Set 2 23
Set 2 23
(ix)
IÊS> H$
1 18 18 1=18
1. - :
(a) gyH«$mog H$m (b) ñQ>mM© H$m
(c) nm°{bnoßQ>mBS>m| H$m (d)
2. ñQ>mM ~§Y
h¡ :
(a) C1 C6 ~§Y (b) C1 C6 ~§Y
(c) C1 C4 ~§Y (d) C1 C4 ~§Y
3. Ag+ (aq) + e Ag (s) E = + 0·80 V
Fe2+ (aq) + 2e Fe (s) E = 0 44 V
Fe (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) Fe2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
gob Ho$ {bE E gob kmV H$s{OE &
(a) 16V (b) 1 16 V
(c) 2 04 V (d) 1 24 V
56/1/2 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 35 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A Questions no. 1 to 18 are multiple choice (MCQ) type questions,
carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) In Section B Questions no. 19 to 25 very short answer (VSA) type questions,
carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C Questions no. 26 to 30 are short answer (SA) type questions,
carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D Questions no. 31 and 32 are case-based questions carrying
4 marks each.
(vii) In Section E Questions no. 33 to 35 are long answer (LA) type questions
carrying 5 marks each.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
2 questions in Section B, 2 questions in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and
2 questions in Section E.
(ix) Use of calculators is not allowed.
SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 18 are Multiple Choice (MCQ) type Questions, carrying
1 mark each. 18 1=18
1. An -helix is a structural feature of :
(a) Sucrose (b) Starch
(c) Polypeptides (d) Nucleotides
2. The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylase
part of starch is :
(a) C1 C6 linkage (b) C1 C6 linkage
(c) C1 C4 linkage (d) C1 C4 linkage
3. Ag+ (aq) + e Ag (s) E = + 0 80 V
Fe2+ (aq) + 2e Fe (s) E = 0 44 V
Find the Ecell for :
Fe (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) Fe2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
(a) 16V (b) 1 16 V
(c) 2 04 V (d) 1 24 V
56/1/2 3 P.T.O.
4. EH$ àW_ H$mo{Q> H$s A{^{H«$`m H$mo 50% nyU© hmoZo _| 30 {_ZQ> bJVo h¢ & doJ pñWam§H$ k H$m
_mZ hmoJm :
(a) 25 10 3 min 1 (b) 2 75 10 4 min 1
(c) 1 25 10 3 min 1 (d) 2 31 10 3 min 1
6. EoëH$mohm°br _mÜ`_ _| NaOH Am¡a Br2 Ho$ gmW CH3CONH2 A{^{H«$`m H$aHo$ XoVm h¡ :
(a) CH3COONa (b) CH3NH2
(c) CH3CH2Br (d) CH3CH2NH2
ZnCl 2
7. A{^{H«$`m R OH + HCl RCl + H2O _| EoëH$mohm°b H$s A{^{H«$`merbVm
m h¡ ?
(a) 1 <2 <3 (b) 1 >3 >2
(c) 1 >2 >3 (d) 3 >1 >2
8. ~hþbH$m| Am¡a àmoQ>rZm| Ho$ _moba Ðì`_mZ {ZYm©aU Ho$ {bE {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z -gm
AUwg§»` JwUY_© à`wº$ hmoVm h¡ ?
(a) namgaU Xm~
(b) {h_m§H$ _| AdZ_Z
(c) dmîn Xm~ H$m Amno{jH$ AdZ_Z
(d) `Z
9. A{YH$ D±$MmB© dmbr OJhm| na ahZo dmbo bmoJm| Ho$ é
{ZåZ hmoZo H$m H$maU h¡ :
(a)
(b) {ZåZ Vmn
(c) {ZåZ dm`w_§S>br` Xm~
(d)
56/1/2 4
4. A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for 50% completion. The value of
rate constant k would be :
3 4
(a) 25 10 min 1 (b) 2 75 10 min 1
(c) 1 25 10 3 min 1 (d) 2 31 10 3 min 1
ZnCl2
7. In the reaction R OH + HCl RCl + H2O, what is the correct
order of reactivity of alcohol ?
56/1/2 5 P.T.O.
10. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm CËàoaH$ go à^m{dV hmoVm h¡ ?
(a) H (b) G
(c) Ea (d) S
11. `m¡{JH$ [Co(SO4) (NH3)5] Br Am¡a [Co(Br) (NH3)5] SO4 {Zê${nV H$aVo h¢ :
(a) Y«wdU g_md`dVm (b) ~§YZr g_md`dVm
(c) Am`ZZ g_md`dVm (d) Cnghg§`moOZ g_md`dVm
12. EopëH$b âbwAmoamBS> H$m g§íbofU g~go AÀN>r Vah go àmßV {H$`m OmVm h¡ :
(a) _wº$ _ybH$m| go (b) ñdmQ>©²µO A{^{H«$`m go
(c) g¢S>_m`a A{^{H«$`m go (d) q\$Ho$bñQ>rZ A{^{H«$`m go
13. b¢WoZm°BS> H$s gdm :
(a) +2 (b) +3
(c) +4 (d) +6
h
14. H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl (g) Ho$ {bE A{^{H«$`m H$mo{Q> h¡ :
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 0$ (d) 3$
15 18 (A)
(R)
(a), (b), (c) (d)
(a) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(b) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(c) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) µJbV h¡ &
(d) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) ghr h¡ &
15. (A) : Obr` {db`Z _| (C2H5)3N H$s Anojm (C2H5)2NH A{YH$ jmaH$s`
h¡ &
(R) : (C2H5)3N H$s Anojm (C2H5)2NH _| A{YH$ {Ì{d_ ~mYm Ed§ +I
à^md h¡ &
56/1/2 6
10. Which of the following is affected by catalyst ?
(a) H (b) G
(c) Ea (d) S
11. The compounds [Co(SO4) (NH3)5] Br and [Co(Br) (NH3)5] SO4 represent :
For Questions number 15 to 18, two statements are given one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
56/1/2 7 P.T.O.
16. (A) : A{^{H«$`m H2 + Br2 2HBr _| AmpÊdH$Vm 2 àVrV hmoVr h¡ &
(R) : Xr hþB© àmW{_H$ A{^{H«$`m _| A{^H$maH$m| Ho$ Xmo AUw ^mJ boVo h¢ &
17. (A) : Eo{ZbrZ Ho$ Eogr{Q>bZ go EH$b à{VñWm{nV CËnmX ~ZVm h¡ &
(R) : NHCOCH3 g_yh H$m g{H«$`U à^md Eo_rZmo g_yh go A{YH$ hmoVm
h¡ &
18. (A) : EDTA Ob H$s H$R>moaVm {ZYm©aU Ho$ {bE à`wº$ hmoVm h¡ &
(R) : EDTA {ÛX§Vwa {bJÝS> h¡ &
IÊS> I
19. 200 g Ob _| 10 g Admînerb {dbo` KmobH$a EH$ {db`Z ~Zm`m J`m & 308 K na
BgH$m dmîn Xm~ 31·84 mm Hg h¡ & {dbo` H$m _moba Ðì`_mZ n[aH${bV H$s{OE & 2
(308 K na ewÕ Ob H$m dmîn Xm~ = 32 mm Hg)
20. g§jon _| ì`m»`m H$s{OE : 1+1=2
(H$) H$m{~©bEo_rZ A{^{H«$`m
(I) J¡{~«Eb W¡{b_mBS> g§íbofU
21. {ZåZ{b{IV Ho$ {bE H$maU Xr{OE : 2 1=2
(H$) Mn3+/ Mn2+ `w½_ Ho$ {bE E H$m _mZ Cr3+/ Cr2+ `w½_ AWdm Fe3+/ Fe2+ `w½_
Ho$ _mZm| go ~hþV A{YH$ YZmË_H$ hmoVm h¡ &
(I) {ZåZ{b{IV g_rH$aU H$mo nyU© H$s{OE :
+ 2
2MnO4 + 16H + 5C O4
2
22. (H$) Xmo {dÚwV²-AnKQ>çm| A Am¡a H$m VZwH$aU H$aZo na, H$s m 25
h¡ O~{H$ B H$s 1·5 & BZ_| go H$m¡Z-gm {dÚwV²-AnKQ>ç à~b h¡ ?
AnZo CÎma H$s nw{îQ> Ho$ {bE J«m\$ It{ME & 2
AWdm
1
(I) 0·05 mol L NaOH {db`Z Ho$ H$m°b_ H$m {dÚwV à{VamoY 5·55 103 ohm
h¡ & BgH$m ì`mg 1 cm Ed§ bå~mB© 50 cm h¡ & BgH$s MmbH$Vm H$m n[aH$bZ
H$s{OE & 2
56/1/2 8
16. Assertion (A) : The molecularity of the reaction H2 + Br2 2HBr
appears to be 2.
Reason (R) : Two molecules of the reactants are involved in the given
elementary reaction.
17. Assertion (A) : Acetylation of aniline gives a monosubstituted product.
Reason (R) : Activating effect of NHCOCH3 group is more than that
of amino group.
18. Assertion (A) : EDTA is used to determine hardness of water.
Reason (R) : EDTA is a bidentate ligand.
SECTION B
56/1/2 9 P.T.O.
23. (H$) {ZåZ{b{IV A{^{H«$`mAm| Ho$ CËnmXm| H$s àmJw{º$ H$s{OE : 2 1=2
Cu 273 K
(i) CH3CH2OH
Br2 aq
(ii) C6H5OH
AWdm
(I) {ZåZ{b{IV Ho$ {bE H$maU Xr{OE : 2 1=2
IÊS> J
26. H$maU Xr{OE : 3 1=3
(H$) àmoQ>rZm| Am¡a ~hþbH$m| O¡go d¥hXmUwAm| Ho$ _moba Ðì`_mZ {ZYm©aU H$aZo Ho$ {bE
namgaU Xm~ H$s _mnZ {d{Y H$mo dar`Vm Xr OmVr h¡ &
(I) Obr` àm{U`m| Ho$ {bE J_© Ob H$s VwbZm _| R>§S>o Ob _| ahZm A{YH$ Amam_Xm`H$
hmoVm h¡ &
(J) 1 M eH©$am {db`Z H$s VwbZm _| 1 M KCl dWZm§H$ H$m CÞ`Z bJ^J
XþJwZm hmoVm h¡ &
56/1/2 10
23. (a) Predict the products of the following reactions : 2 1=2
Cu 273 K
(i) CH3CH2OH
Br2 aq
(ii) C6H5OH
OR
(b) Give reasons for the following : 2 1=2
(i) p-nitrophenol is more acidic than p-methylphenol.
(ii) (CH3)3C Br on reaction with NaOCH3 gives alkene as the
main product and not an ether.
PCl 5 AgCN
24. (a) CH3 CH CH3
|
OH
ethanol HBr
(b) CH3CH2CH2Cl + KOH
1+1=2
SECTION C
56/1/2 11 P.T.O.
1 1
27. {ZåZ{b{IV A{^{H«$`mE± nyU© H$s{OE : 1 +1 =3
2 2
56/1/2 12
1 1
27. Complete the following reactions : 1 +1 =3
2 2
29. (a) What are the hydrolysis products of (i) Lactose, (ii) Maltose ?
(b) Give the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose. 3
OR
(b) 3H8O on
56/1/2 13 P.T.O.
IÊS> K
31. Cnghg§`moOZ `m¡{JH$m| _| YmVwE± Xmo àH$ma H$s g§`moOH$VmE±, àmW{_H$ Am¡a {ÛVr`H$, àX{e©V
H$aVr h¢ & àmW{_H$ g§`moOH$VmE± Am`ZZr` hmoVr h¢ VWm G$UmË_H$ Amdo{eV Am`Zm| Ûmam
g§VwîQ> hmoVr h¢ & {ÛVr`H$ g§`moOH$VmE± AZ-Am`ZZr`
`wº$ CXmgrZ AWdm G$UmË_H$ Am`Zm| Ûmam g§VwîQ> hmoVr h¢ & àmW{_H$ g§`moOH$VmE± A{X{eH$
hmoVr h¢ O~{H$ {ÛVr`H$ g§`moOH$VmE± g§Hw$b H$s AmH¥${V {ZYm©[aV H$aVr h¢ &
(i) `{X PtCl2 . 2NH3, AgNO3 Ho$ gmW A{^{H«$`m Zht H$aVm h¡, Vmo BgH$m gyÌ
? 1
(ii) [Co(en)3]3+ ? 1
AWdm
2
(iii) [Ni(CN)4] H$m g§H$aU Ed§ Mwå~H$s` ì`dhma {b{IE & 2
32. A{^{H«$`m doJ, BH$mB© g_` _| A{^H$maH$m| H$s gm§ÐVm KQ>Zo AWdm CËnmXm| H$s gm§ÐVm d¥{Õ
go g§~§{YV hmoVm h¡ & Bgo {H$gr jU {deof na VmËj{UH$ doJ Ho$ ê$n _| Am¡a {H$gr XrK©
g_` A§Vamb _| Am¡gV doJ go àX{e©V {H$`m Om gH$Vm h¡ & A{^{H«$`m doJ Ho$ J{UVr`
{Zê$nU H$mo doJ {Z`_ H$hVo h¢ & doJ pñWam§H$ Ed§ A{^{H«$`m H$s H$mo{Q> H$m {ZYm©aU doJ
{Z`_ AWdm g_mH${bV doJ g_rH$aU Ûmam H$a gH$Vo h¢ &
56/1/2 14
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Read the case carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
(i) If PtCl2 . 2NH3 does not react with AgNO3, what will be its
formula ? 1
3+
(ii) What is the secondary valency of [Co(en)3] ? 1
OR
56/1/2 15 P.T.O.
(i) ? 1
(ii) Xmo H$maH$ {b{IE Omo A{^{H«$`m H$s Xa H$mo à^m{dV H$aVo h¢ & 1
(iii) (1) ?
(2) eyÝ` H$mo{Q> H$s A{^{H«$`m Ho$ {bE k H$s BH$mB ? 2 1=2
AWdm
(iii) (1) EH$ A{^{H«$`m P + 2Q CËnmX Ho$ {bE doJ = k[P]1/2 [Q]1 h¡ &
?
(2) EH$ CXmhaU g{hV N>X²_ àW_ H$mo{Q> A{^{H«$`m H$mo n[a^m{fV H$s{OE & 2 1=2
IÊS> L>
AWdm
56/1/2 16
(i) What is average rate of reaction ? 1
(ii) Write two factors that affect the rate of reaction. 1
(iii) (1) What happens to rate of reaction for zero order reaction ?
(2) What is the unit of k for zero order reaction ? 2 1=2
OR
(iii) (1) For a reaction P + 2Q Products
Rate = k[P]1/2 [Q]1. What is the order of the reaction ?
SECTION E
2+3=5
OR
56/1/2 17 P.T.O.
(I) (i) Cn`wº$ amgm`{ZH$ narjU go {d^oX H$s{OE :
(1) CH3COCH2CH3 Am¡a CH3CH2CH2CHO
LiAlH4
35. (H$) (i) Am`Zm| Ho$ ñdV§Ì A{^J_Z H$m H$mobamD$e {Z`_ {b{IE & H$mobamD$e
{Z`_ Ho$ AZwgma AZ§V VZwVm na Eogr{Q>H$ Aåb H$s _moba MmbH$Vm Ho$
{bE ì`§OH$ {b{IE &
(ii) 298 K na Xr JB© A{^{H«$`m Ho$ {bE A{YH$V_ H$m`© Am¡a log Kc
n[aH${bV H$s{OE :
2+
Ni (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) Ni (aq) + 2Ag (s)
{X`m J`m h¡ : E
Ni 2 / Ni
= 0·25 V, E
Ag / Ag
= + 0·80 V
1
1 F = 96500 C mol 2+3=5
AWdm
(I) (i) \¡$amS>o Ho$ {dÚwV²-AnKQ>Z H$m àW_ {Z`_ {b{IE & 1 _mob Cu2+ H$mo Cu
_| AnM{`V H$aZo Ho$ {bE \¡$amS>o Ho$ nXm| _| {H$VZm Amdoe Amdí`H$
hmoJm ?
(ii) 298 K na {ZåZ{b{IV gob H$m {dÚwV²-dmhH$ ~b (emf) n[aH${bV
H$s{OE :
Mg (s) Mg2+ (0 1 M) Cu2+ (0 1 M) Cu (s)
1
[E = + 2 71 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol , log 10 = 1] 2+3=5
gob
56/1/2 18
(b) (i) Distinguish with a suitable chemical test :
(1) CH3COCH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CHO
LiAlH4
(b) (i)
terms of Faraday, is required for the reduction of 1 mol Cu 2+
to Cu ?
(ii) Calculate emf of the following cell at 298 K for
Mg (s) Mg2+ (0 1 M) Cu2+ (0 1 M) Cu (s)
1
[ E cell = + 2 71 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol , log 10 = 1] 2+3=5
56/1/2 19 P.T.O.
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior Secondary School Examination, 2023
SUBJECT NAME : CHEMISTRY (043)(56/1/2)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and
correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead
to serious problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education
system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before
starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the
confidentiality of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and
several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to
derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future of
millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may
invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It
should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other
consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously
followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest
information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed
for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In
class-XII, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to
understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme
but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete
answer. The students can have their own expression and if the expression is
correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by
each evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out
as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation,
the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining
answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there
is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer
CROSS ‘X” be marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which
gives an impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is
most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each
part. Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled
up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed
strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand
margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving
more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note
“Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be
penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks 70 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full
marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours
i.e., 8 hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects
and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot
Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions in
question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed
by the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the
title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right
tick mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line.
Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no
marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect,
it should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or
totaling error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the
personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order
to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks
carried over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request
on payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure
that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as
given in the Marking Scheme.
XII_39_043_56/1/2_Chemistry # Page-2
Senior Secondary School Examination, 2023
CHEMISTRY (Subject Code–043)
[ Paper Code: 56/1/2]
SECTION-A
1. (c) 1
(c) / Award full mark if attempted (Printing error)
2. 1
3. (d) 1
4. (d) / Full mark to be awarded for any option. 1
5. (c) 1
6. (b) 1
7. (a) 1
8. (a) 1
9. (c) 1
10. (c) 1
11. (c) 1
12. (b) 1
13. (b) 1
15. (c) 1
16. (a) 1
17. (c) 1
18. (c) 1
SECTION-B
19.
WA WB
pA – p A MA MB
p = = W = ½
PA A + WB WA
MA MB MA
XII_39_043_56/1/2_Chemistry # Page-3
1
MB = 180 g/mol ½
20. (a) Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and
ethanolic potassium hydroxide form isocyanides or carbylamines which are foul-
smelling substances. /
1
Isocyanide with an offensive smell is formed.
(Explanation or reaction)
(b) Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide forms potassium
salt of phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed by alkaline
hydrolysis produces the corresponding primary amine /
(Explanation or reaction)
21. (a) Mn3+ changes to Mn stable half-filled d configuration / much larger third
2+ 5
OR
XII_39_043_56/1/2_Chemistry # Page-4
A = r2 = 3·14 (0·5)2 = 0·785 cm2 , ℓ = 50 cm
ℓ
k=𝑅×𝐴 ½
50
= 0·785 𝑋 ( 5.55 𝑋 103) 1
OR
(b)
(i) -NO2 group is electron withdrawing (-R /-I effect) while -CH3 is electron
releasing group / conjugate base of p-nitrophenoxide ion is more resonace 1
stabilised.
(ii) CH3ONa is not only a good nucleophile but a strong base as well which favours
the elimination reaction of (CH3)3C-Br rather than substitution. 1
24. CH3 – CH – CH3
(a) A =
|
/ 2-Chloropropane
Cl
½x4
SECTION-C
26. (a) Osmotic pressure is measured at room temperature / molarity of the solution is
used instead of molality / as compared to other colligative properties its magnitude
is large even for a very dilute solution.
(b) Solubility of oxygen is higher at a lower temperature.
(c) KCl being strong electrolyte dissociates into two moles of ions but sugar will
1x3
not dissociate/ for KCl, i= 2 and for sugar, i=1.
XII_39_043_56/1/2_Chemistry # Page-5
27. (a) (A) = CH3-CH=CH2, 1
(b)
½x3
28. (a)
(b)
(c)
1x3
(d)
XII_39_043_56/1/2_Chemistry # Page-6
SECTION-D
31. (i) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
1
(ii) 6 1
(iii) (1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(2) Pentamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride.
OR 1,1
(ii) Due to variable oxidation state / due to the ability to adopt multiple oxidation 1
states / due to the large surface area / due to complex formation.
(iii) Cr2+ changes from d4 to stable half-filled t2g3 configuration while Mn3+
1
changes to stable half-filled d5 configuration.
(iv) Due to the absence of unpaired electrons and weak interatomic interactions. 1
(v) Cu+ ion (aq.) undergoes disproportionation to Cu2+ (aq.) and Cu /
1
2 Cu+ (aq.) ⎯⎯→ Cu2+ (aq.) + Cu (s)
34. (a) (i)
(1)
dil. NaOH
CH3 CHO CH3 CH—CH2 —CHO CH3—CH —
— CH—CHO
| —H2O 1
OH
(2)
(ii)
1x3
XII_39_043_56/1/2_Chemistry # Page-7
OR
(b) (i)
(1) Add Iodine (I2), NaOH, and heat both the test tubes containing the given
organic compounds. Butanone gives yellow precipitate (CHI3) while butanal will 1
not give the positive iodoform test.
(2) Add NaHCO3 in both the test tube containing the given organic compounds. 1
Ethanoic acid will give brisk effervescence of CO2 and ethanal will not.
(or any other suitable chemical test)
(ii)
log Kc = nE cell
0·059 ½
2 1·05
= = 35 ·6 ½
0·059
OR
(b) (i) It states that the mass of a substance deposited /liberated at the electrodes is 1
directly proportional to the charge/quantity of electricity passed through the
electrolyte. 1
2F charge is required.
0·0591 [Mg 2 + ]
(ii) Ecell = E cell – log
2 [Cu 2 + ] 1
0·0591 0·1
= 2·71 V – log
2 0·01
0·0591 1
= 2·71 V – log 10
2
= 2·71 V – 0·0295
= 2·68 V. (Deduct ½ mark for no or incorrect unit) 1
**
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