NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:

Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

3 The winding of a very long solenoid is cut near its centre

PHYSICS and the two parts (I, II) are connected such that current i
1 The permanent magnet, shown in the figure, is kept enters the left-part of the solenoid and emerges (from I); and
similarly a current i (equal in magnitude) enters the right-part
parallel to the lower solenoid AB, but it is moved away from
and leaves through the centre (II). The number of turns per
it. Then, the ends A, B of the solenoid become, respectively:
unit length is n. The field at the centre O, is:

μ0 ni
1. μ0 ni 2.
2

1. N , S poles 3. μ0 ni (
1
) 4. शून्य
2. S, N poles √2

3. N , N poles
4. S, S poles A small magnet is allowed to fall through a fixed
4 M

An AC voltage is applied between & The peak horizontal conducting ring R. Let g represent the acceleration
2 P Q.
due to gravity. The acceleration of magnet M is described as
currents flowing through R & R are in the ratio
1 2
follows:
i.e., i peak /i peak =
1( ) 2( )

(A) < g when M is above R and moving towards it.

(B) > g when M is above R and moving towards it.
(C) < g when M is below R and moving away from it.
R1
(D) > g when M is below R and moving away from ​it.
1
1. 2. Choose the correct option from the options given below:
R2

R2 R2 + L
1. (A) and (C) only
3. 4. 2. (A) and (B) only
R1 R1 + L

3. (B) and (D) only

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

Page: 1
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

5 Given below are two statements: 8 The given network is part of a complete circuit. At a
Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for certain instant, the current is 3 A and is increasing at a rate of
the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal 200 A/s. The potential difference between points A and B
Statement I:
current element (I dl) of a current-carrying (V − V ) is:
A B

conductor only.
Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's
inverse square law of charge q, with the former
Statement II: being related to the field produced by a scalar
1. −3 V 2. 6V
source, (I dl) while the latter being produced
by a vector source, q. 3. −5 V 4. 15 V

9 In an AC circuit, the voltage and current are given by:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. V = 100 sin(100t) volts &
π
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. I = 100 sin (100t + ) milliamperes (mA)
3
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. The average power dissipated per cycle in the circuit is:
1. 10 watts
4
2. 10 watts

6 In the given scenario, the voltage, V2 > V1 , and no

3. 2.5 watts 4. 5 watts
current flow through the source on the left. The phase
difference between the two sources is ϕ. 10 The variation of an alternating current; I = I0 sin(ωt)

with time (t) is shown in the figure below. The average value
of the current for the half-cycle will be:

Which of the following expressions correctly relates ϕ?

1 1
1. R sin ϕ = 2. R cos ϕ =
ωC ωC

1 1 I0 I0
3. R tan ϕ = 4. R cot ϕ = 1. 2.
ωC ωC π 2

2I0 I0

In Column-I, we mention different types of materials 3. 4.

7 π 2π

and in Column-II, we indicate their relative permeabilities.

Match the correct type of material with the proper
permeability.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Paramagnetic material (I) μ < 1 r

(B) Diamagnetic material (II) μr > 1

Ferromagnetic material, with domains

(C) (III) μ ≫ 1
orienting in the same direction r

An equimolar mixture of two

(D) substances: one paramagnetic & the (IV) μ r = 0

other diamagnetic

1. - - -
A III, B II, C I, D IV -
2. - - - -
A III, B I, C II, D IV

3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-II

Page: 2
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

11 In Column-I are certain quantities which are 13 In the given figure, a series LCR circuit is shown with
combinations of the following: the following parameters:
C - capacitance, B - magnetic field, L - inductance, l - length, V = 200 volts, ω = 100 rad/s, X
0 = 100 Ω,
L

v - velocity. X C = 100 Ω and R = 100 Ω.

In Column-II are SI units of the quantities in Column-I, but (symbols have their usual meanings)
in a different order. Match them.
Column-I Column-II
(A) CBlv (I) kg
(B) CB l
2 2
(II) A
2
Bl
(C) (III) N
L
2 3
B l
(D) (IV) C (coulomb)
L

1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III What will be the amplitude of the current in the circuit?
3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 1. 1 A
2. 2 A
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. 3 A
→ a wire in the 4. 4 A
12 In a uniform magnetic field of induction B,
form of a closed semicircle AOCA of radius r rotates about 14 Two short identical bar-magnets are placed on the x-axis
the diametre of the circle with angular frequency ω as shown
at x = +1 and −1, with their magnetic axes along the +x
in the figure. The axis of rotation is perpendicular to the
direction. The x-component of the magnetic field is plotted as
magnetic field. If the total resistance of the circuit is R, the
one moves along the y-axis.
mean power generated for the period of rotation is:

Which one is the correct graph?

2 2 2
Bπr ω (Bπr ω)
1. 2. 1. 2.
2R 8R
2 2 2
(Bπrω) (Bπrω )
3. 4.
2R 8R

3. 4.

Page: 3
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

15 An alternating current (AC) flowing in a circuit cannot 20 The mutual inductance between two small coplanar
be measured by a DC-ammeter because: circuits of areas A1 , A2 placed a very large distance r apart is
The average value of the current over a complete cycle is (nearly):
1.
zero.
2. AC does not change its direction after a fixed time interval.
3. AC can damage the ammeter.
4. AC is more dangerous than DC.

16 A circular coil of radius r carries a current i and is placed μ0 √A 1 A 2 μ0 A1 A2

1. 2.
2
r 4π r
in a uniform magnetic field B, with its plane parallel to the 4π

μ0 μ0
field. The magnitude of the torque acting on the coil is: 3.
2A1 A2
4.
A1 A2

1. zero 4π r
3
4π r
3

2. 2πriB
3. πr iB
2
21 Given below are two statements:
4. 2πr iB2

The magnetic field due to a very long current-

carrying solenoid, at its centre, is inversely
17 Given below are two statements: Statement I:
proportional to the radius of the solenoid, other
The self-inductance of a very long solenoid of things remaining constant.
Assertion (A): fixed length is proportional to the square of The magnetic energy stored in a solenoid
the total number of turns. Statement II: carrying a current I is directly proportional to
The field within the solenoid is proportional
2
I .

to the number of turns (length being

Reason (R):
constant), and the linked flux is the core flux 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
multiplied by the number of turns again. 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Magnetic field at the centre O due to the wire consisting
2.
explanation of (A).
22
of two semi-infinite straight sections joined smoothly to a
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
semi-circular wire of radius r (centre O) is:
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

18 A non-ideal coil, a capacitor, and an AC-source of RMS

voltage 24 V are connected in series. By varying the
frequency of the source, a maximum RMS current of 6 A is
observed. If the coil is connected to a DC-battery of EMF
12 V and internal resistance 2 Ω, the current in it in steady-

state will be:

1. 1 A
2. 1.5 A
3. 2 A
4. 2.4 A μ0 i μ0 i
1. (1 + 2π) 2. (2 + 2π)
4πr 4πr

19 Eddy currents are effectively utilized in which of the μ0 i μ0 i π

3. (2 + π) 4. (1 + )
following devices? 4πr 4πr 2

1. Transformer
2. Electromagnet
3. Induction furnace
4. Electric motor

Page: 4
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

23 A square loop enters into a magnetic field with a constant 27 Two long parallel wires, separated by a distance of 4 cm,
velocity v, as shown in the figure. The front edge of the loop carry currents of 2 A and 6 A in the same direction. The force
enters the magnetic field at t = 0. Which of the following per metre of wire length acting between the wires is:
graphs correctly represents the variation of the induced EMF, 1. 4 × 10 N/m −5
2. 6 × 10 N/m −5

E in the loop over time t, given its constant velocity in the

3. 6 × 10
−6
N/m 4. 6 × 10
−4
N/m
magnetic field?
(consider anticlockwise current as negative and clockwise
28 Two circuits are placed close to each other: the first
current as positive)
circuit (A) carries a current i changing with time while the
A

second circuit (B) is kept closed with a resistance R in B

it. The induced EMF in the circuit (B) is due to:

1. self-inductance of the circuits
2. mutual inductance of the circuits
3. magnetic force between the circuits
4. electromagnetic waves between the circuits

1. 2. A straight conductor of length m, placed along the z-

29 6

axis, begins to move along the positive x-axis with a velocity

of 5 m/s in a magnetic field B → = (0.2^i + 0.1^j) T. The
induced EMF across the conductor is:
1. 6 V
3. 4. 2. 3 V
3. 1 V
4. 5 V

30
2

The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is: A steel bar magnet has a magnetic moment of A-m
24 2.5

1. negative and a mass of 6.6 × 10 kg. If the density of the material is

−2

6.6 × 10 kg-m , the intensity of magnetisation of the

−3
2. zero 3

3. positive magnet is:

4. infinity 1. 2.5 × 10 A-m
5 −1

2. 2.5 × 10 A-m
−5 −1

25 A moving coil galvanometer with a resistance of 50 Ω

3. 1.25 × 10 A-m5 −1

shows full deflection at a current of 4 mA. When this −1

4. 1.25 × 10 A-m−5

galvanometer is used to construct a voltmeter with a series

resistance of 5 kΩ, the maximum voltage that can be
measured by the voltmeter is close to:
1. 40 V 2. 10 V

3. 15 V 4. 20 V

26 A thin spherical shell of mass m and radius R, carries a

charge q distributed uniformly on its surface. The sphere
rotates with a constant angular speed ω, about a diameter. The
magnetic moment of the sphere is:
1 2
1. 2
qR ω 2. 2
qR ω
3 3

3 2
3. 2
qR ω 4. 2
qR ω
4 5

Page: 5
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

31 A charged particle of charge q projected parallel to an 34 A uniformly charged circular disc of radius R, carries a
infinitely long current-carrying wire (current: i) moves in a total charge q. It is set rotating with a constant angular speed
curved path whose (instantaneous) centre lies on the wire ω, about its axis. A magnetic field, B is setup due to the

itself. The momentum of the particle is: motion of the charges. The integral: ∫ B. → d→l evaluated along
the axis from the centre O to infinity equals:

μ0 iq πqi
1. 2.
2 μ0

2πiq μ0 iq
3. 4.
μ0 2π
μ0 qω μ0 qω
1. 2.
32 A circular ring is placed in a magnetic field of 0.4 T. 2π 4π
μ0 qω μ0 qω
Suddenly its radius starts shrinking at the rate of 1 mm/s. 3. 4. √2
8π 4π
What will be the induced EMF in the ring at r = 2 cm?
1. 16π μV A conductor carries a current i in a magnetic field
2. 8π μV
35 (AB)

→ Let r→ represent the vector from point to point (length

3. 16π mV B. A B
−
−→
4. 8π mV and direction of the conductor i.e., AB = r→). The force on the
conductor is F→. Which of the following statements are true?
33 The value of unknown resistance R for which 20% of the
(A) F→ does not depend on the shape of the conductor AB
main current passes through a galvanometer of resistance
(B) F→ = i(r→ × B)
→
80

Ω is:

(C) F→ = i(B→ × r→)

(D) |F→| = i(r→. B)
→

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (D) only
1. 10 Ω 2. 20 Ω
4. (B), (C) and (D) only
3. 30 Ω 4. 40 Ω

36 In an apparatus, the electric field was found to oscillate

with an amplitude of 18 Vm The magnitude of the

−1
.

oscillating magnetic field will be:

1. 4 × 10 T
−6

2. 6 × 10 T
−8

3. 9 × 10 T
−9

4. 11 × 10 −11
T

Page: 6
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

37 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 40 The characteristics of two coils are given below:
battery through a resistor. If i is the current in the circuit, then Coil-A Coil-B
in the gap between the plates: Radius rA = 10 cm rA = 20 cm
A displacement current of magnitude equal to i flows in the Number of turns
1. NA NB
same direction as i.
Current I ampere I ampere B
A displacement current of magnitude equal to i flows in the
A

2. If the magnetic moments of both Coil-A and Coil-B are equal,

opposite direction to i.
choose the correct relation:
A displacement current of magnitude greater than i flows 1. 2N I = N I
3. A A B B
but it can be in any direction. 2. N I = N I
A A B B

4. There is no current. 3. N I = 4N I
A A B B

4. N I = 2N I
A A B B

38 A current I is flowing through a wire loop as shown in

the figure. Point P is located at the centre of the loop. Based on the information provided below, answer the
questions (41-43).
A transformer with N = 100 (primary turns) and N = 10
p s

(secondary turns) is connected in a circuit with a 1 Ω – load in

the secondary. The currents flowing through the primary and
secondary are i & i . Assume that the transformer is ideal.
p s

What is the direction of the magnetic field at the point P ?

1. out of the page
2. into the page
3. to the right
4. to the left

A series circuit is connected to an AC-source with 41 If a voltage of V (rms) is applied across the
39
1000
LCR

the parameters: L = 5 H, C = 80 μF and R = 40 Ω. The primary, what will be the rms voltage across the secondary?
source frequency that drives the circuit into resonance will be: 1. 100 V
25 50 2. 100√2 V
1. Hz 2. Hz 3. 10 V
4
π π

100 200 4. 10 √2 V
4

3. Hz 4. Hz
π π

42 The ratio of the currents i p /is (using the peak values) is:
1. 10 2. 100

1 1
3. 4.
10 100

43 The ratio of the primary rms voltage to the primary rms

current equals:
1. 10 Ω 2. 100 Ω

1 1
3. Ω 4. Ω
10 100

Page: 7
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

44 The speed of an electromagnetic wave propagating 48 Match the electronic configurations in List-I with the
through a medium with a dielectric constant of 2.25 and a metal complex ions in List-II and choose the correct option:
relative permeability of 4 is: [Atomic Number: Fe = 26, Mn = 25, Co = 27]
1. 0.5 × 10 m/s 8
List-I List-II
2. 0.25 × 10 m/s 8
(Electronic configurations) (Metal complex ions)
3. 0.75 × 10 m/s 8
(P) t
6
eg
0
(i) [Fe(H2 O) ]
2+

2 g 6
4. 1 × 10 m/s
8

(Q) (ii)
3 2 2+
t eg [Mn(H2 O) ]
2 g 6

45 An electric current I flows through a long straight wire. (R) e t

2 3
(iii) [Co(NH3 ) ]
3+

2 6

The magnetic field at a radial distance of 10 cm from the wire (S) t

4
eg
2
(iv) [FeCl4 ]
−

is B. The magnetic field at a radial distance of 30 cm will be: 2 g

B (v) [CoCl4 ]
2−

1. 3B 2. Codes:
√3

B B
1. P → (i); Q → (iv); R → (ii); S →(iii)
3. 4. 2. P → (i); Q → (ii); R → (iv); S → (v)
3 9
3. P → (iii); Q → (ii); R → (v) ; S → (i)
4. P → (iii); Q → (ii); R → (iv); S → (i)
CHEMISTRY 49 Which of the following pairs consists of transition metal
46 Given below are two statements: ions that are colourless?
In group 14, a significant increase in covalent 1. Sc , Zn 3+ 2+
2. Ti
4+
, Cu
2+

radius is observed from carbon to silicon and 3. 2+ 3+

4. 2+ 2+

Statement I: V , Ti Zn , Mn
thereafter, a small increase in covalent radius
is observed from silicon to germanium. Match the coordination complexes in List-I with their
50
A considerable difference in the values of
corresponding hybridisation in List-II and mark the correct
Statement II: electronegativity from silicon to lead is
option:
observed.
List-I (Coordination List-II (Hybridisation of
complexes) central atoms)
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(A) [PtCl 4]
2−
(I) sp d
3

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (B) BrF 5 (II) d sp
2 3

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (C) PCl 5 (III) dsp 2

(D) [Co(NH (IV) sp

3+
3 2
3 )6 ] d

47 What is the reagent used to identify Group 1 basic Codes:

radicals? 1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
1. dil. HCl 2. conc. H 2
SO4
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3. HNO 3
4. H S2 4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Page: 8
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

51 Which of the following statements about dinitrogen is 57 Which of the following pairs of ions of lanthanoids
correct? corresponds to half-filled and completely filled 'f' orbitals
1. N2 is paramagnetic in nature. respectively, based on their electronic configurations? [Given:
2. N₂ can combine with dioxygen at 25°C. Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]
3. Liquid N₂ is not used in cryosurgery. 1. Eu and Tm 2+ 2+

4. N₂ can be used as an inert diluent for reactive chemicals. 2. Sm and Tm 2+ 3+

3. Tb and Yb 4+ 2+

52 Chalcogen group elements are: 4. Dy and Yb 3+ 3+

1. O, T i and P o
58 The correct decreasing order of positive electron gain
2. Se, T e and P o
3. Se, T b and P u enthalpy for the following inert gases is:
4. S, T e and P m He, Ne, Kr, Xe
1. He > Ne > Kr > Xe
53 Consider the given two statements: 2. He > Ne > Xe > Kr
3. He > Xe > Ne > Kr
Assertion
(A): Sn4+ ion is more stable than Sn+2. 4. Ne > Kr > Xe > He

The inert pair effect dominates down the Which compound is responsible for the green flame in
Reason (R):
groups.
59
the Borate ion test?
Options:
1. (CH ) BO
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3 3 3

1. 2. (C H ) BO
explanation of (A). 2 5
3
3

3. H BO
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
3 3

2. 4. (C H ) BO
explanation of (A).
2 5 3 4

3. (A) is True but (R) is False. What is the correct order of the oxidation state of the
60
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
phosphorus atom in
H P O , H P O , H P O and H P O ?
54 Arrange the following elements in decreasing order of 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 6

1. H P O > H P O > H P O > H P O

3 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 6

their catenation property: 2. H P O > H P O > H P O > H P O

3 4 3 2 3 3 4 2 6

1. C > Sn > Si ≈ Ge 3. H P O > H P O > H P O > H P O

3 4 4 2 6 3 3 3 2

2. C > Si > Ge ≈ Sn 4. H P O > H P O > H P O > H P O

3 2 3 3 4 2 6 3 4

3. Si > Sn > C > Ge

4. Ge > Sn > Si > C 61 How many f electrons are present in the ground-state
electronic configuration of Np (Z = 93)?
55 Which oxidation states are typically exhibited by Group
1. 18 2. 14
13 elements? 3. 4 4. 21
1. +1 and +3
2. +1, +2 and +3 The electronic configuration of Platinum (atomic
3. +2, +3 and +4 62
4. +1 and +4 number: 78) is:
1. [Xe]4f 5d 14 9
6s
1
2. [Kr]4f
14
5d
10

56 Which indicator is used and what is the color change at 3. [Xe]4f

14
5d
10
4. [Xe]4f
14
5d 6s
8 2

the endpoint in oxalic acid-sodium hydroxide titration?

1. Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow
2. Alkaline KMnO , colourless to pink
4

3. Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink

4. Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour

Page: 9
 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

63 Match the items given in List-I with those in List-II and 68 Mark the correct option where each complex in
select the correct option given below: Set-I shows geometrical isomerism, and the two complexes in
List-I List-II Set-II are ionization isomers of one another.
(Test/reagent) (Radical identified) [en = H N CH CH N H ]
2 2 2 2

A. Lake Test I. NO
−
Set-I: [Ni(CO) ] and [PdCl (PPh ) ]
1.
4 2 3 2
3

B. Nessler's Reagent II. Fe

3+ Set-II: [Co(NH ) Cl]SO and [Co(NH ) (SO )]Cl
3 5 4 3 5 4

C. Potassium sulpho cyanide III. 3+ Set-I: [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl2 ] and [PdCl2 (PPh3 )2 ]
Al
2.
D. Brown Ring Test IV. NH
+ Set-II: [Co(NH3 )6 ][Cr(CN)6 ] and [Cr(NH3 )6 ][Co(CN)6 ]
4

Options: Set-I: [Co(NH3 )3 (NO2 )3 ] and [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]

3.
1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Set-II: [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3 )5 (SO4 )]Cl

2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I Set-I: [Cr(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 and [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl2 ]

3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4.

Set-II: [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl3 and [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl]Cl2 . H2 O
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
In a neutral or a faintly alkaline solution, MnO oxidises
−

64 How many interhalogens among those given below have 69 4

thiosulphate to :
a square pyramidal structure?
1. S O
2−
2 7
ClF3 , IF7 , BrF5 , BrF3 , I2 Cl6 , IF5 , CIF, ClF5

1. 3 2. 5 2. S O
2
2−

3. 2 4. 4 3. SO 2−

4. SO
2−

65 Consider the given two statements:

70 Which of the following is not a polydentate ligand?
Assertion (A): H2S is less acidic than H2Te.
1. Oxalate
Reason (R): H-S bond has more Δ bond
Ho than H-Te bond. 2. Ethylenediamine
Options: 3. Thiocyanate
1. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4. EDTA
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. What are the characteristics of the crystals obtained after
explanation of (A). 71
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. crystallization during the synthesis of acetanilide from aniline​​
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct ?
4. 1. Yellow and irregularly shaped
explanation of (A).
2. White and needle-shaped
Which of the following metal in the 3d transition metal 3. Blue and spherical
66 4. Red and cubic
series possesses the highest M
2+
/M standard electrode
potential? Which of the following does not show optical activity?
72
1. Chromium (Cr)
2. Iron (Fe) 1. [Co(N H ) Cl ] 3 4 2

3. Copper (Cu) 2. [Cr(ox) ] 3

3−

4. Zinc (Zn) 3. [Cr(ox) (N H ) ]Cl 2 3 2

4. [Co(en)(N H ) (H O) 3 2 2 2 ]Cl2

67 What is the correct order of absorption energy for the

following metal complexes?
2+ 2+ 2+
A : [Ni(en)3 ] , B : [Ni(NH3 ) ] , C : [Ni(H2 O) ]
6 6

1. C < B < A
2. B < C < A
3. C < A < B
4. A < C < B

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

73 What is the correct order of melting points for hydrides 77 The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid
in Group 16? elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to deviate
1. H S < H Se < H T e < H O
2 2 2 2 easily from +3 oxidation state?
2. H O < H S < H Se < H T e
2 2 2 2 1. Ce(At. No. 58)
3. H S < H T e < H Se < H O
2 2 2 2 2. La(At. No. 57)
4. H Se < H S < H T e < H O
2 2 2 2 3. Lu(At. No. 71)
4. Gd(At. No. 64)
74 Match the anion radicals given in List I with the
corresponding characteristics in List II and select the correct 78 Given below are two statements:
option given below: The pentavalent oxide of group 15 element,
List-I List-II Statement I: E O , is less acidic than the trivalent oxide,
2 5

(Anions) (Gas evolved on reaction with dil H2SO4) E O , of the same element.
2 3

Colourless gas that turns lead acetate paper The acidic character of trivalent oxide of group
A. CO 2−
I. Statement II:
3
black. 15 elements, E O , decreases down the group.
2 3

Colourless gas that turns acidified potassium

B. SO 2−
II.
dichromate solution green. 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
Brown fumes that turn acidified KI solution 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
C. SO 2−
III.
3
containing starch blue. 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Colourless gas evolved with brisk 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
D. NO −
IV.
2
effervescence, which turns lime water milky.
Codes: How many oxygen atoms are bonded to each phosphorus
1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
79
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III atom in P4O10?
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 1. 2
4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 2. 3
3. 4
75 What is the correct descending order of boiling points for 4. 5
the halogens?
1. I > Br > Cl > F2 2. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 80 What is the spin magnetic moment of iron in the
2 2 2

3. Cl > I > Br
2 2 2 > F2 4. Br2 > F2 > Cl2 > I2 complex K 3 [F e(CN )6 ] ?
1. √24 BM
76 Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic 2. √5 BM
qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number 3. √15 BM
from I to VI. 4. √3 BM
A. Al3+
81 Match the metals Column-I with the coordination
B. Cu2+
compound(s)/enzyme(s) Column-II and mark the correct
C. Ba2+
option:
D. Co2+ Column-I Column-II
E. Mg2+ (Metal) (Coordination compound/enzyme)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below (A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst
1. B, C, A, D, E
(B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll
2. E, C, D, B, A
3. E, A, B, C, D (C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B 12

4. B, A, D, C, E (D) M g (iv) Carbonic anhydrase

1. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

2. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
3. (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)
4. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

82 Which of the following graph is the correct 85 Which of the following statements are correct?
representation between atomic number (Z) and magnetic (A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar]3d 4s .
5 1

moment of d-block elements? The magnetic quantum number may have a negative
[Outer electronic configuration : (n-1)dxns1 or 2] (B)
value.
In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in
(C)
order of their increasing energies.
(D) The total number of nodes is given by n– 2.
1. 2. Codes:
1. (A), (C) and (D) only 2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (C) only 4. (A), (B), and (C) only

86 Match Compound/element in Column-I with uses in

Column-II and select the best match from the codes given:
3. 4. Column-I Column-II
(Compound/element) (Uses)
A. Lanthanoid oxide I. Petroleum cracking
B. Lanthanoid II. Television screen
Given below are two statements : Lanthanoid metal
83 C. Mischmetal III.
+ iron
Mixed oxides of lanthanoids are Production of iron
3+
[Co(NH3 ) ] is a homoleptic complex,
6
D. IV.
Statement I: whereas [Co(N H ) Cl ] is a heteroleptic
3 4 2
+ employed alloy
complex.
Complex [Co(N H ) ] has only one kind of
3 6
3+ Options: A B C D
Statement II: ligand but [Co(N H ) Cl ] has more than
3 4 2
+
1. II I IV III
one kind of ligands. 2. I II III IV
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer 3. II IV III I
from the options given below: 4. IV I III II
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False. Identify the correct structure of EDTA:
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is True.
87
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
1.
84 What are the values of crystal field stabilization energy
(CFSE) for a high-spin d 6
metal ion in octahedral and
tetrahedral fields, respectively?
1. −0.4 Δ and −0.6 Δ 2.
o t

2. −2.4 Δ and −0.6 Δ

o t

3. −1.6 Δ and −0.4 Δ

o t

4. −0.4 Δ and −0.27 Δ

o t
3.

4.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
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88 How many Mn = O (manganese-oxygen double bonds) 93 In a plant cross involving two linked genes A and B, 18%
bonds are present in the compound Mn 2 O7 ? of the gametes were recombinant. What is the map distance
1. 4 between the two genes?
2. 5 1. 9 cM 2. 18 cM
3. 6 3. 36 cM 4. 72 cM
4. 3
94 Consider the given two statements:
89 What is the IUPAC name for the complex
RNA was the first genetic material capable of
K2 [N i(CN )4 ]? Statement I:
both catalysis and genetic information storage.
1. Tetrapotassiumtetracyanonickelate (0)
2. Potassiumtetracyanonickel (0) DNA evolved from RNA because it is
3. Potassiumtetracyanonickelate (II) chemically more stable and resistant to
Statement II:
4. Tetrapotassiumtetracyanonickel (0) changes, allowing it to store genetic
information more reliably.
90 Mark the reaction that is incorrect regarding the
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
confirmatory test for acetate ion:
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
1.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

95 In DNA, the complementary base pairing involves:

2.
Adenine pairing with cytosine and guanine pairing with
1.
thymine.
Adenine pairing with thymine via two hydrogen bonds and
2.
3. guanine pairing with cytosine via three hydrogen bonds.
Thymine pairing with cytosine and adenine pairing with
3.
guanine.
Purines pairing with purines and pyrimidines pairing with
4.
4. pyrimidines.

96 Consider the given two statements:

S.L. Miller's experiment provided
Assertion (A): experimental support for the hypothesis of
BIOLOGY chemical evolution.
Alfred Sturtevant, Morgan’s student, used recombination Miller created conditions simulating early
91 Reason (R): Earth and observed the formation of all
frequencies to: essential amino acids.
1. Demonstrate the law of segregation
2. Show that recombination is absent in sex-linked genes Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
3. Prove that genes assort independently explanation of (A).
Construct genetic maps showing the order of genes on Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4. 2.
chromosomes explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
92 Which of the following best describes aneuploidy?
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
The gain or loss of one or more chromosomes from the
1.
normal chromosome number.
2. The addition of a complete extra set of chromosomes.
3. The inheritance of only maternal chromosomes.
4. The exchange of segments between two chromosomes.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

97 The Big Bang theory proposes the origin of the universe, 101 In DNA replication, why is one strand synthesized
but which of the following accurately describes the sequence continuously and the other discontinuously?
of events that led to the formation of the first galaxies? DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 3'→5'
1.
A huge explosion, expansion, formation of Hydrogen and direction.
1.
Helium, condensation under gravity, formation of galaxies. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 5'→3'
2.
Formation of stars, cooling of matter, creation of gases, and direction.
2.
formation of planets. 3. The leading strand is more reactive than the lagging strand.
A singular explosion, formation of water and carbon The lagging strand contains fewer base pairs than the
3. dioxide, development of galaxies, and creation of life on 4.
leading strand.
Earth.
Explosion of stars leading to cooling, condensation of 102 In eukaryotic cells, histones are:
4.
gases, and formation of planets.
Negatively charged proteins rich in glutamic acid and
1.
Consider the given two statements: aspartic acid.
98 2. Neutral proteins responsible for transcription.
Mutation can lead to variation in a population 3. Positively charged proteins rich in lysine and arginine.
Assertion (A):
and drive evolutionary changes.
4. Positively charged proteins rich in glycine and proline.
Mutations are always directional and result in
Reason (R):
advantageous traits that improve survival. Which of the following explains why frameshift
103
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct mutations are often more harmful than point mutations?
1. 1. Frameshift mutations alter only one amino acid.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Frameshift mutations can change every amino acid
2. 2.
explanation of (A). downstream of the mutation.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Frameshift mutations result in only minor changes to the
3.
polypeptide sequence.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. Frameshift mutations occur only at the stop codon.
99 What is the significance of polymorphisms in non-coding
104 What will be the amino acid sequence translated from
regions of DNA?
1. They always code for proteins. the mRNA sequence: 5'-AUG UUU UUC-3'?
1. Met-Ser-Phe
2. They lead to mutations in protein-coding genes.
2. Met-Phe-Phe
They accumulate over generations and increase genetic 3. Leu-Phe-Val
3.
variability. 4. Phe-Phe-Ser
4. They prevent DNA replication.
105 Which statement best explains the central dogma of
100 How many types of gametes will a plant with the
molecular biology?
genotype AaBbCc produce, assuming independent 1. Genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to protein.
assortment? 2. Genetic information flows from RNA to DNA to protein.
1. 2
Protein synthesis occurs directly from DNA without RNA
2. 4 3.
intermediates.
3. 6
4. 8 4. RNA and DNA are synthesized simultaneously.

106 The promoter region in a transcription unit is important

because it:
1. Determines the sequence of amino acids in the protein.
2. Initiates the synthesis of mRNA by RNA polymerase.
3. Provides stability to the mRNA molecule.
4. Determines the location of the start codon.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
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107 A dihybrid plant with genotype AaBb is test-crossed 112 Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfill
with a plant of genotype aabb. What proportion of the to act as a genetic material?
offspring would show the phenotype A-B-? Ability to replicate, chemical stability, potential for
1. 1/2 1.
mutation, and expression of Mendelian characters.
2. 1/4 Capacity to generate energy, chemical instability, and rapid
3. 1/8 2.
mutation.
4. 1/16
Ability to replicate, inability to mutate, and expression of
3.
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of acquired traits.
108 Rapid structural changes, chemical reactivity, and
Mendelian traits? 4.
expression in non-heritable forms.
They are controlled by multiple genes and influenced by
1.
the environment. Consider the given two statements:
113
2. They are always X-linked traits.
In a typical test cross, an organism showing a
They follow predictable patterns of inheritance based on
3. Assertion dominant phenotype (and whose genotype is to
dominant and recessive alleles.
(A): be determined) is crossed with the organism
4. They are inherited through the mitochondrial DNA. showing recessive phenotype.
There is no need to carry out a test cross to
109 Which of the following accurately distinguishes DNA Reason
determine the genotype of an organism showing
(R):
from RNA? the recessive phenotype.
1. DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine.
DNA is more chemically stable due to the absence of the Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
2. 2'-OH group, while RNA contains the reactive 2'-OH explanation of (A).
group. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
RNA is the predominant genetic material in all living explanation of (A).
3.
organisms. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. DNA can directly synthesize proteins without RNA. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

110 Match each item in Column-I with one item in 114 Consider the given two statements:
Column-II and select the best match from the codes given: Assertion The law of independent assortment does not
Column-I Column-II (A): apply to genes located on the same chromosome.
A. Dihybrid test cross ratio P. 1:1:1:1 Reason Linked genes are inherited together unless
B. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross Q. 9:3:3:1 (R): crossing over occurs.
C. Dominant allele R. Yellow seed color
D. Recessive allele S. Green seed color Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
Options explanation of (A).
A B C D Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
1. P Q S R
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Q P S R
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Q P R S
4. P Q R S

111 In the DNA double helix, the distances between two

base pairs and the total pitch of the helix are:
1. 0.34 nm and 2.4 nm, respectively.
2. 0.34 nm and 3.2 nm, respectively.
3. 0.34 nm and 3.6 nm, respectively.
4. 0.34 nm and 3.4 nm, respectively.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
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115 Consider the following statements regarding incomplete 120 Which property of the genetic code ensures that
dominance: multiple codons can code for the same amino acid?
In incomplete dominance, the F1 phenotype is 1. Universality
Statement I: 2. Degeneracy
intermediate between the two parents.
The phenotypic and genotypic ratios in the F2 3. Triplet nature
Statement II: 4. Non-overlapping nature
generation are identical.

121 Which of the following correctly describes pleiotropy?

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
1. A single trait is controlled by multiple genes
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
2. A single gene affects multiple unrelated traits
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
3. Two or more alleles are equally expressed in the phenotype
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.
A dominant allele is only partially expressed in the
4.
The idea of mutations was brought forth by: phenotype
116
1. Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum Which of the following correctly distinguishes
122
Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a
2. heterochromatin from euchromatin?
population
Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active, while
Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms 1.
3. euchromatin is inactive.
during sea voyages
Euchromatin stains darkly in the nucleus, while
4. Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose 2.
heterochromatin stains lightly.
Heterochromatin is more densely packed and
117 During DNA replication, the proofreading activity of
3. transcriptionally inactive, while euchromatin is loosely
DNA polymerase ensures high fidelity of the newly packed and transcriptionally active.
synthesized strand. This proofreading function is due to the: Both euchromatin and heterochromatin are equally active
1. 5' to 3' polymerase activity 4.
in transcription.
2. 3' to 5' exonuclease activity
3. 5' to 3' exonuclease activity What was the primary conclusion of Louis Pasteur’s
4. Helicase activity
123
experiment with pre-sterilized flasks and killed yeast?
118 A pure tall plant and a dwarf plant are crossed to 1. Life originated from decaying organic matter.
produce F generation. The plant of the F generation is self Spontaneous generation of life is possible in a sterile
1 1 2.
pollinated to produce the F generation. The phenotypic ratio environment.
2

of the F progeny would be

2
3. Life can arise only from pre-existing life forms.
1. 1 tall : 1 dwarf 4. Chemical evolution can create living organisms.
2. 3 tall : 1 dwarf
3. 1 tall : 2 medium : 1 dwarf 124 Which of the following codons act as stop codons in
4. all tall
genetic code?
Consider the following statements about Mendel’s 1. UAA, AUG, UGA
119 2. UAA, UAG, UGA
experiments: 3. UUU, UGA, AUG
Mendel’s experiments showed that traits are 4. UAG, AUG, UUU
Statement I: inherited in predictable ratios across
generations. 125 The “beads-on-string” appearance of chromatin is
Mendel’s findings were applicable only to pea observed under an electron microscope. This refers to:
Statement II: plants and could not be generalized to other 1. Chromosomes during metaphase.
organisms.
2. Loosely packed euchromatin.
3. Nucleosomes connected by linker DNA.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
4. Highly condensed heterochromatin.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
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126 One difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic 130 Which of the following is the best definition of a
translation is: mutation?
1. eukaryotic ribosomes are larger, containing more subunits. 1. A mutation is a permanent change in DNA.
prokaryotic translation may occur simultaneously with A mutation is a permanent change in DNA that is harmful
2. 2.
transcription, while eukaryotic translation cannot. to an organism.
prokaryotes don't contain supramolecular complexes such A mutation is a permanent change in the structure of intra-
3. 3.
as ribosomes. cellular organelles caused by changes in DNA/RNA.
prokaryotic DNA is circular, so it does not require a A mutation is a permanent change in chromosomal
4. 4.
termination sequence. structure caused by DNA/RNA changes.

127 Consider the given two statements: 131 Which of the following statements best supports the
In prokaryotes, transcription and translation RNA World hypothesis?
Statement I:
occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm. RNA can function both as a genetic material and as a
1.
Eukaryotes separate transcription and catalyst.
Statement II:
translation, both spatially and temporally. 2. RNA is more stable than DNA.
3. DNA is the first genetic material in all organisms.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 4. Proteins are responsible for the catalytic activities of RNA.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 132 DNA is made up of the four nucleotide bases: adenine,
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. cytosine, guanine and thymine. A triplet repeat or codon is a
sequence of three nucleotides which code for an amino acid.
128 Which of the following statements are true about While there are only 20 amino acids, there are 64 different
combinations of the four DNA nucleotide bases. This means
transcription in prokaryotes?
that more than one combination of 3 DNA nucleotide
1. Transcription and translation can occur simultaneously.
sequences code for the same amino acid.
A single RNA polymerase is responsible for the synthesis Which property of the DNA code is described above?
2.
of all types of RNA. 1. The code is unambiguous.
3. mRNA does not require any processing to become active. 2. The code is universal.
Splicing, capping, and tailing are necessary for prokaryotic 3. The code is non-overlapping.
4. 4. The code is degenerate.
mRNA.
Select the correct answer from the options below:
1. 1, 2, 3 133 Which of the following statements is correct regarding
2. 2, 3, 4 tRNA?
3. 1, 3 tRNA contains an anticodon loop complementary to the
4. 1, 2 1.
mRNA codon.
tRNA directly binds to the ribosome without interacting
129 What is the main reason why only one DNA strand is 2.
with mRNA.
transcribed into RNA during transcription? 3. tRNA is responsible for catalyzing peptide bond formation.
1. Both strands cannot act as templates simultaneously. 4. tRNA is involved only in transcription, not translation.
RNA polymerase can only bind to one strand of DNA at a
2.
time. What is the role of the untranslated regions (UTRs) in
134
Only one strand has the coding sequence required for
3. mRNA?
protein synthesis.
UTRs are translated into proteins and form part of the final
Transcribing both strands would result in complementary 1.
4. polypeptide.
RNA molecules that could form double-stranded RNA.
UTRs are involved in the regulation of translation and
2.
influence mRNA stability.
UTRs are spliced out during RNA processing and do not
3.
appear in mature mRNA.
4. UTRs contain stop codons that terminate translation.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

135 There is a convention in defining the two strands of the 140 Consider the given two statements:
DNA in the structural gene of a transcription unit where: Molecular homology, such as similarities in DNA
Statement
the strand which has the polarity 3'→5' acts as a template sequences, provides evidence for common
I: I:
and is also referred to as template strand. ancestry among organisms.
the strand which has the polarity (5'→3') and does not Proteins and genes performing similar functions
II:
code for anything is referred to as the coding strand. Statement in different organisms often exhibit identical
II: sequences, indicating that evolutionary processes
1. Only I is correct preserved these sequences across diverse species.
2. Only II is correct 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Both I and II are correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

136 Griffith’s experiment demonstrated: In the absence of lactose, the lac operon is:
141
1. The presence of DNA in the nucleus. 1. Constitutively expressed.
2. The structure of the nucleosome. Induced by the binding of RNA polymerase to the
2.
3. The semiconservative nature of DNA replication. promoter.
4. The concept of transformation in bacteria. Repressed by the binding of the repressor to the operator
3.
region.
137 Homologous structures like the forelimbs of vertebrates 4. Activated by the inducer-repressor complex.
provide evidence for:
142 The genetic mutation causing phenylketonuria results
1. Convergent evolution and functional similarity.
2. Divergent evolution and common ancestry. in:
3. Analogous evolution and structural differences. 1. Excessive production of tyrosine.
4. Stochastic mutations leading to evolutionary change. 2. Accumulation of phenylalanine and its derivatives.
3. A defective globin protein in hemoglobin.
138 Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg 4. Abnormal synthesis of beta-globin chains.
equilibrium. Which of the following is not one of them?
1. gene migration or gene flow 143 Which technique was initially used for DNA
2. genetic drift fingerprinting by Alec Jeffreys?
3. mutation 1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
4. random mating
2. Southern blot hybridisation with VNTR probes
Which of the following explains the concept of negative 3. CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing
139
4. Northern blotting of RNA fragments
regulation of the lac operon?
The lac operon is turned off by the binding of an activator How does Turner’s syndrome differ genetically from
1.
protein. 144
The lac operon is repressed by the repressor protein, which Klinefelter’s syndrome?
2. binds to the operator and blocks transcription unless Turner’s syndrome results from an additional chromosome;
1.
inactivated by an inducer. Klinefelter’s results from a missing chromosome.
The lac operon is activated in the presence of glucose and Turner’s syndrome involves monosomy (45, XO);
3. 2.
repressed in its absence. Klinefelter’s involves trisomy (47, XXY).
The repressor protein is inactivated by glucose, allowing 3. Both are due to duplication of sex chromosomes.
4.
the operon to function. 4. Turner’s affects males, while Klinefelter’s affects females.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
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145 Which of the following is not true about Darwin’s 149 The industrial melanism observed in moth populations
theory of natural selection? in England demonstrates:
The survival and reproduction of organisms depend on 1. Divergent evolution due to common ancestry.
1.
inherited traits that suit their environment. 2. Convergent evolution in response to similar habitats.
Populations exhibit variation in traits, and individuals with Natural selection favoring individuals better adapted to a
2. 3.
advantageous traits reproduce more. changing environment.
Fitness, in Darwin’s sense, refers to the reproductive Mutation-driven evolution independent of environmental
3. 4.
success of organisms in a given environment. factors.
Natural selection leads to the creation of new traits that are
4.
better adapted to changing environments. 150 Consider the given two statements:

Which of the following best explains why Darwin’s Industrial melanism refers to the increase in the
146 Statement number of dark-colored organisms in industrial
theory suggests that organisms with advantageous traits leave I: areas, such as the case of dark-winged moths
more progeny? after industrialization.
Populations grow exponentially without any limitation The dark-winged moths were better camouflaged
1. Statement
from resources or environment. against the soot-covered tree trunks, leading to
II:
Organisms with disadvantageous traits die immediately increased survival due to natural selection.
2.
and do not reproduce at all. Which of the following is correct?
Advantageous traits improve survival and reproduction, Both Statements are True and Statement II is the correct
1.
3. leading to more offspring over generations, thereby explanation of Statement I.
changing the population characteristics. Both Statements are True but Statement II is not the
2.
Evolution occurs through random mutation alone, without correct explanation of Statement I.
4.
environmental pressures. 3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
147 Consider the given two statements:
Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder 151 In Griffith's experiment, which combination of
Statement I: caused by a reduced rate of synthesis of either Streptococcus pneumoniae strains resulted in the death of the
the alpha or beta globin chain in hemoglobin. mice, indicating the presence of the transforming principle?
In beta-thalassemia, the mutation affects the 1. Live R strain and heat-killed S strain
Statement II:
HBB gene on chromosome 16. 2. Live S strain and heat-killed R strain
3. Heat-killed R strain and live R strain
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 4. Live R strain alone
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
152 X-linked recessive traits like red-green colour blindness
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect in humans are observed:
1. more commonly in males than in females
148 Comparative anatomy reveals that homologous 2. more commonly in females than in males
structures, such as the forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs, and 3. in males and in females equally
humans, indicate: 4. only in the males and never in the females
1. Adaptation to identical environments.
2. Convergent evolution due to similar habitats.
Analogous evolution of different structures for the same
3.
function.
Common ancestry and divergent evolution of similar
4.
structures for different functions.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

153 Consider the given two statements: 157 The transition from Homo habilis to Homo erectus is
Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to a single marked by significant evolutionary developments. Which of
nucleotide mutation of the β-globin gene, the following best characterizes Homo erectus?
Assertion (A): which results in glutamic acid being They were the first hominids to migrate out of Africa and
1.
substituted by valine at position 6 of the β- had a brain capacity of around 900cc.
globin chain of haemoglobin. They developed advanced tools and had brain capacities
2.
The mutated hemoglobin polymerizes under between 1,400-1,600cc.
Reason (R): low oxygen conditions, distorting the shape of They were primarily scavengers and did not exhibit any
red blood cells. 3.
evidence of tool usage.
They lived exclusively in Africa and did not exhibit signs
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 4.
1. of brain expansion compared to earlier hominids.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 158 Chromosomal complement 44 + XXY results in which
2.
explanation of (A).
type of disorder in humans ?
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. Turner's syndrome
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 2. Klinefelter's syndrome
3. Edwards syndrome
154 The given symbol in a typical pedigree analysis 4. Down's syndrome
represents:
159 Which statement best describes the theory of natural
selection proposed by Darwin?
The fittest individuals produce the most offspring and are
1.
selected by nature.
1. Mating between pure lines
2. Mating between carriers of a deleterious allele Evolution occurs through sudden mutations without
2.
3. Siblings belonging to the same generation environmental influence.
4. Consanguineous marriage All individuals in a population have equal chances of
3.
survival and reproduction.
155 What is the significance of Single Nucleotide 4. Evolution is a predetermined and directed process.
Polymorphisms (SNPs) identified during the Human Genome
Project? 160 In a small population of rabbits, a random event leads to
1. They code for proteins in non-coding regions. the survival of only a few individuals, significantly altering
They are single-base DNA variations that can help trace the gene frequencies in the next generation. This phenomenon
2.
human history and find disease-associated sequences. is known as:
3. They are repetitive sequences that help in DNA replication. 1. Gene flow
2. Mutation
4. They represent mutations in protein-coding regions.
3. Genetic drift
4. Natural selection
156 Consider the given two statements:
Mutation and recombination are significant 161 What is the genetic mechanism behind polygenic
Statement I:
sources of genetic variation in populations. inheritance in traits like human skin color?
Genetic drift is a directed process leading to 1. A single gene controls a wide range of phenotypes.
Statement II:
predictable evolutionary outcomes.
2. The dominant allele from one gene suppresses the others.
3. Only environmental factors influence the phenotype.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Three or more genes contribute additively to the
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 4.
phenotype.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

162 Consider the two given statements: 167 The continental drift played a crucial role in the survival
Biochemical similarities among diverse and extinction of various mammalian species. Which of the
Assertion (A): organisms support the concept of common following is an example of how continental drift influenced
ancestry. mammalian evolution?
Proteins and genes performing similar The extinction of Australian marsupials due to competition
1.
Reason (R): functions show structural similarities across with North American mammals.
species. The isolation of Australian marsupials from competition,
2.
allowing them to thrive.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct The migration of reptiles into Australia from North
1. 3.
explanation of (A). America.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct The spread of amphibians to South America, leading to the
2. 4.
explanation of (A). extinction of native species.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
168 Which of the following types of natural selection results
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
in the increase of individuals with extreme traits at both ends
163 If a man with blood group AB marries a woman with of the distribution, while reducing the number of individuals
with the intermediate trait?
blood group A (heterozygous), what is the probability that
1. Stabilizing selection
their child will have blood group AB?
2. Directional selection
1. 1/2
3. Disruptive selection
2. 1/4
4. Balancing selection
3. 1/3
4. 1/8
169 The rapid emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is

164 Most fossils are found in an example of:

1. granite 1. Natural selection influenced by anthropogenic actions.
2. sedimentary rocks 2. Mutation-driven evolution over geological timescales.
3. lava flows 3. Divergent evolution of unrelated bacterial species.
4. black soil Convergent evolution towards a common biochemical
4.
pathway.
165 What was the primary aim of the Human Genome
Project (HGP)? 170 Which of the following statements about the human
To map only the protein-coding genes in the human genome is true?
1.
genome. 1. Over 80% of the genome codes for proteins.
To identify all genes, determine DNA sequences, and 2. All genes in the human genome have known functions.
2.
address ethical issues.
3. The human genome contains over 1 million genes.
3. To create new species through genetic manipulation.
Repetitive DNA sequences account for a significant portion
4. To replace faulty human genes with engineered ones. 4.
of the genome.

166 Human genome project was closely associated with the In the XY sex determination system in humans, the Y
171
rapid development of a new area in biology called _____. chromosome determines maleness because:
1. Biotechnology
1. It contains all the necessary genes for male characteristics.
2. Bioinformatics
3. Biofortification It determines the type of sperm produced during
2.
4. Microbiology spermatogenesis.
3. It carries the SRY gene that triggers male development.
4. It is inherited from the mother.

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

172 In the pedigree below, the darkened figures indicate an 176 In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have
individual with hemophilia, a sex-linked recessive disease. evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of
The genotype of the female marked A is: evolution may be referred to as:
1. Adaptive Radiation 2. Divergent Evolution
3. Cyclical Evolution 4. Convergent Evolution

177 Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disease. A

male with the disease and a female that is not diseased, but
carries the trait, produce two girls. What is the probability that
neither girl carries a recessive allele?
1. 0% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 66%

178 In the XO type of sex determination seen in

grasshoppers, males differ from females because:
1. Males lack an X chromosome entirely.
2. Males have a pair of identical sex chromosomes.
3. Males have one X chromosome and no Y chromosome.
1. X H Xh

2. X 4. Males have both X and Y chromosomes.

H XH

3. X h Xh

4. X 179 Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. A woman

hY

is born colorblind. What can be said with certainty?

173 Which of the following are characteristics of X-linked 1. Her father and mother are colorblind.
recessive inheritance? 2. Her mother and daughter are colorblind.
Affected females can pass the trait to both sons and 3. Her father and son are colorblind.
1. 4. Her father is colorblind, but her son may/may not be.
daughters.
Affected males pass the allele to all of their daughters but Consider the following statements about the Hershey-
2.
none of their sons. 180
3. Carrier females often produce affected sons. Chase experiment:
The trait is expressed more frequently in females than in Hershey and Chase used radioactive
4. Statement I: phosphorus to label DNA and radioactive
males.
sulfur to label proteins in bacteriophages.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
1. 2, 3 Their experiment demonstrated that proteins,
2. 1, 3, 4 Statement II: not DNA, entered bacterial cells and directed
3. 1, 2, 3 the production of new bacteriophages.
4. 1, 2, 4
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
174 Color-blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. A woman 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
who is a carrier for the trait has two boys with a color blind 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
man. What is the probability that both the boys are color- 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.
blind?
1. 0% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 100%

175 In bacteria, the RNA polymerase associates with which

factor to initiate transcription?
1. α-factor 2. β-factor
3. σ-factor 4. ρ-factor

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 NEET Level Test - 02-Feb 180 Contact Number:
Questions (ASCEND) 9667591930 / 8527521718

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