Dated :

M.L. Sy al’
Syal’ s
al’s Helix Institute
14-8-2021 S.C.O. 343-345, Top Floor, Sector 34-A, Chandigarh. Ph : 2624337, 2623155

Test Series for NEET - 2021

MM : 720 Phase-III (XI Full Syllabus Test -5) Time : 3 hrs.

PHYSICS : SECTION-A 5. Value of energy is E=A sin(Bt)+Ccos(Dx), where

All questions are compulsory in section A t and x represent time and position
AB
1. A particle is moving with constant velocity u î  v ĵ . respectively.Find dimensions of
D
Torque on the particle, about origin, when particle
is at (a, b) will be (1) ML—3T–3
(2) ML2T–1
(1) ua î  vb ĵ (2) ub î  va ĵ
(3) ML2T–3
(3) (ub  va) k̂ (4) zero (4) ML3T–3
2. With what angular velocity the earth should spin in
order that a body lying at 30° latitude may be- 6. y-axis
come weightless [R is radius of earth and g is ac-
celeration due to gravity on the surface of earth]
L
2g 4g
(1) (2)
3R R x-axis
L
g 4g
(3) (4)
3R 3R
In the above arrangement, three rods are identi-
cal in mass and length. The centre of mass is
3.
L L  L 
r (1)  ,  (2)  , 0
S 2 2  3 
O
L L  L
(3)  ,  (4)  0, 
A sound wave of wavelength 40 cm passes 3 2  3
through the tube as shown in the figure. Then the 7. Air is streaming past a horizontal air plane wing
minimum radius ‘r’ so that a loud sound is heard
such that its speed is 100 m/s over the upper sur-
by the observer O is about
face and 80 m/s below the lower surface. If the
(1) 15 cm density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 , then the difference of
(2) 25 cm the pressure on the two sides of the wing is
(3) 10 cm
(1) 4560 Pa
(4) 35 cm
(2) 2340 Pa
4. Apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when (3) 2560 Pa
heated in a copper vessel is C and when heated in (4) zero
a silver vessel is S. If A is the linear coefficient of
expansion of copper, then the linear coefficient of
expansion of silver is
C  S – 3A C  3A – S
(1) (2)
3 3
S  3A – C C  S  3A
(3) (4)
3 3

1 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
 12. Two springs of spring constants 1500 N/m and
y 3000 N/m respectively are stretched with same
m
force. They will have potential energies in the ratio
8. (1) 4:1
a a
(2) 1:4
2m 3m x
a (3) 2:1
(4) 1:2
13. A man is standing on a railway platform listening
In the above system of three point masses, the
to the whistle of an engine that passes the man at
radius of gyration about y-axis is
constant speed without stopping. If engine passes
13 13 the man at time t0. How does the frequency f of
(1) a (2) a the whistle as heard by the man changes with time
24 4

13 f f
(3) a (4) a
8
(1) (2)
t0 t t0 t

9.

0.5 m
f f

(3) (4)
6m t0 t t0 t

A standing wave pattern is established in a string

as shown. The wavelength of one of the component
m
travelling waves is
14.
(1) 0.25 m h
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 4m 
(4) 2m
A block of mass ‘m’ sliding down an incline at con-
10. A body of mass ‘m1’ moving with a velocity 3ms–
1 collides with another body at rest of mass ‘m ’.
stant speed is initially at a height ‘h’ above the
2 ground, as shown. Coefficient of kinetic friction
After collision the velocities of the two bodies are
between the mass and the incline is  . Energy
2 ms–1 and 5 ms–1 respectively along the direction
dissipated by friction by the time the mass reaches
of motion of m1 The ratio m1/m2 is
the bottom of the incline is
5
(1) (2) 5 (1) mgh/ 
12
(2) mgh
1 12
(3) (4) (3)  mgh/sin 
5 5
11. The position of an object varies as (4) mgh sin 

R =10t2 î +10(t–5) ĵ . Find time at which angular
momentum becomes same as that of at t=0, about
origin.
(1) 5 sec
(2) 10 sec
(3) 20 sec
(4) 25 sec

2 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
15. As we move from centre of earth towards the sur-
face, the variation in acceleration due to gravity 20. 1m/s u 2m/s
(g) with distance (x) is represented by the graph P Q R
g g
10m 10m

(1) (2) Three elephants P, Q and R are moving along a

straight line with constant speeds as shown. When
Re x Re x
‘Q’ catches ‘R’, separation between P & R becomes
30 m. Then ‘u’ is
g g
(1) 1 m/s
(2) 2.5 m/s
(3) (4) (3) 2 m/s
Re x Re x (4) 3 m/s
21. Respective velocities of a particle executing S.H.M.
16. Time to form 1 cm thick layer of ice on surface of are 30 cm/s and 16 cm/s when its displacements
lake is 20 minutes. In what time the thickness of are 8 cm and 15 cm from the equilibrium position.
the layer will increase from 1 cm to 2 cm? Then the amplitude of oscillation is
(1) 20 min. (1) 25 cm
(2) 40 min. (2) 21 cm
(3) 60 min. (3) 17 cm
(4) 80 min. (4) 13 cm
17. A mass of 4 kg rests on horizontal plane. The plane 22. Time period of revolution of an artificial earth’s
inclination is gradually increased until it becomes satellite is T. Its orbital speed is proportional to
450. If maximum angle of friction is 30°, the reac- (1) T–1/3
tion on the block due to plane at this position is (2) T–2/3
(3) T–1
2 (4) T–1/2
(1) 40 3 (2) 40
3 23. The time period of a simple pendulum of infinite
length is ......Given : R = radius of Earth
(3) 20 3 (4) 40

18. A ball of mass M is thrown vertically upwards. R

(1)  (2) 2
Another ball of mass 2M is thrown at an angle  g
to vertical. Both of them stay in air for same pe-
riod of time. Heights attained by two are in ratio 2R
(3) 2 (4) none of these
(1) 1:2 g
(2) 2:1
24. An elevator weighing 6000 kg is pulled upward by
(3) 1:1
a cable with an acceleration of 5 m/s2. Then ten-
(4) 1 : cos 
sion in the cable is
19. A conical pendulum is executing circular motion (1) 6000 N
with thread inclined at 37° with the vertical. If (2) 9000 N
the mass of the bob is 100 g, the tension in the (3) 60000 N
string is (4) 90000 N
(1) 1.25 N
(2) 1.5 N
(3) 2.25 N
(4) 0.75 N

3 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
25, A ship A is travelling due east at 10 m/s. At some 30. Earth’s orbit around sun is slightly elliptical with an
instant another ship B is 1 km due east of A and eccentricity of 0.0167. Ratio of its maximum speed
travelling due north at 10 m/s. The minimum dis- to its minimum speed in the orbit is
tance between the two ships during subsequent (1) 2.507
motion is (2) 1.033
(1) 1000 m
(3) 3.287
(2) 707 m
(4) 1
(3) 500 m
(4) zero 31. For free expansion of an ideal gas in an insulated
container, there is
26. The temperature of sink of Carnot engine is 27°C.
Efficiency of engine is 25%. Then temperature of a. no heat exchanged
source is b. work done
c. no change of internal energy
(1) 227°C
d. no change in pressure
(2) 327°C
(3) 127°C (1) a, b and d
(4) 27°C (2) a, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
27. Let range ‘R’ of a ball thrown with a certain veloc-
(4) both a & c
ity ‘v’ is twice the maximum height reached by the
ball. Then R= 32. The surface tension of liquid is 0.5 N/m. If a film is
held on a ring of area 0.02 m2, its surface energy
v 5v2 is
(1) 2 (2)
5g 4g (1) 5 × 10–2 joule
(2) 2.0 × 10–2 joule
2v 2 4 v2 (3) 4 × 10–4 joule
(3) (4) (4) 0.8 × 10–1 joule
3g 5g
33 A car is standing 100m behind a bus, which is also
28. For ideal gas, CV is the specific heat at constant
at rest. The two start moving at the same instant
volume and Cp is a specific heat at constant pres-
but with different forward accelerations. The bus
sure. For a gas, if at some temperature Tp, they
has acceleration 2m/s2 and the car has accelera-
are related as CP–CV=R and for some other tem-
tion 4m/s2. The car will travel a distance in a time
perature T Q , they are related as
interval when it catches the bus will be
CP–CV=1.1R. Then
(1) 100 m
(1) TP>TQ
(2) 200 m
(2) TQ>TP
(3) 300 m
(3) TP=TQ
(4) 400 m
(4) can not say
34. If a 60 kg man is having a temperature of 103°F.
29. If L and E represent the angular momentum and
How much heat is required to raise the tempera-
the rotational kinetic energy respectively of a body,
ture of the body to this level from the normal body
then which of the following correctly represents
temperature of 98.4°F? Assume that the specific
the relation between L and E heat of human body is 1 cal/g-°C.
(1) 122 kcal
(2) 153 kcal
(1) (2) E (3) 66 kcal
E
(4) 184 kcal
L L

(3) E (4) E

L L

4 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
 38. If time of flight of a projectile is 10 seconds. Range
F
35.. is 500 meters. The maximum height attained by it
will be
F0
(1) 125 m
(2) 50 m
t
T/2 T (3) 100 m
(4) 150 m
Force F acts on a particle for a time T as shown 39. Escape velocity from the earth is approximately
in the above graph, the magnitude of impulse is 11 km/second. The escape velocity from a planet
(1) F0T having twice the radius and the same mean den-
(2) 2F0T sity as the earth, will be

1 (1) 22 km/s
(3) F T (2) 11 km/s
2 0
(3) 5.5 km/s
1 (4) 15.5 km/s
(4) F T
4 0 40. Potential energy of a particle varies with ‘x’ ac-
PHYSICS : SECTION-B cording to the relation U(x)=x2–4x. Point x=2 is
a point of
This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10
(1) stable equilibrium
questions of them.
(2) unstable equilibrium
(3) neutral equilibrium
(4) none of above
36. Main Scale (1MSD=1mm)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 41. A 2 m long copper wire P has its cross-sectional
area four times that of another copper wire Q of
0 5 10
Vernier Scale length 3 m. When same force is applied on the two
(10VSD=9MSD)
wires within elastic limits, ratio of energy stored in
D wire P to that in wire Q is
(Ycopper=1.28×109 N/m2)
(1) 1:6
(2) 3:4
Zero error of the vernier callipers shown in figure (3) 3:2
is 0.9 mm. Diameter of the sphere being measured (4) 1:3
is 42. Consider two processes on a system as shown in
(1) 3.14 cm figure.
(2) 3.33 cm P
(3) 3.20 cm
A B
(4) 3.24 cm
37. A body of mass M rolls down an inclined plane from T
a height H starting from rest. Its total kinetic en-
The volumes in the initial states are the same in
ergy at the bottom of incline is
the two processes and volumes in the final states
(1) MgH are also the same. Let W1 and W2 be the work
(2) 2MgH done by system in processes A and B respectively
(3) zero
(1) W1>W2
(4) 0.5MgH
(2) W1=W2
(3) W1<W2
(4) nothing can be said about the relation between
W1 and W2

5 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
43. A U-tube is partially filled with water. Oil which     
48. Two vectors A and B are such that A  B  C
does not mix with water is next poured into one
and C2=A2+B2 . Which of the following state-
side untill water rises by 25 cm on the other side.
ment holds good?
If the density of oil be 0.8, the oil level will stand
 
higher than the water level by (1) A is parallel to B
 
(1) 6.25 cm (2) A is anti-parallel to B
(2) 12.50 cm  
(3) 31.25 cm (3) A is perpendicular to B
 
(4) 62.50 cm (4) A and B have same magnitude
44. The position of a particle along x-axis is given by 49. A wave equation which gives the displacement
x=(20t3–60t2)m. Position of particle when its ac- along the Y direction is given by the equation
celeration is zero is y=10–4 sin(60t+2x), where x and y are in metres
(1) –60 m and t is time in seconds. This represents a wave
(2) 60 m a. travelling with a velocity of 30 m/sec in the
(3) –40 m negative X direction
(4) 40 m
b. of wavelength  metre
45. A particle of mass ‘m’ is rotating in a plane is a
c. of frequency 30/  Hz
circular path of radius ‘r’, its angular momentum
is ‘L’. The centripetal force acting on the particle d. of amplitude 10–4 metre travelling along the
is negative X direction
(1) both a & d
L2 L2m (2) both b & c
(1) (2)
mr r (3) a, b & c
(4) a, b, c & d
L2 L2
(3) 2 (4)
mr mr 3
50.
46. A wire has a mass 0.3±0.003 gram, radius
0.5±0.005 mm and length 6±0.06 cm. The maxi-
mum percentage error in the measurement of its
density is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is expanded
(4) 4 according to relation PT=constant from its initial
47. A body of mass 6 kg moves in a straight line along state (P0 , V0) to the final state, due to which its
y-axis. The position time relation of object is given pressure becomes half of the initial pressure. The
as y=t3 – 75t, where y is in meter and t in sec- change in internal energy is
ond. What is the force acting on the body at time
t= 4 second? 3 3
(1) P V (2) P V
4 0 0 2 0 0
(1) 164 N
(2) 124 N
9 5
(3) 172 N (3) P V (4) P V
2 0 0 2 0 0
(4) 144 N

6 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
 CHEMISTRY : SECTION-A 58. Dynamicity of chemical equilibrium is mainly due
to
All questions are compulsory in section A
(1) quick establishment of equilibrium
51. Which of the following has highest energy?
(2) equal concentration of reactants and products
(1) 2s of hydrogen atom
at equilibrium
(2) 2s of lithium atom
(3) 2s of sodium atom (3) different concentration of reactants and prod-
(4) 2s of potasium atom ucts at equilibrium

52. At which position electrophilic substitution of this (4) same speed of forward & backward reactions
compound would be fastest? 59. For the reversible system: X(g) Y(g)+Z(g), a quan-
tity of X was heated at a certain temperature. The
d c b a
equilibrium partial pressure of X was found to be
Cl CH3 P/7 and total pressure was P, what is the value of
KP at given temperature
(1) a 6P 9P
(2) b (1) (2)
7 7
(3) c 36P
(4) d (3) (4) 6P
7
53. One mole of which of the following has highest 60. The correct order of radii is
entropy (1) F>Na+>F–>Na
(1) Hydrogen gas (2) Na>Na+>F–>F
(2) Dry ice (3) Na>F–>Na+>F
(3) Diamond (4) F–>Na+>F>Na
(4) Liquid nitrogen 61. Which of the following on thermal decomposition
54. The presence of three unpaired electrons in the yield a basic as well as acidic oxide?
phosphorous atom is justified by (1) NaNO3
(1) Pauli’s exclusion principle (2) KClO3
(2) Hund’s rule (3) CaCO3
(3) Aufbau’s principle (4) NH4NO3
(4) Uncertainty principle
62. The covalent bond length is shortest in which of
55. In Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia from 5g of food the following bonds?
neutralizes 30ml of 0.1N acid. The percentage of
(1) C–O
nitrogen in the food is
(2) C–C
(1) 0.84 (3) O–H
(2) 8.4 (4) CC
(3) 16.8
63. Which of the following Gp 14 elements can de-
(4) 1.68
compose steam to form dioxide and liberate H2?

56. E0 =+0.34V , when Cu electrode is con- (1) Sn

Cu2  / Cu
(2) Pb
nected to NHE , then (3) C
(1) Cu can displace H2 from acids (4) Ge
(2) Cu is a reducing agent
(3) Cu2+ act as reducing agent
(4) none of these
57. ‘Incomplete octet’ holds good for
(1) LiCl
(2) BeH2
(3) NO
(4) all of these

7 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
64. The correct order of C=C bond length in the fol- 70. Which of the follwing are not structural isomers?
lowing molecule is
CH3 COOH
(1) and
a b c HOOC
CH3 OH
(1) a=b=c (2) and O
(2) c>b>a
(3) a>b>c OH
(4) b>c>a (3) and
65. For the following reaction OH

AB.3H2O(s) AB(s)+3H2O(g) (4) O and O

KP at 298K and 323K is 10–6 atm3
and 10–4 atm3
71. When sodium is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a so-
respectively. H for the reaction is lution of deep blue colour is obtained. The colour
(1) 7.7 kJ mol–1 of the solution is due to
(2) –147.4 kJ mol–1 (1) ammoniated electron
(2) sodium ion
(3) 147.4 kJ mol–1
(3) sodium amide
(4) –7.7 kJ mol—1 (4) ammoniated sodium ion
66. Which of the following is called methanide? 72. Which of the following compounds will not release
(1) Be4C acetylene when treated with sodium acetylide?
(2) CaC2 (1) HNO3
(3) Al4C3 (2) H2O
(4) SiC (3) NH3
67. Pressure remaining the same, the volume of a given (4) ROH
mass of an ideal gas increases for every degree 73. Enthalpy of combustion of liquid benzene is –3264.6
centigrade rise in temperature by a definite frac- kJ mol–1. The heat produced by burning 3.9 g of
tion of its volume at benzene is
(1) its critical temperature
(2) absolute zero 3264.6 3264.6
(1)  kJ (2)  kJ
(3) its Boyle’s temperature 78 20
(4) zero degree centigrade 3264.6
(3)  kJ (4) –3264.6 kJ
68. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 10–5. 3.9
The pH of decinormal CH3COOH solution is
74. The molecule with which the terms : distorted tetra
(1) 1 hedron and folded square, can be associated is
(2) 2
(1) SF4
(3) 3
(2) NH3
(4) 4
(3) H2O
69. 2-methylbut-2-ene on reaction with hot acidic (4) BrF5
KMnO4 gives
(1) CH3COCH3 and CH3COOH CH3 CH3 CH3
75. C=CH2 C=CH2 C=CH2
(2) CH3CHO and CH3COOH CH3 CH3O CH3OCH2
(a) (b) (c)
(3) CH3CH2OH and CH3COOH
(4) CH3CH2CH3 and CH3CHO Arrange the above compounds in the decreasing
order of reactivity towards HBr
(1) a >b>c
(2) b>a>c
(3) b>c>a
(4) a>c>b

8 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
76. [Ag+] in a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 at 25°C 82. The gases mainly responsible for greenhouse ef-
is 1.5×10–4 M. The value of Ksp of Ag2CrO4 at fect are
25°C in mol3L–3 is (1) Cl2 and CH4
(1) 1.68×10–12 (2) CO2, CH4, NOx
(2) 0.75×10–4 (3) CO and Cl2
(3) 2.25×10–7 (4) H2O(g), H2S, CO
(4) 1.5×10–4 83. The difference between the radii of 3rd and 4th or-
77. The conjugate acids for the Bronsted bases bit of Li2+ is R1 . The difference between the
NH2–, NH3 and HCOO– respectively are
radii of 3rd and 4th orbitals of He+ is R2 . Ratio of
(1) NH3, NH2–, HCOOH
(2) NH3,NH4+, HCOOH R1 ; R2 is
(3) NH2–, NH3, HCCOH (1) 3:2
(4) NH3, NH4+, COO– (2) 8:3
78. Which of the following compounds will not give (3) 2:3
only one type of monohalogenated product ? (4) 3:8
(1) Neopentane 84. Analyse the folowing reaction
(2) Ethane XeO64– + F–  XeO3+F2.
(3) Cyclopropane
Choose the correct statement()?
(4) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
(1) Xe in XeO64– exhibits an oxidation state of+8
79. The energy of 3d orbitals are also comparable to
those of 4s and 4p orbitals. However, the differ- (2) XeO64– is a stronger oxidising agent than F2
ence in energies of 3p and 4s orbitals is signifi- (3) F– is oxidised by XeO64– to form XeO3 and F2
cant. As a consequence the hybridisation is not (4) all of these
possible among 85. The anomalous behaviour of lithium is not due to
(1) 3s, 3p and 3d its
(2) 3d, 4s and 4p (1) exceptionally small size of its atom and ion
(3) 3p, 3d and 4s (2) high polarising power
(4) all of these (3) high charge | radius ratio
80. In the conversion (4) hardness
NH2OH  N2O
CHEMISTRY : SECTION-B
the equivalent weight of NH2OH will be
This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10
M M questions of them.
(1) (2)
4 2 86. 1 mole each of real gases CO2, O2 and He are kept
in three identical flask separately at 250 K. The
M M order of observed pressure is
(3) (4)
5 1
(1) PO2 >PHe> PCO2
81. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with one
mole of H2SO4 in a bomb calorimeter (2) PO2 =PHe= PCO2
(1) U <0, w=0
(3) PHe> PO2 > PCO2
(2) U <0, w<0
(3) (4) PCO2 >PHe> PO2
U >0, w=0
(4) U >0, w>0

9 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
87. The correct statement for orthoboric acid is 92. Which of the following form of ethane, has maxi-
(1) It behaves as a weak acid is water due to self mum torsional strain?
ionisation (1) Eclipsed
(2) It behaves as a weak lewis acid in H2O (2) Staggered
(3) Skew
(3) It has three dimensional structure due to H-
(4) All have equal torsional strain
bonding
(4) Both 2 and 3 93. BaO2(s) BaO(s)+O2(g), H =+ve

88. Given : In the above chemical reaction at equilibrium, the

pressure of O2 increases with
S+O2  SO2; ( H =–298.2)
(1) Increased mass of BaO
1
SO2+ O2  SO3; ( H =–98.2)
2 (2) Increased mass of BaO2
(3) Increase in temperature
SO3+H2O  H2SO4; ( H =–130.2)
(4) Increased mass of BaO2 and BaO both
H2+ 21 O2  H2O; ( H =–287.3) 94. pKa of CH3COOH is 4.74. The pH of solution ob-
Then enthalpy of formation of H2SO4 at 298 K is tained by mixing equal volume of 0.01 M of
CH3COOH and NaOH solution is
(1) –813.9 kJ
(1) 8.22
(2) –650.3 kJ
(2) 10.57
(3) +320.5 kJ
(3) 4.47
(4) – 433.7 kJ
(4) 8.87
89. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is
95. The formation of H2+, C2 and paramagnetic na-
(1) 3
ture of O2 can be best explained by
(2) 4
(1) Valence bond theory
(3) 2
(2) VSEPR theory
(4) 1
(3) Molecular orbital theory
90. Match the species in column-I with geometry/shape (4) Hybridisation
in column-II
96. Zn+2HCl  ZnCl2+H2
Column-I Column-II
The volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP, when
i. H3O+ a. Linear 10 g of Zn reacts with HCl is (at. wt. of Zn is 65)
ii. HC  CH b. Angular (1) 7.2 L
iii. CIO–2 c. Tetrahedral (2) 3.4 L
(3) 1.5 L
iv. NH4 d. Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) 2.0 L
e. Pyramidal
97. The hybridization of Al in an acidified aqueous so-
(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-d lution of aluminium chloride is
(2) i-e, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(1) sp3
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-e
(2) sp2
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(3) sp3d
91. On addition of ammonium hydroxide to H2S solu-
(4) sp3d2
tion
98. The oxidation numbers of each sulphur atom in
(1) S2– will precipitate
Na2S4O6 are
(2) concentration of S2– decreases
(3) concentration of S2– increases (1) +2 each
(4) no change occurs (2) +5,0,0,+5
(3) +2, 0, 0, +2
(4) +6, 0, 0, +6

10 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
99. A compound ‘X’ can be prepared by heating either 106. Which of the following is a vertebrate but not a
benzoic acid with soda lime or phenol with zinc Gnathostome?
dust. Then the compound X is (1) Myxine
(1) toluene (2) Amphioxus
(2) xylene (3) Scoliodon
(3) benzene (4) Calotes
(4) napthalene 107. The oxygen - haemoglobin dissociation curve will
100. In the following which one have zero dipole mo- show a right shift in case of
ment (1) High pCO2
(1) BF3 (2) High pO2
(2) CCl4 (3) Low pCO2
(3) BeCl2 (4) Less H+ conc.
(4) All of these
108. Which part of the brain controls respiration, car-
ZOOLOGY : SECTION-A diovascular reflexes and gastric secretion?
All questions are compulsory in section A (1) Diencephalon
101. The golgi apparatus is (2) Hypothalamus
(3) Medulla oblongata
(1) found only in animals
(4) Cerebellum
(2) non membranous in prokaryotes
(3) site of rapid energy production 109. The features common to aves and reptiles are
(4) modifies and packages the proteins (1) Skin dry without glands, Pneumatic bones
102. Which of the following is not a feature of Echino- (2) Homoiothermy, Pulmonary respiration
dermata? (3) Oviparous, Internal fertilisation
(1) Exclusively marine (4) Presence of scales, three chambered heart
(2) Excretory system absent 110. In all connective tissues, cells secrete fibres of col-
(3) Mouth on dorsal side and anus on ventral side lagen or elastin except

(4) Water vascular system (1) Areolar

(2) Dense irregular
103. Neurons with one axon and two or more dendrites
(3) Blood
are present in
(4) Dense regular
(1) Retina of eye
111. What is correct about inspiration?
(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Embryonic stages (1) Intrapulmonary pressure is more than atmo-
(4) Olfactory neurons spheric pressure

104. Select the incorrect option (2) Contraction of diaphragm increases thoracic
volume in dorso-ventral axis
(1) Choanocytes-Spongilla
(3) It is an active process
(2) Cnidoblast - Ctenoplana
(4) All of these
(3) Flame cells - Fasciola
112. At the end of prophase, one of the following struc-
(4) Parapodia - Nereis
ture is not visible
105. Elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous
(1) separated chromatids of the chromosomes
structure presents in the cytoplasm is collectively
(2) mitotic spindle
referred to as
(3) nuclear envelope
(1) ER
(4) condensed chromatin material
(2) cytoskeleton
(3) microtubules, microbodies
(4) both (1) and (2)

11 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
113. Which set of bones are single in human body? 120. The first enzyme that food comes in contact with
is
(1) Sternum, clavicle
(2) Scapula, Temporal (1) amylase
(3) Mandible, Femur (2) rennin
(4) Sternum, hyoid (3) pepsin
(4) lipase
114. Rate of diffusion of gases is dependent on
121. Which of the following hormones are secreted by
(1) thickness of diffusion surface
some tissues which are not endocrine glands?
(2) solubility of gases
(1) CCK, GIP
(3) partial pressure gardients of gases (2) GH, MSH
(4) all of these (3) ANF, ADH
115. Which of the following will not be affected if pari- (4) FSH, LH
etal cell secretion is blocked? 122. The plasma membrane consists mainly of
(1) Protein digestion
(1) Proteins embedded in oligosaccharide bilayer
(2) Vitamin B12 absorption
(2) Phsopholipids embedded in a cholesterol layer
(3) RBCs maturation
(3) Proteins embedded in phospholipid bilayer
(4) lubrication of mucosal epithelium
(4) Extrinsic proteins embedded in
116. What is not true for electric synapse?
phophoglyceride layers
(1) They are rare
(2) Transmission is very similar to conduction 123. Category of enzymes in lysosomal vesicles is
along a single nerve fibre (1) transferases & belong to class II
(3) Current can flow directly (2) hydrolases & belong to class III
(4) Synaptic cleft is always present (3) hydrolases & belong to class II
117. Which of the following region of nephron plays a (4) transferases & belong to class III
significant role in maintenance of high osmolarity 124. If a protein is imagined as a line, then the
of medullary interstitial fluid?
(1) left end represented by the first amino acid is
(1) PCT the C–terminal amino acid
(2) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(2) right end represented by the first amino acid
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is the C–terminal amino acid
(4) DCT (3) right end represented by the first amino acid
118. Which group of animals belong to the same phy- is the N–terminal amino acid
lum? (4) left end represented by the first amino acid is
(1) Prawn, scorpion the N–terminal amino acid
(2) Sponge, sea anemone 125. In the somatic cell cycle,
(3) Earthworm, Pinworm (1) in G1 phase, DNA content is double the
(4) Malarial parasite, Mosquito amount of DNA present in original cell
119. After dialysis, the cleared blood is pumped back to (2) histone and non histone proteins are synthe-
the body through ______ after adding ______ to it sized in S-phase
(1) artery, anti-heparin (3) a short interphase is followed by a long mi-
(2) vein, heparin totic phase
(3) vein, antiheparin (4) G2 phase is longest phase
(4) artery, heparin

12 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
126. Golgi apparatus remains in close association with 133. Which of the following statements is correct?
ER because (1) In anaphase I, homologous chromosomes
(1) materials in the form of vesicles from ER fuse separate while sister chromatids remain as-
with trans face of golgi apparatus sociated at their centromeres
(2) materials in the form of vesicles from ER fuse (2) Beginning of zygotene is recognised by disso-
with cis face of golgi apparatus lution of synaptonemal complex
(3) materials in the form of microsomes from ER (3) Recombination nodules, the site of crossing
fuse with trans face of golgi apparatus over appear during leptotene
(4) materials in the form of microsomes from ER (4) Telophase II produces a diad of cells
fuse with cis face of golgi apparatus 134. In the following diagram segments A and B repre-
127. Which of the following parts of alimentary canal sent areas of repolarisation and depolarisation re-
contains a finger like narrow tubular projection? spectively
(1) caecum
A B C
(2) colon +++———+++
(3) stomach ———+++———
(4) duodenum ———+++———
+++———+++
128. ATP binding site and active site for actin are lo-
cated What is the status of Na+ gated channels and K+
(1) in LMM and HMM respectively gated channels in A and B?
(2) in HMM and LMM respectively (1) Both are closed in both segments
(3) both in LMM unit of meromyosin (2) Na+ gates are closed in A and open in B
(4) both in globular head of the myosin monomer (3) K+ gates are closed in A and open in B
129. Prophase I is divided into substages based in chro- (4) Both 2 and 3 are correct
mosomal 135. Sensory organs like antennae, compound eyes and
statocyst are found in members of
(1) number
(2) behaviour (1) Annelida
(3) size (2) Arthropoda
(4) stains (3) Aschelminthes
(4) Platyhelminthes
130. Crossing over that results in genetic recombina-
tion in higher organisms occurs between ZOOLOGY : SECTION-B
(1) non-sister chromatids of two different biva- This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10
lent questions of them.
(2) sister chromatids of a bivalent 136. The four elements that make up most of all the
(3) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent elements found in living system are carbon, hydro-
gen,
(4) centromeres of homologous chromosomes
(1) oxygen and sulphur
131. The abdomen of cockroach is composed of
(2) oxygen and magnesium
(1) six segments (3) oxygen and nitrogen
(2) ten segments (4) phosphorus and sodium
(3) eleven segments
137. Wisdom teeth in human are
(4) twelve segments
(1) 3rd molars and 4 in number
132. An organic substance bound to an apoenzyme and
(2) 3rd molars and 2 in number
essential for its activity is called
(3) 2nd molars and 4 in number
(1) Holoenzyme (4) 2nd molars and 2 in number
(2) Co-enzyme
(3) Isoenzyme
(4) Proenzyme

13 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
138. Select the fish with placoid scale 145. Identify the following amino acid
(1) dog fish CH2OH
(2) flying fish NH2–CH–COOH
(3) magur (1) Cysteine
(4) fighting fish (2) Serine
139. Dry surface of our skin is covered by (3) Glycine
(4) Alanine
(1) Compound epithelium
(2) Simple columnar epithelium 146. Which among the following is oviparous animal with
mammary gland?
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium (1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Neophron
140. Which of the following group of hormones act by
(3) Aptenodytes
interacting with intracellular receptors?
(4) Balaenoptera
(1) Testosterone, thymosin
147. What would be the cardiac output of a person hav-
(2) Thyroxine, cortisol
ing 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke volume
(3) Melatonin, somatotropin
of 50 ml?
(4) Vasopressin, oxytocin
(1) 360 m
141. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
(2) 3600 mL
(1) Inter ventricular septum–Thick and fibrous (3) 7200 mL
(2) Complete double –Neophron, Pteropus (4) 5000 mL
circulation
148. Throughout life neurons remain in
(3) Pip-pip-peeeeee –Indicative of cardiac arrest
(1) G1 phase
(4) Tunica media of arteries –made up of smooth
(2) G0 phase
muscles and elastic fibres
(3) S-Phase
142. Which of the following is a flagellated protozoan?
(4) M-Phase
(1) Amoeba
149. If 100 ml of blood transports 4 ml of CO2 then
(2) Trypanosoma
CO2 transported by 1 litre of blood is approximately
(3) Paramecium
(4) Plasmodium (1) 40 ml
(2) 30 ml
143. Most abundant polymorphonucler leucocytes with
(3) 25ml
phagocytic role are
(4) 1 ml
(1) Monocytes
150. Nissl’s granules in a nerve cell are identified as
(2) Basophils
........
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Eosinophils (1) fat granules
(2) ribosomes+RER
144. Select the incorrect statement
(3) mitochondria
(1) The skull region articulates with the superior (4) cell metabolites
region of the vertebral column with the help
of two occipital condyles BOTANY : SECTION-A
(2) First vertebra is the atlas and it articulates All questions are compulsory in section A
with the occipital condyles 151. During photosynthesiss, first stable product formed
(3) A cup shaped bone called patella covers the in C4 plants is
knee ventrally (1) RUBP
(4) Vertebrochondral ribs are ventrally connected (2) PEP
to the sternum with the help of fibrous carti- (3) Citric acid
lage (4) OAA

14 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
152. Which is correct for plasmid? 160. Which of the following features are shown by China
(1) Linear ds DNA rose ?

(2) Circular ds RNA a. whorled phyllotaxy

(3) Circular ds DNA and extra chromosomal ge- b. reticulate venation

netic material c. twisted aestivation
(4) Linear ds RNA d. axile placentation
153. Which is the only unicellular fungi? e. monoadelphous androecium
(1) Penicillium (1) a, b, c
(2) Saccharomyces (2) a, c, d
(3) Agaricus
(3) a, b, e
(4) Neurospora
(4) b, c, d, e
154. The RQ value of germinating wheat seed is
161. In the figures, which one is the characteristic pla-
(1) 1
centation of Allium cepa?
(2) 0.7
(3) 0.85
(4) 1.33
155. Which of the following process is used in the con-
(1) (2)
version of pyruvate into acetyl Co-A?
(1) Oxidative decarboxylation
(2) Oxidative dehydration
(3) Oxidative hydrogenation
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) (4)
156. What is true w.r.t.lower fungi?
(1) have aquatic members only
(2) Only motile spores present 162. Heart wood
(3) Asexual reproduction absent (1) is dark in colour
(4) Mycelium is aseptate
(2) surrounds sapwood
157. The site of Krebs cycle in E.coli is (3) conducts water
(1) mitochondria (4) is not resistant to microbial attack
(2) cytoplasm 163. A thimble-like structure covering apex of the root
(3) mesosome is called
(4) chloroplast
(1) leaf primordia
158. Kingdom Protista acts as a link between the king-
(2) root cap
dom Monera and, the kingdom
(3) coleorhiza
(1) plantae
(2) fungi (4) coleoptile
(3) animalia 164. The external factors which effects photosynthesis
(4) all of these include the availability of
159. Secondary growth is absent in a. optimum temperature
a. leaf of maize b. CO2 concentration and water
b. leaf of sunflower c. sunlight
c. stem of wheat (1) both b & c
(1) a&b (2) both a & c
(2) b&c (3) a, b & c
(3) a, b & c (4) both a & b
(4) only c

15 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
165. Which one of the following is not a commercial 172. Which of the following is a haploid structure in a
bast fibre? Pinus seed ?
(1) jute (1) Megaspore
(2) flax (2) Embryo
(3) cotton
(3) Perisperm
(4) hemp
(4) Endosperm
166. Which part of the embryo is often fleshy and full
of reserve food? 173. Loading of phloem is related to

(1) endosperm (1) increase of sugar in phloem

(2) cotyledon (2) elongation of phloem cell

(3) embryonal axis (3) separation of phloem parenchyma

(4) seed coat (4) strengthening of phloem fibre

167. Macroelements generally are present in plant tis- 174. Fragmentation is not a common method of repro-
sues in concentrations of duction in

(1) above 10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter (1) Spirogyra

(2) less than 10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter (2) Protonema of moss
(3) less than 1 mmole kg–1 of dry matter (3) Diatoms
(4) above 1 mmole kg–1 of dry matter (4) Rhizopus

168. Which PGR induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes? 175. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Auxin (1) Antheridiophore is present in Funaria

(2) Gibberrelin (2) Spirogyra has flagellated male gametes
(3) Zeatin (3) Gymnosperms and some pteridophytes are
(4) Cytokinin heterosporous
169. Free carpels are found in (4) Prothallus is a free living gametophyte found
(1) mustard in mosses
(2) tomato 176. Identify A, B & C respectively
(3) rose
(4) tulip
170. By studing following features, identify the family
a. Bicarpellary superior ovary
a. b.
b. Persistent calyx with valvate aestivation
c. Epipetalous condition
d. Swollen placenta
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Brassicaceae
171. Which of the following phytohormone was discov- c.
ered by Cousins?
(1) Ethylene
(2) CK
(3) Gibberrelin (1) Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas, Chlorella
(4) Auxin (2) Spirogyra, Volvox, Chlamydomonas
(3) Ulothrix, Volvox, Chlamydomonas
(4) Chara, Chlorella, Volvox

16 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
177. Choose a group having taxa at the same rank 184. Identify the following type of life cycle
(1) Canidae, poaceae, primata Sporophyte
(2n)
(2) Panthera, mammals, wheat
(3) Sapindales, diptera, primata Zygote (2n) A
Gametogenesis
y
(4) Monocotyledonae, Insecta,chordata ga
m B

sis
n
Sy

eio
178. Which of the following is responsible for peat for-

M
(n)
mation ? (1) haplontic
(1) Sargassum (2) diplontic
(2) Sphagnum (3) haplodiplontic
(4) diplohaplontic
(3) Salvinia
185. What is false for monocot stem?
(4) Selaginella
(1) vascular bundles are scattered
179. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomical cat- (2) hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
egories? (3) arrangement of vessels is Y-shaped
(1) Species  Order  Phylum  Kingdom (4) phloem parenchyma is present

(2) Genus  Species  Order  Kingdom BOTANY : SECTION-B

(3) Species  Genus  Order  Phylum This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10
(4) Class  order  family  Phylum questions of them.

180. Slime mould 186. Pick the incorrect match

(1) are not saprophytic (1) Diener–viroid

(2) Woese–six kindom classification
(2) forms an aggregation during suitable condi-
tion (3) Stanley–crystallised virus

(3) have true cell wall in somatic phase (4) Beijerinek–prions

(4) produce fruiting bodies during favourable con- 187. Tendril climbers are seen in
ditions (1) Grapevines
181. Water and minerals, food in a plant are generally (2) Cucurbita
moved by (3) Pumpkin and watermelon
(4) all the above
(1) diffusion
188. The living mechanical tissue providing tensile
(2) active transport strength is
(3) imbibition (1) sclerenchyma
(4) mass flow (2) parenchyma
182. VAM is (3) collenchyma
(4) sclereid
(1) a mycorrhizal association
(2) a symbiotic association between algae & fungi 189. Which of the following organism is found in gut of
(3) a type of parasitism several ruminant animals?
(4) found in leaves of Cycas
(1) Halophiles
183. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(2) Methanogens
(1) Chlorophyll is present in bacteria
(3) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria show most extensive metabolic di- (4) Themoacidophiles
versity
(3) Cyanobacteria are the first organism show-
ing oxygenic photosynthesis
(4) All monerans have nucleoid

17 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021
 195. In Calvin cycle, for fixation of every CO2 molecule
1
190. How much time it will take a cup to fill th of the require
4
(1) 1ATP and 2 NADPH
cup if full cup is filled in 2 hours and rate of binary
(2) 2ATPs and 2 NADH
fission of bacteria is 15 minutes?
(3) 3ATPs and 2 NADPH
(1) 60 minutes
(4) 5 ATPs and 2 NADPH
(2) 90 minutes
196. Pneumatophores are modified
(3) 120 minutes
(4) 40 minutes (1) stem
(2) roots
191. Correct statements about plastids are
(3) leaf blades
a. Amyloplasts store carbohdrates
(4) rhizomes
b. Lipidoplast is also known as elaioplast
197. Match the essential nutrient element in column I
c. Chromoplast gives bright colours to flowers with its function in column II.
and fruit and helps in pollination and dispersal
Column I Column II
d. Leucoplast is coloured pigment & present in
a. Sulphur p. synthesis of auxin
maize
b. Iron q. main constituent of several
(1) a,b, c
coenzymes, vitamins
(2) b, c, d
(3) c, d c. Manganese r. splitting of water to liberate
(4) a, b, d O2 during photosynthesis
192. Which is of the following bacterium is involved in d. Zinc s. formation of chlorophyll
nitrification?
(1) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q
(1) Nitrococcus (2) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p
(2) Pseudomonas (3) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
(3) Azolla (4) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(4) Rhizobium
198. PS-I is involved in
193. Choose the correct option w.r.t. rules of nomen-
(1) cyclic photophosphorylation
clature
(2) photorespiration
(1) Mangifera Indica (3) flowering
(2) mangifera Indica (4) biomagnification
(3) Mangifera indica
199. Differentiation in plants is open as
(4) Mangifera Indica
(1) meristems keep on adding new derivatives
194. Match the entries in column I with entries in col-
umn II (2) cells / tissues arising out of same meristem
have different structures at maturity
Column I Column II
(3) cells are always positioned at periphery
a. growing on dung p. conidia
(4) all the above.
b. branched and septate q. coprophilous
200. Which of the following is a lichen?
c. asexual spores r. mycelium
(1) Reindeer moss
(1) a-r, b-p, c-q
(2) Club moss
(2) a-q, b-r, c-p
(3) a-p, b-r, c-q (3) Irish moss
(4) a-r, b-p, c-q (4) Peat or bog moss

18 XI full syllabus-5/Phase-III/Helix-2021