1.

Water is a good solvent for the dissolution of electrovalent substances because

a. It's a universal solvent
b. It's pH is neutral (7)
c. It has a high dielectric constant
d. It ionizes into H+ and OH-
2. The most important intermediate product for the anaerobic breakdown of glucose is
a. CO2
b. Pyruvate
c. Galactose
d. Dextrose
e. Maltose
3. Large hetero-polysaccharide complexes found in glycosaminoglycans are
a. Essentially basic
b. Negatively charged
c. Positively charged
d. Neutral
4. The nomenclature of a particular peptide by convention always starts from the N terminus
a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following does not contain sulphur
a. Cysteine
b. Methionine
c. Threonine
d. Cystine
e. Oxidized glutathione
6. Hypocholesterolaemic drugs
a. Reduce cholesterol level
b. Increase cholesterol level
c. Maintain cholesterol level constant
d. None of the above
7. One of the following is not a nonprotein amino acid
a. Homocysteine
b. B-alanine
c. Ornithine
d. Cysteine
e. Glutathione
8. Which of the following amino acids belong to oxaloacetate pathway on catabolism
a. Arginine
b. Tryptophan
c. Glutamic acid
d. Alanine
e. Histidine
9. Which of the following does not use glutamate as a precursor during its synthesis
a. Aspartic acid
 b. Alanine
c. Asparagine
d. Arginine
e. None of the above
10. A disease is characterized with increase of both plasma and urine level of branched chain
amino acids; such a disease lacks or has reduced activity of
a. Acetyl CoA thioesterase
b. Alpha keto-acid decarboxylase
c. Liver histidase
d. Branched chain carboxylase
e. A and D
11. Which of the following is not involved in gastric digestion of proteins
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Renin
c. Pepsin
d. Pepsinogen
e. Enterokinase
12. Absorption of L-amino acid across the intestinal wall is achieved by
a. Passive uptake
b. Active uptake
c. Passive/active transport
d. All of the above
13. One of the following is not an amino acid that gives rise to alpha ketoglutarate during its
catabolism
a. Arginine
b. Proline
c. Alanine
d. Histidine
14. Soaps are
a. Organic salts of fatty acids
b. Inorganic salts of fatty acids
c. None of the above
15. Ceramides are derivatives of
a. Glycerol
b. Cetyl alcohol
c. Sphingosine
d. None of the above
16. Which of the following contains sialic acid
a. Gangliosides
b. Phosphoinositides
c. Cephalin
d. Inosine
17. Plasma lipids contain all of the following except
a. Triacylglycerols
 b. Phospholipids
c. Cerebrosides
d. Free fatty acids
18. A rancid fat contains all of the following characteristics except
a. Bad taste
b. Unpleasant odour
c. Pale colour
d. Pleasant taste
19. Starting with fructose-6-phosphate and proceeding to pyruvate the net yield of ATP is 3
a. True
b. False
20. Galactosemic patients can synthesize UDP-galactose from UDP-glucose
a. True
b. False
21. The pH is a measure of H activity and is also expressed as
a. Log¹⁰ of the reciprocal of [H] in mol/L
b. Log¹⁰ of the reciprocal of [H] in mol/L
c. Log¹⁰ of the reciprocal of [H] in nmol/L
d. Log¹⁰ of the reciprocal of [H] in pmol/L
22. When the concentration of proton donor is equal to that of proton acceptor, one of the
following is true
a. pH=pKa
b. pH<pKa
c. pH>=pKa
d. pH<=pKa
23. CO2 +H20 —> H2CO3—>HCO- + H+
All of the following are true of the above equation except
a. It requires carbonate dehydratase to proceed to right
b. The rise of pCO2 in the blood shifts the reaction to the right
c. The equation shifts to the left in an event of hypoventilation
d. Both [HCO-] and [H+] increase in respiratory acidosis
24. The following are dyes used in measuring the pH of an aqueous solution except
a. Litmus
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Phenol red
d. Hematoxylin
25. The symbol p in pH denotes 'positive logarithm of'
a. True
b. False
26. A change in one pH unit represents a tenfold change in [H+]
a. True
b. False
27. The glass electrode of a pH meter is insensitive to H+ but sensitive to all other cations
a. True
 b. False
28. Hypoventilation causes respiratory acidosis while hyperventilation causes respiratory
alkalosis
a. True
b. False
29. The stronger the acid the lower it's pKa
a. True
b. False
30. Lactic acidosis is analogous to ketoacidosis in contributing to metabolic acidosis
a. True
b. False
31. Glucose and fructose are structural isomers because
a. Glucose is an aldose
b. Fructose is a ketose
c. Glucose is an aldose and fructose is a ketose
d. None of the above
32. You can eat but you cannot digest
a. Cellobiose
b. Lactose
c. Trehalose
d. Fructooligosaccharides
33. Anomeric forms of fructose differ only at the anomeric carbon atom
a. 2
b. 1
c. 5
d. 4
34. Sucrose is made from
a. Alpha-glucose and Beta-fructose
b. Alpha-glucose and Alpha-fructose
c. Beta-glucose and Alpha-fructose
d. Beta-glucose and Beta-fructose
35. An aldose to posses optical activity must have at least
a. 2 carbon atoms
b. 3 carbon atoms
c. 4 carbon atoms
d. 5 carbon atoms
36. The aminosugars in chitin are in the form of
a. Alpha-anomeric form
b. Beta-anomeric form
c. Alpha-anomeric and beta-anomeric forms
d. None of the above
37. D-glucaric acid is formed when glucose is oxidized at
a. C1
b. C6
 c. C1 and C6
d. None of the above
38. In type A individuals a glycosyltransferase enzyme specifically adds
a. Galactose residue to the terminal position of the H-antigen
b. Neither galactose nor acetylgalactosamine to the terminal position of the H-antigen
c. Glucose residue to the terminal position of the H-antigen
39. The shorthand notation for cellobiose is
a. GlcB4Glc
b. GlcA4Glc
c. GalB4Glc
d. GlcB4Gal
40. Starches usually contain more amylose than amylopectin
a. True
b. False
41. Coplanarity is a feature of primary structure of proteins
a. True
b. False
42. Arginine and tyrosine are indispensable proteins in the diet of infants
a. True
b. False
43. Proteins are polymers of D-amino acids
a. True
b. False
44. One feature of a-helix is the irregularity of turns
a. True
b. False
45. At isoelectric pH (pl) amino acids exist as acidic ions
a. True
b. False
46. Serine and threonine contain aliphatic hydroxyl group
a. True
b. False
47. Ninhydrin is an oxidizing agent in the reactions of amino acids
a. True
b. False
48. Cyanogen bromide is specific for
a. Histidine
b. Phenylalanine
c. Methionine
d. Serine
49. Phenylisothiocyanate cleaves the gamma-carboxyl amino acids
a. True
b. False
50. Proline differs from the other set of 20 amino acids in that it contains a secondary amino
group
a. True
b. False
51. True fats may glycerol at times
a. True
b. False
52. Iodine number is the percentage of fat absorbed by iodine
a. True
b. False
53. Oxidation of oils rich in unsaturated fatty acids is useful in production of paints and
varnishes
a. True
b. False
54. Acrolein is an unsaturated aldehyde produced from glycerol
a. True
b. False
55. Bromine water can be used to determine iodine number
a. True
b. False
56. Saponification number is an index of average weight of fatty acids in glycerides of fat
a. True
b. False
57. Atherosclerosis is caused by accumulation of cholesterol in blood vessels
a. True
b. False
58. Acid number is the number of milligrams of KOH needed to oxidize the free fatty acids of 1
gramme of fat
a. True
b. False
59. Diphosphatidylglycerol contain
a. 1 mole of glycerol
b. 2 moles of glycerols
c. 1 mole of phosphatidic acid
60. Class of lipids containing an ether linkage is
a. Lecithin
b. Plasmalogens
c. Cephalin
61. Purines are nine-membered with a fused ring system in which the atoms are numbered in a
clockwise fashion
a. True
b. False
62. Thymine is 2-oxy-4-oxy-5-methyl pyrimidine
a. True
 b. False
63. DNA contains the pentose D-ribose while 2-deoxy D-ribose is found in RNA
a. True
b. False
64. The bond that joins nitrogenous bases to pentoses is a typical O-glycosidic bond
a. True
b. False
65. In the tautomeric forms of uracil, the lactam predominates at neutral pH
a. True
b. False
66. Inosine is a pyrimidine nucleoside
a. True
b. False
67. Deoxyguanylate is a nucleoside
a. True
b. False
68. AMP consists of a ribose linked by a N-glycosidic bond to the NO of adenine
a. True
b. False
69. Metabolic function of nucleotides in a living cell includes their use as precursors in the
synthesis of nucleic acids
a. True
b. False
70. Hydrophilicity of the sugar moiety of nucleosides is responsible for their solubility in water
a. True
b. False
71. The metabolism of fructose, galactose and mannose proceeds by their conversion to
glycolytic intermediates, from which point they are broken down identically to glucose
a. True
b. False
72. The deficient enzyme in fructose intolerance is Type B-aldolase
a. True
b. False
73. Leloir pathway is the pathway for converting mannose to a glycolytic intermediate
a. True
b. False
74. Most cases of galactosemia is a deficiency of the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl
transferase
a. True
b. False
75. Fructose is metabolized identically in both muscle and liver
a. True
b. False
76. Pyruvate carboxylase, a key enzyme in gluconeogenesis is found in the mitochondria of
liver, kidneys and muscles
a. True
b. False
77. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase reaction is a CO2 evolving step in TCA cycle
a. True
b. False
78. When blood glucose level falls, glucagon is secreted, and gluconeogenesis is accelerated
a. True
b. False
79. In citric acid cycle, malate is generated by the malate dehydrogenase reaction
a. True
b. False
80. FAD+ NAD+ and NADP+ are all components of the TCA cycle
a. True
b. False
81. Dietary carbohydrates consist of
a. Monosaccharides
b. Disaccharides
c. Polysaccharides
d. All of the above
82. Hydrated starch and glycogen are digested by
a. Phosphorylase
b. a-amylase
c. B-glucosidase
d. B-galactosidase
83. The Na+ monosaccharides cotransporter (SGLT1) mediates active transport of
a. D-fructose into cells
b. D-glucose and D-galactose into cells
c. Ceramides into cells
d. D-fructose and sucrose into cells
84. Glycolysis occurs in the
a. Mitochondria
b. Cytosol
c. Lysosome
d. Golgi apparatus
85. In glycolysis, glucose conversion to glucose-6-phosphate in the skeletal muscle is catalyzed
by
a. Glucokinase
b. Hexokinase
c. 6-phosphofructokinase
d. Pyruvate kinase
86. Which of the following statements is not correct about the TCA cycle
a. It is the final common pathway for the oxidation of fuel molecules
 b. The cycle provides intermediates for the biosynthesis pathways
c. The cycle is located in the mitochondrion
d. The cycle is located in the cytosol
87. The following statements are all true about pentose phosphate pathway except; it provides
a. NADPH for reductive biosynthesis
b. Glucose for glycolysis
c. Ribose-5-phosphate for incorporation into nucleotides
d. Reversible link between pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis
88. Net synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate substrates is termed
a. Glycolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Glycogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis
89. Lysine and leucine cannot supply carbon for net synthesis of glucose by gluconeogenesis.
This is because they are
a. Glucogenic
b. Ketogenic
c. Both glucogenic and ketogenic
d. None of the above
90. Type 1 diabetes is a result of
a. Relative deficiency of insulin
b. Absolute deficiency of insulin
c. Insulin resistance by cells
d. None of the above
91. Alcoholism causes fat accumulation in liver
a. True
b. False
92. In digestion of fat, fat is re-synthesized in mucosal cells
a. True
b. False
93. B-oxidation of fatty acids occur in the mitochondria
a. True
b. False
94. Cholesterol acts as a feedback inhibitor in its synthesis
a. True
b. False
95. In chyluria, there's abnormal connection between urinary tract and lymphatic drainage
a. True
b. False
96. One of the following is not a product of oxidative deamination reaction of amino acids
a. NADPH
b. NADH
c. GDP
d. Alpha a-ketoglutarate
97. One of the following is incorrect about afibrinogenemia
a. Patients resemble hemophilia
b. It is characterized by the absence or near absence of fibrinogen
c. Transmitted as a non-x-linked recessive trait
d. All clotting factors of the blood are normal
98. Alanine is a ketogenic amino acid because it produces pyruvate on degradation
a. True
b. False
99. One of these amino acids belongs to oxaloacetate pathway on catabolism
a. Arginine
b. Tryptophan
c. Glutamic acid
d. Histidine
100. The proteolytic enzymes present in gastric juice of stomach are
a. Pepsin and chymotrypsin
b. Rennin and trypsinogen
c. Trypsin and pepsin
d. None of the above
101. A disease is characterized with greatly increased levels of both plasma and urine level of
branched chain amino acids. Such a disease lacks or has reduced activity of
a. AcylCoA thioesterase
b. Alpha-keto acid decarboxylase
c. Liver histidase
d. Branched chain carboxylase
102. Cystinuria is a disease characterized by excretion of large quantities of
a. Lysine
b. Cystine
c. Arginine
d. All of the above
103. Speech defect is affected by one of the following conditions
a. Valinemia
b. Histidinemia
c. Tyrosinosis
d. All of the above
104. Conversion of phenylalanine hydroxylase requires one of the following as coenzyme
a. Vitamin C
b. Dihydrobiopterin
c. Pyridoxal phosphate
d. Tetrahydrofolate
105. Heamophilia B is due to a deficiency of
a. Factor 11
b. Factor 8
c. Factor 9
d. All of the above
106. Positive nitrogen balance is observed in the following except
a. Nitrogen output is higher than input
b. Growing children
c. Pregnant women
d. Nitrogen intake is higher than the output
107. Which of the following does not use glutamate as a precursor during it's synthesis
a. Aspartic acid
b. Alanine
c. Asparagine
d. Arginine
e. None of the above
108. During denaturation of protein, all of the following are disrupted except
a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. Tertiary structure
d. Quaternary structure