.

L101 LOGICAL ABILITY BASICS – NUMBER, LETTER, SERIES, ODDMAN OUT

Practice Exercise - 1

Directions: For each of the following 3. 3, 7, 16, 32, 57, ?

questions a series is given with one term (1) 39 (2) 43
missing. Choose the correct alternative (3) 93 (4) 63
from the given choices to complete the
series. 4. 48, 24, 72, 36, 108, ?
1. 20, 31, 43, 56, 70, ? (1) 115 (2) 216
(1) 83 (2) 87 (3) 48 (4) 54
(3) 89 (4) 85
5. 64, 52, 29, 85, 89, ?
2. 2, 6, 30, 210, ?, 30030 (1) 135 (2) 145
(1) 2310 (2)1890 (3) 167 (4) 225
(3) 2520 (4) 2730

Practice Exercise - 2

Directions: For each of the following

questions a series is given with one term 8. 82, 4, 55, 5, 94, ?
missing. Choose the correct alternative (1) 7 (2) 8
from the given choices to complete the (3) 9 (4) 6
series.
6. 11, 42, 93, 164, 255, ? 9. 1,2,3,3,5,5,7,7,9,11,11,13,?,?
(1) 336 (2) 633 (1) 13,15 (2) 15,13
(3) 663 (4) 366 (3) 13,17 (4) 17,13

7. 8, 64, 512, 4096, 32768, ? 10. 13, 43, 76, 142, 382, ?
(1) 2258144 (2) 262144 (1) 665 (2) 664
(3) 232554 (4) None of these (3) 662 (4)764

Practice Exercise - 3

Directions: For each of the following 13. 59, 61, 63, 71, 73
questions, a series is given in which one (1) 59 (2) 61
number does not fit the series. Identify (3) 63 (4) 73
this ‘odd’ number from the given choices:
14. 11, 12, 26, 79, 328
11. 100, 121, 144, 159, 196 (1) 12 (2) 26
(1) 121 (2) 144 (3) 79 (4) 328
(3) 159 (4) 196
15. 4, 6, 12, 30, 66
12. 23, 47, 97, 191, 383 (1) 6 (2) 12
(1) 47 (2) 97 (3) 30 (4) 66
(3) 191 (4) 383
 Practice Exercise - 4

Directions: Identify the next character in (1) JM (2) JF

each series from the given choices. (3) JJ (4) JA

16. CEH, DGK, EIN, ? 19. BAT, DCV, FEX, ?

(1) FKQ (2) FLO (1) HGI (2) HGZ
(3) GKO (4) FOK (3) HIJ (4) HGY

17. B, D, G, I, L, ? 20. I, B, G, Y, ?
(1) M (2) N (1) Z (2) O
(3) O (4) P (3) E (4) F

18. JF, FM, MA, AM, MJ, ?

Directions: Identify the next character in (1) NQT (2) NQS

each series from the given choices. (3) NRT (4) NMN
21. D, I, P, Y, J, ?
24. BIP, ELR, HOT, KRV, ?
(1) P (2) V
(1) NUX (2) NUY
(3) W (4) Z
(3) MTY (4) MTX
22. C4F, E6I, G9L, I13O, ?
25. OTT, FFS, SEN, ?
(1) K17R (2) K18R
(1) NNT (2) TEN
(3) L18R (4) K18S
(3) NMP (4) TET
23. DGI, KNP, PSU, ?

Practice Exercise - 6

Directions: Fill in the missing (1) 3X0 (2) 2X4

word/number, from the answer choices. (3) 3X4 (4) 3Y4

26. 25 : 425 :: 42 : ? 29. CEG : MOQ :: EGI : ?

(1) 442 (2) 164 (1) OQS (2) SUW
(3) 714 (4) 525 (3) OQR (4) SUZ

27. 900 : 110 :: 270 : ? 30. 111: 248 :: 333 : ?

(1) 33 (2) 44 (1) 470 (2) 744
(3) 45 (4) 30 (3) 3927 (4) 41664

28. 2L2 : 3T0 :: 2P6 : ?

Practice Exercise - 7

31. In a certain code language BAD is coded as (1) DQCW (2) ERDX
8 and CAT is coded as 60. How will DOG (3) YLXQ (4) ZMYR
be coded?
(1) 26 (2) 32 34. If WHITE is coded as 5209823, what is the
(3) 420 (4) 84 code for BLACK?
(1) 1131122 (2) 1131212
32. If EAT is coded as 7-3-22 then what is the (3) 2121311 (4) 2211311
code for MONK?
(1) 15-17-16-13 (2) 15-6-16-14 35. In a certain code, if SHOOT is written as
(3) 15-16-16-13 (4) 16-6-16-13 TGPNU, how should WATER be written?
(1) XZUDS (2) XBUFS
33. If SHIP is written as PEFM, what is the code (3) VZSDQ (4) VBSFQ
for BOAT?
 Practice Exercise - 8

Directions for questions 1 to 3: The Code (4) bing ding ping wing
word for some sentences is given in a
particular coding system. Understand the 39. If football is “cricket”, cricket is
coding system and answer the questions “basketball”, basketball is “volleyball”,
given below: volleyball is “khokho” and khokho is
“airports need security” is coded as “ming “football”, which of the following is not a
bing ding”; “security is necessary” is coded ball game?
as “ping ding king” ; “airports are (1) Foot ball (2) basket ball
important” is coded as “wing ring bing” and (3) cricket (4) khokho
“arrangements are necessary” is coded as “
ring king ning” 40. If the English alphabets are assigned
numbers in the alphabetical order like
36. What is the code for “important” “A”=1, “B”=2, …. ,“Z”=26 and “weightage”
(1) ring (2) bing of a word is defined as the sum of the
(3) wing (4) king numbers assigned to each letter in the word,
which one of the following will have
37. What does the code “king” mean? maximum weightage?
(1) Airport (2) necessary (1) HARDWORK
(3) important (4) arrangement (2) KNOWLEDGE
(3) EDUCATION
38. What is the code for “airports security is (4) ATTITUDE
important”?
(1) King bing ming ping
(2) king wing ding ping
(3) bing ding ring ning
LA 102 LOGICAL ABILITY BASICS – BLOOD RELATION

Practice Exercise - 1
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Father-in-law
1. Sumathi is the mother-in-law of Alka, who
(3) Son-in-law (4) Brother-in-law
is the sister-in-law of Pradeep. Raghav is
the father of Vaibhav, the only brother of
4. B, the son of A, was married to C, whose
Pradeep. How is Sumathi related to
sister D was married to E, the brother of B.
Pradeep?
How is D related to A?
(1) Wife (2) Aunt
(1) Cousin (2) Sister
(3) Mother-in-law (4) Mother
(3) Sister-in-law (4) Daughter-in-law
2. Pointing at Vaishnavi, Kalyan said, “The son
5. “A * B” means „A is the mother of B‟. “A +
of her only brother is the brother of my
B” means „A is the father of B‟. “A - B”
wife”. How is Vaishnavi related to Kalyan?
means „A is the sister of B‟ and “A / B”
(1) Maternal aunt
means „A is the daughter of B‟, then how is
(2) Sister of father-in-law
M related to P in the following expression
(3) Mother-in-law
“M – N + Q / R * P”?
(4) Mother‟s sister
(1) Mother (2) Aunt
(3) Sister-in-law (4) Cousin
3. If A is the father of B, B is the mother of C
and C is the daughter of D, then how is A
related to D?

Practice Exercise - 2

Directions for questions 6 – 8: (1) B (2) C

A is the father of C, but C is not his son. (3) D (4) E
E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A.
B is the brother of C. D is the son of B. 9. M is the sister of N, N is the father of P and
G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G. P is the brother of Q. How is Q related to M?
(1) Uncle (2) Nephew
6. Who is the son-in-law of H?
(3) Aunt (4) Data inadequate
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
10. Sameer told to Shyam, “Yesterday I
defeated the only brother of the daughter of
7. Who is the granddaughter of A?
my grandmother”. Whom did Sameer
(1) B (2) H
defeat?
(3) E (4) D
(1) Father (2) Father or Uncle
(3) Uncle (4) Son
8. Who is the common grandchild of both F
and H?
Practice Exercise - 3

Directions for questions 11 - 15:

A family consists of 6 members namely A, 11. Who is the mother of C?
B, C, D, E and F. B is the brother-in-law of (1) B (2) E
C‟s mother. C is the father of F. D is the (3) A (4) Cannot be determined
father of A and F is the grandson of D.
There are two female members in the family.
12. Which of the following pairs represents the 14. D has two children. One is A and who is the
female members in the family? other one?
(1) A and E (2) B and C (1) E (2) C
(3) C and D (4) Cannot be determined (3) B (4) F

13. The members of the family belong to how 15. Who is the uncle of C?
many generations? (1) B (2) A
(1) Four (2) Two (3) D (4) E
(3) Three (4) Either two or three

Practice Exercise - 4

Directions for questions 16 - 17: Read the

following letter series and answer the 18. In the above expression, how many times is
questions below: a symbol preceded by a prime number and
CDEGABCGEDACEGHABCEFCBAEG followed by a composite number?
ACBEF (1) 3 (2) 2
16. In the above series how many times are the (3) 4 (4) 12
letters ABC together?
(1) 2 (2) 3 19. In the expression above, what is the 7th
(3) 4 (4) None of these character to the left of the 23rd character
from the left?
17. 15 6 5 How (1) $ (2) 6
many times do (3) 4 (4) 8
the vowels
appear before a 20. Dinesh is in the 15th position to the right of
consonant? Rajesh whereas Suresh is in the 25th position
(1) 10 (2) 11 to the left of Dinesh. Which is Rajesh‟s
(3) 9 (4) 12 position with reference to Suresh?
(1) 11th to the right (2) 11th to the left
th
Directions for questions 18 - 19: Read the (3)10 to the right (4)12th to the left
following number series and answer the
questions below:
8#732#6127893#7475%9@#1#3#45

Practice Exercise - 5
21. How many „s can be seen in the given figure?

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 11

22. What is the next figure?

2
5
0

(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 10

23. 13 9 3

8 2 ?

20 7 13

(1) 4 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4)1

24.

65 13 85 17 55 ?

18 9 24 12 28 14

(1) 12 (2) 11
(3) 28 (4) 10

25.
4 3 4

10 28 18 10 21 11 15 x y

7 7 8

What is “y”?
(1) 12 (2) 11
(3) 17 (4) 10

26. Which frame in the answer figure is in continuation with the sequence of patterns given in the problem
figure in the following question?

Problem figure

@ & % $
%
% && @ $ $ @ & %
$ % Answer figure
& @
9 9 9 9 figure
9 Answer 9 9 9

@ & $ $
& $ @ % & % % &
% $ @ @
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27. Which frame in the answer figure is in continuation with the sequence of patterns given in the problem
figure in the following question?

Problem figure

C T T N N M M N
A
A I A I
R T K N D P W D
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer figure

P N N T T N T P
I A A I
B N P T M N R P
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)

28. Which frame in the answer figure is in continuation with the sequence of patterns given in the problem
figure in the following question ?

Problem figure
I D Y P W J
?
2 3 4 5 6 7
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer figure

H I I H C L L C

8 9 8 9 8 9 9 8
9 (1) 9 9 (2) 9 9 (3) 9 9 (4) 9
 .

L103 Direction Sense

Practice Exercise - 1

1. Supriya walks 6 km towards the north, turns leads to the central market. In which
to her left and walks 8 km. She then turns to direction is the central market located with
her left and walks 6 km. How far is she reference to the starting point?
from the starting point and in which (1) West (2) North-West
direction from the starting point? (3) South (4) South-West
(1) 6 km, North (2) 8 km, North
(3) 6 km, South (4) 8 km, West 4. One morning, John was standing in the
garden when Anand came just in front of
2. Sona started walking towards the south and him and started talking. Anand saw that his
after walking some distance, turned to her own shadow fell to his right. In which
right, walked some distance, again turned to direction was John facing?
her left, walking some more and finally (1) South-West (2) South
turned to her right and continued walking. In (3) West (4) North
which direction is Sona walking now?
(1) South (2) West 5. A person is driving towards the West. What
(3) South-West (4) North-East sequence of turns should he take so that he
ends up driving towards the South?
3. I want to proceed to the central market. I (1) left, right, right (2) right, right, left
moved northwards and after covering some (3) left, left, left (4) right, right, right
distance, turned left, moved 5 kms and
reached a crossing. The road in front of me
leads to the temple and the road to my right

Practice Exercise - 2
6. I was walking in Southeast direction. After 9. While trekking in mountainous terrain,
a while, I turned 900 to the right and walked Girish damaged his compass with the result
ahead. Later, I turned 900 to the right. In that it points towards the “North-East”
which direction am I walking now? marking when he faces the geographical
(1) East (2) North-West North. With this compass in hand, if Girish
(3) South-West (4) North treks towards the geographical south, in
which direction is he actually heading?
7. Village Q is situated to the north of Village
(1) North-East (2) South-East
P. Village R is situated to the east of Village
(3) North-West (4) South-West
Q. Village S is to the left of Village P on a
map. What is the position of Village S with 10. Mahesh starts walking towards the east and
respect to Village R? after walking 30 meters, takes a right turn
(1) South-West (2) South and walks another 30 meters. Then he takes
(3) West (4) North-West left turn and walks 30 meters. Again he
takes left turn and after walking 15 meters
8. Twenty five soldiers are standing in a row
finally turns to his left and walks 60 meters.
facing in opposite directions alternately from
How far and in which direction is Mahesh
left to right. The fourth soldier from the left
from the starting point?
is facing towards east. In which direction is
(1) 20 m North (2) 30 m West
the fifth soldier from the right facing?
(3) 30 m South (4) 15 m South
(1) West (2) East
(3) South (4) North
 Practice Exercise - 3

11. The hour hand of a watch points towards the before he stopped to admire the rising sun in
North at 6 pm. In which direction, will the front of him. He then noticed that the time
minute hand point at 6.15 pm? was 6.30 am.
(1) West (2) North
(3) East (4) South 13. In which direction Arjun was walking, when
he started from his home?
12. Mohan is facing towards the north. He turns (1) North (2) East
450 clockwise and then 2250 anticlockwise. (3) South (4) West
Finally he moves 2700 clockwise. In which
direction is he facing now? 14. How far is he from home at 6.30 am as the
(1) West (2) East crow flies?
(3) North-East (4) South-West (1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
Directions for questions 13 to 15: Arjun
started his morning walk at 5 am. After 15. What is Arjun‟s average speed?
walking 2 km, he turned to his left and (1) 3 kmph (2) 4 kmph
covered 1 more km before turning left again. (3) 5 kmph (4) 6 kmph
He walked for a further 2 km, then turned to
his right, and covered a distance of 1 km

Practice Exercise - 4

16. If „a‟ denotes „addition‟, „b‟ denotes than‟, „$‟ means „is equal to‟, „%‟ means „is
„subtraction‟, „c‟ denotes „multiplication‟, not equal to‟.
and „d‟ denotes „division‟, then which of the
18. If A@B, C#B and D$C, then
following statements is correct?
(1) C#A (2) A$C
(1) 16c12a49d7b9 = 200
(3) B#D (4) A@D
(2) 36c4d8b7a4 = 10
(3) 8c8a8d8b8 = 57
19. If AC$BD, AB@CD and AD@BC, then
(4) 32d8c9 = 160b12c12
(1) C$B (2) A is the greatest
(3) A#B (4) A#C
17. If the operation „$‟ is defined as “x$y = x2-
xy+y2”, then what is the value of (2$3) $4?
20. If „A‟ means „addition‟, „B‟ means
(1) 13 (2) 0
„subtraction‟, „C‟ means „multiplication‟ and
(3) 37 (4) 9
„D‟ means „division‟, then what is the value
of the expression - 12A8D4C5B2?
Directions for questions 18 to 19: „@‟
(1) 23 (2) 22
means „greater than‟, „#‟ means „smaller
(3) 20 (4) 25

Practice Exercise - 5

Directions for questions 21 to 25: Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

21. (1) Profession (2) Engineer

(3) Lawyer (4) Teacher 24. (1) Columbus (2) Marconi
(3) Tenzing (4) Marcopolo
22. (1) Kapilavastu (2) Kanchipuram
(3) Sarnath (4) Bodhgaya 25. (1) harmonium (2) guitar
(3) sitar (4) violin
23. (1) sphere (2) rhombus
(3) cube (4) pyramid
 .

L104 CUBES

Practice Exercise - 1

1. A cube is given 6 cuts. What is the maximum 4. If a cube is given 6 cuts, which of the
possible number of cubes that can be formed? following cannot be the number of cuboids
(1) 7 (2) 15 possible?
(3) 24 (4) 27 (1) 27 (2) 7
(3) 22 (4) 20
2. A cube is subjected to 11 cuts. What is the
maximum number of pieces possible? 5. A cube is decorated with 80 glittering marbles,
(1) 12 (2) 22 with one marble at every corner, five marbles
(3) 40 (4) 100 at each edge and ‘x’ marbles at the center of
each face. What is the value of ‘x’?
3. If a cube is given 12 cuts, what is the (1) 3 (2) 12
difference between the maximum and (3) 6 (4) 8
minimum number of cuboids possible?
(1) 13 (2) 112 6. What is the minimum number of cuts needed
(3) 125 (4) None of these to get 64 cubes from a cube?
(1) 63 (2) 9
(3) 12 (4) 24

Practice Exercise - 2

7. We need to carve out 125 identical cubes from (1) 25 (2) 49

a cube. What is the minimum number of cuts (3) 9 (4) 16
needed?
(1) 12 (2) 24 11. In a die, 3 and 4 are marked adjacent to 2, 6
(3) 36 (4) 124 and 4 are adjacent to 2, 1 and 2 are adjacent to
3. What is the number opposite to 2?
8. By giving how many cuts, can a person get (1) 6 (2) 1
100 cuboids? (3) 5 (4) 3
(1) 99 (2) 11
(3) 18 (4) More than one of the above 12. It is decided to make a cuboid of dimensions
10 cm * 12 cm * 14 cm using a cube of
9. Which of the following is the minimum dimensions 2cm * 2 cm * 2 cm. How many
number of cuts needed to get 180 pieces? cubes are needed?
(1) 16 (2) 8 (1) 120 (2) 420
(3) 32 (4) 179 (3) 210 (4) 840

10. Which of the following cannot be the number

of cuts to get 50 cuboids?
 Practice Exercise - 3

Directions for 13-16: (3) 48 (4) 50

A cube is painted on all the faces with green
colour. After painting, the cube is cut into 216 15. How many cubes have 1 face painted?
pieces. (1) 96 (2) 90
13. How many cubes have 3 faces painted? (3) 92 (4) 94
(1) 9 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 6 16. How many cubes have no face painted?
(1) 60 (2) 63
14. How many cubes have 2 faces painted? (3) 65 (4) 64
(1) 44 (2) 46

Practice Exercise - 4
Directions for 17-20: (3) 46 (4) 44
A cube is painted on all the faces with red
colour. After painting, the cube is cut into 180 19. How many pieces have the maximum number
pieces. of faces painted?
17. How many cuboids have no face painted? (1) 6 (2) 8
(1) 48 (2) 49 (3) 7 (4) 9
(3) 50 (4) 51
20. How many cuboids have 1 face painted?
18. How many cuboids have 2 faces painted? (1) 81 (2) 83
(1) 48 (2) 47 (3) 80 (4) 82

Practice Exercise - 5

Directions for 21-25: 24. How many cubes have only two colours, red
I have a cuboid of dimensions 4 cm * 3 cm * 5 and green on their two faces?
cm. In this, the opposite faces of dimensions 4 (1) 8 (2) 12
cm * 5 cm are painted in red colour. Opposite (3) 16 (4) 20
faces of dimensions 4 cm * 3 cm are painted in
blue colour and opposite faces of dimensions 5 25. How many cubes have only one colour?
cm * 3 cm are painted in green colour. Now (1) 12 (2) 16
this cuboid is cut in such a way that the cubes (3) 22 (4) 28
of dimensions 1 cm * 1 cm * 1 cm are
formed.

21. What is the total number of cubes possible?

(1) 30 (2) 60
(3) 80 (4) 24

22. How many cubes have all the three colours?

(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 14

23. How many cubes have no colour?

(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6
 .

L105 LOGICAL ABILITY BASICS – PUZZLES, ARRANGEMENT ETC

Linear Arrangement and Row

Directions for questions 1 to 4: Nine persons 2. Who is sitting in the middle of the bench in the
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are sitting on a park?
bench in a park not necessarily in the same (1) A (2) C
order. C is to the immediate right of D and is (3) D (4) G
positioned three places to the right of E. B sits
at one of the ends. F is three places to the left 3. Who among the following is at one of the ends
of B. A is to the immediate left of F. H sits other than B?
between G and F. (1) C (2) G
(3) D (4) E
1. Who among the following are the immediate
neighbours of A? 4. Who among the following is to the immediate
(1) G and E (2) D and G left of G?
(3) C and F (4) E and D (1) H (2) B
(3) D (4) F

Linear Arrangement - Column

Directions for questions 5 to 7: Six persons (2) In the last

Anwar, Basha, Charlie, Dilli, Eswar and (3) Between Anwar and Dilli
Freddy are standing in a queue to buy train (4) Between Anwar and Freddy
tickets.
7. If seven more persons joined the queue. Who
a. Dilli and Anwar have 2 persons between
is number 11 from the last?
them.
(1) Basha (2) Charlie
b. Anwar is right in front of Charlie.
(3) Dilli (4) Freddy
c. Eswar is not near Dilli.
d. Freddy is just behind Basha. Comparison
5. Who is in front? 8. Madhu is taller than Madhuri but shorter than
(1) Anwar (2) Basha Anjana, who is not as tall as Lavanya. Sudha is
(3) Charlie (4) Dilli shorter than Anjana but not as short as
Madhuri. Who among them is the shortest?
6. Where is Charlie? (1) Madhuri (2) Sudha
(1) Between Anwar and Eswar (3) Madhu (4) Insufficient data
Circular Arrangement

Directions for questions 9 and 10: 9. Who is the three places to the left of D?
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are (1) A (2) H
sitting in a circle facing towards the center. G (3) E (4) F
and D are sitting on either side of B. H is three
10. Which of the following statements is not true?
places to the left of B and two places to the
(1) D and A are sitting opposite to each other.
right of A. C is sitting between A and G. B and
(2) C is three places to the right of D.
E are not sitting opposite to each other.
 (3) Only H is sitting between F and D. (4) Only A is sitting between C and F.

Double line Up
Directions for questions 11 to 15: 11. What is Suresh’s mother tongue?
a. There are six persons – Peter, Alphonso, (1) Telugu (2) Hindi
Mary, Suresh, Tanuja and Umesh – who are (3) Tamil (4) None of these
graduates in different subjects – Science, Arts,
Agriculture, Engineering, Commerce and 12. Which of the following combination represents
Medicine. They have six different mother Name-Subject-Mother tongue?
tongues – Tamil, Telugu, English, Hindi, (1) Tanuja-Engineering-Kannada.
Kannada and Malayalam. (2) Umesh-Arts-English.
b. Alphonso is a graduate in Agriculture but (3) Suresh-Tamil-Arts
his mother tongue is neither Tamil nor (4) Tanuja-Engineering-Malayalam.
Malayalam. 13. In which subject did Mary graduate?
c. Peter is a graduate in medicine and his (1) Medicine (2) Agriculture
mother tongue is Hindi. (3) Engineering (4) None of these
d. Mary’s mother tongue is Telugu and she
graduated neither in Engineering nor in 14. What is the mother tongue of Alphonso?
Science. (1) English (2) Kannada
e. Suresh graduated in Arts and his mother (3) Tamil (4) Telugu
tongue is neither English nor Malayalam.
f. Umesh did not graduate in Engineering and 15. Who graduated in Science?
his mother tongue is English. (1) Umesh (2) Suresh
(3) Tanuja (4) None of these
Selection

Directions for questions 16 to 18: 18. Which of the following cannot be the possible
For breakfast, four fruits are to be selected combination at the breakfast table?
from seven fruits – Apple, Banana, Mango, (1) Apple, Banana, Mango, Grapes.
Guava, Orange, Musambi and Grapes – kept at (2) Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava.
the breakfast table, subject to the following (3) Apple, Banana, Guava, Orange.
conditions: (4) Banana, Mango, Guava, Musambi.
a. Orange and Musambi cannot be selected
19. I purchased 81 marbles of which one is
together.
defective. All the other marbles weigh the
b. At least 2 of Apple, Banana and Mango
same except the defective one which weighs
must be selected.
less than the rest. If a common balance is
c. Either guava or grapes must be selected.
given, what is the least number of weighings
16. In how many ways can a person select four needed to identify the defective marble?
fruits under the given conditions? (1) 7 (2) 4
(1) 20 (2) 35 (3) 6 (4) 5
(3) 25 (4) 14
20. Three crates are packed with apples alone,
17. If Apple, Banana and Mango are selected as oranges alone, and apples and oranges.
the three fruits then which of the following Unfortunately each crate is labeled wrongly. If
fruits will not find a place in the breakfast you are allowed to open only one crate to
table? correctly identify the contents of each crate,
(1) Grapes which one will you open?
(2) Orange (1) Orange
(3) Musambi (2) Apple
(4) More than one of the above (3) Orange/Apple
(4) There is no need to open any crate
 Networks
Directions for questions 21 to 24: reached from it, which city has the maximum
Thimpu is a mountainous kingdom and there connectivity with other cities?
are eight cities, namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and (1) D (2) C
H. Two-way transport is available between the (3) A (4) G
following cities: A and E, B and C, B and D, B
24. If the two-way link B-F is cut-off then what is
and F, and G and H. One way transport is
the minimum number of places to be visited
available on the following routes: A to H, B to
for a person transiting from F to D?
A, B to E, D to A, E to C, E to G, F to C, G to
(1) 1 (2) 2
A and H to D.
(3) 4 (4) 3
21. What is the minimum number of cities one has
to cross while traveling from City G to City D 25. Ashwin and Arvind teach different subjects in
(exclude these cities from the count)? a class. Ashwin teaches in the morning and
(1) 2 (2) 1 noon classes on alternate days starting from
(3) 4 (4) 5 Monday. Arvind teaches in the morning
classes on Tuesdays and Thursdays and the
22. In how many ways can a person travel from noon classes on Saturdays and Sundays. If a
City F to City H? particular month of 30 days starts on a
(1) 5 (2) 6 Wednesday, on how many days in that month
(3) 7 (4) None of the above would Ashwin and Arvind meet each other?
23. If connectivity is defined as the sum of the (1) 7 (2) 4
number of cities from which a city may be (3) 6 (4) 10
reached and the number of cities that may be

Binary Logic
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Village 27. Who is definitely from “Gudva”?
“Gudva” is a strange place where every (1) A (2) B
villager is a truth-teller, a liar or an alternator. (3) C (4) Cannot be determined
Truth-tellers always make true statements.
Liars always make false statements.
Alternators oscillate between true and false 28. How many among the three are MBA’s?
statements. Vishal met three persons, of whom (1) 0 (2) 1
only one was an alternator, on his way to (3) 2 (4) 3
Chennai. The following are the statements
29. A, B, C and D are 4 Zoos in Timbuktoo. Zoo
made by the three persons.
A has four Giraffes, Zoo B has four Tigers,
(A) I am an MBA Zoo C has four lions and Zoo D has four
I am not from Gudva elephants. Each of the zoos wants to have one
I am a liar animal of each kind. The zoos can exchange
equal number of animals among themselves.
(B) C is a liar
Each exchange is known as a transaction.
A is an MBA
What is the minimum number of transactions
I am not from Gudva
needed such that each zoo ends up with one
(C) A is not from Gudva animal of each variety?
I am an MBA (1) 3 (2) 4
B is a liar (3) 5 (4) 6

26. Who is the truth teller?

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) Cannot be determined
30. In the given 4x3 grid, four cells are filled with
numbers. In the remaining 8 cells, numbers
should be filled from the given nine numbers –
2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 10, 11, 12 and 13 adhering to the
following condition. The arithmetic average
of the numbers in rows and columns should be
the same. Which of the given nine numbers
must be left out while filling the grid?

1 15
9
14

(1) 7 (2) 10
(3) 5 (4) None of these
 .

L106 CLOCKS AND CALENDARS

Practice Exercise - 1

1. What is the angle between the hour hand and (1) 4:21 9/11 (2) 4:21
the minute hand at 12:30? (3) 4:20 (4) 4:20 9/11
(1) 180° (2) 160°
(3) 165° (4) 190° 4. What is the time shown by a clock when
minute hand is exactly at 6?
2. What is the time as it appears on he mirror (1) 6:30 (2) 12:30
image of a clock if it shows 2:45 now? (3) 3:30 (4) Cannot be determined
(1) 9:15 (2) 10:15
(3) 9:55 (4) 10:55 5. A wall clock takes 30 seconds to strike 6
’O’clock. How much seconds will it take to
3. At what time will the hour hand and the strike 9 ‘O’clock?
minute hand meet for the fourth time after (1) 45 (2) 54
12 noon? (3) 48 (4) 50
Practice Exercise - 2

6. What is the angle between the hour hand and (1) 6 am Monday
minute hand at 8:40? (2) 6 pm Sunday
(1) 200 (2) 400 (3) 1 am Monday
0
(3) 340 (4) 200 (4) 4 pm Monday

7. An accurate clock shows 9 ‘O’clock in the 9. By how many degrees does the minute hand
morning. How many degrees will the hour move by the time hour hand moves by 10∘ ?
hand have swept by the time the clock shows (1) 1000 (2) 1200
2 ‘O’clock in the afternoon? (3) 60 0
(4) 300
(1) 1000 (2) 1200
0
(3) 60 (4) 1500 10. At what time between 2 ’O’ clock and 3 ’O’
clock are the hour hand and minute hand
8. A clock was 7 minutes behind the correct exactly opposite to each other?
time at 11 am on Sunday. It gains time (1) 2:43 7/11 (2) 2:52 9/11
uniformly and was 5 minutes fast at 11 am (3) 2:40 (4) None of these
on Monday. At what time did the clock
shows the correct time?

Practice Exercise - 3

11. How many times a day does a clock buzz if nuts. If she eats ‘m’ Cadburys and ‘n’ fruits
it buzzes once at 1 ‘O’ clock, two times at 2 & nuts, what is the ratio of ‘m’ to ‘n’ ?
‘O’clock and so on? (1) 1:2 (2) 2:1
(1) 156 (2) 3744 (3) 1:1 (4) None of these
(3) 1872 (4) None of these
13. The minute hand overtakes the hour hand
12. Today, from 12 noon to midnight, whenever every 64 minutes of the correct time. How
the angle between the hour hand and minute many minutes does the clock gain/lose in
hand is 90°, Abhilasha eats Cadburys and one hour?
whenever the angle is 180° she eats fruits & (1) 1 4/11 min gain
 (2) 1 4/11 min lose 15. There are two clocks which are set to correct
(3) 1 5/11 min gain time on Monday at 1 pm. The first clock
(4) 1 5/11 min lose gains 2 ½ minutes every hour while the
second clock loses 1 ½ minutes every hour.
14. How many minutes before 10 am is it when When will they be 1 hour apart?
the time is 36 minutes past 8 am? (1) Tuesday 4 am
(1) 96 (2) 84 (2) Tuesday 3 am
(3) Monday 9 pm
(3) 144 (4) 24 (4) Monday 5 pm

Practice Exercise - 4

16. If April 7th of a year is a Sunday, which day (1) July (2) August
of the week is April 23rd of that year? (3) June (4) September
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday 19. Which year has the same calendar year as
2009?
17. If January 21st of a year is a Wednesday, (1) 2016 (2) 2018
which day of the week is March 21 st of that (3) 2015 (4) 2017
year?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday 20. If a year starts and ends on the same day of
(3) Wednesday (4) Cannot be determined the week, then
(1) It is a leap year
18. If January 1, 2012 is Sunday then which (2) It is not a leap year
month has the calendar month of January (3) Nothing can be said
that year? (4) None of the above

Practice Exercise - 5

21. What is the day of April 2, 2011? 24. August 15, 1947 falls on which day?
(1) Sunday (2) Saturday (1) Saturday (2) Friday
(3) Friday (4) Thursday (3) Thursday (4) Tuesday

22. The last day of a century cannot be --- 25. In the year 1601, March 30 is a Friday.
(1) Tue, Thu and Sat (2) Thu, Fri, Sat Which day is March 30, 2001?
(3) Mon, Wed, Thu (4) Fri, Sat, Sun (1) Saturday (2) Friday
(3) Thursday (4) Sunday
23. Jan 1, 1900 is__________
(1) Monday (2) Saturday
(3) Friday (4) Thursday
 .

L107 DEDUCTIVE REASONING

Directions for practice exercises 1, 2 and 3:

Each question consists of two statements, write the logical conclusion that follows from the given
statements.
Practice Exercise - 1

1. All A’s are B’s. Some donkeys are buffaloes.

All C’s are D’s.
4. All pens are pencils.
2. All cats are rats. All pencils are erasers.
All rats are cats.
5. Some engineers are doctors.
3. All cows are donkeys. Some doctors are researchers.

Practice Exercise - 2
6. Some A’s are not B’s. Some Indians are NRIs.
Some B’s are not C’s.
9. Not all animals are dangerous.
7. All politicians are wealthy. Some animals are man eaters.
Some politicians are not educated.
10. No pig is a horse.
8. All Indians are patriotic. No horse is a monkey.

Practice Exercise - 3

11. All trainees work in factories. Some lights are tubes.

Some trainees are apprentices.
14. All sports are famous.
12. All books are pencils. Some sports are dangerous.
Some pens are books.
15. No train is a tram.
13. Many fans are lights. Some trains are not buses.

Directions for Practice Exercises 4 and 5:

In each question, there is a premise followed by two premises labeled (I) and (II). Study the statements and
mark your answer choice as per the instructions given below
Mark your answer as:
(1) If only conclusion (I) follows.
(2) If only conclusion (II) follows.
(3) If both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
(4) If neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Practice Exercise - 4

16. Statements 17. Statements

All clocks are fans. All tables are cars.
Some fans are walls Some dusters are tables.
Conclusions Conclusions
I. Some fans are clocks. I. Some cars are not dusters.
II. Some clocks are not walls. II. Some dusters are cars.
18. Statements Conclusions
Some birds are hens. I. Some women are intelligent.
Some hens are trees. II. All who are intelligent are women.
Conclusions
I. Some birds are trees. 20. Statements
II. All hens are birds. Some teachers are adults.
Some adults are poets.
19. Statements Conclusions
All politicians are intelligent. I. Some teachers are poets.
Some women are politicians. II. Some poets are teachers.

Practice Exercise - 5

21. Statements Conclusions

No scientist is a teacher. I. All trees are grasses.
Some teachers are researchers. II. Some flowers are grasses.
Conclusions
I. Some scientists are not researchers. 24. Statements
II. Some researchers are not scientists. Some books are pens.
No pen is a pencil.
22. Statements Conclusions
All mangoes are apples. I. Some books are not pencils.
Some grapes are apples. II. Some pens are not pencils.
Conclusions
I. All apples are mangoes. 25. Statements
II. Some apples are mangoes. All radios are mobile phones.
Some mobile phones are music systems.
23. Statements Conclusions
All trees are flowers. I. No music system is a radio.
All flowers are grasses. II. Some radios are music systems.

Directions for practice exercise – 6 :

Out of the five statements, three are logically e. Some dancers are directors.
connected. From the answer choices, pick (1) a, d, b (2) d, b, e
the one in which the first 2 statements give (3) a, c, e (4) b, c, e
the third as the conclusion:
26. a. Some caps are tanks. 29. a. Some erasers are not sharpeners.
b. Some bulbs are not caps. b. All pencils are erasers.
c. All caps are bulbs. c. Some sharpeners are not erasers.
d. All tanks are caps. d. No pencil is a sharpener.
e. Some bulbs are tanks. e. All erasers are sharpeners.
(1) c, e, d (2) a, c, d (1) b, d, a (2) b, e, a
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, e (3) b, d, c (4) a, c, d

27. a. All birds are rings. 30. a. All circles are squares.
b. No wing is a bird. b. All squares are parallelograms.
c. Some rings are wings. c. All parallelograms are quadrilaterals.
d. No ring is a wing. d. Some circles are parallelograms.
e. Some birds are not rings. e. Some circles are not parallelograms.
(1) e, b, a (2) b, c, d (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, e
(3) a, d, b (4) b, d, e (3) a, b, d (4) c, d, e

28. a. Some actors are not dancers.

b. Some actors are dancers.
c. No actor is a director.
d. All actors are directors.
 .

L108 VENN DIAGRAMS

Directions for questions 1 and 2: Read the (3) 45 (4) 35

following information and answer the
questions. 5. In a college symposium, 3 events were
In a class, 10 students prefer coffee and 12 arranged namely Debating, Ad-zap and Dumb
students prefer tea. charades. The number of students who have
participated in at least one event are 35 times
1. What’s the minimum & maximum number of the number of students who have not
students in the class? participated in any of the events. Students who
(1) 10, 12 have participated in utmost 2 events are 15
(2) 10, 22 times the students who have not participated in
(3) 12, Cannot be determined any of the program. If 7 students did not
(4) 12, 12 participate in any of the events, then find how
many students participated in all the three
2. What’s the minimum & maximum number of events?
students who take both? (1) 150 (2) 149
(1) 10, 12 (2) 10, 22
(3) 140 (4) 147
(3) 10, 0 (4) 10, 2

3. In a school, the number of students who prefer 6. Manju bakes Vanilla cakes and Chocolate
coffee is twice the number of students who cakes. Chocolate cakes outnumber the Vanilla
take both coffee and tea and the number of cakes by 20 and there are 10 cakes with both
students who prefer only tea is half the number the flavours. 40 cakes of other flavours are
of students who prefer only coffee. And the also made. How many Vanilla cakes are made
students who do not take both the drinks are if they have made 200 cakes?
equal to ¼ of the number of students who take (1) 65 (2) 75
both the drinks. If there are 10 students who do (3) 85 (4) 5
not take any of the drinks then what is the total
number of students in the class? Directions for questions 7 to 9: Read the
(1) 100 (2) 110 following information and answer the
(3) 120 (4) 140 questions.

4. Aravind went to his grandparents place for In a survey of 1000 households, washing
vacation. In order to utilize the holidays in a machines, vacuum cleaners and refrigerators
useful way his grandparents arranged a cricket were counted. Each house had at least one of
coaching classes in the morning and computer these appliances. 400 had no refrigerator, 380
classes in the evening. In total, Aravind no vacuum cleaner and 542 no washing
attended cricket coaching on 25 mornings & machine. 294 had a vacuum cleaner and a
computer classes on 17 evenings, 7 days he washing machine, 277 both a refrigerator and a
attended both and 5 days he enjoyed the vacuum cleaner, 120 both a refrigerator and a
vacations in his own way. How many days he washing machine.
was on vacation?
(1) 40 (2) 42
7. How many had only vacuum cleaner? 14. What is the ratio of those who prefer only Hari
(1) 60 (2) 62 Bhumi to those who prefer either Navbharat or
(3) 65 (4) 70 Dainik Bhaskar or both?
(1) 17 : 62 (2) 17 : 80
(3) 17 : 29 (4) 17 : 49
8. How many had at least two appliances? Directions for questions 15 to 18: Read the
(1) 650 (2) 665 following information and answer the
(3) 600 (4) 652 questions.
In a class, 40% of the students gave their
9. How many people had washing machine but
names to participate in Chess and 58% to
no vacuum cleaner?
participate in Carom. Ten students participate
(1) 57 (2) 458
in neither of these two and six students wanted
(3) 164 (4) 177
to participate in both.

Directions for questions 10 and 11: Read the

15. How many students are there in the class?
following information and answer the
(1) 114 (2) 140
questions.
(3) 164 (4) 200
For a sports association meet, 240 men were
invited. Among them one half of the men 16. What percentage of students wants to
belong to players, one-third belongs to participate only in Chess?
administration and one-fourth belongs to both (1) 50% (2) 40%
the roles. (3) 37% (4) 35%

10. How many belong to neither of the roles? 17. What percentage of students wants to
(1) 50 (2) 150 participate exactly in one game?
(3) 100 (4) 80 (1) 60% (2) 58%
(3) 92% (4) 98%
11. What percentage of the players are also
administrators? 18. How many students want to participate in at
(1) 50% (2) 66.67% least one game?
(3) 100% (4) 33.33% (1) 150 (2) 170
(3) 190 (4) 200
Directions for questions 12 and 14: Read the
following information and answer the Directions for questions 19 to 22: Read the
questions. following information and answer the
questions.
In a survey of Raipur city, it was found that
40% citizens prefer Navbharat Newspaper, A survey was conducted among 700 mobile
32% prefer Dainik Bhaskar and 50% prefer users. It was found that 240 people had Nokia,
Hari Bhumi, only 5% prefer all the three, 10% 280 people had Sony and 330 people had
prefer Navbharat and Dainik Bhaskar, 18% Samsung mobiles. 60 of them had exactly two
prefer Dainik Bhaskar and Hari Bhumi and
out of three brands. Each owns at least one of
20% prefer Navbharat and Hari Bhumi.
the three brands.
12. How many citizens prefer only Navbharat?
(1) 15% (2) 13% 19. How many people had all the three brands?
(3) 8% (4) 12% (1) 50 (2) 40
(3) 45 (4) 60
13. Find the ratio of those who prefer only Dainik
Bhaskar to those who prefer only Hari Bhumi?
20. If 22 owners had only Sony and Samsung with
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 8 : 17 (4) 9 : 17 them then how many people have only Nokia?
(1) 157 (2) 170
(3) 165 (4) 195
 only Yuvan. The number of people who like
21. If 195 people had only Sony mobiles then how any one combination of three music directors
many have only Samsung and Nokia? is same as those who like any other
combination of three music directors. Also the
(1) 20 (2) 30
number of people who like any one
(3) 40 (4) 45 combination of two music directors is same as
those who like any other combination of two
22. How many owners have only one brand of music directors.
mobile?
(1) 700 (2) 655 23. How many people like Yuvan and Harris only?
(3) 595 (4) 675 (1) 15 (2) 10
(3) 18 (4) 20
Directions for questions 23 to 25: Read the
following information and answer the 24. How many people like Rahman and Illayaraja?
questions. (1) 90 (2) 100
(3) 80 (4) 60
A survey was conducted among 252 music
lovers. Each person likes at least one among
25. How many people like only Rahman or only
Yuvan, Rahman, Illayaraja and Harris.
Harris?
Among them 145 people like Yuvan, 150
(1) 20 (2) 12
people like Rahman, 155 people like Illayaraja
and 142 people like Harris, 40 people like all (3) 32 (4) 40
the four music directors and 15 people like
Q101 NUMBERS AND NUMBER SYSTEM

Practice Exercise – 1

1. If ‘23576x’ is divisible by 36, then x = (3) 11111 (4) 11689

__________
(1) 8 (2) 5 4. How many numbers between 110 and 900
(3) 4 (4) None of these are divisible by 7?
(1) 113 (2) 115
2. If ‘8x3405’ is divisible by 11, then x = (3) 112 (4) 120
__________
(1) 1 (2) 2 5. What is the minimum number to be added to
(3) 3 (4) 4 235711 in order to make the number
divisible by 6?
3. The positive square root of 123454321 is…. (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1111 (2) 1231 (3) 3 (4) 5

Practice Exercise - 2
6. A student was asked to add the first few
natural numbers and after addition, the 8. I have three measuring tapes of lengths 15
student gave the answer as 600. The teacher cm, 20 cm and 25 cm. What is the minimum
told the student that the answer is wrong and length of cable of integral length that I can
that he has missed out one number. Can you measure using any of the three tapes?
help the student to find the number missed (1) 180 (2) 300
out? (3) 200 (4) 150
(1) 30 (2) 35
(3) 25 (4) 20 9. Given the fractions 3/7, 2/5 and 4/9, how
many times the H.C.F of these fractions is
7. A rice merchant has 14 kg of Ponni rice, 42 their L.C.M?
kg of Sambha rice and 70 kg of Kuruvai (1) 3780 (2) 3600
rice. He wants to pack the rice in bags such (3) 3545 (4) 3549
that each bag contains the same quantity of
rice and there is no mixing of rice of 10. How many pairs of numbers exist such that
different varieties. What is the least number their LCM is 240 and their HCF is 16?
of bags required? (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 5 (2) 20 (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 9 (4) 14
Practice Exercise - 3
11. Find the units digit of 25 x 35 x 45 x 55 (1) 8 (2) 4
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 1
(3) 8 (4) 0
14. A number when divided by 221 gives a
12. Find the units digit of 2323 + 3416 + 4578 + 5642 remainder 43. What will the remainder
(1) 1 (2) 4 obtained when the same number is divided
(3) 8 (4) 0 by 17?
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 23 (4) 6

15. How many zeros are there at the end of

125!?
13. If ‘a’ is a single digit natural number, for (1) 30 (2) 31
how many values of ‘a’ will a(a4k - 1) have (3) 29 (4) 34
‘0’ as the unit digit?
 Practice Exercise - 4
16. What is the remainder of the division of 248
by 7? 19. If AB + CD = AAA and A, B, C, D are
(1) 1 (2) 6 distinct natural numbers, how many pairs of
(3) 5 (4) 4 numbers (AB, CD) exist?
(1) 6 (2) 7
17. What is the remainder of the division of (1! (3) 8 (4) 9
+ 2! + 3! + …. + 10!) by 5?
(1) 0 (2) 3 20. A+B+C+D=D+E+F+G=G+H+I
(3) 2 (4) 1 = 17. If A to I are 1 to 9 in any order and A
= 4, find D + G.
18. Find the remainder when (43101 + 23101) is (1) 5 (2) 6
divided by 33. (3) 7 (4) 8
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 0

Practice Exercise - 5
21. Find the sum of all odd numbers up to 100. 24. A number upon successive division by 3, 5
(1) 99 x 50 (2) 2050 and 8 leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7
(3) 2501 (4) 2500 respectively. Find the respective remainders
if the order of division is reversed?
22. How many numbers less than 100 will have (1) 6, 1, 1 (2) 6, 4, 2
exactly 10 factors? (3) 6, 4, 3 (4) 6, 3, 4
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 25. Find the number of rectangles of area 144
square units that can be drawn if the sides
23. The sum of the squares of three numbers is may take only distinct integer values.
138, whereas the sum of their products taken (1) 8 (2) 7
two at a time is 131. Their sum is…. (3) 6 (4) 5
(1) 23 (2) 20
(3) 57 (4) 59

Practice Exercise - 6
26. What is the decimal equivalent of (ABC)15?
(1) 2427 (2) 2748
(3) 1122 (4) 2537

27. What is (111100)2 – (11001)2?

(1) (110011) 2 (2) (111011) 2
(3) (100011)2 (4) (101010)2

28. What is the remainder (in decimal notation)

when (475)8 is divided by (34)5?
(1) 13 (2) 11
(3) 15 (4) 16

29. What is the sum of (111)2 + (222)3 + (333)4 +

(444)5 in decimal notation?
(1) 225 (2) 220
(3) 235 (4) 240

30. If (145)x = (122)7, then x = ?

(1) 7 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) None of these
Q101 NUMBERS AND NUMBER SYSTEM

Practice Exercise – 1

1. If ‘23576x’ is divisible by 36, then x = (3) 11111 (4) 11689

__________
(1) 8 (2) 5 4. How many numbers between 110 and 900
(3) 4 (4) None of these are divisible by 7?
(1) 113 (2) 115
2. If ‘8x3405’ is divisible by 11, then x = (3) 112 (4) 120
__________
(1) 1 (2) 2 5. What is the minimum number to be added to
(3) 3 (4) 4 235711 in order to make the number
divisible by 6?
3. The positive square root of 123454321 is…. (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1111 (2) 1231 (3) 3 (4) 5

Practice Exercise - 2
6. A student was asked to add the first few
natural numbers and after addition, the 8. I have three measuring tapes of lengths 15
student gave the answer as 600. The teacher cm, 20 cm and 25 cm. What is the minimum
told the student that the answer is wrong and length of cable of integral length that I can
that he has missed out one number. Can you measure using any of the three tapes?
help the student to find the number missed (1) 180 (2) 300
out? (3) 200 (4) 150
(1) 30 (2) 35
(3) 25 (4) 20 9. Given the fractions 3/7, 2/5 and 4/9, how
many times the H.C.F of these fractions is
7. A rice merchant has 14 kg of Ponni rice, 42 their L.C.M?
kg of Sambha rice and 70 kg of Kuruvai (1) 3780 (2) 3600
rice. He wants to pack the rice in bags such (3) 3545 (4) 3549
that each bag contains the same quantity of
rice and there is no mixing of rice of 10. How many pairs of numbers exist such that
different varieties. What is the least number their LCM is 240 and their HCF is 16?
of bags required? (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 5 (2) 20 (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 9 (4) 14
Practice Exercise - 3
11. Find the units digit of 25 x 35 x 45 x 55 (1) 8 (2) 4
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 1
(3) 8 (4) 0
14. A number when divided by 221 gives a
12. Find the units digit of 2323 + 3416 + 4578 + 5642 remainder 43. What will the remainder
(1) 1 (2) 4 obtained when the same number is divided
(3) 8 (4) 0 by 17?
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 23 (4) 6

15. How many zeros are there at the end of

125!?
13. If ‘a’ is a single digit natural number, for (1) 30 (2) 31
how many values of ‘a’ will a(a4k - 1) have (3) 29 (4) 34
‘0’ as the unit digit?
 Practice Exercise - 4
16. What is the remainder of the division of 248
by 7? 19. If AB + CD = AAA and A, B, C, D are
(1) 1 (2) 6 distinct natural numbers, how many pairs of
(3) 5 (4) 4 numbers (AB, CD) exist?
(1) 6 (2) 7
17. What is the remainder of the division of (1! (3) 8 (4) 9
+ 2! + 3! + …. + 10!) by 5?
(1) 0 (2) 3 20. A+B+C+D=D+E+F+G=G+H+I
(3) 2 (4) 1 = 17. If A to I are 1 to 9 in any order and A
= 4, find D + G.
18. Find the remainder when (43101 + 23101) is (1) 5 (2) 6
divided by 33. (3) 7 (4) 8
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 0

Practice Exercise - 5
21. Find the sum of all odd numbers up to 100. 24. A number upon successive division by 3, 5
(1) 99 x 50 (2) 2050 and 8 leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7
(3) 2501 (4) 2500 respectively. Find the respective remainders
if the order of division is reversed?
22. How many numbers less than 100 will have (1) 6, 1, 1 (2) 6, 4, 2
exactly 10 factors? (3) 6, 4, 3 (4) 6, 3, 4
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 25. Find the number of rectangles of area 144
square units that can be drawn if the sides
23. The sum of the squares of three numbers is may take only distinct integer values.
138, whereas the sum of their products taken (1) 8 (2) 7
two at a time is 131. Their sum is…. (3) 6 (4) 5
(1) 23 (2) 20
(3) 57 (4) 59

Practice Exercise - 6
26. What is the decimal equivalent of (ABC)15?
(1) 2427 (2) 2748
(3) 1122 (4) 2537

27. What is (111100)2 – (11001)2?

(1) (110011) 2 (2) (111011) 2
(3) (100011)2 (4) (101010)2

28. What is the remainder (in decimal notation)

when (475)8 is divided by (34)5?
(1) 13 (2) 11
(3) 15 (4) 16

29. What is the sum of (111)2 + (222)3 + (333)4 +

(444)5 in decimal notation?
(1) 225 (2) 220
(3) 235 (4) 240

30. If (145)x = (122)7, then x = ?

(1) 7 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) None of these
 .

Q102 LINEAR EQUATIONS

Practice Exercise - 1

1. Cost of 5 chocolates and 7 kitkats is ` 40 (3) 35 (4) 80

Cost of 8 kitkats and 10 chocolates is ` 50
Find the cost of 1 chocolate and 1 kitkat. 4. The difference between a three-digit number
(1) ` 10 (2) ` 7 and the number formed by reversing its
(3) ` 6 (4) ` 5 digits is always divisible by
(1) 11 (2) 9
2. Cost of 4 hats and 6 bats is ` 500/- (3) 99 (4) All the above
Cost of 6 hats and 9 bats is ` 1,000/-
Find the cost of one hat. 5. Ramu wants to purchase two books Hadley
(1) ` 100 (2) ` 200 Chase and Agatha Christie from a pavement
shop. The total cost of the two books is `
(3) ` 300 (4) Cannot be determined
178. Ramu has ` 22 less than the cost of
Hadley Chase but ` 28 more than the cost of
3. Sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 8. the Agatha Christie. How much money does
The number formed by reversing the digits Ramu have?
of the original number is 18 more than the (1) ` 92 (2) ` 74
number. Find the number? (3) ` 88 (4) ` 68
(1) 44 (2) 26

Practice Exercise - 2
6. The sum of the ages of a husband and wife (3) (16,12) (4) (20,8)
is 45 yrs, while the difference between their
ages is 5 yrs. Find the present age of 9. Vijay said to his wife Sangeetha, when I was
husband and wife respectively. 1 rd
/3 of your age, you were ¼th of my age. If
(1) (25, 20) (2) (20, 15) their combined age is 62, what is the
(3) (23, 12) (4) (12, 33)
difference between their ages?
(1) 1 (2) 2
7. The age of Suresh is twice the present age of
Ramesh. Four years hence Suresh‟s age will (3) 3 (4) 4
be 4 times Ramesh‟s age 7 yrs ago. Find the
present age of Ramesh. 10. The present age of Visakh, father of Nisha is
(1) 16 (2) 14 3 years more than three times the age of his
(3) 18 (4) 20 daughter. Three years hence, Visakh‟s age
will be 10 years more than twice the age of
8. Five years ago, Mike was twice as old as Nisha. Find the present age of Visakh.
Berto was. Six years hence, the sum of their (1) 28 (2) 33
ages will be forty years. What are their (3) 68 (4) 21
present ages?
(1) (12,16) (2) (17,11)

Practice Exercise - 3
11. In a three-digit number the digit in the incremented, find the sum of all faces of the
hundred‟s place is twice the units digit and die?
sum of the digits of the number is 11. How (1) 72 (2) 60
many three-digit numbers satisfy this (3) 75 (4) 74
condition?
(1) 1 (2) 2 13. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, eating 6
(3) 4 (4) 3 more each day than he did the previous day,
12. In a normal die numbers from 1 to 6 are how many bananas did he eat on the first
marked. If one is replaced with 10 and all day?
other consecutive numbers are accordingly (1) 10 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 8
 15. A person can prepare five ‟Level 1‟
14. The sum of three numbers is 38. The sum of questions in one hour. If the preparation
first number, 6 times the second number and time for each ‟Level 2‟ question is eight
4 times the third number is 180. If all the minutes more than for a ‟Level 1‟ question,
numbers are prime numbers then what is the then how many „Level 2‟ questions can be
second number? prepared in an hour ?
(1) 7 (2) 19 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 17 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

Practice Exercise - 4
16. A railway half ticket costs half the full-fare butterfly has no place. What is the number
but the reservation charge is unchanged. For of butterflies & flowers?
a journey between two stations, one reserved (1) 9 Butterflies, 3 flowers
first class ticket costs ` 362 whereas one (2) 9 Butterflies, 4 flowers
full-fare and one half-fare reserved first class (3) 5 Butterflies, 3 Flowers
ticket together cost ` 554. What is the (4) 9 Butterflies, 5 Flowers
reservation charge?
(1) 42 (2) 32 19. There is a bridge across a river that is 2900
(3) 22 (4) 192 m wide. One-sixth of the total length of the
bridge is on one side of the river whereas
17. A rectangle becomes a square when its one-seventh is on the other side. What is the
length and breadth are reduced by 10 units total length of the bridge?
and 5 units respectively. By this process the (1) 4200 m (2) 3900 m
area of the rectangle reduces by 650 square (3) 2900 m (4) 3200 m
units. What is the area of the rectangle?
(1) 2150 (2) 2250 20. The owner of a pizza stand sold small slices
(3) 2300 (4) 2200 of pizza for ` 150 each and large slices for `
250 each. One night he sold 5000 slices for
18. There are some flowers in a pond. If three ` 10.5 lakhs, how many small slices were
butterflies sit on a flower, then one flower is sold?
vacant. If 2 butterflies sit on a flower, a (1) 3000 (2) 2000
(3) 15000 (4) None of these

Practice Exercise - 5
21. Umesh travels 600 km to his home partly by of the bees went to rose pots and one-third to
train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours if lily pots. Three times the difference of these
he travels 120 km by train and the rest by two went to the jasmine flowerpots. Three
car. He takes 20 minutes longer if he travels bees were flying around Jolly‟s head. She
200 km by train and the rest by car. Find the then posed a question to her friend Rathy -
speed of the train and the car. “How many bees are there in all?” Can you
(1) (60, 80) (2) (40, 60) help Rathy find the answer?
(3) (80,100) (4) (100,80) (1) 21 (2) 18
(3) 15 (4) 45
22. Split the number 61 into two parts such that
quarter of the first part increased by a sixth
of the other part gives 12. What is the first
part?
(1) 20 (2) 28
(3) 26 (4) 22

23. A person has five children with the middle

one being a girl. When asked what was her
age, she replied that they were all spaced
two years apart and that the youngest boy
was half as old as the oldest. How old is the
girl?
(1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 16
24. Three dozen lemons cost as many rupees as
one would have lemons for ` 16/-. How
much do a dozen lemons cost?
(1) 12 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 6

25. Jolly maintained a beautiful garden in front

of her home. In the garden, Jolly had rose,
lily, and jasmine flowerpots. One day she
saw bees flying around the garden. One-fifth
 .

Q102 LINEAR EQUATIONS

Practice Exercise - 1

1. Cost of 5 chocolates and 7 kitkats is ` 40 (3) 35 (4) 80

Cost of 8 kitkats and 10 chocolates is ` 50
Find the cost of 1 chocolate and 1 kitkat. 4. The difference between a three-digit number
(1) ` 10 (2) ` 7 and the number formed by reversing its
(3) ` 6 (4) ` 5 digits is always divisible by
(1) 11 (2) 9
2. Cost of 4 hats and 6 bats is ` 500/- (3) 99 (4) All the above
Cost of 6 hats and 9 bats is ` 1,000/-
Find the cost of one hat. 5. Ramu wants to purchase two books Hadley
(1) ` 100 (2) ` 200 Chase and Agatha Christie from a pavement
shop. The total cost of the two books is `
(3) ` 300 (4) Cannot be determined
178. Ramu has ` 22 less than the cost of
Hadley Chase but ` 28 more than the cost of
3. Sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 8. the Agatha Christie. How much money does
The number formed by reversing the digits Ramu have?
of the original number is 18 more than the (1) ` 92 (2) ` 74
number. Find the number? (3) ` 88 (4) ` 68
(1) 44 (2) 26

Practice Exercise - 2
6. The sum of the ages of a husband and wife (3) (16,12) (4) (20,8)
is 45 yrs, while the difference between their
ages is 5 yrs. Find the present age of 9. Vijay said to his wife Sangeetha, when I was
husband and wife respectively. 1 rd
/3 of your age, you were ¼th of my age. If
(1) (25, 20) (2) (20, 15) their combined age is 62, what is the
(3) (23, 12) (4) (12, 33)
difference between their ages?
(1) 1 (2) 2
7. The age of Suresh is twice the present age of
Ramesh. Four years hence Suresh‟s age will (3) 3 (4) 4
be 4 times Ramesh‟s age 7 yrs ago. Find the
present age of Ramesh. 10. The present age of Visakh, father of Nisha is
(1) 16 (2) 14 3 years more than three times the age of his
(3) 18 (4) 20 daughter. Three years hence, Visakh‟s age
will be 10 years more than twice the age of
8. Five years ago, Mike was twice as old as Nisha. Find the present age of Visakh.
Berto was. Six years hence, the sum of their (1) 28 (2) 33
ages will be forty years. What are their (3) 68 (4) 21
present ages?
(1) (12,16) (2) (17,11)

Practice Exercise - 3
11. In a three-digit number the digit in the incremented, find the sum of all faces of the
hundred‟s place is twice the units digit and die?
sum of the digits of the number is 11. How (1) 72 (2) 60
many three-digit numbers satisfy this (3) 75 (4) 74
condition?
(1) 1 (2) 2 13. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, eating 6
(3) 4 (4) 3 more each day than he did the previous day,
12. In a normal die numbers from 1 to 6 are how many bananas did he eat on the first
marked. If one is replaced with 10 and all day?
other consecutive numbers are accordingly (1) 10 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 8
 15. A person can prepare five ‟Level 1‟
14. The sum of three numbers is 38. The sum of questions in one hour. If the preparation
first number, 6 times the second number and time for each ‟Level 2‟ question is eight
4 times the third number is 180. If all the minutes more than for a ‟Level 1‟ question,
numbers are prime numbers then what is the then how many „Level 2‟ questions can be
second number? prepared in an hour ?
(1) 7 (2) 19 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 17 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

Practice Exercise - 4
16. A railway half ticket costs half the full-fare butterfly has no place. What is the number
but the reservation charge is unchanged. For of butterflies & flowers?
a journey between two stations, one reserved (1) 9 Butterflies, 3 flowers
first class ticket costs ` 362 whereas one (2) 9 Butterflies, 4 flowers
full-fare and one half-fare reserved first class (3) 5 Butterflies, 3 Flowers
ticket together cost ` 554. What is the (4) 9 Butterflies, 5 Flowers
reservation charge?
(1) 42 (2) 32 19. There is a bridge across a river that is 2900
(3) 22 (4) 192 m wide. One-sixth of the total length of the
bridge is on one side of the river whereas
17. A rectangle becomes a square when its one-seventh is on the other side. What is the
length and breadth are reduced by 10 units total length of the bridge?
and 5 units respectively. By this process the (1) 4200 m (2) 3900 m
area of the rectangle reduces by 650 square (3) 2900 m (4) 3200 m
units. What is the area of the rectangle?
(1) 2150 (2) 2250 20. The owner of a pizza stand sold small slices
(3) 2300 (4) 2200 of pizza for ` 150 each and large slices for `
250 each. One night he sold 5000 slices for
18. There are some flowers in a pond. If three ` 10.5 lakhs, how many small slices were
butterflies sit on a flower, then one flower is sold?
vacant. If 2 butterflies sit on a flower, a (1) 3000 (2) 2000
(3) 15000 (4) None of these

Practice Exercise - 5
21. Umesh travels 600 km to his home partly by of the bees went to rose pots and one-third to
train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours if lily pots. Three times the difference of these
he travels 120 km by train and the rest by two went to the jasmine flowerpots. Three
car. He takes 20 minutes longer if he travels bees were flying around Jolly‟s head. She
200 km by train and the rest by car. Find the then posed a question to her friend Rathy -
speed of the train and the car. “How many bees are there in all?” Can you
(1) (60, 80) (2) (40, 60) help Rathy find the answer?
(3) (80,100) (4) (100,80) (1) 21 (2) 18
(3) 15 (4) 45
22. Split the number 61 into two parts such that
quarter of the first part increased by a sixth
of the other part gives 12. What is the first
part?
(1) 20 (2) 28
(3) 26 (4) 22

23. A person has five children with the middle

one being a girl. When asked what was her
age, she replied that they were all spaced
two years apart and that the youngest boy
was half as old as the oldest. How old is the
girl?
(1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 16
24. Three dozen lemons cost as many rupees as
one would have lemons for ` 16/-. How
much do a dozen lemons cost?
(1) 12 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 6

25. Jolly maintained a beautiful garden in front

of her home. In the garden, Jolly had rose,
lily, and jasmine flowerpots. One day she
saw bees flying around the garden. One-fifth
 .

Q103 RATIO, PROPORTION, VARIATION

Practice Exercise - 1
capacity is then poured into the jar with the
1. If a  c  e  2 then find the value of
b d f 3 greater capacity, what fraction of the larger
jar will be filled with water?
2a 2  3c 2  4e2 (1) 7 : 12 (2) 3 : 4
2b 2  3d 2  4 f 2 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
(1) 3: 5 (2) 2: 3
(3) 4: 9 (4) 4: 5 4. If a/b = 2/3, what is the value of (2a +
3b)/(6b + 4a)
2. Sachin’s total score in Maths and English is (1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2
150. If one third of the score in Maths is (3) 2: 3 (4) 4: 5
equal to half of the score in English, find his
score in Maths. 5. If the numerator is increased by as much as
(1) 40 (2) 60 the denominator and the numerator is
(3) 53 (4) 90 subtracted from the denominator, the
fraction becomes 8/5. Find the original
3. Equal amounts of water were poured into fraction.
two empty jars of different capacities, which (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
made one jar 1/4th full and the other jar (3) 3 : 13 (4) 4 : 5
1/3rd full. If the water in the jar with lesser

Practice Exercise - 2
6. A, B, C have ` 1,300 in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : (1) ` 18,000 (2) ` 30,000
1/4. Find the amount with A? (3) `12,000 (4) `23,000
(1) 650 (2) 300
(3) 400 (4) 600 9. The number of chocolates with A and B are
in the ratio 3:5. If A gets 8 chocolates from
7. A father had ` 83,000. He divided the share his mother, the ratio becomes 4:5. Find the
among his three sons, such that four times number of chocolates that A & B had
the share of the first son, five times the share initially.
of the second son and seven times the share (1) 24, 40 (2) 32, 40
of the third son are equal. Find the amount (3) 20, 40 (4) None
with the first son.
(1) `40,000 (2) `35,000 10. The ratio of ages of two brothers is 3:4.
(3) `50,000 (4) Can’t be determined After ten years, what will the ratio of their
ages be?
8. Three students A, B, C have money in the (1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2
ratio 3:4:5. If B has ` 24,000, find the (3) 2: 3 (4) 4: 5
amount with C.

Practice Exercise - 3
11. A’s efficiency is 60% of B’s. If B alone can 12. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 20 m and B
complete a job in 30 days, find the number beats C by 20 m. By what distance does A
of days A will take to do the same job. beat C?
(1) 50 (2) 60 (1) 40 m (2) 36 m
(3) 7 (4) 8 (3) 20 m (4) 30 m
13. By the time A takes 3 steps, B takes 2 steps. (1) 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2
If the stride length of A is twice that of B, (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
what is the ratio of the speeds of A and B?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 4 15. Five apples and 4 mangoes cost as much as
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 7 3 apples and 7 mangoes. The ratio of the
cost of one apple to that of one mango is
14. I purchased two dozen mangoes and noticed (1) 5 : 2 (2) 3 : 8
that some of the mangoes were rotten. (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3:2
Which of the following cannot be the ratio
of good mangoes to rotten mangoes.
Practice Exercise - 4
16. The ages of 3 brothers are in continued 26,000, what was the price of the original
proportion. If the second brother’s age is 12 stone?
and the ages of the other two differ by 7, (1) ` 81,000 (2) ` 40,500
what is the age of the oldest brother? (3) ` 29,000 (4) ` 52,000
(1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 24 19. A rope of length 40 m is divided into parts
in the ratio 5:3. The bigger piece is further
17. Y varies directly with Z when X is constant divided in the ratio 4:1. Find the ratio of the
and inversely with the square of X when Z is length of the smallest part to that of the
constant. When Z = 36 and X = 3, Y = 20. original rope.
Find the value of Y when Z = 20 and X = 2 (1) 5:3:4 (2)1:8
(1) 30 (2) 25 (3) 1:9 (4) 3:7
(3) 14 (4) 50
20. The ratio of milk and water in 70 litres of a
18. The value of a precious stone varies directly solution is 5:2. How much water should be
as square of its weight. One such stone is added to the solution to reverse the ratio?
broken into pieces with weights in the ratio (1) 140 (2)105
of 2:3:4. If the loss due to breakage is ` (3) 175 (4) 270

Practice Exercise - 5

21. A bag has ` 216 in the form of one rupee, 50 food lasted 15 days. Find the number of men
paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio of 2:3:4. who joined later.
The number of 50 paise coins is (1) 10 (2) 15
(1) 96 (2) 144 (3) 20 (4) 30
(3) 114 (4) 141
24. If 4 times A, 5 times B and 7 times C are all
22. The bus fare (in rupees) between any two equal, then what is the ratio of (A-B) and
villages in a mountainous region is 5 times (B-C)?
the square of the distance between them. (1) 7:8 (2) 1:2
Village B is 8 Km from village A if one (3) 7:4 (4) 8:7
takes a direct route. One can also reach
village B from A through villages C and D, 25. The ratio of gold and copper in an alloy is 3:
where the distance AC is 3 Km, CD is 3Km 2. In another alloy, gold and copper are in
and DB is 4 Km. Which route is costlier and the ratio 5:4. If equal quantities of the two
by how much? alloys are mixed, what is the ratio of gold
(1) AB, 150 (2) ACDB, 170 and copper in the new alloy?
(3) AB, 320 (4) ACDB, 150 (1) 26:23 (2) 26:19
(3) 25:27 (4) None of these
23. A garrison of 60 men has food for 28 days.
Some people join them after 8 days and the
 .

Q103 RATIO, PROPORTION, VARIATION

Practice Exercise - 1
capacity is then poured into the jar with the
1. If a  c  e  2 then find the value of
b d f 3 greater capacity, what fraction of the larger
jar will be filled with water?
2a 2  3c 2  4e2 (1) 7 : 12 (2) 3 : 4
2b 2  3d 2  4 f 2 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
(1) 3: 5 (2) 2: 3
(3) 4: 9 (4) 4: 5 4. If a/b = 2/3, what is the value of (2a +
3b)/(6b + 4a)
2. Sachin’s total score in Maths and English is (1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2
150. If one third of the score in Maths is (3) 2: 3 (4) 4: 5
equal to half of the score in English, find his
score in Maths. 5. If the numerator is increased by as much as
(1) 40 (2) 60 the denominator and the numerator is
(3) 53 (4) 90 subtracted from the denominator, the
fraction becomes 8/5. Find the original
3. Equal amounts of water were poured into fraction.
two empty jars of different capacities, which (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
made one jar 1/4th full and the other jar (3) 3 : 13 (4) 4 : 5
1/3rd full. If the water in the jar with lesser

Practice Exercise - 2
6. A, B, C have ` 1,300 in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : (1) ` 18,000 (2) ` 30,000
1/4. Find the amount with A? (3) `12,000 (4) `23,000
(1) 650 (2) 300
(3) 400 (4) 600 9. The number of chocolates with A and B are
in the ratio 3:5. If A gets 8 chocolates from
7. A father had ` 83,000. He divided the share his mother, the ratio becomes 4:5. Find the
among his three sons, such that four times number of chocolates that A & B had
the share of the first son, five times the share initially.
of the second son and seven times the share (1) 24, 40 (2) 32, 40
of the third son are equal. Find the amount (3) 20, 40 (4) None
with the first son.
(1) `40,000 (2) `35,000 10. The ratio of ages of two brothers is 3:4.
(3) `50,000 (4) Can’t be determined After ten years, what will the ratio of their
ages be?
8. Three students A, B, C have money in the (1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2
ratio 3:4:5. If B has ` 24,000, find the (3) 2: 3 (4) 4: 5
amount with C.

Practice Exercise - 3
11. A’s efficiency is 60% of B’s. If B alone can 12. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 20 m and B
complete a job in 30 days, find the number beats C by 20 m. By what distance does A
of days A will take to do the same job. beat C?
(1) 50 (2) 60 (1) 40 m (2) 36 m
(3) 7 (4) 8 (3) 20 m (4) 30 m
13. By the time A takes 3 steps, B takes 2 steps. (1) 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2
If the stride length of A is twice that of B, (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
what is the ratio of the speeds of A and B?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 4 15. Five apples and 4 mangoes cost as much as
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 7 3 apples and 7 mangoes. The ratio of the
cost of one apple to that of one mango is
14. I purchased two dozen mangoes and noticed (1) 5 : 2 (2) 3 : 8
that some of the mangoes were rotten. (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3:2
Which of the following cannot be the ratio
of good mangoes to rotten mangoes.
Practice Exercise - 4
16. The ages of 3 brothers are in continued 26,000, what was the price of the original
proportion. If the second brother’s age is 12 stone?
and the ages of the other two differ by 7, (1) ` 81,000 (2) ` 40,500
what is the age of the oldest brother? (3) ` 29,000 (4) ` 52,000
(1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 24 19. A rope of length 40 m is divided into parts
in the ratio 5:3. The bigger piece is further
17. Y varies directly with Z when X is constant divided in the ratio 4:1. Find the ratio of the
and inversely with the square of X when Z is length of the smallest part to that of the
constant. When Z = 36 and X = 3, Y = 20. original rope.
Find the value of Y when Z = 20 and X = 2 (1) 5:3:4 (2)1:8
(1) 30 (2) 25 (3) 1:9 (4) 3:7
(3) 14 (4) 50
20. The ratio of milk and water in 70 litres of a
18. The value of a precious stone varies directly solution is 5:2. How much water should be
as square of its weight. One such stone is added to the solution to reverse the ratio?
broken into pieces with weights in the ratio (1) 140 (2)105
of 2:3:4. If the loss due to breakage is ` (3) 175 (4) 270

Practice Exercise - 5

21. A bag has ` 216 in the form of one rupee, 50 food lasted 15 days. Find the number of men
paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio of 2:3:4. who joined later.
The number of 50 paise coins is (1) 10 (2) 15
(1) 96 (2) 144 (3) 20 (4) 30
(3) 114 (4) 141
24. If 4 times A, 5 times B and 7 times C are all
22. The bus fare (in rupees) between any two equal, then what is the ratio of (A-B) and
villages in a mountainous region is 5 times (B-C)?
the square of the distance between them. (1) 7:8 (2) 1:2
Village B is 8 Km from village A if one (3) 7:4 (4) 8:7
takes a direct route. One can also reach
village B from A through villages C and D, 25. The ratio of gold and copper in an alloy is 3:
where the distance AC is 3 Km, CD is 3Km 2. In another alloy, gold and copper are in
and DB is 4 Km. Which route is costlier and the ratio 5:4. If equal quantities of the two
by how much? alloys are mixed, what is the ratio of gold
(1) AB, 150 (2) ACDB, 170 and copper in the new alloy?
(3) AB, 320 (4) ACDB, 150 (1) 26:23 (2) 26:19
(3) 25:27 (4) None of these
23. A garrison of 60 men has food for 28 days.
Some people join them after 8 days and the
 .

Q104 PERCENTAGE, PROFIT & LOSS, PATNERSHIP

Practice Exercise - 1
1. The price of petrol has increased by 25%. what percentage is Ram’s salary less than
By what percentage should it now be Lakshman’s salary?
reduced to return to the original price? (1) 30%, 23% (2) 20%, 40%
(1) 25% (2) 20%
(3) 96%, 25% (4) 75%, 75%
(3) 15% (4) 10%

2. Price of cooking gas has increased by 4. In a class, the number of boys is more
10%. By what percentage should than the number of girls by 12% of the
consumption be reduced to keep total strength. What is the ratio of the
expenditure unchanged? numbers of boys and girls?
(1) 9.09% (2) 10% (1) 56 : 44 (2) 14 : 11
(3) 11.11% (4) 110% (3) 28 : 25 (4) 112 : 101

3. Ram’s salary is ` 25,000 while 5. A’s age is 100% more than B’s age. After
Lakshman’s salary is ` 32,500. By what 20 years, A’s age will be 50% more than
percentage is Lakshman’s salary more B’s age. Find the present age of A and B.
than Ram’s salary and by approximately (1) 80, 40 (2) 60, 30
(3) 60, 20 (4) 40, 20

Practice Exercise - 2

6. A buys a shirt for ` 100 and sells it to B (3) 75% (4) 33.33%
for ` 120. B now sells it to C for ` 144.
Had A sold it directly to C at the price C 9. A gets 20% of total marks and fails by 35
paid for it, then his profit % would have
marks while B gets 42% of the total marks
been ____________
(1) 10% (2) 20% and gets 42 more than the pass mark. Find
(3) 44% (4) 46% the pass mark.
(1) 105 (2) 100
7. The selling price of 15 apples is equal to (3) 42 (4) 200
the cost price of 20 apples. What is the
profit or loss percent? 10. If CP = ` 50, SP = ` 100 and Marked
(1) 22% (2) 33.33%
Price = ` 120 then Profit % and Discount
(3) 25% (4) 18%
% are (in that order)
(1) 50%, 20% (2) 100%, 20%
8. An advertisement states the following -
(3) 37%, 50% (4) 100%, 16.67%
“Buy 2 shirts and get 1 free”. Find the
discount %?
(1) 50% (2) 66.67%

Practice Exercise - 3

11. If the annual increase in the population of 12. A college student buys a second hand bike
a town is 5% and the present population is for ` 22,500. He spends ` 1,500 on an
11025. What was the population two years overhaul and other repairs. He then sells
ago? the bike for ` 30,000 to his friend. His
(1) 13000 (2) 10000 profit % is _____________
(3) 9625 (4) 8879 (1) 20% (2) 25%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
 (1) 17 kg (2) 5 kg (approx)
13. If the selling price of an article is 7/6 (3) 34 kg (4) None of these
times its cost price, the profit percentage
is ______________ 15. If books bought at prices ranging from `
(1) 33.33% (2) 25% 200 to ` 300 are sold at prices ranging
(3) 16.67% (4) 20% from ` 300 to ` 400, what is the greatest
possible profit % that can be made by
14. Ravi buys mangoes at the rate of ` 21 for selling 10 books?
3 kg and sells them at ` 50 for 5 kg. How (1) 10% (2) 20%
many kgs should he sell to earn a profit of (3) 300 % (4) 100%
` 51?

Practice Exercise - 4
16. If a cricket bat is sold at a profit of 5% two investments is 3:5, what is the total
instead of a loss of 5%, the seller gets ` 75 gain or loss made by Ameen?
more. The CP of the cricket bat is (1) 15% loss (2) 15% profit
`_______________ (3) 5% profit (4) 5% loss
(1) 75 (2) 750
(3) 7500 (4) 7.5 19. What is the single discount equivalent to
successive discounts of 20% and 10%?
17. A diamond passes through the hands of 3 (1) 28 (2) 30
sellers and the price increases by 80% on (3) 38 (4) None of these
the whole. If the first and second sellers
earned 20% and 25% profit respectively, 20. Every month, Lavanya spends 80% of her
find the profit % earned by the 3rd seller? income. In a particular month her income
(1) 20% (2) 35% increases by 10% and her expenditure
(3) 55% (4) None of these increases by 5%. By what % does her
saving increase?
18. Ameen earns 15% on one investment but (1) 13% (2) 31%
loses 17% on the other. If the ratio of the (3) 30% (4) None of these

Practice Exercise - 5
21. A, B & C invested ` 26,000, ` 65,000 and ratio of the shares in the profit (for that
` 91,000 respectively for the same period year) of James and Robert?
of time. In what ratio will the profit be (1) 10 : 7 (2) 7 : 10
shared? (3) 10 : 9 (4) None of these
(1) 26 : 65 : 9 (2) 2 : 15 : 6
(3) 2 : 5 : 7 (4) None of these 24. A invests ` 35,000 for 8 months and B
invests ` 42,000 for 10 months. Out of a
22. X, Y and Z are 3 partners in a firm. Their total profit of ` 30,000, what is A’s share?
capitals are in the ratio of 1/12:1/15:1/20. (1) 7,000 (2) 20,000
After 4 months, X withdraws 20% of his (3) 30,000 (4) None of these
capital. If Y gets ` 1200 at the end of the
year as his share of profit, what was the 25. A and B started a business with initial
profit of the firm at the end of the year? investments in the ratio of 14 : 15 and
(1) ` 2,660 (2) ` 30,000 their annual profits were in the ratio 7 : 6.
(3) ` 40,000 (4) ` 3,400 If A invested the money for 10 months,
for how many months did B invest his
23. James and Robert entered into a money?
partnership and invested ` 50,000 and ` (1) 5 (2) 6
60,000 respectively. After 4 months (3) 7 (4) 8
James invested ` 25,000 and at the same
time, Robert withdrew ` 20,000. Find the
 .

Q104 PERCENTAGE, PROFIT & LOSS, PATNERSHIP

Practice Exercise - 1
1. The price of petrol has increased by 25%. what percentage is Ram’s salary less than
By what percentage should it now be Lakshman’s salary?
reduced to return to the original price? (1) 30%, 23% (2) 20%, 40%
(1) 25% (2) 20%
(3) 96%, 25% (4) 75%, 75%
(3) 15% (4) 10%

2. Price of cooking gas has increased by 4. In a class, the number of boys is more
10%. By what percentage should than the number of girls by 12% of the
consumption be reduced to keep total strength. What is the ratio of the
expenditure unchanged? numbers of boys and girls?
(1) 9.09% (2) 10% (1) 56 : 44 (2) 14 : 11
(3) 11.11% (4) 110% (3) 28 : 25 (4) 112 : 101

3. Ram’s salary is ` 25,000 while 5. A’s age is 100% more than B’s age. After
Lakshman’s salary is ` 32,500. By what 20 years, A’s age will be 50% more than
percentage is Lakshman’s salary more B’s age. Find the present age of A and B.
than Ram’s salary and by approximately (1) 80, 40 (2) 60, 30
(3) 60, 20 (4) 40, 20

Practice Exercise - 2

6. A buys a shirt for ` 100 and sells it to B (3) 75% (4) 33.33%
for ` 120. B now sells it to C for ` 144.
Had A sold it directly to C at the price C 9. A gets 20% of total marks and fails by 35
paid for it, then his profit % would have
marks while B gets 42% of the total marks
been ____________
(1) 10% (2) 20% and gets 42 more than the pass mark. Find
(3) 44% (4) 46% the pass mark.
(1) 105 (2) 100
7. The selling price of 15 apples is equal to (3) 42 (4) 200
the cost price of 20 apples. What is the
profit or loss percent? 10. If CP = ` 50, SP = ` 100 and Marked
(1) 22% (2) 33.33%
Price = ` 120 then Profit % and Discount
(3) 25% (4) 18%
% are (in that order)
(1) 50%, 20% (2) 100%, 20%
8. An advertisement states the following -
(3) 37%, 50% (4) 100%, 16.67%
“Buy 2 shirts and get 1 free”. Find the
discount %?
(1) 50% (2) 66.67%

Practice Exercise - 3

11. If the annual increase in the population of 12. A college student buys a second hand bike
a town is 5% and the present population is for ` 22,500. He spends ` 1,500 on an
11025. What was the population two years overhaul and other repairs. He then sells
ago? the bike for ` 30,000 to his friend. His
(1) 13000 (2) 10000 profit % is _____________
(3) 9625 (4) 8879 (1) 20% (2) 25%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
 (1) 17 kg (2) 5 kg (approx)
13. If the selling price of an article is 7/6 (3) 34 kg (4) None of these
times its cost price, the profit percentage
is ______________ 15. If books bought at prices ranging from `
(1) 33.33% (2) 25% 200 to ` 300 are sold at prices ranging
(3) 16.67% (4) 20% from ` 300 to ` 400, what is the greatest
possible profit % that can be made by
14. Ravi buys mangoes at the rate of ` 21 for selling 10 books?
3 kg and sells them at ` 50 for 5 kg. How (1) 10% (2) 20%
many kgs should he sell to earn a profit of (3) 300 % (4) 100%
` 51?

Practice Exercise - 4
16. If a cricket bat is sold at a profit of 5% two investments is 3:5, what is the total
instead of a loss of 5%, the seller gets ` 75 gain or loss made by Ameen?
more. The CP of the cricket bat is (1) 15% loss (2) 15% profit
`_______________ (3) 5% profit (4) 5% loss
(1) 75 (2) 750
(3) 7500 (4) 7.5 19. What is the single discount equivalent to
successive discounts of 20% and 10%?
17. A diamond passes through the hands of 3 (1) 28 (2) 30
sellers and the price increases by 80% on (3) 38 (4) None of these
the whole. If the first and second sellers
earned 20% and 25% profit respectively, 20. Every month, Lavanya spends 80% of her
find the profit % earned by the 3rd seller? income. In a particular month her income
(1) 20% (2) 35% increases by 10% and her expenditure
(3) 55% (4) None of these increases by 5%. By what % does her
saving increase?
18. Ameen earns 15% on one investment but (1) 13% (2) 31%
loses 17% on the other. If the ratio of the (3) 30% (4) None of these

Practice Exercise - 5
21. A, B & C invested ` 26,000, ` 65,000 and ratio of the shares in the profit (for that
` 91,000 respectively for the same period year) of James and Robert?
of time. In what ratio will the profit be (1) 10 : 7 (2) 7 : 10
shared? (3) 10 : 9 (4) None of these
(1) 26 : 65 : 9 (2) 2 : 15 : 6
(3) 2 : 5 : 7 (4) None of these 24. A invests ` 35,000 for 8 months and B
invests ` 42,000 for 10 months. Out of a
22. X, Y and Z are 3 partners in a firm. Their total profit of ` 30,000, what is A’s share?
capitals are in the ratio of 1/12:1/15:1/20. (1) 7,000 (2) 20,000
After 4 months, X withdraws 20% of his (3) 30,000 (4) None of these
capital. If Y gets ` 1200 at the end of the
year as his share of profit, what was the 25. A and B started a business with initial
profit of the firm at the end of the year? investments in the ratio of 14 : 15 and
(1) ` 2,660 (2) ` 30,000 their annual profits were in the ratio 7 : 6.
(3) ` 40,000 (4) ` 3,400 If A invested the money for 10 months,
for how many months did B invest his
23. James and Robert entered into a money?
partnership and invested ` 50,000 and ` (1) 5 (2) 6
60,000 respectively. After 4 months (3) 7 (4) 8
James invested ` 25,000 and at the same
time, Robert withdrew ` 20,000. Find the
 .

Q105 TIME AND WORK

Practice Exercise - 1

1. A can complete a work in 4 days, while B (1) 24 days (2) 12 days

can do the same work in 12 days. If both of (3) 48 days (4) 96 days
them work together in how many days will
the work be completed? 4. Kannan types 100 pages at a rate of 60 pages
(1) 24 days (2) 3 days per hour in the morning. In the evening, he
(3) 48 days (4) 4.8 days types 100 pages at a speed of 40 pages per
hour. What is his average speed?
2. A can complete a job in 12 days, B can (1) 24 pages (2) 48 pages
complete the same job in 15 days and C can (3) 12 pages (4) 50 pages
complete it in 20 days. In how many days
5. A finishes a work in 20 days and B finishes
can they complete the job working together?
the same work in 30 days. If A can make 18
(1) 5 (2) 4
baskets per day, how many baskets per day
(3) 2 (4) 6
can B make?
3. A is twice as efficient as B and A completes (1) 24 (2) 10
a work in 24 days. In how many days will B (3) 6 (4) 12
alone finish the work?
Practice Exercise - 2

6. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 (1) 100 cakes (2) 50 2/3 cakes
hours respectively. If the pipes are open for (3) 50 cakes (4) None of these
15 hours what amount of water as a 9. Godavari and Krishna can complete a job in
percentage of the capacity of the tank would 3 hours and 6 hours respectively. If they
have overflowed? work alternately for one hour each with
(1) 50% (2) 60% Godavari starting the work, in how many
(3) 25% (4) 100% hours will the work get completed?
7. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 15 (1) 5 hrs (2) 4 hrs
minutes and 10 minutes respectively. If both (3) 8 hrs (4)12 hrs
the taps are opened at the same time, how 10. A tap can fill an empty tank in 48 minutes
much time will it take for the tank to be whereas another tap can empty a full tank in
filled? 2 hours. If both the taps are opened at 11:40
(1) 2 mins (2) 6 mins am, when will the empty tank be filled?
(3) 3 mins (4) 24 mins
(1) 1.00 pm (2) 2.00 pm
8. Leela can bake 22 cakes in 4 hours and (3) 3.00 pm (4) 4.00 pm
Prema can bake 27 cakes in 6 hours. How
many cakes can they bake in 5 hours if they
work together?

Practice Exercise - 3
11. Ram, Shyam and Susheela can finish a work 12. In the previous question if they can work
in 18 days, 24 days and 48 days simultaneously, in a minimum of how many
respectively. If they do equal amount of days will the work get completed if each of
work and only one person is working at a them does equal amount of work?
time, then in how many days will the work (1) 6 days (2) 8 days
get completed? (3) 16 days (4) 20 days.
(1) 40 days (2) 50 days
(3) 30 days (4) 15 days 13. Geetha is thrice as good a workwoman as
Sita and is therefore able to finish a piece of
 work in 40 days less than Sita. In how many (1) 14 mins (2) 10 mins
days can they finish the work together? (3) 25 mins (4) 21 mins
(1) 25 days (2) 30 days
(3)15 days (4) 45 days 15. 6 men or 8 women can level a field in 42
days. In how many days can 6 men and 6
14. A pipe can fill an empty tank in 40 mins. If women together complete the same work?
the tank is already filled to two-fifths (1) 48 (2) 24
capacity, then how much time will the pipe (3) 12 (4) 10
take to fill the tank to 3/4th of its capacity?

Practice Exercise - 4

16. A can finish a work in 20 days and with the (1) 11 days (2) 10 days
help of B the work gets done in 7 ¾ days. (3) 5 days (4) 15 days
they have been paid ` 600 as wages to
complete the work. What is the daily wage 19. In one day a person makes a pot. The next
of A? day, a second person joins him and they
(1) ` 60 (2) ` 30 make 2 pots each. On third day, one more
(3) ` 10 (4) Cannot be determined person joins them and each one makes 4
pots. On fourth day, a fourth person joins
17. A and B working together can finish a work them and each one makes 8 pots. At the end
in x days. If A alone works, he finishes the of the fourth day, the work gets completed.
work in x+2 days and if B alone works, he If only one person works per day and he can
finishes it in x+18 days. What is the value make only one pot per day, then in how
of x? many days will this work get over?
(1) 6 days (2) 12 days (1) 40 days (2) 49 days
(3) 18 days (4) 2 days (3) 50 days (4) 14 days

18. In one day a person manufactures a hat. The 20. A & B working together can complete a job
next day, one more person joins and they in 20 days, B & C can complete the same
manufacture 2 hats. On the third day, one job in 12 days and A & C can complete the
more person joins and collectively they job in 15 days. Find the number of days
manufacture 3 hats. This continues for some taken to complete the job if C works alone?
more days. If 55 hats are to be made, in how (1) 30 days (2) 62 days
many days can they finish this? (3) 20 days (4) 40 days
Practice Exercise - 5

21. A task was given to 120 men to finish in 124 time taken by Anil and Sunil working
days, but they completed two thirds of the together to complete the work. Sunil takes
work in 64 days. How much can the m times the time taken by Anil and Bheem
manpower be reduced such that the work working together to complete the work.
still gets completed in the stipulated time? Find m
(1) 56 (2) 60 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 30 (4) 30 (3) 3 (4) 4

22. A, B & C can do a piece of work in 18 days, 24. A is twice as efficient as B and thrice as
36 days and 54 days, respectively. A starts efficient as C. If they work together and
the work and B joins after 1 day while C finish a work in 4 days, in how many days
joins them after 4 more days. How many can C alone finish the work?
more days will they take to complete the (1) 11 (2) 22
work? (3)10 (4)15
(1) 12 days (2) 6 days
(3) 15 days (4) 10 days 25. A, B and C can finish a work in 20 days, 30
days and 40 days respectively. If they have
23. Anil takes m times the time taken by Bheem been paid ` 13,000, what is the A’s share?
and Sunil working together to complete a (1) ` 5,000 (2) ` 6,000
piece of work. Bheem takes m times the (3) ` 2,000 (4) ` 4,000 .
 .

Q105 TIME AND WORK

Practice Exercise - 1

1. A can complete a work in 4 days, while B (1) 24 days (2) 12 days

can do the same work in 12 days. If both of (3) 48 days (4) 96 days
them work together in how many days will
the work be completed? 4. Kannan types 100 pages at a rate of 60 pages
(1) 24 days (2) 3 days per hour in the morning. In the evening, he
(3) 48 days (4) 4.8 days types 100 pages at a speed of 40 pages per
hour. What is his average speed?
2. A can complete a job in 12 days, B can (1) 24 pages (2) 48 pages
complete the same job in 15 days and C can (3) 12 pages (4) 50 pages
complete it in 20 days. In how many days
5. A finishes a work in 20 days and B finishes
can they complete the job working together?
the same work in 30 days. If A can make 18
(1) 5 (2) 4
baskets per day, how many baskets per day
(3) 2 (4) 6
can B make?
3. A is twice as efficient as B and A completes (1) 24 (2) 10
a work in 24 days. In how many days will B (3) 6 (4) 12
alone finish the work?
Practice Exercise - 2

6. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 (1) 100 cakes (2) 50 2/3 cakes
hours respectively. If the pipes are open for (3) 50 cakes (4) None of these
15 hours what amount of water as a 9. Godavari and Krishna can complete a job in
percentage of the capacity of the tank would 3 hours and 6 hours respectively. If they
have overflowed? work alternately for one hour each with
(1) 50% (2) 60% Godavari starting the work, in how many
(3) 25% (4) 100% hours will the work get completed?
7. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 15 (1) 5 hrs (2) 4 hrs
minutes and 10 minutes respectively. If both (3) 8 hrs (4)12 hrs
the taps are opened at the same time, how 10. A tap can fill an empty tank in 48 minutes
much time will it take for the tank to be whereas another tap can empty a full tank in
filled? 2 hours. If both the taps are opened at 11:40
(1) 2 mins (2) 6 mins am, when will the empty tank be filled?
(3) 3 mins (4) 24 mins
(1) 1.00 pm (2) 2.00 pm
8. Leela can bake 22 cakes in 4 hours and (3) 3.00 pm (4) 4.00 pm
Prema can bake 27 cakes in 6 hours. How
many cakes can they bake in 5 hours if they
work together?

Practice Exercise - 3
11. Ram, Shyam and Susheela can finish a work 12. In the previous question if they can work
in 18 days, 24 days and 48 days simultaneously, in a minimum of how many
respectively. If they do equal amount of days will the work get completed if each of
work and only one person is working at a them does equal amount of work?
time, then in how many days will the work (1) 6 days (2) 8 days
get completed? (3) 16 days (4) 20 days.
(1) 40 days (2) 50 days
(3) 30 days (4) 15 days 13. Geetha is thrice as good a workwoman as
Sita and is therefore able to finish a piece of
 work in 40 days less than Sita. In how many (1) 14 mins (2) 10 mins
days can they finish the work together? (3) 25 mins (4) 21 mins
(1) 25 days (2) 30 days
(3)15 days (4) 45 days 15. 6 men or 8 women can level a field in 42
days. In how many days can 6 men and 6
14. A pipe can fill an empty tank in 40 mins. If women together complete the same work?
the tank is already filled to two-fifths (1) 48 (2) 24
capacity, then how much time will the pipe (3) 12 (4) 10
take to fill the tank to 3/4th of its capacity?

Practice Exercise - 4

16. A can finish a work in 20 days and with the (1) 11 days (2) 10 days
help of B the work gets done in 7 ¾ days. (3) 5 days (4) 15 days
they have been paid ` 600 as wages to
complete the work. What is the daily wage 19. In one day a person makes a pot. The next
of A? day, a second person joins him and they
(1) ` 60 (2) ` 30 make 2 pots each. On third day, one more
(3) ` 10 (4) Cannot be determined person joins them and each one makes 4
pots. On fourth day, a fourth person joins
17. A and B working together can finish a work them and each one makes 8 pots. At the end
in x days. If A alone works, he finishes the of the fourth day, the work gets completed.
work in x+2 days and if B alone works, he If only one person works per day and he can
finishes it in x+18 days. What is the value make only one pot per day, then in how
of x? many days will this work get over?
(1) 6 days (2) 12 days (1) 40 days (2) 49 days
(3) 18 days (4) 2 days (3) 50 days (4) 14 days

18. In one day a person manufactures a hat. The 20. A & B working together can complete a job
next day, one more person joins and they in 20 days, B & C can complete the same
manufacture 2 hats. On the third day, one job in 12 days and A & C can complete the
more person joins and collectively they job in 15 days. Find the number of days
manufacture 3 hats. This continues for some taken to complete the job if C works alone?
more days. If 55 hats are to be made, in how (1) 30 days (2) 62 days
many days can they finish this? (3) 20 days (4) 40 days
Practice Exercise - 5

21. A task was given to 120 men to finish in 124 time taken by Anil and Sunil working
days, but they completed two thirds of the together to complete the work. Sunil takes
work in 64 days. How much can the m times the time taken by Anil and Bheem
manpower be reduced such that the work working together to complete the work.
still gets completed in the stipulated time? Find m
(1) 56 (2) 60 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 30 (4) 30 (3) 3 (4) 4

22. A, B & C can do a piece of work in 18 days, 24. A is twice as efficient as B and thrice as
36 days and 54 days, respectively. A starts efficient as C. If they work together and
the work and B joins after 1 day while C finish a work in 4 days, in how many days
joins them after 4 more days. How many can C alone finish the work?
more days will they take to complete the (1) 11 (2) 22
work? (3)10 (4)15
(1) 12 days (2) 6 days
(3) 15 days (4) 10 days 25. A, B and C can finish a work in 20 days, 30
days and 40 days respectively. If they have
23. Anil takes m times the time taken by Bheem been paid ` 13,000, what is the A’s share?
and Sunil working together to complete a (1) ` 5,000 (2) ` 6,000
piece of work. Bheem takes m times the (3) ` 2,000 (4) ` 4,000 .
 .

Q106 TIME SPEED AND DISTANCE

Practice Exercise – 1

1. Ramu covers 560 km at a speed of 70 km/hr (1) 6 km/hr (2) 5 km/hr

and the next 240 km at a speed of 120 (3) 7 km/hr (4) 4 km/hr
km/hr. What is his average speed?
(1) 85 km/hr (2) 80 km/hr 4. In a race A beats B by 100 m. The ratio of
(3) 50 km/hr (4) 40 km/hr their speeds is 5:4. What is the length of the
racecourse?
2. A vehicle usually covers 250 km in 4 hours. (1) 400 m (2) 600 m
En route, it developed a problem and as a (3) 250 m (4) 500 m
result, its speed reduced by 12.5 km/hour.
Find the time taken by the vehicle to cover 5. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m or 2
the next 200 km? seconds. What is B’s speed?
(1) 6 hours (2) 5 hours (1) 5.5 m/sec (2) 6 m/sec
(3) 7 hours (4) 4 hours (3) 5 m/ sec (4) 5.56 m/sec

3. A boat travels 40 km upstream in 8 hours

and 60 km downstream in 4 hours. What is
the speed of the current?
Practice Exercise – 2

6. In a race A beats B by 5 seconds and B beats writes 50 lines per hour. At which line will
C by 6 seconds. Then, in the same race, A they meet?
beats C by (1) 400th line (2) 401st line
rd
(1) 9 seconds (2) 8 seconds (3) 403 line (4) 300th line
(3) 12 seconds (4) 11 seconds
9. A truck covers a distance at a speed of 40
7. If a person had walked at a speed of 20 km/hr in 5 hours. What should his speed be
km/hr instead of 15 km/hr, he would have to cover this distance in 1-3/5 hours?
walked 20 km more. The actual distance
(1) 20 km/hr (2) 15 km/hr
travelled by him is
(1) 60 km (2) 80 km (3) 125 km/hr (4) 100 km/hr
(3) 100 km (4) 90 km
10. When a vehicle travels at 5/8th of the usual
8. Two boys Ram and Shyam are copying a speed, it covers 400 km in 8 hours. What is
book which contains 601 lines. Ram starts the usual speed of the vehicle?
from the first line, and writes 100 lines per (1) 80 km/hr (2) 50 km/hr
hour. Shyam starts from the last line and
(3) 60 km/hr (4) 25 km/hr
Practice Exercise - 3

11. A man travelled a distance of 54 km in 9 (1) 10 minutes (2) 20 minutes

hours. He travelled some distance on foot at (3) 15 minutes (4) 21 minutes
a speed of 4 km/hr and the remainder on a
bicycle at a speed of 9 km/hr. The distance
travelled on foot is 13. The ratio of the speeds of A and B is 4:1. A
(1) 32.4 km (2) 21.6 km and B are moving towards each other from
(3) 30 km (4) 24 km points P and Q respectively. They meet at a
point R such that QR = 50 m. What is the
12. The average speed of a bus is 40 km/hr if distance between points P and Q?
stoppage time is excluded and 30 km/hr if (1) 200 m (2) 150 m
stoppage time is included. How many (3) 250 m (4) 100 m
minutes per hour are spent on stoppages?
14. Two trains start at 5 am, one from Chennai starts at 7 am from Hyderabad and reaches
towards Hyderabad the other from Chennai at 9 pm. At what time do they
Hyderabad towards Chennai. Both trains meet?
reach their respective destinations at 7 pm. (1) 1 pm (2) 2 pm
At what time did they meet? (3) 12 noon (4) 11 am
(1) 1 pm (2) 2 pm
(3) 12 noon (4) 11 am

15. A train starts at 5 am from Chennai and

reaches Hyderabad at 7 pm. Another train
Practice Exercise - 4

16. A person travelling in a vehicle hears two 19. If Ram travels at a speed of 4 km/hr from his
gunshots at an interval of 36 minutes. The home to office, he goes late by one hour. If
two gunshots were actually fired at an his speed is 5 km/hr he goes early by one
interval of 39 minutes. If the speed of sound hour. What is the distance between his
is 330 m/sec, what is the speed of the office & home and what is the usual time
vehicle? taken to cover the distance?
(1) 27.5 m/sec (2) 27 m/sec (1) 50 km, 4.5 hours (2) 45 km, 9 hours
(3) 30 m/sec (4) 40 m/sec (3) 40 km, 9 hours (4) 35 km, 7 hours
17. Two trains 120 km apart, travel towards 20. Two trains of length 200 and 160 meters
each other along the same track. The speeds take a minute to cross each other when they
of the trains are 11 km/hr and 13 km/hr. travel in the same direction and only 10
After how many hours will they collide? seconds when they travel in opposite
(1) 4 hours (2) 5 hours directions. What are the speeds at which the
(3) 6 hours (4) 2 hours trains are travelling?
(1) 17 m/sec, 29 m/sec
18. In the previous question, a fly buzzes back
and forth between the two trains until they (2) 40 m/sec,50 m/sec
crash. If the speed of the fly is 20 km/hr, (3) 23 m/sec,13 m/sec
what is the distance travelled by the fly? (4) 21 m/sec,15 m/sec
(1) 50 km (2) 100 km
(3) 75 km (4) 120 km
Practice Exercise - 5

21. Eshwar walks up an up-escalator at a rate of 24. In the previous question if A and B move in
5 steps per second and reaches the other end same direction when do they meet at the
in 10 seconds. While walking down at the starting point?
same speed, he reaches the starting point in (1) 60 seconds (2) 30 seconds
40 seconds. What is the number of steps in (3) 20 seconds (4) 120 seconds
the escalator when it is stationary?
(1) 100 (2) 90 25. The circumference of a circular track is 600
(3) 85 (4) 80 m. A moves at a speed of 30 m/sec and B at
a speed of 20 m/sec. Both start from a point
22. A woman is walking down a descending P on the track, simultaneously, in opposite
escalator in a mall. She takes 20 steps to directions. After how many seconds will
reach the ground. Just as she reaches the they meet on the track?
ground she realizes that she had left her (1) 10 seconds (2) 12 seconds
handbag on the first floor. So she rushes (3) 15 seconds (4) 20 seconds
back up the escalator at 5 times her speed of
descent. Now she takes 50 steps to reach the
top. How many steps are there in the
escalator when it is stationary?
(1) 50 (2) 100
(3) 40 (4) 75

23. The length of a circular track is 600 m. A

moves at a speed of 30 m/sec and B at a
speed of 20 m/sec. Both start from a point P
on the track, simultaneously, in opposite
directions. When do they meet next at the
starting point P?
(1) 20 seconds (2) 30 seconds
(3) 60 seconds (4) 120 seconds
 .

Q106 TIME SPEED AND DISTANCE

Practice Exercise – 1

1. Ramu covers 560 km at a speed of 70 km/hr (1) 6 km/hr (2) 5 km/hr

and the next 240 km at a speed of 120 (3) 7 km/hr (4) 4 km/hr
km/hr. What is his average speed?
(1) 85 km/hr (2) 80 km/hr 4. In a race A beats B by 100 m. The ratio of
(3) 50 km/hr (4) 40 km/hr their speeds is 5:4. What is the length of the
racecourse?
2. A vehicle usually covers 250 km in 4 hours. (1) 400 m (2) 600 m
En route, it developed a problem and as a (3) 250 m (4) 500 m
result, its speed reduced by 12.5 km/hour.
Find the time taken by the vehicle to cover 5. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m or 2
the next 200 km? seconds. What is B’s speed?
(1) 6 hours (2) 5 hours (1) 5.5 m/sec (2) 6 m/sec
(3) 7 hours (4) 4 hours (3) 5 m/ sec (4) 5.56 m/sec

3. A boat travels 40 km upstream in 8 hours

and 60 km downstream in 4 hours. What is
the speed of the current?
Practice Exercise – 2

6. In a race A beats B by 5 seconds and B beats writes 50 lines per hour. At which line will
C by 6 seconds. Then, in the same race, A they meet?
beats C by (1) 400th line (2) 401st line
rd
(1) 9 seconds (2) 8 seconds (3) 403 line (4) 300th line
(3) 12 seconds (4) 11 seconds
9. A truck covers a distance at a speed of 40
7. If a person had walked at a speed of 20 km/hr in 5 hours. What should his speed be
km/hr instead of 15 km/hr, he would have to cover this distance in 1-3/5 hours?
walked 20 km more. The actual distance
(1) 20 km/hr (2) 15 km/hr
travelled by him is
(1) 60 km (2) 80 km (3) 125 km/hr (4) 100 km/hr
(3) 100 km (4) 90 km
10. When a vehicle travels at 5/8th of the usual
8. Two boys Ram and Shyam are copying a speed, it covers 400 km in 8 hours. What is
book which contains 601 lines. Ram starts the usual speed of the vehicle?
from the first line, and writes 100 lines per (1) 80 km/hr (2) 50 km/hr
hour. Shyam starts from the last line and
(3) 60 km/hr (4) 25 km/hr
Practice Exercise - 3

11. A man travelled a distance of 54 km in 9 (1) 10 minutes (2) 20 minutes

hours. He travelled some distance on foot at (3) 15 minutes (4) 21 minutes
a speed of 4 km/hr and the remainder on a
bicycle at a speed of 9 km/hr. The distance
travelled on foot is 13. The ratio of the speeds of A and B is 4:1. A
(1) 32.4 km (2) 21.6 km and B are moving towards each other from
(3) 30 km (4) 24 km points P and Q respectively. They meet at a
point R such that QR = 50 m. What is the
12. The average speed of a bus is 40 km/hr if distance between points P and Q?
stoppage time is excluded and 30 km/hr if (1) 200 m (2) 150 m
stoppage time is included. How many (3) 250 m (4) 100 m
minutes per hour are spent on stoppages?
14. Two trains start at 5 am, one from Chennai starts at 7 am from Hyderabad and reaches
towards Hyderabad the other from Chennai at 9 pm. At what time do they
Hyderabad towards Chennai. Both trains meet?
reach their respective destinations at 7 pm. (1) 1 pm (2) 2 pm
At what time did they meet? (3) 12 noon (4) 11 am
(1) 1 pm (2) 2 pm
(3) 12 noon (4) 11 am

15. A train starts at 5 am from Chennai and

reaches Hyderabad at 7 pm. Another train
Practice Exercise - 4

16. A person travelling in a vehicle hears two 19. If Ram travels at a speed of 4 km/hr from his
gunshots at an interval of 36 minutes. The home to office, he goes late by one hour. If
two gunshots were actually fired at an his speed is 5 km/hr he goes early by one
interval of 39 minutes. If the speed of sound hour. What is the distance between his
is 330 m/sec, what is the speed of the office & home and what is the usual time
vehicle? taken to cover the distance?
(1) 27.5 m/sec (2) 27 m/sec (1) 50 km, 4.5 hours (2) 45 km, 9 hours
(3) 30 m/sec (4) 40 m/sec (3) 40 km, 9 hours (4) 35 km, 7 hours
17. Two trains 120 km apart, travel towards 20. Two trains of length 200 and 160 meters
each other along the same track. The speeds take a minute to cross each other when they
of the trains are 11 km/hr and 13 km/hr. travel in the same direction and only 10
After how many hours will they collide? seconds when they travel in opposite
(1) 4 hours (2) 5 hours directions. What are the speeds at which the
(3) 6 hours (4) 2 hours trains are travelling?
(1) 17 m/sec, 29 m/sec
18. In the previous question, a fly buzzes back
and forth between the two trains until they (2) 40 m/sec,50 m/sec
crash. If the speed of the fly is 20 km/hr, (3) 23 m/sec,13 m/sec
what is the distance travelled by the fly? (4) 21 m/sec,15 m/sec
(1) 50 km (2) 100 km
(3) 75 km (4) 120 km
Practice Exercise - 5

21. Eshwar walks up an up-escalator at a rate of 24. In the previous question if A and B move in
5 steps per second and reaches the other end same direction when do they meet at the
in 10 seconds. While walking down at the starting point?
same speed, he reaches the starting point in (1) 60 seconds (2) 30 seconds
40 seconds. What is the number of steps in (3) 20 seconds (4) 120 seconds
the escalator when it is stationary?
(1) 100 (2) 90 25. The circumference of a circular track is 600
(3) 85 (4) 80 m. A moves at a speed of 30 m/sec and B at
a speed of 20 m/sec. Both start from a point
22. A woman is walking down a descending P on the track, simultaneously, in opposite
escalator in a mall. She takes 20 steps to directions. After how many seconds will
reach the ground. Just as she reaches the they meet on the track?
ground she realizes that she had left her (1) 10 seconds (2) 12 seconds
handbag on the first floor. So she rushes (3) 15 seconds (4) 20 seconds
back up the escalator at 5 times her speed of
descent. Now she takes 50 steps to reach the
top. How many steps are there in the
escalator when it is stationary?
(1) 50 (2) 100
(3) 40 (4) 75

23. The length of a circular track is 600 m. A

moves at a speed of 30 m/sec and B at a
speed of 20 m/sec. Both start from a point P
on the track, simultaneously, in opposite
directions. When do they meet next at the
starting point P?
(1) 20 seconds (2) 30 seconds
(3) 60 seconds (4) 120 seconds
 .

Q107 AVERAGES, MIXTURES, ALLIGATIONS

Practice Exercise - 1
1. Find the average of the numbers 30201, (1) ` 30 (2) ` 32
30211, 30219, 30221, 30228, 30222? (3) ` 45 (4) ` 20
(1) 30217 (2) 30200
(3) 30208 (4) 302106 4. A person sells 50 units of goods in January
of a particular year. Every month thereafter,
2. A die is rolled 45 times among which 1 his sales increase by 20 units per month.
appears seven times, 2 appears eleven times, Find the average units of goods sold by him
3 appears eleven times, 4 appears ten times, in the period January to September.
5 and 6 appear three times each. Find the (1) 140 (2) 150
mean number that appears on the die. (3) 130 (4) None of these
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 5 5. The average age of a group of five members
is 30. Find the average age of the group after
3. A basket contains 10 kg of tomatoes costing eight years.
` 20 per kg & 15 Kg of potatos costing ` 40 (1) 30 (2) 37
per kg. Find the average price of the (3) 43 (4) 38
vegetables in the basket.
Practice Exercise - 2
6. Ten litres of milk is added to 50 litres of a (3) 3 (4) 4
solution of milk & water containing 40%
milk. Find the percentage of water in the 9. 10 litres of methanol solution containing
final mixture. 10% water is blended with 20 litres of
(1) 10% (2) 20% methanol solution containing 10% water.
(3) 50% (4) 75% Find the strength of methanol in the resultant
mixture.
7. 15 liters of a solution containing 40% (1) 90% (2) 75%
sulphuric acid is mixed with 25 liters of a (3) 60% (4) 10%
solution containing 60 % sulphuric acid,
find the % of water in the resultant mixture. 10. One variety of sugar costing ` 15/kg is
(1) 52.5% (2) 42.5% mixed with another variety of sugar costing
(3) 50% (4) 47.5% ` 20/kg, then which of the following is true,
about the average cost of the mixture?
8. 10 litres of a salt solution containing 76% (1) It is greater than ` 20/kg
water is exposed to sunlight for 10 days. (2) It is less than ` 15/kg
After 10 days, if the water content in the (3) It can take any value between 15 & 20
solution is 20%. Find the volume of the but not one of the two.
remaining solution. (4) None of these.
(1) 5 (2) 1
Practice Exercise - 3

11. The average expenditure of a family (3) Decreases

comprising five members is ` 3000/- per (4) No conclusions.
month. Due to inflation the average
expenditure increases to ` 4000/- per month. 13. A certain number of chocolates were
Find the percentage increase in the average distributed among 10 children. The average
monthly expenditure. number of chocolates distributed turned out
(1) 25% (2) 16 2/3% to be 5.5. If no two children received same
(3) 20% (4) 33 1/3% number of chocolates, what is the maximum
number of chocolates a child can get?
12. The average number of wickets taken by a (1) 10 (2) 8
bowler in N matches of the IPL is 3. In the (3) 6 (4) 4
(N+1)th match he led his team to victory by 14. In the question above, if we consider the
picking 3 more wickets. As a consequence average number of chocolates received by
overall average number of wickets the top three children in descending order (in
(1) Changes by 3 terms of the number of chocolates received),
(2) Doesn’t change
 the average number of chocolates those three month the temperature fell to 360 C. Find the
would have got will be average temperature recorded in the city
(1) 10 (2) 8 during this half a year period.
(3) 9 (4) 4 (1) 37.330 C (2) 400 C
0
(3) 39.33 C (4) 38.560 C
15. During five months of a summer, the
average temperature in a city was 400 C.
Due to sudden spell of rain in the sixth
Practice Exercise - 4
16. The average mess expense for a student in a 28.6. Find the difference between the tens
hostel is ` 2500/- per month. On any given and units digits of the original number.
day a total of 500 students use this facility. (1) 5 (2) 3
However owing to Puja holidays three (3) 4 (4) 1
fourth of the inmates proceeded home and
returned to their hostels after a month. 19. A vessel contains 24 liters of a mixture of
Owing to this the total operational cost ethanol & water. If the ratio of ethanol and
reduced by 60%. Find the percentage water in the mixture is 5:3, then how much
increase in the average cost per student ? water should be added to this mixture to
(1) 75% (2) 40% reverse the ratio of ethanol and water?
(3) 60% (4) 50%
(1) 10 (2) 16
17. In a class, the average score in a test written (3) 15 (4) 11
by 30 students is 30. If the marks of the top
three scorers are excluded the average drops 20. While adding first 11 natural numbers, Alok
to 28. If the marks scored by the top three missed out one number and found the
students are consecutive integral values, find average of the numbers to be 5.7. Find the
the score of the topper. missed out number.
(1) 49 (2) 47
(1) 10 (2) 4
(3) 44 (4) 50
(3) 5 (4) 9
18. The average of ten two digit numbers is 25.
When the digits of one of the numbers are
reversed, the computed average becomes
Practice Exercise - 5
21. The average of all two-digit numbers that middle is 160 cm, while the average of the
leave a remainder of 3 when divided by 4 is heights of all persons standing behind the
(1) 60 (2) 55 person in the middle is 172 cm. Find the
(3) 58 (4) None of these height of the person standing in the middle.
(1) 180 (2) 151
22. The average weight of a group of 10 persons (3) 160 (4) 155
is 52 kg. If two persons weighing 62 kg and
58 kg respectively leave the group and a 24. The average of the first “n” consecutive
person weighing 41 kg joins the group, the natural numbers is
new average of the group will be (1) n(n+1)/2 (2) n(n+1)(2n+1)/6
(1) 50 (2) 63 (3) (n+1)/2 (4) None of these
(3) 49 (4) 55
25. Study the table below and answer the
23. There are 15 people standing in a line, the question.
average height of the group being 165 cm. Vessel/ Alcohol Alcohol Water
The average of the heights of all seven Component 1 2
people standing before the person in the A 40% 40% 20%
B 50% 35% 15%
C 15% 65% 20%
I
If 2 parts of A are mixed with 3 parts of B
and 5 parts of C, find the percentage of
Alcohol 2 in the mixture
(1) 49% (2) 52%
(3) 60% (4) 51%
 .

Q107 AVERAGES, MIXTURES, ALLIGATIONS

Practice Exercise - 1
1. Find the average of the numbers 30201, (1) ` 30 (2) ` 32
30211, 30219, 30221, 30228, 30222? (3) ` 45 (4) ` 20
(1) 30217 (2) 30200
(3) 30208 (4) 302106 4. A person sells 50 units of goods in January
of a particular year. Every month thereafter,
2. A die is rolled 45 times among which 1 his sales increase by 20 units per month.
appears seven times, 2 appears eleven times, Find the average units of goods sold by him
3 appears eleven times, 4 appears ten times, in the period January to September.
5 and 6 appear three times each. Find the (1) 140 (2) 150
mean number that appears on the die. (3) 130 (4) None of these
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 5 5. The average age of a group of five members
is 30. Find the average age of the group after
3. A basket contains 10 kg of tomatoes costing eight years.
` 20 per kg & 15 Kg of potatos costing ` 40 (1) 30 (2) 37
per kg. Find the average price of the (3) 43 (4) 38
vegetables in the basket.
Practice Exercise - 2
6. Ten litres of milk is added to 50 litres of a (3) 3 (4) 4
solution of milk & water containing 40%
milk. Find the percentage of water in the 9. 10 litres of methanol solution containing
final mixture. 10% water is blended with 20 litres of
(1) 10% (2) 20% methanol solution containing 10% water.
(3) 50% (4) 75% Find the strength of methanol in the resultant
mixture.
7. 15 liters of a solution containing 40% (1) 90% (2) 75%
sulphuric acid is mixed with 25 liters of a (3) 60% (4) 10%
solution containing 60 % sulphuric acid,
find the % of water in the resultant mixture. 10. One variety of sugar costing ` 15/kg is
(1) 52.5% (2) 42.5% mixed with another variety of sugar costing
(3) 50% (4) 47.5% ` 20/kg, then which of the following is true,
about the average cost of the mixture?
8. 10 litres of a salt solution containing 76% (1) It is greater than ` 20/kg
water is exposed to sunlight for 10 days. (2) It is less than ` 15/kg
After 10 days, if the water content in the (3) It can take any value between 15 & 20
solution is 20%. Find the volume of the but not one of the two.
remaining solution. (4) None of these.
(1) 5 (2) 1
Practice Exercise - 3

11. The average expenditure of a family 12. The average number of wickets taken by a
comprising five members is ` 3000/- per bowler in N matches of the IPL is 3. In the
month. Due to inflation the average (N+1)th match he led his team to victory by
expenditure increases to ` 4000/- per month. picking 3 more wickets. As a consequence
Find the percentage increase in the average overall average number of wickets
monthly expenditure. (1) Changes by 3
(1) 25% (2) 16 2/3% (2) Doesn’t change
(3) 20% (4) 33 1/3% (3) Decreases
(4) No conclusions.
13. A certain number of chocolates were the average number of chocolates those three
distributed among 10 children. The average would have got will be
number of chocolates distributed turned out (1) 10 (2) 8
to be 5.5. If no two children received same (3) 9 (4) 4
number of chocolates, what is the maximum
number of chocolates a child can get? 15. During five months of a summer, the
(1) 10 (2) 8 average temperature in a city was 400 C.
(3) 6 (4) 4 Due to sudden spell of rain in the sixth
month the temperature fell to 360 C. Find the
14. In the question above, if we consider the average temperature recorded in the city
average number of chocolates received by during this half a year period.
the top three children in descending order (in (1) 37.330 C (2) 400 C
0
terms of the number of chocolates received), (3) 39.33 C (4) 38.560 C
Practice Exercise - 4
16. The average mess expense for a student in a 28.6. Find the difference between the tens
hostel is ` 2500/- per month. On any given and units digits of the original number.
day a total of 500 students use this facility. (1) 5 (2) 3
However owing to Puja holidays three (3) 4 (4) 1
fourth of the inmates proceeded home and
returned to their hostels after a month. 19. A vessel contains 24 liters of a mixture of
Owing to this the total operational cost ethanol & water. If the ratio of ethanol and
reduced by 60%. Find the percentage water in the mixture is 5:3, then how much
increase in the average cost per student ? water should be added to this mixture to
(1) 75% (2) 40% reverse the ratio of ethanol and water?
(3) 60% (4) 50%
(1) 10 (2) 16
17. In a class, the average score in a test written (3) 15 (4) 11
by 30 students is 30. If the marks of the top
three scorers are excluded the average drops 20. While adding first 11 natural numbers, Alok
to 28. If the marks scored by the top three missed out one number and found the
students are consecutive integral values, find average of the numbers to be 5.7. Find the
the score of the topper. missed out number.
(1) 49 (2) 47
(1) 10 (2) 4
(3) 44 (4) 50
(3) 5 (4) 9
18. The average of ten two digit numbers is 25.
When the digits of one of the numbers are
reversed, the computed average becomes
Practice Exercise - 5
21. The average of all two-digit numbers that middle is 160 cm, while the average of the
leave a remainder of 3 when divided by 4 is heights of all persons standing behind the
(1) 60 (2) 55 person in the middle is 172 cm. Find the
(3) 58 (4) None of these height of the person standing in the middle.
(1) 180 (2) 151
22. The average weight of a group of 10 persons (3) 160 (4) 155
is 52 kg. If two persons weighing 62 kg and
58 kg respectively leave the group and a 24. The average of the first “n” consecutive
person weighing 41 kg joins the group, the natural numbers is
new average of the group will be (1) n(n+1)/2 (2) n(n+1)(2n+1)/6
(1) 50 (2) 63 (3) (n+1)/2 (4) None of these
(3) 49 (4) 55
25. Study the table below and answer the
23. There are 15 people standing in a line, the question.
average height of the group being 165 cm. Vessel/ Alcohol Alcohol Water
The average of the heights of all seven Component 1 2
people standing before the person in the A 40% 40% 20%
B 50% 35% 15%
C 15% 65% 20%
I
If 2 parts of A are mixed with 3 parts of B
and 5 parts of C, find the percentage of
Alcohol 2 in the mixture
(1) 49% (2) 52%
(3) 60% (4) 51%
 .

Q108 SIMPLE AND COMPOUND INTEREST

Practice Exercise - 1

1. For how many years should a person invest

4. Ram had invested an amount under simple
` 10,000 to get a simple interest of ` 2,000
@ 5% p.a.? interest. After 8 years he gets 96% of what
(1) 4 (2) 5 he had invested. What is the rate of interest?
(3) 6 (4) None of these (1) 6% (2) 12%
(3) 10% (4) Cannot be determined
2. At what rate of interest will a person earn a
simple interest of ` 1,800 on a sum of ` 5. A sum of money lent out at simple interest
15,000 for three years? amounts to ` 1600 in 2 years and ` 2500 in 5
(1) 2% (2) 3% years. Find the sum and the rate of interest
(3) 3.5% (4) 4% (1) ` 2,000, 20%
(2) ` 1,000, 10%
3. Due to fall in the annual rate of interest from (3) ` 1,000, 30%
6% to 5 ½% a person’s yearly income (4) ` 1,000, 15%
reduces by ` 600. What is his capital?
(1) ` 1.2 lakhs (2) ` 12,000
(3) ` 60,000 (4) ` 6 lakhs

Practice Exercise - 2

6. For how many years should a person invest (1) ` 7,500 (2) ` 7,000
` 4,000 @ 5% p.a., to get an interest of ` (3) ` 8,000 (4) ` 8,500
410, under compound interest, interest being
compounded annually? 9. Determine the rate of interest for a sum that
(1) 3 (2) 2 becomes 343/216 times itself in 3 years
(3) 4 (4) None of these interest being compounded annually.
(1) 20% (2) 10%
7. At what rate of interest will a person earn an (3) 16 2/3% (4) 12%
interest of ` 4,641 on a sum of ` 10,000 for
four years, interest being compounded 10. An amount is compounded annually.
annually? Interest earned for the first year is ` 100.
(1) 10% (2) 8% Interest earned at the end of the second year
(3) 11% (4) 9% is ` 205. What is the rate of interest and the
principal?
8. On what sum will a person earn an interest (1) 5%, ` 2,000 (2) 10%, `4,000
of ` 4,167 for three years @ 15% interest (3) 10%, ` 2,000 (4) 5%, ` 4,000
p.a., interest being compounded annually?
Practice Exercise - 3

11. A sum of ` 10,000 is lent under simple 12. A sum is invested under simple interest @
interest partly @ 5% p.a. and the remaining 3% p.a. for the first two years, @ 4% p.a. for
@ 7% p.a. for one year. If the total interest the next three years and @ 5% p.a. for the
earned is ` 600 then find the sum invested remaining years. If the total interest earned
@ 7% p.a.? for the 6 years is ` 920 then find the sum.
(1) ` 5,000 (2) ` 5,500
(3) ` 4,000 (4) ` 4,500 (1) ` 3,500 (2) ` 4,000
(3) ` 4,500 (4) ` 3,750
13. A sum becomes three times itself in eight
years under simple interest. In how many 15. A person invests ` 20,000 @ 5% p.a. under
years will the sum become fifteen times simple interest for one year and ` 10,000 @
itself at the same rate of interest under 7% p.a. simple interest for one year under
simple interest? Scheme 1. If the total sum is invested @
(1) 54 (2) 55 5.5% p.a. under simple interest for 2 years in
(3) 56 (4) Cannot be determined Scheme 2 then find under which Scheme the
person gets higher interest.
14. A sum becomes three times itself in three (1) Scheme 1
years under compound interest. In how (2) Scheme 2
many years under compound interest will (3) Scheme 1 or Scheme 2
the sum become 81 times itself at the same (4) Cannot be determined
rate of interest?
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) Cannot be determined
Practice Exercise - 4

16. A sum lent @ 20% p.a. under simple interest (1) ` 7,000 & 10%
for two years yields ` 95 more than when (2) ` 7,000 & 15%
lent at 18% p.a. interest compounded (3) ` 8,000 & 15%
annually for two years. Find the sum. (4) ` 8,000 & 10%
(1) ` 12,000 (2) ` 11,500
(3) `13,000 (4) ` 12,500 19. Ravi had invested `1,50,000 in his factory.
During the first two years his profits were
17. A sum is invested for three years under 10% and 15% respectively. If he reinvested
compound interest. The annual rates of the profit of each year at the beginning of
interest for the first, second and third years the next year, his total profit would be
are 4% p.a., 5% p.a. and 6% p.a. (1) ` 39,750 (2) ` 40,000
respectively. Find the sum if the amount at (3) ` 15,000 (4) ` 24,750
the end of the third year is ` 11,575.2?
(1) ` 9,000 (2) ` 9,500 20. What is the interest earned on a sum of `
(3) `10,000 (4) `10,500 16,000 for two years @10% p.a. interest
compounded half yearly?
18. The compound interest and simple interest (1) ` 4,844.1 (2) ` 3,844.1
on a certain sum for two years are ` 1,470 (3) ` 3,448.1 (4) ` 4,448.1
and ` 1,400 respectively. Find the sum and
rate of interest.

Practice Exercise - 5
(1) 10% (2) 7.5%
21. What is the interest earned on a sum of `
(3) 5% (4) 15%
12,000 for 27 months at 20% p.a. interest
compounded annually? 25. The difference between the compound
(1) ` 2,520 (2) ` 6,144 interest and simple interest on a sum for
(3) ` 8,736 (4) ` 2,184 three years at 20% p.a. is ` 3,200. Find the
sum
22. A bacterial culture kept in a box doubles
(1) ` 2,500 (2) `10,000
each hour. The box was filled with bacteria
(3) ` 20,000 (4) ` 25,000
in ten hours. After how many hours will the
box be half-filled?
(1) 5 (2) 2.5
(3) 6 (4) 9

23. What interest will ` 5,000 earn for the

period from 4th Feb 2011 to 29th June 2011 if
the interest rate is 20%?
(1) ` 350 (2) ` 340

(3) ` 400 (4) ` 500

24. The simple interest on a sum of money is

25% of the principal and the rate per annum
is equal to the number of years. Find the rate
of interest.
 .

Q108 SIMPLE AND COMPOUND INTEREST

Practice Exercise - 1

1. For how many years should a person invest

4. Ram had invested an amount under simple
` 10,000 to get a simple interest of ` 2,000
@ 5% p.a.? interest. After 8 years he gets 96% of what
(1) 4 (2) 5 he had invested. What is the rate of interest?
(3) 6 (4) None of these (1) 6% (2) 12%
(3) 10% (4) Cannot be determined
2. At what rate of interest will a person earn a
simple interest of ` 1,800 on a sum of ` 5. A sum of money lent out at simple interest
15,000 for three years? amounts to ` 1600 in 2 years and ` 2500 in 5
(1) 2% (2) 3% years. Find the sum and the rate of interest
(3) 3.5% (4) 4% (1) ` 2,000, 20%
(2) ` 1,000, 10%
3. Due to fall in the annual rate of interest from (3) ` 1,000, 30%
6% to 5 ½% a person’s yearly income (4) ` 1,000, 15%
reduces by ` 600. What is his capital?
(1) ` 1.2 lakhs (2) ` 12,000
(3) ` 60,000 (4) ` 6 lakhs

Practice Exercise - 2

6. For how many years should a person invest (1) ` 7,500 (2) ` 7,000
` 4,000 @ 5% p.a., to get an interest of ` (3) ` 8,000 (4) ` 8,500
410, under compound interest, interest being
compounded annually? 9. Determine the rate of interest for a sum that
(1) 3 (2) 2 becomes 343/216 times itself in 3 years
(3) 4 (4) None of these interest being compounded annually.
(1) 20% (2) 10%
7. At what rate of interest will a person earn an (3) 16 2/3% (4) 12%
interest of ` 4,641 on a sum of ` 10,000 for
four years, interest being compounded 10. An amount is compounded annually.
annually? Interest earned for the first year is ` 100.
(1) 10% (2) 8% Interest earned at the end of the second year
(3) 11% (4) 9% is ` 205. What is the rate of interest and the
principal?
8. On what sum will a person earn an interest (1) 5%, ` 2,000 (2) 10%, `4,000
of ` 4,167 for three years @ 15% interest (3) 10%, ` 2,000 (4) 5%, ` 4,000
p.a., interest being compounded annually?
Practice Exercise - 3

11. A sum of ` 10,000 is lent under simple 12. A sum is invested under simple interest @
interest partly @ 5% p.a. and the remaining 3% p.a. for the first two years, @ 4% p.a. for
@ 7% p.a. for one year. If the total interest the next three years and @ 5% p.a. for the
earned is ` 600 then find the sum invested remaining years. If the total interest earned
@ 7% p.a.? for the 6 years is ` 920 then find the sum.
(1) ` 5,000 (2) ` 5,500
(3) ` 4,000 (4) ` 4,500 (1) ` 3,500 (2) ` 4,000
(3) ` 4,500 (4) ` 3,750
13. A sum becomes three times itself in eight
years under simple interest. In how many 15. A person invests ` 20,000 @ 5% p.a. under
years will the sum become fifteen times simple interest for one year and ` 10,000 @
itself at the same rate of interest under 7% p.a. simple interest for one year under
simple interest? Scheme 1. If the total sum is invested @
(1) 54 (2) 55 5.5% p.a. under simple interest for 2 years in
(3) 56 (4) Cannot be determined Scheme 2 then find under which Scheme the
person gets higher interest.
14. A sum becomes three times itself in three (1) Scheme 1
years under compound interest. In how (2) Scheme 2
many years under compound interest will (3) Scheme 1 or Scheme 2
the sum become 81 times itself at the same (4) Cannot be determined
rate of interest?
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) Cannot be determined
Practice Exercise - 4

16. A sum lent @ 20% p.a. under simple interest (1) ` 7,000 & 10%
for two years yields ` 95 more than when (2) ` 7,000 & 15%
lent at 18% p.a. interest compounded (3) ` 8,000 & 15%
annually for two years. Find the sum. (4) ` 8,000 & 10%
(1) ` 12,000 (2) ` 11,500
(3) `13,000 (4) ` 12,500 19. Ravi had invested `1,50,000 in his factory.
During the first two years his profits were
17. A sum is invested for three years under 10% and 15% respectively. If he reinvested
compound interest. The annual rates of the profit of each year at the beginning of
interest for the first, second and third years the next year, his total profit would be
are 4% p.a., 5% p.a. and 6% p.a. (1) ` 39,750 (2) ` 40,000
respectively. Find the sum if the amount at (3) ` 15,000 (4) ` 24,750
the end of the third year is ` 11,575.2?
(1) ` 9,000 (2) ` 9,500 20. What is the interest earned on a sum of `
(3) `10,000 (4) `10,500 16,000 for two years @10% p.a. interest
compounded half yearly?
18. The compound interest and simple interest (1) ` 4,844.1 (2) ` 3,844.1
on a certain sum for two years are ` 1,470 (3) ` 3,448.1 (4) ` 4,448.1
and ` 1,400 respectively. Find the sum and
rate of interest.

Practice Exercise - 5
(1) 10% (2) 7.5%
21. What is the interest earned on a sum of `
(3) 5% (4) 15%
12,000 for 27 months at 20% p.a. interest
compounded annually? 25. The difference between the compound
(1) ` 2,520 (2) ` 6,144 interest and simple interest on a sum for
(3) ` 8,736 (4) ` 2,184 three years at 20% p.a. is ` 3,200. Find the
sum
22. A bacterial culture kept in a box doubles
(1) ` 2,500 (2) `10,000
each hour. The box was filled with bacteria
(3) ` 20,000 (4) ` 25,000
in ten hours. After how many hours will the
box be half-filled?
(1) 5 (2) 2.5
(3) 6 (4) 9

23. What interest will ` 5,000 earn for the

period from 4th Feb 2011 to 29th June 2011 if
the interest rate is 20%?
(1) ` 350 (2) ` 340

(3) ` 400 (4) ` 500

24. The simple interest on a sum of money is

25% of the principal and the rate per annum
is equal to the number of years. Find the rate
of interest.
 .

Q110 PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS

Practice Exercise - 1

1. There are 5 trains between Chennai and (1) 120 (2) 216
Hyderabad and 4 trains between Hyderabad (3) 720 (4) 100
and Mumbai. In how many ways can one
travel from Chennai to Mumbai via 4. In how many ways can a committee of 4 men
Hyderabad? and 5 women be formed from 6 men and 8
(1) 5 (2) 20 women where Ramkumar should be present
(3) 9 (4) 4 and Sheela should not be present?
(1) 210 (2) 2002
2. How many numbers can be formed using all (3) 840 (4) 18
of the digits 1, 2 and 3 exactly once?
(1) 6 (2) 27 5. In how many ways can Ram post five letters
(3) 33 (4) 39 into three letterboxes?
(1) 125 (2) 81
3. How many palindromes having five (3) 243 (4) 100
characters can be formed with the elements of
A where A = {@, #, &, $, %, *}

Practice Exercise - 2
6. Fifteen points lie on a plane such that 5 of (1) 123 (2) 24
them are collinear. How many line segments (3) 6 (4) 27
can be drawn using these points?
(1) 96 (2) 105 9. In how many ways can the letters ABCD be
(3) 95 (4) 450 arranged such that A always comes before
B?
7. Murali has a four-digit code for his safe. He (1) 24 (2) 16
forgets the code but remembers that it (3) 12 (4) 6
contains all the digits 0,1,2,3. What is the
maximum number of combinations possible? 10. In how many ways can seven people be
(1) 24 (2) 216 seated around a circular table such that two
(3) 12 (4) 18 of them are always together?
(1) 7! (2) 6!2!
8. How many words can be formed using the (3) 5!2! (4) 6! / 2
letters of the word BLACK such that the
word always starts with B and ends with L?
Practice Exercise - 3

11. How many 5-digit even numbers can Varsha How many words will precede the word
form by using each of the digits 1, 3, 6, 8 SENT?
and 9 only once? (1) 13 (2) 24
(1) 24 (2) 120 (3) 6 (4) 12
(3) 48 (4) 60
14. Find the number of three digit numbers that
12. In how many ways can the letters of the contain the digit 8.
word ORBIT be rearranged such that the (1) 130 (2) 90
vowels occupy even places? (3) 252 (4) 222
(1) 12 (2) 6
(3) 120 (4) 144 15. 3 couples attend a party. They are to be
13. Raghu lists down all possible arrangements seated in a straight row such that no two
of the word SENT in alphabetical order. people of the same gender sit next to each
other. In how many ways is this possible?
 (1) 360 (2) 720 (3) 72 (4) 36
Practice Exercise - 4

16. How many 4-digit numbers can be formed is the total number of arrangements
with repetition of the digits 1,2,3,4 such that possible?
they are always divisible by 4? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2 (2)16 (3) 24 (4) 8
(3) 64 (4) 9
19. How many words can be formed using the
17. In how many ways can the letters of the letters of the word ‘RECRUITMENT’?
word CURTAIN be arranged such that the (1) 11! (2) 11!/2!2!2!
consonants always occupy even places? (3) 11!/2! (4) None of these
(1) 0 (2) 5040
(3) 720 (4) 120 20. In how many ways can Johnson invite 100
18. Ruby, Nandini, Yuva, Radha and Suganya people for his wedding if he must invite at
are to be seated in a straight row. Yuva and least 1 person?
Suganya can never be seated together. Ruby (1) 99 (2) 100
and Nandini must always sit together. What (3) 2100 (4) 2100-1

Practice Exercise - 5

21. In a leap year, what is the probability of (3) 6/52 (4) 18/52
having 53 Sundays?
24. What is the probability that any number of
(1) 3/7 (2) 1/7
the form 7n + 7m is even, where m and n are
(3) 2/7 (4) None of these
natural numbers?
22. Prabhu and Vishnu attend an interview. The (1) 1 (2) 0.5
odds in favour of Prabhu getting selected are (3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
5:4. The odds against Vishnu getting
25. A room has 4 bulb holders. An electrician
selected are 3:2. What is the probability that
has 10 bulbs out of which 3 are defective.
both Prabhu and Vishnu are selected in the
What is the probability that the room is lit
interview?
when the bulbs are placed in the holders &
(2) 1/9 (2) 1/3
switched on?
(3) 5/6 (4) 2/9
(1) 0 (2) 4/7
23. Nandini draws a card from a pack of playing (3) 3/7 (4) 1
cards. What is the probability that it is a
numbered, black card?
(1) 46/52 (2) 32/52
Practice Exercise - 6
26. There are ten coins of which five are regular
30. Balaji picks a number between 1 and 100.
coins and the remaining are peculiar as they
have heads on both sides. If a coin is tossed What is the probability that the number is
at random, what is the probability that it is a divisible by either 3 or 4 but not by both?
head? (1) 1/3 (2) 1/2
(1) 0.35 (2) 0.5 (3) 41/98 (4) 29/50
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
27. A basket contains a flower, either red or
white with equal probability of ½. A red
flower is then placed in the basket and a
flower is picked up at random. What is the
probability that the flower picked is red?
(1) 0.35 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75

28. In how many ways can five distinct letters

be placed in 5 distinct envelopes such that
exactly one letter is placed inside a wrong
envelope?
(1) 0 (2) 24
(3) 23 (4) None of these
29. When two dice are thrown, what is the
probability that the number on the first die is
more than the number on the second die?
(1) 5/12 (2) 1/2
(3) 1/3 (4) 1/4
 .

Q110 PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS

Practice Exercise - 1

1. There are 5 trains between Chennai and (1) 120 (2) 216
Hyderabad and 4 trains between Hyderabad (3) 720 (4) 100
and Mumbai. In how many ways can one
travel from Chennai to Mumbai via 4. In how many ways can a committee of 4 men
Hyderabad? and 5 women be formed from 6 men and 8
(1) 5 (2) 20 women where Ramkumar should be present
(3) 9 (4) 4 and Sheela should not be present?
(1) 210 (2) 2002
2. How many numbers can be formed using all (3) 840 (4) 18
of the digits 1, 2 and 3 exactly once?
(1) 6 (2) 27 5. In how many ways can Ram post five letters
(3) 33 (4) 39 into three letterboxes?
(1) 125 (2) 81
3. How many palindromes having five (3) 243 (4) 100
characters can be formed with the elements of
A where A = {@, #, &, $, %, *}

Practice Exercise - 2
6. Fifteen points lie on a plane such that 5 of (1) 123 (2) 24
them are collinear. How many line segments (3) 6 (4) 27
can be drawn using these points?
(1) 96 (2) 105 9. In how many ways can the letters ABCD be
(3) 95 (4) 450 arranged such that A always comes before
B?
7. Murali has a four-digit code for his safe. He (1) 24 (2) 16
forgets the code but remembers that it (3) 12 (4) 6
contains all the digits 0,1,2,3. What is the
maximum number of combinations possible? 10. In how many ways can seven people be
(1) 24 (2) 216 seated around a circular table such that two
(3) 12 (4) 18 of them are always together?
(1) 7! (2) 6!2!
8. How many words can be formed using the (3) 5!2! (4) 6! / 2
letters of the word BLACK such that the
word always starts with B and ends with L?
Practice Exercise - 3

11. How many 5-digit even numbers can Varsha How many words will precede the word
form by using each of the digits 1, 3, 6, 8 SENT?
and 9 only once? (1) 13 (2) 24
(1) 24 (2) 120 (3) 6 (4) 12
(3) 48 (4) 60
14. Find the number of three digit numbers that
12. In how many ways can the letters of the contain the digit 8.
word ORBIT be rearranged such that the (1) 130 (2) 90
vowels occupy even places? (3) 252 (4) 222
(1) 12 (2) 6
(3) 120 (4) 144 15. 3 couples attend a party. They are to be
13. Raghu lists down all possible arrangements seated in a straight row such that no two
of the word SENT in alphabetical order. people of the same gender sit next to each
other. In how many ways is this possible?
 (1) 360 (2) 720 (3) 72 (4) 36
Practice Exercise - 4

16. How many 4-digit numbers can be formed is the total number of arrangements
with repetition of the digits 1,2,3,4 such that possible?
they are always divisible by 4? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2 (2)16 (3) 24 (4) 8
(3) 64 (4) 9
19. How many words can be formed using the
17. In how many ways can the letters of the letters of the word ‘RECRUITMENT’?
word CURTAIN be arranged such that the (1) 11! (2) 11!/2!2!2!
consonants always occupy even places? (3) 11!/2! (4) None of these
(1) 0 (2) 5040
(3) 720 (4) 120 20. In how many ways can Johnson invite 100
18. Ruby, Nandini, Yuva, Radha and Suganya people for his wedding if he must invite at
are to be seated in a straight row. Yuva and least 1 person?
Suganya can never be seated together. Ruby (1) 99 (2) 100
and Nandini must always sit together. What (3) 2100 (4) 2100-1

Practice Exercise - 5

21. In a leap year, what is the probability of (3) 6/52 (4) 18/52
having 53 Sundays?
24. What is the probability that any number of
(1) 3/7 (2) 1/7
the form 7n + 7m is even, where m and n are
(3) 2/7 (4) None of these
natural numbers?
22. Prabhu and Vishnu attend an interview. The (1) 1 (2) 0.5
odds in favour of Prabhu getting selected are (3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
5:4. The odds against Vishnu getting
25. A room has 4 bulb holders. An electrician
selected are 3:2. What is the probability that
has 10 bulbs out of which 3 are defective.
both Prabhu and Vishnu are selected in the
What is the probability that the room is lit
interview?
when the bulbs are placed in the holders &
(2) 1/9 (2) 1/3
switched on?
(3) 5/6 (4) 2/9
(1) 0 (2) 4/7
23. Nandini draws a card from a pack of playing (3) 3/7 (4) 1
cards. What is the probability that it is a
numbered, black card?
(1) 46/52 (2) 32/52
Practice Exercise - 6
26. There are ten coins of which five are regular
30. Balaji picks a number between 1 and 100.
coins and the remaining are peculiar as they
have heads on both sides. If a coin is tossed What is the probability that the number is
at random, what is the probability that it is a divisible by either 3 or 4 but not by both?
head? (1) 1/3 (2) 1/2
(1) 0.35 (2) 0.5 (3) 41/98 (4) 29/50
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
27. A basket contains a flower, either red or
white with equal probability of ½. A red
flower is then placed in the basket and a
flower is picked up at random. What is the
probability that the flower picked is red?
(1) 0.35 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75

28. In how many ways can five distinct letters

be placed in 5 distinct envelopes such that
exactly one letter is placed inside a wrong
envelope?
(1) 0 (2) 24
(3) 23 (4) None of these
29. When two dice are thrown, what is the
probability that the number on the first die is
more than the number on the second die?
(1) 5/12 (2) 1/2
(3) 1/3 (4) 1/4
 .
.

QA 113 Progressions
Ref :- VMC12008 Time – 90 Min

Arithmetic Progression: A sequence is called an arithmetic progression if the difference between any term and its previous term is a
constant. If the first term is ‘a’ and the common difference i.e. ‘d’ is constant then the progression takes the form a, a + d, a + 2d, a +
3d…

The nth term of the arithmetic progression is given Tn = a + (n – 1)d and the sum of n terms of the arithmetic progression is given by
n
Sn   2a  (n  1)d 
2
d = Tn – T n – 1
n
Sn  T1  Tn 
2
If three quantities are in an AP then the terms can be taken to be (a – d), a, (a + d)

Geometric Progression: A sequence is called a geometric progression if the ratio of any term to the preceding term is a constant,
called common ratio.

If the first term is ‘a’ and the common ratio is ‘r’ then the sequence takes the form a, ar, ar 2, ar3, ….
The nth term of the geometric progression is given by Tn = arn-1
The sum of the first n terms of the geometric progression is given by
 1  r n  
for r < 1 and 
Sn  a 

 rn 1 
 ; for r > 1
Sn  a  ;
 1  r   r  1 

If three quantities a, b and c are in G.P., then b is the geometric mean of a and c ∴ b =
ac
Three numbers in G.P. can be taken as a , a, ar. Four numbers in G.P. can be taken as
a a
3
, , ar , ar 3 .
r r r
Sum of an infinite geometric series, where | r | < 1 is given by S ∞ = a
1 r
For | r | > 1, sum of an infinite G.P. tends to infinity.

Harmonic Progression: A sequence formed by the terms a1, a2, a3, an…. for which the reciprocals of the terms,
1 1 1 1
, ,... ,... form an arithmetic progression is called a harmonic progression.
a1 a2 a3 an

The nth term of an harmonic progression is given by, T  1 where, a and d are the first term and common difference of
a  (n  1)d
n

the corresponding Arithmetic progression.

Class Discussion

1. How many terms are there in AP 10, 15, 20,…….., 4 The 8th term of a G.P is 16 times the fourth term.
100? Find the first term of this GP If its 5th term is 48?
(1) 20 (2) 19 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 21 (4) 22 (3) 5 (4) 2

2. Find the sum of all terms in the series 3,7,11…83 5. The sum of three numbers in an AP is 15 and the
(1) 853 (2) 863 sum of their squares is 83. Find the largest number.
(3) 903 (4) 893 (1) 8 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) None of these
3. How many terms are there in the G.P 3,6,12…1536?
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 10
6. The 4th and 10th term of a GP are 1 and 32
2
respectively. Find the 2nd term. Practice Exercise
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4) 1 16. The 3rd term of a G.P is 18 and the 5th term of same
8 4
G.P is 162. What is the 6th term of this G.P?
7. If there are n squares whose perimeters are in G.P
(1) 287 (2) 1037
then their sides will be in
(3) 1595 (4) none of these
(1) AP (2) G.P
(3) HP (4) Cannot be determined
17. The sum of n terms of G.P 1,3,9,27,81… whose nth
term is 729 is ______
8. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400
(1) 1093 (2) 1037
are multiples of 7?
(3) 1595 (4) none of these
(1) 19 (2) 18
(3) 17 (4) 29
18. The sum of the first 31 terms of an A.P is zero. Find
its 16th term.
9. Three geometric means are inserted between 1 and (1) 15 (2) 16
8
(3) 31 (4) 0
32. Find the second geometric mean
(1) 4 (2) 16
19. The value of
(3) 2 (4) 8
1×2 +2×3 +3×4 +4×5 +………..+ 16×17 is
(1) 1512 (2) 1632
10. The sum of the 1st four terms of an A.P is 30 and
(3) 1780 (4) 1840
sum of the first eight terms of the same A.P is 90.
What is the common difference of this A.P?
20. The value of
(1) 20 (2) 15
1 1 1 1
(3) 30 (4) None of these    ...........  is
1 2 2  3 3  4 20  21
11. If there are n squares whose areas are in G.P then (1) 20 (2) 1
their sides will be in 21
(1) A.P (2) G. P
(3) 1 (4) None of these
(3) HP (4) Nothing can be said
21

12. 1 1 1 1
   .........  21. Find the value of
1 3 3  5 5  7 31 33
1 1 1 1
(1) 15 (2) 16  2  2  .........  2
31 33
2 1 3 1 4 1
2
25  1
(3) 17 (4) 1 (1) 26 (2)
13
16 2 27 54
(3)
13 (4) None of these
1 1 1 1
13.    ..........  2 27
2  1 42  1 62  1
2
18  1
8 22. How many two digit numbers are divisible by 7?
(1) 9 (2)
19 19 (1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 15 (4) None
3
(3) 13 (4)
17 17 23. The sum of all two-digit natural numbers is _____
(1) 4750 (2) 4895
14. The value of (3) 3776 (4) 4905
1.3 + 3.5 + 5.7 + ……….39.41 is
(1) 11260 (2) 11400 24. The sum of the first 60 natural numbers is ____
(3) 11460 (4) 14000 (1) 1830 (2) 1640
(3) 3660 (4) 1770

15. P and Q are two numbers whose AM is 13 and GM 25. The 5th and 13th terms of an A.P are 5 and -3
is 5. Which of the following may be a value of P? respectively. What is the first term of this AP?
(1) 25 (2) 20 (1) 9 (2) 14
(3) 49 (4) 10 (3) -15 (4)
 .
.

QA 113 Progressions
Ref :- VMC12008 Time – 90 Min

Arithmetic Progression: A sequence is called an arithmetic progression if the difference between any term and its previous term is a
constant. If the first term is ‘a’ and the common difference i.e. ‘d’ is constant then the progression takes the form a, a + d, a + 2d, a +
3d…

The nth term of the arithmetic progression is given Tn = a + (n – 1)d and the sum of n terms of the arithmetic progression is given by
n
Sn   2a  (n  1)d 
2
d = Tn – T n – 1
n
Sn  T1  Tn 
2
If three quantities are in an AP then the terms can be taken to be (a – d), a, (a + d)

Geometric Progression: A sequence is called a geometric progression if the ratio of any term to the preceding term is a constant,
called common ratio.

If the first term is ‘a’ and the common ratio is ‘r’ then the sequence takes the form a, ar, ar 2, ar3, ….
The nth term of the geometric progression is given by Tn = arn-1
The sum of the first n terms of the geometric progression is given by
 1  r n  
for r < 1 and 
Sn  a 

 rn 1 
 ; for r > 1
Sn  a  ;
 1  r   r  1 

If three quantities a, b and c are in G.P., then b is the geometric mean of a and c ∴ b =
ac
Three numbers in G.P. can be taken as a , a, ar. Four numbers in G.P. can be taken as
a a
3
, , ar , ar 3 .
r r r
Sum of an infinite geometric series, where | r | < 1 is given by S ∞ = a
1 r
For | r | > 1, sum of an infinite G.P. tends to infinity.

Harmonic Progression: A sequence formed by the terms a1, a2, a3, an…. for which the reciprocals of the terms,
1 1 1 1
, ,... ,... form an arithmetic progression is called a harmonic progression.
a1 a2 a3 an

The nth term of an harmonic progression is given by, T  1 where, a and d are the first term and common difference of
a  (n  1)d
n

the corresponding Arithmetic progression.

Class Discussion

1. How many terms are there in AP 10, 15, 20,…….., 4 The 8th term of a G.P is 16 times the fourth term.
100? Find the first term of this GP If its 5th term is 48?
(1) 20 (2) 19 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 21 (4) 22 (3) 5 (4) 2

2. Find the sum of all terms in the series 3,7,11…83 5. The sum of three numbers in an AP is 15 and the
(1) 853 (2) 863 sum of their squares is 83. Find the largest number.
(3) 903 (4) 893 (1) 8 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) None of these
3. How many terms are there in the G.P 3,6,12…1536?
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 10
6. The 4th and 10th term of a GP are 1 and 32
2
respectively. Find the 2nd term. Practice Exercise
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4) 1 16. The 3rd term of a G.P is 18 and the 5th term of same
8 4
G.P is 162. What is the 6th term of this G.P?
7. If there are n squares whose perimeters are in G.P
(1) 287 (2) 1037
then their sides will be in
(3) 1595 (4) none of these
(1) AP (2) G.P
(3) HP (4) Cannot be determined
17. The sum of n terms of G.P 1,3,9,27,81… whose nth
term is 729 is ______
8. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400
(1) 1093 (2) 1037
are multiples of 7?
(3) 1595 (4) none of these
(1) 19 (2) 18
(3) 17 (4) 29
18. The sum of the first 31 terms of an A.P is zero. Find
its 16th term.
9. Three geometric means are inserted between 1 and (1) 15 (2) 16
8
(3) 31 (4) 0
32. Find the second geometric mean
(1) 4 (2) 16
19. The value of
(3) 2 (4) 8
1×2 +2×3 +3×4 +4×5 +………..+ 16×17 is
(1) 1512 (2) 1632
10. The sum of the 1st four terms of an A.P is 30 and
(3) 1780 (4) 1840
sum of the first eight terms of the same A.P is 90.
What is the common difference of this A.P?
20. The value of
(1) 20 (2) 15
1 1 1 1
(3) 30 (4) None of these    ...........  is
1 2 2  3 3  4 20  21
11. If there are n squares whose areas are in G.P then (1) 20 (2) 1
their sides will be in 21
(1) A.P (2) G. P
(3) 1 (4) None of these
(3) HP (4) Nothing can be said
21

12. 1 1 1 1
   .........  21. Find the value of
1 3 3  5 5  7 31 33
1 1 1 1
(1) 15 (2) 16  2  2  .........  2
31 33
2 1 3 1 4 1
2
25  1
(3) 17 (4) 1 (1) 26 (2)
13
16 2 27 54
(3)
13 (4) None of these
1 1 1 1
13.    ..........  2 27
2  1 42  1 62  1
2
18  1
8 22. How many two digit numbers are divisible by 7?
(1) 9 (2)
19 19 (1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 15 (4) None
3
(3) 13 (4)
17 17 23. The sum of all two-digit natural numbers is _____
(1) 4750 (2) 4895
14. The value of (3) 3776 (4) 4905
1.3 + 3.5 + 5.7 + ……….39.41 is
(1) 11260 (2) 11400 24. The sum of the first 60 natural numbers is ____
(3) 11460 (4) 14000 (1) 1830 (2) 1640
(3) 3660 (4) 1770

15. P and Q are two numbers whose AM is 13 and GM 25. The 5th and 13th terms of an A.P are 5 and -3
is 5. Which of the following may be a value of P? respectively. What is the first term of this AP?
(1) 25 (2) 20 (1) 9 (2) 14
(3) 49 (4) 10 (3) -15 (4)
V101 NOUNS, PRONOUNS AND ARTICLES

FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH APPROPRIATE ARTICLES

1. Ram has decided to join _____________ (a/an) university in _____________ (the/no article) USA.
2. You cannot go unprepared for _____________ (a/an) exam.
3. _____________ (a/an) European founded this company.
4. It will take me _____________ (a/an) hour to do this job.
5. Ram was _____________ (a/an) honest person.
6. Can you lend me _____________ (a/an) umbrella?
7. This is _____________ (a/the/no article) melodious song.
8. _____________ (a/the/no article) children maintained silence when the teacher was not there.
9. Alexander Graham Bell invented _____________ (a/the) telephone.
10. _____________ (the/no article) Ramayana is _____________ (a/an) Indian Epic.
11. Ramanujam is _____________ (a/the) greatest Mathematician.
12. Akbar fought _____________ (a/the) war of Panipat.
13. I know _____________ (a/the) boy who studied at _____________ (a/the) University of London.
14. _____________ (a/the) dogs chased _____________ (a/the) cats away.
15. _____________ (a/the) tiger is _____________ (a/the/no article) national animal of India.
16. Ramesh is _____________ (the/a) best student of his class.
17. _____________ (an/the) politician is sure to win _____________ (a/the/no article) elections this year.
18. This is _____________ (a/the) golden moment in _____________ (a/the/no article) history of Indian cricket.
19. _____________ (a/the) Reserve Bank has warned banks to reduce spending.
20. _____________ (a/the) famous director and _____________ (a/the/no article) actor has recently started
_____________ (a/no article) company.
21. I have _____________ (a/no article) blue and white striped shirt.
22. _____________ (a/the) Lakshadweep Islands are a group of islands located in ____________ (the/ no article)
Indian Ocean.
23. I have ____________ (a/the) white and ____________ (a/the/no article) brown cat.
24. Ask Monica to sing _____________ (a/the/no article) song that she sang at _____________ (the/no article)
competition.
25. Communication has gone through _____________ (a/no article) lot of change in the past few years. It has
transformed from sending messages through ____________ (a/no articles) birds to _____________ (an/no
article) E-mails.
26. _____________ (a/the) man who strings the bow wins the hand of the princess.
27. _____________ (a/the/no article) People’s Republic of China is located in Northern Asia.
28. _____________ (a/the/no article) financial crisis in Greece has led to _____________ (an/the/no article) exodus
of natives from _____________ (a/the/no article) country.
29. Last week I read _____________ (a/an/no article) interesting book which happens to be _____________ (a/the
no article) most interesting book that I have read.
30. I saw _____________ (a/the) man who stole your watch walking down _____________ (a/the) road.

CORRECT THE ERRORS, IF ANY, IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES

1. He gave me a work to finish

2. The sceneries of Yelagiri are beautiful
3. Please buy a soap when you go to the market.
4. Harold gave Kumar an informationthat is critical to the new project.
5. The actors bodyguard has been charged for violation of security code.
6. The committee member’s cars are parked outside.
7. The boats crew have survived the storm.
8. My friend, the geologists opinion is that the climatic conditions of this village are favourable for the project.
9. Ram and Lakshman’s sweet shops are closed.
10. George and John’s design studio is located in City Centre Mall.
11. It is me who did the work.
12. Whom did you meet?
13. Whom are you going with?
14. It was one of the best speeches that has ever been made in the college.
15. Shankar is one of the most popular singers who has been awarded with this prize.
16. I went to pick up my sister from the stationthat prevented me from attending the meeting on time.
17. She studied very hard to clear exam.
18. It was his sincerity which helped him achieve his goals.
19. Sathya is one of the best teachers that has ever worked here.
20. You and me are invited for the event.
21. Between you and I, she has been dodging her friends for a week now.
22. I bought the same racket which you did.
23. For conscience sake, please tell her truth.
24. Lilly, you and I are going to be punished for doing this.
25. I, you and Rose are going to be awarded for the project.

CONCEPT APPLICATION TEST

1. Ganesh, _____________ protagonist of the novel, is a mesmerising character.

(1) a (2) the
(3) a or the (4) no article

2. George goes to _____________ church every Sunday.

(1) the (2) a
(3) a or the (4) no article
3. Rajesh, _____________ chairman of the company, will be leaving or Chennai tonight.

(1) the (2) a

(3) a or the (4) no article

4. Sitaram, _____________ employee of the company, is upset with the new company rules
(1) a (2) an
(3) the (4) no article

5. Ramandeep has left for _____________ United Arab Emirates.

(1) a (2) the
(3) an (4) no article

6. Florida is _____________ beautiful state.

(1) a (2) the
(3) an (4) no article

7. _____________ church that George goes to is in Besant Nagar.

(1) A (2) The
(3) A or An (4) No article

8. This book belongs to _____________

(1) me (2) mine
(3) his (4) hers

9. _____________ economics of _____________ situation is not favourable.

(1) The, the (2) A, the
(3) The, an (4) An, no article

10. _____________ of the boys were not eligible for the prize.
(1) Every (2) One
(3) Each (4) None of these

IDENTIFY THE SET OF STATEMENTS THAT ARE GRAMMATICALLY INCORRECT.

1. A. Sita has left a luggage in my room.
B. There is no place to keep anything in this room.
C. She had composed this song herself.
D. To who should I give this box.
(1) A and B (B) A and C
(C) A and D (D) A, B and D.

2. A. Rameshs shop is closed today.

B. The Nilgiris are breath taking range.
C. Why must one settle for lesser than what he deserves?
D. It is just a day’s work.
(1) A and C (B) A, B and C
(C) A only (D) A, B, C and D

3. A. Each of the warriors were felicitated by the State.

B. Rama has a black and a white dog.
C. This office is mine.
D. Please come to the trip for Girish’s sake.
(1) A, C and D (B) A and D
(C) B and D (D) B and C
4. A. Ramanujam was great mathematician.
B. While he is otherwise qualified, he fails to meet the age criteria.
C. The data need to be scrutinized.
D. I hope that you find the tea to your liking.
(1) A , B and C (B) A, B, C and D
(C) A only (D) A and B

5. A. You can sleep in Rajans room.

B. Mahesh has fear of dogs.
C. She gave me an advice.
D. To whom were you referring?
(1) A, B and C (B) A and C
(C) C and D (D) C only.
V102 VERBS, SUBJECT VERB AGREEMENT

Fill in the blanks with an appropriate verb form

1. He ____________ (lay) the handbag on the table that morning.
2. Sita never ____________(listen) to what I say.
3. The prisoner ____________ (keep) in isolationas he had turned aggressive.
4. As a little girl, I ____________ (have) a cottage in the village where I ____________ (use) to spend my
summers.
5. When I met her, she________(write) her first novel for three years.
6. This man has ____________ (stand) the test of time.
7. I will continue to ____________ (do) my duty.
8. Rekha has ____________ (clear)the exam.
9. I ____________ (dream) that I was in Scotland.
10. If I were you, I would not be ____________ (sway) by the proposal.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate auxilaries and modals

1. I don’t think Samantha ____________ (will, should, can) be able to complete the task.
2. You ____________ (ought to, might, is) help the poor.
3. The President ____________ (will, need, has) take a decision tomorrow.
4. She ____________ (must, was, is) be selected due to her irregularity.
5. ____________ (may, can, must) I have a word with you?
6. As a child, I ____________ (could, must, should) run 5 kilometres everyday.
7. I do not want to see his face. He ____________ (shall, can, could) not enter my house ever again.
8. You ____________ (must, may, will) obey office rules.

Read the following sentences and correct the errors if any.

1. The CEO along with the board members are contemplating on the propositions.
2. Ram and Seeta are interested in watching a movie.
3. Bread and Butter are a part of a scrumptious breakfast.
4. The quality of the carrots are not good.
5. Gold along with silver have risen in prices.
6. The photographer including his assistants are travelling to South Africa.
7. Time and tide wait for no one.
8. Ram as well as his friends want to watch a movie.
9. Sita or Geeta have the book.
10. Neither Shruthi nor her friends is interested in attending the class today.
11. Neither the Cabinet Ministers nor the Prime minister are arriving at Chennai today.
12. Neither Ranjitha nor Ragini have completed their homework.
13. Each of these ingredients are found in the Himalayas.
14. Everyone of the rooms are full.
15. The intensity of the eventsare not known.
16. The United States are facing a harsh monsoon.
17. Every student and every teacher are required to sign the attendance.
18. The committee have agreed unanimously.
19. Five rupees are a large sum.
20. 340 runs are a difficult score to beat.
21. Ten kilometres are a long walk.
22. The team were divided on the matter.
23. If I was you, I would accept the offer.
24. Each of the brothers are football players.
25. The white tiger is a recessive mutant of the Bengal tigers that has been reported in the wild from time to time
in Assam, Bengal and Bihar.
26. Gregory is one of the tallest boys who has played basketball.
27. Ten people have been come, and five left.
28. I lay the book on the table.
29. He has laid under the banyan tree.
30. Eating breakfast, the door bell rang.
31. He left for Mumbai on Tuesday, arriving there on Thursday.
32. She made me to do the whole work.
33. He enjoys to swim.
34. Aslam told to me about the new office timings.
35. I suggest you to take the job.
36. We discussed about your demands and we are ready to accept them.
37. She noted about the minutes of the meeting.
38. I have ordered for 2 dosas and a cup of coffee.
39. She requested for your opinion on the matter.
40. Meeting Ram for dinner, he told me about the wedding.

CONCEPT PRACTICE EXERCISE - 1

A sentence has been split into different parts. Identify the part that has an error.
1. Siddharth and Sadhana’s dance studio (A)/ that specialises in teaching various Indian dance forms(B)/ has
recently been shifted (C)/to a bigger venue at Adyar (D)
2. There are (A)/ no reason(B)/ for this(C)/ No error (D)
3. Forty percent (A)/ of the student body (B)/ is in favourof the proposal(C)/ No Error (D)
4. Our prayer (A)/ go out (B)/ to the victim (C)/ No Error (D)
5. It was the union leader (A)/ and not his ideas(B)/ that have provoked the labourers (C)/ No Error (D)
6. While I was travelling from (A)/ Bangalore to Chennai, (B)/ I found that the road is well lit (C)/ No Error
(D)
7. Are the (A)/ horse and carriage (B)/ ready for the King? (C)/ No Error (D)
8. Dinesh discussed (A)/ about the (B)/ exam with (C)/his parents. (D)
9. Gokul ordered (A)/ for coffee (B)/ for both of us (C)/no error (D)
10. Ten people have (A)/accepted the offer, (B)/ and five have rejected. (C)/ No error (D)
11. He and (A)/ I are (B)/ very compatible (C)/ No Error (D)
12. Meera together with (A)/ her sisters are (B)/ planning to move (C)/ into a new house (D)
13. Either Sun TV or Vijay TV are (A)/ going to screen (B) /the movie tonight (C) / No Error (D)
14. Ram ordered 3 pizzas in all (A) / for all and (B)/ only 1/4th of a pizza (C) /are remaining (D)
15. Ramesh and Suresh (A)/ have decided that they (B)/ will not discuss (C)/ about the matter anymore(D)
V103 ADJECTIVES, ADVERBS & CONJUNCTIONS

Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the adjectives

1. Copper is a ____________ (useful) metal.
2. Abdul is the ____________ (fit) person to do this job.
3. Oliver Twist is ___________ (popular) than most of the other novels of Charles Dickens.
4. The ______________(significant) development in the field of communication in the recent past is the
introduction of cell phones.
5. The coach could give a ____________ (fair) assessment of the capabilities of the various players.
6. Tendulkar’s feats have attracted ______________ (universal) appreciation across the globe.
7. An apple is ______________ (costly) than an orange.
8. Anusha is the ___________ (good) student in the class.
9. He lives ____________(far) down the street.
10. Rajesh is the ____________(old) in my family consisting of two sons and two daughters.
11. You need to go no _____________ (far) to make out that he is the real culprit.
12. She ran as _____________(fast) as her legs could carry her.
13. His poems are ____________ (subtle) than his prose.
14. Chennai is not as_________ (cold) as Delhi during winter.
15. There are ___________ (many) ways of solving this problem than those of that one.
16. There is ____________ (much) water in the tank than in the drum.
17. Nothing can be ______________(far) from truth than the reason given by him for his odd behavior.
18. King Solomon was one of the ____________ (wise) kings in the world.
19. There is ___________ (little) sugar in my cup than in yours.
20. That is the __________(little) quantity I would require for my immediate needs.

Find the errors in the following questions:

1. As a novelist Agatha Christie is superior than all.
2. He is senior than me.
3. He is the tallest of the two.
4. John is wealthiest of all.
5. Nandhu is the smartest of the three.
6. Machu Picchu is more beautiful than any place in the world.
7. Ramanujam was more intelligent than any man in the world.
8. This street is more beautiful than any street in Chennai
9. This is the most unique dress of all.
10. Mr. Vitthal is the older employee of the organization.
11. Rohan’s written statement differs from his verbal statement.
12. We were introduced to each other via mutual friends.
13. Sachin only succeeded in maintaining a century.
14. I haven’t got none.
15. Yamini could not find the book nowhere.
16. He will pay dear for his acts.
17. She is not so smart.
18. Shakespeare was never born in India.
19. This dress is very good to be so cheap.
20. Devi is very much exhausted to speak.
21. She speaks like her father does.
22. Scarcely had he left the venue than he got a call.
23. No sooner was he informed about the job but he had joined elsewhere.
24. Torru not only lost her pencil but her box also.
25. Not only Ramesh but Suresh also has passed the exam.
26. Gopal is more kind than Govind.
27. Gopal is more kind than strict.
28. The faculty was upset as a few students attended the seminar.
29. He arrived late than expected.
30. Madurai is further from Chennai than Bangalore is.
31. Farther information can be obtained through the website.
32. Ramesh’s house is next to my house compared to others.
33. Rama is the older sister of my family.
34. She is elder to me by 2 years.
35. He is the elder of all.
36. He arrived latter than I expected.
37. It is the last in communication technology.
38. Little information that we got was through the media.
39. The teacher was happy as few students had got the correct answer to a very difficult question.
40. Can I have any money?

CONCEPT APPLICATION TEST

1. India is sure to win the/ match as it’s dependent Pujara/ is on the team./No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

2. His father/is/ a medicine practitioner./No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. The manager was/ surprised when he saw/ few employees at/ the office as it was a national holiday.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

4. Either of the method/ is applicable /in this case./No error.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

5. There is nothing/ farther to discuss/ please close the matter now./No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. Neither of the/ sides is/ fully prepared./No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)
7. Her folly was/ that she was too /proud about being/ more beautiful of all.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

8. Rama is /better at Physics /than History./No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

9. Tendulkar is definitely /better than/ any batsman./No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

10. HM’s products are /superior than any /other product. /No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

11. The later /of the trilogy /is the most popular. /No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

12. I am appalled by the manner /in which you have spoken to me/ from now on there is/ a little room
(1) (2) (3) (4)
for you in this house.

13. Wisdom and riches /do not go together; /the later is not as/ rare as the former.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

14. You have to respect/ my words as/ I am elder than you. /No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. Ritu is nearest/ in line for /the promotion. / No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)
V104 PREPOSITIONS

Prepositions in common usage:

In, on, of, off, for, at, to , by, out, up, with, from, about, above, below, through, between, among, till, along,
amidst, across, around, before, behind, beside, beneath, below, inside, outside, under, underneath, without, within
according to, along with, away from, because of, by means of, by dint of, by virtue of, by way of, for the sake of, in
accordance with, in addition to, on behalf of, in comparison to, in case of, in lieu of, in order to, in spite of, instead of, in
reference to, in place of, in the event of, on account of , owing to, with reference to, with regard to, with a view to, in front
of . Present participles when used absolutely without any noun or pronoun attached to them also act as prepositions.
barring, regarding, notwithstanding, pending.
Barring last minute changes , this is the programme for the day.
a. Regarding his suggestions, I am yet to apply my mind.
b. Notwithstanding his influence, he could not get the work done.
c. Pending enquiry into the matter, she has been suspended.

Relations expressed by prepositions

1. Place: in the sky, on the table, over the head, above the building, under the table, within the house.
2. Time: In an hour, on a Sunday, since yesterday, for a week, from 8 a.m. to 12 p.m., between 10 a.m. and 2 p.m.
3. Agency: by post, through mail, with a knife, by fire.
4. Manner: with earnestness, by hundred runs.
5. Cause, Purpose through fear, for a picnic, of fever.
6. Possession: by him, of great means.
7. Measure, rate: by kilograms, in inches.
8. Contrast, concession: in spite of being tired, notwithstanding anything to the contrary
9. Inference, motive, source: from his training, from the sun.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions:

1. Rama paid a huge sum ___for__________ the earthquake relief fund.

2. Uma quarreled _______with______ her sister to deter her ___from__________ making a mistake.
3. If, I talk to Rani she will instantly comply _______with______ my request.
4. We should all aim ____for_________ perfection.
5. Do not indulge _________in____ malpractice.
6. She dispensed ______with_______ her old car.
8. Here is the book that you asked ____________.
9. She succeeded by the dint ____________ hard work.
10. Anitha agreed ____________ her friend.
11. What are you aiming ____________?
12. He is averse ____________to the idea.
13. This word is derived___________ French.
14. He is a contemporary ____________Shakespeare.
15. Asbestos sheets are not susceptible ___________fire.
16. Ravi hinted ________the possibility of my selection____________ the team.
17. He adapted himself ____________ the new place admirably well.
18. We must abide____________ the decision of the majority.
19. The book is divided ____________ five chapters.
20. This tree is different____________other trees in the garden.
21. People mock____________the arrogance he displays despite his ignorance.

Fill in blanks with the correct answer option:

1. Preethi found the strength to _____________ all difficulties and emerge as a successful entrepreneur.
(1) bear up (2) bear with
(3) bear out (4) bear away

2. Polly _____________ the orphan as her own child.

(1) bear up (2) brought up
(3) looked for (4) brought about

3. Princess Diana was _____________ in the prime of life.

(1) cut down (2) cut away
(3) cut up (4) cut off

4. Reema was so charming that she could _____________ with anything.

(1) get away (2) get out
(3) carry out (4) carried away

5. Robert _____________ a doctor.

(1) called up (2) called on
(3) called in (4) called for

6. Stanley _____________ the truth from his friends.

(1) kept on (2) kept up
(3) kept in (4) kept away

7. Prem _____________ a large sum of money in the share market.

(1) laid down (2) laid up
(3) laid out (4) laid by

8. Akbar’s horse _____________ halfway through the desert.

(1) gave up (2) gave through
(3) gave way (4) gave out

9. In times of need Ram had his parents to _____________ on.

(1) fall in (2) fall back
(3) fall off (4) fall out
10. Do not worry, the bad times will _____________.
(1) blow away (2) blow over
(3) blow off (4) blow past

11. Rust has _____________ this boat.

(1) eaten away (2) eaten up
(3) eaten through (4) eaten off

12. Don’t get _____________ on such silly matters.

(1) worked out (2) work on
(3) worked up (4) worked

13. He sold his car at a _____________ prize.

(1) throw over (2) throw up
(3) throw out (4) throw away

14. The strain of starting a new business from scratch is beginning to _____________ him.
(1) tell upon (2) call upon
(3) call on (4) tell against

15. Rajneesh _____________ his father

(1) takes up (2) takes after
(3) takes up after (4) takes to

CONJUNCTIONS

Fill in the blanks with appropriate conjunction and/or verb.

1. Jack _____________ Jill went up the hill.

2. Tendulkar picked up the ball _____________ threw it at the stumps in a flash.
3. All _____________ one of the students _____________ spoken.
4. The simple _____________delicious food served at the wedding was typical of my friend.
5. The movie was technically brilliant _____________totally devoid of a coherent storyline.
6. He was happy; _____________he was tired.
7. He was dependable; _____________ he was rewarded.
8. He will be rewarded _____________ he is dependable.
9. I have been thinking about this _____________I submitted my proposal.
10. I will speak to him_____________he submits his proposal.
11. Many things have happened _____________ you last came here.
12. You have to choose _____________ science _____________ commerce.
13. He is strong _____________he is old.
14. _____________he is ill, he has come.
15. _____________it rains, then the match will be abandoned.
 Find the errors (if any) in the following sentences

1. Her car is more expensive than that of her friends.

2. I made a cup of coffee for us as you were working.
3. I am ready to meet him if he is.
4. I am better acquainted with this office than you.
5. The match was abandoned as overnight rains left the outfield waterlogged.
6. He was so tired that he could stand.
7. It has arrived way beyond the deadline; the reviewer will not consider it valid.
8. You may go where you wish to.
9. I had not realised this till I submitted my proposal.
10. I will submit the proposal soon as I get the information I am looking for.

CONCEPT APPLICATION TEST

Find the part of the statement that contains an error.
1. Pranali failed /because her answer /did not bear up the question./No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

2. Many persons /got carried away /by the plague. /No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. It is the new added/ features that brought around/ an increase in sales/not the new president.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

4. I do not understand/ how this /situation came by./ No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

5. He adapted /himself the new situation /very well./No error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. The ornamented but exquisite/ furniture that was/placed in hall was typical of my friend./No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

7. I advised him /to sell those stocks /so he would /just not listen to me
(1) (2) (3) (5)

8. The movie was /technically brilliant totally/ devoid of a coherent storyline./No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

9. Polly had bought a / new dress from the mall/ the street corner against her mother’s approval. /No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

10. Please do not make/ anything for me /I want neither coffee or tea. /No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4)
V105 Synonyms & Antonyms

Choose the option that best conveys the idea in the statements below:
1. A person who has a positive attitude towards life
(1) Pessimist (2) Egoist
(3) Optimist (4) Sadist

2. A person who treats skin diseases

(1) A psychiatrist (2) A dermatologist
(3) An astrologist (4) A physiotherapist

3. A very skilful person

(1) Dexterous (2) Gauche
(3)Inelegant (4) Clumsy

4. Having no useful result

(1) Futile (2) Advantageous
(3) Instrumental (4) Profitable

5. The highest point

(1) Pinnacle (2) Nadir
(3) Bottom (4) Cliff Hanger

6. A child specialist
(1) Paediatrician (2) Ophthalmologist
(3) Orthopaedist (4) Orthodontist

7. A person who analyses handwriting

(1) Chiropractor (2) Gerontologist
(3) Graphologist (4) Chiropodist

8. Winding, crooked, with many twists and turns

(1) Torturous (2) Tortuous
(3) Placid (4) Awry

9. A person who does not believe in any kind of rule.

(1) Anarchist (2) Individualist
(3) Socialist (4) Communist

10. Wicked or Criminal; Suggesting or threatening something evil

(1) Sinister (2) Prosperous
(3) Malicious (4) Callous

11. Economical with regard to money

(1) Frugal (2) Lavish
(3) Spendthrift (4) Generous

12. Fluent but insincere

(1) Laconic (2) Voluble
(3) Glib (4) Incorrigible

13. A person who keeps to himself and does not socialise much
(1) Introvert (2) Extrovert
(3) Social (4) Gullible
14. A person who has a habit that is difficult to change
(1) Vulnerable (2) Inveterate
(3) Sporadic (4) Contracted

Directions for (Questions 15 to 19): In each of the following sentences one word has been italicized. Under each
sentence four alternative words, marked 1 - 4, are given. Select from these alternatives, the word which conveys more
or less same meaning as the italicized word in the sentence.

15. Illnesses prevalent in ageing population.

(1) Incurable (2) Commonly occurring
(3) Infectious (4) Curable

16. She had already narrated the adventure.

(1) Intimated (2) To let down
(3) Summarized (4) To tell/recount

17. Among all forms or blunders, prophecy is the most gratuitous.

(1) Indecent (2) Unjustified
(3) Dangerous (4) Justified

18. The doctor said that his heart was palpitating violently.
(1) Damaging (2) Deteriorating
(3) Enlarging (4) To throb

19. Limba Ram flexed his arm, showing his well-built muscles.
(1) To remove cover (2) To bend
(3) To strengthen (4) To raise

Directions for (Questions 20 tp 24): Find the correct alternative that exhibits the same relationship as the words in
the question.
20. Shoe: Leather : : ______ : _______
(1) Bus: Conductor (2) Train: wagon
(3) Highway: Asphalt (4) Medicine: Doctor

21. Condone: Offence : : ______ : _______

(1) Overlook: Aberration (2) Error: Omission
(3) Mitigate: Penitence (4) Conviction: Criminal

22. Egoist: Altruist : : ______ : _______

(1) Evolution: Revelation (2) Glib: Adept
(3) Snow: Ice (4) Xenophobia: Tolerance

23. Deterioration: Rust :: ______ : _______

(1) Recession: Inefficiency
(2) Depression: Unemployment
(3) Promulgation: Legislation
(4) Iron: Water

24. Telephone: Ring :: ______ : _______

(1) Door: knock (2) Gate: open
(3) Door: wood (4) Lock: key

Directions for (Questions 25 to 29): A word in capital letters is followed by four words. Choose the word that is
most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

25. SEDENTARY
(1) Vivid (2) Afraid (3) Indolent (4) Active

26. IGNITE
(1) Kindle (2) Attach (3) Extinguish (4) Split

27. GRAVE
(1) Noble (2) Inconsequential (3) Solemn (4) Senile

28. REPRIMAND
(1) Reward (2) Appreciate (3) Encourage (4) Praise
30. TANGIBLE
(1) Gentle (2) Elusive (3) Refined (4) Palpable

Directions for (Questions 31 to 37): In the following questions, each word in capital letters is followed by four
words or phrases. Choose the one which is similar in meaning to the word given in the capital letters.

31. AZURE
(1) Blue (2) Green (3) Brown (4) Round and big

32. BASHFUL
(1) Haughty (2) Discreet (3) Shy (4) Upset

33. TRIVIAL
(1) Significant (2) Momentous (3) Unimportant (4) Campaign

34. APPEASE
(1) Agitate (2) Pacify (3) Qualify (4) Interrupt

35. DISPASSIONATE
(1) Immoral (2) Sensual (3) Impartial (4) Scientific

36. CLOUT
(1) Fear (2) Claw (3) Joke (4) Power

37. LACHRYMOSE
(1) Terse (2) Mournful (3) Indecent (4) Lecherous

Directions for (Questions 38 to 40): In this section, each sentence consists of a word or a phrase which is underlined.
It is followed, by four alternative words or phrases as (1), (2), (3) and (4). Select the word or phrase which is closest in
meaning of the underlined word or phrase.

38. If she continues to spend her time in such a frivolous manner, she will fail in her examinations.
(1) Frightful (2) Leisurely (3) Non - serious (4) Calculated

39. Sanguine as he is in his attitude to life and its problems, he cannot but be noticed wherever he goes.
(1) Optimistic (2) Enthusiastic (3) Realistic (4) Dispassionate

40. One’s remonstration against social ills has to be consistent to be fruitful.

(1) Be fruitful (2) Demonstration (3) Protest (4) Criticism

Directions for (Questions 41 and 45): A word in capital letters is followed by four words. Choose the word that is
most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

41. GRADUAL
(1) Energetic (2) Dynamic (3) Rapid (4) Enthusiastic

42. AMALGAMATE
(1) Merge (2) Consecrate (3) Impoverish (4) Split

43. DOCILE
(1) Unmanageable (2) Dutiful (3) Submissive (4) Painful

44. PROSAIC
(1) Pensive (2) Imaginative (3) Rhetorical (4) Pacified

45. LEVITY
(1) Praise (2) Blame (3) Solemnity (4) Frivolity
V107 Idioms & phrases

Directions for (Questions 1 to 4): Each of these questions has an idiomatic expression followed by
four options. Choose the one closest to its meaning.

1. A bolt from the blue

(1) Something unavoidable (2) A sudden and unexpected occurrence
(3) Timely help from someone (4) To get good assistance

2. A bone of contention
(1) A difficult task (2) A cause of dispute
(3) A cause of happiness (4) Reason for failure

3. In the blues:
(1) Being colourful (2) Melancholy and low spirited
(3) Behave like a lord (4) Cheerful and happy

4. Dog in the manger:

(1) A person who is not liked by others
(2) A person who is hounders
(3) A person who puts himself in a difficulty on account of other people
(4) A person, who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself.

Directions for (Questions 5 to 9): Fill in the blanks with the correct alternatives provided in the
options.
5. Kicking the bucket is a humorous __________ for dying.
(1) dictum (2) incantation (3) euphemism (4) addendum

6. If you do not __________, your monthly expenses would exceed your income.
(1) economize (2) spend (3) save (4) splurge

7. Criticism that tears down without suggesting areas of improvement is not __________ and should be
avoided if possible.
(1) Constructive (2) mandatory (3) pertinent (4) sagacious

8. You may wonder how the expert on fossil remains is able to trace descent through teeth, which seem
__________ pegs upon which to hang whole ancestries.
(1) reliable (2) inadequate (3) novel (4) specious

9. The __________ successfully repelled every __________ on the city.

(1) defenders - comment (2) citizens - onslaught (3) thieves - robbery (4) judge-criticism

Directions for (Questions 10 to 19): In the following questions four groups of words are given. In
each group one word is misspelt. Find the misspelt word:
10. (1) Neighbour (2) Necter (3) Necessary (4) Nemesis

11. (1) Puntuation (2) Puncture (3) Pungent (4) Pudding

12. (1) Commend (2) Amend (3) Comprehend (4) Assend

13. (1) Decency (2) Promoter (3) Dificiency (4) Discourteous

14. (1) Agnostic (2) Sceptic (3) Profilic (4) Ascetic

15. (1) Envelop (2) Certain (3) Uncertain (4) Conclude

16. (1) Decieve (2) Relieve (3) Believe (4) Belief

17. (1) Procured (2) Restor (3) Terminate (4) Formation

18. (1) Pronunce (2) Enhance (3) Performing (4) Exclusion

19. (1) Global (2) Sence (3) Commence (4) Performance

Directions for (Questions 20 to 25): Choose, from the answer choices given under each sentence, the
phrase that gives the same meaning as the words italicized in the given sentence:
20. The epidemic of plague had broken out in some villages of Maharashtra.
(1) Eradicated (2) Spread (3) Ruined life (4) Disturbed normal life.

21. When the thief saw the sentry at the main gate, he managed to get off from the attack.
(1) Hide himself (2) Escape (3) Overpowered (4) Dodge away

22. Though defeated, Chechnya, the separatist republic of Russia, would not give in.
(1) To yield (2) To negotiate (3) To succeed (4) None of these

23. The judges took down the evidence produced by Harshad Mehta, the chief accused in the securities
scam.
(1) Rejected (2) Recorded (3) Turned down (4) Accepted

24. The affection of his wife bore him up in the midst of all his problems.
(1) To sustain (2) To deceive (3) To humble down (4) None of these

25. Tentative agreement on the plan was disclosed.

(1) Definitive (2) Attempted (3) Provisional (4) Slight

Directions for (Questions 26 to 30): In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
idiom/phrase italicised in the sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence:
26. The cricket match proved to be big draw.
(1) A keen contest (2) A huge attraction
(3) A goal - less match (4) A game without any result

27. Pt. Nehru was born with a silver spoon in his mouth.
(1) Born in a middle class family (2) Born in a wealthy family
(3) Born in a family of nationalists (4) Born in a family of intellectuals

28. In the armed forces, it is considered a great privilege to die in harness.

(1) Die with pain and suffering (2) Die on the battle field
(3) Die while still working (4) Die with honour

29. The thief took to his heels when he saw a policeman.

(1) Had some pain in his heels (2) Ran away from the scene
(3) Confronted the policeman (4) Could not decide what to do.

30. To have an axe to grind

(1) To work for both sides (2) To have reason to criticise someone
(3) To have no result (4) To fail to arouse interest
 Directions for (Questions 31 - 35): Fill in the blanks with the correct alternatives provided in the
options.
31. The __________ terrorist was finally __________ by the police.
(1) famous - apprehended (2) notorious - nabbed
(3) crafty – admonished (4) renowned, caught

32. The village headman was unlettered, but he was no fool, for he saw through the __________ of the
businessman’s proposition and promptly __________ him down.
(1) deception - forced (2) potential – connoisseur
(3) naiveté – turned (4) sophistry – turned

33. We were amazed that a man who had been the most __________ of public speakers could, in a single
speech, electrify the audience and bring the cheering crowd on their feet.
(1) enthralling (2) accomplished
(3) pedestrian (4) masterful

34. His presentation was so lengthy and __________ that it was difficult for us to find out the real
__________ in it
(1) verbose - content (2) tedious - skill
(3) laborious - coverage (4) simple - meaning

35. They refused to _______ any more evasive replies and decided to resolve the issue within the ______
of the major.
(1) notice - eccentricity (2) brook-jurisdiction
(3) bloom – indulgence (4) suffer - fortitude

Directions for (Questions 36 to 40): Replace the phrase given in the questions below with a word
which has the same meaninng as the phrase from the options given
36. A religious discourse
(1) preach (2) stanza (3) sanatorium (4) sermon

37. A place that provides refuge

(1) asylum (2) sanatorium (3) shelter (4) orphanage

38. A large dark grey cloud that brings rain or snow

(1) nimbus (2) blizzard (3) hail (4) fog

39. One who has a compulsive desire to steal

(1) pilferer (2) poacher (3) plagiarist (4) kleptomaniac

40. Official misconduct

(1) malefactor (2) malfeasance (3) maltreatment (4) maladministration

Directions for (Questions 41 to 45): In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four
different ways, numbered (1) to (4) Choose the option in which the usage of the word is Incorrect or
Inappropriate.
41. PASSING
(1) She did not have passing marks in mathematics.
(2) The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.
(3) At the birthday party all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
(4) A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital.

42. BOLT
(1) The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.
(2) As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
(3) Could you please bolt the door?
(4) The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.
43. FALLOUT
(1) Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation.
(2) People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.
(3) Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?
(4) The headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the public
examination.

44. HAND
(1) I have my hand full, 1 cannot do it today.
(2) The minister visited the jail to see the breach first hand.
(3) The situation is getting out of hand here!
(4) When the roof of my house was blown away, he was willing to lend me a hand.

45. NEAR
(1) I got there just after you left a near miss!
(2) She and her near friend left early.
(3) The war led to a near doubling of oil prices.
(4) They came near to tears seeing the plight of the victims.

Directions for (Questions 46 - 50): In the following questions four alternatives are given for an
idiom/phrase in italics. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in
italics.
46. The belief in witchcraft is losing ground even in remote areas now
(1) acquiring power (2) continuing as before
(3) deeply engrained (4) becoming less acceptable

47. There are black sheep in every community

(1) good leaders (2) bad characters
(3) poor persons (4) intelligent people

48. We talked over the matter for an hour but without any result
(1) surveyed (2) assessed
(3) fought about (4) discussed

49. Although he ran into debt, he did not stop gambling

(1) met with (2) had the risk of
(3) incurred (4) crushed into

50. So far as hazards of pollution are concerned the traffic policemen bear the brunt.
(1) suffer the most (2) are exposed to the danger
(3) face the consequences (4) have to run the risk
V108 READING COMPRESHENSION - I

Directions for Questions 1 to 4: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
Kabuki is an art form rich in showmanship. It involves elaborately designed costumes, eye-catching make-up,
outlandish wigs, and arguably most importantly, the exaggerated actions performed by the actors. The highly-stylized
movements serve to convey meaning to the audience; this is especially important since an old-fashioned form of
the Japanese language is traditionally being used, which is difficult even for some Japanese people to understand.
Dynamic stage sets such as revolving platforms and trapdoors allow for the prompt changing of a scene or the
appearance/disappearance of actors. Another specialty of the kabuki stage is a footbridge (hanamichi) that leads through
the audience, allowing for a dramatic entrance or exit. Ambiance is aided with live music performed usingtraditional
Japanese instruments. The various elements combine to produce a visually stunning and captivating performance.
Plots are usually based on historical events, warm hearted dramas, moral conflicts, love stories, tales of tragedy
of conspiracy, or other well-known stories. A unique feature of a kabuki performance is that what is on show is often only
part of an entire story (usually the best part). Therefore, to enhance the enjoyment derived, it would be good to read a little
about the story before attending the show. At some theaters, it is possible to rent headsets which provide English
narrations and explanations.
When it originated, kabuki used to be acted only by women, and was popular mainly among common people.
Later during the Edo Period, a restriction was placed by the Tokugawa Shogunate forbidding women from participating; to
the present day it is performed exclusively by men. Several male kabuki actors are therefore specialists in playing female
roles.
One of the things that will be noticed is assistants dressed in black appearing on stage. They serve the purpose to hand the
actors‟ props or assist them in various other ways, in order to make the performance seamless. They are called "kurogo"
and are to be regarded as non-existent.
If you come across people from the audience shouting out names at the actors on stage, do not mistake this for an
act of disrespect: all kabuki actors have a yago (hereditary stage name), which is closely associated to the theater troupe
which he is from. In the world of kabuki, troupes are closely knit hierarchical organizations, usually continued through
generations within families. It is an accepted practice for the audience to shout out the actors' stage names as a show of
support.
1. Write a short summary for the passage given above.

2. Kabuki as an art form is famous for all of the following except

(1) It‟s elaborately designed costumes
(2) The exaggerated actions performed by the actors.
(3) The elaborate theme plot
(4) Various stage features such as the revolving platform etc.

3. What is the „yago‟?

(1) An actor‟s inherited stage name.
(2) The assistants dressed in back appearing on stage to hand props to the actors.
(3) The footbridge that leads through the audience.
(4) None of these.
4. Which of the following statements are true or false?
(1) Kabuki is an art form rich in showmanship.
(2)Ambiance is aided with live music performed usingtraditional Japanese instruments.
(3) Plots usually aren‟t based on historical events.
(4) Kabuki is acted only by women.

Directions for Question 5: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow

Particle Physics the mathematical theory that describes all of the known elementary particles and their
interactions, predicts the existence of 12 kinds of matter particles, or fermions. Until 2000 all but one had been observed,
the exception being the Tau neutrino. Neutrinos are the most enigmatic of the fermions, interacting so weakly with other
matter that they are incredibly difficult to observe. Three kinds of neutrinos were believed to exist - the electron neutrino,
the muon neutrino, and the tau neutrino - each named after the particle with which it interacts. Although, indirect evidence
for the existence of the tau neutrino had been found, only during the year did an international team of physicists working
at theDONUT (Direct Observation of the Nu Tau) experiment at the Fermi National Accelerator Laboratory (Fermilab)
near Chicago reported the first direct evidence. The physicists‟ strategy was based on observations of the way the other
two neutrinos interact with matter. Electron neutrinos striking a matter target were known to produce electrons, whereas
muon neutrinos under the same condition produced muons. In the DONUT experiment, a beam of highly accelerated
protons bombarded a tungsten target, creating the anticipated tau neutrinos among the spray of particle debris from the
collisions.
The neutrinos were sent through thick iron plates, where on very rare occasions a tau neutrino interacted with an
iron nucleus, producing a tau particle. The tau was detected, along with its decay products, in layers of photographic
emulsion sandwiched between the plates. In all, four taus were found, enough for the DONUT team to be confident of the
results. Six of the fermions in the standard model are particles known as quarks. Two of them, the up quark and the down
quark, make up the protons and neutrons, or nucleons that constitute the nuclei of familiar matter.

5. State if the following statements are True False

(1) Matter particles in Particle Physics are known as fermions.
(2) Tau neutrino was first observed in the year 2000.
(3) Neutrinos are the most difficult to observe as they interact violently with other matter.
(4) Tau neutrino, muon neutrino, and electron neutrino are three of the 12 kinds of matter particles.
(5) DONUT is a laboratory near Chicago.
(6) Electron neutrinos striking a matter target produced muons.
(7) A beam of highly decelerated protons were bombarded on a tungsten target.
(8) When taus were found, the DONUT team was not at first confident of the results.
(9) The DONUT team found only four hundred taus.
(10) The nuclei of familiar matter are made up of fermions.

Directions for Questions 6 to 10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow

“The last thing the world needs is another film festival. “That‟s what Jane Rosenthal remembers thinking. But in
the chaotic vacuum of Lower Manhattan after 9/11, what the world needed changed abruptly. Ms. Rosenthal and Robert
De Niro, her partner in TriBeCa Productions, realised that a film festival might be the kind of event that would bring
people back to Lower Manhattan and indeed it did. Last year's inaugural TriBeCa Film Festival lured more than 150,000
people to screening venues in the neighbourhood and to its restaurants and shops. The festival was as noteworthy for the
mood of the event as for the films it screened, and especially for the buoyant spirit of its family street festival, an
enormous party along six blocks of Greenwich Street.
There has been a lot of talk ever since 9/11 about bringing more cultural activity to Lower Manhattan, and a lot
of speculation about whether such a step might help rekindle the area economically. The New York City Opera may move
downtown and at least one new museum will probably emerge in the redevelopment of the World Trade Center site. But
the groundbreaking experiment - the TriBeCa Film Festival - has already succeeded. It has earned its aesthetic credentials
in a tough industry. More importantly, it has turned the very idea of a film festival into something more public and more
family oriented than we usually imagine. In part, this is a way of recognising the kind of neighbourhood TriBeCa has
become. But it is also a way of recognizing what the city itself needs, a way of connecting families and culture. In fact,
this year's TriBeCa Film Festival, which runs through May 11, began last night with a family film festival.
A lot has changed downtown in the past year. TriBeCa no longer feels nearly as shuttered as it did in the first few
months after 9/11. The desperate need for an uplift, emotionally, is no longer as desperate as it was last May. Even though
things are picking up again, business is still well off what it was before 9/11. But no matter how the backdrop changes, the
rationale for this film festival remains the same. It is not just a matter of getting New Yorkers - a film-crazy people -to see
a striking new crop of films. It‟s a matter of giving New Yorkers new traditions, new celebrations and new connections, in
the shadow of a forbidding memory.

6. What is meant by 9/11 in the passage?

(1) A highway number (2) September 11
(3) Rating of a film (4) None of the above

7. What does the author mean by „what the world needed changed abruptly‟?
(1) People developed interest in film festivals again
(2) The daily needs of people changed drastically
(3) The incident left a need for people to recover from its impact
(4) None of these

8. According to the passage, what does Jane do as a profession?

(1) Organises cultural festivals (2) Organises stage shows
(3) Produces movies (4) All of the above

9. According to the passage, what is a problem before Lower Manhattan?

(1) Revival from psychological shock of an incident
(2) Cultural revival
(3) Economic revival
(4) None of these

10. Which of the following has not been suggested in the passage?
(1) Film festivals are not popular
(2) TriBeCa film festival was a success
(3) Lower Manhattan desperately needs emotional uplift.
(4) TriBeCa film festival is different from other film festivals

Directions for Questions 11 and 12: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow

Creation of embryonic stem cells has been the subject of intense debate. Embryos will be created with the
specific purpose of culling stem cells and this, say critics is morally and ethically unacceptable, but this can be tackled by
promoting the freezing and banking of cord blood containing pluripotent stem cells from a baby‟s umbilical cord right
after birth. This way, the future demand of a patient can be met with by accessing her own cord blood from the cell bank,
without any controversy.
Treatment using the patient‟s own stem cells will ensure that there is no risk of rejection or trans-infection as in the case of
donor transplants. Existing stem cell lines created from unutilized embryos discarded by infertility clinics may be good for
research, but they suffer the same risk of rejection when used in actual treatment.

11. The argument in the passage is about:

(1) The moral and ethical debate on the creation of a reservoir of embryonic stem cells for research and
treatment.
(2) The advantage of freezing and banking cord blood for culling stem cells to be used in the future by patients.
 (3) The contentious issue that surround stem cell research and the various ways in which they can be addressed. ,
(4) The practicality of using cord blood as a source of pluripotent stem cells as against embryos created for
stem cells.
(5) Ways in which to reduce the risk of rejection or trans-infection during donor transplants.

12. It can be inferred from the passage -

(1) For research purposes it is ethical to use unutilised embryos discarded by infertility clinics.
(2) There are many who believe that creating embryos for harvesting stem cells is a questionable practice.
(3) Creating a bank to store cord blood taken from a baby right after birth will solve the moral and ethical
dilemma put forth by critics.
(4) Infertility clinics can play an important role in controlling deaths occurring from rejection of transplanted
organs.
(5) All of the above.

Directions for Questions 13 to 16: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
The news last month that Amish Tripathi was offered $1 million to write his next series of books astounded
India‟s English-language publishing industry. The deal was struck simply on the success of his 2010 trilogy about Shiva,
the Hindu deity, is the starkest measure yet that Indian mythology has become the most marketable segment of India‟s
English-language book market.
The trend started in 2003, with the publication of the first volume of an eight-part series by Ashok Banker on the
classical epic Ramayana, which describes the victory of the virtuous King Rama over Ravana, a learned king gone astray.
Combining the appeal of fantasy and historical fiction, Indian mythology now reaches from graphic novels to business
books. And the genre‟s growing popularity is yet another story of how tradition in India has adapted to development, with
the attendant gains and losses.
For a long time, Indian publishers didn‟t consider Indian mythology to be promising material. In the central part
of the country, where I grew up, they were passed on orally from parents to children or, during festivals, through the entire
community at once. With increasing urbanization, this tradition began to break down; people lost ties to their ancestral
villages, and oral transmission wasn‟t suited to city life. Given the country‟s religious diversity, the government-
prescribed school curriculum steered clear of any teaching that could be associated with a particular religious community.
This left a gap, which the current surge of mythological fiction is trying to fill.
Banker‟s “The Prince of Ayodhya” introduced the Ramayana to a new generation of readers. It is well paced and
it breathes humanity into characters that most Indians consider to be deities. This brings freshness to the old stories and
makes their intricate, discursive narratives more accessible to an audience that has been bred on the linear plots of
Hollywood and Bollywood movies. But Banker‟s book also frames the battle between Rama and Ravana as a fight
between good and evil, a Manichaeism that wasn‟t part of the Indian religious tradition. In earlier versions of the
Ramayana, Ravana is a learned man who is well-liked by his subjects and is led astray by his lust for a married woman.
Banker‟s Ramayana does not stray too far in terms of narrative, but his characterization of Ravana as an embodiment of
the forces of darkness is a significant deviation: The original‟s metaphysical complexity has been lost.
Modern mythological fiction also often fails to convey that the classical stories explicitly reinforced existing
social hierarchies,a kind that are unpalatable today. In previous versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, a
sweeping war epic, conflict and decay are direct consequences of the mixing of the castes. Perhaps this loss at least is as it
should be: The retelling of India‟s myths, its gloss over the past, does reflect a more modern India, shorn of some of its
earlier complexities and given to a more equitable view of people.

13. Which work of Amish Tripathi made him most famous among Indian writers in 2013?
(1) Origin of the Hindu Religion
(2) History of the Indian Hindu Kings
(3) Trilogy of Shiva, the Hindu deity.
(4) Avatarpurush

14. According to the passage which of the following is stated as a reason for the increased interest in Indian
mythological work?
(1) Amish Tripathi‟s trilogy about Shiva.
(2) The new versions are presented in the form of a graphic novel as well as business books. This appeals
to the public as
it combines fantasy and historic fiction.
 (3) Ashok Banker‟s Ramayan presents the war between Rama and Ravana as the war between good and evil.
This new interpretation appeals better to the audience.
(4) More than one of the above.

15. The passage talks about loss of mythological teachings all of the following can the reasons for the same except?
(1) Knowledge transfer from one generation to another was lost because people started losing ties with their
ancestral villages.
(2) The countries religious diversity is so vast and their histories so rich that many of these stories were
lost over generations
(3) The governments deliberate attempt to steer clear of any teaching that can be associated with any religious
community
(4) None of these

16. Banker‟s “Prince of Ayodhya” is a deviation from the older versions in which of the following aspects?
(1) The main characters are represented as supernatural powers.
(2)The protagonists are presented as in incarnation of Indian deities
(3) The lead characters are represented as complex characters with both good and bad attributes.
(4) The war between the main characters is a representation of good vs. bad.
V109 READING COMPREHENSION - II

Directions for Questions 1 to 4: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
April 12, 2001, marked the anniversaries of two landmark events in space travel: the 40th anniversary of the first
human spaceflight - U.S.S.R. cosmonaut Yury Gagarin‟s single orbit of Earth and the 20th anniversary of the U.S. launch
of the first space shuttle, Columbia. Gagarin‟s feat and the subsequent goading by Soviet leadership sparked a chain of
events that started on May 25, 1961, when U.S. President John F. Kennedy petitioned Congress to commit the nation to
landing a man on the Moon “before this decade is out.” Though that goal was achieved on July 20, 1969, when the Apollo
11 Lunar Module, Eagle carried astronauts Neil Armstrong and Edwin (“Buzz”) Aldrin to the surface of the Moon,
aspirations for space travel continued to expand.
Ironically, the manned space rave that had started between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R. 40 years earlier was
replaced by a spirit of cooperation in 2001; the former competitors worked together to build the International Space
Station (ISS) with other nations that became space farers in the 1960s, „70s, and „80s. On a more sombre note, the year
also marked the 30th anniversary of the first space station, the U.S.S.R.‟s Salyut 1, and the death of its first three-man crew
on their return to Earth (June 30, 1971); it was also the 15th anniversary of the explosion of the space shuttle, Challenger,
a tragedy that killed seven astronauts, including teacher Christa McAuliffe.
The year 2001 also evoked the more ambitious vision of space activity painted by Stanley Kubrick and Arthur C.
Clarke in their 1968 motion picture 2001: A Space Odyssey. Not only was the ISS far smaller than its movie counterpart,
it was likely to be even less than what had been planned; budget overruns threatened to reduce its crew size and science
facilities. Exploration beyond the immediate vicinity of Earth was by automated spacecraft. No plans were in sight for
large-scale lunar exploration as depicted in the film. The first government-industry venture to develop a reusable space
liner, somewhat similar to its film version, faltered amid technical and financial problems.
These endeavours highlighted the technical, economic, and political challenges facing space explorers. For
instance, descendants of the R-7 rocket that launched Gagarin (and the Sputnik 1 satellite in 1957) continued to launch the
three-man Soyuz and other spacecraft for Russia. The 20-year-old Columbia remained operational along with three other
shuttles, and all were expected to remain in service through 2020 and perhaps beyond.
Nevertheless, humans continued to push at the frontier. American businessman Dennis Tito became the first
space tourist when he rode a Russian Soyuz spacecraft to the ISS in May 2001. Russia was considering more tourist
flights, and several private American ventures were trying to develop affordable space tourism as a business.

1. In which year did Yuri Gagarin‟s single orbit take place?

(1) 2001 (2) 1981 (3) 1961 (4) 1962

2. „Ironically, the manned space rave that had started between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R. 40 years earlier was
replaced by a spirit of cooperation in 2001‟ What does the author mean by this statement ?
(1) The intense rivalry between the two countries was replaced with cooperation between the two
countries.
(2) The friendly competition between the two countries was replaced with a sense of cooperation.
(3) Though the countries intended to cooperate with each other they eventually ended up at logger heads with
each other.
(4) None of these

3. „Humans continued to push at the frontier‟ what does the author try to imply by this statement?
(1) Humans had reached the highest point of success possible.
(2) The human race had achieved a lot.
(3) The human race had reached a point of standstill and had to work hard to push itself further.
(4) Humans continued to pursue and achieve greater heights.
4. What was the greatest challenge that the ISS faced?
(1) No plans were in sight for the large scale lunar exploration.
(2) They were facing a financial crunch.
(3) Their technology wasn‟t competent enough.
(4) It was much smaller than its portrayal in the movie.

Directions for Questions 5 to 9: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow

First AOL and Time Warner announced their intention to combine. Then came Time Warner/EMI and Tribune/
Times Mirror. Even more significant, however, has been the speculation that these mergers have caused: If these
transactions are consummated, a large number of additional media mergers are expected. There is even the possibility of a
nightmare scenario-a wave of media mergers so large that within a decade most of our information will be supplied by
perhaps six of these huge conglomerates and a fringe of much smaller firms.
It‟s time to ask two critical questions. Is this kind of media oligopoly what we, as a society, want? And if not, can
the antitrust laws effectively prevent the threatened merger wave? The answer to the first question is clear. We do not want
a media oligopoly. The answer to the second question, however, is far less certain. We should distrust a media oligopoly
because it would give undue control to a small number of individuals. This need not manifest itself in a price rise for the
daily newspaper or AOL‟s monthly fee. Rather, it could consist of a change in editorial viewpoints, a shift in the relative
prominence of links to certain websites or a decision not to cover certain topics, because they are not “newsworthy”.
These problems could exist without any improper intent on the part of the media barons. Even if they try to be
fair and objective, they will necessarily bring their own worldview to the job. And in time some of these conglomerates
may be controlled by people who are not fair or objective.
At first it might appear that the antitrust laws can be of little help in grappling with the issues presented by large
media mergers. The anti-merger laws are commonly understood as protecting price competition, and a relatively small
number of firms-to greatly oversimplify, let‟s say at most half a dozen-are normally thought to be enough to keep a market
price- competitive. In industry after industry firms merge until there is only a handful left, and the antitrust enforcers are
normally unable to do anything to prevent this. (In former years mergers were governed by an “incipiency” standard that
prevented mergers and merger waves well before they would have led to very large or likely anti-competitive problems.)
Even if a handful of firms are enough to insure effective competition in most industries, would six conglomerate media
firms be sufficient for the diversity of viewpoints necessary to democracy? Would we be reassured if they could somehow
guarantee that they would sell their magazines and Internet advertisements at competitive prices?
I am hopeful that the antitrust laws, if correctly and vigorously interpreted, are adaptable enough to meet this
challenge. This is because antitrust is not exclusively about price. It is essentially about choice-about giving consumers a
competitive range of options in the marketplace so that they can make their own, effective selection from the market‟s
offerings. Consumers should be able to make their choices along any dimension important to them-including price, variety
and editorial viewpoint.
Communications media compete in part by offering independent editorial viewpoints and an independent
gatekeeper function. Six media firms cannot effectively respond to the demand for choice or diversity competition by
extending their product lines, because new media products will inevitably bear, to some degree, the perspective of their
corporate parent. For these reasons competition in terms of editorial viewpoint or gate-keeping can be guaranteed only by
insuring that a media market contains a significantly larger number of firms than is required for price competition in other,
more conventional markets.
It is unclear, however, whether this interpretation of the anti-trust laws will be applied by the enforcement
agencies and the courts. What is needed, therefore, is a much more careful look at the challenges that will be raised by
future media mergers. This could best be accomplished if Congress created a Temporary Committee to Study Media
Mergers and Media Convergence. This committee could include members of Congress; the heads of the Federal Trade
Commission, the Federal Communications Commission and the Justice Department‟s antitrust division; CEOs of media
companies; and representatives of consumer groups. The committee would identify problems that may be caused by large
media mergers and by media convergence. If the committee concludes that existing antitrust laws are inadequate, it should
recommend to Congress that new anti-merger legislation be enacted. This may be the only way to prevent the nightmare
scenario of a media oligopoly
5. A wave of media mergers could
(1) Be a threat to democracy
(2) Result in limiting editorial viewpoints
(3) Result in misuse of certain laws
(4) Both (1) and (2)

6. According to the passage, what could be the most significant outcome of media oligopoly?
(1) An increase in the cost of newspapers
(2) The fact that in the long run, there will be a shift of power to people who might not be balanced and fair in
the way they deal with the media
(3) Certain websites may get more prominence than others
(4) There will exist soon only six media conglomerates.

7. Which of the following statements, according to the author, are true?

a. Half a dozen firms are enough to keep the market price - competitive
b. Half a dozen companies are not enough to provide a democratic media
c. Enforcement agencies may not interpret the ant-trust laws correctly
d. Half a dozen companies will be inadequate to meet the consumer demand for product diversity
(1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) a, b, c, d (4) b, c, d

8. The current anti- trust laws

(1) Are not sufficient to deal with issues relating to large scale media mergers
(2) Can prevent mergers from happening
(3) Will be effective if properly interpreted
(4) Favour a particular company or group of companies

9. To get a clear picture of the challenges posed by media mergers, the author recommends:
(1) Creation of strict laws
(2) Strengthening the enforcement agencies
(3) Creation of a study committee by the congress
(4) All of the above

Directions for Questions 10 to 12: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
Once upon a time, a very strong woodcutter asked for a job in a timber merchant and he got it. The pay was
really good and so was the work condition. For those reasons, the woodcutter was determined to do his best.
His boss gave him an axe and showed him the area where he supposed to work.
The first day, the woodcutter brought 18 trees.
“Congratulations,” the boss said. “Go on that way!”
Very motivated by the boss words, the woodcutter tried harder the next day, but he could only bring 15 trees. The
third day he tried even harder, but he could only bring 10 trees. Day after day he was bringing less and less trees.
“I must be losing my strength”, the woodcutter thought. He went to the boss and apologized, saying that he could not
understand what was going on.
“When was the last time you sharpened your axe?” the boss asked.
“Sharpen? I had no time to sharpen my axe. I have been very busy trying to cut trees…”
Our lives are like that. We sometimes get so busy that we don‟t take time to sharpen the “axe”. In today‟s world,
it seems that everyone is busier than ever, but less happy that ever.
Why is that? Could it be that we have forgotten how to stay “sharp”? There‟s nothing wrong with activity and
hard work. But we should not get so busy that we neglect the truly important things in life, like our personal life, taking
time to get close to our Creator, giving more time for our family, taking time to read etc.
We all need time to relax, to think and meditate, to learn and grow. If we don‟t take the time to sharpen the
“axe”, we will become dull and lose our effectiveness.
10. In the passage what does the „axe‟ stand for?
(1) The axe that was woodcutter was using to cut the trees.
(2) The axe is a reference to our lives.
(3) The axe refers to our work.
(4) The axe refers to entertainment.

11. According to the author, which of the following is not a truly important thing in life?
(1) One‟s personal life
(2) Taking time to get close to our creator‟
(3) Doing our work.
(4) Reading books.

12. What does the author imply by „sharpening the axe‟?

(1) To take breaks and refresh oneself so one doesn‟t find work monotonous.
(2) One must take time out of work and enjoy the truly important things in life.
(3) The author implies that the woodcutter must keep himself fit so he can use more energy and cut more wood.
(4) One must readto „sharpen‟ his/her mind.

Directions for Questions 13 to 16: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
In Tirunelveli, about 650 km from Chennai, the most celebrated brand is a shop that doesn‟t have a name board,
is referred to by people by a name that could give B-school marketers a nervous attack, is poorly lit and, what more, is
hardly open for more than a few hours each day.
The fact that this shop has earned its stripes selling halwa makes its story even more impressive, as there are
thousand other shops selling this sweet. Tirunelvelihalwa is a must-do item for visitors but for a seller there it offers little
privileges than what any other commodity offers. This wheat-based halwa just comes in one variety, and you can‟t mess
around with its make.
Locals refer to this no-name shop as IruttuKadai (meaning „dark shop‟), possibly because it has always had bare
minimal lighting. Every day, the shop opens at around 530 pm and the supply for the day is sold off within the next 2-3
hours. This is how it has been for decades now. This story cannot not be part of Tirunelveli‟s legend.
I found the IruttuKadai story remarkable. Mainly because its owners have until now not felt the need to do any of
the following – build a brand, expand, make the shop jazzier, sell 24X7 or any of the other tactics that are supposed to help
a brand connect with its customers. The product is the king.
And here‟s where it gets even more remarkable: a businessman there seems to have got a killer idea some years
back. He put up a reasonably big halwa store in one the busiest areas of town and you know what he called it?
IruttuKadaiHalwa! “We can‟t be fooled,” said one of the locals I met. I guess that sums up the situation of the crafty
competitor.
My itinerary didn‟t allow me to catch the few-hour window of the original „IruttuKadai‟ store. So I wanted to
know what‟s second-best. „Shanti Sweets,‟ near the railway station, was the name someone suggested. When I went there,
there wasn‟t one but three „Shanti Sweets,‟ all with identical blue name boards. But then I could easily identify the second-
best from its namesakes by the crowds that had gathered in front of it.
13. According to the author which of the following is capable of giving the B-School marketers a heart attack?
(1) The fact that the shop does not have a name board.
(2) The shop is poorly lit and is hardly open for more than a few hours.
(3) The shop is referred to by the locals as IruttuKadai.
(4) The owners of the shop have not tried to build a brand.

14. „I guess that sums up the situation of the crafty competitor.‟ What is the author referring to while saying this?
(1) The locals‟ brand loyalty to the original iruttukadai did not let any competitor survive.
(2) The author refers to the competitor as crafty because it was smart idea to have opened an iruttukadai in a busy
market area.
(3) The competitor could not make the halwa as tasty as the original iruttukadai.
(4) The businessman was smart to have opened a shop in a busy market area by the name of iruttukadai but was
unsuccessful because of the locals dedication to the original.
15. Which of the following is not a unique feature of the Thirunalvelihalwa?
(1) Wheat is an important ingredient in its preparation.
(2) It isn‟t prepared in multiple varieties.
(3) The method of preparation cannot be tampered with.
(4) None of the above.

16. Which of the following set of statements are true about the „iruttukadai‟?
I. The shop obtains its uniqueness from the fact that it is poorly lit.
II. The shop is open for sale only for a few hours each day.
III. It is a product quality oriented shop.
(1) I & II (2) III only (3) I, II & III (4) II & III
V110 PARAJUMBLES

Directions for (Que. 1 - 10): In each of these questions, the sentences A, B, C and D, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from amongst the four given choices so as to form a coherent
paragraph.

1. A : Ungainly on land, it is mainly found in mountain streams, where it feed on snails, crabs and sometimes fish
B : The largest amphibian is the giant salamander Adrias Joponicus which grows to a length of 1.8 metre.
C : It lives an inactive life and surfaces to breathe at irregular intervals.
D : It may also be the longest living amphibian; one recorded as living for 55 years.
(1) B D C A (2) B A C D (3) A B D C (4) B C D A

2. A : In emission trading, the government fixes the total amount of pollution that is acceptable to maintain a desired level of air
quality.
B : Economists argue this approach makes air pollution control more cost effective than the current practice of fixing air
pollution standards and expecting all companies to pollute below these standards.
C : U.S.A uses emission trading to control air pollution.
D : It then distributes emission permits to all companies in the region, which add up to the overall acceptable level of emission.
(1) C D B A (2) A C B D (3) B A D C (4) C B A D

3. A : Secret persons shall strike with weapons, fire or poison.

B : Clans mutually supporting each other shall be made to strike at the weak points.
C : He shall destroy their caravans, herds, forests and troop reinforcements.
D : The conqueror shall cause enemy kingdom to be destroyed by neighbouring kings, jungle tribes, pretenders or unjustly treated
princes.
(1) D C B A (2) A B C D (3) B D C A (4) A D C B

4. A. Where there is division, there must be conflict not only division between man and woman but also division on the basis of
race, religion and language.
B. We said the present conditions of racial divisions, linguistic divisions has brought out so many wars.
C. Also we went into the question as to why does this conflict between man and man exist.
D. May we continue with what we were discussing last evening?
(1) A B C D (2) D B C A (3) B C A D (4) B D A C

5. A. No other documents give us so intimate a sense of the tone and temper of the first generation poets.
B. Part of the interest of the Journal is course historical.
C. And the clues to Wordsworth’s creative processes which the Journal are of decisive significance.
D. No even in their own letters do Wordsworth and Coleridge stand so present before us than they do through the references in the
journal
(1) B A C D (2) B D A C (3) C B A D (4) D A B C

6. A. These high plans died, slowly but definitely, and were replaced by the dream of a huge work on philosophy.
B. In doing whatever little he could of the new plan, the poet managed to write speculations on theology, and political theory.
C. The poet’s huge ambitions included writing a philosophic epic on the origin of evil.
D. However, not much was done in this regard either with only fragments being written.
(1) A B C D (2) C B A D (3) C D A B (4) C A D B
7. A. The misconception arose in 1870, when a misplaced decimal point in a set was published.
B. The idea that spinach promotes strength one made popular by the cartoon character Popeye, the sailor is based on a mistake.
C. Furthermore the iron in any vegetable is less valuable than a similar quantity of iron in meat, because the body is less efficient
at absorbing iron from vegetables.
D. Only between 2 and 10 percent of the iron in vegetables is absorbed compared to 10 to 30 percent of the iron in meat.
(1) B D A C (2) A B D C (3) A B C D (4) B A C D

8. A. There is no complete knowledge about anything.

B. Our thinking is the outcome of knowledge is always limited.
C. Knowledge always goes hand in hand with ignorance.
D. Therefore, our thinking which is born out of knowledge, is always limited under all circumstances.
(1) B C A D (2) B C D A (3) D A B C (4) C B D A

Directions for Questions 9 & 10: In each of these questions, parts of a sentence A, B, C and D, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent sentence. Choose the most logical order from amongst the four given choices so as to form a coherent sentence.

9. A : An image of a person in meditative pose

B : Surrounded by animal, wild and tame
C : We have in the relics of Mohenjodaro
D : With eyes closed and indrawn
(1) C A D B (2) A B D C (3) C B A D (4) B A C D

10. A : by her indulgent parents

B : the child was so spoiled
C : When she did not receive all of their attention
D : that she pouted and became sullen
(1) C B A D (2) B C A D (3) B A D C (4) B D A C

Directions for (Que. 11 - 20): Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6.

11. 1. The list of horrors goes on.

A. And one in every five is malnourished.
B. This is because local clinics, ill - equipped to deal with even small things, either don’t work or simply don’t exist.
C. Nobody has been able to figure out a way to reduce the speed that is at the root of India’s over-population problems : a baby
born every second.
D. There is such an acute shortage of treatment centers that premier hospitals are choked with patients who show up to treat their
coughs and colds.
6. Kalyan Banerjee, a consultant at the hospital is worried.
(1) D A C B (2) C D A B (3) D B A C (4) C A D B

12. 1. It was something I knew that it would give me a chance to bear my own loss.
A. I could have more except that supervision becomes difficult.
B. Today I have 800 on my staff, office and members.
C. The moment I announced I was starting a business, people started contacting me.
D. I was sick of working for others.
6. Our clients are well-known industrialists and organizations, many of whom were in touch with me when I was in the services.
(1) A B D C (2) D B A C (3) D C B A (4) B A D C

13. 1. Fire ripped through another pipeline in southern Nigeria, killing at least 40 people.
A. The explosion was the third in two weeks.
B. Police were deployed to stop villagers from stealing fuel from other pipelines.
C. Local politicians have blamed this vandalism on cartels.
D. Once the cartels have siphoned off fuel, impoverished locals move in to collect what they can for sale to passing motorists.
6. But pipelines often explode, and the practice has left about 2000 people dead in the past two years.
(1) A B C D (2) A C B D (3) C A B D (4) C B D A
14. 1. Reservation should not exceed 50% for the civil services for want of balance and efficiency.
A. If reservation is 50% it is adequate for aspirants from reserved category and even unreserved category to get an equal
opportunity.
B. The number of aspirants to the civil services in India is very large and they come from various socio economic backgrounds.
C. These aspirants come from both reserved and unreserved category.
D. But if reservation were to exceed 50% mark, a lot of deserving candidates from unreserved category would be deprived of a
chance.
6. Thus to achieve optimum efficiency, it is essential to maintain a maximum of 50% reservation.
(1) A D B C (2) B C A D (3) C A B D (4) B A D C

15. 1. This is a company that prides itself on its carefully developed extensive distribution blocks and mentor network.
A. The company also plans a foray into the service sector by setting up a chain of launderettes across the country.
B. Yet today, pre-cooked chapatis and ready-made mixes are a big market.
C. And that’s not all.
D. Today the idea may appear a trifle ambitious but remember that it was not so long ago that the same things were said about the
market for ready-to-eat foods and branded cereals.
6. Disposable incomes are rising in the metros and big cities and time is at a premium.
(1) C A D B (2) A D B C (3) A B D C (4) C A B D

16. 1. What does the state do in a country where tax evasion is very high?
A. It tries to spy upon the taxpayers.
B. It investigates income sources and spending patterns.
C. Exactly what the tax authority tries to do now even if inconsistently.
D. It could also encourage people to inform the tax authorities about any conspicuously prosperous neighbours who may be
suspected of not paying their taxes properly.
6. The ultimate solution would be an Orwellian System.
(1) B A C D (2) D B A C (3) A B C D (4) D C B A

17. 1. India’s experience of industrialisation is characteristic of the difficulties faced by a newly-independent developing
country.
A. In 1947 India was undoubtedly an underdeveloped country with one of the lowest per capita incomes in the world.
B. Indian industrialisation was the result of a conscious deliberate policy of growth by an indigenous political elite.
C. Today India ranks fifth in the international community of nations if measured in terms of purchasing power.
D. Even today, however, the benefits of Indian industrialisation since independence have not reached the masses.
6. In India it has been a limited success; one more example of growth without development.
(1) C D A B (2) D C B A (3) C A B D (4) B A C D

18. 1. Commercial energy consumption shows an increasing trend and poses a major challenge for the future.
A. The demand for petroleum during 1996-97 and 2006-07 is anticipated to be 81 million tonnes and 125 million tonnes
respectively.
B. According to the projections of the 14th Power Survey Committee Report, the electricity generation requirements from utilities
will be about 415 billion units by 1996-97 and 824 billion units by 2006-07.
C. The production of coal should reach 303 million tonnes by 1996-97 to achieve Plan targets and 460 million tonnes by
2006-07.
D. The demand for petroleum products has already outstripped indigenous production.
6. Electricity is going to play a major role in the development of infrastructural facilities.
(1) D A C B (2) C A D B (3) B A D C (4) A B C D

19. 1. The history of mammals dates back at least to Triassic time.

A. Miocene and Pliocene time was marked by culmination of several group and continued approach towards modern characters.
B. Development was retarded, however, until the sudden acceleration of evolutional change that occurred in the oldest
Paleocene.
C. In the Oligocene Epoch, there was further improvement, with appearance of some new lines and extinction of theories.
D. This led in Eocene time to increase in average size, large size was attained in this epoch.
6. The peak of the career of mammals in variety and average large size was attained in this epoch.
(1) B D C A (2) A C D B (3) B C D A (4) A C B D

20. 1. Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving of memories.

A. Psychologists of the Gastalt school maintain that objects are recognised as a whole in a parallel procedure.
B. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brain’s memory system that constitutes an internal representation of the
viewed object.
C. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a single one -step procedure or a serial step-by step one.
D. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its internal recognition and thereby recognised.
6. The internal representation is matched with the retinal image in a single operation.
(1) DBAC (2) DCAB (3) BDCA (4) CABD

Directions for (Que. 21 - 25): The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form coherent paragraph .Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a
coherent paragraph.

21. A : It has been so from time immemorial.

B : It is necessary to have a library.
C : Library is a centre of learning.
D : The selected books should enchant us.
E : Our teachers had their libraries.
(1) C B A D E (2) C A E B D (3) C D A B E (4) E B C D A

22. A : Several factors like digestive disorders and psychological disturbances have been said to be causative factors.
B : It seems to be hereditary and a majority of sufferers are women.
C : Certain foods like cheese or red wine have also been found to trigger off an attack.
D : The exact cause of migraine is not known.
E : On the other hand physical over-exertion, fatigue, irregularities in dietary habits, prolonged eye strain are common
precipitating factors.
(1) D B A C E (2) D A C E B (3) B A C D E (4) C D A B E

23. A : Michael Hofman, a poet and translator, accepts this sorry fact without approval.
B : But thanklessness and impossibility do not daunt him.
C : He acknowledges too – infact, he returns to the point often – the best translators of poetry always fail at some level.
D : Hofman feels passionately about his work and this is clear from his writings.
E : In terms of the gap between worth and rewards, translators come somewhere near nurses and street cleaners.
(1) E A C D B (2) E A C B D (3) A S E B C (4) D C E A B

24. A : In a number of cases, the drivers have refused to carry passengers according to the meter-reading despite it being
in working condition.
B : For instance, according to a complaint, the driver of an auto rickshaw not only misbehaved but also ran away with Rs. 500
from Dhaula Kuan on October 13.
C : Refusal to carry commuters to their respective destinations is another common complaint which has been lodged with the
call centres.
D : What have been the most shocking are the complaints about misbehaviour by the rickshaw drivers with the passengers.
E : Similarly, another driver ran away with the luggage of the passenger on the Karol Bagh-Paschim Vihar route.
(1) D A C B E (2) D C B A E (3) A C D B E (4) A B C D E

25. A : Events intervened, as in the late 1930s and 1940’s Germany suffered from “over-banding.”
B : The British used to be fascinated by the home of Romanticism.
C : But reunification and the federal government’s move to Berlin have prompted Germany to think again about its image.
D : The first foreign package holiday was a tour of Germany organised by Thomas Cook in 1885.
E : Since then, Germany has been understandably nervous about promoting itself abroad.
(1) A C E B D (2) D E CA B (3) B D A E C (4) D B A E C
V111 PARAJUMBLES II

Directions for (Que. 1 - 5): In each of these questions a disarranged sentence is given in which words or phrases are lettered A,
B, C and D. You are to arrange these to form a meaningful sentence.

1. to the total cost of the product (A) / in reasonable proportion (B) / advertising cost are (C) / no longer (D)
(1) C D B A (2) C A B D (3) C B D A (4) A D C B

2. unsurpassed power (A) / modern society (B) / in (C) / women enjoy (D)
(1) C B A D (2) D C A B (3) D A C B (4) A C D B

3. American (A) / as men (B) / earn as much (C) / working women (D)
(1) A D B C (2) A C B D (3) D C B A (4) A D C B

4. A : Checked regularly
B : You should have
C : Blood pressure
D : Your
(1) C D A B (2) C B D A (3) B D C A (4) C D B A
5. A : Bhakhra Nangal Dam
B : Highest man made dams
C : Is one of the
D : In the world
(1) B D C A (2) A C D B (3) D C A B (4) A C B D
Directions for (Que. 6 - 10): In each of these questions, the sentences A, B, C and D, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from amongst the four given choices so as to form a coherent
paragraph.

6. A : There was the hope that in another existence a greater happiness would reward one.
B : Previous existence, and the effort to do better would be less difficult too when.
C : It would be less difficult to bear the evils of one‟s own life to it.
D : One could think that they were but the necessary outcome of one‟s errors in a
(1) C A B D (2) B D C A (3) B A D C (4) C D B A

7. A : To have settled one‟s affairs is a very good preparation to leading the rest of one‟s life without concern for the future.
B : When I have finished this book I shall know where I stand.
C : One does not die immediately after one has made one‟s will; one make‟s will as a precaution.
D : I can afford then to do what I choose with the years that remain to me.
(1) D B A C (2) C A B D (3) B D A C (4) C B D A

8. A : It is said that India has always been in a hurry to conform to the western thought especially the American.
B : Even the smaller countries have the guts to take a firm contrarian stand if they feel the policies happen to compromise their
country‟s interest.
C : It‟s one thing to sprout theories on liberalization, and another to barter the interests of the nation in its name.
D : In this case too, while a large number of countries are yet to ratify the GATT, India has not only ratified the treaty, but also
preparing to amend the Patents Act.
(1) C A B D (2) D C A B (3) C B D A (4) B D C A
9. A : During one exhibition, however, some air became mixed with the hydrogen, and in the words of the shaken performer;
“The explosion was so dreadful that I imagined all my teeth had been blown out!”
B : An entertainer would finish his acts by blowing the hydrogen he had inhaled towards a lighted candle; as the hydrogen
caught fire, flames would shoot menacingly from his lips.
C : A paper bag filled with hydrogen amazed guests by zooming off into space.
D : When people learned about its unique lighter-than-air property, they began to use it in all sorts of parlour stunts.
(1) D C B A (2) D B A C (3) C A B D (4) A C B D

10. A : It is exciting and various.

B : I am a writer as I might have been a doctor or a lawyer.
C : The writer is free to work in what he believes.
D : It is so pleasant a profession that it is not surprising if a vast number of persons adopt it who have no qualifications for it.
(1) C A D B (2) A B D C (3) D B C A (4) B D A C
Directions for (Ques. 11-15): Arrange sentences A, B, C, and D between sentences numbered 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence
of six sentences.
11. 1. The problem of improving Indian agriculture is both a sociological and an administrative one.
A : It also appears that there is a direct relationship between the size of a state and development.
B : The issues of Indian development and the problem of India‟s agricultural sector, will remain with us long into the next
century.
C : Without improving Indian agriculture, no liberalisation and licensing will be able to help India.
D : At the end of the day, there has to be a ferment movement of life and action in the vast segment of rural India.
6. When it starts marching, India will fly.
(1) D A B C (2) C D B A (3) A C D B (4) A B C D
12. 1. Good literary magazines have always been good because of their editors.
A : Furthermore to edit by committee, as it were, would prevent any magazine from finding its own identity.
B : The more quirky and idiosyncratic they have been, the better the magazine is, at least as a general rule.
C : But the number of editors one can have for a magazine should also be determined by the number of contribution to it.
D : To have four editors for an issue that contains only seven contributions is a bit silly to start with.
6. However, in spite of this anomaly, the magazine does acquire merit in its attempt to give a comprehensive view of the
Indian literary scene as it is today.
(1) A B C D (2) B C D A (3) A B D C (4) C B A D
13. 1. Making people laugh is tricky.
A : At times, the intended humour may simply not come off.
B : Making people laugh while trying to sell them something is a tougher challenge, since the commercial can fall flat on two
grounds.
C : There are many advertisements which do not even begin to set the cash till ringing.
D : Again it is rarely sufficient for an advertiser simply to amuse the target audience in order to reap the sales benefit.
6 . There are indications that in substituting the hard sell for a more entertaining approach, some agencies have rather thrown out
the baby with the bath water.
(1) C D B A (2) A B C D (3) B A D C (4) D C B A

14. 1 . Picture a termite colony, occupying a tall mud hump on an African plain.
A : Hungry predators often invade the colony and unsettle the balance.
B : The colony flourishes only if the proportion of soldiers to workers remains roughly the same, so that the queen and
workers can be protected by the soldiers, and the queen, and soldiers can be serviced by the workers.
C : But its fortunes are presently restored, because the immobile queen, walled in well below the ground level lays eggs not
only in large enough numbers, but also in the varying proportions required.
D : The hump is alive with worker termites and soldier termites doing their distinct kinds of business.
6 . How can we account for mysterious ability to respond like this to events on the distant surface?
(1) B A D C (2) D B A C (3) A D C B (4) B D C A

15. 1 . High-powered outboard motors are considered to be one of the major threats to the survival of the Beluga whales.
A : With these, hunters could approach Belugas within hunting range and profit from its inner skin and blubber.
B : To escape an approaching motor, Belugas have learned to dive to the ocean bottom and stay there for up to 20 min., by which
time the confused predator has left.
C : Today, however, even with much more powerful engines, it is difficult to come close, because the whales seem to
disappear suddenly just when you thought you had them in your sights.
D : When the first outboard engines arrived in the early 1930s, one came across 4 and 8 HP motors.
6 . Belugas seem to have used their well-known sensitivity noise to evolve an „avoidance‟ strategy to outsmart hunters and their
powerful technologies.
(1) D A C B (2) A C D B (3) A D C B (4) D B A C

Directions for (Ques. 16 - 28): The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph.
Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a
coherent paragraph.

16. A : In the budget is artificial

B : But there is some merit in it
C : As distinct from consumption
D : The bifurcation of plan and non-plan funds
E : In so far as it focuses attention on development expenses
(1) A C B E D (2) D B C A E (3) D A B E C (4) C A D B E

17. A : the chief reason is that it is considered rude to differ with them
B : moreover, even agreeing with them completely is not considered good manners
C : in England it is not easy to keep up conversation with women in company;
D : nor can you ask them to give a reason for the opinion they profess;
E : you are also afraid of imposing your views upon them
(1) A D E B C (2) C A D E B (3) A B C D E (4) C D E A B

18. A : He was highly sensitive and resentful

B : Towards the country or to those
C : When there was even implied discourtesy
D : While he was extremely gentle and tolerant
E : He held in honour
(1) D C B E A (2) D A C B E (3) A C D B E (4) E A D C B
19. A : Equality before law and the right
B : However money and all that money
C : Today political freedom assures people
D : To elect their government
E : Can buy is not fairly distributed
(1) C A D B E (2) C D A B E (3) D C B A E (4) B E D A C

20. A : A cycle of poor health that begins

B: In developing countries experience
C: Before they are born and
D: Many women
E: Persists through adulthood passing from generation to generation
(1) D CAB E (2) A B C D E (3) D B A C E (4) D E C A B

21. A : He felt justified in bypassing Congress altogether on a variety of moves.

B : At time he was fighting the entire Congress
C : Bush felt he had a mission to restore power to the presidency
D : Bush was not fighting just the democrats.
E : Representative democracy is a messy business, and a CEO of the white House is not like a legislature of second guessers and
time wasters.
(1) C A E D B (2) D B A E C (3) C E A D B (4) E C D B A

22. A : The two neighbours never fought each other.

B : Fights involving three male fiddler crabs have been recorded, but the status of the participants was unknown.
C : They pushed or grappled only with the intruder.
D : We recorded 17 cases in which a resident that was fighting an intruder was joined by an immediate neighbour, an ally.
E : We therefore tracked 268 intruder males until we saw them fighting a resident male.
(1) B E D A C (2) D E B A C (3) B D C A E (4) B C E D A

23. A : In the west, Allied Forces had fought their way through southern Italy as far as Rome.
B : In June 1944 Germany‟s military position in Word War two appeared hopeless.
C : In Britain, the task of amassing the men and materials for the liberation of northern Europe had been completed.
D : The Red Army was poised to drive the Nazis back through Poland.
E : The situation on the eastern front was catastrophic.
(1) E D A C B (2) B E D A C (3) B D E C A (4) C E D A B
24. A : The image dies as soon as it is seen
B : And based on a delicate system of filming and recording
C : Its working does not consist in storing or recording an image
D : The science of television is highly sophisticated
E : It rather catches and reflects an image like a mirror
(1) A C E D B (2) D B C E A (3) B E C A D (4) A B C D E

25. A : As time passed, the layer of sludge became very thick and covered with mud,
B : When they died, they sank to the ocean bed and decayed into sludge
C : The weight of water and mud pressing down on the sludge
D : Countless tiny sea animals lived in the ocean millions of years ago
E : Changed it into tiny drops of oil
(1) A B C D E (2) B D E A C (3) B A C D E (4) D B A C E

26. A : He insisted we check again, and again the deckhand found nothing out of order.
B : When the man called a third time, I sent the deckhand directly to his cabin.
C : I sent a deckhand to check the lifeboat and called the guest back to say nothing had been found.
D : During my work, handling the front desk of a cruise ship, a passenger called to say he‟d spotted a stowaway in a lifeboat when
he‟d glanced out of his cabin window.
E : The deckhand soon called to assure me there was no need for alarm: The guest had been reporting on his own reflection in the
window.
(1) E B A C D (2) D C B A E (3) D C A B E (4) D B A C E

27. A : Their son, Matthew, a Navy meteorologist, was assigned there.

B : Michael Flocco veered into the driveway of his home and dashed from his truck.
C : The stocky sheet - metal worker had rushed back from a construction site near by to join his wife, Sheila, after learning of the
terrorist attack on the pentagon.
D : Michael found Sheila sitting on the couch sobbing.
E : It was almost 10:30 AM on Tuesday, September 11, 20001.
(1) B E C A D (2) B D E C A (3) B E D C A (4) D A C E B

28. A : Handsome in his tuxedo.

B : Lanky at his high school prom.
C : Matthew with the striped kitten - had he been five?
D : At ten - smiling in his yellow soccer jersey.
E : Throughout the TV replays of the collapsing Trade Towers, Michael‟s glance shifted from one framed photo to the next.
(1) E C D B A (2) A B C D E (3) E C B D A (4) D A B C E
V112 CRITICAL REASONING - I

Directions for (Que. 1 - 10): Read each of the passages and answer the questions that follow.

1. Canadian researchers hope genetically modified mouse gut cells will free diabetics from dependence on insulin injections.
Diabetics fail to produce insulin causing excessive levels of glucose in their blood. The genetically engineered mouse
produces insulin in exact quantities required to balance out daily glucose fluctuation.
The hope of the Canadians is based on which of the following assumptions?
(1) Insulin injection used by diabetics help maintain the sugar level in their bodies.
(2) The genetically modified mouse will alter the genetics of the diabetics also.
(3) In diabetics, the daily glucose level is not maintained at the normal level.
(4) Mouse gut cells function in exactly the same way as the pancreas of human beings, which are responsible for
glucose production.
(5) They feel that will be able to control section insulin by gut cells.

2. European cars have traditionally been smaller and more fuel - efficient than their giant American cousins but current
legislation stresses eco-friendliness. Recent British legislation has linked taxation to CO emissions
2
with the lowest tax rate of
15 per cent on the list price reserved for cars emitting less than 165 grams/ kilometers and rising by one per cent more
because of their relatively high levels of particulate emission.
The inference that can be validly drawn from the information presented above is
(1) The English are unconcerned about the environment and rules have to be imposed upon them for the maintenance of a
clean environment.
(2) The lesser the list price of a car, the greater is its fuel -efficiency and so the lesser the tax on it.
(3) As the level of particulates emitted by vehicles in the atmosphere increases, the cost of cleaning the environment
increases.
(4) Emissions from a vehicle are independent of the relative size of a car.
(5) The more fuel-efficient a vehicle is, the more eco-friendly it will be.

3. When the Human-Development Report was first published, its attraction was the very idea of “human development”. That
well-being was not just about a higher income and concomitantly, that a nation's well-being could not be measured by its
per capita income alone. Human development also deals with people's choices to live a productive and healthy life.
It can be correctly concluded on the basis of the statement above that
(1) The Human Development Report aims at increasing the per capita income of any country.
(2) One of the basic premises of human development is that what is important is not only a higher average income but also
what use can a society put this income to.
(3) The first human Development Report was published when it occurred to social scientists that well-being implied
income and more income.
(4) A man's productivity is indirectly proportioned to his average annual income.
(5) Poor people, who live a productive life, are result of human development.

4. If fuel is the driving force behind this city, adulterating seems to have driven it up the wall. With the city flooded with
complaints on the quality of the petrol and diesel being sold at service stations across the city, besides reports of kerosene
and naphtha mixing in unleaded petrol, the city administration needs to take some action.
The author of the passage above assumes which of the following statements?
(1) The city administration is unable to function with the adulterated fuel crisis.
(2) Petrol pumps are selling smaller quantities of fuel than they had ever done in the past year.
(3) Most people are driving to other cities for obtaining unadulterated fuel.
(4) Adulteration of fuel can be checked if the city administration takes a relevant step.
(5) The city administration is promoting adulteration of fuels.
5. Alder Hay children's hospital in Liverpool was keeping secretly livers, kidneys and fetus. It had been stock piling organs
from 300 dead children and storing 400 fetuses without parental consent. Perhaps overdue regulations for organ removal,
storage and disposal are now called for.
If the above statements are true, which of the following could logically follow?
(1) Legislations that punish people cheating with human body should be made more strict.
(2) In some people, the fear of policing is greater than their compassion for humanity.
(3) Organisations that store human organs need a license to do so.
(4) The alder hay children hospital‟s administration deserves severe punishment.
(5) The people of Liverpool have revolted against the practice at Alder Hay.

6. Consciousness includes the subject that knows and the object that is known. The two aspects depend on each other. In
seeing matter you are at the same time seeing mind. When our mind is conscious of something, we are that thing. When we
contemplate a snow-covered mountain, we are that mountain. When we watch a noisy film, we are that noisy film.
It can be inferred from the above passage that
(1) Consciousness is not a state of an isolated mind or the awareness of it.
(2) Without the arising of the object, the subject does not arise.
(3) The human body can take different hues and shapes depending on the state of mind.
(4) When we see something, we become that thing.
(5) Contemplation is the surest way of being conscious.

7. A salt-loving bacterium that flourished before dinosaurs walked the earth has been revived. Scientists have isolated the 250
million-year-old bug, the oldest bacterium ever found from a salt crystal buried at more than 1,500 feet underground in the
Salado salt formation. While the salt crystals were forming, bacterial spores in a drop of water became imprisoned inside a cavity
in the salt.
Which of the following can be concluded from the information presented above?
(1) The concentration of salt in Salado is poor because the salt-loving bacteria consume lots of it.
(2) Dinosaurs were present during the time the salt loving bacterium flourished.
(3) Scientists have detected the presence of salt below the surface of the earth.
(4) Bacterial spores will be formed at any place where water is present.
(5) Dinosaurs are more than 250 million -year -old creatures.

8. It looks so juicy, so rich, and so fresh. Each component of the dish in the photograph is indescribably delicious. Such
highly mannered and aggressively perfect images of food have become popular in recent years and can be seen as a culinary
ideal. On the other hand, the dissonance between these photos and the reality of well-cooked meal may leave us continually,
though subliminally, dissatisfied.
(1) Food photography has created the art of the delectable-visual delights that will never taste as good as they look.
(2) The reality is rarely as delicious as the fantasy.
(3) The food served in dishes is as good as that seen in the photographs.
(4) Just as the sexual revolution raised expectations, food photography has created visual images removed from our human
capacity to taste, smell feel and even duplicate in our own kitchens.
(5) Never has food been more beautiful. Or Unattainable.

9. Many have wondered whether it is worth the effort to understand the sometimes frustratingly difficult writings of Jacques
Derida, but Christina Howells has no such doubts. The reward for one's efforts may be mind -expanding delight-giving
access to dazzling readings of philosophy, literature and psychoanalysis.
Which of the following, if true , would most seriously weaken the argument of Christina Howells?
(1) Different readers have different expectations and what may be a pleasure to one may not be so to another.
(2) Derida's writings have often confused readers in their attempt to understand philosophy.
(3) Christina Howells read Derida's books thrice before she could grasp the articles therein.
(4) For most readers, philosophy, literature and psychoanalysis does not make worthwhile reading.
(5) If readers are given access to readings of philosophy, literature and psychoanalysis, results show that they are
delighted.
10. The forces that generate conditions conductive to crime and riots are stronger in urban communities than in rural areas.
Urban living is more anonymous living. It often releases individuals from community restraints. But more freedom from
constraints also provides greater freedom to deviate.
Which of the statements below, if true, shall mitigate the validity of the argument above?
(1) More crimes have been reported from rural areas than from urban areas.
(2) Urbanites not bound by social constraint use the freedom for socio-economic development.
(3) Cities have more clubs, societies and associations than do villages.
(4) Rural life is more akin to community life because of the small size of the villages.
(5) People should leave cities and start living in villages.

Directions for (Que. 11 - 15): Five alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the
essence of the text.

11. Ninety-nine years ago, John Philip Sousa predicted that recordings would lead to the demise of music. The phonograph, he
warned, would erode the finer instincts of the ear, end amateur playing and singing, and put professional musicians out of
work. “The time is coming when no one will be ready to submit himself to the ennobling discipline of learning music,” he
wrote. “Everyone will have their ready-made or ready pirated music in their cupboards.” Something is irretrievably lost when we
are no longer in the presence of bodies making music, Sousa said. “The nightingale‟s song is delightful because the
nightingale herself gives it forth.”
(1) The advent of recordings would lead to a monetary value being put on music, which will eventually damage it
(2) Easy accessibility of music would discourage people from learning music and indulging in many beneficial activities
(3) Piracy and its pernicious effect has been documented by Sousa in another form many decades back
(4) Recordings lead to the demise of music like the computer led to the demise of the book
(5) Recording of music should be criticized to save jobs of musicians.

12. Some people do object to using enhancement drugs. For instance, opponents often argue that they pose a kind of tragedy of
the commons in which people who would otherwise not take enhancement drugs will feel forced to do so just to do so just to
keep up with their competitors. But those kinds of pressures have always existed. Today, people get graduate degrees buy
new computers, and so forth to keep up. It‟s hard to see how using safe drugs to enhance performance is much different. I
suspect that pharmacological enhancement will be more popular than, say, graduate school, since most of what will be
involved is taking a pill with one‟s morning coffee.
(1) Performance enhancement drugs are akin to a graduation degree, harmless and makes your future better
(2) „Keeping up with others‟ is a big reason for people to take drugs and go to graduate school which eventually harms the
individuals‟ prospect
(3) Peer pressure always creates demand for things that most people do not need
(4) Enhancement drugs are the easiest habit to indulge in under peer pressure considering other tedious things that people
have done under its influence
(5) A law should be enacted to stop use of enhancement drugs.

13. The unnatural deaths of popular icons have inspired bizarre conspiracy theories - and the occasional Elton John balled - but
James Dean‟s followers take their obsession in another direction. They consider Dean‟s death part of his allure: By dying
young, he preserved himself in amber, a Peter Pan in jeans and a red windbreaker. “Dean died before he could fail, before he lost
his hair or his boyish figure, before he grew up,” Donald Spoto writes in his admiring biography. Fair enough. But what lurks
behind the celebration of the star‟s unsullied youth is a fear that, had he lived, Dean couldn‟t have topped what he‟d
accomplished by the age of 24 and might even have tarnished those feats.
(1) James Dean‟s followers suspect that Dean‟s death is likely to be a suicide since he died in mysterious circumstances
(2) James Dean‟s followers are not aware that they unknowingly celebrate the fact that they will never see their idol being
disappointing
(3) There is always the possibility that the star being revered after his/her death might have become a failure had he/she had lived
(4) James Dean proves the point that no one wants to believe in a dark future
(5) The unnatural deaths of the celebrities should be celebrated.
14. Is the idea of sin dead? It sometimes feels that way. Take politicians. On a good day, they are hypocrites on a bad day, they are
liars. But only rarely do we accuse them of pride, which is, it seems to me, their real problem. The same goes for fat people.
Assailed by the hateful rise of fast-food outlays pushing sandwiches the size of the Mir Space Station, they are victims they
require our sympathy and encouragement. But do we ever call them gluttons? Not unless we want the poor things to develop
an eating disorder. In the age of self-help, even red-hot anger is an illness. Once, people fell on their knees and prayed for
the strength to master it. Now, they go on courses to learn how to “manage” it. Then, if they are very lucky - or if their name is
Naomi Campbell - a supermarket will offer them an advertising deal in which they can poke high-kicking, chop- socky fun at their
formerly fearsome reputation.
(1) The idea of sin is dying though in real life they are becoming more and more acceptable and even glamorous
(2) Sins are now couched in terms of being weaknesses that demand help.
(3) The idea of sins has become a lucrative businesses with self-help books, shows etc.
(4) The modern day allows sins to be admitted to and then made fun of like Naomi Campbell did.
(5) The idea of sin should be promoted so as to help fat people shed their weight.

15. In the aftermath of a worldwide stock-market crash, Saurashtra claimed that the severity of the stock-market crash it
experienced resulted from the accelerated process of denationalization many of its industries underwent shortly before the
crash. Which of the following, if it could be carried out, would be most useful in an evaluation of Saurashtra‟s assessment of
the causes of the severity of its stock-market crash?
(1) Calculating the average loss experienced by individual traders in Saurashtra during the crash
(2) Using economic theory to predict the most likely date of the next crash in Saurashtra
(3) Comparing the total number of shares sold during the worst days of the crash in Saurashtra to the total number of shares
sold in Saurashtra just prior to the crash
(4) Comparing the severity of the crash in Saurashtra to the severity of the crash in countries otherwise economically similar
to Saurashtra that have not experienced recent denationalization
(5) Comparing the long-term effects of the crash on the purchasing power of the currency of Saurashtra to the immediate, more
severe short-term effects of the crash on the purchasing power of the currency of Saurashtra

16. Which of the following best completes the passage below?

In a survey of job applicants, two-fifths admitted to being at least a little dishonest. However, the survey may underestimate the proportion of job
applicants who are dishonest, because
(1) Some dishonest people taking the survey might have claimed on the survey to be honest
(2) Some generally honest people taking the survey might have claimed on the survey to be dishonest
(3) Some people who claimed on the survey to be at least a little dishonest may be very dishonest
(4) Some people who claimed on the survey to be dishonest may have been answering honestly
(5) Some people who are not job applicants are probably at least a little dishonest

17. The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years,
and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would
be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?
(1) Insurance company statisticians do not believe that moving to Hawaii will significantly lengthen the average Luisianan‟s life.
(2) The governor of Louisiana has falsely alleged that statistics for his state are inaccurate.
(3) The longevity ascribed to Hawaii‟s current population is attributable mostly to genetically determined factors.
(4) Thirty percent of all Louisianans can expect to live longer than 77 years.
(5) Most of the Hawaiian Islands have levels of air pollution well below the national average for the United States.

18. The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years,
and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would
be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn in the passage?
(1) As population density increases in Hawaii, life expectancy figures for that state are likely to be revised downward.
(2) Environmental factors tending to favor longevity are abundant in Hawaii and less numerous in Louisiana.
(3) Twenty-five percent of all Louisianans who move to Hawaii live longer than 77 years.
(4) Over the last decade, average life expectancy has risen at a higher rate for Louisianans than for Hawaiians.
(5) Studies show that the average life expectancy for Hawaiians who move permanently to Louisiana is roughly equal to that of Hawaiians who remain
in Hawaii.
19. Insurance Company X is considering issuing a new policy to cover services required by elderly people who suffer from diseases that afflict the
elderly. Premiums for the policy must be low enough to attract customers. Therefore, Company X is concerned that the income from the policies
would not be sufficient to pay for the claims that would be made.
Which of the following strategies would be most likely to minimize Company X‟s losses on the policies?
(1) Attracting middle-aged customers unlikely to submit claims for benefits for many years.
(2) Insuring only those individuals who did not suffer any serious diseases as children
(3) Including a greater number of services in the policy than are included in other policies of lower cost
(4) Insuring only those individuals who were rejected by other companies for similar policies
(5) Insuring only those individuals who are wealthy enough to pay for the medical services

20. A program instituted in a particular state allows parents to prepay their children‟s future college tuition at current rates. The program then pays the
tuition annually for the child at any of the state‟s public colleges in which the child enrolls. Parents should participate in the program as a means of
decreasing the cost for their children‟s college education.
Which of the following, if true, is the most appropriate reason for parents NOT to participate in the program?
(1) The parents are unsure about which public college in the state the child will attend.
(2) The amount of money accumulated by putting the prepayment funds in an interest-bearing account today will be greater than the total cost of tuition
for any of the public colleges when the child enrolls.
(3) The annual cost of tuition at the state‟s public colleges is expected to increase at a faster rate than the annual increase in the cost of living.
(4) Some of the state‟s public colleges are contemplating large increases in tuition next year.
(5) The prepayment plan would not cover the cost of room and board at any of the state‟s public colleges.

21. Company Alpha buys free-travel coupons from people who are awarded the coupons by Bravo Airlines for flying frequently on Bravo airplanes.
The coupons are sold to people who pay les for the coupons than they would pay by purchasing tickets from Bravo. This making of coupons
results in lost revenue for Bravo.
To discourage the buying and selling of free-travel coupons, it would be best for Bravo Airlines to restrict the.
(1) Number of coupons that a person can be awarded in a particular year
(2) Use of the coupons to those who were awarded the coupons and members of their immediate families
(3) Days that the coupons can be used to Monday through Friday
(4) Amount of time that the coupons can be used after they are issued
(5) Number of routes on which travelers can use the coupons

22. The ice on the front windshield of the car had formed when moisture condensed during the night. The ice melted quickly after the car was warmed
up the next morning because the defrosting vent, which blows on the front windshield, was turned on full force.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously jeopardizes the validity of the explanation for the speed with which the ice melted?
(1) The side windows had no ice condensation on them
(2) Even though no attempt was made to defrost the back window, the ice there melted at the same rate as did the ice on the front windshield.
(3) The speed at which ice on a window melts increases as the temperature of the air blown on the window increases
(4) The warm air from the defrosting vent for the front windshield cools rapidly as it dissipates throughout the rest of the car.
(5) The defrosting vent operates efficiently even when the heater, which blows warm air toward the feet or faces of the driver and passengers, is on.

23. To prevent some conflicts of interest, Congress could prohibit high-level government officials from accepting positions as lobbyists for three years
after such officials leave government service. One such official concluded, however, that such a prohibition would be unfortunate because it would
prevent high-level government officials from earning a livelihood for three years.
The official‟s conclusion logically depends on which of the following assumptions?
(1) Laws should not restrict the behavior of former government officials.
(2) Lobbyists are typically people who have previously been high-level government officials.
(3) Low-level government officials do not often become lobbyists when they leave government service.
(4) High-level government officials who leave government service are capable of earning a livelihood only as lobbyists.
(5) High-level government officials who leave government service are currently permitted to act as lobbyists for only three years.
24. A conservation group in the United States is trying to change the long-standing image of bats as frightening creatures. The group contends that bats
are feared and persecuted solely because they are shy animals that are active only at night.
Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the accuracy of the group‟s contention?
(1) Bats are steadily losing natural roosting places such as caves and hollow trees and are thus turning to more developed areas for roosting.
(2) Bats are the chief consumers of nocturnal insects and thus can help make their hunting territory more pleasant for humans.
(3) Bats are regarded as frightening creatures not only in the United States but also in Europe, Africa, and South America.
(4) Raccoons and owls are shy and active only at night; yet they are not generally feared and persecuted.
(5) People know more about the behavior of other greatly feared animal species, such as lions, alligators, and greatly feared animal species, such as
lions, alligators, and snakes, than they do about the behavior of bats.

25. Meteorite explosions in the Earth‟s atmosphere as large as the one that destroyed forests in Siberia, with approximately the force of a twelve-
megaton nuclear blast, occur about once a century. The response of highly automated systems controlled by complex computer programs to
unexpected circumstances is unpredictable.
Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn, if the statements above are true, about a highly automated nuclear-missile
defense system controlled by a complex computer program?
(1) Within a century after its construction, the system would react inappropriately and might accidentally start a nuclear war.
(2) The system would be destroyed if an explosion of a large meteorite occurred in the Earth‟s atmosphere.
(3) It would be impossible for the system to distinguish the explosion of a large meteorite from the explosion of a nuclear weapon.
(4) Whether the system would respond inappropriately to the explosion of a large meteorite would depend on the location of the blast.
(5) It is not certain what the system‟s response to the explosion of a large meteorite would be, if its designers did not plan for such a contingency.