SRI VENKATRAMANA PU COLLEGE, KUNDAPURA

II PUC CET OFFLINE FULL-LENGTH TEST

SUBJECT DATE
(DEC-2024)
PCM TIME: 9.00 AM – 12.30 PM 05.12.2024
DURATION ROLL NUMBER Total marks
𝟏
3𝟐 hrs (210 mins) 180

• Each question is allotted 1 mark for each correct response. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
• No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in
the answer sheet.
PHYSICS:
1. An a.c. of 50 Hz and 1 A peak value flows in the primary coil of a transformer. The
mutual inductance between primary and secondary coils is 1.5 H. Then peak value of
induced emf across secondary coil is:-
(1) 75 π volt (2) 150 π volt (3) 225 volt (4) 300 volt
2. When a current changes from 2A to 4A in
0.05 sec. in a coil, induced emf is 8 V. The self inductance of coil is :-
(1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2 H (3) 0.4 H (4) 0.8 H
3. The equivalent inductance of two inductances is 2.4 henry when connected in
parallel and 10 henry when connected in series. The difference between the two
inductances is
(1) 2 henry (2) 3 henry (3) 4 henry (4) 5 henry
4. A square coil of 0.01 m2 area is placed perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field of
103 weber/metre2. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is :-
(1) 10 weber (2) 10–5 weber (3) Zero (4) 100 weber
5. A coil of resistance 10W and an inductance 5H is connected to a 100 volt battery.
Then energy stored in the coil is :-
(1) 125 erg (2) 125 J (3) 250 erg (4) 250 J
6. The constant current flows from A to B as shown in the figure. The direction of the
induced current in the loop is :-

(1) clockwise (2) anticlockwise (3) straight line (4) none of these
7. For given arrangement (in horizontal plane) the possible direction of magnetic field:-
I v
(Induced current)

(1) towards right (2) towards left (3) vertically upward (4) vertically downward
8. An aluminium ring B faces an electromagnet A. The current I through A can be
altered. Then which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) If I decreases A will repel B

(2) Whether I increases or decreases, B will not experience any force
(3) If I increases, A will repel B
(4) If I increases, A will attract B
9. Mutual inductance of two coils when magnetic flux changes by 2 × 10–2 Wb and
current changes by 0.01 A is :-
(1) 2 H (2) 3 H (3) 4 H (4) 8 H
10. Inductance of a solenoid is 3H and it consist of 500 turns. If number of turn make
twice, then the value of self inductance becomes:-
(1) 1.5 H (2) 3 H (3) 9 H (4) 12 H
11. A coil of 10–2 H inductance carries a current I = 2sin (100t) A. When current is half of
its maximum value, then at that instant the induced emf in the coil will be :-
(1) 1V (2) √2 V (3) √3V (4) 2V
12. An e.m.f. of 12 V is induced in a given coil when the current in it changes at the rate
of 48 amp./min. The inductance of the coil is :–
(1) 0.5 henry (2) 15 henry (3) 1.5 henry (4) 9.6 henry
13. A circular coil of mean radius of 7 cm and having 4000 turns is rotated about its and
of the diameter at the rate of 1800 revolutions per minute in the earth's magnetic field 0.5
gauss, the induced emf in coil will be :-
(1) 1.158 V (2) 0.58 V (3) 0.29 V (4) 5.8 V
14. Mutual inductance of two coils depends on their self inductance L1 and L2 as
(1) M12 = L1/L2 (2) M12 = L2/L1 (3) M12 = √𝐿1 𝐿2 (4) M12 = √𝐿1 /𝐿2
15. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount 𝛥𝜙 in a
time 𝛥t. The total quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during
the time 𝛥t is represented by :–
𝛥𝜙 𝛥𝜙 𝛥𝜙 1 𝛥𝜙
(1) Q = (2) Q = (3) Q = R . (4) Q = ⋅
𝑅 𝛥𝑡 𝛥𝑡 𝑅 𝛥𝑡
16. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and
the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the
circuit is
(1) 1/5 sec (2) 40 sec (3) 20 sec (4) 5 sec
17. If number of turns of 70cm2 coil is 200 and it is placed in a magnetic field of 0·8
Wb/m2 which is perpendicular to the plane of coil and it is rotated through an angle 180° in
0·1 sec, then induced emf in coil :-
(1) 11.2 V (2) 1.12 V (3) 22.4 V (4) 2.24 V
18. When current in a coil is reduced from 2A to 1A in 1 ms, the induced emf is 5V. The
inductance of coil is :
(1) 5 H (2) 5000 H (3) 5 mH (4) 50 H
19. A coil of inductance 300mH and resistance 2W is connected to a source of voltage
2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in
(1)0.3 s (2) 0.15 s (3) 0.1 s (4) 0.05 s
20. One conducting U tube can slide inside another as shown in figure, maintaining
electrical contacts between the tubes. The magnetic field B is perpendicular to the plane of
the figure. If each tube moves towards the other at a constant speed v, then the induced
emf in the circuit, where l is the width of each tube:
× × × × ×
A B
× × × × ×
× v × v ××
× ×
× ×
D C
× × × × ×
(1) 2 Blv (2) Zero (3) – Blv (4) Blv
21. The inductance of the oscillatory circuit of a radio station is 10 milli henry and its
capacitance is 0.25mico F. Taking the effect of the resistance negligible, wavelength of the
broadcasted waves will be (velocity of light = 3.0 × 108 m/s, π = 3.14):
(1) 9.42 × 104 m (2) 18.8 × 104 m (3) 4.5 × 104 m (4) none of these
22. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 henry and is joined in series with a resistance of 220
W. When the alternating emf of 220 V at 50 Hz is applied to it then the phase through which
current lags behind the applied emf and the wattless component of current in the circuit
will be respectively
(1) 30°, 1 A (2) 45°, 0.5 A (3) 60°, 1.5 A (4) none of these
23. A capacitor of capacity C and reactance X if capacitance and frequency become
double then reactance will be :–
(1) 4X (2) X/2 (3) X/4 (4) 2X
24. If value of R is changed, then :-
 10V 10V R

~ Supply
(1) Voltage across L remains same (2) Voltage across C remains same
(3) Voltage across LC combination remains same(4) Voltage across LC combination changes
25. When 100V D.C. is applied across a coil a current of 1A flows through it. When 100V
A.C. of 50 Hz is applied to the same coil only 0.5A flows. The inductance of the coil is :–
(1) 0.55 H (2) 55 Mh (3) 0.55 mH (4) 5.5 mH
26. In the circuit shown in the figure, the A.C. source gives a voltage V = 20 cos (2000 t)
volt neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter readings will be :
(1) 0V, 1.4A ~
6
A

(2) 5.6V, 1.4A 5mH, 4 50µF

(3) 0V, 0.47 A V

(4) 1.68 V, 0.47 A

27. The relation between an A.C. voltage source and time in SI units is :
V = 120 sin (100 πt) cos (100 πt) volt value of peak voltage and frequency will be
respectively
120
(1) 120 volt and 100 Hz (2) volt and 100 Hz
√2
(3) 60 volt and 200 Hz (4) 60 volt and 100 Hz
28. In which of the following case power factor will be negligible :–
(1) Inductance and resistance both high.
(2) Inductance and resistance both low.
(3) Low resistance and high inductance.
(4) High resistance and low inductance
29. If an A.C. main supply is given to be 220 V. What would be the average e.m.f. during
a positive half cycle
(1) 198 V (2) 386 V (3) 256 V (4) None of these
30. A capacitor of capacitance 2 mF is connected in the tank circuit of an oscillator
oscillating with a frequency of 1 kHz. If the current flowing in the circuit is 2 mA, the voltage
across the capacitor will be :–
(1) 0.16 V (2) 0.32 V (3) 79.5 V (4) 159 V
31. A capacitor of capacitance 100 mF & a resistance of 100W is connected in series with
AC supply of 220V, 50Hz. The current leads the voltage by –
1 1
(1) tan–1( ) (2) tan–1( )
2𝜋 𝜋
2 4
(3) tan–1 ( ) (4) tan–1( )
𝜋 𝜋
32. In an AC Circuit decrease in impedance with increase in frequency is indicates that
circuit has/have :
(1) Only resistance (2) Resistance & inductance.
(3) Resistance & capacitance (4) Resistance, capacitance & inductance.
33. For given circuit the power factor is :

(1) 0 (2) ½ (3) 1/ √2 (4) None of these

34. When an AC source of e.m.f. e = E0 sin (100t) is connected across a circuit, the phase
difference between the e.m.f. e and the current i in the circuit is observed to be pi/4, as
shown in the diagram. If the circuit consists possibly only of R–C or R–L or L–C in series, find
the relationship between the two elements

(1) R = 1 kW, C = 10 micro F (2) R = 1 kW, C = 1 micro F

(3) R = 1 kW, L = 10 H (4) R = 1 kW, L = 1 H
35. A LC circuit is in the state of resonance. if C = 0.1mF and L = 0.25 henry. Neglecting
ohmic resistance of circuit what is the frequency of oscillations
(1) 1007 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 109 Hz (4) 500 Hz
36. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance & current will
be–

(1) 400V, 2A (2) 800V, 2A (3) 100V, 2A (4) 100V, 4A

37. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of
frequency f. The current leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2𝜋𝑓(2𝜋𝑓𝐿−𝑅) 2𝜋𝑓 (2𝜋𝑓𝐿+𝑅) 𝜋𝑓 (2𝜋𝑓𝐿−𝑅) 𝜋𝑓 (2𝜋𝑓𝐿+𝑅)
38. A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volts is connected across R and C as shown in figure below.
The voltage across R is 12 volts. The voltage across C is
(1) 8 V (2) 16V
(3) 10 V (4) Not possible to determine unless values of R and C are given
39. In LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance, inductance &
capacitance are 40V, 30V & 60V, then the voltage across the main source will be
(1) 130 volt (2) 100 volt (3) 70 volt (4) 50 volt
40. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible
resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and
C is changed to 4C, then frequency will be :-
𝑓 𝑓
(1) f / 4 (2) 8 f (3) (4)
2√2 2
41. The size of an atom is of the order of
−8 −10 −12 −14
(1) 10 m (2) 10 m . (3) 10 m . (4) 10 m
42. The energy required to knock out the electron in the third orbit of a hydrogen atom is
equal to
13.6 13.6 3
(1) 13.6 𝑒𝑉 (2)+ 𝑒𝑉. (3)− 𝑒𝑉 (4)− 𝑒𝑉
9 3 13.6
43. In a beryllium atom, if a0 be the radius of the first orbit, then the radius of the second
orbit will be in general
𝑎0
(1)𝑛𝑎0 (2)𝑎0 (3)𝑛2 𝑎0 . (4)
𝑛2
44. The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given by
ℎ ℎ ℎ
(1)nh (2) . (3)𝑛 . (4) 𝑛2
2𝜋𝑛 2𝜋 2𝜋
45. The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 volt. The energy required to
remove an electron in the n = 2 state of the hydrogen atom is
(1) 27.2 eV (2)13.6 eV. (3)6.8 eV (4) 3.4 eV
46. A beam of fast moving alpha particles were directed towards a thin film of gold. The
parts A , B  and C  of the transmitted and reflected beams corresponding to the incident parts
A, B and C of the beam, are shown in the adjoining diagram. The number of alpha particles
in

B
B
A A

C
C

(1) B  willbe minimum and in C  maximum

(2) A  will be maximum and in B  minimum

(3) A  will be minimum and in B  maximum

(4) C  will be minimum and in B  maximum

47. In any Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy
of the electron is
 (1)1/2 (2)2. (3)−1/2 (4)– 2
48. A hydrogen atom (ionisation potential 13.6 eV) makes a transition from third excited
state to first excited state. The energy of the photon emitted in the process is
(1) 1.89 eV (2)2.55 eV. (3)12.09 eV (4)12.75 eV
49. Which of the following statements are true regarding Bohr's model of hydrogen atom
(I) Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shifts to discrete orbits away from the nucleus
(II) Radii of allowed orbits of electron are proportional to the principal quantum number
(III) Frequency with which electrons orbits around the nucleus in discrete orbits is inversely
proportional to the principal quantum number
(IV) Binding force with which the electron is bound to the nucleus increases as it shifts to
outer orbits
Select correct answer using the codes given below
Codes :
(1)I and III (2)II and IV (3)I, II and III (4)II, III and IV
50. For electron moving in nth orbit of H-atom the angular velocity is proportional to
(1) n (2)1/n. (3)n3 (4)1/n3
51. The energy required to excite an electron from the ground state of hydrogen atom to
the first excited state, is
(1) 1.602 × 10−14 𝐽 (2)1.619 × 10−16 𝐽.
(3)1.632 × 10−18 𝐽 (4)1.656 × 10−20 𝐽
52. The concept of stationary orbits was proposed by
(1)Neil Bohr (2)J.J. Thomson. (3)Ruther ford (4)I. Newton
53. Rutherford’s -particle experiment showed that the atoms have
(1)Proton (2)Nucleus. (3)Neutron. (4)Electrons
54. Radius of the first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å. So, the radius of
the third orbit will be
(1) 2.12 Å (2)4.77 Å. (3).06 Å (4)1.59 Å
55. The diagram shows the path of four -particles of the same energy being scattered by
the nucleus of an atom simultaneously. Which of these are/is not physically possible

1
2
3
4

(1)3 and 4 (2)2 and 3. (3)1 and 4 . (4)4 only

56. Minimum energy required to takeout the only one electron from ground state of He +

is
 (1)13.6 eV (2)54.4 eV. (3)27.2 eV (4)6.8 eV
57. Which of the following is quantised according to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom
(1) Linear momentum of electron (2)Angular momentum of electron
(3) Linear velocity of electron (4) Angular velocity of electron
58. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal quantum number n is given by 𝐸 =
−13.6
𝑒𝑉. The energy of a photon ejected when the electron jumps from 𝑛 = 3 state to 𝑛 =
𝑛2
2 state of hydrogen is approximately
(1)1.5 eV (2)0.85 eV (3)3.4 eV (4) 1.9 eV
+++
59. Which state of triply ionised Baryllium (Be ) has the same orbital radius as that of
the ground state of hydrogen
(1)n = 4 (2)n = 3 (3)n = 2 (4)n = 1
60. The diagram shows-the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which
transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy
n=4
(1)I n=3

(2)II n=2
(3)III
(4) IV
n=1
I II III IV

CHEMISTRY:
61.Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of
1) LiAlH4 2)Zn-Hg with HCl 3)Glycol with KOH 4)H2 with Pt as catalyst
62.Acetaldehyde reacts with semicarbazide and forms semicarbazone.Its structure
1) CH3CH = NNHCON = CHCH3 2) CH3CH= NNHCONH2
3) CH3CH=N -N -CONH2 4) CH3CH= N -CONHNH2
OH
63.What is the product of the following reaction?
O i.LiAlH4

ii.H2O
O OH
1) 2)
OH
OH 4)
3) OH
64.The preferred reagent for the following conversion is
CH3 CH2 COOH CH3 CH2 COCl
1) HCl 2) HOCl 3) SOCl 2 4) NaOCl
65.
Cl2 alc.KOH
CH3CH2COOH A B What is B
red P
1) CH3CH2COCl 2) CH3CH2CHO
3) CH2 = CHCOOH 4) ClCH2CH2COOH

66.The major product P and Q in the following reaction sequences are

Br
i.Zn
P+Q
Br ii.O3
iii.Zn,H 2O

P Q
1) 3-methylpentanol Ethanol
2) 3-methylpentanal Ethanal
3) 3-methylbutanol Ethanol
4) 3-methylbutanal Ethanal
67. Identify A,B,C in the following reactions .
Isoropyl chloride
NaOH Cu/ 573K NaOI
A B C + iodoform
CH4
A B C
1) CH3CH2CH2OH CH3CHCH2CHO CH3CH2COONa
2)
2)
2) CH
2) CH
CH CH
CH3CH
CH2OH
CH OH
OH
OH CH
CH CHO
CH3CHO
CH CHO
CHO HCOONa
HCOONa
HCOONa
HCOONa
CH
CH
CH -
-- CH
CH
CH -
-- CH
CH
CH
3) CH3 - CH - CH3 CH3COCH3 CH3COONa
OH
4) CH3 - CH - CH - CH3 H3C - C - C - CH3 CH3COONa
OH OH O O
68. An organic copound A C8H12 on recation with ozone followed by Zn gave one
mole each of (CHO)2 and CH3COCH2CH2COCH3 .The structre A is
CH3

1) CH3 - C -CH2CH2 -C -CH3 2)

CH2 CH2

CH3
3) CH3
4) CH3

CH3

CH3

69. Correct structure of 𝛾 − 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑦𝑙𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑜ℎ𝑒𝑥𝑎𝑛𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑎𝑙𝑑𝑒ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑒 𝑖𝑠

O O
1)
2)
CH2 C
H
H

O
3) 4)
CH2 C H
H
O

70. Calciumformate on distillation gives

1)HCOOH 2)CH3COOH 3)CH3CHO 4)HCHO
71. Less reactivity of ketone is due to
1)+ I effect decreases positive charge on carbonyl carbon atom
2)steric effect of two bulky alkyl groups
3)sp2hybridised carbon atom of carbonyl carbon atom
4)both a and b
72.
OH

Br2 NH2 OH P2O5

A B C
D

CHO
Consider
Consider
Consider
Consider
Consider
Consider
Consider the
the
the
Consider the
the
the
the above
above
above
the above
above
above
above reaction
reaction
reaction
above reaction sequence,the
sequence,the
sequence,the
reaction sequence,the
reaction
reaction
reaction product
product
product
sequence,the product
sequence,the
sequence,the
sequence,the C
C
C
product C
product
product
product is
is
is
C is
C
C
C isis
is
is

1) 2) OH
Br Br
Br Br

CN
CHO

3) OH
4)
Br Br Br Br

CHO CN

73.Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide
yields the corresponding alcohol and acid ?
1)C6H5CHO 2)CH3CH2CH2CHO 3)CH3COCH3 4)C6H5CH2CHO
74.Reaction between acetone and methyl-magnesium chloride followed by
hydrolysis will give
1)secbutyl alcohol 2)tert.butyl alcohol 3)Isobutyl alcohol 4)Isopropyl alcohol
75.When acetaldehyde reacts with alcohol then produce
1)Acetal 2)Ketal 3)Acetone 4)None
76.

O
HCN NH3 Hydrolysis
R A B C
R

The compound C in the above reaction is

1)𝛼 − hydroxy acid 2)𝛼 −amino acid
3)𝛼 - amino alkanol 4) 𝛼 −amino𝛽 − ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑦 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑

77. Which of the following can not be oxidised to give carboxylic acid?

1) CH2 CH2 CH3

CH3
2)

CH3

3) 4) CH3
CH3
H3C CH3
78.The end product B in the sequence of reactions
CN- NaOH
R- X A B
1)an alkane 2) a carboxylic acid
3) sodium salts of carboxylic acid 4) a ketone
79.Dimerisation of carboxylic acids due to
1) ionic bond 2)covalent bond
3)coordinate bond 4)intermolecular hydrogen bond
80.Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction
O

CH3 + - Δ
+ 2[Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] + 3OH major product
CH3

O O
1) OH 2)
CH3
CH3
OH
OH

3) O 4) OH

CH3 CH3

- -
COO COO

81. The compound ‘A’ decolourises Br2/CCl4 and releases N2 gas withHNO2.The
compound ‘A’ is
1)
NH2 2)

NH
H Me
4) N
3) H
N

82.
NH2

Br2 i)NaNO2/HCl
A B
H2O ii)H3PO2
the product B in the reaction
Br
1) 2)
Br Br Br

Br Br
Br 4)
3) Br
Br Br

83. Benzenediazonium chloride on treatment with water gives

1)benzene 2)o-chlorophenol 3)anisole 4)phenol
84.The order of boiling points of the following compound is
....
.... .. ..
....
(CH
A.(CH
(CH3)3N
(CH B. CH3CH2CH2NH2 C. CH3CH2NHCH3

1) A ˃ C ˃ B 2) C ˃ A ˃ B 3) B ˃A ˃ C 4) B ˃ C ˃ A
85. The number of primary amines of formula C4H11N is
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
86. In the reaction:
+ - + -
NH2 N2 Cl N2 BF4
P Q NO2
R

P, Q and R respectively are:

1) NaNO2 + dil. HCl, HBF4, Cu + NaNO2

2) NaNO2 + Con. HCl, F2, Cu + NaNO3
3)
3) NaNO
3) NaNO2 +
NaNO ++ dil.
dil. HCl,
dil. HCl, BF
HCl, BF3,,, Cu
BF Cu +
Cu ++ NaNO
NaNO2
NaNO
4) NaNO3 + dil. HCl, F2, Cu + NaNO3

87. If aniline is treated with 1 : 1 mixture of conc.HNO3 and conc. H2SO4, p-

nitroaniline and m-nitro aniline are formed nearly in equal amounts. This is due to,
1)m-directing property of NH2 group
2)Protonation of –NH2 which causes deactivation of benzene ring
3)m- and p-directing property of –NH2 group
4)Isomerization of some p-nitroaniline into m-nitroaniline
88. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and
(CH3)2NH in aqueous solutions,
1)CH3NH2<NH3<(CH3)2NH 2)CH3NH2<(CH3)2NH<NH3
3)(CH3)2NH<<NH3<CH3NH2 4)NH3<CH3NH2<(CH3)2NH
89.In the following sequence of reactions;
𝑅𝑒𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐻𝑁𝑂2
A→ B → CH3CH2OH
The compound A is,
1)propane nitrile 2) ethane nitrile 3)nitromethane 4) methyl isocyanate
90. In the given set of reactions:
alc. AgCN LiAlH4
2-bromopropane X Y
heat

The IUPAC name of the product Y is,

1)N-isopropylmethanamine 2)N-methylpropan-2-amine
3)N-methylpropanamine 4)Butan-2-amine.
91. The correct order of basicity of the following compounds
1)B ˃ A ˃ C 2) A ˃ B ˃ C 3) C ˃ A ˃B 4)C ˃ B ˃ A

O
R C
NH2
92. The reaction of with bromine and KOH gives RNH2 as the end
product.Which one of the following is the intermediate product formed in this reaction?
 O
1)
H C N Br 2)
R NH Br
R

4) O Br
3)
R N C O R C N
Br
93. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which
dissolves in alkali
1) 2)
.... CH2
CH2 .... H3C CH2
H3C N CH3 ....
....
NO2
CH3

4) CH2
3) ..
CH2 H3C NH2
H3C ....
.... CH3
NH

94. On hydrolysis of compound ,two compounds are obtained .One of which on

treatment with sodium nitrite and HCl gives a product which doesnot respond to
iodoform test. The second one reduces Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution.The
compound is
1)CH3CH2CH2CON(CH3)2 2)CH3CH2CH2NC
3)CH3CH2CH2CN 4)CH3CH2CH2ON=O
95. Which of the following does not react with acetyl chloride?
1) (C2H5)2NH 2) C2H5NH2
3) CH3NH2 4) (CH3)3N
96. The IUPAC name of diethyl isopropyl amine is
1) N,N –diethylpropan-2-amine 2)N,N-diethylpropan -1-amine
3)N,N-diethylisopropylamine 4)N,N-diethylaminopropane
97. Aniline doesnot undergo
1) Friedel –craft reaction 2)Bromination 3)Nitration 4)Sulphonation
98. One of the following amides will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
1)CH3CONHCH3 2) CH3CH2CONH2 3) CH3CONH2 4) C6H5CONH2

99. Identify the major product formed from the sequence of reactions given below
 NH2

i)NaNO2/HCl ,273K
ii)Cu 2Cl2
iii)Na/dry ether

1) Cl 2)

H
3) 4) N

100. The type of reaction ‘X ‘ and product ‘Y’ of the following are respectively
H+
C6H5N2Cl + C 6H5NH2 Y
X
1) Electrophilic substitution NH2
2) Electrophilic substitution
N N NH2
N
N

3) Nucleophilic substitution 4)Nucleophilic

Nucleophilic
Nucleophilic
Nucleophilic
Nucleophilic substitution
substitution
Nucleophilic substitution
substitution
substitution
substitution
NH
NH NH
NH
NH2

NH2

101. Number of chiral carbons in β-D-(+)-glucose

1)Five 2) six 3)Three 4) Four
102.The two form of D-glucopyranose are called
1)Diastereomers 2)epimers 3) Anomers 4) Enantiomers
103.The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylose part of
starch is
1)C1 – C4 β-linkage 2)C1 – C6 α-linkage
3)C1 – C6 β-linkage 4)C1 – C4 α-linkage
104.The α- D – glucose and β – D- glucose differ from each other due to difference in
carbon atom with respect to its
1)Conformation 2) Configuration
3)Number of OH groups 4) Size of hemiacetal ring
105.Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins?
1)Thioester 2) thioether 3) Thiol 4)Thiolactone
106.A reagent suitable for the determination of N- terminal residue of a peptide is
1)p – toluenesulphonyl chloride 2) 2,4- dinitrophenylhydazine
3)carboxypeptidase 4)2, 4- dinitrofluorobenzene
107.Adenine is an example of
1)Purine base 2)nucleoside 3)Nucleotide 4)Pyrimidine base
 108.Which of the following harmones produced under the condition of stress which
stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
1)Thyroxine 2) insulin 3)Adrenaline 4) Estradiol
109.On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br2/H2O, the glucose is oxidised to
1)Sacchric acid 2)glucaric acid 3)Gluconic acid 4) Valeric acid
110.The female sex harmone which is responsible for the development of secondary
female characteristics and participate in the control of menstrual cycle
1)Testosterone 2) estradiol 3)insulin 4) thyroxine
111.C1 – C4 glycosidic bond is not found in
1) Sucrose 2) lactose 3) starch 4) maltose
112. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in adipose tissue?
1) B6 2) D 3) E 4) A
113.Cheliosis and digestive disorders are due to the deficiency of
1) Ascorbic acid 2) pyridoxine 3) thiamine 4) riboflavin
114.One of the following is an essential amino acid
1) Cysteine 2) serine 3) tyrosine 4) isoleucine
115. The chemical passengers produced in ductless glands are called
1) Lipids 2) Cellular membrane 3) Hormones 4) Antibodies
116. Vitamin B12
1) Ca(II) 2) Fe(II) 3) Co(III) 4) Zn(II)
117. The sequence in which amino acids are linked to one another in a protein is
called its
1) Primary structure 2) Secondary structure
3) Tertiary structure 4) Quaternary structure
118.If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATGCTTGA the sequence in the
complimentary strand would be
1) TACGAACT 2) TCCGAACT 3) TACGTACT 4) TACGTAGT
119. What happens when dil.H2SO4 is treated with sugar?
1) Oxidation 2) Reduction 3) Dehydration 4) Hydrolysis
120. Which of the following is a basic amino acid
1) Aalanine 2) tyroisine 3) lysine 4) serine

MATHEMATICS:

3𝑥 3 −2√𝑥
121. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑥
1) x3 − x +c 2) x3 + x +c 3) x3 − 2 x + c 4) x3 − 4 x +c

sin 3 x + cos3 x
122.
 sin 2 x cos 2 x
dx =
1) tan x + cot x + c 2) tan x − cot x + c
3) cosec x − cot x + c 4) sec x − cosec x + c
dx
123.  =
sin x + 3 cos x
x 
1) log tan  +  + c 2) 1 log tan  x +   + c 3) log cot  x +   + c 4) 1 x 
log cot  +  + c
2 2 2 2 6 2 6 2 2 6
sin 3 x
124. 
dx =
sin x
1) x + sin 2 x + c 2) 3x + sin 2 x + c 3) 3 x + sin 2 x + c 4) None of these
e5log x
−e 4log x

125. 
dx =
e 3log x
− e2log x
x3
1) e . 3−3 x + c 2) e3 log x + c 3) +c 4) None of these
3
𝑒 6 log 𝑥 −𝑒 5 log 𝑥
126.The value of ∫ 𝑑𝑥 is equal to:
𝑒 4 log 𝑥 −𝑒 3 log 𝑥
𝑥3 3 1
1) 0 2) 3) 4)
3 𝑥3 𝑥
( x + 1) dx2

 x( x 2 + 1)
=
127.
1
1) log e x + c 2) log e x + 2 tan −1 x + c 3) log e +c 4) log e {x( x 2 + 1)} + c
x +1
2

𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥
128. ∫ 𝑑𝑥
1+𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥
1) 𝑥 + sin 𝑥 + 𝐶 2) 𝑥 − sin 𝑥 + 𝐶 3) sin 𝑥 + 𝐶 4) cos 𝑥 + 𝐶
cos 2𝑥−cos 2𝜃
129. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 is equal to :
cos 𝑥−cos 𝜃
1) 2(sin 𝑥 + 𝑥 cos 𝜃) + 𝐶 2) 2(sin 𝑥 − 𝑥 cos 𝜃) + 𝐶
3) 2(sin 𝑥 + 2𝑥 cos 𝜃) + 𝐶 4)2(sin 𝑥 − 2𝑥 cos 𝜃) + 𝐶.
cos 2𝑥−cos 2𝛼
130. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 =
cos 𝑥−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼
1) 2(sin 𝑥 − 𝑥 cos 𝛼) + 𝑐 2) 2(sin 𝑥 + 𝑥 cos 𝛼) + 𝑐
3) 2(sin 𝑥 − 2𝑥 cos 𝛼) + 𝑐 4) 2(sin 𝑥 ∓ 2𝑥 cos 𝛼) + 𝑐
1
131. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 is equal to :
1+𝑒 𝑥
𝑒 𝑥 +1 𝑒 𝑥 −1 𝑒𝑥 𝑒𝑥
1) log 𝑒 ( )+𝑐 2) log 𝑒 ( )+𝑐 3) log 𝑒 ( ) + 𝑐 4) log 𝑒 (𝑒 𝑥−1) + 𝑐
𝑒𝑥 𝑒𝑥 𝑒 𝑥 +1
3x 2
132.  dx =
x6 + 1
 x3 
1) log( x 6 + 1) + c 2) tan −1 ( x3 ) + c 3) 3tan −1 ( x3 ) + c 4) 3tan −1  +c
 3
1
 x
tan 4 x sec2 x dx =
133.
1) 2 tan 5 x +c 2) 1 tan 5 x +c 3) 2 5
tan x + c 4)None of these
5 5
 tan x
134. 
dx =
sin x cos x
2 2
1) 2 sec x + c 2) 2 tan x + c 3) +c 4) +c
tan x sec x
3x 2
 9 − 16 x 6
dx =
135.
  3
  3
1 −1  4 x3 
1) 1 sin −1  4 x +c 2) 1 sin −1  4 x+c 3) sin  +c 4)None of these
4  3  3  3  2  3 

136. 
tan 4 x dx =

1) tan 3 x − tan x + x + c 2) 1 tan 3 x − tan x + x + c

3
3) 1 tan 3 x + tan x + x + c 4) 1 tan 3 x + tan x + 2 x + c
3 3
2𝑥−1
137. ∫ (𝑥−1)(𝑥+2)(𝑥−3) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝐴 log|𝑥 − 1| + 𝐵 log|𝑥 + 2| + 𝐶 log|𝑥 − 3| + 𝐾. Then 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶
are respectively.
1 −1 1 −1 1 1
1) , , 2) , ,
6 3 3 6 3 3
−1 −1 1 1 1 1
3) , , 4) , ,
6 3 2 6 3 5
3𝑥+1
138.If ∫ (𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)(𝑥−3) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝐴 log|𝑥 − 1| + 𝐵 log|𝑥 − 2| + 𝐶 log|𝑥 − 3| + 𝐶, then the
value of A, B and C are respectively,
1) 2, -7, 5 2) 5, -7, -5 3) 2, -7, -5 4) 5, -7, 5
ex
 (1 + e x )(2 + e x )
dx =
139.
 
2) log  1 + e x  + c
x
1) log[(1 + e x )(2 + e x )] + c
2 + e 
3) log[(1 + e x ) 2 + ex ] + c 4)None of these
dx
 2 x − x2
=
140.
1) cos −1 ( x − 1) + c 2) sin −1 ( x − 1) + c 3) cos −1 (1 + x) + c 4) sin −1 (1 − x) + c
5
∫−5 |𝑥 + 2|𝑑𝑥 is equal to :
141.
1) 29 2) 28 3) 27 4) 3
dx
142. 
=
5 + 4cos x

1) 2 tan −1  1 tan x  + c 2) 1 tan −1  1 tan x  + c

3 3  3 3 
3) tan −1  tan  + c
2  1 x 1 −1  1 x
4) tan  tan  + c
3 3 2 3 3 2
dx

143. x + 2 x + 2
2
=
1) sin −1 ( x + 1) + c 2) sinh −1 ( x + 1) + c 3) tanh −1 ( x + 1) + c 4) tan −1 ( x + 1) + c

144.  e x (1 + tan x)sec x dx =

1) e x cot x 2) e x tan x 3) e x sec x 4) e x cos x
( x 2 + 1)
 ex
( x + 1)2
dx =
145.
1)  x − 1  e x + c 2) e x  x + 1  + c 3) e x ( x + 1)( x − 1) + c 4)None of these
 x +1  x −1 
(𝑥+3)𝑒 𝑥
146.∫ 𝑑𝑥 is equal to :
(𝑥+4)2
1 𝑒𝑥 𝑒𝑥 𝑒𝑥
1) 2
+𝐶 2) 2
+𝐶 3) +𝐶 4) +𝐶
(𝑥+4) (𝑥+4) (𝑥+4) (𝑥+3)
sin 𝑥 sin 𝑥+1
147.∫ 𝑒 ( ) 𝑑𝑥 =
sec 𝑥
1) sin 𝑥𝑒 sin 𝑥 + 𝑐 2) cos 𝑥𝑒 sin 𝑥 + 𝑐 3) 𝑒 sin 𝑥 + 𝑐 4) 𝑒 sin 𝑥 (sin 𝑥 + 1) + 𝑐
1+sin 𝑥
148.∫ 𝑒 𝑥 ( ) 𝑑𝑥 is:
1+cos 𝑥
𝑥 𝑥
1) 𝑒 𝑥 tan ( ) + 𝐶 2) tan ( ) + 𝐶 3) 𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶 4) 𝑒 𝑥 sin 𝑥 + 𝐶
2 2
xe x
 (1 + x)2
dx =
149.
e− x e− x ex ex
1) +c 2) − +c 3) +c 4) − +c
1+ x 1+ x 1+ x 1+ x
𝑒 𝑥 (𝑥 2 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥+𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥+1)
150. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑥 2 +1
1) 𝑒 𝑥 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥 + 𝑐 2) 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (𝑒 𝑥 ) + 𝑐
−1 𝑥
3) 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (𝑥 𝑒 ) + 𝑐 4) 𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑛 +𝑐
151. 0 sin −1  2 x 2  dx =
1

1+ x 

1)  − 2log 2 2)  + 2log 2 3)  − log 2 4)  + log 2

2 2 4 4
e ex
152. 1
 x
(1 + x log x) dx =

1) e e 2) ee − e 3) ee + e 4) None of these
e 2
dx
I1 = 
log x 2 ex
I2 = 
e
153.If and 1 x
dx, then

1) I1 = I 2 2) I1  I 2 3) I1  I 2 4) None of these
2
x 5
154 . 3 dx
x −4 2

1) 2 − log e  15  2) 2 + log e  15 
7 7

3) 2 + 4log e 3 − 4log e 7 + 4log e 5 4) 2 − tan −1  15 

7
 2 dx
155.The value of 1 is
x(1 + x 4 )

1) 1 log 17 2) 1 log 17 3) log 17 4) 1 log 32

4 32 4 2 2 4 17
8 √10−𝑥
156. The value of ∫2 𝑑𝑥 is:
√𝑥+√10−𝑥
1) 10 2) 0 3) 8 4) 3
𝜋 ⁄2 𝑡𝑎𝑛7 𝑥
157.∫0 𝑑𝑥 is equal to :
𝑐𝑜𝑡 7 𝑥+𝑡𝑎𝑛7 𝑥
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
1) 2) 3) 4)0
2 4 6

1 𝑑𝑥
158. ∫0 =:
𝑒 𝑥 +𝑒 −𝑥
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
1) − tan−1 (𝑒) 2) tan−1 (𝑒) − 3) tan−1 (𝑒) + 4) tan−1 (𝑒)
4 4 4
1⁄2 𝑑𝑥
159. ∫0 =:
(1+𝑥 )√1−𝑥 2
2

1 2 2 3 √2 3 √2 √3
1) tan−1 √ 2) tan−1 √ 3) tan−1 ( ) 4) tan−1 ( )
√2 3 √2 √2 2 2 2 2
8
160. If [𝑥] is the greatest integer function not greater than 𝑥 then ∫0 [𝑥]𝑑𝑥 =
1) 28 2) 30 3) 29 4) 20
𝜋
cos 𝑥 sin 𝑥
161. ∫0 2 𝑑𝑥=
1+sin 𝑥
1) log 2 − 1 2) log 2 3) − log 2 4) 1 − log 2
1 𝑥𝑒 𝑥
162.∫0 (2+𝑥)3 𝑑𝑥is =
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1) . 𝑒 − 2) . 𝑒 + 3) . 𝑒 + 4) . 𝑒 −
27 8 27 8 9 4 9 4
163. The area of the region bounded by the lines 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥, 𝑥 = 1, 𝑥 = 2, and 𝑥 axis is 6 sq.
units, then 𝑚 is:
1)1 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
164.The area of the region bounded by the curve 𝑦 = 8𝑥 and the line 𝑦 = 2𝑥 is
2
8 16 4 3
1) sq. units 2) sq. units 3) sq. units 4) sq. units
3 3 3 4
𝜋
165. Area of the region bounded by the curve 𝑦 = tan 𝑥, the 𝑥-axis and the line 𝑥 = is
3
1
1) log 2) log 2 3) 0 4) – log 2
2
166.Area bounded by the curve y = log x , x − axis and the ordinates x = 1, x = 2 is
1) log 4 sq. unit 2) (log 4 + 1) sq. unit 3) (log 4 − 1) sq. unit 4)None of these
167. The order of the differential equation obtained by eliminating arbitrary constants in the
family of curves 𝑐1 𝑦 = (𝑐2 + 𝑐3 )𝑒 𝑥+𝑐4 is
1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
168.The sum of the degree and order of the differential equation (1 + 𝑦12 )2/3 = 𝑦2 is
1) 4 2) 6 3) 5 4) 7
169. The solution of the differential equation 𝑥𝑑𝑦 − 𝑦𝑑𝑥 = 0 represents :
1) A rectangular hyperbola 2) A circle whose centre is origin
3) parabola whose vertex at origin 4) straight line passing through origin
dy 1 + y 2
170.The solution of the differential equation = is
dx 1 + x 2
1) 1 + xy + c( y + x) = 0 2) x + y = c(1 − xy )
3) y − x = c(1 + xy ) 4) 1 + xy = c( x + y )
𝑑𝑦
171. The solution of differential equation 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑥 2 is:
𝑑𝑥
𝑥 2 +𝐶 𝑥2 𝑥 4 +𝐶 𝑥 4 +𝐶
1)𝑦 = 2)𝑦 = +𝐶 3)𝑦 = 4) 𝑦 =
4𝑥 2 4 𝑥2 4𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦 4
172.Integrating factor of 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 3𝑥 is:
𝑑𝑥
1
1)𝑥 2)log 𝑥 3) 4) −𝑥
𝑥
𝑑𝑦
173.General solution of differential equation + 𝑦 = 1(𝑦 ≠ 1)is :
𝑑𝑥
1 1
1)log | |=𝑥+𝐶 2)log|1 − 𝑦| = 𝑥 + 𝐶 3)log|1 + 𝑦| = 𝑥 + 𝐶 4)log | | = −𝑥 + 𝐶
1−𝑦 1−𝑦
174.Two letters are chosen from the letters of the word EQUATIONS. The probability that
one is vowel and the other is consonant is:
3 8 5 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 9 9
175.Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is:
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
18 12 9 36
176. If A and B are two events such that 𝑃(𝐴) = 0.59, 𝑃(𝐵) = 0.30, 𝑃 (𝐴𝐵) = 0.21 then
𝑃(𝐴̅𝐵̅)is equal to
1)0.11 2)0.38 3)0.32 4) 0.35
177.A box contains 6 red marbles numbers from 1 to 6 and 4 white marbles 12 to 15. Find
the probability that a marble drawn at random is white and odd numbered.
1 1
1) 5 2) 3) 6 4)
5 6
178.If A, B, C are three mutually exclusive and exhaustive events of an experiment such that
P(A)= 2P(B) = 3P(C), then P(B) is equal to
4 1 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 11 11 11
179. If A,B,C are three independent events such that P(A)=P(B)=P(C)=P , then P( at least two
of A,B,C occur)=
1)𝑃3 − 3𝑃 2) 3𝑃 − 2𝑃2 3) 3𝑃2 − 2𝑃3 4) 3𝑃2
1
180.For 𝑘 = 1,2,3 the box 𝐵𝑘 contains k red balls and (𝑘 + 1) white balls. Let 𝑃(𝐵1 ) = ,
2
1 1
𝑃(𝐵2 ) = and 𝑃(𝐵3 ) = . A box is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If a red
3 6
balls is drawn then the probability that it has come from box 𝐵2 is
35 14 10 12
1) 2) 3) 4)
78 39 13 13
SOLUTIONS:

(1) (2). I = I0sin t

 dI 
e2 = M   = M I0 cost = e0 cos t
 dt  1
e0 = MI0 = MI0(2f)
= 1.5 × 1 × 2 ×  × 50 = 150 volt
LdI e
(2) (2). e = − L= −
dt (dI dt)
8
L=− = −0.2H = 0.2 H
(2 / 0.05)
(only positive value)
L1L 2
(3) (1). = 2.4 ; L1 + L2 = 10
L1 + L 2
L1L2 = 2.4 × 10  L1L2 = 24

From (L1 – L2) = (L1 + L 2 ) 2 − 4L1L 2

= (10)2 − 4  24 = 100 − 96
L1 – L2 = 4 = 2H
(4) (1).  = BA cos 0° = BA= 0.01 × 103 = 10 Wb
1 1
(5) (4). W = LI2 = × 5 × (10)2 = 250 J
2 2
(6) (4). Current in wire is constant so flux is also constant I = const  B = const
  = constant  NO EMI
(7) (4).
(8) (3).
(9) (1).  = MI
d dI d 2  10−2
 =M M= = = 2H
dt dt dI 0.01
(10) (4). Self inductance of solenoid
 N2A
L= 0  L  N2
(11) (3). I = 2 sin (100t) (I = I0/2 = 2/2 = 1)
1
1 = 2 sin (100t)  = sin (100 t)
2
 
= 100 t  t = .......(i)
6 600
dI
= 2 × 100cos (100t)
dt
  
= 2 × 100 cos 100  
 600 
3
= 2 × 100 × = 100 3 ....... (ii)
2
 LdI
e= = 10–2 × 100 3 [from (i) & (ii)]
dt
= 3V
LdI dt
(12) (2). e = L=e
dt dI
12 60
L=  = 15 H
48 1
1800
(13) (2). e0 = NBA ( = 2f = 2 × = 60)
60
= 4000× (0.5× 10–4)× ( × 49 × 10–4)×60
= 0.58 V
(14) (3). M = K L1L 2 here (K = 1)
so M = L1L 2

(15) (1). q =  q  (t)°
R
L 40
(16) (4).  = = = 5 second
R 8
(17) (3). 1 = NBA, 2 = –NBA
 = –2NBA
d  −2NBA  2NBA
e=− = −  =
dt  t t
2  200  0.8  70  10−4
= = 22.4 volt
0.1
LdI e 5
(18) (3). e = L= =
dt (dI / dt) (1/10−3 )
= 5 × 10–3 = 5mH
L 300  10−3
(19) (3). T = × 0·693 = × 0.693
R 2
= 0.1 sec.
Bv Bv
(20) (1).

enet = Bv + Bv = 2Bv

1 1
(21) (1). f = =
2 LC 2 10  10−3  0.25  10−6
1 c
= −4
Hz. Now  =
  10 f
or  = 3 × 108 ×  × 10–4 = 9.42 × 104 m
(22) (2). XL = 2fL = 70  220 R = 220

 Z = R 2 + X 2L = 220 2
XL
tan = = 1   = 45°
R
 V
Wattless current = Irms. sin = sin
Z
1
= = 0.5 A
2
1
(23) (3). Use X c =
C
(24) (3). R Changed  Z Changed  I Changed
VL = I XL (Changed)
VC = I XC (Changed)
VL and VC are changed by same amount
Voltage across LC combination (VL–VC )
remains same.
(25) (1). For D.C. XL = 0
V
 R= = 100 
i
V
For A.C. i =
R 2 + X 2L
V 100
 R 2 + X L2 = = = 200
i 0.5
XL2 = (200)2 – (100)2 = 30000
XL = 173.2
 XL = 2f L
173.2
 L= = 0.55 H
2  3.14  50
(26) (2). Compare V = 20 cos 2000 t from
V = V0 cos t
20
V0 = 20,  = 2000, Vrms =
2
Now Z = R + (XL –XC )
2 2 2

 Total resistance R = 6 + 4 = 10

XL = L = 2000 × 5mH
XL = 10
1
XC = = 106/2000 × 50 ; XC = 10
C
 Z2 = (10)2 + (10–10)2
V 20
Total amount I = = = 2A
Z 2 10
Now reading of voltmeter V = I Z
here Z is the impedance of lower branch
V = I R 2 + (X L − XC ) 2
R = Resistance of lower branch
V = 1.4 × 4 = 5.6 volt
(27) (4). V = 120 sin (100 t) cos (100t)
  2 sin cos = sin 2
sin (2  100t)
 sin (100t) cos (100t) =
2
V = 60 sin (200 t)
compare from , V = V0 sin t
V0 = 60 volt,  = 200 2f = 200
f = 100 Hz
R
(28) (3). Power factor cos  =
Z
For negligible power factor  R Low
Z high (L high)

 100
V = 2 V
2V0 2 2Vrms
(29) (1). Vavg = =
  
 100
2 2  220 I = A
= = 198V
3.14  2
 
 =
 6

(30) (1). Tank circuit

 VC = I XC
1
VC = 2 × 10–3 3 –6
L

2 ×10 × 2 × 10
Solve it VC  0.16 V
X 1
(31) (2). tan  = C =
R RC
1 1
= −6
=
2  50  100  100  10 
 1
  = tan –1  
 
(32) (3). Z = R 2 +X 2 [X = reactance]
if  than XC , Z
Circuit contain resistance and capacitance
R R
(33) (3). Power factor = cos = =
Z R 2 + X2 L
1100
cos  =
2
 22 7
(1100) +  2 
2
 50  
 7 2
1100 1
= =
(1100)2 + (1100)2 2
 1
(34) (1). XC = &  = 100 rad/sec.
C
X X 
tan  = C ;  = tan–1 C =
R R 4
Put options R = 1K and C = 10f
1 1
(35) (1). f = =
2 LC 2 0.1  10−6  0.25
105
= = 1007 Hz
99.29
(36) (3). VL = VC
 XL = XC (Resonance condition)
V 100
i= = = 2A
R 50
VR = iR = 2 × 50 = 100 V
X – XC
(37) (2). tan  = L
R
I leads v   = –45°
X L – XC
=1 ; XC = R + XL solve it
R
(38) (2). Use V2 = VR2 + VC2
(4). V 2 = VR2 + ( VL − VC )
2
(39)
1
(40) (3). Use f =
2 LC
(41) (2) The size of the atom is of the order of 1Å = 10–10m.
13.6
(42) (2) Energy required to knock out the electron in the nth orbit = + eV 
n2
13.6
E3 = + eV
9
(43) (3) r  n 2  rn = n 2 a0 ( r1 = a0 )
(44) (3) According to Bohr’s second postulate
13.6
(45) (4) Energy required to remove electron in the n = 2 state = + = +3.4 eV
(2)2
(46) (2) Because atom is hollow and whole mass of atom is concentrated in a small centre
called nucleus.
kZe2 kZe 2 K .E. 1
(47) (3) K .E = and P.E. = − ;  =− .
2r r P.E. 2
 1 1 
(48) (2) Energy released = 13.6  2
− 2  = 2.55 eV
 (2) (4) 
(49) (1) Orbital speed varies inversely as the radius of the orbit. Energy increases with the
increase in quantum number.
(50) (4)
(51) (3)Energy to excite the e − from n = 1 to n = 2
 n = 2 (– 3.4 eV)
First excited state

n = 1 (–13.6 eV)
Ground state
(For H2 - atom)

E = −3.4 − (−13.6) = 10.2 eV = 10.2  1.6  10−19

= 1.632  10 −18 J
(52) (1)
(53) (2)
r3 32
(54) (2) rn  n 2  =  r3 = 9r1 = 9  0.53 = 4.77 Å
r1 1
(55) (4) -particles cannot be attracted by the nucleus.
13.6 z 2 13.6  (2) 2
(56) (2) En = − eV  E1 = − = −54.4 eV
n2 (1)2
(57) (2)
(58) (4) n = 3 (– 1.51 eV)
E3
n = 2 (– 1.51 eV)

n = 1 (– 1.51 eV)

E3→2 = −3.4 − (−1.51) = −1.89 eV  | E3 → 2 |  1 . 9 eV

(59) (3) Radius of nth orbit for any hydrogen like atom
 n2 
rn = r0   ( r0 = radius of first orbit of H 2 -atom)
Z 
If rn = r0  n = Z . For Be+++, Z = 4  n = 2.
hc  1 1 
(60) (3) Emitted energy E =  − 
  n12 n22 