ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session: 2024-25
Question Bank – Seen Pre-Board
Grade XII – Physics

SYLLABUS
Unit I: Electrostatics
Unit II: Current Electricity
Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Unit IV: Electromagnetic induction and Alternating Currents
Unit V: Electromagnetic waves
Unit VI: Optics
Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei
Unit IX: Electronic Devices

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 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT I -ELECTROSTATICS
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
2
 Ch-1 Electric charges and Fields Marks /
Typology
Q1. The radii of two metallic spheres A and B are r1 and r2 respectively (r1 > r2). They are 1R
connected by a thin wire and the system is given a certain charge. The charge will be
greater:
(a) on the surface of the sphere B.
(b) on the surface of the sphere A.
(c) equal on both.
(d) zero on both

Q2. A point charge +q is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a 1U
point P on the other side of the plane is:
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane
(b) directed perpendicularly to the plane towards the plane
(c) directed radially away from the point charge
(d) directed radially towards the point charge

Q3. The electric field at a point varies as 1/r for: 1R

(a) an electric dipole
(b) a point charge
(c) a plane infinite sheet of charge
(d) a line charge of infinite length

Q4. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called 1R

(a) Closed surface
(b) Spherical surface
(c) Gaussian surface
(d) Plane surface

Q5. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law? 1A
(a) Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
(b) The term q on the right side side of Gauss’s law includes the sum of all charges
enclosed by the surface.
(c) Gauss’s law is not much useful in calculating electrostatic field when the system
has some symmetry
(d) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in the
coulomb’s law

Q6. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two point charges +q and +q as 1A
shown in the figure. The ratio of charges Q and q is

(a) 4
(b) 1/4
(c) -4
(d) -1/4
Q7. Electric field lines provide information about 1U
(a) field strength
3
 (b) direction
(c) nature of charge
(d) all of these

Q8. Which of the following figures represents the electric field lines due to a single 1R
negative charge?

Q9. The SI unit of electric flux is 1R

(a) N C-1 m-2
(b) N C m-2
(c) N C-2 m2
(d) N C-1 m2

Q10. The unit of electric dipole moment is 1R

(a) newton
(b) coulomb
(c) farad
(d) debye

Q11. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges, but the total charge 1C
is zero. At points outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3, for large r (distance from
origin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the
region will not be zero

Q12. SI unit of permittivity of free space is 1R

(a) Farad
(b) Weber
(c) C2N-1 m-2
(d) C2N-1 m2

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
4
 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Q13. Assertion: Electric lines of force never cross each other. A 1U

Reason: Electric field at a point superimposed to give one resultant electric field.

Q14. 1A&C
Assertion: When a body acquires a negative charge, its mass decreases. D
Reason: A body acquires a negative charge when it loses electrons.

Q15. 1U
Assertion: Electron move away from a region of lower potential to a region of higher
potential. A
Reason: An electron has a negative charge

Q16. Assertion: The Coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe. 1R
Reason: The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force. both false

Q17. Assertion: In a cavity within a conductor, the electric field is zero. 1U

Reason: Charges in a conductor reside only at its surface. A

Q18. The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 μC due to another small sphere 2A
of charge -0.8 μC in air is 0.2 N.
(a) What is the distance between the two spheres?
(b) What is the force on the second sphere due to the first?

Q19. A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 mC at each of its vertices. Calculate 2A
the force and electric field at the centre of the hexagon.

Q20. Two point charges of +16µC and -9µC are placed 8 cm apart in the air. Determine the 2A
position of the point at which the resultant electric field is zero.

Q21. When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar 2U
phenomenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this
observation is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.

Q22. (a) An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve. 2R

That is, a field line cannot have sudden breaks. Why not?
(b) Explain why two field lines never cross each other at any point.

Q23. Two-point charges qA = 3μC and qB = -3 μC are located 20 cm apart in vacuum. 3A

(a) What is the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges?
When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, opposite charges 5
appear on both, because electrons are transferred from glass to
silk. In this process, charge is not created or destroyed. It is
merely transferred from one body to another. Hence, this
observation is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.
 (b) If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 x 10-9 C is placed at this point, what is
the force experienced by the test charge?

Q24. (a) Define the electric dipole moment and write its S.I. unit. 3 R &A
(b) An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 x 10 -9 Cm is aligned at 30° with the
direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 x 10 4 NC-1. Calculate the
magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole.

Q25. Derive an expression for the electric field intensity at a point at the axis of a uniformly 3A&C
charged ring at some distance from the centre of the ring.

Q26. (a) State gauss law. 3R, A

(b)A point charge of 2.0 μC is at the centre of a cubic Gaussian surface 9.0 cm on
edge. What is the net electric flux through the surface?

Q27. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a surface charge density 3A
of 80.4 μC /m2. Q = Charge density × Surface area
(a) Find the charge on the sphere. = σ × 4π*r^2

(b) What is the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere?

Q28. Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close 3A
to each other. On their inner faces, the plates have
surface charge densities of opposite signs and of
magnitude 17 x 10-22 C/m2. What is E?

(a) in the outer region of the first plate,

(b) in the outer region of the second plate, and
(c) between the plates?

Q29. A spherical Gaussian surface encloses a charge of 8.85 x 10 -10 C. 3C

(a) Calculate the electric flux passing through the surface.
(b) How would the flux change, if the radius of the Gaussian surface is doubled and
why?
Ee=mg
Therefore, E= mg/e
Q30. (a) State and explain the three basic properties of electric charge. = 10^-7 8 9.8/ 1.6 * 10^-19
=6.125*10^12 NC^-1
3 R, A
(b) Calculate the electric field strength required to just support a water drop of mass
10-3kg and having a charge 1.6 x 10-19C
Q31. Consider three charges q1, q2, q3 each equal to q at 3 A&C
IMPORTANT QUES the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l.

What is the force on a charge Q (with the same

sign as q) placed at the centroid of the triangle, as
shown in Fig.

6
 Q32 Case study -1 4 An
IMPORTANT QUES
Surface charge density is
defined as the charge per unit
surface area the
surface (Arial) charge symmetric
distribution and follow Gauss
law of electro statics
mathematical term of surface
charge density σ=ΔQ/ΔS

Two large thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces,
the plates have surface charge densities of opposite sign (± s). Having magnitude 8.8 ×
10–12 cm–2 as shown here. The intensity of electrified at a point is E =σ/ε 0 and flux is
Φ=E.ΔS, where ΔS = 1 m2 (unit arial plate)
(i) E in the outer region (I) of the first (A) plate is
(a) 1.7 × 10–22 N/C
(b) 1.1 × 10–12 V/m
(c) Zero
(d) Insufficient data
(ii) E in the outer region (III) of the second plate (B) is
(a) 1 N/C
(b) 0.1 V/m
(c) 0.5 N/C
(d) zero
(iii) E between (II) the plate is
(a) 1 N/C
(b) 0.1 V/m
(c) 0.5 N/C
(d) None of these
(iv) In order to estimate the electric field due to a thin finite plane metal plate the
Gaussian surface considered is
(a) Spherical
(b) Linear
(c) Cylindrical
(d) Cybic

7
Q33 Case study -2 4 An,
AP
When electric dipole is placed in
uniform electric field, its two charges
experience equal and opposite forces,
which cancel each other and hence net
force on electric dipole in uniform
electric field is zero. However these
forces are not collinear, so they give
rise to some torque on the dipole. Since
net force on electric dipole in uniform
electric field is zero, so no work is done in moving the electric dipole in uniform
electric field. However some work is done in rotating the dipole against the torque
acting on it.

(i) The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field Ē is B. Then the
torque τ acting on the dipole is
(a) τ=p x E
(b) τ = P. Ē
(c) τ = 2(p + Ē)
(d) τ = (P + E)
(ii) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of magnitude 1.0 μC
separated by a distance of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of
105 NC-1. The maximum torque on the dipole is
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 Nm (b) 1x 10-3 Nm (c) 2 x 10-3 Nm (d) 4x 10-3 Nm
(iii) Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) Both (a) and (c)
(iv) When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net
force F and torque τ on the dipole are
(a) F= 0, τ = 0 (b) F≠0, τ≠0
(c) F=0, τ ≠ 0 (d) F≠0, τ=0
Q34 (a) State and explain three properties of electric lines of force. 5A
(b) A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a surface charge
density of 80.0 mC/m2. (i) Find the charge on the sphere. (ii) What is the total electric
flux leaving the surface of the sphere?

Q35 (a) An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 104 N/C at a distance of 2 cm. 5A&R
Calculate the linear charge density.
(b) Using Gauss’s theorem, derive an expression for the electric field at a distance r
from a spherical shell of radius R.

8
 CH- 2 Electrostatic potential and capacitance

Q36. Work done to bring a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in an electric field is 1R
known as _______
(a) Electric potential
(b) Electric field intensity
(c) Electric dipole moment
(d) The total energy of the point charge
Q37. If VA and VVB are the potentials of the two points A and B, what will be the correct 1U
relation between the electric field and the potential difference between the points? The
distance between the points is d.

(a) VA-VB=Ed
(b) VB-VA=Ed
(c) VA-VB=Ed
(d) VA-VB=dE

Q38. What is the dimension of electric potential? 1R

(a) [M L T-2]
(b) [M L T-3 I]
(c) [M L T-3 I-1]
(d) [M L2 T-3 I

Q39. 1 electron volt= __________ J. 1R

(a) 1.6*10-19
(b) 4.8*10-19
(c) 1.6*10-10
(d) 10

Q40. 1 V/m= _______ 1R

(a) 1N/C
(b) 3*1010 N/C
(c) 107 N/C
(d) 1010 N/C

Q41. By performing a set of experiments, a scientist found that the electric field between 1U
two points A and B is zero. What can he conclude regarding the potential of the two
points?
(a) VA=0, VB=0
(b) VA>VB
(c) VA+VB
(d) VA=VB

Q42. If a charged body is moved in an electric field against the Coulomb force, then 1U
________

9
 (a) Work is done on the body by an external agent
(b) Work is done by the electric field
(c) Electric field intensity decreases
(d) The total energy of the system decreases

Q43. Electric potential due to a point charge q at a distance r from the point is _______ (in 1R
the air).
(a) q/r
(b) q*r
(c) q/r2
(d) −q/r

Q44. Calculate electric potential due to a point charge of 10C at a distance of 8cm away 1A
from the charge.
(a) 1.125*1013V
(b) 1.125*1012V
(c) 2.25*1013V
(d) 0.62*1013V

Q45. What is the amount of work done to bring a charge of 4*10 -3C from infinity to a point 1A
whose electric potential is 2*102V?
(a) 0.8J Work Done = Electric Potential * Charge

(b) -0.8J
(c) 1.6J
(d) -0.4J

Q46. Two point charges 10C and -10C are placed at a certain distance. What is the electric 1A
potential of their midpoint?
(a) Some positive value
(b) Some negative value
(c) Zero
(d) Depends on medium

Q47. A small charge q is rotated in a complete circular path of radius r surrounding another 1U
charge Q. The work done in this process is _________
(a) Zero
(b) qQ/4πεr work done = change in energy
Potential by charge q is Kq/r
(c) q/4πε(πr) All points of circle of radius r are at same potential.
Here deltaE = 0, so work done is zero.
(d) q/4πε(2πr)

Q48. Electric field intensity and electric potential at a certain distance from a point charge is 1 A&C
32 N/C and 16 J/C. What is the distance from the charge?
(a) 50 m
(b) 0.5 m

10
 (c) 10 m
(d) 7 m
Q49. Three charges –q, Q and –q are placed in a straight line maintaining equal distance 1C
from each other. What should be the ratio q/Q so that the net electric potential of the
system is zero?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q50. A surface that has the same electrostatic potential at every point on it is known as 1R
_____________.
(a)Equal-potential surface
(b)Same potential surface
(c)Equi-magnitude surface
(d) Equipotential surface

Q51. The capacity of the parallel plate capacitor increases when 1U

(a) area of the plate is decreased
(b) area of the plate is increased C (ppc) = EoA/d

(c) distance between the plates increases

(d) None of the option

Q52. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged so that the potential on its surface is 1U
10 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) 0 V
(b) 10 V
(c) Same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) Same as at point 25 cm away from the surface

Q53. Which of the following options are correct? If a conductor has a potential of 4 V and 1A
there are no charges anywhere else outside, then :
(a) there must not be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) there must be charges inside the surface

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

11
Q54.
C
Assertion: A parallel plate capacitor is connected across the battery through a key. A
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy 1 An
which is stored becomes K times.
Reason: The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.

Q55. Assertion: For a point charge, concentric spheres centered at a location of the charge 1 An
C are equipotential surfaces.

Reason: An equipotential surface is a surface over which potential has zero value.

Q56. Assertion: Potential due to a charge q at its own location is not defined 1 An
Reason: Potential due to a charge at its own location is infinite.

Q57. Assertion: If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and 1 An
dielectric constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason: Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.

Q58. Assertion: The total charge stored in a capacitor is zero. 1 An

Reason: The field just outside the capacitor is σ/ε0. (σ is the charge density).

Q59. Assertion: The electrostatic force between the plates of a charged isolated capacitor 1 An
decreases when the dielectric fills the whole space between plates.
Reason: The electric field between the plates of a charged isolated capacitance
increases when the dielectric fills the whole space between plates.

Q60. In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 2A
10-3 m2 and the distance between the plates is 3 mm. Calculate the capacitance of the
capacitor. If this capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on each
plate of the capacitor?

Q61. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a parallel- 2C
plate capacitor but has a thickness (3/4) d, where d is the separation of the plates. How
is the capacitance changed when the slab is inserted between the plates?

Q62. Find the equivalent capacitance between points A and B 2C

capacitance of each capacitor is 2 μF.

Q63. Why is electrostatic potential constant throughout the volume of the conductor and has 2 U
the same value (as inside) on its surface?

12
Q64. A point charge Q is placed at point O as shown in the figure. Is the potential difference 2A
VA– VB positive, negative or
zero, if Q is
(i) positive
(ii) negative?

Q65. The given graph shows variation of charge ‘q’ versus potential difference ‘V’ for two 2C
capacitors C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of
C2 is greater than that of C1. Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and why?

Q66. A 500 µC charge is at the centre of a square of side 10 cm. Find the work done in 3A
moving a charge of 10 µC between two diagonally opposite points on the square.

Q67. Derive an expression for the potential energy for a system of two charges in an 3U
external field.

Q68. Define the term ‘potential energy’ of charge ‘q’ at a distance r in an external electric 3U
field. Derive an expression for the same.

Q69. (a)Define equipotential surface. What is the geometrical shape of equipotential 3 R, U

surfaces due to a single isolated charge?
(b) For any charge configuration, equipotential surface through a point is normal to the
electric field.” Justify.
Q70. (a)What is the electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole at an equatorial point? 3 U, AP
Why?
(b) Derive an expression for the effect of dielectric on capacitance.

Q71. Two uniformly large parallel thin plates having charge densities + σ and – σ are kept 3C
in the X-Z plane at a distance ‘d’ apart. Sketch an equipotential surface due to electric
field between the plates. If a particle of mass m and charge q’ remains stationary
between the plates, what is the magnitude and direction of this field?

13
Q72. Figure shows two identical capacitors C 1 and C2, each of 2 µF capacitance, connected 3A
to a battery of 5 V. Initially switch ‘S’ is left open and dielectric slabs of dielectric
constant K = 5 are inserted to fill
completely the space between the plates
of the two capacitors. How will the
charge and

(ii) potential difference between the

plates of the capacitors be affected after
the slabs are inserted?
Q73. Case study -1 4 an

When an insulator is placed in an external field, the dipoles become aligned. Induced
surface charges on the insulator establish a polarisation field Ē i in its interior. The net
field Ē in the insulator is the vector sum of Ē, and Ē i as shown in the figure.

On the application of external electric field, the effect of aligning the electric dipoles
in the insulator is called polarisation and the field Ē; is known as the polarisation field.
The dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric is known as polarisation (P).
For linear isotropic dielectrics, P =χE, where χ = electrical susceptibility of the
dielectric medium.

(i) Which among the following is an example of polar molecule?

(2) O₂
(b) H
(c) N2
(d) HCI
(ii) When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the
maximum force of attraction between two charges separated by a
distance
(a) increases K times
(b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times
(d) increases 2K times.
(iii) Which of the following is a dielectric?
(a) Copper
(b) Glass

14
 (c) Antimony (Sb)
(d) None of these

(iv) For a polar molecule, which of the following statements is true?

(a) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons coincide.
(b) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons do not coincide.
(c) The charge distribution is always symmetrical.
(d) The dipole moment is always zero.
Q74. (a)Derive an expression for the effect of dielectric on capacitance. 5U&
(b) Two point charges, q1 = 10 × 10-8C, q2 = -2 × 10-8C are separated by a distance of Ap
60 cm in air.
(i) Find at what distance from the 1st charge, q1 would the electric potential be zero.
(ii) Also calculate the electrostatic potential energy of the system.
Q75. (a) Define electric dipole moment. Derive the expression for the electric field of a 5 A&C
dipole at a point on the equatorial plane of the dipole. Is it a scalar or a vector?
(b) Draw the equipotential surfaces due to an electric dipole. Locate the points where
the potential due to the dipole is zero.
(c) The amount of work done in bringing 0.01C of charge from one point to another
point is 8 joule. How much is the potential difference?
(d) Calculate the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor if the area of each plate is
1m2 and the distance of separation of the plates is 1mm.
(e) Draw three equipotential surfaces corresponding to a field that uniformly increases
in magnitude but remains constant along Z-direction. How are the surfaces
Different from that of a constant electric field along Z-direction?

Q76. (a) Derive an expression for capacitors connected in series and parallel. 5R
(b) A 12pF capacitor is connected to a 50V battery. How much electrostatic energy is
stored in the capacitor?

Q77. (a)Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed on the 5 C, R
vertices of a triangle as shown.

(b) Derive the expression for the electric potential at any point along the axial line of
an electric dipole.

15
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE
Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT II -CURRENT ELECTRICITY

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

16
 Ch 3: Current Electricity

Q1. An electric heater is connected to the voltage supply. After few seconds, current gets its steady 1U
value then its initial current will be:
(a) equal to its steady current
(b) slightly higher than its steady current
(c) slightly less than its steady current
(d) zero

Q2. In the series combination of two or more than two resistances: 1R

(a) the current through each resistance is same.
(b) the voltage through each resistance is same.
(c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is same.
(d) both current and voltage through each resistance are same

Q3. A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external 1R
resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given
by:

Q4. If n cells each of emf e and internal resistance r are connected in parallel, then the total emf and 1R
internal resistance will be:

Q5. Current density is a __________. 1R

a) scalar quantity.
b) vector quantity.
c) dimensionless quantity.
d) none of these options

17
Q6. The resistivity of certain metals or alloys drops to zero when they are cooled below a certain 1U
temperature, this phenomenon is known as __________.

a) Conductivity
b) Partial conductivity
c) Superconductivity
d) Non-conductivity

Q7. Which of the following I-V graph represents ohmic conductors? 1A

Q8. Which of the following is correct for V-I graph of a good conductor? 1U

Q9. Specific resistance of metals is mostly affected by: 1U

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Magnetic field
d) Volume

18
Q10. The opposition offered by the electrolyte of the cell to the flow of current through itself is 1R
known as __________.

a) External resistance
b) Internal resistance
c) Non-resistance
d) None of these options

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
Q11. Assertion: Voltmeter is connected in parallel with the circuit. 1A
Reason: Resistance of a voltmeter is very large.
Q12. Assertion: Ohm’s law is applicable for all conducting elements. IR
Reason: Ohm’s law is a fundamental law.
Q13. Assertion: An electric bulb becomes dim, when the electric heater in parallel circuit is switched IU
on.
Reason: Dimness decreases after sometime.

Q14. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit, the point of the lowest potential is positive terminal of the 1R
battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the higher potential, as it does in such a circuit
from the negative to the positive terminal.

Q15. Assertion: An ammeter is always connected in series whereas a voltmeter is connected in 1U

parallel.
Reason: An ammeter is a low-resistance galvanometer while a voltmeter is high-resistance
galvanometer

Q16. Assertion: Electric field inside a current carrying wire is zero. 1A

Reason: Net charge on wire is non zero.
Q17. State the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. 2U

Q18. The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 0.4Ω, 2A
what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?

19
Q19. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is connected to a resistor. If the current in the 2 A
circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor? What is the terminal voltage of the battery
when the circuit is closed?

Q20. Three resistors of 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected in parallel, then show that the equivalent 2A
resistance is less than the least valued resistance (i.e 1Ω)

Q21. (a) Three resistors 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω are combined in parallel. What is the total resistance of the 2 A
combination?

(b) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 20 V and negligible internal resistance,
determine the current through each resistor, and the total current drawn from the battery.
Q22. Define the term electron density. 2R

Q23. A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross-section 6.0 2 A
× 10−7 m2, and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the resistivity of the material at the
temperature of the experiment?
Q24. Determine the current in each branch of the network 3A
shown in fig:

Q25. The number density of free electrons in a copper conductor estimated is 8.5 × 10 28 m-3. How 3U
long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long to its other end? The area
of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 × 10-6 m2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A.
Q26. At room temperature (27.0 °C) the resistance of a heating element is 100 W. What is the 3A
temperature of the element if the resistance is found to be 117 W, given that the temperature
coefficient of the material of the resistor is 1.70 × 10-4 °C-1.
Q27. Derive an expression for the balancing condition of a Wheatstone’s bridge with appropriate 3U
circuit diagram.
Q28. Derive relation between EMF and terminal potential difference and also find expression for 3A
internal resistance.

20
Q29. Determine the electric current that flows in the circuit as shown in the figure below. 3A

Q30. Determine the current drawn from a 12 V supply with internal resistance 0.5 Ω by the infinite 3A
network shown in Fig. Each resistor has 1 Ω resistance.

Q31. Two bulbs are marked 60 W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V. These are connected in parallel to 220 V 3 A
mains. Which one out of the two will glow brighter?

Q32. Define drift velocity and derive an expression for it. 3R

Q33. Answer the following questions: 5U&

A
(a) A steady current flow in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross- section. Which of these
quantities is constant along the conductor: current, current density, electric field, drift speed?
(b) Is Ohm’s law universally applicable for all conducting elements?
If not, give examples of elements which do not obey Ohm’s law.
(c) A low voltage supply from which one needs high currents must have very low internal
resistance. Why?
(d) A high tension (HT) supply of, say, 6 kV must have a very large internal resistance. Why?
(e) How is the drift velocity in a conductor affected by the rise in temperature?

Q34. With the help of the circuit diagram, explain the working principle of meter bridge. How is it 5R
used to determine the unknown resistance of a given wire? Write the necessary precautions to
minimize the error in the result.
Q35. a) State 2 limitations of Ohm’s law using graphical representations. 5U&
b) Derive an expression for internal energy of a cell. R

21
Q36. Derive an expression for cells in series and parallel with appropriate circuit diagrams. 5A

Q37. According to Ohm's law, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the 4 A &
potential difference across the ends of the conductor i.e I ∝ V ⇒ V/ I = R, where R is resistance C
of the conductor Electrical resistance of a conductor is the obstruction posed by the conductor to
the flow of electric current through it. It depends upon length, area of cross-section, nature of
material and temperature of the conductor.

(i) Dimensions of electric resistance is

(a) [ML2 T-2A−2]

(b) [ML2T−3A−2]
(c) [M−1 L−2 T−1 A]
(d) [M−1L2T2A−1]

(ii) If 1μA current flows through a conductor when potential difference of 2 volt is applied

across its ends, then the resistance of the conductor is

(a) 2×106Ω
(b) 3×105Ω
(c) 1.5×105Ω
(d) 5×107Ω

(iii) Specific resistance of a wire depends upon

(a) length
(b) cross-sectional area
(c) mass
(d) none of these

(iv) The slope of the graph between potential difference and current through a conductor is

(a) a straight line

(b) curve
(c) first curve then straight line
(d) first straight line then curve

22
Q38. The flow of charge in a particular direction constitutes the electric current. Current is measured 4 A &
in Ampere. Quantitatively, electric current in a conductor across an area held perpendicular to C
the direction of flow of charge is defined as the amount of charge is flowing across that area per
unit time.
Current density at a point in a conductor is the ratio of the current at that point in the conductor
to the area of cross section of the conductor of that point.s
The given figure shows a steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non uniform cross
section. Current density depends inversely on area.
(i) What is the current flowing through a conductor, if one million electrons are crossing in one
millisecond through a cross-section of it ?
(a) 2.5 x 10-10 A (b) 1.6 x 10-10 A
(c) 7.5 X 10-9 A (d) 8.2 x 10-11 A
(ii) SI unit of electric current is
(a) Cs (b) Ns-2 (c) Cs-1 C-1s-1

(iii) A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. Which of these
quantities is constant along the conductor?
(a) Electric field (b) Drift velocity (c) Current (d) Current density

(iv) A constant current I is flowing along the length of a conductor of variable cross-section as
shown in the figure. The quantity that does not depend upon the area of the cross-section is

(a) electron density (b) current density

(c) drift velocity (d) electric field

(v) When a current of 40 A flows through a conductor of area 10 m 2, then the current density is
(a) 4 A/m2 (b) 1 A/m2 (c) 2 A/m2 (d) 8 A/m2

23
Q39. The resistance of a conductor at temperature toC is given by Rt = Ro (1 + αt) 4U
o o
where Rt is the resistance at t C, Ro is the resistance at 0 C and α𝛼 is the characteristics
constants of the material of the conductor.
Over a limited range of temperatures, that is not too large. The resistivity of a metallic conductor
is approximately given by ρt=ρ0(1+αt) 𝜌𝑡=𝜌0(1+𝛼𝑡).
where α𝛼 is the temperature coefficient of resistivity. Its unit is K −1or ∘C−1
For metals, α𝛼 is positive i.e., resistance increases with rise in temperature.
For insulators and semiconductors, α𝛼 is negative i.e., resistance decreases with rise in
temperature.

(i) Fractional increase in resistivity per unit increase in temperature is defined as

(a) resistivity (b) temperature coefficient of resistivity
(c) conductivity (d) drift velocity
(ii) The material whose resistivity is insensitive to temperature is

(a) silicon (b) copper (c) silver (d) nichrome

(iii) The temperature coefficient of the resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per oC. At 300 K its
resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of wire will be 2 ohms at
(d) 1127 K
(a) 1154 K (b) 1100 K (c) 1400 K
(iv) The temperature coefficient of resistance of an alloy used for making resistors is

(a) small and positive (b) small and negative (c) large and positive (d) large and negative
(v) For a metallic wire, the ratio V/I (V = applied potential difference and I = current flowing)
is
(a) independent of temperature
(b) increases as the temperature rises
(c) decreases as the temperature rises
(d) increases or decreases as temperature rises depending upon the metal

24
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT III -MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND

MAGNETISM
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
MAGNETISM AND MATTER

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
25
 Ch 4- Moving charges and magnetism and Ch 5- Magnetism and matter
Q1. The SI unit of magnetic flux is: 1R
a) Dyne
b) Tesla
c) Weber SI Unit: Ts^2 (Tesla metre ^ 2 (Sqaure) which is known as Weber [Wb]
d) Ohm

Q2. Susceptibility is positive for: 1R

e) Ferromagnetic material
f) Paramagnetic material
g) Diamagnetic material
h) Option (a) and (b)
Q3. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet: 1R
(a) do not exist
(b) depends on area of cross-section of bar magnet
(c) are from N-pole to S-pole of the magnet
(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of the magnet. Inside a bar magnet, since magnetic field are continous, they point from the south pole to the north
pole as the magnetic enters from south pole from the outside and emerge from the north pole.

Q4. In a moving coil galvanometer, we use a radial magnetic field so that the galvanometer scale is: 1 U
(a) exponential
(b) linear
(c) algebraic
(d) logarithmic
Q5. Circular loop of radius 0.0157 m carries a current 2 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the 1R
loop is:
r= 0.0157 m
(a) 1.57 × 10-3Wb/m² I= 2A
B= mu not / 4 pi * 2*pi*i/r
-5
(b) 8.0 × 10 Wb/m² As we know mu not/4pi = 10^-7
So, B= 10^-7 * 2*pi*2/0.0157
-3
(c) 2.0 × 10 Wb/m² B=8*10^-5 Wb/m^2

(d) 3.l4 × 10-1 Wb/m²

Q6. The strength of the magnetic field around an infinite current carrying conductor is: 1R
(a) same everywhere
(b) inversely proportional to the distance
(c) directly proportional to the distance
(d) None of these

26
Q7. According to Ampere’s Circuital law 1R

Q8. The force between two parallel current carrying conductors is F. If the current in each conductor 1 U
is doubled, then the force between them becomes:
(a) 4F
(b) 2F
(c) F
(d) F/4

Q9. To convert galvanometer into voltmeter one should connect: 1U

(a) high resistance in series with galvanometer
(b) low resistance in series with galvanometer
(c) high resistance in parallel with galvanometer
(d) low resistance in parallel with galvanometer
Q10. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current 1R
(i) is zero
(ii) decreases as we move towards its end
(iii) increases as we move towards its end
(iv) is the same at all points
Q11. If an electron is moving with velocity ν⃗ produces a magnetic field B⃗ , then 1R
(a) the direction of field B⃗ will be same as the direction of velocity ν⃗ .
(b) the direction of field B⃗ will be opposite to the direction of velocity ν⃗ .
(c) the direction of field B⃗ will be perpendicular to the direction of velocity ν⃗ .
(d) the direction of field B⃗ does not depend upon the direction of velocity ν⃗ .

Q12. Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown in the figure. In which case is the 1A
magnetic field at the centre of the frame not zero?

Here the current line is not passing through the centre.

27
Q13. The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B⃗ vs distance r from centre of the wire is, if 1 U
the radius of wire is R

Q14. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents are: 1U

(a) parallel currents repel, and antiparallel currents attract.
(b) parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
(c) both currents attract. ’
(d) both currents repel.

Q15. The magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and number of turns N 1R
varies as
(a) 1/r²
(b) 1/r
(c) r
(d) r²
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer 1R
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false
Q16. Assertion: In electric circuits, wires carrying currents in opposite directions are often twisted 1A
A) together
Reason: If the wires are not twisted together, the combination of the wires forms a current loop,
the magnetic field generated by the loop might affect adjacent circuits or components

Q17. Assertion: A charge, whether stationary or in motion produces a magnetic field around it. 1R
D) Reason: Moving charges produce only electric field in the surrounding space

Q18. Assertion: The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable 1U
C)
magnetic material as a core inside the coil.

28
 Reason: Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or
demagnetized.
Q19. Assertion : The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its 1R
length and cross-sectional area.
Reason : The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.
Q20. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is reversed in direction while keeping the same 1U
magnitude, the magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid remains unchanged.
Reason : Magnetic field energy density is proportional to the magnetic field.
Q21. Assertion : Free electrons always keep on moving in a conductor even then no magnetic force 1A
act on them in magnetic field unless a current is passed through it.
Reason : The average velocity of free electron is zero.
Q22. A positively-charged particle (alpha particle) projected towards west is deflected towards north 1 R
by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is:
(i) towards south
(ii) towards east Q. 27) Electromotive force is defined as the
electric potential produced by either an
electrochemical cell or by changing the
(iii) downward 1. They never cross each other
2. They all have same strenght throughout and is proportional to how close the lines are.
magnetic field. EMF is the commonly used
acronym for electromotive force.
(iv) upward 3. Magnetic Field Lines emerge from the North pole and merge at the South pole
4. As the distance between the pole increases, the density of magnetic lines decreases
5.The direction of field lines inside the magnet is from the South pole to the North pole.

Q23. List the properties of magnetic lines of force. 2R

The magnetic field lines never intersect each other because if
two or more lines intersect each other than it means that at
that point of intersection, the magnetic field has two directions
Q24. Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other? at the same point. This is not possible for a magnetic field to 2U
point in more than one direction at the same point.

Fleming’s Left Hand Rule states that if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and middle finger
Q25. State Fleming’s left-hand rule. of the left-hand perpendicular to each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of 2R
the force experienced by the conductor, the forefinger points towards the direction of the
magnetic field and the middle finger points towards the direction of the electric current.

Q26. Define a solenoid. Compare the magnetic field produced by a solenoid with that of a bar 2U
magnet? A solenoid is a long straight insulated wire, such as a copper coil, often wrapped around a
cylinder-shaped body. The diameter of the solenoid is lesser than its length. It produces a
magnetic field when electric current is passed through it.
—> Magnetic field produced by a solenoid is shown below: DIAGRAM
Q27. Define Electromotive force. —> Magnetic field produced by a bar magnet is shown below: DIAGRAM
On comparing field lines produced by a solenoid with that produced by a bar magnet, we
2U
observe that they are very much identical. Thus, a solenoid acts as a bar magnet when current
is passed through it.
Q28. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a 2U
current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
Electromagnetic Induction is a current produced because of voltage production (electromotive force) due
Q29. What is electromagnetic induction? to a changing magnetic field.
This either happens when a conductor is placed in a moving magnetic field (when using an AC power
2U
source) or when a conductor is constantly moving in a stationary magnetic field.

Q30. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.1. By rotating the coilDifferent
between the poles of a U-shaped magnet in a magnetic field. 2 U
ways to induce a current in a coil:

2. By holding the coil still and moving a magnet within it.

3. By continuously changing the current in another coil kept nearby.

Q31. Is the steady electric current the only source of magnetic field? Justify your answer. 2U
No, a varying current and a current induced due to electromagnetic induction may also produce a magnetic field.

Q32. Why should the spring/suspension wire in a moving coil galvanometer have low torsional 2R
constant?
Solenoid is a coil of many circular turns of an insulated copper wire closely wound
in the shape of a cylinder.
Solenoid behaves as a magnet in the following ways: -
(i) magnetic field produced by a solenoid is similar to the magnetic field of a bar
magnet. 29
(ii) one end of the solenoid behaves as north seeking pole and another end
behaves as a south seeking pole as in magnet.
We can determine the north and the south poles of the solenoid by bringing a
north pole of a magnet near to anyone end of the solenoid. If the magnet is
attracted it is unlike pole (south) and if it is repelled it is like pole (north).
 (i) Increasing the magnetic field
(ii) Decreasing the torision constant

(i) INcrease the Number of Turns

(ii) Increase Magnetic Field (B)
(iii) Increase Area of cross-section (A)

Q33. Write two factors by which voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased. 2R

Q34. Write two factors by which current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be increased. 2 R

Q35. A coil of N turns, and radius R carries a current I. It is unwound and rewound to make a square 2 U
coil of side “a” having the same number of turns N. Keeping the current I same, find the ratio of
the magnetic moments of the square coil and the circular coil. Oswaal Q.6 SATQs-1

Q36. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic field produced around a straight 3U
conductor-carrying current (it) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed
in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and (in) current induced in a coil due to its
rotation in a magnetic field.

Q37. An electric oven of 2 KW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has 3 A
a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Q38. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar 3A
magnet is (i) pushed into the coil (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil (iii) held stationary inside
the coil?
Q39. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field 3U
largest?
Q40. Derive a relation for force between two infinitely long straight parallel conductor carrying 3R
current.

Q41. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic field produced around a straight 3U
conductor-carrying current (it) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed
in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and (in) current induced in a coil due to its
rotation in a magnetic field.
Q42. How will you find out the direction of the magnetic field produced by current-carrying 3A
conductor?

Q43. Why does a solenoid contract when current passes through it? 3U

Q44. A current of 10 A flows through each of two parallel long wires. The wires are 5cm apart. 3A
Calculate the force acting per unit length of each wire.

Q45. Derive the formula for the force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field. 3R

Q46. Derive an expression for torque on current carrying rectangular loop placed in uniform magnetic 3 R
field.

30
Q47. With the help of a labelled diagram, explain the working of an A.C. generator. 3R

Q48. Various methods can be used to measure the 4A&

mass of an atom. One possibility is through C
the use of a mass spectrometer. The basic
feature of a Banbridge mass spectrometer is
illustrated in the figure. A particle carrying a
charge +q is first sent through a velocity
selector and comes out with velocity v = E/B.
The applied electric and magnetic fields
satisfy the relation E = vB so that the
trajectory of the particle is a straight line.
Upon entering a region where a second
magnetic field pointing into the page has
been applied, the particle will move in a
circular path with radius r and eventually
strike the photographic plate.

(i)In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out in which of the following ways?

(a) By accelerating them through electric field

(b) By accelerating them through magnetic field
(c) By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field
(d) By applying a high voltage

(ii) The particle comes out of the velocity selector along a straight line, because
(a) the electric force is less than the (b) the electric force is greater than the
magnetic force magnetic force
(c) electric and magnetic forces balance
(d) can't say.
each other

(iii)Select the correct option which represents the Lorentz force:

(a) F = q (v x B)
(b) F = v (q x B)
(c) F = B (q x v)
(d)F = B (v x q)

(iv)In the above case, the particles trace a circular path due to:
(a)Electric field
(b)Magnetic field
(c)Both electric and magnetic field
(d)None of the above

31
Q49. Moving coil galvanometer operates on Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) mechanism 4U
and was designed by the scientist D'arsonval.
Moving coil galvanometers are of two types
(i) Suspended coil
(ii) Pivoted coil type or tangent galvanometer.
Its working is based on the fact that when a current carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it
experiences a torque. This torque tends to rotate the coil about its axis of suspension in such a
way that the magnetic flux passing through the coil is maximum.

(i) A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which

(a) is used to measure emf

(b) is used to measure potential difference
(c) is used to measure resistance
(d) is a deflection instrument which gives a deflection when a current flows through its
coil
(ii) To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer

(a) number of turns of coil is kept small (b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe

(c) poles are of very strong magnets (d) poles are cylindrically cut
(iii) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is

(a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring

(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil

(iv)To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer, we should decrease
(a) strength of magnet (b) torsional constant of spring
(c) number of turns in coil (d) area of coil

32
Q50. By analogy to Gauss's law of electrostatics, we can write Gauss's law of magnetism 4A
as ∮B⃗ ⋅ds⃗ =μ0minside ∮𝐵→⋅𝑑𝑠→=𝜇0𝑚inside where ∮B⃗ ⋅ds⃗ ∮𝐵→⋅𝑑𝑠→ is the magnetic flux
and 𝑚inside is the net pole strength inside the closed surface.
We do not have an isolated magnetic pole in nature. At least none has been found to exist till
date. The smallest unit of the source of magnetic field is a magnetic dipole where the net
magnetic pole is zero. Hence, the net magnetic pole enclosed by any closed surface is always
zero. Correspondingly, the flux of the magnetic field through any closed surface is zero.

(I) Consider the two idealized systems

(i) a parallel plate capacitor with large plates and small separations and
(ii) a long solenoid of length L >> R, the radius of cross-section.

(A)In (i) E⃗ is ideally treated as a constant between plates and zero outside. In (ii) magnetic field
is constant inside the solenoid and zero outside. These idealized assumptions, however,
contradict the fundamental laws below
(a) case (i) contradicts Gauss's law for electrostatic fields
(b)case (ii) contradicts Gauss's law for magnetic fields
(c) case (i) agrees with ∮E⃗ ⋅dl→=0 . (c) case (i) agrees with ∮𝐸𝑑𝑙→=0.
(d) case (ii) contradicts ∮H⃗ ⋅dl→=Ien (d) case (ii) contradicts ∮𝐻𝑑𝑙→=𝐼𝑒𝑛

(B) The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a magnetic field is:
(a) zero (b) 𝜇0/4𝜋 (c) 4𝜋𝜇0 (d) 4μ0/π

(C) Which of the following properties

are applicable to a magnetic field:
(a) magnetic monopoles exist
(b) magnetic field is weaker than
gravitational field
(c) magnetic field is independent of the
medium
(d) none of the above

(D) Magnetic field depends on:

(a) permittivity of the medium
(b) permeability of the medium
(c) both (a) and (b)
33
 (d) neither (a) nor (b)

Q51. a) What do you understand by moving coil galvanometer? 5A&

R
b) Give principle, construction and working of moving coil galvanometer.
c)How can we convert galvanometer into ammeter?
d)A galvanometer having a coil of resistance 12 ohm gives full scale deflection for a current of 4
mA. How can it be converted into a voltmeter of range 0 to 24 V
Q52. Write the expression for the generalized form of Ampere’s circuital law. Discuss its significance 5U
and describe briefly how the concept of displacement current is explained through
charging/discharging of a capacitor in an electric circuit.
Q53. Draw a schematic sketch of a moving coil galvanometer and describe briefly its working. 5R
(b) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer does not necessarily increase the
voltage sensitivity.” Justify this statement.

34
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT IV -ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND

ALTERNATING CURRENT
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
ALTERNATING CURRENT

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
35
 Ch 6- Electromagnetic induction and Ch- 7 Alternating current

Q1. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit change, an emf is induced in the 1R
circuit. This is called:
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) hysteresis loss
(d) Kirchhoff’s laws
Q2. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is 1U
deflected, because
(a) the induced current is produced
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
(d) None of these
Q3. The self-inductance of a coil is a measure of 1R
(a) electrical inertia
(b) electrical friction
(c) induced EMF
(d) induced current

Q4. Two pure inductors each of self-inductance L are connected in series, the net inductance is 1U
(a) L
(b) 2 L
(c) L/2
(d) L/4
Q5. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current I each circulating in the same direction. If 1U
the loops approach each other, you will observe that the current in
(a) each increases
(b) each decreases
(c) each remains the same
(d) one increases whereas that in the other decreases
Q6. When current in a coil change from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50 V is produced. 1A
The self-inductance of the coil is
(a) 1.67 H
(b) 6 H
(c) 3 H
(d) 0.67 H

36
Q7. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of 1A
(a) charge
(b) energy
(c) induced emf
(d) induced current

Q8. Which of the following circuits exhibits maximum power dissipation? 1U

a) Pure Inductive Circuit

b) Pure Capacitive Circuit
c) Pure Resistive Circuit
d) None of the above

Q9. When is the current in a circuit wattless? 1U

a) When the inductance of the circuit is zero.

b) When the resistance of the circuit is zero.
c) When the current is alternating.
d) When both resistance and inductance are zero.

Q10. The power factor is one for which of the following? 1U

a) Pure capacitor
b) Pure inductor
c) Pure resistor
d) All of the above

Q11. Electrical Inertia is the measure of 1U

a. Self Inductance
b. Mutual Inductance
c. Impedance
d. None of the above

Q12. Which of the following apparatus construction uses electromagnetic induction? 1R

a. Voltmeter
b. Galvanometer
c. Generator
d. Electric Motor

Q13. Which of the following statements is true? 1A

37
 a. A metal plate can be heated by passing either a direct current or an alternating current
through the plate.
b. A metal plate can be heated by placing it in a time-invariant magnetic field.
c. A metal plate can be heated by placing it in a time-variant magnetic field
d. Both (a) and (c)

Q14. A rectangular conductor is removed from a magnetic field in 1) fast motion 2) slow motion. 1U
More work will be done when the motion is

a) slow
b) fast
c) same in both case 1) and 2)
d) cannot say

Q15. When the rate of change of current is unity, the induced emf is equal to 1U

a) thickness of coil
b) number of turns in coil
c) coefficient of self-inductance
d) total flux linked with coil

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Q16. Assertion: An induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field due to the current 1R
opposes the change in the magnetic flux that induces the current.
Reason: Above statement is in accordance with conservation of energy.

Q17. Assertion: An induced emf appears in any coil in which the current is changing. 1U
Reason: Self-induction phenomenon obeys Faraday’s law of induction.
Q18. Assertion: Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil. 1U
Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil of the
circuit is continuous
Q19. Assertion: Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases. 1R
Reason: The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that it opposes
the change to the cause that produced.

38
Q20. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance. 1A
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance.
Q21. Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the emf by a phase angle of, π/2 when AC flows 1 U
through an inductor.
Reason : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of AC source increases.
Q22. Assertion : The inductive reactance limits amplitude of the current in a purely inductive circuit. 1 U
Reason: The inductive reactance is independent of the frequency of the current.
Q23. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the current is referred to as wattless 1R
current.
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or capacitive circuit even though a current
is flowing in the circuit.
Q24. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V induced, give 2A
an estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit.
Q25. A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. 2A

(a) What is the rms value of current in the circuit?

(b) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?

Q26. A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the 2R
current in the circuit.

Q27. Obtain the resonant frequency ωr of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C = 32 μF and R = 10 2A
Ω. Calculate the resonant frequency if the value of L and C are doubled.
Q28. A series LCR circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = 35 μF is connected to a variable- 2A
frequency 200 V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural frequency of
the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle?
Q29. An A.C. voltage of 100 V, 50 Hz is connected across a 20 ohm resistor and 2 mH inductor in 2A
series. Calculate:
a) Impedance of the circuit
b) Rms current in the circuit
Q30. A 100 Hz AC is flowing in a coil of inductance 10 mH. What is the reactance of the coil. 2U

Q31. Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a 2R
transformer.

39
Q32. A plot of magnetic flux (ϕ) versus current (I) is shown in the figure for two inductors A and B. 2U
Which of the two has larger value of self-inductance? Justify your answer.

Q33. Two bar magnets are quickly moved towards a metallic loop connected across a capacitor ‘C’ as 2 A
shown in the figure. Predict the polarity of the capacitor.

Q34. Predict the direction of the induced current in the rectangular loop ABCD as it is moved into the 2 A
region of a uniform magnetic field B⃗ directed normal to the plane of the loop.

Q35. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm 2 placed inside the solenoid 3 A
normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2.0 A to 4.0 A in
0.1 s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?
Q36. A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a small cut is moving out of a region of 3A
uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the loop. What is the emf
developed across the cut if the velocity of the loop is 1 cm s −1 in a direction normal to the (a)
longer side, (b) shorter side of the loop? For how long does the induced voltage last in each
case?
Q37. Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 3A
H, C = 80μF, R = 40 Ω

40
 (a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit. Show that the
potential drop across the LC combination is zero at the resonating frequency.
Q38. The instantaneous current and voltage of an AC circuit are given by i = 10 sin 314 t A and v = 50 3 A
sin 314 t V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?

Q39. Why is the core of a transformer laminated? 3A

Q40. A variable frequency AC source is connected to a capacitor. Will the displacement current 3A
change if the frequency of the AC source is decreased?
Q41. Derive an expression for self-inductance of a solenoid. State the factors on which self- 3R
inductance of a solenoid depend.
Q42. A light metal disc on the top of an electromagnet is thrown up as the current is switched on. 3C
Why? Give reason.
Q43. Define mutual inductance. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when: 3R
(i) distance between the coils is decreased and
(ii) number of turns in the coils is decreased?
Q44. Find out the expression for the mutual inductance of inner solenoid of length l having the radius 3 U
r1 and the number of turns n1 per unit length due to the second outer solenoid of same length and
n2 number of turns per unit length.
Q45. Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current in a circuit is such that it opposes the 4U
change which produces it. Thus, if the magnetic flux linked with a closed-circuit increases, the
induced current flows in such a direction that magnetic flux is created in the opposite direction
of the original magnetic flux. If the magnetic flux linked with the closed-circuit decreases, the
induced current flows in such a direction so as to create magnetic flux in the direction of the
original flux.

41
 (i) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The induced emf is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux so as to oppose the cause whic
(b) The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux.
(c) Emf is induced only if the magnet is moved towards coil.
(d) Emf is induced only if the coil is moved towards magnet

(ii) The polarity of induced emf is given by

(a) Ampere's circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law

(c) Lenz's law (d) Fleming's right-hand rule

(iii) Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) charge (b) mass (c) momentum (d) energy

(iv) Near a circular loop of conducting wire as shown in the figure, an electron moves along a
straight line. The direction of induced current if any in the loop is:

(a) variable (b) clockwise

(c) anticlockwise (d) zero
Q46. Currents can be induced not only in conducting coils, but also in conducting sheets or blocks. 4U
Current is induced in solid metallic masses when the magnetic flux threading through them
changes. Such currents flow in the form of irregularly shaped loops throughout the body of the
metal. These currents look like eddies or whirlpools in water so they are known as eddy
currents. Eddy currents have both undesirable effects and practically useful applications. For
example, it causes unnecessary heating and wastage of power in electric motors, dynamos and in
the cores of transformers.
(I) The working of speedometers of trains is based on

(a) wattless currents (b) eddy currents

(c) alternating currents (d) pulsating currents

(ii) Identify the wrong statement

42
 (a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field
(b) Induction furnace uses eddy currents to produce heat.
(c) Eddy currents can be used to produce braking force in moving trains
(d) Power meters work on the principle of eddy currents.

(iii) Which of the following is the best method to reduce eddy currents?

(a) Laminating core (b) Using thick wires

(c) By reducing hysteresis loss (d) None ofthese

(iv) The direction of eddy currents is given by:

(a) Fleming's left hand rule (b) Biot-Savart law

(c) Lenz's law (d) Ampere-circuital law
Q47. Let a source of alternating EMF E = E osinωt be connected to a capacitor of capacitance C. If 'I' 4 A
is the instantaneous value of current in the circuit at instant t, then I=E0/1/ωCsin(ωt+π2) The
capacitive reactance limits the amplitude of current in a purely capacitive circuit and it is given
by XC=1/ωC

(i) What is the unit of capacitive reactance?

(a) farad (b) ampere (c) ohm (d) ohm -1

(ii) The capacitive reactance of a 5Μf capacitor for a frequency of 106 Hz is

(a) 0.032Ω
(b) 2.52Ω
(c) 1.25Ω
(d) 4.51Ω

(iii) In a capacitive circuit, resistance to the flow of current is offered by

(a) resistor (b) capacitor (c) inductor (d) frequency

(iv) In a capacitive circuit, by what value of phase angle does alternating current leads the EMF?

(a) 45° (b) 90° (c) 75° (d) 60°

43
 (v) One microfarad capacitor is joined to a 200 V, 50 Hz alternator. The rms current through
capacitor is

(a) 6.28×10−2 A
(b) 7.5×10−4 A
(c) 10.52×10−2 A
(d) 15.25×10−2 A
Q48. (a) Derive an expression for power consumed in series LCR circuit. 5R
(b) What is power factor of an AC circuit?
(c) Define and explain wattles current.
Q49. Draw a schematic arrangement for winding of primary and secondary coil in a transformer when 5R
the two coils are wound on top of each other.
(b) State the underlying principle of a transformer and obtain the expression for the ratio of
secondary to primary voltage in terms of the
(i) number of secondary and primary windings and
(ii) primary and secondary currents.
(c) Write the main assumption involved in deriving the above relations.
(d) Write any two reasons due to which energy losses may occur in actual transformers.
Q50. Draw a labelled diagram of AC generator and state its working principle. 5U
(b) How is magnetic flux linked with the armature coil changed in a generator?
(c) Derive the expression for maximum value of the induced emf and state the rule that gives the
direction of the induced emf.
(d) Show the variation of the emf generated
versus time as the armature is rotated with respect to the direction of the magnetic field.
Q51. A circuit containing a 80 m H inductor and a 60 μ F capacitor in series is connected to a 230 V, 5 A &
50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. U
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values.
(b) Obtain the rms values of potential drops across each element.
(c) What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
(d) What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
(e) What is the total average power absorbed by the circuit? [‘Average’ implies ‘averaged over
one cycle’]

44
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT V -ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Ch 8- Electromagnetic waves

45
Q1. When is the conduction current the same as the displacement current? 1R

a) When the source is AC

b) When the source is DC
c) When the source is either an AC or a DC
d) When the source is neither DC nor AC

Q2. The ratio of contributions made by the magnetic field and electric field components to the 1U
intensity of an EM wave is

a) 1:1
b) c:1
c) c2:1
d) √c:1

Q3. According to Maxwell’s Hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to? 1A &
C
a) Induced EMF
b) Electric Field
c) Magnetic Field
d) Magnetic Dipole

Q4. Which of the following proves that electromagnetic waves are transverse? 1R

a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Interference
d) Polarization

Q5. Which of the following is used to investigate the structure of solids? 1U

a) Gamma Rays
b) Infrared Rays
c) X-Rays
d) Cosmic Rays

Q6. The correct option, if speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwave are V g, Vx an 1R
Vm respectively will be.

a. Vg > Vx > Vm
b. Vg < Vx < Vm
46
 c. Vg > Vx > Vm
d. Vg = Vx = Vm

Q7. Electromagnetic waves travelling in a medium having relative permeability μ r = 1.3 and relative 1A &
permittivity Er = 2.14. The speed of electromagnetic waves in medium must be C
8 -1
a 1.8 × 10 ms
b. 1.8 × 104ms1
c.1.8 × 106ms1
d. 1.8 × 10² ms-1

Q8. The quantity √𝜇0𝜀0 represents 1A &

a. speed of sound C
b. speed. of light in vacuum
c. inverse of speed of light in vacuum.
d. speed of electromagnetic waves

Q9. What is the phase difference between electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave? 1 R

a. (a) 0
b. (b) π
c. (c) π/2
d. (d) π/4

Q10. Which of the following waves have a maximum frequency? 1R

a. infrared waves
b. gamma rays
c. microwaves
d. radio waves

Q11. Which of the following proves that electromagnetic waves are transverse? 1U

a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Interference
d. Polarisation

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer 1R
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

47
Q12. Assertion: Electromagnetic wave are transverse in nature. 1U
Reason: The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each
other and to the direction of propagation.

Q13. Assertion: Electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum. 1A

Reason: Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.

Q14. Assertion: The basic difference between various types of electromagnetic waves lies in their 1U
wavelength or frequencies.
Reason: Electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum with the same speed.

Q15. Assertion: Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the average temperature of 1R
earth.
Reason: Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to as heat waves.

Q16. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with matter and set up oscillations. 1U
Reason : Interaction is independent of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.

Q17. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves exert radiation pressure. 1C

Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.

Q18. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and magnetic properties 1 R
of the medium.
Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant.

Q19. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of signals than optical waves. 1R
Reason : Microwaves move faster than optical waves.

Q20. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along the z-direction. What can you say about 2U
the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz,
what is its wavelength?

Q21. A radio can tune in to any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz bands. What is the corresponding 2R
wavelength band?
Q22. The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B 0 = 2A&C
510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?
Q23. Write the following radiations in ascending order in respect of their frequencies: 2R
X-rays, Microwaves, UV rays and radio waves.
Q24. Name the part of electromagnetic spectrum which is suitable for 2R

1. radar systems used in aircraft navigation

2. treatment of cancer tumours.

48
Q25. Name the EM waves used for studying crystal structure of solids. What is its frequency range? 2R

Q26. Define EM waves. Name the physical quantity which remains same for microwaves of 2U
wavelength 1 mm and UV radiations of 1600 Å in vacuum.
Q27. Given below are some famous numbers associated with electromagnetic radiations in different 3 R
contexts in physics. State the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which each belongs.
(a) 21 cm (wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in interstellar space).
(b) 1057 MHz (frequency of radiation arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen; known
as Lamb shift).
(c) 2.7 K [temperature associated with the isotropic radiation filling all space-thought to be a
relic of the ‘big-bang’ origin of the universe].
Q28. a. If the earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or 3A&C
lower than what it is now?

b. Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground but X-ray astronomy is possible only
from satellites orbiting the earth. Why?

c. It is necessary to use satellites for long-distance TV transmission. Why?

Q29. Define displacement current. A capacitor has been charged by a dc source. What are the 3U
magnitudes of conduction and displacement currents, when it is fully charged?

Q30. Where do microwaves originate from? Write their frequency range. Why are microwaves 3U
considered suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation?

Q31. Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E 0 = 120 N/C and that its 3A
frequency is v = 50MHz.

(a) Determine B0, ω, and λ.

Q32. State three properties of electromagnetic waves. 3U

Q33. Define displacement current. What role does it play while charging a capacitor by dc source? Is 3 R
the value of displacement current the same as that of the conduction current? Explain.

Q34. All the known radiations from a big family of electromagnetic waves which stretch over a large 4 U
range of wavelengths. Electromagnetic waves include radio waves, microwaves, visible light
waves, infrared rays, UV rays, X-rays and gamma rays. The orderly distribution of the
electromagnetic waves in accordance with their wavelength or frequency into distinct groups
having widely differing properties is electromagnetic spectrum.

49
 (i) Which wavelength of the Sun is used finally as electric energy?

(a) radio waves (b) infrared waves

(c) visible light (d) microwaves

(ii) Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the longest wavelength?

(a) X-rays (b) Upsilon-rays

(c) microwaves (d) radio waves

(iii) Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?

(a) X-rays (b) gamma rays

(c) cathode rays (d) infrared rays

(iv) Which of the following has minimum wavelength?

(a) X-rays (b) ultraviolet rays

(c) Upsilon-rays (d) cosmic rays

(v) The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is

(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays

(b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwave
(c) microwave, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Q35. Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting wires. 4R
Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tubes. Infrared waves are produced by hot bodies
and molecules also known as heat waves. UV rays are produced by special lamps and very hot
bodies like Sun.

50
 (i) Solar radiation is:

(a) transverse electromagnetic wave

(b) longitudinal electromagnetic waves
(c) both longitudinal and transverse electromagnetic waves
(d) none of these.

(ii) What is the cause of greenhouse effect?

(a) Infrared (b) Ultraviolet (c) X- (d) Radio

rays rays rays waves

(iii) Biological importance of ozone layer is

(a) it stops ultraviolet rays (b) It layer reduces greenhouse effect

(c) it reflects radio waves (d) none of these

(iv) Ozone is found in

(a) stratosphere (b) ionosphere (c) mesosphere (d) troposphere

(v) Earth's atmosphere is richest in

(a) ultraviolet (b) infrared (c) X-rays (d) microwaves

Q36. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 5A&
1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m–1. U
(a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
(c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy density of the
B field. (c = 3 x 108 m/s)

Q37. (a)Write Maxwell’s generalization of Ampere’s Circuital Law. Show that in the process of 5R
charging a capacitor, the current produced within the plates of the capacitor is

where ϕE is electric flux produced during charging of the capacitor plates.

(b) How are EM waves produced by oscillating charges?

51
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT VI -OPTICS
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
WAVE OPTICS

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

52
 Ch 9- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments ch- 10 wave optics

Q1. A blue cross on the white background is illuminated with white light and is observed through 1A
red filter. What is seen?
(a) A red cross on a black background
(b) A blue cross on a red background
(c) A red cross on a blue background
(d) A black cross on a red background

Q2. The angle of deviation for a prism is greatest for: 1R

(a) violet
(b) red
(c) orange
(d) yellow

Q3. The velocity of light in vacuum is 3 × 1010 cms-1. The velocity of light in a medium (µ = 1.5) is: 1U
(a) 2 × 1010cms-1
(b) 4.5 × 1010cms-1
(c) 1.5 × 1010cms-1
(d) None of these

Q4. When a beam of light is used to determine the position of an object, the maximum accuracy is 1R
achieved if the light is:
(a) polarized
(b) of longer λ
(c) of shorter λ
(d) of high intensity

Q5. The RI. of the material of a prism is √2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting 1A
surfaces of the prism is made a mirror. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from
the other face retraces its path, after reflection from mirror surface. The angle of incidence on
prism is:
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°

53
Q6. What is the locus of all particles in a medium vibrating in the same phase called? 1R

a) Fringe
b) Wavelet
c) Wavefront
d) None of the above

Q7. Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit light of 1A

a) The same amplitude and phase

b) The same intensity and wavelength
c) The same speed
d) The same wavelength and constant phase difference

Q8. How can the fringe width increase in Young’s double-slit experiment? 1E

a) By decreasing the width of the slit

b) By reducing the separation of slits
c) By reducing the wavelength of the slits
d) By decreasing the distance between slits and the screen

Q9. For which of the following is the field of view maximum? 1U

a. Concave mirror
b. Convex mirror
c. Plane mirror
d. Cylindrical mirror

Q10. What happens when the light is refracted into a medium? 1U

a. Both frequency and wavelength of the light increase

b. The wavelength increases but the frequency remains unchanged
c. Both wavelength and frequency decrease
d. The wavelength decreases but the frequency remains constant

Q11. What should be increased to increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope? 1R

a. The power of the lens

b. The focal length of the lens
c. Lens Aperture
d. Object Size

54
Q12. Which of the following phenomenon is used in optical fibre? 1R

a. Refraction
b. Diffraction
c. Scattering
d. Total Internal Reflection

Q13. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the 1 A
lens. Then what is its focal length?

a. Focal Length will become zero

b. Focal Length will become infinite
c. Focal length will reduce, but not become zero
d. Remains unchanged

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
Q14. Assertion: Plane mirror may form real image. 1A
Reason: Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.

Q15. Assertion: According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is possible. 1U

Reason: Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the angle
between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of secondary wave

Q16. Assertion: If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be concave. 1R
Reason: The convex lens can give diverging rays.

Q17. Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in water. 1 A
Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2.

Q18. Assertion : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object is virtual. 1U
Reason : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly virtual if the object is real.

Q19. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of ’f’ from a convex mirror of focal length f its 1U
image will form at infinity.
Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror can never be infinity

Q20. Double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, with both 2U
faces of the same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if the focal length
is to be 20 cm?

55
Q21. The refractive index of diamond is much greater than that of ordinary glass. is this fact of some 2R
use to a diamond cutter?

Q22. (a)Define the term coherent sources to produce interference pattern. 2A

(b)Why are coherent sources required to create interference of light?

Q23. Draw a diagram to show the refraction of a plane wave front incident in a convex lens and hence 2A
draw the refracted wavefront.

Q24. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary if the incident violet light is 2U
replaced by red light? Give reason.

Q25. In the figure path of a parallel beam of light passing through a convex lens of refractive index ng 2R
kept in a medium of refractive index, nm is shown. Is (i) ng = nm or (ii) ng > nm, or (iii) ng < nm?

Q26. Draw an intensity distribution graph for diffraction due to a single-slit. 2U

Q27. What change would you expect if the whole of Young’s double-slit apparatus were dipped into 2U
the water?

Q28. Define refraction of light. A glass lens of refractive index 1.5 is placed in a trough of liquid. 2A
What must be the refractive index of the liquid in order to mark the lens disappear?

Q29. How does the power of a convex lens vary, if the incident red light is replaced by violet light? 2A
Justify your answer with suitable equations.

Q30. A screen is placed 90 cm from an object. The image of the object on the screen is formed by a 3R
convex lens at two different locations separated by 20 cm. Determine the focal length of the
lens.

Q31. Figures (a) and (b) show refraction of a ray in air incident at 60° with the normal to a glass- air 3A
and water-air interface, respectively. Predict the angle of refraction in glass when the angle of

56
 incidence in water is 45° with the normal to a water-glass interface (figure c).

Q32. In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600nm the angular width of the fringe 3R
formed on a distant screen is 0.1о. Find the spacing between the two slits.

Q33. Define the term ‘linearly polarized light’. When does the intensity of transmitted light become 3U
maximum, when a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids?

Q34. State one feature by which the phenomenon of interference can be distinguished from that of 3U
diffraction. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of width
‘a’. If the distance between the slits and the screen is 0.8 m and the distance of 2 nd order
maximum from the centre of the screen is. 15 mm, calculate the width of the slit.

Q35. Write the distinguishing features between a diffraction pattern due to a single slit and the 3R
interference fringes produced in Young’s double slit experiment?

Q36. A prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is incident on a 3A&
face of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is measured to be 40°. What is the refractive U
index of the material of the prism?

The refracting angle of the prism is 60°. If the prism is placed in water (refractive index 1.33),
predict the new angle of minimum deviation of a parallel beam of light.

Q37. Laser light of wavelength 640 nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference pattern in 3U
which the bright fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the wavelength of another source of
light which produces interference fringes separated by 8.1 mm using same arrangement. Also
find the minimum value of the order ‘n’ of bright fringe of shorter wavelength which coincides
with that of the longer wavelength.

Q38. A parallel beam of light of 600 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is 3A
observed on a screen 1.2 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 3 mm
from the centre of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit.

Q39. For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 3 A
15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be minimum?

57
Q40. Case study: 4A&C

A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified images of
tiny objects. The magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the
angle subtended at the eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object
when both the final image and the object are situated at the least distance of distinct vision from
the eye. It can be given that: m = me × mo, where me is magnification produced by eye lens and
mo is magnification produced by the objective lens.

Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and
an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm

1.The object distance for eye-piece, so that final image is formed at the least distance of distinct
vision, will be
(a) 3.45 cm (b) –5 cm
(c) –1.29 cm (d) 2.59 cm

2.How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain the condition
described in Q above?

(a) 4.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm

(c) 1.5 cm (d) 3.0 cm

3.The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is

(a) real, inverted and magnified
(b) real, erect, and magnified
(c) virtual, erect and magnified
(d) virtual, inverted and magnified.

4. The magnifying power of a compound microscope increases when

(a) the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased.
(b) the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased.
(c) focal lengths of both objective and eye-piece are increased.
(d) focal lengths of both objective and eye-piece are decreased.

Q41. The power (P) of a lens is given by-reciprocal of focal length (f) of the lens i.e., P=1/f 4A

where f is in metre and P is in dioptre. For a convex lens, power is positive and for a concave
lens, power is negative. When a number of thin lenses of powers P 1, P2, P3, .....are held in
contact with one another, the power of the combination is given by algebraic sum of the powers

58
 of all the lenses i.e., P = P1 + P2 + P3 + ....
(i) A convex and a concave lens separated by distance d are then put in contact. The focal length
of the combination

(a) becomes 0 (b) remains the same (c) decreases (d) increases.

(ii) If two lenses of power +1.5D and +1.0D are placed in contact, then the effective power of
combination will be

(a) 2.5 D (b) 1.5D (c) 0.5 D (d) 3.25 D

(iii) If the power of a lens is +5 dioptre, what is the focal length of the lens?

(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 5 cm

(iv) Two thin lenses of focal lengths +10 cm and -5 em are kept in contact. The power of the
combination is

(a) -10 D (b) -20 D (c) 10 D (d) 15 D

(v) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is placed coaxially in contact with a concave lens of
focal length 20 cm. The system will be

(a) converging in nature (b) diverging in nature

(c) can be converging or diverging (d) None of the above

Q42. Total internal reflection is the phenomenon of reflection of light into denser medium at the 4A
interface of denser medium with a rarer medium. For this phenomenon to occur necessary
condition is that light must travel from denser to rarer and angle of incidence in denser medium
must be greater than critical angle (C) for the pair of media in contact. Critical angle depends on
nature of medium and wavelength of light. We can show that
μ=1sinC.
(i) Critical angle for glass air interface, where μ of glass is 3/2 is:
(a) 41.8° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) 15°

(ii) Critical angle for water air interface is 48.6°. What is the refractive index of water?

(a) 1 (b) 32 (c) 43 (d) 34 (b) 32

(iii) Critical angle for air water interface for violet colour is 49°. Its value for red colour would
be

(a) 49° (b) 50° (c) 48° (d) cannot say

59
 (iv) Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

(a) Working of optical fibre.

(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond.
(c) Mirage on hot summer days.
(d) Brilliance of diamond

(v) Critical angle of glass is ϴ1 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for water and glass
surface would be (µg = 3/2, µw =4/3)

(a) less than θ2

()(b) between θ1 and ϴ2
(c) greater than θ2
(d) less than θ1
Q43. (a)State Huygens’ principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave 5U
front incident at the interface of the two media is refracted when it propagates from a rarer
medium to a denser medium.

(b)Verify Snell’s law of refraction using Huygen’s principle.

Q44. (a)Derive an expression for the mirror equation. 5R

(b)State and explain the magnification formula.

Q45. (a)Explain refraction by a lens and power of a lens. 5R

(b)Derive Lens maker formula and magnification of a convex lens.

Q46. (a)Derive an expression for the magnification of a compound microscope with neatly labelled 5R
diagram wherever necessary.

(b)Draw neat labelled diagrams for reflection / refraction through a prism and a concave mirror.

60
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT VII – DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND

MATTER
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
61
 Ch 11 – Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Q1. Radiations of frequency v are incident on a photosensitive metal. The maximum K.E. of the 1U
photoelectrons is E. When the frequency of the incident radiation is doubled, what is the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?
(a) 2E
(b) 4E
(c) E + hv
(d) E – hv
Q2. Maximum kinetic energy (Ek) of a photoelectron varies with frequency (v) of the incident 1R
radiation as

62
Q3. The energy of photon of wavelength 450 nm is: 1A
(a) 2.5 × 10-17 J
(b) 1.25 × 10-17 J
(c) 4.4 × 10-19 J
(d) 2.5 × 10-19 J

Q4. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted 1U
photo-electrons from a metal vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line
whose slope:
(a) depends on the nature of the metal used.
(b) depends on the intensity of the radiation.
(c) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used.
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation.

Q5. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function of IA
height is proportional to:
(a)H

(b) H2

(c)2H

(d) H-1/2

Q6. A proton and an a-particle have the same de Broglie wavelength. What is same for both of 1U
them?
(a) mass
(b) Energy
(c) frequency
(d) Momentum
Q7. An electron is moving with an initial velocity v = v 0 i and is in a magnetic field B = B0 j. Then, 1R
its de Broglie wavelength:
(a) remains constant
(b) increases with time
(c) decreases with time
(d) increases and decreases periodically

Q8. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but nothing when hit by yellow light. 1U
The electrons will be ejected when the surface is hit by:
(a) blue light
(b) heat rays

63
 (c) infrared light
(d) red light

Q9. The maximum value of photoelectric current is called: 1U

(a) base current
(b) saturation current
(c) collector current
(d) emitter current

Q10. If K.E. of free electron is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength will change by factor: 1A
(a) √18
(b) √2
(c) 12
(d) 2

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
Q11. Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light. IR
Reason(R): The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light

Q12. Assertion (A): A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum. 1U
Reason (R): The momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass

Q13. 1R
Assertion: In photoelectric effect , on increasing the intensity of light , both the number of
electrons emitted and the kinetic energy of each of them get increased but photoelectric current
remains unchanged.
Reason: The photoelectric current depends only on the wavelength of light
Q14. 1U
Assertion: The energy (E) and momentum (p) of a photon are related by p=E/c.
Reason: The photon behaves like a particle.
Q15. State De-Broglie hypothesis. 2U

Q16. Why is photoelectric emission not possible at all frequencies? 2A

64
Q17. (a)State one factor which determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light. 2R

(b)State one reason to explain why wave theory of light does not support photoelectric effect.
Q18. An electron and alpha particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength associated with them. How 3U
are their kinetic energies related to each other?

Q19. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly the three salient features observed in the 3R
photoelectric effect, which can be explained on the basis of the above equation.

Q20. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 64 volts. What is the de-Broglie 3A&
wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this value of C
wavelength correspond?

Q21. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of the two 3A
has:
(i) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it, and
(ii) less kinetic energy.
Give reasons to justify your answer.

Q22. (a) Describe briefly three experimentally observed features in the phenomenon of photoelectric 5U
effect.
(b) Discuss briefly how wave theory of light cannot explain these features.

65
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT VIII -ATOMS AND NUCLEI

ATOMS
NUCLEI

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

66
 Ch 12 – Atoms & Ch- 13 Nuclei

Q1. Balmer series lies in which spectrum? 1U

a) Ultraviolet
b) Visible
c) Infrared
d) Partially Visible

Q2. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by 1R

a) Nuclear Force
b) Coulomb’s Force
c) Gravitational Force
d) Van Der Waal’s Force

Q3. The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to lose energy because 1A

a) They jump on the nucleus

b) They move randomly
c) Radiate electromagnetic waves
d) Escape from the atom.

Q4. According to the classical theory, the path of the electrons is 1U

a) Circular
b) Parabolic
c) Spiral
d) Straight line

Q5. Which of the following did Bohr use to explain his theory? 1A&
C
a) Quantization of angular momentum
b) Conservation of Quantum frequency
c) Conservation of Mass
d) Conservation of Linear Momentum

Q6. The first model of the atom was proposed by: 1R

a) Neils Bohr
b) Albert Einstein
c) J.J Thompson
67
 d) Ernest Rutherford

Q7. Why was Rutherford’s atomic model unstable? 1U

a) Electrons do not remain in orbit.

b) Nuclei will break down.
c) The nucleus repels electrons.
d) Orbiting electrons radiate energy.

Q8. An electron emitted in beta radiation originates from: 1R

a) free electrons existing in the nuclei

b) inner orbits of an atom
c) photon escaping from the nucleus
d) decay of a neutron in a nuclei

Q9. In nuclear reactions, there is a conservation of: 1A

a) Energy only
b) Mass only
c) Mass, energy and momentum
d) Momentum only

Q10. Sun’s radiant energy is due to: 1U

a) Nuclear Fusion
b) Nuclear Fission
c) Photoelectric Effect
d) Radioactive Decay

Q11. Isotones have the same number of: 1R

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) All of the above

Q12. A nucleus undergoes gamma decay due to: 1R

a) Excess of neutrons
b) Excess of protons
68
 c) Its excited state
d) Large mass

Q13. Which of the following are not emitted by radioactive substances? 1A

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Gamma Rays
d) Helium Nuclei

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Q14. Assertion: According to classical theory the proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom 1R
model will be parabolic.
Reason: According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously emits
radiation.

Q15. Assertion: Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces. 1U
Reason: The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is balanced
by the centrifugal force.

Q16. Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons. 1U

Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than proton

Q17. The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 -11 m. What is the radius of 2R
orbit in the second excited state?

Q18. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential 2U
energies of electron in this state?

Q19. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1: 8. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii? 2U

Q20. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the spectral lines emitted in Balmer series. 2A

Q21. State the reason, why heavy water is generally used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor 2A

69
Q22. (i) In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from third excited state to the second 2U
excited state and then to the first excited state. Identify the spectral series to which these
transitions belong.
(ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases.
Q23. Laser light of wavelength 640 nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference pattern in 2U
which the bright fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the wavelength of another source of
light which produces interference fringes separated by 8.1 mm using same arrangement. Also
find the minimum value of the order ‘n’ of bright fringe of shorter wavelength which coincides
with that of the longer wavelength.

Q24. Find out the wavelength of the electron orbiting in the ground state of the hydrogen atom. 2R

Q25. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the third excited state to the ground state, how 3U
would the de Broglie wavelength have associated with the electron change? Justify your answer.

Q26. State three characteristics of nuclear force. 3C

Q27. A radioactive nucleus ‘A’ undergoes a series of decays according to the following scheme: 3U

The mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 respectively. What are these numbers
for A4?

Q28. (a) State any two properties of a nucleus. 3R

(b) Why is the density of a nucleus much more than that of an atom ?
(c) Show that the density of the nuclear matter is the same for all nuclei.

Q29. Write two important limitations of Rutherford model which could not explain the observed 5R
features of atomic spectra. How were these explained in Bohr’s model. of hydrogen atom?
Use the Rydberg formula to calculate the wavelength of the H α line.
(Take R = 1.1 × 107 m-1).
(b) Using Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the radius of the n th orbit in hydrogen
atom.
Q30. Using Bohr’s postulates of the atomic model derive the expression for radius of nth electron 5U
orbit. Hence obtain the expression for Bohr’s radius

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 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – PHYSICS

UNIT IX -ELECTRONIC DEVICES

SEMICONDUCTORS

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

71
 Ch 14 – Semiconductor Devices

Q1. The number of electrons in the valence shell of a semiconductor is 1A

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Q2. In a p-type semiconductor, the current conduction is due to 1R

a) Holes
b) Atoms
c) Electrons
d) Protons

Q3. . What is the main function of a transistor? 1U

a) Simplify
b) Amplify
c) Rectify
d) All of the above

Q4. What happens to the resistance of semiconductors on heating? 1A

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) First increases later decrease

Q5. In a semiconductor, what is responsible for conduction? 1U

a) Electrons only
b) Holes only
c) Both electrons and holes
d) Neither electrons nor holes

Q6. In intrinsic semiconductors at room temperature, the number of electrons and holes are 1U

a) Unequal
b) Equal

72
 c) Infinite
d) Zero

Q7. A p-type semiconductor is 1R

a) Positively charged
b) Negatively charged
c) Uncharged
d) None of the above

Q8. Identify the biasing in the figure given below. 1R

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Q9. Assertion: Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices. 1R
Reason: The energy gap in germanium is more than the energy gap in silicon.

Q10. Assertion: Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor. 1R

Reason: The mass of electron is less than the mass of the hole.

Q11. Assertion: The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-side. 1R
Reason: The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the junction
is in forward biased.

Q12. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance. 1U

Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released,
conductance increases and resistance decreases.

Q13. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then its resistance decreases. 1U
Reason : The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very small.

73
Q14. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a positive type crystal. 1C
Reason : A p- type semiconductor is an uncharged crystal.

Q15. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less than the number 1C
of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason : It is due to law of mass action.

Q16. Why is the conductivity of n-type semiconductors greater than that of p-type semiconductors 2R
even when both of these have the same level of doping?

Q17. Define barrier potential. Why is it created? 2A

Q18. What is the difference between an n-type and a p-type intrinsic semiconductor? 2U

Q19. How does the depletion region of a p-n junction diode get affected under reverse bias and 2R
forward bias?

Q20. Name the junction diode whose I-V characteristics are drawn below: 2U

Q21. Case Study 4A

When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk, called knee
voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction, the
potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with an increase in forwarding
voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small current
about a few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small current is
reverse saturation current.

a) Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as

(a) bi-directional device
(b) ohmic device
(c) non-ohmic device
(d) passive element

74
b) The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse
bias resistance is

(a) 100 (b) 106 (c) 10 (d) 10–6

3. In the case of forwarding biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the following
figures correctly depicts the direction of conventional current (indicated by an arrow mark)?

4.If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is

(a) 0.013 A (b) 0.02 A

(c) 0.01 A (d) 0.1 A

75
Q22. Junction Diode as a Rectifier : 4 Ap.
The process of conversion of an ac voltage into a dc voltage is called rectification and the device an
which performs this conversion is called a rectifier. The characteristics of a p-n junction diode
reveal that when a p-n junction diode is forward biased, it offers a low resistance and when it
is reverse biased, it offers a high resistance. Hence, a p-n junction diode conducts only when it is
forward biased. This property of a p-n junction diode makes it suitable for its use as a rectifier.
Thus, when an ac voltage is applied across a p-n junction, it conducts only during those alternate
half cycles for which it is forward biased. A rectifier which rectifies only half cycle of an ac
voltage is called a half-wave rectifier and one that rectifies both the half cycles is known as
a full-wave rectifier.
(i) The root mean square value of an alternating voltage applied to a full-wave rectifier is
V0/ √2.Then the root mean square value of the rectified output voltage is :

(ii) In a full wave rectifier, the current in each of the diodes flows for:
(A) Complete cycle of the input signal
(B) Half cycle of the input signal
(C) Less than half cycle of the input signal
(D) Only for the positive half cycle of the input signal
(iii) In a full- wave rectifier:
(A) Both diodes are forward biased at the same time.
(B) Both diodes are reverse biased at the same time.
(C) One is forward biased and the other is reverse biassed at the same time.
(D) Both are forward biased in the first half of the cycle and reverse biased in the
second half of the cycle.
(iv) (a) An alternating voltage of frequency of 50 Hz is applied to a half-wave rectifier. Then the
ripple frequency of the output will be :
(A) 100 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 25 Hz (D) 150 Hz
OR
(b) A signal, as shown in the figure, is applied to a p-n junction diode. Identify the output across
resistance RL:

76
Q23. (a)Draw the circuit diagram showing how a p-n junction diode is 5R
(i) Forward biased
(ii) Reverse biased.
(b)How is the width of depletion layer affected in the two cases?

Q24. (a)Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. 5U

(b)Answer the following questions, giving reasons:
(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential up to a
critical voltage?
(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
Name any semiconductor device which operates under the reverse bias in the breakdown region.

Q25. (a)Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors on the basis of energy band diagrams. 5R

(b)Compare their conductivities at absolute zero temperature and at room temperature.

*********************

77