SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 12-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST –1 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10

PHYSICS 04. Fuel is consumed at the rate of 50 kg/s in

SECTION - A a rocket. The velocity of exhaust gases is
01. Two objects A and B are of lengths 5 cm 2 km/s. The thrust on rocket is
and 7 cm determined with errors 0.1 cm (1) 2 ×10 4 kg − wt
and 0.2 cm respectively. What is the error (2) 1× 104 kg − wt
in determining (a) the total length and (b)
(3) 1× 105 kg − wt
the difference in their lengths ?
(4) 2 ×105 kg − wt
(1) (12 ± 0.3) cm, (2 ± 0.3) cm
(2) (12 ± 0.3) cm, (2 ± 0.1) cm 05. A particle at rest start moving along a
(3) (12 ± 0.1) cm, (2 ± 0.3) cm  20 
circle of radius   m with constant
(4) 12cm, 2cm π 
02. A particle moves along a straight line. Its tangential acceleration. If the velocity of
position at any instant is given by the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the
8t 3 second revolution after motion has begun,
x = 32t − where x is in metres and t
3 the tangential acceleration is
in seconds. Find the instant when particle (1) 40 m / s 2
comes to rest and reverses its direction (2) 640π m / s 2
(1)1 s
(2) 2 s (3) 160π m / s 2
(3)3 s (4) 40π m / s 2
(4)4 s 06. A body of mass 4 kg is acted upon by a
03. A block of mass m is placed at rest on an
force which causes a displacement in it
inclined plane of inclination θ to the
horizontal. If the coefficient of friction given by x = t 2 m, where t is time in
between the block and the plane is µ, then second. The work done by force in 4s is
the force, which the inclined plane exerts
(1) 64 J
on the block is
(1) mg (2) 128 J
(2) µmgcos θ (3) 200 J
(3) mgsin θ
(4) 240 J
(4) mgcos θ 1 + µ 2
Sri Chaitanya Page 1
07. If the angular speed of the earth is (4) 1200 Nm
doubled, the value of acceleration due to 11. A child is standing with folded hands at
gravity at the north-pole: the centre of a platform rotating about its
(1) is doubled central axis. The kinetic energy of the
(2) is halved system is K. The child now stretches his
(3) remains same arm so that moment of inertia of the
(4) becomes zero system is doubled. The kinetic energy of
08. The magnitude of the potential energy per the system now is
unit mass of the object at the surface of (1) 2K
earth is E. Then the escape velocity of the
object is (2) K
(1) 2E 2
(2) 4E 2 K
(3)
(3) E 4
(4) E / 2 (4) 4K
09. If the system is released, then the 12. A rope 1 cm is diameter breaks if the
acceleration of the centre of mass of the tension in it exceeds 500 N. The
system is
maximum tension that may be given to a
similar rope of diameter 2 cm is
(1) 500 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 1000 N
(4) 2000 N
13. Due to thermal expansion, with rise in
g temperature
(1)
4
(a) Metallic scale reading becomes lesser
g
(2)
2 than true value
(3) g (b) Pendulum clock goes fast
(4) 2g
(c) A floating body sinks a little more
10. A disc of moment of inertia 40 kg m 2
(d) The weight of a body in a liquid
acquires the angular velocity of 20 rad/s
in 0.4 s starting from rest them torque increases
applied is (1) only (a) is correct
(1) 1800 Nm (2) (a) & (b) are correct
(2) 3000 Nm
(3) 2000 Nm (3) (a), (b) & (d) are correct
(4) (a), (c) & (d) are correct
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
14. The coefficient of performance of a 18. A person at rest is observing two trains
refrigerator is 6 and operates at room one coming towards him and other
temperature 280 C . The temperature leaving with the same speed 4 m/s. If
inside the refrigerator is their whistling frequencies are 240 Hz
(1) −230 C each, then the number of beats per second
heard by the person will be (if velocity of
(2) −180 C
sound is 320 m/s)
(3) −90 C (1) 3
(4) −150 C (2) 6
15. A box (thermally insulated) has two (3) 9
chambers separated by a membrane. One (4) zero
of volume V contains an ideal gas at 19. Two pendulums of time period 3 s and 7s
V
temperature T. The other of volume is respectively start oscillating
2
evacuated. If the membrane breaks simultaneously from two opposite
down, the gas temperature will be extreme positions. After how much least
3 time they will be in phase
(1) T
2
(2) T 21
(1) s
2T 8
(3)
3 21
(2) s
T 4
(4)
2
21
16. The molar specific heat at constant (3) s
2
13R
volume of gas mixture is . The gas 21
6 (4) s
mixture consists of 10
(1) 2 moles of argon and 4 moles of O2 20. A beam of monochromatic light is
(2) 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of argon incident at i = 50° on one face of an
(3) 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of H2
equilateral prism, the angle of emergence
(4) 2 moles of CO2 and 4 moles of argon
17. An open organ pipe of length L vibrates is 40°, then the angle of minimum
in second harmonic mode. The pressure deviation is
vibration is maximum
(1) 30°
(1) at the two ends
(2) at a distance L/4 from either end (2) < 30°
inside the tube (3) ≤ 30°
(3) at the mid – point of the tube
(4) ≥ 30°
(4) at a distance L/3 from either end
inside the tube

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

21. Two thin lenses of power +10D and − 5 D d2
(4)
are placed in contact. Where should an 4l D
object be held from the system, so as to 24. The electric field due to a charge
obtain a virtual
K
image of magnification 2? distribution is E = in the x –direction.
(1) 5 cm x3
(2) -5 cm (K is a constant). Taking the electric
(3) 20 cm field potential to be zero at infinity, its
(4) -10 cm
value at the a distance x is
22. (A): Due to scattering of light, the clouds
K
having water droplets are generally white, (1)
x
as size of droplets << wave length of
K
light. (2)
2x
(B): In youngs pin hole experiment, the
K
fringes are nearly straight lines, when (3)
x2
distance of screen from plane of slits very
K
(4)
large compared to band width. 2x 2
(1) A is true, B is false 25. In absence of dielectric medium, capacity
(2) A is false, B is true
of a parallel plate capacitor is C 0 . A
(3) A and Bare true
sheet of dielectric constant K and
(4) A and B are false
thickness of one third of the plate
23. In a double slit experiment, the coherent
separation is inserted between the plates.
sources are spaced 2d apart and the
If new capacity is C, then
screen is placed a distance D from the
C 3K
slits. If nth bright fringe is formed on the (1) =
C 0 2K + 1
screen exactly opposite to a slit, the value
C 2K
of n must be (2) =
C 0 3K + 1
d2
(1) C 3K + 1
2l D (3) =
C0 2K
2d 2
(2)
lD C 2K + 1
(4) =
d2
C0 3K
(3)
lD

Sri Chaitanya Page 4

26. If E denotes electric field in a uniform (4) [A] and [C] are correct
conductor, I is corresponding current 28. Two types of different steels are
through it and vd is drift velocity of e − , characterized by the hysteresis loops
then the correct graph is shown in figure (a) and (b). The loops are
obtained in the processes of
magnetization and demagnetization of the
steels. Which of the two types is best
suited for using as the core of a
transformer and which, for using as a
(1) permanent magnet?

(2)
(1) Both are best suited for transformer
(2) Both are best suited for permanent
magnet
(3) A is best suited for permanent magnet
& B is best suited for core of transformer
(3) (4) A is best suited for core of
transformer & B is best suited for
permanent magnet
29. The scale of a galvanometer of resistance
100 Ω contains 25 divisions. It gives a
deflection of one division on passing a

(4) current of 4 x 10−4 A . The resistance (in

27. In a balanced wheatstone bridge, current ohm) to be added to it, so that it may
in the galvanometer is zero. It remains become a voltmeter of range 2.5V is
zero when: (1) 150
[A] battery emf is increased (2) 170
[B] all resistances are increased by 10 (3) 110
ohms (4) 220
[C] all resistances are made five times 30. The voltage of domestic ac is 220 volt.
[D] the battery and the galvanometer are This represents
interchanged (1) Mean voltage
(1) only [A] is correct (2) Peak voltage
(2) [A], [B] and [C] are correct (3) Root mean voltage
(3) [A], [C] and [D] are correct (4) Root mean square voltage
Sri Chaitanya Page 5
31. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry the
same linear momentum, which has the
longest wavelength?
(1) Alpha rays (1)A (2) A
(3) A + B (4) AB
(2) Beta rays
35. A plane electromagnetic wave
(3) Gamma rays
(4) All have the same wavelength
( )
E = 100 cos 6 × 10 8 t + 4x v / m
propagates in a dielectric medium. The
32. In photo picture of light, the intensity of refractive index of medium is
light at a frequency is determined by (1)1.5
(1)square of amplitude (2) 2.0
(3) 2.4
(2) Number of photons crossing per unit
(4) 4.0
area per unit time SECTION - B
(3) Both 1 and 2 36. One centimetre on the main scale of
vernier calipers is divided into ten equal
(4) Density of medium through which
parts. If 10 divisions of vernier scale
light posses coincide with 8 small divisions of the
33. Transfer characteristics [output voltage main scale, the least count of the callipers
is
(V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base
(1) 0.01 cm
biased transistor in CE configuration is as (2) 0.02 cm
shown in the figure. For using transistor (3) 0.05 cm
as a switch, it is used (4) 0.005 cm
37. Two stones are projected with the same
speed but making different angles with
the horizontal. Their horizontal ranges
are equal. The angle of projection of one

(1) in region III π

is and the maximum height reached by
3
(2) both in region (I) and (III)
it is 102 m. Then the maximum height
(3) in region II
reached by the other in metres is
(4) in region I
(1) 76
34. The output Y of the combination of logic
gates shown is equal to (2) 84
(3) 56
(4) 34
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
38. A light particle moving horizontal with a 41. A small sphere of mass m is dropped
−1 from a great height. After it has fallen
speed of 12 ms strikes head-on a very
heavy block moving in the same direction 100 m, it has attained its terminal velocity
and continues to fall at that speed. The
at 10ms −1 . The collision is one
work done by air friction against the
dimensional and elastic. After the sphere during the first 100 m of fall is
collision, the particle will (1) greater than the work done by air
friction in the second 100 m
(2) less than the work done by air friction
in the second 100 m
(1) move at 2ms −1 in its original (3) equal to the work done by air friction
direction in the second 100 m
(4) we cannot say
(2) move at 8 ms −1 in its original
42. Two metallic spheres P and Q are of same
direction
surface finish and same material. Weight
(3) move at 8 ms −1 opposite to its original of P is twice that of Q. Both spheres are
direction heated to same temperature and are left in
(4) move at 12ms −1 opposite to its room to cool by radiation. The ratio of
original direction initial rate of cooling of P to that of Q is
39. A cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 15 (1) 1: 2
cm is rolling perfectly on a plane of (2) 2 :1
1
inclination 30º. Then force of friction
(3) 1: 2 3
acting is (Take µk = 0.2 ) 2
(4) 2 3 :1
(1) 12 N
43. A parallel monochromatic beam of light
(2) 9.8 N
is incident normally on a narrow slit. A
(3) 12.5 N diffraction pattern is formed on a screen
(4) 16.4 N placed perpendicular to the direction of
incident beam. For the first minimum of
40. The difference in the value of 'g'at pole
the diffraction pattern the phase
3
and at a lattitude is Rω 2 then latitude difference between the rays coming from
4
the edges of the slit is
angle is (1) 2π
0
(1) 60 (2) π

(2) 30
0
π
(3)
0 2
(3) 45
0
(4) 0
(4) 95
Sri Chaitanya Page 7
44. Two spherical conductors A and B of 47. A proton is accelerated through a
radii 1mm and 2 mm are separated by potential difference of 400 V. To have
5cm and are uniformly charged. If the same de-Broglie wavelength what
spheres are connected by conducting potential difference must be applied
wire, then in equilibrium, the ratio of across doubly ionised 8O16 atom
magnitude of electric fields at surfaces of (1) 50 volt
spheres A and B is (2) 12.5 volt
(1) 1 : 4 (3) 100 volt
(2) 4 : 1 (4) 25 volt
(3) 1 : 2 48. A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground
(4) 2 : 1 state is excited by absorbing a photon of
45. A potentiometer wire has length 4m and wavelength 980Å. The radius of the atom
resistance 8Ω . The resistance that must in the excited state, it terms of Bohr
radius a0, will be: (hc = 12500 eV – Å)
be connected in series with the wire and
(1) 9a 0
an accumulator of emf 2V, so as to get a
(2) 25a 0
potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the (3) 4a 0
wire is (4) 16a 0
(1) 44 Ω 49. The radioactivity of a given sample of
(2) 48 Ω whisky due to tritium (half life 12.3
(3) 32 Ω years) was found to be only 3% of that
measured in a recently purchased bottle
(4) 40 Ω
marked “7 years old”. The sample must
46. Two identical inductances carry currents have been prepared about
that vary with time according to linear (1) 220 years back
(2) 300 years back
laws (as shown in figure). Among the two
(3) 400 years back
inductances, the self induced emf is
(4) 70 years back
50. The main cause of zener breakdown is
(1) high electric field due to heavy doping
(2) collision ionisation by thermal
excitation
(3) Low electric field due to heavy
(1) greater for 1 doping
(2) greater for 2
(4) collision ionisation due to heavy
(3) same for both
(4) data are insufficient to decide doping

Sri Chaitanya Page 8

 CHEMISTRY 54. Molar conductivity of BaCl2 , KCl and
SECTION – A KOH is x, y and z mho cm 2 mole −1
51. The correct statement regarding the
respectively. Molar conductance of
comparison of staggered and eclipsed Ba ( OH )2 is
conformations of ethane is (1) x − 2 y + 2 z
(1) The staggered conformation of (2) x + 2 y − 3 z
ethane is more stable than eclipsed (3) x − y + z
conformation because staggered (4) x + y + z
55. The number of tetrahedral and octahedral
conformation has no torsional strain
voids in cubic close packing are
(2)The staggered conformation of respectively
ethane is less stable than eclipsed (1) 6, 3
conformation because staggered (2) 8, 4
conformation has torsional strain
(3) 12, 6
(3) The eclipsed conformation of ethane
is more stable than staggered (4) 2, 4
conformation because eclipsed H 2 + CO + R − CH = CH 2 
→
conformation has no torsional strain 56.
R − CH 2 − CH 2 − CHO
(4) The eclipsed conformation of ethane
This reaction is known as
is more stable than staggered
(1) Hydrogenation
conformation even though the
(2) Hydroformylation
eclipsed conformation has torsional
(3) Carbonation
strain
(4) Decarboxylation
52. The coordination number of beryllium in
57. The simplest formula of a compound
( BeCl2 )n is containing 25% of element ‘X’ (atomic
(1) 4 weight = 10) and 75% of element ‘Y’
(atomic weight = 20) is
(2) 2 (1) XY
(3) 6 (2) X 2 Y
(4) 3
(3) XY2
53. Incorrect reaction among the following is
(4) X 2 Y3
1) C6 H 5 NH 2 + C6 H 5 SO2 Cl → C6 H 5 − NH − SO2 − C6 H 5
58. Addition of CH3MgBr to Acetone &
(2) NaNO2 + HCl H2O
C2 H5 NH2  0
0−5 C
→C2 H5 N2+Cl − + NaCl + HCl
Subsequent hydrolysis gives
O
|| (1) n -butyl Alcohol
(3) C6 H 5 NH 2 + C6 H 5COCl → C6 H 5 NH − C − C6 H 5 + HCl
(2) sec- butyl Alcohol
(4) ∆
C2 H5 NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH(alc)  →C2 H5 NC + KCl + H2O (3) Iso - butyl Alcohol
(4) Tertiary butyl Alcohol
Sri Chaitanya Page 9
59. Which of the following represents 3) AB2 E C) Folded square (sea saw)
Boyle’s law 4) AB2 E2 D) Bent
(1)
Correct Match is
(1) 1 → B, 2 → A,3 → C, 4 → D
P (2) 1 → B, 2 → C,3 → A, 4 → D
(3) 1 → B, 2 → C,3 → D, 4 → D
(4) 1 → A, 2 → C,3 → B, 4 → D
V 62. The iron obtained from blast furnace is
(2) (1) Wrought iron
(2) Steel
PV (3) Pig iron
(4) Matte
63. At 25°C , the heat capacity of liquid
water at constant pressure CP is
P
(3) 18 Cal.deg ree −1.mole−1 , then at 25°C
the value of heat capacity of water at
P
constant volume CV is ____

Cal.degree−1 .mole −1
T (1) 18
(4)
(2) 20
(3) 16
V
(4) 9
64. Boiling point of HF>HI>HBr>HCl.
T Higher boiling point of HF is due to
60. IUPAC name of CH 3 − CH = CH − COOH (1) Bond energy of HF is greater than
(1) 2 – butenoic acid other hydrogen halides
(2) 1 – butenoic acid
(2) The effect of nuclear shielding is
(3) β - butenoic acid
much reduced in fluorine which
(4) 1 – carboxy – 1 – propene polarizes HF bond
61. Molecule type Shape (3) The electronegativity of fluorine is
(B = bond pair, much higher than other elements of
E = lone pair) group
1) AB4 E2 A) Tetrahedral (4) There is strong hydrogen bonding
2) AB4 E B) Square planar between HF molecules
Sri Chaitanya Page 10
65. Which of the following may form butane is But-1-ene in presence of
associate colloids ? alcoholic KOH. This product formation is
(1) Glucose based on
(2) NaCl solution (1) Huckel’s Rule
(3) Starch (2) Saytzeff’s Rule
(4) Soap (3) Hund’s Rule
66. The maximum possible unit cells are (4) Hofmann Rule
present in the following crystal system 71. Which one of the following is not a vinyl
(1) Monoclinic polymer ?
(2) Triclinic
(1) PVC
(3) Orthorhombic
(4) Cubic (2) Polystyrene
67. Identify the disproportionation reaction (3) Polyacrylonitrile
from the following
(4) Nylon – 6, 6
(1) CH 4 + 2O 2 
→ CO 2 + 2 H 2O
72. Which one of the vitamin is synthesized
(2) 2 NO2 + 2OH− 
→ NO2− + NO3− + H2O
in our body by using sun rays ?
(3) 2 F2 + 2OH − 
→ 2 F− + OF2 + H 2O
(1) A
(4) 2 C + O 2 
→ 2CO (2) B complex
68. An endothermic reaction A 
→ B has (3) C
an activation energy as x KJ mole of A. (4) D
If energy change of the reaction is y KJ , 73. Which one of the following will exert
the activation energy of the reverse highest osmotic pressure ?
reaction is ( KJ mole )
(1) 1M Sucrose
(1) x − y
(2) 1M Glucose
(2) x + y
(3) y − x (3) 1M Urea
(4) − x − y (4) 1M NaCl
69. Hydrolysis constant of salt derived from 74. The ratio of energies of two photons
−5
strong acid and weak base is 2 × 10 . The having wave numbers 106 cm −1 and
dissociation constant of weak base is
(1) 5 × 10−8 108 m −1 is
(2) 5 × 10−9 (1) 100 : 1
−10
(3) 5 × 10 (2) 10 : 1
(4) 2 × 10−19 (3) 1 : 100
70. The major product formed in
dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-fluoro (4) 1 : 1

Sri Chaitanya Page 11

75. Which among the following is incorrect (4) All the above
satatement ? 80. Which of the following represents
(1) Use of Argon : To provide inert chelating agent ?
atmosphere at high temperature in (1) Cl−
metallurgical processes (2) DMG
(2) The first compound of noble gases (3) OH −
prepared by N-Bartlett was (4) H 2O
Xe+PtF6¯ 81. Densest 3d series element in the
(3) In Xenonoxytetraflouride, the following is
central Xenon contains 2 lone pairs (1) Zn
of electrons (2) Cu
(4) XeO3 is an explosive compound (3) Sc
76. Given below are two statements (4) V
Statement–I: Erythromycin is a 82. A molecule XY2 contains two sigma
bacteriostatic antibiotic bonds, two Pi bonds and one lone pair of
Statement–II : Equanil is a tranquilizer electrons in the valence shell of X. The
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true shape of molecule is
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II (1) Linear
is false. (2) Angular
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II (3) Tetrahedral
is true. (4) Pyramidal
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are 83. The major product of the following
false chemical reaction is
77. The process of zone refining is used for CH 3 6 5(C H CO ) O
2 2 →?
CH − CH = CH2 + HCl 
(1) Al CH 3
(2) Na
(1)
(3) Si and Ge
CH 3
(4) Ag and Fe CCl − CH 2 − CH3
78. The correct sequence of dipole moment CH 3
of ‘C - X’ bond is (2)
(1) CH3 − Cl > CH3 − F > CH3 − Br > CH3 − I CH 3
(2) CH3 − F > CH3 − Cl < CH3 − Br < CH3 − I CH − CH2 − CH 2 − Cl
CH 3
(3) CH3 − F > CH3 − Cl > CH3 − Br > CH3 − I (3)
(4) CH 3 − F < CH3 − Cl > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I CH 3
CH − CH 2 − CH 2 − O − COC6 H5
79. Metamerism is not exhibited by CH3
(1) CH3CH 2 − OH (4)
(2) CH3CH 2 − NH 2 CH 3
CH − CH − CH3
(3) CH3 − O − CH 3 CH 3
Cl
Sri Chaitanya Page 12
84. 4f 14 configuration is observed in O

(1) Yb and Lu CH 3
C
CS2 H3O+ H
+ CrO2Cl2  → X  →
(2) Dy and Pm
(3) Lu and La (1)
(4) Tm and Lu Cl
85. Statement – I : BeSO 4 and MgSO 4 are CH
H
readily soluble in water
Statement – II : The greater hydration
(2)
enthalpy of Be2+ and Mg 2+ ions CH ( OCrOHCl2 )2
overcome the lattice enthalpy of BeSO 4
and MgSO 4
(3)
(1) I and II are true
CH ( OCOCH3 )2
(2) I is true, II is false
(3) I is false, II is true
(4) I and II are false (4)
SECTION – B Cl
86. The vapour pressure of a solvent CH
decreased by 10mm of mercury, when a Cl
non volatile solute was added to the
solvent. The mole fraction of solute in the 89. At 127°C and 1 atm pressure, a mixture
solution is 0.2. What should be the mole of gases contains 0.8 mole of N 2 and 0.7
fraction of the solute, if the decrease in mole of O 2 . The volume of the mixture is
the vapour pressure is to be 20mm of (1) 15 litres
mercury ? (2) 22.4 litres
(1) 0.4 (3) 18.2 litres
(2) 0.2 (4) 49.26 litres
(3) 0.8 90. The number of angular nodes and radial
(4) 0.1 nodes in 2s orbital are respectively
87. For the reaction Cl2 ( g ) 
→ 2Cl( g ) , what (1) 0 and 2
(2) 0 and 1
are the signs of ∆ H and ∆ S
(3) 2 and 0
respectively?
(4) 1 and 2
(1) − ve, − ve Aq NaoH Y
91. X →
H+
CH 3 COOH  → (CH 3CO )2 O
(2) + ve, + ve
Here X & Y are respectively
(3) − ve, + ve
(1) CH3CHO, PCl5
(4) + ve, − ve
(2) CH3CN, Cl2
88. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the
(3) CH3CN, P2O5
following chemical reaction is
(4) CH3CHO, P2O5

Sri Chaitanya Page 13

92. The lone pairs in ClF3 and SCl4 are 95. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
present respectively at
(1) Axial, axial CO, HCl i) Hell – volhard
 
Anhyd.AlCl CuCl
→
3

(2) Axial, equatorial a) Zelinsky reaction

(3) Equatorial, axial O ii) Gattermann –
(4) Equatorial, equatorial R − C − CH3 + NaOX 
→
b) Koch reaction
93. A graph is plotted between log K
1 R − CH 2 − OH iii) Haloform
( y - axis) vs ( x - axis). Slope of the c) Conc.H 2SO4
T + R'COOH 
→ reaction
graph is (where K = rate constant and
( i )X2 Red P
d) R − CH2COOH  → iv) Esterification
T = absolute temperature) ( ii ) H2O

− Ea Choose the correct answer from the

(1)
2.303R
options given below
− 2.303E a
(2) a b c d
R
− Ea (1) ii iii iv i
(3)
R (2) iv i ii iii
(4) − E a (3) iii ii i iv
94. Match the following
(4) i iv iii ii
List – I List – II
a) Pollutant but not 96. Match List – I with List – II
i) Plastic List – I List – II
contaminant
3−
b) Slowly degradable but a)  Fe ( CN )6  i) 5.92 BM
remain in unchanged form ii) CO 2 3+
b)  Fe ( H 2O )6  ii) 0 BM
for many decades
4−
c) Receptor to smoke of c)  Fe ( CN )6  iii) 4.90 BM
iii) Human
2+
automobiles eyes d)  Fe ( H 2 O )6  iv) 1.73 BM
d) Sink to dry leaves and iv) Micro Choose the correct answer from the
garbage organisms
options given below
a b c d
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below (1) iv i ii iii
a b c d (2) iv ii i iii
(1) iv iii i ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(2) i iii ii iv
(3) ii i iii iv (4) i iii iv ii
(4) i iv iii ii
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
 O O (4) Benzene diazonium bromide
NaBH
C CH3  4
C H OH
→ X BOTANY
2 5

97. .X is SECTION – A
OH O 101. All the following are correct, regarding
universal rules of nomenclature except
(1)
O OH (1) Biological names are generally in
latin and written in italics
(2)
OH OH (2) The first word in biological name
represents the genus while second
(3) component denotes specific epithet
O O
(3) Both the words in biological name
(4) when handwritten are separately
98. In which of the following arrangements underlined or printed in italics to indicate
the given sequence is not strictly
their latin origin
according to the properties indicated
against it ? (4) Name of the author appear before
(1) CO 2 < SiO 2 < SnO 2 < PbO 2 : specific epithet
Increasing oxidising power
102. According to Whittaker’s five kingdom
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing
acidic strength classification, the Chlorella and
(3) H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te : Chlamydomonas are kept along with
Ka
Increasing P values Amoeba and Paramecium under
(4) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 :
(1) Monera
Increasing acidic character
99. The molar conductivity of 0.1M weak (2) Protista
acid is 100 times less than that at infinite (3) Fungi
dilution. The degree of dissociation is
(1) 100 (4) Plantae
(2) 10 103. Zoospores are absent in which of the
(3) 0.01
following ?
(4) 0.1
100. Which diazonium salt is insoluble in (1) Aquatic phycomycetes
water and stable at room temperature
(2) Green algae
(1) Benzene diazonium chloride
(2) Benzene diazonium fluoroborate (3) Red algae
(3) Benzene diazonium nitrate
(4) Brown algae
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
104. Examine the figure given below and (1) Starch , glycogen , cellulose
select the correct label (2) Chitin , starch , cellulose
(3) Inulin , chitin , glycogen
(4) Lactose , inulin , starch
108. Select incorrect match
(1) Crossing over → pachytene
(2) Chromosome duplication → S-phase
(3) Synapsis → leptotene
(4) Bivalents on equator → metaphase-I
109. Find the correct pathway of movement of
water in given cells
(1) A – Seed coat, fruit wall, B –
Endosperm, C – Scutellum , D – Plumule, A
ψs = −8bar
E – Radical
ψp = 5bar
(2) A – Aleurone layer, B – Endosperm,
C – Plumule , D – scutellum , E – Radical
ψs = −6bar ψs = −13bar
(3) A – Endosperm, B – Aleurone layer, B ψ p = 1bar ψ p = 10bar C
C – Plumule, D – Scutellum, E – Radical
(4) A – Seed coat, fruit wall, B –
Aleurone layer , C – Plumule , D – (1) A ⇌ C , A → B, C → B
Scutellum, E – radical
(2) A ⇌ B, A → C , C → B
105. Which one among the following is sub
(3) A ⇌ B, B → A, C → B
epidermal living mechanical tissue in
(4) A ⇌ C, A → C, B → C
which cell wall thickenings are present at
corners ? 110. Minerals associated with redox reactions
are
(1) Collenchyma
(1) Magnesium & Manganese
(2) Sclerenchyma
(2) Iron & Copper
(3) Xylem
(3) Copper & Carbon
(4) Parenchyma
(4) Carbon, Hydrogen & Oxygen
106. Ribosomes are composed of
111. Which of the following act as reaction
(1) sn RNA + proteins
centre in pigment system ?
(2) hn RNA + proteins
(1) Carotene
(3) mRNA + proteins
(2) Xanthophyll
(4) rRNA + proteins
(3) Chlorophyll b
107. Which of the following are
(4) Chlorophyll a
polysaccharides and made up of glucose
monomer ?
Sri Chaitanya Page 16
112. During glucose respiration, first A B C
decarboxylation occurs in Multi Multi Multi
(1) Pyruvate carpellary carpellary carpellary
(2) Isocitrate (1) syncarpous syncarpous apocarpous
pistil of pistil of pistil of
(3) α − KGA
Hibiscus Papaver Michelia
(4) Fructose – 1,6 Bis P
Apocarpous Apocarpous Syncarpous
113. How many of the following are related to (2) pistil of pistil of pistil of
ABA ? Hibiscus Papaver Michelia
(a) Derivatives of carotenoides Syncarpous Apocarpous Apocarpous
(b) Inhibitor B (3) pistil of pistil of pistil of
Hibiscus Papaver Michelia
(c) general plant growth inhibitor
Apocarpous Apocarpous Syncarpous
(d) Break dormancy
(4) condition in condition in pistil in
(1) a , d Hibiscus Papaver Michelia
(2) b , d 116. The F2 phenotypic and genotypic ratio of
(3) a , b , c
monohybrid cross (wrt flower colour ) in
(4) a, b, c, d
snapdragon is respectively
114. After fertilization, all the parts of flower
except ovary withers off. In which of (1) 3:1 , 1:2:1
these plants , the sepals do not wither off?
(2) 1:2:1, 3:1
(1) Solanum
(3) 1:2:1 , 1:2:1
(2) Brassica
(3) Pea (4) 3:1 , 3:1
(4) Bean 117. ______ was utilized by ____to prove the
115. Examine the figures given below and semiconservative mode of DNA
identify A, B, C replication in chromosome in Vicia faba
(1) Tritiated thymidine , Taylor
(2) N 15 , Meselson & Stahl
(3) N 15 , Taylor
(4) Tritiated thymidine, Meselson and
Stahl
118. Pomato is
(1) Somatic hybrid
(2) Product of rDNA technology
(3) Product of sexual hybridisation
(4) Clone of potato and tomato

Sri Chaitanya Page 17

119. Lactic acid bacteria improve the (3) Growth is defining property of living
nutritional quality of curd by increasing organisms
the content of
(4) All living organisms- present , past
(1) Vit A
and future are linked to one another by
(2) Vit B12
sharing of common genetic material but
(3) Vit C to varying degrees
(4) Vit D 124. Slime moulds are
120. The role of DNA ligase in construction of (1) Autotrophic protists
rDNA molecule is
(2) Saprophytic protists
(1) Formation of S- P bond
(3) Saprophytic monerans
(2) Formation of glycosidic bond
(4) Predators or parasites
(3) Selection of recombinant
125. Zygote undergo mitosis in all except
(4) Selection of transformant
(1) Bryophytes
121. The RNA interference technique is used
(2) Pteridophytes
successfully to control
(3) Majority of algae
(1) Nematode infection in tobacco
(4) Gymnosperms
(2) Bollworm in cotton
126. Vexillary aestivation occur in
(3) Agrobacterium in dicots
(1) Calotropis , lady’s finger
(4) E.coli
(2) China rose, cotton
122. The gradual and fairly predictable
(3) Cassia and gulmohr
changes that occurs in the species of a
(4) Pea , bean
given area is called 127. In dicot stem, cork cambium is formed by
(1) Nutrient cycling (1) Differentiation of cortex
(2) Bioamplifiation (2) Differentiation of medullary ray
cells
(3) Biofortification
(3) Dedifferentiation of cortex
(4) Ecological succession (4) Dedifferentiation of pericycle
123. Choose incorrect statement 128. In case of _____ chromosomes the
centromere is situated close to its end
(1) Organisms share similarities both forming one extremely short and one very
horizontally and vertically long arm
(2) In majority of higher plants and (1) Telocentric
(2) Acrocentric
animals , growth and reproduction are
(3) Submetacentric
mutually exclusive events
(4) Metacentric

Sri Chaitanya Page 18

129. Which of the following are not a true (3) Active transport
biomacromolecules ? (4) Both 1 & 3
134. Total how many ATP and
(1) Lipids +
NADPH + H are required respectively in
(2) Proteins six turns of Calvin cycle ?
(3) Nucleic acid (1) 18 , 12
(2) 12 , 18
(4) Polysaccharide
(3) 18, 18
130. If DNA amount in G1 phase is 2C , what
(4) 12, 12
will be DNA amount by end of S- phase ? 135. What is site of NADH + H + synthesis in
(1) 2C glycolysis ?
(1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate →
(2) 4C
dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(3) 1C (2) dihydroxy acetone phosphate →
PGAL
(4) None
(3) F-1,6-Bis P → DHAP , PGAL
131. Who proposed that plants change light
(4) PGAL → 1,3 –Bis PGA
energy to chemical energy by transferring
SECTION – B
an electron in an organized array of 136. Match the following columns and select
pigment molecules and other substances ? the correct option

(1) Cornelius Von Neil Column I Column II

a) Hydra i) Fragmentation
(2) Ingenhousz
b) Sponges ii) Gemmule
(3) Calvin c) Paramecium iii) Binary fission
(4) Hatch – Slack d) Amoeba iv) Sporulation
132. Activator of ribulose bisphosphate (1) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
carboxylase – oxygenase and (2) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase is (3) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(1) Manganese (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) Magnesium 137. Even in absence of pollinating agent, seed
(3) Zinc setting is assured in
(4) Iron (1) Pea
133. Transport across membrane saturates in (2) Viola
(1) Facilitated diffusion (3) Sweet potato
(2) Simple diffusion (4) Cucurbita

Sri Chaitanya Page 19

138. Given below is the diagrammatic (1) a, b, d, e
representation of a monohybrid cross. In
(2) a, b, e
this , find out the genotypes of tall plants
in all the given generations (3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d, e
141. Read the following statements
(a) A small portion of activated sludge
is used as inoculum to start another
secondary treatment
(b) Anaerobic digestion of activated
sludge produces biogas inside anaerobic
sludge digester
(c) During secondary treatment in a
secondary treatment plant, BOD is
initially high and then decreases by the
activity of flocs
(d) The treatment of waste water in a
F1 F2
Parents sewage treatment plant is done by
generation generation
heterotrophic microorganisms naturally
(1) TT Tt TT, Tt
(2) TT Tt Tt, tt present in sewage

(3) Tt TT Tt Choose correct statements

(4) TT TT TT (1) Only a , b
139. The DNA in nucleoid is organized in
(2) Only b, c
(1) Nucleosomes
(2) Beads on strings like arrangement (3) Only c, d

(3) Large loops held by proteins (4) a, b, c, d

(4) Small loops held by proteins 142. Elution means
140. In India two species of sugarcane were
(1) Cutting and extraction of DNA
crossed to have sugarcane varieties that
have high qualities like bands from agarose gel
(a) Thick stem (2) isolation of DNA from cell
(b) high sugar
(3) purification of DNA
(c) poor sugar
(4) Separation of DNA segments
(d) Sensitive to low temperature
(e) resistant to low temperature according to their size

Sri Chaitanya Page 20

143. The cry gene is obtained from (4) Geometric growth as seen in initial
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens phase of embryo development
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis 147. Net gain of ATP molecule for each
(3) Rhizobium molecule of glucose in fermentation is
_______
(4) Frankia (1) Zero
144. Maximum xerophytes may accumulate (2) 2
____, an amino acid in response to stress
(3) 4
(1) Proline
(4) 6
(2) Valine
148. Assertion (A) : Temperature affect dark
(3) Arginine reactions in chloroplast
(4) Glycerol Reason (R) : Dark reactions are
145. Which of the following is an example of controlled by enzymes
sedimentary cycle (1) Both A and R are correct and R is
(1) Phosphorus correct explanation of A
(2) Carbon (2) Both A and R are correct and R is
(3) Hydrogen not correct explanation of A

(4) Nitrogen (3) Only A is correct R is incorrect

146. The given image represents (4) Both A and R are incorrect
149. Transfer of amino group of one amino
acid to the keto group of keto acid is
called _______ and it is catalysed by
________
(1) Reductive amination, glutamate
dehydrogenase

(1) Arithmetic growth as seen in embryo (2) Catalytic amidation, glutamine

development synthetase

(2) Arithmetic growth as seen in stem (3) Amide synthesis, asparagine

and root synthetase

(3) Geometric growth in leaf, root, stem (4) Transamination, transaminase

Sri Chaitanya Page 21
150. Give below is the pathway of water 153. In all the following examples one is
movement in root. Identify A, B, C, D in benefited (+) and the another one is either
the given diagram
detrimental (–) or neutral (0) except
(1) sparrow on rice plant
(2) Cuscuta on hedge plant
(3) orchid on mango tree
(4) wasp on fig tree
154. Which of the following response to
temperature is escape in time (a) and
shown by homeotherm (b)?
(1) A – Symplastic path, B – Apoplastic
(1) (a) – Migration; (b) – Caribou
path, C – Cortex, D – Endodermis, E –
Casparian strip (2) (a) – Hibernation; (b) – Bear
(2) A – Endodermis, B – Apoplastic (3) (a) – Aestivation; (b) – Snail
path, C – Cortex, D – Casparian strip, E – (4) (a) – Migration; (b) – Great Flamingo
Symplastic path 155. In dN/dt = (b – d) × N
(3) A – Endodermis, B – Symplastic In the above, the (b – d) is
path, C – Cortex, D –Apoplastic path, E – (1) e – the base of natural logarithms
Casparian strip
(2) Nt = Population density after time t
(4) A – Casparian strip, B – Apoplastic
(3) r – intrinsic rate of natural increase
path, C – Cortex, D – Symplastic path, E
– Endodermis (4) N0 = Population density at time zero
ZOOLOGY 156. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
SECTION – A
(1) GPP of an ecosystem is the rate of
151. For effective treatment of a disease, early
production of organic matter during
diagnosis and understanding its
photosynthesis
pathophysiology istermed
(2) NPP is the available biomass for the
(1) traditional diagnosis
consumption to herbivores but not for
(2) gene mapping
decomposers
(3) gene therapy
(3) Secondary productivity is defined as
(4) molecular diagnosis
the rate of formation of new organic
152. Scrubber is used to control
matter by consumers
(1) pesticide pollution
(4) Exploitation efficiency is the
(2) sulphur dioxide pollution
percentage of energy of organisms on one
(3) sewage pollution
trophic level consumed by organisms on
(4) radioactive pollution
the next trophic level

Sri Chaitanya Page 22

157. Degradation of humus by some microbes (1) Inspiratory capacity, expiratory
to release of inorganic nutrients occurs by capacity and vital capacity
a process known as (2) Inspiratory capacity, functional
(1) mineralisation residual capacity and vital capacity
(2) humification (3) Expiratory capacity, functional
(3) degradation residual capacity and total lung capacity
(4) fragmentation (4) Inspiratory capacity, functional
158. Read the following statements (a-d) with residual capacity and total lung capacity
respect to life history variation 162. Match the following
(a) Pacific salmon breeds only once in its List-I List-II
lifetime
(a) Meandrina (i) Tusk shell
(b) Oysters produce a small number of
large-sized offspring (b) Locusta (ii) Liver fluke
(c) Ecologists suggest that life history (c) Dentalium (iii) Brain coral
traits of organisms have evolved in
(d) Fasciola (iv) Gregarious pest
relation to the constraints imposed by the
abiotic and biotic components of the Choose the correct answer from the
habitat in which they live options given below
(d) Bamboo breeds many times during its (1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
lifetime (2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
In the above, the correct statements are (3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(1) a and c (4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) b and d 163. People all over the world have acclaimed
(3) a and d the Chipko movement for
(4) b and c (1) protecting the ozone shield
159. A wide range of variations from single (2) protecting trees and forests
base pair change, many base pairs, and (3) protecting the sea coasts
repeated sequences in DNA is termed (4) protecting the Ramsar wetlands
(1) transcription 164. The following are some of the human
(2) polymerization communicable diseases?
(3) translation (a) Malaria fever (b) Elephantiasis
(4) polymorphism (c) Dengue fever (d) Chikungunya
160. In females, the FSH receptors are found (e) Yellow fever (f) Typhoid
in Choose the correct option that with
(1) sertoli cells respect the viral diseases that spread
(2) granulosa cells through mosquitos
(3) endometrial cells (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) juxtaglomerular cells (2) (c), (d) and (e) only
161. Which of the following respiratory (3) (a), (d) and (f) only
capacities require tidal volume?
(4) (c) and (d) only
Sri Chaitanya Page 23
165. Match the following (3) cystic duct
List-I List-II (4) portal blood vessel
(a) Lactational (i) Avoids the meeting 168. Succus entericus doesn’t have
amenorrhea of gametes (1) carboxypeptidase
(b) Oral (ii) Reduces the (2) invertase
contraceptive pill motility of sperms (3) aminopeptidase
(c) Copper (4) dipeptidase
(iii) Prevents ovulation 169. Rh–ve mother shows incompatibility with
intrauterine device
her child when
(iv) Intense lactation
(d) Diaphragm (1) the child is Rh–ve
prevents menstruation
(2) her husband is Rh–ve
Choose the correct answer from the
(3) the child has rhesus factor on RBCs
options given below (4) the child has anti Rh antibodies in
(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) plasma
170. Which of the following statement is
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
correct with respect to cockroach?
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) (1) In female, the 7th tergum is boat
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) shaped and helps in the constitution of
brood pouch
166. In which of the following regions, the
(2) The head holds a bit of a nervous
partial pressures are 40 mmHg of Oxygen system while the rest is situated along the
(A) and Carbon dioxide (B) dorsal part of its body
(1) A – Deoxygenated blood and tissues; (3) Males have 3 pairs of testes lying on
each lateral side in the 4th-6thabdominal
B – Oxygenated blood and alveoli segments
(3) A – Oxygenated blood and alveoli; B (4) The kind of vision in cockroach is
– Deoxygenated blood and tissues called mosaic vision with more sensitivity
but less resolution
(3) A – Deoxygenated blood and alveoli;
171. Which of the following statements is
B – Oxygenated blood and tissues correct w.r.t the nature of striated and
(4) A – Oxygenated blood and tissues; B involuntary muscles?
(1) These muscles are present in the wall
– Deoxygenated blood and alveoli
of blood vessels
167. Pancreatic juice that entered into (2) These muscles have irregular
pancreatic duct released into duodenum striations
via (3) They are controlled by somatic
nervous system
(1) common bile duct (4) Communication among the cells is
(2) hepato-pancreatic duct performed by intercalated discs

Sri Chaitanya Page 24

172. Which of the following animal is (3) muscular atrophy
oviparous and can nurture the young ones (4) muscular dystrophy
with its milk? 177. Which of the following is the first step
(1) Ornithorhynchus towards SCID somatic cell gene therapy?
(1) Lymphocytes from the blood of the
(2) Neophron
patient are grown in a culture outsidethe
(3) Pteropus body
(4) Macropus (2) A functional ADA cDNA is
introduced into the lymphocytes
173. Which of the following can covert
(3) Lymphocytes from the blood of the
angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I? patient are grown as a culture in his body
(1) Angiotensin converting enzyme (4) Enzyme replacement therapy is done
for lymphocytes and introduced into the
(2) Renin
blood of patient
(3) Atrial natriuretic peptide 178. Read the following statements
(4) Vasopressin (a) Metamorphosis is seen in the life
174. A haemophilic man married a normal history of earthworm
(b) Molluscs are unsegmented
woman who has no history of psuedocoelomate animals
haemophilia in her family. What is the (c) Comb jellies exhibit tissue grade
probability for getting carrier daughters organization
(d) Tapeworms absorb the predigested
for haemophilia?
food of host with their body surface
(1) 25% (2) 50% (e) Echinoderms do not have excretory
(3) 75% (4) 100% system
Choose the correct answer from the
175. In which of the following ART, in vitro
options given below
fertilization is not required? (1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(1) Test tube baby procedure (2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(2) GIFT (3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) ZIFT (4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) ICSI 179. Secretin of gastro-intestinal mucosa acts
176. Progressive degeneration of skeletal on the
(1) endocrine pancreas
muscle mostly due to genetic disorder
(2) chief cells on stomach
namely
(3) exocrine pancreas
(1) myotonic tetany
(4) neck cells of stomach
(2) myasthenia gravis

Sri Chaitanya Page 25

180. With regard to biological products choose (1) Hypothalamus
the correct options (2) Cerebellum
(a) A human protein, α-1-antitrypsin (3) Cerebrum
developed in a transgenic animal is used (4) Medulla oblongata
to treat emphysema 184. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
(b) A product that developed from a Cucurbita are examples of
transgenic animal cannot be used for the (1) homologous structures
treatment of phenylketonuria (2) homoplasy
(c) The first transgenic cow is Tracy (3) analogous structures
(d) The transgenic cow milk contained
(4) convergent evolution
the human alpha-lactalbumin and is
nutritionally a more balanced product for 185. In which of the following contagious
human babies than natural cow-milk disease the appearance of dry, scaly
(1) (a) and (d) only lesions on various parts of the body such
(2) (b) and (d) only as skin, nails and scalp are seen?
(3) (b) and (c) only (1) Ascariasis
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) Amoebiasis
181. Which of the following is not important
(3) Ringworm
for the digestion of food in stomach?
(1) Release of HCl (4) Ancylostomiasis
(2) Release of pepsinogen SECTION - B
(3) Conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin 186. Which of the following hormone is
(4) Release of intrinsic factor secreted by sertoli cells of male?
182. Match the following (1) Androgen
List-I List-II (2) ICSH
(a) Bioluminescence (i) Hemichordata (3) Erythropoietin
(4) Inhibin
(b) Flame cells (ii) Platyhelminthes
187. Assertion (A): In humans, the
(c) Jointed appendages (iii) Arthropoda erythrocytes transport oxygen to all the
(d) Proboscis gland (iv) Ctenophora tissues, but cannot utilize for their cellular
Choose the correct answer from the respiration.
options given below Reason (R): Erythrocytes are devoid of
(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) membrane bound cell organelles like
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii) mitochondria in mammals.
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
183. Which of the following part of brain the correct explanation of (A)
integrates information received from the (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
semicircular canals of the ear and the not the correct explanation of (A)
auditory system? (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Sri Chaitanya Page 26

188. Statement-I: Sickle cell anaemia is an (2) FSH like
example of hemoglobinopathy. (3) hPL like
Statement-II: Sickle cell anaemia is a (4) prolactin like
kind of quantitative disorder. 191. The main functions of B-cells, basophils
In the light of the above statements, and neutrophils respectively are
choose the correctanswer from the (1) production of antibodies, production
options given below. of inflammatory mediators and
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but phagocytosis
Statement-II is true (2) production of inflammatory
mediators, production of antibodies and
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are
cytolysis
true (3) cytolysis, production of inflammatory
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are mediators and phagocytosis
(4) production of antibodies, production
false
of inflammatory mediators and transport
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II of CO2
is false 192. All may occur due to depletion of
progesterone except
189. Following are the statements about
(1) menstruation
accessory glands of earthworm
(a) They are the reproductive glands of (2) abortion
female reproductive system (3) parturition
(b) They are found in 17th and 19th
(4) implantation
segments
(c) Their secretions are important for the 193. Read the following with respect to
adhesion of two earthworms during thoracic ribs
mating (a) Vertebro-chondral ribs are 7 pairs
(d) Their enzymes are required to (b) Vertebro-sternal ribs are true ribs
neutralize the food in stomach
(c) Rib is called bicephalic because it has
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below two articulating surfaces at its dorsal end
(1) (b) and (c) are correct (d) Floating ribs are articulated with 10th
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct pair of ribs ventrally
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct Choose the correct answer from the
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct. options given below
(1) a and b
190. In MOET method, a cow is administered
hormones, with ……… activity, to (2) b and c
induce follicular maturation and super (3) a and d
ovulation (4) b and d
(1) oxytocin like
Sri Chaitanya Page 27
194. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency List-I List-II
results the malformation of (a) Diapause (i) Siberian crane
(1) phenylalanine (b) Distasteful to
(ii) Monarch butterfly
(2) tryptophan predator

(3) threonine (c) Camouflage (iii) Zooplankton

(4) tyrosine (d) Migration (iv) Tree lizard

195. In embryonic development, the first Choose the correct answer from the
movements of the foetus and appearance options given below
of hair on the head are usually observed (1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
during the (2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(1) fifth month (3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(2) sixth month
198. Injection of antivenin comes under
(3) fourth month (1) active immunity
(4) third month (2) passive immunity
196. Match the following with respect to (3) innate immunity
natural selection (4) autoimmunity
199. Match the following with respect to
List-I List-II
synovial joints
(i) More individuals acquire
(a) Stabilization List-I List-II
mean character value
(a) Ball and
(ii) More individuals acquire (i) between atlas and axis
(b) Directional socket
value other than the mean
change (ii) between carpal and
character value (b) Saddle
metacarpal of thumb
(iii) More individuals
(iii) between glenoid
acquire peripheral character (c) Pivot
(c) Disruption cavity and humerus
value at both ends of the
distribution curve (d) Gliding (iv) between carpals
(iv) More individuals die Choose the correct answer from the
and the group suddenly options given below
disappears (1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
Choose the correct answer from the (2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
options given below (3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i) (4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv) 200. Cocaine
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii) (1) acts as depressant
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii) (2) causes sense of euphoria
197. Match the following (3) forms limbless children
(4) slows down body functions
Sri Chaitanya Page 28
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 12-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 1 KEY

PHYSICS

1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 3 8) 1 9) 1 10) 3
11) 2 12) 4 13) 4 14) 4 15) 2 16) 1 17) 2 18) 2 19) 1 20) 2
21) 4 22) 2 23) 3 24) 4 25) 1 26) 1 27) 3 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4
31) 4 32) 2 33) 2 34) 1 35) 2 36) 2 37) 4 38) 2 39) 4 40) 2
41) 2 42) 3 43) 1 44) 4 45) 3 46) 1 47) 2 48) 4 49) 4 50) 1

CHEMISTRY

51) 1 52) 1 53) 2 54) 1 55) 2 56) 2 57) 4 58) 4 59) 2 60) 1
61) 3 62) 3 63) 1 64) 4 65) 4 66) 3 67) 2 68) 1 69) 3 70) 4
71) 4 72) 4 73) 4 74) 4 75) 3 76) 1 77) 3 78) 1 79) 4 80) 2
81) 2 82) 2 83) 2 84) 1 85) 1 86) 1 87) 2 88) 2 89) 4 90) 2
91) 3 92) 4 93) 1 94) 3 95) 1 96) 1 97) 3 98) 3 99) 3 100) 2

BOTANY

101) 4 102) 2 103) 3 104) 1 105) 1 106) 4 107) 1 108) 3 109) 1 110) 2
111) 4 112) 1 113) 3 114) 1 115) 1 116) 3 117) 1 118) 1 119) 2 120) 1
121) 1 122) 4 123) 3 124) 2 125) 3 126) 4 127) 3 128) 2 129) 1 130) 2
131) 3 132) 2 133) 4 134) 1 135) 4 136) 4 137) 2 138) 1 139) 3 140) 2
141) 4 142) 1 143) 2 144) 1 145) 1 146) 4 147) 2 148) 1 149) 4 150) 1

ZOOLOGY

151) 4 152) 2 153) 4 154) 2 155) 3 156) 2 157) 1 158) 1 159) 4 160) 2

161) 1 162) 3 163) 2 164) 2 165) 4 166) 1 167) 2 168) 1 169) 3 170) 4

171) 4 172) 1 173) 2 174) 4 175) 2 176) 4 177) 1 178) 2 179) 3 180) 1

181) 4 182) 3 183) 2 184) 1 185) 3 186) 4 187) 2 188) 4 189) 1 190) 2

191) 1 192) 4 193) 2 194) 4 195) 1 196) 3 197) 1 198) 2 199) 3 200) 2

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS L2 1
SECTION – A 11. KE = ⇒K∝
2I I
01. L = L1 + L2 = 5 + 7 = 12cm 12. Breaking force F α A
∆L = ∆L1 + ∆L2 = 0.1 + 0.2 = 0.3 cm 13. a) scale expands and shows less reading
L1 = ∆L1 − ∆L2 = 5 − 7 = 2 cm b) Since T ∝ l , the clock runs slowly,
∆L1 = ∆L1 + ∆L2 = 0.1 + 0.2 = 0.3 cm c) Density of liquid decrease so a floating
body sinks a little more and the weight of
8t 3 a body in a liquid increases
02. x = 32t − ; v = 32 − 8t 2
3 1 1 T T
v = 0 at t = 2s 14. η = = =1− 2 = 1− 2
1+ β 7 T1 301
03. N = mg cos θ ; f = f s = mg sin θ
15. This is a case of free expansion. There
2 2
R= f + N = mg will be no change of temperature.
dm n1.Cv1 + n2Cv2
04. F = v× = 2000 × 50 = 105 N 16. Cv =
dt n1 + n2
20 17. The pressure variation is maximum at
05. Given ; r = m, v = 80m / s
π displacement nodes.
20
s = 2 × 2π r = 4π × = 80 m  V   V 
π 18. n1 =  n n =  V + V  n
 V − Vs  ;
2
v = 2 at s ⇒ 6400 = 2 at × 80 ⇒ 80 = 40 m / s 2
2 s

dx V 
06. x = t2 ; = 2t ; v = 2 × 4 = 8m / s ∆ n = n1 : n2 ; 2  s  n
dt V
Work done, 4
= 2× × 240 = 6
1 1 1 320
W = mv 2 − 0 = mv 2 = × 4 × 64 = 128 J
2 2 2 19. Let they will meet in phase after time 't'.
07. At poles, g 90 = g Then φ1 − φ 2 = π
08. The potential energy oer unit mass 2π 2π 21
t− t =π ⇒t = s
GM T1 T2 8
E =
R 20. d = i1 + i2 − A = 50 + 40 − 60 = 30
The escape velocity is
d min < 30o (Q i1 ≠ i2 )
2GM
Ve = = 2E 21. P = P1 + P2 = 10 − 5 = 5D
R
3m − m g v
09. a= = For virtual image m = = 2 ⇒ v = 2u
3m + m 2 u
1 1 1 1 1 1
Acceleration of centre of mass = − ⇒5= − =
f v u 2u u −2u
g mg
3m × − 1
= 2 2 =g ⇒u=− m = −10cm
3m + m 4 10
22. (A):The clouds having water droplets are
 20 − 0 
10. τ = I α = 40  = 2000 N − m
 0.4  generally white, as size of droplets >>
wave length of light.
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
 nλ D d2 6 × 10 8
ω
23. nβ = d ; =d; n= V= − = 1.5 × 10 8
d λD k 4
x x
V = − ∫ E.dx = − ∫
k
dx =
k C 3 × 10 8
24.
3 R.I. of medium µ = = =2
∝ ∝x 2x 2 V 1.5 × 10 8
25. Without dielectric C0 = ε 0 A
SECTION - B
d 36. One verner division = 0.8/10=0.08 cm;
With dielectric L.C = 1 MSD – 1
ε0 A ε0 A ε A  3k  VSD = 0.1– 0.08 = 0.02 cm
C= = = 0 
d d 2d d d  2k + 1 
d− + + u2 u2
3 3k 3 3k 37. H1 = sin 2 60 ; H 2 = cos 2 60
2g 2g
26. Vd = 
eE 
τ ; Vd ∝ E H1 H
m = tan 2 60 = 3 (or ) H 2 = 1
27. [A], [C] and [D] are correct H2 3
28. Permanent magnet should have high 38. For heavy body, v2 ; u2 = 10 m / s
retentivity and electro magnet should For elastic collision, v2 − v1 = u1 − u2
have low hysteris laws ⇒ 10 − v1 = 12 − 10 ⇒ v1 = +8 m / s
29. Maximum current possible in
galvanometer 39. gφ = g − Rω 2 cos 2 φ
ig = 25 x 4 x 10−4 A = 10−2 A =g − Rω 2 cos 2 φ
90
V 2.5
R= −G R= − 100 3
ig −2 =g − gφ = Rω 2 cos 2 φ = Rω 2
10 90 4
R = 150 Ω 3
cos 2 φ =
30. AC voltage represents root mean square 4
voltage. 41. Viscous force is small, during first 100 m
h of fall than during second 100 m of fall
31. λ = . It is independent of nature of
p dθ 1 1
42. ∝ ∝ y ;
particle. dt rds m 3

1/3 1/3
32. In photo picture of light, the intensity of R1  m2   m  1
light is determined by number of photons =  =  = 1/3
R2  m1   2m  2
crossing per unit area per unit time.
43. As d sin θ = nλ when n = 1;
33. In the given graph,
d sin θ = λ the phase difference is 2π
Region (I) –Cutoff region
and we get first minima.
Region (II) – Active region
44. When two conductors are connected by a
Region (III) – Saturation region
wire, potential ‘v’ is same.
Using transistor as a switch it is used in
The ratio of their charges
cut off region or saturation region.
q1 : q2 = C1 : C2 = r1 : r2
34. From Boolean algebra we have
Y = A. (A + B) = A The ratio of electric fields
35. Velocity of Emw in medium q q 1 1
E1 : E2 = 12 : 22 = : = r2 : r1
r1 r2 r1 r2

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

45. Required potential gradient = 1 mV cm-1 54.
1
= Vm −1
10 Λ om  Ba ( OH )2  = Λ om [ BaCl2 ] − 2Λ om [ KCl ] + 2Λ om [ KOH ]
Length of potentiometer wire, l = 4m
55. for ccp, Z = 4
∴ tetrahedral voids = 8 and octahedral
voids = 4
56. Conceptual
Potential gradient
25 75 3
 Ep  R 1  2 8 57. X : Y = : = 1: = 2 : 3
=  ⇒ =  ⇒ R = 32Ω 10 20 2
 R + RS  L 10  R + 8  4
58.
di di
46. e = −L ; is more for graph (1)
dt dt O OH
h CH3 −MgBr
47. λ= CH3 − C − CH3  + → CH3 − C − CH3
2mVq H 2O H
CH 3
12500
48. Energy of photon = = 12.75eV Tertiary butyl alcohol
980
∴ Electron will excite to n = 4 59. Conceptual
4 3 2 1
Since R ∝ n 2 60. C H 3 − C H = C H − COOH
∴ Radius of atom (orbit of excited state) 61. Conceptual
will be 16a 0 62. Pig iron is obtained from blast furnace
M0 100 63. for liquid water, C P = C V = 18
49. = 2n ⇒ = 2n = 33.3 ⇒ n ; 5
M 3 64. Conceptual
t = 5 × 12.3 ; 63 years 65. Soap is associate colloid
Since marked 7 years old ; total time ; 7 66. Orthorhombic has 4 type of unit cells
years 67. N +4 → N +3 + N +5 is disproportionation
50. The main cause of zener breakdown is 68. ∆ H = Ef − E b , y = x − Eb
high electric field due to heavy doping
Eb = x − y
CHEMISTRY
Kw K w 1× 10−14
SECTION – A 69. Kh = , Kb = = −5
= 5 × 10−10
Kb K h 2 × 10
51. Conceptual
CH 3 − CH ( F ) − CH 2 − CH 3 
alc KOH
→
70.
CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − CH 3
71. Conceptual
52. 72. Conceptual
53. Aliphatic primary amines forms alcohols 73. Osmotic pressure ∝ M × number of ions
during diazotisation E1 ν1
74. =
E 2 ν2
75. It has one lone pair of electrons

Sri Chaitanya Page 4

 O 91. Conceptual
F F 92. In trigonal bipyramidal structures lone
Xe pair occupy equatorial positions. Both
F ii
F
ClF3 and SCl4 undergo sp3d
76. Conceptual
hybridisation
77. Conceptual
93. Conceptual
78. Conceptual
94. Conceptual
79. Unsymmetrical ethers, ketones and
95. In Gattermann reaction benzaldehyde is
secondary amines show metamerism
formed
CH 3
In Hell Volhard Zelinsky reaction alpha
OH − N = C − C = N − OH halogenation of acids takes place
CH 3 Haloform test is shown by ketones and
80. O
81. Density of Zn = 7.1, Cu = 8.9, Sc = 3.43,
− C − CH3
V = 1.45 aldehydes containing
ii In Esterification, acid and alcohol reacts
X
Y Y (like SO )
to form ester
82. 2
96. Stronger ligand CN − pair the unpaired
CH3 (C H CO) O
CH − CH = CH2 + HCl 
6 5 2 → electrons in d subshell but not weaker
CH 3 ligand like H 2O
83.
H 3C 97. NaBH 4 C 2 H 5OH is a weak reducing
CH − CH − CH2 agent. It can reduce ketones to alcohols
H 3C
H Cl 98. From H 2O to H 2Te as X – H bond
84. Yb - 70, 4f 14 6s 2 enthalpy decreases, acidic strength
Lu – 71, 4f 14 5d1 6s 2 increases ( K a increases)
85. Conceptual ∴ H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te.... K a
SECTION – B
H 2O > H 2S > H 2Se > H 2Te.... P K a
86. Vapour pressure of a solvent ∝ Mole
Λc
fraction of the solute 99. α=
87. Since it is endothermic reaction, Λo
∆ H = + ve and entropy increases 100. Conceptual
∆ S = + ve BOTANY
88. SECTION – A
CH 3 CH ( OCrOHCl2 )2 CHO
101. NCERT line
+
+ CrO2Cl2 
CS2
→ 
H3O
→ 102. NCERT line
Chromium complex 103. NCERT line
89. PTotal × VTotal = ( n1 + n 2 ) RT 104. NCERT diagram
90. Angular node = ℓ and 105. NCERT line
radial node = ( n − ℓ − 1)
106. NCERT line
Sri Chaitanya Page 5
107. NCERT line SECTION – B
108. Synapsis occurs in zygotene 136. NCERT line
109. Conceputal 137. NCERT line
110. NCERT line 138. NCERT diagram
111. NCERT line 139. NCERT line
112. NCERT line 140. NCERT line
113. NCERT line 141. NCERT line
114. Persistent sepals are seen in solanceae 142. NCERT line
115. NCERT diagram 143. NCERT line
116. Incomplete dominance 144. Proline is accumulated during stress
117. NCERT line conditions
118. NCERT line 145. P & S are sedimentary cycles
119. Curd contains high amount of Vit B12 146. NCERT diagram
120. DNA ligase helps in formation of S – P 147. NCERT line
bond 148. NCERT line
121. NCERT line 149. NCERT line
122. NCERT line 150. NCERT diagram
123. NCERT line ZOOLOGY
124. NCERT line SECTION – A
125 Zygotic mitosis is seen in majority of 151. For effective treatment of a disease, early
diagnosis and understanding its
algae
pathophysiology is it is termed molecular
126. NCERT line diagnosis.
127. Cork cambium is formed by 152. Scrubber is used to control SO2 pollution.
153. In the population interaction developed
dedifferentiation of cortex
between wasp and fig tree is mututalism
128. NCERT line in which both the individuals are
129. NCERT line benefited.
130. DNA content is doubled in S-phase 154. Hibernation is a response to temperature
considered as escape in time and it is
131. NCERT line
shown by homeotherms like bears and
132. NCERT line poikilotherms like frogs.
133. NCERT line 155. In dN/dt = (b – d) × N, (b – d) is r, that is
intrinsic rate of natural increase.
134. NCERT line
135. NCERT line

Sri Chaitanya Page 6

156. Net primary productivity is the available 168. Succus entericus doesn’t have
biomass for the consumption to carboxypeptidase. It is the enzyme of
heterotrophs (herbivores and pancreatic juice. Invertase is the other
decomposers). name of sucrase.
157. Degradation of humus by some microbes 169. Rh–ve mother shows incompatibility with
to release of inorganic nutrients occur by her offspring when the child has rhesus
a process known as mineralisation. factor on RBCs, means the child is Rh+ve
158. Oysters produce a large number of small- 170. In female, the 7thsternum is boat shaped
sized offspring; Bamboo breeds only and helps in the constitution of brood
once in its lifetime. pouch; The head holds a bit of a nervous
159. A wide range of variations from single system while the rest is situated along the
base pair change, many base pairs, and ventral part of its body. Males have a pair
repeated sequences is termed of testes one lying on each lateral side in
polymorphism. the 4th-6th abdominal segments.
160. In females, the FSH receptors are found 171. Striated and involuntary muscle is cardiac
in granulosa cells. muscle. The cardiac muscle has regular
161. Inspiratory capacity = IRV + TV; striations and involuntary in nature.
Expiratory capacity = ERV + TV; Vital 172. Mammal that is oviparous is
capacity = IRV TV + ERV. Ornithorhynchus (Duck bill platypus)
162. Meandrina – Brain coral; Locusta – 173. Renin can convert angiotensinogen into
Gregarious pest; Dentalium – Tusk shell; angiotensin-I
Fasciola – Liver fluke. 174. All the daughters of haemophilic father
163. People all over the world have acclaimed and normal mother are carriers.
the Chipko movement for protecting trees 175. In GIFT, in vitro fertilization does not
and forests. occur.
164. Dengue fever, chikungunya and yellow 176. Progressive degeneration of skeletal
fever are viral diseases that spread muscle mostly due to genetic disorder is
through mosquitoes. muscular dystrophy. It is an X-linked
165. Lactational amenorrhea: Suitable for recessive disorder.
woman after at least a baby delivery; Oral 177. As a first step towards gene therapy,
contraceptive pill: Prevents ovulation; lymphocytes from the blood of the patient
Copper IUD: Reduces the motility of are grown in a culture outside the body.
sperms; Diaphragm: Prevents the meeting 178. Conceptual
of gametes. 179. Secretin of gastro-intestinal mucosa acts
166. In deoxygenated blood and tissues, the on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates
oxygen is in 40 mmHg while in secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.
oxygenated blood and alveoli, the carbon 180. The products of transgenic animals can be
dioxide is in 40 mmHg. used in the treatment of phenylketonuria
167. Pancreatic juice that found in pancreatic and cystic fibrosis. The first transgenic
duct released into duodenum via hepato- cow is Rosie.
pancreatic duct.

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

181. Release of intrinsic factor is not required 190. In MOET method, a cow is administered
for digestion of food in stomach, but hormones, with FSH like activity, to
required for absorption of induce follicular maturation and super
cyanocobalamin in small intestine. ovulation.
182. Bioluminescence – Ctenophora; Flame 191. The main functions of B-cells, basophils
cells – Platyhelminthes; Jointed and neutrophils respectively are
appendages – Arthropoda; Proboscis production of antibodies, production of
gland – Hemichordata. inflammatory mediators and
183. Cerebellum integrates information phagocytosis.
received from the semicircular canals of 192. Progesterone is required for successful
the ear and the auditory system. embryonic implantation into the
184. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of endometrium.
Cucurbita are analogous structures. 193. Vertebro-chondral ribs are three pairs;
185. In ringworm, the appearance of dry, scaly Floating ribs are not articulated on ventral
lesions on various parts of the body such side.
as skin, nails and scalp are seen. 194. Phenylalanine hydroxylase is required for
SECTION – B the conversion of phenylalanine into
186. Inhibin is secreted by sertoli cells of tyrosine.
male. 195. The first movements of the foetus and
187. As erythrocytes are devoid of membrane appearance of hair on the head are usually
bound cell organelles like mitochondria observed during the fifth month.
in mammals, the erythrocytes transport
196. Conceptual.
oxygen to all the tissues, but cannot
utilize for their cellular respiration. 197. Diapause – Zooplankton; Distasteful to
188. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of predator – Monarch butterfly;
hamoglobinopathy (a group of disorders
Camouflage – Tree lizard; Migration –
passed down through families (inherited)
in which there is abnormal production or Siberian crane.
structure of the hemoglobin molecule). It 198. Injection of antivenin comes under
is a qualitative disorder.
passive immunity.
189. Accessory glands are male reproductive
199. Conceptual.
glands and they do not participate in
200. Cocaine causes sense of euphoria.
digestion.

Sri Chaitanya Page 8

 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 14-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 2 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY 3. Identify the correct statement from the

SECTION – A following
1. Which one among the following is a (1) Spliceosomes are present in
modified leaf ? primitive nucleus of prokaryotes
(1) Thorn in Bougainvillea (2) Poly – A is added to 5' end of
(2) Spine in Opuntia primary RNA transcript
(3) Phylloclade in Euphorbia (3) Ochoa’s enzyme is used to
(4) Bulbil in Agave polymerise nucleotides of DNA
2. Read the following represenation (4) Three types of RNA polymerase in
nucleus and one more type in
Apical meristem
mitochondria exist in eukaryotes
A
4. Members of a family are characterized by
Cortex vexillary aestivation in petals. Choose the
B character NOT associated with that

Cork cambium family

C (1) Nodular roots
(2) Epipetalous stamens
Cork
(3) Legume fruit
A, B and C refers to
(4) Diadelphous stamens
(1) Differentiation, dedifferentiation and
redifferentiation 5. Which one among the following is a
(2) Dedifferentiation, redifferentiation parasite with ‘spore like stage’ in its life
and differentiation cycle ?
(3) Redifferentiation, differentiation and (1) Plasmodium
redifferentiation (2) Slime mould
(4) Differentiation, redifferentiation and (3) Diatoms
dedifferentiation (4) Dinoflagellates
Sri Chaitanya Page 1
6. Enzyme isolated from Thermus aquaticus (1) Metabolism
bacterium is used in (2) Growth
(1) Gene mutation (3) Irritability
(2) Gene amplification (4) Cellular nature
(3) Gene isolation
11. Match the following in relation to usage
(4) Gene expression
of process in Column I with the
7. Which of the following statement is
field/branch in Column II
incorrect?
Column I Column II
(1) Viruses are obligate parasites
I Electrophorosis A Genetically
(2) Infective constituent of virus is
modified crops
protein II Emasculation B Conventional
(3) Prions contain abnormally folded plant breeding
protein III Agar-agar C rDNA
(4) Viroids possess low molecular technology
weight RNA IV Biopatency D Tissue culture
8. Human skin colour is an example of (1) I - C, II - B, III - D, IV - A
(1) Pleiotropy (2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV – D
(2) Polygenic inheritance (3) I - C, II - B, III - A, IV – D
(3) Co-dominance (4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV – C
(4) Multiple allelism 12. Which ecosystem service would carry
9. RNA interference method involves heaviest price tag ?
silencing of a specific _A_ due to _B_ (1) Soil formation
that binds and prevents _C_. The correct
(2) Nutrient cycling
options for A, B, C respectively are
(3) Climate regulation
A B C
(4) Recreational activities
(1) mRNA dsRNA Transcription
13. Site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis is
(2) dsRNA mRNA Translation
(1) RER
(3) mRNA dsRNA Translation
(2) Nuclear membrane
(4) mRNA ssRNA Transcription
(3) Nucleolus

10. Which is NOT exclusive of living (4) Cytoplasm

beings?

Sri Chaitanya Page 2

14. ATP is needed in all the following steps Datura, Long seed
III C
except Coconut viability period

(1) Reduction phase in calvin cycle Lupinus, Many ovules in

IV D
(2) Activation of amino acid during Date palm ovary

translation (1) I - C, II - B, III - D, IV - A

(3) Biological nitrogen fixation (2) I - D, II - A, III - B, IV – C

(4) Facilitated diffusion (3) I - C, II - B, III - A, IV – D

15. Which biochemical is commonly (4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV – C

synthesized during glycolysis, link 19. Which is NOT true regarding hormones ?

reaction and kreb’s cycle ? (1) Thinning of cotton : Ethylene

(1) CO 2 (2) Bolting in cabbage : Gibberellins

(3) Flowering in pine apple : Auxin
(2) ATP
(4) Seed germination in Barley : ABA
(3) NADH + H +
20. Which among the following is under the
(4) FADH 2
influence of both pressure and
16. Pick the wrong match from the following
concentration?
(1) Potassium – Osmoticum
(1) Ascent of sap due to transpiration
(2) Magnesium – Spindle formation
pull
(3) Calcium – Mobile element
(2) Translocation of organic solutes
(4) Iron – Chlorophyll synthesis
(3) Absorption of water by root hairs
17. Densely stained reticular cell organelle
(4) Ascent of sap due to root pressure
helpful in packaging material to deliver
21. Which is NOT a wheat variety ?
into intercellular targets is
(1) Ratna
(1) RER
(2) Sonalika
(2) SER
(3) Himgiri
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Atlas 66
(4) Lysosomes
22. Microbe used in preparation of bread,
18. Match the following
beer and wine is
Column I Column II
(1) Lactobacillus
Papaya, Cleistogamous
I A (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
watermelon flowers
Commelina, Endospermic
(3) Leuconostoc faecalis
II B (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Pansy seeds

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

23. Water is NOT required during 28. The basis/root of plant breeding
(1) Gametic transfer during fertilisation programmes related to hybrid plant
in alga production is
(2) Pollination in Vallisnaria (1) Selection of parents
(3) Cell elongation (2) Commercialisation of new cultivars
(4) Fertilisation in flowering plants (3) Testing & evaluation of progeny
24. Clinical trials in downstream processing (4) Collection of variability
is need for 29. ‘Red tides’ are due to
(1) Animal feed (1) Human induced natural calamity
(2) Human drugs (2) Decrease in photosynthetic yield due
(3) Pesticides to non functioning of PS II
(4) Biofertilisation (3) Water bloom caused by blue green
25. In leaves of tea, lignified tissues are seen alga
in all except (4) Population explosion of Gonyaulax
(1) Fibers 30. Monomeric units are NOT the same in
(2) Tracheids (1) Starch
(3) Sieve elements (2) Chitin
(4) Sclereids (3) Insulin
26. Which among the following is a (4) Inulin
biochemical producer and biocontrol 31. Match the following
agent ? List – I List – II
(1) Monascus I) Gemmules A) Planaria
(2) Saccharomyces II) True regeneration B) Dogs
(3) Trichoderma
III) Monocarpic perennial C) Sponges
(4) Penicillium
IV) Oestrous cycle D) Strobilanthus
27. Ground tissue in leaf is
V) Gemmae E) Marchantia
(1) Xylem
(1) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV – B, V - E
(2) Phloem
(2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV – E, V - D
(3) Mesophyll
(3) I - C, II - B, III - E, IV – D, V - A
(4) Epidermis
(4) I - E, II - A, III - D, IV – B, V – C

Sri Chaitanya Page 4

32. In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb , F2 IV. Palmitic acid contain 20 carbons
progeny of AABB, AABb, AaBB and including carboxyl group
AaBb occurs in the ratio of (1) I & II
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) II & III
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) III & IV
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (4) I & IV
(4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 Sol. Memory based
33. Statement – I : Movement of both the 35. Match the following
sister chromatids of a chromosome to the Test tube fertilisation Scientists

same pole occur during anaphase I of Intraovarian G.N.

I A
pollination Ramachandran
meiosis I
Triple helical
Statement – II : Division of centromere II B C.Esau
structure of collagen
and subsequent movement of sister
Effect of hard
chromatids towards two opposite poles
X-rays on
occur during anaphase of mitosis and III C P Maheswari
Bacteriophage
anaphase II of meiosis II
mutiplication
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true Curlytop virus
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II IV transfer through food D Watson
is false. conducting tissue
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II (1) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
is true. (2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV – D
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) I - C, II - B, III - A, IV – D
false (4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV – C
34. Following are the statements with SECTION – B
reference to lipids. Pick the correct pair 36. A protistan with pellicle, ciliary
I. Lipids having single bonds are movement, transverse binary fission,
unsaturated fatty acids dikaryotic nature with exceptions in
II. Lecithin is phospho lipid present in universality of genetic code is
plasma membrane (1) Euglena
III. Glycerol is chemically (2) Paramecium
trihydroxypropane (3) Gonyaulax
(4) Amoeba

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

37. Increase in concentration of _A_ enhance (4) Segregation
the rate of photosynthesis and increase in 42. Secondary cortex is observed in anatomy
concentration of _B_ decrease of
photosynthetic rate in _C_ plant. What is (1) Grass root
A, B and C ? (2) Datura leaf
(1) Oxygen, Carbondioxide, C3 plant (3) Banyan stem
(2) Carbondioxide, Oxygen, C 4 plant (4) Grass stem
43. Which among the following is NOT by
(3) Oxygen, Carbondioxide, C 4 plant
facilitated diffusion ?
(4) Carbondioxide, Oxygen, C3 plant
(1) Water movement through aquaporins
38. Which among the following is NOT a
(2) Proton movement through coupling
representation of a gametophyte/structure
factor
of gametophytic generation ?
(3) Absorption of ions by root hairs
(1) Green prothallus in ferns
along the concentration gradient
(2) Filamentous protonema in moss
(4) Conduction of water, minerals and
(3) Pollen grain in flowering plants
organic solutes in xylem and phloem
(4) Strobilus in gymnosperms
44. Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
39. Cellular defence mechanism in bacteria
occur in quick succession in the members
against virus is/due to
of
(1) RNAi
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Lac Operon
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Restriction endonuclease
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Capsule presence
(4) Deuteromycetes
40. In STP, activated sludge is a sediment in
45. Gametophytes that develop from
(1) Primary settling tank
functional megaspore in gymnosperms
(2) Aeration tank
and angiosperms is (respectively)
(3) Secondary settling tank
(1) Embryosac & Endosperm
(4) Anaerobic sludge digester
(2) Endosperm & Embryo
41. Physical association of genes on a
(3) Ovule & Endosperm
chromosome is termed as
(4) Endosperm & Embryosac
(1) Recombination
(2) Mutation
(3) Linkage
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
46. When a P BR 322 plasmid is treated with (2) Variety of lady’s finger resistant to
Bam HI to clone a foreign insert shoot and fruit borers
successfully, then the transformed colony (3) Variety of mungbean resistant to
would be resistant to _‘A’_ and sensitive yellow mosaic virus
to _‘B’_. A and B respectively
(4) Variety of brassica resistant to
(1) Ampicillin and Tetracyclin aphids
(2) Tetracyclin and Ampicillin 50. The following is NOT an application of
(3) Tetracyclin and Kanamycin Biotechnology

(4) Kanamycin and Tetracyclin (1) Bioremediation

47. If the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA (2) Production of high yielding varieties
is known, the sequence of amino acids Jaya and Ratna
can be predicted but if the sequence of (3) Energy production
amino acids is known the exact sequence
(4) Genetically modified crops
of nucleotides in mRNA cannot be
ZOOLOGY
predicted. This is because genetic code is
SECTION – A
(1) Ambiguous
51. The sporozoites of Plasmodium are stored
(2) Degenerate
in which part of female Anopheles
(3) Commaless
mosquito ?
(4) Triple code
(1) Gut wall
48. Zoospore producing unicellular (2) Haemolymph
autotroph is
(3) Salivary glands
(1) Albugo
(4) Mouth parts
(2) Chylamdomonas
52. Which episode of mass extinction is
(3) Laminaria
presently in progress?
(4) Porphyra
(1) Fifth Extinction
49. Parbhani kranti is
(2) Seventh Extinction
(1) Variety of lady’s finger resistant to
(3) Fourth Extinction
yellow mosaic virus
(4) Sixth Extinction

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

53. Match the following columns and select (3) The transfer of antibodies from
the correct option : mother to the foetus through placenta is
Column-I Column-II an example for passive immunity.
(a) Atlas (i) Articulates with (4) When exposed to antigens,
acromion
antibodies are produced in the host’s
(b) Scapula (ii) Articulates with
body. It is called active immunity.
occipital condyles
56. In the female reproductive system of
(c) Clavicle (iii) Flat bone on the ventral
cockroach a pair of spermatheca is
midline of thorax
present in the (A) segment which opens
(d) Sternum (iv) Triangular bone situated into the (B)
in the dorsal part of the
Fill the blanks with suitable option :
thorax
(1) (A) – 9th ; (B) genital chamber
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (A) – 6th ; (B) genital chamber
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (A) – 6th ; (B) common oviduct
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (A) – 9th ; (B) vagina
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
57. Organ system level of organisation is
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
exhibited by
54. Which one of the following is the best
(1) Sponges
breeding method for animals that are
(2) Coelenterates
below average in productivity in milk
(3) Ctenophores
production ?
(4) Molluscs
(1) Out-crossing
58. Select the correct events that occur
(2) Cross-breeding
during inspiration
(3) Inbreeding
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
(b) Pulmonary volume decreases
55. Identify the wrong statement with
(c) Contraction of external inter-coastal
reference to immunity
muscles
(1) When ready-made antibodies are
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
directly given, it is called passive
(1) (a) and (c)
immunity.
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives
(3) (b) and (d)
full immunological response.
(4) Only (b)

Sri Chaitanya Page 8

59. Match the following diseases with the (1) High concentration of FSH and LH
symptoms and select the correct option : (2) Degeneration of corpus luteum
Column-I Column-II (3) High concentration of GnRH
(a) Ring worms (i) Stools with excess (4) Degeneration of Graafian follicle
mucous and blood 62. Saliva, earwax, oil and milk are secreted
clots
by
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Internal bleeding,
(1) Endocrine glands
fever and blockage
of intestinal passage (2) Goblet cells of columnar epithelium
(c) Typhoid (iii) Dry, scaly lesions on (3) Cuboidal cells of keratinised
skin, nails and scalp epithelium
(d) Ascariasis (iv) High fever, intestinal (4) Exocrine glands
perforation and death
63. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
(a) (b) (c) (d)
control of
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) Emission of ozone depleting
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
substances
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) Reduction of release of green house
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
gases
60. The theory of special creation has three
(3) Soil erosion and depletion
connotations. Out of these three, one is
(4) Disposal of radioactive wastes
given below. Pick it out
64. Radially symmetrical and acoelomate
(1) Embryos never pass through the
animals are exemplified by
adult stages of ancestral animals.
(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Units of life called spores were
(2) Echinodermata
transferred to different planets including
(3) Ctenophora
the Earth.
(4) Platyhelminthes
(3) The diversity of all living organisms
65. Zona pellucida present in the Graafian
was always same since creation and will
follicle is formed by
be same in future also.
(1) Secondary oocyte
(4) Life came out of decaying and
(2) Primary oocyte
rotting matter like straw, mud, etc.
(3) Cumulus oophorus
61. Which of the following causes
(4) Theca interna
disintegration of the endometrium leading
to menstruation ?
Sri Chaitanya Page 9
66. Which of the following statements are (1) Reabsorption of Na + and water
true for the phylum – Chordata ? from the distal parts of the renal tubule
(a) In Vertebrata the notochord is caused by aldosterone.
replaced by a cartilaginous or bony (2) Water reabsorption from earlier parts
vertebral column in the adult. of the renal tubule by ADH.
(b) A post anal tail is present in all adult (3) Vasoconstriction by angiotensin I.
urochordates. (4) Vasodilation by Atrial Natriuretic
(c) In Cephalochordata, notochord is Factor.
present only in larval tail. 70. Select the correct match :
(d) Vertebrates have a ventral muscular (1) Thalassemia Qualitative problem
heart with two, three or four chambers. (2) Klinefelter’s Monosomy of 23rd
(1) (b) and (c) Syndrome pair
(2) (a) and (d) (3) Sickle-cell Quantitative
(3) (a) and (c) anaemia problem

(4) (b) and (d) (4) Down’s Trisomy of 21st pair

67. Presence of glycosuria and ketonuria Syndrome

conditions in urine are indicative of 71. Read the following statements about

which disorder ? population attributes

(1) Diabetes insipidus (a) A population has birth rates and death

(2) Renal calculi rates.

(3) Glomerulonephritis (b) Population density need not

(4) Diabetes mellitus necessarily be measured in numbers only.

68. Cattle or goats are not generally browsing (c) The shape of age pyramids reflects the

on Calotropis because it produces growth status of the population.

(1) Opium and quinine (d) The tiger census in national parks is

(2) Thorns and tendrils often based on pug marks and faecal

(3) Distasteful poisonous weed pellets.

(4) Cardiac glycosides Choose the correct answer from the

69. Which of the following leads to increase options given below

in blood pressure and glomerular (1) (a),(b) and (c) are correct

filtration rate? (2) (a),(b),(c) and (d) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
Sri Chaitanya Page 10
72. In relation to decomposition, which one (4) The return of the ventricles from
of the following statements is correct? excited to normal state
(1) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go 76. Arrange the following organisms of an
down into soil horizon and get aquatic ecosystem in correct sequence to
precipitated as unavailable salts by the form a grazing food chain
process called as catabolism. (a) Fishes (b) Zooplankton
(2) The decomposition rate is slower, if (c) Phytoplankton (d) Crane
detritus is rich in nitrogen and water – (1) (c) → (b) → (a) → (d)
soluble sugars. (2) (b) → (c) → (a) → (d)
(3) Low temperature and anaerobiasis (3) (c) → (b) → (d) → (a)
accelerate the rate of decomposition. (4) (b) → (a) → (c) → (d)
77. In which of the following techniques, the
(4) Decomposition is largely an oxygen
embryos are transferred to assist those
– requiring process. females who cannot conceive ?
73. The type of muscles present in the wall of (1) GIFT and ZIFT
blood vessels, stomach and intestine are (2) ICSI and AI
(1) Smooth muscles (3) ZIFT and IUT
(2) Cardiac muscles (4) GIFT and ICSI
(3) Skeletal muscles 78. The enzyme enterokinase helps in
(4) Voluntary muscles conversion of
74. Select the correct statement : (1) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(1) Aldosterone stimulates the RBC (2) Chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin
production. (3) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(2) Glucocorticoids stimulate (4) Prorennin into rennin
gluconeogenesis. 79. Read the following statements :
Statement-I : The space within cochlea
(3) Hypothyroidism during puberty
called scala media is filled with
causes cretinism. endolymph.
(4) Parathyroid hormone decreases Statement-II : The vestibular apparatus
is composed of three semi-circular canals
Ca 2+ levels in blood. and the otolith.
75. In a standard ECG the T-wave represents (1) Both Statements I and II are wrong.
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(2) The return of the ventricles from is wrong.
normal to excited state (3) Statement II is correct but Statement I
(3) End of the diastole is wrong.
(4) Both Statements I and II are correct.
Sri Chaitanya Page 11
80. Identify the wrong statement with 84. Which of the following are marine fishes
reference to ABO system of blood that are eaten ?
groups.
(1) Catla, Common carp and Rohu
(1) Persons with “AB” group can accept
(2) Meckerel, Hilsa and Pomfret
blood from persons with “AB” as
(3) Hilsa, Sardines and Common carp
well as the other groups of blood.
(4) Pomfrets, Catla and Rohu
(2) Antigen “A” is present on the
85. Which of the following refer to correct
surface of RBCs of “A” group
examples of organisms, which have
persons. evolved due to changes in environment
(3) Anti-A antibodies are present in the brought about by anthropogenic action?
plasma of “B” group persons. a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos
islands.
(4) Antigen “O” is present on the
b) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
surface of RBCs of “O” group c) Herbicide resistant weeds.
persons but no antibodies in plasma. d) Adaptive radiation of marsupials in
Australia.
81. Which of the following regions of the
(1) (a) and (d) only
globe exhibits highest species diversity ?
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) Western Ghats of India
(3) (b) and (c) only
(2) Amazonian rain forest
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) Medagascar
SECTION-B
(4) Himalayan region of Asia 86. Match the following columns and select
82. Two closely related species competing for
the correct option:
the same resources cannot co-exist
indefinitely and the competitively inferior Column-I Column-II
one will be eliminated eventually. This is (a) Proboscis gland is (i) Sepia
according to excretory organ
(1) Gause’s principle (b) File-like radula (ii) Planaria
(2) Mac Arthur’s principle (c) High regeneration (iii) Saccoglossus
(3) Connel’s resource partitioning capacity
mechanism
(d) Living fossil (iv) Limulus
(4) Paul Ehrlich’s hypothesis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
83. ADA deficiency can be cured by
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Bone marrow transplantation
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) Antibody replacement therapy
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) Monoclonal antibodies
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
Sri Chaitanya Page 12
87. Select the option including all sexually (4) Taylor
transmitted diseases : 91. Match the following columns and select
(1) Chlamydiasis, Malaria, Genital the correct option :
herpes
Column-I Column-II
(2) AIDS, Genital warts, Cholera
(a) Pteropus (i) Cetacea
(3) Gonorrhoea, Filaria, AIDS
(b) Testudo (ii) Amphibia
(4) Genital warts, Chlamydiasis,
Syphilis (c) Ichthyophis (iii) Chiroptera

88. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from (d) Balanoptera (iv) Reptilia
the earth about
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 65 mya
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) 500 mya

(3) 200 mya (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) 350 mya (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

89. Which of the following is crucial to
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
disposal of hospital waste ?

(1) Use of eco-friendly packaging 92. Identify the correct statement with
reference to human digestive system
(2) Use of electrostatic precipitator
(1) Vermiform appendix arises from
(3) Use of incinerators
duodenum.

(4) Use of shielded containers buried

(2) All the four layers of gut show

within the rocks, about 500 m deep modifications in different parts of the
alimentary canal.
90. Who is credited for developing method
for determination of amino acid (3) The sigmoid colon opens into
sequences in proteins ? ascending part of colon.
(1) Alec Jeffreys
(4) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(2) Frederick Sanger regulates the opening of stomach into the
(3) Francois Jacob duodenum.

Sri Chaitanya Page 13

93. Match List-I with List – II : 96. Identify the wrong statement with
List-I List –II reference to transport of oxygen
(a) Neutrophils (i) Involve in (1) Partial pressure of CO 2 can interfere
coagulation of
with O 2 binding.
blood
(2) Binding of O 2 with haemoglobin is
(b) Thrombocytes (ii) Secretion of
mainly related to partial pressure of
histamine , heparin
O2 .
etc.,
(3) Higher H + concentration in alveoli
(c) Eosinophils (iii) Phagocytic cells
favours the formation of
(d) Basophils (iv) Resist infections
oxyhaemoglobin.
and associated with
allergic reactions (4) Low pCO 2 in alveoli favours the

Choose the correct answer from the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

option given below 97. Read the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Acromegaly may lead to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
serious complications, and premature
(1) i iii iv ii death if unchecked.
(2) iii i ii iv Reason (R) : ACTH stimulates the
(3) iii i iv ii synthesis and secretion of steroid
hormones called glucocorticoids from the
(4) i iii ii iv adrenal cortex.
94. In earthworm the spermathecae are (1) A and R are true and R is the correct
located in which segments ? explanation of A.
th th th th
(1) 6 , 7 , 8 and 9 (2) A and R are true and R is not the
th th th th
(2) 5 , 6 , 7 and 8 correct explanation of A.
(3) 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th (3) A is true, R is false.
(4) 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th (4) Both A and R are false.
95. Which of the following is a classic 98. The second meiotic division in secondary
example of commensalism ? oocyte results in the formation of
(1) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants (1) Second polar body and a haploid
(2) Fungus and photosynthetic algae or ootid
cyanobacteria (2) Second polar body and a diploid
(3) Sparrow eating any seed or worm ovum
(4) Cattle egret and grazing cattle in (3) First polar body and a haploid ovum
close association (4) First polar body and a diploid ovum

Sri Chaitanya Page 14

99. In the process of evolution the rate of 103. The wave number of the transition in H
appearance of new forms is linked to spectrum from n = 2 to n = 1 is
(1) Life cycle only 3R
(1)
(2) Adaptive ability only 4
(2) R
(3) Life span only
R
(4) Life cycle or life span (3)
2
100. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the (4) 3R
grey matter due to its grayish appearance. 104. In which of the molecules, bond angle is
Which of the following are giving the maximum
colour ? (1) H 2O
(1) Myelinated nerve fibres (2) NH 3
(2) Neuron cell bodies (3) CH 4

(3) Oligodendrocytes and lipofusin (4) CO2

105. In vapour state, sulphur (S2) exhibits
(4) Dendrites and myelinated axons
CHEMISTRY paramagnetic behaviour due to

SECTION – A (1) paired electrons in antibonding

101. Lactose involves glycosidic linkage orbitals

between (2) presence of unpaired electrons in
(1) C – 1 of galactose and C – 4 of
antibonding ‘ π ’molecular orbitals
glucose
(2) C – 1 of galactose and C – 2 of (3) presence of unpaired electrons in
glucose antibonding ‘ σ ’ molecular orbitals
(3) C – 2 of galactose and C – 4 of (4) presence of unpaired electrons in
glucose
(4) C – 1 of fructose and C – 4 of bonding ‘ π ’ molecular orbitals
glucose 106. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according
102. In a chemical reaction to the equation
K 2Cr2O7 + x H 2 SO4 + y SO2 → 2 MnO4− + 5C2O42− + 16 H + → 2 Mn 2+ + 10CO2 + 8 H 2O
K 2 SO4 + Cr2 ( SO4 )3 + z H 2O Here 20 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 will react
The values of x, y and z are respectively with
are (1) 50 ml of 0.1 M H 2C2O4
(1) 1, 3 and 1 (2) 20 ml of 0.5 M H 2C2O4
(2) 4, 1 and 4 (3) 50 ml of 0.5 M H 2C2O4
(3) 3, 2 and 3 (4) 20 ml of 0.1 M H 2C2O4
(4) 2, 1 and 2
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
107. Regarding froth flotation process,
incorrect statement is
(1) Xanthates enhance the non-wettability (1)
of ore particles towards water
(2)
(2) Carbonate ores are concentrated by
this method
(3)
(3) Aniline stabilizes the froth
(4) Principle involved in adsorption
108. The incorrect order of the radii of the (4)
dil.H 2SO4
species is 112. CH ≡ C − CH3 
HgSO
→X .
4
(1) O < O − < O 2−
The major product of the reaction is
(2) N < P < As
(1) CH3 − CH 2 − CHO
(3) Fe > Fe 2+ > Fe3+
(2) CH3 − CO − CH 3
(4) Cl− < K + < Ca 2+
(3) CH3 − CH 2 − CH3
109. The incorrect statement among the
following is (4) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − HSO 4

(1) Bond order of N 2 is greater than that 113. An element (atomic mass 100g / mol)
of N +2 having bcc structure has unit cell edge of
(2) Bond order of O2 is less than that of 400 pm. The density of the unit cell is
+
O 2 (1) 10.376 g/ cc
(3) Bond order of O2 is greater than that
(2) 2.144 g / cc
of N 2
(3) 7.289 g / cc
(4) Bond order of He2 is less than that of
(4) 5.188 g/ cc
He+2
110. Arrange BeSO4, BaSO4, MgSO4, SrSO4, 114. The crystal field splitting energy for

and CaSO4 in the increasing order of their octahedral and tetrahedral complexes is

solubility in water related to

(1) BaSO4 < SrSO4 < CaSO4 < MgSO4 < BeSO4 4
(1) ∆ 0 = ∆ t
9
(2) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
1
(2) ∆ t = ∆ 0
(3) MgSO4 > BeSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 2

(4) CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 4
(3) ∆ t = ∆ 0
9
111. Which of the following systems is
(4) ∆ 0 = −2∆ t
aromatic?
Sri Chaitanya Page 16
 (2) Both statements are false
CH 2 − O − C6 H5
Conc. HI
115. ∆
→ X+Y. (3) I is true but II is false
X and Y in this reaction are (4) I is false but II is true
119. Which of the following is an interstitial
CH2 OH + I
compound
(1)
(1) NH3
CH2 I + HO (2) PdCl2
(2) (3) CrH
(4) ZnO
CH2 I + I
(3) 120. Which is true about photochemical smog?
(1) It is reducing in nature
CH2 I + I OH
(2) It is formed in winter
(4)
(3) It contains particulate carbon and SO2
116. Base catalysed aldol condensation is
(4) It causes irritation to eyes
possible with
121. The density of a gas (A) at 270C and 1
(1) Formaldehyde
atmosphere is d. Pressure remaining
(2) Benzaldehyde
constant, the temperature at which the
(3) 2,2-dimethyl propanal
density of the gas (A) becomes 0.75d?
(4) 2-methyl propanal
(1) 200C
117. Ammonia when treated with excess
(2) 300C
chlorine forms
(3) 400K
(1) NCl3 + HCl
(4) 300 K
(2) NH 4Cl + N 2
122. Coal gasification reaction from the
(3) NCl3 + N 2
following is
(4) NH 4Cl + NCl3 + N 2
(1) CH 4 ( g ) + H 2O( g ) 
1270 K
Ni
→ CO( g ) + 3H 2 ( g )
118. Statement-I : A solution of soap or
1270 K
(2) C( s ) + H 2O( g )  → CO( g ) + H 2( g )
detergent at low concentration behaves as
673K
an electrolyte (3) CO( g ) + H2O( g )  → CO2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g )
Statement-II : Soap solution or detergent
(4) C2 H 4 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) 
→ C2H6 (g )
solution at high concentration contains
associated colloidal particles
(1) Both statements are true

Sri Chaitanya Page 17

123. For the reaction, 127. Which of the following alcohol gives an
H 2 ( g ) + Br2 ( g ) 
slow
→ 2 HBr ( g ) , the alkyl halide on simply shaking with HCl
at room temperature?
reaction rate = K [ H 2 ][ Br2 ] .
1/ 2

(1) 30 alcohol
Which statement is true about this
(2) 20 alcohol
reaction?
(3) 10 alcohol
(1) The reaction is of second order
(4) vinyl alcohol
(2) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2
128. Give the structure of the major product
(3) The unit of K is sec-1
expected from dinitration of 3 - methyl
(4) Molecularity of the reaction is 2
phenol.
124. PHBV is a
OH
(1) Addition polymer of butyric acid
(2) Condensation polymer of
O2N CH2NO2
(1)
hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
ONO2
(3) Copolymer of styrene and methyl
methacrylate CH3
(4) Copolymer of 3 - hydroxy butanoic NO2
(2)
acid and 3 - hydroxy pentanoic acid. OH
O2N
125. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and
inhibit its natural function of messenger O2N CH3
are called (3)
(1) Agonistic drugs OH
O2N
(2) Antagonistic drugs
(3) Antimicrobial drugs CH3
2NO
(4) Allosteric drugs (4)
126. The name of the compound 'X' and the 129. Which of the following amines has the
hybridization of carbons in compound 'X' highest boiling point?
are (1) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2
FeCl3
+ Cl2 X (2) CH3 − CH 2 − NH − CH3

(1) Chlorobenzene, sp2 CH3 N CH 3

(2) Benzene hexachloride, sp3d CH 3
(3)
(3) Chlorobenzene, sp3 (4) All the amines have same boiling
(4) Benzene hexachloride, sp3 point

Sri Chaitanya Page 18

130. In borax the number of B-O –B links and conductance at infinite dilution of
B-OH bonds present are, respectively Al2 (SO 4 )3 in S cm2 eq–1
(1) Five and four
(1) 286
(2) Four and five
(2) 349
(3) Three and four
(3) 858
(4) Five and five
(4) 143
131. Oximes are formed by the reaction of
aldehydes and ketones with 135. 0.1M K 4 [ Fe(CN)6 ] solution is 60%
(1) NH 2 − NH 2 ionized. Its Vant-Hoff factor is
(2) NH 3 (1) 1.4
(3) NH 2 NHC6 H 5 (2) 2.4

(4) NH 2OH (3) 3.4

132. Which of the following is an ambidentate (4) 4.4

ligand ? SECTION – B
(1) hydroxo 136. H + + OH − → H 2O, ∆H = −57.3 KJ. Heat
(2) nitrito liberated is equal to 57.3 KJ when the
(3) chlorido reaction involves
(4) ammine (1) 1 mole each of CH 3COOH and NaOH
133. Statement-I : The K.E of photo electrons
(2) 1 mole each of NH 4OH and HCl
depend on energy and frequency of
(3) 1 mole each of H 2 SO4 and Ba ( OH )2
incident light
Statement-II : The number of photo (4) 1 mole each of HCl and NaOH

electrons emitted depend on intensity of 4

137. Al + O2 → Al2O3 ; ∆G = −827 KJ . The
3
incident light
minimum EMF required to carry out the
(1) Both statements are true
electrolysis of Al2O3 obtained in this
(2) Both statements are false
process is
(3) I is true but II is false
(4) I is false but II is true (1) 2.14 ×10−3V
(2) 1.14 V
134. The equivalent conductivities of
Al3+ ,SO 42- ions at infinite dilution are 189,
(3) 2.64 ×10−4 V
(4) 2.14 V
160S cm2 eq–1. Calculate the equivalent

Sri Chaitanya Page 19

138. The correct order of reactivity of
CO-CH3
following compounds in SN1 reaction is
CH3
(3)
a) C6H5CH2Br
b) C6H5CH (C6H5) Br
(4)
c) C6H5CH (CH3) Br
141. Molar solubility of Zirconium phosphate
d) C6H5 C(CH3) (C6H5) Br
is ‘S’ moles/litre. Solubility product of
(1) d > b > c > a
Zirconium phosphate  Zr3 ( PO 4 )4  is
(2) d > a > b > c
(1) 108S5
(3) a > b > c > d
(2) 256S5
(4) a > c > d > b
(3) 6912S7
139. Consider the equilibrium,
(4) 5832S7
C(s) + H 2 O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H 2 (g)
142. Regarding liquid mixture of chloroform
Which of the following statements is true
and acetone, correct statement is
at equilibrium?
(1) It shows positive deviations from
(1) If the amount of C(s) is increased,
Raoult’s law
more CO and H2 would be formed
(2) ∆Smixture = −Ve
(2) If the amount of C(s) is increased, less
(3) A hydrogen bond develops between
water vapour would be formed.
carbonyl oxygen of acetone and hydrogen
(3) If the pressure on the system is
atom of chloroform
increased by reducing the volume to half,
(4) It is an ideal solution
more CO and H2 would be formed.
143. For a first order reaction, a graph is
(4) If the pressure on the system is
[ A]0
increased by reducing the volume to half, plotted between log ( y − axis ) vs ‘t’
[ A]t
more water vapour would be formed
in minutes (x-axis). If the slope of the
140. Mesomeric effect is observed in which of
graph is 0.0301 then rate constant of the
the following?
reaction is
Cl (1) 6.93 min-1
(1)
(2) 6.93 ×10−1 min −1
CH3 (3) 6.93 ×10−3 min −1

CH3 (4) 6.93 ×10−2 min −1

(2)

Sri Chaitanya Page 20

144. The 3d element with highest enthalpy of (4) IVA
atomization is 149. Ionization potential of Lanthanoids
(1) Mn resemble I.P1 of
(2) V (1) Calcium
(3) Cr (2) Aluminium
(4) Fe (3) Sodium
145. The oxo acid of phosphorous which (4) Carbon
cannot act as reducing agent is 150. Enthalpy of combustion of Rhombic
(1) H 3 PO4 sulphur and monoclinic sulphur is -297.5
KJ/mole and -300 KJ/mole respectively.
(2) H 3 PO2 Enthalpy of phase transition from
(3) H 3 PO3 monoclinic sulphur to rhombic sulphur
will be
(4) H 4 P2O5 (1) -20 KJ/mole
146. All the following reagents give ortho (or) (2) +20 KJ/mole
para (or) meta substituted products with (3) -2.5 KJ/mole
aniline except
(1) Br2 / H 2O (4) +2.5 KJ/mole

(2) Conc.HNO3 + Conc.H 2 SO4 PHYSICS

(3) Conc.H 2 SO4 453K SECTION – A
(4) CH 3COCl / pyridine 1
151. The dimensions of ε0E2 (ε0 =
147. Which of the following is not a basic 2
amino acid permittivity of free space ; E = electric
(1) Arginine
field ) is
(2) Phenyl alanine
(3) Lysine (1) MLT −1
(4) Histidine
(2) ML2T −2
(3) ML−1T −2
(4) ML2T −1
152. The number of the significant figures in
148. The following graph
correctly represents (first four elements in 1111.8 ×1011 is

a group) (1) 7

(1) IA (2) 5

(2) IIA (3) 9

(3) IIIA (4) 4

Sri Chaitanya Page 21

153. A body A starts from rest with an (2) 3
acceleration a1 . After 2 seconds, another
4
body B starts from rest with an (3)
3
acceleration a2 . If they travel equal
3
distances in the 5th second, after the start (4)
of A, then the ratio a1 : a2 is equal to 4

(1) 5:9 157. A weight lifter lifts 300 kg from the

(2) 5:7 ground to a height of 2 meter in 3 second.

(3) 9:5 The average power generated by him is

(4) 9:7 (1) 5880 watt

154. A particle P is moving in a circle of (2) 4410 watt

radius ‘a’ with a uniform speed v. C is the (3) 2205 watt

centre of the circle and AB is a diameter. (4) 1960 watt

When passing through B, the angular 158. Five particles each of mass 2 kg are

velocity of P about A and about C are in attached to the rim of a circular disc of

the ratio radius 0.1 m and negligible mass.

(1) 1:1 Moment of inertia of the system about the

(2) 1:2 axis passing through the centre of the disc

(3) 2:1 and perpendicular to its plane is

(4) 4:1 (1) 1 Kg − m 2

155. Swimming is possible on account of (2) 0.1 Kg − m 2
(1) Newton’s First law of motion (3) 2 Kg − m 2
(2) Newton’s Second law of motion
(4) 0.2 Kg − m 2
(3) Newton’s Third law of motion
159. Two particles move towards each other
(4) Newton's law of gravitation
from rest under a mutual force of
156. A body takes t1 seconds to slide down a
attraction. At the instant, when the speed
smooth inclined plane of 30o inclination
of A is V, the speed of B is V/2. The
with horizontal. It takes t2 seconds to
speed of centre of mass of the system is
slide down the plane if it is rough. If (1) 3V/4
t2 = 2t1 then find the coefficient of friction (2) V/2
of rough plane (3) 3V/2
3 (4) zero
(1)
4

Sri Chaitanya Page 22

160. The escape velocity from the surface of (2) 2π r 2T
earth is Ve . The escape velocity from the
(3) 12π r 2T
surface of a planet whose mass and radius
are 3 times those of the earth will be (4) 24π r 2T
(1) Ve 164. The apparent coefficient of expansion of
(2) 3 Ve a liquid when heated in a copper vessel is
C and when heated in a silver vessel is S.
(3) 9 Ve If A is the linear coefficient of expansion
(4) 27 Ve of copper, then the linear coefficient of
expansion of silver is
161. Statement (A): For a particle in linear
C + S − 3A
SHM, the average kinetic energy over a (1)
3
period of oscillation equals the average
C + 3A − S
potential energy over the same period. (2)
3
Statement (B): A man with a wristwatch
S + 3A − C
on his hand falls from the top of a tower. (3)
3
The watch looses time during the free C + S + 3A
fall. (4) 3
o o
(1) A is true , B is false 165. Hot water cools from 60 C to 50 C in
o
(2) A is false , B is true the first 10 minutes and to 42 C in the
(3) both A and B are true next 10 minutes. The temperature of the
(4) both A and B are false surrounding is
(1) 5o C
162. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m
shows 0.1 0 0 decrease in its volume at the (2) 10o C
bottom. What is the bulk modulus of the (3) 15o C
material of the ball
(4) 20o C
(1) 19.6 × 108 N / m2
166. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole
(2) 19.6 × 10−10 N / m 2 of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at
300 K. The ratio of the average rotational
(3) 19.6 × 1010 N / m2
kinetic energy per O2 molecule to that
−8
(4) 19.6 × 10 N / m 2
per N 2 molecule is
163. Radius of a soap bubble is 'r', surface (1) 1 : 1
tension of soap solution is T. Then (2) 1 : 2
without increasing the temperature, how
(3) 2 : 1
much energy will be needed to double its
radius (4) Depends on the moments of inertia of
(1) 4π r 2T the two molecules

Sri Chaitanya Page 23

167. When two progressive waves of nearly 170. In Young’s double slit experiment, the
equal frequencies n1 , n2 superimpose then ratio of maximum to minimum intensities
of the fringe system is 4 : 1. The
List I List II amplitudes of the coherent sources are in
a)Resultant amplitude 1 the ratio
e)
n1 − n2 (1) 4 : 1
varies with frequency
(2) 3 : 1
b) Resultant wave n −n
f) 1 2
2 (3) 2 : 1
frequency
(4) 1 : 1
c)Time interval between 1
g) 171. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on
two successive maximum 2 (n1 − n2 )
an aluminium surface (work function
of resultant wave 4.2 eV ). The kinetic energy in joules of
d)Time interval between n1 + n2 the fastest electron emitted is
h)
2 approximately
maxima and next minima
of the resultant wave (1) 3.2 × 10−21

2 (2) 3.2 × 10−19

i)
n1 − n2 (3) 3.2 × 10−17
(1) a-h,b-f,c-e,d-g (4) 3.2 × 10−15
(2) a-f,b-h,c-g,d-e
172. For the Bohr's first orbit of circumference
(3) a-f,b-h,c-e,d-g
2π r , the de-Broglie wavelength of
(4) a-h,b-e,c-f,d-i
revolving electron will be.
168. The minimum distance between the
(1) 2π r
object and its real image for concave
(2) π r
mirror of focal length f is
1
(1) f (3)
2π r
(2) 2f 1
(4)
(3) 4f 4π r
(4) zero 173. Which of the following transitions in a
169. The focal length of convex lens is 30 cm hydrogen atom emits photon of the
and the size of image is 1/4th of the
highest frequency
object, then the object distance is
(1) 30 cm (1) n = 2 to n = 1

(2) 40cm (2) n = 3 to n = 2

(3) 60 cm (3) n = 6 to n = 5

(4) 150 cm (4) n = 6 to n = 2

Sri Chaitanya Page 24

174. The binding energies per nucleon for a
deuteron and an α − particle are x1 and x2
respectively. What will be the energy Q
released in the reaction
1 H 2 +1 H 2 →2 He 4 + Q
(1) C
(1) 4( x1 + x2 )
(2) 3C
(2) 4( x2 − x1 )
(3) C/3
(3) 2( x1 + x2 ) (4) 3C/2
(4) 2( x2 − x1 ) 178. In the figure a carbon resistor has bands
of different colours on its body as
175. In P-N junction, the barrier potential
mentioned in the figure. The value of the
offers resistance to resistance is
(1) Free electrons in N region and holes
in P region
(2) Free electrons in P region and holes in
N region
(3) Only free electrons in N region (1) 2.2 K Ω
(4) Only holes in P region
(2) 3.3K Ω
176. An electron and a proton are at a distance
(3) 5.6 K Ω
0
of 1 A . The moment of this dipole will be
(4) 9.1 K Ω
(in C-m)
179. In an experiment to measure the internal
(1) 1.6 × 10 19
resistance of a cell by potentiometer, it is
found that the balance point is at a length
(2) 1.6 × 10−29
of 2m when the cell is shunted by a 5Ω
(3) 3.2 × 1019 resistance; and is at a length of 3m when
the cell is shunted by a 10Ω resistance.
(4) 3.2 × 10−29
The internal resistance of the cell is, then
177. Three equal capacitors, each with
(1) 1 Ω
capacitance C are connected as shown in
(2) 10 Ω
figure. Then the equivalent capacitance
(3) 1.5 Ω
between A and B is
(4) 15 Ω

Sri Chaitanya Page 25

180. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a (3) π × 10−2V
direct current, the magnetic field (4) 2π × 10−2V
associated with the current will be 184. Statement (A): The alternating current
(1) Only inside the pipe lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle of
(2) Only outside the pipe π / 2 , when ac flows through an inductor.
(3) Neither inside nor outside the pipe Statement (B): A bulb connected in series
(4) Both inside and outside the pipe with a solenoid is connected to ac source.
181. A 2 MeV proton is moving perpendicular If a soft iron core is introduced in the
to a uniform magnetic field of 2.5 tesla. solenoid, the bulb will glow brighter.
The force on the proton is. Statement (C):The dc and ac both can be
−10
(1) 2.5 × 10 N measured by a hot wire instrument.
(2) 7.6 × 10−11 N (1) only A and Bare true
(2) only B and C are true
(3) 2.5 × 10−11 N
(3) only A and C are true
(4) 7.6 × 10−12 N
(4) all A ,B and C are true
182. At a certain place, the horizontal
185. The electromagnetic waves generally
component of earth's magnetic field is
used in the purification of water are
3 times the vertical component. The
angle of dip at that place is (1) X – rays
(1) 60° (2) Infrared rays
(2) 45° (3) Ultra violet rays
(3) 90° (4) Microwaves
(4) 30° SECTION - B
183. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated 186. A boy playing on the roof of a 10m high
about its centre with 10 revolutions per building throws a ball with a speed of 10
second in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 m/s at an angle of 30o with the
Tesla with its plane perpendicular to the horizontal. How far from the throwing
field. The e.m.f. induced across the radius point will the ball be at the height of 10
of disc is m from the ground (g = 10 m/s2)
π (1) 8.66 m
(1) V
10 (2) 5.20 m
2π (3) 4.33 m
(2) V
10
(4) 2.60 m

Sri Chaitanya Page 26

187. A man of mass m stands on a crate of 189. A horizontal heavy uniform bar of weight
mass M. He pulls on a light rope passing W is supported at its ends by two men. At
over a smooth light pulley. The other end the instant, one of the men lets go off his
of the rope is attached to the crate. For the end of the rod, the other feels the force on
system to be in equilibrium, the force his hand changed to
exerted by the man on the rope will be (1) W
(2) W/2
(3) W/4
(4) 3W/4
190. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit
of radius R around the earth. A second
satellite is launched into an orbit of radius
(1.01)R. The period of the second satellite
is larger than that of the first one by
approximately
(1) 0.5 0 0
(1) (M + m)g
1 (2) 1.0 0 0
(2) (M + m ) g
2 (3) 1.5 0 0
(3) Mg (4) 3.0 0 0
(4) mg 191. The pans of a physical balance are in
188. A free body of mass 8 kg is travelling at 2 equilibrium. Air is blown under the right
meter per second in a straight line. At a hand pan; then the right hand pan will
certain instant, the body splits into two (1) Move up
equal parts due to internal explosion
which releases 16 joules of energy. (2) Move down
Neither part leaves the original line of (3) Move erratically
motion finally, then (4) Remain at the same level
(1) Both parts continue to move in the
192. 1cm3 of water at its boiling point absorbs
same direction as that of the original body
540 calories of heat to become steam with
(2) One part comes to rest and the other a volume of 1671cm3 .If the atmospheric
moves in the same direction as that of the pressure = 1.013x105 N / m2 and the
original body mechanical equivalent of heat =
4.19 J / calorie , the energy spent in this
(3) One part comes to rest and the other
process in overcoming intermolecular
moves in the direction opposite to that of forces is
the original body (1) 5400 cal
(4) One part moves in the same direction (2) 40 cal
and the other in the direction opposite to (3) 500 cal
that of the original body (4) zero
Sri Chaitanya Page 27
193. A whistle revolves in a circle with an (4) A is false but R is true
angular speed of 20 rad/sec using a string 197. Two spheres A and B of radius 4 cm and
of length 50 cm. If the frequency of 6 cm are given charges of 80 µ c and
sound from the whistle is 385 Hz, then
what is the frequency heard by an 40µ c respectively. If they are connected
observer, who is at the centre of the by a fine wire, the amount of charge
circle in the same plane ? (v = 340 m/s) flowing from one to the other is
(1) zero (1) 20 µ C from A to B
(2) 374 Hz (2) 16 µ C from A to B
(3) 385 Hz
(3) 32 µ C from B to A
(4) 394 Hz
(4) 32 µ C from A to B
194. If the focal length of objective and eye
lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and 198. Find out the value of current through 2 Ω
the object is put 1.25 cm away from the resistance for the given circuit
objective lens and the final image is
formed at infinity. The magnifying power
of the microscope is
(1) 150
(2) 200
(3) 250 (1) 5A
(4) 400 (2) 4A
195. The half life period of a radioactive (3) 2A
element X is same as the mean life time (4) zero
of another radioactive element Y. Initially 199. A voltmeter has resistance of 2000 Ω and
both of them have the same number of it can measure upto 2V. If we want to
atoms. Then increase its range to 10 V, then the
(1) X and Y have the same decay rate required resistance in series will be
initially (1) 2000 Ω
(2) X and Y decay at the same rate (2) 4000 Ω
always (3) 6000 Ω
(3) Y will decay at a faster rate than X (4) 8000 Ω
initially 200. In the circuit shown in figure (neglecting
(4) X will decay at a faster rate than Y source resistance), the voltmeter and
initially ammeter reading will respectively, will be
196. Assertion: NAND (& NOR) gates are
called digital building blocks.
Reason: The repeated use of NAND (&
NOR) gates can produce all the basic or
complicated gates.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is
correct explanation of A (1) 0V,3A
(2) Both A and R are true, and R is not (2) 150V,3A
the correct explanation of A (3) 150V,6A
(3) A is true but R is false (4) 0V,8A
Sri Chaitanya Page 28
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 14-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 2 KEY

BOTANY
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 2 9) 3 10) 2

11) 1 12) 1 13) 3 14) 4 15) 3 16) 3 17) 3 18) 2 19) 4 20) 3

21) 1 22) 4 23) 4 24) 2 25) 3 26) 3 27) 3 28) 4 29) 4 30) 3

31) 1 32) 4 33) 1 34) 2 35) 1 36) 2 37) 4 38) 4 39) 3 40) 3

41) 3 42) 3 43) 4 44) 1 45) 4 46) 1 47) 2 48) 2 49) 1 50) 2

ZOOLOGY

51) 3 52) 4 53) 4 54) 1 55) 2 56) 2 57) 4 58) 1 59) 1 60) 3
61) 2 62) 4 63) 1 64) 3 65) 1 66) 2 67) 4 68) 4 69) 1 70) 4
71) 2 72) 4 73) 1 74) 2 75) 4 76) 1 77) 3 78) 3 79) 4 80) 4
81) 2 82) 1 83) 1 84) 2 85) 3 86) 2 87) 4 88) 1 89) 3 90) 2
91) 4 92) 2 93) 3 94) 1 95) 4 96) 3 97) 2 98) 1 99) 4 100) 2

CHEMISTRY

101) 1 102) 1 103) 1 104) 4 105) 2 106) 1 107) 2 108) 4 109) 3 110) 1
111) 1 112) 2 113) 4 114) 3 115) 2 116) 4 117) 1 118) 1 119) 3 120) 4
121) 3 122) 2 123) 4 124) 4 125) 2 126) 1 127) 1 128) 4 129) 1 130) 1
131) 4 132) 2 133) 1 134) 2 135) 3 136) 4 137) 4 138) 1 139) 4 140) 3
141) 3 142) 3 143) 4 144) 2 145) 1 146) 4 147) 2 148) 4 149) 1 150) 3

PHYSICS

151) 3 152) 2 153) 1 154) 2 155) 3 156) 1 157) 4 158) 2 159) 4 160) 1
161) 1 162) 1 163) 4 164) 2 165) 2 166) 1 167) 3 168) 4 169) 4 170) 2
171) 2 172) 1 173) 1 174) 2 175) 1 176) 2 177) 2 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2
181) 4 182) 4 183) 3 184) 3 185) 3 186) 1 187) 2 188) 2 189) 3 190) 3
191) 2 192) 3 193) 3 194) 2 195) 3 196) 1 197) 4 198) 4 199) 4 200) 4

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
BOTANY 28. Collection of genetic variability is a root
SECTION – A for a breeding programme
29. ‘Red tides’ are due population explosion
1. Spine is a leaf modification of Gonyaulax
2. Differentiation, dedifferentiation and 30. Insulin contain different amino acids as
redifferentiation monomers
3. Concept based 31. Memory based
04. Epipetalous stamens are seen in 32. Memory based
Solanaceae 33. Division of centromere occur during
5. Plasmodium mitosis and meiosis II only
6. Enzyme isolated from Thermus 34. Memory based
aquaticus bacterium is used in gene 35. Memory based
amplification SECTION – B
7. Infective constituent of virus is nucleic 36. Paramecium
acids 37. Concept based
8. Human skin colour is an example of 38. Strobilus in gymnosperms represents a
polygenic inheritance sporophytic generation
9. NCERT Class XII Page.No. 209 39. Cellular defence mechanism in bacteria
10. Growth is seen in both living and non living against virus is restriction endonuclease
11. Memory based 40. In STP, activated sludge is a sediment in
12. Soil formation secondary settling tank
13. Site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis is 41. Physical association of genes on a
nucleolus chromosome is termed as Linkage
14. Facilitated diffusion do not require ATP 42. Secondary cortex is observed in anatomy of
15. NADH + H + banyan stem
16. Calcium is immobile element 43. Conduction of water, minerals and
17. Densely stained reticular cell organelle organic solutes in xylem and phloem is
helpful in packaging material to deliver into due to pressure gradient
intercellular targets is golgi complex 44. Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis occur
18. Memory based in quick succession in the members of
19. Gibberellins induce seed germination in phycomycetes
barley 45. Endosperm & Embryosac
20. Absorption of water by root hairs is by 46. Concept based
osmosis which is determined by water 47. One amino acid can be coded by many
potential gradient codons
21. Ratna is a rice variety 48. Unicellular zoospore producing autotroph is
22. Microbe used in preparation of bread, Chylamdomonas
beer and wine is Saccharomyces 49. Parbhani kranti is variety of lady’s
cerevisiae finger resistant to yellow mosaic virus
23. Fertilisation and pollination in flowering
plants is independent of water 50. Production of high yielding varieties
24. Clinical trails in downstream processing is Jaya and Ratna is by hybridisation
need for human drugs ZOOLOGY
25. In leaves of tea lignified tissues are seen in SECTION – A
all except sieve elements 51. The sporozoites of Plasmodium are
26. Biochemical producer and root borne stored in salivary glands of female
pathogen eliminator is Trichoderma Anopheles mosquito.
27. Ground tissue in leaf is mesophyll 52. Sixth mass extinction is presently in
progress.

Sri Chaitanya Page 2

53. 61. Degeneration of corpus luteum causes
Column-I Column-II disintegration of the endometrium
(a) Atlas (ii) Articulates with leading to menstruation.
occipital condyles 62. Saliva, earwax, oil and milk are
(b) Scapula (iv) Triangular bone situated secreted by exocrine glands.
in the dorsal part of the 63. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987
thorax for control of emission of ozone
(c) Clavicle (i) Articulates with
depleting substances.
acromion
64. Ctenophora members are radially
(d) Sternum (iii) Flat bone on the ventral
midline of thorax
symmetrical and acoelomate animals.
65. Zona pellucida present in the Graafian
54. Out-crossing is the best breeding follicle is formed by secondary oocyte.
66. Statements (a) and (d) are true.
method for animals that are below
average in productivity in milk 67. Presence of glycosuria and ketonuria
production. conditions in urine are indicative of
55. Active immunity is slow and takes diabetes mellitus.
time to gives full immunological 68. Calotropis produces highly poisonous
cardiac glycosides.
response
56. Spermathecae of cockroach are present 69. Reabsorption of Na + and water from
in 6th segment and they open into the distal parts of the renal tubule
genital chamber. caused by aldosterone leads to increase
57. Molluscs exhibit organ system level of in blood pressure and glomerular
organisation. filtration rate.
58. During inspiration contraction of 70.
diaphragm and contraction of external Down’s Syndrome Trisomy of 21st
inter-coastal muscles take place so that pair
thoracic chamber volume increases
causing a similar increase in 71. All (a),(b),(c) and (d) are correct
pulmonary volume. 72. Decomposition is largely an oxygen-
59. requiring process.
Column-I Column-II 73. Muscles present in the wall of blood
(a) Ring (iii) Dry, scaly lesions on vessels, stomach and intestine are
worms skin, nails and scalp smooth muscles.
(b) (i) Stools with excess 74. Glucocorticoids stimulate
Amoebiasis mucous and blood clots gluconeogenesis.
(c) Typhoid (iv) High fever, intestinal 75. In a standard ECG the T-wave
perforation and death represents the return of the ventricles
(d) (ii) Internal bleeding, fever from excited to normal state.
Ascariasis and blockage of intestinal
76. (c) Phytoplankton → (b) Zooplankton
passage
→ (a) Fishes → (d) Crane.
77. In ZIFT and IUT embryos are
60. The diversity of all living organisms
transferred to assist those females who
was always same since creation and
cannot conceive.
will be same in future also. This is one
78. The enzyme enterokinase helps in
of the connotations of theory of special
conversion of trypsinogen into trypsin.
creation.
79. Both statements I and II are correct

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

80. “O” group persons consists of no 92. All the four layers of gut show
antigens on the surface of their RBCs, in modifications in different parts of the
plasma they consists of alimentary canal.
both the antibodies. 93. Match List-I with List – II
81. Amazonian rain forests exhibits highest List-I List –II
species diversity on the globe. (a) Neutrophils (iii) Phagocytic
82. Two closely related species competing cells
for the same resources cannot co-exist (b) Thrombocytes (i) Involve in
indefinitely and the competitively coagulation of
inferior one will be eliminated blood
eventually. This is according to Gause’s (c) Eosinophils (iv) Resist
infections and
principle.
associated with
83. ADA deficiency can be cured by bone allergic
marrow transplantation. reactions
84. Meckerel, Hilsa and Pomfret are (d) Basophils (ii) Secretion of
marine fishes that are eaten. histamine ,
85. Drug resistant eukaryotes and herbicide heparin etc.,
resistant weeds were evolved due to 94. In earthworm the spermathecae are
changes in environment brought about located in 6th, 7th, 8th and 9th segments.
by anthropogenic action. 95. Cattle egret and grazing cattle in close
86. association is a classic example of
Column-I Column-II commensalism.
(a) Proboscis gland is (iii) 96. Lower H + concentration in alveoli
excretory organ Saccoglossus
favours the formation of
(b) File-like radula (i) Sepia
(c) High regeneration (ii) Planaria
oxyhaemoglobin is incorrect.
capacity 97. A and R are true and R is not the correct
(d) Living fossil (iv) Limulus explanation of A.
98. The second meiotic division in
87. Genital wards, Chlamydiasis and secondary oocyte results in the
Syphilis are sexually transmitted formation of second polar body and a
diseases. haploid ootid.
88. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared 99. The rate of appearance of new forms is
from the earth around 65 mya. linked to life cycle or life span of the
89. Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal organisms.
of hospital wastes. 100. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the
90. Fredrick Sanger is credited for grey matter due to its grayish
developing method for determination of appearance. Neuron cell bodies are
amino acid sequences in proteins. giving the colour.
91. CHEMISTRY
Column-I Column-II SECTION – A
101. C-1 of Galactose and C-4 of glucose are
(a) Pteropus (iii) Chiroptera
involved in glycosidic linkage
(b) Testudo (iv) Reptilia
K 2Cr2O7 + H 2 SO4 + 3SO2 →
(c) Ichthyophis (ii) Amphibia 102.
(d) Balanoptera (i) Cetacea K 2 SO4 + Cr2 ( SO4 )3 + H 2O
1  1 1 
103. v = = R.Z 2  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n2 
104.
Sri Chaitanya Page 4
 ( ) (
H 2O 1040 < NH 3 107.80 < CH 4 ) ρ=
2 ×100
6.023 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 10−1
(109.28 ) < CO (180 )
0
2
0
ρ = 5.188 g/cc
105. S2 (vapour) like O2 is paramagnetic. It 114. Crystal field splitting in tetrahedral
contains two unpaired electrons in complexes is lesser than that in octahedral
complexes
π * ABMO because
106. n-factor;
a) number of ligands are less
KMnO4 = 5 b) ligands are approaching in between the
H 2C2O4 = 2 axes rather than along the axes.
V1 N1 = V2 N 2 115.
20 ( 0.1M ) 5 = V2 N 2 +
+
H
V2 N 2 =50(0.1M)2 CH 2 − O − C6 H5 → CH 2 − O − C6 H 5
=10 milli equivalents H
107. Sulphide ores are concentrated by this
method. + slow +
CH 2 − O − C6 H5  → CH 2 + C6 H 5OH
108. In iso electronic species, as positive charge
increases effective nuclear charge increases H
and size decreases. (stable)
Size Cl − > K + > Ca +2
+ I−
109. Bond order; CH 2 
fast
→ CH 2 − I
O2 ( 2 ) < N 2 ( 3)
110. In BeSO4 & MgSO4 , hydration enthalpy
CH 3
dominates Lattice enthalpy. CHO
They are the soluble sulphates of 2nd group. CH3 − C − CHO
Down the group ; H − CHO,
Solubility of sulphates and carbonates CH 3
116. and
decreases (2nd group) Do not contain α -hydrogen atoms.
R: Lattice enthalpy remains almost constant
117. NH 3 + 3Cl2 ( excess ) → NCl3 + 3HCl
whereas hydration enthalpy decreases.
111. (1) is Azulene. It is non-benzonoid aromatic 118. Soaps and detergents act like true solutions
hydrocarbon. It is cyclic, planar, conjugated at low concentrations and form associated
and obey’s Huckel’s rule 10 π e ( ) colloids at high concentration.
119. Interstitial compounds are formed by
(2) Anti aromatic transitional elements
(3) and (4) – Non-aromatic 120. 1) It is oxidizing in nature
H
CH3 − C ≡ CH + H 2O →
+
2) It is formed in summer
HgSO 4
3) It contains CH 3 ,O3 ,NO 2 ,HCHO ,
O
keto −enol
acrolein, PAN
CH3 − C = CH ↽












⇀ CH 3 − C − CH 3
tautomerism PM
OH H
121. d=
112. RT
113. 1 pm = 10-12 m = 10-10 cm P,M and R are constants
ZM d1 T2
ρ= =
N 0 a3 d 2 T1
2 ×100 d T
ρ= = 2
( )
3 0.75d 300
6.023 ×10 × 400 ×10−10
23
T2 = 400 K
122. C ( s ) + H 2O ( g ) 
1270 K
→ CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g )

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

 …….Coal gasification
123. Order of the reaction = 1+0.5=1.5
Molecularity = 2
General units of ‘K’ (mole.lit−1) 1-n time−1
Given n = 1.5
1 1
−
∴ Units of ‘K’ = lit 2 mole 2 time −1
124. +
H
−C = O + H 2 N − OH 
− H 2O
→−C = N − OH
O O 131. oxime
HO − CH − CH 2 − C − OH + HO − CH − CH 2 − C − OH 132. ONO − and NO2− are possible
CH3 CH 2CH3 133. both I and II true
O
H 2O
O 134. ∧ eq
Al ( SO )
= ∧ eq
Al +3
+ ∧ eq
SO −2
= 189 + 160 = 349
 → −O − CH − CH 2 − C − O − CH − CH 2 − C − 2 4 3 4
4
CH3 CH 2CH3
PHBV
−4
135. K 4  Fe ( CN )6  ƒ 4 K + +  Fe ( CN )6 
125. Antagnestic drugs block receptor site and
n=5
inhibit natural function of chemical
messenger. i = 1 − α + nα
i = 1 + 4α
O i = 1 + 4 ( 0.6 )
C CH3
3) group shows –M effect on i = 3.4
C=C 136. 1 gram equivalent of S.A (1 mole of H+)
126. Mechanism is ESR reacts with
Electrophile is Cl+ 1 gram equivalent of S.B (1 mole of OH−)
to liberate 57.3 KJ.
Cl
H + + OH − → H 2O, ∆H = −57.3KJ
FeCl
+Cl2 
dark
3
→ +HCl 1) CH 3COOH is a weak acid
2) NH 4OH is a weak base
+
R3C In (1) and (2) heat is absorbed for the
127. is highly stable. ionization of weak acid and weak base. Heat
HCl
∴ R3C − OH  → R3C − Cl + H 2O liberated is less than 57.3 KJ
This reaction does not require anhydrous 3) Net reaction ;
ZnCl2 2 H + + 2OH − → 2 H 2O, ∆H = −114.6 KJ
128. This is an electrophilic substitution reaction 4) Net reaction
-OH group …….highly activating group H + + OH − → H 2O, ∆H = −57.3KJ
towards ESR.
-CH3 group…..weakly activating group 4 0 2 +3
Al + O2 → Al2O3
towards ESR. 137. 3 3
Orienting influence is decided by –OH
4
group. Total increase in oxidation state = ( 3) = 4
3
The two − NO2 groups attack ortho and
∆G = −nFE
para positions of –OH group.
129. H-bonding capacity, −827 ×103 = −4 ( 96500 )( E )
R − NH 2 > R2 NH > R3 N 827 ×103
E= = 2.14V ;
Same will be the boiling point trend. 4 × 96500
130. 138. S N 1 mechanism involves carbocation
intermediate. Stability of carbocations
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
 K = 6.93 ×10−2 min −1
CH3
+ + 144. ‘V’ has the highest enthalpy of atomization
C > CH > CH − CH3
+ +
in 3d elements
> CH 2 145.
reactivity; d>b>c>a H 3 PO4 :
139. C(s) has no influence on equilibrium state.
Forward reaction involves increase in P
number of moles of gases. OH
HO
It is favoured at low pressure. OH
Backward reaction is favoured at high
pressure.
140. 2) shows hyper conjugation but no It does not contain P-H bond.
mesomeric effect 146.
4) involves resonance but no mesomeric NH 2 NH − CO − CH3
effect
141. pyridine
+CH 3 − COCl  → + HCl
Zr3 ( PO4 ) 4 3Zr +4
+ 4PO4−3
3s 4s Acetanilide

k sp = ( 3s ) ( 4 s )
3 4
CH 2 − C6 H 5
k sp = 6912 s 7
H 2 N − CH − COOH
H 3C 147. is phenyl alanine.
δ− δ+ It is a neutral amino acid.
C O ......... H CCl3 148. Electronegativity of Silicon, Germanium
H 3C and Tin remains same (1.8)
142.
149. IP1 and IP2 of Lanthanoid elements is
2.303 [ A]0 about 600 KJ/mole and 1200 KJ/mole
143. K = log
t [ A]t respectively. They resemble calcium in
this aspect
[ A]0 K
log = t 150.
[ A]t 2.303
S ( α ) +O2 
→ SO 2 ∆H=-297.5 KJ...... (1)
y m x
S ( β ) +O 2 
→ SO 2 ∆H=-300 KJ......... ( 2 )
K
Slope =
2.303 S ( β ) 
→ S (α ) ∆H = −2.5 KJ
K
= 0.0301 PHYSICS
2.303
K = 0.0693 min −1 SECTION – A

1 Energy  ML2T −2 
151. Energy density = ε0E2 = = 3  = [ ML−1T −2 ]
2 Volume  L 
Conceptual.
152.
a
153. By using S n = u + ( 2n − 1) ,
2
a1
Distance travelled by body A in 5th second = 0 + (2 × 5 − 1)
2

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

 a2
Distance travelled by body B in 3rd second is = 0 + (2 × 3 − 1)
2
a a a 5
Here 0 + 1 (2 × 5 − 1) = 0 + 2 (2 × 3 − 1) ⇒ 9a1 = 5a2 ⇒ 1 =
2 2 a2 9
v
Angular velocity of P about A , ω A =
154. 2a
v ω
Angular velocity of P about C, ωC = hence A = 1: 2
a ωC
Swimming is a result of pushing water in the opposite direction of the motion
155.
 1   1  3
156. µ = tan θ 1 − 2  = tan 30 1 − 2  =
 n   2  4
Workdone mgh 300 × 9.8 × 2
P= = = = 1960W
157. Time t 3
158. We will not consider the moment of inertia of disc because it doesn't have any mass so
moment of inertia of five particle system I = 5 mr 2 = 5 × 2 × (0.1) 2 = 0.1kg-m2
159. Internal forces donot change the centre of mass
2GM M
160. ve = ⇒ ve ∝ , If mass and radius of the planet are three times than that of earth
R R
then escape velocity will be same.
161. The motion in the wristwatch depends on spring action and has nothing to do with
acceleration due to gravity.(NCERT lines)
∆p hρ g 200 × 103 × 9.8
162. B = = = = 19.6 × 108 N /m 2
∆V /V 0.1/100 1/1000
W = 8π T ( R22 − R12 ) = 8π T [(2r )2 − (r )2 ] = 24π r 2T
163.
164. For copper γ r = C + 3α Cu = C + 3 A
For silver γ r = S + 3α Ag
C − S + 3A
γ r is same since liquid is same⇒ C + 3 A = S + 3α Ag ⇒ α Ag =
3
θ1 − θ 2  θ + θ 
According to Newton's law of cooling , = K  1 2 − θ0 
165. t  2 
(60 − 50)  60 + 50 
In the first case, =K − θ 0  ⇒ 1 = K (55 − θ ) ….(i)
10  2 
(50 − 42)  50 + 42 
In the second case, =K − θ 0  ⇒ 0.8 = k (46 − θ 0 ) ….(ii)
10  2 
1 55 − θ
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get = ⇒ 46 − θ 0 = 44 − 0.8θ ⇒ θ 0 = 10o C
0.8 46 − θ
Kinetic energy per degree of freedom = 1 kT
2
166.

Sri Chaitanya Page 8

 As diatomic gas possess two degree of freedom for rotational motion therefore rotational
K.E. = 2 1 kT  = kT
2 
In the problem both gases (oxygen and nitrogen) are diatomic and have same temperature
(300 K) therefore ratio of average rotational kinetic energy will be equal to one
167. Conceptual
168. When object is kept at centre of curvature. It’s real image is also formed at centre of
curvature
f 1 30
169. m = ⇒− = ⇒ u = −150 cm
f +u 4 30 + u
2
 a1 
 + 1
I max  a2  = 4 ⇒ a1 = 3
170. I = 2
min  a1  1 a2 1
 − 1
 a2 
K max (eV ) = E (eV ) − W0 (eV ) = 6.2 − 4.2 = 2 eV

171.
∴ K max ( Joules ) = 2 × 1.6 × 10−19 J = 3.2 × 10−19 J
nh  h 
172. According to Bohr’s theory, mvr = ⇒ 2π r = n   = nλ ; For n = 1 , λ = 2π r
2π  mv 
173. photons of higher frequency will be emitted if transition takes place from n = 2 to n = 1
174. Q=(BE of products – BE of reactants)
175. Concept
176. p= q( l )
177. The given arrangement is equivalent to the parallel combination of three identical
capacitors. Hence equivalent capacitance=3C
178. R = 91× 102 ≈ 9.1k Ω
l −l  l −2
179. r =  1 2  × R ' ==  1  × 5 ---------(1)
 l2   2 
l −l  l −3
r =  1 2 × R' =  1  × 10 ----------(2)
 l2   3 
Solving the above equations,r=10 Ω
180. Conceptual
−19
 2E  −19 2 × 2 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 106
181. F = qvB = 1.6 × 10 ×   2.5 == 4 × 10 −27
= 7.6 × 10 −12 N
 m  1.66 × 10
B 1
182. BH = 3 BV ⇒ tan θ = V = ⇒ θ = 30o
BH 3
1 1
e = Bω r 2 = × 0.1 × 2π × 10 × (0.1) 2 = π × 10−2 V
183. 2 2
184. Conceptual
185. Conceptual
Sri Chaitanya Page 9
 u 2 sin 2θ (10) 2 sin(2 × 30°)
186. R = = = 5 3 = 8.66 m
g 10
( M + m) g
For vertical equilibrium, 2T = ( M + m) g ∴ T =
187. 2
188. As the body splits into two equal parts due to internal explosion therefore momentum of
system remains conserved
i.e. 8 × 2 = 4v1 + 4v2 ⇒ v1 + v2 = 4 ------(1)
Initial kinetic energy + Energy released due to explosion= Final kinetic energy of the system
1 1 1
⇒ × 8 × (2) 2 + 16 = 4v12 + 4v22 ⇒ v12 + v22 = 16 --------(2)
2 2 2
By solving eq. (1) and (2) we get v1 = 4 and v2 = 0
189. Let the mass of the rod is M .Initially for the equilibrium F + F = Mg ⇒ F = Mg / 2
When one man withdraws, the torque on the rod,
l Ml 2 l 3g
τ = Iα = Mg ⇒ α = Mg ⇒ α =
2 3 2 2l
l 3g
linear acceleration, a = α =
2 4
Now if the new normal force at A is F' then Mg − F ' = Ma
3Mg Mg W
⇒ F ' = Mg − Ma = Mg − = = .
4 4 4
190. SOLUTION: In the problem orbital radius is increased by 1 0 0 .
Time period of satellite T ∝ r 3/2
3
Percentage change in time period = (% Percentage change in orbital radius) =
2
3
(1%) = 1.5%
2
According to Bernoulli's theorem
191.
P(V2 / V1 )
192. ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W ⇒ ∆U = ∆Q − ∆W = 540 −
J
−6
1.013 × 10 × [(1671 − 1) × 10 ]
5
∆U = 540 − = 540 − 39.7 = 500 calories
4.2
No Doppler effect
193.
v D 1 1 1
194. m∞ = − o × From = −
uo f e f o vo uo
1 1 1
⇒ = − ⇒ vo = 30 cm
( +1.2) vo (−1.25)
30 25
∴| m∞ | = × = 200
1.25 3
0.693 1
(T1/2 ) x = (τ ) y ⇒⇒ = ⇒ λx = 0.693 λ y
195. λx λy

Sri Chaitanya Page 10

 Also rate of decay = λ N ; Initially number of atoms (N) of both are equal but since
λ y > λx , therefore, y will decay at a faster rate than x.
196. Conceptual
 r 
New charge on sphere A is QA' = Q  A  = 120 
4 
197. = 48 µ C
 rA + rB   4 + 6 
Initially it was 80 µ C i.e., 32 µ C charge flows from A to B.
198. Since the current coming out from the positive terminal is equal to the current entering the
negative terminal, therefore, current in the respective loop will remain confined in the loop
itself. current through 2 Ω resistor = 0
10
199. Here n = =5
2
∴ R = (n − 1)G = (5 − 1)2000 = 8000 Ω
200. The voltage VL and VC are equal and opposite so voltmeter reading will be zero.
V V 240
i= = = =8A
R 2 + ( X L − X C )2 R 30

Sri Chaitanya Page 11

 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 15-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 3 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY (2) Fucus – diplontic

SECTION – A (3) Funaria – haplodiplontic
01. Study of process of classification of all (4) Ficus – haplontic
living organisms is 06. Fleshy cylindrical modified green stem
(1) Ecology can be seen in
(2) Taxonomy (1) Opuntia
(3) Phylogeny (2) Euphorbia
(4) Pedology (3) Citrus
02. Holozoic mode of nutrition can be seen in (4) Bryophyllum
members of 07. Hypogynous flower are present in
(1) Monera (1) Chinarose
(2) Fungi (2) Plum
(3) Animalia (3) Guava
(4) Plantae (4) ray florets of sunflower
03. Asexual spores generally not found in
08. Match the following.
members of
(A)Valvate (I) Cassia
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes (B) Twisted (II) Calotropis
(3) Basidiomycetes (C) Imbricate (III) Cotton
(4) Deuteromycetes (D) Vexillary (IV) Pea
04. Select the correct match (1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(A)Chlorophyceae (I) Dictyota (2) A – II, B – III, C –IV , D – I
(B) Phaeophyceae (II) Udorina (3) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(C) Liverworts (III) Funaria (4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
(D) Mosses (IV) Marchantia
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
% O K 5 C1+2+ 2 A 9 +1 G1
+ ( ) ( ) ( )
09. given
(2) A – II, B – I, C – III, C – IV floral formula is associated with family
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (1) Cruciferae
(4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III (2) Fabaceae
05. Choose the incorrect match with regard to (3) Solanaceae
the life cycle
(4) Liliaceae
(1) Chlamydomonas – haplontic

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

10. Classification of bacteria as Gram (2) Nitrite reductase
positive and Gram negative is based on (3) Nitrogenase
difference in (4) Transaminase
(1) Plasma membrane 16. Which one of the following is not
(2) Cell organelles essentially required for chemiosmosis ?
(3) Cell envelope (1) Membrane
(4) Cell shape (2) Proton pump
11. Which of the following is important site (3) Proton gradient
of formation of glycoproteins and (4) NADP reductase
glycolipids 17. Which of the following is primary CO2
(1) SER acceptor in C4 plants ?
(2) RER (1) Rubisco
(3) Golgi apparatus (2) Pepcase
(4) Lysosome (3) RuBP
12. Identify the type of chromosome. (4) PEP
18. Which of the following phase involve a
major reorganisation of virtually all
components of the cell ?
(1) G1 - phase
(2) S – phase
(1) Acentric chromosome (3) G2 - phase
(2) Submetacentric chromosome (4) M – phase
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
19. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(4) Telocentric chromosome
proposed by
13. S − G + S ' → S + S '− G , given prototype
(1) Sturtevant
chemical reaction catalysed by enzyme
(2) Morgan
class
(3) Hershey & Chase
(1) Oxidoreductase
(2) Transferases (4) Sutton & Boveri
(3) Hydrolases 20. Internal fertilisation absent in
(4) Lyases (1) Bryophytes
14. Select out the incorrect match regarding (2) Most of algae
to absorbable form of the concerning (3) Gymnosperms
mineral (4) Pteridophytes
(1) Nitrogen - NO3− 21. Which of the following intermediate of
(2) Iron - Fe ++ Glycolysis take part in oxidation step ?
(3) Sulphur - SO 24− (1) Fructose – 1, 6 – di phosphate
(2) DHAP
(4) Boron - BO33−
(3) PGAL
15. Which of the following enzyme is highly
(4) 1, 3 di PGA
sensitive to the molecular oxygen?
(1) Nitrate reductase
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
22. In which of the following plant group (2) 2/16
there is no correlation between exposure (3) 4/16
to light duration and flowering ? (4) 8/16
(1) SDP 27. Select the incorrect match.
(2) LDP (1) φ ×174 phages − 5386 bp
(3) DNP
(2) Lambda phage = 48502 bp
(4) LNP
(3) E.coli - 4.6 ×106 bp
23. How many cells are present in egg
apparatus ? (4) Human genome - 3.3 ×109 bp
(1) 4 28. During replication, discontinuously
synthesised DNA fragments are later
(2) 8 joined by
(3) 3 (1) Polymerase
(4) 1 (2) Helicase
(3) Ligase
24. Which of the following is not a device to
(4) Topoisomerase
prevent inbreeding ?
29. Which of the following is synthesised by
(1) non synchronised pollen release and
RNA polymerase –III ?
stigma receptivity
(1)hnRNA
(2) Placement of anther & stigma at
different position (2) 18s rRNA
(3) Presence of both stamen & carpel in (3) 5s rRNA
same flower (4) 28s rRNA
(4) Self incompatibility 30. Atlas 66, is the variety of
25. (i) Expression of only one of the parental (1) Wheat
trait in F1 (2) Rice
(ii) Expression of both of parental traits in (3) Maize
F2 (4) Cotton
(iii) 3 : 1 phenotype 31. Activated sludge method is the
Out of given conclusions which can be (1) Primary treatment of water
explained by law of dominance ? (2) Secondary treatment of water
(1) i & ii only (3) Tertiary treatment of water
(2) i & iii only (4) Quaternary treatment of water
(3) ii & iii only 32. Which of the following is cloning vector?
(4) i, ii & iii (1) pBR322
26. In Mendelian dihybrid F2 generation, (2) ECoRI
what is the proportion of double (3) Bam HI
homozygous (4) Bacteria
(1)1/16
Sri Chaitanya Page 3
33. Statement A: Choice of cry gene depends 39. Match the coloumn.
on the crop but not on targeted pest. (A) First plasmid to
(I) PBR322
Statement B: RNAi takes place in all be used as vector
eukaryotic organisms as method of (B) First restriction
cellular defense. endonuclease to be (II) PSC101
(1) Both statements A & B are correct (2) isolated
Statement A is correct but statement B is (C) First transgenic
(III) ECoRI
incorrect crop/plant
(3) Both statements A & B are incorrect (D) First insect
(IV) Hind II
(4) Statement A is incorrect but resistant plant
statement B is correct (V) Antibiotic
34. Phytoplankton stage of succession is resistant tobacco
replaced by (VI) Bt-Cotton
(1) Submered rooted plant (1) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – VI
(2) Marsh meadow (2) A – II, B – IV, C – V, D – VI
(3) Free floating plants (3) A – II, B – IV, C – VI, D – V
(4) Reed swamp (4) A – I, B – III, C – VI, D – V
35. Which of the following is gaseous cycle 40. Select the correct match
(1) Carbon cycle (1) Oranamental – Tulip
(2) Nitrogen cycle (2) Medicinal – Gloriosa
(3) Sulphur cycle (3) Vegetables – Colchicum
(4) Both 1 & 2 (4) Fodder – Indigofera
SECTION – B 41. Which of the following is most abundant
36. Which of the following is defining protein of animal world ?
property of living organisms ? (1) Rubisco
(1) Growth
(2) Collagen
(2) Reproduction
(3) Cellulose
(3) Consciousness
(4) Memory (4) H 2O
37. Select the incorrect match 42. Which of the following fungal genus
(1) Chrysophytes – Diatoms commonly involved in mycorrhiza
(2) Euglenoids – Plantae formation ?
(3) Slime moulds – Saprophytic protists (1) Albugo
(4) Protozoans – Heterotrophic protists (2) Glomus
38. Which of the following event is a (3) Trichoderma
precursor to seed habit ?
(4) Yeast
(1) Vascular tissue development
43. Dyad of cells form during
(2) Formation of flower as reproductive
structure (1) Metaphase – I
(3) Lack of archegonium (2) Telophase – I
(4) Development of zygotes into young (3) Anaphase – II
embryos within female gametophyte (4) Telophase – II
Sri Chaitanya Page 4
44. Pusa gaurav is the variety of (1) Both statements A & B are correct (2)
(1) Aphids Statement A is correct but statement B is
(2) Brassica incorrect
(3) Cowpea (3) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(4) Cauliflower (4) Statement A is incorrect but
45. Statement A: CaCl2 causes the DNA statement B is correct
fragments to precipitate on the cell wall 49. Which of the following is not a purpose
and improves DNA binding on wall. of transpiration ?
Statement B: All endonucleases are (1) Absorption of water
restriction endonucleases. (2) Cools leaf surface
(1) Both statements A & B are correct (2) (3) Supplies water for photosynthesis
Both statements A & B are incorrect (3) (4) Active absorption of minerals
Statement A is correct but statement B is 50. Movement of molecules across
incorrect membrane independent of other
(4) Statement A is incorrect but molecules, called
statement B is correct (1) Uniport
46. Match the coloumn. (2) Antiport
(A)Formation of (I) Downstream (3) Coport
recombinant DNA processing (4) Symport
(B) Separaton & ZOOLOGY
(II) Biosynthetic SECTION – A
purification of
phase 51. Which of the following character is
recombinant protein
(C) Pest resistant related to Branchiostoma?
(III) Bt-brinjal (1) Proboscis gland
plant
(D) Pesticide (IV) Roundup (2) Green gland
resistant plant ready tobacco (3) Pharyngeal gills
(V) Flavr Savr (4) Kidneys
tomato 52. The second trophic level in a terrestrial
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV ecosystem is represented by
(2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (1) Molluscs and fishes
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (2) Lions and tigers
(4) A – II, B – I, C – V, D – IV (3) Insects and fruigivorous birds
47. Which of the following promotes bolting (4) Man and eagle
(1) Auxin 53. Choose the set of animals with flight
(2) Gibberellin adaptations
(3) Cytokinin (a) Columba (b) Struthio
(4) Ethylene (c) Hemidactylus (d) Pteropus
48. Statement A: Oxygen is the final (1) a, b, d
hydrogen acceptor of aerobic respiration. (2) b, c
Statement B: Presence of oxygen is vital (3) a, b, c
for removing hydrogen from Glycolysis, (4) a, d
link reaction and krebs cycle
Sri Chaitanya Page 5
54. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands 61. Differentiation of T-lymphocytes is
became extinct due to mainly influenced by
(1) Competition (1) Thyroxine
(2) Over exploitation (2) Parathyroid hormone
(3) Habitat loss (3) Thymosins
(4) Pollution (4) Melatonin
55. Myoglobin is found in 62. Arrange the following green house gases
(1) sarcosomes in a sequence based on their percentage of
(2) sarcoplasmic reticulum contribution and choose the correct
(3) sarcoplasm option.
(4) sarcolemma (a) N 2O (b) CFCs
56. Choose incorrect statement about (c) CH 4 (d) CO2
thyroxine (1) a – b – c – d
(1) It is secreted by thyroid follicles (2) d – b – c - a
(2) Triiodothyronine (3) a – c – b – d
(3) Regulates BMR
(4) d – c – a – b
(4) Supports RBC formation 63. Sinus venosus of frog receives blood
57. Fish like reptile from
(1) Coelacanth (1) Pulmonary veins
(2) Stegosaurus (2) Vena cavae
(3) Ichthyophis (3) Pulmonary arteries
(4) Ichthyosaur (4) Right atrium
58. Menstruation occurs if the released ovum 64. Identify correct set of matching and
is not fertilised. Which of the following
choose the correct option.
induces menstruation?
Column – I Column – II
(1) Regeneration of endometrium
(A)Mast cells (i) Collagen
(2) Degeneration of corpus luteum
(B) Goblet cells (ii) Mucous
(3) Raising levels of gonadotropins
(C) JG cells (iii) Histamine
(4) Development of ovarian follicles
(D) Fibroblasts (iv) Renin
59. Mating of unrelated animals with in the
(E) Paneth cells (v) Lysozyme
same breed is
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E - iv
(1) inbreeding
(2) cross breeding (2) A – iii, B – v, C – ii, D – i, E - iv
(3) outcrossing (3) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i, E – v
(4) interspecific hybridisation (4) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii, E –v
60. Aneuploidy due to loss of a chromosome 65. The epithelium found in alveoli is also
is exemplified by seen in
(1) Turner’s syndrome (1) Fallopian tube
(2) Klinefelier’s syndrome (2) PCT
(3) Down’s syndrome
(3) Bronchioles
(4) Edward’s syndrome
(4) Endothelium

Sri Chaitanya Page 6

66. Which enzyme is not found in succus (2) Aravalli hills
entericus? (3) Sarguja
(1) Enterokinase (4) Deorai
(2) Maltase 72. Statement-I: Clotting disorders can lead
(3) Amylase to severe blood loss during injury.
(4) Lipase Statement-II: Haemophilia and
67. Invasive weed species thrombocytopaenia enhance coagulation
(1) Carrot grass of blood.
(2) African cat fish (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(3) Nile perch correct
(4) Bamboo (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
68. ‘Universal recipients’ can donate blood to incorrect
persons with (3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II
(1) AB blood type is wrong
(2) O blood type (4) Statement-I is wrong and
(3) A or B statement-II is correct
(4) All the above 73. Cannabinoid
69. Choose incorrect statement about PCT of (1) morphine
nephron. (2) crack
(1) 70 to 80% of electrolytes and water (3) smack
are reabsorbed (4) charas
(2) Aldosterone aided absorption of Na 74. Choose the correct set of bones in human
and water body
(3) Nearly all of the essential nutrients are (1) Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid – Cranial
reabsorbed bones
(4) Simple cuboidal brush border (2) Humerus, carpals, metatarsals – Hand
epithelium increases the surface area of bones
reabsorption. (3) Malleus, incus, scapula – ear ossicles
70. Match the follosing and choose correct (4) Femur, patella, ulna – leg bones
option. 75. Match the contents of column I with
Column – I Column – II column II and choose correct option with
(A) Sertoli cells (i) Fallopian tube reference to human.
(B) Zona Pellucida (ii) Seminiferous tubules List – I List – II
(C) Ampulla (iii) Ovum (A)Bipolar cells (i) Optic nerve
(D) Foreskin (iv) Glanspenis (B) Blind spot (ii) Scala media
(E) Hymen (v) Vaginal opening
(C) Macula (iii) Retina
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E - iv
(D) Organ of Corti (iv) Utricle
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – v, E - iv
(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv, E – v
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(4) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii, E –v
71. Sacred grove of Rajasthan (3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
(1) Jaintia hills (4) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

76. The no. of heart beats and duration of (2) Chlamydiasis
each cardiac cycle in a person with a (3) Syphilis
cardiac output of 7 litres is (4) Cancer
(1) 100 times, 0.6 seconds 81. An autosomal recessive Mendelian
(2) 90 times, 0.8 seconds disorder
(3) 80 times, 0.8 seconds (1) Colourblindness
(4) 120 times, 0.5 seconds (2) β -Thalassemia
77. Statement-I: Old age people are more
(3) Haemophilia
prone to diseases.
Statement-II: Degeneration of thymus in (4) Myotonic dystrophy.
old aged people leads to 82. Which of the following represents correct
immunodeficiency. pair?
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are (1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils
correct of Cucurbita – Analogous organs
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are (2) Eyes of octopus and whale –
incorrect Homologous organs
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II (3) Wings of butterfly and pigeon –
is wrong analogous organs
(4) Statement-I is wrong and (4) Beaks of Galapagos finches –
statement-II is correct Convergent evolution
78. Choose incorrect statement about 83. Choose correct combination with
malpighian tubules of cockroach. reference to population interactions.
(1) 100 – 150 yellow coloured, Name Example
filamentous structures
(1) Mutualism Egret and cattle
(2) They are seen at the junction of mid
(2) Competition Zooplankton and
gut and foregut
flemingo
(3) Excrete uric acid into hindgut
(4) They play a role in osmoregulation (3) Commensalism Staphylococcus
and Pencillium
79. Which of the following is incorrect about
gaseous exchange at systemic tissues? (4) Parasitism Ticks on dog

(1) HCO3− formed in RBC diffuse into 84. Water Act was introduced in
plasma (1) 1972
(2) 1986
(2) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes
(3) 1974
dissociation due to low H +
(4) 2002
(3) Carbonic anhydrase catalises the
85. Most feared property of malignant tumors
dissociation of H 2CO3
(1) Contact inhibition
(4) Haemoglobin binds to CO2 (2) Metastasis
80. Which of the following STD is not (3) Tumor antigens
completely curable? (4) Uncontrolled growth
(1) Genital herpes
Sri Chaitanya Page 8
 SECTION – B (2) Head of femur articulates with glenoid
86. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of cavity of pelvic girdle
(1) hepato-pancreatic duct (3) Intervertebral discs form cartilaginous
(2) common bile duct joint between adjacent vertebrae
(3) cystic duct (4) Clavicle articulates with xiphoid
(4) pancreatic duct process.
87. Identify the correctly matched set of 91. Amygdala of human brain is a part of
animals with their characteristics. (1) Limbic system
Animals Characteristics (2) Corpora quadrigemina
Radially (3) Cerebellum
Seaurchin,
symmetrical, spiny (4) Hypothalamus
(1) brittle star,
bodied marine 92. Which of the following signals of
star fish
animals placenta induce foetal ejection reflex?
Bangarus, (1) Decrease in progesterone and estrogen
Dry cornified skin,
(2) Alligator, ratio
two pairs of limbs
Calotes (2) Increased secretion of cortisol
Ascaris, Intestinal parasites, (3) Secretion of prolactin
(3) Ancylostoma, males and females (4) Secretion of oxytocin by foetus
Wuchereria are distinct 93. Choose the correct set.
Canis, Target
Terrestrial, Hormone Function
(4) Macropus, cells/gland
viviparous
Delphinus Adeno Secretion
(1) GnRH
88. Volume of air that remains in the lungs hypophysis of ADH
after a forcible expiration Secretion
(1) Functional residual capacity Adrenal of
(2) Corticotrophin
medulla Gluco
(2) Residual volume
corticoids
(3) Expiratory capacity
Sleep wake
(4) Vital capacity (3) Melanotrophin Melanocytes
cycle
89. A patient suffering with diabetes
Secretion
insipidus excretes Leydig
(4) LH of
(1)large amounts of water with glucose cells
androgens
and ketones 94. Which of the following diseases are water
(2) large amounts of water without borne?
glucose and ketones (a) Hepatitis B
(3) highly concentrated urine (b) Typhoid
(4) low amounts of water with ketones (c) Amoebiasis
and high sodium. (d) Ascariasis
90. Which of the following bones represents (e) Pneumonia
the correct articulation? (1) a, b, c
(1) True ribs articulate dorsally with the (2) b, c, d
cervical vertebrae (3) b, c, e
(4) a, b, d
Sri Chaitanya Page 9
95. The possible no. of genotypes and (4) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – iv
phenotypes of children born to a couple 100. Choose incorrect match from the
with AB and O blood group are following.
(1) 2 phenotypes, 3 genotypes (1) GIFT – Transfer of zygote into
(2) 3 phenotypes, 3 genotypes fallopian tube
(3) 1phenotype, 2 genotypes (2) ICSI – Sperm is injected into ovum
(4) 2 phenotypes, 2 genotypes (3) Condoms – Prevent insemination in
96. Assertion (A): Very small animals are vagina
rarely found in polar regions. (4) Oral pills – Inhibit ovulation
Reason(R): Small animals have a larger PHYSICS
surface area relative to their volume and SECTION – A
tend to lose body heat in cold climate. 101. The RMS speed of oxygen molecules in a
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and gas is V. If the temperature is doubled
the reason is the correct explanation of and the oxygen molecules dissociate into
assertion. oxygen atoms, the RMS speed will
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but become
the reason is not the correct explanation (1) V
of assertion
(2) V 2
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false (3) 2V
97. Secondary pollutant (4) 4V
(1) CO 102. The thickness of a glass plate is measured
(2) SO2 to be 2.17 mm, 2.17 mm and 2.18 m at
(3) Particulate matter three different places. The average
(4) Ozone thickness of plate taking into account
98. Stratfication is least defined in significant figures is
(1) Grasslands (1) 2.175 mm
(2) Tropical rainforest (2) 2.17 mm
(3) Coniferous forest
(3) 2.18 mm
(4) Deciduous forest
(4) 2.00 mm
99. Identify the correct set of matching
between the contents of column I and 103. A tunning fork of frequency 256 Hz
column II. produces 4 beats per second with a wire
Column – I Column – II of length 32 cm vibrating in its
(A) Homo habilis (i) 650 – 800 c.c fundamental mode. The minimum length
(B) Homo erectus (ii) 900 c.c by which the wire be shortened so that it
(C) Modern man (iii) 1350 c.c produces no beats with the fork is
(D) Neanderthal man (iv) 350 – 400 c.c (1) 0.50 cm
(E) Australopithecines (v) 1400 c.c (2) 0.25 cm
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – v, E – iv (3) 0.62 cm
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E – v (4) 0.12 cm
(3) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv, E – v
Sri Chaitanya Page 10
104. The count rate from a radioactive sample 108. The frequency and intensity of a light
falls from 4 × 106 per second to 1 × 106 per source are both doubled. Consider the
second in 20 hours. The count rate 60 following statements.
hours after the beginning is A. The saturation photo current remains
1 the same
(1) × 106 s −1
32 B. The maximum kinetic energy of the
1 photoelectrons is doubled
(2) × 106 s −1
8 (1) Both A, B are true
1 (2) A is true, B is false
(3) × 106 s −1
64
(3) A is false, B is true
1
(4) × 106 s −1 (4) Both A, B are false
16
109. A spherical volume contains a uniformly
105. The dimensional formula of gravitational
distributed charge of density
constant is −4
2 × 10 C / m . The electric field at a point
3

(1) ML2T −2
inside the volume at a distance 4 cm from
(2) M −1L3T −2 centre is approximately
(3) M −1 L2T −2 (1) 3 × 105 NC −1
(4) ML3T −1 (2) 3 × 104 NC −1
106. An amount Q of heat is added to a (3) 2 × 105 NC −1
monoatomic ideal gas in a process in
(4) 3 × 107 NC −1
which the gas performs a work Q/2 on its
surroundings. The molar heat capacity for 110. A ray of light passing through an
the process is equililateral prism made of a material of
refractive index 1.732 undergoes
(1) 4R
minimum deviation. The angle of
5R incidence is
(2)
2
(1) 30º
3R
(3) (2) 60º
2
(3) 45º
(4) 3R
(4) 75º
107. A parallel beam of monochromatic light
of wavelength 620 nm is incident 111. A battery of emf 2V and internal
normally on a perfectly absorbing resistance 0.5Ω is connected across a
surface. The power of the beam is 30W. resistance of 9.5Ω . The number of
The force exerted by the beam on the electrons that cross through a cross-
surface is section of the resistance in 2seconds is
(1) 10 × 10−8 N (1) 1.6 × 1018
(2) 2 × 10−8 N (2) 5 × 1018
(3) 16 × 10−8 N (3) 2.5 × 1018
(4) 24 × 10−8 N (4) 6.4 × 1018

Sri Chaitanya Page 11

112. The magnetic field B inside a long (1) Increase
solenoid carrying a current of 5A is (2) Decrease
3.14 × 10 −2 T . The number of turns per unit (3) Remains same
lengths of the solenoid is
(4) Become zero
(1) 2 × 103 turns /m
117. A wire of length 4m and cross-sectional
(2) 8 × 10 turns /m
3
area 1mm 2 is carrying a current of 2A. If
(3) 3 × 103 turns /m each cubic metre of the wire material
(4) 5 × 103 turns /m contains 1029 free electrons, the average
113. An electric field of 20Vm −1 exists along time taken by an electron to cross the
positive X-axis in space. The potential length of wire is
difference VB − VA between two points A (1) 3.2 × 104 s
and B given by co-ordinates A (0, 0) and (2) 8.4 × 104 s
B (4m, 2m) is given by (3) 1.7 × 108 s
(1) −40 5V (4) 5.6 × 108 s
(2) 40 V 118. The wire AB shown is 40 cm long.
(3) 80 V Where should the free end of
(4) −80V galvanometer be connected on AB so that
the galvanometer shows null deflection?
114. When a drop of oil is spread on a water
surface, it displays beautiful colours in
day light because of
(1) Dispersion of light
(2) Reflection of light
(3) Polarization of light
(4) Interference of light
115. It is required to construct a 10µ F (1) 24 cm from A
capacitor which can be connected across (2) 16 cm from A
a 200V battery. Capacitors of capacitance (3) 22 cm from B
10µ F are available but they can withstand (4) 18 cm from B
only 50V. The minimum number of 119. The magnetic field B and the magnetic
capacitors required which can yield the intensity H in a material are found to be
desired result is 1.6 T and 103 Am −1 respectively. The
(1) 16 relative permeability µr of the material is
(2) 12 6
(1) × 103
(3) 10 π
(4) 20 (2) 2.4π × 103
116. A spring – mass system oscillates in a 4
(3) × 103
car. If the car accelerates on a horizontal π
road, the frequency of oscillation will (4) 4π × 103
Sri Chaitanya Page 12
120. Three particles of masses 1kg, 2 kg and 123. A wire of length L carries a current I
3kg are placed at the corners A, B and C along the X-axis. A magnetic field exists
respectively of an equilateral triangle ( )
which is given as B = B0 i + j + k T . The
ABC of side 1m. Location of centre of
magnetic force acting on the wire is
mass of system taking AB as X-axis and
A as origin is (1) Zero
(2) 2B0 IL
1 1 
(1)  m, m
2 2 (3) B0 IL
7 3  (4) 2B0 IL
(2)  m, m
 12 4  124. A ball is thrown horizontally from a point
1
100 m above the ground with a speed of
3 
(3)  m, m 40ms −1 . The velocity with which it strikes
2 4 
the ground is ( g = 10ms −2 )
 3 3 
(4)  m, m (1) 60ms −1
 4 4 
(2) 80ms −1
121. For transistionr action, which of the
(3) 100ms −1
following statements is correct?
(4) 40ms −1
(1) The base region must be very thin
and lightly doped 125. A mercury drop of radius R splits into 8
identical droplets. If surface tension of
(2) Base, emitter and collector regions
mercury is T, the increase in surface
should have same doping concentrations
energy is
(3) Base, emitter and collector should
(1) 32π R 2T
have same size
(2) 2π R 2T
(4) Both emitter junction as well as the
collectors junction are forward biased (3) 4π R 2T
(4) 8π R 2T
122. A body rotating at 20 rad s −1 is acted upon
by a constant torque provding it a 126. In a Atwood machine, two masses m and
2m are connected by a string going over a
deceleration of 2 rad s −2 . The time after
clamped smooth pulley. The system is
which the body will have the same kinetic
released from rest. The distance travelled
energy as the initial value if the same
by lighter block in first two seconds is
torque continues to act
5g
(1) 15 s (1)
2
(2) 5 s 2g
(2)
(3) 20 s 3
(4) 40 s 4g
(3)
3
g
(4)
2

Sri Chaitanya Page 13

127. The length of a potentiometer wire is 1m ∆l
(1)
and its resistance is 4Ω . A current of l
5mA is flowing in it. An unknown source  ∆l 
2

(2)  
of emf is balanced on 40 cm length of this  l 
wire. The emf of source is
∆l
(1) 15 mV (3)
l
(2) 20 mV l
(4)
(3) 5 mV ∆l
(4) 8 mV 132. A steel frame of coefficient of thermal
128. The energy equivalent of 5g of a conductivity K = 45 W m −1 K −1 of length
substance is 60 cm and cross – sectional are 0.2 m 2 ,
(1) 4.5 × 1013 J forms three sides of a square. The free
(2) 45 × 1013 J ends are maintained at 20ºC and 40ºC.
The rate of heat flow through the frame is
(3) 4.5 × 1016 J
(1) 200 W
(4) 45 × 1016 J
(2) 300 W
129. The logic expression for the given gate is
(3) 450 W
A Y (4) 600 W
133. In an unbiased semiconductor diode, the
(1) A+ 0 = A barrier potential opposes the motion of
(2) A+ A =1 (1) Free electrons from n – region
(3) A+ A = 0 (2) Holes from p – region
(4) A + A = A (3) Majority carries from both l and n
130. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area regions
A is charged by a constant current I. The (4) Minority carries from both P and n
displacement current through a plane regions
surface of area A/2 parallel to plates and 134. The main scale of a vernier calipers is
drwans symmetrically between the plates calibrated in mm and 19 divisions on
is mainscale are equal in length to 20
I divisions of vernier scale. In measuring
(1)
4 the diameter of a cylinder by this
(2) I instrument, the main scale reads 35
I divisions and the 4th division of verneir
(3)
2 coinsides with a main scale division. The
(4) Zero radius of cylinder is
131. When a metal wire of length ‘l’ is (1) 3.52 cm
stretched by a load, the fractional change (2) 1.76 cm
∆V (3) 3.64 cm
in its volume is proportional to
V
(4) 1.82 cm
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
135. The height above the earth’s surface 139. The Binding energy per nucleon of 37 Li
where acceleration due to gravity is 1% and 42 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06
less than its value at the surface
MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction
( Re = 6400 Km)
3 Li +1 H → 2 2 He + Q , the value of energy
7 1 4

(1) 16 km Q released is
(2) 32 km (1) 2.4 MeV
(2) 8.4 MeV
(3) 64 km
(3) 17.3 MeeV
(4) 32 2 km
(4) 19.6 MeV
SECTION – B 140. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm
136. A and B are two far away points on the is coming from a star. The limit of
axis and perpendicular bisector resolution of a telescope whose objective
respectively for an electric dipole. Let VA has a diameter of 2m is
and VB be the potantials at A and B (1) 6.00 × 10−7 rad
respectively. Then (2) 3.66 × 10 −7 rad

(1) VA = VB (3) 1.83 × 10−7 rad

(4) 7.32 × 10−7 rad
(2) VA = 2VB
141. A barometer reads 75 cm of mercury.
(3) VA ≠ 0,VB = 0 When 2cm3 of air at atmospheric pressure
is introduced into the space above the
(4) VA = 0,VB = 0 mercury level, the volume of this space
137. An inductor may store energy in becomes 50cm3 . The length by which the
mercury column descends is
(1) Its electric field
(1) 3 cm
(2) Its coils
(2) 4.6 cm
(3) Its magnetic field (3) 2.2 cm
(4) Both in electric and magnetic fileds (4) 8 cm
138. An inductor coil joined to a 6V battery 142. One kg of ice at 0ºC is mixed with one kg
draws a steady current of 12A. This coil of steam at 100ºC. At thermal equilibrium
is connected to a capacitor and an AC the mass of water in the mixture is
source of RMS voltage 6V in series. If the (1) 1 kg
current is in phase with the emf, the (2) 2 kg
amplitude of current is 4
(3) kg
(1) 6 2A 3
(2) 12 A 1
(4) kg
3
(3) 12 2A
(4) 6A
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
143. A hemispherical smooth bowl of radius R (2) Isothermal
is set rotating about its axis of symmetry (3) Adiabatic
which is kept vertical. A small block kept
(4) Isochoric
in the bowl rotates with the bowl without
slipping on its surface. If ‘ θ ’ is the 146. A spherical black body of radius r
angular position of block with the radiates thermal energy. If its rate of
vertical, the angular speed of rotation of cooling is R, then
bowl is (1) R ∝ r
g cos θ 1
(1) (2) R ∝
R r

g sin θ (3) R ∝ r 2
(2)
R 1
(4) R ∝
r3
g
(3)
R sin θ 147. Match the following

g Column A Column B
(4)
R cos θ a. Quality factor e. 1 2
LI
2
144. A block of mass 10 kg is placed at the
point A of a rough track. It is gently b. Self induction f. VI cos φ
pushed towards right. If it stops at the coefficient
point B of track, the work done by the
c. Average power g. Lω 0 / R
frictional force in going from A to B is
( g = 10ms )
−2 d. Magnetic energy h. ε
( dI / dt )
a b c d
(1) g f h e
(2) f e h g
(1) 100 J (3) g h f e
(2) 80 J (4) e f g h
(3) 20 J 148. When an open organ pipe resonates in its
(4) 60 J fundamental mode, then at the centre of
145. Two cylinders A and B are equal capacity pipe
are connected to each other via a stop (1) Displacement antinode is formed
cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard (2) The gas molecules are at rest
temperature and pressure, B is completely
(3) The pressure of the gas is constant
evacuated. The entire system is thermally
insulated. The stop cock is suddenly (4) The gas molecules undergo
opened. The process is vibrations of maximum amplitude
(1) Isobaric
Sri Chaitanya Page 16
149. A converging lens of focal length 60 cm 153. The number of Faradays (F) required to
is placed infront of and coaxially with a produce 9 g of aluminium from molten
convex mirror of focal length 10cm. Their AlF3 is
separation is d. If a parallel beam of light (1) 2
incident on lens returns as a parallel (2) 3
beam, then d is (3) 4
(1) 100 cm (4) 1
(2) 20 cm 154. An element has a face centered cubic
(3) 40 cm (fcc) structure with a cell edge of 294pm.
The atomic radius is
(4) 10 cm
2
150. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength (1) × 294pm
4
λ is incident on a hydrogen sample in
4
ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb (2) × 294pm
3
energy and subsequently emit radition of
4
six different wavelengths. The energy of (3) × 294pm
the incident radiation is 2
3
(1) 0.85 eV (4) × 294pm
4
(2) 12.75 eV
155. Which of the following amine does not
(3) 108.8 eV give carbylamine test?
(4) 40.2 Ev (1) Aniline
CHEMISTRY (2) Secondary butyl amine
SECTION – A (3) Tertiary butyl amine
151. On hydrolysis with dil. H 2SO 4 , starch (4) Ethyl methylamine
156. Ethoxy benzene on cleavage with HI
and cellulose give ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Then ‘X’
gives
and ‘Y’ are a pair of I
(1) Enantiomers
(2) Anomers
+CH3OH
(3) Functional isomers (1)
(4) Homologues OH
152. Elimination reaction of 2-Fluoro-pentane
to form pent-1- ene is +C2H5I

(a) β -Elimination reaction (2)

I
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule or Saytzeff rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
+C2H5OH
(d) Follows Hofmann’s rule
(3)
(1) (a), (c), (d) OH
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) +CH3I
(4) (a), (b), (c) (4)

Sri Chaitanya Page 17

157. Stability of alkyl carbocations can be (2) 5 × 10 −4
explained by
(3) 2 × 10 −3
(1) Electromeric effect
(2) Inductive effect (4) 10 −2
(3) Hyper conjugation 163. Which one of the following statements is
(4) Both 2, 3 not true ?
158. Correct order of increasing field strength (1) Natural rubber has the trans-
of ligands is configuration at every double bond.
(2) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene
(1) I − < Cl− < H 2O < CN −
and styrene.
(2) I − < H 2O < Cl− < CN − (3) Natural rubber is a 1,4-polymer of
(3) Cl− < I − < H 2O < CN − isoprene.
(4) In vulcanization, the formation of
(4) Cl− < H 2O < I − < CN − sulphur bridges between different chains
159. Calculated spin only magnetic moment is make rubber harder and stronger.
highest for 164. Identify the correct statements from the
(1) Mn +3 following :
a) Gaseous CO 2 is extensively used to
(2) Fe +3
carbonate soft drinks
(3) Cr +3 b) Fullerenes are the only pure form of
(4) Co +2 carbon because they have smooth
160. Dipole moment is shown by structure with having dangling bonds
(1) Cis-1,2-dichloro ethene c) Hydrated zeolites are used as ion
(2) trans-1,2-dichloro ethene exchanges in softening hard water
(3) Cis-2-Butene d) Quartz, crisobalite and tridymite are an
(4) both 1,3 amorphous forms of silica.
161. Incorrect statement of the following is (1) a,b and c only
(1) Ca 2+ ions are not important in (2) a and c only
maintaining the regular beating of the (3) b and c only
heart (4) c and d only
165. ∆U = 0 in
(2) Mg 2+ ions are important in the green
(1) Isothermal process
parts of the plants
(2) Cyclic process
(3) Mg 2+ ions form a complex with ATP (3) Isochoric process
(4) Potassium ions activate enzymes. (4) Both 1 and 2
162. The rate constant of a first order reaction 166. Reaction between acetaldehyde and ethyl
at 27 0 C is 10 −3 min −1 . The temperature magnesium bromide followed by
coefficient of this reaction is 2 what is the hydrolysis will give
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol
rate constant (in min −1 ) at 17 0 C for this
(2) n-butyl alcohol
reaction is
(3) Isobutyl alcohol
(1) 10 −3 (4) Ter butyl alcohol

Sri Chaitanya Page 18

167. The number of protons, neutrons and (2) Acetone + Chloroform
electrons in 140 (3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
58 Ce , respectively, are
(4) Ethanol + Acetone
(1) 82, 58 and 58
173. Match the following :
(2) 58, 58 and 82
Oxide Nature
(3) 140, 82 and 58
(a) NO (i) Basic
(4) 58, 82 and 58
(b) Na 2O (ii) Neutral
168. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Scandium (z =21) does not exhibit (c) BeO (iii) Acidic
variable oxidation states (d) SO3 (iv) Amphoteric
(2) Cr +2 is reduced and Mn +3 is oxidised Which of the following is correct option?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
when both have d 4 configuration
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
less stable than Cr (VI)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Interstitial compounds are chemically
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
inert
174. Identify the compound X in the following
169. Non ionic detergent is obtained from
sequence of reactions
(1) Lauryl alcohol and lauryl hydrogen CH 3 CHO
sulphate.
CrO3 +( CH 3CO )2 O H O+
(2) Dodecyl benzene and Dodecyl 
273−283K
→ X 
3
∆
→
benzene sulphonic acid.
O
(3) Steric acid and polyethylene glycol.
(4) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide. C−CH3
170. Identify the incorrect match.
Atomic Number IUPAC Official Name
(a) 102 (i) Nobelium
(1)
(b) 104 (ii) Rutherfordium O
(c) 107 (iii) Bohrium ||
CH(C−CH3)2
(d) 114 (iv) Rontgenium
(1) b - ii
(2) c - iii
(3) d - iv
(2)
(4) a – i O
171. Freezing point of aqueous calcium nitrate ||
CH(O−C−CH3)2
cannot be
(1) 275 K
(2) 267 K
(3) 271 K (3)
(4) 269 K COOH
172. The mixture which shows negative
deviation from Raoult’s law is
(1) Benzene + Toluene
(4)
Sri Chaitanya Page 19
175. Which one of the following has (2) 1.02 atm
maximum number of atoms ? (3) 1.64 atm
(1) 1 g of O 2 (g) (4) 1.25 atm
(2) 1 g of N 2 (g) 179. The change in concentration of reaction
(3) 1 g of Fe (s) leads to change in
(1) activation energy
(4) 1 g of H 2 (g)
(2) collision frequency
176. Which of the following best represents
(3) threshold energy
the structure of an amino acid in basic
(4) heat of reaction
solution (pH = 11) ?
180. Identify the correct statement from the
(1)
following
R CH C OO (1) Wrought iron is impure iron with 5%
NH2 carbon
(2) (2) Bauxite is ore of iron
R CH C OOH (3) Copper matte: Cu2S + little FeS
(4) Vapour phase refining is carried out
NH2
for Zirconium by Mond’s process
(3) 181. Identify a molecule which has a least
R CH C OOH
bond order
NH3 (1) H 2
(4) (2) C2
R CH C OO (3) O 2
NH3 (4) N 2
177. Which of the following is not correct 182. For the reaction
about carbon monoxide ? C( s ) + 2H 2( g ) € CH 4( g ) K = 4 × 1012 at
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of
blood. 300K, the value of ∆G o at the same
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin is more temperature will be
stable than (haemoglobin bound to CO) is (1) 2.303 × 8.314 J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log ( 4 × 1012 )
more stable than oxyhaemoglobin. (2) (
−2.303 × 8.314 J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log 3 ×1012 )
(3) It is produced due to complete
combustion.
(3) (
−2.303 × 8.314 J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log 4 × 1012 )
(4) It reduces almost all metal oxides (4) (
−2.303 × 8.314J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log 4 ×10−12 )
other than those of the alkali and alkaline
183. On electrolysis of dil. Sulphuric acid
earth metals.
using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product
178. The partial pressures of N ,O and obtained at cathode will be
2 2
CO in a vessel are 0.5atm, 0.25atm and (1) Oxygen gas
2 (2) H 2S gas
0.5 atm respectively. The total pressure of
(3) SO 2 gas
the mixture at the same temperature is
(1) 0.96 atm (4) Hydrogen gas

Sri Chaitanya Page 20

184. Match the following and identify the
correct option.
(a) CO( g ) + N 2( g ) (i) MgSO 4 + CaSO 4
(b) Permanent (ii) An electron
hardness of water precise hydride
(c) CH 4 (iii) Producer gas
(d) H 2O 2 (iv) Non – planar
structure Chemical reactions of lanthanoids
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1
(1) iii ii i iv (2) 2
(2) iii i ii iv (3) 3
(3) i iii ii iv (4) 4
(4) iii iv ii i 189. Which of the following is never an
185. The potential difference between the electrophile involved in reactions of
fixed layer and the diffused layer of benzene?
⊕
opposite charges of colloidal solution is (1) N O2
(1) electrokinetic potential ⊕

(2) zeta potential (2) S O3 H

⊕
(3) Both 1 and 2
(3) C H 3
(4) Helmholtz electrical double layer ⊕

SECTION - B (4) C l
186. Urea reacts with water to form A which 190. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides
will decompose to form B. Which one of with sodium metal in dry ether, 2-
the following is soluble in aqueous methylpropane was obtained. The alkyl
solution of B to form colourless solution halides are
(1) CuSO 4 (1) 2-Chloropropane and
Chloromethane
(2) AgCl
(2) 2-Chloropropane and Chloroethane
(3) ZnSO 4
(3) Chloromethane and Chloroethane
(4) FeCl3 (4) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane
187. The kjeldahl’s method of of estimation 191. Statement-I : Pure NaCl is hygroscopic.
of nitrogen not applicable for Statement-II : NaCl can be precipitated
1) Azo compounds from its saturated solution by passing HCl
2) Pyridene gas.
3) Nitro Compounds (1) I is true, II is false
4) All (2) I is false, II is true
188. The number of reactions in which (3) I and II are false
elementary gaseous product(s) are formed (4) I and II are true

Sri Chaitanya Page 21

192. The solubility of CaF2 ( K sp = 3.4 × 10−11 ) +4 −4
(2) ,
in 0.1 M solution of NaF would be 3 3
(1) 3.4 × 10−12 M −2 +2
(3) ,
3 3
(2) 3.4 × 10−10 M
−2 +4
(3) 3.4 × 10 −9 M (4) ,
3 3
(4) 3.4 × 10−13 M 196. Which of the following oxoacid of
193/Statement-I : CH 3 − Br readily undergoes sulphur has S – O – S linkage ?
SN1 reaction inpresence of aqueous KOH (1) H 2SO 4 , sulphuric acid
Statement-II: ( CH 3 )3 C − Br readily (2) H 2S2O8 , peroxodisulphuric acid
undergoes SN2 reaction in presence of (3) H 2S2O7 , pyrosulphuric acid
aqueous KOH (4) H 2SO3 , sulphurous acid
(1) I and II are true 197. Which one of the following is not a
(2) I and II are false product when the reaction between
(3) I is true, II is false ethanal and propanal in presence of dil
(4) I is false, II is true NaOH is
(1) But-2-enal
194. An alkene on ozonolysis gives ethanal as
(2) Pent-2-enal
one of the product. Its structure is
(3) 2 methyl but-2-enal
(4) 2 methyl pent-3-enal
198. The IE1 value of Xenon is almost
(1) identical with that of
(1) Molecular nitrogen
(2) Molecular oxygen
(3) Molecular hydrogen
(2) (4) Molecular iodine
199. Which of the following is a green house
gas?
(1) SO 2
(2) H 2S
(3)
(3) CO 2
(4) O 2
200. For the reaction, 2 O3( g ) → 3 O 2( g )
(4) The correct option is
195. Oxidation number of carbon in (1) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
C3O2 , Mg 2C3 are respectively
(2) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
−4 +4
(1) , (3) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
3 3
(4) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0

Sri Chaitanya Page 22

 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 15-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 3 KEY

BOTANY

1) 2 2) 3 3) 3 4) 3 5) 4 6) 2 7) 1 8) 3 9) 2 10) 3
11) 3 12) 2 13) 2 14) 2 15) 3 16) 4 17) 4 18) 4 19) 4 20) 2
21) 3 22) 3 23) 3 24) 3 25) 4 26) 3 27) 1 28) 3 29) 3 30) 1
31) 2 32) 1 33) 4 34) 1 35) 4 36) 3 37) 2 38) 4 39) 2 40) 1
41) 2 42) 2 43) 2 44) 2 45) 3 46) 2 47) 2 48) 2 49) 4 50) 1

ZOOLOGY

51) 3 52) 3 53) 4 54) 1 55) 3 56) 2 57) 4 58) 2 59) 3 60) 1
61) 3 62) 1 63) 2 64) 3 65) 4 66) 3 67) 1 68) 1 69) 2 70) 3
71) 2 72) 3 73) 4 74) 1 75) 2 76) 1 77) 1 78) 2 79) 2 80) 1
81) 2 82) 3 83) 4 84) 3 85) 2 86) 1 87) 1 88) 2 89) 2 90) 3
91) 1 92) 1 93) 4 94) 2 95) 4 96) 1 97) 4 98) 1 99) 4 100) 1

PHYSICS

101) 3 102) 2 103) 1 104) 4 105) 2 106) 4 107) 1 108) 2 109) 1 110) 2
111) 3 112) 4 113) 4 114) 4 115) 1 116) 3 117) 1 118) 2 119) 3 120) 2
121) 1 122) 3 123) 4 124) 1 125) 3 126) 2 127) 4 128) 2 129) 2 130) 3
131) 1 132) 2 133) 3 134) 2 135) 2 136) 3 137) 3 138) 3 139) 3 140) 2
141) 1 142) 3 143) 4 144) 3 145) 3 146) 2 147) 3 148) 2 149) 3 150) 2

CHEMISTRY

151) 2 152) 1 153) 4 154) 1 155) 4 156) 2 157) 4 158) 1 159) 2 160) 4
161) 1 162) 2 163) 1 164) 2 165) 4 166) 1 167) 4 168) 3 169) 3 170) 3
171) 1 172) 2 173) 1 174) 3 175) 4 176) 1 177) 3 178) 4 179) 4 180) 3
181) 1 182) 3 183) 4 184) 2 185) 3 186) 2 187) 4 188) 2 189) 2 190) 1
191) 2 192) 3 193) 2 194) 4 195) 2 196) 3 197) 4 198) 2 199) 3 200) 2

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
BOTANY 31. NCERT Page No: 184
(SECTION-A) 32. NCERT Page No: 199
01. NCERT Page No: 7 33. NCERT Page No: 209
02. NCERT Page No: 17 34. NCERT Page No: 252
03. NCERT Page No: 24 35. NCERT Page No:253
04. NCERT Page No: 30 – 36 SECTION - B
05. NCERT Page No: 42 36. NCERT Page No: 5
06. NCERT Page No: 68 37. NCERT Page No: 21
07. NCERT Page No: 73 38. NCERT Page No: 38
08. NCERT Page No: 74 39. Factual
09. NCERT Page No: 79 40. NCERT Page No: 81
10. NCERT Page No: 128 41. NCERT Page No: 148
11. NCERT Page No: 134 42. NCERT Page No: 189
12. NCERT Page No: 136 43. NCERT Page No: 169
13. NCERT Page No: 153 44. NCERT Page No: 174
14. NCERT Page No: 198 45. NCERT Page No: 200
15. NCERT Page No: 203 46. NCERT Page No: 204 to 209
16. NCERT Page No: 215 47. NCERT Page No: 241
17. NCERT Page No: 219 48. NCERT Page No: 233
18. NCERT Page No: 164 49. NCERT Page No: 178
19. NCERT Page No: 14 50. NCERT Page No: 189
20. NCERT Page No: 83 ZOOLOGY
21. NCERT Page No: 229 SECTION – A
51. Cephalochordates respire through gills
22. NCERT Page No: 251
52. The second trophic level in a terrestrial
23. NCERT Page No: 27 ecosystem is represented by
24. NCERT Page No: 31 insects and fruigivorous birds
53. Birds and bats are adapted for flight.
25. NCERT Page No: 75
Ostrich is flightless bird.
26. NCERT Page No: 80 54. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands
27. NCERT Page No: 96 became extinct due to competition with
goats.
28. NCERT Page No: 106
55. Myoglobin is found in sarcoplasm
29. NCERT Page No: 111 56. Thyroxine is tetraiodothyronine
30. NCERT Page No: 176 57. Ichthyophis is an extinct fish like reptile.
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
58. Menstruation is due to fall in Organ of Corti - Scala media
progesterone as the corpus luteum 76. Cardiac output = 70ml × 100=7 litres.
degenerates 60
Duration = = 0.6sec
59. Mating of unrelated animals with in the 100
same breed is outcrossing 77. Thymus degeneration in aged people
60. Turner’s syndrome (XO) is due to loss leads to immunodeficiency.
of ‘X’. 78. Malpighian tubules are at the junction of
61. Differentiation of T-lymphocytes is midgut and hindgut.
mainly influenced by thymosins. 79. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates due to high
62. Refer NCERT picture. H+ at tissues
63. Sinus venosus of frog receives blood 80. Genital herpes is not completely curable.
from vena cavae and opens into right 81. β -Thalassemia is due to recessive
atrium of heart. mutation in a gene of chromosome 11.
64. Mast cells – Histamine 82. Wings of butterfly and pigeon are
Goblet cells – Mucous analogous organs
JG cells – Renin 83. Ticks (+) on dog ( − ) are examples of
Fibroblasts – Collagen parasitism.
Paneth cells - Lysozyme 84. Water Act was introduced in 1974.
65. Simple squamous epithelium is seen 85. Most feared property of malignant
inendothelium and alveoli. tumors is metastasis
66. Amylase is not seen in intestinal juice. SECTION – B
67. Parthenium (carrot grass) is an exotic 86. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of
weed. hepato-pancreatic duct
68. ‘AB’ blood type person can donate 87. Echinoderms are spiny bodied, marine
blood to only AB. radially symmetrical animals
69. Aldosterone acts on DCT and collecting 88. Volume of air that remains in the lungs
duct. after a forcible expiration is residual
70. Sertoli cells - Seminiferous tubules volume
Zona Pellucida – Ovum 89. ADH hyposecretion causes diuresis
Ampulla - Fallopian tube 90. Cartilaginous joint is formed by
Foreskin – Glanspenis intervertebral discs
Hymen - Vaginal opening 91. Amygdala of human brain is a part of
71. Sacred grove of Rajasthan Aravalli hills limbic system
92. Progesterone levels decrease and
72. Haemophilia and thrombocytopaenia estrogen levels raise during partarition
delay clotting of blood. 93. LH stimulates secretion of androgens by
73. Charas is a cannabinoid. Leydig cells.
74. Frontal, sphenoid and ethmoid are 94. Typhoid, Amoebiasis and Ascariasis are
cranial bones. water borne diseases.
75. Bipolar cells – Retina
Blind spot - Optic nerve
Macula - Utricle

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

95. 1
n.Cv .dT = .n.C.dT
2
C = 2CV
107. Power P = F × V
P
F=
C
108. I = nhυ
I → nI
υ → 2υ
96. Loss of heat is more when surface area Hence ‘n’ is a constant
is more in small animals. 1 Qr
97. Ozone is a secondary pollutant. 109. E = .
4π ∈0 R 3
98. Grasslands mostly have grasses and
donot show much stratification.
4
Stratification is well defined in forest. Where Q = π R 3 .ρ
3
99. Homo habilis - 650 – 800 c.c
 A + D
sm 
Homo erectus - 900 c.c  2  sin i
Modern man - 1350 c.c 110. µ = =
 A sin r
Neanderthal man - 1400 c.c Sm  
 2
Australopithecines -350 – 400 c.c ε
100. Ovum is introduced into fallopian tube 111. I =
R+r
in GIFT. Q = IT
PHYSICS 112. B = µ0 nI
SECTION – A
113. dV = − E.d r
3RT
101. V = E = 20i
M
T → 2T d r = −4i − 2 j
2.17 + 2.17 + 2.18 114. Conceptual
102. t =
3 115. 4 Capacitors in a row = ( 2.5µ F , 200V )
103. 254 ∝
1 4 such rows in parallel = (10µ F , 200V )
32
116. Conceptual
1
256 ∝ 117. S = neVd
l
I = naeVd
104. A = A0 e− λt
L
1 t=
⇒ e −20 λ = Vd
4
( ) 8 l
3
A = A0 e−20 λ 118. =
12 40 − l
105. F = Gm1m2 / r 2 119. B = µ0 µr H
Q 120. r C = ∑ mr / ∑ m
106. dU =
2
121. Conceptual
122. ω = ω 0 + α t

Sri Chaitanya Page 4

 O = 20 − 2 ( t ) Z = 0.5Ω
t = 10 s V
I r = r = 12 A
∑ T = 20 S Z
I 0 = 12 2 A
(
123. F = I L × B )
139. Q = ( 8 × 7.06 − 7 × 5.60) MeV
124. V 2 = Vx2 + Vy2 where Vy2 = 2 gh
1.22λ
125. U i = T × 4π R 2 140. R.L =
a
1 1 = PV
2
 R 141. PV 2 2
U f = 8 × T × 4π ×  
 2 75 × 2 = P2 × 50
g P2 = 3cm of Hg
126. a =
3
Atmospheric pressure is equal to the
1
S = at 2 pressure by Hg column plus pressure
2
due to trapped ait. Hence Hg column
IR
127. P.G = descends by 3 cm.
L
142. For every 1 gm of ice of steam
ε = l × P.G
condenses, to melt the ice, and to rise
128. E = mc 2
the temperature to 100ºC mass of water
129. For A = 0 or 1, the Y = 1
 1
dφ =  1 +  kg
130. I d =∈0 A.  3
dt
∆V ∆l 143. N cos θ = mg
131. = (1 − 2σ )
V l N sin θ = mrω 2
l Where r = R sin θ
132. R =
KA 144. W f = mg ( n1 − n2 )
∆θ 145. Conceptual
Power P =
R dQ 1
133. Conceptual 146. ∝
dt rPS
134. 20VSD = 19 MSD
147. Conceptual
19
1VSD = MSD
20 148. Displacement node is formed at the
1 centre of pipe
= MSD
20
149. Lens has to form the image at the centre
d = MSR + n × L.C
 2h  of curvature of mirror
135 g 1 = g 1 − 
 R d = fl − 2 / f m /
SECTION – B
N ( N − 1)
136. Perpendicular bisector is zero potential 150. 6 =
line 2
137. Conceptual ⇒N =4
−13.6
E= eV
6 42
138. R = = 0.5Ω
12
Sri Chaitanya Page 5
 M 165. Conceptual
M→ O
2 166. ||
CH CH MgBr
CH3 − C− H 
3 2
→ CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH3
CHEMISTRY HO 2 |
OH

SECTION – A 167. Protons = 58, neutrons=82, electrons

hydrolysis
151. Starch →α − D − glu cos e =58
H+
Hydrolysis 168. Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be
Cellulose 
H+
→β − D − glu cos e
more stable than Cr (VI)
152. Elimination of 2-fluoro pentane in 169. The combination of steric acid and
presence of base is polyethylene glycol
dehydrohalogenation, β - elimination 170. Rontgenium atomic number 111
and follows Hoffman’s rule 171. Freezing point of aqueous solution is
153. AlF3 → Al+3 + 3F− less than zero
172. Acetone + Chloroform shows negative
Al+3 + 3e− → Al deviation from Raoult’s law
3F → 1 mole of Al ( 27g ) 173. No – Neutral oxide
? ← 9 grams Na 2O − Basic oxide
154. r = a / 2 2 BeO → Amphoteric
155. 2° − Amines doesn’t give carbylamines SO3 → Acidic oxide
test 174.
OH CH3 CH(OCOCH3)2 CHO

CrO3+( CHC
3 O) 2O
HO+
OCH2CH3 
HI
→ +CH3CH2I  
273−283K
 → 
3
∆

→
156.
157. Stability of alkyl carbocation can be 175. No.of atoms in 1g of
explained by both inductive effect and O2 = 1 × 2 × N = N
32 16
hyperconjugation
No.of atoms in 1g of
158. Conceptual
1 N
159. Magnetic moment α no of unpaired d- N2 = × 2× N =
28 14
electrons
1 N
160. Dipole moment of Trans 1,2 No.of atoms in 1g of Fe = ×N =
56 56
dichloroethene is zero
No.of atoms in 1g of
161. Ca +2 ions are important in maintaining 1
the regular beating of the heart. H2 = × 2 × N = N
2
K + 10 176. In basic medium amino acid exist as
162. µ = t
Kt R − CH − COO −
|
10−3 NH 2
2=
Kt 177. Conceptual
∴ K t = 5 × 10−4 min −1 178. PT = PN 2 + PO2 + PCO2
163. Natural rubber is a cis-1,4 polyisoprene = 0.5 + 0.25 + 0.5
polymer. = 1.25(atm)
164. Conceptual 179. Conceptual
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
180. Cu 2S + FeS is called copper matte 2
K sp = Ca +2   F− 
181. Sol. Molecule Bond order   
3.4 × 10−11 = S ( 2S + 0.1)
2
H2 - 1
C2 - 2 3.4 × 10−11 = S ( 0.1)
2

O2 - 2
∴ 3.4 × 10−11 = 0.01S
N2 - 3
K
∴ S = 3.4 × 10−9
182. ∆G ° = −2.303RT log10 193. Conceptual
183. 2H + + 2e− → H 2 CH=CH−CH3
CHO

184. (a) CO( g ) + N 2( g ) …… Producer gas


3O /HO
2

→ +CH3CHO
(b) Permanent …… MgSO 4 + CaSO 4 Zn
194.
hardness of water
195. 3C + 2 ( −2 ) = 0
(c) CH 4 ……… An electron precise
+4
hydride C=
3
(d) H 2O 2 …….. Non – planar Structure
Mg 2C3 → 2Mg + 3C = 0
185. Conceptual
SECTION – B 2 ( +2 ) + 3C = 0
186. −4
C=
NH 2CONH 2 + 2H 2O → ( NH 4 )2 CO3 ⇌ 3
196. Pyrosulphuric acid contains S-O-S
2NH3 + CO 2 + H 2O
linkage
AgCl + 2NH 3 ( aq ) →  Ag ( NH 3 ) 2  Cl ( aq ) 197.
colourless
187. Conceptual
188. Lanthanoids give hydrogen gas when
reaction with water and acids
⊕
189. HSO3 is not electrophile in sulphonation
of Benzene

198. IE1 value of Xenon is almost equal to

Molecular oxygen.
190. 199. CO 2 is green house gas
191. Pure NaCl is not hygroscopic 200. For decomposition of O3
CaF2 ƒ Ca +2 + 2F− ∆H = − ve and ∆S = + ve
192.
S 2S
NaF → Na + + F−
0.1M 0.1M

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

 f SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 19-03-2022
Sub: PHYSICS NEET GRAND TEST - 4 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

PHYSICS (3) 4 kg and 4 kg

SECTION – A (4) 2 kg and 2 kg
01. The pair of physical quantities having the 04. A charge q is placed at the centre of the
same dimensional formula is line joining two equal charges Q. The
(1) Angular Momentum and torque system of the three charges will be in
(2) Torque and strain energy equilibrium, if q is equal to
(3) Planks constant and power (1) −
Q
2
(4) Power and Angular momentum
Q
02. A body of mass m kg is rotating in a (2) −
4
vertical circle at the end of a string of (3) +
Q
length r metre. The difference in the 4
Q
kinetic energy at the top and the bottom (4) +
2
of the circle is 05. Figure shows the electric lines of force
mg
(1) emerging from a charged body. If the
r

(2) 2mg electric field at A and B are E A and E B

r respectively and if the displacement
(3) 2mgr between A and B is r then
(4) mgr
03. A block of mass 4 kg is suspended
through two light spring balances A and
B. Then A and B will read respectively
A r B

(1) E A > EB
B
(2) E A < EB
EB
(3) EA =
r
4kg
EB
(4) EA =
(1) 4 kg and zero kg r2

(2) Zero kg and 4 kg

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

06. An electric dipole is put in north-south 09. The curve between absolute temperature
2
direction in a sphere filled with water. and v rms is
Which statement is correct v 2rms
(1) Electric flux is coming towards
sphere
(2) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
(3) Electric flux entering into sphere T
and leaving the sphere are same (1)
2
v
(4) Water does not permit electric flux to rms

enter into sphere

07. A square of side ‘a’ has charge Q at its
centre and charge ‘q’ at one of the
corners. The work required to be done in (2) T
moving the charge ‘q’ from the corner to v 2
rms
the diagonally opposite corner is
(1) Zero
(2) Qq
4π ∈0 a
Qq 2 (3) T
(3)
4 π ∈0 a v 2
rms
Qq
(4)
2π ∈0 a
08. By which curve will the variation of
gravitational potential of a hollow sphere
(4) T
of radius R with distance be depicted
V
10. A uniform magnetic field, parallel to the
plane of the paper existed in space
O
R r initially directed from left to right. When
a bar of soft iron is placed in the field
(1) parallel to it, the lines of force passing
V
through it will be represented by
R
O
r

(2)
V (A) (B)

R
O
r

(C) (D)
(3)
V (1) Figure (A)
(2) Figure (B)
R
O (3) Figure (C)
r
(4) Figure (D)
(4)
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
11. The network shown in the figure is a part (2) Exactly zero
of a complete circuit. If at a certain (3) Nearly one
instant the current i is 5 A and is (4) Exactly one
3
decreasing at the rate of 10 A / s then 16. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ac
VB − VA is source gives a voltage V = 20 cos( 2000 t).
Neglecting source resistance, the ammeter
A B
1Ω 15 V 5mH reading will be
(1) 5V 6Ω
A
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V 5mH 4Ω 50µF
(4) 20 V
12. For silver, Young's modulus is
V
7 . 25 × 10 10 N / m 2
and Bulk modulus is
(1) 0.47A
11 × 10 10 N / m 2
. Its Poisson's ratio will be (2) 0.9A
(1) – 1 (3) 2.8 A
(2) 0.5 (4) 1.4 A
(3) 0.39 17. The output current versus time curve of a
(4) 0.25 rectifier is shown in the figure. The
13. The displacement of an oscillating average value of output current in this
particle varies with time (in seconds) case is
according to the equation y (cm) = sin
Current

πt 1
 + . The maximum acceleration of
2 2 3

the particle is approximately I0

(1) 5.21 cm / s 2 Time

(2) 3 .62 cm / s 2 (1) 0

I0
(3) 1 .81 cm / s 2 (2)
2
(4) 0.62 cm / s 2 (3) 2 I0
π
14. A resonant ac circuit contains a capacitor
(4) I0
of capacitance 10 −6 F and an inductor of
10 −4 H .
18. Atomic power station at Tarapore has a
The frequency of electrical
generating capacity of 200 MW. The
oscillations will be
energy generated in a day by this station
(1) 10 5 Hz
is
(2) 10 Hz
(1) 200 MW
10 5
(3) Hz (2) 200 J
2π
10 (3) 4800 × 10 6 J
(4) Hz
2π (4) 1728 × 10 10 J
15. The power factor of a good choke coil is
(1) Nearly zero

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

19. If the binding energy per nucleon in (3) 4 λ / 3
Li7 and He 4 nuclei are respectively 5.60 (4) 3 λ
MeV and 7.06 MeV, then energy of 23. In given figure, the potentiometer wire
reaction Li7 + p → 2 2 He 4 is AB has a resistance of 5 Ω and length 10
(1) 19.6 MeV m. The balancing length AM for the emf
(2) 2.4 MeV of 0.4 V is
(3) 8.4 MeV R=45Ω
(4) 17.3 MeV 5V
20. Which of the following is true
M
A B
(1) Lyman series is a continuous
spectrum 0.4V

(2) Paschen series is a line spectrum in

the infrared (1) 0.4 m
(3) Balmer series is a line spectrum in (2) 4m
the ultraviolet (3) 0.8 m
(4) The spectral series formula can be (4) 8m
derived from the Rutherford model of the
24. The work function for metals A, B and C
hydrogen atom
are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV.
21. It is raining vertically with a velocity of 3
According to Einstein’s equation, the
kmh-1. A man walks in the rain with a
metals which will emit photo electrons
velocity of 4 kmh-1. The rain drops will
for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å
fall on the man with a velocity of
is/are
(1) 5 kmh-1
(2) 4 kmh-1 (1) None of these
(3) 3 kmh-1 (2) A only
(4) 1 kmh-1 (3) A and B only
22. The following diagram indicates the (4) All the three metals
energy levels of a certain atom when the
25. When the momentum of a proton is
system moves from 2E level to E, a
changed by an amount P0, the
photon of wavelength λ is emitted. The
corresponding change in the de-Broglie
wavelength of photon produced during its
wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then,
4E
transition from 3 level to E is the original momentum of the proton was
2E (1) p0
(2) 100 p0
(3) 400 p0
4/3E (4) 4 p0
E

(1) λ/3

(2) 3λ / 4

Sri Chaitanya Page 4

26. A closed rectangular tank is completely β
(1) α=
1−β
filled with water and is accelerated
β
horizontally with an acceleration a (2) α=
1+ β
towards right. Pressure is (i) maximum at, 1−β
(3) α=
and (ii) minimum at β
1+ β
(4) α=
β
A D
a
30. Let ‘W’ be the work done, when a bubble
of volume V is formed from a given
B C
solution. How much work is required to
(1) (i) B (ii) D
be done to form a bubble of volume 2V.
(2) (i) C (ii) D
(1) W
(3) (i) B (ii) C
(2) 2W
(4) (i) B (ii) A
(3) 21/3 W
27. A block follows the path as shown in the
figure from height h . If radius of circular (4) 41/3 W
path is r , then relation that holds good to 31. If pressure of a gas contained in a closed
complete full circle is vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated
by 1ºC, its initial temperature must be :
(1) 250 K
h (2) 250ºC
(3) 2500K
r (4) 25ºC
32. Consider the process on a system shown
(1) h < 5 r / 2 in figure. During the process, the work
(2) h > 5r / 2 done by the system
(3) h = 5r / 2 P
(4) h ≥ 5 r / 2
28. Given below are four logic gate symbol
(figure). Those for OR, NOR and NAND V

are respectively (1) Continuously increases

A y A y (2) Continuously decreases
B B (3) First increases then decreases
(1) (2) (4) First decreases then increases
A y y
A 33. In ideal Carnot engine, whose efficiency
B B
(3) is 40%, receives heat at 500K. If its
(4)
efficiency is 50%, then the intake
(1) 1, 4, 3
temperature for the same exhaust
(2) 4, 1, 2
temperature is
(3) 1, 3, 4
(1) 600K
(4) 4, 2, 1
(2) 700K
29. The relation between α and β parameters
(3) 800K
of current gains for a transistors is given
(4) 900K
by

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

34. A force acts on a 2 kg objects so that its A

position is given as a function of time as

θ
2
x = 3t + 5 . What is the work done by O
this force in first 5 seconds? B R
(1) 850 J
(2) 900 J C
(3) 950 J 2 gR
(1)
(4) 875 J g cos θ
cos θ
35. To increase both the resolving power and (2) 2 gR .
g
magnifying power of a telescope
R
(1) Both the focal length and aperture of (3) 2
g
the objective has to be increased gR
(4)
(2) The focal length of the objective has g cos θ
to be increased 38. Three infinitely long charge sheets are
(3) The aperture of the objective has to be placed as shown in figure. The electric
increased field at point P is
(4) The wavelength of light has to be Z
decreased σ Z = 3a
SECTION – B P
36. Which of the following options is correct −2σ Z=a
for the object having a straight line x
motion represented by the following −σ Z = −a
graph
2σ ˆ
D (1) k
εo
C
2σ ˆ
(2) − k
εo
B 4σ ˆ
t (3) k
εo
A 4σ ˆ
(4) − k
O εo
s
39. A number of blocks each of mass 0.4 Kg
(1) The object moves with constantly
are placed one over the other. The
increasing velocity from O to A and then
minimum horizontal force required to
it moves with constant velocity.
pull the eighth block from the top without
(2) Velocity of the object increases
disturbing the remaining is 10N. If
uniformly
(3) Average velocity is zero g = 10ms−2 , the coefficient of static
(4) The graph shown is impossible friction between any two blocks is
37. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a (1) 1/3
sphere of radius R. A very small spherical (2) 1/4
ball slips on this wire. The time taken by (3) 1/6
this ball to slip from A to B is (4) 1/8

Sri Chaitanya Page 6

40. In Young's double slit experiment how ring about an axis passing through its
many maximas can be obtained on a centre and perpendicular to its plane is
screen (including the central maximum) (1) ml 2 / 4π 2
on both sides of the central fringe if
λ = 2000 Å and d = 7000 Å
(2) ml 2 / π 2

(1) 12 (3) 3ml 2 / 4π

(2) 7 (4) 2ml 2 / 3π
(3) 18 44. The condition under which a microwave
(4) 4 oven heats up a food item containing
41. A current carrying coil is placed with its water molecules most efficiently is:
axis perpendicular to N-S direction. Let (1) infra-red waves produce heating in a
horizontal component of earth's magnetic microwave oven.
field be Ho and magnetic field inside the (2)The frequency of the microwaves must
loop is H. If a magnet is suspended inside match the resonant frequency of the water
the loop, it makes angle θ with H. Then molecules.
θ= (3) The frequency of the microwaves has
H  no relation with natural frequency of
(1) tan −1  0 
 H  water molecules.
 H  (4) Microwaves are heat waves, so always
(2) tan −1  

 H0  produce heating
 H  45. The figure shows a glass tube (linear co-
(3) cosec −1  

 H0 
efficient of expansion is α ) completely
H  filled with a liquid of volume expansion
(4) cot −1  0 
 H 
co-efficient γ . On heating the length of
42. In the circuit shown, the point ‘B’ is
the liquid column does not change.
earthed. The potential at the point ‘A’ is
Choose the correct relation between γ
5Ω 7Ω B
A and α
10Ω

50V C

3Ω
E D
(1) 14 V
(2) 24 V (1) γ =α
(3) 26 V (2) γ = 2α
(4) 50 V (3) γ = 3α
43. A thin wire of mass m and length l is bent α
(4) γ=
in the form of a semi circular ring. 3
Moment of inertia of that semi circular

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

46. A resistance of 20 ohms is connected to a (3) 5
source of an alternating potential (4) 1
V = 220 sin(100 π t ) . The time taken by the
∆P
current to change from its peak value to 50. If β of an ideal gas is defined as ,
P∆T
r.m.s value is then variation of β with absolute
(1) 0.2 sec temperature T at constant volume V is
(2) 0.25 sec represented by
(3) 25 × 10 −3 sec

(4) 2.5 × 10 −3 sec

47. The potentials of the two plates of
capacitor are +10V and –10 V. The charge (1)
on one of the plates is 40 C. The
capacitance of the capacitor is
(1) 2F
(2) 4F (2)
(3) 0.5 F
(4) 0.25 F
48. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is
suspended by means of two light (3)
inextensible strings as shown in figure.
Tension in one string immediately after
the other string is cut is

α
(4)
CHEMISTRY
A B
SECTION – A
mg 51. If the wavelength of a particle of mass
(1)
2 (m) is 100 times to its velocity then its
(2) 2 mg value of ‘ λ ’ interms of mass and
planck’s constant is
mg
(3) 1 m
4 (1) .
10 h
(4) mg
h
49. A cylinder rolls without slipping down an (2) 10.
m
inclined plane, the number of degrees of
freedom it has, is 1 h
(3) .
10 m
(1) 2
m
(2) 3 (4) 10.
h
Sri Chaitanya Page 8
52. The element with Z=106 is named as 57. List- I List –II
(1) Fermium A) Work 1)Extensive property
(2) Seaborgium B) Enthalpy 2)Intensive property
(3) Cerium C) Temperature 3) State variable
(4) Promethium D) P,V,T and n 4) Path function
53. From the following given statements The correct match is
i) O----H hydrogen bond length is more A B C D
than “O-H” covalent bond length. (1) 4 1 2 3
ii) The ionic bond strength of CsF is more (2) 1 2 3 4
than that of NaF. (3) 4 3 2 1
iii) The number of electrons present in all (4) 4 3 1 2
inner shells of sodium atom are 10. 58. Statement-I: During boiling Mg(HCO3)2
The correct combination is is precipitated as Mg(OH)2 but
(1) only i is correct Ca(HCO3)2 is precipitated as CaCO3
(2) only i and ii are correct Statement-II: Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is less than
(3) only ii and iii are correct Ksp of MgCO3 where as Ksp of Ca(OH)2
(4) only i and iii are correct is more than Ksp of CaCO3
54. The 1g of Mg is burnt in a vessel (1) Statement-I & II are correct
containing 0.5 g of oxygen. The reactant (2) Statement-I & II are incorrect
remaining unreacted is (3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-
(1) 0.25 g of Mg II is wrong
(2) 0.1 g of Mg (4) Statement-I is wrong and Statement-
II is correct
(3) 0.1 g of O2
59. Li does not resemble with other alkali
(4) 0.75 g of Mg metals in following properties:
55. Statement-I (S-I): If Q>KC, then (1) Li2 CO3 decomposes into oxides
backward reaction is more favoured. while other alkali metal carbonates are
Statement-II (S-II): If Q=KC, then the thermally stable
value of KC is equal to unity (2) LiCl is predominantly covalent
(1) Both statements are true (3) Li3N is formed, when Li metal is
(2) Both statements are false heated with N2 gas
(3) S-I is true, S-II is false (4) All are correct
(4) S-I is false, S-II is true 60. (A): 2-3% Gypsum by weight is mixed
56. By the addition of 0.48 mole of NaOH to with cement
a 1lit buffer solution, its pH is changed (R): Gypsum increases the rate of setting
from 4.01 to 4.03. Then the buffer of cement
capacity is (1) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) 24
(2) A and R are true, but R is not the
(2) 0.042
correct explanation of A
(3) 0.0096 (3) A is true and R is false
(4) 104 (4) A is false and R is true

Sri Chaitanya Page 9

61. BCl3 is planar and electron deficient (1) 3-hydroxy-5-chlorobenzene
compound. Hybridization and number of carbonitrile
electrons around the central atom,
respectively are (2) 3-chloro-5-hydroxybenzene
(1) sp2 and 8 carbonitrile
(2) sp3 and 4 (3) 3-chloro-5-cyanophenol
3
(3) sp and 6
(4) 3-cyano-5-chlorophenol
(4) sp2 and 6
65. Which of the following compounds can
62. Identify the correct statements from the exhibit tautomerism
following:
a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-
cream and frozen food
b) The structure of C60 contains twelve
six membered carbon rings and twenty
five membered carbon rings
c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to
convert alcohols into gasoline
d) CO is colourless and odourless gas
(1) a, b and c only (2) a and c only
(3) b and c only (4) c and d only
63. Consider the following reactions in
Antarctica about ozone hole 1Mole Cℓ
66. C2 H 6  Alc.KOH H / Ni
→C .
Sun 
light
→ A   → B  
2 2
0
200 C
*
I) CℓO + NO 2 → CℓONO 2
Here ‘C’ is
II) Cℓ* + CH 4 → CH*3 + HCℓ (1) C2 H 6
III) CℓONO 2 + H 2O → HOCℓ + HNO3
(2) C2 H 5Cℓ
IV) CℓONO 2 + HCℓ → Cℓ 2 + HNO3
(3) C2 H 4
In summer season, which reaction prevent
much ozone depletion? (4) C4 H10
alc.KOH
(1) I, II 67. CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2Cℓ  →X
(2) II, IV Pd + BaSO 4
CH ≡ CH + H 2   →Y
(3) III, IV Here, in the above sequences, the final
(4) I, III products X and Y
64. IUPAC name of the following compound (1) are a pair of homologues
is (2) have the same percentage composition
(3) have the same empirical formula
(4) all the above

Sri Chaitanya Page 10

 Cr2 O3 / Aℓ 2 O3 72. Match the following
68. CH 3 (CH 2 )4 CH 3  
773K,10 −20 atm →
Br2 /Fe Mg H2 O Set-I Set-II
A  → B 
ether
→ C  →D
A) Cu + HNO3 (dil) → K) NO2
What is ‘D’.
B) Zn+HNO3(dil) → L) N2O
C) NO−3 + Fe+2 + H + → M) NO
D) Zn + HNO3 (Conc) → N) N2
A B C D
(1) M L N K
(2) M L M K
(3) K L M N
(4) K L M L
73. The Acid containing S-O-O-S bond is
(1) H2SO5
(2) H2S2O7
` (3) H 2S2 O6
(4) H 2S2 O8

69. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a 74. Which of the following is incorrect with
solution of pH=3 at 250 C. The reduction respect to property indicated?
potential of the cell would be (the value (1) E.N : F > Cℓ > Br
of 2.303 RT/F is 0.059 V)
(2) E.A : Cℓ > Br < F
(1) 0.177 V
(3) Oxidising power: F2 > Cℓ 2 > Br2
(2) 0.087 V
(4) Bond energy : F2 > Cℓ 2 > Br2
(3) -0.177 V
75. Read the following statements
(4) - 0.059 V
A) XeO3 is a colourless explosive solid
70. The right option for the statement
“Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is B) Only one noble gas Rn is obtained as
a decay product of Ra.
(1) Aqueous Urea solution
C)First ionization enthalpy of oxygen
(2) Aqueous NaCl solution
atom is almost equal to that of Xe.
(3) Aqueous Glucose solution + −
D) XeF2 + PF5 → [ XeF] [ PF6 ]
(4) Aqueous Starch solution
Correct statements are
71. The maximum temperature that can be
achieved in blast furnace is (1) B & C
(1) upto 5000 K (2) A & D
(2) upto 1200 K (3) A, B & D
(3) upto 2200 K (4) A, B, C & D
(4) upto 1900 K
Sri Chaitanya Page 11
76. Why is HCl not used to make the medium (2) C2 H 5Cℓ + NaBr → C2 H 5 Br + NaCℓ
acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO4 in (3) C2 H 5Cℓ + KI → C2 H 5 I + KCℓ
acidic medium?
(4) C2 H 5Cℓ + KBr → C 2 H 5 Br + KCℓ
(1) Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidizing
agents 81.
(2) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which
is also an oxidizing agent
(3) KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent
than HCl
(4) KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in Here X and Y are
the presence of HCl. X Y
77. Which of the following polymer can be (1) n-propyl alohol n-propyl alcohol
formed by using the following monomer (2) iso-propyl alcohol iso-propyl alcohol
unit? (3) n-propyl alcohol iso-propyl alcohol
(4) iso-propyl alcohol n-propyl alcohol
82.

(1) Nylon 6, 6
(2) Nylon 2-Nylon 6
(3) Melamine Polymer
(4) Nylon-6
78. Which of the following polymer is stored In the above reactions, B and Z are
in the liver of animals?
(1) Salicylaldehyde, salicylaldehyde
(1) Amylose
(2) Slicylic acid, salicylic acid
(2) Cellulose
(3) Salicylaldehyde, salicylic acid
(3) Amylopectin
(4) Salicylic acid, salicylaldehyde
(4) Glycogen
83. Which of the following aldehydes
79. The drug with the formula undergo cannizzaro reaction on heating
with concentrated alkali?
A) HCHO
is
B) CH3CHO
(1) Sulphanilic acid
C) CH3CH2CHO
(2) Aspirin
D) C6H5CHO
(3) Phenelzine
(1) A, B
(4) Benzylamine
(2) B, C
80. Which one of the following reaction is
(3) A, D
Swarts reaction?
(4) A, C, D
(1) C2 H 5Cℓ + AgF → C2 H 5 F + AgCl

Sri Chaitanya Page 12

84. What is Z in the following sequence of
reactions?

(1) Toluene
(4) All are equally stable
(2) Benzene
88. Which of the following volume (V)-
(3) Benzoic acid
temperature (T) plots represents the
(4) Benzaldehyde
behavior of one mole of an ideal gas at
85. Which of the following is the correct
one atmospheric pressure?
order of ease of coupling with
C 6 H 5 N 2 Cℓ ?
A) Benzene
B) Nitro benzene
C) Phenol
D) Chloro benzene
(1) A > D > B > C
(2) C > A > B > D
(3) C > A > D > B
(4) B > D > A > C
86. A particular station of All India Radio,
New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of
1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of
the electromagnetic radiation emitted by
the transmitter is: [speed of light,
c = 3.0 × 108 ms −1 ]
(1) 21.92 cm
(2) 219.3 m
(3) 219.2 m
(4) 2192 m
87. Which of the following represents more 89. In contact process SO2 is produced by the
stable structure for the molecule following reaction
(geometry) 4FeS2 + 11O 2 → 2Fe 2O3 + 8SO 2
In this reaction the equivalent weight of
FeS2 is [M=MW of FeS2]
M
(1)
2
M
(2)
4
M
(3)
6
M
(4)
11

Sri Chaitanya Page 13

90. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NaCl is (2) A 2 BO 4
(K sp of AgCl = 1.2 x 10 )
−10
(3) ABO 2
(1) 0.1 M
(4) ABO 4
(2) 1.2 x 10-5
(3) 1.095 x10-5 95. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition
(4) 1.2 x 10-9
of Aℓ 2O3 at 5000 C is as follows
91. The –I effect of −NO2 , − CN, − COOH, − Cℓ
2 4
Decreases in the order Aℓ 2 O3 → Aℓ + O 2 ; ∆r G = +960kJ
3 3
(1) −NO 2 > −CN > −COOH > −Cℓ
The voltage needed for the electrolytic
(2) −Cℓ > −COOH > −CN > −NO 2
reduction of aluminium oxide ( Aℓ 2O3 )
(3) −CN > −NO 2 > −Cℓ > −COOH
at 5000C is at least
(4) −COOH > −CN > −NO 2 > −Cℓ
(1) -4.5 V
92. Which of the following will give
Hoffman product in E2 reaction (2) -3.0 V
(3) -2.5 V
(4) -5.0 V
96. 50% completion of a first order reaction
takes place in 16 minutes. Then fraction
that would react in 32 minutes from the
(3) begining
(4) All of these (1) 1/2
+2 +
Hg /H Isomerisation
93. HC ≡ CH + H 2O 
333K
→ A  →B (2) 1/4

Then the higher homologue of B is (3) 1/8

(1) Ethanal (4) 3/4

(2) Propanone 97. Indicate the complex ion which shows

(3) Propanal geometrical isomerism.

+
(4) Methanal (1) Cr (H 2O)4 Cℓ 2 
94. In a compound oxide ions have CCP
(2)  Pt ( NH 3 )3 Cℓ 
arrangement. Cations A are present in
3+

one-eighth of the tetrahedral holes and (3) Co ( NH 3 )6 

3−
cations B occupy half of the octahedral (4) Co (CN )5 (NC)
holes. The simplest formula of the
compound is
(1) AB2O 4
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
98. Two compounds P and Q have same BOTANY
formula, C8H8O. Both P and Q form SECTION – A
an orange red ppt. with 2,4-DNP. ‘P’ 101. Identify the incorrect combination
gives yellow ppt. with I2 and NaOH but
Botanical Family Order
not Q. ‘P’ does not reduce Tollen’s name
reagent but ‘Q’ reduces. Then ‘P’ and ‘Q’
(1) Petunia Solanaceae Polymoniales
are alba
(2) Mangifera Anacardiaceae Sapindales
indica
(3)Musca Musaceae Insecta
domestica
(4) Triticum Poaceae Poales
aestivum

102. Photosynthetic protist without cellwall is

(1)Mycoplasma
(2)Euglena
(3)Gonyaulax
(4)Chlamydomonas
103. Match the column – A with column – B
Column – A Column – B
(I) Puffballs (A) Myxomycetes
(II) Imperfect fungi (B) Basidiomycetes
99. In the following compounds
(III) Morels (C) Ascomycetes
(IV) Coenocytic (D) Phycomycetes
fungi
(E) Deuteromycetes
The order of basicity is I II III IV
(1) IV > I > III > II (1) C E B D
(2) III > I > IV > II (2) C E B A
(3) II > I > III > IV (3) B A C E
(4) I > III > II > IV (4) B E C D
100. Mobile phase and stationary phase 104. In which alga, zoospores and
respectively in paper chromatography planogametes formation does not occur?
(1)Polygonum
(1) liquid - liquid
(2) Pinus
(2) liquid – gas
(3) Polysiphonia
(3) solid – liquid
(4)Polytrichum
(4) solid - gas

Sri Chaitanya Page 15

105. Both polysepalous and polypetalous I II III IV
condition is seen in the flowers of (1) C B C E
(1)Pea (2) B A C E
(2) Makoi (3) C B D A
(3)Onion (4) B A C D
(4)Mustard 110. In which of the following plants, the non-
106. Identify the angiosperm which produces motile male gametes are carried to female
dioecious sporophytes gamete by pollen tube?
(1)Marchantia (1)Bryophytes
(2)Phoenix (Date palm) (2) Pteridophytes
(3)Pinus (3) Seed plants
(4) Cycas (4) All of these
107. Which of the following is referred as 111. Select the mis-match from the following
starch sheath? (1)Collagen – Protein
(1)Endodermis of dicot root (2) Insulin – Hormone
(2) Hypodermis of dicot stem (3) Inulin – Polysaccharide
(3) Pericycle of dicot stem (4) Anthocyanin – Primary metabolite
(4) Endodermis of dicot stem 112. Non-leguminous plant with nodular roots
108. Which of the following statement is not is
true? (1)Alnus
(1) Robert Brown discovered the cell (2) Alfalfa
(2) Schleiden and Schwann formulated (3) Frankia
the cell theory (4) Rhizobium
(3) Virchow explained that cells are 113. Which micro-nutrient is absorbed by
formed from pre-existing cells plants in an anionic form?
(4) A unicellular organism carries out its (1)Phosphorus
life activities within a single cell (2)Boron
109. Match the column – A with column – B (3) Sulphur
Column – A Column – B (4)All of these
(I) Flat,disc-shaped (A) Cristae of 114. In the Citric acid cycle, GTP is
sacs Mitochondria synthesised during the conversion of
(II)Inner membrane (B) Cisternae of (1)Succinic acid to Fumaric acid
forms a number of Golgi apparatus (2) 1,3 BisPGA to 3-PGA
infoldings (3) Succinyl-CoA to Succinic acid
(III) Flattened (C) Thylakoids of (4) Citric acid to α -Ketoglutaric acid
membranous sacs Chloroplast 115. Which phytohormone does not occur
with pigments naturally in plants?
(IV) Membrane- (D) Vacuole (1) IAA
bound space found in
(2) ABA
the cytoplasm of
(3) IBA
matured plant cells
(4) Kinetin
(E) Centriole

Sri Chaitanya Page 16

116. How many of the given below are water 121. Which of the following is not used as a
pollinated plants? biopesticide?
a)Water lily b) Water hyacinth (1)Trichoderma
c) Zostera d)Vallisneria
(2)Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) four
(2) three (3)Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(3) two (4)Nostoc
(4)one 122. In gymnosperms ovules are borne on
117. Which of the following is not a stop
(1)Female gametophyte
codon?
(1)UAA (2)Male gametophyte
(2) UGA (3)Microsporophylls
(3) UGG (4)Megasporophylls
(4) UAG 123. In the biological treatment of sewage, the
118. Which of the semi-dwarf varieties of rice masses of bacteria held together with
were developed in India? fungal filaments to form mesh like
(1)Sonalika and Kalyan Sona structures called
(2)IR-8 and TN-1
(1) Vermi-compost
(3) Ratna and Jaya
(4)All of these (2)Activated sludge digesters
119. In angiosperms embryo sac is developed (3) Flocs
from (4) Vermi-culture
(1)Functional microspore mother cell
124. Modified leaves which act as defensive
(2) Functional microspore
structures are
(3) Functional embryo
(4)Functional megaspore (1)Thorns
120. Match the following (2)Tendrils
Column – A Column – B (3) Spines
(I) Statins (A) Propioni
(4)Bulbils
bacterium sharmanii
(II)Cyclosporin A (B) Streptococcus 125. Choose mis-match from the following:
(III) Stereptokinase (C) Staphylococcus (1) Metaphase – Chromosomes are
(IV) Swiss cheese (D) Trichoderma moved to spindle equator and get aligned
polysporum along equatorial plate through spindle
(E) Monascus fibres to both poles
purpureus
(2) Anaphase – Centromeres of
I II III IV
chromosomes splits and chromatids
(1) E D A C separate and moves to opposite poles
(2) D E C A (3) Anaphase – II –Bivalents move
(3) D E B A towards opposite poles without splitting
of centromeres
(4) E D B A
(4) Prophase I – Crosing over takes place
Sri Chaitanya Page 17
126. Osmosis is demonstrated by (1) Cucumber
(1)Thistle funnel experiment (2) Brinjal
(2) Bell-jar experiment (3) Rose
(3) Moll’s half leaf experiment (4) China rose
(4) Hydrilla funnel experiment 132. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
127. In F2 generation, types of genotypes and with the plasmid vector became possible
phenotypes observed in a Mendels with
dihybrid cross experiment in Pisum (1) Restriction endonuclease
respectively
(2)DNA polymerase
(1)Three and Two
(3)RNA polymerase
(2)Nine and Sixteen
(4)DNA ligase
(3) Nine and Four
133. In simple stirred-tank bioreactor. The
(4) Four and Sixteen stirrer facilitates
128. Experimental verification of the (1)Seperation asnd purification of the
chromosomal theory of inheritance was product
given by
(2) Even mixing and pH control
(1)Sutton and Boveri
(3) Uneven mixing and temperature
(2) Muller and Stadler
control
(3) Mendel and his colleagues
(4) Even mixing and oxygen availability
(4) T.H Morgan and his colleagues
throughout the bioreactor
129. Choose mis-match from the following:
134. In animal cells, during S phase
(1) RNA polymerase I : Synthesis of 28S (1)The amount of DNA and number of
rRNA chromosomes per cell doubles
(2) RNA polymerase II : Synthesis of hn (2) The amount of DNA and number of
RNA chromosomes per cell reduced to half
(3) RNA polymerase III : Synthesis of (3) Number of chromosomes doubled
Adapter RNA and DNA reduces to half per cell
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase : (4) Amount of DNA per cell doubles and
Synthesis of mRNA, rRNA & tRNA in there is no increase in the chromosome
bacteria number.
130. In Mung bean, resistance to yellow 135. Carbon fixation in chlorophyllous cells
mosaic virus developed by and nitrogen fixation in thick walled
(1)Hybridization and Selection achlorophyllous specialized cells occur in
(2) Mutation breeding (1) Rhizobium
(3) Polyploid breeding (2)Nostoc
(4) Domestication and Selection (3) Clostridium
131. Ovary is inferior in flowers of (4)All of these
Sri Chaitanya Page 18
 SECTION-B
136. Identify the A,B and C from the given
below figure (i.e lac Operon)

A B C
(1)Deoxyribose Serine Pyrimidine
sugar
(2) Nucleoside Alanine Purine
(3)Ribose sugar Serine Purine
A B C
(4) Ribose sugar Glycerol Nucleoside
(1) lac mRNA Inducer β-
galactosidase
139. Identify the incorrect combination
Repressor Inducer β- (1)Solanaceae – Rarely pinnately
(2) mRNA galactosidase compound leaves
(3) Repressor Inducer permease (2) Solanaceae – Rarely small trees
mRNA
(3) Liliaceae–Berry, rarely capsule with
(4) Inducer Repressor β - non endospermic seeds
mRNA galactosidase (4) Liliaceae –Actinomorphic flowers and
137. Find out the wrong statement? Endospermic seeds
(1)Phloem sap is mainly composed of 140. Which of the following is not true wrt
water and Sucrose stomatal apparatus of grass leaves?
(1) Guard cells with chloroplasts
(2) Water potential of a cell is affected by
(2)Subsidiary cells are without
both solute and pressure potential chloroplasts
(3) Environmental heterophylly is seen in (3) Guard cells are bean shaped
butter cup (4) Guard cells are dumb-bell shaped
141. Which one of the following combinations
(4) Interfascicular cambium and cork
is correct wrt to conjugated enzyme?
cambium are formed from parenchyma by (1)Coenzyme = Apoenzyme +
a phenomenon is termed as Holoenzyme
redifferentiation (2)Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme +Co-
enzyme
138. Identify the following A,B,C respectively
(3) Holoenzyme = Co-factor + Co-
enzyme
(4) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-
factor

Sri Chaitanya Page 19

142. Statement – I(SI): In E.coli, the (4) C B E D
replication of DNA occur during S phase 147. Choose mismatch from the following
of interphase of mitotic cell cycle (1)EcoRI – A type of molecular scissor
Statement II(SII): In E.coli during the S (2) Fungal cell wall – Mainly composed
phase of interphase chromosome number of chitinase
become doubles per cell (3) PCR-Multiple copies of the gene of
(1) Both SI and SII are correct interest is synthesized in-vitro
(2) Both SI and SII are wrong (4) Natural genetic engineer of plants –
(3) Only SI is correct Agro bacterium tumiefaciens
(4) Only SII is correct 148. Assertion(A): In the dicot root, the
143. In the leaves of maize, the bundle sheath vascular cambium is originated from a
cells are rich in portion of conjuctive tissue located just
(1)Enzyme PEPcase, but lacks RuBisCO below the phloem bundles, a portion of
(2) Granum chloroplasts, but lack starch pericycle above the protoxylem
grains Reason(R): In the dicot root, the vascular
(3) Enzymes of Hatch and Slack pathway, cambium is partly primary and partly
but lack enzymes of calvin cycle secondary in origin
(4) Enzyme RuBisCO, but lack PEPcase (1) Both A and R are correct and R is
144. Select the correct option from the correct explination of A
following?
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not
(1)5-methyl uracil is present in DNA
correct explination of A
(2) DNA molecule is positively charged
(3) A is true and R is false
(3) φ x174 bacteriophage DNA contain
(4) A is false and R is true
5386 pairs of nucleotides
(4) Secondary structure of tRNA has been 149. How many statements are true?
depicted that looks like a ‘L’ shape A) Mendel conducted hybridization
145. In which areas primary succession occurs experiments on garden pea plants for
(1)Newly created pond seven years
(2)Bare rock B) Mendel selected seven pairs of
(3) Newly cooled lava contrasting traits
(4) All of these C) Garden pea plant contain seven pairs
146. Match the following of chromosomes
Column – A Column – B D) Mendel conducted artificial cross
(I) Ginkgo (A) Dicot pollination experiment using several true
(II)Sphagnum (B) Gymnosperm breeding garden pea lines
(III) Adiantum (C) Pteridophyta
(1) Four
(IV) Maize (D) Bryophyta
(E) Monocot
(2) Three only
I II III IV (3) Two only
(1) B D C A (4) One only
(2) B D C E
(3) C B D E

Sri Chaitanya Page 20

150. In case of Bacillus thuringiensis, Bacillus (3) convergent evolution
itself not killed by toxic protein crystals (4) genetic drift
produced by it because
153. Read the following.
(1) Bt toxin protein is produced in very (a) Cells are tall and slender
less amount in Bacillus (b) Nuclei are located at the base of the
(2) Bt toxin produced in very large cells
amount and cannot cause any damage to (c) Free surface of cells has microvilli
Bacillus Epithelium with all the above features
(3) Bt toxin is not produced in Bacillus forms the lining of
(1) proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Bt toxin protein exist as inactive
(2) stomach
protoxins in Bacillus
(3) Bowman’s capsule
ZOOLOGY (4) small intestine
SECTION – A 154. Spermatogenesis is promoted by
151. Match the items given in column I with (1) TSH
those in column II and select the correct
(2) FSH
option.
(3) MSH
Column I Column II
(4) PTH
(a) Adenohypophysis (i) FSH and LH
155. Which of the following characters is not a
(b) Pancreas (ii) Oxytocin and
unique character of birds?
vasopressin
(1) Feathers
(c) Hypothalamus (iii) Epinephrine
(2) Pneumatic bones
and
(3) Syrinx
norepinephrine
(4) Gizzard
(d) Adrenal medulla (iv) Insulin and
156. The boat-shaped sclerite in the abdomen
glucagon of female Periplaneta is
(1) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii (1) 7th sternum
(2) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii (2) 9th sternum
(3) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i (3) 7th tergum
(4) a-i; b-iv; c-iii; d-ii (4) 10th tergum
152. Evolution of similar traits in organisms 157. Maximum biodiversity is seen in the
which are not closely related, as a result latitudinal range of
of adaptation to similar environment, is
(1) 23.5° S to35° S
termed
(2) 23.5° N to35° N
(1) divergent evolution
(3) 23.5° N to23.5° S
(2) parallel evolution
(4) 35° N to 60° N
Sri Chaitanya Page 21
158. The blood of the frog differs from that of (1) A fall in GFR activates macula
the cockroach in that densa to release renin.
(1) it passes through a heart (2) Angiotensin II decreases glomerular
blood pressure.
(2) it circulates only through a closed
(3) Activation of osmoreceptors
network of blood vessels
suppresses ADH secretion.
(3) it can be found in the blood vessels (4) Atrial natriuretic factor is a
as well as interstitial spaces vasodilator.
(4) it contains cells that help in defence 164. The transport of dopamine is blocked by
of the body
(1) hashish
159. There are working ‘EcoSan’ toilets in
(2) atropine
many areas of
(3) morphine
(1) Tamil Nadu and Bangladesh
(4) cocaine
(2) Karnataka and Nepal
165. Which of the following is involved in
(3) Kerala and Sri Lanka
both humoral and cell-mediated
(4) Rajasthan and Pakistan immunity?
160. The Graafian follicle in the ovary (1) T suppressor cell
contains
(2) B cell
(1) secondary oocyte and second polar
(3) T cytotoxic cell
body
(4) T helper cell
(2) secondary oocyte and first polar
body 166. The cells of malignant tumors exhibit
(a) Metastasis
(3) primary oocyte and first polar body
(b) Contact inhibition
(4) primary oocyte but no polar body (c) Telomerase activity
161. Which of the following organisms (d) Anchorage dependence
represent the second trophic level? (1) (a) and (b)
(1) Phytoplankton, zooplankton, cow (2) (c) and (d)
(2) Birds, fishes, wolves (3) (b) and (d)
(3) Phytoplankton, grass, trees (4) (a) and (c)
(4) Zooplankton, grasshopper, cow 167. The thickness of the ozone in acolumn of
162. Acrosomal reaction facilitates air from the ground to the top of
theatmosphere is measured in
(1) fertilisation
(1) Dobson units
(2) cleavage
(2) Svedberg units
(3) gametogenesis
(3) Decibels
(4) gastrulation
(4) Daltons
163. Select the correct statement.

Sri Chaitanya Page 22

168. Match the items given in column I with Column I Column II
those in column II and select the correct (a) Cerebral medulla (i) Skeletal
option. muscle
Column I Column I (b) Autonomic (ii) White matter
Plasmodium neural system
(a) Elephantiasis (i)
vivax (c) Somatic neural (iii) Grey matter
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton system
Entamoeba (d) Cerebral cortex (iv) Smooth
(c) Malaria (iii)
histolytica muscle
Wuchereria (1) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii
(d) Ringworms (iv) (2) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii
bancrofti
(1) a-iv; b-i; c-iii; d-ii (3) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
(2) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii (4) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i
(3) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv 173. Match the items given in column I with
(4) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i those in column II and select the correct
169. Ecology at the organismic level is option.
essentially Column I Column II
(1) community ecology (a) QRS (i) Ventricular
(2) population ecology complex repolarisation
(3) landscape ecology (b) T wave (ii) Duration of the
(4) physiological ecology cardiac cycle
170. Pepsinogen is activated by (c) P wave (iii) Atrial
(1) hydrochloric acid depolarisation
(2) enterokinase (d) R-R interval (iv) Ventricular
(3) trypsin depolarisation
(4) intrinsic factor (1) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii
171. Study the following. (2) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i
(a) Taenia – Flame cells (3) a-iv; b-i; c-iii; d-ii
(4) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv
(b) Asterias – Proboscis glands
174. Mark the odd one.
(c) Balanoglossus – Green gland (1) Zona pellucida
(d) Nereis – Nephridia (2) Zona fasciculata
(3) Zona reticularis
Which of the above are the correct
(4) Zona glomerulosa
combinations of an animal and its
excretory organs? 175. The amount of energy that is fixed during
(1) (a) and (d) photosynthesis is known as the
(2) (a), (b) and (d) (1) gross secondary production
(3) (b) and (c)
(2) net secondary production
(4) (a) and (d)
172. Match the items given in column I with (3) gross primary production
those in column II and select the correct (4) net primary production
option.
Sri Chaitanya Page 23
176. Which of the following is not a part of the 180. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control
diffusion membrane (respiratory of Pollution) Act cameinto force in in the
membrane)? year
(1) Endothelium (1) 1961
(2) Basement substance (2) 1971
(3) Mesothelium (3) 1981
(4) Alveolar epithelium (4) 1991
177. An endocrine gland embedded in another 181. Match the items given in column I with
endocrine gland is those in column II and select the correct
(1) thymus option.

(2) parathyroid Column I Column II

(3) pancreas (a) Amniocentesis (i) Barrier
(4) pineal gland method
178. Match the items given in column I with (b) Nirodh (ii) STI
those in column II and select the correct
option. (c) Chlamydiasis (iii) Prenatal test

Column I Column II (d) Saheli (iv) CDRI

(a) YAC (i) Genes expresses (1) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv
as RNA (2) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii
(3) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i
(b) VNTR (ii) Vector
(4) a-iii; b-i; c-ii; d-iv
(c) SNPs (iii) Minisatellite
182. Sacred groves are found in Khasi and
(d) ESTs (iv) Single base Jaintia Hills of
differences (1) Mizoram

(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv (2) Nagaland

(2) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i (3) Meghalaya

(3) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii (4) Manipur

(4) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i 183. The tiger censusin our national parks and
tiger reserves is often based on
179. Barnacles growing on theback of a whale
exemplify (1) pug marks

(1) commensalism (2) mark and recapture

(2) amensalism (3) headcount

(3) mutualism (4) quadrant method

(4) ectoparasitism

Sri Chaitanya Page 24

184. A woman not using any other (3) subclavian arteries
contraceptive method can avoid (4) brachial arteries
pregnancy by abstaining from coitus
189. The number of tarsals in both the lower
during
limbs is not equal to the
(1) 10th day to 17th day of themenstrual
(1) number of phalanges in a hand
cycle
(2) number of carpals in both the hands
(2) 1st day to 5th day of themenstrual
cycle (3) number of facial bones
(3) 21st day to 28th day of themenstrual (4) number of true ribs
cycle 190. Match the items given in column I with
th th those in column II and select the correct
(4) 6 day to 13 day of themenstrual
cycle option.
185. An excretory system is absent in Column I Column II
(1) Anopheles
(a) Myxine (i) Lancelet
(2) Antedon
(b) Ascidia (ii) Hagfish
(3) Aplysia
(4) Ascidia (c) Branchiostoma (iii) Tunicate

186. To which two organ systems does the (d) Petromyzon (iv) Lamprey
pharynx belong?
(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv
(1) Respiratory system and circulatory
(2) a-ii; b-i; c-iii; d-iv
system
(3) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
(2) Digestive system and respiratory
system (4) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii
(3) Respiratory system and endocrine 191. Select the incorrect statement.
system (1) Male grasshopper has a pair of
(4) Digestive system and excretory dissimilar allosomes
system (2) Female grasshopper has a pair of
187. Marino is a breed of similar allosomes
(1) fowls (3) Male Drosophila is heterogametic
(2) cattle (4) Male birds are homogametic
(3) goats 192. The world’s first transgenic cow was
(4) sheep (1) Tracy
188. Arteries that supply blood to the cardiac (2) Rosie
muscles are (3) Alba
(1) coronary arteries (4) ANDi
(2) carotid arteries
Sri Chaitanya Page 25
193. The I-band of a skeletal myofibril (3) 2pq
contains (4) p2+2pq
(1) actin, tropomyosin and meromyosin 198. Match the items given in column I with
(2) actin, tropomyosin and troponin those in column II and select the correct
(3) meromyosin, tropomyosin and option.
troponin Column I Column II
(4) actin, troponin and meromyosin. (a) Frenulum (i) Duodenum
194. Active reabsorption of Na+ occurs in all (b) Brunner’s (ii) Oral cavity
the following parts of nephron, except
glands
(1) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(c) Vermiform (iii) Stomach
(2) proximal convoluted tubule
appendix
(3) descending limb of Henle’s loop
(d) Oxyntic cells (iv) Caecum
(4) distal convoluted tubule
195. Biogenetic law was proposed by (1) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i
(1) Ernst Haeckel (2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii
(2) Alfred Wallace (3) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
(3) Hugo de Vries (4) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii
(4) Louis Pasteur 199. The following are two statements
regarding parturition in human beings.
196. Match the items given in column I with
those in column II and select the correct (A) The signals forparturition originate
option. from the fully developed foetus and the
Column I Column II placenta.
(a) Co-extinction (i) Plant- (B) Parturition is induced by a complex
pollinator neuroendocrine mechanism involving
(b) Habitat loss (ii) Passenger progesterone.
pigeon Of the above statements, which one of the
(c) Overexploitation (iii) Amazon following options is correct?
forest (1) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect
(d) Alien species (iv) Nile perch (2) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect
invasion (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii
200. The electrical potential difference across
(3) a-iv; b-ii; c-iv; d-i the resting plasma membrane of an
(4) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv unstimulated neuron is termed
197. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg (1) threshold potential
equilibrium, the frequency of individuals (2) nerve impulse
with a heterozygous genotype at an
(3) action potential
autosomal locus is
(4) resting membrane potential
(1) p2
(2) q2
Sri Chaitanya Page 26
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 19-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 4 KEY

PHYSICS

1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 5) 1 6) 3 7) 1 8) 3 9) 2 10) 2
11) 3 12) 3 13) 4 14) 4 15) 1 16) 4 17) 3 18) 4 19) 4 20) 2
21) 1 22) 4 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 1 27) 4 28) 3 29) 2 30) 4
31) 1 32) 1 33) 1 34) 2 35) 1 36) 3 37) 3 38) 2 39) 3 40) 2
41) 1 42) 2 43) 2 44) 2 45) 2 46) 4 47) 1 48) 3 49) 1 50) 2

CHEMISTRY

51) 2 52) 2 53) 4 54) 1 55) 3 56) 1 57) 1 58) 1 59) 4 60) 3

61) 4 62) 4 63) 1 64) 2 65) 2 66) 1 67) 4 68) 1 69) 3 70) 4

71) 3 72) 2 73) 4 74) 4 75) 2 76) 2 77) 4 78) 4 79) 3 80) 1

81) 4 82) 4 83) 3 84) 3 85) 3 86) 2 87) 2 88) 3 89) 4 90) 4

91) 1 92) 4 93) 3 94) 1 95) 3 96) 4 97) 1 98) 3 99) 4 100) 1

BOTANY

101) 3 102) 2 103) 4 104) 3 105) 4 106) 2 107) 4 108) 1 109) 4 110) 3

111) 4 112) 1 113) 2 114) 3 115) 4 116) 3 117) 3 118) 3 119) 4 120) 4

121) 4 122) 4 123) 3 124) 3 125) 3 126) 1 127) 3 128) 4 129) 4 130) 2

131) 1 132) 4 133) 4 134) 4 135) 2 136) 2 137) 4 138) 3 139) 3 140) 3

141) 4 142) 2 143) 4 144) 1 145) 4 146) 2 147) 2 148) 3 149) 1 150) 4

ZOOLOGY

151) 2 152) 3 153) 4 154) 2 155) 4 156) 1 157) 3 158) 2 159) 3 160) 2
161) 4 162) 1 163) 4 164) 4 165) 4 166) 4 167) 1 168) 2 169) 4 170) 1
171) 4 172) 1 173) 3 174) 1 175) 3 176) 3 177) 2 178) 2 179) 1 180) 3
181) 4 182) 3 183) 1 184) 1 185) 2 186) 2 187) 4 188) 1 189) 2 190) 1
191) 1 192) 2 193) 2 194) 3 195) 1 196) 4 197) 3 198) 4 199) 1 200) 4

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS (SECTION-A) 1
14. =
01. Dimensional formula of torque and strain 2π LC
energy is ML2T −2 f=
1

02. KE L − KE H =
1 1
m ( 5rg ) − m ( rg ) 2π × 10−4 × 10−6
2 2 1 10
= 2 mgr = −1
=
2π × 10 2π
03. T = 4 kg, same weight read by them
15. For good choke coil, it is nearly zero
04. F1 = F2
16. X L = ωL = 10Ω
q×Q Q2 1
= XC = = 10Ω
a 2
( 2a ) 2
ωC
−Q z = R 2 + ( X L − X C ) = 10Ω
2
q=
4
20 / 2 2
05. Crowded the lines, greater the field, so i= =
EA > EB 10 2
06. Net charge is zero, so Net flux is zero i = 2 = 1.414A
07. ω = ∆V × Q , As ' ∆V ' is zero, 2
ω=0 17. iavg = .i 0
π
08. For hollow sphere
−GM E
Vin = , Vsurface = −GM , Vout = −GM 18. P = ⇒ E = Pt
R R r t
i.e. potential remain constant inside the
E = 200 × 106 × 86400
sphere and it is equal to potential at the
surface and increase when the point moves E = 1728 × 1010 J
away from the surface of sphere. 19. E = BE products − BE reac tan ts

09. V 2 =
3RT E = ( 8 × 7.06 ) − ( 7 × 5.60 )
M = 56.48 − 39.2
2
V αT = 17.3ml
10. Permeability of soft iron is maximum, so 20. Paschen series lies in IR region and line
maximum lines of force tries to pass spectrum
through the soft iron.
11. By using Kirchoff’s voltage law 21. VRM = 32 + 42 = 5mh −1
di
VA − i R + E − L = VB ⇒ VB − V A = 15 volt . hC
dt
22. = 2E − E → (1)
1Ω 15 V 5 mH λ
A B
hC 4E
Y = 3 K(1 − 2σ ) = − E → ( 2)
12. λ1 3
3K − Y 3 × 11 × 10 10 − 7 .25 × 10 10
σ = iRω
6K = 6 × 11 × 10 10 ⇒ σ = 0 .39 23. ES = ×l
2
L
13. a max = ω 5 5
0.4 = × ×l
π
= 1×   = =
2
π2 9.856 ( 45 + 5) 10
4 16 16 l = 8m
= 0.62 m / s 2 12400
24. E = ; 3eV
4100

Sri Chaitanya Page 2

 ωA and ωB < 3eV, so ‘A’ and ‘B’ can f0
35. m=
emit electrons fe
25. λ α P −1 a
and R.P =
 ∆λ   ∆P  1.22λ
 × 100  = −1 ×  × 100  SECTION-B
 λ   P 
36. Total disp =0
P
0.25 = −1 × 0 × 100 Avg. vel = 0
P 2h
P = 400P0 37. t =
g
26. PD = P0 (atmospheric), least
2g cos θ
PB = ( P0 + hdg + l da ) , max t=
g cos θ
1
27. mgh = m ( 5rg ) 2R
2 t=
5r g
Minimum , h = 38. E = E1 + E 2 + E 3
2
5r σ 2σ σ
∴h ≥ E= + +
2 2 ∈0 2 ∈0 2 ∈0
28. 1,3 and 4 2σ
α E= × −K
29. β = ∈0
1− α 39. Here there are two frictional forces on
β
⇒α= the eighth block
1+ β
30. A α r 2 ⇒ A αV 2/3 (i) between 8th and 9th block

ωα V 2/3 (ii) between 8th and 7th block. So, the

∆P ∆T minimum horizontal force applied is
31. =
P T
32. Volume continuously increases equal to net friction on it F 8
T T mg
33. 0.4 = 1 − 2 ⇒ 2 = 0.6 (or)
T1 T1 7mg 15 mg

T2 = 0.6 ( 500 ) = 300 k

300 300
For η = 0.5, ⇒ 0.5 = 1 − ⇒ = 0.5
T1' T1'
(or) T1' = 600 k
So, the
correct answer is (3)
34. 40. For maximum intensity on the screen
n λ n(2000 ) n
d sin θ = n λ ⇒ sin θ = = = Since
d 7000 3 .5
maximum value of sinθ is 1

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

 So n = 0, 1, 2, 3, only. Thus only seven 2π / ω 1
maximas can be obtained on both sides of
= −
40 400
the screen.
2 1
41. In given case H and H0 are perpendicular to = −
each other. 400 40
1
From figure tan θ =
H0
= sec
H 400
 H0  Q
⇒ θ = tan −1  
47. C=
 H 
HO
V
40 40
C= =
θ
10 − ( −10 ) 20
H
C = 2F
50
42. i= = 2A
25 48. When one string is cut
VB + ( 7 × 2 ) + ( 5 × 2 ) = VA For motion of CM, mg − T = ma
∴ VA = 24 volt For rotatory motion of rod, mg ×
L
= Iα
2

43. L  ML2  a
⇒ mg × = 
2  3 L/2
44. Conceptual
45. When length of the liquid column remains
constant, then the level of liquid moves 49. Rolling cylinder has both translational and
down with respect to the container, thus γ rotational K.E of f = 2
must be less than 3α. ∆P ∆T  ∆P  1
50. P µ T ∴ =  =
Now we can write V = V0(1 + γ ∆T) P T  P∆T  T
1
Since V = Al0 = [A0 (1 + 2α∆T)]l0 = V0 (1 + b = Rectangular hyperbola
2α∆T) T
CHEMISTRY (SECTION-A)
Hence V0(1 + γ ∆T) = V0(1 + 2α∆T) ⇒ γ = 51. λ = 100V
2α.
i0 h
46 ‘O’ to λ=
mv
2
i = i 0 sin ( ωt ) λ=
h
λ
i0 m
= i 0 sin ( ωt ) 100
2
π h
λ 2 = 100
( cot ) = m
4
π h
100π × t = λ = 10
4 m
1
t1 = 52. Z=106 - Seaborgium
400
53. Conceptual
i0
to i 0 54. 2Mg+O2 → 2MgO
2
T  2x24g → 32g
t 2 =  − t1 
4 
Sri Chaitanya Page 4
 ? ← 0.5g 70. Colloidal solutions (starch) show Tyndall
Wt of Mg reacting = effect
0.5 71. upto 2220 K
x2x24 =0.75 g
32 72. Conceptual
Wt of Mg unreacted = 1-0.75= 0.25
g
73.
55. Conceptual
74. BE : Cℓ 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
56. φ = No.of moles SA or SB added to 1 lit
buffer 75. Conceptual

pH change 76. KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which is also

an oxidizing agent
0.48 0.48
φ= = =24
(4.03 − 4.01) 0.02 77. Nylon -6
78. Glycogen
57. Conceptual
79. Phenelzine
58. Conceptual
59. All are correct 80. C 2 H 5Cℓ + AgF → C 2 H 5 F + KCℓ

60. Conceptual
81.
61. sp2 and 6
62. Conceptual y = CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − OH

63. Conceptual
64. 3- Chloro-5-hydroxy
benzonitrile 82.

65. 3αH, Show tautomerism

66. A=CHC
2 5 ℓ B=CH2 =CH2 C=CH
2 6

x =CH3 −CH=CH2Homologues,sameEF,
67.  83. H − CHO, C 6 H 5 − CHO
y=CH2 =CH2  Same%Composition
Absence of α − H
Involve in Cannizzaro’s reaction

68.
84.
69. E = -0.0591 x pH
85. C> A> D> B
= - 0.0591 x 3
SECTION-B
= - 0.177 V

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

 C AB2 O 4
86. γ=
λ 2 +3 4 0
95. Al 2 O3 → Al + O2
3 × 10 8
3 3
γ= = 219.3m
1368 × 103 1 mole Al → gains 3 moles electrons
87. Conceptual
4
rd mole Al → gain 4 moles electrons
88. For 3 option 3
P1V1 P2 V2
= n=4
T1 T2
∆G 0 = − nFE 0
22.4 30.6 960 ×103 = −4 × 96500 × E 0
1x =1 x
273 373
E 0 = −2.5V
89. FeS2 = FeS +S
96. t ½ = 16 minutes
Given 32 minutes = 2t 1/2
In a I- order reaction
t75% = 2 t1/2
=32 minutes
MW ¾ completed.
n- factor = 11 E=
11
+
+ − 97. [Cr(H 2O)4 Cℓ 2 ] = [ Ma 4 b 2 ]
Ag + Cℓ
90. AgCl →
S S Shows. GI

K SP =  Ag +   Cl− 

1.2x10−10 = S x 0.1
98.
S = 1.2 x 10-9
99. I > III > II > IV
91. −NO 2 > −CN > −COOH > −Cℓ
100. Liquid - Liquid
92. All of these BOTANY (SECTION-A)
93. A = CH 2 = CH − OH
101. It belongs t o family: Muscidae, Order:
B = CH 3 − CHO Diptera
102. In euglena instead of cell wall pellicle is
↓ higher homologue present
103. As per NCERT XI Page no 30
CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO 104. Polysiphonia is a red alga reproduces by
non-motile asexual spores and sexually by
non motile gametes
105. Sepals and petals are free in Mustard
94. 106. Date palm is a dioecious sporophyte
1 107. Endodermis of dicot stem is refered as
A = x 8 =1 starch sheath
8 108. robert Hooke discovered cell and Robert
1 brown discovered nucleus
B= x 4=2
2
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
109. As per NCERT XI page no 132, 133 and 144. Thymine present in DNA and absent in
134 RNA
110. In flowering plants male gametes are 145. As per NCERT XII: Page no 250
carried by pollen tube (Siphonogamy) 146. As per NCERT XI: Pageno: 36,37,38 & 39
111. Anothyanin is a secondary metabolism 147. Fungal cell wall mainly made up of chitin
112. Alnus is a non-leguminous plant with 148. In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is
nodular roots which shows symbiotic completely secondary in origin formed by
association with Frankia de-differentiation
113. Boron is a micronutricul absorbed as BO33− 149. As per NCERT XII: Page no 70
150. As per NCERT XII: Page no 208
/ B4O72−
ZOOLOGY (SECTION-A)
114. SLP occur during conversion of SCOA to
SA 151. Adenohypophysis – FSH and LH
115. Kinetin neither natural nor synthetic Pancreas – Insulin and glucagon
116. In zostera and vallisneria flowers are
pollinated by water Hypothalamus – Oxytocin and vasopressin
117. UAA, UAG, UGA are stop codons Adrenal medulla – Epinephrine and
118. IR-8 and TN-1 are introduced semi-dwarf norepinephrine
varieties of rice in India
119. Embryosac developed from megaspore 152. Convergent evolution is the process whereby
120. As per NCERT XII Page no183 organisms not closely related, independently
121. Nostoc is used as bio fertilizer evolve similar traits as a result of adaptation
122. Ovules are borne on megasporophylls / to similar environments or ecological
Open couples niches.An example of convergent evolution
123. NCERT-XII page no: 184 is the evolution wings in insects, birds, and
124. Which acts as determine organ bats.
125. Daughter chromatids move towards poles 153. The columnar epithelium iscomposed of a
126. As per NCERT XI Page no 181 single layer of tall and slender cells. Their
127. Four types of phenotypes and nine types of nuclei are locatedat the base. Free surface
genotypes may have microvilli. They are found in the
128. As per NCERT XII Page no 83 liningof stomach and intestine and help in
129. As per NCERT XII Page no 110 secretion and absorption. Microvilli are
130. NCERT XII: 174 absent in the stomach.
131. NCERT XI: Page No: 73
154. FSH and androgens regulate
132. DNA ligase (molecular glue)
spermatogenesis.
133. As per NCERT XII Page no 204
134. NCERT XI: Page no: 163 155. A gizzard is also present in other animals,
135. As per NCERT XII Page no 117 e.g., cockroach.
SECTION-B 156. In females, the 7thsternum is boat shaped and
136. In Nostoc carbon fixation occur in together with the 8thand 9thsterna forms a
chlorophyllous cells & N2 fixation occur in brood pouch, or genital pouch.
heterocysts
137. Dedifferentiation 157. With very few exceptions, tropics (latitudinal
138. NCERT XI: Page no: 145 range of 23.5° N to23.5° S) harbour more
139. In liliaceae: capsule and rarely berry species than temperate or polar areas.
140. Guard cells are bean shape in Dicots 158. The blood vascular system of the frog is of
141. Holoenzyme / Conjugated enzyme = closed type in which blood circulates only
Apoenzyme + cofactor through a closed network of blood vessels.
142. In Ecoli replication of DNA occur prior to The blood vascular system of the cockroach
binary fission is of open type.
143. Bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO
but lack PEPcase

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

 The blood (haemolymph) of the cockroach 164. Cocaine, obtained from cocaplant
can be found in the blood vessels as well as Erythroxylum coca, interferes with the
interstitial spaces. In a closed circulatory transport of the neuro-transmitterdopamine.
system (e.g., frog) the circulating fluid This leads to a build-up of dopamine in the
(blood) is distinct from the interstitial fluid synapses.
(tissue fluid). 165. T helper cell is involved in both humoral
In both frogs and cockroaches, blood passes immunity (activates B cells) and cell-
through a heart and contains cells that help mediated immunity (activates Tc cells).
in defence of the body (leucocytes in frogs
166. Cells of malignant tumors lack contact
and haemocytes in cockroaches).
inhibition and anchorage dependence.
159. Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system Cancer cells are characterised by high
for handling human excreta using dry telomerase activity which enables the cells to
composting toilets. With this method, human divide indefinitely. Metastasis is the most
excreta can berecycled into a natural feared property of malignant tumors. Cells
fertiliser, which reduces the need sloughedfrom such tumors reach distant sites
forchemical fertilisers. There are working through blood, and wherever theyget lodged
‘EcoSan’ toilets in many areas ofKerala and in the body, they start a new tumor there.
Sri Lanka.
167. The thickness of the ozone in acolumn of air
160. The primary oocyte divides into a secondary from the ground to the top of theatmosphere
oocyte and first polar body. These are is measured in terms of Dobsonunits (DU).
present in a Graafian follicle. The secondary
168. Elephantiasis – Wuchereria bancrofti
oocyte starts meiosis II, but the division gets
arrested at metaphase II. The second polar Amoebiasis – Entamoeba histolytica
body is formed only after the completion of Malaria – Plasmodium vivax
meiosis during fertilisation.
Ringworms – Trichophyton
161. First trophic level – Phytoplankton, grass,
169. Ecology at the organismic level is essentially
trees
physiological ecology whichtries to
Second trophic level – Zooplankton, understand how different organisms are
grasshopper, cow adapted to theirenvironments in terms of not
Third trophic level – Birds, fishes, wolves only survival but also reproduction.
162. The acrosomal reaction occurs after sperm 170. Pepsinogen is activated by hydrochloric acid.
capacitation and is induced by a Ca++ influx. Enterokinase activates trypsinogen. Trypsin
It plays an essential role during fertilisation, activates the proenzyme of the pancreatic
by helping the spermatozoa penetrate the juice. Intrinsic factor is essential for the
corona radiata and zona pellucida and thus absorption of vitamin B12.
facilitates fertilisation. 171. Special excretory organs are absent in
163. Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) can cause echinoderms (e.g., Asterias). Excretory
vasodilation and thereby decrease blood organ of Balanoglossus (Hemichordata) is
pressure. proboscis gland. Green glands occurs in
crustaceans.
A fall in GFR activates JG cells to release
renin. 172. Cerebral medulla – Consists of white matter
Angiotensin II, being a Autonomic neural system – Controls smooth
powerfulvasoconstrictor, increases the muscle
glomerular blood pressure and thereby Somatic neural system – Controls skeletal
GFR. muscle
Activation of osmoreceptors stimulates ADH Cerebral cortex – Consists of grey matter
secretion. 173. QRS complex – Ventricular depolarisation

Sri Chaitanya Page 8

 T wave – Ventricular repolarisation 182. Sacred groves are found in Khasi and
P wave – Atrial depolarisation JaintiaHills in Meghalaya, Aravalli Hills of
Rajasthan, Western Ghat regions
R-R interval – Duration of the cardiac cycle ofKarnataka and Maharashtra and the
174. Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areasof Madhya
reticularis are the three layers of the adrenal Pradesh.
cortex. Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein 183. The tiger censusin our national parks and
membrane that covers the ovum. tiger reserves is often based on pug marks
175. The gross primaryproductivity of an andfaecal pellets.
ecosystem is the rate of production of 184. Periodic abstinence is a natural birth control
organic matterduring photosynthesis. A method in whichthe couples avoid or abstain
considerable amount of GPP is utilised by from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
plantsin respiration. The gross primary menstrualcycle when ovulation could be
productivity minus respiration losses (R)is expected. As chances of fertilisation arevery
the net primary productivity (NPP). high during this period, it is called the fertile
176. Mesothelium is the epithelium that lines the period. Therefore, byabstaining from coitus
coelom. It is not a part of the respiratory during this period, conception couldbe
membrane. The diffusion membraneis made prevented.
up of three major layersnamely, the thin 185. An excretory system is absent in
squamousepithelium of alveoli, the echinoderms, e.g., Antedon.
endothelium ofalveolar capillaries and the
basementsubstance (composed of a thin Other animals have an excretory system:
basementmembrane supporting the Anopheles (Arthropoda) – Malpighian
squamousepithelium and the basement tubules
membranesurrounding the single layer Aplysia (Mollusca) – Metanephridia
endothelialcells of capillaries) in between
them. Ascidia (Urochordata) – Neural gland,
nephrocytes
177. The parathyroid glands are partly embedded
in the lobes of the thyroid gland, on the SECTION-B
dorsal side. 186. The pharynx is the common passage for food
178. YAC – Vectors (yeast artificial and air. It is a part of the digestive system as
chromosomes) well as the respiratory system.
VNTR – Minisatellite 187. Merino (marino) is a breed of sheep
characterised by very fine soft
SNPs – Single base differences
wool.Hissardale breed of sheep was
ESTs – Genes expresses as RNA
developed by crossbreeding Bikaneri ewes
179. Commensalism is the interaction in which and Marino rams.
one species benefitsand the other is neither
harmed nor benefited. Barnacles growing on 188. The coronary arteries arise from the
theback of a whale benefit while the ascending aorta and supply blood to the
whalederives no apparent benefit. heart.
180. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of The carotid arteries supply blood to the head
Pollution) Act cameinto force in in 1981.
The subclavian and brachial arteries supply
181. Amniocentesis – Prenatal test blood to the arm.
Nirodh – Barrier method
189. The number of tarsals in both the lower
Chlamydiasis – STI limbs = 14
Saheli – CDRI The number of phalanges in a hand = 14

Sri Chaitanya Page 9

 The total number of carpals in both the hands Overexploitation – Passenger pigeon
= 16 (8 x 2) Alien species invasion – Nile perch
The number of facial bones = 14
197. The frequency of heterozygotes is 2pq.
The number of true ribs = 14 (7 pairs)
198. Frenulum – Oral cavity
190. Myxine – Hagfish
Brunner’s glands – Duodenum
Ascidia – Tunicate
Vermiform appendix – Caecum
Branchiostoma – Lancelet
Oxyntic cells – Stomach
Petromyzon – Lamprey
199. Parturition is induced by a complex
191. Male grasshopper (X0) has a single allosome neuroendocrine mechanism involving
(X chromosome). cortisol,oestrogens and oxytocin.
192. Rosie was the first transgenic cow. In 1997, Progesterone relaxes uterine muscles and
Rosie, was engineered to produce milk maintains pregnancy. Oxytocin stimulates
enriched with a human protein called alpha- uterine contractions, which result in
lactalbumin, making it more nutritionally parturition.
balanced than natural cow’s milk and 200. The electricalpotential difference across the
suitable for babies and elderly people with resting plasma membrane of an unstimulated
special nutritional or digestive needs. neuron is termed theresting potential. The
Tracy was the first transgenic sheep. It resting membrane potential is typically -70
produced alpha-1-antitrypsin. Alba is mV, being negative on the inner side of the
transgenic rabbit. ANDi is the world’s membrane.
first transgenic monkey.
193. I-band consists of thin filaments made up of
actin, troponin and tropomyosin.
Meromyosin forms the thick filaments
present in the thin filaments.
194. The descending limb of loop ofHenle is
permeable to water but almost impermeable
to electrolytes. Water moves out of it and
small amounts of NaCl and urea move into
it. Na+ is actively reabsorbed in the PCT,
thick ascending limb and the DCT.
195. Biogenetic law was proposed by Ernst
Haeckel. The law states that “ontogeny
repeats phylogeny”. It means that an
organism recapitulates the evolutionary
development of the species during its
embryonic development. For example, the
tadpole larva of frog resembles its fish
ancestors.
196. Co-extinction – Plant-pollinator
Habitat loss – Amazon forest
Sri Chaitanya Page 10
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 21-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST – 5 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY 5. Use of bioresources by multinational

SECTION – A companies and organisations without
1. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is found in authorization from the concerned country
(1) Chara and its people is called
(2) Green sulphur bacteria (1) Bioprospecting
(3) Salvinia (2) Biopiracy
(4) Nostoc (3) Bioremediation
2. Double fertilisation is (4) Biofortification
(1) Fusion of two male gametes with one 6. Match the column
egg Column I Column II
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with two
polar nuclei A. F2X Recessive (i) ABO blood
(3) Fusion of one male gametes with egg parent type
cell
(4) Fusion of one of the male gamete with B. Transformation (ii) Ribozyme
egg and fusion of other male gamete with C. Ribonuclease P (iii) F. Griffith
the polar nuclei
3. Pollen grains can be stored for several D. Multiple alleles (iv) Test cross
years
(1)A- ii, B- iv, C-iv, D- i
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(1) -196 0C (2) A- iv, B- iii, C-ii, D- i
(2) -80 0C (3) A- i, B- i, C-iii, D- iv
(3) -160 0C (4) A- iii, B- ii, C-i, D- iv
(4) -120 0C
4. Which of the following element is 7. The experimental proof for
responsible for turgidity of guard cells? semiconservative replication of DNA was
(1) Potassium first shown in a
(2) Calciumoxalate (1) Plant
(3) Starch (2) Virus
(4) Cellulose
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Sri Chaitanya Page 1
8. Match the columns and select the correct (4) Telocentric
option 13. Attractants and rewards are required for
Column I Column II (1) Entomophilly
A. Phosphorus (i) Constituent of (2) Anemophilly
cell membrane (3) Hydrophilly
B. Iron (ii) Maintain (4) Autogamy
turgidity of cells 14. DNA ligase
C. Nitrogen (iii) Present in all (1) Polymerise nucleotide sequence in 3’
proteins to 5’direction
D. Potassium (iv) Required for (2) Cuts hydrogen bonds
chlorophyll (3) Can initiate replication of DNA
synthesis (4) Links DNA fragments.
(1) A- ii, B- iv, C-iv, D- i 15. a. Reduces complex IV
(2) A- iv, B- iii, C-ii, D- i b. Intrinsic protein
(3) A- i, B- iv, C-iii, D- ii c. Present on outer side of inner
(4) A- iii, B- ii, C-i, D- iv membrane of mitochondria
9. Statement I: Strobilanthus flowers in Which of the above features are
every twelve years. associated to cytochrome c?
Statement II: All annuals are polycarpic (1) a, b, c all
plants. (2) b, c only
(1) Both statements are incorrect (3) a, b only
(2) Both statements are correct
(4) a, c only
(3) Only statement II is incorrect
16. Introduction of resistance against
(4) Only statement I is incorrect.
powdery mildew in mung bean is an
10. Golgi apparatus
example of
(1) Forms secretory vesicles
(2) Synthesises ATP during respiration (1) Hybridisation
(3) Produces amino acids during (2) Recombinant DNA technology
photorespiration (3) Tissue culture
(4) Forms vacuole in bacteria (4) Mutation breeding
11. Phloem of gymnosperm have 17. Statement I: All succession whether
(1) Sieve tube and sieve cells taking place on land or in water, proceeds
(2) Sieve cells and albuminuous cells to a similar climax community – mesic
(3) Sieve tube and companion cells Statement II: The rate of succession is
(4) Sieve cells and companion cells slower in secondary succession than
12. In which of the following chromosomes, primary succession.
centromere is present at the centre? (1) Both statements are correct
(1) Submetacentric
(2) Only statement I is correct
(2) Metacentric
(3) Only statement II is correct
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
18. RQ value for the compound C51H98O6 is (2) Has 70S ribosomes
(1)1 (3) Shows cyclosis
(2) >1 (4) Does not have gas vacuoles
(3) 0.9 24. Which of the following is a non
(4) 0.7 degenerate
19. Which of the following is smallest living codon?
organism, lacks cell wall, without definite (1) UAG
shape and can be cultured in absence of (2) GUG
oxygen? (3) AUG
(1) Mycoplasma (4) UGC
(2) Cyanobacteria 25. In lac operon, the gene which synthesise
(3) Yeast protein constitutively is
(4) Albugo (1) lac z
20. Match the column (2) i-gene
Column I Column II (3) lac y
A. Gibberellins i) Apical dominance (4) lac a
B. Auxin ii) Delay in senescence 26. Blood cholesterol lowering agent “statins”
C. Abscissic acid iii) Bolting are obtained from
D. Cytokinin iv) Growth inhibitor (1) Fungi
(1) A- ii, B- iv, C-iv, D- i (2) Bacteria
(2) A- iv, B- iii, C-ii, D- i (3) Algae
(3) A- i, B- i, C-iii, D- iv (4) Virus
(4) A- iii, B- i, C-iv, D- ii
27. Defining features present in all living
21. The term RNAi refers to
beings are
(1) RNA inspection
(1) Metabolism, consciousness
(2) RNA inhibition
(2) Reproduction, consciousness
(3) RNA induction
(3) Cellular organisation, self
(4) RNA interference
consciousness
22. Statement I: Meiosis is seen in all
(4) Cell division, Reproduction
sexually reproducing organisms.
28. Statement I: Some amount carbon is lost
Statement II: Meiocyte is a diploid cell.
to sediments and removed from
(1) I & II both are correct, II is correct
circulation.
explanation of I
Statement II: None of the nutrients never
(2) I & II both are correct, II is not a
get lost from the circulation
correct explanation of I
(1) Only statement I is correct
(3) I is correct, II is incorrect
(2) Only statement II is correct
(4) I & II both are incorrect.
(3) Both statements I & II are correct
23. The cytoplasm of the eubacterial cell
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect
(1) Has sap vacuoles
Sri Chaitanya Page 3
29. Read the following statements and choose (1) Restriction endonucleases
the correct option (2) DNA methylase
a. Interkinesis involves duplication of (3) Alkaline phosphatise
DNA and centromere (4) DNA ligase
b. Cells divide to restore
34. The enzyme which forms PGA in C4
nucleocytoplasmic ratio
plants is
c. Synaptonemal complex dissolves in
(1) Rubisco
zygotene.
(1) a – True, b – False, c – False (2) Pyruvate kinase
(2) a – True, b – False, c – True (3) Pepcase
(3) a – True, b – True, c – True (4) Enolase
(4) a – False, b – True, c – False 35. Choose the incorrect statement w r t red
30. Casparian strips are made up of algae
(1) Cathapsin (1) Both male and female gametes are
(2) Cellulose non motile in red algae
(3) Lignin (2) Sexual reproduction in red algae is
(4) Suberin oogamous
31. Which of the following factor is (3) Zoospores are biflagellate, pyriform.
responsible for activation of Bt protoxin
(4) Red algae are found more commonly
to active toxin in bollworm?
in warmer oceans.
(1) Action of nucleases
SECTION – B
(2) Acidic pH of gut
36. Match the column
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
Column I Column II
(4) Action of hydrolytic enzymes
A) Joseph Priestley i) Staphylococcus
32. Match the items in Column I with their
B) A. Flemming ii) Canary grass
description in Column II
C) Meselson Stahl iii) Mint
Column I Column II
D) Darwin iv) E coli
A. Clot buster (i) Methylophilus
B. Bioremediation (ii) Streptococcus (1) A- ii, B- iv, C-iv, D- i
C. Activated (iii) Pseudomonas (2) A- iv, B- iii, C-ii, D- i
sludge putida (3) A- i, B- i, C-iii, D- iv
D. SCP (iv) Aerobic (4) A- iii, B- i, C-iv, D- ii
microbes 37. Which of the following genus of fungi
(1) A- i, B – ii, C – iii, D - iv can beused as biofertilizer?
(2) A- ii, B – iii, C – iv, D - i (1) Tolypthorix
(3) A- iii, B – i, C – ii, D - iv (2) Glomus
(4) A- iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i (3) Nostoc
33. In recombinant DNA technology, sticky (4) Anabena
ends of DNA are created by
Sri Chaitanya Page 4
38. Statement I : Vernalisation provides 43. Match the column I (Services) to the
precocious reproductive development late column II (Price tag out of total cost of
in the growing season. fundamental services or value)
Statement II : Vernalisastion can be Column I Column II
substituted by gibberellins. A. Soil formation i) 18 trillion US
(1) Only statement II is correct dollars
(2) Only statement I is correct B. Climate regulation ii) Less than 10%
(3) Both statements I & II are correct C. Nutrient cycling iii) About 6%
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect D. Global GNP iv) About 50%
39. Facilitated diffusion differs from simple (1) A- ii, B- iv, C-iv, D- i
diffusion (2) A- iv, B- iii, C-ii, D- i
(1) Spends energy in the form of ATPs (3) A- i, B- i, C-iii, D- iv
(2) Occurs along concentration gradient (4) A- iii, B- ii, C-i, D- iv
(3) Inhibited by metabolic inhibitors 44. Which of the following reaction(s) evolve
(4) Participation of transport protein CO2 by the Pyruvate decarboxylase
40. Which of the following vitamin has enzyme activity
sulphur as a constitutent? (i) Regeneration of PEP from pyruvate
a.Biotin b. Thymine (ii) Alcohol fermentation
c. Acetyl CoA d. Cysteine (iii) Link reaction
(iv) Synthesis of pyruvate from PEP
e.Ferrodoxin
(1) i, ii, iii, iv
(1) a only (2) ii only
(2) a, b, c only (3) i, ii, iii only
(3) a, c, d, e only (4) ii, iii only
(4) a, b only 45. Which of the following statement is
41. Resistance to diseases in the crop can be correct?
achieved from (1) Cycas is monoecious
(1) Hybridisation, Mutation only (2) In haplontic life cycle pattern zygote
(2) Hybridisation, Mutation, Selection of undergoes meiosis
somaclonal variants (3) Dispersal of winged seeds in Pinus is
(3) Genetic engineering, hybridisation called sulphur shower
only (4) Seed habit is first seen in
(4) Mutation, selection only pteridophyte.
42. Carotenoids in the chloroplasts 46. Which of the following pair of plants is
(1) Are dispersed in stroma not pollinated by water?
(2) Form reaction centre (1) Hydrilla & Parthenium
(3) Act as Shield pigment (2) Water lily & Eicchornia
(4) Are water soluble (3) Zostera & lotus
(4) Vallisneria & water lily
Sri Chaitanya Page 5
47. Choose the incorrect statement (2) In leaching, water insoluble organic
(1) Tertiary structure of tRNA appear as nutrients go down in to the soil horizon
inverted L and get precipitated.
(2) Amino acid forms ester bond with 3’ (3) Bacterial and fungal enzymes
OH end of tRNA participate in the process of catabolism.
(3) Binding of rho factor to tRNA (4) Humus is dark coloured amorphous
terminates translation substance highly resistant to microbial
(4) Translation shows ribozyme activity action.
48. Complete the analogy 52. Remaining biomass or energy left after
Restriction enzyme: Prokaryotes:: utilization of the producer is called
RNAi:__ (1) Gross Primary Productivity
(1) Eukaryotes (2) Incident Solar Radiation
(2) Ribonucleotide (3) Respiratory Energy
(3) Ligation (4) Net Primary Productivity
(4) Restriction of phages 53. Arrange the following in a sequence
49. Autoradiography or tracer technique is based on DNA Fingerprinting protocol.
used in several experimental work in A. Use of Autoradiography
biology which includes all except B. Hybridization using labelled VNTR
(1) Action spectrum probe
(2) Search of DNA as genetic material C. Southern Blot method
(3) Source of evolved oxygen in light D. Isolation and Digestion of DNA
reaction The correct sequence is
(4) Path of carbon in dark reaction (1) A – B – C – D
50. Which of the following is correct w r t (2) B – C – D – A
EcoRI? (3) D – B – A – C
(1) It is extracted from Entamoeba coli (4) D – C – B – A
(2) Eco RI is a polynucleotide 54. 95% of all existing transgenic animals are
(3) Eco RI makes phosphodiester bonds (1) Mice
(4) I indicates that it was first isolated (2) Rabbit
from RY13 (3) Monkey
ZOOLOGY (4) Cow
SECTION – B 55. Pre historic cave art developed about
51. Which of the following statements is __________ years ago
NOT correct about decomposition (1) 75000
(1) Earthworms break down the detritus (2) 18000
into smaller particles. (3) 1.5 million
(4) 1.5 billion
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
56. Select the statement which explain best 62. Read the following statements about
parasitism Cockroach and identify the INCORRECT
(1) One organism is benefitted statement.
(2) Both the organisms are benefitted (1) Malpighian tubules are attached to
(3) One organism is benefitted, other is digestive system but aid in excretion
not affected
(2) The hindgut is narrower and shorter
(4) One organism is benefitted, other is
than midgut
affected.
57. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a (3) Blood vessels are poorly developed
mango branch is an ideal example for and opens into haemocoel.
(1) Parasitism (4) 10 pairs of spiracles are present on
(2) Mutualism the lateral side of the body.
(3) Commensalism 63. Match Column – I with Column – II
(4) Amensalism Column – I Column – II
58. DNA Fingerprinting has immense A. Parotid Glands i. Pepsinogen
applications in the field of B. Liver ii. Ptyalin
(1) Forensic sciences C. Pancreas iii. Trypsinogen
(2) Evolutionary Biology D. Gastric Glands iv. Bile salts
(3) Genetic Biodiversity
Choose the correct answer from the
(4) All the above
option given below
59. In Verhulst Pearl Logistic Growth Curve
(1) A – ii, B –iv, C – iii, D – i
equation, the ‘K’ stands for
(2) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii
(1) Population density at time ‘t’
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(4) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(3) Carrying capacity
64. Match Column – I with Column – II
(4) Extrinsic rate of natural increase
Column – I Column – II (PO2)
60. ‘Founders effect’ and ‘Bottle neck effect’
A. Deoxygenated i. 159 mm/Hg
explain
Blood
(1) Mutations
B. Atmospheric ii. 104 mm/Hg
(2) Genetic Drift Air
(3) Genetic Load C. Alveoli iii. 40 mm/Hg
(4) Genetic Recombination D. Oxygenated iv. 95 mm/Hg
61. The hormones or set of hormones which Blood
promote the development of alveoli in Choose the correct answer from the
mammary glands are option given below
(1) Inhibin and Progesterone (1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) Progesterone alone (2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
(3) Estrogen alone (3) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
(4) Prolactin and Progesterone (4) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
Sri Chaitanya Page 7
65. Match Column – I with Column – II (2) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Column – I Column – II (3) Schizophrenia
A. Echinodermata i. Metagenesis (4) Grave’s disease
B. Coelenterata ii. Parapodia 69. Universal donor blood group is
and Setae (1) AB+ve
C. Annelida iii. Water
(2) O+ve
vascular
(3) AB-ve
system
D. Mollusca iv. Radula (4) O-ve
Choose the correct answer from the 70. Down’ssyndrome is due to
option given below (1) Monosomy of autosomal pair
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv (2) Monosomy of Allosomal pair
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv (3) Trisomy of autosomal pair
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv (2) Trisomy of Allosomal pair
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i 71. All are related to corpus luteum except
66. SCID is caused by the deficiency of
(1) A temporary endocrine gland
‘adenosine deaminase’, This deficiency
(2) Cannot secrete estrogens
can be cured by
(1) Bone marrow transplantation (3) Formed after ovulation from follicle
(2) Enzyme Replacement therapy (4) Commonly called yellow body
(3) Ex – vivo gene therapy 72. Match Column – I with Column – II
(4) All the above Column – I Column – II
67. Read the following statements carefully
A. Morphine i. Erythroxylum
I. Parietal and Temporal are the paired
cranial bones B. Marijuana ii. Papaver
II. Malleus, Incus and Stapes are C. Cocaine iii. Cannabis
collectively called ear ossicles. Choose the correct answer from the
III. Number of cervical vertebrae are option given below
seven in all the vertebrates. (1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
IV. Sternum is a flat bone on the dorsal
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C –i
midline of the thorax.
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii
Identify the correct statement(s) among
the above (4) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(1) I and II 73. Among the following ‘Copper releasing
(2) II and III IUD’ is
(3) All except III (1) Lippes Loop
(4) Only I (2) LNG – 20
68. One of the following is NOT an (3) Progestasert
autoimmune disorder (4) Multiload – 275
(1) Malaria
Sri Chaitanya Page 8
74. Identify the technique that serve the (4) I, II and III
purpose of early diagnosis based on the 78. Match Column – I with Column – II
purpose of antigen and antibody Column – I Column – II
interaction. A. Cervical caps i. IUD
(1) PCR
(2) Autoradiography B. LNG – 20 ii. Oral contraceptive
(3) Southern blotting pill
(4) ELISA
C. Saheli iii Physical barrier
75. The peptide which is present in proinsulin
D. Vasectomy .iv Sterilization
but got digested in functional insulin
(1) A – Peptide Choose the correct. answer from the
(2) B – Peptide option given below
(3) C – Peptide (1) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
(4) δ – Peptide (2) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
76. Match Column – I with Column – II
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
Column – I Column – II
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
A. Pteropus i. Blue Whale
79. Human dentition was described as
B. Elephas ii. Dolphin
C. Delphinus iii. Elephant (1) Thecodont, Heterodont,
Monophyodont
D. Balaenoptera iv. Flying Fox
Choose the correct answer from the (2) Acrodont, Homodont, Diphyodont
option given below (3) Thecodont, Homodont, Diphyodont
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv (4) Thecodont, Heterodont, Diphyodont
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv 80. Match Column – I with Column – II
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv Column – I Column – II
(4) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i A. Penumatic i. Reptilia
77. Read the following statement carefully bones
I. Ctenophores are exclusively marine B. Persistent ii. Birds
invertebrates notochord
II. Cephalochordates and Cephalopods C. Operculum on iii. Osteichthyes
are considered as Protochordates gills
III. Urochordata is the chordate with D. Heart is three or iv. Chondrichthyes
closed blood vascular system four chambered
IV. Annelids are not only triplobalstic Choose the correct answer from the
animals but are also true ceolomates. option given below
Choose the correct statements among the (1) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
above
(2) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii
(1) I and II
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
(2) II and III
(3) I and IV (4) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii

Sri Chaitanya Page 9

81. Which of the following helps in blood 86. The total volume of air a person can
clotting? expire after a normal inspiration is
(1) Histaminase (1) Tidal volume
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(2) Thrombokinase
(3) Expiratory capacity
(3) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(4) Vital capacity
(4) Tyrosinase 87. “Mammals from colder climate generally
82. Identify the breeding practice which often have shorter ears and limbs to minimize
helps to overcome inbreeding depression heat loss” – This is referred as
(1) Close breeding (1) Allen’s Rule
(2) Bergman’s Rule
(2) Interspecific hybridization
(3) Van’t Hoff Rule
(3) Line breeding
(4) Keber’s Rule
(4) Out crossing 88. Match Column – I with Column – II
83. Dobson Unit is meant to measure Column – I Column – II
(1) Quality of sound A. Homo habilis i. 900 cc
(2) Quantity of sound B. Homo ii. 450 cc
(3) Thickness of ozone neanderthalensis
(4) Quality of sewage water pollution C. Homo erectus iii. 650–800 cc
84. One of the following STD is completely D. Australopithecus iv. 1400 cc
curable, if detected early and treated
Choose the correct answer from the
properly
option given below
(1) Trichomoniasis
(1) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
(2) Genital Herpes
(2) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(3) Hepatitis – B
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(4) HIV infection
(4) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
85. What is the probability of acquiring
89. The hormone ‘Oxytocin’ is responsible to
Thalassemia to a child, if both the parents
hasten the parturition. This hormone is
are heterozygous for the above said
released from
disorder?
(1) Anterior Pituitary gland
(1) 33%
(2) Neurohypophysis
(2) 25%
(3) Adrenal Zona reticularis
(3) 50%
(4) Thyroid gland
(4) 100%
Sri Chaitanya Page 10
90. Read the following statements about eye. Choose the correct answer from the
A. Retinal blood vessel enter the eye ball, option given below
at a point medial to and slightly above the (1) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
posterior pole of eye ball
(2) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii
B. Fovea is thinned – out portion of the
retinawhere only the cones are densely (3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
packed. (4) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
C. Lens is located in between the aqueous 93. Assertion (A): Malfunctioning of kidney
and vitreous humour. can lead to a condition called ‘uremia’
D. Visual activity or resolution is least at
Reason (R):Kidney is the main centre for
the fovea centralis
urea synthesis
Identify the INCORRECT statement
(1) Both the A and R are true. R clearly
among the above
(1) A and D explains A
(2) B and D (2) A is true whereas R is false
(3) Only A (3) Both the A and R are true. R does
(4) Only D not explains A
91. Match Column – I with Column – II (4) Both the statements are incorrect
Column – I Column – II
A. A– Band i. Only Actin 94. The type of connective tissue which is
B. I – Band ii. Only Myosin completely devoid of fibres is
C. H - Zone iii. Contains both (1) Tendon
Actin and Myosin
(2) Ligament
D. Z – Line iv. Bisects thin band
Choose the correct answer from the (3) Periosteum
option given below
(4) Blood
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv 95. Among the following, the most common
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii freshwater edible fish is
(4) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i (1) Hilsa
92. Match Column – I with Column – II (2) Pomfret
Column – I Column – II (3) Rohu
A. Ball and i. Intercarpal Joint
(4) Sardine
Socket
B. Hinge ii. Femur and Pelvic 96. Honey bee belongs to the Order
Joint girdle (1) Hymenoptera
C. Pivot iii. Atlas and Axis (2) Insecta
Joint
D. Gliding iv. Elbow joint (3) Arthropoda
joint (4) Hexapoda
Sri Chaitanya Page 11
97. Match Column – I with Column – II (1) Ovary and Oviduct
Column – I Column – II (2) Oviduct and Uterus
A. Diphtheria i. Bacterial
(3) Uterus and Vagina
Disease
B. Malaria ii. Viral Disease (4) Vagina and Vestibule
C. Elephantiasis iii. Protozoan PHYSICS
Disease SECTION – A
D. Dengue iv. Helminthic 101. If force, time and velocity are treated as
Disease fundamental quantities then dimensional
Choose the correct answer from the formula of energy will be
option given below (1) [FTV]
2
(2) [FT V]
(1) A –i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv 2
(3) [FTV ]
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv 2 2
(4) [FT V ]
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv 102. A particle starts from rest and moves with
(4) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii uniform acceleration. If covers a
98. Statement (1): Blood of earthworm is red displacement of y 2 − x 2 in the first 10 sec
in colour and y 2 + x 2 in the next 10 sec, then
Statement (2): Red blood corpuscles (1) x = 2y
import red colour to the blood in
earthworm
(2) x = 3y
(3) y = 3x
(1) Statement (1) is only correct
(2) Statement (2) alone is correct (4) y = 2x

(3) Both the statements are correct 103. The velocity of a projectile at the initial

(4) Both the statements are incorrect ( )

point A is 2iˆ + 3 j m s . It’s velocity (in

99. The set of hormones which are produced m s ) at point B is

in women only during pregnancy are
(1) Estrogen, Human Chorionic
Gonadotropin, Prolactin
(2) Progesterone, Human Placental
Lactogen, Prolactin
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin, (1) 2iˆ − 3 ˆj
Somatomammotropin,
(2) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj
(4) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin,
(3) −2iˆ − 3 ˆj
Human Placental Lactogen and Relaxin
(4) −2iˆ + 3 ˆj
100. Cervix canal is located between

Sri Chaitanya Page 12

104. The position –time graph of a body of 3h
(2)
mass 2kg is as given in figure. What is 4
the impulse on the body at t = 4s ? 2h
(3)
3
3h 2
(4)
8R
107. A pump motor is used to deliver water at
a certain rate from a given pipe. To
obtain, twice as much water from the
same pipe, in the same time, the power of
motor has to be increased to
(1) 1.5kg − m / s (1) 2 times
(2) −1.5kg − m / s (2) 4 times
(3) 1kg − m / s
(3) 8 times
(4) 0kg − m / s
(4) 16 times
105. A particle of mass m is moving in the
XY-plane with a velocity v along the 108. A particle of mass m is moving in a
straight line AB. If the angular circular path of constant radius r such that
its centripetal acceleration ac is varying
momentum of the particle with respect to
with time t as ac = k2rt2 where k is a
origin O is LA when it is at A and LB
constant. The power delivered to the
when it is at B, then
particle by the forces acting on it, is
(1) zero
(2) mk2r2t2
(3) mk2r2t
(4) mk2rt
(1) LA > LB
109. The second overtone of a closed pipe has
(2) LA = LB the same frequency as the first harmonic
(3) the relationship between LA and of open pipe. The ratio of the length of
L B depends upon the slope of the line AB open pipe to the length of closed pipe is
(4) LA < LB 2
(1)
5
106. Distance of the centre of mass of a solid
3
uniform cone from its vertex is z0 . If the (2)
5
radius of its base is R and its height is ‘h’
5
the z0 is equal to (3)
8
h2
(1) 8
4R (4)
5
Sri Chaitanya Page 13
110. A string of mass 2.50 kg is under a 114. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are
tension of 200 N. The length of the separated by 1.5 λ . Interference fringes
stretched string is 20.0 cm. If the are observed on circular screen as shown.
transverse jerk is struck at one end of the The total number of minima observed is
string, how long does the disturbance take (S1 and S2 are equidistance from O)
to reach the other end.
(1) 0.05 sec
(2) 0.5 sec
(3) 1 sec S1 O S2
(4) 2 sec 1.5 λ
111. A plane mirror is placed at origin parallel
to y-axis, facing the positive x-axis. An
object starts form (2m,0,0) with a velocity (1) Four
( )
of 2iˆ + 2ˆj m s . The relative velocity of (2) Two
image with respect to object is along (3) Six
(1) positive x-axis (4) Infinite
(2) negative x-axis 115. A fraunhofer diffraction of a single slit is
(3) positive y-axis formed at the focal plane of a lens of
(4) negative y-axis focal length 1m. The width of the slit is
112. A thin prism having refracting angle 10º 0.3 mm. If third minimum is observed at
is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. a distance of 5mm from central maximum
This prism is combined with another thin then wavelength of light used is-
prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. (1) 4000 Å
This combination produces dispersion (2) 4500 Å
without deviation. The refracting angle of
(3) 4800 Å
second prism should be
(4) 5000 Å
(1) 6º
116. Two polaroids are oriented with their
(2) 8º
axes making an angle of 30º with each
(3) 10º
other. The fraction of incident
(4) 4º
unpolarized light intensity transmitted is
113. An air bubble in a glass slab with
refractive index 1.5 (near normal 3
(1)
incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed 8
from one surface and 3 cm deep when 1
(2)
viewed from the opposite face. The 4
thinkness (in cm) of the slab is 2
(3)
(1) 8 5
(2) 10 1
(4)
(3) 12 2
(4) 16
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
117. In Rutherford experiment correct angle of 1 2
(1) mυ
scattering of α -particle for impact 2
parameter equal to zero is (2) mυ2
(1) 90° 3 2
(2) 270° (3) mυ
2
(3) 0°
(4) 2 mυ2
(4) 180°
118. Match the following characteristics 120.. A spring is stretched by applying a load
corresponding to device. (V & I are to its end. The strain produced in the
respective voltage and currents) spring is
Device Characteristics (1) Shearing strain
a) Photo diode (2) Volume strain
(3) Longitudinal strain
(4) Shear and longitudinal strain
121. A cylindrical tank of height ‘H’ is open at
the top and has radius ‘R’. Water is filled
b) LED to a height ‘H’. The time taken to empty
the tank through a hole of radius ‘r’ in its
bottom is
(1) hH
c) Solar cell 2H r 2
(2)
g R2
2h R 2
(3)
g r2
d) Transistor
2h R 2
as switch (4)
g 2r 2
122. A circular coil is made from a wire of
(1) a-e, b-f, c-g, d-h length x cm . Its radius is y cm . Another
(2) a-h, b-g, c-f, d-e coil of same material is made from a wire
(3) a-f, b-g, c-e, d-h of length y cm . Its radius is x cm .
(4) a-g, b-h, c-e, d-f Compare the magnetic moments of these
119. A satellite is moving with a constant two coils, if the same current flows
speed υ in a circular orbit about the earth. through them
An object of mass m is ejected from the (1) x : y
satellite such that it just escapes from the
(2) y:x
gravitational pull of the earth. At the time
of ejection, the kinetic energy of the (3) x 2 : y 2
object is (4) 1 : 1

Sri Chaitanya Page 15

123. Electromagnets are made of soft iron
because soft iron has
(1) High retentivity and high coercive
force
(2) High retentivity and low coercive
force
(3) Low retentivity and high coercive
force (1) 25 cm
(4) Low retentivity and low coercive (2) 75 cm
force (3) 50 cm
124. Two metallic rings each of resistance 3R (4) 40 cm
are placed as shown. A and B are the 127. In the circuit fig. A and B represent two
centres of the rings. The effective inputs and C represents the output. The
resistance between C and D is circuit represents
C A

A B C
B
D
(1) 3R (1) OR gate
(2) R 2 (2) NOR gate
(3) R 3 (3) AND gate
(4) 2 R 3 (4) NAND gate
125. The magnitude of current i (in ampere) in
128. The electric flux from a cube of edge L is
the given circuit is
φ . What will be its value if edge of cube
is made 2L?
φ
(1)
2
(2) 2φ
(3) 4φ
(1) 0.5 A (4) φ
(2) 1 A
129. Two charged conductors are connected
(3) 0.25 A
with a wire. The flow of charge from one
(4) 2 A
conductor to the other will not be there
126. The potentiometer wire PQ is 100 cm
only if both conductors have
long and its resistance is 2r. The
(1) same capacity
balancing length PC is equal to
(2) same charge
(3) equal potential
(4) both (2) and (3)
Sri Chaitanya Page 16
130. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal Column – I Column – II
process is A) Stoke’s law I) Pressure and energy
(1) Infinity B) Turbulence II) Hydraulic lift
(2) Zero C) Bernoulli’s
III) Viscous drag
(3) Negative principle
(4) Remains constant D) Pascal’s law IV) Reynold’s number
 Cp  A B C D
131. The value of γ =   , for Oxygen,
 Cv  (1) III IV I II
Argon and another ideal diatomic gas X (2) I II III IV
(whose molecules are not rigid but have (3) II I IV III
an additional vibrational mode), are (4) III IV II I
respectively equal to 135. The algebraic sum of potential difference
7 5 7 across inductor and capacitor in LCR
(1) , ,
5 3 5 circuit at resonance is
7 5 9 (1) Zero
(2) , ,
5 3 7 (2) Infinity
5 7 9 1
(3) , , (3)
3 5 7 Cω
5 7 7 1
(4) , , (4) Lω −
3 5 5 Cω
132. Steam is passed into 55g of water at 300C SECTION – B
till the temperature of the mixture 136. What is the mutual inductance of a two –
becomes 900C. If the latent heat of steam loop system as shown with centre
is 540 cal/g, the mass of the mixture will separation
be
(1) 81 g
(2) 61 g
(3) 52 g
(4) 24 g
133. An electron has a mass of 9.1x10 -31 Kg .
It revolves round the nucleus in a circular
orbit of radius 0.529x10—10metre at a
µo π a 4
speed of 2.2x106 m/s. The magnitude of (1)
its linear momentum in this motion is- 8l 3
(1) 1.1x10
—34
kg-m/s µo π a 4
(2)
—24 4l3
(2) 2.0 x10 kg -m/s
—24 µo π a 4
(3) 4.0x 10 kg -m/s (3)
—31 6l3
(4) 4.0 x 10 kg -m/s
µo π a 4
134. Match the columns I and II (4)
2l3
Sri Chaitanya Page 17
137. The stopping potential V for photoelectric (1) 400 µg
emission from a metal surface is plotted
(2) 400 mg
along Y-axis and frequency ν of incident
light along X-axis. A straight line is (3) 20 µg
obtained as shown. Planck's constant is (4) 40 µg
given by 140. How much energy must a gamma ray
photon have, if it is to materialize into a
pair of electron and positron with each
particle having a K.E. of 1 MeV?
(1) 2MeV
(2) 3.02 MeV
(3) 1.0MeV
(4) 0.51 MeV

(1) Slope of the line 141. In the circuit shown in fig. the current
gain, β = 100 for the transistor. What
(2) Product of slope on the line and charge
would be the bias resistance R B so that
on the electron
VCE = 5V ? (Neglect VBE ).
(3) Product of intercept along Y-axis and
mass of the electron
RB 1kΩ R L
(4) Product of Slope and mass of electron IC
IB
138. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 C
contain same number of nuclei. If B
↑ 10V VCC
6λ s −1 and 4λ s −1 are the decay constants of ↑
VBE E VCE
X1 and X2 respectively, the ratio of
↓ IE
number of nuclei undecayed of X1 to that
of X2 will be 1/e after a time
1 (1) 2 ×103 Ω
(1) s
2λ (2) 2 ×105 Ω
1
(2) s (3) 1×106 Ω
10λ
1 (4) 500Ω
(3) s 142. The lines joining the places of the same
5λ
1 horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
(4) ss field are known as
8λ
(1) Isogonic lines
139. The power obtained in a reactor using
(2) Aclinic lines
U 235 disintegration is 1000 kw. The mass
(3) Isoclinic lines
decay of U235 per hour is
(4) Isodynamic lines
Sri Chaitanya Page 18
143. The amplitude of electric field at a 8 πεo
(3)
distance r from a source of power P is R
(taking 100% efficiency) (assume P as 4 πεo
source) (4)
R
147. A graph between current and potential
P
(1) difference across a conductor is shown.
2πr 2cε 0
The resistance of the circuit is

P I (A)
(2)
4πr 2cε 0

P
(3)
8πr 2 cε 0 30°
O V (Volts)
P
(4) 1
2πr 2 cε 0 (1) Ω
3
144. The efficiency of the carnot heat engine 1
(2) Ω
with low temperature reservoir at 7°C is 3
50%. To have the efficiency of 70%, by (3) 3Ω
how many degrees should the temperature 1
of high temperature reservoir be increased (4) Ω
2
(1) 100°C
148. Two long conductors, separated by a
(2) 50°C
distance d carry current I1 and I 2 in the
(3) 75°C
same direction. They exert a force F on
(4) 373°C
each other. Now the current in one of
145. An alternating current is given by
them is increased to two times and its
I = ( 2sin ωt + 6cos ωt ) . The rms value of
directions is reversed. The distance is also
current is increased to 3d. The new value of the
(1) 5A force between them is
(2) 2 5 A F
(1)
(3) 8 A 3
(4) 4 A 2F
(2)
146. A spherical condenser consists of two 3
concentric spherical conductors. Find the 3F
(3)
capacitance of this system if the outer 4
radius is 2R and inner radius is R F
(4)
(1) 4 πεo R 2
(2) 8 πε o R

Sri Chaitanya Page 19

149. Three infinitely long charge sheets are 152. The quantum numbers n, ℓ, m for the
placed which charge density as shown in valence electron of sodium in ground
figure. The electric field at point P is state is
(1) 2, 0, 0
(2) 3, 1, 0
(3) 3, 1, -1
(4) 3, 0, 0
153. S – I :- Electronegativity of fluorine is
greater than that of oxygen
2σ S – II : IP2 of nitrogen is greater than that
(1) ĵ
ε0 of oxygen.
2σ
(2) − ĵ (1) S – I is true S – II is false
ε0
(2) S – I is false S – II is true
4σ
(3) k̂
(3) Both statements are true
ε0
4σ (4) Both statements are false
(4) − k̂
ε0 154. S – I : Both CO 2 and BeCl2 are linear
150. If two rods of length L and 2L having molecules
coefficients of linear expansions α and S – II : In Both CO 2 and BeCl2 , the
2α respectively are connected so that
central atom is SP hybridized
total length becomes 3L, the average
(1) Both statements are true
coefficient of linear expansion of the
composite rod equals to (2) Both statements are false
3 (3) S – I is true, S – II is false
(1) α
2 (4) S – I is false, S – II is true
5 155. Which of the following molecular orbital
(2) α
2 has no nodal plane
5 (1) σ1s
(3) α
3
(2) σ 2s *
(4) α
CHEMISTRY (3) σ 2pz *
SECTION – A (4) π 2px *
151. In Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum, 156. At S.T.P rate of diffusion of the following
the transition responsible for red coloured is least.
spectral line is
(1) H 2
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 3 to n = 2 (2) N 2
(3) n = 4 to n = 2 (3) F2
(4) n = 5 to n = 1 (4) CO
Sri Chaitanya Page 20
157. Number of moles of ferrous oxalate that 162. Assertion : At 50o C pure water is slightly
can reduce 0.5 mole of permanganate ion acidic when compared to that at 25o C
in acidic medium is Reason : As temperature increases p H of
(1) 1.25
water decreases.
(2) 2.5
(1) Both A and R are false
(3) 0.83
(2) Both A and R are true. R does not
(4) 0.5
explain A
158. Oxidation number of carbon is least in
(3) Both A and R are true, R explains A
(1) CO 2
(4) A is false but R is true
(2) CF4
163. P H of 0.1M aqueous solution of the
(3) CH 2 Cl2 following is least
(4) CHCl3 (1) NaCl
159. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H 2 , Cl 2 and (2) Na 2CO3
HCl respectively are 104 Kcal/mole, 58 (3) NH 4Cl
Kcal/mole, and 103 Kcal/mole. Then
(4) KCN
standard enthalpy of formation of HCl is
164. Permanent Hardness can be eliminated by
[in K.Cal/mole]
using
(1) Zero
(1) Calgon
(2) – 22
(2) Permutit
(3) – 100
(4) + 22 (3) Excess of Ca (OH )2
160. For a reaction to be spontaneous, the (4) Both calgon and permutit
essential condition is 165. 6 grams of urea is dissolved in 100 g of
∆S = −ve water. The concentration of the solution is
(1) (sys)
∆G = −ve (1) 1m
(2) (sys)
(2) 1 M
∆H = −ve (3) 0.1 m
(3) (sys)
∆S =0 (4) 0.1 M
(4) ( total)
166. By adding 18g of a non volatile solute to
161. Law of mass action is not applicable to 90g. of water. The decrease in vapour
which of the following system pressure is 2%. The approximate
⇀ H 2 O(ℓ)
(1) H 2O(S) ↽ molecular weight of the solute is
⇀ PCl3 + Cl2(g)
(2) PCl5(g) ↽ ( ) g
(1) 18
⇀ 2NH 3
(3) N 2(g) + 3H 2 ( ) ↽ (2) 180
g ( )
g

⇀
(4) N 2(g) + O 2(g) ↽ 2NO(g)
(3) 360
(4) 420

Sri Chaitanya Page 21

167. Set – 1 Set – 2 (3) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions
P) Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I 2 A) Oxidising nature are coloured in the solid state and in the
Q) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I 2 B) Electron affinity aqueous solutions.
R) Cl > S > O C) IP1 - order (4) Most stable oxidation state of all the
S) C < N > O < F D) Melting point
lanthanoids is +2
order 171. Match List – I with List – II.
E) Bond List – I List – II
2−
Dissociation (a) [ NiCl4 ] (i) Diamagnetic
Enthalpy
(1) P – E, Q – Q, R – B, S - D (b)  Ni (CO)4  (ii) Paramagnetic
2−
(2) P – e, Q – A, R – D, S – C (c)  Ni (CN)4  (iii) 0 BM
(3) P – A, Q – E, R – B, S – C
(iv) 2.828 BM
(4) P – E, Q – A, R – B, S – C
Choose the correct answer from the
168. AB has a Rock salt structure with ‘A’
options given below.
occupying the corners. If all the face
(1) (a) – (i,iii), (b) – (ii,iv), (c) – (i,vi)
centered atoms along one axis are
(2) (a) – (ii,iv), (b) – (i,iii), (c) – (i,iii)
removed, then the formula of the resulting
solid is (3) (a) – (ii,iv), (b) – (ii,iv), (c) – (i,iii)
(1) A 3B4 (4) (a) – (i,iv), (b) – (ii,iii), (c) – (i,iii)
172. Given below are two statements:
(2) A 4 B3
Statement – I : Aminoglycosides and
(3) AB2 Ofloxacin are the bacteriostatic
(4) A 2 B antibiotics.
Statement – II : Tetracycline and
169. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of
Chloramphenicol are the bactericidal
chemical reaction is :
antibiotics.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
(1) H 3PO 2 (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
(2) H 2 O II is true.
(3) CH 3MgBr (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) NaOH true
170. The incorrect statement among the
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
following is :
false
(1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals,
especially when finely divided. (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(2) Actinoid contraction is greater for is false
element to element than lanthanoid
contraction
Sri Chaitanya Page 22
173. Which of the following is a reducing (1)
sugar
CH3 − CH − NH − CH − CH3
(1) Glucose
CH3 CH3
(2) Maltose
(2)
(3) Lactose
CH2CH3
(4) All of these
CH3 − CH2 − N − CH2 − CH3
174.
(3)
NH2
CH3 − C − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
represents
CH3
(1) Bakelite
(2) Nylon – 6, 6 (4)

(3) Melamine polymer (CH3 )3 C − CH − NH (CH3 )

(4) Novolac CH3
175. The reaction that does not give carboxylic 177. When vapours of a tertiary alcohol is
acid as the major product is : passed over heated copper at 573 K, the
OΘ Na ⊕ product formed is
(i) CO2 (1) a carboxylic acid
 →
(ii) H+ (2) an aldehyde
(1)
(3) a ketone
OΘ K ⊕
(4) an alkene
(i) CO2
 → 178. The major products C and D formed in
(ii) H+
(2) the following reactions respectively are:
HI
Br
(i) Mg / Ether CH2 − O 
∆ →C+ D
→
( ) CO2 / dry ether
ii
(iii) H+ I CH2 − I
(3) (1) and
OH
CH 2 − OH I
(i) CHCl3 + aq. NaOH (2) and
 →
(ii) H+
(4) CH2 − I OH
(3) and
176. The amine that react will Hinsberg’s
reagent to give an alkali soluble product OH CH 2 − OH
is : (4) and

Sri Chaitanya Page 23

179. Match the oxide given in column A with (2) CH 3 − CH = CH 2
its property given in column B.
(3) CH − CH = CH − CH 3
Column – A Column – B 3

(i) Na 2 O (a) Acidic (4) CH 2 = CH 2

(ii) As2 O3 (b) Neutral 182. In the following reactions,
H 2O red hot
(iii) NO (c) Basic → ( A )  
CaC2  → (B ) .
iron tube

(iv) SO3 (d) Amphoteric The number of sigma bonds present in the
product (B) is
Which of the following options has all
correct pairs ? (1) 6
i ii iii iv (2) 12
(1) c c b b (3) 18
(2) c d ba (4) 3
(3) c d a b 183. Hybridisation of Boron in Diborane is
(4) c a db (1) sp
180. Match the catalyst with the process: (2) sp2
(3) sp3
Catalyst Process
(4) dsp2
(i) PdCl2 (a) Haber’s process
184. Which of the following is used in
(ii) Fe (b) Hydrogenation of fats television broadcasting and mobile radio
communications ?
(iii) Ni (c) Ostwald’s process
(1) Quartz
(iv) Pt/Rh gauge (d) Wacker process
(2) Zeolite
Which of the following is the correct
option ? (3) ZSM-5
i ii iii iv (4) Silicones
(1) c a b d 185. The correct order of reactivity towards
(2) c b a d the electrophilic substitution of the
compounds Aniline (I), Benzene (II) and
(3) d b a c
Nitrobenzene (III) is
(4) d a b c
(1) I >II > III
181. The most stable alkene, among the
following is : (2) III > II >I

(1) (CH 3 )2 C = C (CH 3 )2 (3) II >III >I

(4) I <II < III
Sri Chaitanya Page 24
 SECTION – B 190. For gold sol, the coagulation value is
186. The E.M.F of the following galvanic cell highest for
is (1) NaCl
Mg(S) / Mg 2+(0.01M) / /F(−0.01M) / F2(1atm) , Pt. (2) MgCl2

E o(Mg 2+ / Mg) = −2.36v (3) AlCl3

E o(F2 / F− ) = +2.87v (4) CCl4

191. The composition of copper matte is
(1) 5.23 v
(2) – 5.23 v (1) Cu 2S + FeS

(3) 0.06v (2) Cu 2 O + FeO

(4) 5.41 v (3) Cu 2S + Fe 2O3
187. During electrolysis, one F of charge can (4) Cu 2S + Cu 2O
produce
192. Packing fraction is least in which of the
(1) 11.2 L of O 2 at S.T.P following
(2) 22.4 L of Cl2 at S.T.P (1) Po
(3) 12 g of Mg (2) Cu
(4) 11.5g of sodium (3) Ni
188. The half life period of a 1st order reaction (4) K
is 100 sec. The time required for the 75% 193. The Prussian blue colour obtained during
of the reactant to be used up is. the test of nitrogen by Lassaigne’s test is
(1) 100 sec due to the formation of
(2) 200 sec (1) Fe4 Fe ( CN )6  3
(3) 150 sec
(2) Na 3 Fe ( CN )6 
(4) 300 sec
(3) Na 2 Fe ( CN )5 NO
189. For the reaction N 2 + 3H 2 
→ 2NH 3 , If
the rate of disappearance of hydrogen is (4) Na 4 Fe ( CN )5 NOS
‘x’ mole lit −1 sec−1 . Then the rate of 194. Which of the following is non point
formation of NH 3 will be source of water pollution?
(1) 2x M.sec−1 (1) Municipal discharge pipes
(2) 3x M.sec−1 (2) Industrial discharge pipes
(3) x M.sec−1 (3) Agricultural run off

2x (4) All of these

(4) M.sec−1
3
Sri Chaitanya Page 25
195. Select the correct statement regarding 198. Hypophosphoric acid is prepared by the
IUPAC system of nomenclature reaction of
(1) In alphabetical order prefixes neo and (1) PCl3 + H 3PO3
sec are considered
(2) Red P4 + alkali
(3) White P4 + alkali
(4) H 3PO3 + Br2 + heat
(2) is named as 1 – ethyl – 3, 3 199. Impurities present in crude sodium
– dimethyl cyclohexane chloride are
(1) Na 2SO 4
(2) CaSO 4
(3) is named as 1 –
chloro 2, 4 – dinitro benzene (3) MgCl 2
(4) All of these
200. Match the catalyst with the process:
(4) is named as 2- LIST-1 LIST-2
Hydroxonitrobenzene
(a)Williamsons
196. XeF6 + 2H 2 O → "P"+ 4HF. Shape of "P" (i) C6 H 6 + C2 H5Cl 
AnhydAlCl3
 →
synthesis
is
(b) Hofmann
(1) Distorted tetrahedron Bromamide
(ii) ether
C2 H 5 ONa + C 2 H 5Cl  →
(2) Square pyramidal Degration
(3) Square planar reaction
(4) Bent T-shape (iii) (c)Rosenmunds
197. The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at C2 H5CONH2+ Br2+ KOH 
→ Reduction
the slowest rate, among the following is : (iv) (d) Friedel
(1) lindlars
C2 H 5 − CO − Cl+ H 2  →
catalyst Crafts reaction
Cl aq NaOH OH
Which of the following is the correct
option ?
(2)
Cl
aq NaOH i ii iii iv
OH
aq NaOH (1) c a b d
(3) CH 3CH 2 Cl   → CH 3CH 2 OH
(2) c b a d
(4)
Cl OH
(3) d b a c
aq NaOH (4) d a b c
H 3C H3C

Sri Chaitanya Page 26

 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 21-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 5 KEY

BOTANY

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 1 5) 2 6) 2 7) 4 8) 3 9) 3 10) 1

11) 2 12) 2 13) 1 14) 4 15) 4 16) 4 17) 2 18) 4 19) 1 20) 4

21) 4 22) 2 23) 2 24) 3 25) 2 26) 1 27) 1 28) 1 29) 4 30) 4

31) 3 32) 2 33) 1 34) 1 35) 3 36) 4 37) 2 38) 1 39) 4 40) 1

41) 2 42) 3 43) 2 44) 2 45) 2 46) 2 47) 3 48) 1 49) 1 50) 4
ZOOLOGY

51) 2 52) 4 53) 4 54) 1 55) 2 56) 4 57) 3 58) 4 59) 3 60) 2

61) 4 62) 2 63) 1 64) 2 65) 3 66) 4 67) 1 68) 1 69) 4 70) 3

71) 2 72) 2 73) 4 74) 4 75) 3 76) 4 77) 3 78) 3 79) 4 80) 1

81) 2 82) 4 83) 3 84) 1 85) 2 86) 3 87) 1 88) 1 89) 2 90) 4

91) 2 92) 1 93) 2 94) 4 95) 3 96) 1 97) 4 98) 1 99) 4 100) 3

PHYSICS

101) 1 102) 4 103) 1 104) 2 105) 2 106) 2 107) 3 108) 3 109) 1 110) 1

111) 2 112) 1 113) 3 114) 3 115) 4 116) 1 117) 4 118) 3 119) 2 120) 4

121) 3 122) 4 123) 4 124) 3 125) 1 126) 2 127) 1 128) 4 129) 3 130) 1

131) 2 132) 2 133) 2 134) 1 135) 1 136) 4 137) 2 138) 1 139) 4 140) 2

141) 2 142) 4 143) 1 144) 4 145) 2 146) 2 147) 3 148) 2 149) 2 150) 3

CHEMISTRY

151) 2 152) 4 153) 1 154) 1 155) 1 156) 3 157) 3 158) 3 159) 2 160) 2

161) 1 162) 4 163) 3 164) 4 165) 1 166) 2 167) 4 168) 1 169) 1 170) 4

171) 2 172) 3 173) 4 174) 4 175) 4 176) 3 177) 4 178) 3 179) 2 180) 4

181) 1 182) 2 183) 3 184) 1 185) 1 186) 4 187) 3 188) 3 189) 4 190) 1

191) 1 192) 1 193) 1 194) 3 195) 3 196) 1 197) 4 198) 2 199) 4 200) 4

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
ZOOLOGY 66. SCID is caused by the deficiency of
SECTION – A ‘adenosine deaminase’, This deficiency can
be cured by Bone marrow transplantation,
51. In leaching, water soluble inorganic
Enzyme Replacement therapy and Ex – vivo
nutrients go down in to the soil horizon and
gene therapy.
get precipitated.
67. Number of cervical vertebrae are seven in
52. Remaining biomass or energy left after
almost all mammals.Sternum is a flat bone
utilization of the producer is called as Net
on the ventral midline of the thorax.
Primary Productivity (NPP)
68. Malaria is not an autoimmune whereas rest
53. This is a sequence related question
of all the three are autoimmune
54. 95% of all existing transgenic animals are
69. O-ve is considered as universal donor blood
Mice
group.
55. Pre historic cave art developed about
70. It was due to extra 21st chromosome
18.000 years ago
71. Acrosin released from the spermatozoan
56. In Parasitism, one organism is benefitted
head which locally digest and soften the
(parasite), and other is affected (host).
Zona pellucida.
57. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a
72. Matching pattern
mango branch is an ideal example for
commensalism 73. Multiload – 375 is the copper releasing IUD

58. DNA Fingerprinting has immense 74. ELISA is the technique that serve the
applications in the field of forensic purpose of early diagnosis based on the
sciences, evolutionary biology and genetic purpose of antigen and antibody interaction
biodiversity 75. Proinsulin has A, B and C peptides where
59. In Verhulst Pearl Logistic Growth Curve as functional insulin has only A and B
equation, the ‘K’ stands for Carrying peptides
Capacity 76. Matching model
60. ‘Founders effect’ and ‘Bottle neck effect’ 77. Cephalopods are not chordates.
explains Genetic Drift Urochordates possess open blood vascular
61. Prolactin and Progesteronepromote the system
development of alveoli in mammary glands 78. Matching model
62. The hindgut is wider than the midgut. 79. Human dentition is Thecodont, Heterodont,
63. Parotid glands – Ptyalin, Liver – Bile salts, Diphyodont
Pancreas – Trypsinogen, Gastric glands – 80. Matching model
Pepsinogen 81. Fibrinogen is referred as Blood Clotting
64. Matching model Factor – I.
65. Matching model 82. A single outcross can often help to
overcome inbreeding depression.
83. Dobson Unit is meant to measure the
thickness of ozone

Sri Chaitanya Page 2

84. Except the options1, the remaining 3 are not 2 y 2 = 4x2
completely curable.
y= 2x
85. If both the parents are heterozygous for an
103. Horizontal component of velocity is same,
autosomal recessive disorder, the
vertical component changes
probability to acquire the disease is 25%
104. I = m [ V − U]
86. The total volume of air a person can expire
after a normal inspiration is Expiratory  3
I = 2 0 − 
Capacity  4
87. According to Allen’s Rule, Mammals from = - 1.5

 

colder climate generally have shorter ears 105. L = r × P
and limbs to minimize heat loss 106. Conceptual
88. Matching model 107. P1 = n 3P
89. Oxytocin is released from the posterior dω
108. P =
pituitary and is actually synthesized by dt
hypothalamus d 1
90. Visual activity or resolution is highest at the = × m  k 2 r 2 t 2 
dt 2
fovea centralis
91. Matching model = mk 2 tr 2
92. Matching model 5V 2V
109. =
93. Liver is the main centre for the synthesis of 4ℓ c 2ℓ op
urea.
ℓ op 2
94. Fluid connective tissue is completely =
devloid of fibres ℓc 5
95. Catla and Rohu are very common 200 × 20 × 10−2
freshwater edible fishes. 110. V=
2.5
96. Honeybee belongs to phylum Arthropoda,
class Insecta or Hexapoda and order 20 × 10−2
t=
Hymenoptera 4
97. Matching model 111. Conceptual
98. Among the invertebrates, the colour is 112. ( µ1 − 1) A = ( µ 2 − 1) A
given by pigment, but present dissolved in
0.42 × 10
plasma. = 6°
0.7
99. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, Human
Placental Lactogen and Relaxinare t t
113. 5 = 1 3= 2
produced in women only during pregnancy 1.5 1.5
100. Cervix canal is located between Uterus and t1 = 7.5 t 2 = 4.5
Vagina t = t1 + t 2 = 12cm
PHYSICS 114. Conceptual
SECTION-A
3 × λ ×1
101. E ∝ Fa T b V c 115. 5 × 10−3 =
0.3 × 10−3
a c
MLT −2 =  MLT −1  [ T ]  LT −1 
b
= 5000 A o

(
102. y 2 + x 2 = 3 y 2 − x 2 ) 116. I =
I 3
×
2 4
Sri Chaitanya Page 3
 3 131. Each vibrational mode has two degrees of
= freedom.
8
117. Conceptual 132. m ( 540 + 10 ) = 55 × 60
118. Conceptual 55 × 60
m= = 6 ⇒ mmixture = 61g
119. υescape = 2 υorbit ⇒ υ = 2 V 1
550
133. P = Mv
1
( )
2
KE = m 2V = mυ2 134. Conceptual
2 135. Conceptual
120. Conceptual
SECTION – B
πR2
121. t =
A 2
a g
( h1 − h 2 = ) π r2
2
g
h 136. Magnetic field at the location of coil (2)
µ o 2M
produced to due to coil (1) B1 = .
R2 2h 4π l 3
= Flux linked with coil (2)
r2 g
µ o 2I πa
2
( )
122. M1 = i xA = i ×
x
2π y
× π y2 φ2 = B1A 2 =
4π l 3
× πa 2 ( )
( 2π y n = x ) Also φ2 = MI ⇒ M = o 3
µ πa 4
y 2l
M2 = i × × π x2 137. Kmax = h ν − hν 0 ⇒ eV0 = h ν − h ν 0 ⇒
2π x
h hν
2π x n = y V0 = ν− 0
e e

M1 1 Comparing this equation with y = mx + c , we

= h
M2 1 get slope m= ⇒ h = m ×e
e
123. Conceptual
λ1
1 1 1 1 1 138. = e−2 λt
124. = + + + λ2
R eff 2R 2R R R
1
2R = e − 2 λt
e
R e −1 = e−2 λt
1
R t=
2λ
C D
m
139. 1000 × 103 = × 9 × 1016
3600
2R
m = 4 × 10−8 kg = 4 × 10−5 g = 40 µg
2R R
R eff = = 140. Conceptual
6 3
141. 10 − IC × 103 − 5 = 0
 2
125. I = 1  5 mA = I C
 4
126. Conceptual 5 × 10−3
100 =
127. Conceptual IB
Sol. Conceptual 5 × 10−3
129. Conceptual IB =
100
130. Conceptual
Sri Chaitanya Page 4
 5 1
10 = × RB 156. Rate of diffusion α
105 M
+
R B = 2 × 105 Ω 157. MnO−4 + FeC2O4  → Mn 2+ + Fe3+ + CO2
H

5 × 10−3 (n − f ) for KMnO4 = 5

10 − × RB = 0
100 (n − f ) FeC2 O4 = 3
142. Conceptual ∴
P 1 → 5 FeC 2 O 4  0.5× 5 = 2.5 = 0.83
3MnO−4 
143. = εo t 2 × c 
4πr 2
2 0.5 
→?  3 3

P 158. In CH 2 Cl2 the oxidation number of C = O

L=
2 π r 2c εo 159.
1 1
H 2 + Cl2  → HCl
2 2
T2 50 280
144. η = 1 − ⇒ = 1− ⇒ T1 = 560 K 104   58 
T1 100 T1 ∆H =   +   −103 = −22
 2   2 
∴ T11 − T1 = 933 − 560 = 373K
160. Conceptual
= 100°C 161. Conceptual
145. Irms = I1 + I2 = 4 + 36 = 40 = 5 × 4 = 2 5
2 2
162. Conceptual
2 2 2 163. NH 4 Cl = salt of WB and SA
r1 r2 2R × R 164. Conceptual. Excess of Ca (OH )2 can cause
146. C = 4 π εo = 4 πεo = 8 πε o R
r2 − r1 R Hardness to water
I 1 6 1000
147. Slope = = = Tan 30 165. m = × = 1m
V R 60 100
1 1 ∆p WL M 18 18
R= = 3Ω 166. = o = × = ×
Tan 30 100 P M1 W x 90
148. Conceptual 1 18 18
= × = 180
149. All the three plates will produce electric 100 x 90 5
field at P along negative y – axis. Hence, 167. Conceptual
  σ 2σ σ  ˆ 168.
Ep = 
2 ε
+
2 ε
+
2 ε0 
( )
 −j
1 1 
 0 0
A = 8× + 6× = 4
L α + L 2α 2 Lα + 2L 2α 8 2 
 Initially the formula = AB
150. α av = 1 1 = 1 
L1 + L 2 L + 2L B = 12× + 1 = 4 
4 
5α 1 1 
= A = 8× + 4× = 3
3 8 2 
 A 3 B4
CHEMISTRY 1 
B = 12× + 1 = 4 
SECTION – A 4 
151. Conceptual 169. H 3 PO 2
152. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s1 n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0 170. Most stable oxidation state of all the
153. EN = F > O lanthanoids is +3
2−
IP2 = O > N 171. [ NiCl 4 ] sp3 ,  Ni (CO)  sp3 ,
 4 

154. Conceptual  Ni (CN ) 

2−

 4 
dsp2
155. σ B.M.O has no nodal plane
Sri Chaitanya Page 5
172. Aminoglycosides and Ofloxacin are the 184. Quartz (SiO2)
bactericidal antibiotics. 185. Aniline (I) > Benzene (II) > Nitrobenzene
Tetracycline and Chloramphenicol are the (III)
bacteriostatic antibiotics. → Mg 2+ + 2F− , E o cell = 2.87 + 2.36
186. Mg + F2 
173. Glucose, Maltose and Lactose are reducing (0.01) (0.01) = 5.23v
sugars 0.06
174. Novolac EMF = 5.23 − log10−2 + log10−4
2
OH −0.06
= 5.23 ×−6
COOH 2
187. 1 F can produce 1G.E.W of the substance
188. t ½ is independent of Initial conc.
175. (1) (Major)
3H 2  → 2NH 3  2x
OH 189. 
x  →?  3

190. Coagulation value and charge on the cation
are inversely related
191. Conceptual
COOH
(Major) 192. Po = Has simple cubic lattice
(2)
193. Prussian blue colour compound is
COOH
Fe4 Fe ( CN )6 
3
(3)
OH 194. Agricultural run off

CHO 195. 1) In alphabetical order prefixes neo and iso

are considered
2) 3 – ethyl – 1, 1 – dimethyl cyclohexane
(4) (Major)
176. 1o amine reacts with Hinsbergs reagent and 4) 2-nitrophenol
give an alkali soluble product. 196. XeF6 + 2H 2 O → XeO 2 F2 + 4HF .
CH3 CH3
Cu XeO 2 F2 has distorted tetrahedron shape.
CH3 − C − CH3 
573 K → CH3 − C = CH 2
197. Aryl halide doesn’t show nucleophilic
177. OH
substitution reactions.
CH2 − I OH
198. Red P4 + alkali 
→ H 4 P2 O6
178. and
179. Na2O – Basic; As2O3 – Amphoteric 199. Impurities present in crude NaCl are
NO – Neutral; SO3 – Acidic Na 2SO 4 , CaSO 4 , MgCl2 and CaCl2 .
180. PdCl2 – Wacker process; 200. Named reactions
Fe – Haber’s process
Ni – Hydrogenation of fats;
Pt/Rh – Ostwald’s process
181. Stability ⇒ 1 > 3 > 2 > 4

182. ‘A’ is CH ≡ CH ‘B’ is

183. B2 H 6 ⇒ B hybridization is sp3.
Sri Chaitanya Page 6
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL DATE: 26-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 6 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY (4) Grasses

SECTION –A 6. Which of the following has reserve food
1. Kingdom plantae comprises all plants material which is very similar to
from various amylopectin ?
(1) Phyla (1) Ectocarpus
(2) Sub species (2) Gracilaria
(3) Divisions (3) Volvox
(4) Domains (4) Ulothrix
2. Cell wall is completely absent in 7. Match the following
(1) Rhizobium A) Mono adelphous I) China rose
(2) Chlamydomonas B) Diadelphous II) Pea
(3) Trichoderma C) Polyadelphous III) Citrus
(4) Mycoplasma D) Staminode IV) Sterile stamen
3. Incorrect regarding prothallus of A B C D
pteridophytes (1) I II III IV
(1) Mostly photosynthetic (2) II III I IV
(2) Multi cellular free living (3) I III IV II
(3) Haploid (4) II III IV I
(4) Bears roots 8. Obtaining sole rights for a innovation (or)
4. Bisexual monoecious gymnospermic novel creation of biological products is
plant is (1) Biopiracy
(1) Pinus (2) Biopatent
(2) Cycas (3) Bioremediation
(3) Cocos (4) Biofortification
(4) Maize 9. Which of the following is adapter
5. First organisms to colonise bare rock in molecule ?
xerosere are (1) mRNA
(1) Lichens (2) rRNA
(2) Pteridophytes (3) SnRNA
(3) Some gymnosperms (4) tRNA
Sri Chaitanya
Page 1
10. Taq polymerase is 15. Match the following
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase A) Mitochondria I) Store oil
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase B) Amyloplasts II) Store proteins
C) Aleuroplasts III) Store starch
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
D) Elaioplasts IV) Power Houses
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
of the Cell
11. Identify “A” in the following diagram A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) II III I IV
(3) IV III I II
(4) IV III II I
16. Proteins encoded by gene cry I Ab control
(1) Corn borer
(2) Cotton boll worms
(1) Central cylinder (3) Flies
(4) Mosquitoes
(2) Protoderm
17. Carrier protein transporting glucose into
(3) Periblem
cells is
(4) Plerome (1) Aquaporins
12. The term chromatin was coined by (2) Porins
(1) Robert Brown (3) GLUT-4
(2) Robert Hooke (4) Inulin
(3) Flemming 18. Dietary proteins are source of
(1) Non – essential aminoacids
(4) R.Virchow
(2) Essential aminoacids
13. Cyanophycean granules is reserve food
(3) Non – essential lipids
material in
(4) Essential fattyacids
(1) Protozoans
19. In which succession climax reached
(2) Archaebacteria faster?
(3) Cyanobacteria (1) Succession on bare rock
(4) Protista (2) Succession on burned forest
14. The following helps in DNA replication (3) Succession on newly cooled lava
and distribution to daughter cells in (4) All of these
bacteria 20. Sister chromatids of a homologous
(1) Mesosome chromosome move to opposite poles in
(1) Metaphase
(2) Slime layer
(2) Telophase
(3) Pili (3) Anaphase II
(4) Nucleoid (4) Anaphase I

Sri Chaitanya
Page 2
21. Match the following 27. The following are essential for reduction
A) Diplotene I) Terminalisation phase in Calvin cycle
B) Diakinesis II) Chiasmata (A) CO 2 (B) ATP
C) Zygotene III) Crossing over (C) NADPH + H + (D) O 2
D) Pachytene IV) Synapsis (1) BC
A B C D (2) AB
(1) III IV II I (3) CD
(2) IV II III I (4) BD
(3) II IV III I 28. Number of CO 2 molecules released
(4) II I IV III during glycolysis of glucose molecule is
22. Distribution of cell organelles occurs in (1) 2
(1) S phase of interphase (2) 1
(2) Cytokinesis (3) 3
(4) zero
(3) Karyokinesis
29. “Cells/tissues arising out of the same
(4) G1 sub phase of interphase meristem have different structures at
23. Which of the following is a palindromic maturity” the above statement explains
sequence ? (1) Heterophylly
(1) 5'-CGTATG - 3' (2) Plasticity
(2) 5'-CGAATG-3' (3) Dedifferentiation is open
(3) 5'GAATTC-3' (4) Differentiation is open
(4) 5'-GACTAC-3' 30. Element which is not found in ferredoxin
is
24. Guanine is
(1) Fe
(1) Nucleoside
(2) S
(2) Nitrogen base
(3) Mg
(3) Nucleotide (4) N
(4) Nucleic acid 31. The term ‘totipotency’ refers to the
25. Identify the chemoautotrophs capacity of a
(1) Nitrobacter (1) living plant cell to produce a whole
(2) Nitrococcus plant
(3) Nitrosomonas (2) scleried to generate whole plant
(3) seed to germinate
(4) All the above
(4) cell to enlarge in size
26. Unrelated to Cladophora is
32. The ploidy of perisperm is
(1) Belongs to Chlorophyceae (1) n
(2) Unicellular alga (2) 2n
(3) T.W Engelmann used in first action (3) 3n
spectrum (4) 4n
(4) Flagellated gametes
Sri Chaitanya
Page 3
33. Dry fruit is present in (1) Acid insoluble pool roughly
(1) Mango represents cytoplasmic composition
(2) Apple (2) Organelles are a part of acid soluble
(3) Coconut pool
(4) Brassica (3) Most abundant chemical in living
34. Example for incomplete dominance is organisms are proteins
(1) Human skin colour (4) Lipids are not strictly macromolecules
(2) Height of pea plant
39. If a root cell has 24 chromosomes, then
(3) Flower colour in snapdragon
the number of chromosomes the first cell
(4) Shape of seed in pea
of male gametophyte of that plant is
35. Who told for the first time that replication
(1) 24
of DNA is semi conservative ?
(1) Meselson & Stahl (2) 6
(2) Watson & Crick (3) 12
(3) J.Cairans (4) 18
(4) J.H.Taylor 40. Identify the mismatch
SECTION – B (1) Symport – Both molecules cross the
36. Unrelated to monocot stem is membrane in the same direction
(1) Vascular bundle is surrounded by (2) Facilitated diffusion – uphill transport
sclerenchymatous bundle sheath (3) Antiport – Both molecules move in
(2) Vascular bundles are conjoint and opposite directions
closed (4) Uniport – A molecule moves across a
(3) Water containing cavities are present membrane independent of other
within the vascular bundles molecules
(4) Hypodermis is made up of living 41. Match the Columns-I and II and
mechanical tissue identify correct match from the codes
37. given below.
Type / Nature of Example Column-I Column-II
aminoacid A) Earthworm I) Dioecious
A) Acidic I) Tyrosine flowering plant
B) Basic II) Lysine B) Chara II) Bisexual animal
C) Neutral III) Valine C) Marchantia III) Dioecious
bryophyte
D) Aromatic IV) Glutamic acid
D) Date palm IV) Monoecious alga
A B C D
Codes :
(1) III IV II I
A B C D
(2) IV II III I
(1) II IV III I
(3) II IV III I
(2) II III I IV
(4) III II IV I
(3) III IV II I
38. Identify the correct statement from the
(4) I II III IV
following

Sri Chaitanya
Page 4
42. Identify the correct statement regarding (2) Not grow on either tetracycline
introns containing or ampicillin containing media
(1) Are common in organisms which (3) Grow on tetracycline but not on
form polycistronic m RNA ampicillin containing medium
(2) Are significant as they code for (4) Grow on ampicillin but not on
protein synthesis tetracycline containing medium
46. Select the mismatch pair
(3) Do not undergo translation
(1) Phenylalanine-UUU
(4) Get rejoined by DNA ligase during
(2) Serine – UCU
splicing
(3) Tryptophan – UGA
43. The number of amino acids getting
(4) Glycine – GGU
linked into a polypeptide during
47. Statement – I : NADH is oxidised to
translation following the mRNA with
polypeptide sequence NAD + rather slowly in fermentation,
5' ----AUG CUC UUU UCU UAA ---- 3' however the reaction is very vigorous in
will be case of aerobic respiration
Statement – II : The NADH synthesized
(1) Two
in glycolysis is transferred into the
(2) Four mitochondria and undergoes oxidative
(3) Five phosphorylation
(4) One (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
44. During primary treatment, all solids that wrong
settle forms ____ A ___ and the (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
supernatant forms ___B___ are true
(1) A- Primary sludge; B –effluent (3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
(2) A- Primary sludge; B – secondary wrong
effluent (4) Both statement – I and statement – II
(3) A- Activated sludge; B-clarified
are correct
effluent
48. Assertion (A) : In Angiosperms
(4) A –Activated sludge; B-effluent endosperm formation precedes embryo
45. A foreign DNA fragment is attached to development
Cla I site of pBR 322. This recombinant Reason (R) : In Angiosperms endosperm
vector is used to transform Escherichia is post fertilization product and triploid
coli. Then bacterial cells transferred on (1) A and R are true and R is the correct
two different media, one containing explanation of A.
ampicillin and the other containing (2) A and R are true and R is not the
tetracycline. The transformed cells correct explanation of A.
containing the recombinant vector will
(3) A is true, R is false.
(1) Grow on both, tetracycline and (4) Both A and R are false.
ampicillin containing media
Sri Chaitanya
Page 5
49. Triple response test is shown by _____ (4) It promotes formation of hydrogen
phytohormone bonds in the place of covalent bonds
(1) Auxins among fibrin threads
(2) Gibberellins 55. Biomass of tigers in a forest is
(3) Cytokinins (1) Greater than the biomass of deer
(4) Ethylene (2) Greater than the biomass of producers
50. Cork cambium in dicot root arises from (3) Lesser than the biomass of deer
(4) Equal to the biomass of producers
(1) Endodermis
56. Humification leads to accumulation of a
(2) Pericycle
dark coloured amorphous substance
(3) Conjuctive tissue
called humus that is
(4) Epidermis (1) Undergoing decomposition at an
ZOOLOGY extremely fast rate
SECTION – A (2) Highly resistant to microbial action
51. Ascending limb of loop of Henle helps in (3) Degraded by some microbes and
(1) Synthesis of urea release of complex organic nutrients
(2) Secretion of urea (4) Degraded by detritivores into smaller
(3) Secretion of Ca2+ organic particles
(4) Active transportation of glucose and 57. During embryonic development three
amino acids primary germ layers are differentiated
52. Choose the incorrect match. from
(1) Spongilla – Extracellular digestion (1) Hypoblast
(2) Sepia – Closed type of circulation (2) Trophoblast
(3) Ancylostoma - Pseudocoelom (3) Chorion
(4) Locusta – Open type of circulation (4) Inner cell mass of embryo
53. Regions with very high levels of species 58. The measure of population density of
richness, high degree of endemism, tigers in a national park is
accelerated habitat loss and require (1) Indirect count
maximum protection are called (2) Relative densities
(1) Sacred groves (3) Biomass
(2) National parks (4) Sex ratio
59. The optic nerves leave the eye and the
(3) Biodiversity hotspots
retinal blood vessels enter it at a point
(4) Zoological parks
A to and slightly B the C pole of
54. Which of the following is true about
thrombokinase? the eye ball.
(1) It activates heparin In the above, A, B and C respectively are
(2) It activates fibrin to form as (1) Medial, below and posterior
fibrinogen (2) Anterior, below and posterior
(3) Medial, above and posterior
(3) It activates prothrombin into thrombin
(4) Medial, above and anterior

Sri Chaitanya
Page 6
60. In some children, ADA deficiency can be (4) Lumen of gut of mosquito
cured by 65. Select the vector-borne helminth disease
(1) Radiotherapy in the following
(2) Giving nutrient supplement (1) Filariasis
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Bone marrow transplantation
(3) Chikungunya
(4) Antibiotics
(4) Malaria
61. Which of the following allows the 66. Brain capacity of the first human-like
desirable qualities of two different breeds being was
to be combined ?
(1) 1400 cc
(1) Inbreeding (2) 900 cc
(2) Cross-breeding (3) 1650 cc
(3) Species hybridisation (4) 650 – 800 cc
(4) Out-crossing 67. The process in which heritable variations
enabling better survival are enabled to
62. Statement-I : Radiation that is given off
reproduce and leave greater number of
by nuclear waste is extremely damaging
progeny is called
to organisms.
(1) Natural selection
Statement-II : This radiation causes
(2) Genetic drift
mutations at a very high rate
(3) Gene flow
(1) Statement-I & II are true, Statement-
(4) Mutation
II explains Statement-I
68. Different structures evolving for the same
(2) Statement-I & II are true, Statement- function in
II does not explain Statement-I (1) Adaptive radiation
(3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II (2) Convergent evolution
is false (3) Divergent evolution
(4) Common ancestry
(4) Statement-I & II are false
69. Among humans, how much percent of
63. Which of the following acts as a filter of
base sequence of the genome is the same?
the blood by trapping blood-borne
(1) 99.9
microorganisms?
(2) 50
(1) Thymus (3) 0.01
(2) Spleen (4) 2
(3) Red bone marrow 70. The affected individual with trisomy of
(4) Epiphysis of bone 23 (Karyotype of 47, XXY) shows all the
64. Formation of gametocytes of Plasmodium following features except
occurs in (1) Congenital heart disease
(1) RBC of man (2) Sterility
(2) Liver cells of man (3) Tall stature and gynaecomastia
(4) Overall masculine development
(3) Gut wall of mosquito
Sri Chaitanya
Page 7
71. In cockroach, which of the following is 76. Hormone that binds with intracellular
related to the Gizzard? receptor is
(1) It is the main site of absorption of (1) Adrenaline
nutrients
(2) Aldosterone
(2) It secretes amylases, proteases and
lipases (3) Oxytocin
(3) It is lined by only endoderm (4) FSH
(4) It has an outer layer of thick circular
77. Which of the following is not related to
muscles and thick inner cuticle forming
cortisol ?
six highly chitinous plates called teeth
(1) It inhibits gluconeogenesis
72. Oral contraceptive pills of progestogen -
estrogen combinations do not affect (2) It stimulates proteolysis

(1) Spermiogenesis (3) It stimulates RBC production

(2) Entry of sperms into uterus (4) It suppresses the immune response

(3) Ovulation 78. Hepatitis B vaccine is

(4) Quality of cervical mucus (1) Toxoid vaccine

73. Find out the steroid hormone which is in (2) Inactivated whole agent vaccine
more amounts by the end of follicular (3) Produced from yeast
phase of menstrual cycle (4) Attenuated whole agent vaccine
(1) Progesterone 79. Repolarisation of an axon occurs mainly
(2) LH due to
(3) Inhibin (1) Influx to K+
(4) Estrogen (2) Out flux of K+
74. In human, secondary spermatocytes are (3) Out flux of Na+
formed by (4) Influx of Na+
(1) Second maturation division 80. Glisson’s capsule
(2) Meiosis – II (1) Surrounds glomerulus
(3) Reduction division (2) Is made of hepatocytes
(4) Mitosis (3) Covers adrenal gland
75. In which of the following sets, one animal (4) Covers hepatic lobules
species benefited and the other animal
81. Choose the oviparous homeotherms
species is neither harmed nor benefited?
(1) Pterophyllum and Aptenodytes
(1) Dog – Copepod
(2) Ichthyophis and Macropus
(2) Orchid – Bumblebee
(3) Platypus and Pteropus
(3) Cuscuta – Hedge plant
(4) Ornithorhynchus and Struthio
(4) Sea anemone – Clown fish
Sri Chaitanya
Page 8
82. Match the following (1) Desertification
A) Tendons and i) Areolar (2) Soil erosion
ligaments connective tissue (3) Reduction in CO2 pollution in the
ii) Dense irregular atmosphere
B) Dermis of skin
tissue (4) Disturbs hydrological cycle
iii) Areolar and 87. Study the following statements.
C) Subcutaneous
adipose connective a) Specialised skeletal connective tissues
layer
tissue include cartilage and bone.
D) Supporting b) In all connective tissues, the cells
iv) Dense regular
framework for secrete fibres and these cells also secrete
connective tissue
epithelium modified polysaccharides
A B C D c) Compound epithelium has a limited
(1) ii iv i iii role in secretion and absorption.
(2) iv ii i iii d) Salivary glands are the multicellular
(3) i ii iv iii glands.
(4) iv ii iii i In the above,
83. The difference between pO2 of blood in
(1) All are true except b
pulmonary vein and pO2 of blood in
(2) All are false except c
pulmonary artery is about
(3) All are true except a
(1) 45 mm Hg
(4) All are true except d
(2) 40 mm Hg
88. Statement – I : Strength of ventricular
(3) 64 mm Hg
contraction is increased by sympathetic
(4) 55 mm Hg
division of ANS.
84. In a skeletal myofibril, thin filaments are
Statement – II : Cardiac output is
found in
increased by catecholamines.
(1) Only A – band
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(2) Only I – band
(2) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
(3) H – zone
(3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(4) A-band and I-band
(4) Both statement I and II are wrong
85. Find out the movable unpaired bone in
89. A stable biotic community should not
human body
show
(1) Incus
(1) Resistant or resilient to occassional
(2) Scapula disturbances
(3) Sphenoid (2) Resistant to invasions by alien species
(4) Mandible (3) Less year-to-year variation in total
SECTION – B biomass
86. Which of the following is not a (4) Too much variation in productivity
consequence of deforestation? from year to year
Sri Chaitanya
Page 9
90. Psilophyton is the common ancestor for (1) Decreased intrapulmonary pressure
(1) Seed ferns, conifers and bryophytes (2) Increased pulmonary volume
(2) Gymnosperms, ferns and horsetails (3) Increased thoracic volume
(3) Cycads, gnetales and lycopods (4) Increased intrapulmonary pressure
(4) Sphenopsids, cycads and bryophytes 95. Secretion of ANF from the atria of the
91. Kyoto Protocol was signed in 1997 to heart results in
(1) Protect aquatic species from the (1) Increased BP
biomagnification (2) Vasoconstriction
(2) Protect earth from global warming (3) Increased reabsorption of Na+ and
(3) Protect wetlands water
(4) Control the emission of ozone (4) Vasodilation
depleting substances 96. A large quantity of urban sewage is
92. Study the following statements regarding drained to a nearby river. Which among
cockroach. the given conditions would happen after
a) A pair of vas deferens open into mixing of sewage into the river ?
ejaculatory duct through seminal vesicle. a. BOD of receiving water body increases
b) The sperms are stored in the seminal b. DO of receiving water body decreases
vesicles and are glued together in the c. It will not cause mortality among fishes
form of bundles called spermatophores. and other aquatic creatures
c) Layers of spermatophore capsule are d. It will lead to nutrient enrichment of
formed by the secretions of utriculi receiving water body
majors, ejaculatory duct and phallic (1) a, b and c
gland. (2) a, b and d
d) A pair of spermathecae in female store (3) b and c
fertilized eggs. (4) c and d
Which of the above are correct? 97. Find out the correct inter chain S-S
(1) c and d linkage in human insulin
(2) a, c and d (1) A19 – B20
(3) a, b and c (2) A7 – B6
(4) b, c and d (3) A6 – A11
93. GIFT is attempted to female who (4) A20 – B19
(1) Can not provide suitable environment 98. The structural differences in genitalia of
for fertilization individuals belonging to different animal
(2) Can not produce ovum species interfere with mating, it is called
(3) Can not provide suitable environment (1) Mechanical isolation
for implantation (2) Gametic isolation
(4) Is having normal ovarian cycles (3) Behavioural isolation
94. In human, contraction of internal (4) Temporal isolation
intercostal muscles causes
Sri Chaitanya Page
10
99. Statement-I : The epithelial cells of the boat to cross the river along the
Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are shortest path.
arranged in an intricate manner so as to
(1) 96s
leave some minute spaces called filtration
slits or slit pores. (2) 160s
Statement-II : The first step of urine
(3) 240s
formation (glomerular filtration) is a non-
(4) 120s
selective process.
103. A circular platform of radius ‘r’ is
(1) Statement-I & II are true rotating at frequency ‘n’. A small coin
(2) Statement-I & II are false kept at a distance equal to half of its
(3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II radius is ready to slip. The same coin will
is false just slip, when it is at a distance of ‘2r/3’
from the centre on another platform of
(4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II
radius ‘2r’, rotating at frequency
is true
‘3n’.Then ratio between coefficients of
100. Desert lizards bask in the Sun and absorb friction in two cases is
heat when their body temperature drops (1) 12:1
below the comfort zone, this is (2) 1:9
(1) Morphological adaptation (3) 9:1
(2) Physiological adaptation (4) 1:12
104. Assertion (A) : A player lower his hands
(3) Behavioural adaptation
while catching a cricket ball to reduce
(4) Anatomical adaptation impulsive force.
PHYSICS Reason (R) : With increase in time of
SECTION – A action, the impulsive force increases.
101. Two trains travelling at 12 ms-1 and the (1) A and R are true and R is the correct
other at 20 ms-1are headed towards one explanation of A
another along a straight track. Both the (2) A and R are true and R is not the
drivers apply brakes simultaneously when correct explanation of A
they are 500m apart. If each train has a (3) A is true, R is false
retardation of 1ms-2, the separation after (4) A is false, R is true
they stop is 105. A lift carries a person with a weighing
(1) 192.5m machine in it up and down with the same
(2) 425m constant acceleration. The weights
(3) 244m recorded by the machine are in the ratio
(4) 355.5m 5:3. The acceleration of the lift is
(1) 2.45ms−2
102. A boat which can move with a speed of
5m/s relative to water crosses a river of (2) 3.33ms −2
width 480m flowing with a constant (3) 2.67 ms −2
speed of 4m/s. What is the time taken by (4) 4.95 ms-2

Sri Chaitanya Page

11
106. A uniform disc of mass 300 kg is rotating 109. Two black bodies P and Q are emitting
freely about a vertical axis through its radiations with maximum intensities at
centre at a constant angular velocity ω0 . wavelengths in the ratio 1 : 2. The total
A boy of mass 30 kg starts from the energies radiated per second per unit area
centre and moves along a radius to the by them will be in the ratio of
edge of the disc. Angular velocity of the (1) 2 : 1
disc will now become (2) 4 : 1
ω0 (3) 16 : 1
(1) (4) 1 : 16
6
110. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.5. If a
ω0
(2) uniform rod of same material suffers a
5
longitudinal strain of 2 × 10−3 , what is the
4ω 0
(3) percentage increase in its volume?
6
(1) 2%
5ω 0
(4) (2) 4%
6 (3) 0%
107. A disc at rest at the top of the inclined (4) 5%
plane of height ‘h’ rolls down without 111. When a capillary tube of radius 2mm is
slipping and acquires a velocity ‘v’ on placed in a liquid, the mass of liquid
reaching the bottom. If the same disc raised is found to be 2g. If the angle of
slides down a smooth incline and acquires contact between the material of tube and
the same velocity on reaching the bottom liquid is 370 and density of liquid is
then the height of smooth incline is 0.8gcc-1 then surface tension of the liquid
(1) h/3 is nearly
(2) h/2 (1) 1.5 N/m
2h (2) 2N/m
(3) (3) 3 N/m
3
(4) 4 N/m
(4) h 112. A kerosene tank has kerosene up to a
108. An accurate pendulum clock is mounted height of 4 m. There is a hole of 1 cm2
on ground floor of a high building. How cross-section at the bottom through which
much time it lose or gain in one day if it it leaks. The initial leak will be at the rate
is transferred to stop story of a building of V cc/min. After half of the tank is
which is 200 m higher than the ground emptied the rate of leak of kerosene from
floor? (Radius of earth is 6.4 × 106 m). tank in cc/min will be
(1) it will lose 6.2 s (1) V
(2) V/2
(2) it will lose 2.7 s
(3) 3V
(3) it will gain 5.2 s V
(4) it will gain 1.6 s (4) 2

Sri Chaitanya Page

12
113. A container has N molecules at absolute (1) 4 cm
temperature T. If the number of (2) 40 cm
molecules is doubled but kinetic energy
(3) 44 cm
of gas in the box remains the same as
before, the absolute temperature of the (4) 440 cm
gas is 118. In a double slit experiment, interference
(1) T is obtained from electron waves produced
(2) T/2 in an electron gun supplied with voltage
(3) 2T V. If λ is wavelength of the beam, D is
(4) zero the distance of screen, d is the spacing
114. A particle of mass 10 g is executing between coherent source, h is Planck’s
simple harmonic motion with an constant, e is charge on electron and m is
amplitude of 0.5 m and periodic time of mass of electron, then fringe width is
(π/5) seconds. The maximum value of the given as
force acting on the particle is hD
(1)
(1) 25 N 2meV d
(2) 5 N 2hD
(2)
(3) 2.5 N meV d
(4) 0.5 N (3) hd
115. The linear density of a vibrating string is 2meV D

10-4 kg/m. A transverse wave is (4) 2hd

meV D
propagating on the string, which is
described by the equation y=0.02 sin (x + 119. If in the experiment of diffraction at a
30t) where x and y are in meters and the single slit, the width of slit is equal to
time t is in seconds. The tension in the twice the wavelength of light used, the
string is angle of diffraction for the first minimum
(1) 0.09 N will be
(2) 0.36 N (1) 30o
(3) 0.9 N (2) 45o
(4) 3.6 N (3) 60o
116. The angle of polarization of material of a
transparent slab is 600. If a light ray is (4) 90o
incident on the slab at a glancing angle 120. A hollow insulated conducting sphere of
300 then the angle of deviation of radius 20 cm is given a charge q. The
reflected ray is electric field at a point 10 cm from the
(1) 300 surface of the sphere is 50 V/m. The
(2) 600 electric potential at a distance 10 cm from
(3) 450 center of the sphere is
(4) 00 (1) zero
117. An astronomical telescope of tenfold (2) 45V
angular magnification has a length of (3) 22.5V
44cm. The focal length of the objective is (4) 90V
Sri Chaitanya Page
13
121. Match the following string when the temperature of water is
A. Radio waves p. green house effect changed is (Ignore thermal expansion of
q. production of the body)
B. Micro waves
melanin (1) > T from 0oC to 4oC only
C. Infrared r. communication in (2) always T
waves cellular phones (3) <T for any temperature other than 4oC
D. Ultra violet s. raise of temperature (4) >T for any temperature other than 4oC
rays of food containg water 125. A beam of ions with velocity 2×105 ms-1
(1) A-p; B-q; C-r; D-s enters normally into a uniform magnetic
(2) A-r; B-s; C-p; D-q field of 4×10-2 T. If the specific charge of
(3) A-r; B-p; C-s; D-q the ions is 5×107 C kg-1, the radius of the
(4) A-q; B-p; C-s; D-r circular path described will be
122. A parallel plate capacitor with the (1) 0.10 m
distance between the plates d is charged (2) 0.16 m
to potential V and disconnected from the (3) 0.20 m
battery. The intensity of electric field (4) 0.25 m
between the plates is E. Now if the 126. A current of 2 ampere produces a
distance between the plates is increased to deflection of 30o in a tangent
2d, the electric field will be galvanometer. A deflection of 60o will be
(1) E produced in it by a current of
(2) 2E (1) 1A
(3) E/2 (2) 3A
(4) nothing can be predicted (3) 4A
123. For the circuit shown in the adjoining (4) 6A
figure, if the charge on 4µF capacitor is 127. The power factor for series L-C-R circuit
24µC then energy stored in 3µF capacitor at resonance is
is (1) 1
1
(2)
2
1
(3)
2
(4) 0
128. A milliammeter of range 10 mA has a
coil of resistance 1Ω. To use it as a
(1) 300µJ voltmeter of range 10 V, the resistance
(2) 150µJ that must be connected in with it is
(3) 200µJ (1) 9Ω in series
(4) 100µJ (2) 99Ω in parallel
124. A body suspended in water with the help (3) 999Ω in series
of a string. Tension in the string when (4) 999Ω in parallel
water is at 40C is T. The tension in the

Sri Chaitanya Page

14
129. The average e.m.f. induced in a coil when (3) Independent of n
a current changes from 0 to 2A in 0.05
(4) None
sec is 8V. If a current of 0.5 A flows
through the coil then energy stored in the 134. In the combination of logic gates shown
coil is in the circuit. If A is at 0 V and B is at 5
(1) 25 mJ V, then the potential of R is
(2) 50 mJ
(3) 12.5 mJ
(4) 100 mJ
130. A capacitor, an inductor and an electric
bulb are connected in series to an AC
(1) 0 V
supply of variable frequency. If the
(2) 5 V
frequency of the supply is increased (3) 10 V
gradually, then the electric bulb is found
(4) 20 V
to
135. On a T-P diagram, two moles of ideal gas
(1) increase in brightness
perform process AB and CD. If the work
(2) decrease in brightness
done by the gas in the process AB is two
(3) increase, reach a maximum and then times the work done in the process CD
decrease in brightness
then what is the value of T1/T2 ?
(4) show no change in brightness
131. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) The stopping potential increases with
increasing intensity of incident light
(2) The saturated photocurrent increases
with increasing intensity of light (1) 0.5
(3) The saturated photocurrent is (2) 1
proportional to applied voltage (3) 2
(4) The current in a photocell increases (4) 4
with increasing frequency of light SECTION – B
132. The energy that should be added to an 136. A body projected at an angle other than
electron to reduce its de–Broglie 900 rises to a height of 40m in 2sec. Then
wavelength from 1nm to 0.5 nm is the additional time it takes before
(1) four times the initial energy reaching the ground is (g = 10 ms-2)
(2) equal to the initial energy
(3) twice the initial energy (1) 6s
(4) thrice the initial energy (2) 4s
133. According to Bohr’s theory of H-atom,
the product of Binding energy of electron (3) 2s
and radius in the nth orbit is (4) 3s
(1) Proportional to n2
(2) Inversely proportional to n2
Sri Chaitanya Page
15
137. Variation of resistivity of nichrome as a 140. An ice block of mass 42 kg is dragged on
function of absolute temperature is a horizontal surface through a distance of
(1) 10m. Coefficient of friction between the
surfaces is 0.2. If all the heat produced is
utilized for melting of ice, the mass of ice
melted is nearly
(1) 2.5 kg
(2) 2.5 g
(2)
(3) 2.5 mg
(4) 25 kg
141. The length of a potentiometer wires is l .
A cell of emf E is balanced at a length
(3) l
  from positive end of the wire. If the
3
l
length of the wire is increased by   ,
2
the distance at which the same cell gives
the balancing point is (Cell in the
(4)
primary is ideal and no series resistance
is present in the primary circuit)
4l
(1)
2
l
(2)
138. The distance covered by a body to come 3
to rest when it is moving with a speed of 2l
(3)
4 ms-1 is ‘s’ when a retarding force F is 3
applied. If the KE is doubled, the l
(4)
distance covered by it to come to rest for 2
the same retarding force F is 142. An alpha-particle is projected towards a
(1) 4s Cu nucleus, an Au nucleus and an Ag
(2) 6s nucleus with same speed from a large
(3) 2s distance. The distances of closest
(4) 8s approaches were found to be d1, d2 and d3
139. In which of the following cases the work respectively. Which of the following is
done increases the potential energy? correct?
(1) Both conservative and non- (1) d1 < d2 < d3
conservative forces
(2) d1 < d3 < d2
(2) Conservative force only
(3) Non-conservative force only .(3) d2 < d3 < d1
(4) Neither conservative nor non- (4) d3 < d1 < d2
conservative forces
Sri Chaitanya Page
16
143. A thin convergent glass lens ( µ g = 1.5) (4)
3V1 + 2V2
5
has a power of +5.0 D. When this lens is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 146. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is
µ l it acts as a divergent lens of focal 7.68 MeV and that for C13 is 7.47 MeV.
The energy required to remove a neutron
length 100 cm. The value of µ1 must be
from C13 is
(1) 4/3
(1) 0.21 MeV
(2) 5/3
(2) 2.52 MeV
(3) 4/5
(3) 4.95 MeV
(4) 3/5
(4) 2.75 MeV
144. If the work done by the string on block A
147. The time period of vibration of a dip
is W, then work done by the string on the
needle when box of dip circle is
block B will be
perpendicular to magnetic meridian is 1
second. When same magnetic needle is
made to vibrate in the horizontal plane,
the time period becomes 31/4 second. Then
the angle of dip is
(1) 300
(2) 450
(3) 600
(4) 900
(1) –W 148. A wire in the form of semi circle lies on
W a frictionless table. The ends of semi
(2) −
2 circle are attached to identical springs S1
(3) 2W and S2 whose other ends a and b are
fixed. If the current in the wire is I then
(4) Zero
tension in each spring is
145. Two particles of masses 2kg and 3kg
initially at rest. They are moving towards
each other under mutual gravitational
force of attraction. If at an instant their
velocities are V1 and V2 respectively then
the velocity of their centre of mass at that
instant is
(1) 2V1 + 3V2
(1) π RIB
3V − 2V2
(2) 1 (2) 2RIB
5
(3) IRB
(3) zero
(4) Zero
Sri Chaitanya Page
17
149. In the following circuit the equivalent 153. The ratio of the kinetic energies of equal
resistance between A and B is number of moles of H 2 and He at the
4Ω 6Ω same temperature is
(1) 1 : 2
A B (2) 2 : 1
2Ω
– 2V
(3) 1 : 1
– 10V
8Ω 12Ω (4) 4 : 1
154. N 2 + 3H 2 
→ 2 NH3 ; ∆ H = − 46 K.Cals .
20
(1) Ω
3 From the above reaction, heat of
(2) 10 Ω formation of ammonia is
(1) 46 K.Cals
(3) 16 Ω
(2) – 46 K.Cals
(4) 20 Ω
(3) – 23 K.Cals
150. The sum and difference of the surface
areas of two soap bubbles are in the ratio (4) 23 K.Cals
5 : 3. The ratio of the excess pressures in 155. Consider the reaction,
them is N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ↽




⇀ 2 NH 3 ( g )
(1) 3 : 5 Which of the following is correct, if the
(2) 5 : 3 total pressure at which the equilibrium is
established, is increased without changing
(3) 1 : 4
the temperature?
(4) 1 : 2
(1) K will remain same
CHEMISTRY
(2) K will decrease
SECTION – A
(3) K will increase
151. Which of the following reaction is not
correct according to the law of (4) K will increase initially and
conservation of mass? decreases when pressure is very high
156. Which of the following will produce a
(1) 2Mg ( s ) + O2 ( g ) 
→ 2 MgO ( s )
buffer solution when mixed in equal
(2) C3 H 8 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 
→ CO2 ( g ) + H 2 O ( g ) volumes?
(3) P4 ( s ) + 5O2 ( g ) 
→ P4O10 ( s ) (1) 0.1mol dm −3 NH 4OH and
(4) CH 4 ( g ) + 2O2 ( g ) 
→ CO2 ( g ) + 2 H 2O ( g ) 0.1mol dm −3 HCl
152. In which of the following molecule/ion all (2) 0.05mol dm −3 NH 4OH and
the bonds are not equal? 0.1mol dm −3 HCl
(1) XeF4
(3) 0.1mol dm −3 NH 4OH and
(2) BF4−
0.05mol dm −3 HCl
(3) C2 H 4 (4) 0.1mol dm −3CH 4COONa and
(4) SiF4 0.1 mol dm −3 NaOH

Sri Chaitanya Page

18
157. Which of the following elements does not 161. The activation energy of a reaction can be
show disproportionation tendency? determined from the slope of which of the
(1) Cl following graphs?
(2) Br 1
(1) ln k vs
(3) F T
T 1
(4) I (2) vs
ln k T
158. How many unit cells are present in 5.0
(3) ln k vs T
gm of crystal AB (formula mass AB =
ln k
40) having rock salt type structure? ( N A = (4) vsT
T
Avogadro’s no) 162. Which property of colloidal solution is
(1) NA independent of charge on the colloidal
NA particles?
(2)
10 (1) Electroosmosis
(3) 4 N A (2) Tyndall effect
NA (3) Coagulation
(4)
32 (4) Electrophoresis
159. Which of the following statements is 163. On which of the following properties
correct regarding a solution of two does the coagulating power of an ion
components A and B exhibiting positive depend?
deviation from ideal behaviour? (1) The magnitude of the charge on the
(1) Intermolecular attractive forces ion alone
between A-A and B-B are stronger than (2) Size of the ion alone
those between A-B. (3) Both magnitude and sign of the
(2) ∆ mix H = 0 at constant T and P. charge on the ion
(3) ∆ mix V = 0 at constant T and P. (4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces 164. A mineral usually has large amount of
between A-A and B-B are equal to those undesirable impurities. These impurities
between A-B. are called
160. How many grams of cobalt metal will be (1) Matrix or gangue
deposited when a solution of cobalt(II) (2) Slag
chloride is electrolyzed with a current of (3) Flux
10 amperes for 109 minutes? (4) Ore
(1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of 165. Extraction of gold and silver involves
Co = 59 u) leaching with CN − ion. Silver is later
(1) 4.0 recovered by
(2) 20.0 (1) Distillation
(3) 40.0 (2) Zone refining
(4) 0.66 (3) Displacement with Zn
(4) Liquation.
Sri Chaitanya Page
19
166. Which of the following is a cationic (3) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
detergent (4) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate 169. In the kjeldahl’s method for estimation of
(2) Sodium steartate nitrogen present in a sample ammonia
(3) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide evolved from 0.75g of sample neutralized
10 ml of 1 M H 2 SO4 . The percentage of
(4) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
nitrogen in the sample is
167. In which one of the following
arrangements the given sequence is not (1) 37.33
strictly according to the properties (2) 45.33
indicated against it (3) 35.33
(1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 – (4) 18.66
Increasing oxidising power → A• + B• ; ∆ H = + x kJ mol−1
170. A − B 
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI – Increasing
→ A + + B− ; ∆ H = + y kJ mol−1
A − B 
acidic strength
(3) H 2O < H 2 S < H 2 Se < H 2Te –
The relationship between x and y in
gaseous phase is
Increasing pKa value
(1) x=y
(4) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 –
(2) x>y
Increasing reducing power
(3) x< y
168. Match list – I with list – II
(4) x = 2y
List – I List – II
171. To prepare 3-ethyl pentan – 3 – ol, the
A) ClONO2 + HCl → i) Acid rain reagents required are
Cl2 + HNO3
(1) CH 3CH 2 MgBr + CH 3COCH 2CH 3 H 3O +
B) NO2 ( g ) 
hυ
→ ii) Environmental
(2) CH 3 MgBr + ( CH 3CH 2 ) CO H 3O +
NO ( g ) + O ( g ) friendly
reaction (3) CH 3CH 2 MgBr + ( CH 3CH 2 ) CO H 3O +

C) 4NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) iii) Photo (4) CH 3CH 2CH 2 MgBr + CH 3COC2 H 5 H 3O +

+2 H 2O ( l ) → 4 HNO3 172. Which one of the following reaction does
chemical smog
not occur when heated with copper at
D) H 2C = CH 2 + O2 iv) Ozone hole 300ºC
→ CH 3CHO
Pd
(1) ( CH 3 )2 CHOH → (CH 3 ) 2 C = O
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
(2) ( CH 3 )3 C − OH → (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2
(1) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i) (3) CH 3CH 2CH 2OH → CH 3CH 2CHO

(2) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) (4) C6 H 5OH → C6 H 6

Sri Chaitanya Page
20
173. C3 H 8O ( X ) 
K Cr O
H SO
2
 2
2 7
4
I + NaOH
→ C3 H 6O 
Warm
→ CHI 3 2 177. In which of the following reactions
Benzene will not be formed
“X” can be NaOH + CaO
(1) C6 H 5COONa →
(1) CH 3CH 2CH 2OH Zn / ∆
(2) C6 H 5OH  →
(2) CH 3CHOHCH 3
(3) C6 H 5 N 2Cl 
H PO
→3 2

(3) CH 3OCH 2CH 3

(4) n – hexane →
Anhydrons
AlCl /300º + HCl 3

(4) CH 3CH 2CHO Cl2 uv−light

178. X 
Soda lime
→ Y  → Z 
2 Na
dry ether
→
174. Gabriel phtalimide reaction is useful for
CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH3 + 2 NaCl . Then
preparation of
X, Y and Z are
(1) C6 H 5 NH 2 and C2 H 5 NH 2
(1) Sodium ethanoate, ethane and ethyl
(2) C2 H 5 NH 2 and C3 H 7 NH 2 chloride
(3) C2 H 5 NH 2 and ( C2 H 5 ) 2 NH (2) Sodium propanoate, ethane and
methyl chloride
(4) C6 H 5CH 2 NH 2 and C6 H 5 NH 2 (3) Sodium butanoate, ethane and ethyl
175. The correct order of magnetic moments chloride
(Spin only values in B.M) among the (4) Sodium propanoate, ethane and ethyl
following chloride
4− 179. Wrong statement about solvay process
(1)  Fe ( CN ) 6  > [ MnCl4 ] > [ COCl4 ]
2− 2−

(1) Byeproduct is CaCl2

4−
[ MnCl ] >  Fe ( CN ) 6  > [ COCl4 ]
2− 2−
(2) 4
(2) Raw materials are NaCl, NH 3 and
4−
[ MnCl ] > [ COCl4 ] >  Fe ( CN ) 6 
2− 2− limestone
(3) 4

4−
(3) NH 3 is recovered by using
(4)  Fe ( CN ) 6  > [ COCl4 ] > [ MnCl4 ]
2− 2−

Ca ( OH ) 2
176. The IUPAC name of the compound
(4) K 2CO 3
can be prepared by this
O O
method
C 180. Which of the following is incorrect
H statement
(1) Aqueous solution of Boric acid –
Mild antiseptic
is
(2) Aqueous solution of Borax –
(1) 5 – formyl hex – 2 – en – 3 – one
alkaline
(2) 5 – methyl – 4 – oxo hex – 2 – en – 5
(3) Borax is used in pyrex glass
– al
(4) Aqueous solution of B ( OH ) 3 is a
(3) 3 – keto – 2 – methyl hex – 5 – enal
Bronsted acid
(4) 3 – keto – 2 – methyl hex – 4 – enal
Sri Chaitanya Page
21
181. Identify incorrect statement among the 185. In which pair of ions both the species
following contain S – S bond
(1) CO is a lewis base (or ligand) (1) S 4O62− , S 2O32−
(2) Bond length in CO2 is 115 pm due (2) S 2O72− , S 2O82−
to resonance
(3) S 4O62− , S 2O72−
(3) Diamond is used in the making of
dyes (4) S 2O72− , S 2O32−
(4) Graphite is an insulator SECTION – B
182. The glycosidic linkage involved in 186. The quantum number not obtained from
linking the glucose units in amylase part the Schrodinger’s wave equation is
of starch is (1) n
(1) C1 − C 4 β − linkage (2) l
(2) C1 − C6 α − linkage (3) m
(3) C1 − C6 β − linkage (4) s

(4) C1 − C 4 α − linkage 187. PCl5 , PCl3 , and Cl2 are at equilibrium at

500 K in a closed container and their
183. Which one of the following is not
concentrations are 0.8 ×10−3 mol L−1 ,
correctly represented regarding polymers
1.2 × 10−3 mol L−1and 1.2 × 10−3 mol L−1 ,
(1) Bakelite – Cross linked polymer
respectively. The value of K c for the
(2) Nylon–2– nylon–6 – Biodegradable
reaction PCl5 ( g ) ↽




⇀ PCl3 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g )
polymer
will be
(3) Neoprene – Condensation polymer
(1) 1.8 × 103 mol L−1
(4) Caprolactam – Nylon - 6
184. Identify the incorrect match (2) 1.8 × 10−3 mol L−1
(3) 1.8 × 10 −3 mol −1 L
Name IUPAC official name
(4) 0.55 × 104 mol −1 L
A) Unnilunium i) Mendelevium
188. Lithium has a bcc structure. Its
B) Unniltrium ii) Lawrencium density is 530 kg m −3 and its atomic mass
C) Unnilhexium iii) Sea borgium is 6.94 g mol −1 . Calculate the edge length
of a unit cell of lithium metal.
D) Unununnium iv) Darmstadtium
(N A = 6.02 × 10 23 mol −1 )
(1) (A) (i)
(1) 527 pm
(2) (B) (ii)
(2) 264 pm
(3) (C) (iii)
(3) 154 pm
(4) (D) (iv)
(4) 352 pm
Sri Chaitanya Page
22
 CH3
189. In the electrochemical cell : CH3

Zn ZnSO4 ( 0.01M ) CuSO4 (1.0 M ) Cu , Br

the emf of this Daniell cell is E1 . When

H3C H3C
the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to
(3) Br
1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 CH3 CH3

M, the emf changes to E2 . From the Br

followings, which one is the relationship

between E1 and E2 ? (Given, RT/F = Br

0.059) (4) CH3 CH3

(1) E1 < E2 192. A cyclic hydro carbon has all the carbon
(2) E1 > E2 and hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All
(3) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 the carbon carbon bonds have the same
length less than 1.54Å, but more than
(4) E1 = E2
1.34Å. The number of mono substituted
190. For a reaction between A and B the order products formed by this compound is
with respect to A is 2 and the order with
respect to B is 3. The concentrations of (1) 2
both A and B are doubled, the rate will (2) 1
increase by a factor of (3) 3
(1) 12
(4) Can’t be predicated
(2) 16
(3) 32 193. In pyrrole the electron density is
(4) 10 maximum on
191. What products are formed when the m- 3 4
xylene is treated with Br2 in presence of
CH3 2 5
= m - xylene 1 N
H
CH3
FeBr3 (1) 2 and 3
CH3 CH3 (2) 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 2 and 5
CH3 CH3 194.
Br
(1) Br alcoholic KOH
CH3 − CH 2Cl  Br2
→ A → Zn
B  →C
Br
∆

H3C CH3 H3C CH3 (1) Acetylene

(2) Ethane
(3) Ethene
(2) Br
(4) Methane

Sri Chaitanya Page

23
195. The final product (Z) in the following 197. C2 H5CHO and CH3COCH3 can be
sequence of reaction is distinguished from one another by testing
C(CH3)3 with
(1) Phenyl hydrazine
(2) 2, 4 – Dinitrophenyl hydrazine
+

NBS / CCl4
→ X 
Mg / Ether
CO2
→ Y 
H3O
→Z (3) Fehling solution
(4) HCN
198. The correct order of stability of the
CH3 following compound is

H3C C(CH3)2CH2COOH
a) b)
(1)

(H3C)C CH2COOH
c)
(2)
(1) a > c > b
(2) c > a > b
(CH3)3C CH3 (3) a > b > c
(4) c > b > a
199. Assertion : Beryllium carbonate is kept in
(3) COOH
the atmosphere of carbon dioxide
Reason : Beryllium carbonate is unstable
(CH3)3C COOH
and decomposes to give beryllium oxide
(4)
and carbon dioxide
COOH
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct
NH3 ∆ and reason is the correct explanation for
  Br2
→ X 
KOH
→Y
assertion
196. . Y is
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct
CH 2 − NH 2
but reason is not the correct explanation
for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is
(1)
incorrect
NH 2
(4) Both assertion and reason are
incorrect
(2) 200. The reason for greater range of oxidation
Br
states in actinoid is attributed to
(1) Actinoid contraction
(2) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having
(3) comparable energies
(3) 4f and 5d levels being close in
energies
(4) (4) Progressive filling of 5f orbitals
Sri Chaitanya Page
24
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL DATE: 26-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 6 KEY

BOTANY

1) 3 2) 4 3) 4 4) 1 5) 1 6) 2 7) 1 8) 2 9) 4 10) 2
11) 2 12) 3 13) 3 14) 1 15) 4 16) 1 17) 3 18) 2 19) 2 20) 3
21) 4 22) 2 23) 3 24) 2 25) 4 26) 2 27) 1 28) 4 29) 4 30) 3
31) 1 32) 2 33) 4 34) 3 35) 2 36) 4 37) 2 38) 4 39) 3 40) 2
41) 1 42) 3 43) 2 44) 1 45) 1 46) 3 47) 2 48) 2 49) 4 50) 2

ZOOLOGY

51) 2 52) 1 53) 3 54) 3 55) 3 56) 2 57) 4 58) 1 59) 3 60) 3

61) 2 62) 1 63) 2 64) 1 65) 1 66) 4 67) 1 68) 2 69) 1 70) 1

71) 4 72) 1 73) 4 74) 3 75) 4 76) 2 77) 1 78) 3 79) 2 80) 4

81) 4 82) 4 83) 4 84) 4 85) 4 86) 3 87) 1 88) 1 89) 4 90) 2

91) 2 92) 3 93) 2 94) 4 95) 4 96) 2 97) 4 98) 1 99) 1 100) 3

PHYSICS

101) 3 102) 2 103) 4 104) 3 105) 1 106) 4 107) 3 108) 2 109) 3 110) 3

111) 2 112) 4 113) 2 114) 4 115) 1 116) 2 117) 2 118) 1 119) 1 120) 3

121) 2 122) 1 123) 2 124) 4 125) 1 126) 4 127) 1 128) 3 129) 1 130) 3

131) 2 132) 4 133) 3 134) 1 135) 3 136) 2 137) 2 138) 3 139) 2 140) 2

141) 4 142) 1 143) 2 144) 1 145) 3 146) 3 147) 3 148) 3 149) 3 150) 4

CHEMISTRY

151) 2 152) 3 153) 3 154) 3 155) 1 156) 3 157) 3 158) 4 159) 1 160) 2
161) 1 162) 2 163) 3 164) 1 165) 3 166) 3 167) 3 168) 4 169) 1 170) 3
171) 3 172) 4 173) 2 174) 2 175) 3 176) 4 177) 4 178) 4 179) 4 180) 4
181) 4 182) 4 183) 3 184) 4 185) 1 186) 4 187) 2 188) 4 189) 2 190) 3
191) 3 192) 2 193) 4 194) 3 195) 2 196) 2 197) 3 198) 2 199) 1 200) 2

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
BOTANY 31. NCERT XII Pg.177
SECTION – A 32. NCERT XII Pg.36
1. NCERT XI Pg.10 33. NCERT XII Pg.36
2. NCERT XI Pg.20 34. NCERT XII Pg.76
3. NCERT XI Pg.38 35. NCERT XII Pg.104
4. NCERT XI Pg.39 SECTION – B
5. NCERT XI Pg.35 36. NCERT XI Pg.93
6. NCERT XI Pg.33 37. NCERT XI Pg.144
7. NCERT XI Pg.75 38. NCERT XI Pg.147
8. NCERT XII Pg.214 39. NCERT XII Pg.23
9. NCERT XII Pg.95 40. NCERT XI Pg.177
10. NCERT XII Pg.203 41. NCERT XII Pg.12
11. NCERT XI Pg.85 42. NCERT XII Pg.109
12. NCERT XI Pg.138 43. NCERT XII Pg.112
13. NCERT XI Pg.129 44. NCERT XII Pg.184
14. NCERT XI Pg.129 45. NCERT XII Pg.199
15. NCERT XI Pg.135 46. NCERT XII Pg. 112
16. NCERT XII Pg.209 47. NCERT XI Pg.235
17. NCERT XI Pg.147 48. NCERT XII Pg.34
18. NCERT XI Pg.147 49. NCERT XI Pg.250
19. NCERT XII Pg.251 50. NCERT XI Pg.198
20. NCERT XI Pg.169 ZOOLOGY
21. NCERT XI Pg.168 SECTION – A
51. Ascending limb of LH of nephron is
22. NCERT XI Pg.166
impermeable to water. Secretion of urea
23. NCERT XII Pg.196 takes place at thin segment of ascending
24. NCERT XII Pg.197 limb of LH.
25. NCERT XI Pg.201 52. Spongilla belongs to porifera, in which
intracellular digestion takes place.
26. NCERT XI Pg.208
53. Biodiversity hotspots are the regions
27. NCERT XI Pg.217 with very high levels of species richness,
28. NCERT XI Pg.229 high degree of endemism, accelerated
habitat loss and require maximum
29. NCERT XI Pg.245
protection.
30. NCERT XI Pg.197
Sri Chaitanya Page 2
54. Thrombokinase converts prothrombin 69. Among humans, 99.9 percent of base
into thrombin. sequence is the same.
55. Pyramid of biomass in a forest is 70. Trisomy of 23 (Karyotype of 47, XXY)
upright. is Klinefelter’s syndrome. It is
56. Humus is highly resistant to microbial allosomal syndrome. Congenital heart
action. disease is the symptom of Down’s
57. During embryonic development three syndrome.
primary germ layers are formed by inner 71. Gizzard (Proventriculus) in cockroach
cell mass of embryo. has an outer layer of thick circular
58. The tiger census in our national parks is muscles and thick inner cuticle forming
based on pug marks and fecal pellets. six highly chitinous plates called teeth.
59. The optic nerves leave the eye and the 72. Oral contraceptive pills of progestogen –
retinal blood vessels enter it at a point estrogen combinations are used by
medial to and slightly above the females. Spermiogenesis occurs in
posterior pole of the eye ball. seminiferous tubules.
60. Bone marrow transplantation can be 73. LH & Inhibin are protein hormones.
used to cure ADA deficiency. Estrogen & Progesterone are steroid
61. Cross-breeding allows the desirable hormones. Estrogen is in more amounts
qualities of two different breeds to be by the end of follicular phase of
combined. menstrual cycle.
63. Matured lymphocytes interact with 74. Primary spermatocytes undergo
antigens and become active, then Meiosis-I to form secondary
proliferate to become effector cells and spermatocytes.
memory cells in secondary lymphoid 75. Sea anemone and Clown fish show
organs. commensalism
64. Formation of gametocytes of 76. Aldosterone is fat soluble hormone that
Plasmodium occurs in RBC of man. binds with intracellular receptors.
65. Filariasis – Helminth disease (spread by Oxytocin, Adrenaline and FSH are water
mosquito) soluble hormones which bind with
Pneumonia – Bacterial disease membrane receptors.
Chikungunya – Viral disease 77. Cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis.
Malaria – Protozoan disease 78. Hepatitis B vaccine is sub-unit vaccine
66. Brain capacity of the first human-like prepared by using antigenic polypeptides
being (Homo habilis) was 650 – 800 cc of pathogen.
67. Natural selection is the process in which 79. Repolarisation of an axon occurs due to
heritable variations enabling better outflux of K+.
survival are enabled to reproduce and Depolarisation of an axon occurs due to
leave greater number of progeny influx of Na+.
68. Different structures evolving for the 80. In liver, each hepatic lobule is covered
same function in convergent evolution by a thin connective tissue sheath called
(analogous organs). the Glisson’s capsule.
81. Pterophyllum – Fish (Anamniote)

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

 Ichthyophis – Amphibian (Anamniote) 89. A stable biotic community should not
Pteropus – Viviparous (Amniote) show too much variation in productivity
82. A) Tendons and ligaments - Dense from year to year
regular connective tissue 90. Psilophyton is the common ancestor for
B) Dermis of skin - Dense irregular gymnosperms, ferns and horsetails.
tissue 91. Kyoto Protocol was signed in 1997 to
C) Subcutaneous layer - Areolar and protect earth from global warming
adipose connective tissue 92. In female cockroach, a pair of
D) Supporting framework for epithelium spermathecae store sperms.
- Areolar connective tissue 93. GIFT is attempted to female who can
83. pO2 of blood in pulmonary vein is 95 not produce ovum
mmHg. 94. Contraction of internal intercostal
pO2 of blood in pulmonary artery is 40 muscles → Thoracic volume decreases
mm Hg. So the difference is 55 mm Hg. → Pulmonary volume decreases →
84. Tropomyosins are the proteins that Intrapulmonary pressure increases.
present in thin filaments. Thin filaments 95. ANF causes vasodilation, as a result BP
are found in both A-band and I-band. decreases.
85. Sphenoid bone is an immovable 96. It will cause mortality among fishes and
unpaired bone in cranium. Scapula and other aquatic creatures.
incus are paired bones in the body. 97. Interchain S-S linkage in human insulin
Mandible is movable unpaired bone. is present between A20 – B19 & A7 –
SECTION – B B7.
86. Deforestation does not reduce CO2 98. Gametic isolation = The sperms and ova
pollution in atmosphere. of different species of animals are
87. Fluid connective tissues lack fibres. unable to fuse.
88. Strength of ventricular contraction is Behavioural isolation = The males of
increased by sympathetic division of one animal species are unable to
ANS. Cardiac output is increased by recognize the females of another species
catecholamines (as they increase heart as potential mates.
rate). Temporal isolation = Breeding seasons
or flowering time may be different in the
two species.

Sri Chaitanya Page 4

100. Basking of desert lizard in the Sun is a 116. δ = 180 − 2i
f
behavioural adaptation. 117. M = 0 and L = f 0 + fe
fe
PHYSICS
λD h
SECTION – A 118. β = and λ =
d 2mVe
101. v 2 − u 2 = 2 as
119. a sin θ = nλ
0 − ( 32 )
2
1 q 1 q
⇒s= = 256m 120. Eout = &Vin =
2 × ( −2 ) 4πε0 r 2
4πε0 R
d 121. conceptual
102. t=
V σ
2
vBw − vR2 122. E= = :constant
d ε0
2
µ1 r1  w1  123.
103. mrw = µmg ⇒ =  
2
µ 2 r2  w2  V2
V1
104. conceptual
W1 g + a 4
105. =
W2 g − a 5

106. I i w1 = I 2 w2 V1 C2 6 3
= = =
V2 C1 4 2
2 gh
107. = 2 gh1 3
1+ β V1 = (V )
5
108. But C1V1 = Q ⇒ V = 10 volt
l ∆T 1  ∆g  g '  2h  ∆T h
T = 2π ⇒ =   & = 1 −  ⇒ = 1
g T 2 g  g  R T R ∴U = CV 2
2
124. Density of water is maximum at 4oC.
109. Fb = Vsubmerged ρl g
E α T4 mv
125. r =
1 1 Bq
and λ α , so E α 4
T λ 126. i ∝ tan θ
4 R R
4
E1  λ 2   2  16 127. cos φ = =
=  =  = z R
E 2  λ1   1  1 V
128. R = − G
ig
∆V ∆l
110. = (1 − 2σ ) 129.
V l di 1
e = −L and U = Li 2
111. mg = 2πrT cos θ dt 2
112. Rate of flow = a 2 gh 130. Conceptual
131. Conceptual
3 1
113. KE = K BTN ⇒ T ∝ 132. 1
2 N λ∝ ⇒ KE2 = 4 KE1
KE
114. Fmax = mAw2
1
133. BE ∝ 2 and r ∝ n 2
T ω n
115. v = =
µ K 134. R=A+(A.B)

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

 Here A=0 and B=1 ⇒ R = 0
4Ω 6Ω
V 
135. W AB = nRT1 ln  B  2Ω
 VA  A B
8Ω 12Ω
v 
WCD = nRT2 ln  0 
 vC  A1 + A2 5
150. =
But VA = VC and VB = VD A1 − A2 3
W T A1 8 4
⇒ AB = 1 ⇒ = =
WCD T2 A2 2 1
r1 2 1
SECTION – B ⇒ = but Pα
1 r2 1 r
136. y = ( u sin θ) t − gt 2
2 CHEMISTRY
2u sin θ SECTION – A
t= − 2 = 6 − 2 = 4s
g 151. Conceptual
152. In C2 H 4 , carbon- carbon double bond in
137. Conceptual
alkenes consists of one strong sigma
138. bond and one weak pi (π) - bond. In
1 ethene ail the bonds are not equal. While
FS = mu 2 ⇒ S ∝ KE
2 in case of remaining species, all the
139. Conceptual bonds are equal.
140. mL = µMgS
3
µMgS 153. KE = nRT
m= 2
L n=1
E l E 1 KE H2 : KE He = 1:1
141. . = .l
L 3 3L
2 − 46
154. ∆ H f = K.Cals
2
142.
= – 23 K.Cals
d min ∝ Z
155. K will remain same,
f a ( µ − µl )
= As, equilibrium constant K will remain
f l ( µ − 1) µl same if temperature is not changed.
143.
TB x 156. In 0.1moldm−3NH4OH and 0.05moldm−3
144. TA = , xB = A HCl, total amount of HCl reacts with
2 2
145. Internal forces donot change the state of NH4OH to form NH4Cl and some NH4
centre of mass. OH will be left unreacted. Thus, the
146. E = BE of C13 − BF .gC12 resultant solution contains NH4Cl and
NH4OH which will produce a buffer
1 T BH
147. T∝ ⇒ 1 = solution.
B T2 BV
157. Conceptual
Bil
148. 2 f = Bil ⇒ f = 158. Conceptual
2 159. Conceptual
149. Equivalent resistance between A and B
160. ω = Zit
R = 8 + 2 + 6 = 16 Ω.

Sri Chaitanya Page 6

 EB × It  M B 59  D – Green chemistry eco friendly
∴ω = ∴ EB = = 
96500 Z 2 reaction
59 10 × 109 × 60 169. Acid used = 10ml × 2 N ( or 1M ) H 2 SO4
ω= ×
2 96500 1.4 × V × N 1.4 × 10 × 2
ω = 19.9 %N = = = 37.33
W 0.75
161. The Arrhenius equation is 170. x < y
Ea
ln k = ln A − ( CH 3CH 2 )2 CO + CH 3CH 2 MgBr 
→
RT 171.
Thus, the activation energy of a reaction ( CH 3CH 2 )3 C − OH
can be determined from the slope of 172. Phenol given benzene with zinc dust not
1 with copper
which of the graph ln kvs
T CH 3CHOHCH 3 
K 2Cr2O7
H 2 SO4
→ CH 3COCH 3
Ea 173.
I 2 + NaOH
Slope =  → CHI 3
R
174. Only aliphatic primary amines can be
Hence Ea = − slope × R
prepared
162. Tyndall effect is scattering of light by 4−

colloidal particles which independent of

 Fe ( CN ) 6 
175.  [ COCl ]
4
2−
[ MnCl ]4
2−

charge on them. Zero Three Five

163. Coagulation of colloidal solution by Greater the number of unpaired
using an electrolyte depends on the electrons higher is the value of magnetic
charge present (positive or negative) on moment
colloidal particles as well as on its size. 176. Conceptual
Coagulating power of an electrolyte 177. n – hexane is isomerised to methyl
depends on the magnitude of charge pentane
present on effective ion of electrolyte. 178. X = CH 3 − CH 2 − COONa
164. Matrix or gangue Y = CH 3 − CH3
165. Extraction of gold and silver involves Z = C 2 H 5Cl
leaching was CN− ion. Silver is later
179. K 2CO3 cannot be prepared because
recovered by displacement with Zn.
CH3 KHCO3 is more soluble
180. Aqueous solution of B ( OH ) 3 is Lewis
+ acid
CH3 − ( CH 2 )15 − N − CH3
181. BN resembles graphite
CH3 182. C1 − C 4 α − linkage
166. is
183. Neoprene is an addition polymer of
cationic detergent
chloroprene
167. 3 pKa decreases down the group among
184. Unununnium – Roentgenium
hydrides
185.
168. A – Ozone hole
B – Photo chemical smog
C – Acid rain

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

 O
O S 194. A = CH 2 = CH 2
S Br
S
S −
O −O −
−
O S
, O
B = CH 2 − CH2
S O O
O
Br
SECTION – B
C = CH 2 = CH 2
186. Conceptual
187. 195.
C(CH3)3
[ PCl ] [Cl ] = (1.2 × 10 ) × (1.2 × 10 ) = 1.8 × 10
−3 −3 C(CH3)3
−3
KC = 3 2

[ PCl ] 5 0.8 × 10 −3

188. d =
Z ×M 
NBS
→ 
Mg / Ether
CO2
→
N A × a3
a 3 = 0.435 × 10−28 m
CH3
∴ a = 352 pm CH2Br
C(CH3)3 C(CH3)3
 Zn 2+ 
log  2 + 
0.59
189. Ecell = E 0
cell −
n Cu 
+

E1 = E º −
0.059
log
0.01 
H 3O
→
2 1
0.059
E1 = E º − ( −2) = E º +0.059
2
CH2 CH2
0.059 1
E2 = E º − log = E º −0.059 C
2 0.01 COOH
Hence, E1 > E2 O
O Mg Br
190. Given, Order of A=2; Order of B=3; O
Rate ∝ [ A] [ B ]
2 3
C − NH 2 NH 2
If both concentrations of A and B are
X= ; Y=
doubled.
196.
Rate ∝ [ 2 A] [ 2 B ]
2 3

197. Conceptual
Rate f ∝ 32 [ A] [ B ]
2 3

198. Aromatic > Non aromatic > Anti

Rate increases by a factor of 32.
aromatic
191. −CH 3 group is O, P – directing because
of steric crowding no substitution occur 199. BeO is more stable due to the small size
at the carbon atom between the two and strong polarizing power of Be 2+. As
methyl groups in m-xylene BeO is stable and BeCO3 is unstable.
192. As all C – C bond lengths are equal, all When it is kept in the atmosphere
carbons are identical and only one mono of CO2 a reversible process occurs and
substituted product stability of BeCO3 increases.
193. In pyrrole electrophilic attack occurs at 200. 5f, 6d and 7s have comparable energies
2 and 5 Position due to high electron
density
Sri Chaitanya Page 8
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL DATE: 31-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST –7 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10

BOTANY (1) Xylary fibres

SECTION – A (2) Perivascular fibres

1. Wrongly matched of the following is (3) Bast fibres
(1) Volvox – Haplonitic life cycle (4) Cortical fibres
(2) Fucus – Haplodiplontic life cycle 5. Wrongly matched of the following is
(3) Ficus – Diplontic life cycle (1) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(4) Cycas – Diplontic life cycle (2) Euchromation – Genetically active
and highly condensed
2. Vascular bundles of monocot stem do not
contain (3) Heterochromatin – Highly
(1) Water storing cavity condensed and genetically inactive
(2) Seive tubes (4) Telomeres – Ends of chromosome
(3) Endarch xylem 6. Which one of the following is correct?
(4) Phloem parenchyma (1) PS II are located on grana lamellae
but not on stroma lamellae
3. Statement-I: For the same amount of CO2
fixed, a C4 plant as compared to C3 plant (2) Cyt b6/f complexes are not located on
loses only half amount of water. stroma lamellae
Statement-II: C4 plants have PEP case in (3) PS I are located on stroma lamellae
the chloroplasts of mesophyll cells. only
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (4) CF0 – CF1 are located on grana
correct lamellae only
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 7. Which of the following is an example of
incorrect the dedifferentiation?
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (1) Primary xylem
is incorrect (2) Interfascicular cambium
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (3) Cork combium
II is correct (4) Both 2 & 3
4. Jute, Flax and hemp fibres are

Sri Chaitanya
Page 1
8. Match the column I and II and Choose the (2) a, b, c and d only
correct combination (3) a, b, d and e only
Column-I Column-II (4) a, b, c, d, e and f
I. Parasites with large 12. Match the columns I and II, and choose
A. Lupinus
seeds the correct combination from the options
II. The oldest viable given.
B. Castor
seeds Crop variety Resistant to
III. Each fruit with A. Himgiri i. White rust
C. Sugar beet
thousands of tiny seeds B. Pusa Swarnim ii. Hill bunt
IV. Endospermic dicot C. Pusa Shubhra iii. Leaf curl
D. Orchids
seed D. Pusa Sadabahar iv. Black rot
V. Persistent nucellus A B C D
A B C D (1) ii i iii iv
(1) II IV V I (2) ii i iv iii
(2) II IV V III (3) i iii ii iv
(3) IV III II I (4) iv ii i iii
(4) III IV V II 13. RNA interference involves
(1) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using
9. The common products of glycolysis,
reverse transcriptase
krebs cycle and ETS in aerobic
(2) Silencing of specific mRNA with
respiration is/are
complementary RNA
A. ATP B. NADH
(3) Interference of RNA sysnthesis by
C. FADH2 D. ADP DNA
(1) A, B (4) Translation of specific mRNA
(2) C, D 14. Which is true about enzyme ?
(3) A only (1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme +
(4) B, C Coenzyme
10. r- DNA technology does not require (2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme +
Coenzyme
(1) Ristriction enzyme
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme +
(2) DNA polymerase
Holoenzyme
(3) Ligase (4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + metalions
(4) Helicase 15. Select the correct matches :
11. A typical bioreactor has a) S-phase – DNA replication
a) An agitator system b) Zygotene – Synapsis
b) An oxygen delivery system c) Diplotene – Crossing over
c) A foam control system d) Diakinesis – Chromosome segregation
d) A temperature control system (1) a and b
(2) c and d
e) A pH control system
(3) c and e
f) Sampling port
(4) a and d
(1) a, b and c only
Sri Chaitanya
Page 2
16. Match the following and choose the (1) Selaginella
correct combination (2) Gnetum
Name of Chromosome Number In (3) Funaria
organism Meiocyte (2n) (4) Spirulina
22. The fluid nature of the membrane is
a. Housefly 1) 20
important from the point of view of
b. Fruitfly 1) 34 functions like
(1) Cell division and cell growth
c. Apple 3) 8 (2) Endocytosis and secretion
d. Maize 4) 12 (3) Formation of intercellular junctions
(1) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d - 4 (4) All of the above
(2) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d - 1 23. Identify the stage of mitosis shown in the
(3) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d - 1 diagram and what are its characteristics ?
(4) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
17. Meristem culture is practiced in
horticulture to get
(1) Somaclonal variations
(2) Haploid plants
(3) Virus free plants (1) Metaphase – chromatids separation
(4) Hybrid plants (2) Metaphase – Chromosomes moved to
18. Which of the following is not applicable spindle equator
to fabaceae flower ? (3) Anaphase – Centromeres split
(1) Anterior odd sepal (4) Late prophase – chromosomes moving
(2) Diadelphous androecium to poles
(3) Gamopetalous corolla 24. Which of the following enzyme involved
(4) Monocarpellary ovary in nitrogen fixation
19. Which of the following are nitrogenous (1) Nitrate reductase
heteropolymers? (2) Nitrite reductase
i. Chitin ii. Enzymes (3) Nitrogenase
iii. Starch iv. RNA (4) Transaminase
(1) i, ii 25. Secondary succession takes place on/in
(2) iii, iv (1) Degraded forest
(3) i, iii (2) Newly created pond
(4) ii, iv (3) Newly cooled lava
20. In TCA cycle, the conversion of isocitrate (4) Bare rock
to succinyl Co-A involves 26. ABO blood grouping provides a good
(1) 2- decarboxylations example of
(2) 1- substrate level phosphorylation (1) Co – dominance
(3) 2 – oxidations (2) Dominance
(4) 1 and 3 (3) Multiple allelism
21. Which of the following is Pteridophyte (4) All

Sri Chaitanya
Page 3
27. S – I: Main source of oxygen to plants is (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
water absorbed by plants from (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
atmosphere (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
S – II: Water is transported in the plant (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
body through phloem only
31. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are
(1) Both S I and S II are correct prevented in
(2) Both S I and S II are incorrect (1) Cucumber
(3) S I is correct and S II is incorrect (2) Castor
(4) S I is incorrect but S II is correct (3) Maize
28. Select the incorrect match (4) Papaya
(1) Monascus purpureus - Blood 32. Which of the following are
cholesterol lowering agent chlorophyllous protistans with cellulose
(2) Glomus – Mycorrhiza in their cell walls ?
(3) Methanogen – SCP (1) Diatoms and Euglenoids
(4) Aspergillus – Citric acid (2) Dinoflagellates and slimemoulds
29. Match the following. (3) Dinoflagellates and Diatoms
A) tRNA 1) Linking of amino acids (4) Desmids and euglenoids
2) Carrier of genetic 33. Long lasting dikaryophase is seen in the
B) mRNA life cycle of
information
i. Rhizopus ii. Colletotrichum
3) Nucleolar organising
C) rRNA iii. Aspergillus iv. Agaricus
region
(1) i,ii
D) Peptidyl 4) Transfer of amino acid
(2) iii, iv
transferase from cytoplasm to ribosome
(3) i, iii
A B C D
(4) ii, iv
(1) 4 2 3 1
34. S – I : Gene cloning vector is a self
(2) 1 4 3 2 replicative DNA with ‘ori’ site
(3) 1 2 3 4 S – II: PBR322 is a vector with more than
(4) 1 3 2 4 one ‘ori’ sites
30. Match the Column-I with Column-II and (1) Both S I and S II are correct
choose the correct option. (2) Both S I and S II are wrong
Column-I Column-II (3) S I is correct but S II is wrong
A) Incomplete (4) S I is wrong but S II is correct
I) Jacob and monad
dominance 35. What is the dihybrid test cross ratio
B) Linkage II) Antirrhinum sp (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
C) Transforming (2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
III) Griffith
principle (3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
D) Operon concept IV) Morgan (4) 1 : 1
Sri Chaitanya
Page 4
 SECTION – B 40. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop
36. How many plants among Soyabean, plant where the incorporated gene is
Gloriosa, Aloe, Groundnut, Sweet pea, meant for biosynthesis of
Lupin, Trifolium, Belladona, Tomato, (1) Vitamin C
Mustard and Petunia have Pentamerous (2) Omega 3
flowers (3) Vitamin A
(1) Eight (4) Vitamin B
41. Which of the following is semi
(2) Ten
autonomous cell organelle
(3) Twelve
(1) Ribosome
(4) Fourteen (2) Lysosome
37. Read the following statements and (3) Mitochondria
identify the correct statements (4) Plasma membrane
a) In transcription, adenine pairs with 42. Which of the following is nor a
uracil nucleoproteinaceous
b) Regulation of lac operon by repressor (1) Nucleosome
is positive regulation (2) Microtubules
c) Eukaryotic genes are mostly (3) Viruses
monocistronic and split genes (4) Chromatin
43. What is the correct chronological
d) Translation of polypeptide sequence is
sequence of the following events.
dictated by m-RNA and represented by
1) Griffith's experiments
DNA
2) Experiments of Meselson and stahl
How many of above statements are
3) Identification of DNA by Meischer
correct?
(1) 1, 3 and 2
(1) 2 (2) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 3 (3) 3, 1 and 2
(3) 4 (4) 2, 1 and 3
(4) 1 44. Wrongly matched of the following is
38. Which of the following restriction (1) Auxins – Rooting on stem cuts
enzymes produces blunt ends ? (2) G.A – Early fruit formation in
(1) SalI conifers
(3) Cytokinins – Removal of apical
(2) Eco RV
dominance
(3) ECORl (4) Ethylene – fruit ripening
(4) HindIII 45. Convolvulaceae and solanaceae are
39. Select the wrong match placed under the order polymoniales
(1) RNA polymerase I –rRNA mainly based on their
(2) RNA polymerase II-hnRNA (1) Vegetative characters
(3) RNA polymerase III-tRNA (2) Floral characters
(3) Anatomical characters
(4) RNA polymerase I-snRNA
(4) Economical importance
Sri Chaitanya
Page 5
46. All monerans universally contain/have ZOOLOGY
A. Murein cell wall SECTION – A
B. Cell membrane 51. The vertebrate group with air sacs
C. Mesosomes connected to the lungs is
D. ‘70’ S Ribosomes (1) Reptilia
(1) A, B (2) Aves
(2) C, D (3) Amphibia
(3) A, C (4) Mammalia
(4) B, D 52. S-I: Neuroglia make up more than one
47. Which of the following is sedimentary half of the total connective tissue
cycle S-II: Connective tissues are the most
(1) Carbon abundant and widely distributed in the
(2) Phosphorus body of complex animals
(3) Nitrogen (1) Statement-I and II are correct
(4) Both 1 & 2 (2) Statement-I is correct but statement
48. If double fertilization involves the II is incorrect
participation of four nuclei, then they are (3) Statament-I is incorrect but
(1) 2 – haploid nuclei and 2 – diploid statement-II is correct
nuclei (4) Statement I and II are incorrect
(2) 1 – diploid nucleus and 3 – haploid 53. The structures that help in locomotion of
nuclei Ctenoplana
(3) 3 – diploid nuclei and 1 – haploid (1) Cnidoblasts
nucleus (2) Comb plates
(4) 4 – haploid nuclei (3) Tentacles
(4) Suckers
49. Pick out the correct statement
54. Mesoderm is present in between ectoderm
(1) parthenocarpic fruits do not contain
and endoderm as scattered pouches in
sexual seeds
(1) Hookworm
(2) Apomictic seeds contain zygotic
(2) Silkworm
embryos
(3) Tapeworm
(3) Parthenogenic embryos develop from
(4) All the above
zygotes
55. Match the following
(4) The presence of more than one Epithelium Example
embryo in fruit is called polyembryony A. Squamous I. Ducts of glands
50. The number of genotypes for parental B. Cuboidal II. Fallopian tubes
phenotypes in F2 progeny of Mendelian C. Columnar III. Lining of Stomach
dihybrid cross is D. Ciliated IV. Air sacs of lungs
(1) 7 (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) 3 (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) 5 (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) 9 (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Sri Chaitanya
Page 6
56. Electric organ is present in A B
(1) Trionyx 1 Chemosensitive Pneumotaxic
(2) Trygon area centre
(3) Torpedo 2 Pneumotaxic Respiratory
(4) Testudo centre rhythm centre
57. Juxta glomerular apparatus is special 3 Respiratory Pneumotaxic
region formed by rhythm centre centre
(1) Afferent arteriole and PCT 4 Pneumotaxic Chemosensitive
(2) Afferent arteriole and DCT centre area
(3) Efferent arteriole and PCT 63. Match the following
(4) Efferent arteriole and DCT A. Homo erectus i. 1400cc
58. The heart beat rate of an individual can be B. Homo sapiens ii. 650-800 cc
determined by counting C. Homo habilis iii. 900 cc
(1) P-waves D. Homo iv. 1350 cc
(2) QRS complexes neanderthalensis
(3) T-waves Select the correct option
(4) All the above (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
59. The uricotelic animals among the (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
following (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(1) Marine bony fishes (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) Terrestrial amphibians 64. Corpora quadrigemina is a part of
(3) Aquatic insects (1) Thalamus
(4) Land snails (2) Mid brain
60. The duct of gall bladder is (3) Hind brain
(1) Common bile duct (4) Limbic brain
(2) Cystic duct 65. Match of the following columns and
(3) Hepatic duct select the correct option
(4) Hepatopancreatic duct Column-I Column-II
61. Which of the following is not the correct a. Pituitary gland i. Cretinism
representation of enzyme activity in small b. Hypothalamus ii. Addison’s disease
intestine c. Adrenal gland iii. Acromeglay
(1) Polysaccharides  
Amylase
→ Disaccharides d. Thyroid gland iv. Diabetes
insipidus
(2) Sucrose 
Sucrase
→ Glucose + Fructose
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) Nucleotides 
Nucleosidase
→ Nucleosides
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) Peptones 
Tryp sin
→ Dipeptides
Carboxypeptidase (3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
62. ‘A’ is present in pons region of brain can (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
moderate the function of the ‘B’

Sri Chaitanya
Page 7
66. Transfer of embryo with more than 8 (4) Cu-7
blastomeres in the uterus is 72. Adaptive measure to protect against
(1) IUI extreme heat by poikilotherms is
(2) GIFT (1) Shivering
(3) IUT (2) Hibernation
(4) ZIFT (3) Sweating
67. In human males, ejaculatory duct is (4) Aestivation
formed by 73. Choose the corret statements about
(1)Vasdeferens and urethra ELISA
(2) Vasdeferens and duct of seminal A. It is based on the principle of
vesicle antigenantibody interaction
(3) vas deferens and duct of prostate B. Infection by pathogen can be detected
gland by the presence of antigens
(4) Vas efferens and duct of seminal C. Infection can be detected by the
vesicle antibodies synthesized against the
68. Sequencing of which chromosome was pathogen
completed only in may 2006? (1) A, B only
(1) Chromosome 22 (2) B, C only
(2) Chromosome 1 (3) A, C only
(3) X-chromosome (4) A, B, C
(4) Y-choromosome 74. Which of the following undergoes
69. In a menstrual cycle, ovulatory phase is decomposition quickly?
immediately preceded by (1) Detritus rich in lignin, at low
temperature
(1) Follicular phase
(2) Detritus rich in sugars, under
(2) Menstrual phase
anaerobic condition
(3) Luteal phase (3) Detritus rich in chitin, under dry
(4) Secretory phase environment
70. Which of the following stage is diploid in (4) Detritus rich in nitrogen under warm,
nature? moistconditions
(1) Primary spermatocyte 75. Biodiversity hotspot is known for
(2) Spermatid (i) High degree of endemism
(ii) High levels of species richness
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(iii) Regions of accelerated habitat loss
(4) Spermatozoon
(iv) Cover 8 percent of earth’s land area
71. The hormone releasing IUD among the In the above, the true statements are
following is (1) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(1) Lippes loop (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) LNG-20 (3) (i) and (ii) only
(3) Multiload 375 (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Sri Chaitanya
Page 8
76. Macth the following (1) NSP
Column-I Column--II (2) NPP
A. Cranial banes I. Fourteen (3) GSP
B. Facial bones II. Eight (4) GPP
C. Ear ossicles III. One 82. Identify the A in the diagram
D. Hyoid IV. Six
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
77. Which of the following age group is more
in an expanding population? (1) Macrophage
(1) Pre-reproductive (2) Fibroblast
(2) Post reproductive (3) Adipocytes
(3) Reproductive (4) Mast cells
83. The chordate with notochord
otochord present only
(4) Either pre reproductive or post
in larval tail is
reproductive
(1) Amphioxus
78. Today transgenic model exist for many
(2) Petromyzon
human diseases such as
(3) Ascidia
A) Cancer
(4) Both 1 and 2
B) Cyctic fibrosis
84. The hormone not secreted by placentais
placenta
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin
D) Alzheimer’s disease
(2) Prolactin
(1) A & C
(3) Estrogen
(2) B & C
(4) Progesterone
(3) A. B and C
85. Ozone hole is the area where
(4) A, B, C and D
(1) Absencece of ozone in the troposphere
79. Choose the set of bacterial diseases diseas
(2) Thickening ing of ozone in the
among the following
stratosphere
(1) Mumps,
umps, dysentery, small pox
(3) Thinning of ozone in the stratosphere
(2) Diphtheria, plague, dysentery
(4) All of the above
(3) Mumps, pertusis,
tusis, influenza
SECTION – B
(4) Rhinitis, measles, plague
86. When a person experiences altitude
80. Cannabinoids are known for their effects
sickness, body responds, quickly to
on
overcome it by making necessary
(1) Nervous system
adjustments. Its an example for
(2) Immune system
(1) Morphological adaptation
(3) Reproductive system
(2) Psychological adaptations
(4) cardiovascular system
(3) Behavioural adaptations
81. Which productivity of primary producers
produce
(4) Physiological adaptations
can be used by other trophic level?
level
Sri Chaitanya
Page 9
87. Female heterogamety is (3) Amphibians lay thick shelled eggs
(1) ZW type which do not dry up in sun unlike those of
(2) XO type reptiles
(3) XY type (4) The most successful story is the
(4) All of these evolution of man with language skills and
88. The number of phalanges in each hind self consciousness
limb of man is 93. Match the following columns and select
(1) 5 the correct option
(2) 7 Column-I Column-II
(3) 14 a. Blind spot i. Devoid of
(4) 16 photoreceptors
89. Dissociation of CO2 from carbamino b. Macula ii. Utriculus
haemoglobin is influenced by c. Organ of Corti iii. Bean sized
(1) High pO2 in alveoli d. Olfactory bulb iv. Cochlea
(2) High pCO2in tissues (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) Low pO2 at tissues (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) Low pH at alveoli (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
90. Select the pathway of sperms in female (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
reproductive tract to reach and fertilize 94. Select the correct match
the egg (1) Sickle cell anaemia- autosomal
(1) Vagina → cervix → uterus → dominant
isthmus → Ampulla (2) Colourblindness – Y linked
(2) Ampulla → cervix → uterus → (3) Phenylketonuria – autosomal
isthmus → Vagina recessive trait
(3) Vagina → uterus → cervix → (4) Downs syndrome – X linked
isthmus → Ampulla 95. MTP amendment act was enacted during
(4) Vagina → cervix → uterus → (1) 1951
Ampulla → isthmus (2) 1974
91. What would be the heart rate of a person (3) 1994
if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume (4) 2017
in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 96. As per Euro-III norms, sulphur in petrol
100ml and at the end of verticular systole should be limited to
is 50ml (1) 500 ppm
(1) 125 beats per minute (2) 350 ppm
(2) 100 beats per minute (3) 35 ppm
(3) 75 beats per minute (4) 150 ppm
(4) 50 beats per minute 97. The type of immunity which provides
92. Select the incorrect statement immunological memory is
(1) Sea weeds and few plants existed (1) Active acquired immunity
probably arround 320 mya (2) Natural passive immunity
(2) The first mammals were like shrews (3) Artificial passive immunity
(4) Innate immunity
Sri Chaitanya Page
10
98. The feature found only in female are positive constants. At what time, the
cockroach but not in male is velocity of the particle will be twice its
(1) Mushroom shaped gland initial velocity?
(2) Collaterial glands (1) at t = b/2c
(2) at t = 2b/c
(3) Anal cerci
(3) at t = b/c
(4) Spiracles
(4) at t = b/4c
99. In inbreeding depression 103. The relative permeability of a material is
(1) Fertility is reduced and productivity is 0.998. The sussceptibility of the material
increased is
(2) Fertility is increased and productivity (1) 0.002
is reduced (2) − 0.002
(3) Fertility and productivity are (3) 1.998
increased (4) 1.002
(4) Fertility and productivity are reduced 104. By adding two forces of 8 N and 6 N we
100. Assertion: Very small animals are rarely get
found in polar regions (1) 14 N
(2) 48 N
Reason: Small animals have to expend
(3) 2 N
much energy to generate body heat
(4) a force between 2 N and 14 N
through metabolism
105. A ball of mass m1 is moving with velocity
(1) A & R are true, R explains A
3v. It collides head on elastically with a
(2) A & R are true, R does not explain A stationary ball of mass m2. The velocity
(3) A is true, R is false of both the balls become v after collision.
(4) A is false, R is true m2
Then the value of the ratio is
PHYSICS m1
SECTION – A (1) 1
(2) 2
101. The dimensions ML−1 T−2 may
(3) 3
correspond to
(4) 4
a) work done by a force
106. A block of mass m is placed at the lowest
b) linear momentum point of a smooth vertical track of radius
c) pressure R. In this position, the block is given a
d) energy per unit volume horizontal velocity u such that the block
(1) a, c is just able to perform a complete vertical
(2) b, d circular motion. The acceleration of
(3) c, d block, when its velocity is vertical is
(1) g
(4) a, b
(2) 3g
102. A particle moves along the X-axis with its
(3) g 10
position x given as a function of time t by
the equation x = bt + ct2, where b and c (4) 2 2g
Sri Chaitanya Page
11
107. Two loops P and Q are made from a 1
(1) +
uniform wire. The radii of P and Q are R1 3
and R2 respectively. And their moments 1
(2) +
of inertial about their axis of rotation of I1 2
I3 R 1
and I2 respectively. If = 4 , ten 2 is (3) +
I1 R1 4
2 1
(1) 4 3 (4) −
4
1
(2) 4 3 111. The work done in increasing the size of a
2 soap film from 10 cm x 6 cm to 10 cm x
−
(3) 4 3 11 cm is 3 ×10−1 J . The surface tension fo
1 the film is
−
(4) 4 3
(1) 1.5 ×10−2 Nm−1
108. A comet revolves around the sun in an (2) 3.0 ×10−2 Nm−1
elliptical orbit. When it is closest to the (3) 6.0 ×10−2 Nm−1
sun at a distance d, its corresponding
(4) 11.0 ×10−2 Nm−1
kinetic energy is k0. If it is farthest from
112. An object of mass m, weights m1 in a
the sun at distance 3d then the
liquid of density d1 and it weights m2 in a
corresponding kinetic energy will be
liquid of density d2. The density d of the
k0
(1) object is
9
m2 d 2 − m1d1
8k (1) d =
(2) 0 m2 − m1
9
m1d1 − m1d1
k
(3) 0 (2) d =
4 m2 − m1
4k m2 d1 − m1d 2
(4) 0 (3) d =
9 m1 − m2
109. If the displacement (x) and velocity (v) of m1d 2 − m2 d1
(4) d =
a particle executing SHM are related m1 − m2
through expression 3v 2 = 30 − x 2 . If the 113. The molar heat capacity of a monoatomic
time period of the particle is T = π n , ideal gas undergoing the process PV1/2 =
then what is the value of n? constant is
(1) 12 15
(1) R
(2) 3 2
(3) 10 23
(2) R
2
(4) 3
7
110. There is no change in the volume of a (3) R
2
wire due to the change in its length on
(4) zero
stretching. The Poisson’s ratio of the
material of the wire is

Sri Chaitanya Page

12
114. An ideal Carnot’s engine works between (3) 150
2270 C and 570 C . The efficiency of the
(4) none of these
engine will be
118. When a string is divided into three
(1) 22%
segments of length l1 , l2 and l3 the
(2) 34% fundamental frequencies of these three
segments are v1 v2 and v3 respectively.
(3) 55%
The original fundamental frequency (v) of
(4) 13.5% the string is
115. A black body, at 200K is found to have (1) v = v1 + v2 + v3
maximum at a wavelength of 14µ m .
(2) v = v1 + v2 + v3
When its temperature is raised to 1000K,
the wavelength at which maximum 1 1 1 1
(3) = + +
energy is emitted is v v1 v2 v3
1 1 1 1
(1) 14µ m (4) = + +
v v1 v2 v3
(2) 70µ m
119. Young’s double slit experiment is carried
(3) 2.8µ m out by using green, red and blue light one
colour at a time. The fringe widths
(4) 2.8µ m
recorded are βG , β R and β B respectively.
116. If a transverse pulse is created at the Then,
topmost point of a uniform rope
(1) βG > βB > βR
suspended vertically, then
(2) β B > βG > βR
(1) speed of pulse remains constant
(3) β R > β B > βG
(2) speed of the pulse decreases with
constant rate as pulse moves downward (4) β R > βG > βB

(3) speed of the pulse decreases with 120. Two beams of light having intensities I
increasing rate as pulse moves downward and 4I, interfere to produce a fringe
(4) speed of the pulse increases with pattern on a screen. The phase difference
constant rate as pulse moves downward between the beams is π / 2 , at a point A
and π , at a point B. The diffference
117. A ray of light is incident normally on one between the resultant intensities at A and
of the faces of a prism of apex angle 300 B is
and refractive index 2 . The angle of (1) 2I
deviation of the ray is
(2) 4I
0
(1) 30 (3) 5I
(4) 7I
(2) 450

Sri Chaitanya Page

13
121. Figure shows two concentric spherical 124. Two particles are headed towards each
shells joined by a switch. If charge is other and have de Broglie wavelengths λ1
given to inner one and switch is closed and λ2 , with λ1 > λ2 . After head-on
and opened, the capacitance of the system
collision, if they move together, what will
is
be the de Broglie wavelength of the
combined particle?
λ1λ2
(1)
λ1 − λ2

λ1λ2
(2)
λ1 + λ2

(1) 4π ∈0 r2 λ1λ2
(3)
λ2 + λ1
(2) 4π ∈0 r1
(4) λ1 − λ2
4π ∈0 r1r2
(3)
r2 − r1 125. When a certain metallic surface is
illuminated with monochromatic light of
4π ∈0 r22 wavelength λ , the stopping potential for
(4)
r2 − r1 photoelectric current is found to be 3V0
122. The electric potential at a space point and the stopping potential changed to V0
P(x,y,z) is given as V=x2+y2+z2. The when the wavelength of incident light is
modulus of the electric field at that point doubled. The threshold wavelength of the
is proportional to metal is

1 (1) 6λ
(1) V 2
(2) 4λ / 3
(2) V
(3) 4λ
3
(3) V 2
(4) 8λ
(4) V2 126. The phase difference between the electric
field vector and magnetic field vector in
123. In the Balmer series of spectral lines of
an electromagnetic wave is
Hydrogen atom, the ratio of the shortest
to longest wavelengths is (1) 90°
(1) 5 : 9 (2) zero
(2) 3 : 4 (3) 180°
(3) 7 : 16 (4) 270°
(4) 1 : 3

Sri Chaitanya Page

14
127. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to (2) t
a battery and is getting charged. During (3) 1/t
the charging process, at any instant of (4) 1/t2
time, the current in the wire connected to 130. A compound microscope has three
positive terminal of battery is I1 , the possible objective lenses (focal length fo)
current in the wire connected to negative and two eyepiece lenses (focal length fe).
thermal of battery is I 2 and the For maximum magnification the objective
displacement current between the plates and eyepiece should be chosen such that
of the capacitor is I d , then which of the (1) fo and fe , are both the largest
following is correct relation between the available
currents? (2) fo and fe , are both the smallest
available
(3) fo is the largest available and f e is
the smallest available
(4) f e is the largest available and fo is
the smallest available
131. Two Polaroids are aligned such that
polarized light of maximum intensity
(1) I1 = Id = I2
passes through the second one. At what
(2) I1 = Id + I 2 angle should pass axis of second one be
(3) I1 = Id − I2 placed with pass axis of first one, so that
the intensity is subsequently reduced by
(4) I1 + Id + I2 = 0
half?
128. In a given sample of radioactive element,
(1) 600
the number of nuclei that has
(2) 450
disintegrated in 10 minutes is found equal
(3) 300
to the number of nuclei that remain un-
(4) 22.50
disintegrated. The half-life of the element
is (ln refers to natural logarithm) 132. Consider the two statements A and B
given and identify the correct choice in
(1) 5 minutes
the options given below.
(2) 10 minutes
Statement -A: All points in a bright band
(3) 10/ln(2) minutes
are equally bright in YDSE.
(4) ln(2)/10 minutes
Statement - B: All bright bands of
129. At t = 0, a particle starts from rest from
diffraction pattern due to a single slit are
the origin and moves along the X-axis
of same intensity.
under the action of a constant force
(1) A is true, B is false
produced by an external agent. At t = t,
(2) A is false, B is true
the instantaneous power of the agent is
proportional to (3) A is true, B is true
(1) t2 (4) A is false, B is false

Sri Chaitanya Page

15
133. The network shown various currents
indicated in the diagram. The reading of
the ammeter is

(1) BiL
(2) BiL/2
(1) 6 A (3) 3 BiL/2
(2) 4 A (4) BiL/4
SECTION – B
(3) zero
136. A long wire is bent into the hair pin-like
(4) 5 A shape shown in the figure. The magnetic
134. A resistance of 3 Ω draws current from a induction at the point “P” is given by
potential divider. The potential divider
AB has a total resistance 12 Ω as shown
in the figure. A voltage 24 V is supplied
to the potential divider. Find the voltage
across the 3 Ω when the sliding contact is
in the middle (C) of the potentiometer (1) ( µ0i / 2π r )( 2 + π )
wire (2) ( µ0i / 4π r )( 2 + π )
(3) ( µ0i / 4r )
(4) ( µ0i / 4π r )(1 + π )
137. A toroid of mean radius 25 cm is wound
with 4000 turns on a ferromagnetic core
of relative permeability µr = 800 . What is
the magnetic induction in the core for a
(1) 9 V magnetizing current of 0.2 A?
(1) 5.12 T
(2) 6 V
(2) 0.0512 T
(3) 18 V (3) 51.2 T
(4) 3 V (4) 0.512 T
135. A wire of length L is bent at midpoint in 138. A Ball is projected towards north with a
the form of letter “V” with an angle 600 speed of 20m/s at an angle of 450 with the
between the two segments as shown. It horizontal. Due to wind ball gets a
carries a current i . It is kept in a uniform horizontal acceleration of 7.5 m/s2 due
magnetic field of induction B such that East. Then the range of the ball is
the field is perpendicular to the plane of (1) 30 m
the “V”. The magnitude of the force (2) 40 m
acting on it is (3) 30 2 m
(4) 50 m
Sri Chaitanya Page
16
139. Two choke coils of inductances L1 and L2 144. Four junction diodes are shown with the
are connected in series to a battery. Due potentials at the terminals. Which of them
to changing currents emf’s are induced in is forward biased?
the coils. The ratio of the induced emf’s
is
(1) L1 : L2
(2) L2 : L1
(1) 4
(3) L12 : L22
(2) 3
(4) L22 : L12 (3) 2
140. To make permanent magnets, the material (4) 1
we should select must have 145. A capacitor, an inductor and an electric
(1) high retentivity and low coercivity bulb are connected in series to an AC
(2) low retentivity and high coercivity supply of constant voltage and variable
(3) high retentivity and high coercivity frequency. As the frequency of the supply
(4) low retentivity and low coercivity is increased gradually, then the brightness
141. Which of the following decay modes is of the electric bulb will be found to
due to a transition between states of the (1) increase
same nucleus? (2) decrease
(1) alpha decay (3) first increase, reach a maximum and
(2) beta decay then decrease
(3) gamma decay (4) show no change
(4) positron emission 146. The graph shown with time on X-axis and
142. What is the value of (600 m + 600 mm) AC current or voltage on Y-axis could
with regard to significant figures ? represent
(1) 600 m
(2) 600.600 m
(3) 601 m
(4) 600.6 m
143. Two NOR gates and one NAND gate are
connected together as shown. The a) the (1-voltage, 2-current) for a
composite gate acts as capacitor
b) the (1-current, 2-voltage) for a
A capacitor
Y c) the (1-voltage, 2-current) for an
inductor
B
d) the (1-current, 2-voltage) for an
(1) NOR gate inductor
(2) NAND gate (1) a, c are true
(3) OR gate (2) b, d are true
(4) AND gate (3) b, c are true
(4) a, d are true

Sri Chaitanya Page

17
147. A sphere is moving down through a (3) remains constant
viscous liquid at a constant speed of 0.2 (4) may increase or decrease
m/s. If that sphere is pulled up through CHEMISTRY
that liquid with a force twice its effective SECTION – A
weight, now it moves with a constant 151. Which of the following molecule have
speed of zero dipole moment?
(1) 0.4 m/s (1) BF3
(2) 0.6 m/s (2) CH 2Cl 2
(3) 0.2 m/s (3) NF3
(4) 0.1 m/s (4) SO 2
148. Consider the two statements A and B
152. When 1 mol CrCl 3 .6H 2 O is treated with
given and identify the correct choice in
excess of AgNO 3 , 3 mole of AgCl are
the options given below.
A : Mass may or may not present at obtained. The formula of the complex is
centre of mass. (1) [CrCl 3 ( H 2 O)3 ].3H 2 O
B : Charged particle can trace a circular (2) [CrCl 2 ( H 2O ) 4 ]Cl.2 H 2 O
path in an uniform electric field. (3) [CrCl (H 2O )5 ]Cl 2 .H 2 O
(1) A is true, B is false (4) [Cr (H 2 O) 6 ]Cl 3
(2) A is false, B is true 153. 330−350 K
Ni + 4 CO  → Ni ( CO )4 
450− 470 K
→ Ni + 4 CO
(3) A is true, B is true This sequence of reactions involved in
(4) A is false, B is false (1) Van Arkel metal for refining of nickel
149. Consider the two statements A and B and (2) Mond’s process for refining of nickel
select the appropriate option from the (3) Zone refining of nickel
four options given below: (4) Refining of nickel by distillation
A: If you place your hand above a fire, 154. Observe the following statements
you feel hot due to radiation only. 1) H 3 BO 3 is used as antiseptic
B: If you place your hand below a 2) In B2 H 6 , each boron is sp3 hybridised
glowing filament bulb, you feel hot due to 3) Aqueous solution of borax is alkaline
convection. in nature
(1) A is true, B is false The correct statements are
(2) A is false, B is true (1) 2 and 3
(3) A is true, B is true (2) 1, 2 and 3
(4) A is false, B is false (3) 1 and 3
150. When a positive charge moves in the (4) 1 and 2
direction of the electric field, the electric 155. Which of the following is most basic?
potential energy of the charge–field (1) Lu (OH )3
system (2) Yb (OH )3
(1) decreases (3) Ce (OH )3
(2) increases (4) Tb (OH )3
Sri Chaitanya Page
18
156. Oxy acid Basicity (1) Hunsdicker reaction
A) H 3 PO 2 1) Tribasic (2) Hell-Volhard-zelinsky reaction
B) H 3PO 3 2) Mono basic (3) Friedel-crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction
C) H 3 PO 4 3) Tetrabasic
160. Which is the most basic among the
D) H 4 P2 O 6 4) Dibasic following?
The correct match is (1)
ABCD
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 2 1 3 4 (2)
(4) 1 2 3 4
157. In the composition of Portland cement the
species having highest percentage by
mass
(1) SiO 2 (3)
(2) CaO
(3) Fe 2 O 3
(4) SO 3
158. Among the following ethers, which one (4)
will produce methyl alcohol on treatment
with hot concentrated HI?
(1)

161. Which one of the following is not

reducing sugar?
(2) (1) Glucose
(3) (2) Fructose
(3) Sucrose
(4) lactose
(4) 162. Which of the following do not give
iodoform with ( I 2 + NaOH ) or NaOI?
(1) CH 3 − CHO
(2) CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO
159. When chlorine is treated with carboxylic (3) CH 3 − CH 2 − OH
acid in the presence of red phosphorous
then chloro carboxylic acid will be
formed, this reaction is known as: (4)

Sri Chaitanya Page

19
163. (4) X 2 Cl 3
( 3 2)
→C.
Zn dust H 2 Ni CH COO Mn
CH 2 Br − CH 2 Br →
∆
A  → B 
O
168. A compound contains carbon and
2

Here C is? hydrogen in the mass ratio 3 : 1. The

formula of the compound is
(1) CH 3 NO 2
(1) CH 2
(2) CH 3COOH
(2) CH 3
(3) C 2 H 5 − O − N = O
(3) CH 4
(4) CH 3 − O − N = O
(4) C 2 H 6
164. Geometrical isomerism is shown by
169. NH 3 gas is liquefied more easily than
(1) CH 2 = C ( Br ) I
N 2 . Hence
(2) CH3CH = C ( Br ) I
(1) vander waals constant a and b of NH 3
(3) ( CH3 )2 C = C ( Br ) I
is greater than that of N 2
(4) CH 3CH = CCl2 (2) vander waals constant a and b of NH 3
2−
165. Both  Ni ( CO )4  and  Ni ( CN )4  are is smaller than that of N 2

diamagnetic. The hybridisation of nickel (3) a ( NH3 ) > a ( N 2 ) but b ( NH 3 ) < b ( N 2 )

in these complexes, respectively, are (4) a ( NH 3 ) < a ( N 2 ) but b ( NH 3 ) > b ( N 2 )
(1) sp3 , sp3 170. On electrolysing a sample of acidified
(2) sp3 , dsp2 water, 22.4 mL of hydrogen was
obtained. The volume of oxygen in mL
(3) dsp 2 , sp3 obtained is
(4) dsp 2 , sp2 (1) 22.4
(2) 44.8
166. The value of K C for the following
(3) 11.2
equilibrium is:
(4) 2.24
CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 ( g )
171. Correct option relation between ∆H
Given K p = 167 bar at 1073 K.
(change in enthalpy) and ∆E (change in
(1) 1.896 mol L−1 internal energy) for a gaseous reaction

(2) 4.38 × 10 −4 mol L−1 (1) ∆H is always greater than ∆E

(2) ∆H < ∆E only if the number of moles
(3) 6.3 × 10 4 mol L−1
of the products is greater than the number
(4) 6.626 mol L−1 of moles of the reactants
167. Guess the formula which are not correct (3) ∆H is always less than ∆E
for an element X.
(4) ∆H < ∆E only if the number of moles
(1) X 2 O 3 of products is less than the number of
(2) X 2 (SO 4 )3 moles of the reactants
(3) XPO 4
Sri Chaitanya Page
20
172. The product Z of the following reactions (2) 7
is (3) 10
CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 3 → Y + HBr 
Br2 / hv
→Z CH3ONa
(4) 12
(1) 2-Methoxy propane 177. (A) : Lowering of vapour pressure of
(2) 1-Methoxy propane 0.5M sugar solution is less than 0.5M
KCl solution
(3) Propane-2-ol
(R) : Lowering of vapour pressure is
(4) Propane-1-ol
directly proportional to the number of
173. Which of the following factors affect the solute particles present in the solutions
rate of reaction?
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is
(1)Temperature correct explanation of A
(2) Catalyst (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not
(3) Concentration correct explanation of A
(4) All of these (3) A is true and R is false
174. Given standard electrode potential; (4) A is false and R is true

Fe3+ + 3e − 
→ Fe; E° = −0.036 volt 178. List – 1 (Colour) List – 2 (Product)
4−
A) Prussian blue 1) Fe ( CN )5 NOS
Fe2 + + 2e − 
→ Fe; E° = −0.440 volt
The standard electrode potential E° for B) Violet 2) Fe 4  Fe ( CN )6 
3
Fe +3 + e − → Fe 2 + is 2+
C) Blood red 3)  Fe ( SCN ) 
(1)−0.476 volt
(2) −0.404 volt D) White 4) AgCl

(3) 0.440 volt 5) Na 4  Fe ( CN )6 

(4) +0.772 volt The correct match is
175. When 100 ml of N 10 NaOH are added ABCD
H
to 50ml of N 5 HCl, the P of the (1) 4 1 3 2
resulting solution is (2) 3 1 2 4
(1) 7 (3) 1 2 3 4
(2) greater than 7 (4) 2 1 3 4
(3) less than 7 179. Select the atomic orbital in which 2 radial
nodes are not present
(4) Zero
(1) 3s
176. In (S4O62 − ), the sum of the oxidation (2) 4s
states of all S atoms present is (3) 4p
(1) 5 (4) 5d

Sri Chaitanya Page

21
180. Calculate the work done when two moles
of helium gas expand isothermally and
irreversibly from 1 dm 3 to 1 m 3 at a
constant pressure of 100 kPa and 27°C.
(3)
(1)99900 kJ
(2) 99900 J
(3) 34464.65 kJ
(4) 34464.65 J
181. The paramagnetic molecule/ion is (4)
(1)Superoxide ion
(2) Peroxide ion
(3) Carbon molecule
(4) Nitrogen molecule
182. Two statements are given below 184. Which of the following is amphoteric?
a) Cr +2 is reducing due to half filled t 2g (1) Cr2 O 3

in d 3 configuration (2) Mn 2O 7
b) Mn +3 is oxidising due to half filled d 5 (3) CrO
configuration which has extra stability
(4) CrO 3
(1) Statement a is correct, statement b is
incorrect 185. Scuba divers when go in deep sea face a
very painful situation known as “bends”,
(2) Statement a is incorrect, statement b is
the formation of N 2 bubbles around the
correct
joints due to decrease in solubility of N 2
(3) Both statements a and b are correct
as a result of reduced pressure, when the
(4) Both statements a and b are incorrect diver rises up towards sea surface. This
183. In the given reaction (x) will be situation is avoided by-
(1) Taking only pure O 2 in breathing
NBS Mg 1. CO2
A B X cylinders.
ether 2. H+
(2) Replacing N 2 by He, which more
(1)
soluble than N 2 .

(3) Replacing N 2 by He, which is less

soluble than N 2 .

(4) This situation cannot be avoided and

(2) therefore pain killers are consumed.

Sri Chaitanya Page

22
 SECTION – B (2) N 2 (Species) → 3.5 (Bond order)
186. For a cell involving one electron
(3) O −2 (Species) → 1.5 (Bond order)
E 0cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium
constant for the cell reaction is [Given (4) O 2 (Species) → 2 (Bond order)
2.303RT
that = 0.059 V at T = 298 K]
F 191. Which one of the following order is
correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy
(1) 1.0 × 105
of halogen molecules?
(2) 1.0 × 1010 (1) I 2 > Br2 > Cl 2 > F2
(3) 1.0 × 10 30
(2) Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I
(4) 1.0 × 10 2
(3) Br2 > I 2 < F2 > Cl 2
187. For the underlined species, n-factor is:
(4) F2 > Cl 2 > Br2 > I 2
I 2 (aq ) + S 2 O 32 − (aq ) → 2 I − (aq ) + S 4 O 62 − (aq )
O
192. HC ≡ CH Red

hot
→ A 3 → B
(1)1 Fe tube H 2 O / Zn

(2) 1.5 Product B is

(3) 2 (1) CH 3 − CHO
(4) 2.5
(2)
188. The increasing order of energy of orbitals
having the following quantum numbers is
A) n = 4, l = 1 B) n = 4, l = 0
C) n = 3, l = 2 D) n = 3, l = 1 (3)
(1) C < A < D < B COOH
(2) A < C < B < D
COOH
(3) B < C < D < A
(4) CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO
(4) D < B < C < A
193. Predict the IUPAC name of the following
189. The P H of 0.1M solution of the following
compound.
compounds increasing in the order
CH 3 − CH − CH − CH 2COOH
(1) NaCl < NH 4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(2) HCl < NH 4 Cl < NaCl < NaCN NH2 CN

(3) NaCN < NH 4Cl < NaCl < HCl (1) 3−Cyano−2−amino pentanoic acid

(4) HCl < NaCl < NH 4 Cl < NaCN (2) 3−Cyano−4−amino pentanoic acid

190. Find out incorrect match: (3) 2−Amino−3−cyanopentanoic acid

(4) 4−Amino−3−cyanopentanoic acid
(1) N +2 (Species) → 2.5 (Bond order)
Sri Chaitanya Page
23
194. The more stable carbocation is 197. In the following reaction, the product (A)
(1) is
+
+ CH 2 N ≡ NCl− NH 2
+
+ →
H
(A)
yellow dye

Cl (1) C 6 H 5 − N = N − NH − C 6 H 5
(2) (2)
+ CH 2 NH 2
C6 H 5 − N = N

(3)
NO 2
NH 2
(3)
+ CH 2
C6 H 5 − N = N
(4)
C6 H 5 − N = N NH 2
OCH 3
(4) 198. The bond angle of H 2Se is best described
+ CH 2 as
(1) Between 109° and 120°
(2) Greater than 120°
(3) Less than that of H 2S but not less
195.
than 90°
CN CN
CHO (4) Less than 90°
HO H H OH
HO H 
→ HCN
+ 199. Bakelite and polythene are considered as
HO H HO H an example of
CH 2OH
CH 2OH CH 2OH (1) Thermosetting polymers
(I) (II)
(2) Elastomers and thermoplastic
Compound I and II are polymers
(1) Diastereomers (3) Thermoplastic polymers
(2) Identical (4) Thermosetting and thermoplastic
(3) Mesomers polymers
(4) Enantiomers 200. Photochemical smog consists of
196. Tranquillizers are the substances used for excessive amount of X, in addition to
the treatment of: aldehydes, ketones, peroxy acetyl nitrile
(1) cancer (PAN). X is
(2) AIDS (1) CH 4
(3) mental diseases (2) CO 2
(4) physical disorder (3) O3
(4) CO
Sri Chaitanya Page
24
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL DATE: 31-03-2022
NEET GRAND TEST - 7 KEY

BOTANY

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 3 5) 2 6) 1 7) 4 8) 2 9) 3 10) 4
11) 4 12) 2 13) 2 14) 2 15) 1 16) 4 17) 3 18) 3 19) 4 20) 4
21) 1 22) 4 23) 2 24) 3 25) 1 26) 4 27) 2 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4
31) 4 32) 3 33) 2 34) 3 35) 2 36) 1 37) 1 38) 2 39) 4 40) 3
41) 3 42) 2 43) 3 44) 2 45) 2 46) 4 47) 2 48) 2 49) 1 50) 3

ZOOLOGY

51) 2 52) 3 53) 2 54) 1 55) 3 56) 3 57) 2 58) 2 59) 4 60) 2
61) 3 62) 2 63) 3 64) 2 65) 1 66) 3 67) 2 68) 2 69) 1 70) 1
71) 2 72) 4 73) 4 74) 4 75) 4 76) 3 77) 1 78) 4 79) 2 80) 4
81) 2 82) 1 83) 3 84) 2 85) 3 86) 4 87) 1 88) 3 89) 1 90) 1
91) 2 92) 3 93) 3 94) 3 95) 4 96) 4 97) 1 98) 2 99) 4 100) 1

PHYSICS

101) 3 102) 1 103) 2 104) 4 105) 2 106) 3 107) 2 108) 1 109) 1 110) 2
111) 2 112) 4 113) 3 114) 2 115) 3 116) 2 117) 2 118) 3 119) 4 120) 2
121) 1 122) 1 123) 1 124) 1 125) 3 126) 2 127) 1 128) 2 129) 2 130) 2
131) 2 132) 4 133) 1 134) 2 135) 2 136) 2 137) 4 138) 4 139) 1 140) 3
141) 3 142) 3 143) 3 144) 1 145) 3 146) 4 147) 3 148) 1 149) 4 150) 1

CHEMISTRY

151) 1 152) 4 153) 2 154) 2 155) 3 156) 2 157) 2 158) 4 159) 2 160) 2
161) 3 162) 2 163) 2 164) 2 165) 2 166) 1 167) 4 168) 3 169) 3 170) 3
171) 4 172) 1 173) 4 174) 4 175) 1 176) 3 177) 1 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2
181) 1 182) 3 183) 4 184) 1 185) 3 186) 2 187) 1 188) 4 189) 2 190) 2
191) 2 192) 2 193) 4 194) 3 195) 1 196) 3 197) 4 198) 3 199) 4 200) 3

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

 SOLUTIONS
BOTANY 32. NCERT XI, P.NO: 20,21
SECTION – A 33. NCERT XI, P.NO: 23
1. NCERT XI, P.NO: 42 34. NCERT XII, P.NO: 198,199
2. NCERT XI, P.NO: 93 35. NCERT XII, P.NO: 65
3. NCERT XI, P.NO: 219 SECTION – B
4. NCERT XI, P.NO: 88 36. NCERT XI, P.NO: 79, 80, 81
5. NCERT XI, P.NO: 139, 37. NCERT XII, P.NO: 108, 115
NCERT XII, P.NO: 100 38. NCERT XII, P.NO: 199
6. NCERT XI, P.NO: 212,213 39. NCERT XII, P.NO: 110,111
7. NCERT XI, P.NO: 245 40. NCERT XII, P.NO: 208
8. NCERT XII, P.NO: 36 41. NCERT XI, P.No: 135
9. NCERT XII, P.NO: 79 42. NCERT XI, P.No: 136
10. NCERT XII, P.NO: 195 43. NCERT XII, P.NO: 83, 100,105
11. NCERT XII, P.NO: 204 44. NCERT XI, P.NO: 248,249,250
12. NCERT XII, P.NO: 174 45. NCERT XI, P.NO: 10
13. NCERT XII, P.NO: 209 46. Cell membrane and ‘70’s Ribosomes
14. NCERT XI, P.NO: 159 47. NCERT XI, P.NO: 252
15. NCERT XI, P.NO: 163,168 48. 1 – secondary nucleus (2n) 2. Male gametes,
16. NCERT XII, P.NO: 13 1 – female gametes
17. NCERT XII, P.NO: 177 49. NCERT XII, P.NO: 38, 39
18. NCERT XI, P.NO: 79 50. NCERT XI, P.NO: 229, 232, 233
19. NCERT XI, P.NO: 148,149 ZOOLOGY
20. NCERT XI, P.NO: 232 SECTION – A
21. NCERT XI, P.NO: 38 51. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 59
22. NCERT XI, P.NO: 132 52. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 105
23. NCERT XI, P.NO: 165 53. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 51
24. NCERT XI, P.NO: 202,203 54. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 48
25. NCERT XII, P.NO: 250 55. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 101
26. NCERT XII, P.NO: 77 56. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 51
27. NCERT XI, P.NO: 189,190 57. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 294
28. NCERT XII, P.NO: 183,188 58. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 286
29. NCERT XII, P.NO: 114, 115 59. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 290
30. NCERT XII, P.NO:76,83,100,116 60. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 260
31. NCERT XII, P.NO: 31 61. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 263

Sri Chaitanya Page 2

62. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 275 93. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 324
63. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 140 94. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 91
64. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 321 95. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 62
65. Conceptual 96. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 272
66. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 61 97. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 151
67. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 43 98. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 115
68. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 119 99. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 167
69. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 50 100. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 224
70. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 49 PHYSICS
71. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 60 SECTION – A
72. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 225 dx
V= ,t = 0,u=b,
73. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 212 102. dt
74. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 244 t=?,V =2u
103. µr = 1 + χ
75. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 263
104. Fmin ≤ Fnet ≤ Fmax
76. Conceptual
105. 3m1v = m1v + m2v
77. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 227
3m1v − m1v = m2 v
78. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 213
2m1v = m2 v
79. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 147
m2
80. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 159 ∴ =2
m1
81. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 243
( 3g ) + ( g )
2 2
106. a = ac2 + ar2 = = g 10
82. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 103
107. I = MR 2 , M α R
83. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 55
⇒ Iα R3
84. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 53
108. v1r1 = v2 r2 = constant
85. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 282
∴ v0 d = 3dv1
SECTION – B
v0
86. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 226 ⇒ v1 =
3
87. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 87 1 mv02
∴ KE =
88. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 311 2 9
k
89. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XI, Page No: 274 ⇒ KE = 0
9
90. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 95
109. 3v = 30 − x 2
2

91. Stroke volume 100 − 50 = 50 Compare withV = ω ( A2 − X 2 )

C.O = S .V × No of beats / min 1 2π 1
w2 = ⇒ =
3 T 3
C.O 5000
Number of beats/min = = = 100 n=12
S .V 50
92. NCERT, BIOLOGY-XII, Page No: 139

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

 ∆V ∆l ∆V 1
110. = (1 − 2σ ) , =0 sin r =
V l V 2
111. W = T × ∆A ⇒ r = 450
−4
W 3 × 10 ∴ Angle of deviation = 450 – 300 = 150
∴T = =
∆A 2 × (110 − 60 ) ×10−4 1
118. nα ⇒ l = l1 + l2 + l3
(soap film two surfaces) = 3 × 10−2 Nm −1 l
112. V ( d − d1 ) = m1 g 1 1 1 1
= + +
n n1 n2 n3
V ( d − d 2 ) = m2 g
119. We know that fringe width is given by
d − d1 m1 λD
= β=
d − d 2 m2 d
m1d 2 − m2 d1 ∴ λR > λG > λB
∴d =
m1 − m2 ∴ β R > βG > β B
113. For a polytropic process specific heat of an 120. Resultant intensity due to superposition of
ideal gas is given by two waves on the screen is given as
R R
c= + I (φ ) = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos φ
γ −1 1− n
Here, I1 = I and I 2 = 4 I
 1
 n = 2  , for this pholytropic process π
At point A, φ = ∴ I A = I + 4 I = 5I
2
R
c= + 2R At point B, φ = π ∴ I B = I + 4I − 4I = I
5
−1
3 ∴ I A − I B = 4I
3R 7R 121. All charge will transfer to outer shell
= + 2R =
2 2 ⇒ C = 4π ∈0 R2
114. T1 = 227 C = ( 227 + 273) K = 500 K
0
122. Ex = −2 x, E y = −2 and Ez = −2 z
T2 = 57 C = ( 57 + 273) K = 330 K
0
E = Ex2 + E y2 + Ez2 = 4 x 2 + 4 y 2 + 4 z 2
Efficiency fo Carnot’s engine
T 330 = 2 x2 + y2 + z2 = 2 V
η = 1− 2 = 1− = 0.34 or η = 34%
T1 500 1  1 1 
123. = R  2 − 2  . For Balmer series n = 2, for
λm T1 λ n m 
115. λm1 T1 = λm2 T2 ⇒ λm2 = 1

T2 longest wavelength m = 3 and for shortest

14 × 200 wavelength m = ∞
= = 2.8µ m 124. de Broglie wavelength is independent of
1000
direction of motion. But collision obeys the
m
116. Tension of P = gx = µ gx law of conservation of linear momentum.
L
λ1 = h / m1v1 and λ2 = h / m2v2 and
T
V= = gx λ = h / ( m2v2 − m1v1 )
µ
117. Using Snell’s law for the refraction at AC, ch ch
125. Apply − = eVS two times and solve for
we get λ λ0
µ sin i = (1) sin r λ0
2 sin 30 = sin r
0
126. The electric field vector and magnetic field
vector are in the same phase
Sri Chaitanya Page 4
127. The conduction currents in the wires SECTION – B
connected to battery terminals must be equal 136. Visualize the conductor as two straight
and at any instant the displacement current conductors and a semicircle. Field due to
must be equal to the conduction current µo i
each straight conductor is B = and the
during the charging. 4π r

128. The time taken for half of the nuclei to µo i

field due to semicircle is and all the
4r
disintegrate is called half-life
three fields are in the same direction, namely
129. As force is constant, the acceleration a must
outward.
be also a constant. The velocity at any time t
137. n is number of turns per unit length =
= at, and instantaneous power P = force ×
4000 / 2π R = 8000 / π . B = µ0 µ r in
velocity
130. The magnification of a compound 1
138. R = u cos θ Tj +   aT 2i
microscope is roughly given by 2

m = LD / f o f e . If both fo and fe are small, we 139. e = − L ( di / dt ) .

get largest magnification. 140. A permanent magnet once made must retain
131. Note that maximum transmitted intensity is its magnetism for a long time and it should

(I/2), where I is the intensity of light that falls not lose its magnetism by any externally

on the first Polaroid. Next Malus's law applied fields

I = I m cos 2 θ gives I m / 2 = I m cos 2 θ , hence 141. In gamma decay, the excited nucleus returns
to the ground state by getting rid of energy in
θ = 450
the form of electromagnetic radiation of short
132. Conceptual
wavelength ( γ -ray)
133. The current of 10 A, branches in to 6 A and 4
A. Next 4 A branches in to 2 A and 2 A 142. answer should contain 3 significant figures

flowing towards the top of ammeter. If after rounding off.

ammeter current is 6 A, from below it will 143. Give inputs A and B as 0, 0 and work out the
join 2 A to give 8 A as indicated in the output Y and repeat with other possible

diagram. inputs and from the truth table obtained we

134. Between A and C equivalent resistance is recognize it as OR gate. Alternately the two

63 = 2 Ω . This and remaining 6 Ω are in NOR gates with inputs shorted act as NOT

series and the current is 24/8 = 3 A. This gates. This helps to make the truth table easy.

multiplied by 2 Ω gives 6 V. 144. For forward bias, the P-side (shown by

135. The effective length of the conductor is triangle) must be at a higher potential than N-
obtained by joining the free ends. This turns side (shown by rectangle)

out to be L/2. Next apply F = BiL sin θ

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

145. The bulb is treated as a fixed resistance and (3CaO ⋅ SiO 2 and 2CaO ⋅ SiO 2 )
now the circuit is L-C-R series circuit. As
frequency increases, the current first (Mass) CaO → ≈ 50% to 60%
increases and after reaching a maximum SiO 2 
→ ≈ 22%
value at resonant frequency starts decreasing.
146. Observe that graph-2 attains maximum at t = Al 2 O 3 
→ ≈ 5%
0 and graph-1 at that moment has zero value
and starts increasing. If 1 is voltage and 2 is Fe 2O 3 
→ ≈ 3%
current, the current is leading which is true in
the case of a capacitor and vice versa for an SO 3 
→ ≈ 3%
inductor.
158.
147. In the first case W = Fdrag = 6πη r ( 0.2 ) . In
the second case 2W − W = Fdrag = 6πη r ( v ) .
From the two, we get v = 0.2 m/s.
148. Conceptual
149. Convection currents take the heat up in a fire
and hand below the bulb receives heat by
radiation. 159. Hell – Volhard-zelinsky reaction
150. Positive charge in the field experiences a
force in the direction of field and gains 160. Lone pair is available
kinetic energy at the cost of potential energy 161. Sucrose
of the charge – field system.
162. CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 163.
151. BF3 A = CH 2 = CH 2 , B = CH 3 − CH 3 , C = CH 3 − COOH .

152. [Cr ( H 2O) 6 ]Cl3 164. Conceptual

153. Mond’s process for refining of nickel 165.

2−
154. Conceptual  Ni ( CO )4  :  Ni ( CN )4 
155. Among lanthanaids, on moving L to R ↓ ↓
Zeff ↑ sp3 dsp 2
Attraction ↑ Acidic character ↑ basic 166. 1.896 mol L−1
character ↓ 167. Oxidation state of X is +3 formula should
On moving left to right basic character
be XCl3 & not X 2 Cl3 .
increase
168.
156. Conceptual
C:H
157. Portland cement → Consist of at least
Weight ratio 3:1
two-thirds by mass of calcium silicates.

Sri Chaitanya Page 6

 3 1 177. Conceptual
Mole ratio : = 1: 4
12 1
178. Conceptual
Molecular formula = CH 4
179. Radial nodes = n – l – 1
169. a – high, b – low, then TC high
180. W = − P∆V = − P( V2 − V1 )
TC ∝ liquifaction of gas
Given, P = 100 kPa = 105 Pa
170. Volume ratio of H 2 : O 2 = 2 :1
V1 = 1 dm 3 = 10 −3 m 3 , V2 = 1 m 3
= 22.4 : 11.2
171. As ∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT So, we have, W = 105 × (1 − 10 −3 ) J

If n p < n r ; ∆n g = n p − n r = − ve W = (10000 − 100) J ∴ W = 99900 J

Hence ∆H < ∆E 181. Superoxide ion ⇒ O −2

↓
172. 2-Methoxy propane
Total number of electrons
173. Rate of reaction depends upon nature of
= 17e − ⇒ B.O. = 1.5
reactants, concentration of the reactants,
Number of unpaired electron = 1
temperature and presence of catalyst.
So, it is paramagnetic ion.
3+ −
174. Fe + 3e 
→ Fe ......(i)
182. Cr 2+ act as reducing agent and changes
Fe 2 + + 2e − 
→ Fe ......(ii)
to Cr 3+ . Cr 3+ is stable due to half filled
Fe3+ + 1e− 
→ Fe2+ ......(iii) t 2 g 3 electronic configuration
∆G 3o = ∆G1o − ∆G o2 Mn 3+ act as oxidising agent and changes
− FE 3o = −3FE1o + 2FE o2 or to Mn 2+ . Mn 2+ is stable due to 3d 5

E 3o = 3E1o − 2E o2 stable electronic configuration

183.
= 3(−0.036) + 2(0.440) = +0.772 V
Br
175.
1  NBS Mg
VA N A = 100 × = 10  ether
10 
 same
1
VB N B = 50 × = 10  Mg−Br COOH
5 
⇒ Mixture is neutral 1. CO2
2. H+
PH = 7
184. Cr2 O3
176. S4 O 62 − ; x + 6(−2) = −2 ; x = 10

Sri Chaitanya Page 7

185. Replacing N 2 by He, which is less Tranquilizer are used to reduce anxiety,

soluble than N 2 . fear, tension, agitation and states of

mental disturbance.
SECTION – B
197. Conceptual
0.0591
186. E = o
log K C
n 198. According to Drago’s rule:

0.0591 ∠HXH : H 2 O > H 2S > H 2Se > H 2 Te

0.59 = log K C (104°) (92°) ( 91° ) (89.5° )
1
199. Thermosetting polymers:
log K C = 10
Thermosetting polymers are permanently
K C = 1010 setting polymers. These polymers are
cross linked or heavily branched
187. The oxidation state of sulfur changes
molecules which on heating in a mould,
from +2 to +2.5 for one sulfur atom, i.e. get hardened and set and cannot be
and increase of 0.5 for one sulfur atom. softened again. This hardening on heating
is due to cross-linking between different
There are two sulfur atoms in the
polymer chains to give a three
reactant, hence the total increase in dimensional network solid. It example
oxidation state will be 0.5 × 2 = 1. Thus includes bakelite.
the n factor for the reactant is 1. Thermoplastic polymers:
Thermoplastic are linear or slightly
188. D < B < C < A branched polymers. They can be
189. P H - HCl < NH 4Cl < NaCl < NaCN repeatedly softened on heating and
hardened on cooling and hence can be
190. N 2 (Species) → 3.5 (Bond order) used again and again without any change
in chemical composition and mechanical
191. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I
strength. Its examples include polythene
192. and polypropene.
200. Photochemical smog is formed on the
chemical reaction of sunlight, nitrogen
oxides and volatile organic compounds in
the atmosphere.
193. Correct according to IUPAC rules
hv
+
NO 2 (g ) → NO(g ) + O(g )
194. C stabilised by + M groups
Oxygen atom (nascent) is very reactive
195. I and II are diastereo isomers and combines with O 2 in air to produce
196. Tranquilizers and analgesics are ozone.
neurologically active drugs. O (g ) + O 2 (g ) 
→ O3 (g )
These drugs affect the message transfer
mechanism from nerve to receptor.

Sri Chaitanya Page 8