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Bhu Questions Paper

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1

BHU M.Sc. CHEMISTRY ENTRANCE - 2011

Time : 2½ Hours Full Marks : 450

Instructions:
(i) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for
each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question.
(ii) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one.

1. The change in entropy when two moles of a monatomic perfect gas is compressed to half its volume and
simultaneously heated to twice its initial temperature is
(1) R ln 2 (2) 3R ln 2 (3) 5R ln 2 (4) 7 R ln 2
2. A heat engine operates between 1000 K and 600 K. The heat discharged into the cold sink in a reversible
process when 5 kJ of heat is supplied by the hot source, is
(1) 2 kJ (2) 2.5 kJ (3) 3 kJ (4) 5.5 kJ
3. For which of the following processes q  0, w  0, U  0 and H  0?
(1) Reversible isothermal process in a perfect gas
(2) Reversible adiabatic process in a perfect gas
(3) Adiabatic expansion of a perfect gas into vacuum
(4) Reversible constant-volume process in a perfect gas
4. The fugacity of a certain gas at 200 K and 50 bars is 25 bars. The difference of its chemical potential from
that of a perfect gas in the same state is
(1) 200 R ln 25 (2) 200 R ln 2 (3) 200 R ln 2 (4) 200 R ln 25
5. The entropy of mixing 1 mole of hexane with 1 mole of heptane at 298 K is 11.4 JK–1. The Gibbs energy
of mixing (assuming the solution to be ideal) is
(1) –1.72 kJ (2) –3.44 kJ (3) 1.72 kJ (4) 3.44 kJ
6. The number of degrees of freedom of the system KClO3(s)  2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) is
(1) zero (2) one (3) two (4) three
7. The expression that relates the partial molar properties of the components in a mixture is known as
(1) van’t Hoff equation (2) Gibbs-Duhem equation
(3) Duhem-Margules equation (4) Raoult’s law
8. For a very dilute electrolyte solution with    1,   should increase with increase in
(1) solvent’s density (2) solvent’s dielectric constant
(3) ionic strength (4) cationic charge

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19. In a photochemical reactionA  2B + C, the quantum efficiency with 500 nm light is 2×102 mol einstein–1. After
exposure of 300 m moles of A to the light, 2 m moles of B is formed. The number of photons absorbed byA is
(1) 1×1018 (2) 3×1018 (3) 6×1018 (4) 9×1018
20. The condition for which the reaction rate of an enzymolysis that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, is half
its maximum value, is
(1) [S ]  K M (2) [S ]  K M (3) [S ]  K M / 2 (4) [S ]  K M
21. For the mechanism
A2  2A (fast)
A + B  P (slow)
the reaction order with respect to A2 is
(1) 0 (2) 0.5 (3) 1 (4) 2
22. Which of the following relations does not hold for the activity (A) of a radioactive substance?
t / t1/2
A 1 A  t 
(1)  (2)  exp  0.693 
A0  2  A0  t0.5 

A t
(3) t0.5 / t0.1  ln 2 (4)  1  0.693 at t  0
A0 t0.5
23. A powder diffraction photograph from tungsten shows lines which indices as (110), (200), (211), (220),
(310), (222), (321), (400), .... The symmetry of the unit cell is
(1) primitive (2) end-centred (3) face-centred (4) body-centred
24. Among the following halides which one forms van der Walls crystals?
(1) NaCl (2) BeCl2 (3) HgCl2 (4) HF
25. A form of CaCO3(c) has orthorhombic lattice with a = 5.0 Å, b = 8.0 Å, c = 5.6 Å and density =
3.0 gm cm–3 at room temperature. The number of Ca2+ ions per unit cell of the crystal is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
26. The ratio of the translational partition functions of D2 and H2 at the same temperature and volume is
(1) 2 (2) 1.414 (3) 2.83 (4) 4
27. In which of the following systems is the energy level separation the largest?
(1) an electron in a radical in a field of 0.300 T (2) a 14N nucleus in 600 MHz NMR spectrometer
(3) a proton in the same spectrometer (4) a deuteron in the same spectrometer

d2
28. Which of the following functions is not an eigenfunction of 2 ?
dx
(1) cos kx (2) exp(–kx2 ) (3) k x (4) exp(ikx)
29. The ratio of mean molar masses of a given polymer sample as determined by light scattering, sedimentation
and osmotic pressure measurement methods is
(1) 1:1:2 (2) 2:1:2 (3) 1:2:1 (4) 2:2:1
30. In milk at 37ºC Lactobacillus acidophilus has a generation time of 75 minutes. What is the population
relative to the initial value at 150 minutes?
(1) 4.0 (2) 2.25 (3) 2.0 (4) 1.75
31. If the pressure of a gas at constant temperature is doubled, the viscosity of the gas will be
(1) quadrupled (2) doubled (3) halved (4) unchanged

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32. Among the following molecules which one shows pure rotation spectra?
(1) N 2 (2) H2S (3) CO 2 (4) CH4
33. The SI unit of radiation dose is
(1) becquerel (2) curie (3) rad (4) gray
34. It is found that a particle in a one-dimensional box of length of L can be excited to n = 2 state from the
ground state by the light of frequency v. If the box length is doubled, the frequency needed to produce the
above transition becomes
(1) v/4 (2) v/2 (3) 2v (4) 4v
35. For a hydrogen atom in an n = 4 state, the maximum possible z-component of orbital angular momentum
is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 12 (4) 6
36. Which one of the following is an acceptable approximate wave function for a state of the helium atom?
(1) [1s(1)1s(2) – 1s(1)1s(2)][  (1)  (2)]
(2) [1s(1)1s(2)][  (1)  (2) +  (1)  (2)]
(3) [1s(1)2s(2) + 2s(1)1s(2)][  (1)  (2)]
(4) [1s(1)2s(2) + 2s(1)1s(2)][  (1)  (2) –  (1)  (2)]
37. Which one of the following statements concerning H 2 is incorrect?
(1) The non-degenerate LCAO–MOs (without spin) must be either symmetric or anti-symmetric for inversion
(2) The lowest energy MO (without spin) of the molecule is anti-symmetric for inversion
(3) The ground state has a multiplicity of two
(4) The MOs transform into AOs of the helium ion as the two nuclei are fused together
38. Which one of the following is the correct formula for the lowest energy eigenfunction for a particle in a one-
dimensional box having infinite barriers at x   L / 2 and L / 2 ?

2  x  2  x 
(1) sin   (2) cos  
L  L  L  L 

2  ix  2  ix 
(3) exp   (4) exp  
L  L  L  L 
39. Which of the following equations is used to calculate the number of theoretical plates?
2
t R  t0 t 
(1) (2) 16  R 
t0 W 

k2
(3) (4) 2(t R2  t R1 ) / (W1  W2 )
k1
40. Which of the following techniques is based on selectively inducing radioactivity and measuring the emitted
radiation?
(1) Isotope dilution analysis (2) Radiometric titration
(3) Neutron activation analysis (4) All of the above

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55. Visible region in the electromagnetic spectrum extends from
(1) 200-400 nm (2) 800-900 nm
–1
(3) 400-4000 cm (4) 400-800 nm
56. Hard water can be softened in
(1) a calorimeter (2) a chromatograph
(3) an ion exchanger (4) an earthen ware pot
57. The technique used for the separation of components of a mixture is called
(1) chromatography (2) IR spectroscopy
(3) electronic spectroscopy (4) polarography
58. Essential constituent of an amalgam is
(1) Ag (2) Hg (3) Mg (4) Fe
59. Potential of which of the following electrodes does not depend on pH of the solution?
(1) Glass electrode (2) Hydrogen electrode
(3) Quinhydrone electrode (4) calomel electrode
60. The unit of equivalent conductance is
(1) ohm–1 cm–1 (2) ohm–1 cm–2
(3) ohm–1 cm2 (4) None of the above
61. Which quantity remains unchanged on changing temperature?
(1) Mole fraction (2) Molarity
(3) Normality (4) None of the above
62. The strongest ligand in spectro-chemical series is
(1) F– (2) OH– (3) H2 O (4) CO
63. The iron is rusted, then it is
(1) oxidized (2) reduced (3) evaporated (4) decomposed
64. Two elements cannot be combined chemically to make
(1) a compound (2) another element (3) a gas (4) a liquid
65. Choose the law that states, “effective chemical changes are brought about by absorbed radiations only”
(1) Beer’s law (2) Grotthus-Draper law
(3) Lambert’s law (4) law of photochemical equivalence
66. What quantity of limestone on heating will give 56 kg of CaO?
(1) 10 kg (2) 55 kg (3) 44 kg (4) 100 kg
67. The unit of absorptivity is
(1) cm–1 g–1L (2) cm–1 mol–1L (3) cm–1 g L–1 (4) No unit
68. Oxine is a
(1) precipitating reagent (2) redox reagent (3) drug (4) dye
69. Free radicals may be detected by
(1) mass spectrometry (2) NMR spectroscopy
(3) ESR spectroscopy (4) infrared spectroscopy
70. Lead can be the best analysed colorimetrically using which of the following reagents?
(1) Dithizone (2) EDTA (3) DMG (4) Acetyl acetone
71. Which of the following is a hydride ion donor?
(1) NAD (2) ATP (3) NADH (4) Coenzyme A

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72. Na and K can be estimated using
(1) X-ray fluorescence (2) IR spectroscopy
(3) ion selective electrode (4) All of the above
73. How many mL of concentrated HCl (density = 1.18 g/mL, 36.0 wt % HCl, MW = 36.5) should be diluted
to 1.00 L to produce a 0.100 M solution?
(1) 8.59 mL (2) 85.9 mL (3) 0.859 mL (4) 17.18 mL
74. A 1.00×10–3 M solution of HCl includes 36
17 Cl (t1/2 = 3.09×105y). The specific activity (the activity per
unit mass or unit volume) of the solution is 5000 decays min–1 mL–1. What fraction of Cl atoms in solution
are 36Cl atoms?
(1) 0.194 (2) 0.0194 (3) 1.940 (4) 0.00194
75. A 6.44×10–4 M solution of Ti-peroxide complex had T = 0.340 when measured in a 1.00 cm cell at 410
nm. What is the concentration of Ti-peroxide complex in a solution that had T = 0.516 when measured at
410 nm in a 0.500 cm cell?
(1) 7.89×10–2 M (2) 15.78×10–2 M (3) 7.89×10–4 M (4) 3.95×10–3 M
76. The partition coefficient for ethyl iodide, E, between octanol and water is
[ E ]0
Kp   100
[ E ]w
What percent of E present in 50.00 mL of water would remain if the water was extracted with 10.00 mL
of octanol?
(1) 47.6% (2) 4.76% (3) 9.52% (4) 95.2%
77. Arrange the ionization energies of the following ions in increasing order
(A) Fe2+  Fe3+
(B) Mn2+  Mn3+
(C) Fe+1  Fe2+
Choices are
(1) A<B<C (2) C<B<A (3) C<A<B (4) B<C<A
(At. No. of Fe and Mn are 26 and 25)
78. In the first row transition metal ion (2+) having four electrons in 3d orbitals (with 4s and 4p orbitals empty),
the metal ion forms a hypothetical diamagnetic tetrahedral complex [MA4]2– with A– anion. The electronic
configuration of the M2+ ion in the complex is
2 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 0 0 0
(1) [Ar]3d xy 3d xz 3d yz 3d z 2 3d x2  y 2 4 s 4 p (2) [Ar]3d xy 3d xz 3d yz 3d z 2 3d x2  y 2 4 s 4 p
1 1 2 0 0 0
(3) [Ar]3d xy0 3d xz0 3d yz0 3d z22 3d x22  y 2 4 s 0 4 p 0 (4) [Ar]3d xy 3d xz 3d yz 3d z 2 3d x2  y2 4 s 4 p
79. Out of the following which has the least tendency to form M = O species?
(I) Sc = O (II) P = O (III) Ln = O (IV)Ac = O
(1) Sc = O and P = O (2) Ln = O
(3) Ac = O (4) Sc = O, P = O and Ac = O
(Ln = Lanthanides and Ac = actinides)

(1) eff  n(n  2)

(2) eff  n(n  2)  some contribution of orbital contribution

(3) eff  L( L  2)

3 S (S  1)  L( L  1)
(4)  eff  g J J ( J  1), where g J  
2 2 J ( J  1)
81. Ln2+ ions are largely coloured while Ln3+ ions are not coloured. The colour of Ln2+ compounds are due
to transition
(1) 4 f  5d (2) 4 f  4 f
(3) charge transfer from liquid to metal ion (4) 5d  5d transition
82. Transition metals (some ions) form complexes with molecular N2. There are two modes of coordination of
N2 in the complexes of the type [M(N2)(L)n]. These modes are (a) end-on and (b) side-on. The stability
of these complexes in these two modes is
(1) end-on more stable than side-on
(2) side-on more stable than end-on
(3) both are highly unstable (the relative stability depends on ligands)
(4) both are equally stable
(L = ligand)
83. The structure of hyponitrous acid molecule (H2N2O2) is
(1) linear (A–B–C–D type) (2) bent ( type)

(3) square planar ( type) (4) triangular ( type)

84. We have two complexes [Mn(H2O)6]3+ ion (d4 system) and [Re(H2O)6]3+ ion (d4 system). Their CFSE
and the pairing energy (per pair of electrons) are given below
[Mn(H2O)6]3+ – 10Dq = 250 kJ/mol; Pairing energy = 300 kJ/mol
[Re(H2O)6]3+ – 10Dq = 400 kJ/mol; Pairing energy = 180 kJ/mol
Predict from their data, the complexes are
(1) both high spin (2) Mn-high spin and Re-low spin
(3) both low spin (4) Mn-low spin, Re-high spin
85. [NiCl2(PPh3)2] is paramagnetic with  eff  2.9 BM . All the four ligands are monodentate. The geometry
of the molecule is
(1) square planar (2) octahedral
(3) square pyramidal (4) tetrahedral
2+ 5
86. There is no d-d transition in [Mn(H2O)6] (d system). This is high spin complex. The absence of any
transition in the visible region is due to breaking of
(1) Laporte rule
(2) parity selection rule ( g  g and u  u not allowed)
(3) spin selection rule (spin of the electron cannot be changed during transition)
(4) All the above three rules (1, 2 and 3)

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87. According to the IUPAC system which is the correct formula for the complex [diaquadibromodi (methylamine)
cobalt (III) nitrate?
(1) [Co(H2O)2Br2(MeNH2)2]NO3 (2) [CoBr2(H2O)2(MeNH2)2]NO3
(3) [Co(H2O)2(MeNH2)2Br2]NO3 (4) [Co(MeNH2)3(H2O)2Br2]NO3
88. [Cr(H2O)6] is violet whereas [Cr(NH3)6] is yellow. The wavelength absorbed by [Cr(NH3)6]3+ as
3+ 3+

compared to that by [Cr(H2O)6]+3 in their absorption spectra will be

(1) higher (2) lower (3) same
(4) These complexes will not show any absorption in the visible region
89. Although fluorine is better oxidizing agent than oxygen, but Mn2O7 exists and MnF7 does not. This is
because of
(1) steric crowding and difficult to fitting seven fluoride ions around Mn centre
(2) very high electron affinity of fluorine as compared to oxygen
(3) very low lattice energy of MnF7 compared to oxygen compound
(4) very low bond energy of Mn–F bond compared to Mn–O bond
90. Covalent radius of gold (125 pm) is less than that of silver (1.33 pm). This is because of
(1) transition metal contraction
(2) lanthanide contraction
(3) lack of shielding of 4d orbitals compared to 5d orbitals
(4) relatively less effective shielding by 3p and 3s orbitals in silver as compared to that by 4s, 4p and 4d
91. Using VSEPR model, the shaper of the following molecules
IF52 (A), XeF4 (B), IO 3 (C), BrF3 (D)
are
(1) (A) pentagon shape, (B) square planar, (C) trigonal pyramid, (D) T-shape
(2) (A) trigonal bipyramid, (B) tetrahedral, (C) planar, (D) planar
(3) (A) square pyramid, (B) tetrahedral, (C) trigonal pyramid, (D) planar
(4) (A) pentagonal pyramid, (B) tetrahedral, (C) trigonal pyramid, (D) planar
92. Arrange the hydrides of 15-group elements (NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3 < BiH3) in increasing contribution of
p-orbital of X in the X–H bond. Choose the correct alternative from the following alternatives given below
(1) Bi < Sb < As < P < N (2) P < N < As < Bi < Sb
(3) N < P < As < Sb < Bi (4) Bi < Sb < N < P < As
93. What are A, B and C in the following reactions?
(I) B2H6 + NH3  (A)
(II) B2H6 + H2O  (B)
Heated at 100ºC
(III) B2H6 
in the absence of air
 (C)
Here A, B and C respectively are
(1) borazine, B2O3 and B4H8 (2) 2BH3  NH3, H3BO3 + H2, B10H14
(3) BN, H3BO3 only, B4H8 (4) BN, H3BO3 + H2, B4H8
94. Which one of the following contain (3c – 2e) bonds?
(a) Mg(CH3)2, (b) BeCl2, (c) BeH2, (d) Be(NO3)2
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

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95. Which one of the following orders of two properties of 14- and 15-group elements is not correct?
(A) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 (Lewis acidity)
(B) Pb(CH3)4 < Sn(CH3)4 < Ge(CH3)4 < Sc(CH3)4 (thermal stability)
The correct alternative from the following ones is
(1) (B) (2) (A)
(3) No one is wrong (4) Both are wrong
96. Which ones of the following compounds do not exist?
[AuXe4], [KrF2], [ArF2] [He–F]
Choose the correct choice out of the following
(1) [AuXe4] and [He–F] (2) [KrF2] and [ArF2]
(3) [Ar–F2], and [He–F] (4) [ArF2] [He–F], [AuXe4]
97. Alkalides and electrides are crystalline compounds of
(1) alkali metals in (+1) oxidation states and electrons respectively
(2) alkali metals in (–1) oxidation states and electron acting as anion
(3) methyl group and electron acting as anion respectively
(4) methyl group and alkali metal group
98. Among the molecules, BiF3, BiCl3, BiBr3 and BiI3, the one which is most coloured is
(1) BiF3 (2) BiBr3 (3) BiCl3 (4) BiI3
99. [CrO8]3– ion is known. This ion probably is
(1) complex of peroxide ion with Cr5+ ion
(2) polymeric complex with oxide ion acting as bridges
(3) complex of molecular oxygen and oxide ion (e.g. Cr5+ (O2)2O4)3–
(4) complex of molecular oxygen and peroxide ions
100. Iodine dissolves in oleum to give bright blue colour. The blue colour is due to the formation of A, where
A is
(1) I– ion (2) I3 ion (3) I 2 ion (4) I 4 ion
101. The order of increasing size of V, Nb, Ta, Db (at. no. 106) is
(1) V < Nb < Ta < Db (2) Db < Ta < V < Nb
(3) V < Nb  Ta  Db (4) V < Db < Ta < Nb
102. Given the following reaction conditions for the formations of the fluorides of Xe
400ºC
Xe(g) + F2(g) 
one atm pressure
A... (Xe in excess)
600ºC
Xe(g) + F2(g) 
six atmosphere
 B... (Xe : F2 = 1:1.6)
300ºC
Xe(g) + F2(g) 
60 atmosphere
 C... (Xe : F2 = 1:20)
A, B and C in these reactions respectively are
(1) XeF4, XeF2, XeF6 (2) XeF2, XeF4, XeF6
(3) XeF6, XeF4, XeF2 (4) XeF2, XeF6, XeF4
103. In the preparation of P4O6, a mixture of N2 and oxygen is used instead of pure oxygen. The reason is
(1) pure oxygen will form ozone in presence of P
(2) pure oxygen will form P4O10 despite excess of P4, in pure oxygen
(3) pure oxygen will form [P(O3)4] ozonide
(4) pure oxygen will not react with P. N2 acts as a catalyst
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104. Arsenic, antimony and bismuth react with concentrated HNO3. These give respectively
(1) H3AsO4, H3SbO2, (BiO3)– ion (2) H3AsO4, Sb2O3, (BiO3)– ion
(3) As2O3, Sb2O3, Bi2O3 (4) H3AsO4, Sb2O5 and Bi3+ ion
105. In borazine (B3N3H6) molecule, the number of isomers which are possible of its disubstituted borazine
molecule of the formula [B3N3H4X2] without changing its ring structure is
(1) one (2) two (3) four (4) six
106. Solution of alkali metals in liquid NH3 conducts electricity. It is due to formation of
(1) Na+ + Na– ion in liquid ammonia
(2) Na+ + e– (NH3)x in liquid ammonia
(3) Na–, (NH2)– and NH 4 ion in liquid NH3
(4) The solution conducts like a metallic conductor with solvated electrons carrying the charge
107. A compound alloy of metals P and Q has a unit cell containing P atoms at the corners, while atom Q are
present at the face centres. The formula of the compound should be
(1) PQ (2) PQ2 (3) PQ3 (4) P3 Q
108. A complex of a certain metal ion has a magnetic moment of 4.90 BM (4 unpaired electrons) and another
complex of the same metal ion in the same oxidation state is diamagnetic. The complex is octahedral. The
central metal could be one of the following
(Cr3+, Mn2+, Fe2+, Mn3+, Fe3+, Co2+)
Cr3+ ion is [Ar]4d3 system. The metal ion is
(1) Mn2+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Co2+ (4) Fe3+
109. The enthalpy of hydration ( H ) of Cr2+ [(d4 system octahedral complex (Cr(H2O)6)2+] is –460 kcal/mol.
In the absence of CFSE, this value of H is (–435) kcal/mole. The value of 10Dq (or 0 ) is
(1) 14600 cm–1 (2) 21500 cm–1 (3) 9525 cm–1 (4) 25252 cm–1
(1 kcal = 350 cm–1)
110. Which of the dn ion will have the smallest CFSE if  (or 10Dq) is greater than pairing energy d6, d7, d8,
d9, d10?
(1) d6, d10 (2) d7, d9 (3) d10 (4) d5, d8, d10
111. During excessive physical stress (like running), the body makes A which reacts with water to form its
conjugate base and B ions. These, in turn, lowers the pH in the muscles which causes pain in the muscles.
Here A and B respectively are
(1) citric acid and H3O+ (2) lactic acid and H3O+
(3) enzyme and NH 4 (4) gluconic acid and NH 4
112. Which ones of the following are closed packed structures?
(a) AABB AABB... (b) ABAC ABAC...
(c) AB AB AB... (d) ABC ABC ABC...
Choose the correct choice out of the following
(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, d (3) b, c, d (4) b, c
113. Out of following actinides (I) Np, (II) Pu, (III) Es, (IV) Am one having +2 oxidation state as the only
relatively important state is
(1) Np (2) Pu (3) Es (4) Am

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114. Which is not an ambident nucleophile?
(1) CN – (2) SCN– (3) NO 2 (4) DMSO
115. What is the increasing order of stability of following carbocations (give least stable first)?
(I) Tropylium cation (II) CH2=CH– CH 2 (III) (C6H5)2C+ (IV) CH3
(1) III<I<II<IV (2) IV<II<III<I (3) I<III<II<IV (4) IV<III<II<I
116. The type of rearrangement
O OH OH– R NH2
R C N H
is
(1) Lossen (2) Beckmann (3) Schmidt (4) Curtius
117. What is the nucleophilicity order for SN 2 reaction?
(I) C6H5S– (II) C2 H5 O– (III) NO 3 (IV)CN –
(V) I–
(1) V > II > IV > I > III (2) III > IV > V > II > I
(3) I > IV > V > II > III (4) II > IV > V > III > I
118. Select order of effectiveness of Lewis acid catalyst in Friedel-Crafts reaction
(1) AlCl3 > FeCl3 > ZnCl2 > BF3 (2) AlCl3 > BF3 > ZnCl2 > FeCl3
(3) AlCl3 > ZnCl2 > BF3 > FeCl3 (4) AlCl3 > FeCl3 > BF3 > ZnCl2
119. One of the modern methods of studying free radical is
(1) IR spectra (2) CIDNP
(3) UV spectra (4) microwave spectra
–
120. For a reaction between alkyl halide and OH increase in solvent polarity generally
(1) decreases the rate of SN 1 reaction
(2) increases the rate of SN 1 reaction
(3) increases the rate of SN 2 reaction
(4) does not alter the rate of SN 1 and SN 2 reactions
121. Ethyl acetoacetate is prepared from ethyl acetate by
(1) Benzoin condensation (2) Aldol condensation
(3) Claisen condensation (4) Dieckmann condensation
122. Conversion of acetophenone to acetanilide is best accomplished by using
(1) Curtius (2) Hofmann
(3) Lossen (4) Beckmann
123. The order of the ease of the following leaving groups would be
(I) CH3COO– (II) CH3 O–
(III) CH3SO 3 (IV) CF3SO 3
(1) IV > III > I > II (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > III > II > IV (4) I > II > IV > III
124. In an SN 2 reaction there is
(1) complete racemisation (2) mostly inversion and little racemisation
(3) partial racemisation (4) a little inversion and mostly racemisation

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125. The number of carbon atoms in piperine is
(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 19
126. In Beckmann rearrangement, the migrating group
(1) is always syn to the hydroxyl group
(2) is always anti to the hydroxyl group
(3) is either anti or syn
(4) depends on the stereochemistry of the molecule
127. In Baeyer-Villiger oxidation, rate of reaction is accelerated by
(1) electron donating groups in the ketone
(2) electron withdrawing groups in the peracid
(3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(4) None of these
128. Reactive intermediate formed in the following reaction is
O NH2
Br2
NH2 + CO2
NaOH

(1) carbene (2) nitrene (3) carbocation (4) carbanion

129. The increasing order of energy of various conformations of cyclohexane molecule is
(1) twist boat < boat < chair < half chair (2) boat < twist boat < half chair < chair
(3) chair < half chair < twist boat < boat (4) chair < twist boat < boat < half chair
130. In cyclohexane molecule, when one chair conformation changes to other

(1) all hydrogens originally axial become equatorial

(2) potential energy of chair conformation increases
(3) angle strain reduces
(4) None of the above
131. Which of the following is least stable?
CH3

(1) CH3 (2)

CH3
H3C
CH3
C
CH3
(3) C CH 3 (4)
132. Which of the following
CH3 is not an alkaloid?
(1) Quinine (2) Reserpine (3) Camphor (4) Piperine
133. Indigo dye is deep blue colored due to
(1) conjugation of double bond and non-planarity of molecule
(2) conjugation of double bond and planarity of molecule
(3) hydrogen bonding and planarity of molecule
(4) None of the above

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134. A powerful anti-malarial agent obtained from cinchona bark is
(1) emetine (2) piperine (3) quinine (4) colchicine
135. A polynuclear compound having three benzene rings fused angularly is
(1) naphthalene (2) anthracene (3) phenanthrene (4) chrysene
136. IUPAC name of nicotine is
(1) N-methyl-( 3 -pyridyl)-2-pyrrolidine (2) 2 -(N-methylpyrrolidyl)-3-pyridine
(3) N-methyl-( 2 -pyrrolidyl)-3-pyridine (4) N-methyl-( 5 -pyridyl)-2-pyrrolidine
137. Predict the product for the following reaction

HNO 3
?
H2 SO4
Room temp

NO2 NO2 NO2

(1) (2)

NO2
NO 2 NO 2
(3) (4)

138. Structure of piperine is

O O
O OH O
N
(1) (2)
O O

O
O Cl
(3) (4) None of these
O

139. In Chichibabin reaction, base used is

(1) KNH2 (2) NaNH2 (3) C6H5NH2 (4) NH3
140. Sulphonation in indole takes place at
(1) position-2 (2) position-3 (3) both (4) None of these
141. Isoquinoline on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives
(1) phthalic acid (2) benzoic acid
(3) cinchomeric acid (4) both 1 and 3
142.  -Terpeneiol gives p-Cymene on treatment with
(1) HNO3 (2) H2SO4 (3) HCl (4) CH3COOH
143. The sweetest sugar amongst the following is
(1) lactose (2) fructose (3) glucose (4) sucrose
144. The bond that determines the secondary structure of protein is
(1) coordinate bond (2) covalent bond (3) hydrogen bond (4) ionic bond

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145. The main structural feature of protein is
(1) ester linkage (2) ether linkage (3) peptide linkage (4) ionic linkage
146. Buna-S is obtained by the polymerization of butadiene and
(1) chloroprene (2) styrene (3) acrylonitrile (4) adipic acid
147. Terylene is a polymer of
(1) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine (2) terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
(3) phenol and formaldehyde (4) adipic acid and ethylene glycol
148. Which is an example of thermosetting polymer?
(1) Polyethene (2) Neoprene
(3) Polyvinyl chloride (4) Bakelite
149. Which of the following is chain growth polymer?
(1) Glyptal (2) Nylon-66
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Polypropylene
150. Alkaloids are found in
(1) seeds (2) root
(3) bark (4) All of the above

BHU M.Sc. Chemistry Entrance -2012

Instructions
(1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will
be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted
question.
(2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer,
choose the closest one.

1. Example of d6 complex is
(a) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (c) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
2. Acidic strength is greater in
OH
OH OH OH
NO2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
NH2
NO2

3. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by

(a) formaldehyde (b) acetaldehyde (c) benzaldehyde (d) trimethylacetaldehyde

4. The equilibrium constant of a reaction A + B  C + D at 327ºC is 1  10 12 and at 527ºC is 1 10 7 . The

enthalpy of reaction is
(a) + 54.84 kcal/mole (b) – 54.84 kcal/mole (c) 548.4 kcal/mole (d) 5.84 kcal/mole
5. The wave mechanical model of atom depends on
(a) de Broglie equation (b) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(c) Schrodinger wave equation (d) All of the above
6. In the cell Zn | ZnSO4 (1.0 M) || Fe2+ (1.0 M), Fe3+ (1.0 M) | Pt, given that Fe3+, Fe2+, Pt = 0.769 V and Zn2+,
Zn = –0.76 V, the standard e.m.f. of the cell is
(a) 0.76 V (b) –1.529 V (c) –0.769 V (d) 1.529 V
7. Ground term symbol for Mn2+ (25) is
(a) 3F2 (b) 2D3/2 (c) 6S5/2 (d) 5D4
8. Benzene reacts with methyl chloride inpresence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give toluene. This reaction is called
(a) alkylation of benzene (b) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(c) methylation reaction (d) All of the above
9. Following two compounds are
CH3 CH3
H OH HO H
H OH HO H
C2H5 C2H5
(a) enantiomers (b) diastereomers (c) identical (d) epimers
2
10. Outer electronic configuration of lanthanides is
(a) ns1-2 (b) (n - 1) d1-10ns2
1-14 2
(c) (n - 1) f ns (d) (n - 2) f1-14(n - 1)0-1ns2
11. The variation of molar conductane of strong electrolyte with concentration is shown below

(a) m (b) m

c c

c c
12. If  is the fraction of HI dissociated at equilibrium in the reaction
2HI (g)  H2 (g) + I2 (g)
starting with 2 moles of HI, the total number of moles of reactants and products at equilibrium is
(a) 2 + 2  (b) 2 (c) 1 +  (d) 2 – 
13. Density of 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of solution is
(a) 3.28 mol/kg (b) 2.28 mol/kg (c) 3.24 mol/kg (d) 1.14 mol/kg
14. In a cubic crystal total elements of symmetry are
(a) 9 (b) 13 (c) 1 (d) 23
15. Lattice energy of solids increases if
(a) the radii of ions are small (b) the ions are neutral
(c) charges on the ions are small (d) Medelung’s constant decreases

 r 
16. If the value of radius ratio  r   is 0.213, then coordination number of cation is
 
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
17. Quantized rotational energy of molecule is given as
2 h
(a) v  r   De 1  exp    r  re    (b) S   g  e / 2m e c  S  S  1
2
E  upper  lower
(c)  J  J  J  1 h 2 / 82 I (d) v  
h h
18. The observed chemical shift of a proton is 300 Hz from TMS and operative frequency of the spectrometer is
100 MHz. The chemical shift in term of  (ppm) is
(a) 1.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 3.0 (d) 6.0

19. The wave function  for hydrogen atom in terms of polar coordinates, is given

by   r, ,    R  r          . Which of the functions determines the shape of atomic orbitals ?

(a) R(r) (b)     (c)     (d) None of these

3
20. The energy can be represented in terms of partition functions by the following equation
  In   2   In  
(a) E  kT  T  (b) E  kT  T 
 V  V
k   In   k   In  
(c) E  T  T  (d) E  T 2  T 
 V  V

21. According to Bose-Einstein statistics the probability distribution is given by

ni 1 ni 1 ni 1
(a)  i (b)  i (c)  i (d) None of these
g e g e 1 g e 1

22. The half-life of radium is 1600 years. After how much time will 1 gm radium reduce to 125 mg ?
(a) 1800 years (b) 1600 years (c) 3200 years (d) 4800 years
23. The vibrational degrees of freedom for (i) O2, (ii) N2O, (iii) CH2O, (iv) C6H6, (v) CHCl3 are respectively
(a) 3, 1, 6, 6, 30 (b) 1, 3, 9, 30, 6 (c) 1, 3, 6, 30, 6 (d) 3, 6, 9, 6, 15
24. The shift of an absorption maximum towards longer wavelength is known as
(a) hhypsochromic effect (b) bathochromic effect
(c) hyperchromic effect (d) hypochromic effect
25. The actual value of nuclear spin depends on
(a) mass number (b) atomic number (c) both (1) and (2) (d) shielding effect
26. The relationship between dihedral angle  and vicinal coupling constant JHH is given by Karplus equation which
is
(a) JHH = 8.5 cos  -0.50 (b) JHH = 9.5 cos  -0.30
(c) JHH = 8.5 cos2  -0.28 (d) JHH = 3.8 cos  -0.40
27. Centrifugal forces due to rotation of molecule about any given axis tend to
(a) increase the moment of inertia about the axis
(b) decrease the effective rotational constant
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
28. Which of the following is correct for photochemical reactions ?
(a) Temperature has the same effect as on thermal reaction
(b) Temperature has opposite effect as on thermal reaction
(c) Temperature has no effect in the photochemical reaction
(d) None of these
29. Chemisorption first increases and then decreases with increase in temperature because
(a) H   ve (b) S  ve (c) a is high (d) a is low

30. The gold numbers of A, B, C and D are 0.04, 0.002, 10 and 25 respectively. The protective power of A, B, C
and D are
(a) B > A > C > D (b) A > B > C > D (c) D > C > A > B (d) B > A > D > C
31. When KCl is heated in an atmosphere of K the violet colour appears which is due to
(a) the electrons diffuse into the crystal and occupy the vacant sites creasted by Cl- ions
(b) the electrons diffuse into crystal and occupy the vacant sites
(c) the K+ ions diffuse into the crystal and occupy the vacant sites created by Cl- ions
(d) None of these
4
32. For a simple cubic system the spacing of (100), (110) and (111) planes are in the ratio of
1 1 1 1
(a) 1: : (b) : :1 (c) 1:1:1 (d) 3 : 2 :1
2 3 2 3
33. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron of 4f orbital ?
1 1
(a) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = + (b) n = 4, l = 4, m = -4, s = -
2 2
1 1
(c) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = + (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = +
2 2
34. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. What will be the ionisation energy of He+ ?
(a) 13.6 eV (b) 54.4 eV (c) 122.4 eV (d) zero
35. BaSO4 is insoluble in water because
(a) hydration energy is equal to lattice energy
(b) hydration energy is more than lattice energy
(c) lattice energy is more than hydration energy
(d) BaSO4 does not form hydrogen bonds with water molecules
36. Which of the following combination of atoms of A and B forms bonding molecular orbitals?
A
(a)   A   B  (b)   A   B  (c)   A   B  (d) 
B

37. Which of the following processes involves increasing in bond order ?

(a) N 2  N 2  e  (b) CO  e   CO  (c) NO  NO   e  (d) O 2  e   O 2

38. In which salt are the anion cation iso-electronic ?

(a) LiF (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) KBr
39. Oxygen may be prepared by heating potassium chlorate. What is the other product ?
(a) Potassium oxide (b) Potassium chloride
(c) Potassium hypochlorite (d) Potassium chlorite
40. Radioactive decay of radon produces lead. What would be the other product / products ?
(a) Alpha particles (b) Neutrons
(c) Neutrons and polonium (d) Alpha particles and polonium
41. From each pair given below identify the ion which is larger in size
[Co2+, Co3+] [Fe2+, Zn2+] [Na+, F–] [O2–, S2–]
(a) Co2+, Zn2+, F–, S2– (b) Co3+, Fe2+, Na+, S2–
(c) Co2+, Fe2+, F–,S2– (d) Co3+, Zn2+, Na+, O2–
42. Which one, among the given atoms, has the highest number of unpaired electrons in its ground state ?
(a) C (b) N (c) O (d) F
43. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of silver in its ground sate ?
1 1
(a) 2 moles (b) 6 moles (c) mole (d) mole
3 6
44. How many moles of P4O10 will react with one mole of water?
(a) 2 moles (b) 6 moles (c) 1/3 mole (d) 1/6 mole
5
45. If 22 g of N2O5 reacts with 10 g of water to produce 22 g of nitric acid. What is the percentage yield of nitric
acid ?
(a) 32 (b) 69 (c) 87 (d) 100
46. 10 ml of 0.10 N sodium hydroxide is added to 20 ml 0.10 N sulphuric acid and the resultant solution is titrated
against 0.10 N sodium hydroxide. What will be the titre value at the end point ?
(a) 5 ml (b) 10 ml (c) 20 ml (d) 30 ml
47. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate when a few drops of sodium hydroxide are
added. The precipitate dissolves when excess of sodium hydroxide is added. The substance may be
(a) aluminium sulphate (b) silver nitrate
(c) cadmium chloride (d) mercuric chloride
48. When reagent may be used to precipitate barium from aqueous solutions ?
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Silver nitrate (d) Ammonium chloride
49. An element crystallizes in an FCC latttice. How many atoms are there per unit cell ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
50. A non-stoichiometric oxide of silver has composition Ag1.8O. What percentage of Ag is present in the form
Ag2+ ?
(a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 20 (d) 25
51. A sample of water contains 200 ppm of Ca2+ in it. What is the molality of the solution with respect to Ca ? (At
mass of Ca = 40)
(a) 0.2 m (b) 2 m (c) 5  103 m (d) 0.05 m

52. What is the charge (n) on the silicate ion Si 2 O7n ?

(a) – 2 (b) – 4 (c) – 6 (d) – 7
53. Silver is extracted from the crude metal by leaching with a solution of NaCN in the pressence of air. The role
of NaCN is to
(a) oxidize Ag to Ag+ (b) form the complex [Ag(CN)4]3–
2–
(c) form the complex [Ag(CN)4] (d) form the complex [Ag(CN)2]–
2
54. CoCl24  and Co  H 2 O 6 have different colours. This is because
(a) they have Co in different oxidation states
2
(b) CoCl24  is tetrahedral while Co  H 2 O 6 is octahedral
(c) they have different number of unpaired electrons
2
(d) CoCl24  is square planar while Co  H 2 O 6 is octahedral

55. Dimethyloglyoxime regent is used to test for

(a) Ca2+ (b) Ni2+ (c) Fe3+ (d) Al3+
56. Which molecule has zero bond order ?
(a) H 2 (b) H2 (c) HeH (d) He2

57. What is the bond order in NO molecule ?

(a) 2.5 (b) 2 (c) 1.5 (d) 1
6

58. An AB3 molecule with A as the central atom bonded to three B atoms may have the shape of an equilateral
triangle or a triangular pyramid. Which one, among those given, is the most appropriate technique to distinguish
between these two structures ?
(a) Measurement of dipole moment (b) Measurement of magnetic moment
(c) Measurement of viscosity (d) Measurement of boiling point
59. Cul2 is unstable because, it readily decomposes to
(a) Cu and I– (b) Cu and I2 (c) CuI and I2 (d) CuI and I–
60. Which one among the chlorides ZnCl2, HgCl2, BaCl2, AlCl3, is dissociated to the least extent in aqueous solu-
tions ?
(a) ZnCl2 (b) HgCl2 (c) BaCl2 (d) AlCl3
61. Which one, among the given ions, has the highest polarizing power ?
(a) Na+ (b) Ca2+ (c) Mg2+ (d) Al3+
62. Which compound can act as a Lewis acid as well as a Lewis base ?
(a) H2O (b) SnCl2 (c) NH3 (d) BF3
63. Perovskite is the mineral CaTiO3. The Perovskite crystal structure is adopted by several oxides as well as
some flurides. Which one, among the given formulae; most likely repreasents a known fluoride having the
perovskite structure ?
(a) CaTiF3 (b) KZnF3 (c) CaTiF5 (d) CaMgF4
64. CsF adopts the NaCl crystal structure. If the unit cell edge is of length 4.02 A, what is the shortest distance
between the cation and anion in the crystal ?
(a) 2.01 A (b) 2.84 A (c) 3.48 A (d) 4.02 A
65. The boron mineral, borax contains the anion, [H4B4O9]2–. What is the formal oxidation number of B in this
anion ?
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 3.5 (d) 4
66. In its reaction with aqueous solutions of Cu2+, the cyanide ion is similar to
(a) Co (b) Cl– (c) I2 (d) I–
67. Which ligand can lead to linkage isomers ?
(a) Azide (b) Cyanate (c) Oxalate (d) Nitrate
68. If you were to prepare [Cr (oxalate)2(OH2)2]– ion, how many isomers, including geometrical and optical, can
you expect to get ?
(a) Only one (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
69. Two isomers are obtained for Pt(NH3)2Cl2. This is because
(a) the two complexes differ in the oxidation state of the metal
(b) the two complexes differ in the oxidation state of the metal as well as coordination number
(c) the two complexes differ in their coordination number
(d) the two complexes differ in their coordination number
70. Consider the following reaction
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ +H2O  [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]2+ +Cl–
The above reaction involves
(a) substitution (b) substitution and reduction
(c) oxidation (d) substitution and oxidation
7
71. Identify the acids in the following two reactions
NOF  ClF3  NO  ClF4
XeO3  OH   HXeO 4
(a) ClF3 and XeO3 (b) ClF3 and OH– (c) NOF and OH– (d) NOF and XeO3
72. What are the formal oxidation states of the iron atons labelled (A) and (B) in the compound
Fe(A )
 
4  Fe
B
 CN 6  3 ?
(a) Fe(A), 2+ and Fe(B), 3+ (b) Fe(A), 2+ and Fe(B), 4+
(c) Fe(A), 3+ and Fe(B), 3+ (d) Fe(A), 3+ and Fe(B), 2+
3 3
73. The magnetic moment of Co  H 2 O 6 is zero and that of Mn  CN  6 is 2.9 BM. From this it may be con-
cluded that
(a) both ions are high spin
(b) both ions are low spin
3 3
(c) Co  H 2 O 6 is low spin, Mn  CN  6 is high spin
3 3
(d) Co  H 2 O 6 is diamagnetic, Mn  CN  6 is high spin

74. Which among the following compounds/ions are diamagnetic ?

CuCl46 ;Cu  SCN  ;CoCl24 ; Ni  CO 4 ; PdCl 24

(a) CoCl24  and PdCl 24 (b) CuCl46  , Cu  SCN  and Ni  CO  4

(c) Cu  SCN  and Ni  CO  4 (d) Cu  SCN  , Ni  CO  4 and PdCl 24

75. Which one is an example of a ‘sandwich’ compound ?

(a) Cr(C6H6)2 (b) Cr(CO)6
(c) Cr2(CH3COO)2 (d) [Pt(NH3)2] [PtCl4]
76. Adsorption chromatography is also known as
(a) liquid-liquid chromatography (b) liquid-gas chromatography
(c) liquid-solid chromatography (d) paper chromatography
77. Planar chromatographic method includes
(A) high-performance liquid chromatography (B) thin-layer chro,atography
(C) paper chromatography (D) electrochromatography
(a) only A (b) both A and B (c) B, C and D (d) A, B and C
78. The plate count in column chromatography is given by

t 
2
N  tR   t 2R  N W2
(a) N  16  R  (b)   (c) N  160  W  (d) 
W 16  W    16 t R

79. Twenty millilitres of an aqueous solution of 0.10 M butyric acid is skaken with 10 mL ether. After the layers are
separated, it is determined by titration that 0.5 m mol butyric acid remains in the aqueous layer. The distribution
(a) 0.6 (b) 6.0 (c) 0.06 (d) 6.5
8

80. In countercurrent distribution, the fraction, Fr,n, of solute contained in the rth tube after n transfers using equal
volumes of the two solvents is given by
n n
n  1  r r  1  r
(a) Fr,n    D (b) Fr,n    D
r   n  r   D  1  n   n  r   D  1 
n
n r  1  r
n n  D 1  r
(c) Fr,n  D (d) Fr,n    D
  n  r   D  1   r n  r   D 

81. Which one is semi-microanalysis ?

(a) > 0.1 g (b) 0.01 to 0.10 g (c) 0.001 to 0.01 g (d) < 10–4 g
82. Which one is trace analyte level ?
(a) 1% to 100% (b) 0.01% to 1.0% (c) 1 ppb to 100 ppm (d) < 1 ppb
83. ppb amount is
g g mg ng
(a) (b) (c) (d)
L L L L

84. The result antilog 12.5  3.162277  1012 can be represented better by retaining significant digits as
(a) antilog 12.5  3 1012 (b) antilog 12.5  3.2  1012
(c) antilog 12.5  3.1 1012 (d) antilog 12.5  3.162  1012
85. The equation for the normal error curve is
2 2 2 2
e  z /2 e  z /2 . ez / 2 e z / 2 . 2 
(a) y  (b) y  (c) y  (d) y 
 2 2  2 
86. The coefficient of variation is
(a) % relative statndard deviation (b) relative standard deviation
(c) standard deviation (d) square of the standard deviation
87. The analysis of a calcite sample yieldd CaO percentage of 55.95, 56.00, 56.04, 56.08 and 56.23. The last
value appears anomalous and rejection quotient at 95% confidence level is 0.71. Should the last value be
rejected or retained at 95% confidence level ?
(a) Retained (b) Rejected (c) All are acceptable (d) Cannot say
88. Standard EDTA [H4Y] solution is ordinarily prepared by dissolving weighed amount of
(a) Na2H2Y. 2H2O (b) Na2H2Y (c) NaH3Y (d) Na3HY
89. Which is the optimum velocity according to van Deemter plot ?
B AB B B
(a) U opt  (b) U opt  (c) U opt  (d) U opt 
C C C C
90. Quadrivalent cerium is widely used in redox titration because
(a) it is cheaper (b) it can be easily prepared
(c) its aqueous solution is highly stable (d) its aqueous solution can be standardized easily
91. If you do not have eriochrome black-T indicator for the complexometric titration of a metal, which following
option is left with you ?
(a) Able to perform titration without indicator (b) Able to perform titration using phenolphthalein
(c) Wait until eriochrome black-T is procured (d) Cannot be able to perform titration
9
92. Eriochrome black-T can be used in EDTA titration at pH 7 because
(a) end point is indicated by a contrast colour change
(b) it is stable at this pH (c) EDTA is stable at this pH
(d) buffer of pH7 can easily be prepared
93. Ferroin is ferrous complex of

(a) N (b) (c) (d)

N N N
OH

94. Mg2+ can be precipitated by oxine using metaloxine ratio

(a) 1:4 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:1 (d) 2:1
95. Von Weimarn ratio depicts the relative supersaturation (Q’) of solution during the precipitation process in term
QS
of the degree of supersaturation (Q) and solution (S) of precipitate in the manner Q '  . The favourable
S
condition for the precipitation is
(a) keep Q low and S high (b) keep Q high and S low
(c) keep Q and S both low (d) keep Q and S both high
96. Phenol can be quantitatively determined by
(a) complexation reaction (b) precipitation titration
(c) bromate-brmide reaction (d) gravimetric estimation
97. How many moles of Br2 are generated if 3 moles of KBrO3 are reacted with 15 moles of KBr ?
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 1
98. Select the procedure which you recommend for the quantification of organic compound(s) involved in the
following reaction
O
R C O
BF3
O + H 2O R C OH + R' C OH
(cat)
R' C
O

O
(a) Malaprade oxidation (b) Karl Fisher titration
(c) Cerate titration (d) Bromate oxidation
99. The best photometric accuracy can be had within the following range of transmittance (T)
(a) 20-80% T (b) 30-90% T (c) 15-65% T (d) 65-100% T
100. Aqueous solution of potassium chromate offer a typical example of an apparent deviation from Beer’s law
which may be attributed to unsymmetrical chemical equilibria
2CrO 4 2  2H   2HCrO 4  Cr2O 72  H 2O
Predict the condition under which the Beer’s law can be obeyed
(a) Dilute the potassium chromate solution
(b) Make the strongly alkaline solution of potassium chromate
(c) Make the moderately alkaline solution of potassium chromate
(d) Make the neutralized solution (pH7.0) of potassium chromate
10
101. Potassium bromate in basic solution exhibits an absorption maximum of 372 nm. A basic solution containing
3.00  105 M KBrO3 transmits 10% of the incident radiation at 372 nm when it placed in a 1.0 cm cell. The
absorbance of the solution is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
102. The pH at the end point for the titration of weak acid is
(a0 7 (b) > 7 (c) < 7 (d) 0
103. The pH of 10–2 M NaOH solution is
(a) 2 (b) 12 (c) 5 (d) 9
104. In the potentiometric titration of Fe+2 with Ce+4, the equivalence point potential an be computed as

 
EFe  ECe EFe  E Ce
(a) E  E  E
Fe Ce (b) E  (c) E  (d) E  E Fe  E Ce
2 2
105. Chloramine-T acts as if it
(a) a metallochromic-indicator (b) a pH-indicator
(c) a highly reactive sodium hypochlorite (d) a redox-indicator
106. The molar absorptivity has the unit
(a) L mol cm–1 (b) L–1 mol–1 cm (c) L mol–1 cm–1 (d) No unit
107. In the isotropic dilution method
(a) known weight of isotropically labelled species is mixed with the sample
(b) any amount of isotropically labelled species is mixed with the sample
(c) half of the sample amount is mixed with the isotropically labelled species
(d) dilution is necessary with water
108. Which one is pertinet receptor of photochemical smog ?
(a) Ocean (b) Plant (c) Soil (d) Man
109. Which one is sink of CO2 ?
(a) Soil (b) Ocean (c) Plant (d) Air
110. Which one is contaminant ?
(a) CO (b) Mercury (c) SO2 (d) Chlorine
112. What happens when there is rise in CO2 emission in the air ?
(a) Global warming (b) Global cooling (c) Storm (d) Acid rain
113. The major organic product in the following reaction is
CH2 NBS
CCl4
A


Br
CH2Br CHBr
CH2
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
Br

114. An SN2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon atom of a dextro alkyl halide always gives a
(a) laevo product (b) recemic mixture
(c) single optically active isomer (d) dextro product
11
115. Aqueous solution of phenol is known as
(a) benzoic acid (b) carbolic acid (c) phenoxide (d) None of these

116. What happens when 1-naphthalenesulphonic acid is heated in sulphuric acid at 160 C ?
(a) Naphthalenesulphonic acid is obtained in major amount
(b) A mixture of 2-naphthalenesulphonic acid and naphthalene-1, 2-disulphonic acid is obtained
(c) Naphthalene-1, 2-disulphonic acid is obtained in major amount
(d) 1-Naphthalenesulphonic acid is recovered
117. Clemmenson’s reduction will convert cyclohexanone into
(a) cyclohexanoic acid (b) cyclohexane (c) n-hexane (d) benzene
118. The final product(s) of the following reaction is/are
OH

CHCl3 50% KOH

X Y
KOH

OH OH O
H2 OH
C C COOK
(a) (b)

OH OH
CH2OH COOK
CH2OH COOK
(c) + (d) +

119. Which of the following does not reduce Tollens’ reagent ?

(a) CH3CHO (b) HCOOH (d) C6H5NHOH (d) C6H5NH2
120. Reaction of ethyne with HCN in presence of Ba(CN)2 is an example of
(a) electrophilic addition (b) nucleophilic addition
(c) free radical addition (d) electrophilic substitution
121. An alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of glyoxal and two moles of methanal. The molecular formula of
alkene is
(a) C6H8 (b) C8H12 (c) C8H14 (d) C7H10
122. Out of the following name reactions which gives unsymmetrical alkane ?
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Corey-House reation
(c) Decarboxylation reaction (d) Frankland reaction
123. Consider the follwing carbocations
(a) C6 H 5 CH 2 (b) C6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 (c) C6 H 5 CH  CH 3 (d) C6 H 5C  CH 3  2

The correct sequence for the stability of these is

(a) A, B, C, D (b) B, C, A, D (c) D, C, A, B (d) D, C, B, A
124. Hypsochromic effect is also known as
(a) red shift (b) blue shift (c) bathochromic shift (d) None of these
12
125. Fenton’s reagent is used in
(a) mutarotation (b) Killiani-Fischer synthesis
(c) Ruff degradation (d) Wohl degradation
126. When 2-chloro-2-methylbutane is refluxed with alcoholic KOH, the main product obtained is
(a) (CH3)2C=CHCH3 (b) (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
(c) CH2=C(CH3)CH2CH3 (d) (CH3)3CCH2OH
127. Which of the following is a polyamide molecule ?
(a) Terylene (b) Rayon (c) Polystyrene (d) Nylon 6
128. Which one of the following pairs can be distinguished by Fehling solution ?
(a) Glucose and Fructose (b) Glucose and Mannose
(c) Fructose and Sucrose (d) Maltose and Glucose
129. Piperine on hydrolysis with KOH gives
(a) piperidine and piperic acid and this shows the prsence of an amide group
(b) piperidine and piperic acid and this shows the presence of an ester group
(c) pyridine and piperic acid and this shows the presence of an amide group
(d) pyridine and piperic acid and this shows the presence of an ester group
130. Which of the follwing statements is correct ?
(a) Citral-a is also known as geranial and exists in Z form
(b) Citral-a is also known as geranial and exists in E form
(c) Citral-b is also known as neral and exists in E form
(d) Citral-a and citral-b represent the same compound
131. Which of the following rearrangements involves nitrene as intermediate ?
(a) Beckmann (b) Hofmann (c) Baeyer-Villiger (d) Pinacol-pinacolone
132. Preferred conformations of cyclohexane and methylcyclohexane, repectively are
(a) chair and chair with equatorial methyl (b) chair and chair with axial methyl
(c) boat and chair with equatorial methyl (d) boat and boat with equatorial methyl
133. Propiophenone on reaction with phenylhydrazine followed by treatment with ZnCl2 gives
(a) 2-propylindole (b) 2-propionylindole (c) 2-ethylindole (d) 2-methylindole
134. The correct order of migratory aptitude of the froups in Baeyer-Villiger oxidation is
(a) phenyl > p-chlorophenyl > p-methoxyphenyl > p-hydroxyphenyl
(b) p-chlorophenyl > p-methoxyphenyl > p-hydroxyphenyl > phenyl
(c) p-methoxyphenyl > p-hydroxyphenyl > phenyl > p-chlorophenyl
(d) p-hydroxyphenyl > phenyl > p-methoxyphenyl > p-chlorophenyl
135. An aqueous solution of D-glucose in eqillibrium contains
(a)  - and  -anomers in equal amounts (b)  - anomer in major amount and  -anomer in minor amount
(c)  - anomer in minor amount and  -anomer in major amount
(d)  -and  -anomers in variable amounts
136. The Chichibabin reaction of pyridine gives
(a) 2-aminopyridine in good yield along with trace amount of 4-aminopyridine
(b) 2-aminopyridine in good yield anlong with trace amount of 3-aminopyridine
(c) 4-aminopyridine in good yield along with trace amount of 2-aminopyridine (d) only 4-aminopyridine
137. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by the reacting with
(a) HCHO (b) CH3OH (c) CH3CHO (d) CH3COCH3
13
138. Which synthesis can be applied for quinoline ?
(a) The Skraup synthesis ony (c) The Bischler-Nepieralski and Skraup synthesis
(c) The Pomeranz-Fritsch synthesis only (d) The Skraup and Friedlander synthesis
139. Hofmann’s exhausive methylation of piperidine gives
(a) 1, 4-pentadiene (b) 1, 3-pentadiene (c) 1, 3-butadiene (d) 1, 3-cyclopentadiene
140. Which of the following is an auxochrome ?
(a) C=C (b) –CO– (c) –C6H5 (d) – NH2
141. Isoelectric point is the point, where concentration of dipolar ion is
(a) minimum (b) maximum (c) intermediate (d) Can be of any value
142. Plexiglass is a commercial name of
(a) polyacylonitrille (b) glyptal
(c) polymethylmethacryl (d) polyethylmethacryl
143. Which amine will be used as starting material in the Pictet-Spengler sythesis of isoquinoline ?
(a) Benzylamine (b) Aniline (c) 2-Phenylethylamine (d) 2-Propylamine

144. What will be the effect on the rate of SN2 type reaction if the concentration of MeI is doubled and that of OH 
is halved ?
(a) The rate becomes 2 times faster (b) The rate becomes 4 time faster
(c) The rate becomes half (d) No change in the rate
145. Using given codes, arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of the rate of solvolysis by SN1
mechanism
Cl
Cl
A B Cl C
(a) A > C > B (b) C > B > A (c) A > B > C (d) B > A > C
146. 1, 3-Dichloropropane on reaction with Zn and NaI gives
(a) propane (b) 1-chloropropane (c) cyclohexane (d) cyclopropane
147. Which one of the following is aromatic ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

148. Which of the following compounds is most stable ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

149. A nonapetide undergoes partial hydrolysis to give peptides whose amino acid compositions are shown (A-H).
Reaction of intact nonapeptide with Edman’s reagent releases PTH-Leu. What is the sequence of the
nonapeptide?
(A) Pro, Ser (B) Gly, Glu (c) Met, Ala, Leu (d) Gly, Ala
(E) Glu, Ser, Val, Pro (F) Glu, Pro, Gly
(G) Met, Leu (H) His, Val
(a) Leu-Met-Ala-Gly-Glu-Pro-Ser-Val-His (b) Leu-Ala-Met-Gly-Glu-Pro-Ser-Val-His
(c) Leu-Met-Ala-Glu-Gly-Pro-Ser-Val-His (d) Leu-Met-Ala-Gly-Glu-Pro-Ser-His-Val
150. Which is least aromatic ?
(a) Pyrrole (b) Furan (c) Thiophene (d) Benzene
1

BHU M.Sc. Chemistry Entrance -2013

Instructions:
(1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each
incorrect answer. Zero mark will be answered for each unattempted questions.
(2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one.

1. Figures defining precision do not include

(a) absolute standard deviation (b) relative standard deviation
(b) coefficient of variance (d) limit of detection
2. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) A precise measurement may be inaccurate
(b) An accurate measurement is always precised.
(c) Accuracy applies only to attribute data whereas precision to attribute both simple data and geographic
data.
(d) High accuracy and high precision are both expensive and difficult to aquire
3. Absorption chromatography is also known as
(a) Liquid-liquid chromatography (b) Liquid-gas chromatography
(c) Liquid-solid chromatography (d) Paper chromatography
4. Adsorption chromatography is the best separation technique for
(a) charged species (b) non-polar compounds
(c) compounds bearing lone pair (d) compounds bearing halide groups
5. Which one of the following is 2-D chromatography?
(a) Gas chromatography (b) HPLC
(c) Paper chromatography (d) Ion-exchange chromatography
6. Which one of the following is not a planar chromatography?
(a) High performance liquid chromatography
(b) High performance thin layer chromatography
(c) Paper chromatography
(d) Electrochromatography
7. The precision of the mean of a series of N measurements can be beter represented as
(a) S/ N (b) S/N (c) S/ N  1 (d) S/N – 1
8. The efficiency of a chromatographic column can be increased by
(a) increasing plate height (b) decreasing plate height
(c) increasing length of the column (d) decreasing length of the column
9. The number of plates (N) can be computed in terms of the retention time of a peak tR and the width of the peak
at its base W by the relationship
1
2 2 1 2
W t  t 
2
W
(a) N  16   (b) N  16  R  (c) N  16  R  (d) N  16  
 tR  W W  tR 
10. EDTA stands for
(a) ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid
(b) disodium salt of ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid
(c) tetrasodium salt of ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid
(d) ethylene diamine.
2

11. Liquid-liquid chromatography is also called as

(a) ion-exchange chromatography (b) affinity chromatography
(c) adsorption chromatography (d) partition chromatography
12. The reverse-phase chromatography is one
(a) In which the stationary phase is polar and mobile phase is non-polar
(b) In which the stationary phase is non-polar and mobile phase is polar
(c) In which both phase are non-polar
(d) In which both phases are polar
13. The solute polarities are in the order A > B > C. In reverse-phase chromatography the order of elution will be
(a) A > B > C (b) C > B > A (c) B > C > A (d) B > A > C
14. Which statement(s) are true?
(a) Cation-exchange resins have primary amine groups
(b) Cation-exchange resins have sulfonic acid groups.
(c) Anion-exchange resins have tertiary amine groups
(d) Anion-exchange resins have carboxylic acid groups
Answer codes:
(a) [A] and [D] (b) [B] and [C] (c) [A] and [C] (d) [B] and [C]
15. Which statement is correct?
(a) Ion-exchange and ion-exclusion chromatography are same techniques
(b) Ion-exchange and ion-chromatography are same technique
(c) Adsorption and partition chromatography as same techniques
(d) Ion-paired and ion-exclusion chromatography are same techniques
16. Identify the structure of oxine
OH
N

(a) (b) N (c) (d)

N OH OH NH2 OH
17. Oxine forms complexes with metal ions in
(a) deprotonated state (b) protonated state
(c) neutral state (d) zwitterionic state
18. One mole of potassium bromate in bromate-bromide reaction produces
(a) One mole Br2 (b) Two moles Br2 (c) Three moles Br2 (d) Four moles Br2.
19. Which one is redox indicator?
(a) Methyl red (b) Fluorescein (c) Ferroin (d) Phenolphthalein
20. Which Ce(IV) solution is stable enough for a year or at 100ºC temperature?
(a) Basic Ce(IV) solution (b) Acidic Ce(IV) solution
(c) Neutral Ce(IV) solution (d) Complex form of Ce(IV) solution
21. As(III) oxide is used in standardizing reagent as a primary standard. The best method to prepare a standard
solution of As (III) oxide is
(a) dissolving weighed amount of As2O3 in water
(b) dissolving weighed amount of As2O3 in acidic water
(c) dissolving weighed amount of As2O3 in a basic water followed by neutralisation with an acid.
(d) dissolving weighed amount of As2O3 in acid followed by neutralisation with a base.
3

22. If you do not have Eriochrome Black-T for complexometric titration, can you perform this titration?
(a) Not at all
(b) Yes, with the use of an alternative indicator like phenolphthalein
(c) Yes, with the use of an alternative indicator like ferroin
(d) Wait until a suitable metallochromic indicator is procured.
23. EDTA often combines with metal ion (regardless the charge on the cation) in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1
24. Metal ions through oxinate precipitation can be estimated by
(a) bromate titration (b) direct titration
(c) back titration (d) colourimetric titration
25. EDTA titrations require a buffer of pH
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) 6
26. In the titratio of iron (II) with cerium (IV), the equivalence point potential (Eeq) is
E 0Fe3 / Fe2  E Ce
0
4
/ Ce3
(a) Eeq  E 0Fe3 /Fe2  E 0Ce4 /Ce3 (b) E eq 
2

(c) E eq  2 E 0Fe3 /Fe2  E Ce
0
4
/ Ce3  (d) Eeq  E 0Ce4 /Ce3  E 0Fe3 /Fe2

27. In the following potentiometric titration curve for the determination of chloride with silver nitrate.

0.8
E/V, V/mL

0.6
0.4
0.2

5 10 15 20
V, mL 0.1 M AgNO3

the equivalence point is

(a) 10 mL (b) 20 mL (c) 15 mL (d) 22 mL

28. The equivalence point pH in the titration of acetic acid with standard sodium hydroxide is:
(a) in acidic range (b) in basic range (c) in mild acidic range (d) neutral
29. The pH values at 0, 10, 90 and 100% titration of 50.0 mL of 0.100 M HCl with 0.100 M NaOH are
(a) 1.0, 1.09, 2.28, 7.00 (b) 1.1, 1.20, 2.50, 7.50
(c) 0.1, 0.11, 0.23, 0.70 (d) 1.09, 1.00, 7.00, 2.28
30. The conductometric graph given below
Conductance

end point
Volume of alkali
represents a titration involving
(a) strong acid against strong base (b) strong acid against weak base
(c) strong base against weak acid (d) weak base against weak acid.
4

31. Phenolphthalein (KIn = 1×10–9) is used as an indicator when transition pH is in the range of
(a) 1–4 (b) 4–6 (c) 8–10 (d) 10–12
32. Which of the following relationships is correct one?
It
(a) log %T   100 (b) A  2.0  log %T
I0
I0
(c) log %T   100 (d) log %T  2.0 – A
It
33. The unit of ‘molar absorptivity’ is
(a) L mol cm–1 (b) L mol cm
(c) L–1 mol–1 cm–1 (d) L mol–1 cm–1
34. Beer’s law is obeyed for a complex when it is formed by taking
(a) metal in large excess (b) ligand in large excess
(c) metal : ligand mole ratio 1.0 (d) metal : ligand mole ratio greater than 1.0
35. Beer’s law is obeyed in the case of an aqueous solution of a weak acid, if
(a) solution is made acidc (b) solution is made basic
(c) solution is made neutral (d) solution is made dilute
36. A 7.25×10–5 M KMnO4 solution has transmittance 10%, when measured in a 2.10 cm cell at a wavelength
of 525 nm. The absorbance of this solution is
(a) 2.00 (b) 1.00 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.10
37. The distribution constant (K) for iodine between an organic solvent and water is 85. What is the concentration
of I2 remaining in the aqueous layer after extraction of 50.0 mL of 1.00×10–3 M I2 with the 50.0 mL of the
organic solvent?
(a) 1.00 × 10–3 M (b) 5.28×10–7 M (c) 1.16×10–5 M (d) 5.29×10–10 M
38. Green gases responsible for acid rains are
(a) hydrocarbon and CO (b) COx and NOx
(c) NOx and SOx (d) CO and CO2
39. Which ion is isoelectronic with F– ?
(a) Li+ (b) Cl– (c) Ca2+ (d) O2–
40. How many protons are there in the nucleus of a 15N atom?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
41. Which one of the following elements normally exists in the form of diatomic molecules?
(a) Sodium (b) Aluminium (c) Xenon (d) Iodine
42. From each pair given below identify the ion which is smaler in size
 Co 2 , Co 3   K  , Ca 2    Na  , F   S2 , Se 2  

(a) Co 2  , K  , F , S 2  (b) Co3 , Ca 2  , Na  , S2 

43. Which one among the following molecules has a linear structure?
(a) hydrogen sulphide (b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Ozone (d) Hydrogen cyanide
5

44. What is the minimum volume of carbon dioxide at STP required to completely convert 1 mole of calciumoxide
to calcium carbonate?
(a) 22 L (b) 44 L (c) 56 L (d) 28 L
45. Which molecules form strong H-bonds?
(a) H–F and H–Cl (b) H2O and HCl (c) H2O and H2S (d) HF and H2O
46. The bond angles in boron trifluride molecule are
(a) 90 degrees (b) 109 degrees (c) 120 degrees (d) 104 degrees
47. Which one of the following sets contains one element each from s-block, p-block, d-block?
(a) Na, Rb, Fe (b) Cs, Ru, Bi (c) B, Br, Sr (d) Sc, Pt, Te
48. What is the maximum volume of oxygen at STP that will evolve when an aqueous solution containing 1 mole of
hydrogen peroxide is boiled?
(a) 22 L (b) 11 L (c) 44 L (d) 6 L
49. 10 ml of 0.10 M sodium hydroxide is added to 10 ml 0.10 M sulphuric acid and the resultant solution is titrated
against 0.20 M sodium hydroxide. What will be the titre value at the end point?
(a) 5 ml (b) 10 ml (c) 20 ml (d) 30 ml
50. A Lewis base
(a) acts as an electron pair donor (b) acts as an electron pair acceptor
(c) always ionizes to give protons (d) always ionizes to give hydroxide ions
51. What is the formal oxidation number of the element ‘E’ in the formula [H4E4O9]2– ?
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 3.5 (d) 4
52. What is the change (n) on the molecule [Cr(C5H5)2]n, where Cr is in the +2 oxidation state and C5H5 is the
anion, cyclopentadienyl (–1)?
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) –2 (d) +1
53. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate when a few drops of sodium hydroxide are
added. The precipitate dissolves when excess of sodium hydroxide is added. The substance may be
(a) barium chloride (b) aluminium chloride
(c) cadmium chloride (d) calcium chloride
54. Which reagent may be used to precipitate Fe2+ ions from aqueous solutions?
(a) sodium chloride (b) Barium chloride
(c) Ammonium chloride (d) Sodium hydroxide
55. Which is the most common oxidation state observed for the lanthanide elements in their compounds?
(a) –1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4
56. Nickel forms a complex ion having formula NiCl42–. From among the given statements, pick the correct com-
bination
(i) it is a nickel(II) complex (ii) it is an octahedral complex
(iii) it is paramagnetic (iv) nickel atom has a coordination number 4 in this complex
(a) i, ii, iv (b) ii, iii, iv (c) i, iii, iv (d) i, iv
57. Pick all the gases from the list which dissolve in water to give an acidic solution
(i) nitrogen (ii) carbon dioxide (iii) sulphur dioxide (iv) sulphur trioxide
(v) ozone (vi) hydrogen bromide
(a) i, iii, iv, vi (b) ii, iii, iv, vi (c) ii, iii, vi (d) ii, iv, vi
58. What is the correct word to describe the geometry of XeF4?
(a) Spherical (b) Octahedral (c) Tetrahedral (d) Planar
6

59. Which one, among the given atoms, has the least number of unpaired electrons in ground state?
(a) C (b) N (c) O (d) F
60. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of zinc in its ground state?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
61. For the preparation of PF3, 3 moles of CaF2 was reacted with 3 moles of PCl3. If the isolated yield of PF3 was
1.8 moles, what is the percentage yield?
(a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 90
62. An element crystallizes in a BCC lattice. How many atoms are there per unit cell?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 9
63. Which one, among the given ions, has the highest polarizing power?
(a) K+ (b) Na+ (c) Ba2+ (d) Al3+
64. Which compound can act as a Lewis acid as well as a Lewis base?
(a) CO2 (b) NH3 (c) SnCl2 (d) BF3
65. Two isomers are obtained for Pd(NH3)2Cl2, while only one isomer is obtained for Ni(NH3)2Cl2. This is be-
cause
(a) The two complexes differ in the oxidation state of the metal
(b) The two complexes differ in the oxidation state of the metal as well as coordination geometry
(c) The two complexes differ in their coordination geometry
(d) The two complexes differ in their oxidation state of the metal and the number of unpaired electrons.
66. Which statement(s) is (are) true?
(i) High spin complexes are always paramagnetic
(ii) Low spin complexes are always diamagnetic
(iii) H2O is more likely to form a low spin complex than CN–.
(iv) Tetrahedral complexes are more likely to be low spin than high spin
(a) i, ii, iv (b) i (c) i, ii (d) i, ii and iii
67. What products are formed when sulphur is oxidised by nitric acid?
(a) SO2, N2 and H2O (b) SO42–, NO and H2O
(c) H2S, NO and H2O (d) SO42–, NO2 and H2O

68. If  0 and  t denote respectively, the octahedral and the tetrahedral crystal field splitting for a given metal ion
and ligand with the same bond distance, then the ratio  0 /  t is:
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5 (c) 2.2 (d) 0.44
   2
69. Which among the ions,  Cu  CN  2  ,  Ag  NH3  2  ,  Au  CN  2  ,  Hg  NH 3  2  is (are) diamag-
netic?
 
(a)  Cu  CN  2  and  Au  CN 2 
(b) All four of them
  
(c)  Cu  CN  2  ,  Ag  NH 3 2  and  Au  CN  2 
2
(d)  Hg  NH3  2 
7

3 3
70. In the complexes  Fe  CN 6  and Co  en 3  , the coordination numbers of iron and cobalt are, respec-
tively (en = ethylenediamine)
(a) 6 and 6 (b) 12 and 6 (c) 6 and 3 (d) 3 and 3
71. The nuclear reaction in which 24Na is produced from 23Na is a/an
(a) (n, p) reaction (b)  n,   reaction

(c)  , p  reaction (d)  ,   reaction

72. The element needed by the human body in small amounts, but which acts as a poison in larger amounts is
(a) silver (b) lead (c) mercury (d) copper
73. When steam is passed through a glass tube containing pieces of nickel, the gas coming out at the end of the of
the tube will contain mainly
(a) hydrogen and water vapour (b) hydrogen and oxygen
(c) oxygen and water vapour (d) oxygen
74. What are the products of thermal decomposition of Ni(CO)4?
(a) NiC, C and O2 (b) Ni and CO2
(c) Ni and CO (d) NiCO3 and O2
75. How many unpaired electrons will be there in a f8 lanthanide ion?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) 8
76. Identify a pair of ions from the following list which are more stable than the remaining two
 CoF6 3 ,  CoI6 3 ,  AgF2  ,  AgI 2 
3 3 3 
(a)  CoF6  , CoI 6  (b)  CoI 6  ,  AgF2 
  3 
(c)  AgF2  ,  AgI 2  (d)  CoF6  ,  AgI 2 

77. Molecular formula of Geraniol is:

(a) C10H16O (b) C10H18O (c) C10H16O2 (d) C10H14O
78. Acetaldehyde is the presence of few drops of H2SO4 at 0ºC gives
(a) aldol (b) paraldehyde (c) metaldehyde (d) crotonaldehyde
79. Molecular formula piperine is
(a) C17H19NO3 (b) C17H19NO2 (c) C17H21NO3 (d) None of these
80. The reagent that differentiates an aldose and a ketose is
(a) Fehling solution (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Molish test (d) Bromine water
81. Bubbling of chlorine gas in boiling acetaldehyde gives
(a) CH3COCl (b) CH3CH2Cl (c) CCl3CHO (d) ClCH2.CH2Cl
82. The reaction of phenylacetylene with sodamide in liquid ammonia gives
(a) styrene (b) 2, 5-dihydrophenylacetylene
(c) 1, 4-dihydrophenylacetylene (d) sodium phenylacetylide
8

83. In the following reactions


(I) CH 3  N  N  CH 3  
hv
(II) CH 2 N 2  
(III)  CH 3 3 C  OH  H  


(IV)  CH3 3 C  Cl  AlCl3 


the reaction intermediates formed will be
I II III IV
(a) •CH3 CH2 (CH3)3 C (CH3)3 C–
–
•• •• ••


(b) CH 3 CH (CH ) C+ (CH ) C–
2 3 3 3 3
+
(c) •CH3 CH2 CH3)3C (CH3)3C+

(d) CH 3 • CH2 (CH3)3C+ (CH3)3C–

84. Oxidation is associated with

(a) change in molecular weight (b) gain in electron
(c) evolution of gas (d) loss of electron
85. Which one of the reversible reaction in the following?
(a) Sulfonation of benzene (b) Nitration of benzene
(c) Halogenation of benzene (d) Alkylation of benzene
86. The electrophile in oleum in the sulfonation reaction of benzene is

(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) SO3– (d) SO 2
87. Vulcanisation of rubber is
(a) cross-linking of hydrocarbon chain in crude rubber by sulphur
(b) heating of rubber to mould in the desired shape
(c) decreasing its tensile strength
(d) decreasing its elasticity
88. Polyester is condensation polymer is
(a) phenol – formaldehyde (b) terphthalic acid – ethylene glycol
(c) terphthalic acid–hexamethylene diamine (d) urea–formaldehyde
89. Which one of the phenol derivatives is more steam volatile?
(a) o-Nitrophenol (b) m-Nitrophenol (c) Hydroquinone (d) p-Nitrophenol
90. The compound readily reacts with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
(a) 2-methyl propanol (b) 2-methyl propane-2-ol
(c) 2-butanol (d) 1-butanol
91. The compound which does not reduce Fehlings solution is
(a) formic acid (b) acetaldehyde (c) benzaldehyde (d) fructose
92. The acidity in decreasing order of different acids is
(a) formic acid > chloroacetic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid
(b) formic acid > propanoic acid > chloroacetic acid > acetic acid
(c) chloroacetic acid > acetic acid > formic acid > propanoic acid
(d) chloroacetic acid > formic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid.
9

93. Which one is an example of azo dye?

(a) Malachite (b) Methyl orange (c) Indigo (d) Fluroescein
94. The reaction of benzaldehyde with ethyl  -bromopropionate in the presence of zinc is known as
(a) Perkin reaction (b) Knoevenaged reaction
(c) Claisen-Schmidt reaction (d) Reformatsky reaction
95. The reaction of acetaldehyde with concentrated NaOH gives
(a) yellow resin (b) aldol
(c) metaldehyde (d) paraldehyde
96. Anthracene on oxidation with chromatic acid gives
(a) anthranilic acid (b) anthraquinone
(c) phthalic acid (d) terphthalic acid
97. The order of each of hydrogenations is
(a) anthracene > naphthalene > benzene (b) benzene > anthracene > naphthalene
(c) benzene > naphthalene > anthracene (d) naphthalene > anthracene > benzene
98. The intermediate in the reaction of m-bromoanisole with sodamide in liquid ammonia has
OCH3
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Br
Br
99.  -Naphthol couples with benzenediazonium salt at position.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 8
100. Conversion of aliphatic ketones to esters is known as
(a) Wolf rearrangement (b) Beckmann rearrangement
(c) Baeyer-Villiger oxidation (d) Clemmensen reduction
101. Isoquinoline on reduction with tin and hydrochloric acid gives
(a) octahydroisoquinoline (b) 1, 2, 3, 4-dihydroisoquinoline
(c) 1, 4-dihydroisoquinoline (d) 1, 2-dihydroisoquinoline
102. The reaction of pyridine with acyl chloride in the cold gives
(a) 1-acylpyridinium chloride (b) 3-acylpyridine
(c) 4-acylpyridine (d) None of the above
103. Which one is least stable carbanion?

(a) C6 H 5  CH 2 (b)  CH 3 3 C (c)  CCl3 (d)  CH 3

104. Which of the alkyl halides undergoes most readily for nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) CH3CH2Br (b) CH3CH2F (c) CH3CH2I (d) CH3CH2Cl
105. The reaction of ethanolic KOH on 1, 1-dichloropropane gives
(a) propanaldehyde (b) propyne
(c) propan-1, 1-diol (d) propanone
106. An axial methyl at position 1 in methylcyclohexane is closer to
(a) 2a, 4e hydrogens (b) 2e, 6e hydrogens
(c) 1e, 3a hydrogens (d) 3a, 5a hydrogens
10

107. Predict the product of the following reaction

O O
Pd/C, H2
R C C O H + NH3

O O
H2 H
(a) R C C O H (b) R C C O H

NH2
H
(c) R C NH (d) R C CO2H
CO2H O H

108. Predict the product of the following reaction

CN (i) N2H4
R CH O
(ii) HNO2
C C2H5 (iii) C2H5O–H
(iv) HCl
CN CN

(a) R CH (b) R CH
CO2H NHCO2C2H5
CN H
R C CO2H
(c) R CH (d)
OCH3 NH2

109. A dilute solution of D(+)–glucose in presence of sodium hydroxide is converted into an almost optically inactive
mixture which contains.
(a) D(+)–glucose, D(–)–arabinose and D(+)–mannose
(b) D(+)–glucose and D(+)–mannose
(c) D(+)-glucose, D(+)–mannose and D(–)-fructose
(d) D(+)–mannose and D(–)fructose
110. Predict the product of the following reaction
Cl
(i) Ph3P
CH2
(ii) C2H5ONa
OMe (iii) PhCHO
(iv) H+
(c) Ph3P = CHOMe (b) Ph–CH2CHO (c) Ph–CH = CHOMe (d) Ph–CH2–CH2–OH
111. Which aldoses and ketoses form same osazone when treated with excess of phenylhydrazine?
(a) D(+)–glucose, D(–)–mannose and D(+)–ribose
(b) D(+)–glucose , D(+)–mannose, D(–)-fructose
(c) D(+)-glucose, L(+)–arabinose
(d) D(+)–glucose, D(–)-arabinose
11

112. Predict the product of the following reaction

CHO

(CH2OH)4 (i) NH2OH

(ii) Ac2O
CH2OH
(iii) CH3ONa, CHCl3
D(+) glucose

(a) D(–)-arabinose (b) Gluconic acid

(c) Glucose penta acetate (d) D(+)-ribose
113. Which pair of the following pair of sugars is epimers?
(a) D(+)–glucose, D(–)–fructose (b) D(+)–glucose, D(–)–arabinose
(c) D(+)-glucose, D(+)-mannose (d) D(–)–fructose, D(+)-mannose
114. The orbital angular momentum for a 3p electron is
h 5 h 3 h 2 h 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2
115. Which one of the following atomic spectral transitions is forbidden?
(a) 3d  4f (b) 2p  3s (c) 3p  3d (d) 4p  5f
116. According to quantum mechanics, the energy levels of a free partial are
(a) continuous (b) discrete and equally distant
(c) discrete but not equally distant (d) energy is always zero.
117. The quantum number which is not derived from the solution of the Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen
atom is
(a) azimuthal quantum number (b) principal quantum number
(c) magnetic quantum number (d) spin quantum number
118. The d-orbital which has a maximum probability density lying along two axes is knwon as
(a) d x 2  y2 (b) d z2 (c) d xy (d) d xz
119. Which one of the following molecules has the highest bond energy?
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
120. The translational partition function has the unit of
(a) V (b) 1/V (c) P (d) a number
121. The fundamental relation in Helmholtz free energy (A) and molecular partition function q is
(a) A  NkT ln q (b) A   NkT ln q
 i   i 
(c) A  NkT exp    (d) A   NkT  exp   
 kT   kT 
122. For an ideal monatomic gas, the particle partition function ‘q’ is
3 3 3 3
 h2   h2 
2 2 2 2
 8mkT   2mkT 
(a)  2  V (b)  2  V (c)   V (d)   V
 h   h   8mkT   2mkT 
12

123. If ‘v’ is the fundamental frequency, µ is the reduced mass and k is the force constant, then for a harmonic
oscillator.
1  1 k
(a) k  (b)   42 k 2 (c)   k / (d)   1/ 2
2  2 
124. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution function of speed is
3
2
 2kT  2  2kT 
(a) f  v   4   v exp   2 
dv
 m   mv 
3
 m  2
2
 mv 2 
(b) f  v   4    v exp   dv
 2kT   2kT 
3
2  2kT  2 2  mv 2 
(c) f  v     v exp    dv
 m   2kT 
1
2  m 2 2  2kT 
(d) f  v     v exp   2 
dv
  2kT   mv 
125. The difference between the magnitude of the magnetic fields at which ‘free’ nuclei and molecular nuclei reso-
nate is called
(a) chemical shift (b) magnetic shift (c) screening constant (d) anisotropy in g-value
126. When a transition between states of the same multiplicity occurs without emitting light, the process is called
(a) fluorescence (b) internal conversion (IC)
(c) quenching (d) intersystem crossing (ISC)
127. Rotational spectra are observed in the
(a) near infrared region (b) visible region
(c) far infrared region (d) UV region
128. Which one of the following is adopted as the primary reference electrode, assigned standard electrode, poten-
tial equal to zero?
(a) Hg/KCl solution (aq) (b) Cu/CuSO4 solution.
(c) Ag/AgCl/Cl– (d) -Pt/H2(g, 1 atm)/H+ (aq)  a H   1

129. The reverse of a photochemical reaction is called

(a) chemiluminescence (b) phosphorescence
(c) fluorescence (d) photosensitization
130. A 5.0×10–3 M solution of K2CrO4 has optical density of 1.5 at 680 mµ using a 10 mm cell. Its extinction
coefficient in the unit of L mol–1 cm–1 is:
(a) 0.75 (b) 300.00 (c) 7.50 (d) 30.00
131. For reversible isothermal expansion of a perfect (ideal) gas, which particular set of the following statements is
correct?
(a) q  0, w  0, U  0 and H  0 (b) q  0, w  0, U  0 and H  0
(c) q  0, w  0, U  0 and H  0 (d) q  0, w  0, U  0 and H  0
13

132. “Fugacity of a gas in a mixture is equal to the product of its mole fraction in the mixture of its fugacity in the pure
state at a total pressure of the mixture.” This is in accordance with
(a) Lewis-Randall rule (b) Konovalov’s first law
(c) Konovalov’s second law (d) Mathematical form od Duhem-Margules equation
133. Which one of the following is not true for real gases?
 f2  f 
(a) G  nRT ln  f  (b) lim   1
P 0 p
 1  

a  P2 
(c)   (d) G  nRT ln  P 
P  1
134. In osmotic pressure method, molecular mass of polymers can be obtained from the intercept of the graph of
  C C
(a)  vs C (b)   vs. C (c) vs. C (d) vs. C
C  
135. The half-life of a given reaction was halved as the initial concentration was doubled. What is the order of the
reaction?
(a) Zero order (b) Pseudo first order
(c) Second order (d) Third order
136. Which of the following ions has the highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?
(a) Li+ (b) Rb+ (c) Na+ (d) K+
137. Which of the following isotherms was successfully explained by Langmuirs unimolecular layer theory?

(x/m) (x/m)
(a) (b)
P P

(x/m) (x/m)
(c) (d)
P P
138. The oscillator strength of a spectral transition has the units of
(a) mol s m–2 (b) dm3 mol–1 cm–1 s–1
–1
(c) cm (d) dimensionless quantity
139. According to Debye-Huckel theory of strong electrolytes, an ion while moving in particular direction under the
influence electric field experiences a drag due to the presence of ionic atmosphere of excess oppositely charged
ions around moving ion. This effect is known as
(a) asymmetric effect (b) electrophoretic effect.
(c) Brownian effect (d) concentration effect.
140. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(a) 14
6 C is a redioactive isotope of carbon

(b) 60
27 Co is an unstable radio isotope of cobalt

(c) Radioactive disintegration follows second-order kinetics

(d) Superconducting materials are diamagnetic.
14

141. The violet colour of Na 1  Cl crystal is due to

(a) Frenkel defects (b) Schottky defect
(c) Interstitials (d) F centres
142. The difference between the potential of the electrode when gas evolution is actually observed and the theoreti-
cal reversible potential value for the same reaction is called
(a) concentration polarization (b) Overvoltage
(c) Dorn effect (d) Sedimentation potential
143. Sulfur can exist in
(a) One phase (b) Two phase (c) Three phases (d) Four phases
144. A first-order chemical reaction is 10% complete in 10 minutes. Its half-life is (given log 3 = 0.48)
(a) 50.50 minutes (b) 7.5 minutes (c) 95.6 minutes (d) 75.2 minutes

145. The half-life of a second-order chemical reaction 2A  products whose initial concentration was 0.01 mol
L–1, was found to be 300 minutes. Its rate constant is
(a) 0.36 mol L–1 min–1 (b) 3.6 mol L–1 min–1
(c) 0.63 mol L–1 min–1 (d) 0.036 mol L–1 min–1

146. 
For a reversible chemical reaction A 
k1
 X in which both the forward and reverse reactions are first order
k 1

and the intial concentration of A is a0 and the equilibrium concentratin of X is xe, the value of k–1 in terms of k1
is given by
(a) k1  a 0  x e  (b) k1 a / x e (c) k1  a 0  x e  / x e (d) k1x e /  a 0  x e 

k1 k2
147. A consecutive chemical reaction, A   B   C is first order at both the stages with rate constants as k1
and k2. The time required to attain the maximum concentration of B is given by
0.693  ln k1  ln k 2   ln k1  ln k 2   k1  k 2 
(a)  k  k  (b) (c) (d) k  k
1 2  k1  k 2   k1  k 2   1 2
148. The energy of activation for the decompostion of NO2 into NO and O2 is negative which may be due to one of
the following
(a) Increase in entropy on decomposition of NO2
(b) Formation of stable intermediates
(c) Formation of free radicals
(d) Decrease in enthalpy on formation of NO and O2.
149. True activation energy of a unimolecular surface reaction is obtained by measuring the temperature depen-
dence of rate constants at one of the following.
(a) Low presures (b) Low temperatures (c) Constant volume (d) High pressures
150. The rate constants, k1, k–1 and k2 for the enzyme catalysed reaction

E  S 1
k k2
 ES  E P
k 1
–1
are 0.1, 0.01 and 0.05 s respectively. The Michaelis constant for the reaction is
(a) 0.6 (b) 1.6 (c) 0.066 (d) 2.25
1

BHU M.Sc. CHEMISTRY ENTRANCE - 2014

Time : 2½ Hours Full Marks : 450

1. Oxine compound can better be estimated by

(1) gravimetric method (2) conductometric method
(3) potentiometric method (4) bromate- bromide reaction method
2. The indicator Eriochrome black-T can only be used in the complexo-metric titrations of metal ion at pH
(1) 7.0 (2) 5.0 (3) 10.0 (4) 12.0
3. The disodium salt of EDTA is always used metal analysis because
(1) it severely imparts alkanity to the test solution
(2) it moderately imparts acidity to the test solution
(3) it severely imparts acidity to the test solution
(4) it moderately imparts alkanity to the test solution
4. The stability constant for the metal-EDTA complex should be
(1) smaller than that for metal-Eriochrome-T complex
(2) equal to the stability constant of metal-Eriochrome-T complex
(3) greater than that for metal-Eriochrome-T complex
(4) the half of the stability constant of metal-Eriochrome-T complex
5. The quadrivalent cerium is used for the titration of reductants only in
(1) Strong basic medium (2) Weak basic medium
(3) Strong acidic medium (4) Weak acidic medium
6. Which one is widely used as a primary standard in redox titrimetry?
(1) Iodine (2) Arsenic (III) oxide
(3) Sulfanilamide (4) 8-hydroxy quinoline
7. In isotope dilution method for the determination of iron, W0 g of iron as 59FeCl3, that has a specific activity
Ao, was mixed so that 59Fe is equally distributed throughout the sample. A portion of the total iron is then
isolated in a pure weighable form that has the specific activity A1. If the original sample contained W1 g
of iron, then the fraction of initial activity found in this portion can be expressed as
A   A 
(1) W1  W0  0  1 (2) W1  W0  1  0 
 A1   A1 
A   A 
(3) W0  W1  0  1 (4) W0  W1  1  0 
 A1   A1 

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8. The equivalence point potential for the titration of Ce(IV) with standard Fe(II) is
(1) 0.76 V (2) 1.06 V
(3) 2.12 V (4) 1.44 V
[given : E0 Ce4+ / Ce3+ = 1.44V, E0 Fe3+ / Fe2+ = 0.68]
9. The Mohr’s salt is
(1) Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2  6H2 O (2) FeSO4(NH4)2 SO4  3H2 O
(3) 2FeSO4(NH4)2 SO4  6H2 O (4) FeSO4  2(NH4)2SO4  6H2 O
10. The bromate-bromide reaction is
BrO3  5Br –  6H   3Br2  3H2 O
The librated Br2 is titrated with standard sodium thiosulfate solution. The one mol potassium bromate can
thus be equated to
(1) 1 mol S2O32– (2) 3 mol S2O32–
(3) 6 mol S2O32– (4) 9 mol S2O32–
11. A 50.0 mL aliquot of 0.05m ammonia is titrated with 0.10 m acetic acid. What would be the nature of the
solution at the equivalence point?
(1) slightly acidic (2) slightly basic
(3) turbid (4) neutral
–9 –2
12. The pH values of 10 M HCl, 1.0 M HCl, and 10 M NaOH could respectively be obtained as
(1) 9.0, 1.0, 2.0 (2) 6.9, 0.0, 12.0
(3) 7.0, 0.1, 2.1 (4) 9.1, 6.9, 12.1
+
13. The H ion has abnormally high mobility in comparison to other monovalent ions since
(1) H+ ion is smallest in size (2) H+ ion is largest in size
(3) H+ ion follows hopping mechanism in solution (4) H+ ion concentration mechanism high
14. The methyl orange indicator in strong acid vs strong base
(1) cannot be used (2) can be used
(3) can be used with insignificant (4) can be used with large titration error
15. The conductometry titration curve given below
Conductance

Volume of alkali
represents a titration involving
(1) Strong acid VS strong base (2) Weak acid VS strong base
(3) Strong acid VS weak base (4) Weak acid VS weak base
16. A common expression for the distribution coefficient (K) in ion-exchange resin is
(1) K = amount of ion/mL of solution (2) K = amount of ion/1000mL of solution

amount of ion/g of dry resin amount of ion/g of dry resin

(3) K (4) K =
amount of ion/1000g of dry resin amount of ion/mLg of solution

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17. Which ones are strong cation and strong anion exchange resins?
(A) Sulfonated polystyrene (B) Condensed acrylic acid
(C) Polystyrene with – CH2N Me3Cl (D) Polystyrene with sec- amine
Answer Codes:
(1) A and C (2) B and D
(3) A and D (4) C and D
18. The height equivalent to a theoretical plate (HETP) can be expressed in terms of the column length (L),
retention (tR), and the peak-width (W) as
2 2
L W  16  tR 
(1) HETP =   (2) HETP =  
16   t R  L W 

2 2
 L  tR  t 
(3) HETP = 16   (4) HETP = 16  R 
 W  W 
19. The best procedure to improve resolution between two chromatographic peak is
(1) increasing column-length, decreasing band-width
(2) decreasing column-length, increasing band-width
(3) increasing column-length, increasing band-width
(4) decreasing column-length, decreasing band-width
20. The Van Deemter equation in terms of coefficient of multiple path effect (A), coefficient of longitudinal
diffusion (B), coefficient of mass transfer (C), and linear velocity of mobile phase (u) can be represented
as
(1) H = A + B/u + Cu (2) H = B + A/u + Cu
(3) H = A + B/u + C/u (4) H = A/u + B/u + Cu2
21. The isocratic elution in chromatography can be defined as
(1) elution under conditions of constant temperature and pressure
(2) elution under conditions of variable temperature and pressure
(3) elution under conditions of constant mobile-phase composition
(4) elution under conditions of varying mobile-phase compositions
22. Which one could not be an ideal detector in gas chromatography?
(1) Photo-multiplier tube (2) Flame-ionization detector
(3) Thermal-conductivity detector (4) Electron-capture detector
23. In reversed-phase chromatography, which statement is correct?
(1) The least polar component is eluted first and increasing the polarity of the mobile-phase decreases the
elution time
(2) The most polar component elutes first and increasing the mobile-phase polarity increases the elution
time
(3) A non-polar component is eluted first without having any effect of the polarity of the mobile-phase
(4) There is no effect of polarity either of the component or the mobile-phase
24. For non-polar analytes having molecular mass greater than 10,000, one of the best HPLC technique would
be
(1) ion-exchange chromatography (2) liquid-liquid partition chromatography
(3) liquid-bonded phase partition chromatography (4) gel permeation chromatography

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25. Two sets of the percentage iron in a sample resulted in the following data (true value = 36.32)
X + Sx = 36.27  0.16 Nx = 5
Y + Sy = 36.34  0.22 Ny = 8
Which set of data is more accurate?
(1) X - set (2) Y - set (3) both sets (4) No - sets
26. If ‘X’ is an acid (HA), the pictorial representation of solvent extraction of ‘X’ can be depicted as
HA
aqueous(a)
water(w) H A Ka + –
H +A

The relationship between distribution ratio (D) and distribution coefficient (KD) can be obtained as
KD D
(1) D  (2) K D 
1  K a / [H  ]w 
1  [H ]w / K a

1  K a / [H  ]w 1  K a / [H  ]w
(3) D  (4) K D 
KD D
27. Employing Nernst’s distribution law, V mL of solution containing W g of solute is repeatedly extracted with
v mL of another solvent which is immiscible with first one. In nth operation mass of solute (Wn) that remain
extracted will be
n n
 KDV   K V+ v 
(1) Wn  W   (2) Wn  W  D 
 KDV  v   KDV 

n n
 KDv   K V+V 
(3) Wn  W   (4) Wn  W  D 
 KDV + v   KD v + V 
28. A solution containing n independently absorbing species, the total absorbance is represented in terms of
molar absorptivity (  ), analyte concentration (c) and path length (b) as
(1) A  [1 c1  2 c2  .......... n cn ]b (2) A  [1 c12  2 c2 2  .......... n cn 2 ]b

(3) A  [1 c1n  2 c2 n  .......... n cn n ]b (4) A  [1 c1  2 c2  .......... n cn ]b / n

29. Beer’s law governs the behaviour of
(1) dilute solutions (  0.1 M) only (2) concentrated solutions (  0.1 M) only
(3) dilute solutions (  0.01 M) only (4) concentrated solutions (  1.0 M) only
30. The units of absorbance (A) and molar absorptivity are, respectively
(1) no unit and dm3 mol–1 cm–1 (2) dm3 mol–1 cm–1 and no unit
(3) mol.cm–1 and dm3 mol–1 cm–1 (4) both have no unit
31. The Beer’s law is not obeyed if
(1) monochromatic light is not used (2) monochromatic light is used
(3) polychromatic light is not used (4) polychromatic light is used

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32. Iron (III) can quantitatively be extracted from hydrochloric acid medium into diethyl ether. The extracted
species is
(1) Fe(III)[(C2H5)2O]–2 (2) FeCl3  H2O  (C2H5)2 O
+ –
(3) FeCl4 : H [(C2H5)2O] 2 (4) (C2H5)2O : H+, FeCl4[(C2H5)O]–2
33. Marble wall may be affected with atmospheric sulfuric acid as
(1) receptor (2) precipitator
(3) sink (4) neutralizer
34. Which is called as ‘killer’ species in the environment?
(1) NO (2) NO 2 (3) CO (4) CO 2
35. The dissolved oxygen in water can be estimated by
(1) the Volhard method (2) the Fajans method
(3) the Mohr method (4) the Winkler’s method
36. The altitude of troposphere is
(1) 0-11 km (2) 11-50 km
(3) 50-85 km (4) 85-500 km
37. Which one is not a primary air pollutant?
(1) CO 2 (2) CO
(3) NO 2 (4) SO2
38. The domestic waste water involves the following sequence of treatments
(1) Screening, Sedimentation, aerobic digestion, incineration
(2) Sedimentation, aerobic digestion, screening, incineration
(3) Aerobic digestion, screening, sedimentation, incineration
(4) Incineration, aerobic digestion, screening, sedimentation
39. For which of the following ions is the colour in aqueous solution not caused by any d-d transition?
(1) MnO4 – (2) VO2+
(3) MnO42– (4) Mn3+
40. Which salt upon heating produces oxygen?
(1) potassium oxide (2) potassium chlorate
(3) potassium chloride (4) potassium carbonate
41. Which of the following isotopes is useful for archaeological dating purposes?
(1) 11 C (2) 12 C (3) 13 C (4) 14 C
42. From each pair given below identify the ion which is larger is size
[Co2+, Co3+] [Fe2+, Zn2+] [Na+, F–] [O2–, S2–]
(1) Co2+, Zn2+, F–, S2– (2) Co3+, Fe2+, Na+, S2–
(3) Co2+, Fe2+, F–, S2– (4) Co3+, Zn2+, Na+, O2–
43. Which one, among the given atoms, has the highest number of unpaired electrons in its ground state?
(1) B (2) C (3) N (4) O
44. Which halide of silver is soluble in water?
(1) AgF (2) AgCl (3) AgBr (4) AgI
45. How many moles of water will react with one mole of P4O10?
(1) 1 mole (2) 2 moles (3) 4 moles (4) 6 moles

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46. A compound, A2B3 is prepared by reacting 1 mole of A with 2 moles of B2. If 0.25 mole of A2B3 is
obtained in the preparation, what is the percentage yield?
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
47. 10 ml of 0.10 N sodium hydroxide is added to 20 ml 0.10 N sulphuric acid and the resultant solution is
titrated against 0.10 N sodium hydroxide. What will be the titre value at the end point?
(1) 5 ml (2) 10 ml (3) 20 ml (4) 30 ml
48. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate when a few drops of sodium hydroxide are
added. The precipitate dissolves when excess of sodium hydroxide is added. The substance may be
(1) aluminium sulphate (2) silver nitrate
(3) cadmium chloride (4) mercuric chloride
49. Which reagent may be used to test for sulphate ions in solution?
(1) hydrochloric acid (2) nitric acid
(3) magnesium chloride (4) barium chloride
50. An element crystallizes in a FCC lattice. How many atoms are there per unit cell?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
51. What is the oxidation state of iron in Na2[Fe(CO)4]?
(1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) 2
52. What is the molality of a 0.001 M solution of CaCl2 in water (M. W. of CaCl2 = 111g)?
(1) 1 m (2) 0.001 m (3) 0.111 m (4) 111 m
53. What is the charge (n) on the silicate ion Si 2 O7n ?
(1) –2 (2) –4 (3) –6 (4) –7
54. Silver is extracted from the crude metal by leaching with a solution of NaCN in the presence of air. The
role of NaCN is to
(1) oxidize Ag to Ag+ (2) form the complex [Ag(CN)4]3–
(3) form the complex [Ag(CN)4]2– (4) form the complex [Ag(CN)2]–
55. CoCl42– and Co(H2O)62+ have different colours. This is because
(1) they have Co in different oxidation states
(2) CoCl42– is tetrahedral while Co(H2O)62+ is octahedral
(3) they have different number of unpaired electrons
(4) CoCl42– is square planar while Co(H2O)62+ is octahedral
56. Dimethylglyoxime reagent is used to test for
(1) Ca2+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Fe3+ (4) Al3+
57. Which molecule has zero bond order?
(1) H2+ (2) H2 (3) HeH (4) He2
58. What is the bond order in NO molecule?
(1) 2.5 (2) 2 (3) 1.5 (4) 1
59. Which of the following is an example of a non-planar molecule (or ion)?
(1) carbonate (2) perchlorate
(3) xenon tetrafluoride (4) boron trifluoride
60. CuI2 is unstable because, it readily decomposes to:
(1) Cu and I– (2) Cu and I2
(3) CuI and I2 (4) CuI and I

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61. Which one among the chlorides, ZnCl2, HgCl2, BaCl2, AlCl3, is dissociated to the least extent in aqueous
solutions?
(1) ZnCl2 (2) HgCl2 (3) CaCl2 (4) AlCl3
62. Which one among the given ions, has the highest polarizing power?
(1) Na+ (2) Ca2+ (3) Mn3+ (4) Al3+
63. Which compound can act as a Lewis acid as well as a Lewis base?
(1) H2 O (2) SnCl2 (3) NH3 (4) BF3
64. Perovskite is the mineral CaTiO3. The perovskite crystal structure is adopted by several oxides as well as
some fluorides. Which one, among the given formulae, most likely represents a known fluoride having the
perovskite structure?
(1) CaTiF3 (2) KMnF3 (3) NaMnF4 (4) CaFeF3
65. Upon heating to about 500ºC CsCl crystal changes its structure to rock salt structure. What happens to
the coordination number of Cs?
(1) changes from 6 to 12 (2) changes from 8 to 12
(3) changes from 8 to 6 (4) does not change
66. The bond angles in ammonia molecule are .....................
(1) 90 degrees (2) exactly tetrahedral
(3) larger than tetrahedral (4) less than tetrahedral
67. Which one of the following set contains one element each from s-block, p-block and d-block?
(1) Na, K, Fe (2) Rb, Ru, Sb
(3) B, Cl, Sr (4) Sc, Pt, Se
68. Which ligand can lead to linkage isomers?
(1) azide (2) cyanate (3) oxalate (4) nitrate
2+
69. If you were to prepare [Mn(en)2(OH)2]2 ions (en = 1, 2-diaminoethane), how many isomers, including
geometrical and optical, can you expect to get?
(1) only one (2) two
(3) three (4) four
70. Which of the following molecules / ions exhibit isomerism? (1) Pt(NH3)2Cl2; (2) Ni(NH3)2Cl2 ;
(3) Cu(H2O)3Cl3; (4) [Cr(oxalate)3]3–; (5) [Fe(H2O)5Cl]2+
(1) compounds (1), (3) and (5) (2) compounds (1), (2) and (3)
(3) compounds (2), (3) and (4) (4) compounds (1), (3) and (4)
71. What is the change in oxidation state of cobalt in the following reaction?
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ + H2O  [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]2+ + Cl–
(1) increases from +2 to +3 (2) decreases from +3 to +2
(3) increases from +1 to +2 (4) does not change
72. Identify the acids in the following two reactions:
NOF + ClF3 = NO + ClF4–
XeO3 + OH– = HXeO4–
(1) ClF3 and XeO3 (2) ClF3 and OH–
(3) NOF and OH– (4) NOF and XeO3
73. Which is the most common oxidation state observed for the lanthanide elements in their compounds?
(1) –1 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4

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74. The magnetic moment of [Co(H2O)]3+ is zero and that of Mn(CN)6]3– is 2.9 B.M. From this it may be
concluded that
(1) both ions are high spin
(2) both ions are low spin
(3) Co(H2O)63+ is low spin, Mn(CN)63– is high spin
(4) Co(H2O)63+ is diamagnetic, Mn(CN)63– is high spin
75. Which set contains two diamagnetic compounds?
(1) [K2CoCl4, Cu(SCN), Na2PdCl4] (2) [CuCl2, CuI, Cr(NH3)4Cl2]
(3) [Na2NiCl4, GdCl3, Ag2S] (4) [NiO, Fe3O4, Ru(NH3)Cl3]
76. Which one of the following reagents is a nucleophile?

(1) BF3 (2) SO3 (3) CCl2 (4) NH3

77. Which reactive intermediate is belived to be part of the reaction shown?
HBr, ROOR
RCH = CH2   RCH2CH2Br
(1) Free radical (2) Carbocation (3) Bromonium ion (4) Oxacyclopropane
78. Rank the following alcohols in order of increasing acidity

OH OH OH OH
Cl

Cl
Cl
I II III IV

Answer Codes:
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) I < II < IV < III
(3) I < III < IV < II (4) IV < I < III < II
79. The mechanism of chlorination of methane does not actually involve one of the following steps
hv
(1) Cl2   2Cl (2) Cl + CH4  HCl + CH3
(3) Cl + CH4  CH3Cl + H (4) CH3 + Cl2  CH3Cl + Cl
80. In this transformation
H2O
A CH3CH2C(CH 3) 2
acetone
OH

What is the best structure for A?

CH 3

(1) BrCH2CH2CH(CH3)2 (2) CH 3CH2CBr

CH 3

(3) CH 3CH2 CHCH3 (4) CH3CHCH(CH3)2

CH2 Br Br

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81. When methyl bromide is hydrolyzed using hydroxide ions, methanol and bromide ions are produced. What
will be the rate of reaction if the concentration of methyl bromide is tripled and that of hydroxide ions is
doubled?
(1) No change is reaction rate (2) Reaction rate is tripled
(3) Reaction rate is doubled (4) Reaction rate is increased six-fold
82. The major product in the reaction given below is
Ag2 O
CH3CH2 CH CH3 (CH3 )3 N + ?


NH(CH3)I

(1) trans-2-butene (2) cis-2-butene

(3) 1-butene (4) 2-Iodobutane
83. The number of isomeric olefins that result from the treatment of 2-bromopentane with NaOEt is
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
84. Pyrrole is a much weaker base than pyrrolidine (azacyclopentane) for which of the following reasons
(1) Pyrrole is aromatic
(2) Pyrrole is a Lewis acid
(3) The nitrogen in pyrrole is more electropositive than that in pyrrolidine
(4) Pyrrolidine can give up the proton on the nitrogen atom more readily than can pyrrole
85. D-Glucose on treatment with excess of phenyl-hydrazine followed by hydrolysis of the product with aqueous
HCl gives
(1) D-Glucosazone (2) D-Glucosamine
(3) D-Glutaric acid (4) D-Glucosone
86. Quinoline is obtained by heating a mixture of aniline, nitrobenzene, glycerol, conc. Sulphuric acid and ferrous
sulphate. One of the steps in the reaction involves oxidation. What is the oxidizing agent here?
(1) H2SO4 (2) C6 H5 NO2
(3) FeSO4 (4) Glycerol
87. Epimers are a pair of diastereomeric aldoses that differ only in
(1) configuration at C-1 (2) configuration at C-2
(3) configuration at C-3 (4) None of the above
88. Bakelite is formed by the condensation of
(1) Phenol and formaldehyde (2) Phenol and acetaldehyde
(3) Urea and formaldehyde (4) Formaldehyde and acetaldehyde
89. Like other oxygen-containing compounds, n-butyl tert-butyl ether dissolves in cold conc. H2SO4. On
standing, an acid-insoluble layer, made up of high-boiling hydrocarbon material slowly separates from the
solution. What this material is likely to be?

(1) ( CH2 CH 2 ) n (2) ( CH CH ) n

CH 2CH3 CH3 CH3

CH3
(3) ( CH2 C )n (4) All of the above
CH3

(1) Anthracene (2) Phenanthrene (3) (4)

O
97. In the reaction
CH 2CH3
Br 2
?
h
The major product obtained is
CH2CH2 Br CH2CH3
(1) (2)
Br

CH2CH3 CHBrCH3
(3) (4)
Br

CO R
–+ H 3O 
(4) NK + BrCH COOR  
 
CO

HNO3
99. In the reaction : Glucose 
[O]
 Q, the product Q is
(1) Glucuronic acid (2) Glucaric acid
(3) Gluconic acid (4) Glyceric acid
100. For electrophilic substitution in benzene derivatives, which one of the following types of substituents is
unknown?
(1) Activating and m-directing (2) Deactivating and m-directing
(3) Activating and o, p-directing (4) Deactivating and o, p-directing
101. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophiles

Me Me
Me Me

A B C

Answer codes:
(1) A > B > C (2) B > A > C
(3) B > C > A (4) C > B > A
102. Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing ease of nucleophilic substitution reactions
(I) 4-Nitrochlorobenzene (II) 2, 4-Dinitrochlorobenzene
(III) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrochlorobenzene (IV)Benzyl chloride
Answer codes:
(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) III > IV > II > I
103. Which of the following statements does not fit in the criteria of E2 reactions?
(1) follow second order kinetics (2) are accompanied by rearrangement
(3) show a large deuterium isotope effect (4) do not undergo hydrogen deuterium exchange
104. Pyridine undergoes electrophilic substitution with fuming H2SO4 at elevated temperature to give
(1) Pyridine-2-sulphonic acid (2) Pyridine-4-sulphonic acid
(3) Pyridine-3-sulphonic acid (4) All of the above

CH3
112. 
OH –  ?
+
N
H 3C CH3

The major product in the above reaction will be

CH 3
(1) (2)
N
H3C CH3

CH 3
(3) (4)
N N
H 3C CH 3 H 3C CH 3

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113. Disproportionation of benzaldehyde in the presence of concentrated aqueous alkali gives benzoate anion
and benzyl alcohol. The reaction involves a
(1) proton transfer from water (2) hydride transfer from water
(3) proton transfer from aldehyde (4) hydride transfer from aldehyde
114. The probability of finding a molecule with a speed between C and (C+1) m.s–1 at high values
of C
(1) falls off as C–1 (2) falls off as –Log C
2
(3) falls off as exp(–C ) (4) rises as C2
115. Liquid He boils at about –269ºC and liquid H2 boils at about –253ºC. The efficiency of a reversible engine
operating between heat reservoirs at these temperatures
(1) 20% (2) 80% (3) 10% (4) 90%
116. For Ne, HF, H2O maximum entropy is prepossessed by
(1) Ne (2) HF (3) H2 O (4) H2O and Ne
117. The condition of equilibrium for a transformation at constant temperature is
(1) S = 0 (2) A  W  0 (3) A = 0 (4) G + Wnet = 0

118. The chemical potential of a component, i in a given mixture is

 G   G   G   G 
(1)   (2)   (3)   (4)  
 ni T ,V ,n j  ni T , P ,n j  ni T , P , ni  ni 
119. For an ideal solution, the osmotic pressure is proportional to
(1) –lnx1 (solvent mole fraction) (2) lnx2 (solute mole fraction)
(3) x 2 (4) c(solute concentration)
120. The Debye-Huckel limiting law relates
(1)  with I (2)  with I

(3) ln  with I (4) ln  with I

121. The potential of the Ag+ |Ag electrode (Eº = 0.799V) in a saturated solution of AgI(Ksp = 10–16)
(1) 1.279 V (2) 0.319 V
(3) –1.279 V (4) –0.319 V
122. The ratio of Gº to H º for reactions in lead acid cell is 1.36.
The extra 36% is the energy that
(1) flows as PV into the system (2) flows in as TSº from the surrounding
(3) flows as TSº from the system (4) flows out as Qrev into the surrounding
123. N2 is adsorbed on iron at –190ºC, but not at room temperature. How ever at ~500ºC, again it adsorbs.
The observation on two adsorptions may be ascrubed to
(1) absorption and adsorption (2) chemisorptions and physisorption
(3) physisorption and chemisorption (4) both same types of adsorption
124. The energy of repulsion for molecules varies with distance as r–n. The commonest value of n is
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 1
125. The coefficient of diffusion does not proportional to
(1) mean free path (2) mean velocity (3) (MW)–1 (4) (MW)–1/2

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126. The molar conductance of an 1 : 1 electrolyte at concentration below as 10–2 and lower
(1) increases with concentration as C (2) decreases with concentration as C
(3) remain constant (4) falls off as C
–10
127. Consider an electron in a box of the size of an atom, 10 m. By what factor its ground state energy would
change, if the particle gets confined in a box of the size of a nucleus, 10–14 m?
(1) 104 (2) 10–4 (3) 108 (4) 10–8
 d2  d
128. The function f ( x)  3x 2  1 is an eigen function of the operation, (1  x 2 )  2   2 x   .
 dx   dx 
The eigen value is
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) –6 (4) –2

*
129. For a system described by Ĥ n  E n n , the value of the  10 12  T is


(1)  (2) any finite number (3) 1 (4) zero

130. A substance decomposes with a half life of 150000s when its initial concentration 0.01 mol. L–1 but with
a half life of 29000s when the initial concentration is 0.05 mol. L–1. The order of the reaction is
(1) zero (2) 3/2 (3) 2 (4) 3
131. From the overpotential (  ) vs log | i | (current density), one can evaluate at high enough  for a given
electrodic process
(1)  (2) io only (3)  and io both (4) Z only
8ma 2 E
132. For the particle in a cubic box, the degree of degeneracy of the energy levels with the value of
42
as 14 is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 18
133. The IR absorption spectrum of HCl has its strongest band at 86.5 THz. The frequency of the strongest IR
band of DCl will be
(1) 86.5 THz (2) 62.0 THz (3) 43.3 THz (4) 121.1 THz
134. For which hydrogen atom state,  is zero at the nucleus ?
(1) 2s (2) 2p (3) 3p (4) 3d
135. The third lowest microwave absorption frequency for 13C 16O is 330567 MHz. The second lowest
absorption frequency for 12C 16O should be at
(1) 220378 MHz (2) 230542 MHz (3) 345813 MHz (4) 205032 MHz
136. NMR experiment can not be done with
(1) 2H1 (2) 1no (3) 3He2 (4) 4H2
137. The land distance in D2 can be determined using
(1) rovibronic spectroscopy (2) rovibrational spectroscopy
(3) pure rotational spectroscopy (4) nmr spectroscopy
138. The Duhem-Margules equation for a liquid solution is applicable when
(1) the solution is strictly ideal (2) the vapour is ideal only
(3) the solution and the vapour are both ideal only (4) the solution and the vapour need not be ideal
139. Among the following electrolytes, which one at 5×10–3M concentration would have the lowest activity
coefficient?
(1) NaBr (2) CaCl2 (3) KI (4) HCl
140. The ratio of translational partition function of D2 to that of H2 is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 2.8 : 1 (3) 1.4 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
141. Which one among the following diatomic molecules has the highest characteristic rotational temperature?
(1) H2 (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI

n1
142. The equation, d  2   d 1 is known as
n2
(1) Duhem-Margules equation (2) Gibbs-Duhem equation
(3) Gibbs equation (4) Maxwell’s equation
143. Which one is not the criterion for spontaneous change?
(1) dG P,T  O (2) dA v2 ,T  O
(3) dS > O (4)  dS> O
144. The equation that correlates adsorption with variation of surface tension with concentration
(1) Langmuir’s adsorption isotherm (2) Freundlich adsorption isotherm
(3) Gibbs adsorption isotherm (4) Hinshelwood adsorption isotherm
145. Which of the following is not the characteristic of an ideal solution?
(1) H i  H i0 (2) Vi  Vi0
(3) G i  G i0  RT ln N i (4) Si  Si0  R ln N i
146. How many years would be required for the activity of Zn-65 (half life, 245 days) to reduce to 5% of its
initial value?
(1) 13.4 years (2) 2.7 years
(3) 3.6 years (4) 2.9 years
147. If the activation energy for H2 + I2  2HI is 167 kJ and enthalpy of the reaction is –8 kJ, what is the
activation energy for the decomposition of HI?
(1) 159 kJ (2) 175 kJ
(3) 167 kJ (4) 179 kJ
148. Consider the following mechanism for the thermal decomposition of acetaldehyde
k1
CH3CHO   CH3 + CHO Ea = 320 kJ mol–1
k2
CH3CH3CHO   CH4 + CH2CHO Ea = 40 kJ mol–1
k3
CH2CHO   CO + CH3 Ea = 75 kJ mol–1
k4
CH3 + CH3   C2H6 Ea = 0
1/ 2
k 
The overall rate constant for the formation of CH4 is given by k  k2  1 
 k2 
The overall activation energy
(1) 435 kJ.mol–1 (2) 320 kJ.mol–1
(3) 0 (4) 200 kJ.mol–1
149. In course of a chemical reaction, its free energy changes as
(1) dG = –SdT + Vdp (2) dG = –SdT + Vdp +   dn
i
i i

(3) dG = –SdT + Vdp +  n d

i
i i (4) dG = –SdT – pdV +  i
i dni
i
150. Langmuir adsorption isotherm does not apply when
(1) adsorption is chemisorption
(2) adsorption layer is monolayer
(3) heat of adsorption is independent of surface coverage
(4) heat of adsorption decreases with surface coverage

BHU M.Sc. CHEMISTRY ENTRANCE - 2015

Time : 2½ Hours Full Marks : 450

1. The plots of gaseous densities vs temperature and of liquid densities vs temperature for a substance
converge at a temperature. The temperature is called
(1) boiling point (2) Boyle temperature
(3) critical temperature (4) inversion temperature
–1
2. The RMS speed of He(g) at 0ºC is 1300 m-s . The most probable speed of the gas will be
(1) 1300 m-s–1 (2) 866.6 m-s–1
(3) 1592.2 m-s–1 (4) 1061.4 m-s–1
3. The pseudo first order rate constants for the cobalt-catalysed auto-oxidation of toluene in acetic acid at
87ºC at different concentrations of Co(III) are
[Co(III)]/M 0.053 0.084 0.118 0.172
k/10–5s–1 1.47 2.93 5.68 11.58
for [toluene]0 = 0.5M.
The order with respect to [Co(III)] is
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 1 (4) 0.5

4. 
For the reaction 2 AB2 1
 k
 A2 B4
k 1

the reaction rate for A2 B4 formation is

(1) 2k1[ AB2 ]  k1[ A2 B4 ] (2) (2k1  k1 )[ AB2 ]

2k1
(3) [ AB2 ] (4) 2k1[ AB2 ]2  k1[ A2 B4 ]
k 1
5. The enzymolysis of a substrate has a Michaelis constant of 0.035 mol-L–1 at 25ºC. The maximum rate of
the reaction is 1.50 × 10–3 mol-L–1-s–1. What should be the concentration of the substrate for which the
reaction rate would be reduced to 0.75 × 10–3 mol-L–1-s–1?
(1) 0.070 mol-L–1 (2) 0.494 mol-L–1
(3) 0.035 mol-L–1 (4) 0.017 mol-L–1

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6. The entropy of activation for a reaction is related to the frequency factor (A) of Arrhenius equation as
(1) A (2) ln A (3) exp (A) (4) exp (–A)
7. The mechanism of the reaction
1
H2O2(aq)  H2O(l) + O (g)
2 2
catalysed by Br– ions is
H2O2(aq) + Br–(aq)  H2O(l) + BrO– (aq) (slow)
BrO– (aq) + H2O2 (aq)  H2O(l) + O2(g) + Br– (aq) (fast)
The overall order of the reaction is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
8. Consider the following mechanism
A2  2 A (fast)
A  B  P (slow)
The overall order of the reaction is
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) 1.5 (4) 2
3
9. The plot of the data on p(/Torr)/V(/cm ) against p(/Torr) for adsorption of CO on charcoal at 273K has
been found linear. What isotherm does the adsorption follow?
(1) Langmuir isotherm (2) Freundlich isotherm
(3) BET isotherm (4) Temkin isotherm
10. A crystal system characterised by a  b  c and     90º ,   90º is
(1) triclinic (2) monoclinic (3) rhombic (4) trigonal
11. The Miller indices of the planes with intercepts 4a, 6b and  whereas b and c are the unit cell edge
lengths are
(1) (3, 2, 0) (2) (2, 3, 0) (3) (0, 2, 3) (4) (4, 6,  )
12. A powder diffraction photograph from tungsten shows lines which index as (110), (200), (211), (220),
(310), (222), (321), (400), ...... The symmetry of the unit cell is
(1) simple cubic (2) body-centred cubic
(3) face-centred cubic (4) edge-centred cubic
13. At the critical solution temperature of phenol-water system, the degree of freedom is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
14. The SI unit of radiation energy is grey whereas the c.g.s. unit is rad. 1 grey is equal to
(1) 1 rad (2) 10 rad (3) 100 rad (4) 1000 rad
–4
15. The molar conductance of potassium chloride (10 M) increases substantially with increase in frequency
of the applied potential. This is due to minimisation of
(1) frictional forces (2) electrophoretic effect
(3) relation effect (4) electrophoretic and asymmetry effects
16. Which of the following cases for a perfect gas has q = 0?
(1) Isothermal isobaric expansion (2) Reversible isothermal expansion
(3) Isobaric adiabatic expansion (4) Isothermal isobaric irreversible compression

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17. For the process H2O(s)  H2O(l) in an ice-water bath at 0ºC, which of the following statements is true?
(1) T S  H (2) H  T S 1
(3) H  T S 1 (4) G  0
18. One of the Gibbs equations
dG   SdT  VdP   i dn j
does not apply when the system
(1) is in thermal equilibrium (2) is in mechanical equilibrium
(3) involves P-V work only (4) consists of any number of phases
19. A real solution is one which
(1) obeys Raoult’s law (2) obeys Henry’s law
(3) does not obey Henry’s law (4) does not obey Raoult’s law
20. The molar conductivity of strong electrolyte decreases with concentration 1c when c is sufficient low as
(1) linearly with c (2) linearly with c1/2
(3) linearly with log c (4) exponentially with c
21. Under what condition the equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction become independent of temperature?
(1) G º  0 (2) H º  0
(3) H º  0 (4) H º  0
22. The oxidation potential of M | M 2 is +0.76V and the reduction potential of A | A is +0.25V. The e.m.f.
of the cell M | M 2  || A | A is
(1) 1.01 V (2) –0.51 V
(3) 0.51 V (4) –1.01 V
23. The translational partition function (q) for the H2 molecule in a 100 cm3 vessel at 298 K is 2.77×1026. The
q for the D2 molecule under the same condition would be
(1) 5.54 × 1026 (2) 3.29 × 1026
(3) 21.25 × 1026 (4) 7.83 × 1026
24. The rotational partition function (qR) of an AB molecule at 27ºC is 19.6. What would be its qR at 327ºC?
(1) 19.6 (2) 27.7 (3) 39.2 (4) 55.3
25. Which of the following molecules does not show a pure rotational spectrum?
(1) HCl (2) trans-CH2Cl2 (3) cis-CH2Cl2 (4) CHCl3
1
26. H (g1 = 5.5857) resonates at 500 MHz in an NMR spectrometer operating at 11.7 tesla. What magnetic
field would be necessary to observe the resonance of 13C (g1 = 1.4046) at 500 MHz?
(1) 11.7 tesla (2) 2.9 tesla (3) 23.4 tesla (4) 46.8 tesla
27. The Gibbs-Duhem equation is

(1)   dn
i i 0 (2)  di i 0 (3)  n d
i
i i 0 (4)  n d
i
i i 0
i i

28. Which solvent would you prefer to determine the molar mass of a non-volatile non-ionic solute by freezing
point depression method?
(1) Water (Kf = 1.86/K (mol-kg–1)–1) (2) Phenol (Kf = 7.27/K (mol-kg–1)–1)
(3) Benzene (Kf = 5.12/K (mol-kg–1)–1) (4) Camphor (Kf = 40/K (mol-kg–1)–1)

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29. The IR spectrum of H2O shows 3 bands. How many bands do you predict for CO2?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
30. The minimum energy for which of the following systems is zero?
(1) H-atom (2) A vibrating diatomic molecule
(3) A rotating diatomic molecule (4) A molecule confined to a 3D-box
3 3
31. T1/2 of H is 12.3 years. If 48.0 mg of H is released from a nuclear power plant during an accident, what
mass of this nuclide would remain after 49.2 years?
(1) 6.0 mg (2) 3.0 mg (3) 12.0 mg (4) 24.0 mg
32. It is found that a particle of mass m in a one-dimensional box of length L can be excited from n = 1 to
n = 2 state by a light of frequency v. If the length of the box is doubled, the frequency needed to produce
the n = 1 to n = 2 transition becomes
(1) v/4 (2) v/2 (3) 2v (4) 4v
33. HI and DI are made to undergo the same transition from J  0  J  1 . The light frequency causing the
transition for HI equals v. Approximately which frequency would you expect to induce the same transition
in DI?

(1) 2v (2) 2v (3) v / 2 (4) v / 2

34. The radial distribution function for 1s state, 4r 2 12s , indicates that
(1) the most probable value of the distance from the nucleus is zero
(2) the average value of r is zero
(3) the average value of r is greater than the most probable value
(4) the average value of r is less than the most probable value
35. Which one of the following statements about H2+ is false?
(1) The non-degenerate LCAO-MOs (without spin) must be either symmetric or antisymmetric
(2) The lowest MO (without spin) of the molecule is antisymmetric for inversion
(3) The MOs transform into AOs of the helium ion as the two nuclei are fused together
(4) The ground state has a multiplicity of two
36. Which of the following functions are ‘well behaved’ quantum mechanically?
2
(1) exp( ax ) (2) exp(  ax)
(3) x 2 (4) x

d2
37. Which of the following is not an eigenfunction of 2 operator?
dx
2
(1) exp( ax ) (2) exp(ax )
(3) ax  b (4) cos x

h2 d 2
38. The operator  represents
2m dx 2
(1) linear momentum (2) angular momentum
(3) total energy (4) kinetic energy
39. The electrophilic aromatic substitution proceeds through an intermediate
(1) phenyl cation (2)  complex
(3) benzene anion (4) benzyne
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40. Optically active 2-octanol rapidly loses its optical activity when exposed to the following
(1) Dilute acid (2) Dilute base
(3) Light (4) Humidity
41. The relative rates of nitration of R – C6H5, where R = CH3, NO2, OH and Cl, is
(1) CH3 > OH > NO2 > Cl (2) CH3 > OH > Cl > NO2
(3) OH > CH3 > NO2 > Cl (4) OH > CH2 > Cl > NO2
42. Which of the following statements is not true for the E2 reactions?
(1) Bimolecular reaction (2) Reactivity order is RI > RBr > RCl
(3) Rearrangement occurs (4) Reactivity order of RX is 3º > 2º > 1º
43. List the following compounds in the correct order of decreasing acidity
CH2 = CH2 CH3CH3 CH3CH = O HC = CH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) D > C > A > B (2) C > D > A > B
(3) D > A > C > B (4) C > A > D > B
44. Which of the following carbocations is the most stable?
CH3 CH3 CH3
+ + +
+
(1) (2) (3) (4)

45. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is

(1) Et2O.BF3 (2) Et3Al.TiCl4
(3) Na-naphthalene (4) Pd/CaCO3/quinoline
46. Pyridine undergoes electrophilic substitution with fuming H2SO4 at elevated temperature to give
(1) pyridine-3-sulphonic acid (2) pyridine-2-sulphonic acid
(3) pyridine-4-sulphonic acid (4) All of the above
47. Which of the following elimination reactions will give 1-butene as the major product?

OH Cl
(1) H2SO 4 (2) KOH
? ?
EtOH

NaOEt NaNH 2
? ?
(3) EtOH (4)
+ NMe3 Br
48. Aldehydes and ketones can be converted into 1, 2-dicarbonyl compounds by reaction with
(1) periodic acid (2) lead tetracetate
(3) peracetic acid (4) selenium dioxide
49. Which of the following haloalkanes will undergo hydrolysis most readily?
(1) (CH3)3CBr (2) (CH3)3CCl
(3) (CH3)3CF (4) (CH3)3Cl

OCH 3

NaNH2
M
liquid NH 3
NH2

can be
(1) o-bromoanisole (2) m-bromoanisole
(3) either of o- or m-bromoanisole (4) None of the above
51. The product formed in the following electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction is

AlCl3
+ CH3CH2 Cl ?
N

(1) (2)
N N

(3) (4) None of the above

52. Which of the following compounds absorbs UV radiation?

(1) Ethanol (2) Butylamine
(3) Acetone (4) Chlorohexane
53. Benzaldehyde may be prepared by any of the following methods. Which one of these is called Stephen’s
method?
SnCl2 H 2O
(1) C6H5CN
HCl
AlCl3
(2) C6H6 + CO + HCl
(3) C6H5CHCl2 + H2O

(4) C6H5CH2Cl + (CH2)6N4 H 2O / EtOH H+


54. The reagent used in the transformation
O CH2 COCH3 HO CH2COCH3
?
O H O

is
(1) LiAlH4 (2) NaBH4
(3) Zn(Hg)/HCl (4) H2NNH2, OH 

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55. Which of the following secondary alcohols can be prepared from the reaction of methyl formate with excess
Grignard reagent?
(1) CH3CH2CHCH 3 (2) CH3CHCH3
OH OH

(3) CH3CHCH2CH2CH3 (4) CH 3CHC6H5

OH OH
56. Consider the following statements about conformational isomers:
(A) They are interconverted by rotation about single bond
(B) The energy barrier separating them is less than 15 kcal/mole
(C) They are best represented by means of Fischer projection formulae
Of these statements:
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) are correct (2) Only (B) and (C) are correct
(3) Only (A) and (C) are correct (4) Only (A) and (B) are correct
57. Which of the following is not the product of ozonolysis of citral?
(1) Glyoxal (2) Acetone
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Laevulaldehyde
58. Arrange the following three chlorides in decreasing order of SN1 reactivity
CH3CH2 CH2 Cl H 2C CHCHCH 3 CH3 CH2CHCH 3
Cl Cl
A B C
(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A
(3) B > A > C (4) C > B > A
59. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability

– – –
(C 6 H5 )3 C (CH 3 )3 C CH2
–
A B C D

Answer codes:
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > C > D > A
(3) A > B > D > C (4) B > A > C > D
60. The  - and  -forms of D-glucopyranose are called
(1) anomers (2) enantiomers
(3) epimers (4) diastereomers
61. The methyl D-glucoside is made by treating D-glucose with the following
(1) CH3OH, HCl (2) aqueous CH3OH
(3) (CH3)2SO4, NaOH (4) CH3OCH3, LiAlH4
62. Select among the following carbohydrates whose complete hydrolysis give D(+) glucose as the only product
(A) Dextrin (B) Starch (C) Sucrose (D) Cellulose
The correct answer code is
(1) (A), (B), (C) (2) (B), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (C), (D) (4) (A), (B), (D)

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63. How many stereocentres are present in the small, naturally occurring protein glycylalanylalanine?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Zero
64. The reagent used in Edman method of N-terminal analysis of peptides is
(1) phenyl isothiocyanate (2) 2, 4-dichlorofluorobenzene
(3) 2, 4-dinitrofluorobenzene (4) benzyl chloroformate
65. Select the reagent required to bring about the following transformation
?
(CH 3) 2C CH C CH3 (CH 3)2C CH COOH
O
(1) KMnO4, NaOH (2) K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4
– +
(3) Cl2 / OH , then H (4) m-chloroperbenzoic acid
66. Which one of the following would clearly prove the configuration of cis-3-hexene from trans-3-hexene?
(1) Boiling point (2) Rate of hydrogenation
(3) Dipole moment (4) Infrared spectrum
67. Naphthalene undergoes nitration with a mixture of conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 at 50ºC to give mainly
(1) 1-nitronaphthalene (2) 2-nitronaphthalene
(3) 1, 3-dinitronaphthalene (4) 1, 4-dinitronaphthalene
68. The most convenient spectroscopic technique to establish the presence of inter-molecular hydrogen bonding
in hydroxy compounds is
(1) UV (2) IR
(3) NMR (4) None of the above
69. The following reaction proceeds through
CH3 CH2Cl
Cl2
?

(1) Nucleophilic substitution (2) Electrophilic substitution

(3) Free radical substitution (4) Rearrangement
70. Which one of the following aromatic substitution reactions is reversible?
(1) Nitration (2) Sulphonation
(3) Halogenation (4) Friedel-Crafts acylation
71. Allylic bromination is carried out by
(1) HBr, H2O2 (2) HOBr
(3) Br2, CS2 (4) NBS
72. Which one of the following is the final product Z in the reaction sequence given below?
H 3O+ Conc. H 2 SO 4
M e2C = O + HCN X Y Z

(1) CH2 = C(CH3)COOH (2) (CH3)2C(OH)COOH

(3) HOCH2CH(CH3)COOH (4) CH3CH = CHCOOH

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73. Which one of the following reactions is correctly shown?
(1) ROH + NaOH 
 RONa + H2O (2) ROH + NaHCO3 
 RONa + H2CO3

(3) 2ROH + Na2CO3   2RONa + H2CO3 (4) PhOH + NaOH   PhONa + H2O
74. Identify the chiral compound that is oxidized with alkaline KMnO4 to benzoic acid

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

75. Natural rubber is a polymer made up of the following monomer units

(1) Butadiene (2) Neoprene
(3) Isoprene (4) Chloroprene
76. Which of the following compounds can be used as a solvent in Friedel-Crafts reaction?
(1) Acetic anhydride (2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Anisole (4) Toluene
77. Oxygen may be prepared by heating potassium chlorate. What is the other product?
(1) Potassium oxide (2) Potassium chloride
(3) Potassium hypochlorite (4) Potassium chlorite
78. From each pair given below, identify the ion which is larger in size:
[Co2+, Co3+] [Fe2+, Zn2+] [Na+, F–] [O2–, S2–]
(1) Co2+, Zn2+, F–, S2– (2) Co3+, Fe2+, Na+, S2–
(3) Co2+, Fe2+, F–, S2– (4) Co3+, Zn2+, Na+, O2–
79. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of silver in its ground state?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
80. How many moles of P4O10 will react with one mole of water?
(1) 2 moles (2) 6 moles (3) 1/3 mole (4) 1/6 mole
81. If 22g of N2O5 reacts with 10g of water to produce 22g of nitric acid, what is the percentage yield of nitric
acid?
(1) 32% (2) 69% (3) 87% (4) 100%
82. 10ml of 0.10N sodium hydroxide is added to 20ml 0.10N sulphuric acid and the resultant solution is titrated
against 0.10N sodium hydroxide. What will be the titre value at the end point?
(1) 5 ml (2) 10 ml (3) 20 ml (4) 30 ml
83. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate when a few drops of sodium hydroxide are
added. The precipitate dissolves when excess of sodium hydroxide is added. The substance may be
(1) aluminium sulphate (2) silver nitrate
(3) cadmium chloride (4) mercuric chloride
84. Which reagent may be used to precipitate barium from aqueous solutions?
(1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Sulphuric acid
(3) Silver nitrate (4) Ammonium chloride

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85. A non-stoichiometric oxide of silver has composition Ag1.8O. What percentage of Ag is present in the form
Ag2+?
(1) 11% (2) 14% (3) 20% (4) 25%
2+
86. A sample of water contains 200 p.p.m. of Ca in it. What is the molality of the solution with respect to
Ca?
(1) 0.2 m (2) 2 m (3) 5×10–3 m (4) 0.05 m
87. Which of the following is not a crystalline substance?
(1) Glass (2) Quartz (3) Chalk (4) Diamond
n
88. What is the charge (n) on the silicate ion Si2O7 ?
(1) –2 (2) –4 (3) –6 (4) –7
89. Silver is extracted from the crude metal by leaching with a solution of NaCN in the presence of air. The
role of NaCN is to
(1) oxidize Ag to Ag+ (2) form the complex [Ag(CN)4]3–
(3) form the complex [Ag(CN)4]2– (4) form the complex [Ag(CN)2]–
90. CoCl42– and Co(H2O)62+ have different colours. This is because
(1) they have Co in different oxidation states
(2) they have different coordination geometries
(3) they have different number of unpaired electrons
(4) they have Co in different oxidation states and bound to different ligands
91. CuI2 is unstable, because it readily decomposes to
(1) Cu and I– (2) Cu and I2
(3) CuI and I2 (4) CuI and I–
92. Which one among the chlorides, ZnCl2, HgCl2, BaCl2, AlCl3 is dissociated to the least extent in aqueous
solutions?
(1) ZnCl2 (2) HgCl2 (3) BaCl2 (4) AlCl3
93. Which one among the given ions, has the highest polarizing power?
(1) Na+ (2) Ca2+ (3) Mg2+ (4) Al3+
94. Which compound can act as a Lewis acid as well as a Lewis base?
(1) H2 O (2) SnCl2 (3) NH3 (4) BF3
95. Perovskite is the mineral CaTiO3. The perovskite crystal structure is adopted by several oxides as well as
some fluorides. Which one, among the given formulae most likely represents a known fluoride having the
perovskite structure?
(1) CaTiF3 (2) KZnF3 (3) CaTiF5 (4) CaMgF3
2+
96. In its reaction with aqueous solutions of Cu , the cyanide ion is similar to
(1) CO (2) Cl– (3) I2 (4) I–
97. Which ligand can lead to linkage isomers?
(1) Azide (2) Cyanate (3) Oxalate (4) Nitrate
2–
98. The boron mineral, borax contains the anion, [H4B4O9] . What is the formal oxidation number of B in this
anion?
(1) 2.5 (2) 3 (3) 3.5 (4) 4

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99. Two isomers are obtained for Pt(NH3)2Cl2, while only one isomer is obtained for Ni(NH3)2Cl2. This is
because
(1) the two complexes differ in the oxidation state of the metal
(2) the two complexes differ in the oxidation state of the metal as well as coordination number
(3) the two complexes differ in their coordination number
(4) the two complexes differ in their coordination geometry
100. Consider the following reaction:
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ + H2O  [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]2+ + Cl–
The above reaction involves
(1) substitution (2) substitution and reduction
(3) oxidation (4) substitution and oxidation
101. Identify the acids in the following two reactions:
NOF + ClF3 = NO + ClF4–
XeO3 + OH– = HXeO4–
(1) ClF3 and XeO3 (2) ClF3 and OH–
(3) NOF and OH– (4) NOF and XeO3
102. What are the formal oxidation states of the iron atoms labeled (A) and (B) in the compound Fe4(A)
[Fe(B)(CN)6]3 ?
(1) Fe(A), 2 + and Fe(B), 3+ (2) Fe(A), 2 + and Fe(B), 4+
(3) Fe(A), 3 + and Fe(B), 3+ (4) Fe(A), 3 + and Fe(B), 2+
103. The magnetic moment of Co(H2O)63+ is zero and that of Mn(CN)63– is 2.9 BM. From this is may be
concluded that
(1) both ions are high spin
(2) both ions are low spin
(3) Co(H2O)63+ is low spin, Mn(CN)63– is high spin
(4) Co(H2O)63+ is diamagnetic, Mn(CN)63– is high spin
104. Which among the following compounds / ions are diamagnetic?
CuCl62–; Cu(SCN); CoCl42–; Ni(CO)4; PdCl42–
(1) CoCl42– and PdCl42– (2) CuCl64–, Cu(SCN) and Ni(CO)4
(3) Cu(SCN) and Ni(CO)4 (4) Cu(SCN), Ni(CO)4 and PdCl42–
105. Which one is an example of a ‘sandwich’ compound?
(1) Cr(C6H6)2 (2) Cr(CO)6
(3) Cr2 (CH3COO)2 (4) [Pt(NH3)2] [PtCl4]
106. Which one, among the listed ions, will have the highest magnetic moment?
(1) Cu(H2O)62+ (2) Ni(NH3)62+
(3) MnCl42– (4) Ru(NH3)62+
107. Which of the following shows the correct relationship between the atomic radius (r) of Cu, Ag and Au?
(1) rCu < rAg < rAu (2) rCu << rAg < rAu
(3) rCu < rAg << rAu (4) rCu > rAg > rAu
108. Which of the following molecules / ions have planar structures?
(i) NH3 (ii) SO4 2– (iii) CO3 2– (iv) BF3
(1) All four (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) Only (iv)

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109. Which of the following are paramagnetic compounds?
(i) Oxygen (ii) Copper sulphate
(iii) Carbon monoxide (iv) Nitric oxide
(v) Ozone
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iv) (3) (ii), (iii), (v) (4) (i), (iv), (v)
110. Complete the sentence : An octahedral complex, MA4B2 _________.
(1) will have two constitutional isomers (2) will have two stereoisomers
(3) cannot show isomerism (4) will be optically active
111. Which two of the following molecules / ions have planar structures?
(i) XeF4 (ii) ClO4 – (iii) PtCl42– (iv) MnO4 –
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
112. In qualitative analysis, Ag is detected in the first group, while Pb is detected in both first and second groups.
This is because
(1) AgCl is much more soluble than PbCl2
(2) AgCl is much less soluble than PbCl2
(3) the solubilities of the chlorides are same, but traces of PbS are easily seen due to its black colour
(4) AgS is soluble, but PbS is insoluble
113. Three examples of molecules / ions having linear geometry may be given as
(1) CO2, NCS– and NO2+ (2) CO2, NCS– and NO2
(3) NO2, N3– and NCS– (4) ClO2, CO2 and NO2+
114. The average of 64 results is how many more times reliable than the average of 4 results?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16
115. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) The variance is the square root of the standard deviation
(2) Precise values are always accurate
(3) The numbers 0.02040 contains only four significant figures
(4) Two of the above are true
116. Titrator A obtains a mean value of 12.96% and a standard deviation of 0.05 for the purity of a sample.
Titrator B obtains corresponding values of 13.12% and 0.08. The true percent purity is 13.08. Compared
to titrator B, titrator A is
(1) less accurate but more precise (2) more accurate and more precise
(3) less accurate and less precise (4) more accurate but less precise
117. Which of the following titrations (0.10 M solution) will give the largest change in pH at the end point?
(1) Benzoic acid and NaOH (2) Formic acid and NaOH
(3) Pyridine with HCl (4) Monochloroacetic acid with NaOH
118. Which is the strongest conjugate base?
(1) OAc– (2) F– (3) NO 2 – (4) OCl–
119. Which of these statements is true?
(1) An aprotic solvent has acidic properties
(2) The titration reaction is more complete the smaller the autoprotolysis constant
(3) Dissociation into ions is necessary for successful acid-base titrations
(4) A low dielectric constant is desirable for amphiprotic solvents

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120. A precipitate of Fe(OH)3 is contaminated with Mg(OH)2. The best way to get rid of the impurity is
(1) washing (2) digestion (3) ignition (4) reprecipitation
121. Line spectra are emitted by
(1) hot solids (2) excited polyatomic molecules
(3) molecules in the ground electronic state (4) excited atoms and monoatomic ions
122. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous ultraviolet radiation for
spectrophotometers because of
(1) the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
(2) pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
(3) the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tubes
(4) the narrow band pass of modern grating monochromators
123. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, k is zero may be used to estimate
(1) the volume within the column occupied by the packing material
(2) the total volume of the column
(3) the volume within the pores of the packing material
(4) the volume within the column available in the mobile phase
124. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
(1) the length of the column
(2) the square root of the length of the column
(3) the natures of the stationary liquid phase
(4) the number of theoretical plates in the column
125. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of a typical anion-
exchange resin can be eliminated
(1) only by replacement with a cation
(2) only by replacement with an anion
(3) only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
(4) by flushing out with water
126. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase adsorption?
(1) The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solution
(2) A high molecular weight favours adsorption, other factors being equal
(3) The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the solute
(4) The adsorption isotherm is usually non-linear
127. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in liquid chromatography is
(1) the height of the elution band (2) the area of the elution band
(3) baseline width of the elution band (4) the retention volume
128. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what solvent system to
use for a large-scale chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from materials found in side
reactions?
(1) Paper chromatography (2) Affinity chromatography
(3) TLC
(4) Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
129. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employs
(1) a column containing a strong acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen form
(2) a column containing a strong base cation exchanger in the hydrogen form
(3) a mixed bed column containing a strong acid cation exchanger in the solution form and a strong-base
anion exchanger in the chloride form
(4) a mixed bed column containing a strong acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen form and a strong-base
anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
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130. Which of the following is used in archaeological studies?
(1) Carbon (2) Uranium (3) Radium (4) Phosphorus
131. Radioactive iodine is being used to diagnose the disease of
(1) bones (2) blood cancer (3) kidneys (4) thyroid
132. The half-life period of a radioactive material can be determined with the help of
(1) Wilson Cloud Chamber (2) Geiger-Muller Counter
(3) Mass specrometer (4) All of the above
133. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors
(1) as a lubricant (2) as a fuel
(3) for lining the inside of the reactor as an insulator (4) for reducing the velocity of neutrons
134. Pure water does not conduct electricity because of
(1) has low boiling point (2) is almost unionised
(3) is neutral (4) is readily decomposed
135. The molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte
(1) increases on dilution (2) does not change considerably on dilution
(3) decreases on dilution (4) depends on density
136. Electrostatic precipitators are used as pollution control device for the separation of
(1) SO2 (2) NO x
(3) hydrocarbons (4) suspended particulate matter
137. Which of the following is responsible for ozone layer depletion?
(1) Ozone (2) Aerosol
(3) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) (4) Smog
138. Which of the following is a non-biodegradable organic water pollutant?
(1) Proteins (2) Fats
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Pesticides
139. Which of the following is very effective for isolating, separating and identifying small quantities of substances?
(1) Potentiometry (2) Chromatography
(3) Solvent extraction (4) Conducotmetry
140. Greenhouse effect causes
(1) rise in temperature of the earth (2) continuous rainfall
(3) lowering in temperature of the earth (4) continuous snowing of the earth
141. Which of the following is the correct structure of oxine?

(1) (2)
N N
OH
N
(3) (4)

OH NH 2 OH

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142. One mole of potassium bromate in bromate-bromide reaction produces
(1) one mole Br2 (2) two moles Br2
(3) three moles Br2 (4) four moles Br2
143. Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator when transition pH is in the range of
(1) 1–4 (2) 4–6
(3) 8–10 (4) 10–12
144. Gases responsible for acid rains are
(1) hydrocarbon and CO (2) NOx and SOx
(3) COx and NOx (4) CO and CO2
145. Which of the following is the most toxic?
(1) CH3Hg+ (2) HgCl2
(3) Hg2Cl2 (4) Hg metal
146. How many moles of benzoic acid (122.1 g/mol) are contained in 2.00 g of pure benzoic acid?
(1) 0.164 mol (2) 0.008 mol
(3) 0.082 mol (4) 0.0164 mol
147. How many potential sites are there in an EDTA molecule for bonding a metal ion?
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Six (4) Two
148. Water hardness is determined by EDTA titration after the sample is buffered to pH
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 10
149. What minimum distribution coefficient is needed to permit removal of 99% of a solute from 50.0 mL of
water with two 25.0 mL extractions with toluene?
(1) 18.0 (2) 09.0
(3) 27.0 (4) 36.0
150. The distribution coefficient for iodine between an organic solvent and H2O is 85. The concentration of I2
remaining in the aqueous layer of the extraction of 50.0 mL of 1.00 × 10–3 M I2 with 50.0 mL of the organic
solvent is
(1) 1.16 × 10–6 (2) 5.28 × 10–7
(3) 5.29 × 10–10 (4) 1.16 × 10–7

BHU M.Sc. CHEMISTRY ENTRANCE - 2016

Time : 2½ Hours Full Marks : 450

1. Oxine is a precipitating reagent. How can you easily determine this reagent quantitatively at trace level?
(1) Precipitation method (2) Spectrophotometric method
(3) Conductometric method (4) BrO3– – Br– reaction method
2. Quadrivalent cerium is best oxidising reagent because:
(1) it is easily available
(2) its aqueous solution is highly stable at high temperature
(3) it is cheaper
(4) it does not require any primary standard for standardization
3. Which metal is responsible for the manifestation of itai itai diseases?
(1) As (2) Pb (3) Hg (4) Cd
4. The pH of sea water is constant as:
(1) 7.0 (2) 8.1 (3) 6.5 (4) 10.2
5. El Nino is due to:
(1) warming of waters of the Eastern Pacific ocean
(2) cooling of waters of the Eastern Pacific ocean
(3) warming of waters of the Western Pacific ocean
(4) cooling of waters of the Western Pacific ocean
6. Which one is man culprite to contribute greenhouse effect?
(1) CH4 (2) O 3 (3) CFC (4) CO 2
7. Atmospheric window which do not allow to escape of infrared radiation emitting from the earth is in
between
(1) 4000 – 8000 nm (2) 8000 – 16000 nm
(3) 16000 – 20000 nm (4) 20000 – 24000 nm
8. Which one does not affect the Ozone detoriation?
(1) HO (2) NO (3) O (4) H2

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9. Van Allen belts are:
(1) Consisted of two belts of ionizing particles encircling the earth
(2) Consisted of two belts of ionizing particles encircling the moon
(3) Consisted of more than two belts of ionizing particles encircling the sun
(4) Consisted of a single belt of ionizing particle encircling the uncharged particulates
10. Aitken particles are actually:
(1) aerosols with diameter more than 0.2  (2) aerosols with diameter less than 0.2
(3) aerosols with diameter more than 2.0 (4) aerosols with diameter less than 2.0 
11. The altitude range of troposphere is
(1) 0 – 11 Km (2) 11 – 50 Km
(3) 50 – 85 Km (4) 85 – 500 Km
12. Which reaction represents the process of respiration?
(1) CO2 + H2O + h = (CH2O) + O2 (2) (CH2O) + O2 = CO2 + H2O + CO2
(3) CH4 + 2O2 = CO2 + 2H2O (4) O2 + 4FeO = 2Fe2O3
13. Which one acts as a sink of CO2 gas?
(1) Ocean (2) River
(3) Glaciers (4) Land
14. Chloramine-T and Eriochrome Black-T are used in chemical analysis because:
(1) both are indicators
(2) both are redox reagents
(3) one is redox reagent and other is an indicator
(4) both are same but called by different names
15. Metal - EDTA complexation is a pH-controlled process. Can you use an acid indicator if you do not have
suitable metal indicator?
(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) Can not say
(4) wait till arrangement of metal ion indicator is made
16. Five mole of KBrO3 in bromate - bromide reaction procedures:
(1) one mole Br2 (2) four mole Br2
(3) fifteen mole Br2 (4) no Br2
17. Which is main ingradiant of ferroin?
(1) oxine (2) dithiozone
(3) o-phenaothroline (4) ferrocene
18. In spectrophotometric analysis, the minimum relative error in the concentration occurs when percent
transmittance measured is:
(1) 20% (2) 80% (3) 37% (4) 50%
19. The unit of specific absorptivity is:
(1) Cm–1 mol–1 L (2) Cm–1 g–1 L (3) Cm–1 mol L–1 (4) Cm–1 g L–1

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20. The retention time in column chromatography can be defined as:
(1) the time required for the mobile phase to traverse the column
(2) the time required for the stationary phase to elute the analyte
(3) the time required for the stationary phase to bind the analyte
(4) the time required for the analyte peak to appear
21. The van Deemter equation is:

 C C
(1) HETP  A   (2) HETP  A  B 
B  

A 1 
(3) HETP  A  B  C (4) HETP   
 B  C
22. Craig counter current distribution involves:
(1) no extraction (2) single extraction
(3) Successive extractions (4) solute dissolution
23. The correlation between distribution ratio (D) and distribution coefficient (KD) can be represented as:
(1) D = KD/{1 + Ka/[H+]} (2) KD = D/{1 + Ka/[H+]}
(3) KD = D/{Ka/[H+]} (4) D = KD/{Ka/[H+]}
24. The pH of a solution prepared by adding 25ML of 0.10M sodium hydroxide to 30mL of 0.20M acetic
acid (pK = 476) is:
(1) 4.68 (2) 4.61 (3) 4.90 (4) 5.7
25. The pH of 10–9M HCl is:
(1) 9.00 (2) 0.90 (3) 6.00 (4) 6.99
26. How many g/mL of NaCl are contained in a 0.250 M solution?
(1) 0.0146 g/mL (2) 0.146 g/mL (3) 14.6 g/mL (4) 0.00146 g/mL
27. The results of an analysis is 36.97 g compared with the accepted value of 37.06g. The relative error in parts
per thousand (ppt) is:
(1) –2.0 ppt (2) –2.1 ppt (3) –2.3 ppt (4) –2.4 ppt
28. In the following operation
35.63  0.581 0.05300
 100%  88.5470578% the answer with significant figures is
1.1689
(1) 88.55% (2) 88.547% (3) 88.54705% (4) 88.5470578%
29. Standard addition calibration is used:
(1) to obtain precised result (2) to obtain accurate result
(3) to overcome sample matrix effects (4) to enhance sensitivity of the result
30. Serum is the fluid:
(1) Supernated from the blood
(2) Separated from the clotted blood
(3) Separated from the unclotted blood
(4) Separated from the mixture of clotted blood and unclotted blood

O O
CH=O CF3 CH2OH
O
A B C D

(1) B, C (2) C, D
(3) D, A (4) D, B
32. Which of the following conjugated dienes would not react with a dienophile in Diels-Alder reaction?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

33. When aniline is heated with glycerol in the presence of sulphuric acid and nitrobenzene, it gives quinoline.
This reaction is called:
(1) Chichibabin reaction (2) Skraup synthesis
(3) Fischer synthesis (4) Bischler-Napieralski synthesis
34. Identify the most reactive compound toward dehydrohalogenation by a strong base:
(1) 1-Bromopentane (2) 2-Bromopentane
(3) 3-Bromopentane (4) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
35. Naphthalene undergoes nitration with a mixture of conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 at 50ºC to give mainly:
(1) 1-Nitronaphthalene (2) 2-Nitronaphthalene
(3) 1, 3-Dinitronaphthalene (4) 1, 8-Dinitronaphthalene
36. The number of chiral carbon atoms present in the D-glucopyranose molecule is
(1) three (2) four (3) five (4) six
37. Which reactive intermediate is involved in the following reaction?
Br2
2-Methylbutane 
h
 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane
(not the major product)
(1) A secondary radical (2) A tertiary radical
(3) A secondary carbocation (4) A tertiary carbocation
38. In the reaction sequence,
air NH 3 NaOCl
Naphthalene 
V2O5
 ?   ? 
OH 
 Q
the end product Q is:

O
NH2 CONH2 NH 2
O
COOH COOH CONH 2
O
(1) (2) (3) (4)

+
–CONH 2 –NHCH 3 –NHCOCH 3 –N(CH 3) 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) a, d (4) c, d

40. Arrange the compounds in order of decreasing reactivity toward electrophilic substitution:

CCl 3 CH 3 CHCl2 CH 2Cl

A B C D

(1) B > D > C > A (2) A > C > D > B

(3) B > C > D > A (4) C > D > A > B
41. Which one of the following is classified as a dye from xanthen group?
(1) Malachite green (2) Methyl orange
(3) Indigo (4) Fluorescein
42. Stereochemically controlled polymers can be made by polymerization process involving:
(1) Anionic mechanism (2) Cationic mechanism
(3) Coordination mechanism (4) Free - radical mechanism
43. Teflon is obtained by polymerization of the monomer:
(1) CH2 = CF2 (2) CF2 = CF2
(3) CH2 = CHF (4) CH2 = C(CH3)COOCH3
44. Which of the following is a false statement about the alkaloid piperine?
(1) This occurs in black pepper
(2) The molecule has a methylenedioxy group
(3) It is a secondary amide
(4) Piperine can be easily synthesized starting from catechol
45. Identify the compounds which fail to undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction:
Naphthalene Pyridine Aniline Phenanthrene
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) II and III (2) II, III and IV

(3) I, II and IV (4) II and IV
46. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
F

(CH 3)2CCO2CH(CH3)2

(1) Isopropyl 2-fluoro-3-methylbutanoate

(2) 1-Methylethyl 2-fluorobutyrate
(3) 2-Fluoroisopropyl isopropanoate
(4) 1-Methylethyl 2-fluoro - 2 - methylpropanoate

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47. Bakelite is formed by the condensation of:
(1) Formaldehyde and urea (2) Phenol and formaldehyde
(3) Phthalic anhydride and glycerol (4) Methyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
48. Ranks the basicities of the following compounds:
(A) NH3
(B) CH3NH2
(C) (CH3)4N+ NO3–
(1) B > C > A (2) C > A > B
(3) C > B > A (4) B > A > C
49. Which one of the following rearrangements involves an electron deficient oxygen atom?
(1) Baeyer - villiger rearrangement (2) Pinacol - pinacolone rearrangement
(3) Hofmann rearrangement (4) Wolff rearrangement
50. Which one of the following is most likely to undergo free-radical addition to an alkene?
(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI
51. Rapid interconversion of  -D-glucose and  -D-glucose in aqueous solution is known as:
(1) inversion (2) epimerization
(3) racemization (4) mutarotation
52. Which of the following alkenes have E - configuration?
F I F H BrCH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
C C C C C C
Cl Br Cl Br Br CH3
(I) (II) (III)

(1) I and II (2) I and III

(3) II and III (4) All I, II and III
53. The major product obtained on treatment of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH is:
(1) 1-butane (2) cis-2-butane
(3) trans-2-butane (4) 2-butanol
54. One of the following structures is that of  -Terpineol. Which one?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

the major product is:

Br Br
CHCH2 CH 3 CH2 CHCH3
(1) (2)

CH2CH2 CH 3
CH2CH2 CH 2Br
(3) (4)
Br
56. The decreasing order of reaction rate of the following benzyl alcohols with HBr is:
(I) C6H5CH2OH (II) p-NO2C6H4CH2 OH
(III) p-CH3OC6H4CH2OH (IV)p-ClC6 H4CH2OH
(1) III > IV > I > II (2) III > I > IV > II
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) I > III > IV > II
57. Give the product of the following reaction:

CH3OH
+ CH 3 CCl ?
O
N

(1) 2 - acetylpyridine (2) 3 - acetylpyridine

(3) 4 - acetylpyridine (4) CH3COCH 3
O
58. When heated with acetic anhydride in pyridine solution,  -aminoacids are converted into:
NHCOCH 3 NH2
(1) RCH (2) RCH
COOH COCH3

NHCOCH3 NH
(3) RCH (4) RCH
COCH3 C
O
59. The reagent ‘X’ in the following reaction is:
X?
CH3COCH3 (CH 3)2 C CH2 COCH3

OH
(1) HCl (2) Ba(OH)2
(3) H2SO4 (4) NaBH4
60. Proteins on heating with conc. HNO3 produce yellow colour. This is known as:
(1) Millon’s test (2) Hopkin’s test
(3) Ninhydrin test (4) Xanthoproteic test

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61. Which of the following statements is wrong about citral?
(1) The molecule has two double bonds
(2) An aldehyde group is present
(3) One of the products obtained from ozonolysis of citral is acetone
(4) It is an optically active compound
62. Bimolecular reduction of acetone in the presence of Mg amalgam in ether gives:
(1) Isopropanol (2) Propane-1, 2-diol
(3) Pinacol (4) Propane
63. The decreasing order of stability of the following carbocations is:

CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 + CH 2
+
+

+
I II III IV

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > III > I > IV
(3) II > I > III > IV (4) III > I > II > IV
64. Conversion of cyclohexanone oxime to caprolactam can be effected by:
(1) Beckmann rearrangement (2) Hofmann rearrangement
(3) Claisen rearrangement (4) Claisen condensation
65. When heated with n-butyl lithium at 100ºC pyridine forms:

Bu
(1) (2)
Bu
N N

Bu
Bu
(3) (4)
Bu
N N

66. List the following compounds in order of decreasing acidity:

F
FCH2CH2OH CH3 CH2 OH CH 3CHOH ClCH2 CH 2OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > III > IV > II (2) III > IV > I > II
(3) III > I > IV > II (4) I > IV > II > III
67. The SN2 mechanism best applies to the reaction between:
(1) cyclopropane and H2 (2) methane and Cl2
–
(3) 2-chloro-2-methylpropane and dilute OH (4) 1-chlorobutane and aqueous NaOH

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68. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide indicates:
(1) The length of the carbon chain in the sugar
(2) the direction of rotation of polarized light
(3) the position of the –OH group on the carbon chain next to the primary alcohol group
(4) The position of the chiral carbon atoms in the carbohydrate
69. The stereochemical outcome of the SN2 reaction on an optically active substrate will be:
(1) Inversion in configuration (2) Retention in configuration
(3) Partial racemization (4) Complete racemization
70. Which of the following species is formed when both atoms / groups are eliminated from the same carbon?
(1) carbocation (2) carbene
(3) carbanion (4) ketene
71. The following two equations are given:
(a) Na(g)  Na+(g) + e– ............  H = +495 KJ/mol
(b) Cl–(g)  Cl(g) + e– ..............  H = 348.9 KJ/mol
The reactions (a) and (b) respectively are known as:
(1) Electron affinity of sodium and electron affinity of Cl– ion
(2) Ionization energy of sodium and Ionization energy of Cl– ion
(3) Ionization energy of sodium and Electron affinity of Cl– ion
(4) Electron affinity of Na and Ionization energy of Cl–(g)
72. The third conization energy of the first transition series show a sharp drop at Fe2+, (3d6) ion. The reason
for this drop is due to:
(1) Increased electron-electron repulsion energy caused due to pairing of d-electrons
(2) drop in effective nuclear change
(3) the presence of large number of electrons
(4) increased electronegativity of Fe2+ ion
73. In Li3 N, nitrogen is present as (A) and (B) than Li+ ion. Pick up the correct alternative from the following
alternatives. Here (A) and (B) respectively are:
(1) N2–, N2– is greater than (2) N3–, N3– is greater
(3) N3–, N3– is smaller (4) N3–, N3– is smaller
74. For a given legand, the order of metal ions producing increasing 10Dq value of octahedral complexes is
(A) and for a given metal ion, the order of legands producing increasing 10Dq for octahedral complexes
is (B). Here (A) and (B):
(1) Both (A) and (B) constant (2) (A) - changes and B = constant
(3) (A) - constant and B = changes (4) Both (A) and (B) = changes
75. C2, BN, BeO and LiF molecules are isoelectronic and their valence electron orbital energies are quite
different. The difference between orbital energies of A and B of AB type molecules increases from carbon
to Li - F. It implies that the degree of overlap of the parent orbitals (A and B):
(1) decreases (2) Increases
(3) Zero in C2 and infinite in LiF (4) Zero in LiF and infinite in C2
76. What is (A) in the following equation (Ti3 N4)5 + H2O  (A) +TiO2. Here A is:
(1) NH2OH (2) NH3
(3) N2O + NH3 (4) N2H4 + H2O2

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77. Arrange the following oxygen molecular ions and the molecule in order of increasing bond energy or in
decreasing order of (O-O) bond length. The molecular ions and the molecule are : O22+, O2+, O2, O2– and
O22–. The possible orders are given below. Choose the correct one:
(1) O2 < O2+ < O2– < O22+ < O22– (2) O22– < O2– < O2 < O2+ < O22+
(3) O2 < O2– < O22– < O2+ < O22+ (4) O2– < O22– < O2 < O22+ < O2+
78. Out of C, Si, Sn, Pb and B1 the element with the highest atomization energy and the element with the lowest
atomization energy are:
(1) Carbon and Tin (2) B and Pb
(3) C and Pb (4) B and Sn
79. SO3, exists in three forms which have the molecular formula SO3, S3O9 and (SO3)n. Their structures belong
to three of the following ones. The structures of these forms respectively are.
(a) atomic (b) molecular
(c) oligomeric (linear, cyclic, cluster) (d) Polymer (one dimensional chain)
Which one out of the three you will expect to be a gas your choices are the following. Pick up the right
choice?
(1) monomeric molecular, Oligomeric (Chain), polymer (linear) (SO2)
(2) atomic, polymeric (Cyclic), 3-dimensional polymeric (S3O9)
(3) molecular, polymer (Cyclic), polymer (3-dimensional) (S3O9)
(4) molecular (monomeric), polymer (chain), polymer (3-dimensional) SO3
80. What product one forms by absorbing nitrous acid fumes in Na2CO3 aqueous solution?
(1) NaNO3 (2) NaNO2
(3) H2 N2 O2 (4) NO + N2O
–
81. Which one of the following M, O.’s of (HF2) is correct?

(1) (2)
H F F H

(3) (4)
H+ F H F

82. What happens when in the absence of air B2H6 is heated to 100ºC? It:
(1) decomposes to B and H2 (2) explodes and gives a number of products
(3) forms B10H14 (4) forms (BH4)–, B + H2
83. Which one of the following molecules will show optical isomerism?
(1) [Co(en)3]3 (octahedral) (2) [Mn(CN) (NO2) (H2O)(NH3)] (tetrahedral)
(3) [Co(en)Cl3Br] (octahedral) (4) Cis [Co(en)2Cl2] (octahedral) (trans)
84. In compounds containing X-H and X-D bonds, which one (X-H or X-D) will be stronger and why?
(1) (X-D) because of higher contribution of covalency in X-H bond
(2) (X-H) because of greater mobility of H compared to D
(3) (X-H) because of its lower zero point energy compared to that of X-D
(4) (X-D) because of its lower zero point energy compared to that of X-H

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85. The oxidizing and the reducing agent in the following redox reactions respectively are:
(a) 2H CuCl  Cu + Cu2+ + 4Cl– + 2H+
(b) Cl2 + 2OH–  ClO– + Cl– + H2O
(c) CaCO3  CaO + CO2
(1) (Cu+, Cu+1), (Cl0, Cl0), none (2) (H+, Cu+), (Cl0, OH–), (Ca2+, O32–)
(3) (Cu+, Cl–), (Cl0, OH–), (Ca2+, CO32–) (4) (Cu+, Cl), (Cl0, OH–), (Ca2+, O2–)
86. Arrange the single bond energy of the following fluorides in increasing order:
N – F, P – F, As – F, Sb – F.
(1) N – F < Sb – F < As – F < P – F (2) Sb – F < As – F < P – F < N – F
(3) As – F < Sb – F < P – F < N – F (4) As – F < N – F < P – F < Sb – F
87. Lewis acidity of silicon tetrahalides [SiF4, SiCl4, SiBr4, SiI4] decreases in the order
(1) SiI4 > SiBr4 > SiCl4 > SiF4 (2) SiI4 > SiCl4 > SiBr4 > SiF4
(3) SiF4 > SiCl4 > SiBr4 > SiI4 (4) SiF4 > SiBr4 > SiI4 > SiCl4
88. According to M.O. theory, the bond order of diatomic molecules can be (A) which is not so according to
valence bond theory. Here (A) is:
(1) Integral (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Fractional
1
89. In octahedral complexes of d metal ions, the net total energy of the d-electron in the complex as compared
to that in the free ion:
(1) increases with respect to unbonded state
(2) varies with the nature of ligands, sometimes increase and some times decreases
(3) remains the same
(4) Increases with respect to a state when only metal bond energy is considered with no electronic effects
of the ligands (i.e. repulsion due to ligand electrons)
90. Arrange the hydrides CH4, H2O, GeH4, H2Se in order of increasing acid strength. Which one is correct
order in the following given orders:
(1) CH4 < H2Se < H2O < GeH4 (2) CH4 < GeH4 < H2O < H2Se
(3) GeH4 < CH4 < H2Se < H2O (4) GeH4 < CH4 < H2Se < H2O
91. HF in liquid state self - ionizes as:
(1) HF(liq)  H+ + F– (2) 2HF(liq)  (H2F)+ + F–
(3) 3HF(liq)  (H2F)+ + (HF2)–(Solvated) (4) 4HF(liq)  (H3F2)+ + (HF2)–
92. (N5)+ cationic species exists in compounds [N5+] [Sb2 F11]– or in (N5)+ [A5F6]–. The structure of (N5)+
in these compounds is:
(1) linear (2) Angular
(3) Cyclopentadienyl type (4) Square planar with N - N+ side chain
93. What is (A) in the following reaction:
Silver
NaNO3 + Na2O 
crucible 300º
(A)
for two days

(1) N2O5 + Some Sodium Salt (2) No reaction

(3) Na3NO4 (orthonitrate) (4) N2O3 + N2 + Na2NO2

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94. What is (A) in the following reaction:
–10ºC
4HNO3 + P4O10   2N2O5 + (A)
(1) H3PO4 (2) H3PO3
(3) HPO3 (4) P2O 3
2+ 5
95. The magnetic moment of Mn (d case) complexes of weak field ligands (Octahedra and Tetrahedral) is:
(1) Very close to spin only value
(2) Spin only value plus a large orbital contribution
(3) Spin only value plus variable orbital contribution
(4) Spin only value of one electron
96. The following three reactions give one common molecule (A). What is (A)?
thermal
(a) (NH4)2Cr2O7 
decomposition


(b) NH3 + Br2 


High
(c) NH3 + CuO 
Temperature

Pick the correct choice out of the following:
(1) N 2 O (2) NO
(3) N2 (nitrogen) (4) NH3
97. The reason for (A) P2 which is similar to N2 molecule is not stable because (what is (A)):
(1) The bond energy of three (P - P) bonds is more than (P - P) triple bond as opposed to N  N bond
energy which is more than three (N - N) bond energy (A - gaseous)
(2) Lattice energy of P - P is more than N - N bond energy (A = Solid state)
(3) Lone pairs of electrons in 
PP is kinetically more reactive than those present on N in N
2
  N
 (A-
solid state)
(4) Kinetically P - P bond is more reactive than N - N bond (A = liquid)
98. (Ln)2+ ions are largely coloured while (Ln)3+ are not. The colour of (Ln)2+ is due to:
(1) f  f transition
(2) d  d transition
(3) f  d transition
(4) Charge transfer from anions or solvent to (Ln)2+
99. Transition metal ions form complexes with N2 molecules in two modes of linkages.
(I) M – N  N (end on) and
N
(II) M  (side on). The bond strengths of these M – (N2) bonds are (Relative strengths)
N
(1) Both weak (2) Both strong
(3) End-on stronger than side-on (4) Side-on stronger than end-on
100. Uranium, Thorium and Plutonium dissolve in:
(1) Conc. HNO3 (2) Conc. HNO3 + F– ions
(3) Conc. HNO3 + NaCl (4) Dil. HNO3
101. On hydrolysis (CH3 – Li)4 gives:
(1) LiOH + CH4 (2) C2H6 + LiCH3 + Li(OH)
(3) CH3OH + LiOH + LiH (4) C2H5OH + LiOH + LiH

F F
N N N N
F F
(C) (D)
(Planar) (N-F bonds in different planes)

Pick the correct choice out of the following ones

(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (C) and (D)
103. It is possible to prepare a complex (Octahedral or tetrahedral) of d6 metal ion with a magnetic moment of
2.6 B.M. under the following conditions. Which one of the following alternative is correct?
(1) An Octahedral complex of d6 metal ion with weak field legands.
(2) A tetrahedral complex of d6 metal ion with weak field legands.
(3) An Octahedral complex of d6 metal ion with strong field legands
(4) A tetrahedral complex of d6 metal ion with strong field legands
( 10DTq >> Pairing energy)
104. H3PO3 and H3A5O3 are:
(1) both tribasic
(2) H3PO3 dibasic and H3A5O3 tribasic
(3) H3PO3 tribasic and H3A5O3 dibasic
(4) Both are dibasic in which H+ is bonded to P and As
105. Iodine in (A) oxidation state is easily stabilized by complexation as in [ICl2]+1 ion which is stable in
concentrated HCl. In concentrated and strong acids [I2]+ is (B) cation dimerizing to (C) species (I4)+. Here
(A), (B) and (C) are respectively:
(1) –1, unstable, paramagnetic (2) +1, paramagnetic, diamagnetic
(3) –1, diamagnetic, paramagnetic (4) +1, diamagnetic, stable
106. Which one of the following reactions saves us from the damaging effect of solar u.v. radiations?
(1) O2 + h  2O2 (2) O3 + h = O2 + O
O + O2  O3
(3) Chloro fluoro carbon + h  Cl  (4) HClO + h  OH  Cl 
Cl  + O3  ClO + O2 Cl  + O3  ClO  + O2
107. Out of the following diatomic molecules, the paramagnetic ones are
(a) Be2 (b) B2 (c) C 2 (d) N 2
+
(e) O 2 (f) F2 (g) C2 (h) C2 –
(1) Be2, B2 and C2, N2 (2) B2, C2, N2 and C2–
(3) C2, N2, O2 and C2+ (4) B2, O2, C2+, C2–
Pick the correct choice out the above four choices.

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108. The laughing gas can be prepared from HNO2 by adding:
(1) SO2 (2) NH2OH
(3) H2O2 (4) Fe2+ salt
109. Hot aqueous solution of (NH4)NO2 decomposes to give N2 gas and water. But a very small amount of
two compounds (A) and (B) are also formed as impurities which are removed by passing the gas in water.
Here (A) and (B) are:
(1) NO and H2N2O2 (2) NO and HNO3
(3) N2O and NO2 (4) NH3 and N2O
110. Which one of the following compounds forms (3c - 3e) bond?
(1) XeF2 (2) Al2Cl6
(3) Mg(CH3)2 (4) Be(NO3)2
111. Which of the following molecule will show pure rotational spectrum?
(1) CH4 (2) H2 O
(3) C6H6 (4) Cl2
112. A what field would methyl radical come into resonance in spectrometer operating at 9.5 GHz (g = 2.0026)?
(1) 0.34T (2) 0.68T
(3) 1.02T (4) 0.17T
113. The number of NMR signals in the spectrum of

CH2 CH3 are:

(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
114. Assuming that the force constant for c  c, c = c, c – c are in ratio 3 : 2 : 1 and normal range of
c = c sketch absorption is 1630 – 1690 cm–1, what range would you expect for c  c stretch vibration?
(1) 1152 – 1195 cm–1 (2) 1195 – 2005 cm–1
(3) 2005 – 2080 cm–1 (4) 3260 – 3380 cm–1
115. Radius of orbit in Bohr’s hydrogen atom is:

n2h2 n2h2
(1) r  (2) r 
4e 2 m 4em2

n2h2 n2h2
(3) r  (4) r 
82e 2 m 2 42e 2 m
116. The energy of a particle in a 1-dimensional box is given by:

n2h2 nh 2
(1) (2)
mL2 4mL2

n2h2 n2h2
(3) (4)
8m 2 L2 8mL2
117. The term symbols for Mn and Ti atoms are:
(1) 6S3/2 and 3F2 (2) 6S5/2 and 3F2
(3) 6S1/2 and 3F3/2 (4) 6S3/2 and 3F1/2

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118. The equivalent conductance of a IN solution of an electrolyte is nearly:
(1) 103 times more than specific conductance (2) 10–3 times its specific conductance
(3) 100 times its specific conductance (4) 110 times its specific conductance
119. Which of the following has a bond order 2.5:
(1) HCl (2) CO
(3) NO (4) N 2
120. The law which relates the solubility of a gas to its pressure is called:
(1) Roult’s Law (2) Distribution Law
(3) Henry’s Law (4) Ostwald’s Law
121. The difference between the incident and scattered frequencies in the Raman spectrum is called:
(1) Stoke’s line (2) Anti Stoke’s line
(3) Raman frequency (4) p - branch
122. The selection rule for transition in rotational energy levels in Raman spectrum is
(1) J  1 (2) J  1
(3) J  2 (4) J  2
123. What will be the ESR frequency of a free electron in a magnetic field of 0.34T. Given that g = 2.0023 and
 = 9.273 × 10–24 JT–1, h = 6.626 × 10–34 JS:
(1) 20.0 GHz (2) 09.50 GHz
(3) 19.0 GHz (4) 09.50 MHz
124. How many normal modes are possible for water molecule?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
rc
125. If the value of (radius ratio of cation and anion) is equal to 0.213 then coordination number of cation
ra
is:
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
126. The pH of a solution by mixing 50 cc of 0.2 M HCl and 50 cc of 0.1 M NaOH will be:
(1) 1.8 (2) 2.4 (3) 1.3 (4) 4.2
127. The spin only magnetic moment is given by:

(1) 4S ( S  1) (2) S (S  1) (3) 2S ( S  1) (4) S (S  3)

128. The relation between e.m.f. and concentration for a cell is:
(1) Linear (2) Exponential (3) Logarithmic (4) no relation
238 206
129. Maximum number of  and  particles emitted when 92 U changes to 82 Pb are:

(1) 6 and 8 (2) 8 and 8

(3) 6 and 6 (4) 8 and 6
130. If Weiss indices of a face of a crystal are 1,  ,  , then its Miller indices will be:
(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 0, 1, 1
(3) 0, 1, 0 (4) 1, 0, 1

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131. The decrease in free energy is equal to
(1) mechanical work (2) maximum work
(3) net work (4) zero
132. The energy of a rigid rotator is:

n2h2 h2
(1) E  J (2) E  J ( J  1)
2m 2I

n2 h 2 h2
(3) E  (4) E  J ( J  1)
2ma 2 I
133. The energy of an atom is the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. The possible energy value in the excited
state for electron in the Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is:
(1) –3.4 eV (2) –4.2 eV
(3) –6.8 eV (4) 6.8 eV
134. The wave mechanical model of atom depends on:
(1) deBroglie equation (2) Heisenberg, uncertainty principle
(3) Schrodinger’s wave equation (4) All of the above
135. Electro-osmotic flux is the mass flux due to difference of:
(1) Potential (2) Temperature
(3) Concentration (4) Pressure
136. Canonical ensembles have same:
(1) T, P, N (2) T,  , N
(3) T, V, N (4) E, V, N
137. Ziegler Natta catalyst is used in ................................ polymerisation:
(1) Free radical (2) Anionic
(3) Cationic (4) Coordination
138. Which of the following is correct for most of the glasses?
1
(1) Tg  Tm (2) Tg  Tm
2
(3) Tg  Tm (4) Tg  Tm
139. Which of the following is correct expression for Helmholtz free energy (A) in terms of partition function:
(1) A  k ln  (2) A  kT ln 
(3) A   kT 2 ln  (4) A  kT ln 
140. Which of the following partition function has largest value:
(1) Vibrational (2) Translational
(3) electronic (4) rotational
141. Absolute entropy of a substance can be calculated using:
(1) Zeroth Law of thermodynamics (2) First Law of thermodynamics
(3) Second Law of thermodynamics (4) Third Law of thermodynamics
142. At constant temperature, the change of chemical potential with change in pressure is equal to
(1) entropy (2) partial molar enthalpy
(3) partial molar volume (4) Free energy

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143. In any crystal ratio of Weiss indices of the face is 2:4:3, then the Miller indices would be
(1) 6 3 4 (2) 3 4 6 (3) 4 3 6 (4) 6 4 3
144. The activation energy of a reaction can be calculated from the slope of the following graph:

1 ln k 1 T 1
(1) ln k vsT (2) ln k vs (3) vs (4) vs
T T T ln k T
145. The half-time period of a second order reaction is 90 minutes. Calculate the time required for completion
for completion of 60% of the reaction:
(1) 270 minutes (2) 135 minutes
(3) 180 minutes (4) 90 minutes
146. If velocity constant of a reaction is 2.0 × 10–4 sec–1 and rate of reaction is 8.0 × 10–4 moles lit–1
sec–1, then the concentration of reactant will be:
(1) 2.0 × 10–4 moles lit–1 (2) 1.0 mole lit–1
(3) 4.0 moles lit–1 (4) 8.0 moles lit–1
147. The maximum probability distribution in Fermi - Dirac statistics is equal is:
1 1
(1)   (  i )
(2)   (  i )
e e 1

1 1
(3)   ( i )
(4)   ( i )
e 1 e 1
148. The total change in entropy ‘ds’ for an irreversible process is given by:
(1) ds  d e s  di s (2) ds  d e s  di s

(3) ds  0 (4) ds   d e s  d i s

Where d e s = entropy exchanged with surroundings

di s = entropy generated by irreversible process irr the system.

149. In a three component system of phase equilibries the maximum number of degree of freedom can be:
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
150. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible for an electron is ‘4f’ orbital:
1 1
(1) n  4, l  3, m  4, s   (2) n  4, l  4, m  4, s  
2 2

1 1
(3) n  4, l  3, m  1, s   (4) n  4, l  2, m  2, s  
2 2

BHU M.Sc. CHEMISTRY ENTRANCE - 2016

ANSWER KEY

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (1)

6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (3) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4)
26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (2)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (1)
41. (4) 42. (3) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1)
46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (1) 50. (3)
51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (1)
56. (2) 57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (4)
61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65. (1)
66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (1)
76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (2)
81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (4) 85. (1)
86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (2)
91. (3) 92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (1)
96. (3) 97. (1) 98. (3) 99. (3) 100. (2)
101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (4) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (2) 109. (2) 110. (3)
111. (2) 112. (1) 113. (2) 114. (3) 115. (4)
116. (4) 117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (3) 120. (3)
121. (3) 122. (4) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (3)
126. (3) 127. (1) 128. (1) 129. (4) 130. (1)
131. (3) 132. (2) 133. (1) 134. (3) 135. (1)
136. (3) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (2)
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (2) 145. (2)
146. (3) 147. (2) 148. (2) 149. (1) 150. (3)

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