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21 STUDY WITH FUN

1. At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the

maximum K+ loss
(a) Furosemide (b) Hydrochlorothiazide
(c) Acetazolamide (d) Amiloride
2. The current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is
(a) Congestive heart failure (b) Renal insufficiency
(c) Cirrhosis of liver (d) Glaucoma
3. Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic
(a) Triamterene (b) Trimethoprim
(c) Tizanidine (d) Trimetazidine
4. Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by
(a) Reducing insulin release
(b) Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues
(c) Increasing sympathetic activity
(d) Increasing corticosteroid secretion
5. Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal
tubular cell
(a) Na+K+2Cl– cotransporter (b) Na+Cl– symporter
(c) Na+H+ antiporter (d) Na+ K+ ATPase

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1. (c) Acetazolamide

2. (d) Glaucoma

3. (a) Triamterene

4. (a) Reducing insulin release

5. (a) Na+K+2Cl– cotransporter

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1. Which of the following is thermoplastic

(a) Polyvinylchloride (PVC) (b) Polyurethane
(c) Polyester (d) Epoxy resins
2. Which of the following type is non-parenteral type of glass
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
3. Which of the following acts as fusion agent in composition
of glass
(a) Cullet (b) Soda ash
(c) Lime stone (d) Sand

4. What are the ways to isolate an object from the effect of

impact in transit
(a) Cushioning (b) Straps
(c) Tapes (d) Adhesives

5. Which of the following is used for packaging of small

volume or single dose injections
(a) Metal tubes (b) Plastic container
(c) Glass ampoules (d) Plastic sachet

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1. (a) Polyvinylchloride (PVC)

2. (d) IV

3. (a) Cullet

4. (a) Cushioning

5. (c) Glass ampoules

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1. Tri-chloro-mono-fluoro-methane is
(a) Propellant 11 (b) Propellant 12
(c) Propellant 13 (d) Propellant 14
2. Which connects valve to container
(a) Valve body (b) Ferrule
(c) Stem (d) Gasket
3. Containers used for topical and MDI aerosols
(a) Glass container (b) Stainless steel
(c) Aluminium (d) All the above
4. The term PSIG is reference to aerosols means
(a) Propellant safety in glass
(b) Per square inch of glass
(c) Pounds per square inch gauge
(d) Atmospheric pressure
5. Propellant used in aerosols is
(a) Dichlorodifluoromethane
(b) Trichloromonofluoromethane
(c) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
(d) All the above

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1. (a) Propellant 11

2. (b) Ferrule

3. (a) Glass container

4. (c)Pounds per square inch gauge

5. (d) All the above

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1. Which of the following is not commonly employed auxin

(a) Zeatin (b) Indole-3-acetic acid
(c) 2, 4-D (d) Naphthoxy acetic acid
2. An explants can be taken from
(a)Stem and root (b) Apical and axillary bud
(c) Petiole and anther (d) All of the above
3. In batch culture when the cell number or biomass remains
unchanged is known as
(a)Lag phase (b) Stationary phase
(c) Log phase (d) Mid phase
4. The formation of variant clones from culture tissue is
called as
(a)Clonus (b) Clonograph
(c) Somaclonal variation (d) Transduction
5. The ability of plant cell to perform all the functions of
development i.e. its ability to develop into a
complete plant is called as
(a) Kinetic energy of the cell (b) Transformation
(c) Totipotency (d) Transcription

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1. (a) Zeatin

2. (d) All of the above

3. (a) Lag phase

4. (c) Somaclonal variation

5. (c) Totipotency

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1. The example of S-glycosides is

(a)Sennosides (b) Sinigrin
(c) Senegin (d) Psoralen
2. Which of the following drug do not contain Anthracene
glycosides
(a)Aloe (b) Senna
(c) Rhubarb (d) Bitter almond
3. The drug which contain C24 glycosides
(Bufadienolides) is
(a)Digitalis (b) Scilla
(c) Strophanthus (d) Mustard

4. Digitalis leaves are dried at a temperature

(a)Above 60oC (b) below 60oC
(c) Above 85oC (d) Below 85oC

5. Yam is
(a)Liquorice (b) Honey
(c) Rasna (d) Dioscorea

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1. (b) Sinigrin

2. (d) Bitter almond

3. (b) Scilla

4. (b) below 60oC

5. (d) Dioscorea

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1. For 200 beds hospital number of pharmacists required are

(a) 8 (b)10
(c)15 (d) 5
2. TDM is very essential for those drugs with
(a) Wide Therapeutic index
(b) Large Therapeutic index
(c) Narrow Therapeutic index
(d) Small Therapeutic index
3. Sealed glass containers with an elongated neck
(a) Gauge (b) Ampoules
(c) CSP (d) Vial
4. VED analysis stands for
(a) Very ,essential, deal
(b) Vital, essential, desirable
(c) Very, essential ,desirable
(d) Vital, essential, deal
5. Purified absorbent cotton is almost a pure
(a) Cellulose (b) Chitin
(c) Sodium alginate (d) Talc

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1. (a) 8

2. (c) Narrow Therapeutic index

3. (b) Ampoules

4. (b) Vital, essential, desirable

5. (a) Cellulose

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1. The chemical name of guanine is

(a) 2,4-Dioxy-5-methylpyrimidine
(b) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
(c) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
(d) 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine

2. Gout is a metabolic disorder of catabolism of

(a) Pyrimidine (b) Purine
(c) Alanine (d) Phenylalanine
3. Genetic code is
(a) Overlapping (b) Non-overlapping
(c) Not universal (d) Ambiguous
4. Extranuclear DNA is present in
(a) Ribosomes (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria
5. A plasmid is a
(a) Single stranded linear DNA
(b) Single stranded circular DNA
(c) Double stranded linear DNA
(d) Double stranded circular DNA

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1. (b) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine

2. (b) Purine

3. (b) Non-overlapping

4. (d) Mitochondria

5. (d) Double stranded circular DNA

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1. Metastasis refers to
(a) Spreading of cancer cells to local site
(b) Formation of cancer cells
(c) Spreading of cancer cells to distant site
(d) Bone cancer
2. The macrophages present in liver are called as
(a) Alveolar cells (b) Kupffer cells
(c) Microglia (d) Sinus histiocytes

3. Benign tumor of skeletal tissue is called a

(a) Rhabdomyoma (b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Meningioma (d) Fibrosarcoma
4. Aneurysm refers to
(a) Constriction of vessel (b) Blockade of vessel
(c) Abnormal dilation of vessel (d) Rupturing of vessel

5. Prolonged QT interval is associated with development of

(a) Torsade de pointes (b) Atrial flutter
(c) Atrial fibrillation (d) Ventricular fibrillation

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1. (c) Spreading of cancer cells to distant site

2. (b) Kupffer cells

3. (a) Rhabdomyoma

4. (c) Abnormal dilation of vessel

5. (a) Torsade de pointes

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1. Rx means
(a) You take (b) You give
(c) You bring (d) All the above

2. Addend is the abbreviation for

(a)To be applied (b) To be given
(c) To be added (d) Let be added
3. Auristillae is the Latin term for
(a)Eye drop (b) Ear drop
(c) Nasal drop (d) Spray solution

4. Inscription includes
(a) Base (b) Adjuvant
(c) Vehicle (d) All the above
5. Prescription is a
(a)Dietary chart to patient
(b) Diagnosis report to patient
(c) A written order from a registered medical practitioner
(d) Description of patient symptoms

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1. (a) You take

2. (c) To be added
3. (b) Ear drop
4. (d) All the above
5. (c) A written order from a registered
medical practitioner

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1. In capsules, Rotary die process is used for

(a) Filling powder into capsule
(b) Filling liquids into capsules
(c) Filling pellets into capsules
(d) Sorting the filled capsule
2. Type A gelatin has its isoelectric point in the region of
(a) pH 4.7 (b) pH 9.0
(c) pH 7.4 (d) pH 8.0
3. High bloom strength gelatin is used in the
manufacturing of for
(a) Soft gelatin capsules (b) Hard gelatin capsules
(c) Tablet (d) Spray solution
4. The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or
plastic by the addition of Sorbitol
(a)Sorbitol (b) Povidone
(c) Polyethylene glycol (d) HPMC
5. Vegetable capsules shells are prepared with a
(a) Gelatin (b) Chitosan
(c) HPMC (d) Sorbitol

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1. (b) Filling liquids into capsules

2. (b) pH 9.0

3. (a) Soft gelatin capsule

4. (a) Sorbitol

5. (a) Gelatin

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1. Mention the USP standards for total solid content in

water for injection
(a) NLT 10 ppm (b) NMT 5 ppm
(c) NMT 10 ppm (d) NMT 20 ppm
2. Phenyl mercuric nitrate is used as preservative in
injections and eye preparation in the concentration of
(a) 0.001 – 0.002% (b) 0.01%
(c) 0.005 – 0006% (d) 0.5%
3. In the formulation of Intravenous injection the
following materials are not included
(a) Preservative (b) Tonifier
(c) Stabilizer (d) Anti- oxidants
4. LAL ( Limulus amoebocyte lysate ) test is used for
testing following parameter
(a) Sterility test (b) Pyrogen test
(c) Leakage test (d) Rabbit test
5. HEPA filters are 99.97% efficient in removing particles
of size range of
(a) 10 μ (b) 1 μ
(c) 0.3 μ (d) 0.5 μ

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1. (c) NMT 10ppm

2. (a) 0.001 – 0.002%

3. (a) Preservative

4. (b) Pyrogen test

5. (c) 0.3 μ

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1. Climbing film evaporator also called as

(a) Falling film evaporator
(b) Rising film evaporator
(c) Forced circulation evaporator
(d) Triple effect evaporator
2. Blood plasma can be dried by using
(a) Freeze dryer (b) Spray dryer
(c) Drum dryer (d) None

3. Which method is used to separate miscible volatile

liquids
(a)Simple distillation (b) Steam distillation
(c) Fractional distillation (d) None

4. Which of the following is a filter media

(a)Talc (b) Charcoal
(c) Bentonite (d) Cotton cloth
5. Which of the following is a solid adsorbent
(a)Silica gel (b) Brine
(c) Lithium chloride (d) Ethylene glycol

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1. (b) Rising film evaporator

2. (a) Freeze dryer

3. (c) Fractional distillation

4. (d) Cotton cloth

5. (a) Silica gel

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1. A tripeptide has
(a) 3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
(b) 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
(c) 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
(d) 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
2. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R
groups
(a) Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, and Tryptophan
(b) Glycine, Alanine, Leucine
(c) Lysine, Arginine, Histidine
(d) Serine, Threonine, Cysteine
3. Which of the following is an imino acid
(a) Alanine (b) Glycine
(c) Proline (d) Serine
4. Cleaving of peptide chain is done by
(a) Trypsin (b) Tyrosine
(c) Tryptophan (d) Arginine
5. Which of the following amino acids has a sulfur in the R
group
(a) Serine (b) Cysteine
(c) Asparagine (d) Tyrosine

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1. (b) 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds

2. (b) Glycine, Alanine, Leucine

3. (c) Proline

4. (a) Trypsin

5. (b) Cysteine

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1. Which of the following is not a method of determining

the type of an emulsion
(a)Dye-solubility test
(b) Viscosity measurement
(c) U.V. fluorescence test
(d) Dilution test
2. Creaming may occur
(a)Upward (b) Downward
(c) Both ways (d) None
3. Stability of emulsion is dependent on
(a) Viscosity (b) Density
(c) Particle size (d) All of the above
4. In the stability of emulsion, which important instability
step should be prevented
(a) Breaking (b) Coalescence
(c) Flocculation (d) Creaming
5. Vanishing cream is an example of
(a) Aerosol (b) Gel
(c) O/W emulsion (d) W/O emulsion

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1. (b) Viscosity measurement

2. (c) Both ways

3. (d) All of the above

4. (b) Coalescence

5. (c) O/W emulsion

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1. A sugar alcohol is
(a) Mannitol (b) Trehalose
(c) Xylulose (d) Arabinose

2. ADH test is based on the measurement of

(a) Specific gravity of urine
(b) Concentration of urea in urine
(c) Concentration of urea in blood
(d) Volume of urine in ml/minute

3. N–Acetylglucosamnine is present in
(a) Hyaluronic acid (b) Chondroitin sulphate
(c) Heparin (d) All of these

4. McArdle’s disease is due to the deficiency of

(a) Glucose-6-phosphatase (b) Phosphofructokinase
(c) Liver phosphorylase (d) Muscle phosphorylase

5. Glucose tolerance is decreased in

(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Hypopituitarism
(c) Addison’s disease (d) Hypothyroidism

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1. (a) Mannitol

2. (a) Specific gravity of urine

3. (a) Hyaluronic acid

4. (d) Muscle phosphorylase

5. (a) Diabetes mellitus

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1. Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for

(a) Megaloblastic anaemia
(b) Haemolytic anaemia
(c) Anaemia in patients of thalassemia
(d) Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients
2. Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly
after the initiation of warfarin therapy
(a) Factor VII (b) Factor IX
(c) Factor X (d) Prothrombin

3. The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants

(a) Broad spectrum antibiotic (b) Cimetidine
(c) Aspirin (d) Oral contraceptive

4. The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in

atrial fibrillation patients is
(a) Aspirin (b) Warfarin
(c) Low dose subcutaneous heparin (d) Digoxin
5. Tranexamic acid is a specific antidote of
(a) Fibrinolytic drugs (b) Organophosphates
(c) Barbiturates (d) Heparin

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1. (d) Anaemia in chronic renal failure

patients
2. (a) Factor VII
3. (d) Oral contraceptive
4. (b) Warfarin
5. (a) Fibrinolytic drugs

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1. The vagus nerve is the cranial nerve numbering

(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 10 (d) 9
2. Afferent nerve fibers carry impulses from
(a) Effector organs to CNS (b) Receptors to CNS
(c) CNS to receptors (d) CNS to muscles
3. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to
concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive
(a) K+ into the cell
(b) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
(c) Na+ into the cell
(d) Na+ out of the cell
4. The nerve centers which control the body temperature and
the urge for eating are contained in
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Pons
(c) Cerebellum (d) Thalamus
5. Alzheimer’s disease in humans is associated with the
deficiency of
(a) Glutamic acid (b) Acetylcholine
(c) GABA (d) Dopamine.

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1. (c) 10

2. (b) Receptors to CNS

3. (c) Na+ into the cell

4. (a) Hypothalamus

5. (b) Acetylcholine

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1. Zinc pyrithione in shampoo is used as

(a) Conditioner (b) Cleansing
(c) Antidandruff agent (d) Detergent
2. In liquid lipstick Hun Benson is used as
(a) Plasticizer (b) Solvent
(c) Dye (d) Film former
3. The following surfactant are used in the preparation of
dental preparation
(a) Tween80 (b) Certitude
(c) Span 80 (d) Sodium lauryl sulfate
4. Which is the temperature at which the lipstick, lying flat,
melts within the case and ooze out oil or flatten out
(a) Droop point (b) Flash point
(c) Kraft point (d) Cloud point
5. Baby shampoo contain following surfactant as detergent
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) Cationic surfactant
(c) Amphoteric imidazole derivatives
(d) Alkyl sulfonates

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1. (c) Antidandruff agent

2. (d) Film former

3. (d) Sodium lauryl sulfate

4. (a) Droop point

5. (c) Amphoteric imidazole derivatives

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1. Tetracycline and aluminum hydroxide were given together to

a patient. The phase of interaction is at the level of
(a) Absorption (b) Distribution
(c) Metabolism (d) Renal excretion

2. Protamine is combined with insulin in order to

(a) Activate the insulin (b) Increase the solubility
(c) Prolong duration of action (d) Reduce toxicity

3. The following drugs have significant drug interaction with

digoxin, except
(a) Cholestyramine (b) Thiazide diuretics
(c) Quinidine (d) Amlodipine

4. ________________ causes pharmacodynamic drug interaction

(a) Gastric motility changes (b) Stimulation of metabolism
(c) Alteration of pH of GIT (d) Interactions at receptor site

5. When tetracycline is given with antacids the absorption of

tetracycline
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Minimally altered (d) Not altered at all

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1. (a) Absorption

2. (c) Prolong duration of action

3. (d) Amlodipine

4. (d) Interactions at receptor site

5. (b) Decreases

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1. According to Noyes-Whitney's equation, which is the factor

profoundly influencing the drug dissolution.
(a) Intrinsic solubility (b) Surface area
(c) Temperature (d) Viscosity
2. Identify the equation describing dissolution rate limited
drug absorption.
(a) Fick's equation (b) Henderson Hasselbalch eqn
(c) Michaelis Menten's eqn (d) Noyes-Whitney's equation
3. Which condition does usually increase the rate of drug
dissolution from tablet
(a) Increase in particle size (b) Increase in surface area
(c) Use of free acid (d) Use of sugar coated tablet
4. Pick up the most popular theory of dissolution.
(a) Adsorption model (b) Diffusion layer model
(c) Alteration of pH of GIT (d) Surface renewal model

5. n dissolution testing, the dissolution medium is maintained

at a temperature (°C):
(a) 18 ± 0.5 (b) 25 ± 0.5
(c) 37 ± 0.5 (d) 24 ± 0.5

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1. (b) Surface area

2. (d) Noyes-Whitney's equation

3. (b) Increase in surface area

4. (b) Diffusion layer model

5. (c) 37 ± 0.5

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