Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India.
A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office, Madhapur – Hyderabad
SEC: Jr.C-120 JEE-MAIN Date: 17-06-23
Time:9:00 AM-12:00 PM WTM-01 Max. Marks: 360
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the Test
Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than 5
questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value
(Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11
round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown below
.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil
is strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________
Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
SYLLABUS:
Mathematics : Trigonometric ratios, Compound Angles Integrated Material
Physics : Units and Dimensions, Errors & Measurements
Chemistry :Track–1: Basics concepts of Chemistry & Atomic Structure up to Thomson's,
Rutherford's atomic model
Track–2: Basics concepts of Chemistry & Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties upto s, p, d and f block elements
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 1
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. Which of the following pairs have the same dimensions?
1) Pressure, stress and force 2) Work, power and power factor
3) Impulse and momentum 4) Force, impulse and momentum
2. The number of particles crossing the unit area normal to x axis per second is
n n
represented by the following formula n D 2 1 . Where D is the coefficient of
x2 x1
diffusion and n1 and n2 are the number of molecules per unit volume at x1 and x2
respectively, then the dimensions of D are
1) M 0 L2T 1 2) M 0 L2T 2 3) M 0 LT 2 4) M 0 LT 1
3. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are presumed to be fundamental units, then the
dimensional formula of mass will be
1) FL1T 2 2) FL1T 2 3) FL1T 1 4) FL2T 2
4. The position of particle at time t is given by the relation xt 0 1 c t , where 0 is
a constant and 0 . The dimensions of 0 and are respectively
1) M 0 L1T 1 and T 1 2) M 0 L1T 0 and T 1
3) M 0 L1T 13 4) M 0 L1T 1 and T
5. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as
A x
U , where A and B are dimensional constants then dimensional formula for AB
x2 B
is
7 11 9 13
1) ML2T 2 2) ML 2 T 2 2 2 2
3) M L T 4) ML 2 T 2
6. A physical quantity is measured and its value is found to be nu where n is numerical
value and u is unit. Then which of the following relations is true
1
1) n u 2 2) n u 3) n u 4) n
u
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 2
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1
7. If 1gcms x Ns, then number x is equivalent to
1) 1 101 2) 3 102 3) 6 104 4) 1 105
8. Candela is the unit of
1) acoustic intensity 2) electric intensity
3) luminous intensity 4) magnetic intensity
9. Which of the following has the dimensions of pressure?
M M ML M
1) 2) 3) 4)
L2T 2 LT T2 LT 2
2 2
10. A certain physical quantity is calculated from the formula
3
a b h where h, a and
b are all lengths. The quantity being calculated is
1) Velocity 2) Length 3) Area 4) Volume
b
11. The velocity v of a particle is given in terms of time t by the equation v at . The
t c
dimensions of a, b, c are respectively
1) L , T , LT 2 2) LT 2 , LT , L 3) LT 2 , L, T 4) L, LT ,T 2
12. Taking into account the significant figures, the product of 109.832 and 0.6107 should be
written as
1) 67.0744 2) 67.1 3) 67.07 4) 67.074402
13. The sum of the numbers 436.12,227.2 and 0.301 in appropriate significant figure is
1) 663.621 2) 664 3) 663.6 4) 663.62
14. If X is absolute error in the measurement of X and Y is absolute error in the
measurement of Y , then maximum absolute error in the measurement of difference of X
and Y is
X
1) X Y 2) X Y 3) 4) X Y
Y
15. The velocity of a particle is given by at 2 bt c . If is measured in ms 1 and t is
measured in s, the unit of
1) a is ms 1 2) b is ms 1
3) c is ms 1 4) a and b are same but that of c is different
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 3
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
t
16. Given that y a cos qx , where t represents time in second and x distance in
p
metre. Which of the following statements is true?
1) The unit of x is same as that of q 2) The unit of x is same as that of p
3) The unit of t is same as that of q 4) The unit of t is same as that of p
17. Statement – 1 : The light year and wavelength have dimensions of length.
Statement – 2 : Both light year and wavelength represent distances.
1) If both statements are TRUE and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
2) If both statements are TRUE but statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
3) If statement 1 is TRUE and statement 2 is false
4) If statement 1 is FALSE but statement 2 is true
18. Statement – 1 : Distance travelled in a particular second has the dimensions same as that
of distance.
Statement – 2 : Velocity is the displacement covered per unit time.
1) If both statements are TRUE and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
2) If both statements are TRUE but statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
3) If statement 1 is TRUE and statement 2 is false
4) If statement 1 is FALSE but statement 2 is true
19. Statement – 1 : The error in the measurement of radius of the sphere is 0.3%. The
permissible error in its surface area is 0.6%.
A r
Statement – 2 : The permissible relative error is calculated by the formula 4 .
A r
1) If both statements are TRUE and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
2) If both statements are TRUE but statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
3) If statement 1 is TRUE and statement 2 is false
4) If statement 1 is FALSE but statement 2 is true
20. The best method to reduce random errors is
1) to change the instrument used for measurement
2) to take help of experienced observer
3) to repeat the experiment many times and to take the average results
4) None of these
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 4
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
21. Using dimensional analysis you can check on some results. In the integral
dx x
a n sin 1 1 the value of n is
1 a
2ax x2 2
22. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dyne. In another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the
force is
23. The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne cm 1 . It may be expressed in MKS as
7 10 n N / m then n is_______
24. If error in measurement of radius of sphere is 1%, what will be the error in measurement
of volume?
a3b 2
25. A physical quantity ‘ P ’ is related to four observables a, b, c, d i.e P the
cd
percentage errors of measurements a, b, c, d are 1%,3%,4%,2% respectively. What is the
percentage error in the quantity P ?
26. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 19%. What is the percentage decrease in its
linear momentum?
27. A physical quantity Q is related to four observables x, y, z and t by the relation
x 2/5 z3
Q . The percentage errors of measurement in x, y, z and t are 2.5%, 2%, 0.5%
y t
and 1% respectively. The percentage error in Q will be
28. 1 micron is 10 x m, then x is
29. If the units of M and L are doubled then the unit of kinetic energy will become___ times
30. In an experiment to determine acceleration due to gravity by simple pendulum
T 2 , a student commits 1% positive error in the measurement of length and 3%
g
negative error in the measurement of time period. The percentage error in the value of g
will be
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 5
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
31. The number of molecules present in 11.2 L of air
1) 3 x 10 23 2) 6 x 10 23 3) 1.5 x 1023 4) 6.023 x 10 23
32. One mole of Hydrogen contains ____ no. of molecules
1) 6.023 x 10 23 2) 3.011 x 10 23 3) 4 x 10 23 4) 12.046 x 1023
33. The molecular mass of H2SO4 is __
1) 90 2) 98 4) 70 4) 84
34. The vapour density of gas is 22. What is its molecular weight__
1) 11 2) 22 3) 33 4) 44
35. 1 gram atom =
1) 1 mole 2) 1 molecule 3) 1 electron 4) 1 proton
36. According to Rutherford the dimensions of atom and nucleus in the order of
1) 10-13 cm, 10-8 cm 2) 108 cm, 1013 cm
3) 10-8 cm, 10 -13 cm 4) 1013 cm, 108 cm
37. The ratio between the neutrons present in the carbon atom and Silicon atoms with mass
numbers 12 and 28 is
1) 7:3 2) 3:7 3) 1:2 4) 2:1
38. The longest and shortest periods are
1) 1 & 6 2) 2 & 6 3) 6 & 1 4) 1 & 7
nd rd th th
39. The number of elements present in 2 , 3 , 4 and 5 periods of modern periodic table
respectively are
1) 2, 8, 8 & 18 2) 8, 8, 18 & 32 3) 8, 8, 18 & 18 4) 8, 18, 18 & 32
40. Atomic number of nitrogen is 7. The atomic number of the third member in the same
family is
1) 23 2) 15 3) 33 4) 51
41. The long form of the periodic table consists of
1) 8 horizontal and 7 vertical series 2) 7 horizontal and 18 vertical series
3) 7 horizontal and 7 vertical series 4) 8 horizontal and 8 vertical series
42. The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53, 85 are
1) Noble gases 2) Heavy metals 3) Halogens 4) Light metals
43. The Mass neither be created nor be destroyed this statements belongs to
1) Law of conservation of Mass 2) Law of Multiple proportion
3) Law of constant composition 4) All the above
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 6
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
e
44. The value of neutron is
m
1) 1.78 108 c / kg 2) 1.75 108 c / kg 3) 1.79 108 c / kg 4) 0
45. Isobars having
1) Same atomic number 2) Same charge
3) Same mass number 4) Same number of Neutrons
46. 0.0052 having how many significant figures
1) 4 2) 2 3) 0 4) 5
e
47. Which of the following shown an increasing value of
m
1) n p e c 2) n p e 3) n p e 4) p n e
48. An oil drop has 6.39 1019 C charge. How many electrons does this oil drop has
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
49. What will be the difference in the mass number if the number of neutrons is halved and
the number of electrons is doubled in 8 O16 ?
1) 25% decrease 2) 50% increase 3) 150% increase 4) no difference
50. A dipositive ion has 16 protons what is the number of electrons in its tetrapositive ion?
1) 16 2) 14 3) 12 4) 10
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
51. Atomicity of Oleum (H2S2O 7) is
52. The number of gram atoms present in 256 gm of sulphur is ___
53. Calculate the average atomic mass of oxygen, if its abundance in nature is 99.76% 16O,
0.04%, 17O and 0.20%, 18O is ___ (amu)
54. 1 amu = 1.66 x 10-x gms, then ‘x’ is __
55. The period in which s-block, p-block and d-block f-block elements are present
56. The total number of gaseous elements are
57. The total number of neutrons present in isotopes of hydrogen is________
58. The atomicity of Glucose is C6 H12O6 _____
6.534
59. The number of significant figures for _______
2.3
60. The mass number of three Iostopes of an element are 11, 12, 13 units their percentage
abundances 80, 15, and 5 respectively. What is the atomic weight of the element?
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 7
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can
be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
4 5
61. If 0 , ,cos ,sin then tan 2
4 5 13
33 56 16 14
1) 2) 3) 4)
36 33 63 63
62. If 2 , then
1) tan tan tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2 2 2
2) tan tan tan tan tan tan 1
2 2 2 2 2 2
3) tan tan tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2 2 2
4) tan tan 1
2 2
63. If tan 2sin sin cos ec , then cot ,cot and cot are in
1) A.P. 2) G.P. 3) H.P. 4) A.G.P
64. In a PQR, if 3sin P 4cos Q 6 and 4sin Q 3cos P 1, then the angle R equal to
5 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 6 4 4
3
65. If tan cos cot sin ,0 then sin
4 4
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2 2 2
66. If cos2 A cos 2 B cos2 C 1, then le ABC is
1) equilateral 2) isosceles 3) right angled 4) right angled isosceles
67. The expression cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 , is
1) 1 2) 2
3) independent of and 4) dependent on and
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 8
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
68. In a right angled triangle the hypotenuse is 2 2 times the perpendicular drawn from the
opposite vertex. Then the other acute angles of the triangle are
3 3
1) and 2) and 3) and 4) and
3 6 8 8 4 4 5 10
69. If tan 2 1 p 2 , then sec tan 3 cos ec
3 3 3 3
2
1) 2 p 2 2
2) 1 p 2 2
3) 2 p 2 2
4) 1 p 2
1
70. If f k x
k
sin k x cos k x where x R, k 1 then f 4 x f6 x
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 3 9 12
1 cos 1 cos
71. If then
2 1 cos 1 cos
1) 2sec 2) 2sec 3) 2cos ec 4) 2cos ec
72. If tan sin m and tan sin n, then
1) m2 n2 4mn 2) m2 n2 4mn 3) m2 n 2 m 2 n 2 4) m 2 n 2 4 mn
73. If a sec tan , b cos ec cot then a
b 1 1 b b 1 1 b
1) 2) 3) 4)
b 1 1 b b 1 1 b
sec 1 2 sin 1
74. The value of cot 2 sec is
1 sin 1 sec
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) - 2
75. If 1 sin A 1 sin B 1 sin C 1 sin A 1 sin B 1 sin C k then k
1) sin A sin B sin C 2) cos A cos B cos C
3) sec A sec B sec C 4) cos ecA cos ecB cos ecC
3 1 cos 1 cos
76. If then is equal to
2 1 cos 1 cos
2 2 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
sin sin sin sin
77. If sin x cos ecx 2, then sin n x cos ec n x is equal to
1) 2 2) 2n 3) 2n1 4) 2n 2
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 9
Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy, India 17/06/23_Jr. C-120_Jee-Main_WTM-01_Q.P.
78. If sin x sin y sin z sin w 4, then the value of
sin 400 x sin 300 y sin 200 z sin100 w is
1) sin 400 x.sin 300 y.sin 200 z sin100 w
2) sin x.sin y.sin z sin w
3) 4
4) 3
2
79. If a sec b tan c then a tan b sec
1) a 2 b2 c 2 2) a 2 b2 c 2 3) a 2 b 2 c 2 4) a 2 b 2 c 2
80. If x a sec3 tan , y b tan 3 sec then sin 2
x y x y xy ay
1) 2) 3) 4)
a b a b ab bx
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place. (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
81. If tan x tan 2 x tan3x tan x tan 2 x tan 3x then sin 3x cos3 x _______
82.
Maximum value of the expression log 3 9 2cos 2 4sec 2 is equal to________
tan x tan y tan z 38
83. If , x y z and tan 2 x tan 2 y tan 2 z then K ______
2 3 5 K
tan800 tan100
84. _______
tan 700
85. If 10sin 4 15cos4 6 and the value of 9cos ec4 4sec4 is S , then the value of
S
equal to__________
25
86. If sec x sec2 x 1 then the value of tan8 x tan 4 x 2 tan 2 x 1 will be equal
to________
87. If x sin 3 y cos3 sin cos and x sin y cos then x 2 y 2
3
88. If , are complementary angles, sin , then cos cos sin sin _____
5
89. If the equation cot 4 x 2cos ec 2 x a 2 0 has at least one solution, then the sum of all
possible integral values of a is equal to________
90. If 2cos sin 1 then 7cos 6sin ________
2
SEC: Jr.C-120 Page 10