31

252. Relative humidity:

a. Is not affected by temperature
b. Is not affected by air expanding and contracting
c. Does not change when water is added
d. changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same

253. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?
a. it heats up more than dry because of expansion
b. it heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. it heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d. it heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

254. What is the average height of the Tropopause at the equator?

a. 16km b. 11km
c. 5km d. 3km

255. The Tropopause is lower:

a. in summer in mid latitudes b. at the North Pole than at the Equator
c. in summer at the Equator d. at the Equator than at the South Pole

256. In a METAR a gust is reported when:

a. it is 10 kts greater than the mean wind speed
b. it is 15 kts greater than the mean wind speed
c. it is 20 kts greater than the mean wind speed
d. it is 5 kts greater than the mean wind speed

257. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?

a. In standard conditions
b. When surface pressure is 1013.25mb
c. When the temperature is standard
d. When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

258. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL?
a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship

259. Thunderstorms will occur on a warm front:

a. When air is cold moist and cools quicker than SALR
b. When air is warm moist and cools quicker than SALR
c. When air is cold moist and cools slower than SALR
d. When air is warm moist and cools slower than DALR
 32

260. What is the effect of a mountain valley wind?

a. it blows down a mountain to a valley at night
b. it blows down a mountain to a valley during the day
c. it blows from a valley up a mountain by day
d. it blows from a valley up a mountain at night

261. What is the difference between Gradient and Geostrophic winds?

a. Difference in temperatures
b. A lot of friction
c. Curved isobars and straight isobars
d. Different latitudes and densities

262. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100m refers to:

a. DALR b. SALR
c. ELR d. ALR

263. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending
a. heats up more than dry because of expansion
b. heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. heats up more than dry because of compression
d. heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

264. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure
a. Centripetal force b. Centrifugal force
c. Pressure force d. Coriolis force

265. What is the relationship between the 5000 ft wind and the surface wind in the SH?
a. surface winds are ve/ered from the 5000ft and have the same speed
b. surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a slower speed
c. surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have a slower speed
d. surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a faster speed

266. What is the relationship between the 2000 ft wind and the surface wind in the NH?
a. surface winds blow across isobars towards a high
b. surface winds blow parallel to isobars
c. surface winds blow across isobars towards a low
d. surface winds have laminar flow

267. The DALR is

a. Variable with time b. Fixed
c. Variable with latitude d. Variable with temperature
 33

268. Which frontal or occlusion system is the fastest moving?

a. Warm front b. Cold front
c. Cold occlusion d. Warm occlusion

269. You are at 12,000 ft (FL120) with an outside air temperature is -2°C. Where would you
find the freezing level?
a. FL110 b. FL100
c. FL090 d. FL140

270. What is true about the dew point temperature?

a. Can be higher or lower than the air mass temperature
b. Can be higher than the temperature of the air mass only
c. Can be only lower than the temperature of the air mass
d. Can be equal to or lower than the temperature of the air mass

271. What kind of weather system might you typically find between the 45° - 70°N?
a. Sub tropical highs b. Polar highs
c. Polar front depressions d. Arctic front depressions

272. What is true regarding super cooled water droplets?

a. Always below -60°C b. All large
c. All small d. All below 0°C

273. What is most different about the Equatorial Easterly jet stream?
a. It’s height b. It’s length
c. It’s direction d. It’s speed

274. Wind is caused by?

a. Mixing of fronts b. Horizontal pressure difference
c. Earth rotation d. Surface friction

275. What weather might you expect behind a fast moving cold front?
a. 8 oktas of layered cloud b. Scattered ST
c. Isolated CB’s and showers d. Continuous rain

276. For the same pressure gradient at 50N, 60N and 40N, the geostrophic wind speed is?
a. Greatest at 60N b. Least at 50N
c. Greatest at 40N d. The same at al latitudes

277. What is a SPECI?

a. A forecast valid for 3 hours
b. A report produced when significant changes have occurred
c. A forecast and valid for 6 hours
 34

d. A landing forecast

278. A parcel of air cooling by more than 1°C/100m is said to be?

a. Conditionally stable b. Conditionally unstable
c. Unstable d. Stable

279. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at 2000
ft would be?
a. Veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer
b. Backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c. Veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
d. Backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer

280. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?

a. Northern hemisphere only
b. Southern hemisphere only
c. Northern and southern hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets.

281. Which weather phenomena are typical for the north side of the alps with stormy winds
from the south (Fohn?)
a. Drop in temperature, moderate to severe icing
b. Icing, huge mass of cloud
c. Good visibility, turbulence
d. Continuous precipitation and moderate turbulence

282. At 15,000ft in nimbostratus cloud with an outside air temperature of -12°C, what icing
might you expect?
a. Moderate rain ice.
b. Moderate to severe mixed ice.
c. Moderate to severe ice if orographicaly intensified.
d. Light rime ice.

283. Comparing rain to drizzle, visibility will generally…?

a. Rain has a visibility of 1 km, drizzle has 2 km.
b. Remains the same
c. Deteriorate
d. Improve

284. What statement is true regarding the tropopause?

a. It is higher over the equator with a higher temperature.
b. It is lower over the equator with a lower temperature.
c. It is higher over the poles with a lower temperature.
 35

d. It is lower over the poles with a higher temperature.

285. QNH in a METAR is

a. Rounded up to the nearest whole hectopascal
b. Rounded down to the nearest even hectopascal.
c. Rounded up to the nearest even hectopascal.
d. Rounded down to the nearest whole hectopascal.

286. Thermal lows usually develop

a. Over the sea in summer. b. Over the sea in winter.
c. Over the land in summer. d. Over the land in winter.

287. TAF’s are usually valid for

a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself b. For 18 hours
c. For 24 hours. d. For 8 hours.

288. Tornadoes are usually associated with which cloud type

a. Ns b. Cu
c. Cb d. Ts

289. Wind at altitude is usually given as …….. in ……..

a. True, m/s b. Magnetic, m/s
c. True, KT d. Magnetic, KT

290. The surface wind circulation found between the sub tropical highs and the equatorial
lows are called?
a. The doldrums b. The trade winds
c. The easterlies d. The westerlies

291. In a high pressure systems

a. The winds tend to be stronger in the morning.
b. The angle between the isobars and the wind direction is greatest in the afternoon.
c. The winds tend to be stronger at night.
d. The winds tend to be stronger in early afternoon.

292. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud?

a. Orographic uplift. b. Convective uplift during the day.
c. Release of latent heat. d. Advection.

293. Where does freezing rain come from?

a. Cold hail falling into a warm layer.
b. Cold rain falling into a warmer layer.
c. Warmer rain falling into a colder layer.
 36

d. Cold rain falling into cold layer.

294. What is the feature W?

a. Warm occlusion.
b. Cold occlusion.
c. Quasi stationary front.
d. Warm front.

295. A man is flying East to West in the Northern Hemisphere. What is happening to his
altitude?
a. Flying into a headwind will decrease altitude
b. If the wind is from the south, he will gain altitude
c. If the wind is from the north, he will gain altitude
d. Tailwind will increase altitude.

296. An Easterly wave will produce:

a. Frontal weather b. Thunderstorms and rain
c. Low stratus d. Clear skies

297. Surface wind is 320/12 what is the wind at 2000ftin the Northern hemisphere?
a. 330/25 b. 220/20
c. 270/20 d. 210/12

298. Where is the ITCZ in July?

a. 25 N over the Atlantic
b. 10 - 20 N over East Africa and the Arabian sea
c. 10 - 30 N over West Africa
d. 20 - 30 N over East Africa

299. The letters NC used at the end of a SIGMET, mean:

a. No cloud b. No change
c. No cumulus d. Not clear

300. On the route London to Bombay, which feature would you most likely encounter
between 30E and 50E.
a. Polar front jet in excess of 90kts
b. Sub tropical jet in excess of 90kts
c. Variable winds less than 30kts
d. Easterly winds