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Social Sci CBSE R-4 Pre Board 31-02-25

The document outlines the structure and content of the Social Science Pre-Board Examination for the academic session 2024-2025, detailing the number of questions, types of questions, and marking scheme across five sections. It includes multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, case-based questions, and a map-based question. Specific instructions for answering and the absence of overall choice in the question paper are also highlighted.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
37 views8 pages

Social Sci CBSE R-4 Pre Board 31-02-25

The document outlines the structure and content of the Social Science Pre-Board Examination for the academic session 2024-2025, detailing the number of questions, types of questions, and marking scheme across five sections. It includes multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, case-based questions, and a map-based question. Specific instructions for answering and the absence of overall choice in the question paper are also highlighted.

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b8888539800
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CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2024-2025)


SUB : SOCIAL SCIENCE
PRE-NURTURE : X- CBSE (PRE BOARD EXAMINATION 2024-2025)
Time : 180 min. ROUND - 04 Marks : 980 Date : 31-01-2025

General Instruction:
1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2
marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each.
1. The democracy in France was destroyed by ________.
(a) Napolean Bonaparte (c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Otto von Bismarck

2. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(A) SAIL (i) Heavy Industries
(B) Ship building (ii) Bauxite
(C) Textile (iii) Public Sector
(D) Aluminium (iv) Agro Based
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

3. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities?


(a) Both the communities demanded special powers.
(b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority
Dutch speaking community.
(c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority
French speaking community.
(d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by the
French speaking community.

4. Which of the following information is correct regarding the figure given below?
(a) Slaves for sale (b) The Irish Potato Famine (c) Merchants from Venice (d) Goa Museum
5. Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
(i) He was an Italian statesman.
(ii) He spoke French much better than Italian.
(iii) He was a tactful diplomat.
(iv) He belonged to a Royal family.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) are correct. (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct. (d) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
6. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
codes provided below.
Assertion (A): When the power is taken away from the Central and the State governments and
given to local governments it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R): One-third seats are reserved for women in local government bodies.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
7. Power shared by two or more political parties belongs to which form of government?
(a) Community government (b) Federal government
(c) Coalition government (d) Unitary government
8. Which among the following countries is/are examples of multi-party system?
(i) India (ii) China (iii) United States of America (iv) Cuba (v) The United Kingdom
(a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) and (v) only (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
9. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: The name “silk routes” points to the importance of East-bound Chinese silk
cargoes.
Statement II: Until the eighteenth century, China and India were among the world’s richest
countries.
(a) Both statements I and II are true.
(b) Both statements I and II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(d) Statement II is true but statement I is false.
10. The first printing press came to India with which one of the following?
(a) Portuguese Missionaries (b) Catholic Priests
(c) Dutch protestants (d) East India Company
11. In which of the following states, Tungabhadra Dam is located?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
12. Identify the sector to which A and B belong and choose the correct option.
Place of work Nature of No. of working
employment
Office, clinic in market places with A 15
formal license
Working in small workshops usually B 50
not registered with the government
(a) A - Unorganised, B - Organised (b) A - Service sector, B - Secondary sector
(c) A - Organised, B - Unorganised (d) A - Secondary, B - Primary sector
13. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from
the given options:
Table for Comparison of three countries
Countries Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after
every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the
three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates average
income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable
(b) It has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower
14. Which of the following authorities of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central
Government?
(a) State Bank of India (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Bank of Baroda (d) Punjab National Bank
15. The products received by exploiting natural resources come under which one of the following
sectors?
(a) Quaternary (b) Tertiary (c) Secondary (d) Primary
16. Why is it that while there has been a change in the share of three sectors in GDP, a similar shift
has not taken place in employment?
(a) It is because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(b) The secondary and tertiary sectors have to develop more.
(c) People in India are more attached to land and want to continue in agriculture.
(d) People are not interested in working in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
17. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options given below:
While taking loan, a borrower looks for easy terms of credit. This means (i) interest rate, (ii)
condition for repayment, (iii) collateral and documentation requirements.
(a) (i)–low, (ii)–tough, (iii)–more (b) (i)–high, (ii)–easy, (iii)–less
(c) (i)–low, (ii)–easy, (iii)–less (d) (i)–low, (ii)–tough, (iii)–less

18. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): No individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency notes in India.
Reason (R): In India, only RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government. Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct - explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but (R) is correct.
19. India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types. These have
contributed in the development of various types of soils.
Identify the types of soils marked as X, Y and Z in the given map of India.

X Y Z
(a) Arid Soil Laterite Soil Alluvial Soil
(b) Red and Yellow Soil Black Soil Mountainous Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil Red and Yellow Soil Black Soil
(d) Black Soil Alluvial Soil Arid Soil

20. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and
choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Transparency means openness, communication and accountability of the
government.
Reason (R): Transparency is considered missing in democratic government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

SECTION – B
Questions 21 to 24 carry 2 marks each.

21. Mention any two factors that make forests a very useful resource for humans.

22. In which list of the Indian constitution does education come? Why?
23. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931?
OR
Mention any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
24. Study the political map of India.
(i)Name the type of soil which is found in the highlighted Indian state.(also name the state)
(ii) Mention any one feature of this soil.

SECTION – C
Questions 25 to 29 carry 3 marks each.
25. Suggest any three measures to enhance the participation of woman in politics.

26. "A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic
project:' Justify the statement.

27. Describe any three characteristics of the Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur Iron-ore belt in India.

28. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act
in 1919? Explain any three reasons.

29. Disguised unemployment does not help in productivity of a country, why? Explain with the help
of an example.
OR
What constitutes the unorganised sector in urban areas? Why do workers in this sector need
protection?

SECTION – D
Questions 30 to 33 carry 5 marks each.
30. What is a Gram Sabha? Describe any four functions of a Gram Sabha.
OR
What is the meaning of decentralisation? Explain any four provisions that have been made
towards decentralisation in India after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992.

31. Is per capita income the true measure of development? Elaborate.


OR
What is Human Development Index? Which organisation measures the HDI? Explain the three
major indicators of the HDI.
32. "The first clear expression of nationalism came with the 'French Revolution' in 1789:' Examine
the statement.
OR
How did the wave of economic nationalism strengthen the wider nationalist sentiment growing
in Europe? Explain.
33. Give an account of oilseeds in India. State the importance of groundnut and name the states
where it is grown.
OR
Explain any five initiatives taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural
production.
SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)
Questions 34 to 36 carry 4 marks each.
34. Case Study – 1
Read the given extract and answer following questions
Exhaustion of Natural Resources
Look at the following data for crude oil:
Region/country Reserve (2017) Number of Years
(Thousand Million Barrels) Reserves will last
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2
The table above gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil (column1). More important, it also
tells us for how many years the stock of crude oil will last if people continue to extract it at the
present rate. The reserves would last only 50 years for the world. However, different countries
face different situations. Countries like India depend on importing oil from abroad because they
do not have enough stocks of their own. There are countries like USA which have low reserves
and hence want to secure oil through military or economic power. The question of
sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the nature and
process of development.
(i) Is crude oil essential for the development process in a country? Discuss. (2)
(ii) India has to import crude oil. What problems do you anticipate for the country looking at the
above situation? (2)

35. Case Study – 2


Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Source A - Mode of Occurrence of Minerals
Minerals are usually found in "ores". The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any
mineral mixed with other elements. The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient
concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.
Source B - Conventional Source of Energy
In India, coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel. It provides a substantial part of the
nation's energy needs. It is used for power generation, to supply energy to industry as well as for
domestic needs. India is highly dependent on coal for meeting its commercial energy
requirements
Source C - Non-Conventional Source of Energy
The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly
dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas. Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes
serious environmental problems. Hence there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources
like solar energy, wind, tide biomass and energy from waste material.
(i) Where are mineral usually found? (1)
(ii) What is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? (1)
(iii) Describe any two non-conventional sources of energy. (2)
36. Case Study – 3
Read the given extract and answer following questions.
The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January, 1930 `We believe that it is the inalienable right of
the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil
and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We believe
also that if any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people
have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only
deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the exploitation of the
masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe,
therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Puma Swaraj or Complete
Independence:
(i) Who was the president of the Lahore Session of Congress held in December 1929? (1)
(ii) Why was Puma Swaraj considered essential by the people of India? (1)
(iii) Explain the significance of the Lahore Session of Congress (1929). (2)

SECTION – F (Map Skill Questions) – 2 + 3 = 5


37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(I) The Place where Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.
(II) The place where on 4th February 1922, large group of protestors, clashed with police and
set fire to a Police Station.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable
symbols.
(i) Kakrapara Nuclear Plant (ii) Ballari Iron ore mine (iii) A Software Technology Park in
Kerala (iv) An Airport in Kolkata which was earlier known as Dum Dum. (v) Mormagao Port

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