INSTITUTE OF BASIC EDUCATION (IBE) TEST SERIES 2024 Question Booklet Series ROLL NO GS (Prelims) Module _ Test-3 INDIAN POLITY Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200 INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 4. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, candidate should check that this Booklet DOES NOT have any unprinted, torn or missing pages etc. If ny defect is detected, get treplaced by a Complete Question Booklet. 2. Encode and fill in the Roll No. and Question Booklet Series carefully and without air omiss discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omissior discrepancy will render the OMR Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 2. Enter correct and entire digits of your Roll No. in the appropriate boxes and darken the corresponding bubbles in the OMR ANSWER SHEET. 3. DO NOT handle your OMR ANSWER SHEET in such a manner as to mutilate, fold etc. 4, This Question Booklet contains 100 questions carrying 2 (two) marks each. Each question contains four responses. Choose only one response/answer for each question and darken the appropriate bubble on the OMR ANSWER SHEET. 5. Candidates are strictly prohibited to possess any book, notebook or loose paper, calculator, mobile phone, electronic gadgets etc., inside the Examination Hall, except his/her Admit Card and waiting materials only. 6. Immediately after the final bell, indicating the closure of the Examination, stop marking. Be seated til the OMR ANSWER SHEET is collected. After handing over the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the Invigilator and after you have been permitted by the Invigilator to leave, you may leave the examination hall There will be penalty for wrong answer marked by a candidate in the objective type question paper. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. 8. If acandidate gives more than one answer for each question, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that sion oF question. NB: CANDIDATES ARE ALLOWED TO TAKE THIS QUESTION BOOKLET ONLY AFTER COMPLETION OF EXAMINATION TIME @ scanned with OKEN Scannerlowing fundamental rights | if the foll ig ae ded even during National | cannot be suspen Emergency? - 1. Right tolife and personal liberty 2. Right against exploitation 3, Protection against conviction to accused 4, Right to freedom Code: (a) 1and2 (b) 2and3 (6) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Cooperative has been given constitutional status by (a) 91st Amendment. (b) 92nd Amendment (c) 97th Amendment (d) None of the above The writ of Habeas Corpus may be issued by the Supreme Court to (a) Protect a person from arrest and detention (b) Free a person from illegal custody and detention (c) Remand a person from police custody to judicial custody. (@) Order an early trial of an accused person Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha (a) in creating a newAlll India Services (b) in the amendment of the Indian Constitution (c) in the removal of the Council of Ministers (d) in making cut motions Who called Preamble the "Political horoscope" of the Constitution? (2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) K.M. Munshi (d) Eamest Barker Who was elected as the Pro tem speaker for 18th Lok Sabha recently? (a) Virendra Kumar (b) Kodikunni Suresh (c) Bhartruhari Mahtab (@) None of the above Token cut is introduced in the Lok Sabha as part of budgetary process to (@) disapprove the policy underlying the demand | (b) Ventite the grievances againstthe Government | (©) Bring in economy in the demands for grants! expenditure (4) none of the above ! Consider the following statements with regard | to Money Bill 1. Money billis defined underArticle 110 |! 2 Procedures for passing a money bilis | jled under Article 109 detattent can return a money bill back tp 3. Prstiament for reconsideration Select the correct answer from the codes given belo (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (o) 1 and2 (@)1,2and3 the following statements: ti fomgel the office of the "Leader of opposition" in Lok Sabha, the largest opposition party needs to atleast 10% members of the total membership of Lok Sabha. ‘There was no leader of opposition in the 16th and 17th Lok Sabha. Rahul Gandhi became the leader of opposition for the 18th Lok Sabha (2024 to 2029) Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) t only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2and3 40, Which one of the following is known as "All Lok ‘Sabha Committee"? (a) Public Accounts Committee (b) Estimates Committee (c) Committee on Public undertakings (d) Ethics Committee 11, Nomoney can be appropriated! withdrawn from the consolidated fund of India without sanction! approval of (a) President of India (b) Parliament (c) Reserve Bank of India (4) Comptroller and Auditor General of India 12, The President of India can apply case of private member's bill (a) Absolute Veto (b) Suspensive Veto (c) Pocket Veto (4) Qualified Veto 13. Whatis fixed time limit for the President to give his assent to any bill? (2) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) & months (d) None of the above 14, President of India is bound to give his assent to (2) Ordinary bill (b) Finance bill (c) Money bill (4) Constitutional Amendment bill Which one of the following languages was the first to get the status of classical language in (a) Sanskrit 2 3. in 15. (b) Tamil rs EMC Cec weetay) Ee @ scanned with OKEN Scanner20. Which of the following states recently became () Kannada (4) Telugu 16, Consider the following statements: 1, The concept of "Basic Structure” of the Constitution was propounded by the Union of India Case, 197: 2. The Basic Structure Principle is a limitation | on the amending power of Parliament under | Article 368, ! 3. The Principle of Basic Structure applies to | both the Ordinary Acts and Constitutional | 24, Amendment Acts. | Choose the correct answer from the codes | given below: I (a) 1 only (b) 2 only | (©) 1 and 2 only (@) 1, 2and3 | . Vertical distribution of powers is found in | (a) Presidential form of government I (b) Parliamentary form of government | (c) Federal system 1 (d) Unitary system I . Which one of the following terms is not | mentioned in the Preamble? ! (a) Justice (b) Liberty ! (c) Equality (d) Rights l 1. Consider the following statements: | 1, The concept of Dyarchy was introduced for | the first time by the Government of India Act, | 1919 2. The Goverment of India Act, 1935 introduced ! Dyarchy at the centre and reserved subjects | such as Defence, External Affairs and Tribal | Affairs etc. were to be administered by the | Viceroy 3. Asystem of communal representation for | ‘Muslim community was introduced by Indian | Councils Act of 1909 ! Select the correct answer from the codes given tl 27. below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ! (c) 1 and 2 only (@) 1,2 and 3 ! the first state in India to pass a law on Uniform Civil Code, a directive principle under Article 44 | of the Constitution? | (a) Assam (b) Gujarat | (0) Uttarakhand (d) Rajasthan ! Recently the elections for how many seats were ! held for the Legislative Assembly of Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir? ! (2) 75 (b) 85 ! (o) 90 (a) 114 | 22. Which one of the following states provides | | | | I ‘Supreme Court in Keshavand Bharti vs. | 23. I ! 28, maximum reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in its Legislative Assembly? (2) Mizoram (b) Meghalaya (c)Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha Who of the following is the largest serving Chief Minister of india? (a) Naveen Patnaik (Odisha) (b) Pawan Kumar Chamling (Sikkim) (©) Jyoti Basu (West Bengal) (d) Gegong Apang (Arunachal Pradesh) Consider the following statements: 1, The advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is provided under Article 143 2. The Supreme Court is bound to give its legal advice whenever matter is referred to it by the President of India Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 Consider the following statements: 4. Grounds for disqualification of members of Parliament is provided under Article 102 2. Amember of Parliament can be disqualified ifhe holds any office of profit under the Government of India or Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law nottto disqualify its holder. Choose the right answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (©) tand2 (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 . The High Court of which one of the following north-eastern states has the smallest number of Judges? (2) Sikkim (b) Manipur () Meghalaya (6) Tripura The Itanagar permanent bench Naharlagun of Gauhati High Court was established in (a) 1972 (b) 1987 (©) 1990 (d) 2000 Consider the following statements: (1) President is an integral part of Parliament. (2) The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is an integral part of Parliament. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 4 only (©) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the two |. Consider the following statement: 1. The constitution does not mention the term "special session" of Parliament. Won ie MART) eure @ scanned with OKEN Scanner2. Aspecial session of Pariament was held in | September 2023. 136. 3. Nati Shakti Vandan Abhiyan (128"Amendment) | Bill was passed during the recent special | session of Parliament, | Select the correct answer from the codes given | below: | {a) t only (b) 2 only | (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2and3. | Who of the following isfare members of | Delimitation Commission ? | 1, Aretired Supreme Court Judge: | 2. Chief Election Commission of India | 3. Respective State Election Commissioners | Choose the correct answer from the codes | given below: {a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only | (c) 1and 3 only (d) 1, 2and 3. | 31, What is the time limit for states to give their | | | | consent to constitutional amendment bill? (a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (a) No time limit 32. Under Article 3, State can be created or | abolished by a (a) Simple majority (b) Absolute majority | {c) Special majority (qd) Effective majority | 33. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in | the Arunachal Panchayati Raj institutions was | abolished by | (a) 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act | (b) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act | (c) 87th Constitutional Amendment Act | (d) 89th Constitutional Amendment Act ' 34, The 106th Constitutional Amendment provides | 4. 33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative assemblies 2, Itintroduced Antcle 330 Aand Article 332A | to provide reservation for women inLok | Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies | respectively ! 3, Once 106th Amendment comes into force, | the reservation of seats for women tobe valid! for 10 years and will be rotated after each delimitation Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a)1 only {b) only (©) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2and3 35. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation of with (a) Chief Justice of India (b) Governor of the concemed State (©) Both a and b (a) none of the above Tribal Advisory Council s eatablishod under (a) Ve Schedule ie., Scheduled Areas (b) Vi" Schodulo Lo, TribalArous (¢) inboth V" and Vi" Schodulo aroas {@) Notthorin Schedulod areas nor tn Tubal avons 37, Which one of the following Is not a feature of Parliamentary form of Government? (a) Executive Is responsible to the Legislature (b) Governmont formation on the basis of majority of a party (c) Soparation of powers among three branchos of government (@) Collective responsibility of Counell of ministers | 38. Vth and Vith Schedulo of the Constitution can be amended by (a) Simple majority (b) Special majority (c) By special majority in both houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the State Legislatures (d) none of the above 1 39. Which one of the following is not a National Party? (a) National People's Party (b) Trinamool Congress (c) Bahujan Samaj Party (d) Indian National Congress 40. Chief Election Commissioner can be removed at (a) President (b) Parliament (©) Supreme Court. —_(d) None of them In the appointment of a Judge of High Court, President of India consults the (a) Chief Justice of India (b) Governor of the concerned State High Court (6) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (d) Allthe above 42. Consider the following Statements about the Finance Commission of India 1. Finance Commission of Indias set up under Article 280 of Indian constitution 2. Itis a quasi-judicial constitutional body Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) t only (b) 2 only (©) Both 1 and 2 (@)None of the above 43, The leader of opposition represents the ‘opposition in which of the following high powered committees headed by the Prime Minister for appointment to key posts? (a) Director of CBI TENURE PN NST @ scanned with OKEN Scanner(b) Lokpal 51, (c) Contral Vigilance Commission (a) Alltho above 44, Which ono of the following Is incorrect statement about the Comptroller and Auditor Gonoral? (a) CAG Is the watchdog of public purse (b) He In removed in the same manner an a judge of the Supreme Court (c) He is removed by the President (d) His salary is charged on the consolidated fund of India 45. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj was created by the Government of India in the year (a) 1992 (b) 1997 (c) 2002 (a) 2004 46. Which one of the following Directive Principles is not correctly matched? (a) Separation of Judiciary from executives - Atticle 50 (b) Equal justice and free legal aid - Article 39 (c) Participation of workers in the management -Article 43 | (d) Promotion of cooperative societies ~Article 43 | 47. Consider the following statements: I 1. Nagaland was created by 13th Amendment | Act, 1962 | 2, Article 371A Nagaland Choose the correct answer given below: (a) tonly (b) 2 only 155, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above | 48, High Courts in India do not have I (a) Original jurisdiction (b) Appellate jurisdiction (c) Advisory jurisdiction (6) Writ jurisdiction 49, The composition of bythe (a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (©) President (d) Union Minister for Law and Justice Consider the following statements: 1. AnewAll india Service can be created under | Article 312 2. Inthe creation of a newAll India Service, Lok ! Sabha has upper hand ! Choose the correct answer from the codes | given below: 1 (b) 2 only I {a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (6) None of the above | 52, 54, contains special provisions of | from the codes : 56. | | 56. | | ‘a High Court is determined | ' 57. ! | MART) nn Identify the incorrect match: (a) Universal Adult Franchise - Article 325 (b) Inter-State Council - Article 263 (c) Administrative Tribunal - Article 323A (d) State Public Service Commission -Article 315 ‘The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act came into force in the year (a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (a) 1995 Consider the following statements: 1, Legislative council in a State can be created under Article 169 2. Legislative council can be created by an ‘Amendment bill supported with simple majority Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b)2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (@)None of the above Consider the following statements: 1, Article 21A was introduced in the Constitution by 86th Amendment Act, 2002 ‘41th Fundamental duty was added by 86th ‘Amendment Act, 2002 ‘Article 21 deals with the fundamental right of children (in the age group of 6to 14) to free and compulsory education Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b)2 only (0) 1 and 3 (@)1,2and 3 Who of the following said that India has a cooperative federalism? (a) K.C. Whease (b) Morris Jones (c)Granville Austin _(d) None of the above Which one of the following is a federal feature? (a) Integrated Judiciary (b) Emergency provisions (©)AllIndia Services (4) Bicameral Union Legislature Consider the following statements 1. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for an All India scheme of Federation 2. India follows Canadian model of federation with powers tited in favour of the Central government Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) only (b)2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (@)None ofthe above Consider the following statements 1. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in the USA 2. 3. Pil Zoe @ scanned with OKEN ScannerCourt and High Court entertain PIL ' , Supreme 2. Siftion under their writ jurisdiction tition un select the correct answer from the codes given \ below: i (a) t only (b) 2only {o) Both 1 and 2 Identify the incorrect match: {a) National Commission for Scheduled Castes | - Article 338 i (b) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes | - Article 3384 ' (c) National Commission for Backward classes | 67. - Article 3388 ! (d) GST (Goods and Services Tax) Council | -Article 269A ! . Who among the following constitutional | functionaries is not a member of either house | 68. of Parliament: (@) Prime Minister | (b) President | (c) Members of Council of Ministers | (d) None of the above | 1 (@)None of the above | 66. 59. 1 Which one of the following Writs is issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32in case of a ‘competing claims to a public office? (2) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto (©) Certiorari (d) Prohibition Consider the following statements: 1. Dr. BR. Ambedkar called Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) heart and soul of the Constitution 2. During National Emergency Article 3: suspended Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only 61. 62. 69. also (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above ‘Which one of the following Preventive detention laws is not in operation currently? (2) National Security Act, 1980 (b) The Unlawful Activities Prevention (Amendment) Act, 2004 () POTA, 2002 (Prevention of Terrorist Act) (6) None of the above Which of the following Union Territories have representation in Rajya Sabha? (a) Dethi (b) Puducherry (©) Jammu and Kashmir (d) All of the above 65. Consider the following statements: 1. The 10th Schedule of the constitution introduced in 1985 contains Anti Defection Law : 2. Anti Defection Lawis not applicable to cross | | | | leo. | 1 | | | | | | 63. \ ! | | ' 70. | nn. | | | | | | | ! 1 1 IT voting in Rajya Sabha elections elect the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) only (b) 2 only (d) None of the above Both 1 and 2 a .¢ following is @ constitutional Which one of th n (National Commission for Human Rights {b) National Commission for Minorities {) Central Information Commission (6) National Commission for Backward classes Governor of a state does not appoint (a) Chief Minister (b) Advocate General : {c) Members of State Public Service Commission (d) Chief Secretary Consider the following statements 1. Draft constitution of India was prepared by the constitutional advisor of the Constituent Assembly - B.N Rau BR. Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee of Constituent Assembly, formally introduced the Draft constitution in the Assembly Select the correct choice from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (©) both 4 and 2 (d) none of the above Consider the following statements 4. The Vith Schedule provides for the formation of Autonomous District Council (ADCs) as well as Autonomous Regional Councils (ARCs) Currently, there are 10 Autonomous District Councils in the four North-east states of ‘Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura, taken together Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) have upto 25 members. Select the answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c)2and3 (a) 1,2 and3 Which one of the following is not a basic structure of the constitution of India, as interpreted by the Supreme Court? (a) Rule of law (b) Separation of powers (0) Federal character of the constitution (4) Integrated and hierarchical judiciary Consider the following statements: 4. Supreme Court in a recent judgement stated that the right to promotion is not a constitutional right 3. ANAGAR, PH:7481987707 1 @ scanned with OKEN Scanner2 Vo Spree Count declared wacuniy thal | (0) hah Vand (1) none atthe above, the Hight 10 nramiotion te a fundamental ight | 77 Connidar the tollaying stalemente Ghoowe the consol anemer than the 0 ne Hon the ot | tw) tony (ny) 7 ) 2 only | (o) bath 4 ani (none ofthe above | 72, to vAiich of thes following oages, she Buptanie | Court for the fist time gave primany to | fundamental rights vis-a-vis thes amending | power of Variiament ander Article S687 \ (o) Shankar Masia oases, 1961 (h) Galaknath oss, 1967 (6) Koshavanand fihatth ows, 1079 (4) Minvorve Mills case, 1080 74, Consider the following statements 4, Electoral Bonds ficheines yas launched Ih the your 20105 The Supreme Court racantly struck down the Hloctoral Borids schiesne ss unconstitutional the solising violatad the 2 tight to information of eizsns, Impauting fae | speech and expression under Article 19(1)() of the constitutlon: Select the correct answer from the following: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) nona of the above 7A, Flodronie Voting Machines (EVM) vate used | in all 543 constituencies for the first tine ln thes General Elections to the Lok Babhw in the yoar (a) 2004 (b) 2009 (c) 2014 (4) 2019 75, peeording to 91st constitutional amandisnt JA, 2007, the limitation on size of this council of ministers in 9 Union Torriory ah a Loqislve | Asset I (a) not mors than 15% of the total mamber ship of the logistalive assembly Including the Chel MAiniotor (b) nck more than 12% Induding the Chiat minister (c) not mors than 10% of the total mombershlp m 1” 00, 61 | of legislative aseembly Including Chiof Ministar | (d) none of the above | 76, Consider the folloving stotomonts: 1, Reservation of soats for Bchodulad castes | U2. ‘and Scheduled tribas In Lok Sabha Is provided under Article 330 404th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020 onended the revervation of sons for Scheduled castes and Behadulad trbos In Lok Sabha and Btats logistative nosambllos for another ton yoars, ‘Bede thos cared snes from the cords gon besow, (9) 4 only (b) 2 only 2, | | | ! | | | | 1 Publis Avant Goran aminiiios of Harliamant 2 Hesganiin the apart at the C ‘Auuitat General (CAG) 4 Usially ie chiainnan i from the ailing party olan he eorrea ansyver from the codes given alow (a) Vonily (i) Zand B only Harliament 6 authorised to make a lave on any Hon in ts alate list i her national interest Ifa Fenolution to thal affaat Is paawsed by the (a) Lol Babha by # simple majority af te total vamnbership (hy) Lok tiabhit hry a majority of not lass than two third of ts total membership (0) Rajya faba by 4 simple majority ofits total membership (a) Rajya Sabha by # majority of not lass than {wothird of fs membership present and voting For formation of the government at the eantre Orth the stata, the required majority ts (14) Bimple majority (b) Absolute majority (0) Lfeotive majority (d) not lass than tworthird of the total majority ‘The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from (a) President of India (b) Union Finance Minister (o) Parliament (d) Prima Minister ‘Which one of the following is not a fundamental duly? (a) To wafoquard proporty (b) To davolop nolontiic tempor (o) To abide by the constitution and respect its dona (a) To voto tn public olection Connidor the following statements regarding Adjournmont motion: 1, Tho purpose of an Adjournment motion is to ‘allow # dincussion on a dofinite matter of Uurgant public importane 2, ann be brought only inthe Lok Sable 55, Itinvolve an alamennt of consura agallnst the government Soloct the correct anewor alow: J a financial iptroller and yt at 12 only dd trom the codes given @ scanned with OKEN Scanner(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only | (c) 1and3 only (a)1,2and 3 | 83, Consider the following statements: | 1. North-eastern Council was created under | 90. the North-Eastern Council Act, 1971 ' 2. Sikkim joined the North-Eastern Councilin | 2002 | ‘Select the correct answer from the codes given | below: (a) 1 only (b) 2only | (c) both 1 and 2 (d) none of the above | 84. Which one of the following statements is | incorrect about the Prime Minister? Io. (a) Prime Ministeris appointed by the President | under Article 74 1 (©) PM advices the President to appoint other | ministers of his council of ministers ! (c) PM guides, directs, controls and coordinates | all ministries (d) PMis the Chief spokesperson of the Central | Government i 85. Consider the following statements: 1 1. The term of office of Chief Election | ‘Commissioner is the same as the Chairman | of the UPSC 2. Chief Election Commissioner and Election | Commissioner are removed from office like | a judge of the Supreme Court Select the correct answer from the codes given | 93. below: (2) 1 only (©) 2 only ! (c) both 1 and 2 (d) none of the above | 86. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was | created by which constitutional amendment? (a) 82nd (b) 65th. (c) 86th (@) 89th | 87. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed | from his office by an order of the President on | the recommendation of ! (a) Election Commission of India | (b) Union Council of Ministers | (©) Parliament | (d) None of the above ' 88. Who of the following is authorised to disqualify | a member of Parliament on Constitutional ! grounds mentioned under Article 102? ! (@) Speaker/ Chairman on the advice of Election | Commission ! (b) Supreme Court ! (©) President in consultation with the Election : Commission I (d) none of the above 1 89. Which of the following Writs is known as | Bulwark for individual freedoms? (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Certiorari (c) Quo-warranto (d) Mandamus Consider the following statements: 1. Atticle 123 deals with the ordinance making power of the President 2. Anordinance issued by the President is ‘open to judicial review by the Supreme Court Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Which of the following Union Territories have Chief Minister? (a) Delhi (0) Jammu & Kashmir (c) Puducherry (d) All of the above Consider the following statements: 1. President rule leads to the immediate dissolution of the legislative assembly of concerned state 2. Imposition of President rule in a State leads to the dissolution of Council of Ministers Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Freedom of inter-state trade and commerce has been regulated by the Indian Constitution under Article: (a) 19(1)(d-e) (b) 301 (c) 301 to 307 (a) Allof the above ‘Which one of the pairs given belowis incorrectly matched: (a) Equality before law — Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens (b) Altering the name of a State — Power of a State Legislature (c) Creating a new State — Power of Parliament. (d) Equality of opportunity in public employment citizen — Guaranteed only to Indian With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: 1. It objective is to ensure free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. Itissues guidelines to the State legal services authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country ‘Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (@) only 1 (b) only 2 @ scanned with OKEN Scanner | :(©) both 1 and 2 96. Which one ofthe folowing ©) nether 1 nor 2 (a or abolished under anid can beethercreateg | (2) Ones ma on (b) One-fourth 1e-si (d) One-twelveth ® Lock Sabha | 89. Which of the following Articles authorises the ‘abha | Governor to reserve certain bills for the (c) State Legislative, Assembly | Consideration of the President? (d) State Legislative Councit | (@)Article 169 97. Which one of the following State Legistaive | °)Atticle 202 Assemblies has the minimum memouchp t!_ ()Atéee 200 India? rembership in y __(d) none of the above 2) Go. . 100.Only six states have bicameral legislature in 8 an (®) Sikkim 1 india. nthiscontet, vbich one of the ftloving 98, What (d) Meghalaya | _ Slates is incorrect? 7 Percentage of members of the Legislative! (a) UP (b) Rajasthan Council is nominated by Governor? | (Maharashtra (d) Telangana oo0 @ scanned with OKEN ScannerANSWER KEY, TEST SERIES 2024 MODULE TEST-3/ SUB: POLITY 01. Ans: ¢ 61.Ans:a 76.Ans: 6 27.Ans: d 62.Ans: b TL An 28.Ans: 63,Ans:¢ 7B.Anw: 64.Ans:d 79.An% 66.Ans: ¢ 80.Ans: 6 56.Ans: d B1.Ans: d 57.Ans:¢ 82.Ans: d 68.Ans: ¢ 83.Ans:¢ 69.Ans:d 24,Ans: a 60.Ans: b 85.Ans: a 61.Ans: b 62.Ans:c 63.Ans: ¢ 88.Ans: ¢ 64.Ans:d 89.Ans: a 65.Ans: c 66.Ans:d 67.Ans:d 68.Ans: c 69.Ans:b 70.Ans: d 76.Ans:¢ 400.Ans: b OVE @ scanned with OKEN Scanner