (a type of
Dinoflagellates) that are unicellular, golden-brown algae that live either in the water column as plankton
or symbiotically inside the tissue of other organisms.
Coral has a symbiotic relationship (which means an organism gives something to the other and gets
something back in return) with ‘zooxanthellae’ microscopic algae which live on coral.
Dinoflagellates, specifically zooxanthellae, plays a crucial role in reef formation through their symbiotic
relationship with reef-building corals. The most common symbiotic association is reason for hard, reef-
building corals.
The symbiotic relationship between reef-building corals and zooxanthellae (Dinoflagellates) enables
corals to thrive and build complex reef structures. Zooxanthellae's photosynthetic activity provides
energy and nutrients, while corals provide shelter and protection for the symbionts. This mutualistic
relationship is essential for the formation and maintenance of coral reefs. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Coral reefs are one of the most diverse ecosystems on the planet. Corals can be found throughout the
world’s oceans, in both shallow and deep water. However, the reef-building corals that rely on a
symbiotic relationship with algae need shallow, clear water, allowing light penetration for
photosynthesis.
Stony corals also require tropical or sub-tropical temperatures, which exist in a band between 30
degrees north and south latitudes.
The three main types of reefs are Fringing reefs, Barrier reefs, and Atolls.
➢ Fringing reefs are coral reefs that grow in shallow waters. They closely border the coastline or are
separated from it by a narrow stretch of water. Many of the reefs around Sri Lanka and Thailand are
fringing reefs.
➢ Barrier reefs grow parallel to the coast but are separated from land by a lagoon. They are found
sometimes many kilometers from shore (10–100km). Barrier reefs can grow in fairly deep water,
because, often, the living coral builds upon remains of corals that grew in the same area when sea
level was lower.
➢ Atolls grow surrounding (or partly surrounding) an island which then sinks relative to sea level
(usually because volcanic activity forming the island stops), or was flooded as sea level rose after the
last ice age. Atolls surround (or partly surround) a central lagoon. The Maldives consists of 26 atolls.
Therefore we can say that, Corals reefs are found in shallow waters. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Coral needs clear water with low concentrations of nutrients (chemicals) such as nitrogen, phosphate
and ammonium. Corals do not like phosphates as they interfere with the development of their skeletal
structure. They flourish in shallow, mud, and warm waters. Most reef-building corals also require very
saline (salty) water ranging from 32 to 42 parts per thousand. The water must also be clear so that a
maximum amount of light penetrates it. This is because most reef-building corals contain
photosynthetic algae, called zooxanthellae, which live in their tissues. The corals and algae have a
unique relationship. The coral provides the algae with a protected environment and compounds they
need for photosynthesis. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Atoll and barrier reefs are considered mature, whereas fringing reefs are considered immature. Barrier

105
 reefs and atolls also are some of the oldest. With growth rates of 0.3 to 2 centimetres per year for
massive corals and up to 10 centimetres per year for branching corals, it can take up to 10,000 years for
a coral reef to form. Atoll and barrier reefs are fully developed and are considered mature corals.
Both are characterized by a lagoon that is protected on the seaward side by the reef. Fringing reefs are
considered immature because they have not yet produced a lagoon between the reef and its associated
land mass. So, Statement 4 is correct.

70. Consider the following:

1. Falcons
2. Vultures
3. Eagles
4. Owls
Which of the above ‘raptor’ species are nocturnal in nature?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
EXPLANATION :
Raptor is a bird, such as an eagle or a hawk that kills and eats small birds and animals. Nocturnal is
being active or happening at night rather than during the day. Example: Bats and Owls are nocturnal
species.
Diurnal (daytime) raptors are the opposite of nocturnal (nightime) raptors. Some of the Diurnal raptors are
Hawks, Eagles, Kites, Falcons, Kestrels, etc. Thus, Eagles, falcons, and vultures are diurnal raptors, while
owls are nocturnal raptors. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
CONVENTION ON THE CONSERVATION OF MIGRATORY SPECIES(CMS)
About ➢ The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as
CMS or Bonn Convention) aims to conserve terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species
throughout their range.
➢ It is an intergovernmental treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United Nations
Environment Programme, concerned with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a
global scale.
➢ The Convention’s has membership of 117 Parties from Africa, Central and South America,
Asia, Europe and Oceania.
India ➢ The Indian Government has signed ‘Raptor MoU’, on Conservation of Migratory Birds of
signs Prey in Africa and Eurasia, with the Convention on Conservation of Migratory Species
Raptor (CMS), or Bonn Convention, under the auspices of the United Nations Environment
MOU Programme (UNEP). The CMS aims to conserve migratory species throughout their range.
➢ India has also signed non legally binding MOU with CMS on the conservation and
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 management of Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles (2007) and Dugongs (2008).
➢ India is temporary home to several migratory animals and birds. The important among
these include Amur Falcons, Bar headed Gheese, Black necked cranes, Marine turtles,
Dugongs, Humpbacked Whales, etc.
➢ The Indian sub-continent is also part of the major bird flyway network, i.e., the Central
Asian Flyway (CAF) that covers areas between the Arctic and Indian Oceans, and covers at
least 279 populations of 182 migratory water bird species, including 29 globally threatened
species. India has also launched the National Action Plan for conservation of migratory
species under the Central Asian Flyway.

71. Consider the following:

Sl. State
Biodiversity Heritage Site
No.
1. Majuli River Island - Assam
2. Naro Hills - Madhya Pradesh
3. BambardeMyristica Swamps - Maharastra
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
Majuli River Island is in the northeast state of Assam. Majuli River Island in River Brahmaputra is the
largest river island in India. The fertile floodplains and highly productive wetlands support a wide variety
of resident and migratory birds. More than 250 species of birds have been recorded. These include the two
globally endangered species of vultures (Oriental White-backed Vulture and Slender Billed Vulture), two
endangered species (Greater Adjutant and Bengal Florican) and 9 vulnerable species (Spot-billed Pelican,
Lesser Adjutant, Baer's Pochard, Pallas's Fish-Eagle, Greater Spotted Eagle, Swamp Francolin, Marsh
Babbler, Jerdon's Babbler and Black-breasted Parrotbill). Majuli has been categorized as an Important
Bird Area (IBA). It is eminent for its rich ecological and cultural heritage. It is also famous for producing
100 varieties of paddy without the application of fertilisers and pesticides. So, Pair (1) is correct.
Naro Hills is in the state of Madhya Pradesh. Naro Hills is home to various floral and faunal species,
including animals such as tiger, leopard, wild cat, fox, bear, sambar, neelgai, jackal, langur, monkey,
rabbit, peacock, owl; and plants such as flame lily, parijat, kapuri, ratanjot, henna. Naro Hills is part of
the Vindhya Hills region and a dry deciduous forest. The Vindhya region harbours several species of
medicinal plants, some of which are threatened. These include Dilleniapentagyna, Plumbagocapensis,
Psilotumnudum, Droseraburmanii, Alectrachitrakutensis, Cordiamacleodii, Costusspeciosus,
Strychnosnux-vomica, Plumbagozeylancia etc. So, Pair (2) is correct.
BambardeMyristica Swamps in the state of Maharashtra are known to be the remnants of primeval forests
of the Western Ghats with a history of over 140 million years. In addition, there are giant climbers,
medicinal plants, edible fruits and wild vegetables. The wild gene pool of Myristicafatua (wild nutmeg), an
economically important spice, is also preserved here. So, Pair (3) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BIODIVERSITY HERITAGE SITE
About ➢ “Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically
fragile ecosystems - terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich
biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components.
➢ Some of those components are richness of wild as well as domesticated species or
intra-specific categories, high endemism, presence of rare and threatened species,

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 keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/
cultivated species or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components
represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values
and are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long
history of human association with them.
72. Consider the following statements:
1. Krishi Sakhis are agricultural para-extension workers with knowledge of agroecological
practices.
2. The Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme (KSCP) is implemented under the ‘LakhpatiDidi'
program in India.
3. One of the components of training under KSCP is imparting basic communication skills to
KrishiSakhis.
How many of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
The LakhpatiDidi scheme offers a multifaceted approach to economic empowerment through various
financial instruments designed to enhance access to credit, encourage entrepreneurship, and promote
financial inclusion among women Self Help Groups (SHGs) and individual entrepreneurs across the
country.
Under the 'LakhpatiDidi' program, the aim is to create 3 croreLakhpatiDidis, one dimension of which is
Krishi Sakhi. Krishi Sakhi Convergence Program (KSCP) aims to transform rural India by empowering
rural Women as Krishi Sakhi by imparting training and certification of KrishiSakhis as Para-extension
Workers with knowledge on Agro-Ecological Practices. This certification course aligns with the objectives of
the "LakhpatiDidi" Program. KrishiSakhis have been trained on
➢ Agro-Ecological Practices from land ➢ Integrated Farming Systems
preparation to harvest ➢ Basics of Livestock Management
➢ Basic communication skills ➢ Preparation and use of Bio inputs and
➢ Seed banks + Establishment and Management establishment of Bio inputs shops
➢ Soil health, soil and moisture conservation ➢ Organising Farmer Field schools
practices
Hence, all the statements given above are correct. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
LAKHPATI DIDI SCHEME
About ➢ Self-help groups (SHGs) have fostered collective action and mutual support across the
nation while also serving as conduits for crucial financial literacy, skill development, and
livelihood assistance.
➢ Notably, the focus has shifted beyond mere social and financial inclusion, now aiming to
empower SHG members to pursue entrepreneurial ventures. Their inherent skills and
potential position them well to move towards higher income brackets.
➢ The government is now actively supporting this transition and initiatives like LakhpatiDidi.
➢ A LakhpatiDidi is a Self-Help Group member who earns an annual household income of
Rupees One Lakh (Rs. 1,00,000) or more. This income is calculated for at least four
agricultural seasons and/or business cycles, with an average monthly income exceeding
Rupees Ten Thousand (Rs. 10,000) so that it is sustainable. Lakhpati initiative facilitates
diversified livelihood activities, by ensuring convergence across all Government
departments/ Ministries, Private sector and Market players. The strategy includes focused
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 planning, adequate and timely support on assets, finance, market, technology etc.,
implementation and monitoring at all levels.
➢ A five-step process has been taken up by the Ministry to enable LakhpatiDidis, that
includes the following:

73. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of the desert ecosystem?
1. Ephemeral plants are predominantly found in desert ecosystems.
2. Cold deserts experience a wider range of temperatures compared to hot deserts.
3. Both hot and cold deserts are sandy and have low organic matter content.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
A desert ecosystem is characterized by scanty rainfall, arid climate, extreme temperatures, and scarce
vegetation. Ephemeral plants are widely distributed in arid and semi-arid ecosystems. They are an
important component of the nutrient cycle, with an irreplaceable role in stabilizing the sandy surface in
deserts. They are found in dry winter-wet steppes, deserts, and Mediterranean grasslands or areas with a
short favourable season.
In the hot desert, extreme diurnal temperature changes occur, with maximum temperatures reaching 40–
50°C during summer. The total annual precipitation is very low but has a large variability in spatial
distribution and intensity, which provides the living room for some ephemeral plants to survive. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Two types of deserts are found in the world: hot deserts and cold deserts. Hot deserts experience extremely
high temperatures, whereas cold deserts experience extremely low temperatures and even permafrost.
Cold deserts experience a wider range of temperatures compared to hot deserts. While daytime
temperatures can be relatively warm, the nights are often cold, with temperatures dropping below freezing
points. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Deserts are landscapes that receive little precipitation. Sandy Soil dominates the Hot desert ecosystem.
Sandunes are characteristic features of a desert biome. These dunes can vary in size and play a role in the
ecosystem by providing habitats for specialized plant and animal species.
Cold deserts are also known as temperate deserts. These are unique ecosystems characterized by low
temperatures and arid conditions. Cold desert soils are often sandy or gravelly. Cold and hot deserts have
minimum vegetation, so the soil surface has low organic matter content. Therefore,hot and cold deserts
are sandy and have low organic matter content.So, Statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
DESERT ECOSYSTEM
About A desert ecosystem refers to a region characterized by low precipitation levels and
extreme temperatures, supporting a unique community of plants, animals, and
microorganisms adapted to arid conditions. Examples include the Sahara Desert in
Africa, the Thar Desert and the Ladakh Desert in India.
Characteristics Some of the characteristics of the desert ecosystem are:
➢ Arid Environment: Deserts have less rainfall 25 -30cm annually) and high
temperatures, creating dry conditions.
➢ Sparse Vegetation: Due to the lack of water, vegetation is sparse and is adapted to
conserve water.
➢ Adapted Wildlife: Desert animals have evolved to survive harsh conditions. Features
such as water-conserving adaptations and nocturnal activity have been adopted.
➢ Limited Water Sources: Deserts have few water sources, such as oases, intermittent
streams, and underground aquifers, which are crucial for survival.
➢ Extreme Temperature Variations: Days are scorching hot, while nights can be very
cold due to no cloud cover and insulation.
➢ High Wind Velocity: Strong winds in deserts lead to erosion, shaping unique
landforms like sand dunes.
➢ Specialized Adaptations: Desert organisms have specialized features like long roots,
thick skin, and heat-reflecting coatings to cope with the harsh environment.
➢ Absence of Water Vapour: The air is very dry as there is no water vapour in the air.
Hot Desert A hot desert is a biome characterized by high temperatures, sparse vegetation, and low
precipitation. Examples include the Sahara Desert in Africa and the Arabian Desert in
the Middle East.
➢ High Temperature: Hot deserts experience extreme temperatures, with scorching
daytime heat and cooler nighttime. Daytime temperatures can often exceed 100°F
(38°C) or more.
➢ Low Precipitation: These deserts receive minimal rainfall, often less than 250
millimetres (10 inches) annually. Some hot deserts, like the Sahara in Africa and the
Sonoran in North America, can be extremely arid.
➢ Sandy Soil: Sandy Soil dominates the desert ecosystem. Sandunes are characteristic
features of a desert biome. These dunes can vary in size and play a role in the
ecosystem by providing habitats for specialized plant and animal species.
➢ Xeric Adaptations: All plants and animals in hot deserts are adapted to survive high
temperatures and dry environments. These adaptations include succulent leaves,
reduced surface areas, padded feet, and reduced sweat pores. Etc.

• Hot Desert Plants: Prickly Pear Cactus, Saguaro Cactus, and Date Palm.
• Hot Desert Animals: Camel, Fennec Fox, and Sidewinder Rattlesnake.
Cold Desert A cold desert is a biome with low temperatures and minimal precipitation, often with
snowfall instead of rain. Examples include the Gobi Desert in Asia and the Patagonian
Desert in South America.
➢ Varying Temperatures Reaching the Freezing Point: Cold deserts experience a wider
range of temperatures compared to hot deserts. While daytime temperatures can be
relatively warm, the nights are often cold, with temperatures dropping below freezing
points.
➢ Low Precipitation: Similar to hot deserts, cold deserts receive minimal rainfall, often
less than 250 millimetres (10 inches) annually.

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 ➢ Soil Composition: Cold desert soils are often sandy or gravelly and have low organic
matter content.
➢ Snowfall: Some cold deserts experience snowfall during the winter months. The
presence of snow can provide additional moisture to the ecosystem, influencing the
life cycles of plants and animals.
➢ Vegetation: Cold desert plants have adapted to withstand both low temperatures and
water scarcity.
➢ Animal Adaptations: Cold desert animals have evolved strategies to cope with
temperature extremes and limited water availability.
• Cold Desert Plants: Arctic Willow, Arctic Poppy.
• Cold Desert Animals: Polar Bear, Mountain Goat.

74. Consider the following statements:

1. Genetic diversity offers the advantage of enabling species with desirable genes to adapt to
environmental changes.
2. Species diversity in a biome is indicated by the ratio of a particular species’ population to the
total number of species in that biome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION :
Genetic diversity is concerned with the variation in genes within a particular species. Genetic diversity
allows species to adapt to changing environments. This diversity aims to ensure that some species survive
drastic changes and thus carry on desirable genes. The survival of individuals ensures the survival of the
population. The genetic diversity gives us beautiful butterflies, roses, parakeets or coral in a myriad hues,
shapes and sizes. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Species diversity refers to the variety of living organisms on earth. Species differ from one another
markedly in their genetic makeup, and do not interbreed in nature. Closely related species, however, have
in common many of their hereditary characteristics. For instance, about 98.4 percent of the genes of
humans and chimpanzees are the same. It is the ratio of one species' population over a total number of
organisms across all species in the given biome. ‘Zero’ would be infinite diversity, and ‘one’ represents only
one species present. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BIODIVERSITY
About ➢ Biodiversity is defined as ‘the variability among living organisms from all sources,
including terrestrial, marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological
complexes of which they are a part; this includes diversity within species, between
species and of ecosystems’.
Levels of Biodiversity is considered to exist at three levels: genetics, species, and ecosystems. They
Biodiversity are
➢ Genetic diversity: A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its
distributional range. The genetic variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia
vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges might be in terms of the potency and
concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) that the plant produces. India has
more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice, and 1,000 varieties of mango.
➢ Species diversity: The diversity at the species level. For example, the Western Ghats

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 have a greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.
➢ Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts, rain
forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has a greater
ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.

Modes of ➢ Ex-situ conservation

conservation • Conserving biodiversity outside the areas where they naturally occur is known as
exsitu conservation. Here, animals are reared or plants are cultivated like
zoological parks or botanical gardens. Reintroduction of an animal or plant into the
habitat from where it has become extinct is another form of ex situ conservation.
• For example, the Gangetic gharial has been reintroduced in the rivers of Uttar
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan where it had become extinct.
➢ In-situ conservation
• Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats is known as in-situ
conservation.
• The established natural habitats are National parks, Sanctuaries, Biosphere
reserves, Reserved forests and Protected forests.

75. Consider the following:

Sl. Ecosystem Dominated by Reason
No.
1. Terrestrial Grazing food chains High rate of harvest
2. Shallow Water Detritus food chains Major proportion of the annual
energy flow passes through
these chains.
3. Deep Water Grazing food chains Rapid turnover of organisms
Which of the rows mentioned above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
Detritus food chains begin with dead organic matter, which is an important source of energy. A large
amount of organic matter is contributed by the death of plants, plant parts, animals and their excretion
products. Detritus food chains are located mainly in the soil or in the sediments of aquatic /ecosystems.
They form an essential component of natural ecosystems. They are necessary for self-sustenance and
maintenance of ecological balance. Most of the natural ecosystems possess both grazing and detritus types
of food chains. Their relative importance varies from one ecosystem to another.
In terrestrial and shallow water ecosystems, detritus food chains dominate because a major proportion of
the energy flow occurs through this circuit. In tidal marshes, almost 90 per cent of the primary production
is routed through the detritus food chains. So, Row 1 is not correct, and Row 2 is correct.
In deep-water aquatic systems, the rapid turnover of organisms and high harvest rates are responsible for

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the dominance of grazing food chains. In most ecosystems, only a small proportion of energy flows through
grazing food chains. At each step, a significant amount of organic matter is transferred to the detritus food
chain through death, decay and excretion by living organisms.
Ocean food chains are among the longest, having up to five links, while forest types consist of three or four
links. The long length of grazing food chains in aquatic ecosystems occurs because phytoplankton and
zooplankton are small in size. So, Row 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
FOOD CHAINS
About Organisms in the ecosystem are related to each other through feeding mechanisms or
trophic levels, i.e. one organism becomes food for the other. A sequence of organisms that
feed on one another forms a food chain. A food chain starts with producers and ends with
top carnivores.
The sequence of eating and being eaten produces a transfer of food energy known as the food
chain. The plant converts solar energy into chemical energy by photosynthesis.
Small herbivores consume the plant matter and convert them into animal matter. These
herbivores are eaten by large carnivores.
Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk/Eagle
Types of In nature, two main types of food chains have been distinguished:
Food ➢ Grazing food chain
chains • The consumers who start the food chain, utilising the plant or plant part as their
food, constitute the grazing food chain.
• This food chain begins with green plants at the base, and the primary consumers are
herbivores.
• For example, In a terrestrial ecosystem, the grass is eaten up by a caterpillar, which
is eaten by a lizard and the lizard is eaten by the snake.
• In the Aquatic ecosystem, phytoplanktons (primary producers) are eaten by
zooplanktons, which are eaten by fishes, and fishes are eaten by pelicans.
➢ Detritus food chain
• It starts from dead organic matter of decaying animals and plant bodies consumed by
the micro-organisms and then to detritus-feeding organisms called detrivores or
decomposers and to other predators.
• The distinction between these two food chains is the source of energy for the first-
level consumers.
• In the grazing food chain, the primary source of energy is living plant biomass, while
in the detritus food chain, the source of energy is dead organic matter or detritus.
• The two food chains are linked. The initial energy source for the detritus food chain is
the waste materials and dead organic matter from the grazing food chain.
Auxiliary Auxiliary food chains:
food ➢ In addition to grazing and detritus food chains, there are other auxiliary food chains
chains that operate through parasites and scavengers.
➢ Some parasitic food chains may be quite complex and may involve unrelated organisms.
➢ A deer fed upon by internal roundworms and external ticks or a man with malarial
parasites in his blood are examples of parasitic food chains.
➢ The parasites are transmitted through various vectors or unrelated intermediary host
organisms.

76. What is 'ABHYAS,' recently seen in the news ?

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 (a) High-speed expendable aerial target designed by DRDO
(b) Short-range ballistic missile designed by Russia
(c) Javelin anti-tank missile developed by united states of america
(d) Defense collaboration between India and Japan
EXPLANATION :
Abhyas, a high-speed expendable aerial target (HEAT), developed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation as a target for the testing of missile systems, was successfully flight-tested from
the Integrated Test Range (ITR) off the coast of Odisha. Abhyas has been developed by the Aeronautical
Development Establishment (ADE), a Bengaluru-based facility of the DRDO. Abhyas has been tested
multiple times by the DRDO in the recent past in different configurations. This indigenous system is
designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot, a laptop-based Ground Control System for
aircraft integration, pre-flight checks, and autonomous flight. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ABHYAS
Recently Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully completed six
in news consecutive developmental trials of High-Speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT) ‘ABHYAS’
with improved booster configuration from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur,
Odisha. With this, ABHYAS has successfully completed 10 developmental trials,
demonstrating the reliability of the system.
About ➢ The trials were carried out with improved Radar cross-section, Visual and Infrared
augmentation systems. During the trials, various mission objectives covering safe release
of booster, launcher clearance, and endurance performance were successfully validated.
➢ Two launches were conducted back-to-back within a gap of 30 minutes, demonstrating
the ease of operation with minimum logistics. Representatives from the Services
witnessed the flight trials.
➢ It offers a realistic threat scenario for weapon systems practice. This Indigenous system
is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot, a laptop-based Ground
Control System for aircraft integration, pre-flight checks, and autonomous flight.
➢ It also has a feature to record data during flight for post-flight analysis. The booster was
designed by Advanced Systems Laboratory, and the navigation system was designed by
Research Centre Imarat. With identified production agencies, ABHYAS is now ready for
production.
Javelin The FGM-148 Javelin is a man-portable, “fire-and-forget” antitank-guided missile (ATGM)

114
 Antitank system with an effective range of 2.5 km.
Missile ➢ It was designed to defeat heavily armoured vehicles such as main battle tanks and
lighter-skinned military vehicles. The weapon also has the capability to fight other target
types like fortifications, bunkers, and helicopters.
➢ The Javelin is a man-portable antitank guided missile (ATGM) developed by Raytheon
and Lockheed Martin. Designed to defeat heavily armoured vehicles and other targets
like bunkers and helicopters, it features a 2,500-meter range, "fire-and-forget" infrared
guidance, and a high-explosive antitank warhead.

77. Consider the following statements:

1. These are the major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy
transfer systems.
2. Many animals need this element in large quantities to make shells, bones and teeth.
3. There is no respiratory release of this element into the atmosphere.
The above statements describe which of the following elements?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Sulphur
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Carbon
EXPLANATION :
The movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem is called nutrient
cycling. Another name for nutrient cycling is biogeochemical cycles. Nutrient cycles are of two types. They
are Gaseous and Sedimentary.
The reservoir for the gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere,
and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s
crust. Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy
transfer systems.
Many animals also need large quantities of phosporus to make shells, bones and teeth. The natural
reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates. When rocks are
weathered, minute amounts of these phosphates dissolve in soil solution and are absorbed by the roots of
the plants. Herbivores and other animals obtain this element from plants.
The waste products and the dead organisms are decomposed by phosphate-solubilising bacteria releasing
phosphorus. Unlike the carbon cycle, there is no respiratory release of phosphorus into the atmosphere.
So, Option (c) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
NUTRIENT CYCLE
Carbon Cycle ➢ Carbon is present in the atmosphere, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2).
(Gaseous Carbon cycle involves a continuous exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and
cycle) organisms. Carbon from the atmosphere moves to green plants by the process of
photosynthesis, and then to animals. By process of respiration and decomposition of
dead organic matter it returns back to atmosphere. It is usually a short term cycle.
➢ Some carbon also enters a long term cycle. It accumulates as un-decomposed organic
matter in the peaty layers of marshy soil or as insoluble carbonates in bottom
sediments of aquatic systems which take a long time to be released.
➢ In deep oceans, such carbon can remain buried for millions of years till geological
movement may lift these rocks above sea level. These rocks may be exposed to
erosion, releasing their carbon dioxide, carbonates and bicarbonates into streams and
rivers.
➢ Fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas etc., are organic compounds that were
buried before they could be decomposed and were subsequently transformed by time
and geological processes into fossil fuels. When they are burned, the carbon stored in
them is released back into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

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 Sulphur ➢ The sulphur reservoir is in the soil and sediments where it is locked in organic
Cycle (coal, oil and peat) and inorganic deposits (pyrite rock and sulphur rock) in the
(Sedimentary form of sulphates, sulphides and organic sulphur.
Cycle) ➢ It is released by the weathering of rocks, erosional runoff, and the decomposition
of organic matter. It is also carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems in salt
solutions.
➢ The sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary, except two of its compounds, hydrogen
sulphide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) add a gaseous component to its normal
sedimentary cycle.
➢ Sulphur enters the atmosphere from several sources like volcanic eruptions,
combustion of fossil fuels, from surface of ocean and from gases released by
decomposition. Atmospheric hydrogen sulphide also gets oxidised into sulphur
dioxide. Atmospheric sulphur dioxide is carried back to the Earth after being
dissolved in rainwater as weak sulphuric acid.
➢ Whatever the source, sulphur in the form of sulphates is take up by plants and
incorporated through a series of metabolic processes into sulphur bearing amino
acid which is incorporated in the proteins of autotroph tissues. It then passes
through the grazing food chain.
➢ Sulphur bound in living organism is carried back to the soil, to the bottom of
ponds and lakes and seas through excretion and decomposition of dead organic
material.

78. ThanthaiPeriyar Wildlife Sanctuary is encompassed in which of the following protected areas?
(a) Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Kollegal Forests and Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Gulf of Mannar and Agarthiarmalai Tiger Reserve
(c) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve and Anamalai Tiger Reserve
(d) Mukurthi and Srivilliputhur Tiger Reserves and Megamalai Tiger Reserve
EXPLANATION :
The Tamil Nadu government has declared 80,114.80 hectares of reserve forests in Bargur Hills in Erode
district as the ThanthaiPeriyar Wildlife Sanctuary. The vast landscape is home to diverse flora and fauna,

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making it an ideal habitat for various life forms. This stretch of protected forests links the Nilgiris
Biosphere Reserve with the Cauvery South Wildlife Sanctuary and has been notified as the 18th wildlife
sanctuary in the state. The landscape is interconnected to the Kollegal forests of Karnataka and the
Nilgiris, creating one of the most diverse habitats in the region. This region is part of the corridor that
connects the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) to the Male Mahadeshwara Hills Tiger Reserve and the
Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary and plays a crucial role in maintaining a viable tiger population. It is one of the
tiger corridors identified by the National Tiger Conservation Authority and is home to a number of tigers.
➢ The region is also part of the Nilgiris Elephant Reserve and is home to a healthy population of large
herbivores, including elephants and the Indian Gaur. Also, the landscape is the catchment of the Palar
River, which drains into the Cauvery River and is a crucial source of water for agricultural activities.
Thus, ThanthaiPeriyar Wildlife Sanctuary encompassesthe Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Kollegal Forests and
Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PROTECTED AREAS IN TAMIL NADU
Nilgiris ➢ NBR is the first biosphere in India established in the year 1986 and one of the
Biosphere acclaimed hotspots of biodiversity. It is located in the Western Ghats encompassing
Reserve (NBR) parts of Tamilnadu, Kerala and Karnataka.
➢ The Biosphere Reserve falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain
forest. The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary Bandipur
National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley
are the protected areas present within this reserve.
➢ The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve comprises of substantial unspoilt areas of natural
vegetation ranging from dry scrub to evergreen forests and swamps thus
contributing to highest biodiversity.
➢ The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is very rich in plant diversity. About 3,300 species of
flowering plants can be seen here. The genus Baeolepis is exclusively endemic to
the Nilgiris. Some of the plants entirely restricted to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
include species of Adenoon, Calacanthus, Baeolepis, Frerea, Jarodina, Wagatea,
Poeciloneuron, etc.
➢ The Nilgiri tahr, Nilgiri langur, slender loris, blackbuck, tiger, gaur, Indian elephant
and marten aresome are the animals found here.
➢ The recent success in the conservation of NBR was the restoration of a crucial
elephant corridor. The narrow corridor — 1 km wide and 10 km long —
encompassing 3,500 acres from Kallati to Bokkapuram via Mavanallah and
Semmanatham is a milestone in the history of any forest Department.
Male ➢ Male Mahadeshwara Hills (MM Hills) Wildlife Division came into being in 2013 with
Mahadeshwara the declaration of the MM Hills Wildlife Sanctuary in the same year. The wildlife
Hills (MM sanctuary is located in Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. Earlier, the division
Hills) Wildlife was a territorial division known as the Kollegal forest division.
Sanctuary ➢ The sanctuary covers an extent of about 906 Km² and comprises the state forests of
MM Hills (part), Yediyarahalli and Hanur; animals, including tiger, elephant,
leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer..etc, are some of the species found
here.
➢ The sanctuary has notable population pf tiger ranging from 8 to 25.
Cauvery ➢ Cauvery Wildlife Division is spread over three districts, namely, Chamarajanagar,
Wildlife Mandya and Ramanagara. The wildlife sanctuary was originally notified in 1987
Division with an area of about 510 Km².
➢ Cauvery Wildlife Division has two sub-divisions, namely, Hanur and Kanakapura
sub-divisions, and consists of seven ranges, namely, Kothnur, Hanur, Cowdally,

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 Gopinatham, Halagur, Sangam and Muggur ranges.
➢ The sanctuary provides a vital link between Bannerghatta National Park in the north
and Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve and MM Hills Wildlife
Sanctuary in the south.

79. Which of the following processes can lead to an increase in Population Density?
1. Natality
2. Mortality
3. Immigration
4. Emigration
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION :
A population is a group of organisms, usually of the same species, occupying a defined area during a
specific time. Population density is the relation between the number of individuals of a population and the
area they occupy.
The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter. It keeps changing with time, depending
on various factors, including food availability, predation pressure and adverse weather. In fact, it is these
changes in population density that give us some idea of what is happening to the population, whether it is
flourishing or declining. Whatever might be the ultimate reason, the density of a population in a given
habitat during a given period fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes. They are
➢ Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the
initial density.
➢ Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
➢ Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from
elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
➢ Emigration is the number of individuals in the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere
during the time period under consideration.
Therefore, natality and immigration contribute to an increase in population density, whereas mortality and
emigration lead to a decrease in population density.
So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
POPULATION INTERACTION
About ➢ In nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in isolation but
interact in various ways to form a biological community. Even in minimal
communities, many interactive linkages exist, although all may not be readily
apparent.
➢ Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of populations of two different
species. They could be beneficial, detrimental or neutral (neither harm nor benefit) to
one of the species or both.
Types of ➢ Mutualism: Both species benefit.
biotic • For example: In pollination mutualisms, the pollinator gets food (pollen, nectar),
interaction and the plant has its pollen transferred to other flowers for cross-fertilization
(reproduction).
➢ Commensalism: One species benefits and the other is unaffected.
• For example: cow dung provides food and shelter to dung beetles. The beetles

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 have no effect on the cows.
➢ Competition: Both species are harmed by the interaction.
• For example: if two species eat the same food, and there isn’t enough for both,
both may have access to less food than they would if alone. They both suffer a
shortage of food.
➢ Predation and parasitism: One species benefits and the other is harmed.
• Example: predation—one fish kills and eats parasitism: tick gains benefit by
sucking blood; the host is harmed by losing blood.
➢ Amensalism: One species is harmed, the other is unaffected.
• Example: A large tree shades a small plant, retarding the growth of the small
plant. The small plant has no effect on the large tree.
➢ Neutralism: There is no net benefit or harm to either species. Perhaps in some
interspecific interactions, the costs and benefits experienced by each partner are
exactly the same, so they sum to zero.

80. Consider the following pairs :

Islands often mentioned Location
in the news
1. GardiSugdub Island - Caribbean Sea
2. Crete Island - South China Sea
3. Delos Island - Red sea
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
EXPLANATION :
GardiSugdub Island is a tiny island in the Caribbean Sea and a part of the San Blas archipelago, which
comprises 365 islands, mostly uninhabited. GardiSugdub, however, is home to 1,200 indigenous Guna
people, who will soon be displaced to the mainland because of the sea level rise induced by climate
change. The further movement of inhabitants from the surrounding islands is foreseen to be necessary by
2050. So, Pair (1) is correct.

Crete Island is the fifth largest island in the Mediterranean and the largest of the islands forming part of
modern Greece. It is relatively long and narrow, stretching for 160 miles (260 km) on its east-west axis and
varying in width from 7.5 to 37 miles (12 to 60 km). Crete is dominated by harsh mountains rising out of
the sea. Thus, it is located in the Mediterranean Sea, not in the South China Sea.
So, Pair (2) is not correct.
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 Delos, an island that is one of the smallest of the Cyclades, Greece, is an ancient centre of religious,
political, and commercial life in the Aegean Sea. The island bears traces of the succeeding civilizations in
the Aegean world, from the 3rd millennium B.C. to the palaeochristian era. The archaeological site is
exceptionally extensive and rich and conveys the image of a great cosmopolitan Mediterranean port. Delos,
one of the most important sanctuaries of the ancient Greek and Roman world, is in danger of sinking into
the Aegean Sea due to climate change. Thus, it is located on the Aegean Sea, not the Red Sea.
So, Pair (3) is not correct.

81. Consider the following information:

1. It is a small arboreal mammal.
2. It thrives best at 4,800m in mixed deciduous and coniferous forests.
3. It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
4. It is the state animal of Sikkim.
Which of the following animals is described above?
(a) Hillock Gibbon
(b) Lion-tailed Macaque
(c) Red Panda
(d) Giant Squirrel
EXPLANATION :
Hillock gibbons are primates like monkeys, langurs and chimpanzees. It is also an ape, which are the
primates evolutionarily closest to humans. It is the only ape found in India, confined to the seven states of
northeast India, with Brahmaputra as the distribution boundary.
They form an arboreal species and prefer to live in canopies of the evergreen forests in northeast India.

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This species is Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.It is the state animal of Arunachal
Pradesh. So, Option (a) is not correct.

The lion-tailed macaque is a species inhabiting evergreen rain forests found only in the Western Ghats of
India. Lion tailed macaques are arboreal and diurnal. The species is threatened by habitat loss,
fragmentation, degradation, and poaching. The lion-tailed macaque is categorized as endangered in the
IUCN red list. It is not any state animal. So, Option (b) is not correct.

The red panda is a small arboreal mammal found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan, and the northern
mountains of Myanmar and southern China.
➢ It thrives best at 2,200-4,800m in mixed deciduous and conifer forests with dense understories of
bamboo, though red panda evidence has also been found at 1800m.
➢ In India, this elusive species is found in Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling and Kalimpongdistricts
of West Bengal. It is the state animal of Sikkim.
➢ Listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species and under Schedule I of the Indian
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the red panda has the highest legal protection. WWF India has been
working since 2005 in the eastern Himalayan region to conserve this species.
It clearly shows that the above description is about the Red Panda. So, Option (c) is correct.

The Indian giant squirrel or Malabar giant squirrel (Ratufaindica) is a large multi-coloured tree
squirrel species endemic to forests and woodlands in India.
It is a diurnal, arboreal, and mainly herbivorous squirrel. It is found at altitudes of 180–2,300 m (590–
7,550 ft) in tropical deciduous, semi-deciduous (often utilizing denser riparian growth), and
moist evergreen forests and woodlands.Giant Squirrel is designated as Near Threatened on the IUCN Red
List. It is the state animal of Maharashtra.So, Option (d) is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
ARBOREAL ANIMAL
About ➢ Animals that live in the trees are called ‘arboreal’, and they have some amazing adaptations
to make the most of their leafy surroundings at every level.
➢ This tree-dwelling lifestyle is common in various species across different classes of animals,
including mammals, birds, insects, and reptiles.
➢ Living in trees provides arboreal animals with a rich source of food like leaves, fruits, nuts,
and other smaller organisms, along with protection from ground-based predators.
➢ Additionally, the high vantage points of trees are advantageous for monitoring threats. For
some species, the leafy branches offer a perfect platform for gliding or flying from tree to tree.
➢ The arboreal habitat influences many aspects of these animals’ behaviour, diet, and even
social structures, making them integral components of their ecosystems.
➢ Some Examples of arboreal animals are Gibbons, Lemurs, Orangutans, Martens, Sloths, Tree
Kangaroos, Lion-tailed Macaque, Red Panda, Giant Squirrel etc.,

82. With reference to services provided by biodiversity to humans, consider the following statements:
1. It provides medicinal resources and pharmaceutical drugs.
2. It has recreational value and tourism potential.
3. It contributes to climate stability.
4. It provides diversity in genes, species and ecosystems.
5. It helps in research and education.
Which of the above are Ecosystem services provided by biodiversity?
(a) 2 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION :
Biodiversity is the number and variety of organisms found within a specified geographic region. It refers to
the varieties of plants, animals and micro-organisms, the genes they contain and the ecosystems they
form. It relates to the variability among living organisms on the earth, including the variability within and
between the species and that within and between the ecosystems. Biodiversity is our living wealth. It is a
result of hundreds of millions of years of evolutionary history. Biodiversity provides a number of natural
services for human beings they are
➢ Ecosystem services
• Protection of water resources
• Soils formation and protection
• Nutrient storage and recycling
• Pollution breakdown and absorption
• Contribution to climate stability

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 • Maintenance of ecosystems
• Recovery from unpredictable events
➢ Biological services
• Food
• Medicinal resources and pharmaceutical drugs
• Wood products
• Ornamental plants
• Breeding stocks
• Diversity in genes, species and ecosystems
➢ Social services
• Research, education and monitoring
• Recreation and tourism
• Cultural values
So, Option (d) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
IMPORTANCE OF BIODIVERSITY
About ➢ Biodiversity has contributed in many ways to the development of human culture and,
in turn, human communities have played a major role in shaping the diversity of
nature at the genetic, species and ecological levels.
Ecological ➢ Species of many kinds perform some function or the other in an ecosystem. Species
Role of capture and store energy, produce and decompose organic materials, help to cycle
Biodiversity water and nutrients throughout the ecosystem, fix atmospheric gases and help regulate
the climate. These functions are important for ecosystem function and human survival.
Economic ➢ One important part of biodiversity is ‘crop diversity’, which is also called agro-
Role of biodiversity. Biodiversity is seen as a reservoir of resources to be drawn upon for the
Biodiversity manufacture of food, pharmaceutical, and cosmetic products.
➢ This concept of biological resources is responsible for the deterioration of biodiversity.
At the same time, it is also the origin of new conflicts dealing with rules of division and
appropriation of natural resources. Some of the important economic commodities that
biodiversity supplies to humankind are: food crops, livestock, forests, fish, medicinal
resources, etc.
Scientific ➢ Biodiversity is important because each species can give us some clue as to how life
Role of evolved and will continue to evolve. Biodiversity also helps in understanding how life
Biodiversity functions and the role of each species in sustaining ecosystems of which we are also a
species.
➢ The level of biodiversity is a good indicator of the state of our relationships with other
living species. In fact, the concept of biodiversity is an integral part of many human
cultures.

83. The place “A” is the transitional zone between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. It has hydric soils
and periodic flooding from adjacent deep water habitats. The dominant plants are hydrophytes
which are adapted to shallow waterlogged soils. This place includes lake littorals, floodplains and
other marshy or swamp areas.
The place “A” is which of the following types of ecosystem?
(a) Estuary ecosystem
(b) Wetland ecosystem
(c) Mangroves
(d) Ocean ecosystem

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EXPLANATION :
Wetlands are lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic systems where the water table is usually
at or near the surface or the land is covered by shallow water.
The amount of water present in a wetland can vary greatly. Some wetlands are permanently flooded, while
others are only seasonally flooded but retain saturated soils throughout the unflooded period. Still, other
wetlands may rarely flood, but saturated soil conditions are still present long enough to support wetland-
adapted plants and for hydric soil characteristics to develop. Hydric soils develop when chemical changes
occur due to the low-oxygen conditions associated with prolonged saturation.
Different plant communities may be found in different types of wetlands, with each species adapted to the
local hydrology (the quantity, distribution, and movement of water throughout a given area). Wetland
plants are often referred to as hydrophytes because they are specially adapted to grow in saturated soils.
Common names for wetlands include marshes, estuaries, mangroves, mudflats, mires, ponds, fens,
swamps, deltas, coral reefs, billabongs, lagoons, shallow seas, bogs, lakes, and floodplains. Hence, the
given stanza speaks about the wetland ecosystem. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
TYPES OF WETLANDS
About There are many different types of wetlands, each determined by its hydrology, water chemistry,
soils, and the plant species found there. Wetlands may be characterized as dominated by trees,
shrubs, or herbaceous vegetation. They may be fed by precipitation, runoff, or groundwater, with
water chemistry ranging from very acidic to alkaline. Below are some of the major wetland types
found in the Upper Midwest.
➢ Marshes are wetlands that are permanently flooded or flooded during high water periods at
the edges of rivers, streams, lakes, or ponds. Marshes may be dominated by submersed,
floating-leaved, or emergent vegetation, including cattails, pondweeds, water lilies, and
various sedges, rushes, spike rushes, grasses, and forbs (broad-leaved flowering plants).
Marshes can be subcategorized into emergent marsh and hemi-marsh.
➢ The meadows are wet grasslands often dominated by sedges and grasses with relatively few
forbs (broad-leaved flowering plants). Birds frequenting this habitat include the King Rail,
Sandhill Crane, Northern Harrier, and Sedge Wren. Reptiles such as the northern water
snake and amphibians like the pickerel frog and cricket frog are also common.
➢ A wet prairie is an ecosystem that is usually intermediate in wetness between sedge
meadows and mesic prairies. Wet prairies are herbaceous wetlands dominated by a mixture
of graminoids and forbs such as little bluestem, northern dropseed, prairie Indian plantain,
marsh phlox, and foxglove beardtongue.
➢ Fens and seeps are wetlands that are fed by groundwater that “seeps” out to the soil’s
surface. The type of vegetation found within these wetlands is dependent upon the water
chemistry and pH level.
➢ Bogs are basin wetlands for which precipitation is the only source of water; they are typically
not fed by surfacing groundwater or streams. Bogs are generally dominated by sphagnum
mosses, which may form a floating mat over deeper water that supports a rich assortment of

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 specially adapted species.
➢ Swamps are wetlands dominated by woody vegetation that typically have standing water
during at least certain times of the year. They are often found in low-elevation floodplains
along rivers or slow-moving streams.

84. Consider the following :

1. Angola
2. Namibia
3. Zimbabwe
4. Malawi
5. Mozambique
How many of the above countries are part of the Kavango Zambezi Transfrontier Conservation Area?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION :
Kavango-Zambezi Transfrontier Conservation Area, The KAZA TFCA is enormous, larger than Germany
and Austria combined and nearly twice as large as the United Kingdom. It lies in the Kavango and Zambezi
river basins where Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia and Zimbabwe converge. The goal of the KAZA

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TFCA is “To sustainably manage the Kavango Zambezi ecosystem, its heritage and cultural resources
based on best conservation and tourism models for the socio-economic wellbeing of the communities and
other stakeholders in and around the eco-region through harmonization of policies, strategies and
practices.” Thus, Malawi and Mozambique are not part of the Kavango Zambezi Transfrontier Conservation
Area. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
KAVANGO ZAMBEZI TRANSFRONTIER CONSERVATION AREA
Objectives The KAZA TFCA was established to:
➢ Conserve the shared natural resources and cultural heritage of this vast area of southern
Africa
➢ Promote and facilitate the development of a complementary and linked network of
protected areas that protect wildlife and provide and restore dispersal corridors and
migratory routes.
➢ Develop the KAZA TFCA into a world-class tourism destination offering a variety of
breathtaking adventures and luxurious relaxation.
➢ Promote the free and easy movement of tourists across borders
➢ Implement programmes that ensure the sustainable use of natural resources in ways that
improve the livelihoods of communities and reduce poverty in the region
➢ Harmonize conservation legislation and natural resource management of the TFCA

85. With respect to Total forest cover in India, consider the following statements:
1. The total forest cover of the country is 21.71% of the geographical area of the country.
2. The country’s total forest cover is recorded more in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to other
states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION :
The forest cover is defined as 'all land, more than one hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more
than 10 percent irrespective of ownership and legal status. Such land may not necessarily be a recorded
forest area. It also includes orchards, bamboo and palm'. As per the latest ISFR 2021, the total forest cover
of the country is 7,13,789 square kilometres, which is 21.71% of the country's geographical area.
So, Statement 1 is correct.

Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country, followed by Arunachal Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as a percentage of total geographical area,
the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur
(74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%). Hence, the country's total forest cover is recorded more in Madhya
Pradesh than in other states. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
INDIA STATE OF FOREST REPORT (ISFR)
About ➢ The report, which is released every two years, is produced by the Forest Survey of India (FSI)
under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It was
published in 1991 and provides a comprehensive overview of the state of India's forests.
➢ The last report, published in 2021, recorded the country's total forest cover at 713,789 square
kilometres or 21.71 per cent — a marginal increase of 1,540 square kilometres compared to
the 2019 ISFR publication.
➢ The National Forest Policy aims for 33.3 per cent of land in plains and 66.6 percent in hilly
regions to be forested to achieve environmental stability and ecological balance.
➢ As per the latest India State of Forest Report (ISFR) published in 2021, the total forest cover of
the country is 7,13,789 square kilometres, which is 21.71% of the geographical area of the
country. The state/UTs-wise details of forest cover are as per ISFR.
➢ The tree cover increased by 721 square kilometres between 2019 and 2021. There is no loss of
tree cover during 2019 and 2021. Therefore, the question of an increase in the emission of
carbon dioxide due to the loss of tree cover does not arise.
➢ The contradictions between India State of Forest Report 2021 and Global Forest Watch data
may be because of the differences in the definition of forest cover and tree cover adopted in
these two reports.

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 86. Consider the following statements with reference to Olive Ridley Turtles (Lepidochelysolivacea):
1. They inhabit the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.
2. Due to their numbers declining over the past few years, the species is recognized as Endangered
by the IUCN Red list.
3. They are herbivorous and feed on phytoplanktons and sea weeds.
4. The coast of Odisha in India is the largest mass nesting site for this species in the world.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION :
The olive ridley turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea) is the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles, growing
up to 80 cm and weighing less than 50 kg. The olive ridley gets its name from its heart-shaped, olive-green
coloured carapace. Males and females grow to the same size; however, females have a slightly more
rounded carapace. The species is among the smallest of the world’s sea turtles and is found primarily in
the tropical regions of the Pacific, Indian, and Atlantic oceans. Olive ridley turtles are found throughout
the world. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Though Olive Ridley Turtles are found in abundance, their numbers have been declining over the past few
years, and the species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red List, not Endangered. Growing to
about 2 feet in length and 50 kg in weight, the Olive ridley gets its name from its olive-coloured carapace,
which is heart-shaped and rounded. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The olive ridley is omnivorous (not herbivorous), meaning it feeds on a wide variety of food items, including
algae, lobster, crabs, tunicates, and molluscs. Olive ridleys can dive to depths of 500 feet to forage on
benthic invertebrates (those that live on the bottom). So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Olive ridley turtles are the smallest of the marine turtle species in the world. The coast of Odisha in India
is one of the world’s largest mass-nesting sites, along with the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica, and the
mass-nesting event is called an arribada. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
OLIVE RIDLEY TURTLE
About The famous Olive Ridley turtle nests along the Indian coastline, which is about 7,500
kilometres long. The Olive Ridley is a tropical to subtropical subspecies found in warm
waters globally. It is found in India from the Gujarat coast to the Andamans and
Lakshadweep to Odisha and Bengal; this species nests annually. It journeys from foraging
grounds off Australia to Sri Lanka and India, covering 9,000 kilometres.
Distribution The olive ridley turtles are globally distributed in the tropical and warm-temperate regions
of the South Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans. Though mainly pelagic, they have been
found to inhabit coastal areas, including bays and estuaries. Olive ridleys often migrate
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 thousands of kilometres between pelagic feeding and coastal breeding grounds. In fact,
fishermen have spotted adult olive ridleys over 4,000 km from land in the Pacific.

Arribada Arribada, or “arrival,” refers to a unique mass nesting event in which thousands of female
Olive Ridley turtles come together on the same beach to lay their eggs. It lasts five to seven
days and takes place almost every year along the coast of Odisha.
Olive Ridely Conservation of the Olive Ridley turtles in Odisha began with the discovery and worldwide
TurtlesIn recognition of the Gahirmatha rookery close to the mouth of the Brahmani-Baitarani
India (Dhamra) River in 1974.
➢ The Olive Ridely Turtles come to the beaches of Odisha coast annually between
November and December and stay on until April and May for nesting.
➢ Off late, nesting has been observed to start from late January to early February.
➢ The turtles choose the narrow beaches near estuaries and bays for laying their eggs.
Each adult female lays approximately hundred to hundred and forty eggs at a time.
'Operation As the nesting period stretches over six months, the Indian Coast Guard undertakes the
Olivia' Olive Ridely Turtle protection program under the code name 'Operation Olivia' every year.
World Sea Every year on June 16, World Sea Turtle Day is celebrated to increase awareness and
Turtle Day support for conserving sea turtles.
Turtles in ➢ Hunting and Poaching
distress ➢ Longline and Trawler
➢ Marine Debris
➢ Artificial Lights
➢ Climate Change
General ➢ Herbivores: The animals that eat the plants directly are called primary consumers or
Science herbivores, e.g., insects, birds, rodents, and ruminants.
➢ Carnivores: They are secondary consumers if they feed on herbivores and tertiary
consumers if they use carnivores as their food. e.g. frog, dog, cat and tiger.
➢ Omnivores: Animals that eat both plants and animals, e.g., pigs, bears, and man.

87. Which of the following organisms has a different breathing mechanism than that of humans?
(a) Cow
(b) Cat
(c) Earthworm
(d) Dog

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EXPLANATION :
Humans have a well-developed respiratory system suitable for meeting the higher requirement of oxygen in
their bodies. The respiratory system consists of nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and
bronchi. The lungs are the main respiratory organs. In animals like cow, buffalo, dog and cat the
respiratory organs and the process of breathing are similar to those in humans.
Earthworm has no respiratory organs. The entire skin on the body of earthworm functions as the
respiratory surface. The skin of earthworm is thin, moist and has a rich supply of blood capillaries. Thus,
it is very suitable for respiration. The body surface is covered with a moist film consisting of secretions of
mucous glands, coelomic fluids and excretory wastes. The capillaries on the skin take up O2 dissolved in
the water (in the moisture on the surface of skin and release CO2 into the atmosphere. Earthworms have a
closed circulatory system which means that blood flows within blood vessels. The respiratory pigment
haemoglobin remains dissolved in blood plasma and not in any cell. In human beings and other
vertebrates, Haemoglobin is inside RBC. There is regular rhythmic contraction of blood vessels which
helps in the circulation of blood and hence in the transport of dissolved gases in the body. Thus,
Earthwormhas a different breathing mechanism than that of humans. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
RESPIRATORY GASEOUS EXCHANGE
About ➢ Every cell of our body needs to produce energy for its activities. This energy is
produced by oxidising the food (glucose), which the cell receives as product of
digestion. Oxygen is required for oxidation of glucose in the cell. The intake of oxygen
for the release of energy by its action on glucose is termed as respiration.
Breathing The mechanism by which organisms obtain oxygen from the environment and release
and carbon dioxide into it is termed breathing. Respiration in ordinary sense is a wider term, it
respiration includes breathing as well as,
➢ Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the tissues, and
➢ Action of oxygen on glucose inside the cell to release energy (oxidation).
Tracheal Like majority of insects, cockroach respires by means of internal tubes called tracheae.
System in ➢ These tubes branch out extensively inside the body and carry air directly to the tissues
Cockroach from the atmosphere.
➢ In cockroach, respiration does not involve blood as shown in the flow chart given
below and therefore it is very fast and very efficient. Tracheae open up to the exterior
by paired slit like apertures called spiracles. Spiracles are found on the sides in the
thorax and abdomen.
➢ The fine branches of tracheal trunks called tracheoles finally penetrate the cells of the
body and allow diffusion of respiratory gases directly into and from the cells.
➢ The ends of the tracheoles are thin and filled with fluid in which respiratory gases
dissolve. The inflow and outflow of air is affected by alternate contraction and
expansion of the abdomen.

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 88. With reference to Diatoms, consider the following statements:
1. They are microscopic algae responsible for around one-fourth of the global oxygen production.
2. They are endemic to Asia and North America continents.
3. They are absent in brackish water ecosystems.
4. They act as indicator species of their aquatic habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION :
Diatoms are unique microscopic algae containing silica and having distinct geometrical shapes. They are
unicellular, eukaryotic and photosynthetic organisms. They occur in wet or moist places where
photosynthesis is possible.
Diatoms are either planktonic (free-floating) or benthic (attached to a substratum) in Nature. Diatoms are
solely responsible for about 20–25% of global oxygen production, i.e., approximately every fourth breath of
oxygen we inhale. They serve as a base of the aquatic food chain. Due to their sensitivity towards any
water chemistry changes, they are excellent indicators of aquatic health. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Diatoms are the first recorded microorganisms in India, with Ehrenberg's first report dating back to 1845
in his voluminous publication Mikrogeologie. Since then, several studies in India have recorded diatoms
from freshwater and marine environments. A rough estimate counts that there are nearly 6,500 diatom
taxa, of which 30 per cent are endemic (restricted to a particular region) to India, suggesting India's
unique biodiversity.
The genus Afrocymbella (Bacillariophyceae) diatom species is also found in lakes Malawi and Tanganyika
in east Africa. Hence, diatoms are not endemic to Asia and North America continents. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
Diverse biogeographic zones support various species with habitat diversity ranging from freshwater to
marine, sea level to high mountains, and alkaline lakes to acidic swamps. Peninsular India includes
Eastern and Western Ghats and has distinct physiographic, edaphic, and climatic gradients that cherish a
wide array of habitats with unique geographic positions and supporting unique sets of diatoms.
Bacillariophyta, the species, was originally described from brackish water in Blankenberge, Belgium.
Hence, diatoms are not absent in brackish water ecosystems. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
There are many sediment diatom species, and each species has a range and tolerance for environmental
factors, such as pH, nutrients, and salinity, and for different types of human disturbance. Some species
thrive in nutrient-rich polluted waters, while others prefer low-nutrient conditions. Because diatoms are so
diverse and highly sensitive to changes in environmental conditions and human disturbances, this makes
them excellent indicators of water quality and ecosystem health. By looking at the diatom species
composition and their abundance in a river, lake, or pond, scientists can determine the quality of the
water found there. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
DIATOMS
Recently in A new freshwater diatom genus discovered from the Eastern and Western Ghats.
news
About ➢ Diatoms are unicellular photosynthesising algae with golden brown photosynthetic
pigment. They secrete a minute siliceous (made of silica) skeleton.
➢ They commonly range between 20 and 200 microns in diameter or length, but some
forms can be up to 2 mm long. These are mostly non-motile algae and may exist either
in solitary or colonial form.
➢ Being photosynthetic micro-organisms they usually occupy the photic zone (i.e., up to

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 200 m depth) of the water bodies, where enough light penetrates for photosynthesis.
➢ Diatoms live in almost all kinds of environments from marine to freshwater. Diatoms
belong to the Kingdom Plantae, Sub-kingdom Chromista, InfrakingdomDiatomea and
Class Bacillariophyceae (Diatoms).

89. The UNFF “Country led initiative”, sometimes seen in news, related to,
(a) Forest fires and Sustainable forest management
(b) Assessing the overall carbon footprint by the use of fossil fuels
(c) Protection of biodiversity
(d) Developmental research in Scientific forestry
EXPLANATION :
The UNFF Country-Led-Initiative (CLI) by the Government of India by the Ministry of Environment, Forest
and Climate Change in support of the UN Forum on Forests was held successfully in Dehradun, India. The
meeting brought together over 80 experts from 40 countries and 20 international organizations.
The United Nations Forum on Forests promotes the management, conservation, and sustainable
development of all types of forests. India holds the distinction of being a founding member of UNFF.
The CLI's primary goal is to contribute to the discussions of UNFF regarding the implementation of
Sustainable Forest Management and the UN Strategic Plan for Forests.
The discussions under the thematic areas of forest fires, forest certification, and sustainable forest
management put forward a set of technical and policy recommendations. They are,
➢ Planning and implementation of integrated fire management strategy that requires a concerted
approach to the prevention, management, and restoration of forest fires and policy interventions,
both globally and regionally.
➢ Livelihood improvement programs and incorporating incentive schemes.
➢ The critical role of regional and international cooperation and coordination among governments to
address subnational and transboundary forest fire issues.
➢ Use of Global Fire Management Hub to drive regional, national, and global dialogue and sharing of
best practices to facilitate integrated fire management.
➢ Providing guidance in capacity building for Sustainable Forest Management and long-term
management of forests for countries.
➢ Enhancing collaboration and partnerships to amplify forest certification and compliance.
Need for providing guidance in capacity building for Sustainable Forest Management and long-term
management of forests for countries. This Strategic Plan serves as a global framework for actions at all
levels to achieve the sustainable management of all types of forests, including trees outside forests, and to
combat deforestation, forest degradation, forest fires, and sustainable forest management. So, Option (a)
is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
OTHER OPTIONS
Carbon Carbon footprint” is often used as shorthand for the amount of carbon (usually in
footprint tonnes) being emitted by an activity or organization. The carbon footprint is also an
important component of the Ecological Footprint, Carbon emissions from burning fossil
fuel accumulate in the atmosphere if there is not enough biocapacity dedicated to
absorb these emissions.
Measuring the carbon footprint in land area does not imply that carbon sequestration is
is the sole solution to the carbon dilemma. It just shows how much biocapacity is
needed to take care of our untreated carbon waste and avoid a carbon build-up in the
atmosphere.
when the carbon footprint is reported within the context of the total Ecological Footprint,
the tonnes of carbon dioxide emissions are expressed as the amount of productive land

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 area required to sequester those carbon dioxide emissions.
United Nations' International Panel on Climate Change is the agency responsible for
calculating greenhouse gas emissions and thus a nation's carbon footprint from its key
statistical and economic indicators, and are used to define and monitor international
climate agreements.
Protection of Biodiversity is the total number of genes, species and ecosystems of a region. It includes
biodiversity ➢ Genetic diversity,
➢ Species diversity,
➢ Ecosystem diversity.
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is the international legal instrument for
"the conservation/protection of biodiversity, the sustainable use of its components and
the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic
resources" that has been ratified by 196 nations.
The Convention on Biological Diversity covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems,
species and genetic resources. It also covers biotechnology, including through the
Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. In fact, it covers all possible domains that are directly
or indirectly related to biodiversity and its role in development, ranging from science,
politics and education to agriculture, business, culture and much more.
The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This ultimate authority
of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty and the body meets every two
years.
Developmental Indian Council of Forestry Research & Education (ICFRE), Dehradun. is an apex body in
research in the national forestry research system that promotes and undertakes need based forestry
Scientific research in Scientific forestry.
forestry To achieve long-term ecological stability, sustainable development and economic security
through conservation and scientific management of forest ecosystems are necessary.
Objectives of ICFRE are:
➢ To undertake, aid, promote and coordinate forestry research, education and
extension leading to scientific and sustainable management of forest resources in
the country.
➢ To align forestry research programs in the council with national priorities
including achievement of Sustainable Development Goals and combating climate
change.
➢ To provide scientific advice and policy support to the central and state
governments aiding informed decision making in forestry matters of national
importance and international commitments.
➢ To provide livelihood support to forest dependent communities through transfer
of scientific knowledge and appropriate forest-based technologies.

90. In ideal environmental conditions, which of the following species has high biotic potential?
1. Bacteria
2. Mammals
3. Insects
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION :
➢ Biotic potential refers to the maximum number of individuals a species can produce under ideal
environmental conditions, with unlimited resources and no limiting factors such as predation, disease,
or competition. It represents the species’ inherent capacity for reproduction and survival.
➢ Species such as bacteria, insects, mice, and other small organisms that can produce many offspring
quickly have a high biotic potential. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
➢ Larger species, such as elephants, tigers, and humans, that produce only a few offspring at a time
have a low biotic potential. Hence mammals process low biotic potential. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BIOTIC POTENTIAL IN HUMANS
About ➢ The exponential growth of human populations we have witnessed in certain countries
including India does not mean that they have unlimited resources, but the remarkable
advances made in medicine food production, and technology have brought down the death
rates and alleviated to some extent the adverse conditions associated with crowding, allowing
exponential growth, albeit temporarily.
➢ Full expression of the biotic potential of an organism is restricted by environmental resistance,
any factor that inhibits the increase in the population.
➢ These factors include unfavorable climatic conditions; lack of space, light, or a suitable
substrate; deficiencies of necessary chemical compounds or minerals; and the inhibiting
effects of predators, parasites, disease organisms, or unfavorable genetic changes.

91. Which of the following group of organisms are found on the air-water interface in an Aquatic
Ecosystem?
(a) Neuston
(b) Periphyton
(c) Plankton
(d) Benthos
EXPLANATION :
The aquatic organisms are classified on the basis of their zone of occurrence and their ability to cross
these zones. The organisms (both flora and fauna) in the aquatic ecosystem are unevenly distributed but
can be classified on the basis of their life form or location into five groups: Neuston, Periphyton, Plankton,
Nekton and Benthos.
➢ Neustons are unattached organisms which live at the air-water interface, such as floating plants, etc.
Some organisms spend most of their lives on top of the air-water interface, such as water striders,
while others spend most of their time just beneath the air-water interface and obtaining most of their
food within the water. E.g., beetles and back-swimmers.
➢ Periphyton are organisms that remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances
emerging above the bottom mud, such as sessile algae and their associated group of animals.
➢ Plankton: This group includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like
crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton) found in all aquatic ecosystems except certain swift-moving
waters. The locomotory power of the planktons is limited, so their distribution is controlled largely by
currents in the aquatic ecosystems.
➢ Nekton: This group contains animals, such as swimmers. The nektons are relatively large and
powerful as they have to overcome the water currents. The animals range in size from the swimming
insects (about 2 mm long) to the largest animals, the blue whale.
➢ Benthos: The benthic organisms are those found living at the bottom of the water mass. Practically
every aquatic ecosystem contains well-developed benthos.
The air-water interface is an interface between the air and water of lakes and oceans covered with a thin

135
 layer of chemical substances. This thin layer (the surface film or microlayer) reveals properties distinct
from subsurface water and may be treated as a separate ecosystem. So, from the above-mentioned group
of organisms, only Neuston is found on the air-water interface in an Aquatic Ecosystem. So, Option (a) is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
AQUATIC ECOSYSTEM
About Ecosystems consisting of water as the main habitat are known as aquatic ecosystems.
Aquatic ecosystems are classified based on their salt content.
➢ Freshwater ecosystems- The salt content of fresh bodies is very low, always less than 5
ppt (parts per thousand). E.g. lakes, ponds, pools, springs, streams, and rivers
➢ Marine ecosystems are water bodies containing salt concentrations equal to or above
that of seawater (i.e., 35 ppt or above). E.g. shallow seas and open ocean
➢ Brackish water ecosystems – these water bodies have salt content between 5 to 35 ppt.
e.g. estuaries, salt marshes, mangrove swamps and forests.
Air-Water ➢ Earth’s atmosphere is composed of gas, liquid, and solid phases and their interfaces.
Interface ➢ The interfaces are sometimes regarded as a fourth phase that can be distinguished
from the other phases by their inhomogeneous nature.
➢ The air-water interface (AWI), arguably the most common interface, is a widespread
reaction field in the atmosphere where unique reactions and physical processes often
occur.
➢ The AWI includes regions where air is in contact with cloud droplets, aerosol particles,
the surface of the ocean, biological surfaces such as the wet film on a plant, human
skin, and epithelial-lining fluids (ELFs).

92. Which of the following brings out the "Container Port Performance Index"?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) World Bank
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) World Trade Organization
EXPLANATION :
The Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) is a global index developed by the World Bank and S&P
Global Market Intelligence. It measures the resilience, efficiency and overall performance of the Ports.
The CPPI is a tool for stakeholders in the global trading system and supply chains to understand the
impact of global maritime shifts on port performance and economic development. The CPPI ranks 405
global container ports by efficiency, focusing on the duration of port stay for container vessels.
➢ One of the major Indian ports, Visakhapatnam Port (Ranked-19), made it into the top 20.
➢ Seven other Indian ports which secured ranks in the top 100 are Pipavav (41), Kamarajar (47),
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 Cochin (63), Hazira (68), Krishnapatnam (71), Chennai (80) and Jawaharlal Nehru (96). So, Option
(b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
THE CONTAINER PORT PERFORMANCE INDEX (CPPI)
Recently in In a significant boost to India's port development programme, as many as 9 ports of
news India made it to the Global Top 100 in the latest edition of Container Port Performance
Index (CPPI), 2023 - a report prepared by the World Bank and S&P Global Marketing
Intelligence.
About ➢ The stakeholders include port authorities and operators, national governments,
supranational organizations, development agencies, and other public and private
players in trade and logistics.
➢ The index highlights where vessel time in container ports could be improved.
Streamlining these processes would benefit all parties involved, including shipping lines,
national governments, and consumers.
Reports and World Bank
Index ➢ International Debt Report
➢ Commodity Markets Outlook
➢ Global Human Capital Index
➢ Global Financial Development Report
World Economic Forum
➢ Global Competitiveness Report
➢ Global Risks Report
➢ Travel & Tourism Development Index
World Trade Organization
➢ Goods Trade Barometer
➢ World Trade Statistical Review
➢ World Trade Report
Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
➢ The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) (test once in 3 years)
➢ Social Institutions and Gender Index (SIGI)
➢ Development Co-operation Report
Anti-Corruption and Integrity Outlook Report

93. Consider the following regions:

1. The Indo-Burma Region
2. Terrai-Duar Savannah grasslands
3. The Sundarbans
4. The Himalayas
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 Which of the above are biodiversity hotspot(s)?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION :
Species Diversity refers to the variety of species to the number of species in a defined area. The diversity of
species can be measured through their richness, abundance, and types. Some areas are richer in species
than others. Areas rich in species diversity are called diversity hotspots. The hotspot region contains at
least 1,500 species of vascular plants that are found nowhere else on the earth; they are called "endemic"
species. This region has lost at least greater or equal to 70 per cent of its primary native (Indigenous)
vegetation. These ecosystems can sustain and harbour a large variety of species and varied biodiversity
and also contribute to human well-being.
There are 6 major hotspots in India:
➢ THE HIMALAYAS- Areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Arunachal
Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura and hill regions of West Bengal and Assam
come in this zone. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ THE WESTERN GHATS AND SRI LANKA- Western Ghats include regions in the states of Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Goa.
➢ INDO- BURMA- Northeastern India, including states of Manipur, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and
Tripura. It also includes the Andaman group of Islands. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ SUNDALAND- Includes Nicobar group of Islands.
➢ THE SUNDARBANS- the Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the
Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal. The Sundarbans is a biodiversity
hotspot covering an area of about 10,000 km². So Statement 3 is correct.
➢ The Terai-Duar Savanna and Grasslands Eco region, at the base of the Himalayan Mountains,
supports the world's tallest grasslands and comes under the Himalayan hotspot zone. So Statement 2
is correct.

94. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Rhinos:

1. They are endemic to India.
2. They mark their territorial boundaries by Scent-marking.
3. They have a gestation period of 16 months, after which the female rhinos usually leave a gap of
3 years for the next pregnancy.
4. Their horns are permanent and, if damaged it doesn’t regrow.
How many of the statements mentioned above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION :
The Indian rhinoceros, also known as the greater one-horned rhino, classified as Vulnerable on the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List, listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972, and CITES Appendix 1, is the largest rhino species on Earth. Greater one-horned
rhinos can be found in India and Nepal, particularly in the foothills of the Himalayas. In the past, Greater
one-horned rhinos roamed freely in the floodplains and forests alongside the Brahmaputra, Ganges and
Indus River valley. So, Indian Rhinos are not endemic to India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

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Rhino dung heaps, or 'middens', serve as communication points and mark territorial boundaries. Several
animals often defecate at the same spot. Such a dung heap can become up to five metres wide and one
metre high. After defecating, Greater one-horned rhinos scratch their hind feet in the dung. They tend to
use the same paths marked by a scent gland on the bottom of their feet. Traces of their urine and dung,
which can also be distributed on their feet, act as scent markers as well. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Indian rhino females may begin breeding at 4 years old, and males are usually sexually mature at 9 years
old. There is no set breeding season, and a female will leave a gap of around 3-4 years between calves. The
gestation Period is between 15-16 months. Just as she is ready to give birth, the rhino will find a solitary,
quiet space to calve. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Greater one-horned rhinos have one horn, typically 20-61 cm long and weighing up to 3 kg. It has the
same horn structure as the hooves of horses and re-grows if broken off. It is not used for fighting but to
search for food and to forage for roots. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
INDIAN RHINOS
About ➢ The Indian rhino has a single horn, which is present in both sexes.
➢ It is the largest of all the Asian rhinos.
➢ One of the most amphibious rhino species, the Indian rhino is an excellent swimmer.
➢ It can run at a speed of 55km/hr for short periods.
➢ Though it has an incredible sense of hearing and smell, its eyesight is relatively poor.
➢ Greater one-horned rhinos are semi-aquatic and often take up residence in swamps,
forests, riversides, and anywhere that is near nutritious mineral licks.
➢ Greater one-horned rhinos are usually solitary, except for females with small calves.
➢ Males have loosely defined territories where they live alone, which they defend
aggressively, and this may overlap with other territories. The territories change according
to food availability in relation to the current season.
➢ The females can move in and out of these territories as they like. If food is abundant
within an area, it is not unusual to see several animals all grazing close together.
➢ In 1996, Indian rhinos were classified as endangered by the IUCN. However, during
conservation efforts during the 21st century, the IUCN changed its status to vulnerable in
2008, and it stayed there in 2018. The population trend for this species is listed as
increasing.
➢ Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve in Assam is home to 80% of India's rhino
population. Orang National Park holds 4%, Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has 3%, and Manas
National Park just 1%. The remaining rhino population in India is distributed among various
national parks in West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.

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 95. What is/are unique about ‘Brahma Kamal’, a species found in India ?
1. It is a nocturnal blooming flower.
2. It can thrive in harsh conditions.
3. It is found at 4500 to 5000m altitudes in the Himalayas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
Brahma Kamal, a flowering plant named after Brahma – the Hindu god of creation, is considered the 'king
of Himalayan flowers'. Brahma kamal is a nocturnal flowering plant that requires moonlight to bloom,
which is why it only blooms at night. It also takes around 2 hours to reach full bloom. The petals close up
during the day. It can be seen near the Badrinath area in Uttarakhand. The delicate petals look almost
translucent and divine against the backdrop of the massive Himalayas. It is the state flower of
Uttarakhand, where it is cultivated for its ayurvedic significance. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Brahma Kamal's slow blooming cycle and limited regeneration make it especially vulnerable. Sustainable
harvesting is critical; at least 30% of the flowers should be left untouched to allow for regrowth. It grows in
the rough terrains of the Himalayas, around 3000 to 4500 meters. Its ability to thrive in such harsh
conditions makes it even more special. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
BRAHMA KAMAL
Recently in news Uttarakhand's state flower, the Brahma Kamal, is nearing extinction due to climate
change, human activities, and unsustainable harvesting. Found at altitudes
between 4,000 and 5,000 metres in the Himalayas, the flower faces a grim future.
Unique Brahma kamal isn't the most sought-after plant because of its mythological
Characteristics importance. Also known as the 'Queen of Night Flowers', Brahma Kamal has
special features, uses, and benefits.
➢ The Brahma kamal tree blooms only once a year, making this flower unique. It
flowers in the monsoon season, between July and August.
➢ Other than their local names, lotus and Brahma Kamal actually have nothing
in common.
➢ Brahma Kamal actually comes from the sunflower family. Lotus is an aquatic
plant, while Brahma Kamal grows in soil. Moreover, lotus blooms during the

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 daytime, while Brahma kamal blooms at night. The petal arrangement and
placement of style and stigma are also very different.
➢ According to the VastuShastra, the Brahma kamal flower can bring peace,
balance, harmony, and positivity to your house.
Benefits The Brahma kamal plant has many significant and practical benefits. They are as
follows:
➢ Aesthetic Importance: The beauty of this plant is enough for it to be an addition
to any household. The flowers have a serene vibe and can be the centre of
attraction in your home.
➢ Ayurveda: Brahma kamal plant is used extensively in Ayurveda to treat various
ailments. Bramha Kamal has healing properties and is considered beneficial for
the treatment of many skin problems like eczema and psoriasis. It is also used
as ayurvedic medicine for fever, flu, headaches, sinus, and cold. It is also
believed that Brahma kamal has anti-cancerous properties. However, there
aren't enough studies to verify this claim.
➢ Good for Skin: The Brahma kamal flower is rich in calcium, magnesium,
potassium, zinc and copper, which are good for skin health. Apart from healing
psoriasis and eczema, it can give you naturally glowing and healthy skin.
➢ Brahma kamal is used to treat mental illnesses like anxiety, insomnia, and
depression.
➢ The intoxicating fragrance of the Brahma kamal flower is largely used in
aromatherapy to relieve stress and boost concentration.
➢ The roots of the Brahma kamal plant have anti-inflammatory and analgesic
effects and are considered good for our immune system.

96. Recently, India's first ever pilot project for Underground Coal Gasification was proposed in which of
the following states ?
(a) Odisha
(b) Jharkhand
(c) West Bengal
(d) Chattisgarh
EXPLANATION :
Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into a gas for use in illuminating and heating. This
process involves carbonization or destructive distillation, where coal is heated in the absence of air,
resulting in the production of a gas and a residue of coke as a by-product.
Underground Coal Gasification is a process that converts coal into a synthesis gas (syngas) while it is
still in the coal seam, without the need for mining. This in-situ gasification process involves injecting air
or oxygen, along with steam, into non-mined coal seams.
The injected oxidants and steam ignite and fuel an underground combustion process, producing a
mixture of gases, including carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, and carbon dioxide.
The main difference is that in Underground Coal Gasification the underground coal seam itself becomes
the reactor, so that the gasification of the coal takes place underground, instead of in a manufactured
gasification vessel at the surface.
The Ministry of Coal has initiated India's first-ever pilot project for Underground Coal Gasification (UCG)
at the Kasta coal block in Jamtara District, Jharkhand which aims to revolutionise the coal industry by
converting coal into valuable gases such as methane, hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide
through in-situ gasification. So, Option (b) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
UNDER GROUND COAL GASIFICATION
About Underground Coal Gasification (UCG) takes advantage of the same chemical reactions of
coal to produce product gases, as those occurring in conventional gasifier reactors. The
main difference is that in Underground Coal Gasification the underground coal seam
itself becomes the reactor, so that the gasification of the coal takes place underground,
instead of in a manufactured gasification vessel at the surface.

Process ➢ In the UCG process, injection wells are drilled into an unmined coal seam, and either
air or oxygen is injected into the seam along with water.
➢ The coal face is ignited, and the high temperatures (about 1,200°C) from the
combustion and limited oxygen cause nearby coal to partially oxidize into hydrogen,
carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and minimal amounts of methane
(CH4) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
➢ These products flow to the surface through one or more production wells located
ahead of the combustion zone. As the face is burned and an area depleted, the
operation is moved to follow the seam.

Advantages ➢ Underground Coal Gasification (UCG) provides a crucial benefit by unlocking coal
deposits that are not economically feasible to extract using conventional mining
techniques.
➢ UCG eliminates the need for mining and the dangers to miners and environmental
degradation that are associated with it.
➢ It also makes deep or difficult to access coal seams into usable energy assets, as
only one-sixth to one-eighth of the world's coal reserves are economically mineable.
➢ Scientists estimate that with UCG, the U.S. usable coal reserves could increase by
300%.
➢ Compared to surface gasification, UCG requires much smaller gas cleanup
equipment because both the tar and ash content of UCG-based syngas is
substantially lower than that obtained from a surface gasifier.
➢ Because the processing of the coal is kept underground, surface and air emissions
of sulfur, nitrous oxides, and mercury are dramatically reduced.
➢ The combustion of coal releases CO2 and combustion of coal in UCG is no
exception. However, like other forms of gasification, UCG offers enhanced potential
for carbon capture and storage (CCS). The syngas produced from UCG can be
processed, and the CO2 can be separated for sequestration or other use.

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 97. Consider the following:
1. Finless Porpoise
2. Dugong
3. Himalayan Serow
4. Indian Flying Fox
5. Greater Flamingo
6. Neel kurinji
How many of the species mentioned above are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection
Act 1972?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six
EXPLANATION :
The finless porpoise is a mammal listed as ‘vulnerable’ by the IUCN Red List and is a Schedule 1 species
under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Narrow-ridged finless porpoises tend to inhabit shallow waters,
less than 50m deep, along coasts including estuaries, some large rivers, mangrove swamps, and shallow
bays. There is a strong preference for waters with sandy or soft bottoms. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Dugong has been identified as one of the 16 selected species for initiating recovery programmes in their
respective habitats under the Centrally Sponsored Schemes of ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife
Habitats'.Legal protection has been provided to wild animals against hunting and commercial exploitation
under the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972.Dugongs are included in Schedule I of the
Act, which affords it the highest degree of protection under the Act. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Himalayan serow, based on the threats it faces, is categorised as Near Threatened in the IUCN Red List
and listed in Appendix I of CITES and listed in Schedule I (revised March 1987) of the Wildlife Protection
Act (1972). So, Statement 3 is correct.

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The nectar and fruit-eating flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally considered a vermin as they raid
orchards. It had a similar official status under Schedule V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 until it
was put on the Schedule II list, entailing a higher degree of protection. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Greater Flamingo is distributed from Africa and southern Europe through West Asia to South Asia. Very
large, with long, "coat hanger" neck, big kinked bill, and very long pinkish legs. Plumage at rest whitish
with pale pink blush and some deep pink often visible on closed wings. Flies with long neck and legs
extended, when deep pink-and-black wing pattern striking. Greater Flamingo is listed as Schedule II under
wildlife protection Act 1972. So, Statement 5 is not correct.

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 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF) has listed Neelakurinji
(Strobilantheskunthiana) under Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, including it on the list of
protected plants. So, Statement 6 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
WILDLIFE PROTECTION ACT (WPA), 1972
About Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972 consists of 6 schedule lists, which give varying degrees of
protection. Poaching, smuggling and illegal trade of animals listed Schedule 1 to schedule 4 are
prohibited.
➢ Animals listed in schedule 1 and part II of schedule 2 has absolute protection - offences
under these are prescribed the highest penalties. Examples of animals listed in Schedule 1
are lion-tailed macaque, rhinoceros, great Indian bustard, narcondam hornbill, Nicobar
megaphone, blackbuck, etc. Examples of animals listed in schedule 2 are rhesus macaque,
dhole, Bengal porcupine, king cobra, flying squirrel, Himalayan brown bear, etc.
➢ Animals listed in schedule 3 and schedule 4 is also protected, but the penalties are lower
compared to schedule 1 and part 2 of schedule 2.Examples of animals listed in schedule 3
are hyaena, hogdeer, nilgai, goral, sponges, barking deer, etc. Examples of animals listed in
schedule 4 are mongooses, vultures, etc.
➢ Animals listed in schedule 5 are called “vermin” which can be hunted. Mice, rat, common
crow and flying fox (fruit eating bats) are the list of animals (only 4 nos) in schedule 5.
➢ Cultivation, Collection, extraction, trade, etc. of Plants and its derivatives listed in schedule
6 are prohibited. Red Vanda, blue Vanda, kuth, pitcher plant, beddomes cycad and ladies
slipper orchid are the list of plants listed in schedule 6.

98. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Northern Shoveler, Nilgiri Laughing thrush, and Garganey
are,
(a) Birds
(b) Reptiles
(c) Primates
(d) Amphibians
EXPLANATION :
India is a recognised as one of the mega-diverse countries, rich in biodiversity and associated traditional
knowledge. Biodiversity increases as we move from the poles towards the equator. India is located between
8°4′ North and 37°6′ North latitudes and 68°7′ East and 97°25′ East longitude. Due to this position India
has such rich biodiversity. With just 2.4% of the land area, India accounts for nearly 7% of the recorded
species even while supporting almost 18% of human population.
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To celebrate India’s Endemic Bird Day, A total of 1,309 birdwatchers from India came together to
document 822 species across 3,075 checklists. Participants represented 33 states and union
territories. Among the 822 species, 124 endemics were reported, including several classified as High
Priority in the State of India's Birds (SoIB) 2023 report. They are: Andaman Serpent-Eagle, Andaman
Treepie, NilgiriLaughingthrush, White-headed Starling, NilgiriSholakili, White-bellied Blue
Flycatcher, Ruddy Shelduck, Garganey, Northern Shoveler, Northern Pintail.
From this, we can infer that the Northern Shoveler, NilgiriLaughingthrush, and Garganey are birds endemic
to specific regions in India. So, Option (a) is correct.

Northern Shoveler Nilgiri Laughingthrush Garganey

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
INDIAN BIODIVERSITY
About ➢ India is rich in Biodiversity and associated traditional knowledge.
➢ In terms of species richness, India ranks seventh in mammals, ninth in birds and fifth
in reptiles.
➢ The varied Edaphic, Climatic and Topographic conditions have resulted in a wide
range of ecosystems and habitats such as forests, grasslands, wetlands, coastal and
marine ecosystems, and deserts in India with greater biodiversity.
➢ INDIA REPRESENTS:
• Two Realms
• Five Biomes
• Ten Bio-geographic Zones
• Twenty five Bio-geographic provinces
Realms ➢ Biogeographic realms are large spatial regions within which ecosystems share a
broadly similar biota. Realm is a continent or subcontinent sized area with
unifying features of geography and fauna & flora.
➢ The Indian region is composed of two realms. They are:
• The Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm and
• The rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm
Biomes ➢ The term biome means the main groups of plants and animals living in areas of certain
climate patterns. It includes the way in which animals, vegetation and soil interact
together. The plants and animals living in the area are adapted to that environment.
➢ The five biomes of India are:
• Tropical Humid Forests
• Tropical Dry or Deciduous Forests (including Monsoon Forests)
• Warm deserts and semi-deserts
• Coniferous forests and
• Alpine meadows.
Bio- ➢ Biogeography deals with the geographical distribution of plants and animals. There are
geographic 10 biogeographic zones which are distinguished clearly in India. They are as follows:
zones • Trans-Himalayas.
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 • Himalayas
• Desert
• Semi-arid.
• Western ghats
• Deccan peninsula
• Gangetic plain.
• North-east India
• Islands.
• Coasts
Bio- ➢ Bio-geographic Province is aecosystematic or biotic subdivision of realms. India is
geographic divided into 25 bio geographic zones.
provinces Some of the Bio-geographic provinces are
➢ Trans Himalaya
• Himalaya -Ladakh Mountains
• Himalaya -Tibetan Plateau
• Trans - Himalaya Sikkim
➢ The Indian Desert
• Desert – Thar
• Desert – Katchchh
➢ The Western Ghats
• Western ghats – Malabar Plains
• Western ghats – Western ghats mountains

99. Which among the following countries launched the world's first wooden satellite to combat space
pollution?
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Japan
(d) USA
EXPLANATION :
Japanese scientists have created one of the world’s most unusual spacecraft – a tiny satellite that is
made of timber. The experimental satellite, called LignoSat, was developed by researchers at Kyoto
University and the Japanese logging company Sumitomo Forestry.
The LignoSat probe has been built of magnolia wood, which, in experiments carried out on the
International Space Station (ISS), was found to be particularly stable and resistant to cracking
So, Option (c) is correct.

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 ADDITTIONAL INFORMATION:
LIGNOSAT
About ➢ LignoSat is a tiny cube that measures 4 inches (10 centimeters) on a side and weighs
just over 2 pounds (0.9 kilograms).
➢ It was crafted using a traditional Japanese technique that doesn't require screws or
glue and is equipped with external solar panels.
➢ The parts of the satellite that would normally be constructed from aluminum are
instead crafted from magnolia wood sourced from a Sumitomo Forestry forest.
➢ Magnolia wood was "selected for its strength and workability after space exposure
tests were conducted on cherry, birch and magnolia wood chips.
➢ One of the primary motivations behind LignoSat's development is its environmental
advantage over conventional metal satellites.
➢ When traditional satellites re-enter the Earth's atmosphere, they can produce
alumina particles, which may negatively impact weather patterns and communication
systems.
➢ In contrast, wooden satellites like LignoSat burn up more cleanly, reducing the
environmental footprint of space missions.
➢ The project underscores the potential of using wood, a renewable and sustainable
resource, in space applications.
➢ By exploring this unconventional material, the researchers aim to open new avenues
for eco-friendly space technology.
➢ This initiative is not only a technological innovation but also a step towards reducing
space debris and promoting environmental responsibility.

100. Consider the following information:

Type of Biotic
Description Example
Interaction
Parasitism One species benefits, the other is Lice on humans
harmed during the interaction
Commensalism Both species benefit from the Pollinators like bees and
interaction flowers
Amensalism Both species are harmed during Large tree shades a small
the interaction plant

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 In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION :
The biological community of an area or ecosystem is a complex network of interactions in biotic
interaction. The interaction that occurs among different individuals of the same species is called
intraspecific interaction, while the interaction among individuals of different species in a community is
termed interspecific interaction.
Parasitism can be defined as a non-mutual symbiotic association in which one of the partners is harmed,
and the other gets the benefit. The symbiont getting the benefit is a parasite and the symbiont which is
getting harmed is called as host.
➢ In parasitism, one species benefits while the other is harmed. The most familiar examples of this group
are the lice on humans and ticks on dogs. Other examples include animals, bacteria and viruses, as
well as parasites of plants, such as the dodder plant and mistletoe, tape worms and roundworms.
So, Pair 1 is correct.
Commensalism: This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefited. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch and barnacles growing on the back of a
whale benefit, while neither the mango tree nor the whale derives any apparent benefit. The cattle egret
and grazing cattle in close association, is a classic example of commensalism. Whereas, In Mutualism:
both species benefit. For example, flowering plants and bees for pollination, Sea anemones, and hermit
crabs. Any relationship between two dissimilar organisms is known as symbiosis/For example, terminates
and their intestinal flagellates. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
Amensalism: where one species is harmed, the other is unaffected. Example: A large tree shades a small
plant, retarding the growth of the small plant. The small plant has no effect on the large tree. Whereas, In
Competition, both species are harmed by the interaction. For example: if two species eat the same food,
and there isn’t enough for both, both may have access to less food than they would if alone. They both
suffer a shortage of food. So, Pair 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION :
TYPES OF BIOTIC INTERACTION
About Individuals in a species population interact amongst themselves in intraspecific
interactions as well as with individuals of other species populations intraspecific
interactions.
Mutualism Mutualism: both species benefit. For example, in pollination mutualisms, the pollinator
gets food (pollen, nectar), and the plant has its pollen transferred to other flowers for
cross-fertilization (reproduction).

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 Competition Competition: both species are harmed by the interaction. For example, if two species eat
the same food, and there isn’t enough for both, both may have access to less food than
they would if alone. They both suffer a shortage of food.
Predation Predator captures, kills and eats an animal of another species called the prey. The
predator naturally benefits from this relationship and Issues while the prey is harmed.
Parasitism One species is harmed, and the other benefits. For example, animals, bacteria and
viruses are parasites of plants, dodder plants and mistletoe, tap worm and round worm.
Commensalism: one species benefits and the other is unaffected. For example, cow
Commensalism dung provides food and shelter to dung beetles. The beetles have no effect on the cows.
Amensalism Amensalism: One species is harmed, the other is unaffected. Example: A large tree
shades a small plant, retarding the growth of the small plant. The small plant has no
effect on the large tree.

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