D.A.V.

INSTITUTIONS WEST BENGAL ZONE

QUESTION BANK
SESSION:- 2024-2025
CLASS: VIII SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER1: RESOURCE: UTILISATION AND DEVELOPMENT
Q.NO. QUESTION MARKS
SECTION:- A
1. Choose the correct answer from below:- 1
Gold and silver are such kind of metals which can be-
A. Recycled
B. Exhaustible
C. Developed
D. None of the above
2. Identify and write the correct term from the clues given below:- 1
A. The stock of these resources in the earth is limited.
B. We require smart technology and proper skill to utilize these
resources properly and judiciously.
3. Complete the web chart with suitable examples:- 1

Types of resouces based on occurances

____________________ _________________________

4. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct option:- 1

India has found 5.9 million tones of lithium reserves in the Reasi district
of Jammu and Kashmir. This may be the 7th largest deposit of the rare
element which has a wide use in electrical vehicles, aircrafts, armour
plating etc. This is a significant discovery for the country but one that is
also fraught with risks both environmental and social.
Choose the best suitable option from the above paragraph:-
A. India is depended on lithium import on a high scale hence it tries
to discover it.
B. Lithium is a non renewable resource hence discovery of this
resource would help India to foster economic growth in the
international market.
C. Lithium in Reasi is now a potential resource and promoting
sustainable development can help India to achieve economic,
social and environmental goals.
D. To develop and extract lithium, social and environmental factors
are not great concern.
5. Fill in the blanks:- 1
African nations are mostly underdeveloped because ________________
 A. People are educated
B. Lack of resources available
C. Most of the people are illiterate and malnourished
D. Lack of water
6. Fill in the blanks:- 1
The optimum utilization of resources is known as ________________
A. Sustainable development
B. Conservation
C. Renewability
D. All of the above
7. State the statement whether True/False:- 1
1. The oil reserve in the Arctic sea bed is a developed resource.
2. Saudi Arabia’s petroleum reserve is now a developed resource.
3. Water resources in Amazon river basin is potential resource.
4. Petroleum in Himalayas is also developed resource.
Options:-
A. 1-True, 2-True, 3-False, 4-False
B. 1-False, 2-False, 3-True, 4-True
C. 1-False, 2-True, 3-True, 4-False
D. 1-True, 2-False, 3-False, 4-True
8. State the statement whether True/False:- 1
1. China and USA produce more wind energy than India.
2. USA is developed country because it is technologically advanced
and economically self-sufficient.
3. The concept of sustainable development is hardly followed in
India.
4. Botswana in Africa, through strict method of conservation, has
achieved the highest elephant population in the world.
Options:-
A. 1-True, 2-True, 3-False, 4-True
B. 1-False, 2-False, 3-True, 4-False
C. 1-True, 2-True, 3-True, 4-False
D. 1-True, 2-True, 3-False, 4-False
9. State the statement whether True/False:- 1
1. Rapid population growth has resulted optimum utilization of
resources.
2. Population bloom is responsible for over exploitation of natural
resources.
3. Population control is the best method for over-use of natural
resources.
4. To conserve the natural resources, there should be a balance
between resource planning and population.
Options:-
A. 1-True, 2-False, 3-True, 4-False
B. 1-False, 2-True, 3-False, 4-True
C. 1-False, 2-False, 3-True, 4-True
D. 1-False, 2-True, 3-False, 4-True
10. The following statements are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the 1
statements carefully and choose the correct option from below:-
Assertion (A):- Utility and value of resources vary over space and time.
Reason (R):- It is determined by the ability of people to contribute in the
process of resource development.
Options:-
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
 C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
11. The following statements are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the 1
statements carefully and choose the correct option from below:-
Assertion (A):- Resource depletion is resulted from over-utilisation and
over-exploitation of resources.
Reason (R):- Sustainable development cannot help to reduce resource
depletion.
Options:-
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
12. Look at the following pictures and choose the correct option from 1
below:-

India is a country of rivers still faces water crisis since last decade. What
factor is responsible for such phenomena?
A. Global warming and climate change
B. Water is abiotic resource and absence of proper technology to
use it
C. Over consumption and over exploitation of water resources
D. Increase the incidents of droughts
13. Match the following:- 1
Types of resources Example
a. Actual 1. Technology
b. Man made 2. Flora community
c. Inexhaustible 3. Mica of Jharkhand
d. Biotic 4. Water
Options:-
A. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
B. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
C. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
D. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
14. Match the following:- 1
Column A Column B
a. some resources are exhaustible 1. Potential resources
in nature
b. development that does not 2. 5R’s
harm environment
c. idea of recycle, reuse, reduce, 3. Sustainable development
refuse and rethink
d. resources which are not fully 4. Non renewable resources
tapped
Options:-
A. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
B. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
C. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
D. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
15. Re-arrange the following statements into correct sequence:- 1
1. It is important to maintain a balance between population and
resource development.
2. Rapid population growth has resulted in over consumption and
over exploitation of resources.
3. This has resulted into resource depletion.
4. Resources are unevenly distributed across the world.
16. Read the following passage and answer the question given below:- 1

The Green Energy Corridor is a series of infrastructure projects aimed at

synchronizing the power generated from renewable energy sources like
wind, solar, hydro etc. with the conventional national grid of India.
Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh are the most renewable
energy rich states of India in terms of their potential to generate gross
renewable energy from various sources. This helps in ecologically
sustainable development, generate employment opportunities and
reducing carbon emissions.

Let assume, you are associated with the Ministry of Power and given
responsibilities to promote the use of renewable and green energy among
common people of West Bengal. Suggest any one step that you would
take to promote the use of renewable and green energy.
SECTION:- B
17. Differentiate between actual and potential resources. 2
18. “Quality and quantity of people determine a country’s development.” 2
Illustrate the statement with suitable examples.
19. “Utility and value of resources vary over space and time.” Explain the 2
statement.
SECTION:- C
20. Mention the factors affecting utilization of resources. 3
21. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources. 3
22. “Human needs and wants are neither uniform nor static over the world.” 3
Illustrate the statement.
SECTION:- D
23. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:-

Time and technology are two important factors that can change
substances into resources. Both are related to the needs of the people.
People themselves are the most important resource. It is their ideas,
 knowledge, inventions and discoveries that lead to the creation of more
resources. Each discovery or invention leads to many others. The
discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking and other processes while
the invention of the wheel ultimately resulted in development of newer
modes of transport. The technology to create hydroelectricity has turned
energy in fast flowing water into an important resource.

23.1. Name two countries which are technologically developed and 1

economically self-sufficient.
23.2. Name two countries where mere presence of resources cannot 1
guarantee development of the country.
23.3.Explain why human beings are considered as resource. 2
SECTION:- E
24. What do you mean by sustainable development? Why is it need of the 2+3=5
hour?
25. What do you mean by conservation? Mention some steps to achieve 1+4=5
conservation.
26. Differentiate between biotic and abiotic resources. Mention the ways to 2+3=5
achieve sustainable development.

CHAPTER 2: NATURAL RESOURCES: LAND, SOIL AND WATER

Section –A
Q.1 Choose the correct option from the given alternatives. 1
Mention the name of the region where intensive crop cultivation is found
A) Plateau areas of the alluvial soil
B) Plain areas of the alluvial soil
C) Plateau areas of sandy soil
D) Plain areas of arid soil

Q.2 Which method is not using for soil conservation? 1

A)Trickle irrigation
B) Afforestation
C) Controlling overgrazing
D) Rotation of crops

Q.3 Identify the type of purpose where water can be conserved by 3 R’s 1
(reduce, reuse and recycle)
A) Agricultural purpose
B) Domestic purpose
C) Fishing
D) Craft

Solve the analogy and choose the correct option: 1

Q.4 _____________: Saline water :: 3% ____________

A)0.63% , ground water

B) 92%, soil moisture
C) 2.0% ,ice caps and glaciers
D)97% , Fresh water
Q.5 Choose the correct answer to fill in the gaps. 1
Maintenance of lakes and ponds help to ________ the aquifer.
A) decrease
B) balance
C) increase
D) form

True or False 1

Q.6 I) Very thin and fertile soil is found in the delta of river Nile.
II) River valleys have thick soil cover.

A) I is true but II is false.

B) I is false but II is true.
C) Both I and II are true.
D) Both I and II are false.

Q.7 In the question below there are two statements marked as Assertion 1
(A) and Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the
correct option.

Assertion (A) - Removal of top layer of the soil is called soil erosion.
Reason (R) - It is caused by deforestation, overgrazing and mining.

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A) C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q.8 Identify the type of soil conservation method in arid area after 1
considering the picture given below.

A) Shelter Belts
B) Strip cropping
C) Contour ploughing
D) Terrace farming

Q.9 Match the following and choose the correct option: 1

Column : A Column : B

a ) Contour Ploughing i) Building dams

 b) Avoid flood ii) Recycled water

c) Industrial uses iii) Black soil

d) Lava rock iv) Hill slopes

Codes:
A) a - ii ; b - i ; c - iv ; d - iii
B) a - iv ; b - i ; c - iii ; d - ii
C) a - iv ; b - i ; c - ii ; d - iii
D) a - ii ; b - iii ; c - iv ; d -i

Q.10 Arrange the sentences according to the percentage of water present on 1

the earth surface in descending order and choose the correct alternatives.
i) Water available in lakes, rivers ,atmosphere and soil moisture.
ii) Water present on oceans and seas.
iii) Water available as groundwater.
iv) Water in the form of ice caps and glaciers.
Codes:
A)i , ii , iii , iv
B)ii , iv , i , iii
C)iv , ii , i , iii
D)ii , iv , iii , i

Q.11 Situation Based Questions: 1

In the century of 1800, Bengaluru had 1,452 water bodies and 80% green
cover. Today we have about 193 water bodies and less than 4% green
cover.

Choose the type of problem that Bengaluru is facing now a days from the
given options below.

A) Air pollution and depletion of biodiversity.

B) Water pollution and afforestation.
C) Noise pollution and increase of sea level.
D) Water scarcity and deforestation.

Q.12 There is conflict over the access and rights of the natural resource. 1
It is a holistic approach for achieving a productive and balanced
ecosystem by integrating social economic needs of the people.This type
of problem is faced by the proposed coal mine in Deocha -
Pachami,Birbhum,West Bengal.
Identify the type of problem of this coal mine after considering the above
situation from the given alternatives.

A) Land management
B) Right of inheritance
C) Deforestation
D) planning

Section –B
Q.13 Write down the impact of having vegetation cover on the surface. 2
Q.14 Mention the causes by which the quality of water is adversely affected. 2

Q.15 Draw a flow chart on the composition of soil. 2

Section – C
Q.16 Compare and contrast the soil formation in desert and high rainfall areas. 3

Q.17 “Topographical variations affect the thickness of soil formation” - Justify 3

this statement along with suitable examples.

Q.18 Enlist the similarity and dissimilarities between Terrace Farming and
Contour Ploughing. 3

Section - D

Land is a limited resource as its quantity on the earth cannot be

Q.19 increased.The population of the world is growing at a fast pace. Larger
the population, larger is the demand for basic amenities like food and
shelter. Hence, in many regions, large areas of forest cover have been
cleared to practise agriculture and to build houses. Even large areas of
arable land have been used up for housing and other purposes like setting
up of industries. All this has affected us adversely.
Soil is a renewable resource. But its renewability takes quite a long
period. In fact, thousands of years are required to make just a centimetre
of soil. The right mix of minerals and organic matter makes the soil
fertile and suitable for cultivation. Climate also influences soil through
change of temperature, moisture and action of wind. The vegetation that
grows on the soil and the organisms that live in the soil add to its organic
matter.

a) Why land is considered a limited resource? 1

b) How does the soil become fertile? 1

c) Mention the causes of enrichment of humus in soil. 1

d) Write down any one negative impact of increasing population. 1

Section – E
Q.20 Discuss about the ecological problems of building dams. 5

Q.21 Compare between dense populated area and less populated area. 5

Q.22 Enlist the purpose of the Multipurpose River Valley Project along with 5
examples.

Section - F
Locate and label the following places on the world political map.
Q.23

A) Equatorial regions in South America. 1

B) World’s largest hot desert. 1

C) Desert in South Africa. 1

D) Rainfall area above 200 cm in Asia and Africa. 1

CHAPTER 3: - NATURAL RESOURCES (VEGETATION & WILDLIFE)

SECTION -A
Simple MCQ
1. Citrus fruit trees can be found in- 1
A. Around the southern parts of Asia
B. Around the southern parts of Europe
C. Around the northern parts of North America
D. Around the western parts of Africa
2 In 1973, which of the program was launched by government of India- 1
A. Project Crocodile
B. Project Rhino
C. Project Red Panda
D. Project Tiger
3 Identify the forests where summers are dry and winters are wet. 1
A. Tropical Evergreen Forests
B. Tropical Deciduous Forests
C. Mediterranean Forests
D. Temperate Softwood Forests
4 Which of the following activity is permitted in Wildlife Sanctuary? 1
A. Hunting and poaching of animals
B. Cutting down of trees
C. Collection of timber
D. Grazing of animals
5 In India, Temperate softwood forests are found in__________. 1
A. Western slopes of Himalayas
B. Northern slopes of Himalayas
C. Eastern slopes of Himalayas
D. Southern slopes of Himalayas
6 The beauty of wildlife promotes ___________. 1
A. Job opportunity to the local people
B. Wildlife tourism
C. Expansion of forest areas
D. Both A & B
7 Deciduous forests receive rainfall in between ___________ 1
A. January to March
B. June to September
C. October to December
D. July to November

8 Choose the CORRECT characteristic/ characteristics of Mediterranean 1

forests.
I. Trees have broad leaves
II. Trees can retain moisture
III. Trees shed leaves in dry season.
IV. Trees have spiny leaves.
A. Both I & III
 B. Both III & IV
C. Both II & IV
D. Both I & II
9 Choose the INCORRECT way/ways of Forest Conservation. 1
I. Encouraging Shifting cultivation.
II. ‘Each one plant one’ policy
III. Encouraging over grazing of animals
IV. Enforcement of number of guidelines.
A. Both I & II
B. Both II & III
C. Both I & III
D. Both III & IV
10 There are two statements are given in the question below as 1
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) . Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.
Assertion (A) :-Olive trees have waxy and leathery textured leaves .
Reason (R) : Mediterranean region experiences dry summer season.
Option:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. R is false but R is true
11 There are two statements are given in the question below as 1
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) . Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.
Assertion (A) :-Trees of Softwood forests receive snowfall in winter
season
Reason (R) :-Coniferous forests have softwood.
Option:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. R is false but R is true
12 Identify the tree which is found in Coniferous 1
forests.
A. Maple
B. Oak
C. Pine
D. Chestnut

13 Identify the bird which is found in which country? It is a national bird of this 1
country too.
 A. New Zealand
B. Australia
B. Papua New Guinea
D. Micronesia
14 Match the items given in column A with the statements given in 1
column B
Column A Column B
p. Jim Corbett National Park i. Kerala
q. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary ii. Rajasthan
r. Manas wildlife Sanctuary iii. Uttarakhand
s. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary iv. Assam
Options:
A. p-(ii) , q-(i), r-(iv), s-(iii)
B. p-(iii) , q-(i), r-(iv), s-(ii)
C. p-(i) , q-(iv), r-(ii), s-(iii)
D. p-(iv) , q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(i)
15 Match the items given in column A with the statements given in 1
column B
Column A Column B
p. Lemur i. Tropical Rain forests
q. Monk Seal ii. Monsoon Forests
r. Golden Eagle iii. Coniferous Forests
s. Lion iv. Mediterranean Forests
Options:
A. p-(ii) , q-(i), r-(iv), s-(iii)
B. p-(iv) , q-(iii), r-(i), s-(ii)
C. p-(i) , q-(iv), r-(iii), s-(ii)
D. p-(iv) , q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(i)
16 Arrange the following in a correct order: - 1
I. Government has taken large scale plantation policy.
II. Deforestation has taken place in a rampant manner.
III. It leads to loss of habitat of wildlife & ecological imbalance.
A. I, II & III
B. II, I & III
C. II, III & I
D. III, I & II
17 Mr. Mohan gave two clues of one of the forests. Identify the forest. 1
I. This forest can be found in western part of Western ghat.
II. This forest is a home of elephant.
Options: -
A. Tropical Evergreen Forests
B. Tropical Deciduous Forests
C. Mediterranean Forests
D. Temperate Softwood Forests
18 Suppose you have gone to Shimla. Which type of features of trees, you 1
may find there.
I. Trees are Conical in shape.
II. Trees have softwood.
III. Trees are Tall in height.
IV. Trees have thick bark and long roots.
Options: -
A. Both I & II
B. Both II & III
C. I, II & III
D. Both II & IV
SECTION –B
19 Tropical Evergreen forests are known as Tropical Rain Forests. Highlight the 2
reason.
20 Mention the consequences of deforestation. 2
SECTION –C

21 Enlist any three differences between National Park & Wildlife Sanctuary. 3
22 Suggest any three important measures for the protection of forests. 3
SECTION –D
23 Over 1.6 billion people depend on forests for food or fuel, and some 70 1+1+2=4
million people worldwide - including many Indigenous communities -
call forests home. Forests provide us with oxygen, shelter, jobs, water,
nourishment and fuel. With so many people dependent on forests, the
fate of our forests may determine our own fate as well.
Forests help prevent erosion and enrich and conserve soil, helping to
protect communities from landslides and floods and producing the rich
topsoil needed to grow plants and crops. Forests also play an important
role in the global water cycle, moving water across the earth by releasing
water vapor and capturing rainfall. They also filter out pollution and
chemicals, improving the quality of water available for human use. The
destruction of forests has a knock-on effect on agriculture and can affect
the production of the food we eat.
Human health is inextricably linked to forest health. Deforestation has
serious consequences on the health of people directly dependent on
forests, as well as those living in cities and towns, as it increases the risk
of diseases crossing over from animals to humans. Meanwhile, time
spent in forests has been shown to have a positive benefit on conditions
including cardiovascular disease, respiratory concerns, diabetes and
mental health.

A. Mention the importance of forest in human life.

 B. Identify one problem of deforestation.
C. Propose any two arguments in favour of forest conservation.
SECTION –E
24 ‘Forests are the breathing lungs of human civilisation.’ Elucidate the statement 5
with any five suitable examples.
25 Prepare a list of five policies that have been taken by our government to 5
safeguard our wildlife.
26 Compare between Monsoon Forests and Coniferous Forests on the basis of 5
location, climatic conditions, features of trees, common trees, animals found.
SECTION -F
27 (i) One feature A is shown in the political map of the world. Identify the feature 3
with the help of following information and write it’s correct name on the line
marked on the map.

A. A type of forest.
(ii) On the same political map of the world, locate and label the following.
B. Mediterranean Forest in Europe.
C. Temperate Softwood Forest in Asia.

CHAPTER : 7 HIMAN RESOURCE

SECTION A
1. Which of the following is summarised under the three Cs for human 1
resources development ?
I. Competence
II. Creative skill
III. Communication
IV. Culture
Options:
A. I, II, & III only
B. III, II, & IV only
C. I & II only
D. I, II & IV only.
2. Identify the area where there is not very spare population. 1
A. Polar region
B. Hot desert
C. Ganga plain
D. Equatorial forest area
3. In which year UNDP has defined Human Development as the process 1
 of enlarging people’s choice.
A. 1990
B. 1985
C. 2004
D. 1890
4. The highest density of the population in the world is in 1
A. Europe
B. South America
C. South central Asia
D. Australia
5. In India the sex - ratio was recorded as _______ in ________. 1
A. 930, 1991
B. 933, 1981
C. 943, 2011
D. 927, 2001
6. The abrupt and sharp increase in population is known as population 1
___________
A. Density
B. Explosion
C. Distribution
D. Growth.
7. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option. 1
I. The net change in population between two fixed periods of time
expressed in percentage is called the growth rate of population.
II. The growth rate may be negative, if the population increases ; and
positive, if it is declines.
III. At present the world population has crossed a seven billion mark.
IV. Birth rate is the number of births per 100 persons in a specific
time.
Options:
A. I-true, II-true, III-false, IV-false.
B. I-true, II-false, III-true, IV-false.
C. I-false, II-false, III-true, IV-false.
D. I-false, II-true, III-true, IV-false.
8. Consider the following statements which is/are INCORRECT ? 1
I. The composition of human resources include different attributes
like birth rate, death rate, and migration.
II. The population increases when birth rate is less than the death rate
or when out migration is more than the in migration.
III. Population is an asset for the country rather than a liability.
Options:
A. Both I & II
B. Both II& III.
C. Only I
D. Only II
9. Consider the following statements which is/are CORRECT? 1
I. Distribution of population means land and man ratio.
II. The density of population is measured a number of persons living
in per square kilometre of an area.
III. A large number of children below 15 years and people above 59
years come under productive population.
Options:
A. Both I & II
B. Both II& III.
C. Only I
 D. Only II
10. In the question given below there are two statements marked as 1
Assertion (A)and Reason (R).Read the statements and choose the
correct option :
Assertion: The growth of population of India has rapidly increase during
the last century.
Reason: it is estimated that at this rate of growth in population, the country
will almost double its population in next 36 years.
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C. Assertion (A)is true but Reason (R)is false.
D. Assertion (A)is false but Reason (R) is true
11. In the question given below there are two statements marked as 1
Assertion (A)and Reason (R).Read the statements and choose the
correct option :

Assertion: Mineral deposites play a dominant role in population

distribution.
Reason: Hot and dry areas of Australian desert , Saudi Arabia and South
Africa have attracted large groups of migrants of the availability of
Petroleum.

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C. Assertion (A)is true but Reason (R)is false.
D. Assertion (A)is false but Reason (R) is true
12. 1

Study the above pie chart of world population distribution and choose
the correct option.
Options:
A. Asia - 59.5%, Africa - 13.9%, America -17.4%
B. Asia - 59.5%, Oceania- 9.5%, Europe - 13.09%
C. Africa - 17.4%, America - 13.5% Europe - 9.5%
D. Asia - 59.9% , Africa - 17.4% , Europe - 13.9%
13. 1
 Study the above picture and choose which are the correct statements.
I. Population Pyramid of India is broad in the younger age group.
II. It is a population Pyramid of Japan.
III. Low birth rate makes the Pyramid narrow at the bottom.

IV. High birth rate and more infants survive to adulthood.

Options:

A. Both I & II
B. Both III & IV
C. Both I & IV
D. Only I.
14. Matching: 1
Column A Column B
a. Howang-Ho i. USA
b. Nile ii. China
c. Mississippi iii. Iran
d. Tigris iv. Egypt
Options:
A. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
B. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
C. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
D. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
15. Matching: 1
Coloumn A Coloumn B
a. People come from another i. Out migration
area
b. People move out from an ii. Productive Population
area
c. People between 15 years to iii. Dependent Population
60 years.
d. People between 59 years iv. In migration
and above
Options:
A. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii.
B. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i.
C. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i.
D. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii.
16. According to density of population arrange the states in sequence of 1
ascending order.
 Options:
A. West Bengal , Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh.
B. Assam, West Bengal, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh.
C. Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Assam, West Bengal.
D. Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal.
17. According to sex ratio of 2011 arrange the countries of the world in a 1
descending order.
A. Japan, China, Russia, India.
B. Rassia, Japan, India, China.
C. China, Japan, India, Russia.
D. China, India, Japan, Russia.
18. Read the following situation and identify the attribute of human 1
resource
I. The percentage of people who can read and write ia certain
language in a country.
II. It is more among male than female population.
III. It is also more in urban areas than in rural areas.
Options:
A. Population Growth rate
B. Death rate
C. Literacy rate
D. Birth rate.
19. According to following situations choose the correct option . 1
I. It is a ratio between the number of female and males in a
population.
II. In European countries it is high or favourable.
III. In India it is declining due to several reasons.
Options:
A. Sex - ratio
B. Land Man ratio
C. Age structure
D. Infant Mortality Rate.
SECTION B
20. 'Human being have a lot of potential but in many countries is 2
resources is not fully tapped' - write two ways for the development of
human resources.
21. When a country has a large number of people in the age group of 15 to 2
59 years , what does it signify ?
22. Elucidate that population is an asset rather than a liability. 2
SECTION C
23. One single factor may not determine population distribution but 1.5+1.5=3
collectively they play a deciding role - Explain how Minerals and
Industries play an important role for the distribution of population.
24. State any three factors that has disturbed the balance of sex-ratio in 3
India.
SECTION D
25. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions: 1+1+2

Population is always in a state of flux. The net change in population

between two fixed periods of time expressed in percentage is called the
growth rate of population. The growth rate may be negative, if the
population declines; and positive, if it increases during a given time period.
 The growth of population is affected by the birth rate, death rate and by the
large scale migration It increases when birth rate is more than the death
rate or when the in-migration is more than the out-migration.

1. In what situations is the population growth rate positive?

2. How is population growth rate affected by birth rate, death rate,
and migration?
3. Differentiate between population growth and density of population
SECTION E
26. Suppose your friend lives in hilly areas and you live in plains. 1+4=5
Compared two regions which one is suitable for human habitation.
Explain with examples.
27. Define distribution of population. “The distribution of population in 1+2+2
the world is highly uneven.” Justify the statement with four example
two from densely and two from sparsely populated regions.
28. 1×5

Answer the following questions based on the graph given above

a) Define sex ratio
b) When the sex ratio is considered to be favourable.
c) In the above column graph in which year the sex ratio have been
most favourable.
d) Name the states which have the highest and the lowest sex ratio in
India.
e) If the number of female is 1005 per thousand males it expresses
what kind of sex ratio?

CHAPTER: 8 THE MODERN PERIOD

1. Tick the correct option: 1
The Indian National Congress was established in the year
A. 1857 CE B. 1885 CE C. 1858 CE D. 1890 CE
2. In which year was the power transferred from the East India company to the 1
British Crown?
A. 1857 CE B. 1885 CE C. 1858 CE D. 1819 CE
3. ‘Freedom is my birth right’ the slogan given by 1
A. Bal GangadharTilak B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Subhash Chandra Bose D. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Name the author of Anandmath. 1
A. B.C Chattopadhyay B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Mahatma Gandhi D. Lala lajpat Rai
5. Choose the incorrect statement about the biggest museum on Gandhiji. 1
A. It has a good collection of Gandhiji’s writings.
B. Its library has 60000 books.
C. It looks after by Gandhi Smriti.
D. The museum is located at Sabarmati Ashram.
 6. Fill in the blanks: 1
‘You give me blood I will give you freedom’ was the slogan given by
________________.
A. B.C Chattopadhyay B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Mahatma Gandhi D. Lala lajpat Rai
7. The book Unhappy Indian was written by ________________ . 1
A. B.C Chattopadhyay B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Mahatma Gandhi D. Lala lajpat Rai
8. About 6000 original photographs of Gandhi ji are housed at __________. 1
A. Gandhi Smriti B. Anand Bhawan
C. India House D. Berlin House
9. State whether the statement is true or false. 1
I. Gateway of India is in Delhi.
II. Gateway of India was enacted to commemorate the landing of George V.
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Both are incorrect.
10. I. Simon commission report is a British Document. 1
II. Simon commission report was prepared by Sir John Simon.
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Both are incorrect.
11. I. “Freedom is my birth right” was the call given by Netaji Subhash Chanrda 1
Bose.
II. Netaji Subhash Chanrda Bose founded Forward Bloc.
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Both are incorrect.
12. Read the following statements -Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose 1
the correct answer from the following:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
Explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Assertion (A): The primary motive of British rule behind the de-
industrialisation was to obtain low-cost raw materials from India for use in
emerging modern industries in Britain.
Reason (R): The decline of handicraft industries resulted in employment on
a mass scale in India.
13. Identify the following historical buildings of India. 1

A. Rashtrapati Bhawan B. Victoria Memorial

C. India Gate D. Gateway of India
14. 1

A. Rashtrapati Bhawan B. Victoria Memorial

C. India Gate D. Gateway of India
15. 1

A. Rashtrapati Bhawan B. Victoria Memorial

C. India Gate D. Gateway of India

16. Match the following: 2

Column 1 Column 2
1. Amrit Bazar Patrika A. 1909 CE
2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak B. 1885 CE
3. The Indian National Congress C. Vernacular newspaper
4. Morley Minto Reforms. D. Kesari
A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
B. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
C. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
17. Rearrange the following events in the correct sequence : 2
i. Partition of India into India and Pakistan,
ii. Formation of India National Congress,
iii. Death of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb
iv. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
A. i, iii, iv and ii
B. iii, ii, iv and i
C. ii, i, iv and iii
D. iii, i, iv and ii
18. Complete the analogy: 2
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay: _________________ :: ______________ :
Unhappy Indian
19. Answer the following questions in single sentence: 2
Name the largest museum on Mahatma Gandhi.
20. Name the author of the book “My Experiments with Truth.” 2
21. In which language was the newspaper Kesari published? 2
22. Answer the following questions briefly: 3
Name any three sources of information of the modern period.
23. Explain with three examples how letter, speeches and writing can be a source 3
of information about the modern period of Indian history.
24. Enumerate the role of books as an important source of Information of the 3
modern period of Indian history.Explains with examples.
25. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:- 2+1+1
There was a time when historians were fascinated with dates. There were
heated debates about the dates on which rulers were crowned or battles were
fought. In the common-sense notion, history was synonymous with dates.
You may have heard people say, “I find history boring because it is all about
memorizing dates.” Is such a conception true? History is certainly about
changes that occur over time. It is about finding out how things were in the
past and how things have changed. As soon as we compare the past with the
present, we refer to time, we talk of “before” and “after”.

A. Why were historians fascinated with dates?

B. By what criteria do we choose a set of dates as important?
C. Why is it sometimes incorrect to fix precise dates?
26. Long answers: 5
Explain any five sources of information of the Modern period of India
history.
27. Mention any five major events related to the freedom struggle of India. 5

NAME OF THE CHAPTER 9: ESTABLISHMENT OF COMPANY RULE IN INDIA

1. Choose the correct answer from the given options: -

The Carnatic wars were fought between- 1
A. French and Marathas
B. English and Sikhs
C. English and French
D. French and Mysore
2. Choose the correct answer from the given options:-
The Portuguese explorer who landed at Calicut in 1498 was-
A. Ferdinand Magellan 1
B. Vasco da Gama
C. Bartolomeu Dias
D. Duarte Pacheco Pereira
Choose the correct answer from the given options-
3. The Second Carnatic wars were fought between- 1
A. Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jung
B. Nasir Jung and Muzaffar Jung
C. Salabat Jung and Muzaffar Jung
D. Nasir Jung and Anwar-ud-din
Choose the correct answer from the given options:-
4. Many European trading companies established their trading centres in coastal 1
areas of India. The coastal areas refer to-
A. Plain areas
B. Mountanious areas
C. Deltas
D. Area near sea shore
5. Fill in the blank with the help of the options given below: 1
________ was the greatest annexionist.
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Warren Hastings
 C. Lord Wellesley
D. Robert Clive
6. Fill in the blank with the help of the options given below:
The East India Company set up trading posts in ______. 1
A. Surat
B. Masulipattnam
C. Bombay Castle
D. Fort William
7. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 1
Statement I. The British introduced the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
Statement II. As a result the Indian princes became mere puppets in the hands
of the English.
A. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
8. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 1
Statement I. The battle of Plassey was fought between Mir Qasim and the
English.
Statement II. Mir Qasim drove the English out.
A. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
9. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 1
Statement I. Warren Hastings became Governor of Bengal in 1772.
Statement II. Warren Hastings abolished Dual Government and gained the
complete control over Bengal.
A. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
10. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 1
Statement I. The treaty of Salbai was signed between Maharaja Ranjit Singh
and the English.
Statement II. The English made a peace treaty with Maharaja Ranjit Singh to
check his growing power.
A. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
11. In the question below there are two statements marked as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the correct 1
option.
Assertion (A)- Haider Ali was not able to extend his territories over Bednore,
Sundre, Sera, Canara and Guti.
Reason (R) - Warren Hastings faced stiff resistance from Marathas in the north
and Haider Ali in South.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true
12. In the question below there are two statements marked as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the correct 1
option.
Assertion (A) -The Age of Imperialism in India began with the weakening and
eventually the disintegration of the Mughal empire.
Reason (R)- The lack of a strong central authority led to the emergence of
many independent states that revolted against the weak successors of
Aurangzeb.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true

13. Identify the ruler from the given picture:

1

A. Madhav Rao
B. Siraj-ud-daulla
C. Maharaja Ranjit Singh
D. Shuja ud daullah
14. Complete the following table:-
Column A Column B 1
i)First Anglo Maratha war Raghunath Rao, Madhav Rao II & Englsh
ii)First Anglo Sikh War English & United forces of Punjab
iii)Battle of Buxar Mir Qasim, Shah Alam II, Shuja-ud-daulah,
& English
iv)Triple Alliance
A. Nizam, Marathas, English
B. Tipu Sultan, English, Wodeyar dynasty
C. Siraj ud daullah, English, Nawab of Awadh
D. English, Marathas, Sikhs
Match Column A with Column B and choose the options given below:-
15. Column A Column B 1
i)Lord Wellesley a) Fourth Nizam of Hyderabad

ii)Tipu Sultan b) Scindia and Bhosale

iii)Maratha chieftains c) Tiger of Mysore
iv)Salabat Jung d) ,Governor General of India
 A. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
B. i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
C. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
D. i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
16. Match Column A with Column B and choose the options given below:-
Column A Column B 1
i)Bombay Castle a)Raw material for making
gunpowder
ii)saltpetre b)places where factors or
officials worked
iii)Alivardi Khan c) Presidency settlement
iv)factories d)able administrator

A. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

B. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
C. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
D. i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
17. Arrange the following events in chronological order:-
a) Lord Dalhousie attacked Punjab and made a part of British India. 1
b) Warren Hastings abolished Dual Government in Bengal.
c) The Austrian succession war came to an end.
d) The treaty of Srirangapattnam was signed.
A. c d b a
B. c b d a
C. a b c d
D. a c d b
18. We all know that the English had won the battle of Plassey. Imagine a situation
where the English had lost the battle. Highlight its effect on the Indian politics 1
based on this situation-
A. Mir Jafar thought that betrayal to the Nawab is disgraceful and Siraj
remained the Nawab of Bengal.
B. Robert Clive could not compete and was called back to England.
C. The English remained as a trading company.
D. Mir Qasim became the Nawab.
19. Interpret the meaning of Dual Government in Bengal. 2
20. Pen down any two results of the Treaty of Srirangapattanam. 2
21. State the consequences of Fourth Anglo-Mysore war. 3
22. The English trading Company became an imperial power.-Elaborate 3
23. Explain the causes of First Anglo Sikh war. State its result. 2+1=
3
24. Read the passage below and answer the following questions: -
The stage was set for Europeans to take advantage of this situation. Many
European trading companies established their trading centres in coastal areas 1x4=
of India. The trading centres were called factories-the place where ‘factors’ or 4
‘officials’ worked. Some of the factories were fortified as a safeguard from the
rival trading companies. They bought spices, cotton textiles, indigo and
saltpetre at cheap rates from India and sold them in Europe and America at
 high price. The huge profit margin led to a competition among the foreign
trading companies. Eventually, the other trading companies had to bow out to
the English and the French companies who remained the main rivals in India.
A. State the reason why did the European trading companies set up their
trading centres in coastal areas?
B. List the names of other European nations who ventured into trade with the
East.
C. The stage was set for Europeans to take advantage of this situation.-
Enumerate the reason.
D. Pen down the reason why the European trading companies were attracted to
India.
25. The battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company
in Bengal. Justify the statement. State any two significance of battle of Buxar. 3+2=
5
26. Hyder Ali beat the English at their own game.- Explain the statement. Explain
the causes and consequences of Second Anglo Maratha war. 1+2+
2=5
27. On an outline map of India mark the following places:-
A. Battle took place between Siraj ud daulah and English 1x5=
B. Hyder Ali was the ruler 5
C. English wanted to attack French but Hyder Ali did not permit it.
D. A series of battle fought between English and French
E. battle fought between Mir Qasim, Shah Akam II, Shuja ud Daulah and
English

CHAPTER 10: COLONIALISM – RURAL AND TRIBAL SOCIETIES

Q1 The system introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820 in South India was- 1

A. The permanent settlement

B. Ryotwari system
C. Mahalwari system
D. None of the above
Q2 The tribal who practiced shifting cultivation were – 1

A. Khonds
B. Van Gujjars
C. Gaddis
D. None of the above
Q3 The-------- system was introduced under permanent settlement in Bengal in 1
1793.

A. Zamindari system
B. Ryotwari system
C. Mahalwari system
D. None of the above
 Fill in the blanks. 1x3=3
Q4
i. A process of introducing a new product in the market for earning profit is
known as _____________.

A. Commercialisation
B. Advertisation
C. Privatisation
D. Colonialism
ii.Kisan Sabhas were formed in ----------- to support the cause of peasants.

A. 1757
B. 1772
C. 1830
D. 1930

iii.Tata Iron and Steel company is set up by ______.

A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Patel
C. Jamshedji Tata
D. Birsa Munda
Q5 Write true or false for the following statements. 1x2=2

i.Ryots where the cultivators of land and pet revenue to company.

ii.The demand for Indigo increased in late 17th century

A. Both the statements are true.
B. Both the statements are false.
C. (i) is false and (ii) is true.
D. (i) is true and (ii) is false
Q6 Two statements are given below one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the 1x2=2
other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statement carefully and select
the correct answer from the codes a,b,c and d as given below:

Assertion : During 19th century the money lenders and traders gave loans
and offered them jobs for wages.

Reason: The demand for the forest produce increased and the money

lenders to advantage of the situation.

a) Both (A) and ( R ) are true and ( R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and ( R ) are true and ( R) is NOT the correct explanation of
(A).
c) (A) is true but ( R ) is false.
d) (A) is false but ( R ) is true.

Assertion: The farmers were forced to produce thick and sugarcane juice
for sugar factories.
 Reason: There was rising demand of sugar in the west.

a) Both (A) and ( R ) are true and ( R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and ( R ) are true and ( R) is NOT the correct explanation of
(A).
c) (A) is true but ( R ) is false.
d) (A) is false but ( R ) is true.
Q7 a) i.Identify the picture. 1x2=2

A. Bar Manik
B. Sidhu Murm
C. Birsa Munda
D. Tirot sing
ii.What did he interpret about the land policies of the British?

A. To safeguard their interests from British.

B. British were destroying their traditional land system.
C. Both A and B is correct.
D. None of these .
b) i.Identify the picture.

A. Chameli
B. Cinchona
C. Neem
D. Palash
ii.How does it is useful to us?
A. It is found in the Nilgiri and Annamalai Hills
B. It is used as raw material for manufacturing queenine for malaria.
C. Both A and B is correct.
D. None of these
Q8 Match the following. 1x2=2
I)
a.Kukis i.Chotanagpur

b.Khonds ii.Assam

c.Khasis iii.Orissa

d. Mundas iv.Manipur

A. a)iii, b)iv, c)i, d)ii

B. a)i,b)ii, c)iii, d)iv
C. a)iv, b)iii, c)ii, d)i
D. a)i, b)iii, c)iv, d)ii
II) a.Permanent revenue i.Holt Machenize
system

b.Ryotwati sydtem ii.Lord Cornwalis

 c.Mahalwari system iii.Thomas Munro

A. ai, bii, ciii

B. aii,biii, ci
C. aiii, bi, cii
D. None of these
Q9 Arrange the following sentences according to the correct order. 1x1=1

i. Introduction of cash crops in rural areas.

i. Implementation of permanent settlement act.
ii. Rebellion of tribal communities against colonial forest laws.
iii. Establishment of Indian forest act.
A. ii, iv, i, iii
B. iii, i, ii, iv
C. iv, ii, i, iii
D. i, ii, iii, iv
Q10 You are a tribal leader in the early 20th century. You are community has lived 1
sustainably in the forested region for generations, practicing shifting cultivation
and Reliance on the forest for food,medicine and materials . Recently British
colonial authorities have enforced the Indian forest act restricting access to large
parts of the forest banning shifting agriculture and introducing commercial
logging operations.

How would you ensure your community ‘s food security and livelihood in light
of restricted forest access?

A. Ensuring food security and livelihood by encouraging community to adopt

alternative agriculture practices on unlimited land available outside the
restricted area.
B. By exploring other form of livelihood such as livestock rearing handicraft
or small scale trade.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Q11 Answer the following in brief. 2x3=6

a) Name the following, related to khasis:

i. The leaders
ii. Reasons for their revolts
b) State the aim of introducing the land revenue settlements in India.
c) Name Two States where the following crops were cultivated .
i. Opium
ii. Cotton
Q12 a) Explain how the Mahalwari system proved to be cuts for the peasants. 3x3=6
b) Highlight the condition of Indian farmers under the British rule which
led to revolt of 1857.
c) Differentiate between zamindari system and mahalwari system.
Q13 Read the passage and answer the following questions. 2x2
The British government has imposed new forest laws that prohibit the traditional
practice of shifting cultivation and restrict assist to the forest for local tribes.
 These laws have been justified on the ground of Scientific Forestry aimed at
conserving forest resources and increasing revenue through commercial Timber.

a) How might this law impact the traditional lifestyle of tribal community?
b) What were the stated reasons for the British Government’s new law?
Q14 a) “The major policies of the British resulted in rebellions by the tribals in 2x5=10
different parts of India.” Support the statement with 5 suitable examples.
b) Birsa Munda was real hero in the true sense and fought for his tribal group till
the end. Highlight his contribution towards the Mundas.

Q15 On the outline map of India identify and label the following. 1x5=5
a) The state to which Munda and Khonds belong.
b) The state where the following crops were cultivated-i.Tea ii.sugarcane.
c) The state to which tribal group laid by Bar Manik and Tirot Singh belong.
d) The reason where the Mahalwari system introduced.

CHAPTER 11: THE FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE -1857

Section-A
Choose the correct options from the given alternatives:-
1. Which place witnessed the incident of Mangal Pandey’s firing upon (1)
British officers?
A) Barrackpore
B) Meerut
C) Gwalior
D) Delhi
2. The ruler of which one of the following states was removed from the (1)
power by the British on the pretext of misgovernance?
A) Awadh
B) Jhansi
C) Nagpur
D) Satara
3. Which one of the following statements is not the economic cause of the (1)
revolt of 1857?
A) The common people faced unemployment and poverty due to
annexation policy of the British.
B) Industrial goods from Britain flooded the Indian market.
C) The policy of annexation, like Doctrine of Lapse created fear among
the Indian rulers.
D) The zamindari system exploited the peasants who were forced to grow
the crops required by the British industries.
Fill in the blanks:-
4. The Nawab of Awadh ‘Wajid Ali Shah was forced to sign ______. (1)
A) Doctrine of Lapse
B) Subsidiary Alliance
C) Treaty of Mangalore
D) Treaty of Basin
5. __________ Was appointed the Governor General of India in 1848. (1)
A) Lord Dalhousie
B) Lord Canning
C) Lord Cornwallis
D) Lord Hardinge
Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
6. a) The Revolt of 1857 was led by Kunwar Singh from Bihar. (1)
b) This Revolt was led by Tantia Tope from Maharashtra.
A) (a) is True but (b) is False
B) (a) is False but (b) is True
C) Both the statements are True
D) Both the statements are False
7. a) The Revolt of 1857 was supported by the Madras and Bombay (1)
regiments.
b) The Gorkhas and Afghans supported the British to crush the Revolt.
A) (a) is True but (b) is False
B) (a) is False but (b) is True
C) Both the statements are True
D) Both the statements are False
8. a) Delhi was the epicenter of the Revolt of 1857. (1)
b) Bahadur Shah Zafar was the leader of this Revolt in Delhi.
A) (a) is True but (b) is False
B) (a) is False but (b) is True
C) Both the statements are True
D) Both the statements are False
9. Two statements are marked with Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have (1)
been given below. Choose the correct options that follow:-
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 is called the first war of independence
by the Indian historians.
Reason (R): It was the first time when different sections of Indian society
united and fought as one nation to throw off the foreign domination.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is correct but R is incorrect
D) A is incorrect but R is correct
10. Two statements are marked with Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have (1)
been given below. Choose the correct options that follow:-
Assertion (A): The social reforms by the British were considered
interference in the customs and traditions of the Hindus.
Reason (R): Many Indians opposed the introduction of western education
and the conversion of Indians to Christianity.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is correct but R is incorrect
D) A is incorrect but R is correct

11. Identify the image in the given picture. (1)

A) Proclamation of Queen Victoria

B) The annexation of Awadh
C) Mangal Pandey leading the revolt
D) Bahadur Shah Zafar was being proclaimed as Shahenshah-e-Hindustan.
12. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the (1)
options given below:-
Column A Column B
i) Laxmi Bai a) Kanpur
ii) Bahadur Shah Zafar b) Bihar
iii) Nana Sahib c) Delhi
iv) Kunwar Singh d) Jhansi
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
C) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
13. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the (1)
options given below:-
Column A Column B
i) The cartridge case a) Political Cause
ii) Doctrine of Lapse b) Immediate Cause
iii) Conversion to Christianity c) Economic Cause
iv) The Zamindari system d) Religious Cause
A) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
C) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
14. Arrange the following events of 1857 in the proper sequence:- (1)
i) Bahadur Shah was proclaimed the Shahenshah - e -Hindustan.
ii) The Revolt started on May10, 1857 with the mutiny of soldiers in
Meerut cantonment.
iii) The sepoy crossed over the river Yamuna and entered the Red Fort.
iv) The sepoy appealed to the Mughal Emperor, Bahadur shah to take over
the leadership of the Revolt.
A) iv, iii, ii, i
B) ii, iii, i, iv
C) ii, iii, iv, i
D) i, ii, iii, iv
15. You are a peasant living in northern India in 1857. How would you decide (1)
whether to join the rebellion against British rule or remain loyal to the
British East India Company?
Section-B
16. “ Rumours created panic among the Indians.” Analyse the statement by (2)
giving two examples of such rumours during the Revolt of 1857.
17. Discuss any two effects of subsidiary alliance on Awadh. (2)
Section- C
18. “The economic policies of the British East India company led to the (3)
Revolt of 1857”. Justify the statement in three suitable points.

19. Examine any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857. (3)

20. Highlight any three causes of dissatisfaction among the Sepoys against the (3)
British.
21. “The introduction of the western education and the conversion of Indians (3)
to Christianity created fear and anger among the Indians.” Support this
statement with examples.
Section-D

22. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:-

The Sepoys broke out into an open revolt at Meerut in April, 1857. They
refused to touch the greased cartridges. They were court-martialed and
sentenced 10 years imprisonment. The regiments in Meerut revolted on
May 10, 1857. They broke open the Prison and released the imprisoned
soldiers. They marched to Delhi on May 11 and rebelled under Bahadur
Shah Zafar. The Revolt then spread to other places. It was led by Nana
Saheb in Kanpur along with his General , Tantya Tope and by Begum
Hazrat Mahal in Awadh. Rani Laxmi Bai of Jhansi led the Revolt in
central India and fought valiantly.

i) Find out the place where the Revolt started at first. (1)
ii) State the reason behind the rebellion made by the Sepoys in Meerut. (1)
iii) Who took the leadership of the Revolt from Delhi? (1)
iv) Name two women who took the leadership of the Revolt. (1)

Section-E
 23. Explain the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857. (5)

24. Evaluate the results of the Revolt of 1857. (5)

25. On the outline political map of India, locate and label the following (1X5=5)
places:-
i) The place where Mangal Pandey revolted.
ii) The place where Nana Saheb took the leadership of the Revolt.
iii) The epicenter of the Revolt.
iv) The place where Laxmi Bai revolted.
v) The place where Begum Hazrat Mahal revolted against the British.

CHAPTER12: THE IMPACT OF BRITISH RULE IN INDIA

SECTION-A
Choose the correct option given below.
1. Which of the following was NOT an impact of British rule on India? 1

A. Introduction of the railway system

B. Increased agricultural productivity
C. Spread of Western education
D. Deindustrialization and decline of traditional industries

2. Which of the following best characterizes the negative impact of the British rule 1
on India's education?
A. A. Introduction of railway systems
B. British textbooks glorified the British philosophy
C. Deindustrialization and decline of traditional handicraft industries
D. Expansion of trade routes with neighboring countries
3. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate options given below. 1
Jyotiba Phule established _____________ to uplift the low and oppressed
classes.
A. Ayra Samaj
B. Brahma Samaj
C. Satya Shodhak Samaj
D. Shuddhi Samaj
4. Babasaheb founded a Marathi newspaper, named __________ to champion the 1
rights of the ‘dalits’.
A. Kesari
B. Amrita Baar
C. Mook Nayak
D. The Madras Courier.

5. Read the statements mentioned below and identify whether the correct one. 1
i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s persistent efforts made widow marriage legalized.
ii) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar argued in the favour of child marriage.
iii) Charter Act 1813 was the first significant step towards Indian education
system.
iv) Jyotiba Phule called INC as the ‘Fort of Brahmins’.
A. only i) is correct
B. only ii) is correct
C. only iii) is correct
D. only iv) is correct
6. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) 1
and Reason(R).
Read the statement carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The social and economic status of a person was determined by
his position in the caste hierarchy.
Reason(R): Indian society was under the influence of superstition, rituals and
evil practices.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
7. Identify the veteran socio-religious reformer shown in the given picture and 1
pick the correct statement related to him.

A. He opposed conversion to other religions as the way to

escape from suffering.
B. Campaigned against untouchability.
C. He opposed marriage of old man with young girls.
D.Propagating the principles of women’s rights and eradication of caste system.
8. Match column A with column B and choose the correct option. 1
A B

1. Sree Nayaran Guru i.Satyagraha

2. Anglicists ii. Sati Pratha
3. William Bentinck iii.English as a medium
4. Mahatma Gandhi iv.One god, one caste, one
religion

A. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii

B. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
C. 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
D. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
9. Arrange the given education policies of British India in chronological order. 1

i. Indian Universities Act

ii. Wood’s Despatch
iii. National System of Education
iv. Wardha Education Scheme.

A. 4, 3, 2, 1
B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 3, 1, 4, 2
D. 1, 3, 2, 4
10. Read the text carefully and choose the correct option. 1
In the 19th century, the British implemented various educational policies in
India, aiming to create a system that served their colonial interests while also
addressing the needs of the local population. One such policy was the
introduction of English education, which sparked debates and controversies
arose between two group of people.
i) Who were the two group of people?
A. Orientalists and Anglicists.
B. Radicals and Liberals
C. Moderates and Liberals
D. Conservatives and Radicals.
SECTION-B

11. What was the motive behind the establishment of National Education System? 2

12. Discuss the religious view of Sree Narayana Guru. 2

13. Highlight any two social evils of Indian society that were disgraceful to women. 2

SECTION-C

14. Discuss the contribution of Veeresalingam Kandukuri towards women 3

impowerment.
15. Do you think that the British system of Education had a negative impact on the 3
people of India? Support your answer with suitable arguments.

16. ‘Wood’s Despatch of 1854 was issued to make major changes in the education 3
policy of the Britishers’.-Mention the policies.

17. ‘Lord Macaulay supported the Anglicists’. Discuss his intension to support the 3
Anglicists.
SECTION-D

18. Read The Given Text Carefully And Answer The Following Questions.

In 1829, Raja Ram Mohan Roy encountered a particularly distressing case of

Sati in the town of Burdwan in Bengal. A young widow named Radha was
forced to undergo Sati against her will after her husband's death. Witnessing this
tragic event deeply affected Roy and strengthened his resolve to eradicate the
practice.
Roy immediately sprang into action. He mobilized public opinion against Sati
through his writings and speeches, condemning it as a barbaric custom that had
no place in a civilized society. He also engaged in diplomatic efforts, appealing
to British authorities to intervene and abolish the practice.
In one instance, Roy wrote a letter to Lord William Bentinck, the Governor-
General of India, urging him to take decisive action against Sati. He argued
passionately for the moral imperative of ending such a cruel and inhumane
practice.
Roy's efforts bore fruit when Lord Bentinck issued a regulation in 1829 banning
the practice of Sati throughout British India. This landmark decision marked a
significant victory for Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the broader social reform
movement in India.
The successful abolition of Sati was a watershed moment in the history of social
reform in India, and Raja Ram Mohan Roy's pivotal role in this achievement
cemented his legacy as a champion of human rights and social justice. His
tireless advocacy against Sati continues to inspire generations of activists and
reformers striving to eradicate harmful practices and promote equality and
dignity for all.

i) What significant action did Lord William Bentinck take in response to Raja 1
Ram Mohan Roy's advocacy against Sati?
ii) What event in 1829 deeply impacted Raja Ram Mohan Roy and spurred his 1
determination to eradicate a social injustice?
iii) How did Raja Ram Mohan Roy mobilize public opinion against the practice 2
of Sati, and what methods did he employ to advocate for its abolition?
SECTION-E

19. The printing press played a pivotal role in mobilizing public opinion’- How did
printing press help mobilizing public opinion.
20. How did Dayanand Saraswati's teachings challenge the prevalent religious 3+2
practices and social norms of his time?
What were the key reforms initiated by him and Arya Samaj aimed at social
upliftment.
21. What were the main principles and ideologies advocated by Periyar E.V. 3+2
Ramasamy?
What moto did Babasaheb serve through ‘Bahiskrit Hitakarini Sabha’ in india?
SECTION-F
22. Locate and label the following places on the outline map of India based on the 1+1+1
given informations.
i) He was born in a poor lower caste ‘untouchable’ family, due to that he had to
face discrimination in school during his childhood..
ii) He was a great Hindu saint and social reformer. He was born in the ‘Ezhava
community’.
iii) He was an Indian educator and social reformer, actively took part to legalise
window marriage.

CHAPTER 13: COLONIALISM AND URBAN CHANGE

1. Read the following statement and choose the correct option: 1

De-urbanisation during the nineteenth century destroyed the important cities of
–
A. Surat, Calcutta, Bombay.
B. Bombay, Masulipatnam, Srirangapattnam.
C. Surat, Masulipatnam, Srirangapattnam.
D. Bombay, Calcutta, Madras.

2. Read the following statement and choose the correct option: 1

In the Nineteenth century in Calcutta a need for urban Local Bodies arose,
because-
A. The city’s division into Black Town & White Town.
B. The Size and population of the city expanded.
C. Many ancient towns and cities were destroyed.
D. The city was a centre of revolutionary work.

3. Read the following statement and choose the correct option: 1

This train was introduced to make the annual migration of Britishers from the
Calcutta to the summer capital in Shimla. This was-
A. Konkan Mail.
B. Kalka Mail.
C. Dehradun Mail.
D. Delhi Mail.
4. Fill in the blank with appropriate word/s: 1
Queen __________, queen of United Kingdom (Great Britain) Ireland,
adopted the title ‘Empress of India’ in the year ________.
A. Victoria, 1876.
B. Victoria, 1776.
C. Elizabeth-II, 1876.
D. Elizabeth-II, 1776.
5. Fill in the blank with appropriate word/s: 1
In 1853 the first train ran in India from __________ to _______.
A. Bombay, Nagpur.
B. Bombay, Calcutta.
C. Bombay, Thane.
D. Bombay, Madras.

6. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options 1
given below:
Statement I: The ancient India had well planned towns and cities, the
excavation of Indus Valley Civilisation proved that.
Statement II: During medieval period the regional kingdoms and invaders
contributed to the development of the cities.

A. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.

B. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
C. Both Statements I and II are True.
D. Both Statements I and II are False.
7. State whether the statements are True/ False: 1
i. De-urbanisation was a significant development during the British rule in
India.
ii. The rapid expansion of British power in India also strengthen the power of
regional kingdoms.
iii. The earliest architectural remains, found in the city of Delhi, date back to
the Mauryan period.

A. i- true, ii- true, iii- false.

B. i- false, ii- true, iii-false.
C. i- false, ii- false, iii- true.
D. i- true, ii-false, iii- true.
8. Two statements are given as Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Read the two 1
statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion(A): British relocate their capital from Calcutta to New Delhi.
Reason(R): The speedy industrial growth from 1850s in Calcutta increased
the employment opportunities as a result the population also increased.
A. (A) is true but (R) is false.
B. (A) is false but (R) is true.
C. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

9. Two statements are given as Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Read the two 1
statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion(A): Newspaper proved a powerful medium for voice people’s
thoughts and assert their rights.
Reason(R): Newspaper made it possible for people to share and propagate
their ideas.
A. (A) is true but (R) is false.
B. (A) is false but (R) is true.
C. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

10. Identify the famous literary person and write down the name: 1
 A. Ahilyabai Holkar of Malwa.
B. Sarojini Naidu of Hyderabad.
C. Indira Devi of Cooch Behar.
D. Bama Soosairaj of Tamil Nadu.

11. Look at the given picture carefully and choose the correct option: 1

A. Town Hall, Chennai.

B. Victoria Terminals, Mumbai.
C. Fort William College, Calcutta.
D. Viceroy House, Shimla.
12. Match Column A with Column B and choose the correct option: 1

Column A Column B
i. Raja Ravi Varma, Jamini Roy a. Town planner
ii. Mulk Raj Anand, R.K. b. Famous painters
Narayanan
iii. Edwin Lutyens c. Great literary persons
iv. King George V d. Delhi Durbar

A. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d.

B. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
C. i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d.
D. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

13. Match Column A with Column B and choose the correct option: 1

Column A Column B
i. Imperial Delhi Committee a. 1955
ii. Delhi Municipal Committee b. 1863
iii. Delhi Development Authority c. 1913
iv. Indian Polica Act d. 1857

A. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d.

B. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
C. i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d.
D. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

14. Arrange the following events in chronological order: 1

i. British relocate their capital from Calcutta to New Delhi.
ii. Formation of Delhi Municipal Committee.
iii. Introduction of railway in India by the Britishers.
iv. Imperial Delhi committee was formed.
 A. i, iv, ii, iii.
B. ii, i, iv, iii.
C. iii, ii, i, iv.
D. iii-i, ii, iv.
15. Arrange the following events in chronological order: 1
i. Chief Commissioner of Delhi created the Raisina Municipal Committee.
ii. The British laid down the foundation of a systematic police system under
Indian Police Act.
iii. Delhi Improvement Trust undertook many schemes like town expansion,
slum clearance and slum improvement scheme for the development of Delhi.
iv. Government of India set up Delhi Development Authority.

A. i, iv, ii, iii.

B. ii, i, iii, iv.
C. iii, ii, iv, i.
D. iv, iii-i, ii
16. In the decade of 1850s, in a village near Calcutta, Shyam, a young man, had a 1
lot of dreams of getting a suitable job. Despite his constant effort, securing a
job remained a distant dream for him. Suddenly, he got an information
regarding opportunities await in the city of Calcutta as many new industrial
developments were taking place. He came and got a job in a jute factory.

Which of the following best describes the situation mentioned above regarding
the industrial development of Calcutta of that time?

A. Industries expanded as regional emperors were taking initiative for the

growth of the same.
B. Industries expanded as the Britishers invested in textile and jute mills and
infrastructures.
C. Industries expanded as the Britishers invested in petrochemical and
information technology.
D. Industries expanded as the Mughals invested in textile and jute mills and
infrastructures.

17. Railways brought many changes in the lives of Indians. But there were a lot of 2
opposition against the introduction of railways in India.
List TWO reasons for those Indians that provoked them against railways set
up?
18. By early nineteenth century, Calcutta, the capital of the British, came to be 2
divided into two parts-White town and Black town. List two qualities of the
Black Town which would show that the term ‘Black’ has been used in a
derogatory term.
19. De- urbanization was a significant development during the British period in 3
India. – Support the statement with three suitable examples.
20. Introduction of printing and publishing in India brought a great change in 3
Indian society. Evaluate the role of printing and publishing in shaping the
people’s thought for Indian society.
21. Read the given extract and answer the following questions: 4

The spread of the Railways in India, whose inaugural run was on April 16,
1853, after the First War of Independence was spurred by the British strategy
for rapid transport of forces and raw materials from across the country. The
British Empire, faced with the first real revolt in 1857 which engulfed large
parts of northern India, decided to lay down foundations of effective
 administrative governance and mobility of forces and Railways became its
strategic part, A Ramarao, Chief Operating Superintendent (Retd) Eastern
Railway, has said. In an article in "Rail Heritage Journal", he said successive
Governor Generals, culminating in the feverish activities under Lord
Dalhousie, spurred the rapid spread of transport and communications, which
eventually helped the British cause. The Bombay to Thana line, established in
1853, resulted from the efforts of the mainly European trading community in
the city with the aim of expediting the transport of Cotton to the textile mills in
Lancashire.
Source: The Economic Times

21.1. When was the railway introduced in India by the Britishers?

A. April 16, 1851.
B. April 16, 1852.
C. April 16, 1853.
D. April 16, 1854.
21.2. Under which Governor General of India, the transport and
communication spread rapidly as per the article ‘Rail Heritage Journal’?
A. Lord Cornwallis
B. William Bentinck
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings
21.3. Lancashire is famous for ________ industry?
A. Petrochemical.
B. Textile.
C. Iron and Steel.
C. Cement.
21.4. List the steps that the British empire took to strengthen their possession
in India after the Revolt of 1857?
i. They laid down foundations of effective administrative governance.
ii. Introduction of railways.
iii. Introduction of universal suffrage.
A. Only i and ii.
B. Only ii and iii.
C. Only i and iii.
D. All i, ii and iii.

22. ‘Necessity introduces novel ideas.’ Defend the statement with reference to the 5
introduction of railways in India in the year 1853 by the British.
23. British had a great impact on Indian paintings, literature and architecture. 5
Support the statement with five suitable examples.
24. List the various steps that the Britishers took for the development of the city, 5
Delhi.
25. An efficient administration required proper maintenance of law and order. 5
Explain the police system of Delhi during the British period.

NAME OF THE CHAPTER14:THE NATIONALIST MOVEMENT (1870 TO 1947)

1 MCQ based 1
i) Who was the founder of the Indian National Congress?
a) W.C. Bonnerjee b) A.O. Hume
c) C.R. Das d) Motilal Nehru
ii) The historic resolution of Purna Swaraj or complete Independence was 1
 passed in the year
a) 1929 b) 1931
c) 1939 d) 1942
iii) The Nationalist movement in the North Western Frontier province was 1
led by
a) M. K. Gandhi b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
2 Fill in the blanks 1
i) ______________ the Viceroy of India presented a plan or the division of
India in to Hindustan and Pakistan.
ii) In 1942, the British Government sent the ______________ mission under 1
Sir Stafford Cripps to enlist total cooperation of Indian National Congress
during the Second World War.
3 Write True or False for the following sentences 1
i) Bhagat Singh, Azad and Rajguru assassinated police commissioner John
Sanders for Lala Lajpat Rai’s death.
ii) Jawaharlal Nehru and M.K. Gandhi formed the Swaraj Party to enter the 1
legislative council.
4 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as 1
Assertion (A) and Reason(R).
Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
i) Assertion (A): “British rule was established and survived in India with
the cooperation of Indians”. Said M.K. Gandhi
Reason (R): Nagpur session of Congress in December 1920 ratified
Gandhiji,s call for non-cooperation movement.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true.
5 i) Complete the table by giving correct information. 1
Congress Place President ship
session
(Year)_
1885 Bombay

1906 Dadabhai Naoroji

6 Match the column and choose the correct option from the given 1
alternatives.
i) Column A Column B
a) Muslim League i) Radicals
b) Lal, Bal, Pal ii) Search for truth
c) Satyagraha iii) Day of Baisakhi
d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre iv) Aga Khan
Options-
A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
B) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
D) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

ii) Column A Column B 1

a) Chauri-chaura i) 26th January 1930
b) Resolution of Purna Swaraj ii) Gadar party
c) Dandi March iii) 22 policemen burnt alive
d) Lala Hardayal iv) March 12, 1930
 Options-
A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
B) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
D) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

7 i) Arrange the incident according to the time line. 1

a) Montague Chemsford Reforms
b) Quit India Movement
c) Morley-Minto Reform
d) Second World War
Options-
A) a-b-c-d
B) b-d-a-c
C) d-a-b-c
D) c-a-d-b
ii) Arrange the incident according to the time line. 1
a) Formation of Muslim league.
b) Split of Moderates and Radicals in Surat session.
c) Reunion of Moderates and Radicals in Lucknow session
d) Formation of Indian National Congress.
Options-
A) a-b-c-d
B) b-d-a-c
C) d-a-b-c
D) c-a-d-b
8 Situation based question 1
Minakshee came from Karnataka. She had been married at age twelve and
was widowed at sixteen. Afterwards she began participating in the Indian
freedom struggle. She picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops in Udipi. She
was arrested, served a sentence and was rearrested. Between prison terms
she made powerful speeches, taught spinning and organised prabhat pheris.
Trace some measures taken by Indian freedom fighters against the ruthless
policy of British
9 Very short answer type questions. 2
i) Why Rowlatt Act was opposed by Indians?
ii) Why Constitution was adopted and enforced on 26th January 1950 only? 2
10 Short answer type questions. 3
i) Narrate the repressive steps of the British Government during Salt
Satyagrah.
ii) State some contribution of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose in the freedom 3
struggle of India.
iii) Why was Simon commission sent to India? Why did Indian National 3
Congress opposed it?
11 Read the given passage and answer the following questions. 2+2
The partition of Bengal enraged people all over the country. Both the
Moderates and the Radicals in the Congress opposed this action of the
British.
Public meetings and demonstrations began to be organised. Novel methods
 of mass protest were also developed. They struggled against the partition of
Bengal came to be known as Swadeshi Movement. In Bengal this movement
was the strongest. In other regions such as in deltaic Andhra the movement
was called the Vandemataram Movements.
i) Explain Swadeshi movement.
ii) In which year and by whom partition of Bengal was initiated?
12 Long answer type questions. 5
i) How did Non-cooperation movement of 1920 was initiated by the
Indians?
ii) What was the motive of Lord Curzon behind partition of Bengal? How 3+2
did Indians reacted to it?
iii) Who were moderates? State any four demands of the Moderates. 1+4

13 On the given political map of India mark the following points given 4
below.
i) A place where Gandhiji broken the salt law.
ii) Madras
iii) Chauri-chaura
iv) Congress Session of December 1929 where resolution of Purna Swaraj
was passed.

CHAPTER: 15. INDIA MARCHES AHEAD

1 Who designed The Indian Independence Act,1947 1

A)Lord Mountbatten
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C)Clement Attlee
D) Mahatma Gandhi
2 The Constitution of India was passed in which year? 1
A)November 26,1949 B) January 26, 1950
C) August 15, 1947 D) October 2, 1950
3 In which year, the Planning Commission was setup? 1
A)1947 B) 1945 C) 1950 D) 1948
4 ___________________ was the chief architect of our foreign policy 1
5 _______________________ was the first Governor General of Independent 1
India
6 India held its first General Election in 1952. (True/False) 1
7 In 1947, the population of India was 500 million (True/False) 1
8 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as 1
Assertion(A) and Reason (R), Read the statements carefully and choose the
correct option.
Assertion(A):NitiAayog is ‘National Institute for Transforming India’
Reason(R): It is a policy think tank of Government of India.
A) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) A and R both are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
9 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as 1
Assertion(A) and Reason (R), Read the statements carefully and choose the
 correct option.
Assertion(A): SardarVallabhbhai Patel was a man of skillful display of
wisdom and diplomacy.
Reason(R): He successfully persuaded most of the princely states to join
India.
A) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) A and R both are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
10 1

Identify the building in thefollowing image.

A. India Gate
B. Red Fort
C.Gateway of India
D. Parliament of India
11 Match the following: 1
a. Agriculture i. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Emergency in India ii. 1952
c. Architect of India’s foreign iii. Green Revolution
policy
d. India’s first General Election iv. Indira Gandhi
A.a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii,
B. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i,
C. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii,
D. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d- ii,

12 Match the following: 1

a. NitiAayog i. Electronic Voting Machine
b. Election ii. Panchasheel
c. India’s Vision 2020 iii. Policy Maker
d. Foreign Policy iv. Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam
A.a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
B.a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
C.a-ii, b-iii, c- iv, d-i
D.a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

13 Re-arrange the following events occurs during the framing of Indian 1

Constitution.
i.The constitution was passed on November 26,1949.
ii. Formation of Constituent Assembly
iii. The Constitution was adopted on January 26,1950
iv. Constituent assembly held its first session in 1946
v. It re-assembled on August 14,1947
A. iii, ii, v, iv, i
 B. ii, iv, iii, v, i
C. v, iii, ii, iv, i
D. ii, iv, v, i, iii
14 Re-arrange the following events occurs during the framing of Indian 1
Constitution.
i.First General Election held in India.
ii. Indian Independence Act,1947
iii.Adoption of Constitution
iv. First Five Year Plan
A.ii, iii, iv, i
B. iii, ii, i, iv
C. iv, i, iii, ii
D.ii, iii, i, iv
15 To understand the basic principles of democracy in India, which book you 1
will follow?
A. Bhagwat Geeta
B. Quran
C. Bible
D. The Constitution of India.
16 What is the aim behind the creation of NitiAayog in India? 2
17 What is the advantage of having multi-party system in India? 2
18 Mention the role of Election Commission in India. Who headsthe Election 2+1
Commission of India?
19 What do you mean by Coalition Government? Name any two National 2+1
Parties of India.
20 Write about any three features of India’s foreign policy. 3
21 Why India opted for a Democratic set up in the country? In your opinion, 2+1
how far we have succeeded in this respect?
22 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 1+1+2
Political parties at the national as well as regional level are the axis of
democracy and play an important role in strengthening democracy. The
Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority
responsible for administering the election process in India. Free and fair
elections are conducted by the Election Commission with the help of
Electronic Voting Machines. As a country of 1.3 billion people, more than
800 million of whom are eligible to vote, India takes great pride in being
the world’s largest democracy.
i)Who is responsible for administering the Election process in India?
ii) How manyvoters are eligible to vote?
iii) Who plays an important role in strengthening democracy in India?
23 Explain five principles of Panchasheel. 5
24 Explain the main features of ‘The Indian Independence Act,1947 5
25 Write about the main features of India Vision 2020. 5

CHAPTER16: OUR CONSTITUTION

Section A

1 Women Reservation Bill 2023 was the 106th amendment of Indian 1

constitution. Under which of the following procedures of amendment was
the bill passed?
A. By Simple Majority
 B. By Special Majority
C. By Special Majority and Ratification
D. None of the above

2 Which of the following statements represents the ‘Republic’ nature of a 1

state?
A. No other country can interfere in the internal or external affairs of
the state.
B. The state is against exploitation in all forms and will try to establish
economic justice.
C. The head of the state is an elected head from amongst the people.
D. The government is elected by the people.

3 The preamble is an/the _________ to the constitution and is________. 1

A. Introduction, justiciable
B. Soul, justiciable
C. Introduction, non-justiciable
D. Objectives, non-justiciable

4 ___________ enables all citizens to be involved in the governance of the 1

country through their elected representatives.
A. Single citizenship
B. Universal adult franchise
C. Right to equality
D. Single integrated judicial system

5 In a ___________ form of Government the powers are divided between the 1

center and the state.
A. Democratic
B. Parliamentary
C. Federal
D. Unitary

6 Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 1

(a) The Indian constitution is a written constitution whereas the
constitution of UK, Canada, China and New Zealand are partially
written.
(b) The Constitution of India is the lengthiest and the most detailed
Constitution of the world.
Options:
A. Both (a) and (b) are true.
B. Only (a) is true.
C. Only (b) is true.
D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

7 Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 1

(a) The Indian judiciary works under the guidance of the legislature and
the executive.
(b) Most of the provisions of Indian constitution can be amended by
simple majority.
Options:
A. Both (a) and (b) are true.
B. Only (a) is true.
C. Only (b) is true.
D. Both (a) and (b) are false.
8 Assertion (A): The preamble of the Indian constitution states that India is a 1
socialist country.
Reason (R): In socialism, a country is free from all external controls.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. R is true but A is false.

9 Assertion (A): Rules and laws share the common goals of guiding 1
individuals’ action but they differ in their scope, authority and enforcement.
Reason (R): Laws are usually codified in formal legal texts, whereas rules
may be implicit or unwritten.

Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A correctly.
B. Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. R is true but A is false.

10 Identify the famous personality who was a member of the Constituent 1

Assembly from the given picture. Given options may help you.

Options:
A. Sucheta Kriplani
B. Sarojini Naidu
C. Leela Roy
D. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

11 Match the Features of column A with column B and choose the correct 1
option.

Column A Column B

1) Bicameral legislature a) The Constitution of USSR

2) The Federal System b) The Constitution of Ireland

3) Directive principles of state policy c) The American Constitution

4) Fundamental Duties d) The British Constitution

Options.
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
12 Match the timeline of column A with the events of column B and choose the 1
correct option.
Column A Column B

1) 26th January, 1950 a) Lowering of voting age from 21 years

to 18 years.

2) 20th December, 1988 b) The Indian constitution was adopted

3) 26th November, 1949 c) Abolition of Privy Purse

4) 28th December, 1971 d) The final draft of the Indian

constitution was prepared.

Options:
A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

13 Arrange the following events in a correct sequence. 1

I. Right to Vote was granted to every citizen of India.
II. The Constituent Assembly was formed.
III. The Constitution was enforced.
IV. The Fundamental duties of the citizens have been enumerated.
Options:
A. II, III, IV, I
B. II, III, I, IV
C. III, II, IV, I
D. IV, III, II, I

14 Arrange the following steps involved in amendment process of the Indian 1

Constitution in correct sequence.
I. Presidential assent.
II. Introduction of the amendment bill in either house of parliament.
III. Ratification by at least half of the state legislatures (if required).
IV. Passage of the bill by a majority of the total membership and by
a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both
houses.
Options:
A. II, IV, III, I
B. II, III, I, IV
C. I, II, IV, III
D. II, I, IV, III

15 A school in a rural area does not allow girls to attend classes, claiming it is 1
only for boys. Which Fundamental right is being denied to the girls?
A. Right to Education
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right against Exploitation

16 Priya was born in India and later moved to USA where she became an 1
American citizen. She now wants to move India and live there permanently.
Can Priya retain her American citizenship while regaining Indian
 citizenship?
A. Yes, India allows dual citizenship.
B. No, she must renounce her American citizenship.
C. Yes, but only if she lives in India for a certain period.
D. No, India does not allow dual citizenship.

Section B

17 Differentiate between a flexible constitution and a rigid constitution. 2

18 “The constitution of India has several features of a federation combined 2

with the elements of a unitary state.” Justify the statement with valid points.

Section C

19 Highlight any three basic features of the Indian Constitution. 3

20 How does the Parliamentary form of government ensure accountability of 3

the executive to the legislature.

Section D

21 Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
According to the Constitution, there are three organs of government. These
are the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. The legislature refers to
our elected representatives. The executive is a smaller group of people who
are responsible for implementing laws and running the government. There is
a close relationship between the legislature and the executive. The judiciary
refers to the system of courts in this country. India has a single integrated
judicial system. The entire Judiciary is one hierarchy of courts. The
decisions made by higher courts are binding on the lower courts. The
judiciary is free from the influence of the executive and the legislature. In
order to prevent the misuse of power by any one branch of government, the
Constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers.
Through this, each organ acts as a check on the other organs of government
and this ensures the balance of power among all three.

a. How the balance of power between the three organs of 1

government is ensured?
b. Which two organs of the government are interdependent? 1
c. State the function of the executive. 1
d. What is meant by a single integrated judicial system? 1

Section E

22 How does the Indian Constitution ensure that India remains a Sovereign, 5
Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic? Explain.

23 How do the principles of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity manifest in 4+1
the Indian Constitution and why are they significant for a democratic
country?

24 How can the Indian Constitution be amended? Why is the amendment 3+2
process important for the constitution’s adaptability over time?
25 How does the Rule of Law ensure all types of equalities in a democratic 5
system? Explain in brief.

CHAPTER 17: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS, FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES AND

DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

SECTION- A

1. Which amendment act is known for introducing the concept of 1

“Fundamental duties”?
A. 42nd Amendment Act.
B. 44th Amendment Act.
C. 73rd Amendment Act.
D. More than one of the above.
2. Identify the picture. 1
A. Equality before Law.
B. Right to peaceful gathering.
C. Right to education.
D. All of these.

3. Which act removed right to property? 1

A. 43rd Amendment Act, 1987

B. 44th Amendment Act,1978
C. 45th Amendment Act,1978
D. 46th Amendment Act,1978

4. Fill in the blanks: 1

Right to information was given the status of a Fundamental Right in-----------
-----.
A. 2004
B. 2005
C. 2006
D. 2007
5. Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A): The purpose behind adding this word in the Preamble was
mainly to reiterate that secularism was a part of the basic ideology of India.
Reason( R): The inclusion simply emphasises that India have State religion.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
D. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
 6. Among the following statements which one is incorrect in terms of 1
Restrictions on Fundamental Rights?
A. To prevent spread of infectious diseases, the free movement of the
people can be restricted.
B. Freedom to practise any profession does not mean to take up
gambling, smuggling, hoarding or any other profession, which is
injurious or hazardous to the society.
C. Nobody can claim to be a doctor or a lawyer unless she/he has the
essential qualifications.
D. Freedom of expression means to speak or write anything you feel like.

7. Right to equality means 1

A. Equality before Law.
B. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth.
C. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
D. All of these.

8. Which of the following is true with reference to Right to Freedom of 1

Religion?
A. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
B. Freedom to every religious institution to manage its own affairs in
matters of religion.
C. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.
D. Freedom to form associations and unions.

9. Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1

Assertion (A): The Fundamental Rights protect the citizens against the
misuse of power by the government or Some institutions or individuals.
Reason(R): The Fundamental Rights are justiciable and are protected by the
Court.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
C. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
D. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

10. Fill in the blanks: 1

The practice of ---------- has been abolished to pave the way for social
equality.
A. Religion
B. Secular
C. Culture
D. Untouchability
11. Match the following and choose correct option. 1
Column I Column II
1. Economic Principles a. To organise village
Panchayats
2. Social Principles b. To maintain just and
honourable relations between
nations
3. Gandhian Principles c. To make efforts to raise the
standard of living and public
health
4. Principles related to d. To secure equal pay for equal
International Peace and work for both men and women
Security
Option:
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
12. Match the following and choose correct option. 1
Column I Column II
1. Right to Freedom of Religion a. Freedom to move freely
throughout the territory of India
2. Right to Freedom b. Equality of opportunity in
matters of public employment.
3. Right to Equality c. It guarantees to preserve,
maintain and promote one's
culture and language
4. Cultural and Educational d. State will not collect any taxes
Rights for promotion of any particular
religion
Option:
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C .1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
13. Arrange in sequence. 1
a. A Nine-judge bench headed by the Chief Justice of India.
b. Right to Education was included in the Indian Constitution.
c. The Right to Property removed this right from the list of Fundamental
Rights.
d. The Fundamental Duties were added to Indian Constitution
14. Read the extract(situation) carefully and choose the correct option: 1
Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The
clerk refused to take his application and said, "You, the son of a sweeper,
wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to
the municipality office and apply for a sweeper's position".
Which of Manoj's fundamental rights is being violated in this instance?
A. Right to Equality B. Right to freedom
C. Right against explanation D. Cultural and
educational right
SECTION- B

15. Explain the Right to Equality. 2

16. In which year and which amendment the word secular was introduced in the 2
preamble of the Indian Constitution?
17. Mention any two significance of secularism in India. 2
SECTION- C

18. Highlight the main provisions of the Right to Freedom of Religion. 3

19. ‘Fundamental rights are not absolute’- Analyse this statement with arguments 3
SECTION- D

20. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Another reason that it is important to separate religion from the State in
democratic societies is because we also need to protect the freedom of
individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion or have the
freedom to interpret religious teachings differently. To understand this point
better, let us take the practice of untouchability. You might feel that you
dislike this practice within Hinduism and therefore, you want to try and
reform it. However, if State power were in the hands of those Hindus who
support Untouchability, then do you think that you would have an easy task
to try and change this? Even if you were part of the dominant religious group,
you might face a lot of resistance from fellow members of your community. 1
a. Can an individual change their religion in India? 1
b. “Untouchability is still practiced in the Indian State.” True/ False? 2
Give reason.
c. State a major reason why it is important to separate religion from
the State?
SECTION- E

21. Explain any five Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution. 5

22. Define Directive Principles of the State policy. Classify the Directive 1+4=5
Principles of State policy.
23. Describe the procedures of Amendment under the Right to Constitutional 5
Remedies (Article 32) by mentioning five writs.
24. Write all the Fundamental Rights and explain any two of them. 3+2=5

CHAPTER18: THE UNION GOVT.: THE UNION LEGISLATIVE

SECTION: A

1. Identify which is not an essential qualification to be a member of Lok 1

Sabha.
A. She / He must be a citizen of India.
B. She / He must have completed the 25 years of age.
C. Her / His name must be in the voters list.
D. She / He must be a government servant.
2. Which of the following statement/statements about the powers & functions 1
of the Lok Sabha Speaker is not correct?
A. The Speaker maintains discipline and decorum of the House.
B. The Speaker presides over the meetings of Lok Sabha.
C. The Lok Sabha Speaker can’t cast his/her vote in the Presidential
election.
D. The Lok Sabha Speaker presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses
of the Parliament.

3. There is tradition that the Deputy Speaker is elected from 1

_______________.
A. the majority party B. the opposition party
C. the senior most member of the House D. the State Legislative
Body

4. In Rajya Sabha after every two years ___________ of its members retire 1
and elections are held to fill these seats.
A. 1/4th B. 1/3rd C. 2/3rd D.
th
1/6

5. Consider the following statements and choose the appropriate answer: 1

I. The Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
II. It consists of two houses i.e. Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha.
III. The President of India is not a member of any of the two Houses.
IV. The members of the Lok Sabha are indirectly elected by the people.
Options:
A. True, True, False, False B. True, False, True,
False
C. True, True, True, False D. True, False, False,
True

6. Read the following statements carefully and choose the appropriate answer: 1
I. The amendment bill can be introduced in either House.
II. The money bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
III. In case of disagreement between the two Houses, regarding money bills,
there is provision of jointing meeting of both the houses headed by the Vice
President.
IV. In Lok Sabha, if a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one
minister, the whole council of ministers has to resign collectively.
A. True, True, False, True B. True, True, False,
False
C. True, False, True, False D. False, False, True,
True

7. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion 1
(A) and Reason (R). Read the statement carefully and choose the correct
option.
Assertion (A): The Vice President/ chairman of Rajya Sabha cannot vote on
any issue in the house.
Reason (R): The Vice President is not the member of the house.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion 1
(A) and Reason (R). Read the statement carefully and choose the correct
option.
Assertion (A): The people have opportunity to actively participate in the
political process of the country.
Reason (R): The principle of Universal Adult franchise gives all the citizens
who are 18 or above 18 years of age right to vote
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.

9. Identify this personality and name the office he chairs. 1

A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha B. Deputy Speaker of the Lok

Sabha
C. Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha D. Deputy Chairperson of the
Rajya Sabha

10. Choose the appropriate option regarding the division of legislative rights in 1
India.
Subject List in Indian Constitution Subjects
A. Union List Defence and Commerce
B State List Police and Agriculture
C. Concurrent List Forest and Communication
D. Residuary Subjects Computer Software and Trade

11. Match column A with column B. 1

Column A Column B
i) Lok Sabha a) Presides over Lok Sabha
ii) Rajya Sabha b) Presides over Rajya Sabha
iii) The Speaker c) House of the People
iv) The Vice President d) Council of States
Option:
A. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b B. i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
C. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

12. Place the following procedures in the correct order for the passage of a 1
Money Bill in Parliament:
1. Presidential assent.
2. Transmission to Rajya Sabha for recommendations.
 3. Introduction in Lok Sabha
4. Lok Sabha consideration of Rajya Sabha recommendations
5. Consideration and passing by Lok Sabha
Options:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 D. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

13. Suppose you are a member of the Rajya Sabha. In the past three months, the 1
country has witnessed several communal riots in various parts of India. You
believe this is a complete failure on the part of the Home Ministry. As a
Member of Parliament, which legislative power will you use to address this
issue?
Options:
A. Introduce a Private Member's Bill to address communal violence.
B. Move a motion for a resolution to dissolve the Home Ministry.
C. Move a Motion of No Confidence against the Home Minister.
D. Raise the issue during Zero Hour or Question Hour to seek an
explanation from the Home Minister.

SECTION: B

14. ‘The will of Lok Sabha always prevail over Rajya Sabha.’ Justify. 2

15. State what would happen if a vote of no confidence is passed against any 2
cabinet minister.

16. Distinguish between the Union list and the State List. 2

SECTION: C

17. Compare the powers and functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the 3
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

18. In terms of financial matters, the Lok Sabha seems to be more powerful than 3
the Rajya Sabha. Explain with the help of suitable arguments.

SECTION: D

19. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The long struggle for freedom transformed into a mass movement and
ultimately succeeded in ushering freedom and self-rule. It was dream come
true for the people of India who aspired for a democratic self-government.
So, the constitution of India laid down the principle of Universal Adult
Franchise according to which all citizens who are 18 or more than 18 years
of age have the right to vote. This right gives the people an opportunity to
actively participate in the political process of the country. They elect their
representatives who constitute the Parliament that controls and guide the
Union Government. People express their trust in the functioning of our
democratic set-up. The Parliament, is the legislative organ of the Union
Government. It consists of the President of India and two Houses. The
House of the People is known as Lok Sabha and is also called the Lower
House. Its members are directly elected by the people. The second House is
the Council of States, known as Rajya Sabha or the Upper House.
A) Mention the legislative organ that controls and guide the Union
Government.
B) Name the house which is also known as the Upper House.
C) Explain the significance of Universal Adult Franchise.
 SECTION: E

20. Suppose you have been given an opportunity to become the Parliamentary 5
Affairs Minister for two days. Enumerate the steps that you will take to pass
an ordinary bill.

21. The President of India is not a member of either of the house but still he/she 2+3 = 5
is an integral part of the Parliament. Give two arguments in support of this
statement. Compare the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in terms of its
composition.

22. Briefly describe any five powers and functions of the Union Parliament. 5

23. Enumerate the financial and judicial powers of the Union Parliament. 3+2 = 5

CHAPTER:19 -THE UNION GOVERNMENT: THE EXECUTIVE

SECTION A
1. Consider the following statements about the administrative set up of the 1
Government of India.
1. The President’s Ministries/Departments are created by the
President on the Prime Minister’s advice.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President on
the Prime Minister’s advice.
3. The rules for the Government of India’s allocation of business are
made by the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. The ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha? 1
a) The president
b) The vice-President
c) The chief-justice
d) The speaker of Lok-Sabha
3. Which of the following bills can be introduced only with the permission 1
of the President?
A. Finance Bills
B. Constitution Amendment Bill
C. Bills related to defence procurements
D. Impeachment of Judges
4. Consider the following about the powers of the President of 1
India.
1. He can appoint an Inter-state Council to promote Centre-State and
inter-State cooperation.
2. He directly administers the Union Territories through
administrators appointed by him.
3. He can declare an area as Scheduled area and has powers
concerning the administration of Scheduled areas and tribal areas.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
5. The Constitution of India vests vast powers in the President. 1
These powers and functions make him ……………
A. almost a dictator
B. a benevolent ruler
C. real head of the Government
D. A nominal Constitutional head
6. If the office of the Vice-President falls vacant, when there is a vacancy 1
already existing at the President’s office, then the ____________ takes
over as _________________ of India till a new President is elected.

A. Chief Justice of India, Officiating President

B. Prime Minister, President
C. Chief Minister, Officiating President
D. Governor, President
7. Consider the following statements. 1
1. The President can reject money bill.
2. He can also return the Money bill for reconsideration.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
8. How many of the following statements is/arefalse? 1
i. The Union Home Minister act as a link between Cabinet and
President.
ii. The Vice-President of India is not entitled to all the powers and
privileges due to the President even if he/she is Officiating.
iii. All the members of Rajya Sabha are entitled to vote in the
Presidential election.
iv. The President of India is an integral part of Indian Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
9. Assertion (A): A Minister at the Central level can be dismissed by the 1
Prime Minister.
Reason (R): A Minister is appointed by the President only
on the advice of Prime Minister.

Choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): The President of India can be impeached for the 1
violation of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Constitution lays down the procedure for
impeachment of the President.

Choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
11. Identify the picture and choose the correct option. 1

a) President V.V. Giri

b) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c) President Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Vice President S.Radhakrishnan
12. Study the picture and answer the following question. 1

Identify the building in picture. Where it is located?

A. Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi
B. New Parliament Building in New Delhi
C. Building in Jaipur
D. Historical building in Jaisalmer
13. Match the following by selecting correct codes given below: 1
Column 1 Column 2
I. Prime Minister i. take all important decisions
II. President ii. consisted of all the Ministers
III. Cabinet iii. under the control of A Minster is
called a portfolio
IV. Council of Ministers iv. appoints the Prime Minister
V. Department v. heads of the Council of Ministers

A. I – (iii), II – (iv), III – (i), IV – (v), V – (ii)

B. I – (v), II – (iv), III – (ii), IV – (iii), V – (i)
C. I – (v), II – (iv), III – (i), IV- (ii), V – (iii)
D. I – (ii), II- (iv), III – (iii), IV – (i), V – (v)
14. Which of the following is correctly matched? 1
1. Cabinet System of Government – Separation of Power
2. Presidential System – Collective Responsibility
3. Federal System of Government – Division of Power
4. Unitary System of Government- Centralisation of Power
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
E. All of the above
15. What is the order of Precedence in accordance with which the officials 1
of the Indian Government are seated?
I. Prime Minister, II. Cabinet Ministers, III. President, IV. Vice-
President

Choose the correct option:

A. IV, III, II, I
B. III, IV, I, II
C. I, IV, III, II
D. II, III, IV, I
16. Consider a situation where the Prime Minister wantto impose 1
‘President’s rule’ in one state because the State Government has
failed to curb atrocities the Dalits in that State effectively. The
President disagrees wholeheartedly on signing the order.

Which of the following courses of action are available to the

President?
i. Tell the Prime Minister that he will not sign an order promulgating
President’s rule.
ii. Make a press statement about Prime Minister is wrong.
iii. Discuss the matter with the Prime Minister and dissuade him from
taking this action, but if he insists, agree to sign the said order.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 3 only

SECTION B
17. How can you say that India is a parliamentary form of Government? 2

18. What is the composition of the electoral college for the election of the 2
President of Indian Republic?
19. Cabinet and Council of Ministers are same. Do you agree? Explain. 2

SECTION C
20. “Prime Minister is the link between Council of Ministers and the 3
President." Explain the statement.
21. Elucidate the Emergency powers of the Head of the State. 3

22. If you become the Prime Minister, what works will you prioritize? 3
SECTION D
23. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: 4

The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

This provision means that a ministry which loosen confidence of the
Lok Sabha is obliged to resign. The principle indicates that the
ministry is an executive committee of the Parliament and it
collectively governs on behalf of the Parliament. Collective
responsibility is based on the principle of the solidarity of the Cabinet.
It implies that a vote of no Confidence even against a single Minister
led to the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers. It also
indicates that if a Minister does not agree with a policy or decision Of
the Cabinet, he or she must either accept the decision or resign. It is
binging on all Ministers to pursue or agree to a policy for which there
is collectively responsibility.

Questions:
A. What do you understand by collective responsibility?
B. How is the Union Council of Ministers appointed?
C. To whom the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible?
D. Identify the values in the above paragraph.
SECTION E

24. The Prime Minister is the key-stone of the Cabinet arch. Explain. 5
25. Who is the Second Woman President of India? Briefly describe the election (2+3=5)
procedure and impeachment of the Head of the State.
26. Explain the following: (Any 2) (2.5X2
=5)
A. Powers of Vice-President of India
B. Coalition Government
C. Executive powers of the President
 CHAPTER 20: - THE UNION GOVERNMENT: THE JUDICIARY
SECTION – A

1. Sovereignty of the Indian Parliament is restricted by – 1

A. Powers of the President of India

B. Powers of the Prime Minister of India
C. Judicial Review
D. Leader of the opposition
2. He/she has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of 1
India, on any question of law –

A. Prime Minister
B. Vice President
C. President
D. Judge of the High Court
3. Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct 1
option: -

A. District Court, Courts of Sub- judges, Family Court, Court of

Munsifs.
B. Family Court, Court of Munsifs, District Court, Courts of Sub-
judges.
C. District Court, Court of Munsifs , Courts of Sub- judges, Family
Court.
D. Courts of Sub- judges, Family Court, Court of Munsifs, District
Court.
4 A Judge of the High court may continue to remain in office till the 1
attainment of _____________ years of age.

A. 62
B. 65
C. 60
D. 56
5 The highest revenue court in a district is the ____________which 1
deals with the cases of land revenue.

A. High court
B. Supreme court
C. Court of revenue
D. Civil court
6 State whether the statements are True or False: 1

STATEMENT 1: - Lok Adalats was an effort to simplify the legal

procedures, reduce the cost of litigation and to provide speedy justice.
STATEMENT 2: - The first Lok Adalat was held in Mumbai in 1985.

A. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.

B. Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.
C. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are true.
7 State whether the statements are True or False: - 1

STATEMENT 1: - The Government has set the salary of the Chief

Justice of India at Rupees 2.8 Lakhs per month.
STATEMENT 2: - Many other facilities, such as official residence,
car, travel allowances, leave and pension on retirement.
A. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
B. Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.
C. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are true.
8 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). 1
Read the statement and choose the correct option.

Assertion: The Criminal cases involve offences like robberies,

murders, cheating, kidnapping, etc.
Reason: The Criminal cases begin with the lodging of an FIR.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
9 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). 1
Read the statement and choose the correct option.

Assertion: The lower courts are controlled and supervised by the

High court.
Reason: A judgement given by the lower court can be challenged in
the higher courts.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
10 Identify the monument. 1

A. Allahabad High Court.

B. Supreme Court.
C. Kolkata High Court.
 D. Mumbai High Court.
11 Match the following: - 1

List I List II

a. FIR 1 uphold the law of the land

b. Supreme Court 2 resolves disputes between

centre and states

c. Separation of Powers 3 Criminal Law cases

d. Judiciary 4 key feature of constitution

Codes: -

A. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

B. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
C. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
12 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes 1
given below:

List-I List-II
a Impeachment 1 Court of Record
b Collegium 2 A closed group consisting of the
Chief Justice of India and four
senior judges of the Supreme Court.
c Supreme Court 3 A Special procedure to remove
judges
d Litigation 4 a legal process of resolving a
dispute through a court.
Codes:

A. a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4

B. a-2 b-3 c-1 d-4
C. a-3 b-4 c-2 d-1
D. a-2 b-4 c-3 d-1
13 Suppose there is a public park in your neighbourhood that is being 1
encroached upon by a private company for commercial purposes,
depriving the community of a recreational space. How can you solve
this problem?

SECTION – B

14 “Indian Judiciary is a Single Unified and Integrated Judicial System” 2

Substantiate the statement.

15 Explain the process of removal of a High Court Judge. 2

16 Explain briefly about the Criminal Cases with examples. 2

 SECTION – C

17 “Judicial Review is an important means of protecting and enforcing 3

the rights.” Justify the statement.

18 Enlist the qualification of a Supreme Court Judge. 3

19 Discuss with examples that the Indian Judiciary is Independent. 3

20 Differentiate between civil and criminal cases with the help of 3

examples.

SECTION – D

21 Read the given source and answer the following questions. 1+2+1

There are three different levels of courts in our country. There are
several courts at the lower level while there is only one at the apex
level. The courts that most people interact with are what are called
subordinate or district courts. These are usually at the district or
Tehsil level or in towns and they hear many kinds of cases. Each state
is divided into districts that are presided over by a District Judge.
Each state has a High Court which is the highest court of that state.
At the top is the Supreme Court that is located in New Delhi and is
presided over by the Chief Justice of India. The decisions made by
the Supreme Court are binding on all other courts in India. Are these
different levels of courts connected to each other? Yes, they are. In
India, we have an integrated judicial system, meaning that the
decisions made by higher courts are binding on the lower courts.
Another way to understand this integration is through the appellate
system that exists in India. This means that a person can appeal to a
higher court if they believe that the judgment passed by the lower
court is not just.

1. Explain the structure of the judiciary in India.

2. Describe briefly about the appellate system in India.
3. Specify the full form of PIL.
SECTION – E

22. Explain the role of Public Interest Litigation in the Indian Judicial 5
System with examples.

23. Discuss the significance of Lok Adalats and why are they called 5
People’s Courts?

24. Briefly explain any five powers and functions of the Supreme Court 5
of India.
 CHAPTER 22- SAFEGUARDING THE MARGINALISED
1. The process of discriminating and isolating an individual or group is 1

A. Marginalisation
B. Untouchability
C. Rehabilitation of manual scavengers
D. None of the above
2. Select the statement which is NOT correct- 1

A. The state can make special provisions like Protective Discrimination.

B. Untouchability is an inhuman product of the caste system.
C. Dalits face certain prohibitions from the dominant castes
D. Majority groups suffer social and political discrimination.
3. Identity the CORRECT option which would help to protect the interests of 1
marginal groups.

1. Making of laws such as the abolition of untouchability.

2. Formulating some specific schemes such as subsidized hostels for students
of marginal communities.
3. Providing special scholarships for students from wealthy groups.
4. Organising competitions for students of marginal groups to express their
views.
OPTIONS:

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
4. Fill in the blanks 1

A welfare housing scheme launched by the Central Government for the upliftment
of weaker groups____________________
A. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
C. Awas Yojana
D. Housing For All Scheme
5. Economically and socially disadvantaged communities of India, called 1
______________________

A. Harijans or Untouchables
B. Majorities
C. Special Backward Class
D. Poor people
6. State whether true or false- 1

1. Any individual above the age of 10 years and does not have a bank
account can open a bank account without depositing any money.
2. The parents of any girl child below 10 years can open a saving account for
their daughter and operate it till she attains an age of 18 years.
 3. Stand-Up India scheme provides composite loan for setting-up any new
enterprise between Rupees 50 lakh and up to Two Crore.
4. There is no initiative for the people living in rural areas, they cannot enjoy
the insurance benefits at minimum contribution.

OPTIONS:
A. True, True, False, false
B. True, False, True, False
C. False, True, True, False
D. True, False, Frue, False
7. State whether true or false- 1

1. Successive governments aim to give secondary education to all citizens of

India.
2. Social and economic equality are enshrined in Preamble of our
constitution.
3. Majority of the people are still backward – socially and economically.
4. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by law.
OPTIONS:
A. True, True, False, False
B. True, False, True, False
C. False, True, False, True
D. False, True, True, False
8. In the question given below there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R).

Read the statement and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Directive Principles Of State Policy are enforceable by law
and they lay down fundamentals in the governance of the country.

Reason (R): They direct the states to apply these principles while making laws to
secure a social order.

Codes :
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true

9. In the question given below there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R):

Read the statement and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Special privileges aim to ensure development and progress of

historically oppressed and marginalised sections of society.

Reason (R) : Failure of proper implementation of the policies and lack of

coordination among different agencies are responsible for undesired results of
 privileges.

Codes :
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
10. Look at the picture and choose the correct option about the targets to achieve 1
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.

1. Construction of toilets
2. Eradicate manual scavenging
3. Changing people`s attitudes to sanitation and create awareness.
4. By littering public places

OPTIONS:

A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
11. Match the following 1

Column A Column B

A) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana I. Under Right to Equality

B) Prevention of Atrocities Act II. Financial empowerment of

girl child
C) Abolition of untouchability III. Weaker sections of the society
other than SC/ST
D) Other backward class IV. Prevents offences of atrocities
against the members of
SCs/STs

CODES:

A B C D

A.(II) (IV) (I) (III)

B. (I) (IV) (III) (II)

C. (IV) (I) (III) (II)

 D. (III) (I) (IV) (II)

12. Based on your study, rearrange the following in the correct sequence by year 1
wise:

I. Self -Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers

II. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched
III. National campaign to make streets and infrastructure clean
IV. Safai karamcharis filed a PIL (Public Interest Litigation).
OPTIONS:
A. IV, I, II, III
B. III, II, I, IV
C. II, I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
13. Read the given text and answer the following questions: 1

The Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution safeguard the
interests of the Minorities. It lays down that it is the duty of all citizens to promote
harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India,
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities. It is the
duty of all Indians to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite
culture.

Question:

In what ways the Indian Constitution safeguard the interests of the Minorities of
the country?

14. Highlight any two ways through which India can become a prosperous nation. 2

15. The right, law or policy related to marginalized groups merely exists on the paper. 2
Do you agree? Comment

16. The Government operates laws to ensure that concrete steps are taken to end 2
inequality in the society. Mention two such laws.

17. Suggest any three ways through which Swachh Bharat Abhiyan can be made 3
successful.

18. State the purpose of starting reservation policy by the Government of India. 3

19. Analyse some measures taken by the government for rehabilitation of manual 3
scavengers.

20. Identify three reasons behind the need of special provisions like protective 3
discrimination.

The Directive Principles of State Policy

21. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by law but they do 4
lay down important fundamentals in the governance of the country. They direct
the states to apply these principles while making laws to secure a social order for
 the promotion of the welfare of the people. They aim to minimise the inequalities
in income and eliminate inequalities of status. Along with providing facilities and
opportunities, the Directive Principles ensure that the material resources of the
country are utilised for the common good.

Question:

1 .Mention three main objective of Directive Principles of State Policy.

2. Write one importance of Directive Principles help in assessing the performance

of the government.

22. Discuss any five programmes launched by the government for the upliftment of 5
weaker sections of the society.

23. The Fundamental Rights of India are a set of constitutional guarantees that protect 5
individual freedom and ensure social justice. Support the statement with suitable
examples.

24. Highlight any two main purpose of Prevention of Atrocities Act 1989 for 5
Scheduled castes and the Scheduled tribes. List any three major offences which
are punishable under this act.