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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4708 (2025)

Q 1.D
• Radiation, that is given off by nuclear waste is extremely damaging to organisms because it causes
mutations at a very high rate. At high doses, nuclear radiation is lethal but at lower doses, it creates
various disorders, the most frequent of all being cancer. Therefore, nuclear waste is an extremely potent
pollutant and has to be dealt with utmost caution.
• The natural sources of radiation pollution include cosmic rays, ultraviolet rays and infrared rays,
which reach the earth from the sun and other heavenly bodies. It also includes radioactive rays
from unstable atoms of uranium, thorium and radium.
• Man-made sources of radiation pollution are the mining and refining of plutonium and thorium, the
production and explosion and nuclear weapons, nuclear power plants and fuels and the preparation
of radioactive isotopes.
• Some medical equipment uses radioactive material. When radioactive materials are placed inside patient
bodies - for instance iodine to treat a diseased thyroid gland or iridium pellets to destroy prostate tumors -
body parts and fluids can become radioactive pathological waste. Radioimmunoassay is a technique for
finding levels of biochemicals inside the body by injecting radioactive antigens into the bloodstream. This
likewise results in radioactive pathological waste. Packaging material, washing fluids, and paper wipes
may be radioactive wastes.
• It has been recommended that storage of nuclear waste, after sufficient pre-treatment, should be done in
suitably shielded containers buried within the rocks, about 500 m deep below the earth’s surface.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 2.D

• Clouds and gases reflect about one-fourth of the incoming solar radiation and absorb some of it but almost
half of the incoming solar radiation falls on Earth’s surface heating it, while a small proportion is reflected
back.

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 • Earth’s surface re-emits heat in the form of infrared radiation but part of this does not escape into
space as atmospheric gases (e.g., carbon dioxide, methane, etc.) absorb a major fraction of it. The
molecules of these gases radiate heat energy, and a major part of which again comes to Earth’s
surface, thus heating it up once again.
• This cycle is repeated many times. The above-mentioned gases – carbon dioxide and methane – are
commonly known as greenhouse gases because they are responsible for the greenhouse effect. Increase in
the level of greenhouse gases has led to considerable heating of the Earth leading to global warming.
• Hence, option(d) is the correct answer.

Q 3.B
• Spring shock (or acid shock) refers to a sudden decrease in the pH of a water body, typically
occurring in spring when snow melts rapidly. During the winter, snow accumulates acidic
pollutants from the atmosphere, such as sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). When the
snow melts quickly, it releases these pollutants into lakes, rivers, and streams, causing a rapid
increase in acidity.
• Natural causes of acid rain are oxides of sulphur and nitrogen from volcanoes, swamps, and plankton in
the oceans. However, most of the acids are produced by human activities. Oxides are produced by the
combustion of fossil fuels in power plants, smelters, and automobile exhausts.
• The burning of fossil fuels for power generation produces 70 percent of the total SO2 emitted into
the atmosphere. These oxides are transported thousands of kilometers from their place of release.
They stay longer in the air and get converted into acids. Snow and ice formed over lakes and rivers
has much sulphuric acid. In spring when the snow melts, water enters lakes and rivers, and the sulphuric
acid gets mingled into water bodies making them highly acidic. This condition is normally referred as
Spring Shock or Acidic shock.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 4.D
• Forest Conservation Act, 1980: The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 came into force with effect from
October 25, 1980. Under the provisions of this Act, prior approval of the Central Government is essential
for the diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes. In the national interest and the interest of future
generations, this Act, therefore, regulates the diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes. The basic
objective of the Act is, to regulate the indiscriminate diversion of forest lands for non-forestry uses and to
maintain a logical balance between the developmental needs of the country and the conservation of
natural heritage.
• Environment Protection Act, 1986: The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in 1986 with the
objective of providing for the protection and improvement of the environment. It empowers the Central
Government to establish authorities [under section 3(3)] charged with the mandate of preventing
environmental pollution in all its forms and to tackle specific environmental problems that are peculiar to
different parts of the country.
• Biological Diversity Act 2002: The act was enacted in 2002, it aims at the conservation of biological
resources, managing their sustainable use, and enabling fair and equitable sharing benefits arising out of
the use and knowledge of biological resources with the local communities.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 5.B
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals set by the
United Nations General Assembly in 2015. These goals aim to address various social, economic, and
environmental challenges faced by the world, with the overarching objective of achieving
sustainable development by 2030.

• Here's a brief overview of the SDGs in sequence:

1. No Poverty: End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
2. Zero Hunger: End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable
agriculture.
3. Good Health and Well-being: Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages.
4. Quality Education: Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all.
5. Gender Equality: Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls.
6. Clean Water and Sanitation: Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and
sanitation for all. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
7. Affordable and Clean Energy: Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy
for all. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
8. Decent Work and Economic Growth: Promote sustained, inclusive, and sustainable economic
growth, full and productive employment, and decent work for all.
9. Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure: Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and
sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation.
10. Reduced Inequality: Reduce inequality within and among countries.
11. Sustainable Cities and Communities: Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient,
and sustainable. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
12. Responsible Consumption and Production: Ensure sustainable consumption and production
patterns.
13. Climate Action: Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts. Hence, pair 4 is
correctly matched.
14. Life Below Water: Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas, and marine resources for
sustainable development.
15. Life on Land: Protect, restore, and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably
manage forests, combat desertification, and halt and reverse land degradation and halt biodiversity
loss.
16. Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions: Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable
development, provide access to justice for all, and build effective, accountable, and inclusive
institutions at all levels.
17. Partnerships for the Goals: Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the global
partnership for sustainable development.
• These goals provide a blueprint for governments, organizations, and individuals to work towards a more
sustainable, equitable, and prosperous future for all.

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Q 6.B
• The 1999 Gothenburg Protocol aims to improve air quality across borders. It is a protocol to the
Convention on Long-Range Transboundary Air Pollution of the United Nations Economic
Commission for Europe (UNECE) and specifically addresses the abatement of acidification,
eutrophication and ground-level ozone. The protocol defined emission ceilings, technical standards
for reducing air pollutant emissions, and emission limit values for technical facilities. Hence, option
(b) is the correct answer.
• Amendments to the Gothenburg Protocol updated targets to further reduce emissions of harmful air
pollutants and added measures to address particulate matter, including black carbon. The amended
Gothenburg Protocol is the first international agreement addressing black carbon.
• The amended Gothenburg Protocol, in force since 2019, is the only binding regional treaty anywhere in
the world to regulate major air pollutant emissions. It already supports 28 Parties – including the
European Union, the UK, the US and Canada – to deliver significant emissions cuts.
• The amended Gothenburg Protocol, in force since 2019, is the only binding regional treaty anywhere in
the world to regulate major air pollutant emissions. It already supports 28 Parties – including the
European Union, the UK, the US and Canada – to deliver significant emissions cuts.

Q 7.B
• Recent Context: Twelve nations have signed the Zero Debris Charter at the European Space
Agency (ESA)/European Union Space Council, solidifying their commitment to the long-term
sustainability of human activities in Earth orbit. In addition to the 12 countries, the European Space
Agency also signed the Zero Debris Charter as an International Organization (IGO).
• The Charter's current signatories are Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, Estonia, Germany, Lithuania,
Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Sweden, and the United Kingdom. India, USA and China are
not its signatories. Hence options 2, 3 and 5 are not correct.
• ESA's Zero Debris approach is the agency's large-scale revision of its internal space debris
mitigation requirements to become debris-neutral by 2030. The approach will rely on debris
mitigation and remediation technology developed in ESA's Space Safety Program.
• The Zero Debris Charter is a broader community-driven and community-building initiative for the
global space community. Facilitated by ESA's "Protection of Space Assets" Accelerator and
collaboratively developed by more than 40 space actors, the Charter contains both high-level guiding
principles and ambitious, jointly defined targets to enable the space community to achieve the goal of
Zero Debris.
• Since the launch of the Charter at ESA's Space Summit in Seville, Spain, in November 2023, more
than 100 organizations from around the world, including national space agencies, leading satellite
manufacturers, space start-ups and astronomical societies, have confirmed their intent to sign.
• Importantly, the Zero Debris Charter is neither ‘owned’ by ESA nor was written by ESA but is the
result of an open and collaborative process. Participation was not restricted to European space actors,
making it a truly global endeavour.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 8.B
• Recent Context: Three Indian literary works, Ramcharitmanas, Panchatantra, and Sahṛdayaloka-
Locana, were added to UNESCO’s Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register during the
tenth meeting of the Memory of the World Committee for Asia and the Pacific (MOWCAP).
• UNESCO’s Memory of the World (MOW) programme is an international cooperation strategy
aimed at safeguarding, protecting, and facilitating access to and the use of documentary heritage,
especially heritage that is rare and endangered. According to its charter, UNESCO launched the
initiative in 1992 “to guard against collective amnesia” by calling upon the preservation of invaluable
archive holdings and library collections all over the world and ensuring their wide dissemination.
• The program recognises the documentary heritage of international, regional and national significance,
maintains registers of it, and awards a logo to identified collections. It facilitates preservation and access
without discrimination. It campaigns to raise awareness of the documentary heritage to alert governments,
the general public, businesses and commerce to preservation needs and to raise funds.
• There are 494 inscriptions on the International MoW Register, as of May 2023, according to the UNESCO
website. However, the MoW register operates on regional levels as well. The Memory of the World
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 Asia-Pacific Committee (MOWCAP) — which has now included the three Indian texts — celebrates
Asia-Pacific achievements in genealogy, literature, and science. Along with the three Indian items
on the list, the Member States inscribed 20 items during the 2024 cycle.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 9.D
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (Last amended in 2022)- It empowers the State to declare areas of ecological,
faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance as protected areas, under four
categories, namely, National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Community Reserves, and Conservation Reserves.
The wildlife division in the Directorate General of Forests in MoEFCC at the Central Government level, and
state wildlife departments and their subordinate offices at the field level in states implement this Act.
Salient Features of Wildlife Protection Act -
• The Act provides for the formation of wildlife advisory boards, and wildlife wardens, specifies their
powers and duties, etc.
• It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild
Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• For the first time, a comprehensive list of the endangered wildlife of the country was prepared.
• The Act prohibited the hunting of endangered species.
• Scheduled animals are prohibited from being traded as per the Act’s provisions.
• The Act provides for licenses for the sale, transfer, and possession of some wildlife species.
• It provides for the establishment of wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, etc.
• Its provisions paved the way for the formation of the Central Zoo Authority. This is the central body
responsible for the oversight of zoos in India. It was established in 1992. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The Act created six schedules which gave varying degrees of protection to classes of flora and fauna. But
amendment 2022 reduced these schedules to four.
• The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this
Act. This is an advisory board that offers advice to the central government on issues of wildlife
conservation in India. It is also the apex body to review and approve all matters related to wildlife,
projects of national parks, sanctuaries, etc. The chief function of the Board is to promote the conservation
and development of wildlife and forests. The Prime Minister chairs it. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. It is a
statutory body of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change with an overall supervisory
and coordination part, performing capacities as given in the Act. Its mandate is to strengthen tiger
conservation in India. It gives statutory authority to Project Tiger which was launched in 1973 and has put
the endangered tiger on a guaranteed path of revival by protecting it from extinction. Hence, option 4 is
correct.
• Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the
Government under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the
country, under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence, option 1 is correct.

Q 10.C
• Conservation Assured (CA|TS) is a management tool that sets basic criteria for effective
management of tiger conservation reserves or other conservation reserves and protected areas that
have tiger populations.
• It is based on a set of seven pillars with 17 minimum standards and associated criteria for effective
management.
• It addresses multiple factors that impact conservation management, including support for resident human
populations (including their social, cultural, spiritual, and economic needs), enhancing overall biodiversity
richness, prey base, and habitat cover, and also considers the legal context of an area in terms of content,
application and capacity of those on the ground to enforce those laws.
• It is driven by the CA|TS Partnership, which comprises of tiger range governments, intergovernmental
agencies, conservation organizations and other institutions, such as Global Tiger Forum, IUCN, United
Nations Development Program (UNDP), WWF etc.
• The secretariat for CA|TS is hosted by WWF.
• It is a key element in realizing the ambitious goal of doubling the global tiger population by 2022, a
commitment made by all 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRC).

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 • Nepal is the first TRC to implement the process.
• To date, three sites- Lansdowne Forest Division in Uttarakhand, India, Chitwan National Park in
Nepal, and Sikhote-Alin Nature Reserve in Russia have been awarded CA|TS Approved status.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 11.B
• The Earth’s magnetic field is a crucial shield that protects the planet from harmful solar radiation
and cosmic particles. Recent research on ancient rocks from South Africa and Brazil suggests that
around 591 million years ago, during the Ediacaran period (approximately 635 million to 541
million years ago), the Earth’s magnetic field experienced a significant weakening.
o This weakening coincided with the Ediacaran oxygenation, a period marked by a significant rise in
atmospheric and oceanic oxygen levels, believed to have facilitated the emergence of early animal
life.
• Earth's magnetic field — also known as the geomagnetic field — is generated in our planet's interior
and extends out into space, creating a region known as the magnetosphere. The Earth's magnetic field
is generated in the fluid outer core by a self-exciting dynamo process. Electrical currents flowing in
the slowly moving molten iron generate the magnetic field. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Earth has two sets of poles, geographic poles and magnetic poles. Earth's magnetic field can be visualized
if you imagine a large bar magnet inside our planet, roughly aligned with Earth's axis. Each end of the
magnet lies relatively close (about 10 degrees) to the geographic North and South poles. Earth's invisible
magnetic field lines travel in a closed, continuous loop and are nearly vertical at each magnetic pole.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Unlike the geographic poles, Earth's magnetic poles are not fixed and tend to wander over time. British
polar explorer James Clark Ross first identified the Magnetic North Pole on the Boothis Peninsula in
Canada's Nunavut territory in 1831, according to the Antarctic travel site Antarctic Logistics. Since its
discovery, the magnetic north pole has moved about 25 miles (40 kilometers) a year in a northwest
direction according to the Royal Museums Greenwich. Whatsmore, Earth's magnetic poles have also
'flipped' whereby north becomes south and south becomes north. These magnetic reversals occur at
irregular intervals every 200,000 years or so. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 12.B
• Recent Context: Agnibaan, produced by Agnikul Cosmos in Chennai, India, is a mobile small-lift
launch system currently under development. It will be the world’s first rocket with fully 3D-printed
engine.
• It is capable of placing a 100 kg satellite into a 700 km orbit. The rocket will be 18 meters long with
a diameter of 1.3 meters and a lift-off mass of 14,000 kg. It is not a 4-stage rocket. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
• It can access both low- and high-inclination orbits and is completely mobile, designed for accessing more
than 10 launch ports. It was launched from India’s first privately developed launchpad called
‘Dhanush’ established by Agnikul at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
• The Rocket Agnibaan SOrTeD (SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator) is India’s first semi-cryogenic
engine-powered rocket launch flight that was designed and manufactured indigenously through 3D
Printing or additive manufacturing. This test flight aims to demonstrate in-house and home-grown
technologies, gather crucial flight data and ensure optimal functioning of systems for Agnikul’s orbital
launch vehicle, the ‘Agnibaan’. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Its Semi-Cryogenic Engine (SCE) i.e. Agnilet utilizes a propellant combination of Liquid Oxygen
(LOX) and Kerosene. SCE uses a fuel that is storable at higher temperatures compared to cryogenic
engines, which makes handling and storage simpler while offering high performance. Cryogenic engines
use liquid hydrogen as fuel and liquid oxygen as oxidizer at extremely low temperatures. Hence
statement 3 is correct.

Q 13.B

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 • The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in a certain
volume of a sample of water, is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
• Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a crucial parameter used to measure the amount of organic
matter present in water bodies. This organic matter can come from various sources such as sewage,
industrial effluents, or agricultural runoff.
• When organic matter enters a water body, aerobic microorganisms (bacteria, fungi, etc.) begin to
decompose it. This decomposition process requires oxygen, as these microorganisms use oxygen to
break down the organic matter into simpler compounds through biological oxidation.
• The BOD test measures the amount of oxygen consumed by these microorganisms over a specific
period (usually 5 days) at a particular temperature (usually 20°C). This measurement indicates the
level of organic pollution in the water.
• Higher BOD values suggest higher levels of organic pollution, as more oxygen is required for the
decomposition process. Conversely, lower BOD values indicate cleaner water with less organic
pollution.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 14.B
• Biomagnification, also known as bioamplification, is the process by which substances become more
concentrated in the bodies of consumers as one moves up the food chain (trophic levels). When
chemicals or pesticides are let into rivers or lakes they are consumed by aquatic organisms like fish, which
in turn are consumed by large birds, animals or humans. These harmful substances become concentrated
in tissues, and internal organs as it move up the food chain. As against this, bioaccumulation occurs within
a trophic level and is the increase in the concentration of a substance in certain tissues (usually in fatty
tissue.) of organisms' bodies due to absorption from food and the environment. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
• Biomagnification occurs because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be
metabolized or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is
well-known for mercury and DDT. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 15.A
• Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of populations of two different species. They could be
beneficial, detrimental or neutral(neither harm nor benefit) to one of the species or both.
• Competition is a relationship when two or more species compete for the same limited resources at the
same time, which may be food, water, light, or any prey. Both species lose in such type of
interaction. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Amensalism is an ecological interaction between two species, but in this association among organisms of
two different species, one is destroyed or inhibited, and the other remains unaffected. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
• Commensalism is an ecological interaction where one organism benefits from the other without harming
or benefitting it. For, e.g., cattle egrets and livestock, birds following army ants, barnacles, and whales,
etc., all exhibit commensalism. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 16.B
• Recent Context: IN-SPACe releases guidelines for implementation of Indian Space Policy 2023.
• Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe), an autonomous single
window nodal agency within Department of Space, was constituted in October 2021 with a mandate
to authorize all Space Activities undertaken by the Government and non-governmental entities
(NGEs) in the country. It is formed following the Space sector reforms to enable and facilitate the
participation of private players. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
• The agency acts as an interface between ISRO and Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) and assesses how
to utilize India's space resources better and increase space-based activities. It also assesses the needs and
demands of private players, including educational and research institutions, and explores ways to
accommodate these requirements in consultation with ISRO. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q 17.C
• IUCN is an international organization (NGO) working in the field of nature conservation and
sustainable use of natural resources.
• It is involved in data gathering and analysis, research, field projects, advocacy, lobbying, and education.
• The organization is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List, which assesses the
conservation status of species worldwide.
• IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, also called the IUCN Red List, is one of the most well-known
objective assessment systems for classifying the status of plants, animals, and other organisms threatened
with extinction.
• It contains explicit criteria and categories to classify the conservation status of individual species on the
basis of their probability of extinction.
• The IUCN system uses a set of five quantitative criteria to assess the extinction risk of a given
species. In general, these criteria consider:
o The rate of population decline
o The geographic range
o Whether the species already possesses a small population size
o Whether the species is very small or lives in a restricted area
o Whether the results of a quantitative analysis indicate a high probability of extinction in the
wild
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 18.A
• Deepfakes refer to synthetic media, usually images and videos created using AI and deep learning
techniques. It is a combination of "deep learning" (a subset of machine learning that involves neural
networks with multiple layers) and “fake.” Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Deepfakes find applications in Natural and accurate dubbing in movies and TV shows, training
simulations in fields, such as medicine, aviation, etc., to help professionals improve their skills and
decision-making abilities, etc. Along with this, there are a number of issues associated with deep fakes
including:
o Political Manipulation: By spreading misinformation, defaming public figures, etc.
o Weaponization against women: Revenge pornography, impersonation and defamation, online
harassment, etc.
o Security Risks: Can be used to deceive security systems, such as facial recognition or voice
authentication.
o Legal Issues: Fabrication of evidence, violation of intellectual property, consent, etc.
o Ethical Issues: Manipulation, disinformation, erosion of trust, etc. In India
• Section 66D of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 provides for punishment for cheating by
impersonation using any communication device. However, it does not define deepfakes. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• Deepfakes can be difficult for humans to detect, especially high-quality ones. According to a recent
study, humans can detect deepfake speech only 73% of the time. Some companies, including Reality
Defender and Deep Media, have built tools that detect deepfakes based on the foundational
technology used by AI image generators.
Q 19.C
• Indoor air pollution is created by the release of harmful pollutants inside. These can include fine
particulate matter, carbon monoxide, and various other toxins. Indoor air pollution is a big problem in
developing countries, where people often burn fuels indoors for cooking and heating. It is also a concern
for people living in energy-efficient homes. These properties tend to be relatively airtight, meaning that
the air inside can quickly become stagnant and pollutant levels can rise rapidly. Some of the indoor air
pollutants are:
• Radon: Radon is an invisible, radioactive atomic gas that results from the radioactive decay of radium,
which may be found in rock formations beneath buildings or in certain building materials
themselves. Radon is the second most frequent cause of lung cancer, after cigarette smoking. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Biological chemicals: They can arise from a host of means, like moisture-induced growth of mould
colonies and natural substances released into the air such as animal dander and plant pollen. They are
allergens and aggravate asthma. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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 • Volatile organic compounds (VOCs): They are emitted as gases from certain solids or liquids like paints
and lacquers, pesticides, building materials and furnishings, office equipment, correction fluids, glues and
adhesives, permanent markers, and photographic solutions. Many air fresheners employ carcinogens,
volatile organic compounds which can cause kidney diseases. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Carbon monoxide: Sources of carbon monoxide are tobacco smoke, space heaters using fossil fuels,
defective central heating furnaces, and automobile exhaust. Bacteria: Many bacteria of health significance
are found in indoor air and on indoor surfaces.

Q 20.A
• Recent Context: 10th and 12th standard students from CISCE board can now obtain verified marksheets
through DigiLocker platform.
• Launched in 2015, DigiLocker is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY)
under Digital India program. DigiLocker aims at 'Digital Empowerment' of citizen by providing access
to authentic digital documents to citizen's digital document wallet. DigiLocker is a secure cloud-based
platform for storage, sharing and verification of documents & certificates. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• These digital documents are legally valid documents under Indian Information Technology (IT) Act
2000. The issued documents in DigiLocker system are deemed to be at par with original physical
documents as per Rule 9A of the Information Technology (Preservation and Retention of Information by
Intermediaries providing Digital Locker facilities) Rules, 2016 notified on February 8, 2017 vide G.S.R.
711(E). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• DigiLocker registration is simple. One only needs their mobile phone number or Aadhaar number for it.
Aadhaar/mobile number is verified by sending an OTP (one-time password) and then requiring to select a
security PIN for 2-Factor authentication. In order to access their educational rewards, students are advised
to register with DigiLocker. If one does not have Aadhaar or any current mobile number is not linked to
one's Aadhaar number, then one can either visit an Aadhaar enrolment centre. If one is unable to enroll
for Aadhaar or change their mobile number, he/she can still create a DigiLocker account with your
mobile number. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 21.D
• Eutrophication is the process where water bodies, such as lakes, rivers, or coastal areas, become enriched
with nutrients, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus. This enrichment leads to excessive growth of algae
and other aquatic plants. Eutrophication can be either natural or accelerated by human activities.
• Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of the amount of oxygen that microorganisms need to
break down organic matter in a water sample over a specified period (usually five days at 20°C). It is an
important indicator of water quality.
• Eutrophication increases the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of a water body. When excessive
nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus enter a water body, they stimulate the growth of algae and other
aquatic plants. As these organisms die and decompose, the process consumes oxygen, leading to an
increase in BOD rather than a decrease. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Eutrophication leads to a decrease in oxygen levels in water bodies. The excessive growth of algae
and aquatic plants due to nutrient enrichment results in a process where these organisms consume oxygen
during decomposition. This depletion of oxygen can lead to hypoxic (low oxygen) or anoxic (oxygen-
depleted) conditions in the water, which can harm aquatic life. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option(d) is the correct answer.
Q 22.C
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), the statutory organization, was constituted in
September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB
was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1981. Hence, statement II is not correct.
• It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and
Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as
spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of

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 the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air
and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
• Functions of the CPCB at the national level:
o Advise the Central Government on any matter concerning prevention and control of water and
air pollution and improvement of the quality of air. Hence, statement I is correct.
o Plan and cause to be executed a nationwide program for the prevention, control or abatement of water
and air pollution;
o Co-ordinate the activities of the State Board and resolve disputes among them;
o Provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigation and
research relating to problems of water and air pollution, and for their prevention, control or
abatement;
o Plan and organize training of persons engaged in the program on the prevention, control or abatement
of water and air pollution;
o Organize through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness program on the prevention, control
or abatement of water and air pollution;
o Collect, compile and publish technical and statistical data relating to water and air pollution and the
measures devised for their effective prevention, control or abatement;
o Prepare manuals, codes and guidelines relating to the treatment and disposal of sewage and trade
effluents as well as for stack gas cleaning devices, stacks and ducts;
o Disseminate information in respect of matters relating to water and air pollution and their prevention
and control;
o Lay down, modify or annul, in consultation with the State Governments concerned, the standards for
stream or well, and lay down standards for the quality of air; and
o Perform such other functions as may be prescribed by the Government of India.

Q 23.A
• Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their
Disposal:
o The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their
Disposal was adopted in 1989 and it came into force in 1992.
o It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste
between nations, and specifically to prevent the transfer of hazardous waste from developed to
less developed countries (LDCs).
o The Convention is also intended to minimize the amount and toxicity of wastes and to assist LDCs in
environmentally sound management of the hazardous and other wastes they generate.
o It does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
• Rotterdam Convention:
o The objectives of the Rotterdam Convention are: to promote shared responsibility and
cooperative efforts among Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in
order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm; and to contribute to
the environmentally sound use of those hazardous chemicals, by facilitating information
exchange about their characteristics, by providing for a national decisionmaking process on
their import and export and by disseminating these decisions to Parties.
o The Convention creates legally binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed
Consent (PIC) procedure. The Rotterdam Convention was adopted in 1998 and entered into force in
2004.
o It is jointly administered by FAO and UNEP. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants:
o The Stockholm Convention is an international legally binding agreement on persistent organic
pollutants. Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are organic compounds that are resistant to
environmental degradation through chemical, biological, and photolytic processes. Because of
this, they have been observed to persist in the environment, to be capable of long-range
transport, bioaccumulate in human and animal tissue, biomagnify in food chains, and to have
potentially significant impacts on human health and the environment.
o Intergovernmental Forum on Chemical Safety (IFCS) and the International Programme for Chemical
Safety (IPCS) prepared a list, known as the Dirty Dozen, including eight organochlorine pesticides:
aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor, mirex and toxaphene; two industrial chemicals:
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 hexachlorobenzene (HCB) and the polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) group; and two groups of
industrial by-products: dioxins and furans. Currently, 30 chemicals are listed under it.
o The convention entered into force in 2004. Co-signatories agree to outlaw nine of the "dirty dozen"
chemicals, limit the use of DDT to malaria control, and curtail inadvertent production of dioxins and
furans. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 24.D
• Soil pollution is defined as the change in the physical, chemical and biological conditions due to the
presence of various toxic materials. Harmful substances are added to the soil through the surface run-off
or through leaching. Soils can be polluted by pathogenic organisms, organic and inorganic chemicals and
toxic metals. Some of the toxic chemicals from the polluted soils may enter the food chain and then enter
the body of humans and other organisms, causing serious health problems.
• Sources of Soil Pollution
o Industrial effluents like harmful gases and chemicals.
o Use of chemicals in agriculture like pesticides, fertilizers and insecticides.
o Improper or ineffective soil management system.
o Unfavorable irrigation practices, especially over-irrigation.
o Improper management and maintenance of septic system, sanitary waste leakage, and release of
sewage into dumping grounds and nearby water bodies.
o Toxic fumes from industries get mixed with rains causing acid rains.
o Leakages of fuel from automobiles are washed off due to rains and are deposited in the nearby soil.
o Use of pesticides in agriculture retains chemicals in the environment for a long time. These chemicals
also effect beneficial organisms like earthworms in the soil and lead to poor soil quality.
o Garbage blocks the passage of water into the soil and affects its water-holding capacity.
o Unscientific disposal of nuclear waste contaminates soil and can cause mutations.
• Consequences of soil pollution
o Reduced soil fertility causes a decrease in agricultural yield.
o Loss of natural nutrients in soil.
o Reduced nitrogen fixation.
o Increased soil erosion.
o Imbalance in the flora and fauna of the soil.
o An increase in soil salinity makes it unfit for cultivation.
o Creation of toxic dust.
o Foul odor due to industrial chemicals and gases.
o Alteration in soil structure can lead to the death of organisms in it. Hence, option (d) is the correct
answer.

Q 25.A
• Thermal methods of disposal of solid waste:
• Incineration: It is a controlled high-temperature oxidation (burning/thermal treatment) primarily
organic compounds that produce thermal energy, CO2 and water. It is a well-known process as it is
simple to operate at relatively low capital and operational costs. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Pyrolysis: In this process, the solid is converted into a liquid state and liquid is converted into
gaseous state in complete absence of oxygen. It is ideal for treating waste plastics. Hence, pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
• Gasification: The material to be treated is directly converted into Syngas which has hydrogen and
carbon monoxide as its components. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 26.B
• “Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile
ecosystems - terrestrial, coastal, and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any
one or more of the following components:
o richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories, Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
o high endemism,
o presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild
ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or their varieties,
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 o past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural,
ethical, or aesthetic values and are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without
a long history of human association with them.
• Under Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government in consultation with local bodies may
notify in the official gazette, of areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
• State Government in consultation with the Central Government may frame rules for the management and
conservation of BHS.
• State Governments shall frame schemes for compensating or rehabilitating any person or section of people
economically affected by such notification.
• The criteria for identification of BHS-
• Accordingly, areas having any of the following characteristics may qualify for inclusion as BHS.
o Areas that contain a mosaic of natural, semi-natural, and man-made habitats, which together contain
a significant diversity of life forms.
o Areas that contain significant domesticated biodiversity components and/or representative
agro-ecosystems with ongoing agricultural practices that sustain this diversity. Hence, statement
3 is correct.
o Areas that are significant from a biodiversity point of view also are important cultural spaces such as
sacred groves/trees and sites, or other large community-conserved areas.
o Areas including very small ones that offer refuge or corridors for threatened and endemic fauna and
flora, such as community conserved areas or urban greens and wetlands.
o All kinds of legal land uses whether government, community, or private land could be considered
under the above categories.
• As far as possible those sites may be considered which are not covered under the Protected Area
network under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 as amended. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Areas that provide habitats, aquatic or terrestrial, for seasonal migrant species for feeding and
breeding.
o Areas that are maintained as preservation plots by the research wing of the Forest department.
o Medicinal Plant Conservation Areas.

Q 27.B
• Recent Context: To revive the population of tigers in Sahyadri Tiger Reserve (STR) — the lone
tiger reserve in the Maharashtra western region — the state’s forest department will soon
translocate tigers from Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in Chandrapur district.
• The Sahyadri Tiger Reserve, located in the Sahyadri Ranges of Western Ghats, was established in January
2010 and straddles Kolhapur, Satara, Sangli, and Ratnagiri districts in western Maharashtra. It comprises
of rich evergreen, semi-evergreen and moist deciduous forests. It is the first Tiger Reserve of Western
Maharashtra and the fourth Tiger Reserve of the State spreading over two Protected Areas of Koyana
Sanctuary (KWLS) and Chandoli National Park (CNP).
• There are many medicinal and fruit-bearing trees along with commercial hardwood trees in the
reserve. The Tiger Reserve is home to the endangered species of top carnivores such as Tiger, Wild dog,
and Leopard. The herbivores include Gaur, Sambar, Four Horned Antelope, Mouse Deer and Giant
Squirrel.
• The tiger population in the region has been historically low due to poaching, poor prey base, and changing
habitat. Even after the STR was notified, the number of tigers did not increase as breeding tigers did not
colonize the reserve.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 28.B
• National parks are given a greater degree of protection. No human activity is permitted inside the national
park except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state. Only certain areas can be
visited and only activities permitted by the chief wildlife warden of the state are allowed in the
park. Hence option 1 is correct.
• National parks can be declared both by the Central Government and State governments. No alteration of
the boundaries of a national park shall be made except on a resolution passed by the State
Legislature. Hence option 2 is not correct.

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 • An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to be constituted as a
National Park, because of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or
importance, needed for protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment. Hence
option 3 is correct.
• National parks provide protection to the entire ecosystem, that is, flora, fauna, landscape, etc. of that
region. The national parks not only conserve wildlife but also provide a diversion of environmental and
landscape heritage in a manner that does not harm it, to provide enjoyment to future generations. Hence
option 4 is not correct.

Q 29.A
• Carbon farming aims at implementing regenerative agricultural practices that restore ecosystem
health while improving agricultural productivity and soil health and mitigating climate change by
enhancing carbon storage in agricultural landscapes and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• A simple implementation of carbon farming is rotational grazing. Others include agroforestry,
conservation agriculture, integrated nutrient management, agroecology, livestock management, and land
restoration. The practice is easy to adopt across various agro-climatic zones. It can also help ameliorate
soil degradation, water scarcity, and challenges related to climate variability.
• In regions with adequate rainfall and fertile soil, the potential for carbon sequestration through practices
like agroforestry (integrating trees and shrubs with crops) and conservation agriculture (minimizing soil
disturbance) may be particularly high. On the other hand, carbon farming can be challenging in hot and
dry areas where the availability of water is limited and prioritized for drinking and washing needs.
Limited water availability can hinder the growth of plants, thus restricting the potential for sequestration
through photosynthesis. For example, practices like cover cropping, which require additional vegetation
between main crop cycles, may not be viable due to the added water demand. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.

Q 30.C
• Recent Context: The KAZA 2024 Heads of State Summit ended in the Zambian resort town of
Livingstone on May 31, with leaders of the five-member countries agreeing to argue their case for
the lifting of the ban on ivory trade at the 20th meeting of the Conference of Parties (CoP20) of the
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) due
next year in Geneva, Switzerland.
• Kavango-Zambezi Transfrontier Conservation Area is enormous, larger than Germany and Austria
combined, and nearly twice as large as the United Kingdom. It lies in the Kavango and Zambezi River
basins where Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia, and Zimbabwe converge. This vast expanse is
richly endowed with a great diversity of ecosystems and landscapes.
• The initiative aims to conserve biodiversity and promote nature-based tourism for rural economic
growth, manage heritage and cultural resources, and leveraging KAZA's natural capital and
cultural heritage resources as catalysts for inclusive socio-economic development. Hence options 1,
2, and 3 are correct.
• This summit strengthens the legacy left behind by the founding fathers of the trans-frontier conservation
area which is aimed at harmonizing policies, strategies and practices for managing shared wildlife
resources that straddle across international boundaries.
• Other issues that were discussed at the summit include the increased cases of human-wildlife conflict, the
effects of climate change on wildlife conservation efforts, the synchronisation of community benefits
within the KAZA region, the promotion of a single visa system called the KAZA UNIVISA system,
carbon trading initiatives and the need to explore bankable nature-based and green finance solutions.

Q 31.A
• The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from POPs,
which are identified chemical substances that persist in the environment, bio-accumulate in living
organisms, adversely affect human health/ environment and have the property of long-range
environmental transport (LRET). Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer, damage to central & peripheral
nervous systems, diseases of the immune system, reproductive disorders, and interference with normal
infant and child development. POPs are listed in various Annexes to the Stockholm Convention after
thorough scientific research, deliberations, and negotiations among member countries.

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 • India ratified the Stockholm Convention on January 13, 2006, as per Article 25(4), which enabled it to
keep itself in a default "opt-out" position such that amendments in various Annexes of the convention
cannot be enforced on it unless an instrument of ratification/ acceptance/ approval or accession is
explicitly deposited with UN depositary.
• The convention has approved the Ratification of seven (7) chemicals listed under the Stockholm
Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The chemicals are:
o Chlordecone,
o Hexabromobiphenyl,
o Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Hepta Bromodiphenyl Ether (Commercial octa-BDE),
o Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether (Commercial penta-BDE),
o Pentachlorobenzene,
o Hexabromocyclododecane, and
o Hexachlorobutadiene
• The ratification of POPs demonstrates India's commitment to meet its international obligations with
regard to the protection of the environment and human health. It also indicates the resolve of the
Government to take action on POPs by implementing control measures, developing and implementing
action plans for unintentionally produced chemicals, develop inventories of the chemicals' stockpiles and
reviewing as well as updating its National Implementation Plan (NIP). The ratification process would
enable India to access the Global Environment Facility (GEF) financial resources in updating the
NIP. Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

Q 32.B
• Except for the deep-sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, the sun is the only energy source for all ecosystems
on Earth. Hydrothermal vents are like geysers, or hot springs, on the ocean floor. The conversion of
mineral-rich hydrothermal fluid into energy is a key aspect of these unique ecosystems. Through
chemosynthesis, bacteria provide energy and nutrients to vent species without needing sunlight. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• Of the incident solar radiation, less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation
(PAR). Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR or 1-5 percent of incident solar radiation to prepare
food and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 33.B
• ONDC (Open Network for Digital Commerce), is a non-profit initiative by the Government of India
to democratize e-commerce and empower small and medium enterprises (SMEs) and micro-
entrepreneurs. ONDC is currently live in several cities and domains in India, such as food, grocery,
fashion, electronics, etc., and has over 35,000 sellers on the network.
• Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for
all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. It is a Section 8
company, under the initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(DPIIT). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network
protocols independent of any specific platform. Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a
network based on open protocol and will enable local commerce across segments, such as mobility,
grocery, food order and delivery, hotel booking and travel, among others, to be discovered and engaged
by any network-enabled application. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 34.C
• The edaphic factors include soil's physical, chemical, and biological properties that result from
biologic and geologic phenomena or anthropogenic activities. Discontinuities in the edaphic factor
contribute to the intriguing patterns of diversity we see in the biotic world. Chemical and physical features
of soil greatly influence the ecology and evolution of plants and their associated biota. Extreme soil
conditions, such as those found on serpentine outcrops, limestone and gypsum deposits, and mine tailings,
have led to the formation of unique plant communities characterized by rarity and endemism. Such sites
have also provided model organisms to examine the divergence process due to adaptation, reproductive
isolation, and subsequent genetic differentiation, in some cases even resulting in speciation. Ever-

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 expanding agriculture and forestry, mining activity, and urbanization cause severe threats to the world’s
unusual edaphic habitats and biota.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 35.D
• A constant input of solar energy is the essential requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain.
Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a
time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in weight (gm–2) or energy (kcal m–2). The
rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr–1 or (kcal m–2) yr–1
to compare the productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity
(GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). An ecosystem's gross primary productivity is the
production rate of organic matter during photosynthesis. Plants utilize a considerable amount of GPP
in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity
(NPP).
GPP – R = NPP
• Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs (herbivores and
decomposers). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety
of environmental factors, such as the availability of nutrients and the photosynthetic capacity of plants.
Therefore, it varies in different types of ecosystems. The annual net primary productivity of the whole
biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, despite occupying
about 70 percent of the surface, the productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. The rest, 115 billion,
is on land. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 36.C
• Recent Context: The report, Global Land Outlook Thematic Report on Rangelands and
Pastoralists, was released May 21, 2024.
o The report by the United Nations paints a concerning picture of the world’s rangelands, with up to 50
per cent estimated to be degraded. This figure is nearly double the previous estimates that ranged from
20-35 per cent, the land outlook report on rangelands and pastoralists highlighted.
o Past estimates of degraded rangeland worldwide significantly understated the actual loss of rangeland
health and productivity, which could be as much as 50 per cent, agreed over 60 expert contributors
from over 40 countries of United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in the
report.
• The Global Land Outlook (GLO) Thematic Report on Rangelands and Pastoralists was produced
by a team led by the author and secretariat of the United Nations Convention to Combat
Desertification (UNCCD), in collaboration with supporting and contributing partners, and in consultation
with key stakeholders and experts.
• The aim of the GLO publications is to raise awareness and communicate evidence-based, policy-relevant
information to a variety of stakeholders, including national governments designing and implementing
their commitments to sustainably manage and restore land resources under the Sustainable Development
Goals, including targets to achieve Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN). The data and evidence presented
in the GLO reports demonstrates that more informed and responsible decision making can help to reverse
the current worrying trends in the state of our land resources.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 37.C
• The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that extends the 1992 United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It commits its Parties to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions, based on the premise that global warming exists and human-made CO₂ emissions have
caused it. The protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on December 11, 1997, and entered into force on
February 16, 2005.
• Countries with commitments under the Kyoto Protocol to limit or reduce greenhouse gas emissions must
meet their targets primarily through national measures. As an additional means of meeting these
targets, the Kyoto Protocol introduced three market-based mechanisms, thereby creating what is
now known as the carbon market.
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 o Clean Development Mechanism (CDM): Allows countries to meet their emission reduction targets
by purchasing emission reduction credits from projects in developing countries. The CDM enables
industrialized countries to invest in emission reduction projects in developing countries and
earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Joint Implementation (JI): Facilitates emission reduction projects between industrialized
countries. JI allows industrialized (Annex I) countries to carry out joint emission reduction
projects with other industrialized countries, earning emission reduction units (ERUs). Hence,
pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Emissions Trading: It enables countries to trade emission allowances to meet their Kyoto
targets. Emissions Trading allows countries with surplus emission allowances to sell them to
countries that are over their targets, thus providing flexibility in meeting their commitments
under the Kyoto Protocol. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 38.A
• The global warming potential (GWP) of human-generated greenhouse gases is a measure of how
much heat each gas traps in the atmosphere, relative to carbon dioxide.
• The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global warming
impacts of different gases. It is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb
over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2).
• The larger the GWP, the more that a given gas warms the Earth compared to CO2 over that time period.
The time period usually used for GWPs is 100 years.

• Thus, the correct descending order based on their GWPs is Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆), Nitrous
oxide (N₂O), Methane (CH₄), and Carbon dioxide (CO₂).
• Hence, option(a) is the correct answer.

Q 39.A
• Sacred groves comprise patches of forests or natural vegetation – from a few trees to forests of several
acres – that are usually dedicated to local folk deities. A sacred grove is identified by local names
according to each state. In Maharashtra, it is called Devrai, Sarana in Jharkhand, Sarpa Kavu in Kerala
and Koil Kadu in Tamil Nadu. But few are preserved properly. These spaces are protected by local
communities because of their religious beliefs and traditional rituals that run through several
generations. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In India, sacred groves are found all over the country and abundantly along the western ghats in the states
of Kerala and Karnataka. The highest number of SGs is in Himachal Pradesh (nearly 5,000) and the
lowest in Uttarakhand (around 22). Kerala has around 2,000 of them.

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 • The degree of sanctity of the sacred forests varies from one grove to another. In some forests, even the dry
foliage and fallen fruits are not touched. People believe that any kind of disturbance will offend the local
deity, causing diseases, natural calamities, or failure of crops. For example, the Garo and the Khasi tribes
of northeastern India completely prohibit any human interference in the sacred groves. In other groves,
deadwood or dried leaves may be picked up, but the live tree or its branches are never cut. For example,
the Gonds of central India prohibit the cutting of a tree but allow fallen parts to be used. Hence statement
2 is not correct.

Q 40.B
• Algal blooms are dense layers of tiny green plants that occur on the surface of lakes and other
bodies of water when there is an overabundance of nutrients (primarily phosphorus) on which algae
depend. This effect is called eutrophication. These high levels of nutrients are often caused by
human pollution, such as wastewater, sewage, manure and fertilizer runoff from agriculture.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Lake eutrophication can, however, be a natural process resulting from the gradual accumulation of
nutrients, sediments, silt and organic matter from the watershed. Too much nitrogen and phosphorus in the
water causes algae to grow faster than ecosystems can handle. Warmer temperatures can exacerbate the
problem.
• The green layer formed by dense algal blooms is unsightly, smells bad and can make water toxic to
humans and fish, causing illness and—in some cases—death. When algae die, they are decomposed
by bacteria, which can remove oxygen from the water, occasionally killing fish. Algal blooms can
also make water unfit for even recreational use. These tiny organisms can therefore have a huge
impact on health, wildlife and economies that depend on fishing and tourism. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct and statement 3 is correct.

Q 41.C
• Biodiversity is the diversity of and in living nature. However, defining biodiversity or measures of
biodiversity is not so simple. The living beings range from very small-sized microbes to large-sized
mammals.
• The two main factors taken into account when measuring diversity are richness and evenness.
o Species richness refers to the total number of different species present in a particular area or
ecosystem. It measures the diversity based on the sheer number of species. For example, if an
ecosystem has 20 different species of birds, 15 species of plants, and 10 species of insects, the species
richness of that ecosystem would be the sum of these counts, which is 45. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
o Species Richness can be divided into 3 types:
▪ α-Diversity- Alpha diversity refers to diversity within a particular area, community, or
ecosystem, and is measured by counting the number of taxa (usually species) within the
ecosystem.

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 ▪ β-Diversity- Beta diversity is species diversity between ecosystems; this involves comparing the
number of taxa that are unique to each of the ecosystems.
▪ Y -Diversity- Gamma diversity is a measurement of the overall diversity of different ecosystems
within a region.
o Species evenness is a measure of how evenly the individuals in a community are distributed
among the different species. It indicates the relative abundance of different species within an
ecosystem. In other words, it assesses whether each species is represented equally or if some
species dominate while others are rare. Hence statement 2 is correct.
▪ Higher evenness suggests a more balanced distribution of individuals among species, while
lower evenness indicates that a few species are dominant and others are rare.

Q 42.A
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently released draft guidelines regarding provisioning for
lenders who undertake project finance. As per RBI guidelines, lenders shall maintain 5% provisions on
exposures to projects under implementation at various stages. In the case of provisioning, banks in India
have to set aside funds for a percentage of their assets. It means that the bank sets aside a prescribed
amount of money from its profit to compensate for probable loss. Hence pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
• Recently, the Department of Consumer Affairs has issued a warning against drip pricing. Drip
Pricing is a pricing technique in which firms advertise only part of a product’s price and reveal
other charges later as the customer goes through the buying process. It is used as a tactic to attract
customers into initiating the purchasing process. It has been identified as a dark pattern under Guidelines
for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023. A Dark pattern refers to practices adopted by online
platforms that mislead people into paying for items or services they did not intend to do originally. Hence
pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Recently, SEBI has amended mutual fund norms, requiring Asset Management Companies to
establish mechanisms to prevent front-running. Front Running occurs in the stock market when a
broker or trader acts on advance information about client orders to execute their own trades first.
This anticipatory trading, based on non-public knowledge of upcoming transactions, aims to profit from
the resulting price movement. It is an unethical activity that disrupts market fairness and can be illegal.
o On the other hand, oversubscription of IPOs refers to a situation when the demand for an issue stock
exceeds its supply. It is an indication of the fact that the investors are eager to buy the company's
shares, leading to a higher price which may lead to more shares offered for sale. Hence pair 3 is not
correctly matched.

Q 43.C
• Recently, it has been observed that there is a decrease in tobacco crop production in major tobacco-
producing countries like Brazil, Zimbabwe, and Indonesia due to extreme weather conditions. Also,
China imposed restrictions on tobacco exports to safeguard its local cigarette industry.
• About Tobacco Cultivation in India:
o India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The cultivation of tobacco requires a temperature between 20° to 27°C.
o When grown as a rainfed crop then it requires at least about 500 mm of well-distributed rainfall
during the crop growing season is required by the tobacco plant. (Usually not grown in the area if
rainfall exceeds 1200 mm). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o It requires Sandy or sandy loam soil. Cigarette-tobacco growing areas of Andhra Pradesh are an
exception as the crop in this region is grown on heavy black soil.
o Some of the varieties cultivated in India are
▪ Flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco in Andhra Pradesh & Karnataka;
▪ Bidi Tobacco in Gujarat, Karnataka & Andhra Pradesh.
▪ Cigar & Cheroot in Tamil Nadu & West Bengal.
▪ Pikka Tobacco in Orissa. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o Tobacco cultivation provides livelihood security to 36 million people, earns foreign exchange (4% of
the country’s total agri-exports), and forms a good share in Government revenue (10% of the total
excise revenue collection from all sources), etc.

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Q 44.C
• Fly ash is a finely divided residue made from the combustion of pulverized coal.
• When pulverized coal is burnt in the boiler of a thermal power station, a part of the ash falls down at the
bottom of the boiler and is known as bottom ash. Whereas, he major portion of the ash comes out
along with the flue gases and is collected through an electrostatic precipitator or filter bags or other
means before allowing the exhaust gases to escape through the chimney. This is called fly ash.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Fly Ash is categorized as hazardous waste and therefore, pollution control standards require that it be
captured prior to release. It contains toxic chemicals such as arsenic, barium, cadmium, nickel and lead,
among others. These are known to cause cancer, lung and heart ailments and neurological damage, and
contribute to premature mortality.
• However, it has found a number of uses. The most common use of fly ash is as a replacement for
Portland cement used in producing concrete. Concrete made with fly ash is stronger and more
durable than traditional concrete. Fly ash concrete is easier to pour, has lower permeability and
resists alkali-silica reaction, which results in a longer service life. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are
correct.

Q 45.A
• Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is an important management tool for ensuring the optimal
use of natural resources for sustainable development. A beginning in this direction was made in our
country with the impact assessment of river valley projects in 1978-79 and the scope has subsequently
been enhanced to cover other developmental sectors such as industries, thermal power projects, mining
schemes etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• To facilitate collection of environmental data and preparation of management plans, guidelines have been
evolved and circulated to the concerned Central and State Government Departments. EIA has now been
made mandatory under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for 29 categories of developmental
activities involving investments of Rs. 50 crores and above. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The EIA process:

Q 46.A
• The word "smog" is the combination of the words smoke and fog. It was invented around 1911 by the
physician Harold Des Voeux. There are two kinds of smog:
o London type smog or Classical smog: Burning coal leads to emissions of Carbon Dioxide,
Sulphur Dioxide and dust. When these pollutants mix with fog, droplets of highly corrosive
Sulphuric Acid are produced in the air. It occurs at very cold temperatures. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.
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 o Los Angeles type or Photochemical Smog: Photochemical smog is a mixture of pollutants that
are formed when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react to sunlight,
creating a brown haze above cities. It tends to occur more often in summer, because that is
when we have the most sunlight. Photochemical smog contains ketones tropospheric ozone,
formaldehyde, and PAN (peroxyacetyl nitrates). Normal tropospheric ozone levels are less than 0.04
ppm but ozone levels can be as high as 12 ppm in these smogs. The substances in these smogs are
irritating to eyes and can damage the respiratory system. They also affect vegetation. This type of
smog is rather common now in large cities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Q 47.C
• Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone depletion, an international treaty, known as the
Montreal Protocol, was signed in Montreal (Canada) in 1987 (effective in 1989) to control the
emission of ozone-depleting substances.
• Developed countries decided to reduce CFC production step by step. Some relaxations were granted to
developing countries like India and China. It was also agreed that extra costs in using alternative
chemicals to CFCs would be borne by the developed countries.
• The Montreal Protocol enjoys universal ratification, with 198 parties (all UN member countries) having
signed and ratified the agreement. This universal acceptance underscores its importance and effectiveness
in addressing a critical global environmental issue.
• Kigali Amendment: The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, is an amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
It specifically targets the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent greenhouse gases
but not ozone-depleting substances. While the Kigali Amendment builds on the success of the Montreal
Protocol, the original protocol itself was designed to address ozone-depleting substances.
• Kyoto Protocol: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits its parties to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions, based on the premise that global warming exists and human-made CO₂
emissions have caused it.
• Paris Agreement: The Paris Agreement is an international treaty focused on climate change mitigation,
adaptation, and finance, aiming to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius.
• Basel Convention: The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous
Wastes and Their Disposal is an international treaty that aims to reduce the movements of hazardous
waste between nations, especially from developed to less developed countries.
• Hence, option(c) is the correct answer.

Q 48.D
• As per the Worldwide Fund for Nature, "illegal wildlife trade is estimated to reach $20 billion per
year, which makes wildlife trafficking the world's fourth largest illicit trade, after narcotics, human
trafficking and trade in counterfeit goods. Illegal wildlife trade not only is a threat to the conservation of
species but also poses risks to human health and negatively impacts a country’s natural resources and
local communities.
• State of India’s Environment 2017 highlights a 52 % spike in poaching and wildlife crimes between
2014 and 2016.
• India has taken various steps to counter illegal wildlife trade (IWT) and protect its natural resources. Here
are some of the measures:
o Constitutional Safeguards:
▪ Article 51A (g) of the Indian Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen to protect
and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
o Legislation and Government Initiatives:
▪ The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits trade in over 1800 species of wild animals, plants,
and their derivatives.
▪ The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, empowers authorities to penalize and jail
those who harm wildlife.
▪ The Indian Penal Code, 1860, also has provisions (Section 428 and Section 429) for rigorous
imprisonment for killing, poaching, maiming, poisoning, or torturing animals.
o International Collaboration and Organizations:
▪ India is a member of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild
Fauna and Flora (CITES), which regulates the trade in wildlife globally.
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 ▪ India collaborates with organizations like TRAFFIC and the International Fund for Animal
Welfare (IFAW) to monitor and combat illegal wildlife trade.
o Government Agencies:
▪ The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), established under the Ministry of Environment
and Forests, works to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
o Community Participation:
▪ Around five crore people living around national parks and sanctuaries participate in environment
conservation efforts.
▪ The National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-31) focuses on people's participation in wildlife
conservation.
o Demand Reduction Campaigns:
▪ Initiatives like the "Not all animals migrate by choice" campaign, launched by the WCCB
in collaboration with the UN Environment, raise awareness about illegal wildlife trade at
airports across India, focusing on species like tigers, pangolins, star tortoises, and Tokay geckos.
• These measures aim to combat various forms of wildlife exploitation, including commercial hunting,
subsistence hunting, and sport hunting, by enacting legislation, strengthening enforcement, fostering
international cooperation, and raising public awareness.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 49.C
Central Zoo Authority (CZA)-
The CZA is the body of the government responsible for oversight of zoos constituted under the Wild Life
(Protection) Act,1972.
Functions of Central Zoo Authority-
• Specify the minimum standards for housing, upkeep and veterinary care of the animals kept in zoos.
• Evaluate and assess the functioning of the zoos with respect to the prescribed standards or norms.
• Recognize or derecognize zoos.
• Identify endangered species of wild animals for purposes of captive breeding.
• Provide technical and financial assistance to such zoos which have the potential to attain the desired
standard in animal management.
• Regulate the exchange of animals of the endangered category listed under Schedule-I and II of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act among zoos.
• Exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos is approved by the Authority before the requisite
clearances under EXIM Policy and the CITES permits are issued by the competent authority.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 50.A
• E-Waste Management in India: The government passed the first law on e-waste management in 2011
based on Extended producer responsibility. However, it did not set collection targets.
• E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 were enacted in supersession of the 2011 rules in which:
o A manufacturer, dealer, refurbisher and Producer Responsibility Organizations (PRO) were brought
under the ambit of rules.
o PRO is a professional organization authorized or financed collectively or individually by
producers, which can take responsibility for the collection and channelization of e-waste
generated from their products to ensure environmentally sound management. It helps
producers to meet their EPR targets through various recyclers and dismantlers. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a strategy designed to promote the integration of
environmental costs associated with goods throughout their life cycles into the market price of the
products. Three basic principles of EPR are:
o Manufacturer shall be incentivized to improve the environmental design of their products and the
environmental performance of supplying those products.
o Products should achieve a high utilization rate.
o Materials should be preserved through effective and environmentally sound collection and
treatment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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Q 51.B
• Biosphere reserves are ‘learning places for sustainable development’. They are sites for testing
interdisciplinary approaches to understanding and managing changes and interactions between social and
ecological systems, including conflict prevention and management of biodiversity. They are places that
provide local solutions to global challenges. Biosphere reserves include terrestrial, marine, and
coastal ecosystems. Each site promotes Student Notes: solutions reconciling the conservation of
biodiversity with its sustainable use. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Biosphere Reserves' three main zones:
o Core Areas: It comprises a strictly protected zone that contributes to the conservation of landscapes,
ecosystems, species, and genetic variation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Buffer Zones: It surround or adjoin the core area(s), and are used for activities compatible with sound
ecological practices that can reinforce scientific research, monitoring, training, and education.
o Transition Area: The transition area is where communities foster socio-culturally and ecologically
sustainable economic and human activities.
• The World Network of Biosphere Reserves of the MAB Programme consists of a dynamic and interactive
network of sites of excellence. Not all Biosphere Reserves in India are part of the World Network of
Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). 12 of the 18 biosphere reserves in the country have become part of the
World Network of Biosphere Reserves which is based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB)
Programme list. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 52.D
• Eco-Sensitive Zones are fragile areas around protected areas declared by the Ministry of Environment,
Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some protected areas,
especially around natural parks and wildlife sanctuaries, by regulating and controlling certain activities.
The Supreme Court ordered in June 2022 that an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) be required to extend for at
least one km from all national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and protected forests across the nation. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• ESZs are ecologically important areas notified under the Environment Protection Act 1986 to be protected
from industrial pollution and unregulated development. Section 3 of the Environment protection rules
gives power to the Central Government i.e. the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests to take all
measures that it feels are necessary for protecting and improving the quality of the environment and to
prevent and control environmental pollution. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• While some of the activities could be allowed in all the ESAs, others will need to be regulated/ prohibited.
However, which activity can be regulated or prohibited, and to what extent, would have to be protected
area-specific there are 3 categories of activities:
o Prohibited- commercial mining, polluting industries, major hydroelectric projects, etc.
o Restricted with safeguards (Regulated) - Felling of trees, Establishment of hotels and resorts, Drastic
change of agriculture system, widening of roads, introduction of exotic species etc.
o Permissible- Rainwater Harvesting, Organic farming, Ongoing Agricultural Practices etc.

Q 53.B
• Ozone-depleting substances (ODS) are chemical compounds that cause the depletion of the ozone
layer in the Earth's stratosphere.
• Common ozone-depleting substances include chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, carbon tetrachloride
and methyl chloroform.
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs): CFCs are ozone-depleting substances. The primary cause of ozone
depletion is the presence of chlorine-containing source gases (primarily CFCs and related halocarbons).
For example, Dichlorodifluoromethane (R-12) is a colorless gas usually sold under the brand name Freon-
12. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane: CO₂ and CH4 are significant greenhouse gases but do not
deplete the ozone layer.
• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs): HFCs are greenhouse gases but do not deplete the ozone layer. They
were introduced as replacements for ozone-depleting substances like CFCs and halons.

Q 54.B
• The National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH) is a premier institute, under the aegis of the Indian
Council of Medical Research (ICMR) under the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, Govt. of India.

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 • It’s primary responsibility is to support the national policy makers for adopting an appropriate policy in
the field of occupational health, based on felt needs of our country. This is done through multi-
disciplinary research, capacity building and technological development.
• Considering quantum of burden of occupational diseases (more than 90% of our workers work in the
unorganized sectors), priority-wise it has a focus on working towards dust related respiratory
morbidities (such as silicosis, anthracosis, byssinosis etc.). Similarly, other diseases of concern are heavy
metal poisoning, musculoskeletal disorders, pesticide poisoning etc. in various occupational groups.
• There are an estimated 3-million workers, who are working in various industries (ceramic, foundries,
agate, stone polishing, stone quarries etc.) and they are getting exposed to silica dust daily while working.
Recently, it has identified a serum protein known as CC-16 which is secreted from the non-ciliated
epithelial cells of the lungs known as club cells. CC-16 could be used as a potential bio-marker for early
detection of any dust related disease where extensive lung damage occurs due to its continuous
inhalational exposure.
• The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, has approved to dissolve National Institute of
Miners' Health (NIMH), an autonomous Institute under Ministry of Mines (MoM) and
merge/amalgamate with ICMR-National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH), Ahmedabad,
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoH&FW) with all assets and liabilities; and absorb all the
employees of NIMH in NIOH in the similar post/pay scale as the case may be and their pay be protected.
• Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q 55.A
• Loss of species is a serious cause of concern for human survival. It has been observed that 79 species
of mammals, 44 of birds, 15 of reptiles, and 3 of amphibians are threatened.
o Nearly 1500 species of plants are endangered in India.
• There are four major causes that have led to this rapid extinction of biological diversity, also
referred to as “The Evil Quartet”. These are:-
o Habitat loss and fragmentation: This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction. The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come from tropical rainforests. Once covering
more than 14 percent of the earth’s land surface, these rain forests now cover no more than 6 percent.
Besides total loss, the degradation of many habitats by pollution also threatens the survival of many
species. When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human activities,
mammals and birds requiring large territories, and certain animals with migratory habits are badly
affected, leading to population declines.
o Over-exploitation: Due to exponential increase in human dependence on natural resources to meet
the rising demand for development has led to over-exploitation. Over-exploitation reduces the size of
the population of a species and may push it towards extinction. Many species extinctions in the last
500 years (Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were due to over-exploitation by humans.
o Alien Invasive Species: An invasive alien species is any species that is established outside of its
natural past or present distribution, whose introduction and/or spread threaten biological diversity. For
example, The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa led eventually to the extinction
of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake.
o Co-Extinction: When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an
obligatory way also become extinct. When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage
of parasites also meets the same fate. Another example is the case of a coevolved plant-pollinator
mutualism where the extinction of one invariably leads to the extinction of the other.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 56.A
• Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that employs the use of living organisms in the removal of
contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments. These organisms can
include microbes and bacteria. Bioremediation can be used to clean up contaminated groundwater or
environmental problems, such as oil spills.
• Bioremediation requires a combination of the right temperature, nutrients, and foods. The absence of these
elements can prolong the cleanup of contaminants. Conditions that are unfavorable for bioremediation can
be improved by adding “amendments” to the environment such as molasses, vegetable oil, or simple air.
These amendments optimize conditions for microbes to flourish, accelerating the completion of the
bioremediation process.
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 • Types of Bioremediation:
o Biostimulation: Microbes are stimulated to begin the remediation process via chemicals or nutrients
that activate them.
o Bioaugmentation: This is the technique of increasing or enhancing the ability of native microbes
on the contaminated site to degrade pollutants through the addition of a natural or
manufactured population of microorganisms. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
o Bioaugmentation is widely used in soil bioremediation, wastewater treatment (through Membrane
Bioreactors), and air biofiltration. The addition of microbial biomass to contaminated areas can
considerably improve their biodegradation performance. In many cases, cultured microorganisms
used for bioaugmentation are “specialists” in degrading specific target contaminants. For example,
some microbes may be able to degrade the chlorinated compounds cis-1,2 dichloroethylene (cDCE)
and vinyl chloride (VC) more quickly than the naturally-occurring microbial community at a
particular site.
o Intrinsic Bioremediation: This converts toxic materials into inert materials by using the native
microbiome on the affected area.

Q 57.B
• The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, was enacted to streamline and regulate the
compensatory afforestation process in India.
• The Act aims to ensure that all non-forest lands diverted for non-forest purposes (e.g., mining,
infrastructure projects) are compensated for through the creation of compensatory afforestation.Key
Provisions:
o Establishment of National Compensatory Afforestation Fund (NCAF): A dedicated fund to
receive payments for compensatory afforestation.
▪ The CAF Act establishes the NCAF under the Public Account of India.
▪ The NCAF is a non-lapsable fund that holds all amounts collected as compensatory
afforestation from user agencies and other sources. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Responsibility of Users: Entities diverting forest land must pay into the NCAF to create
compensatory afforestation.
o Constitution of Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority
(CAMPA): An autonomous body responsible for managing the NCAF and planning compensatory
afforestation.
o Targets and Plantation Plans: Users must prepare plantation plans and achieve targets for
compensatory afforestation.
o Monitoring and Evaluation: CAMPA is responsible for monitoring and evaluating the progress of
compensatory afforestation.
o Penalty for Non-Compliance: Failure to make payments or implement plantation plans can result in
penalties.
• NCAF receives 10% of the funds collected for compensatory afforestation.
• State Compensatory Afforestation Fund (SCAF) receives the remaining 90% of the funds collected
for compensatory afforestation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Act mandates an annual audit of the CAF accounts by the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG) of India. The CAG is responsible for:
o Examining the financial statements of the CAF
o Assessing the compliance with the provisions of the Act and regulations
o Reporting on the overall management and utilization of the fund. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 58.A
• Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers, and dead remains of animals, including fecal matter,
constitute detritus, the raw material for decomposition. Detritivores (e.g., earthworms) break down
detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation. By leaching, water-soluble inorganic
nutrients enter the soil horizon and precipitate as unavailable salts. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade
detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called catabolism. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Humification leads to the accumulation of a dark-colored amorphous substance called humus that is
highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at a prolonged rate. Being colloidal, it
serves as a reservoir of nutrients. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process. The decomposition rate is controlled by the
chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition
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 rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, and quicker, if detritus is rich in nitrogen and
water-soluble substances like sugars. Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic
factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes. Warm and
moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition resulting in the build-up of organic materials. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

Q 59.C
• Primary Pollutants: These are emitted directly into the air from sources at the Earth’s surface. Examples
are Carbon Monoxide, Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen oxides, hydrocarbons and particulate matter.
• Secondary Pollutants: The regional gases can also react chemically in the atmosphere to form other
compounds which are known as secondary pollutants. One of the main results of secondary pollution is
photochemical smog. in bright sunlight, nitrogen, nitrogen oxides, oxygen and hydrocarbons undergo
photochemical reaction. As a result, powerful oxidants like Ozone, Aldehydes, Sulphuric acid,
Peroxyacetyl nitrate, peroxides, etc are produced. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 60.B
• The "Panchamrita" strategy, was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the 26th
Conference of the Parties (COP26) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC) held in Glasgow, United Kingdom. Under the Panchamrit strategy, India
presented the following five nectar elements (Panchamrit) of India’s climate action:
• Non-Fossil Energy Capacity: India will increase its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 GW by
2030. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Renewable Energy Share: India will meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable energy by
2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Reduction in Carbon Emissions: India will reduce its total projected carbon emissions by 1 billion
tonnes from now until 2030.
• Carbon Intensity Reduction: India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by 45% by 2030,
compared to 2005 levels.
• Net-Zero Target: India will achieve the target of net-zero carbon emissions by 2070. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 61.A
• Thermal pollution can be defined as “an accumulation of unusable heat from human activities that
disrupts ecosystems in the natural environment” or “as the degradation of water quality by any
process that changes ambient water temperature.” One major physical stressor on aquatic
ecosystems is thermal pollution; it is not only problematic in itself, but can also exaggerate the
impacts of chemical pollution.
• Sources of thermal pollution:
o Nuclear powerplants
o coal-fired power plants
o Industrial effluents
o Sewage
o Soil Erosion
o Deforestation
• Impact of thermal pollution:
• Temperature influences the viscosity, density, vapor pressure, surface tension, gas solubility and gas
diffusion rates. Heated water has low density and spreads on the surface of water bodies causing them to
stratify thermally. The stratification is a barrier to oxygen penetration into the deeper layers.
• The concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) decreases as well as solubility of gases decreases with
increase in temperature. The decrease in DO can create suffocation for plants and animals such as
fish, amphibians and copepods, which may give rise to anaerobic conditions. Also, warmer water
favors algae to flourish on the surface of the water. Increased temperature may not be tolerable for
aquatic organisms as it increases microbial growth, which in turn decreases DO, makes metals more

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 bioavailable, or in other ways increases the harm from nutrients and toxins. Even if the adult fish
can survive at the reduced DO levels, their reproductive capacities decrease. In addition,
reproduction is not adversely affected, but the survival of juvenile fish can be reduced. Hence, both
statement-I and statement-II are correct and statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.
• The increase in the metal compounds combined with the reduced DO and the increased temperatures can
act synergistically to make the conditions toxic for higher animals, for example, a fish kill
• Many aquatic species are sensitive to small temperature changes such as one degree Celsius that can cause
significant changes in organism metabolism and other adverse cellular biology effects. Changes in the
environment may cause certain species of organisms to shift to other places because of warmer waters.
• Thermal pollution can also interfere with the natural reproductive cycles of fish. In fishes, several
activities like nest building, spawning, hatching, migration and reproduction depend on optimum
temperature. Due to thermal pollution, the temperature gradient of water bodies gets disturbed and hence
affects aquatic organisms. Excessive temperature can cause the release of immature eggs or can prevent
the normal development of certain eggs.
• The increased temperature can also increase the solubility of substances toxic to organisms. Thus, the
change in temperature, the resulting decrease in DO and increase in metal concentrations, and the
synergistic impact of combining the hypoxic water and reduced metal compounds is a cascade of harm to
the stream’s ecosystems.
• Thermal pollution increases the metabolic rate of organisms as an increase in enzyme activity occurs and
as a result, the organisms consume more food than normal requirements, if their environment is not
changed. It disrupts the stability of the food chain and alters the balance of species composition and may
also lead to faunal migration, as species attempt to adapt to changed thermal conditions. As a result,
original species may migrate away and alien species may enter a local aquatic system. In some cases,
significant loss of biodiversity can arise.
• Thermal pollution is directly responsible for the mortality of aquatic organisms. An increase in
temperature of water leads to the exhaustion of microorganisms thereby shortening the life span of fish.
Above a certain temperature, fish die due to failure of the respiratory system and nervous system.

Q 62.A
• According to reports, many people died in the conflict between the Hezbollah group and Israel
along the Lebanon border.
• About Lebanon:
o It is a country located in West Asia bounded by Syria (north and east), Israel (south), and the
Mediterranean Sea (west). It shares maritime borders with Cyprus.
o Physiography: Al-Biqā Valley lies between the Lebanon Mountains in the west and the Anti-
Lebanon. It is part of the great East African Rift System. The highest peak in Lebanon is Qurnat al-
Sawdā and the major rivers include Līānī River, Orontes, etc. Hence pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
• Indonesia's Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert.
• About Mount Ruang
o It is a stratovolcano located in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands characterized by a conical shape, formed
by layers of volcanic material deposited during successive volcanic eruptions. It is one of around 130
active volcanoes in Indonesia, lying in the Ring of Fire, a string of volcanoes around the edges of the
Pacific Ocean. Other volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru. Hence pair 2 is
correctly matched.
• Recently India has protested against the Chinese road construction at Shaksgam Valley in Pakistan-
occupied Kashmir. Shaksgam Valley is a part of the territory of India, strategically located in Jammu and
Kashmir. Through the China-Pakistan boundary agreement of 1963, Pakistan unlawfully ceded the area
to China. It is also known as the Trans-Karakoram tract, an area along both sides of the Shaksgam
River. It is bounded by Kun Lun Mountains and by Karakoram peaks and is adjacent to the Siachen
Glacier. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 63.C
• Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the Earth's oceans, caused by the uptake of
carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere. This process has significant impacts on marine
ecosystems and biodiversity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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 • Impacts on Marine Life
• Calcifying Organisms: Many marine organisms, such as corals, mollusks, and some plankton species,
rely on calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) to build their shells and skeletons.
• Ocean acidification reduces the availability of carbonate ions (CO₃²⁻), which are essential for
forming calcium carbonate. This makes it harder for these organisms to produce and maintain their
shells and skeletons, leading to weaker structures and increased mortality. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• Food Web Disruption: The effects on calcifying organisms can ripple through the food web, as many
marine species depend on these organisms for food and habitat. Disruption at the base of the food chain
can lead to declines in fish populations and other marine life, affecting biodiversity and fisheries.
• Behavioral Changes: Some studies suggest that ocean acidification can affect the behavior and sensory
abilities of marine animals, making it harder for them to find food, avoid predators, and reproduce.
• Hence, option(c) is the correct answer.

Q 64.C
• The tundra is the coldest of the biomes. It also receives low amounts of precipitation, making the tundra
similar to a desert. Tundra is found in the regions just below the ice caps of the Arctic, extending across
North America, to Europe, and Siberia in Asia. Tundra winters are long, dark, and cold, with mean
temperatures below 0°C for six to 10 months of the year. The temperatures are so cold that there is a layer
of permanently frozen ground below the surface, called permafrost. This permafrost is a defining
characteristic of the tundra biome. In the tundra summers, the top layer of soil thaws only a few inches
down, providing a growing surface for the roots of vegetation. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The taiga is a forest of the cold, subarctic region. The subarctic is an area of the Northern Hemisphere
that lies just south of the Arctic Circle. The taiga lies between the tundra to the north and temperate forests
to the south. Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia, and Siberia have taigas. In Russia, the world’s largest taiga
stretches about 5,800 kilometers (3,600 miles), from the Pacific Ocean to the Ural Mountains. Taigas are
thick forests. Coniferous trees, such as spruce, pine, and fir, are common. Coniferous trees have needles
instead of broad leaves, and their seeds grow inside protective, woody cones. While deciduous trees of
temperate forests lose their leaves in winter, conifers never lose their needles. For this reason, conifers are
also called “evergreens.” Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The savanna biome is often described as an area of grassland with dispersed trees or clusters of trees. The
lack of water makes the savanna a difficult place for tall plants such as trees to grow. Grasses and trees
that grow in the savanna have adapted to life with little water and hot temperatures. Grasses, for example,
grow quickly in the wet season when water is abundant and turn brown in the dry season to conserve
water. Some trees store water in their roots and only produce leaves during the wet season. Due to
frequent fires, grasses are short and close to the ground and some plants are fire resistant. Examples of
vegetation in the savanna include wild grasses, shrubs, baobab trees, and acacia trees. Hence pair 3 is
correctly matched.
• Hence option (c) is the correct option.

Q 65.A
• The main reason for ozone layer depletion is believed to be the release of chlorofluorocarbon compounds
(CFCs), also known as freons.
• Once CFCs are released into the atmosphere, they mix with the normal atmospheric gases and eventually
reach the stratosphere. In the stratosphere, they get broken down by powerful UV radiations, releasing
chlorine free radical. The chlorine radicals are continuously regenerated and cause the breakdown of
ozone.

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 • In 1980s atmospheric scientists working in Antarctica reported about the depletion of the ozone
layer commonly known as the ozone hole over the South Pole. It was found that a unique set of
conditions was responsible for the ozone hole over the South Pole. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In the summer season, nitrogen dioxide and methane react with chlorine monoxide and chlorine atoms
forming chlorine sinks, and thus preventing much ozone depletion, whereas in winter, a special type of
clouds called polar stratospheric clouds are formed over Antarctica. These polar stratospheric
clouds provide a surface on which chlorine nitrate gets hydrolyzed to form hypochlorous acid. It
also reacts with hydrogen chloride produced as per reaction to give molecular chlorine which causes
the breakdown of stratospheric ozone. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation
for statement 1.
• Hence, option(a) is the correct answer.

Q 66.D
• For drinking purposes, water should be tested for fluoride ion concentration. Its deficiency in drinking
water is harmful to human deficiency and causes diseases such as tooth decay etc. Soluble fluoride is
often added to drinking water to bring its concentration upto 1 ppm or 1 mg dm–3. The F– ions make the
enamel on teeth much harder by converting hydroxyapatite, [3(Ca3 (PO4)2.Ca(OH)2], the enamel on the
surface of the teeth, into much harder fluorapatite, [3(Ca3 (PO4)2.CaF2]. Thus complete absence of
Fluoride ions can be harmful. Hence statement-I is not correct.
• However, F–ion concentration above 2 ppm causes brown mottling of teeth. At the same time, excess
fluoride (over 10 ppm) causes harmful effect to bones and teeth, as reported from some parts of
Rajasthan. Hence statement-II is correct.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 67.C
• Biodiversity generally increases as one moves from polar regions towards the equator. This is known as
the latitudinal diversity gradient. The species diversity follows a regular pattern, increasing as we move
from the polar regions towards the equator. This is because the equatorial regions have more favourable
conditions for the survival and reproduction of a wide variety of species, including higher temperatures,
more sunlight, and greater primary productivity. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Tropical rainforests are known for their exceptionally high species diversity. These ecosystems cover less
than one-fifth of Earth's terrestrial area but contain about 50% of the world's species. The consistent warm
climate and abundant rainfall create ideal conditions for a wide variety of plants, animals, and
microorganisms. The largely tropical Amazonian rainforest in South America has the greatest biodiversity
on earth- it is home to more than 40,000 species of plants and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates. Scientists
estimate that in these rainforests there might be at least two million insect species waiting to be discovered
and named. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q 68.A
• Recently, the Travancore Devaswom Board has banned the use of Arali (oleander) flowers in
prasadams and nivedyams of temples following the death of a young woman in Alappuzha after
consuming Arali flower and leaf.
• Oleander is a commonly seen ornamental plant containing a cardiotoxic glycoside named
oleandrin. Several forensic medical journals have reported cases of poisoning from ingestion of oleander
leaves. Hence statement-II is correct.
• Termed as a “desert rose” in ancient texts, oleander has been trusted with its medicinal properties such as
a hangover cure, in cancer treatments, and as an antiviral. Romans and Arabs also valued its healing
potential for various ailments. As per the US National Institutes of Health, oleanders can also be used
against asthma, epilepsy, painful menstrual periods, malaria, skin problems, warts, ringworm, and
indigestion. However, like many botanical remedies, oleander carries a deadly edge. Its raw extracts are
highly toxic and should never be ingested without proper preparation. Hence statement-I is correct.
• Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.

Q 69.A
• At the recently concluded 33rd Session of the CCPCJ the heads of the Financial Action Task Force
(FATF), INTERPOL, and United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) called for
disincentivizing criminal activity through targeting illicit profits and enhance effectiveness of crime.
• The Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ) is one of the functional
commissions of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). The Commission on
Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ) was established by the Economic and Social Council
(ECOSOC) resolution 1992/1, upon request of General Assembly (GA) resolution 46/152, as one of its
functional commissions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Commission is based in Vienna. Its main role is to act as the principal policymaking body of the
United Nations in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice. The Commission’s work is dedicated
to supporting international efforts against national and transnational crime, and to improving the
efficiency of criminal justice administration systems. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The CCPCJ has 40 member states that are elected by ECOSOC and is chaired by a Bureau. The
CCPCJ holds annual regular sessions as well as inter-sessional meetings. Towards the end of each year,
the CCPCJ meets at a reconvened session to consider budgetary and administrative matters as the
governing body of the United Nations crime prevention and criminal justice program.

Q 70.A
• Biodiversity hotspots are areas that meet the following criteria:
o Endemic species: They contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants that are not found anywhere
else on Earth.
o Primary native vegetation: They have lost at least 70% of their primary native vegetation.
o Threatened: They must also be threatened and have 30% or less of their original natural vegetation.
• BIODIVERSITY HOTSPOTS IN INDIA
• As per Conservation International, India has 4 Biodiversity Hotspots. They are:
o Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal,
Bhutan, China and Myanmar). The Himalayas house more than 10,000 plant species, 300 mammals,
970 birds, 105 amphibians, 170 reptiles and 270 freshwater fishes. Large areas of remaining habitat
in the hotspot are highly degraded. Overgrazing by domestic livestock, including cattle and
domesticated yak, is widespread in the lowlands and alpine ecosystems.
o Indo-Burma region: The Indo-Burma region, one of the largest hotspots, covers Myanmar,
Thailand, Cambodia, Vietnam, and Laos PDR and also includes the Gangetic plains, areas around the
Brahmaputra River and parts of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This hotspot comprises plains that are
fed with rich alluvial soil by several large Asian rivers besides the Ganga and Brahmaputra. Although
it is one of the most biologically rich areas, it is also the most threatened. Many of the species found
here like the Annamite muntjac and grey-crowned crocias have rarely been seen by human eyes.
Threats such as illegal wildlife trade and habitat loss hang over them like Damocles’ Sword. This
region is in dire need of stringent legal protection.

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 o Sundaland: The part of India that falls in the Sundaland Hotspot is the Nicobar Islands.
Interestingly, it extends to the tectonic plates under the Indian Ocean. The hotspot is home to iconic
species like orangutans, pig-tailed langurs, Javan and Sumatran rhinos, and proboscis monkeys found
only in Borneo. Sundaland also has the distinction of being home to the world’s largest flowers, the
rafflesia, which measure one meter across.
o Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: It includes the entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka). It is faced with
tremendous population pressure. The forests of the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka have been
dramatically impacted by the demands for timber and agricultural land. The remaining forests of the
Western Ghats are heavily fragmented; in Sri Lanka, only 1.5% of the original forest remains.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 71.A
• Normally rainwater has a pH of 5.6 due to the presence of hydrogen ions (H+ ions) formed by the reaction
of rainwater with carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere. When the pH of the rainwater drops below
5.6, it is called acid rain.
• Acid rain is characterized by a pH level lower than normal rainfall, typically below pH 5.6, with values
often ranging from around pH 4.2 to 3.5. This acidity results from the presence of acidic pollutants
such as sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) in the atmosphere, which react with water
vapor to form sulfuric acid and nitric acid.
• Hence, option(a) is the correct answer.

Q 72.A
• Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely related species competing for the
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely, and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated
eventually. This may be true if resources are limiting, but not otherwise. More recent studies do not
support such gross generalizations about competition. While they do not rule out interspecific competition
in nature, they point out that competing species might evolve mechanisms that promote co-existence
rather than exclusion. One such mechanism is ‘resource partitioning’. If two species compete for the same
resource, they could avoid competition by choosing, for instance, different times for feeding or different
foraging patterns.
• Allen's rule states that mammals in cold climates tend to have shorter and bulkier limbs, allowing less
loss of body heat, whereas mammals in hot climates tend to have long, slender limbs, allowing more
significant loss of body heat.
• Bergmann’s rule states that organisms at higher altitudes should be larger and thicker than those present
near the equator. For eg., the population of white-tailed deer is larger in Canada than in Florida. This
principle was named after a German Biologist, Karl Bergmann in the nineteenth century.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 73.C
• Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another when there is no sharp
boundary between the two in terms of species composition. It occurs across the environmental gradient
(gradual change in abiotic factors such as altitude, temperature (thermocline), salinity (halocline), depth,
etc). Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Edge effects refer to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two
habitats. Generally, there is a greater number of species found in these regions (ecotones) and this is
called edge effect. The species found here are called edge species.

Q 74.D
• The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main
international convention covering the prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships
from operational or accidental causes. The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November
1973. India is a signatory of the MARPOL Convention. Hence, statement II is correct.
• India does not have a distinct policy to control marine pollution. In tackling marine litter, India's
actions have been restricted to banning single-use plastic. Prevention of marine pollution is dealt
with by Merchant Shipping Rules, 2009 (under <erchant Shipping Act, 1958), the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and the Central
Pollution Control Board rules. Hence, statement I is not correct.
• Marine plastic pollution Key facts:
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 o Plastic waste makes up 80% of all marine pollution and around 8 to 10 million metric tons of plastic
end up in the ocean each year.
o Research states that, by 2050, plastic will likely outweigh all fish in the sea.
o In the last ten years, we have produced more plastic products than in the previous century.
o Plastic generally takes between 500-1000 years to degrade. Even then, it becomes microplastics,
without fully degrading.
o Currently, there are about 50-75 trillion pieces of plastic and microplastics in the ocean.

Q 75.D
VULTURES-
• Vultures are scavenging birds of prey.
• They have been divided into New World vultures, which include the Californian and Andean condors, and
the Old World vultures, which include the White-rumped and Red-headed vultures. New World vultures
are found in North and South America; Old World vultures are found in Europe, Africa, and Asia.
• Nine species of vultures exist in India of which five belong to the genus Gyps.
• Indian Long-billed Vulture( Gyps indicus)- Indian vulture smaller and less heavily built vulture species
breeds mainly on cliffs or human-made structures. The species feeds mostly from carcasses of dead
animals and reaches up to the verge of extinction because of the veterinary drug diclofenac. The
conservation status (IUCN) of the Indian Long-billed Vulture is Critically Endangered.
• Red-Headed Vulture(Sarcogyps Calvus)- It is also known as the Indian Black Vulture found only in the
Indian Subcontinent. This medium-sized vulture has no subspecies found in deciduous forests and
foothills and river valleys. The conservation status (IUCN) of the Red-Headed Vulture is Critically
Endangered. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Himalayan Vulture (Gyps Himalayensis) Himalayan griffon vulture is one of the two largest old-world
vultures and a true raptor, found along the Himalayas in India. This huge bird of prey is the largest and
heaviest bird found in the Himalayas of the Indian Subcontinent. The conservation status (IUCN) of
Himalayan Vultures is Near Threatened. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
• Slender-Billed Vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)- It is one of the species of old-world vulture found along the
Sub Himalayan regions of the Indian Subcontinent. It has suffered an extremely rapid population decline,
particularly across India. The conservation status (IUCN) of Slender-Billed Vulture is Critically
Endangered. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• White-Rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis)- It is a medium-sized vulture and one of the most abundant
large birds of prey in the world. This is the smallest of the Gyps vultures found in India and the most
common vulture found in immense numbers all over the country. The conservation status (IUCN) of the
White-Rumped Vulture is Critically Endangered. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Q 76.A
• Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which
typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks,
wildlife sanctuaries, and reserved and protected forests of India. These protected area categories were first
introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing
or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Protected areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the
Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands
are privately owned. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A community reserve is usually formed by the local village council and the forest department signing a
memorandum of understanding (MoU). These are designed to involve local communities in conservation
efforts, allowing for sustainable resource use and traditional practices. Therefore, human activities are not
completely banned in all types of conservation areas. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

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Q 77.C
• Ground Water Pollution
Pollutant Permissible Limit Effects
Excess fluoride causes neuro-muscular disorders, gastrointestinal
Fluoride 1.5 mg/L
problems, tooth deformity, hardening of bones and skeletal fluorosis.
Chronic exposure can cause Black foot disease. It may also cause
Arsenic 0.01 mg/L
diarrhoea, lung and skin cancer
Excess nitrate in drinking water causes methemoglobinemia and
Nitrates 45 mg/L
Blue Baby Syndrome
High concentration High concentrations in drinking water can lead to hemochromatosis
Iron
means >1 mg/L which can lead to liver, heart and pancreatic damage
Lead 0.01 mg/L Brain/Nervous system disorder
Cadmium 0.003 mg/L Renal tubular disorder, Itai, Itai disease (bone decalcification)
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 78.C
• Biodiversity, a contraction of "biological diversity," encompasses the variety of life forms on Earth,
including species diversity, genetic diversity, and ecosystem diversity. It is the totality of life at all
levels of organization, from genes to ecosystems, and the interactions among living organisms and their
environments.
• Biodiversity is crucial for the functioning of ecosystems, providing essential ecosystem services such
as pollination, nutrient cycling, and climate regulation. It is the foundation of ecosystem resilience and
plays a fundamental role in maintaining the stability and productivity of ecosystems.
• Biodiversity loss refers to the decline in the variety and abundance of life forms within a particular
habitat or ecosystem. This loss is primarily driven by human activities, including habitat
destruction, overexploitation of resources, pollution, climate change, and invasive species
introduction. Biodiversity loss is a global phenomenon with far-reaching consequences for ecological,
economic, and social systems.
• Consequences of Biodiversity Loss:
o Ecological Consequences: Biodiversity loss disrupts ecosystem functioning and stability. It can
lead to reduced productivity, altered nutrient cycling, and increased vulnerability to
environmental disturbances such as droughts, floods, and disease outbreaks and its increased
variability. Biodiversity loss can also disrupt ecological interactions such as predation,
pollination, and seed dispersal, leading to cascading effects throughout ecosystems.
o Economic Consequences: Biodiversity loss can have significant economic impacts, affecting
sectors such as agriculture, fisheries, pharmaceuticals, and tourism. Declines in pollinators, for
example, can reduce crop yields and agricultural productivity, leading to economic losses for farmers
and food insecurity for communities. Loss of biodiversity can also affect industries dependent on
natural resources, such as timber, fisheries, and ecotourism.
o Social Consequences: Biodiversity loss can have profound social implications, particularly for
indigenous and local communities that rely directly on natural resources for their livelihoods,
culture, and identity. Loss of biodiversity can lead to displacement, loss of traditional knowledge, and
increased vulnerability to environmental hazards. It can also exacerbate social inequalities and
conflicts over access to resources.
• Addressing Biodiversity Loss: Addressing biodiversity loss requires concerted efforts at local, national,
and global levels. Key strategies include:
o Habitat conservation and restoration to protect critical ecosystems and species habitats.
o Sustainable management of natural resources to ensure their long-term viability and productivity.
o Implementation of laws and policies to regulate land use, resource extraction, and pollution.
o Promotion of biodiversity-friendly practices in agriculture, forestry, fisheries, and urban planning.
o Public awareness and education initiatives to foster appreciation for biodiversity and promote
conservation action.
o International cooperation and partnerships to address transboundary issues and promote global
biodiversity conservation efforts.
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 • In conclusion, biodiversity loss poses a significant threat to life's diversity and the functioning of
ecosystems. It requires urgent action and collective responsibility to conserve and restore biodiversity for
the benefit of present and future generations.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 79.B
• BIOPIRACY- The illegal collection and patenting of the biological materials originally belonging to
some other community, state or nation; is called as bio-piracy. Patenting is the act of gaining an official
right of ownership. By patenting anything or any biological material, a person, a corporation, a research
institution or a country gains the official legal authority of being the only owner of that thing or the
biological material.
• The term Bio-piracy relates to
o the illegal unauthorized use of biological material like plants, animals, or their products,
o illegal and unauthorized use of traditional knowledge of some other society or community about
the application of certain biological product(s),
o unlawful sharing in the benefits by the patent holder and deprivation of Indigenous communities or
people who are the real owners of the biological material/knowledge used for making benefits.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 80.C
• The Asian elephant ( Elephas maximus ) is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored
Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o It aims to protect Asian elephants and their habitats. This includes:
▪ Protecting elephant corridors: Securing pathways elephants use to move between habitats.
▪ Mitigating human-elephant conflict: Reducing encounters and damage caused by elephants
entering human settlements.
▪ Providing better veterinary care: Improving elephant health and addressing issues like
poaching and injuries.
▪ Research and monitoring: Gathering data on elephant populations and their needs.
• Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) Programme
o MIKE is an international conservation program that aims to track and combat illegal killing of
elephants.
o It was established in 2002 by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of
Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Objectives:
▪ Monitor and report on illegal killing of elephants at the population level
▪ Identify areas where illegal killing is most prevalent
▪ Provide data to support informed conservation and enforcement strategies
• Asian Elephant Alliance (AEA)
o Founded in 2007, the AEA is a global alliance dedicated to Asian elephant conservation.
o It was established in response to the alarming decline in elephant populations due to poaching, habitat
loss, and human-elephant conflict.
• Wildlife Trust of India (WTI)
o A leading Indian non-profit organization dedicated to the conservation of wildlife and their habitats.
• WTI is an active member of the Asian Elephant Alliance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Benefits of Membership
o Enhanced Conservation Impact: WTI contributes its expertise and resources to AEA's conservation
projects, expanding its reach and amplifying its impact.
o Information Sharing: Members of AEA have access to a wealth of scientific research, conservation
tools, and network with experts from around the world.
o Advocacy and Policy Influence: WTI can participate in AEA's advocacy efforts to influence national
and international policies that support elephant conservation.
o Collaboration and Funding Opportunities: WTI gains access to collaborative projects and funding
opportunities through its involvement in AEA.

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Q 81.A
The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act 2022 aims to modernize and strengthen India's wildlife protection
laws. By addressing contemporary problems such as invasive species and complying with international norms,
the act strengthened India's commitment to biodiversity protection and sustainable wildlife management. The
previous six schedules have been reduced to four, with improved protection for specially protected animals.
The removal of the vermin species schedule demonstrates a more focused approach, while a new schedule for
CITES-listed specimens is implemented.
• Schedule-I: Animal Species with the highest level of protection. For Example- Tiger, Blackbuck,
Himalayan Brown Bear, Brow Antlered Deer, Blue Whale, Common Dolphin, Cheetah, Snow Leopard,
Hornbills, etc. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Schedule-II: Animal species with a lesser level of protection. For example- Nilgal, Indian Flying Fox,
Spotted Deer, Wild Pig, Nicobar Shrew, etc. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Schedule-III: Protected plant species. For example- Kurinji, Tree Turmeric, Pitcher Plant Red Vanda,
Daffodil orchid, etc. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Schedule-IV: Protected plant Specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES. Hence pair 4 is not
correctly matched.

Q 82.B
• The Deda Method is a traditional seed preservation technique practiced by the Muria tribal
farmers.
• The Deda method involves preserving seeds in multiple layers, and creating a protective casing to
safeguard them from pests and worms.
• A deda has three layers. In the first layer, wood ash is spread inside the Siali leaves. Later, the ash is
covered with lemon leaves to form a casing, and, lastly, the seeds are preserved inside the casing and
sealed.
• Each deda can hold up to 5 kg of seeds and protect them from pests and maintain their viability for up to
five years.
• This method is particularly effective for preserving pulses like green gram, red gram, black gram, and
beans. It is an eco-friendly and sustainable way to ensure seed security and promote agricultural
biodiversity.
• Advantages of the Deda Method:
o Protection from Pests and Worms: The Deda method provides excellent protection against pests
and worms, ensuring the viability of seeds for an extended period.
o Long-Term Storage: Seeds stored using the Deda method remain viable and suitable for cultivation
for up to five years.
o Preservation of Pulses: This method is particularly effective in preserving the seeds of pulses such as
green gram, red gram, black gram, and beans.Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 83.A
• Genetically modified (GMO) mosquitoes were released in Djibouti, East Africa on May 23, 2024 to
fight malaria.
• The release occurred in Ambouli, a suburb of Djibouti City, as part of a pilot project by Oxitec Ltd,
Djibouti government and Association Mutualis, a non-governmental organisation. The release is part of
the ‘Djibouti Friendly Mosquito Programme’ started two years ago to stop the spread of Anopheles
stephensi, an invasive species of mosquito.

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 • In 2012, when Anopheles stephensi was first detected in Africa, Djibouti reported 27 cases of malaria. By
2020, the country’s malaria caseload had crossed 73,000. This highly invasive mosquito had migrated to
Africa from South Asia and the Arabian Peninsula.
• To combat these urban invaders, Oxitec, a biotechnology company developed a method that uses
mosquitoes to fight mosquitoes. They have released genetically altered male mosquitoes carrying a special
gene that prevents their female offspring from reaching adulthood. The method targets female mosquitoes,
which are predominantly responsible for malaria transmission. By reducing the female mosquito
population, scientists hope to significantly decrease the spread of the disease. Male mosquitoes do not bite
and therefore cannot transmit malaria. Oxitec’s safe, sustainable and targeted biological pest control
technology is ideally and uniquely suited to control this public health threat.
• This is the first time a genetically engineered mosquito has been released in East Africa and the second
time on the African continent. Burkina Faso in West Africa conducted the first ever release of genetically
modified mosquitoes in Africa in the village of Bana.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 84.C
• Bioremediation: It is a treatment that uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous
substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances. It uses microorganisms to degrade organic
contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids. The microorganisms break down contaminants by
using them as an energy source or co-metabolizing them with an energy source. When Fungi are used, it is
called mycoremediation. Bioremediation may be conducted in situ or ex situ. It has been relied up on to
clean oil spills in the recent past using the bacteria of the family Pseudomonas and other bacteria like
Alcanivorax or Methylocella Silvestris.
• Bioremediation is the most effective management tool to manage the polluted water and recover
contaminated wastewater. It reduce, degrade, immobilize, and remove contaminants from water, allowing
the contaminated site to be cleaned and returned to a harmless state.
• Genetic engineering has been used to create organisms designed for specific purposes. For e.g.
bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans (the most radioresistant organism known) has been modified to
consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste.
• Bioremediation of petroleum-contaminated environments is a process in which the biological pathways
within microorganisms or plants are used to degrade or sequester toxic hydrocarbons, heavy metals, and
other volatile organic compounds found within fossil fuels. Oilzapper, developed by TERI, is an excellent
bioremediating bacterial strain.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 85.B
• Every Pond or lake has several different zones that divide the water column from top to bottom and side
to side. These zones consist of the Littoral, Limnetic, Profundal, Euphotic, and Benthic Zone.
• The littoral zone is the zone closer to the shore. This zone is warmest, contains shallow water, and
allows easy light penetration. Rooted plant species occupy it. Animal species include reeds, crawfish,
snails, insects, etc, while the limnetic zone refers to the open water of the pond with an effective
penetration of light. This zone is dominated by phytoplankton. Animal species mainly include small fishes
and insects. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The profundal zone is much colder (has low temperatures) and denser than the other two. Little light
penetrates through the littoral zone into the profundal zone. Fauna are heterotrophs and use oxygen for
cellular respiration. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 86.B
• In-situ measures: In in-situ conservation, the endangered species are protected in their natural habitat so
that the entire ecosystem is protected. Examples are biodiversity hotspots, biosphere reserves, national
parks, wildlife sanctuaries, Protected Areas, Reserved forests and sacred grooves, etc. Hence options 2
and 4 are not correct.
• Ex-situ measures: In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out of their natural habitat
and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care. Examples are zoological
parks, botanical gardens, seed banks Cryopreservation, etc. Hence options 1, 3 and 5 are correct.

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 • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 87.B
• Joint Forest Management (JFM) is a participatory approach to forest governance involving local
communities in managing and conserving forest resources.
• It recognizes the rights and responsibilities of communities in managing forests and aims to improve their
livelihoods while ensuring sustainable forest management practices.
• Key Elements of JFM:
o Formation of Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs): These are representative bodies of
local communities that participate in decision-making related to forest management.
o Forest Management Plans: JFMCs develop forest management plans that outline goals, objectives,
and activities for the sustainable management of the forest area.
o Benefit-sharing: Communities are given access to forest resources for livelihood purposes, such as
collecting non-timber forest products (NTFPs) and grazing. In return, they are responsible for
protecting and managing the forest sustainably.
o Capacity Building: Training and capacity-building programs are provided to JFMC members to
equip them with the necessary skills and knowledge for forest management.
o Collaborative Management: JFMCs work closely with the Forest Department to ensure effective
management of forest resources.
• It was introduced in India under the National Forest Policy of 1988. Hence, option (b) is the correct
answer.
• National Forest Policy, 1988
o The National Forest Policy of 1988 recognized the importance of involving local communities in
forest management and laid the foundation for the JFM programme. Key objectives of the policy
include:
▪ To meet the basic needs of fuelwood, fodder, timber, minor forest produce, and other forest
products of the local people.
▪ To protect and improve the forest resources.
▪ To ensure the involvement of local communities in forest management.
• The Indian Forest Act, 1927 (IFA):
o Enacted during British rule, with a primary focus on managing forests for commercial purposes and
timber production.
o Classifies forests into three categories: Reserved Forests (strictly protected), Protected Forests
(controlled access), and Unclassified Forests (open for some uses).
o Empower forest officials to regulate activities like felling trees, grazing, and movement within forests.
• The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (WLPA):
o Landmark legislation establishing a framework for protecting wildlife in India.
o Bans hunting of endangered species and regulates hunting of permitted species.
o Creates a network of protected areas including National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation
Reserves, and Community Reserves.
o Establishes the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) as the apex body for wildlife conservation.
o Includes provisions for designating Marine Protected Areas (MPAs).
• The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (FCA):

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 o A critical act enacted to address the issue of deforestation.
o Restricts the conversion of forest land for non-forest purposes (e.g., agriculture, industry) without
prior central government approval.
o Aims to preserve the ecological integrity of forests and biodiversity.

Q 88.C
• Nekton (or swimmers) are living organisms that can swim and move independently of
currents. Nekton are heterotrophic and have a large size range, with familiar examples such as fish,
squid, octopus, sharks, and marine mammals. Nekton are usually pelagic, living in the water column, but
some are demersal and live close to the bottom, both in the coastal and oceanic habitats. Within the
context of a seawater desalination plant, nekton may be impinged against the screens of an intake system
or entrapped within the system, reducing feedwater withdrawal and impairing the desalination
process. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 89.B
• Recent Context: A 30-year-long U.S. study found that consuming ultra-processed foods (UPF) is
associated with a higher risk of early death.
• UPFs are a category of food products that have undergone extensive processing and contain significant
amounts of additives (like preservatives, artificial flavours, emulsifiers).They are often High in fat, Sugar
and Salt (HFSS) and low in Vitamins, protein, and fibre. For example, snacks, sodas, etc. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• Their increased consumptions may lead to various health issues including hypertension, renal
failure, obesity, fatty liver disease, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular diseases, etc. UPF food sector
in India witnessed a compounded annual growth rate of 13.4% between 2011 and 2021 and is expected to
grow further (WHO). Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Ultra-processed foods are made mostly from substances extracted from foods, such as fats, starches,
added sugars, and hydrogenated fats. They may also contain additives like artificial colors and flavors or
stabilizers. Examples of these foods are frozen meals, soft drinks, hot dogs and cold cuts, fast food,
packaged cookies, cakes, and salty snacks. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 90.C
• Regulation for noise pollution:
o Noise is a type of atmospheric pollution. The term 'Noise Pollution' has not been defined anywhere in
the central legislative. However, the term has been described in the Environmental Protection Act.
1986 as an environmental pollutant.
o Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 included 'Noise' as air pollution.
o The Central Pollution Control Board has laid down the permissible noise levels in India for
different areas:
✓ Industrial Area: 75 dB for daytime and 70 dB at night
✓ Commercial Area: 65 dB and 55 dB during day and night respectively.
✓ Residential Area: 55 dB and 45 dB during day and night respectively. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
o According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, an area comprising not less
than 100 meters around hospitals, educational institutions and courts may be declared (by the State
Government) as a silence area/zone for the purpose of these rules. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 91.C
• Recent Context: Ahead of the World Health Assembly 77th session, the World Health Organization
(WHO) released its Global report on neglected tropical diseases (NTD) of 2024.
• Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) are a group of communicable diseases and non-communicable
diseases that are highly prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions, and closely associated with poverty
and marginalized populations. Infectious diseases affect over 1.6 billion people annually, and vaccines are
the best prophylactic tool against them. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• NTDs have the greatest relevance for SDG 3 (the health goal). Interventions against NTDs directly
contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goal 3.3: “end the epidemics of...neglected
tropical diseases”, and are measured by SDG indicator 3.3.5: “number of people requiring interventions
against neglected tropical diseases” NTD activities also contribute indirectly to many others SDGs (1, 2,
4, 5, 8, 10 and 17), while progress towards some SDGs (6, 9, 11, 13) is critical to tackle NTDs. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
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 • Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) are a diverse group of conditions caused by a variety of
pathogens (including viruses, bacteria, parasites, fungi and toxins) and associated with devastating
health, social and economic consequences. NTDs are mainly prevalent among impoverished
communities in tropical areas and subtropical regions, although some have a much larger geographical
distribution. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 92.B
• Recently, the USA has accused Russia of using chloropicrin against Ukraine. It is a broad-spectrum
fumigant chemical that can be used as an antimicrobial, fungicide, herbicide, insecticide, nematicide, and
also as a warfare agent. It was first used as a poison gas in the First World War, both by Allied and
Central Powers.
• About the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW):
o It is an intergovernmental organization and the Implementing body for the Chemical Weapons
Convention. Its mission is to implement the provisions of the Chemical Weapons Convention to
achieve a vision of a world free of chemical weapons.
o Its members include 193 countries (India is also a member). Hence option (a) is not correct.
o The headquarters of OPCW is located in Hague, Netherlands. Hence option (c) is not correct.
o It was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2013 for its extensive efforts to eliminate chemical
weapons. Hence option (b) is correct.
o The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), of the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical
Weapons (OPCW) entered into force in 1997. Its objectives include:
▪ Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons and monitors its
elimination in order to secure a chemical weapons-free world.
▪ India is a signatory and party of CWC and enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, of
2000.
o The 1925 Geneva Protocol prohibits the use of chemical and biological weapons in war. The
Protocol was drawn up and signed at a conference that was held in Geneva under the auspices of
the League of Nations from 4 May to 17 June 1925, and it entered into force on 8 February 1928.
Therefore, OPCW is not the implementing agency of the Geneva Protocol, of 1925. Hence option (d)
is not correct.

Q 93.C
• Recent Context: Russia has offered India technology for building and operating floating “low power”
nuclear power generation projects.
• A floating nuclear power plant is a site with one or more nuclear reactors, located on a platform at
sea. Usually, Small modular reactors (SMRs) are installed on ships to provide clean electricity, heat, and
desalinated water. The sea water absorbs the movements of the sea floor and protects the plant from
earthquakes and tsunamis. It has a very low environmental impact and the dismantling can be done in a
specialized site.
• Presently, Russia is the only country having an operational FNPP known as Akademik
Lomonosov. It has been built in the Baltiysky Zavod shipyard in Saint Petersburg, Russia. This site,
known as Akademik Lomonosov, is the property of the Russian nuclear operator Rosenergoatom. It
contains two KLT-40C naval propulsion reactors with a 35 MWe capacity each. It is an autonomous site
that can provide electricity and heat to areas with difficult access, such as the cold Northern territories. It
can also provide drinking water to dry areas, via desalination techniques.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 94.D
• India has been blessed with a rich history and natural diversity, which is exemplified by its 42
UNESCO World Heritage Sites. These include 34 Cultural sites, 7 Natural sites, and 1 mixed site
recognized for their outstanding universal value to humanity. A World Heritage site is a landmark or
area with legal protection by an international convention administered by the United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO).
• India has 7 UNESCO World Heritage natural sites:
o Kaziranga National Park (1985)- It is located in Assam. It is home to the world's largest population
of one-horned rhinoceros.
o Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985)- It is located in Assam. It is a critical tiger habitat representing the
biodiversity of the Eastern Himalayas.

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 o Keoladeo National Park (1985)- It is located in Rajasthan. It is an important man-made wetland
providing refuge to migratory waterbirds.
o Sundarbans National Park (1987)- It is located in West Bengal. It is the largest estuarine mangrove
forest globally endangered by rising sea levels.
o Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005)- It is located in Uttarakhand. It has
contrasting alpine wildflower meadow and rugged glacial wilderness protecting diverse flora and
fauna.
o Western Ghats (2012)- It covers areas of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Maharashtra. The
mountain range of the Western Ghats running parallel to the western coast is recognized for high
endemism and biodiversity.
o Great Himalayan National Park (2014)- It is located in Himachal Pradesh. Diverse ecosystems and
biodiversity of the Great Himalayas include glaciers, alpine meadows, and forest wildlife.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 95.D
• Automobiles are a major cause for atmospheric pollution atleast in the metro cities. As the number of
vehicles increases on the streets, this problem is now shifting to other cities too. Proper maintenance of
automobiles along with the use of lead-free petrol or diesel can reduce the pollutants they emit.
• Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the
catalysts, are fitted into automobiles to reduce the emission of poisonous gases. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into
carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide
and nitrogen gas, respectively. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converters should use
unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The reduction catalyst is the first stage of the catalytic converter. It uses platinum and rhodium to help
reduce the NOx emissions. When an NO or NO2 molecule contacts the catalyst, the catalyst rips the
nitrogen atom out of the molecule and holds on to it, freeing the oxygen in the form of O2. The nitrogen
atoms bond with other nitrogen atoms that are also stuck to the catalyst, forming N2.
• The oxidation catalyst is the second stage of the catalytic converter. It reduces the unburned hydrocarbons
and carbon monoxide by burning (oxidizing) them over a platinum and palladium catalyst. This catalyst
aids the reaction of the CO and hydrocarbons with the remaining oxygen in the exhaust gas.

Q 96.C
• The concept of sustainable development was emphasized by the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), which defined it as: ‘Development that meets the need of the
present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own
needs’.
• Sustainable development is often described as having three interconnected pillars: economic
development, social development, and environmental protection. These pillars are considered essential
for achieving balanced and sustainable growth.
• Economic development focuses on improving the economic well-being of individuals and
societies. Hence, point 1 is correct.
• Social development emphasizes promoting social equity, inclusion, and justice. Hence, point 2 is
correct.
• Environmental protection aims to conserve and sustainably manage natural resources and
ecosystems. Hence, point 3 is correct.
• Political stability, while important for governance and overall societal well-being, is not traditionally
considered one of the primary pillars of sustainable development. Hence, point 4 is not correct.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 97.C
• Dioxins and furans is the abbreviated or short names for a family of toxic substances that all share a
similar chemical structure. Dioxins, in their purest form, look like crystals or colorless solids. Of all of the
dioxins and furans, one, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro-p-dibenzo-dioxin (2,3,7,8 TCDD) is considered the most
toxic.
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 • Dioxins and furans are not made for any specific purpose; however, they are created when products like
herbicides are made. They are also created in the pulp and paper industry, from a process that bleaches the
wood pulp. In addition, they can be produced when products are burned.
• Dioxins and furans can enter your body through breathing contaminated air, drinking
contaminated water or eating contaminated food. About 90% of exposure to dioxins and furans is
from eating contaminated food. Dioxins and furans can build up in the fatty tissues of animals.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They are released during the thermal treatment of Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Q 98.D
• Mixing of different types of substances in soil which affects its natural qualities and causes a
reduction in its fertility, is called as soil pollution. Some environmentalists define soil pollution as –
build up of toxic chemical compounds, salts, pathogens or radioactive materials in soil that can
affect plant and animal life adversely.
• A polluted soil often contains varieties of germs of diseases. Some of those diseases are – anthrax,
typhoid, leptospirosis, bacillary dysentery, cholera etc. A big amount of soil is lost due to soil
erosion, storms, overgrazing and deforestation. This loss of soil is often called as negative soil
pollution.
• Sources of soil pollution:
o Domestic Sources of Soil Pollution: Wastes produced due to domestic activities are called as
domestic wastes. Food leftovers, peeling of fruits and vegetables, ash, paper bits, packets, polythene
bags, glass bottles, tin cans, used tyres, expired medicines etc. are some examples of domestic wastes
that are often dumped on the ground. These wastes alter the soil composition and make it bad for the
growth and development of plants.
o Municipal Sources: Different types of municipal wastes dumped on the ground cause bad impacts on
soil. These wastes act as shelter homes of various types of insects and germs of diseases.
o Industrial Sources: Industries dump lots of wastes on land. These wastes create ugly scenes on the
ground and contaminate soil making it unfit for productive utilization. A number of toxic wastes seep
into the ground and cause underground water pollution. Fly ash from thermal power plants is also a
major soil pollutant.
o Agricultural Sources: Agro- chemicals used in agriculture produce adverse effects on soil. Synthetic
fertilizers, pesticides, and herbicides if used continuously for a long time alter the composition of soil,
making it unfit for the growth and development of plants. Faulty irrigation practices cause
waterlogging. The water is evaporated in the sun leaving behind salts in the soil. Thus soil gradually
becomes saline and unfit for plant growth.
o Mining Sources: Mining activities cause long-lasting damage to the soil. Tailings, slags, stones etc.
that come out of mines are dumped near them. Besides these, different types of toxic chemicals are
exposed due to mining which further cause serious soil and water pollution during rains.
o Wastes: The electronic wastes generated through the disposal of electronic goods, like computers,
televisions, wires, and plastic cabinets etc. which are often dumped on the ground, create serious
pollution on land. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 99.C
• The World Health Organization (WHO) has granted prequalification to TAK-003, a new dengue
vaccine developed by Takeda, a pharmaceutical company based in Japan.
• TAK-003 is a live-attenuated vaccine containing weakened versions of the four serotypes of the virus that
cause dengue.
• The vaccine, TAK-003, is the second dengue vaccine to be prequalified by WHO. WHO recommends the
use of TAK-003 in children aged 6–16 years in settings with high dengue burden and transmission
intensity. The vaccine should be administered in a 2-dose schedule with a 3-month interval between
doses.
• Dengue
o Symptoms: High fever, severe headache, pain behind the eyes, muscle and joint pain, etc. May lead to
death.
o Pathogen: Dengue virus named DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4.
o Vector: Infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti. Transmission by Aedes albopictus
(tiger mosquito) has been seen in Europe.

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 o It can also be transmitted from a pregnant mother to her baby, via blood products, organ donation and
transfusions.
o Affected regions: Dengue is found in tropical and sub-tropical climates worldwide, mostly in urban
and semi-urban areas (most of which are in Asia, Africa, and the Americas)
o Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 100.A
• Biomedical waste comprises human & animal anatomical waste, treatment apparatus like needles,
syringes and other materials used in health care facilities in the process of treatment and research. This
waste is generated during diagnosis, treatment or immunization in hospitals, nursing homes, pathological
laboratories, blood banks, etc. Total bio-medical waste generation in the country is 484 TPD from
1,68,869 healthcare facilities (HCF), out of which 447 TPD is treated.
• Scientific disposal of Biomedical Waste through segregation, collection and treatment in an
environmentally sound manner minimises the adverse impact on health workers and on the environment.
India has come up with the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules 2016 to tackle the biomedical waste
generated. Its salient features are:
• The ambit of the rules has been expanded to include vaccination camps, blood donation camps,
surgical camps or any other healthcare activity; Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Phase out the use of chlorinated plastic bags, gloves and blood bags within two years;
• Pre-treatment of the laboratory waste, microbiological waste, blood samples and blood bags
through disinfection or sterilisation on-site in the manner as prescribed by WHO or NACO; Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• Provide training to all its health care workers and immunize all health workers regularly;
• Establish a Bar-Code System for bags or containers containing bio-medical waste for disposal;
• Bio-medical waste has been classified in to 4 categories instead 10 to improve the segregation of
waste at source; Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The new rules prescribe more stringent standards for incinerator to reduce the emission of pollutants in the
environment;
Inclusion of emissions limits for Dioxin and furans;
• State Government to provide land for setting up common bio-medical waste treatment and disposal
facility.

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