MOCK TEST PAPER 2

Time : 3 Hours Total Marks : 300

General Instructions :
1. There are three subjects in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q. no. 1 to 30), Chemistry (Q. no. 31 to 60) and Mathematics
(Q. no. 61 to 90).
2. Each subject is divided into two sections. Section A consists of 20 multiple choice questions & Section B consists of 10 numerical
value type questions. In Section B, candidates have to attempt any five questions out of 10.
3. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question 4 marks will be awarded for correct
choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice for Section A questions and zero mark will be awarded for not attempted
question.
4. For Section B questions, 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero for unattempted and incorrect answer.
5. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students appearing for the test.
6. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet is provided with Question Paper.

Physics

Section A (1) 5 × 10–2 N (2) 2 × 105 N

(3) 1.65 × 105 N (4) 1.65 × 103 N
  
Q. 1. The magnitude of vectors A , B and Q. 5. A racing car is travelling along a track at a
  C are

respectively 12, 5 and 13 units constant speed of 40 m/s. A T.V. camera man
 and A+B = C ,
then the angle between A and B is : is recording the event from a distance of
(1) 0 (2) π 30  m directly away from the track as shown
π π in figure. In order to keep the car under view
(3) (4) in the position shown, the angular speed
2 4
Q. 2. A wave is represented by y = a sin (At – Bx + C) with which the camera should be rotated, is :
where A, B, C are constants and t is in Track
car
seconds and x is in metre. The Dimensions
of A, B, C are : 40 m/s

(1) [T –1], [L], [M0L0T0]

(2) [T –1], [L–1], [M0L0T0] 30 m
(3) [T], [L], [M] 30°
(4) [T –1], [L–1], [M–1]
Q. 3. A body moves in a straight line along, x-axis. TV Camera
Its distance x (in metre) from the origin is 4 3
given by x = 8t – 3t2. The average speed in (1) rad/s (2) rad/s
3 4
the interval t = 0 to t = 1 second is : 8
(1) 5 ms–1 (2) – 4 ms–1 (3) 3 rad/s (4) 1 rad/s
3
(3) 6 ms–1 (4) zero
Q. 4. In a legend the hero-kid kicked a toy pig so Q. 6. A pendulum of mass m and length  is
that it is projected with a speed greater than suspended from the ceiling of a trolley
that of its cry. If the weight of the toy pig is which has a constant acceleration a in the
assumed to be 5 kg and the time of contact horizontal direction as shown in figure.
0.01 sec., the force with which the hero-kid Work done by the tension is (In the frame of
kicked him was (Speed of cry = 330 m/s) : trolley) :
 air is 340 m/s, find the frequency observed
 by a stationary observer.
m a (i) if observer is in front of the source
(ii) if observer is behind the train
(1) 186 Hz, 216 Hz (2) 216 Hz, 186 Hz
(3) 172 Hz, 220 Hz (4) 220 Hz, 172 Hz
Q. 11. Two coherent sources of different intensities
mg send waves which interfere. The ratio
(1) [cos(tan –1 ( a / g ) − 1]
tan θ of maximum intensity to the minimum
mg intensity is 25. The intensities of the sources
(2) [sin(tan –1 ( a / g ) − 1] are in the ratio :
tan θ
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
mg
(3) [sin(tan -1 ( a / g ) - 1] (3) 9 : 4 (4) 625 : 1
cos θ
Q. 12. A spherical surface of radius R separates two
mg
(4) [cos –1 (tan –1 ( a / g ) − 1] medium of refractive indices m1 and m2, as
cos θ shown in figure. Where should an object be
Q. 7. Figure shows a small wheel fixed coaxially placed in the medium 1 so that a real image
on a bigger one of double the radius. The is formed in medium 2 at the same distance ?
system rotates about the common axis. The
strings supporting A and B do not slip on the
µ1 µ2
wheels. If x and y be the distances travelled
by A and B in the same time interval, then : O P I

x x

 µ − µ1   µ 2 + µ1 
(1)  2 R (2)  R
 µ 2 + µ 1   µ 2 − µ 1 

A
 µ + µ1   µ2 
(3)  2 R R
B  µ 2  (4) 
 µ 2 + µ 1 
(1) x = 2y (2) x = y
Q. 13. The dispersive powers of flint glass and
(3) y = 2x (4) None of these crown glass are 0.053 and 0.034, respectively
Q. 8. The velocities of a particle in SHM at positions and their mean refractive indices are 1.68
x1 and x2 are v1 and v2, respectively, its time and 1.53 for white light. Calculate the angle
period will be of the flint glass prism required to form an

(1) 2π
(v 2
1 − v22 )
(2) 2π
(x
2
1 )
+ x 22 achromatic combination with a crown glass
prism of refracting angle 4° :
(x 2
2 −x 2
1 ) (v
2
2 −v )2
1
(1) 2° (2) 4°
(x 2
1 − x 22 ) (x
2
1 +x )2
2
(3) 5° (4) 6°
d
(3) 2π (4) 2π
(v 2
2 − v12 ) (v 2
2 +v )2
1
Q. 14. In young's double slit experiment
D
= 10 −4

Q. 9. One cubic plate, having 15 cm side, floats (d = distance between slits, D = distance
on water surface. If surface tension of water of screen from the slits). At a point P on
is 60 dyne/cm. To lift this plate from water, the screen resulting intensity is equal to
Find the extra force required against weight. the intensity due to individual slit l0. Then
(1) 3600 dyne (2) 1800 dyne the distance of point P from the central
(3) 900 dyne (4) 7200 dyne maximum is (λ = 6000 Å)
Q. 10. A train moving at 25 m/s emits a whistle of (1) 2 mm (2) 1 mm
frequency 200 Hz. If the speed of sound in (3) 0.5 mm (4) 4 mm
Q. 15. The mobility of electrons in a semiconductor
chip of length 10 cm is observed to be 1000
cm2/Vs. When a potential difference of v is
applied across it. What is the drift speed of
electrons. (1) 411/4 T (2) 511/4 T
(1) 1 cm/s (2) 5 cm/s (3) 21/4 T (4) 371/4 T
Q. 20. If a baseball player can throw a ball at
(3) 2000 m/s (4) 1000 m/s
maximum distance = d over a ground, the
Q. 16. The energy levels of a certain atom for first, maximum vertical height to which he can
second and third levels are E, 4E/3 and 2E, throw it, will be (Ball has same initial speed
respectively. A photon of wavelength λ is in each case) :
emitted for a transition 3 → 1. What will be the d
(1) (2) d
wavelength of emission for transition 2 → 1 ? 2
λ 4λ d
(1) (2) (3) 2d (4)
3 3 4
3λ
(3) (4) 3λ Section B
4
Q. 21. A ball falls from a height of 1 m on a ground
Q. 17. The graph of n  R 
versus n A (R = radius and it loses half its kinetic energy when it
 R 0 
of a nucleus and A = its mass number) is : hits the ground. What would be the total
(1) a straight line (2) a parabola distance covered by the ball after sufficiently
long time ?
(3) an ellipse (4) none of these
Q. 22. Consider a gravity-free hall in which an
Q. 18. A square coil ABCD with its plane vertical experimenter of mass 50 kg is resting on a
is released from rest in a horizontal 5 kg pillow, 8 ft above the floor of the hall.
uniform magnetic field B of length 2L. The He pushes the pillow down so that it starts
acceleration of the coil is : falling at a speed of 8 ft/s. The pillow makes
A C a perfectly elastic collision with the floor,
rebounds and reaches the experimenter’s
L
head. The time elapsed in the process is......s
B D
B
Q. 23. A battery of EMF 10V sets up a current of
× × × × 1A when connected across a resistor of 8Ω.
2L × × × ×
If the resistor is shunted by another 8Ω
resistor, what would be the current in the
× × × × circuit ? (in A)

(1) less than g for all the time till the loop Q. 24. A liquid flows out drop by drop from a vessel
crosses the magnetic field completely through a vertical tube with an internal
diameter of 2 mm, then the total number of
(2) less than g when it enters the field and
drops that flows out during 10 grams of the
greater than g when it comes out of the
liquid flow out..... [Assume that the diameter
field
of the neck of a drop at the moment it breaks
(3) g all the time
away is equal to the internal diameter of
(4) less than g when it enters and comes tube and surface tension is 0.02 N/m].
out of the field but equal to g when it is
Q. 25. A cylinder of area 300 cm2 and length 10 cm
within the field
made of material of specific gravity 0.8 is
Q.19. We have three identical perfectly black floated in water with its axis vertical. It is then
plates. The temperatures of first and third pushed downward, so as to be just immersed.
plate is T and 3T. What is the temperature of The work done by the agent who pushes the
second plate if system is in equilibrium ?
cylinder into the water is.....J.
Q. 26. A copper ball of density 8.6 g/cm3, 1 cm constant K = 5 and electric conductivity
in diameter is immersed in oil of density s = 7.4 × 10–12 –1 m–1. If the charge on the
0.8 g/cm3. The charge in mC on the ball, if it plate at the instant t = 0 is q = 8.85 mC, then
remains just suspended in an electric field the leakage current at the instant t = 12 s
of intensity 3600 V/m acting in upward is………× 10–1 A.
direction is..... mC. Q. 29. Potential difference between the points
Q. 27. In a YDSE experiment two slits S1 and S2 A and B in the circuit shown is 16 V, then
have separation of d = 2 mm. The distance potential difference across 2Ω resistor is
of the screen is D = 8/5 m. Source S starts .….V. volt. (VA > VB)
moving from a very large distance towards
S2 perpendicular to S1S2 as shown in figure. 4Ω 9V 1Ω 3V 1Ω 3Ω
The wavelength of monochromatic light is A B
500 nm. The number of maximas observed
on the screen at point P as the source moves 2Ω
towards S2 is 3995 + n. The value of n is.....
Q. 30. The half-value thickness of an absorber is
S1 defined as the thickness that will reduce
d
exponentially the intensity of a beam of
S P
S2 D particles by a factor of 2. The half-value
thickness in (mm) for lead assuming X-ray
beam of wavelength 20 pm, m = 50 cm–1
Q. 28. A leaky parallel plate capacitor is filled for X-rays in lead at wavelength = 20 pm,
completely with a material having dielectric is..... mm

Chemistry

Section A The solution contains :

(1) Bromide (2) Iodide
Q. 31. The chloride of a metal contains 71% (3) Phosphate (4) Chromate
chlorine by weight and the vapour density Q. 35. The arrangement of oxygen atoms around
of it is 50. The atomic mass of the metal will phosphorus atoms in P4O10 is :
be (valency of metal is 2) : (1) Pyramidal (2) Octahedral
(1) 29 (2) 58 (3) Square planar (4) Tetrahedral
(3) 35.5 (4) 71 Q. 36. Glucose with excess of phenyl hydrazine
Q. 32. Orthorhombic crystal has the following unit forms :
cell dimensions (1) Fructosazone
(1) a ≠ b ≠ c and a = b = g ≠ 90° (2) Glucose phenyl hydrazone
(2) a ≠ b ≠ c and a = b = g = 90° (3) Glucosazone
(3) a ≠ b ≠ c and a = g = 90°, b ≠ 90° (4) Phenyl hydrazone of glucosazone
(4) a ≠ b ≠ c and a ≠ b ≠ g = 90° Q. 37. The correct set of the products obtained in
Q. 33. Which is low spin complex : the following reactions :
(1) Fe(CN)64– (2) Co(NO2)63– (A) RCN
reduction
(3) Mn(CN)6 3–
(4) All of these (i) CH3MgBr
Q. 34. An inorganic salt solution gives a yellow (B) RCN (ii) H2O
precipitate with silver nitrate. The hydrolysis
(C) RNC
precipitate dissolves in dilute nitric acid
as well as in ammonium hydroxide. HNO2
(D) RNH2
 The answer is – Q. 39. If a compound on analysis was found to
(1) A B contain C = 18.5%, H = 1.55%, Cl = 55.04%
2° Amine Methyl ketone and O = 24.81%, then its empirical formula
C D is :

1°Amine Alcohol (1) CHClO (2) CH2CIO

(2) A B (3) C2H2OCl (4) CICH2O
1° Amine Methyl ketone Q. 40. The major product of the following reaction
C D is :
2° Amine Alcohol
(3) A B
2° Amine Methyl ketone
C D
(1) CH3O
2° Amine Acid
(4) A B CH3
2° Amine Methyl ketone
C D (2) CH3O CH3

2° Amine Aldehyde
Q. 38. The major product of the following reaction
is :
(3) CH3O
N2Cl OH

Base
(4) CH3O
OH

(1)
Me Me
Q. 41. H OH –
OH + HO H
N=N II
Et Et
OH B
Me Me
N=N –
(2) H Cl
OH
HO H
I
Et Et
OH
A
Steps I and II are :
(3) (1) Both SN1 (2) Both SN2
(3) I SN1, II SN2 (4) I SN2, II SN1
N=N Q. 42. The correct order of bond strength is
− + 2−
OH (1) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
2 − +
(2) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
(4) − 2− +
(3) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
N=N
+ − 2−
(4) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
 COOH
OCOH
& functional isomer

Q. 43. The enthalpy change states for the following OMe OEt
processes are listed below: Et
Cl2(g) = 2Cl (g) 242.3 kJ mol–1 & metamers
I2(g) = 2I (g) 151 kJ mol –1 Me

ICl(g) = I (g) + Cl (g) 242.3 kJ mol–1 CH2 – CH2 –OH CH 2 – O –CH 3

I2(s) = I2 (g) 62.76 kJ mol–1
Given that the standard states for iodine & metamers

chlorine are I2 (s) and Cl2 (g), the standard

enthalpy of formation for ICl (g) is: Me –N–Me CH2 –NH – CH 3
–1 –1
(1) 244.8 kJ mol (2) –14.6 kJ mol functional
–1 &
(3) –16.8 kJ mol (4) 16.8 kJ mol–1 isomers
Q. 44. In which delocalization of positive charge is
possible : (1) TFTF (2) FTTF
(3) TTFT (4) TFFT
NH 3 H H
Q. 47. Of the two solvent H2O and D2O, NaCl
N
dissolves :
(1) (2)
(1) Equally in both the solvents
OH 2 OΘ (2) Only in H2O but remains insoluble in D2O
(3) More in D2O
(3) (4) (4) More in H2O
Q. 48. In the electrolysis method of boron extraction
Q. 45. The major Product of the following reaction the cathode is made of :
is : (1) Carbon (2) Boric anhydride
(3) Mg (4) Iron rod
Q.49 Ge (II) compounds are powerful reducing
agents, whereas Pb (IV) compounds are
strong oxidants. It can be due to :
(1) Lead is more electropositive than
(1)
germanium
(2) The ionization potential of lead is less
than that of germanium
(3) The ionic radii of Pb2+ and Pb4+ are
(2) larger than those of Ge2+ and Ge4+
(4) More pronounced inert pair effect in
lead than in germanium
Q. 50. Which of the following statements is correct
(3)
for CsBr3 ?
(1) It is a covalent compound.
(2) It contains Cs3+ and Br– ions.
(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3– ions.
(4) (4) It contains Cs+, Br– and Br2 molecule.

Section B
Q. 46. Which of the following order is correct :
Q. 51. A drop of solution (volume 0.05 ml) contains
COOH 3.0 × 10–6 mole of H+. If the rate constant
OCOH of disappearance of H+ is 1.0 × 107 mole l–1s–1.
& It would take for H+ in drop to disappear
functional isomer
in..... × 10–9s
OMe OEt
Et
& metamers
Me
Q. 52. The amount of C-14 isotope in a piece of wood 6291456 cm2 is required for adsorption of
is found to be 1/16th of its amount present in a gaseous reaction in a catalysed reaction,
fresh piece of wood. The age of wood, half-life then the number of splits should be made
period of C-14 is 5770 years, is.....years of a cube exactly 1 cm in length is.....
Q. 53. The overall formation constant for the [Given : After each split new cubes of equal
reaction of 6 mol of CN– with Cobalt(II) is dimensions are formed.]
1 × 1019. The formation constant for the Q. 57. The first ionization energy of H is
reaction of 6 mol of CN– with Cobalt(III) 21.79 × 10–19 J. The second ionization energy
is ..... X1063. Given that, of He atom is...... × 10–19J
Co(CN)–36 + e
–1
Co(CN)6–4 Q. 58. E.N. of Si is..... (Covalent radius of
E°Rp = 0.83 V Si = 1.175 Å)
Q. 59. The number of p-bonds present in C2 (Vap.)
Co+3 + e–1 Co+2
molecule according to molecular orbital
E°Rp = 1.82 V
theory are.....
Q. 54. An element has body centered cubic structure
Q. 60. In an experiment O3 undergo decomposition
with a cell edge of 3.0 Å. The density of the
as O3 O2 + O
metal is 2 amu/Å3. Atoms present in 243 × 1024
by the radiations of wavelength 310 Å. The
amu of the element are ..... × 1024
total energy falling on the O3 gas molecules
Q. 55. Phenol associates in benzene to a certain
is 2.4 × 1026 eV and quantum yield of the
extent to form a dimer. A solution containing
reaction is 0.2.
20 × 10–3 kg of phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene
The volume strength of the H2O2 solution
has its freezing point depressed by 0.69 K.
which is obtained from reaction of 1 l H2O
The fraction of phenol that has dimerised is.....
and nascent oxygen [O] obtained from the
(Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol–1)
above reactions is..... (Assuming no change
Q. 56. Finely divided catalyst has greater surface
in volume of H2O)
area and has greater catalytic activity than
H2O + O H 2O2
the compact solid. If a total surface area of
[Given : NA (Avogadro's No.) = 6 × 1023

Mathematics
1

Section A Q. 64. ò|3x - 1| dx

0
equals :
Q. 61. The co-ordinates of the point where the line
(1) 5/6 (2) 5/3
joining the points (2, –3, 1), (3, –4, –5) cuts
the plane 2x + y + z = 7 are : (3) 10/3 (4) 5
(1) (2, 1, 0) (2) (3, 2, 5) Q. 65. The area of the region bounded by the curve
(3) (1, –2, 7) (4) None of these y = sin x and the x-axis in [–p, p] is :
Q. 62. If D, E, F are the mid points of the sides BC, (1) 4 (2) 8
CA and A respectively of a triangle ABC (3) 12 (4) 2
and 'O' is any point, then, AD + BE + CF , Q. 66. The curve passing through (0, 1) and
is : satisfying sin æç dy ö÷ = 1 is:
(1) 1 (2) 0 è dx ø 2
(3) 2 (4) 4 y -1ö 1
y+1 ö 1
dx (1) cos æç ÷= (2) sin æç ÷=
Q. 63. ò x equals : è x ø 2 è x ø 2
e + e-x
(1) log (ex + e–x) + c (2) log (ex – e–x) + c æ x ö 1 æ x ö 1
(3) cos ç ÷= (4) sin ç ÷=
(3) tan–1 (ex) + c (4) tan–1 (e–x) + c è y +1ø 2 è y -1ø 2
Q. 67. If y = alog |x| + bx2 + x has its extremum (1) x – k = 0 & y – h = 0
values at x = –1 and x = 2, then : (2) x + h = 0 & y + k = 0
(1) a = 2, b = –1 (2) a = 2, b = -1 (3) x – k = 0 & y + h = 0
2 (4) x + k = 0 & y – h = 0
1
(3) a = –2, b = (4) a = –2, b = -1 Q. 75. For the roots of the equation
2 2 a – bx – x2 = 0; (a > 0, b > 0), which statement
q
Q. 68. If x = a[cos θ + log tan ], y = a sin θ then is true ?
dy 2
= (1) both roots are positive
dx
(2) both roots are negative
(1) cos θ (2) sin θ
(3) roots have opposite sign, negative root
(3) tan θ (4) cosec θ
1 has greater magnitude
Q. 69. The range of the function y = is :
2 - sin 3x (4) roots have opposite sign, positive root
æ1 ö é1 ö has greater magnitude
(1) çè , 1÷ø (2) ê , 1÷
3 ë3 ø
Q. 76. If log10 2 = 0.3010 ⋅ log103 = 0⋅4771 then
æ1 ù
(3) éê 1 , ù
1ú (4) ç ,1ú number of ciphers after decimal before a
ë3 û è3 û æ5ö
-100

x 3 - 2x - 1
significant figure comes in ç ÷ is
Q. 70. xlim = è3ø
®-1 x 5 - 2x - 1
(1) 21 (2) 22
2 1
(1) (2) (3) 23 (4) 24
3 3
Q. 77. If the ratio of the sum of n terms of two AP’s is
4 5
(3) (4) 2n : (n+1), then ratio of their 8th terms is :
3 3
Q. 71. A circle touching the x-axis at (3, 0) and (1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 13
making an intercept of length 8 on the y-axis (3) 11:6 (4) 5 : 17
n
passes through the point: æ 1ö
Q. 78. If the 4th term in the expansion of ç ax + ÷
(1) (3, 10) (2) (3, 5) è xø
5
(3) (2, 3) (4) (1, 5) is then the values of a and n respectively
2
Q. 72. If the line y – 3x + 3 = 0 cuts the parabola are :
y2 = x + 2 at A and B, then PA. PB is equal to 1
(1) 2, 6 (2) ,6
(where co-ordinates of P are ( 3 , 0)): 2
1
(3) ,5 (4) 2, 5
(1)
4 ( 3 +2 ) (2)
(
4 2- 3 ) 2
Q. 79. The number of positive integers satisfying
3 3
the inequality n + 1Cn – 2 – n + 1Cn – 1≤ 100 is :
(3) 2 3 (4)
2 ( 3 +2 ) (1) Nine (2) Eight
3
Q. 73. The tangent and the normal at a point P on (3) Five (4) Ten
x2 y2 Q. 80. If the orthocentre of the triangle formed by
an ellipse 2 + 2 = 1 meet its major axis in
a b (1, 3) (4, –5) and (a, b) is (2, 4), Then the value
T and T' so that TT' = a then e2 cos2 θ + cos θ of 33b + 22a is:
(where e is eccentricity of the ellipse) is equal
(1) 0 (2) 1
to : 11
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 3
2
11
2 1
(3) (4)
3 4 Section B
Comment As each nuclear less than 1, the
1
sum can not be equal in 2 Q. 81. Given fn ( x ) =
n
(
sin n x + cosn x for)
Q. 74. The asymptotes of the hyperbola n = 1, 2, 3, ....... Then the value of
xy = hx + ky are : 24(ƒ4(x) – ƒ6(x)) is equal to .....
Q. 82. If the sum of all solutions of equation continuous at x = 0 then (a2 + b2) is equal
kp to.....
sin x + 2 cos x = 1 + 3 cos x in [0, 2p] is
The value of k is ..... 6 Q. 87. Four fair dice are thrown simultaneously.
Q. 83. The sum of the series If probability that the highest number
25a
æ 1ö æ 2ö obtained is 4 is then 'a' is equal to.....
tan–1 ç ÷ + tan–1 çè ÷ø +..... 1296
è 3ø 9
é 2 n -1 ù Q. 88. If the sides a, b, c of ∆ ABC satisfy the
+ tan ê –1
2 n - 1 ú +.......∞. equation 4x3 – 24x2 + 47x – 30 = 0 and
kp ë1 + 2 û
is..... Then the value of k is....... a2 ( s - a )2 ( s - a )2
4 p2
( s - b )2 b2 ( s - b )2 = where p and q
Q. 84. If the number of five digit numbers with q
( s - c )2 ( s - c )2 c 2
distinct digits and 2 at the 10th place is 336 k,
then k is equal to.... are co-prime and s is semiperimeter of ∆ABC,
Q. 85. In a workshop, there are five machines and then the value of (p – q) is.....
the probability of any one of them to be out
1 é 0 aa 2 ab2 ù
of service on a day is . If the probability ê ú
4 Q. 89. If D = êba + c 0 ag 2 ú is a skew
that at most two machines will be out of ê bb + c ( b g + c ) 0 ú
3
ë û
æ3ö symmetric matrix (where α, β, γ are distinct)
service on the same day is ç ÷ k, then k is
è4ø ( a + 1)2 (1 - a) (2 - c )
equal to........... and the value of (3 + c ) ( b + 2)2 ( b + 1)2
Q. 86. If function (3 - b )2 b2 ( c + 3)

ì a sin x + b tan x – 3 x is λ then the value of |10 | is.....

ï , x¹ 0
ƒ( x ) = í x3 is Q. 90. Let |z| = |z – 3| = |z – 4i|, then the
ïî 0 , x =0 value|2z| is.....