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VIJAYPATH for APPSCCE Prelims 2024

VPPT-02 (Polity)

Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
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omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet.
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NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is
printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to
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the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
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directions in the Answer Sheet.
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you with your Admission Certificate.
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examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
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of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii. If a question is left blank, ie, no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question

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1) Which of the following bills does NOT 5) Which of the following statements about
require the prior recommendation of the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State is
President for introduction in Parliament? correct?

[A] Money Bill [A] Cabinet Ministers are members of the

[B] Bill affecting taxation in which states Cabinet while Ministers of State are
not
are interested
[B] Ministers of State are independent
[C] Bill altering boundaries of states
charge of their ministries
[D]Ordinary Bill
[C] Cabinet Ministers are always from the
Lok Sabha
2) The ordinance-making power of the
[D]Ministers of State cannot attend
President:
Cabinet meetings
[A] Is absolute and cannot be questioned
[B] Can be exercised only when both 6) The Attorney General of India is appointed
Houses of Parliament are in session by:
[C] Is subject to parliamentary approval [A] The President
within six weeks of reassembly [B] The Chief Justice of India
[D]Can be used to amend the Constitution [C] The Prime Minister
[D]The Law Minister

3) The emoluments and allowances of the

President of India are charged to: 7) Which of the following is NOT a function
of the Council of Ministers?
[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[A] Aid and advise the President
[B] Contingency Fund of India
[B] Formulate government policies
[C] Public Account of India
[C] Interpret the Constitution
[D]President's personal account
[D]Implement laws made by Parliament

4) The impeachment of the President of India

8) The Prime Minister of India:
can be initiated in: [A] Is directly elected by the people
[A] Lok Sabha only [B] Is appointed by the President
[B] Rajya Sabha only [C] Is elected by the Lok Sabha
[C] Either House of Parliament [D]Is elected by both Houses of
[D]Joint session of Parliament Parliament

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9) Which of the following is NOT a condition 13) The Inter-State Council is established
for the proclamation of National Emergency under:
under Article 352? [A] Article 263
[A] War [B] Article 280
[B] External aggression [C] Article 324
[C] Armed rebellion
[D]Article 356
[D]Financial instability

14) The 'Part-IX' of the Indian Constitution is

10) The distribution of tax revenues between
related to:
the Centre and States is done on the
[A] Fundamental Rights
recommendation of:
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[A] Planning Commission
[C] Panchayats
[B] Finance Commission
[C] NITI Aayog [D]Elections

[D]Inter-State Council
15) The power of the Supreme Court of India

11) Which of the following lists in the Seventh to decide disputes between the Centre and the
Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains States falls under its:
subjects on which both the Centre and States [A] Advisory jurisdiction
can make laws? [B] Appellate jurisdiction
[A] Union List [C] Original jurisdiction
[B] State List [D]Writ jurisdiction
[C] Concurrent List
[D]Residuary List
16) Which Article of the Constitution
provides for the establishment of a common
12) In India's federal structure, residuary
High Court for two or more States?
powers (subjects not mentioned in any of the
[A] Article 214
three lists) are vested with:
[B] Article 231
[A] The Centre
[C] Article 124
[B] The States
[C] Both Centre and States [D]Article 233

[D]The President of India

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17) The power to decide an election petition 21) In which year was the Constitution
is vested in the: amended to give constitutional status to

[A] Election Commission cooperative societies?

[A] 2005
[B] High Courts
[B] 2011
[C] Supreme Court
[C] 2015
[D]Parliament [D]2019

18) The President of India is elected by: 22) Which of the following is not a ground for
[A] Direct election by citizens disqualification of a member of Parliament?

[B] Members of Parliament only [A] Holding an office of profit under the
Government of India
[C] Members of State Legislatures only
[B] Being of unsound mind and declared
[D]An electoral college consisting of
so by a competent court
elected members of both Houses of [C] Being a member of a registered
Parliament and State Legislatures political party
[D]Being an undischarged insolvent
19) Which of the following is not a power of
the Prime Minister of India? 23) Which of the following Union Territories
has its own legislature?
[A] Recommending dissolution of the Lok
[A] Chandigarh
Sabha to the President
[B] Lakshadweep
[B] Allocating portfolios to ministers [C] Puducherry
[C] Presiding over cabinet meetings [D]Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman
[D]Appointing the Chief Justice of India and Diu

20) Which language(s) can be used for 24) The Model Code of Conduct comes into
force:
official purposes of the Union according to
[A] As soon as the term of the existing
the Constitution?
legislature ends
[A] Only Hindi [B] When the election schedule is
[B] Hindi and English announced by the Election
[C] Any language listed in the Eighth Commission
Schedule [C] On the first day of nomination filing

[D]Any language chosen by the [D]15 days before the first day of polling

Parliament

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25) Which Article of the Constitution 29) Which of the following is not a function
provides for the establishment of the Finance of the Election Commission of India?
Commission? [A] Conducting elections to Parliament
[A] Article 280 and State Legislatures
[B] Article 324 [B] Preparing electoral rolls
[C] Article 356
[C] Recognizing political parties
[D]Article 370
[D]Formulating election policies

26) Which of the following Articles of the

30) What is the quorum to constitute a
Constitution is related to reservation of seats
sitting of the Lok Sabha?
for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
[A] One-tenth of the total number of
the Lok Sabha?
[A] Article 330 members

[B] Article 332 [B] One-fifth of the total number of

[C] Article 335 members

[D]Article 338 [C] One-third of the total number of
members
27) Which of the following is a key feature of [D]Half of the total number of members
the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution?
[A] Provisions for administration of tribal 31) In case of a tie in voting in the Lok Sabha,
areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, who has the casting vote?
and Mizoram
[A] The Prime Minister
[B] Provisions for Panchayati Raj
[B] The Speaker
Institutions
[C] The President
[C] Provisions for urban local bodies
[D]The Leader of the Opposition
[D]Provisions for reservation in
government jobs
32) What is the maximum strength of the

28) NITI Aayog replaced which of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly) in a

following organizations? state?

[A] Planning Commission [A] 250

[B] Finance Commission [B] 500
[C] Election Commission [C] 600
[D]Law Commission [D]Not specified in the Constitution

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33) If the Governor returns a bill for 37) Which of the following is not a function
reconsideration and the Assembly passes it of the State Election Commission?
again: [A] Conducting elections to Panchayats
[A] The Governor must give assent to the
[B] Conducting elections to Municipalities
bill
[C] Preparing electoral rolls for local body
[B] The Governor can refuse assent again
elections
[C] The bill is automatically sent to the
President [D]Conducting elections to the State

[D]The bill lapses Legislative Assembly

34) Which of the following immunities is not 38) The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
enjoyed by members of State Legislatures?
Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) is applicable to:
[A] Freedom of speech in the Legislature
[A] All rural areas
[B] Immunity from arrest in civil cases
[B] All urban areas
during session
[C] Exemption from jury service [C] Scheduled Areas in certain states

[D]Immunity from criminal proceedings [D]All Northeastern states

for actions in the House
39) The appointment of District Judges in a
35) Which of the following is not a part of the state is made by:
state budget process?
[A] The Governor of the state
[A] Presentation of budget in the
[B] The Chief Justice of the High Court
Legislative Assembly
[C] The Chief Minister of the state
[B] General discussion on the budget
[C] Voting on demands for grants [D]The President of India

[D]Approval by the Governor before

presentation 40) Under which Article of the Constitution
are Administrative Tribunals established?
36) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
[A] Article 323A
is related to:
[B] Article 323B
[A] Panchayati Raj Institutions
[C] Article 324
[B] Urban Local Bodies
[C] Reservation for women in Parliament [D]Article 325

[D]Goods and Services Tax

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41) Judicial activism is best described as: 45) The concept of integrated judicial system
[A] Judges actively participating in social in India means:
activities
[A] All courts follow the same procedural
[B] Courts expanding the scope of judicial
laws
review
[C] Increase in the number of cases filed in [B] The Supreme Court is at the apex of a

courts single hierarchy of courts

[D]Speedy disposal of cases by courts [C] There is no distinction between civil

and criminal courts

42) The Supreme Court acts as the guardian
[D]All judges are appointed by the same
of the Constitution primarily through:
[A] Its advisory jurisdiction authority

[B] Its appellate jurisdiction

[C] Its power of judicial review 46) The maximum number of judges in the
[D]Its original jurisdiction
Supreme Court, excluding the Chief Justice of

India, is:
43) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India
was introduced to: [A] 30

[A] Reduce the workload of courts [B] 31

[B] Provide access to justice for [C] 33
disadvantaged sections of society
[D]34
[C] Speed up the judicial process
[D]Increase the powers of the judiciary
47) Which of the following is not part of the

44) The collegium system for appointment of original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
judges refers to: [A] Disputes between the Centre and one
[A] A committee of Parliament members
or more States
who select judges
[B] Disputes between States
[B] A panel of senior Supreme Court
judges who recommend appointments [C] Enforcement of Fundamental Rights

[C] A body consisting of the Prime [D]Disputes relating to the election of the
Minister and Leader of Opposition President
[D]A commission headed by the Law
Minister

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48) Judicial review in India means the power
of the judiciary to:
[A] Review its own judgments
[B] Examine the constitutional validity of
laws
[C] Review administrative decisions of the
executive
[D]Advise the President on constitutional
matters

49) Which of the following is not a type of

motion moved in Parliament?
[A] Adjournment motion
[B] No-confidence motion
[C] Censure motion
[D]Prorogation motion

50) Which of the following statements

regarding the composition of Rajya Sabha is
correct?
[A] The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha
is 250 members
[B] 238 members are elected by state
legislative assemblies
[C] 12 members are nominated by the
Prime Minister
[D]Members are elected through direct
elections