Here are the questions with all the options, and the correct answer bolded:

1. Which one of the following types of messages opens a TCP connection to peer and
authenticates sender?
A) Open
B) Update
C) Keepalive
D) Notification
Answer: A) Open
2. What is the standard form of ICMP?
A) Internet Control Message Particle
B) Internet Control Message Point
C) Internet Control Message Protocol
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Internet Control Message Protocol
3. The network with network layer connectionless service is called _______________
network?
A) Datagram
B) Virtual circuit
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Datagram
4. What is the standard form of CIDR?
A) Classless Inter Domain Routing
B) Class Inter Domain Routing
C) Classless Interior Domain Routing
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Classless Inter Domain Routing
5. In which one of the following the circuit setup is not needed?
A) Datagram
B) Virtual Circuit
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Datagram
6. In _______________ network, each packet contains a short VC number?
A) Datagram
B) Virtual Circuit
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Virtual Circuit
7. DHCP stands for?
A) Dynamic Host Configuration Program
B) Dynamic Host Control Protocol
C) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
D) Dynamic Host Control Program
Answer: C) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
8. What is the standard form of RIP?
A) Routing Information Particle
B) Routing Information Point
C) Routing Information Protocol
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Routing Information Protocol
9. The congestion control is easy in which one of the following?
A) Datagram
B) Virtual circuit
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Virtual circuit
10. Which one of the following is a static routing algorithm?
A) Shortest path routing
B) Link state routing
C) Distance vector routing
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Shortest path routing
11. In which one of the following networks the quality of service is easy?
A) Datagram
B) Virtual Circuit
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Virtual Circuit
12. Which one of the following is a dynamic routing algorithm?
A) Link state routing
B) Shortest path routing
C) Flooding
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Link state routing
13. What is the standard form of OSPF?
A) Open Shortest Protocol First
B) Open Shortest Path Fix
C) Open Shortest Path First
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Open Shortest Path First
14. Which one of the following options gives the complete path to be followed?
A) Security
B) Strict source routing
C) Loose source routing
D) Record route
Answer: B) Strict source routing
15. What is the standard form of ARP?
A) Address Resolution Protocol
B) Address Reservation Protocol
C) Address Resource Protocol
 D) None of the above
Answer: A) Address Resolution Protocol
16. Checksum is used for
A) Error Correction
B) Error Detection
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Error Detection
17. ISDN stands for:
A) Interaction System Digital Network
B) Integrated Service Digital Network
C) Inexpensive Service Digital Network
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Integrated Service Digital Network
18. If two or more routers are connected to the same subnet, the network
administration determines which of the routers the message should be sent. To
handle such situation messages are used.
A) MAC
B) ICMP
C) INDP
D) IMCP
Answer: B) ICMP
19. If two or more routers are available in distributed routing, which route should be
selected?
A) High possible cost
B) Least possible cost
C) Link cost
D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: D) Both (b) and (c)
20. IPv4 Address is
A) 8 bit
B) 16 bit
C) 32 bit
D) 64 bit
Answer: C) 32 bit
21. Which layer does the data link layer take packets from and encapsulate them into
frames for transmission?
A) Transport layer
B) Application layer
C) Network layer
D) Physical layer
Answer: C) Network layer
22. Which of the following is the network layer protocol for the internet?
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) File Transfer Protocol
C) Ethernet
 D) Internet Protocol
Answer: D) Internet Protocol
23. What is the standard form of ICANN?
A) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
B) Interior Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
C) Internal Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
24. The IP and IPV6 are the common protocols and technologies in ___________ layer?
A) Network
B) Transport
C) Session
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Network
25. The messages between local or remote devices are a scope of ___________ layer?
A) Physical
B) Data link
C) Network
D) Transport
Answer: D) Transport
26. Which functionality of the network layer deals with the necessity of a three-way
handshake usually before the transmission of data from sender to receiver?
A) Path determination
B) Forwarding
C) Call Set-up
D) All of the above
Answer: C) Call Set-up
27. Match the classes of IP addresses with their functional applications:
A. Class A -------------------- 1) Multicast services
B. Class B -------------------- 2) Reserved for future use
C. Class D -------------------- 3) Large organizations
D. Class E -------------------- 4) Midsize Organizations
A) A- 4, B- 3, C- 2, D- 1
B) A- 2, B- 4, C- 1, D- 3
C) A- 3, B- 4, C- 1, D- 2
D) A- 1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4
Answer: C) A- 3, B- 4, C- 1, D- 2
28. On which factors do the size of block depend in classless addressing?
A) Nature & size of an entity
B) Number of addresses
C) Availability of the address space
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
29. The ability of a single network to span multiple physical networks is known as
___________
A) Subnetting
 B) Masking
C) Fragmenting
D) Hopping
Answer: A) Subnetting
30. ___________ is not a function of the network layer.
A) Routing
B) Inter-networking
C) Congestion control
D) Error control
Answer: D) Error control
31. A 4 byte IP address = ___________ + ___________
A) Network address + MAC address
B) Host address + MAC address
C) Network address + Host address
D) MAC address + IP address
Answer: C) Network address + Host address
32. ICMP is primarily used for
A) Error and diagnostic functions
B) Addressing
C) Forwarding
D) Routing
Answer: A) Error and diagnostic functions

33. How many assignable addresses does this combination of IP address and subnet
mask have: 172.16.1.0 and 255.255.255.252?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 30
D) 2
Answer: D) 2
34. Find the broadcast address for a Class B network ID with help of the default subnet
mask.
A) 172.16.10.255
B) 255.255.255.255
C) 172.16.255.255
D) 172.255.255.255
Answer: C) 172.16.255.255
35. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes ___________
A) Error checking
B) Error correction
C) Datagram acknowledgment
D) None of the above
Answer: D) None of the above
36. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the
following is true?
A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.
B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.
C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
D) The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.
Answer: C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
37. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?
A) Identification number
B) Offset number
C) Total length
D) (B) and (C)
Answer: D) (B) and (C)
38. The IPv4 header size ___________
A) Is 20 to 60 bytes long
B) Is always 20 bytes long
C) Is always 60 bytes long
D) Depends on the MTU
Answer: A) Is 20 to 60 bytes long
39. The term ___________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP
assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a
transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees.
A) Reliable delivery
B) Connection-oriented delivery
C) Best-effort delivery
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Best-effort delivery
40. The ___________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.
A) ARP
B) IP
C) RARP
D) None of the above
Answer: B) IP
41. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream
before passing it to
A) Network layer
B) Data link layer
C) Application layer
D) Physical layer
Answer: A) Network layer
42. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
A) TCP and FTP
B) UDP and HTTP
C) TCP and UDP
D) HTTP and FTP
Answer: C) TCP and UDP
43. User Datagram Protocol is called connectionless because ___________
A) All UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
B) It sends data as a stream of related packets
C) It is received in the same order as sent order
D) It sends data very quickly
Answer: A) All UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
44. To use the services of UDP, we need ___________ socket addresses.
A) Four
B) Two
C) Three
D) One
Answer: B) Two
45. Transport layer protocols deal with
A) Application to Application communication
B) Process to process communication
C) Node to node communication
D) Routing
Answer: B) Process to process communication
46. In stop and wait protocol ___________
A) Sequence number is required
B) Sequence number is not required
C) Waiting sequence
D) Ack required
Answer: A) Sequence number is required
47. Multiplexing is done at ___________ side
A) Sender
B) Receiver
C) Channel
D) Routing
Answer: A) Sender
48. Transmission Control Protocol ___________
A) Is a connection-oriented protocol
B) Uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection
C) Receives data from application as a single stream
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: D) All of the mentioned
49. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called
___________
A) Socket
B) Pipe
C) Port
D) Machine
50. A ___________ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
A) Port
B) Pipe
 C) Node
D) Protocol
51. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before
passing it to
A) Data link layer
B) Application layer
C) Physical layer
D) Network layer
52. Which Transport layer protocol is used for a Telnet connection?
A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
D) SMTP
53. The ports ranging from 0 to 1,023 are called the ___________ ports. The ports ranging
from 1,024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports. The ports ranging from 49,152 to
65,535 are called the ___________ ports.
A) Well-known; registered; dynamic or private
B) Registered; dynamic or private; well-known
C) Private or dynamic; well-known; registered
D) Private or dynamic; registered; well-known
54. We need two identifiers called ___________ to define the processes at the transport
layer.
A) Logical addresses
B) Physical addresses
C) Port addresses
D) None of the choices are correct
55. Transport layer protocols deal with ___________
A) Application to application communication
B) Process to process communication
C) Node to node communication
D) Man to man communication
56. ___________ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that
the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
D) Data
57. Which port number does HTTP use?
A) Port 13
B) Port 50
C) Port 80
D) Port 110
58. A port number is ___________ bits long
A) 8
B) 16
 C) 32
D) 64
59. Which of the following can a data field carry?
A) ICMP messages
B) TCP segment
C) UDP segment
D) None of the above
60. The checksum is used for ___________
A) Data recovery
B) Data transfer
C) Error detection
D) Error recovery
61. The Transport Layer protocol used for File Transfer, DNS, and Email, respectively, are
A) UDP, TCP, and UDP
B) UDP, UDP, and TCP
C) TCP, UDP, and TCP
D) TCP, TCP, and UDP
62. Which of the following does UDP provide?
A) Flow control
B) Connection-oriented delivery
C) Error control
D) None of the choices are correct
63. Which of the protocols at the transport layer provides a connection-oriented service?
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) IP
D) IPX
64. UDP is an acronym for ___________
A) User Delivery Protocol
B) User Datagram Procedure
C) User Datagram Protocol
D) None of the above
65. Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process communication, the most
common is through the ___________ paradigm
A) Client-server
B) Client-client
C) Server-server
D) None of the above
66. Consider the following statements:
I. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol.
II. TCP connections are full duplex.
III. TCP provides flow control and quality of service.
A) Only I is correct
B) Only II is correct
C) Only II and III are correct
D) All of I, II, and III are correct
67. The source port number on the UDP user datagram header defines ___________
A) The sending computer
B) The receiving computer
C) The process running on the sending computer
D) None of the choices are correct
68. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in the internet?
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the mentioned
69. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the
processes, we need second identifiers called ___________
A) UDP addresses
B) Transport addresses
C) Port addresses
D) None of the above
70. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port
numbers. They are called the ___________ ports
A) Well-known
B) Registered
C) Dynamic
D) None of the above
71. During data transfer, what is the receiving host responsible for?
A) Encapsulation
B) Reassembly
C) Acknowledgment
D) Both (B) & (C)
72. What mechanism does TCP use to adjust the rate of data transmission based on network
congestion?
A) Flow control
B) Error control
C) Congestion control
D) Reliability control
73. Which protocol is used for secure remote access and file transfers over an encrypted
connection?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) SSH
D) SMTP
74. Which of the following describes the operation of TCP window size?
A) Window size increases as all data transfers
B) Window size is the TCP process used to prepare data for transmission
C) Window size is decreased if packets are lost
D) Window size of 15 means that the next byte expected is byte number 15
75. What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
A) To indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
 B) To reassemble the segments into the correct order
C) To identify the numbers of the data packets that can be sent without acknowledgment
D) To track the different conversations crossing the network at the same time
76. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the ___________ layer.
A) Application
B) Transport
C) IP
D) None of the above
77. What is the typical range of Ephemeral ports?
A) 1 to 80
B) 1 to 1024
C) 80 to 8080
D) 1024 to 65535
78. Unlike TCP, this alternative method of data exchange does not provide the service of
dividing a message into packets and reassembling it at the other end but instead relies on
the application program to make sure that the entire message has arrived and is in the
right order.
A) SMTP
B) UDP
C) DHCP
D) None of the above
79. What does SNMP stand for?
A) Simple Network Management Protocol
B) Simple Network Messaging Protocol
C) Secure Network Management Protocol
D) None of the above
80. In network management, which protocol is used to retrieve information from network
devices?
A) HTTP
B) SNMP
C) FTP
D) ICMP
81. The term MIB stands for:
A) Management Information Base
B) Management Integration Base
C) Multi-Information Base
D) None of the above
82. In SNMP, which of the following is used to store network management data?
A) RDBMS
B) MIB
C) NetFlow
D) DNS
83. What is the purpose of network management?
A) To maintain and monitor network devices
B) To increase network bandwidth
 C) To decrease security risks
D) To reduce network traffic
84. Which one of the following is not an element of network management?
A) Fault management
B) Configuration management
C) Performance management
D) Data mining
85. What does the term “fault management” refer to in network management?
A) Network traffic control
B) Detecting, isolating, and resolving issues
C) Increasing network speed
D) Configuring devices
86. Which protocol is used to send traps from network devices to the SNMP manager?
A) ICMP
B) UDP
C) TCP
D) SNMP
87. What is the purpose of configuration management in network management?
A) To ensure proper security
B) To manage devices and network settings
C) To monitor network performance
D) To diagnose faults
88. Which SNMP operation is used to modify the value of a variable in the MIB?
A) Get
B) Set
C) GetNext
D) Trap
89. What does "performance management" in network management aim to improve?
A) Network security
B) Network performance and efficiency
C) Device configurations
D) User authentication
90. In SNMP, what does the term “trap” refer to?
A) A warning message sent by a managed device
B) A request for data from the SNMP manager
C) A command to update configurations
D) A message to terminate the connection
91. Which of the following is the most common version of SNMP used in network
management?
A) SNMPv1
B) SNMPv2c
C) SNMPv3
D) SNMPv4
92. Which of the following is a key difference between SNMPv1 and SNMPv2?
A) SNMPv2 is more secure than SNMPv1
B) SNMPv2 supports efficient management
 C) SNMPv2 supports encryption
D) SNMPv2 supports private networks
93. What is the function of fault management in network management systems?
A) Ensures secure communication
B) Identifies, locates, and repairs issues
C) Increases network throughput
D) Controls network access
94. Which of the following is used for network configuration backup in a network
management system?
A) NetFlow
B) DNS
C) TFTP
D) RARP
95. What is the primary purpose of a network management protocol like SNMP?
A) To monitor and manage network performance
B) To provide security services
C) To control network traffic
D) To allow email communication
96. Here are the answers with the correct options bolded:
97.
98. 96. Which SNMP operation allows an SNMP manager to retrieve the value of a
specified variable?
A) Get
B) Set
C) GetNext
D) Trap
99. 97. What does the term “security management” focus on in network management?
A) Managing the physical infrastructure
B) Configuring network devices
C) Preventing unauthorized access
D) Increasing network throughput
100. 98. What is the main focus of network performance management?
A) Reducing latency and jitter
B) Preventing unauthorized access
C) Diagnosing network faults
D) Improving device security
101. 99. Which of the following devices can be managed by SNMP?
A) Routers
B) Switches
C) Servers
D) All of the above
102. 100. Which network management protocol offers the highest level of
security?
A) SNMPv1
B) SNMPv2c
 C) SNMPv3
D) ICMP
103. 101. Which of the following best describes the "get" operation in SNMP?
A) Used to delete a variable from the MIB
B) Used to request the value of a variable
C) Used to send traps to the manager
D) Used to set a value
104. 102. In network management, what is the role of an SNMP manager?
A) Sends commands to network devices
B) Receives traps from managed devices
C) Monitors network traffic
D) Sends routing updates
105. 103. Which of the following is NOT a key component of network
management?
A) Fault management
B) Performance management
C) Network optimization
D) Configuration management
106. 104. Which component of network management is responsible for measuring
and reporting usage?
A) Performance management
B) Fault management
C) Security management
D) Accounting management
107. 105. Which layer of the OSI model does SNMP operate at?
A) Application
B) Transport
C) Network
D) Data Link
108. 106. What does an SNMP "SetRequest" operation allow you to do?
A) Retrieve a variable value
B) Modify a variable value
C) Delete a variable
D) Send a notification
109. 107. What is the purpose of the SNMP "Trap" message?
A) To acknowledge receipt of data
B) To request network statistics
C) To report events from devices
D) To configure devices
110. 108. Which of the following is a transport protocol used by SNMP?
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) FTP
D) HTTP
111. 109. What is the primary benefit of using SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
A) Improved compatibility
 B) Enhanced security features
C) Simplified implementation
D) Faster data transfer
112. 110. Which of the following is an SNMP-supported authentication method?
A) Password
B) Community string
C) Public key
D) SSL
113. 111. In network management, what does SLA stand for?
A) Service Level Agreement
B) System Log Access
C) Secure Layer Agreement
D) Server Link Architecture
114. 112. What is the primary function of security management in network
management?
A) To monitor device configurations
B) To prevent unauthorized access
C) To manage fault recovery
D) To report usage
115. 113. Which network management protocol uses Object Identifiers (OIDs)?
A) SNMP
B) ICMP
C) TCP/IP
D) FTP
116. 114. What does a client-server protocol generally describe?
A) The rules for establishing communication between two hosts
B) The methods for handling data at the physical layer
C) The behavior of devices in a peer-to-peer network
D) None of the above
117. 115. Which protocol is most commonly used for transferring web pages in a
client-server model?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) SMTP
D) SNMP
118. 116. What is the primary function of a server in a client-server protocol?
A) To generate requests for data
B) To store and provide data or services to clients
C) To route data between clients
D) To encrypt data sent from clients
119. 117. Which protocol is used for email transmission in the client-server
model?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) SMTP
D) SNMP
120. 118. In the client-server architecture, which of the following is typically true?
A) Both client and server are active participants in communication
B) The client waits for the server to initiate communication
C) The server always initiates communication
D) The client sends requests and the server responds to those requests
121. Which of the following client-server protocols is used for secure remote login
to a server?
A) SMTP
B) SSH
C) FTP
D) HTTP
122. In a client-server model, what does the client typically send to the server?
A) Responses to server queries
B) Requests for data or services
C) Data packets to be broadcasted
D) Acknowledgments for each received packet
123. 124. In a client-server protocol, which component listens for incoming client
requests?
A) The client
B) The router
C) The server
D) The gateway
124. 125. Which of the following best describes the connection process in a client-
server protocol?
A) The client always establishes the connection first
B) The server listens for client requests and establishes connections as needed
C) Both the client and server must connect simultaneously
D) The connection process is determined by the user
125. 126. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the TCP protocol in a
client-server communication model?
A) It is stateless
B) It guarantees reliable data transfer
C) It is used for real-time data streaming
D) It requires no acknowledgment of received packets
126. 127. Which client-server protocol is typically used for retrieving email from a
mail server?
A) IMAP
B) SMTP
C) HTTP
D) FTP
127. 128. In a client-server model, what is the role of the server when handling
multiple client requests?
A) It prioritizes one client over others
B) It manages and responds to multiple requests in sequence
C) It connects directly to all clients simultaneously
D) It only accepts requests from authenticated clients
128. 129. In one of the pairs of protocols given below, both the protocols can use
multiple TCP connections between the same client and the server. Which one is
that?
A) HTTP, FTP
B) HTTP, TELNET
C) FTP, SMTP
D) HTTP, SMTP
129. 130. What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a
__________.
A) Domain
B) Label
C) Zone
D) None of the above
130. 131. From what of the following find the one which is not a network
application:
A) E-mail
B) Social Networking
C) Protocols
D) Text Messaging
131. 132. Within same host, two processes communicate using __________.
A) Inter Process Communication
B) Message Passing
C) Using Protocol
D) Cannot Communicate
132. **133. Consider different activities related to email:
I. m1: Send an email from a mail client to a mail server
II. m2: Download an email from a mailbox server to a mail client
III. m3: Checking email in a web browser.
133. Which is the application level protocol used in each activity?**
A) m1: HTTP, m2: SMTP, m3: POP
B) m1: SMTP, m2: FTP, m3: HTTP
C) m1: SMTP, m2: POP, m3: HTTP
D) m1: POP, m2: SMTP, m3: IMAP
134. 134. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the
Internet is called __________.
A) SMTP
B) SNMP
C) TELNET
D) SSH
135. 135. A web client sends a request to a web server. The web server transmits a
program to that client, which is executed at the client. It creates a web document.
What are such web documents called?
A) Active
B) Static
C) Dynamic
D) Passive
136. 136. Which of the following is/are example(s) of stateful application layer
protocols?
A) (i) and (ii) only
B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (ii) and (iv) only
D) (iv) only
137. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.
A) Domain server
B) Zone server
C) Root server
D) None of the above
138. A ________ server loads all information from the primary server.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Zone
D) None of the above
139. Which protocol is used to transfer mail from sender's user agent to sender's mail
server?
A) HTTP
B) POP3
C) SMTP
D) FTP
140. Which protocol provides reliable transport?
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) SMTP
D) HTTP
141. What is the maximum size of data that the application layer can pass on to the
TCP layer below?
A) Any Size
B) 2^16 Bytes – Size of TCP Header
C) 2^16 Bytes
D) 1500 Bytes
142. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
A) Packet
B) Message
C) Segment
D) Frame
143. Which of the following is the Application layer protocol in Internet Protocol
Suite?
A) SSH
B) XMPP
C) IMAP
D) All of the above
144. What does HTTPS stand for?
A) Hyper Text Transmission Protocols
 B) Hyper Text Tile Protocols
C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure
D) None
145. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______ different
sections.
A) Three
B) Two
C) Four
D) None of the above
146. Program under execution is called
A) Operating System
B) Process
C) Message
D) None
147. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigm?
A) Peer to Peer
B) Client-server
C) HTTP
D) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
148. The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their generic behavior.
A) Generic
B) Country
C) Inverse
D) None of the above
149.