SECTION A – QUANTITATIVE AND ANALYTICAL ABILITY

1. The average age of 15 students in a class is 15 years. Out of these, the average age of 5 students
is 14 years and that of the other 9 students is 16 years. The age of the 15th student is
a. 11 years c. 15 years
b. 14 years d. 16 years

2. A man buys a mobile phone for Rs. 7800 and sells it for Rs. 8800 at a credit of one year. If the
rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man
(Rs. = Rupees)
a. gains 120 c. gains 200
b. losses 120 d. losses 200
4 𝑥 63
3. Solve for 𝑥: 2𝑙𝑜𝑔 3 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔 10 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 160 = 0
a. 7 c. 9
b. 14 d. 3
1 1
4. If 3 of a number is 3 more than 4 of the number, then what is the number?
a. 18 c. 30
b. 24 d. 36

5. The HCF of 0.54, 1.8 and 7.2 is

(HCF = Highest Common Factor)
a. 1.8 c. 5.4
b. 0.18 d. 0.72
2
2 27 3
6. If log 3 = 0.4771, find the value of {log(0.81) × log (10) ÷ log 9}.

a. 2.689 c. 2.2402
b. -0.0552 d. 2.702

𝑥2 −25
7. Find the value lim⁡
𝑥→5 𝑥−5

a. 0 c. 10
b. 5 d. ∞

8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘LEADING’ be arranged (without
repetitions), such that the vowels always come together?
a. 360 c. 480
b. 720 d. 5040

9. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards, each of the 52 cards being equally likely to be
drawn. Find the probability that the card drawn is either red or king.
a. 1⁄4 c. 15⁄26
b. 7⁄13 d. 8⁄13

1
10. A man bought goods worth Rs. 6000 and sold half of them at a gain of 10%. At what gain
percent must he sell the remainder so as to get a gain of 25% on the whole? (Rs. = Rupees)
a. 25% c. 35%
b. 30% d. 40%

11. Find the sum of series 1 + 3.5 + 6 + 8.5 + _ _ _ + 101

a. 2091 c. 1091
b. 2081 d. 2191

12. On an Island, there are four men for every three women and five children for every three men.
How many children are there on the island if it has 531 women?
a. 454 c. 1070
b. 1180 d. 389

13. The percentage increase in surface area of a cube when each side is doubled is
a. 25% c. 100%
b. 50% d. 300%

14. A merchant blends two varieties of tea from two different gardens, one costing Rs. 45 per kg
and other Rs. 60 per kg in the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively. He sells the blended variety at Rs.
54.45 per kg. The profit percentage in the transaction is (Rs. = Rupees, kg = kilograms)
a. 5% 1
c. 911 %
1
b. 10% d. 119%

15. What will the simple interest earned on an amount of Rs. 15000 in 8 months at the rate of 5%
per annum? (Rs. = Rupees)
a. Rs. 400 c. Rs. 600
b. Rs. 500 d. Rs. 700

16. A can do some work in 24 days, B can do it in 32 days and C can do it in 60 days. They start
working together. A left after 6 days and B left after working for 8 days. How many more days
are required to complete the whole work by C?
a. 30 c. 22
b. 25 d. 20

17. What is the equation of a line which passes through the point (-1, 3) and is perpendicular to the
straight line 5x + 3y + 1 = 0?
a. 3x – 5y + 18 = 0 c. 5x – 3y + 1 = 0
b. 5x – 3y + 18 = 0 d. 3x + 5y + 1 = 0

18. Solve for x, if

13𝑘
𝑃[𝑥÷(𝑥−12)] = 𝑃𝑘 and⁡ 5 = 5
a. – 25 c. 5
b. k > 3 d. 25

2
19. After selling an article at a discount percentage of 50%, profit percentage obtained is 20%.
What is the mark-up over cost price?
a. 70% of cost price c. 60% of cost price
b. 140% of cost price d. 80% of cost price

20. If the area of a triangle with base “x” is equal to the area of a square with side “x”, then the
altitude of the triangle is
𝑥
a. 2 c. 2x
b. x d. 3x

21. The average of runs of a cricket player for 10 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in
his next inning so as to increase his average of runs by 4?
a. 2 c. 70
b. 4 d. 76

22. A owes B Rs. 20056 due 1 year hence. A wants to settle the account after 3 months. If the rate
of interest is 12% per annum, the cash paid by A will be
(Rs. = Rupees)
a. Rs. 18050.40 c. Rs. 19200
b. Rs. 18400 d. Rs. 19120

23. The population of a district increases at the rate of 5% compounded annually. Its present
population is 1,85,220. The population 3 years ago was
a. 1,81,500 c. 1,83,433
b. 1,60,000 d. 1,27,783

24. ‘A’ starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, ‘B’ joins with ‘A’ as his partner. After a
year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2:3. What is B’s contribution in the capital? (Rs. =
Rupees)
a. Rs. 7500 c. Rs. 8500
b. Rs. 8000 d. Rs. 9000

25. A student multiplies a number X by 5 instead of dividing it by 5. What is the percentage change
in the result due to this mistake?
a. 25% c. 2500%
b. 24% d. 2400%

26. Six dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability that all of them show the same face.
a. 1⁄6 c. 1⁄36
b. 1⁄66 d. 1⁄65

27. A retailer buys 40 pens at the marked price of 36 pens from a wholesaler. If he sells these pens
giving a discount of 1%, what is the profit percent?
a. 10% c. 15%
b. 12% d. 20%

3
28. The co-ordinates of the diagonals of a square are (2, 0) and (0, 5). What is the area of the
square?
a. 29 square units c. 29/4 square units
b.
√29
⁡square⁡units d. 14.5 square units
√2

29. In the inequality 4x + 3 < 2x + 5, all of the following may be the value of ‘x’ except
a. 1 c. – 2

b. – 1 −1
d. 2

30. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and
child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is
a. 35 years c. 50 years
b. 40 years d. 45 years

31. The product of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. The difference of two numbers is 2. The
numbers are
(LCM = Least Common Multiple, HCF = Highest Common Factor)
a. 2 and 4 c. 8 and 6
b. 6 and 4 d. 8 and 10

32. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, how many ways can four persons be selected, such that at least
one boy should be there?
a. 159 c. 205
b. 194 d. 209

33. A person purchases 90 clocks and sells 40 clocks at a gain of 10% and 50 clocks at a gain of
20%. If he sold all of them at a uniform profit of 15% then he would have got Rs. 40 less. The
cost price of each clock is
a. Rs. 50 c. Rs. 80
b. Rs. 60 d. Rs. 90

34. The product of three successive numbers in an AP is 15000. The largest number is 3/2 times the
smallest. What is the middle term? (A.P. = Arithmetic Progression)
a. 10 c. 20
b. 15 d. 25

35. The arithmetic mean of seventy five numbers is calculated as 35. If each number is increased by
5, then mean of new numbers is
a. 30 c. 40
b. 35 d. 45

36. If Rs. 64 amounts to Rs. 83.20 in 2 years following simple interest, what will Rs. 86 amount to
in 4 years at the same rate percent per annum following simple interest?
(Rs. = Rupees)
a. Rs. 114.80 c. Rs. 127,40
b. Rs. 124.70 d. Rs. 137.60

4
37. If you have 3 tickets to a lottery for which 10 tickets were sold and 5 prizes are to be given, the
probability that you will win at least one prize is
a. 11⁄12 c. 1⁄2
b. 3⁄10 d. 3⁄50

38. How many kilogrammes of rice costing Rs. 8 per kg must be mixed with 36 kg of rice costing
Rs. 5.40 per kg so that 20% gain may be obtained by selling the mixture at Rs. 7.20 per kg?
(kg = kilogrammes, Rs. = Rupees)
a. 10.8 kg c. 11.8 kg
b. 9.8 kg d. 12.8 kg

39. Find the wrong number in the series 125, 106, 88, 76, 65, 58, 53.
a. 125 c. 88
b. 106 d. 76

40. A train 100 meters long completely passes a man walking at 6 km/hr in the same direction in 5
seconds and a car travelling in the same direction in 6 seconds. At what speed was the car
travelling? (km/hr = kilometres/hour)
a. 18 km/hr c. 24 km/hr
b. 48 km/hr d. 30 km/hr

41. The LCM of two numbers is 495 and their HCF is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 100, then
their difference is
(LCM = Least Common Multiple, HCF = Highest Common Factor)
a. 10 c. 70
b. 46 d. 90

42. Kalpesh, Bhavesh and Zankar jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It
was agreed that Kalpesh would invest Rs. 6,500 for 6 months; Bhavesh Rs. 8400 for 5 months;
and Zankar Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. Kalpesh is the working member for which, he will receive
5% of the profits. The total profit earned was Rs. 7,400. Calculate the share of Bhavesh in the
profit. (Rs. = Rupees)
a. Rs. 1900 c. Rs. 2800
b. Rs. 2660 d. Rs. 2840

43. Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of three
numbers is 44, what is the largest number?
a. 24 c. 44
b. 72 d. 06

44. In an examination consisting of 75 questions, one mark is given for every correct answer and ¼
mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A student attempts all the 75 questions and scores a
total of 50 marks. Find the number of questions he marked wrong.
a. 20 c. 30
b. 25 d. 50

5
45. Three men rent a farm for Rs. 7000 per annum. ‘A’ puts 110 cows in the farm for 3 months, ‘B’
puts 110 cows for 6 months and ‘C’ puts 440 cows for 3 months. What percentage of the total
expenditure should ‘A’ pay? (Rs. = Rupees)
a. 20% c. 16.66%
b. 14.28% d. 11.01%

46. Due to stiff competition, a soft drink company decreased its price by 50% and starts selling the
drink in 200 ml. bottles instead of the previous 300 ml. bottles. Other things being constant,
what is the decrease in revenue in percentage terms for every 100 ml. sold? (ml. = milli litre)
a. 20% c. 331⁄3 %
b. 25% d. 50%

47. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 100 days. If however there were 10 men
less, it would take another 10 days to finish the work. How many men were there originally?
a. 50 c. 82
b. 75 d. 110

48. log 5 𝑃 × log 𝑃 𝑥 = 2. What is the value of⁡𝑥?

a. 125 c. 25
b. 𝑃2 d. √5

49. Fill in the missing number: 4, 27, 256, _____, 46656, 823543
a. 3125 c. 625
b. 4125 d. 5625

50. A tank with capacity T litres is empty. If water flows into the tank from pipe P at the rate of X
litres per minute and water is pumped out by pipe Q at the rate of Y litres per minute and X>Y,
in how many minutes will the tank be filled? (min = minutes)
𝑇 (𝑇−𝑋)
a. 𝑚𝑖𝑛 c. 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑌−𝑋 𝑌
𝑇 (𝑋−𝑌)
b. 𝑚𝑖𝑛 d. 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑋−𝑌 60𝑇

51. How many 4 letter words, with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters of the word
‘LOGARITHMS’, if repetition of letters is not allowed?
a. 40 c. 5040
b. 400 d. 2520

52. Sanjay, Boman and Arsad are doing a work in 10 days. However, Arsad only worked for the
37
first 3 days till 100 𝑡ℎ of total work is done. The remaining work was done by Sanjay and
Boman alone. Efficiency of Sanjay is 25% more than efficiency of Boman. What is the time
taken by the fastest worker to finish the work alone?
a. 16.66 days c. 25 days
b. 30 days d. 20 days

6
53. A and B start from a place P at same time to reach another place Q. A travels at a constant
speed of 21 kmph, while B starts with a speed of 12 kmph and increases his speed by 2 kmph at
the end of every hour. If both of them arrive at Q at the same time, what is the distance between
P and Q? (kmph = kilometres per hour)
a. 200 c. 11
b. 210 d. 110

54. From the following diagram, what is the value of ∠𝑃𝑄𝑅?

Q

70° 50°
P S T R
a. 100° c. 110°
b. 120° d. 130°

55. Hardik and Jeetu invest in a business in the ratio 3:2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and
Hardik’s share is Rs. 855, then total profit is (Rs. = Rupees)
a. Rs. 1,425 c. Rs. 1,537.50
b. Rs. 1,500 d. Rs. 1,576

56. A problem is given to three persons A, B and C whose respective chances of solving it are 2/7,
4/7 and 4/9 respectively. What is the probability that the problem is solved?
a. 2/21 c. 25/147
b. 19/21 d. 122/147

57. The average temperature of the town in the first four days of a month was 58°. The average for
the second, third, fourth and fifth day was 60°. If the temperature of the first and fifth day were
in the ratio of 7 : 8, what is the temperature of the fifth day?
a. 64° c. 56°
b. 62° d. 58°

58. Out of the total students in the tenth class of St. Ann’s High School, the square root of ten times
the total is boys and the remaining 20 students are girls. What is the strength of the class?
a. 80 c. 40
b. 60 d. 50

59. The angle covered by a wheel in 3 seconds, if it makes 200 revolutions in a minute is
a. 10𝜋 c. 20𝜋
b. 15𝜋 d. 30𝜋

60. The C.P. of an article is 40% of the S.P. The percent that the S.P. is of C.P. is
(C.P. = Cost Price, S.P. = Selling Price)
a. 250 c. 60
b. 240 d. 40
7
 SECTION B – DATA INTERPRETATION

Directions for Questions 1 to 5 : The following pie chart shows the sources of funds to be collected
by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for its Phase II projects. Study the pie chart and
answer the questions that follow.

SOURCES OF FUNDS TO BE ARRANGED BY NHAI FOR PHASE II

PROJECTS (IN CRORES RS.)
Special Purpose
Vehicle
External Assistance 5252
11486
Toll
4910

Annuity
6000

Market Borrowing
29952

Total funds to be arranged for projects (Phase II) = Rs. 57,600 crores
1. Near about 20% of the funds are to be arranged through:
a. Special Purpose Vehicle c. External Assistance
b. Annuity d. Market Borrowing

2. The central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing is:

a. 52° c. 187.2°
b. 137.8° d. 192.4°

3. The approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged through Toll and that through Market
Borrowing is:
a. 2:9 c. 3:11
b. 1:6 d. 2:5

4. If NHAI could receive a total of Rs. 9695 crores as External Assistance, by what percent
(approximately) should it increase the Market Borrowing to arrange for the shortage of funds?
a. 4.5% c. 6%
b. 7.5% d. 8%

5. If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum 10%

commission, how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency,
so that the project is supported with Rs. 4910 crores?
a. Rs. 6213 crores c. Rs. 5401 crores
b. Rs. 5827 crores d. Rs. 5216 crores

8
Directions for Questions 6 to 10 : Study the following graph and answer the questions based on it.

Exports From Three Companies Over The Years (in Crore Rs.)

140
130
120
110
100
Amount in Rs. Crores

90
80 Company X
70
Company Y
60
Company Z
50
40
30
20
10
0
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014

6. Approximately what percent of the average annual exports for Company Z is the average
annual export for Company Y during the given period?
a. 87.12% c. 91.21%
b. 89.64% d. 93.33%

7. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than the average
annual exports over the given years?
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

8. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in 2008 and the
average exports in 2013?
a. Rs. 15.33 crores c. Rs. 20 crores
b. Rs. 18.57 crores d. Rs. 22.17 crores

9. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y the minimum?
a. 2009 c. 2011
b. 2013 d. 2014

10. For which of the following pairs of years are the total exports from the three companies
together equal?
a. 2008 and 2009 c. 2009 and 2010
b. 2013 and 2014 d. 2010 and 2011

9
Directions for Questions 11 to 15: The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of
the total production of a car manufacturing company into various models over two years. Study the
graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Percentage of six different types of cars manufactured by a company over two years

100
90
80
70
U
60 T
50
40
S
30 R
20
10
Q
0 P
2013 2014
Total Number of Cars Total Number of Cars
produced = 3,50,000 produced = 4,40,000

11. Total number of cars of models P, Q and T manufactured in 2013 is

a. 2,45,000 c. 2,10,000
b. 2,27,500 d. 1,92,500

12. For which model the percentage rise/fall in production from 2013 to 2014 was minimum?
a. Q c. S
b. R d. T

13. What was the difference in the number of Q type cars produced in 2013 and that produced in
2014?
a. 35,500 c. 22,500
b. 27,000 d. 17,500

14. If the percentage production of P type cars in 2014 was the same as that in 2013, than the
number of P type cars produced in 2014 would have been
a. 1,40,000 c. 1,17,000
b. 1,32,000 d. 1,05,000

15. If 85% of the S type cars produced in each year were sold by the Company, how many S type
cars remained unsold?
a. 7650 c. 11,850
b. 9350 d. 12,250

10
Directions for Questions 16 to 20: Study the following table and answer the questions given below it.

Availability and Demand for Various Categories of Steel in Indian Railways

(In ‘000 tonnes)
Sr. 2010-2011 2012-2013
Category
No. Demand Availability Demand Availability
1 Shapes 6960 5725 9745 9360
2 Flats 4360 5020 6300 6600
3 Railway Material 400 550 450 560

16. If the demand for each category of steel is to be met in 2012-2013, the additional quantity of
steel that is to be produced is
I 110 thousand tonnes of railway material
II 300 thousand tonnes of flats
III 385 thousand tonnes of shapes

a. I only c. III only

b. II only d. II and III only

17. In 2010-2011, what per cent of the total demand for steel is the demand for flats?
a. 18 c. 29
b. 37 d. 48

18. The expected percentage growth in the demand for railway material over the five years period
from 2010-2011 to 2013-2014 is
a. 11 c. 1/8
b. 37.5 d. 12.5

19. The percentage change in the shortfall of shapes over the five years period from 2010-2011 to
2013-2014 is expected to be
a. +40 c. +221
b. -68 d. +68

20. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true:

a. The demand for shapes as a percentage of the total demand for steel was almost the
same for 2010-2011 and 2013-2014.
b. The demand for railway materials as a percentage of the total demand for steel was less
in 2010-2011 than in 2013-14.
c. The shortage of shapes is only due to excess availability of flats and railway material.
d. The rate of growth in demand for shapes is greater than the rate of growth in supply of
shapes.

11
Directions for Questions 21 to 25 : Each question is followed by two statements. Mark your answers
as
a. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
b. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
c. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
d. If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

21. What is the speed of a running train?

[I] The train crosses a signal post in 6 seconds
[II] The train crosses another train running in the opposite direction in 15 seconds.

22. A train crosses another train running in the opposite direction in x seconds. What is the speed of
the train?
[I] Both the trains are running at the same speed.
[II] The first train is y centimetre long.

23. What is the capacity of a cylindrical tank?

[I] Radius of the base is half of its height, which is 28 metres.
[II] Area of the base is 616 sq. m. and height is 28 metres.

24. What will be ratio of men to women and children in the town?
[I] Population of the town is 93280 of which 56100 are men.
[II] The ratio of men to children is 5 : 2 and women are double in number than the children.

25. What will be the number?

[I] One-fifth of a number is equal to 20% of that number.
7
[II] Thirty-five per cent of a number is 20 of that number.

12
Directions for Questions 26 to 30: A, B, C, and D are four friends living together in a flat and they
have an agreement that whatever edible is available, they will share equally among themselves. One
day A’s uncle came to him and gave a box of laddoos. Since no one was around, A divided the laddoos
in four equal parts and ate his share after which he put the rest in the box. As he was closing the box, B
walked in and took the box. He again divided it in four equal parts, A and B ate one part each and kept
the remaining laddoos in the box. Suddenly C appeared and snatched the box. He again divided the
laddoos in four equal parts, the three of them ate one part each and kept the remaining laddoos in the
box. Later when D came he again divided the laddoos in for equal parts and all four ate their respective
share. In total D ate 3 laddoos.

26. How many laddoos in total, did C eat?

a. 12 c. 39
b. 15 d. 14

27. How many laddoos in total, did B eat?

a. 24 c. 39
b. 15 d. 12

28. How many laddoos in total, did A eat?

a. 56 c. 71
b. 68 d. 32

29. How many laddoos were given to A by his uncle?

a. 128 c. 113
b. 125 d. 100

30. How many laddoos did A eat the first time?

a. 32 c. 15
b. 24 d. 30

13
 SECTION C – VERBAL AND GENERAL ABILITY

(Questions - 1 to 5): Each of the critical reasoning questions given below are based on a short
argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer out of
the choices provided.

1. A study of children’s television watching habits by the Federal Department of Education found
that the children aged 7-10 who watched more than 25 hours of television per week, performed
worse in school than children of the same age who watched fewer than 25 hours of television
per week. Therefore, parents of children aged 7-10 should prohibit their children from watching
more than 25 hours of television per week.
Which of the following, if true, would best strengthen the argument above?
a. A separate study by a renowned graduate school of education, found that when parents
prohibited their children from watching any television, the children’s reading scores
increased rapidly and significantly and stayed high indefinitely.
b. Children who watched more than 25 hours of television per week also performed worse
on measures of physical fitness than children who watched fewer than 25 hours per
week.
c. The television shows that children aged 7-10 are most likely to watch are saturated with
advertisements for products, such as toys and candy, of little educational value.
d. The Department of Education study gave appropriate weight to children of all
backgrounds representative of children nationwide.

2. Opponents of the laws prohibiting nonprescription narcotic drugs argue that in a free society,
people have the right to take risks as long as the risks do not constitute a harm to others who
have not elected to take such risks. These opponents conclude that it should be each person’s
decision whether or not to use narcotic drugs.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion drawn above?
a. Some narcotic drugs have been shown to have medicinal qualities.
b. There are laws that govern the use of prescription drugs.
c. Studies have shown that people who use nonprescription drugs are much more likely to
perpetrate a violent crime when intoxicated than when sober.
d. People who use narcotic drugs are twice as likely to die of an overdose as of natural
causes.

3. A team of pediatricians recently announced that the pet birds are more likely to bite children
under age 13 than people of any other age group. The team’s finding was based on a study
showing that the majority of all bird bites requiring medical attention involved children under
13. The study also found that the birds most likely to bite are cockatiels and parakeets.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the pediatricians’ conclusion that birds are
more likely to bite children under age 13 than people of any other age group?
a. More than half of bird bites not requiring medical attention, which exceed the number
requiring such attention, involve people aged 13 and older.
b. The majority of bird bites resulting in the death of the bitten person involve people aged
65 and older.
c. Many serious bird bites affecting children under age 13 are inflicted by birds other than
cockatiels and parakeets.
d. Most bird bites in children under age 13 that require medical attention are far less
serious than they initially appear.

14
 4. To avoid the appearance of conflicts of interest, the board of a major U.S. stock exchange is
considering a new policy that would ban former top executives of the exchange from taking
positions at publicly traded companies for a period of two years after leaving the stock
exchange. Critics of the plan say that the policy is unfair because it is likely to prevent former
top executives of the exchange from earning a decent living.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the prediction made by the
critics of the proposed company policy?
a. Former employees of the exchange most often work for publicly traded companies after
leaving the exchange.
b. Low level managers at the exchange have an average tenure of 13 years, one of the
longest in the industry.
c. Low level managers at the exchange most often leave their jobs for positions with the
state or federal government.
d. Former top executives of the exchange have a particular set of skills such that they are
usually only able to find work with publicly traded companies.

5. The Ministry of Tourism in country X began an expensive television advertising campaign in

country Y two years ago. Since that time, the number of visitors to country X from country Y
have increased by more than 8 percent. Clearly, the Ministry of Tourism’s campaign is
responsible for the increase.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
a. The advertisements sponsored by the Ministry of Tourism in country X were banned by
the country Y media for lack of imagination.
b. A devaluation of the currency in country X two years ago made travel there, more
affordable for residents of country Y.
c. Increasing political turmoil in country X will lead to a decrease in visitors from country
Y next year.
d. The number of visitors from country Y to country Z increased by more than 8 percent
over the past two years.

(Questions - 6 to 10): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the
lettered pair that expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

6. Water : Flood :: __________ : ____________

a. Rain : River c. Snow : Blizzard
b. Wind : Sleet d. Ice : Floe

7. Fortitude : Resolution :: __________ : ____________

a. Timidity : Cowardice c. Medal : Bravery
b. Heroics : Stoicism d. Poem : Poet

8. Gasoline : Petrol :: __________ : ____________

a. Motor : Car c. Light : Heavy
b. Engine : Trunk d. Elevator : Lift

9. Rhythm : Rhyme :: __________ : ____________

a. Poet : Versifier c. Prose : Poetry
b. Accent : Sound d. Versification : Scansion
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 10. Cackle : Geese :: _________ : ________
a. Hump : Camels c. Sly : Jackals
b. Heavy : Elephants d. Hiss : Serpents

(Questions - 11 to 15): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the
one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

11. QUELL
a. Postpone c. Complain
b. Avoid d. Suppress

12. PRUNE
a. Lend c. Expand
b. Reduce d. Prolong

13. ROTUND
a. Flat c. Foolish
b. Fat d. Weak

14. COUNTERVAIL
a. Recreate c. Equalise
b. Demolish d. Contradict

15. GRUBBY
a. Wet c. New
b. Muddy d. Unwashed

(Questions - 16 to 20) Read the passage given below carefully and choose the best answer for each
of the questions that follow it.

Motivations for ruralism in under developed countries are understandably different from those in
developed countries. There, it is sheer physical necessity for the very act of man’s survival. In the
Third World countries, which are predominantly rural, the only lever that can lift human life above its
present subhuman level, is rural development. Rural life in such countries has been stagnating for
centuries. Nothing worthwhile has been done to ameliorate the conditions of the rural population which
is only slightly different from that of their quadruped counterparts. Ignorance, ill health and poverty
have become synonyms of rural life in the undeveloped and underdeveloped countries. The worst
tragedy is that the concerned human populations have taken this state of affairs for granted, as
something unalterable, something for which there is no remedy. Every ray of hope has gone out of their
lives. In such countries, rural development is the inevitable condition of any material or non material
advancement. As such, enlightened sections of all such countries have been taking ever growing
interest in the question of rural development.
This was also part of the legacy of their freedom struggle. In countries like India, it is well known that
attempts at rural development were an inseparable part of the Independence movement. Leaders like
Gandhiji realized quite well that ‘Real India’ lived in her stagnating villages. Cities, which were mostly
the products of western colonialism, were just artificial showpieces. Even there, there were two worlds.
The posh areas, where the affluent few, mostly the products and custodians of imperial interest lived,
were little islands engulfed by the vast ocean of dirt, represented by the vast majority of people.
Cities were by no means unknown to India, but in ancient India, they were integral parts, organically
related to the rest of the country and society. Modern cities are exotic centres of commercial and
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industrial exploitation. Cities in ancient India were the flowers of cultural and artistic excellence of the
nation, modern cities are just parasites, preying on and debilitating the country.
Hence Gandhiji started the ‘Go to Village Movement’ which alone, according to him, could bring
freedom to India and sustain it. Rural development had the pride of place in his strategy for the nation’s
freedom. Thus, it had its origin in the freedom struggle.

16. People are taking growing interest in rural development because

a. nothing worthwhile can be done in the near future.
b. they have now become optimistic about it.
c. they have realized the indispensability of it.
d. they have been suffering from severe health problems.

17. Which of the following is the ‘lever’ according to the passage?

a. Upliftment of the rural masses
b. Enlightenment of certain sections of the society
c. Non-material advancement
d. Stagnation of rural life

18. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
a. Most of the rich people dwelling in modern cities are genuinely concerned about rural
development.
b. Rural development is a prerequisite of any other advancement and progress.
c. The rural folk in the Third World countries feel that their subhuman condition cannot be
improved.
d. Only rural development can raise the standard of living of people in the Third World
countries.

19. Which of the following best describes the two divergent worlds of the modern cities?
a. Commercial and industrial exploitation
b. Patrons of western products and custodians of imperial interests
c. A few rich people and many poor people
d. Posh area and affluent people

20. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
a. The rural folk are very optimistic about improvement in their condition.
b. In the present context, ignorance, poverty and ill health are inseparable parts of rural
life.
c. Most of the Third World countries are undergoing fast urbanisation.
d. India’s struggle for freedom has been considered as a part of rural development.

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(Questions - 21 to 25): Complete the following text by selecting appropriate set of words from the
options given below.

21. Her novel published to universal (i) _______, her literary gifts acknowledged by the chief
figures of the Harlem Renaissance, her reputation as yet (ii) ________ by envious slights.
Hurston clearly was at the (iii) __________ of her career.
a. acclaim, untarnished, zenith
b. indifference, belittled, peak
c. derision, resented, extremity
d. approval, recognized, ebb

22. Despite an affected (i) ________ that convinced casual observers that he was (ii) ________
about his painting and cared only for frivolity, Warhol cared deeply about his art and laboured
at it (iii) _______.
a. fervour, apathetic, ambivalently
b. gloom, passionate, meticulously
c. casualness, systematic, intermittently
d. nonchalance, indifferent, diligently

23. The perpetual spinning of particles is much like that of a top, with one significant (i) _______;
unlike the top, the particles have no need to be wound up, for (ii) ________ is one of their
(iii) _______ properties.
a. difference, rotation, intrinsic
b. disparity, correlation, result
c. circuitousness, revolution, collision
d. inherent, hypothetical, intangible

24. Although most preventative medical ointments commonly in use would have (i) ________ an
infection, the particular one Helen applied to her scores actually, much to her dismay,
(ii) ________ her (iii) ________.
a. surrendered to, participated in, medicine
b. exacerbated, detracted from, salve
c. broken off, disbursed with, suffering
d. staved off, contributed to, affliction

25. As a rule, (i) ________ interpretations of events are rejected by modern scientists in their
attempts to find secular insights into the matrix of causes and effects in our modern world.
Paradoxically, this fact does not (ii) __________ the existence of individual scientists who
possess views that may be (iii) ____________ with a belief in supernatural causes.
a. falsifiable, countenance, at variance
b. supernatural, enhance, agreement
c. teleological, prevent, discrepant
d. preternatural, preclude, consonant

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(Questions - 26 to 30): Each of the sentence correction questions presents a sentence, part or all
of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined
part. Follow the requirements of standard written English to choose your answer, paying
attention to grammar, word choice, and sentence construction. Select the answer that produces
the most effective sentence; your answer should make the sentence clear, exact, and free of
grammatical error. It should also minimize awkwardness, ambiguity, and redundancy.

26. After all the research that has been conducted in the last 30 years, it is readily apparent that
there are, without question, a wealth of good reasons to do aerobic exercise regularly.
a. there are, without question, a wealth of good reasons to exercise aerobically regularly
b. there are, without question, a wealth of good reasons to engage regularly in aerobic
exercise
c. there is, without question, a wealth of good reasons to engage regularly in aerobic
exercise
d. there is, without question, a wealth of good reasons to do regular aerobic exercises

27. The newspaper reported that some homes that were destroyed and severely damaged in the
hurricane last year were built too close to the coastline.
a. some homes that were destroyed or severely damaged in the hurricane last year had
been
b. some homes the hurricane destroyed and severely damaged last year have been
c. last year the hurricane destroyed or severely damaged some homes that have been
d. last year some of the homes that were destroyed or severely damaged in the hurricane
have been

28. Children often pick up on gender norms very early in life, as many parents discover when their
toddlers recoil at toys that have only been designed to appeal to toddlers of the opposite sex.
a. only their toddlers recoil at toys that have been designed to appeal to toddlers of the
opposite sex
b. their toddlers recoil at toys that have been designed to appeal to toddlers of the opposite
sex only
c. toys that have only been designed to appeal to toddlers of the opposite sex cause their
toddlers to recoil
d. only toys that have been designed to appeal to toddlers of the opposite sex cause their
toddlers to recoil

29. During the summer of 2002, the Outer Banks suffered a massive toad infestation, discouraging
many vacationers from visiting the area.
a. suffered from a massive toad infestation and discouraged
b. suffered a massive infestation of toads, which discouraged
c. was suffering a massive infestation of toads and discouraging
d. had suffered from a massive toad infestation and this discouraged

30. As its reputation for making acquisitions of important masterpieces has grown, the museum has
increasingly turned down gifts of lesser known paintings they would in the past have accepted
gratefully.
a. they would have accepted gratefully in the past
b. it would in the past have accepted gratefully
c. it previously would have accepted gratefully in the past
d. that previously would have been accepted in the past

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(Questions – 31 to 35): From the sentences given below, choose the right option to fill in the
blank.

31. The twins’ heredity and upbringing were identical in nearly every respect, yet one child
remained unfailingly sanguine even in times of stress while her sister was prone to angry
outbursts that indicated an exceptionally choleric _________.
a. genotype c. physiognomy
b. environment d. temperament

32. Science and religion each have core tenets that are considered _________; however, because
some scientific tenets are in conflict with some religious ones, these tenets cannot all be correct.
a. historic c. disputable
b. axiomatic d. ubiquitous

33. George was a mercurial character; one moment he was optimistic about his prospects, and the
next he was __________.
a. immoral c. witty
b. hopeful d. morose

34. Researchers interested in the nature versus nurture debate use identical twins who were
separated at birth to explore which personality characteristics are ________ and which arise
through experience.
a. intractable c. erudite
b. nascent d. innate

35. The fuel efficiency of most vehicles traveling at speeds greater than 50 miles per hour _______
as the vehicle’s speed increases, due to the increased aerodynamic drag placed on the vehicle.
a. equalizes c. stabilizes
b. adapts d. diminishes

(Questions - 36 to 40): There are one/two sentence(s) in each question. Each sentence has pairs of
words/phrases that are italicized/highlighted. From the italicized/ highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select
the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences.

36. During the recent protests in the United States horde [A]/ hoard [B] of mobsters looted stores
in an attempt to horde [A]/ hoard [B]the supplies, causing panic buying.
a. AA c. BA
b. AB d. BB

37. It is a good practice to review extent [A]/ extant [B] literature on your research topic to
understand the extent [A]/ extant [B] of work already carried out.
a. AA c. BA
b. AB d. BB

38. All available historical records corroborate [A]/ collaborate [B] the fact that when insiders
corroborate [A]/ collaborate [B] with the attacker, the fall of the empire is imminent.
a. AA c. BA
b. AB d. BB

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 39. Though you seem to me eligible [A]/ legible [B] for the benefits under the government scheme,
I cannot consider your application as your signatures are not eligible [A]/ legible [B].
a. AA c. BA
b. AB d. BB

40. Till the time deal was clenched [A]/ clinched [B] between the two warring factions, tension
was evident in the way the village elder clenched [A]/ clinched [B] his hands.
a. AA c. BA
b. AB d. BB

Questions from 41 to 60 are based on General Knowledge

41. Which one of the following cities of India will never get the vertical rays of Sun?
a. Chandigarh c. Mumbai
b. Rameshwaram d. Kolkata

42. Which of the following can be used to check inflation temporarily?

a. Decrease in money supply c. Decrease in taxes
b. Increase in wages d. Reduction in taxes

43. Approximately what percentage of the world’s population lives near the ocean?
a. 1/10 c. 1/2
b. 1/4 d. 2/3

44. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is:

a. April – March c. October – September
b. July – June d. January – December

45. An advantage of natural gas as a fuel is that it is:

a. more abundant than coal c. the cleanest of the fossil fuels
b. easy to locate and extract d. all of the above are advantages

46. Human height and skin colour are examples of:

a. codominance c. pleiotropy
b. polygenic traits d. incomplete dominance

47. Enzymes help in:

a. respiration c. immune system
b. digestion of food d. reproduction

48. Which paramilitary force assists the State/Union Territory Police in maintenance of law and
order?
a. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
b. Border Security Force (BSF)
c. Assam Rifles
d. Coast Guard

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49. The term ‘IRDA’ Stands for:
a. Insurance Regulator and Development Authority
b. Indian Research and Development Agency
c. International Relations and Democratic Alliance
d. Itemized return and deposit Authority

50. What is the number of National Highway which connects Delhi and Kolkata?
a. one c. three
b. two d. seven

51. The majority of Earth’s crust is composed of _______ rock.

a. igneous c. sedimentary
b. metamorphic d. carbonate

52. The World Human Rights Day, declared by UNO is celebrated on ______every year.
a. 24 October c. 10 December
b. 24 December d. 15 October

53. Sound waves cannot travel in:

a. air. c. a vaccum.
b. water. d. steel.

54. Antioxidants are:

a. oxidizing agents found in foods. c. fat soluble.
b. reducing agents found in foods. d. water soluble.

55. ‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of

a. Cricket c. Lawn Tennis
b. Football d. Hockey

56. Red blood cells and white blood cells are produced in:
a. compact bone c. red bone marrow
b. yellow bone marrow d. spongy bone

57. What is the purpose of OECD (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development)?
a. Sustained economic growth c. Higher standards of living
b. Employment d. All of the above

58. In which year, was the social networking site Facebook opened to the general public?
a. 2003 c. 2005
b. 2004 d. 2006

59. The binary system is a number system to the base:

a. two c. eight
b. four d. ten

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60. India won the one day Cricket World Cup in 2011. Who was the coach of the winning Indian
Cricket Team?
a. Dunkan Fletcher c. Gary Kirsten
b. Mohinder Amarnath d. Greg Chappel

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