25% found this document useful (4 votes)

30K views843 pages

Jamb 2025 Questions and Past Questions All Subjects

The document contains a series of chemistry examination questions covering various topics such as chemical reactions, properties of substances, and separation techniques. It includes multiple-choice questions with options and some experimental scenarios. Additionally, it provides contact information for obtaining answer keys and explanations for the questions.

Uploaded by

ieeee

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

25% found this document useful (4 votes)

30K views843 pages

Jamb 2025 Questions and Past Questions All Subjects

Uploaded by

ieeee

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 843

The subjects are in this order

Chemistry
physics
English
Biology
mathematics
economics
literature
government
crk
accounting
commerce
Chemistry
2002-2023
JAMB
Questions
TO GET THE ANSWER KEY FOR ALL THE
QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
MESSAGE ON WHATSAPP OR CALL
09033359054 , 07046633922, 07042101989
Chemistry 2 0 0 2
1. X is crystalline salt of sodium. Solution of X in water sweet taste and melts on heating. In the presence of
turns litmus red produces a gas which turns lime water yeast and in the absence of air X is converted to
milky when added to sodium carbonate. With barium compound Y in the absence of air, X is converted to
chloride solution, X gives a white precipitate which is compound Y and colourless gas.
insoluble in dilute hydrochloric acid. X is Compound Y reacts with sodium metal to produce a
A. Na2,CO3 B. NaHCO3 gas Z which gives a ‘pop’ sound with a glowing splint.
C NaHSO4 D Na2SO3 Y also reacts with ethanoic acid to give a sweet smelling
E. Na2SO4 compound W.

2. The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is 8. Compound W is

A. ethanol B. glycerol A. a soap B. an oil
C. methanol D. propanol C. an alkane D. an ester
E. glycol E. sucrose

3. The flame used by welders in cotton metals is 9. The molecular formula of X is

A. butane gas flame A. C12H22O11 B. C6H12O6
B. acetylene flame C. C3H6O3 D. C7H14O7
C. kerosene flame E. C4H3O4
D. oxy-acetylene flame
E. oxygen flame 10. reaction of X with yeast forms the basic of the
A. plastic industry
4. Consecutive members of an alkane homologous series B. textile industry
differ by C. brewing industry
A. CH B. CH2 D. soap industry
C. CH3 D. CnHn E. dyeing industry.
E. CnH2n+2
11. A mixture of common salt, ammonium chloride and
5. If an element has the lectronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 barium sulphate can best be separated by
3s2 3p2, it is A. addition of water followed by filtration then
A. a metal sublimation
B. an alkaline earth metal B. addition of water followed by sublimation then
C. an s-block element filtration
D. a p-block element C. sublimation followed by addition of water then
E. a transition element filtration
D. fractional distillation
E. fractional crystallization.
6. Some copper (11) sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO45H2O),
was heated at 120oC with the following results: Wt of 12. Which of the following relationships between the
crucible = 10.00 g; Wt of crucible + CuSO45H2O= 14.98g; pressure P, the volume V and the temperature T,
Wt of crucible + residue = 13.54g. How many molecules represents and ideal gas behaviors?
of water of crystallization were lost? [H=1, Cu =63.5, A. P & VT B. P & T/V
O=16, S= 32] C. PT & V D. PV & VT
E. P & V/T
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4 13.
E. 5

7. The three-dimensional shape of methane is

A. hexagonal B. tigonal
C. linear D. tertrahedral
E. cubical

Question 8-10 are based on the following

An unknown organic compound X has a relative In the above experiment (fig1) the litmus paper will
molecular mass of 180. It is a colourless crystalline solid, initially
readily soluble in water. X contains the element C, H, A. be bleached B. turn green
and O in the atomic ratio 1:2:1. The compound has a C. turn red D. turn blue
E. turn black
14. The colour imparted to a flame by calcium ion 20. How many isomeric forms are there for the molecular
is formula C3H6Br2?
A. green B. blue A. 1 B. 2
C. brick-red D. yellow C. 3 D. 4
E. lilac E. 5

15. In the reaction M + N P; H = + Q kJ. 21. A piece of burning sulphur will continue to burn in a
Which of the following would increase the gas jar of oxygen to give misty fumes which readily
concentration of the product? dissolve in water. The resulting liquid is
A. Decreasing the concentration of N A. sulphur (1V) trioxide
B. Increasing the concentration of P B. Tetraoxosulphate acid (V1)
C. Adding a suitable catalyst. C. Trioxosulphate (1V) acid
D. Decreasing the temperature D. Dioxosulphate (11) acid
E. Hydrogen sulphide
16. In which of the following processes is iron being
oxidized? 22. Sodium decahydrate (Na2SO4 10H2O) an exposure to air
1. Fe + H2SO4 H2 + FeSO4 loses all its water of crystallization. The process of loss
2. FeSO4+ H2S FeS + H2SO4 is known as
3 FeCl + CI2 2FeCL3 A. Efflorescence B. Hygroscopy
4 FeCl3 + SnCI2 2FeCL2 + SnCI4 C. Deliquescence D. Effervescence
A. 1 only B. 2 only E. Dehydration
C. 3 only D. 1 and 3
E. 2 and 4. 23. Which of the following happens during the electrolysis
of molten sodium chloride?
17. A. Sodium ion loses an electron
B. Chlorine atom gains an electron
C. Chloride ion gains an electron
D. Sodium ion is oxidized
E. Chloride ion is oxidized.

24. Crude petroleum pollutant usually seen on some Nigeria

creeks and waterways can be dispersed or removed by.
Fig.2 A. heating the affected parts order to boil off the
In the above experiment (fig.2), a current was passed petroleum
for 10 minutes and 0.63 g of copper was found to be B. mechanically stirring to dissolve the petroleum
deposited on the cathode of CuSO4 cells. The weight in water
of AgNO3 cell during the same period would be [Cu = C. pouring organic solvents to dissolve the
63, Ag –108] petroleum
A. 0.54 g B. 1.08 g D. spraying the water with detergents
C. 1.62 g D. 2.16 g E. cooling to freeze out the petroleum.
E. 3.24 g
25. An element is electronegative if
18. In the reaction Fe + Cu2+ Fe2+ + Cu, iron displaces A. it has a tendency to exist in the gaseous form
copper ions to form copper. This is due to the fact that B. its ions dissolve readily in water
A. iron is in the metallic form while dthe copper is C. it has a tendency to lose electrons
in the ionic form D. it has a tendency to gain electrons
B. the atomic weight of copper is greater than E. it readily forms covalent bonds
that of ion
C. copper metal has more electrons than ion metal 26. Solution X,Y, and Z have pH values 3.0, 5.0 and 9.0
D. iron is an inert metal respectively. Which of the following statements is
E. iron is higher in the electrochemical series than correct?
copper. A. All the solution are acidic
B. All solution are basic
19. C2H5 C =CH2 C. Y and Z are more acidic than water
D. Y is more acidic than X.
CH3 E. Z is the least acidic
The correct name of the compound with the above
structural formula is 27. In the reactions
A. 2-methylbut-1-ene (1) H2 (g) + 1
B. 2-methylbut-2-ene 2 O2(g) H 2O(1); H =-2.86kJ
C. 2-methylbut-1-ene
D. 2-ethyprop-1-ene (11) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g); H= -406 kJ
E. 2-ethylprop-2-ene the equations imply that
A. more heat is absorbed heat is evolved in (1) D. Column chromatography
B. more heat is absorbed in (11) E. Evaporation
C. less heat is evolved in (1)
D. reaction (11) proceeds faster than (1) 35. Increasing the pressure of a gas
E. reaction (1) proceeds faster than (11) A. lowers the average kinetic energy of the
molecules
28. Which of these metals, Mg, Fe, Pb, and Cu will dissolve B. decreases the density of the gas
in dilute HCI? C. decreases the temperature of the gas
A. All the metals D. increases the density of the gas
B. Mgm Fe, and Cu E. increases the volume of the gas.
C. Mg, Fem and Pb
D. Mg and Fe only 36. 2.5 g of a hydrated barium salt gave on heating, 2.13 g
E. Mg only of the anhydrous salt. Given that the relative molecular
mass of the anhydrous salt is 208, the number of
29. Stainless steel is an alloy of molecules of water of crystallization of the barium salt
A. Carbon, iron and lead is
B. Carbon, ion and chromium A. 10 B. 7
C. Carbon iron and copper C. 5 D. 2
D. Carbon, iron and silver E. 1
E. Carbon and iron only
37. 3.06 g of a sample of potassium trioxochlorate
30. What volume of 0.50 MH2SO4 will exactly neutralize (v) (KCIO3) was required to make a saturated solution
20cm3 of 0.1 M NaOH solution? with 10cm3 of water at 25oC. The solubility of the salt at
A. 2.0 cm3 B. 5.0 cm3 25oC is [K =39, CI =35.5, O=16]
3
C. 6.8 cm D. 8.3 cm3 A. 5.0 moles dm3 B. 3.0 moles dm3
3 3
E. 10.4 cm C. 2,5 moles dm D. 1.0 moles dm3
E. 0.5 moles dm3
31. Which of the following pair of gases will NOT react
further with oxygen at a temperature between 30oC and 38. The cracking process is very important in the petroleum
400oC? industry because it
A. SO2 and NH3 B. CO2 and H2 A. gives purer products
C. NO2 and SO3 D. SO3 and NO B. Yields more lubricants
E. CO and H2 C. Yields more engine fuels
D. Yields more asphalt
32. Some metals are extracted from their ores after some E. Yield more candle wax
preliminary treatments by electrolysis (L) some by
thermal reaction(T) and some by a combination of both 39. A gas that can behave as reducing agent towards
processes(TL). Which set-up in the following for the chlorine and as an oxidizing agent toward hydrogen
extraction of iron copper and aluminum is correct? sulphide is
A. Iron (L), copper (L) m aluminum (T) A. O2 B. NO
B. Iron (T), copper (L), aluminum (T) C. SO2 D. NH3
C. Ion (TL), copper (TL), aluminium (TL) E. CO2
D. Iron (L), copper (T), aluminium (T). 40. Which if the following solution will give a white
E. Ion (T), copper (L), aluminium (TL). precipitate with barium chloride solution and a green
flame test?
33. In the preparation of some pure crystals of Cu (NO3)2 A. Na2SO4 B. CuSO4
starting with CuO, a student gave the following C. CaSO4 D. CaCI2
statements as steps he employed. Which of these shows E. (NH4)2 SO4
a flaw in his report?
A. Some CuO was reacted with excess dilute 41. The mass of an atom is determined by
H2SO4 A. its ionization potential
B. The solution was concentrated B. its electrochemical potential
C. When the concentrate was cooled, crystals C. the number of protons
formed were removed by filtration. D. the number of neutrons and protons
D. The crystals were washed with very cold water E. the number of neutrons and electrons
E. The crystals were then allowed to dry.
42. Which of the following is neutralization
34. Which of the following seperation processes is most reaction?
likely to yield high quality ethanol (>95%) from palm A. Addition of chloride solution
wine? B. Addition of trioxonirate (V) acid (nitric acid)
A. Fractional disllation without a dehydrant to distilled water.
B. Simple distillation without a dehydrant C. Addition of trioxonirate (V) acid (nitric acid)
C. Fractional distillation with a dehydrant to tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid (sulphuric acid).
D. Addition of trioxonirate (V) (potassium nitrate) B. More CuCI2 is formed at 10oC
solution C. Less CuCI2 is formed at 10oC
E. Addition of trioxonirate (V) acid (nitric acid) D there is no change CuCI2 formed at 40oC and
potassium hydroxide solution. 10oC
E. More CuCI2 is consumed at 40oC
43. A jet plane carrying 3,000 kg of ethane burns off all the
gas forming water and carbondioxide. If all the 48. Zn + H2SO4 ZnCI2 + H2
carbondioxide is expelled and the water formed is The rate of the above reaction will be greatly increased
condensed and kept on board the plane, then the gain if.
in weight is A. the zinc is in the powered form
A. 1,800 kg B. 900 kg B. a greater volume of the acid is used
C. 600 kg D. 2,400 kg C. a smaller volume of the acid is used
E. 1,200kg D. the reaction vessel is immersed in an ice-bath
E. the zinc is in the form of pellets.
44. Liquid X, reacts with sodium trioxocarbonate (IV)
(Na2CO3) to give a gas which turns calcium chloride 49. Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H4
solution milky. X is In the above reaction how much zinc will be left
A. Na2SO4 (aq) B. KI (ag) undissolve if 2.00 g of zinc treated with 10cm3 of 1.0 M
C. An alkali D. An acid of H2SO4? [Zn =65, S=32, O = 16, H = 1]
E. A hydrocarbon. A. 1.35 g B. 1.00 g
C. 0.70 g D. 0.65 g
45. Which of the following statements is FALSE? E. 0.06 g
A. copper (11) ion can be reduced to copper (1)
ion by hydrochloric acid and zinc. 50. 30cm3 of 0.1 M AI(NO3)3 solution is reacted with
B. Sodium metal dissolves in water giving oxygen 100cm3 of 0.15M of NaOH solution. Which is in excess
C. Nitrogen is insoluble in water and by how much?
D. Carbondioxide is soluble in water
E. Lead has a higher atomic weight than copper A. NaOH solution, by 70cm3
B. NaOH solution, by 60cm3
46. When sodium dioxonitrate (111) (HaNO2 \) dissolves is C. NaOH solution by 40cm3
A. Exothermic B. Endothermic D. AI (NO3)3, solution by 20cm3
C. Isothermic D. Isomeric E. AI (NO3)3 solution, by 10cm3
E. Hydroscopic

47. The equilibrium reaction between copper (1) chloride

and chloride at 25oC and 1 atmosphere is represented
by the equation:
2CuCI2 + CI2 2CuCI2 H = -166kJ . Which of the
following statement is TRUE for the reaction, pressure
remaining constant.
A. More CuCI2 is formed at 40oC

Chemistry 2 0 0 3
1. Sodium chloride may be obtained from brine by 3. For the reaction NH4 NO 2 N2 + 2H2O calculate the
A. titration B. decantation volume of nitrogen that would be produced at S.T.P
C. distillation D. evaporation from 3.20 g of the trioxonirate (111) salt.
E. sublimation A. 2.24 dm3 B. 2.24 cm3
3
C. 1.12 cm D. 1.12 dm3
2. 20cm3 of hydrogen gas are sparked with 20cm3 of E. 4.48dm 3
oxygen gas in an eudiometer at 373K (100oC) and 1 at (Relative atomic masses: N = 14m O =16, H=1).
atmosphere. The resulting mixture is cooled to 298 K
(25oC) and passed over calcium chloride. The volume 4. Manganese (1V) oxide reacts with concentrated
of the residual gas is hydrochloric acid according to the equation
A. 40cm3 B. 20cm3 MnO2 + xHCI MnCI2 + CI +yH2O. x and y are
3
C. 30cm D. 10cm3 A. 2 and 5 respectively
E. 5 cm3 B. 2 and 4 respectively
C. and 2 respectively 5. powdering the reactant if solid
D. 4 and s2 respectively A. 1,2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 5
E. 4 and 1 respectively C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5
5. A molar solution of caustic soda is prepared by
dissolving 11 The balance equation for the reaction of
A. 40 g NaOH in 100 g of water tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid with aluminium hydroxide
B. 40 g NaOH in 1000 g of water to give water and aluminium tetraoxosulphate (V1) is
C. 20 g NaOH in 500 g of solution A. H2SO4 +AISO4 2H2O + AISO4
D. 20 g NaOH in 1000 g of solution B. HSO4 + AIOH H2O +AISO4
E. 20 g NaOH in 80 g of solution. C. 3H2SO4 +2AIH3 6H2OH + AI (SO4)3
D. 3H2SO4 + 2AI(OH)3 6H2O + AI (SO4)3
6. Which among the element 1. Carbon 2. Oxygen 3. E. H2SO4 +AI (OH)3 H2O +AI2 (SO4)3
Copper 4. Bromine 5. Zinc will NOT react with either
water of stream? 12.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, and 3
E. 2, 3 and 5

Fig. 2.
The solubility curves of four substances are shown in
Fig.2. Which of the four substances would crystallize
from a saturated solution cooled from 353 K (80oC) to
323 K (50oC)
A. P and Q B. P and R
Fig 1 C. P and S D. R and S
Which of the curves shown in fig 1 represents the E. Q and R.
relationships between the volume (v) and pressure (p)
of an ideal gas at constant temperature? 13. which of the following mixtures would result in a
A. 1 B. 2 solution of pH greater than 7?
C. 3 D. 4 A. 25.00 cm3 of 0.05 M H2SO4 and 25.00 cm3 of
E. 1 and 3 0.50 m Na2CO3
B. 25.00 cm3 of 0.50 M H2SO4 and 25;00 cm3 of
8. Naphthalene when heated melts at 354K (81oC) . At this 0.10 M NaHCO3
temperature the molecules of naphthalene . C. 25.00 cm3 of 0.11 M H2SO4 and 25.00 cm3 of
A. decompose into smaller molecules 0.10 M NaOH
B. change their shape D. 25.00 cm3 of 0.11 M H2SO4 and 50.00 cm3 of
C. are oxidized by atmospheric oxygen 0.50 M NaOH
D. contract E. 25.00 cm3 of 0.25 MH2SO4 and 50.00 cm3 of) .20
E. become mobile as the inter molecular forces M NaOH
are broken.
9. The ration of the number of molecules in 2g of hydrogen 14. In which of the following reactions does hydrogen
to that in 16 g of oxygen is peroxide acts as a reducing agent?
A. 2:1 B. 1:1 A. H2S + H2O S + 2H2O
C. 1:2 D. 1:4 B. PbSO3 + H2O2 PbSO4 + H2O
E. 1:8 C. 2‘! + 2H + H2O I2 + 2H2O
D. PbO2 + 2HNO3 +H2O2 Pb (NO3)2 + 2H2O
10. Which combination of the following statements is + O2
correct? E. SO + H2O2 H2SO4
1. lowering the activation energy
2 conducting the reaction in a gaseous state 15. For the reaction 2Fe + 2 e- 2Fe2+ +I2, which of the
3. increasing the temperature following statements is TRUE?
4. removing the products as soon as they are A. Fe is oxidized to Fe3
formed B. Fe3+ is oxidized to Fe2+
C. I- is oxidized to I2 21. An element that can exist in two or more different
D. I- is reduced to I2 structure forms which possess the desame chemical
E. I- is displacing an electron from Fe3+ properties is said to exhibit
A. polymerism B. isotropy
16. C. isomorphism D. isomerism
E. allotropy.

22. Sulphur….
A. Forms two alkaline oxides
B. Is spontaneously flammable
C. Burns with a blue flame
D. Conducts electricity in the molten state
E. Is usually stored in the form of sticks in water.

23. Which off the following statements is NOT true of

carbon monoxide?
A. CO is poisonous
The diagram above (Fig.3) shows the energy profile for B. CO is readily oxidized at room temperature by
the reaction A+B = C+ D. form this diagram, its clear air to form Co2
that the reaction is C. CO may be prepared by reducing CO2, mixed
A. spontaneous B. isothermal coke heated to about 1000oC
C. adiabatic D. exothermic D. CO may be prepared by heating charcoal with
E. endothermic a limited amount of O2
E. CO is a good reducing agent.
17. In dilute solute the heat of the following NaOH + HCI =
NaCI + H2O + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2H2O is 24. From the reactions:
A. +28.65 kJ B. –28.65kJ ZnO + Na2O Na2ZnO and
C. +57.3 kJ D. –114.6 kJ ZnO+ CO2 ZnCO3 it may be concluded that zinc
E. –229.2 kJ oxide is
A. neutral B. basic
18. For the reactions: (1 Melon oil + NaOH ! Soap + C. acidic D. amphoteric
Glycerol (11) 3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2 (111) N2O4 E. a mixture
2NO2. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Each of the three reactions requires a catalyst 25. An example of a neutral oxide is
B. All the reactions demonstrate Le Chatelier’s A. AL2O3 B. NO2
principle C. CO2 D. CO
C. The presence of a catalyst will increase the E. SO2
yield of products
D. Increase in pressure will result in higher yields 26. 3CI2+ 2NH3 N2 + 6HCI. In the above reaction,
of the products in 1 and 11 only ammonia acts as .
E. Increase in pressure will result in higher of the A. a reducing agent
products in 111 only. B. an oxidizing agent
C. an acid
19. Which of the following methods may be used to prepare D. a catalyst
trioxonirate (V) acid (nitric acid) in the laboratory? E. a drying agent
A. Heating ammonia gas with tetraoxosulphate
27. In the Haber process for the manufacturer of ammonia,
(1V) acid
finely divided iron is used as
B. Heating ammonium trioxosulphate (V) with
A. an ionizing agent
tetraoxonitrate (V) acid
B. a reducing agent
C. Heating sodium trioxonirate (v) with
C. a catalyst
tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid
D. a dehydrating agent
D. Heating potassium trioxonirate (V) with calcium
E. an oxidizing agent.
hydroxide.
E. Heating a mixture of ammonia gas and oxygen\ 28. An organic compound with a vapour density 56.5 has
the following percentage composition: C = 53.1%, N =
20. Lime –water, which is used in the laboratory for the 12.4%, O = 28.3%, H = 6.2%. The molecular formula of
detection of carbon (1V) oxide, is an aqueous solution the compound is
of: A. C3H6O2N B. C5H6O2N
A. Ca (OH)2 B. CaCO3 C. (C5H7O2N)½ D. C5H7O2N
C. CaHCO3 D. CaSO4 E. (C5H7ON)2.
E. N2CO3 Relative atomic masses: N = 12.4%, O = 28.3%, H = 1)
29. The hybridization of the carbon atom in ethyne is 35. which of the following statement is NOT correct about
A. Sp^ B. sp 3 all four of the acids: HBr, HNO3 H2CO3 and H2SO4? They
2
C. sp D. sp A. dissolve marble to liberate litmus red
E. s B. have a pH less than 7
C. turn blue litmus red
30. When the kerosene fraction form petrol is heated at D. neutralize alkalis to form salt
high temperature, a lower boiling liquid is obtained. E. react with magnesium to liberate hydrogen.
This process is known as
A. polymerization B. refining 36. If the cost of electricity required to deposit 1 g old
C. hydrogenation D. cracking magnesium is N5.00. How much salt would it cost to
E. fractional distillation deposit 10 g of aluminium?
A. N10.00 B. N27.00
O C. N44.44 D. N66.67
E. N33.33.
31. CH3- CH2- C (Relative atomic masses: AI = 27, Mg = 24).
OH
Is 37, In an experiment, copper tetraoxosulphate (V1) solution
A. acetic acid B. propanal was electolysed using copper electrodes, The mass of copper
C. propanol D. ethanoic acid deposited at the cathode by the passage of 16000 coulombs of
E. propanoic acid electricity is
A. 16.70 g B. 17. 60g
32. Alkaline hydrolysis of naturally occurring fats and oils C. 67.10 g D. 10. 67 g
yields. E. 60.17 g
A. fats and acids (Relatively atomic masses: Cu = 63.5m O = 16,
B. soaps and glycerol H = 1, S = 32).
C. margarine and butter
3
D. esters 38. 1
R 199U 2412S 2010T 197. Which of the following
E. detergents. statements is NOT true of the elements R, U, S, T, Y?
A. R is an isotope of hydrogen
33. Which of the following represents a carboxylic acid? B. U and Y are isotopes
OH C. R,U,S and T are metals
D. T is a noble gas
A. R C E. S will react with oxygen to form SO
O
OR 39. Nitrogen can best be obtained from a mixture of oxygen
and nitrogen by passing the mixture over
B. R C A. potassium hydroxide
B. heated gold
O C. heated magnesium
D. heated phosphorus
C. H2SO4, E. calcium chloride.
D. R - COOCOR
40. Water is said to be ‘hard’ if it
A. easily forms ice
H B. has to be warmed before sodium chloride
dissolves in it
E. R C C. forms an insoluble scum with soar
D. contains nitrates
O E. contains sodium ions.

34. which of the statement is INCORRECT? 41. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) pellets are
A. fractional distillation of crude petroleum will give A. deliquescent B. hygroscopic
following hydrocarbon fuels in order of increasing C. efflorescent D. hydrated
boiling point: Butane < petrol < kerosene E. fluorescent.
B. H2C = CH2 will serve as a monomer in the
preparation of polythene 42. Which of the following structure formulae is NOT
C. Both but – 1- ene and but –1-1yne will decolorize numeric with others?
bromine readily.
D. But –2 – ene will react with chlorine to form 2, 3 – A. H H H H
dichlorobutane. | | | |
E. Calcium carbide will react with water to form any H–C- C- C – OH
alkayne | | | |
H H H H
46. A piece of sea shell, when dropped into a dilute solution
of hydrochloric acid produces a colourless odorless
B. H H H H gas, which turns clear limewater milky. The shell
| | | | contains
H–C- O- C - C – C- H A. sodium chloride
| | | | B. ammonium nitrate
H H H H C. calcium carbonate
D. calcium chloride
E. magnesium chloride
C. H H H H
| | | | 48. An aqueous solution of a metal salt, Mm gives a white
H–C- C - C – C- H precipate with NaOH, which dissolves in excess NaOH.
| | | | With aqueous ammonium the solution of M also gives
H OH H H a white precipate which dissolves in excess ammonia.
Therefore the caution in M is
D. H O H
| | A. Zn ++
H–C- C - C – C- H B. Ca++
| | | | C. AI +++
H H H H D. Pb++
E. Cu++

E. H H O H 49. The I.U.P.A. C name for the compound

| |
H–C - C - C – C- H H
| | | | |
H H H H CH- C – CH2 - CH3
|
43. Alkalines CH3 is
A. are all gases
B. have the general formula CnH2n + 2O A. isopropylethene
C. contains only carbon and hydrogen B. acetylene
D. are usually soluble in water C. 3-methylbutane
E. are usually active compounds. D. 2-methybutane
E. 5-methypentane.
44. If an excess of a liquid hydrocarbon is poured into a jar
of chlorine, and the sealed jar is then exposed for several 50. At S.T.P how many litres of hydrogen can be obtained
hours to bright sunlight, all the chlorine gas is from the reaction of 500cm3 of 0.5 M H2SO4 excess zinc
consumed. The hydrocarbon is said to have undergone metal.
A. a polymerization reaction
B. an isomerixation reaction
C. an addition reaction A. 22.4 dm3
D. a substitution reaction B. 11.2 dm3
E. a reduction reaction C. 6.5 dm3
D. 5.6 dm3
45. The function of conc. H2SOH4 in the etherification of E. 0.00 dm3
ethanoic acid with ethanol is to (Gram molecular volume of H2 = 22.4 dm3)
A. serves as a dehydrating agent
B. serves as solvent
C. act as a catalyst
D. prevent any side reaction
E. serve as an oxidizing reaction
Chemistry 2 0 0 4
A. 25.0 moles B. 12.5 moles
C. 6.25 moles D. 3.125 moles
E. 0.625 moles

8. 3.0 g of a mixture of potassium carbonate and potassium

chloride were dissolved in a 250cm3 standard flask. 25 cm3 of
this solution required 40.00cm 3 of 0.1 M HCI for
neutralization. What is the percentage by weight of K2CO3
in the mixture?
A. 60 B. 72
Fig. 1 C. 82 D. 89
1. Figure shows part of the periodic Table. Which of the E. 92 (K = 39, O = 16, C = 12).
elements belongs to the p-block?
A. S,T and U.
B. V, W and X
C. S and T only
D. P, Q and R Figure 2 below represents the solubility curb\ves of two salts, X
E. V,W, X and S. and Y, in water. Use this diagram to answer question9 to 11

2. Which of the following conducts electricity?

A. Sulphur B. Graphite
C. Diamond D. Red phosphorus
E. Yellow phosphorus.

3. An organic compound contains 72% carbon 12%

hydrogen and 16% oxygen by mass. The empirical
formula of the compound is
A. C6H22O3 B. C6H10O3
C. C12H12O D. C6H12O
E. C3CH10
( H= 1, C = 12, O= 16).
9. At room temperature (300K)
4. 0.499 of CuSO4.xH2O when heated to constant weight A. Y is twice as soluble as X
gave a residue of 0.346 g. The value of x is B. X is twice as soluble as Y
A. 0.5 B. 2.0 C. X and Y soluble to the same extent
C. 3.0 D. 4.0 D. X is three times as soluble as Y
E. 5.0. E. Y is three times as soluble as X
(Cu = 63.5, S = 32.0 O = 16, H = 1).
10. If 80 g each of X and Y are taken up in 100g of water at
5. In an experiment which of the following observation 353 K we shall have.
would suggest that a solid sample is a mixture? The A. only 10 g of X and Y undissolve
A. solid can be ground to a fine powder B. only 16 g of Y undissolve
B. density of the solid 2.25 g dm-3 C. 10 g of X and 16 g of Y undissolved
C. solid begins to melt until 648 K D. all X and Y dissolved
D. solid absorbs moisture from the atmosphere E. all X and Y undissolved
and turns into a liquid
E. solid melts at 300 K. 11. If the molar mass of X is 36 g, the number of moles of X
dissolved at 343 is
6. Hydrogen diffuses through a porous plug A. 0.2 moles B. 0.7 moles
A. at the same rate as oxygen C. 1.5 moles D. 2.0 moles
B. at a slower rare than oxygen E. 3.0 moles
C. twice as fast as oxygen
D. three times as fast as oxygen 12. Some properties of chemical substances are mentioned
E. four times as fast as oxygen. below (i) solar taste (ii)slippery to touch (iii)yields
alkaline gas with ammonium salts (iv) has pH less than
1. Given the molecular mss of iron is 56 and that of oxygen 7 (v) turns phenolphthalein pink. Which of the above
is 16, how many moles of Iron (111) oxide will be are NOT typical properties of alkaline?
contained in 1 kg of the compound? A. (i), (iv) and (v)
B. (iv) and (v)
C. (i) and (iv) carbon monoxide and high level of methane, the
D. (ii) and (v) probable source(s) of the pollution must be
E. (ii), (iii) and (v) A. automobile exhaust and biological
decomposition
13. A certain volume of a gas at 298K is heated such that B. combustion of coal and automobile exhaust
its volume and pressure are now four times the original C. biological decomposition only
values. What is the new temperature? D. combustion of coal, automobile exhaust and
A. 18.6 K B. 100.0 K biological decomposition
C. 298.0 K D. 1192.0 K E. combustion of coal and biological
E. 47689.0 K decomposition.

14. Hydrogen is not liberated when trioxonirate (v) acid 21. A correct electrochemical series can be obtained from
reacts with zinc because K, Na, Ca, Al, Mg, Zn, Fe, Pb, H, Cu, Hg, Ag, Au by
A. Zinc is rendered passive by the acid interchanging
B. Hydrogen produced is oxidized to water A. Al and Mg B. Zn and Fe
C. Oxides of nitrogen are produced C. Zn and Pb D. Pb and H
D. All nitrates are soluble in water E. Au and Hg.
E. trioxonitrate v acid is a strong acid.
22. A certain industrial process is represented by the
15. The boiling points of water, ethanol, toluene and chemical equation 2A(g) + B(g) ’!C(g) + 3D(g) H = XkJ
button-2-ol are 373.OK, 351.3K, 383.6 K and 372.5 K mol- . Which of the following conditions will favour the
respectively. Which liquid has the highest vapour yield of the product?
pressure at 323.0K? A. Increases in the temperature, decrease in
A. water B. Toluene pressure.
C. Ethanol D. Butan-2-ol B. Increase in temperature increase in pressure
E. None C. Decrease in temperature, increase in pressure
16. In what respect will two dry samples of nitrogen gas D. Decrease in temperature, increase in pressure.
differ from each other if samples 1 is prepared by E. Constant temperature, increase in pressure.
completely removing CO2 and O2 from air and sample 2
is prepared by passing purified nitrogen (i) oxide over 23. 2MnO4- + 10Cl- + 16H + ’! 2Mn2+ + 5Cl2 + 8H2O. which of
heated copper? Sample 1 is the substances serves as an oxidizing agent?
A. purer than sample 2 A. Mn 2+ B. Cl-
B. slightly denser than sample 2 C. H2O D. MnO4
C. in all respects the same as sample 2 E. Cl2
D. colourless but sample 2 has a light brown.
E. slightly less reactive than sample 2 24. In the reaction H2O(g)’! H2(g) + ½O2(g) H=-2436000kJ2,
which of the following has no effect on the equilibrium
17. Copper sulphate solution is electrolyzed using platinum position?
electrodes. A current of 0.193 amperes is passed for A. Adding argon to the system
2hrs. How many grams of copper are deposited? B. Lowering the temperature
A. 0.457 g B. 0.500 g C. Adding hydrogen to the system
C. 0.882 g D. 0.914 g D. Decreasing the pressure
E. 1.00 g (Cu = 63.5m F = 96500 coulombs) E. Increasing the temperature.

18. X+Y Z is an equilibrium reaction. The addition of 25. which of the following metals will displace iron from a
a catalyst solution of iron(11) tetraoxosulphate(1V)?
A. increases the amount of W produced in a given A. copper B. mercury
time C. silver D. Zinc
B. increase the rate of change in concentrations of X, E. Gold
Y and Z
C. increases the rate of disappearance of X and Y 26. Complete hydrogenation of ethyne yields
D. increases the rate of the forward reaction A. benzene B. methane
E. decreases the amounts of X and Y left after the C. ethene D. propane
attainment of equilibrium. E. Ethane
27. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of
19. What is the formula of sodium gallate if gallium (Ga) bleaching powder?
shows an oxidation number of +3. A. sulphur dioxide B. chlorine
A. NaGaO3 B. Na2G(OH)2 C. hydrogen tetraoxosulphate
C. NaGa(OH)3 D. NaGa (OH)4 D. hydrogen sulphide
E. NaGaO E. nitrogen dioxide

20. If the ONLY pollutants found in the atmosphere over a 28. A man suspected to being drunk is made to pass his
city are oxides of nitrogen suspended lead compounds, breath into acidified potassium dichromate solution. If
has breath carries a significant level of ethanol, the CH3.
final colour of the solution is.
A. Pink B. Purple 33. The oxidation of CH- CH- C- O gives
C. Orange D. Blue-black
E. Green. H H
A. 2-butanone B. 2-butanal
29. When pollen grains are suspended in water and viewed C. butane D. butanoic acid
through a microscope, they appear to be in a state of E. 3-butanal.
constant but erratic motion. This is due to
A. convection currents 34. Tetraoxosulphate (V1) ions are finally tested using
B. small changes in pressure A. acidified silver nitrate
C. small changes in temperature B. acidified barium chloride
D. a chemical reaction between the pollen grains C. lime – water
and water D. dilute hydrochloric acid
E. the bombardment of the pollen grains by E. acidified lead nitrate
molecules of water.
35. The I.U.P.A.C name for the compound
30. The energy change (H) for the reaction CH3
CO(g) +½O2(g) CO2(g) is
CH3- CH- CH –CH = CH - CH3 is
A. -503.7 kJ B. +503.7 kJ A. 2-methl-3-patene
C. –282.9 kJ D. +282.9 kJ B. 4-methy-2-pentane
E. +393.3 kJ C. 2-methl-2-penten
( Hi(CO) = -110.4 kJ mol-1( Hi(CO2) = -393 kJ mol-1 D. 4-methyl-3-pentene
E. 2-methyl-3-pentane
31. The product formed on hydrolysis of
36. Mixing of aqueous solution of barium hydroxide and
sodium tetraoxocarbonate(1V) yields a white precipitate
of
A. barium oxide
B. sodium tetraoxocarbonate(1V)
C. sodium, oxide
D. sodium hydroxide
E. barium tetraoxocarbonate.

37. An organic compound decolorized acidified KMnC4

solution but failed to react with ammoniacal silver nitrate
solution. The organic compound is likely to be.
A. a carbonxyllic acicd
B. an alkane
C. an alkene
D. an alkyne
E. an alkanone

38. Solid sodium hydroxide on exposure to air absorbs a

gas and ultimately gives another alkaline substance
with the molecular formula.
A. NaOH.H2O B. NaOH.N2
C. Na2CO3 D. NaHCO3
E. NaNO3

39. Which of the following is the functional group of

carboxylic acids?
A. -OH
32. The neutralization reaction between NaOH solution and B. >C = O
nitrogen (1V) oxide (NO2) produces water and C. >C-OH
A. NaNO2 and NaNO3 O
B. NaNO3 and HNO3
C. NaNO2 D. -C
D. NaNO3
E. NaN2O3 OH

E. -C = N
40. Which of the following substances is the most 46. Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to an aqueous
abundant in the universe? solution of a crystalline salt yielded a yellow precipitate
A. Carbon B. Air and a gas which turned dichromate paper green. The
C. Water D. Oxygen crystalline salt was probably
E. Hydrogen A. Na2SO4 B. Na2S
C. NaS2O3.5H2O D. NaCO3
Question 41 and 42 are based on the following. E. NaHCO3
A colourless organic compound X was burnt in exces
air to give two colourless and odourless grass, Y and Z 47. The process involved in the conversion of an oil into
, as products. X does not decolorize bomine vapour; Y margarine is known as
turns lime milky while Z gives a blue colour with copper A. hydrogenation B. condensation
(11) tetraoxosulphate (V1). C. hydrolysis D. dehydration
E. cracking
41. Compound X is
A. an alkene 48. An aqueous solution of an inorganic salt gave white
B. an alkane precipate (i) soluble in excess aqueous NaOH (ii)
C. an alkyne insoluble in excess aqueous NH3 (III) with dilute HCI.
D. tetra chloromethane The caution present in the inorganic salt is
E. Dichloromethane A. NH34+ B. Ca++
++
C. N D. Al +++
++
42. Y and Z are respectively. E. Pb
A. CO2 and NH3 B. CO and NH3
C. SO2 and H2O D. CO2 and H2O 49. Which of the following roles does sodium chloride play
E. SO2 and NH3 in soap preparation? It
A. reacts with glycerol
43. Which of the following compounds is NOT the correct B. purifies the soap
product formed when the parent metal is heated in air? C. accelerates the decomposition of the fat and
A. Calcium oxide (CaO) oil
B. Sodium oxide (Na2O) D. separates the soap form the glycerol
C. Copper (11) oxide (CuO) E. converts the fat acid to its sodium salt.
D. Tri-iron tetroxide (Fe3O4)
E. Aluminium oxide (Al2O3) 50. The function of sulphur during the vulcanization of
rubber is to .
44. The atomic number of an element whose caution, X2+, A. act as catalyst for the polymerization of rubber
has the ground state electronic configuration is molecules
Is22s22P63s22p6 is B. convert rubber from thermosetting tio thermo
A. 16 B. 18 plastic polymer
C. 20 D. 22 C. from chains which bind rubber molecules
E. 24 together
D. break down rubber polymer molecule
45. When marble is heated to 1473 K, another whiter solid E. shorten the chain length of rubber polymer.
is obtained which reacts vigorously with water to give
an alkaline solution. The solution contains
A. NaOH B. KOH
C. Mg(OH)2 D. Zn(OH)2
E. Ca(OH)2

Chemistry 2 0 0 5
1. The movement of liquid molecules from the surface of 3. 10cm3 of hydrogen fluoride gas reacts with 5cm3 of
the liquid gaseous phase above it is known as dinitrogen difllouride gas (N2F2) to form 10cm3 of a
A. Brownian movement single gas. Which of the following is the most likely
B. Condensation equation to the reaction?
C. Evaporation A. HF + N2F2 N2HF3
D. Liquefaction B. 2HF + N2F2 2NHF2
C. 2HF + N2F2 N2H2F4
2. What mass of a divalent metal M (atomic mass= 40) D. HF +2N2F2 N4HF4
would react with excess hydrochloric acid to liberate
22 cm3 of dry hydrogen gas measured as S.T.P?
A. 8.0 g B. 4.0 g
C. 0.8 g D. 0.4 g
[ G. M. V = 22.4 dm3]
4. The number of atom chlorine present in 5.85 g of NaCI In the solubility curve above, water at 98oC is saturated
is with KCl impurity in the crystals formed when the
A. 6.02 x 1022 solution is cooled to 30oC?
B. 5.85 x 1023 A. NaHSO4, Ph<5
C. 6.02 x 1023 B. Na2CO3, Ph>8
D. 5.85 x 1024 C. Na2Cl, Ph =7
[Na = 23, Cl = 35.5] D. NaHCO3, Ph <6
Avogadro’s Number = 6.02 x 1023]

5. How much of magnesium is required to react with

250cm3 of 0.5 M HCl?
A. 0.3 g B. 1.5 g
C. 2.4 g D. 3.0 g
[Mg = 24]

6. 200cm3 of oxygen diffuse through a porous plug in 50

seconds. Hoe long will 80 cm3 of methane (CH4) take to
diffuse through the same porous plug under the same
conditions?
A. 20 sec B. 20 sec 13. Which of the following is an acid salt?
C. 14 sec D. 7 sec A. NaHSO4 B. Na2SO4
[C = 12, O = 16, H = 1] C. CH3CO2Na D. Na2S

7. The relationship between the velocity (U) of gas 14. Which of the following solution will conduct the least
molecules and their relative molecule mass (M) is shown amount of electricity?
by the equation A. 2.00 M aqueous solution of NaOH
A Û = (kM) ½ B. 0.01 M aqueous solution of NaOH
B. Û = (kM)2 C. 0.01 m aqueous solution of hexaonic acid
C. Û= km D. 0.01 M aqueous solution of sugar.
D Û = (k/m ) ½
15.
8. An element with atomic number twelve is likely to be
A. electrovalent with a valency of 1
B. electrovalent with a valency of 2
C. covalent with a valency of 2
D. covalent with a valency of 4

9. Which of the following group of physical properties

increases form left to right of the periodic table? 1
lonization energy 2 Atomic radius 3Electronegativity 4
Electron affinity
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. When 50 cm3 of a saturated solution of sugar (molar In the electrolysis of aqueous solution of K2SO4 in the
mass 342.0 g) at 40oC was evaporated to dryness, 34.2 g above cell, which species migrate to the anode?
dry of solid was obtained. The solubility of sugar of A. SO42- and OH- B. K+ and SO2-
40oC is C. OH and H3O D. H3O and K+
A. 10.0 moles dm-3 B. 7.0 moles dm-3
-3
C. 3.5 moles dm D. 2.0 moles dm-3 16. How many coulombs of electricity are passed through
a solution in which 6.5 amperes are allowed to run for
11. 1.0 hour?
A. 3.90 x 102 coulombs
B. 5.50 x 103 coulombs
C. 6.54 x 103 coulombs
D. 2.34 x104 coulombs

17. Which of these represents a redox reaction?

A. AgNO3 + NaCl AgCl + NNO3
B. H2s + Pb(NO3)2 PbS + 2HNO3
C. CaCO3 CaO + CO2
D. Zn + 2HCl ZnCI2 + H2
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you score 250,290,300 and
Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail. For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE /
EXPO/Runz
We have two JAMB assistance packages

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

Anyone Who Tells You Jamb 2025 will be hard is absolutely lazy or deceitful,
Jamb 2025 is no different from previous Jamb exams so long you're prepared
for it. *JAMB IS THE EASIEST O’LEVEL EXAM IN NIGERIA*

What do I advise Candidates to do?

If you can't Afford a good Tutorial, stick to Your *ORIGINAL CBT Past
Questions(2014-2024)* and *JAMB 2025 syllabus* , and spend the last
3weeks to the exam with familiarizing yourself with all the questions and
solutions In JOA CONSULTS *SPECIAL JAMB CBT 2014 - 2024 PAST
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS MATERIAL*

There's no way you'll read And Familiarize yourself with the *JAMB
SYLLABUS, Original CBT Past Questions(2013-2024) and the
recommended textbooks* and Fail, if you've done that and Failed before,it's
not natural..

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

BEFORE THE EXAM SINCE THE USE OF CBT IT BECAME IMPOSSIBLE,
THE ONLY THING THAT CAN BE GOTTEN A DAY TO THE EXAM IS THE
ENTIRE QUESTIONS JAMB WOULD SET FOR THAT EXAM DAY. THAT IS
WHY SOME TUTORIALS DO OVERNIGHT FOR THEIR STUDENTS ON
THE EVE OF THEIR EXAMS, THEY ARE SOLVING THE ENTIRE
QUESTIONS JAMB WILL SET THE NEXT DAY.

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

The Good Part About This Is, It's Affordable But The Catch Is Your Success Is
In Your Hands, I'll Give you the EXPO HOURS BEFORE THE EXAMS (your
very own Questions and Answers JAMB 2025) That will Help You Pass, All
you have To do is Take A Few Hours To Your Exam To Read It ,Cram it
Extensively, I Beg you Don't Take anything to the hall if you do you're on your
own, after all it's a university you want to attend you must be able to read, so if
you're paying for the questions and answers package know that you've to
read it.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

Our aim is to make sure anyone who associates themselves with JUST
ONCE ASSURANCE CENTER, scores above 300 and Get Admitted to the
university. When you succeed it's still you that will refer us To others and keep
us in business.

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

LOGIN TO YOUR EXAM FROM OUR CBT CENTER HERE IN ABUJA AND
WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU, IT DOESN'T MATTER IF YOU ARE IN
SOKOTO ,IT'S STILL THE SAME CBT NETWORK THAT ALL CENTERS
ARE SYNCED TO.
THIS IS NOT HACKING, NO SUCH THING AS A HACKING SOFTWARE,
THAT IS ALL LIES . WE LOGIN WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS
NORMALLY AS YOU WOULD IN THE EXAM HALL.
DO YOU KNOW YOU CAN WRITE YOUR JAMB EXAM IN ANY JAMB CBT
CENTER?

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

We won't call or text you when the message reaches your email (but a
general message will be sent on the group though), so it's advisable you set
an alarm on your phone, especially if your exam time is 7am or 9am. *DON'T
OVERSLEEP*

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

Registered, Accredited and Government Approved Educational Platform.
For more info...
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 09033 359054, 09011 270636,
070874 91028
Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054 , 070421 01989, 07046
633922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Our services are guaranteed you can come to the office to verify our claims or
check my facebook page or WhatsApp catalogue for photos of reviews,
check-ins, testimonies from followers.
Over 11 years in Academics, our Online Pages reflects our success rate.
Our Business is verified on all business platforms like Flutterwave, Paystack,
Remita.
We operate Verified and Active Business accounts.
All our deals end with testimonies, 100% success rate.

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

Facebook page two : www.facebook.com/utmeadmission
Office Location Directions on Google
map:https://maps.app.goo.gl/6rwQX1YnPCTEyio96
Tutorial Location Directions on Google map: https://maps.app.goo.gl/xtHn

21. The approximate volume of air containing 10cm of 28. Which of the following will react further with oxygen
oxygen is to form a higher oxide?
A. 20 cm3 B. 25 cm3 A. NO and H2O
3
C. 50 cm D. 100 cm3 B. CO and CO2
C. SO2 and NO
22. The reaction Mg + H2O MgO + H2 takes place only D. CO2 and H2O
in the presence of
A. excess Mg ribbon 29. In the course of an experiment, two gases X and Y
B. excess cold water were produced. X turned wet lead ethanoate to black
C very hot water and Y bleached moist litmus paper. What are the
E. steam elements(s) in each of the gases X and Y respectively?
A. H and S;Cl
23. When steam is passed through red hot carbon, which B. H and O; Cl
of the following are produced? C. H and S;C and O
A. Hydrogen and oxygen and carbon(1V) D. H and Cl;S and O
oxide
B. Hydrogen and carbon (1V) oxide 30. Which of the following sulphides is insoluble in dilute
C. Hydrogen and carbon (11) oxixde HCl?
D. Hydrogen and trioxocarbonate(1V) acid A. Na2S B. ZnS
C. CuS D. FeS
24. Which of the following contains an efflorescent, a
deliquescent and a hydroscopic substance 31. When chlorine is passes into water and subsequently
respectively? exposed to sunlight, the gas evolved is
A. Na2SO4, concentrated H2SO2 CaCl2 A. HCl B. HOCl
B. Na 2CO 3.H2O, FeSO 2.7H2O, concentrated C. O2 D. Cl2O2
H2SO4
C. Na2CO3. 10H2O, FeCl3 concentrated H2SO4 32. Which of the following metals does NOT form a stable
D. Concentrated H2SO4, FeSO4.7H2O, MgCl2 trioxocarbonate(1V)
A. Fe B. Al
25. The tabulated results below were obtained by titrating C. Zn D. Pb
10.0 cm3 of water with soap. The titration was repeated
with the same sample of water after boiling. 33. Which of the following metals with NaOH to give salt
and water only. When Z is treated with dilute HCl, a
Before boiling After boiling gas is evolved which gives a yellow suspension on
Final (cm3) 25.0 20.0 passing into concentrated H2SO4. Substance Z is.
Initial (cm3) 10.00 15.0 A. NaHS B. Na2SO3
C. NaS D. NaHSO3
The ratio of permanent to temporary hardness is
A. 1:5 B. 1:4 34. Ammonia gas is normally dried with
C. 4:1 D. 5:1 A. concentrated sulphuric acid
B. quicklime
C. anhydrous calcium chloride
D. magnesium sulphate,
35. What are the values of x, y and z respectively in the 44. How many isomers can be formed from organic
equation xCu +yHNO3 xCu(NO3)2 + 4H2O + zNO?s compounds with the formula C3H8O?
A. 4;1;2 A. 2 B. 3
B. 3;8;2 C. 4 D. 5
C. 2;8;3
D. 8;3;2 45. Which of the structural formula for pent-2-enoic acid?

36. The iron (111) oxide impurity in bauxite can be removed

by
A. fractional crystallization in acid solution
B. dissolution in sodium hydroxide and filtration
C. extraction with concentrated ammonia and
reprecipitation
D. electrolysis of molten mixture.

38. A white solid suspected to be lead trioxonirate (V), zinc

trioxocarbonate(1V) of calcium trioxocarbonate (1V) was
heated strongly. Its residue, which was yellow when
hot and white when cold, is
A. lead (11) oxide B. calcium oxide
C. zinc oxide D. lead nitrite

39. Which of the following compounds would give lilac

fame coloration and a white precipitate with acidified
barium chloride solution?
A. KCl B. NaNO3
C. K2SO D. CaSO4

40. How will a metal X, which reacts explosively with air

and with dilute acids be best extracted from its ores?
A. Electrolysis of the solution of its salt
B. Decomposition of its oxide
C. Displacement from solution by an alkali metal
D. Electrolysis of fused salt 46. When ethanol is heated with excess concentrated
sulphuric acid, the ethanol is
A. oxidized to ethene
41. Which of the following is NOT correct for the named B. polymerized to polyethene
organic compound in each case? C. dehydrated to ethene
A. Butanoic acid solution gives effervescence D. dehydrated to ethyne.
with Na2CO3 solution
B. Glucose when reacted with Na2CrO4 at 0oC will 47. Which of the following compounds is NOT formed by
show immediate discharge of colour the action of chlorine on methane?
C. When but-2-ene is reacted with dilute solution A. CH3Cl B. C2H5Cl
of KmnO4 the purple colour of KMnO is C. CH2Cl2 D. CHCl3
discharge readily even at room temperature
D. When butan-2-ol is boiled with Butanoic acid 48. The general formula of an alkyl halide (where X
with a drop of concentrated H2SO4 a sweet represent the halide) is
smelling liquids is produced. A. CnH2n-2X B. –CnH2n +1X
C. CnH2n +2X D. CnH2nX
42. Which of the following is used as an‘anti-knock’ in
automobile engines? 49. Which of the following are made by the process of
A. Tetramethyl silane polymerization?
B. Lead tetra-ethyl A. Nylon and soap B. Nylon and rubber
C. Glycerol C. Soap and butane D. Margarine and
D. N-heptanes Nylon

43. What reaction takes place when palm-oil is added to 50. Starch can converted to ethyl alcohol by
potash and foams are observed? A. distillation B. fermentation
A. Neutralization C. isomerization D. cracking.
B. Saponification .
C. Etherification
D. Salting-out
Chemistry 1987
9. The atomic numbers of two elements X and Y are 12
1. A brand of link containing cobalt (11), copper (11) and
and 9 respectively. The bond in the compound formed
irons can best be separated into its various components
between the atoms of these two elements is.
by.
A. ionic B. convalent
A. fractional crystallization
C. neutral D. co-ordinate.
B. fractional distillation
C. sublimation
10. An element Z, contained 90% of 168 Z and 10% of 188Z.
D. chromatography.
Its relative atomic mass is
A. 16.0 B. 16.2
2. Which of the following substances is a mixture?
C. 17.0 D. 17.8
A. Granulated sugar
11. The greater the difference in electronegativity between
B. Sea-water
bonded atoms, the
C. Sodium chloride
A. lower the polarity of the bond
D. Iron fillings
B. higher the polarity of the bond
C weaker the bond
3. The number of molecules of carbon (1V) oxide produced
E. higher the possibility of the substance formed
when 10.0 g CaCO3 is treated with 0.2 dm3 of 1 M HCl in
being a molecule.
the equation CaCO3 + 2HCI CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 is
12. A stream of air was successively passed through three
A. 1.00 x 1023
tubes X, Y, and Z containing a concentrated aqueous
B. 6.02 x 1023
solution of KOH, red hot copper powder and fused
C. 6.02 x 1022
calcium chloride respectively. What was the
D. 6.02 x 10 23
composition of gas emanating from tube Z?
[Ca = 40, O = 16, C = 12, NA = 6.02 x 1023, H = 1, Cl = 35.5]
A. CO2 and the inert gases
B. N2, CO2 and the inert gases
4. In the reaction CaC2(s) + 2H2O(1) Ca (OH2(s)+ C2H2(g)
C. N2 and the inert gases
what is the mass of solid acetylene gas at S.T.P?
D. Water vapour, N2 and the inert gases.
A. 3.8 g B. 2.9 g
C. 2.0 g D 1.0 g
[C = 12, Ca –40, G.M.V = 22400 cm3]
13. In the purification of town water supply, alum is used
5. If the quality of oxygen occupying a 2.76 liter container
principally to .
at a pressure of 0.825 atmosphere and 300 K is reduced
A. kill bacteria
by one-half, what is the pressure exerted by the
B. control the pH of water
remaining gas?
C. improve the taste of the water
A. 1.650 atm B. 0.825 atm
D. coagulate small particles of mud.
C. 0.413 atm D. 0.275 atm
14. Which of the following water samples will have the
6. Which of the following substances has the lowest
highest titer value wages titrated for the Ca2+ ions using
vapour density?
soap solution?
A. Ethanoic acid B. Propanol
A. Permanently hard water after boiling
C. Dichlomethane D. Ethanal
B. Temporarily hard water after boiling
[O = 16, Cl = 35.5, H =1, C = 12]
C. Rain water stored in a glass jar for two years
D. Permanently hard water passed through
7. If d represents the density of a gas and K is a constant,
permutit
the rate of gaseous diffusion is related to the equation
A. r=k
15. Oil spillage in ponds and creeks can be cleaned up by
d
A. burning off the oil layer
B. r = kd
B. spraying with detergent
C. r=k
C. dispersal with compressed air
d
D. spraying with hot water.
D. r=k d
8. An isotope has an atomic number of 17 and a mass 16. The solubility of Na3AsO4(H2O)12 is 38.9 g per 100 g
number of 36. Which of the following gives the correct H2O. What is the percentage of Na 3AsO 4 in the
number of neutrons and protons in an atom of the saturated solution?
isotope? A. 87.2% B. 38.9%
Neutrons Protons C. 19.1% D. 13.7%
A. 53 17 [As = 75, Na = 23, O = 12, H= 1]
B. 17 36
C. 19 17
D. 36 17
17. Which is the correct set results for tests conducted 25. Z is a solid substance, which liberates carbon (1V) oxide
respectively on fresh lime and ethanol? on treatment with concentrated H2SO4, KnnO4. The solid
Test Fresh lime juice Ethanol substance, Z is
A. Add crystals of NaHCO3 Gas evolve No gas evolved .A. sodium hydrogen trioxocarbonate(1V)
B. Test with methyl orange Turns colourless No change B. ethanoic acid
C. Taste Bitter Sour C. iron (11) trioxocarbonate (1V)
D. Add a piece of sodium No gas evolved H2 evolved D. ethanedioc acid (oxalic acid)

18. In which of the following are the aqueous solutions 26. 5 g of ammonium trioxonirate (V) on dissolution in water
of each of the substances correctly arranged in order cooled its surrounding water and container by 1.6kJ.
of decreasing acidity? What is the heat of solution of NH4NO3?
A. Ethanoic acid, milk of magnesia, sodium A. +51.4 kJ mol-1 B. +25.6 kJ mol-1
-1
chloride, hydrochloric acid and sodium C. +12.9 kJ mol D. –6.4 kJ mol-1
hydroxide. [N = 14, O = 16, H = 1]
B. Ethanoic acid hydrochloric acid, milk of
magnesiam sodium chloride and sodium, 27. Tetraoxosulphate (1V) acid is prepared using the
hydroxide. chemical reaction SO3(g) + H2O(1) H2SO4(1). Given the
C. Hydrochloric acid, ethanoid acid solution heat of formation for SO3(g), H2O(1) and H2SO4(1) as –395
chloride, milk of magnesia and sodium kJ mol-1 –286 kJ mol-1 and – 811 kJ mol-1 respectively
hydroxide is
D. Hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide sodium A. -1032 kJ B. – 130 kJ
chloride ethanoic acid and milk of magnesia C. +130kJ D. +1032 kJ

19. The basicity of tetraoxophosphate (v) acid is 28. The times taken for iodine to be liberated in the reaction
A. 7 B. 5 between sodium thisosulphate and hydrochloric acid
C. 4 D. 3 at various temperatures are as follows:

20. If 24.83 cm3 of 0.15 M NaOH is tritrated to its end TempoC 25 35 45

point with 39.45 cm3 of HCl, what is the molarity of Time (seconds) 72 36 18
the HCl ? These results suggest that.
A. 0.09 4 M B. 0.150 M A. for a 10o rise in temperature rate of reaction is
C. 0.940 M D. 1.500 M doubled
B. for a 10o rise in temperature rate of reaction is
21. A quantity of electricity liberates 3.6 g of silver from halved
its salt. What mass of aluminium will be liberated C. time taken for iodine to appear does not depend
from its salt by the same quantity of electricity? on temperature
A 2.7 g B. 1.2 g D. for a 10o rise in temperature, rate of reaction is
C. 0.9 g D. 0.3 g tripled.

22. Which of the following statements is CORRECT if 1 29. The reaction between sulphur (1V) oxide and oxygen is
Faraday of electricity is passed through 1 M CuSO4 represented by the equilibrium reaction
solution for 1 minute? 2SO2(g H + O2(g) 2SO3(g), H = - 196 kJ. What factor
A. The pH of the solution at the cathode would influence increased production SO3(g)?
decreases A. Addition of a suitable catalyst
B. The pH of the solution at the anode B. Increase in the temperature of the reaction
decreases C. Decrease in the temperature of SO2(g)
C. 1 mole of Cu will be liberated at the cathode D. Decrease in the concentration of SO2(g)
D. 60 moles of Cu will be liberated at the anode.
30. Which of the following equations correctly represents
23. What mass of magnesium would be obtained by the action of hot concentrated alkaline solution on
passing a current of 2 amperes for 2 hrs. 30mins chlorine?
through molten magnesium chloride? A. Cl2(g) + 2OH(g) OCl(q) + Cl(q) + H2O(1)
A. 1.12 g B. 2.00 g B. 3Cl2(g) + 6OH ClO3(aq) + 5Cl (aq) + 3H2O(1)
C. 2.24 g D. 4.48 g C. 3CI2(g) + 6OH(aq) ClO3(s) + 5Cl-(aq) + 3H2O(1)
[1 faraday = 96500 coulombs, Mg = 24] D. 3Cl2(g) + 6OH(aq) 5ClO3(aq) + Cl (aq)
+3H2O(1)
24. In the reaction of 3CuO + 2NH3 3Cu + 3H2O + N2
how many electrons are transferred for each mole to 31. Magnesium ribbon was allowed to burn inside a given
copper produced? gas P leaving a white solid residue Q. Addition of water
A. 4.0 x 10-23 B. 3.0 x 10–23 to Q liberated a gas which produced dense white fumes
24
C. 1.2 x 10 D. 6.0 x 1024 with a drop of hydrochloric acid. The gas P was
A. nitrogen B. chlorine
C. oxygen D. sulphur (1V) oxide
32. The best treatment for a student who accidentally 41. Which of the following compounds will give a
poured concentrated tetraoxosulphate(V1) acid on his precipitate with an aqueous ammoniacal solution of
skin in the laboratory is to wash he skin with copper (1) chloride?
A. cold water A. CH3CH = CHCH3
B. sodium trioxocarbondioxide solution B. CH3C——CCH3
C. Iodine solution C. CH = C—CH2CH3
D. Sodium triocarbonate (1V) solution. D. CH2= CH-CH-=CH2
42. The efficiency of petrol as a fuel in high compression
33. In which of the following pairs of elements is allotropy
inetrnal combustion engines improves with an increase
exhibited by each element?
in the amount of
A. Phosphorus and hydrogen
A. Branched chain alkanes B Straight
B. Oxygen and chlorine
chain alkanes C. Cycloalkanes D. Halogenated
C. Sulphur and nitrogen
hydrocarbons
D. Oxygen and sulphur.
43. A palm wine seller stoppered a bottle of his palm wine
34. Which of the following gases can best be used for in his stall and after a few hours the bottle represents
demonstrating the fountain experiment? (i) Nitrogen the reaction that occurred?
(ii) Ammonia (iii) Nitrogen (l)oxide (iv) Hydrogen A. C6H12O6enzymes 2 C2H5OH + 2CO2(g)
chloride B. C2H5OH CH2 = CH2(G)) + H2O
A. (ii) and (iii) B. (i) and (iii) C. C2H5OH + dil H2SO4 C2H5OSO2OH
C. (ii) and (iv) D. (ii) only. D. 2C6H12O6 C12H12O13 + H2O
35. When calcium hydroxide us heated with ammonium 44. ethanol reacts with aqueous sodium mono-oxoio date(1)
tetraoxosulphate (V1), the gas given off may be to gives a bright yellow solid with a characteristic smell.
collected by The products is
A. bubbling it through concentrated H2SO4. A. trichlomethane
B. Bubbling it through water and then passing it B. ftriiodomethane
through calcium oxide C. iodoethane
C. Passing it directly through calcium oxide D. ethanal
D. Passing it directly through calcium chloride.
45. The most volatile fraction obtained from fractional
distillation of crude petroleum contains
36. Which of the following elements will form oxide which
A. butane propane and kerosene
will dissolve both dilute HNO3 and NaOH solution to
B. butane propane and petrol
form salts?
C. ethane, methane and benzene
A. Cl B. Mg
D. ethane methane and propane
C. Ag D. Mn
46. Local black soap is made by boiling palm with liquid
37. Stainless steel is an alloy of
extract of ash. The function of the ash is to provide the
A. iron, carbon and silver
A. acid B. ester of alkanoic acid
B. ironm carbon and lead
C. alkali D. alkanol
C. iron, carbon and chromium
D. iron and carbon only. 47. Synthetic rubber is made by polymerization of
A. 2 methyl buta-1,3-diene
38. Alloys are best prepared by.
B. 2 methl buta-1, 2 – diene
A. high temperature are welding of the metals
C. 2 methyl buta – 1-ene
B. electrolysis using the major metallic
D. 2 methy buta –2-ene
component as cathode
C. reducing a mixture of the oxides of the elements 48. Complete oxidation of propan – 1 – of gives
D. cooling a molten, mixture of the necessary A. propanal
elements. B. propan-2-L
C. propan-1-one
39. Corrosion is exhibited by.
D. propanoic acid
A. iron only
B. electropositive metals 49. When water drops are added to calcium carbide in a
C. metals below hydrogen in the electrochemical container and the gas produced is passed called and
series A. oxyethylene flame
D. all metals B. oxyhydrocarbon flame
C. oxyacetylene flame
40. Inspite of the electronic configuration, 1s22s2p22, carbon
D. oxymethane flame.
is tetravalent because
A. the electrons in both 2s and 2p orbital have equal 50. The structure of benzoic acid is.
energy
B. the electrons in both 2s and 2p orbital are
equivalent
C. both the 2s and 2p orbital hybridize
D. the six orbital hybridize to four.
Chemistry 2 0 0 6
A. Boyle B. Charles
C. Graham D. Gay-lussac

7, An increase in temperature causes an increase in the

pressure in the
A. average velocity of the molecules
B. number of collisions between the molecules
C. density of the molecules
D. free mean path between each molecules and
other.
1.
In the experiment above, ammonium chloride crystals deposit 8. The forces holding naphthalene crystal together can
on the walls of the tube is as a result of be overcome when naphthalene is heated to a
A. Evaporation temperature of 354 K resulting in the crystals melting.
B. Recrystallization These forces are known as.
C. Sublimation A. coulombic B. ionic
D. Fractional precipitation. C. covalent D. van der waals

2. The formula of the compound formed in a reaction 9. A metallic ion X2+ with an inert gas structure contain 18
between a trivalent metal M and a tetravalent non-metal X electrons. How many protons are there in this ion?
is. A. 20 B. 18
A. MX B. M3X4 C. 16 D. 2
C. M4X3 D. M3X2
10. Which of the following physically properties decreases
3. 2.25 g of sample of an oxide of a copper. 2.50 g of another across the periodic table.
oxide of Copper on reduction also gave2.0 g of copper. A. Ionization potential
These results are in accordance with the law of B. Electron affinity
A. constant composition C. Electronegativity
B. conversation of matter D. Atomic radius
C. multiple proportions
D. definite proportions. 11. What are the possible oxidation numbers for an element
if its atomic is 17?
4. One role of propane is mixed with five moles of oxygen. A. -1 and 7 B. – 1 and 6
The mixture is ignited and the propane burns completely. C. – 3 and 5 D. – 2 and 6
What is the volume of the products at soap?
A. 112.0 dm3 B. 67.2 dm3 12. The energy change accompanying the addition of an
C. 56.0 dm 3
D. 44.8 dm3 electron to a gaseous atom is called
[G.M.V = 22.4 dm3 mol-1] A. first ionization energy
B. second ionization energy
5. 0.9 dm3 of a gas at s. t. p was subjected by means of a C. electron affinity
movable piston to two times the original pressure with D. electronegativity
the temperature being now kept at 364 K. What is the
volume of the gas in dm3 at this pressure? 13. The molar ratio of oxygen to nitrogen in dissolved air is
A. 2.0 B. 4.5 2:1 whereas the ratio is 4:1 in atmospherics air because
C. 6.0 D. 8.3 A. nitrogen is less soluble than oxygen
B. oxygen is heavier than nitrogen
6. C. nitrogen has a higher partial than pressure in
air
D. gases are hydrated in water.

14. An eruption polluted an environment with a gas

suspected to H2S, a poisonous gas. A rescue team
should spray the environment with
A. water
B. moist SO2
C. acidified KmnO4 and water
D. water, acidified KnnO4 and oxygen.
Which of the gas laws does the above graph illustrate?
15. 1.34 g of hydrated sodium tetraoxosulphate (V1) was electricity. G passing through the electrolyte. This is
heated to give an anhydrous salt weighing 0.71g. The represented graphically by.
formula of the hydrated salt.
A. Na2SO4.7H2O
B. Na2SO4.3H2O
C. Na2SO4.2H2O
D. Na2SO4.H2O.
[Na = 23, S =32, O = 16, H=1].

16. The ion that may be assumed to have negligible

concentration in a sample of water that lathers readily
with soap is
A. Mg 2+ B. K+
2-
C. CO 3 D. HCO3
25. A mixture of starch solution and potassium iodide was
17. A substance S is isomorphous with another substance placed in a test tube. On adding dilute tetraoxosulphate
R. When a tiny crystal of R, (V1) acid and then K2Cr2O7 solutions, a blue-black colour
A. S dissolves in the solution was produced. In this reaction, the
B. Crystals of R are precipitated A. iodine ion is oxidized
C. There is no observable change B. tetraoxosulphate(V1) acid acts as an oxidizing
D. R and S react to the generate heat. agent
C. starch has been oxidized
18. Which of the following dilute solutions has the lowest D. K2Cr2O7 is oxidized.
pH value?
A. Calcium trioxocarbonate(1V) 26.
B Sodium trioxocarbonate(1V)
D. hydrochloric acid
E. ethanoic acid

19. Which of the following in aqueous solution neutralize

litmus?
A. NH4Cl B. Na2CO3
C. FeCl3 D. NaCl.

20. What volume of a 0.1 M H3PO will be required to

neutralize 45.0cm3 of a 0.2 M NaOH? Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. 10.0 cm3 B. 20.0 cm3 A. The dissolution of NaOH(s) in water is
3
C. 27.0 cm D. 30.0cm3 endothermic
B. The heat of solution of NaOH(s) is positive
21. Which of the following substances is a basic salt? C. The NaOH (s) gains heat from the
A. Na2CO3 B. Mg(OH)Cl surroundings.
C. NaCHO3 D. The heat of solution of NaOH(s) is negative.
D. K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O.
28. Which of the following will produced the greatest
22. Which of the following acts both as reducing and an increase in the rate of the chemical reaction represented
oxidizing agent? by the equation
A. H2 B. SO2 Na2S2O3(aq) +2HCl(a q 2NaCl(aq) + H2O(1) + SO2(g) +S(s)?
C. H2S D. C A. decrease in temperature and an in increase in
the concentration of the reactants
B. An increase in the temperature and a decrease
23. Which of the following reactions takes place in the in the concentration of the reactants
cathode compartment during the electrolysis of copper C. An increase in the temperature and an increase
(11) chloride solution? in the concentrations of the reactants
A. Cu2+(aq) + 2e Cu(s) D. A decrease in the temperature and a decrease
B. 2Cl – 2e Cl2 in the concentration of the reactants.
C. Cu(s) – 2e Cu2+(aq)
2+
D. Cu (aq) + 2Cl(aq CuCl2(aq) 29. Which property of reversible reaction is affected by a
catalyst?
A. heat content(enthalpy)
B. energy of activation
C. free energy change
24. The mass of a substance, M liberated at an electrode D. equilibrium position.
during electrolysis is proportional to the quantity of
30. Which of the following is used in fire extinguishers? 37. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of
A. Carbon (11) oxide glass?
B. Carbon (1V) oxide A. Sodium chlorine
C. Sulphur (1V) oxide B. Sodium trioxocarbonate (lV)
D. Ammonia C. Sodium tetraoxosulphate (Vl)
D. Sodium trioxonirate (V)
31. When H2S gas is passed into a solution of iron (111)
chloride, the colour changes from yellow to green. This 38. Aluminium is extracted commercially from its ore by
is because. A. heating aluminium oxide with coke in a furnace
A. H2S is reduced to S B. the electrolysis of fused aluminium oxide in
B. Fe3+ ions are oxidized by H2S cryolite
C. H2S ions are oxidized by Fe3+ C. treating cryolite with sodium hydroxide
D. Fe3+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions solution under pressure
D. heating sodium aluminium silicate to a high
32. temperature.

39. Given the reactions

(i) Fe(s) + (NO3)2(aq) Fe(NO3)2(aq) + X(s)
(ii) H2(g) + XO(s) X(s) + H2O(g), X is likely to be.
A. copper B. zinc
C. calcium D. lead.

40. Crude copper can be purified by the electrolysis of

CuSO4(aq) if
A. platinum electrodes are used
B. the crude copper is made the anode of the cell
C. the crude copper is made the cathode of the
cell
Carbon (11) oxide may be collected as shown above D. crude copper electrodes are used.
because it
A. is heavier than air O
B. is less dense than air
C. is insoluble in water 41. The IUPAC name for CH3 CH2 CHC
D. burns in oxygen to form carbon(1V)oxide.
CH3 OH
33. In the reaction C5H10O5(s) 6C(s) + 5H2O concentrated A. 2 – methylbutanoic acid
H2SO4 is acting as B. 2 – methyl - -hydrosyketone
A. a reducing agent C. 2 – methyl - - hydroxyl baldheaded
B. an oxidizing agent D. 2 – methylpentanoic acid
C. a dehydrating agent
D. a catalyst 43. Alkanoates are formed by the reaction of alkanoic acids
with
34. Suitable regents for the laboratory preparation of A. alkyl halides B. alkanols
nitrogen are C. ethers D. sodium
A. sodium trioxonirate (lll) and ammonium
chloride 44. The acidic hydrogen in the compound
B. sodium trioxonirate(V) and ammonium chloride 1 2 3 4 5
C. sodium chloride and ammonium trioxonirate H—C= C—CH=CH—CH3 is the hydrogen
(V) attached to carbon number
D. sodium chloride and ammonium trioxonirate(lll) A. 5 B. 4
C. 3 D. 2
35. The thermal decomposition of copper (ll) trioxonirate
(V) yields copper (ll) oxide, oxygen and 45. The four classes of hydrocarbons are
A. nitrogen (ll) oxide A. ethane, ethene ethyne and benzene
B. nitrogen(ll) oxide B. alkanes, alkenesm alkynes and aromatics
C. nitrogen (lV) oxide C. alkanes, alkenes, alkynes and benzene
D. nitrogen D. methane, ethane, propane and butane
46. Alkanes 400-700 o
catalyst
C smaller + alkanes +hydrogen. The
alkanes
36. Chlorine is produced commercially by above reaction is known as
A. electrolysis of dilute hydrochloric acid A. Photolysis B. Cracking
B. electrolysis of brine C. Isomerization D. Reforming.
C. neutralization of hydrogen chlorine
D. heating potassium trioxochlorate(V)
diastase
47. In the reaction 2(C6H10O5) n + nH2O nC12H22O11 49. Detergents have the general formula
diastase is functioning as
A. a dehydrating agent A. R(CH2)NOH
B. a reducing agent B. RSO3 Na+
C. an oxidizing agent C. RCO2 Na+
D. a catalyst. D. RCO2H

48. 48. which of the following compounds has the 50. What process would coal undergo to give coal gas,
highest boiling point? coal tar, ammoniac liquor and coke?
A. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH A. steam distillation
B. CH3 CH2 CH2 CHO B. Destructive distillation
C. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 C. Liquefaction,
D. CH3 CH2 OCH2 CH2 D. Hydrolysis.

Chemistry 2 0 0 7
1. Which of the following would support the
5. The minimum volume of oxygen required for the
conclusion that a solid sample is mixture?
complete combustion of mixture of 10cm3 of CO and
A. The solid can be ground to a fine powder
15 cm3 of H2 is
B. The density of the solid is 2.25 g dm3
A. 25.0 cm3
C. The solid has a melting range of 300oC to
B 12.5 cm3
375oC.
C 10.0 cm3
D. The solid of the moisture from the
D 5.0 cm3
atmosphere.
2. The molar of carbon to hydrogen of volatile liquid 6. What is the partial pressure of hydrogen gas
compound is 1:2. 0.12 g of the liquid evaporation at collected over water at standard atmospheric
s.t.p gave 32 cm3 of vapour. The molecular formula of pressure and 25oC if the saturation vapour pressure
the liquids is of water is 23 mm Hg at that temperature?.
A. C3H6 B. C4H8 A. 737 mm Hg B. 763 mm Hg
C C5H10 D. C6H12 C. 777 mm Hg D. 737 mm Hg
[ G.M.V = 22.4 DM3, C=12, H=1]
7. The atomic radius Li, Na and K are 1:33 A m 1.54A and
3. 1.96A respectively. Which of the following explain this
gradation in atomic radius?
A. Electropositivity decreases from Li to Na to K
B. Electronegativity decreases from Li to Na to
K.
C. The number of electron shells increase from
Li to Ma to K
D. The elements are in the same period.

It can be deduced from the vapour of pressure curves

above that.
A. liquid has the highest boiling point
B. liquid has the highest boiling point
C. liquid lll has the highest boiling point
D. liquid lll has the lowest boiling point.

4. 20.00 cm3 of a solution containing 0.53 g of

anhydrous Na2CO3 in 100 cm3 requires 25.00 cm3 of
H2SO4 for complete neutralization. The concentration Which of the curves in the above graph illustrates the
of the acid solution in moles per dm3 is behaviors of an ideal gas?
A. 0.02 B 0.04 A. W B. X
C 0.06 D. 0.08 C. Y D. Z
[ H= 1, C = 12, 0 = 16, Na = 23 , S =32]
9. Elements X and Y have electronic configurations 16. A hydrated salt of formula MSO4.XH2O contains 45.3%
1s22s22p4 and 1s22s22p63s23p1 respectively. When they by mass of the water of crystallization.
combine, the formula of the compound formed is Calculate the value of X.
A. XY B. YX A. 3 B. 5
C. X2Y3 D. Y2X3 C. 7 D. 10
[M = 56, S= 32, O =16, H= 1]
10. The atomic number of cesium is 55 and its atomic mass
is 133. The nucleus of cesium atom therefore contains 17
A. 78 protons and 55 electrons
B. 55 protons and 78 neutrons
C. 55 neutrons and 78 electrons
D. 78 neutron and 55 neutrons

11. Four elements P,Q,R and S have atomic numbers of 4,

10, 12, and 14 respectively. Which of these elements is
a noble gas?
A. P B. Q
C. R D. S

12. How many valence electrons are contained in the If the graph above 1 dm3 of a saturated solution of HCI
element represented by 3115P? is cooled from 80oC, the mass of crystals deposited will
A. 3 B. 5 be.
C. 15 D. 31 A. 7.45 g B. 14.90 g
C. 74.50 g D. 149.00 g
13. [K = 39, Cl= 35.5]

18. Using 50cm3 of 1 M potassium hydroxide and 100cm3

of 1M tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid, calculate the respective
volumes in cm3 of bade and acid 100 cm3 of base and
acid that would be required to produce the maximum
amount of potassium tetraoxosulphate(Vl)
A. 50,50 B. 25,50
C. 50,25 D. 25,25
[K = 39, S= 32, O = 16, H = 1]

19. A solution of calcium bromide contains 20 g dm3

What is the molarity of the solution with respect to
calcium bromide and bromide ions?
In the above set up, substances X and Y are A. 0.1,0.1 B. 0.1,0.2
respectively. C. 0.1,0.05 D. 0.05,0.1
A. Lime water and copper (ll) tetraoxosulphate [Ca = 40, Br = 80]
(Vl)
20. The substance of ZnO dissolves in sodium hydroxide
B. Potassium trioxocarbonate(lV) and alkaline
solution and mineral acid solution to gives soluble
prygallol
products in each case. ZnO is therefore referred to as.
C. Potassium hydroxide and alkaline pyrogallo
A. an allotropic acid
D. Potassium trioxocarbonate (lV) and
B. an atmopheric oxide
concerntrate tetraoxosulphate (Vl) aid
C. a peroxide
D. a dioxide.
14. The gaseous pollutant sulphur (lV) oxide is most likely
to be detected in fairly reasonable quantities in the 21. An acid its conjugate base .
area around a plant for the A. can neutralize each other to form a salt
A. extraction of aluminium from bauxite B. differ only by a proton
B. production of margarine C. differ only by the opposite charges they carry
C. smelting of copper D. are always neutral substances
D. production of chlorine from brine
22. The same current is passed for the same time through
solutions of AgNO3 and CuSO4 connected in series.
15. Calcium hydroxide is added in the treatment of town
How much silver will be deposited if 1.0 g of copper is
water supply to
produced?
A. kill bacteria in the water
A. 1.7 g B. 3.4 g
B. facilitate coagulation of organic particles
C. 6.8 g D. 13. 6 g
C. facilitate sedimentation
[Cu = 63.5, S = 32, O = 16M Ag = 108, N = 14]
D. improve the tase of the water.
23. What is discharged at the cathode during the and –396 kJ respectively. Calculate the molar heat of
electrolysis of copper (ll) tetraoxosulphate (Vl) solution? formation of ethane in kJ.
A. Cu2+ only B. H+ only A. -2792 B. +2792
C. Cu2+ and H+ D. Cu2+ and SO2- C. –64 D. +64

24. An element, Z forms an anion whose formula is 28. CO(g) + H2O CO2(g) + H2(g) H = -41000 J. Which
[Z(CN)6]y. If has an oxidation number of +2, what is the of the following factors favour the formation of
value of y? hydrogen in the above reaction? I high pressure II low
A. -2 B. –3 pressure III high temperature IV use of excess steam
C. –4 D. –5 A. I, III, and IV B. III only
C. II, III and I D. Iv only.
25. Which of the reaction is NOT an example of a redox
reaction? 29.
I Fe + 2Ag+ Fe2+ + 2Ag+
II 2H2S + SO2 2H2O + 3S
III N2 + O2 2NO
IV CaCO3 CaO + CO2

A. I, II, III B. II and III

C. III and IV D. IV only.

The above graph shows a typical heating curve from

the solid phase through the liquid phase to the gaseous
phase of a substance . What part of the curve shows
solid and liquid in equilibrium?
A. T B. U
C. X D. Y

30. Which of the following represents the balanced

equation for the reaction of copper with concentrated
trioxonirate (V) acid?
A. 2NHO3(aq) Cu(NO3)2(aq) + H2(g)
B. Cu(s) + 4HNO3 Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l) +
2NO2(g)
26. C. 3Cu(s) + 8HNO3(aq) 3Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 4H2O(l)
+ 2NO(g)
D. 3Cu(s) + 4 HNO3(aq 3Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l) +
2NO(g).

31. The catalyst used in the contact process for the

manufacture of tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid is
A. Manganese (lV) oxide
The above diagram gives the potential energy profile B. Manganese (ll) tetraoxosulphate (lV)
of the catalyzed uncatalysed reactions of C. Vanadium (V) oxide
X(g) + Y(g) XY(g) . Deduce the respective D. Iron metal
activation energies in kJ of the catalyzed and
uncatalysed reverse reactions. 32. Some products of destructive distillation of coal are
XY(g) + X(g) X(g) + Y(g) A. carbon (iV) oxide and ethanoic acid
A. 300, 500 B. 500, 300 B. trioxocarbonate (lV) acid and methanoic acid
C. –300, -500 D. –5000. C. producer gas and water gas
D. coke and ammonia liquor
27. The combustion of ethene, C2H2, is given by the equation
C2H4 2CO2 + 2H2O; H = -1428 kJ. If the molar heats 33. Gunpowder is made from charcoal, sulphur and
of formation of water and carbon (l) oxide are –286kJ potassium trioxonirate (V). The salt in the mixture
performs the function of
A. an oxidant B. a reductant
C. a solvent D. a catalyst
34. Which of the following reaction is (are) feasible? 42. When excess chlorine is mixed with ethene at room
l Br (2l) + 2Cl(aq 2Br(aq) + Cl2(aq temperature, the product is
)
ll 21(aq) + Br2(1) 2Br(aq) + l2(s) A. 1,2 – dichloroethane
lll 2F(aq) + Cl2(aq 2Cl(aq) + F2(g) B. 1,2 – dichloroethene
lV 2F(ag) + Br2(1) 2Br(aq) + F2(g) C. 1, 1- dichloroethane
A l B. ll D. 1, 1- dichloroethene.
C I and lll D. lll and lV
43. Vulcanization of rubber is a process by which
A. Isoprene units are joined to produce rubber
35. Bleaching powder, CaOCl2.H2O, deteriorates on B. Rubber latex is coagulated
exposure to air because C. Sulphur is chemically combined in the rubber
A. it loses its water of crystallization D. Water is removed from the rubber.
B. atmospheric nitrogen displaces chlorine from
it 44. The reaction between ethanoic acid and sodium
C. carbon (lV) oxide of the atmosphere displaces hydroxide is an example of
chlorine from it A. esterification B. neutralization
D. bleaching agents should be stored in solution C. hydrosylation D. hydrolysis

36. The product of the thermal decomposition of ammonium 45. The bond which joins two ethanoic acid molecules in
trioxonirate (V) are. the liquid state is
A. NO2 and oxygen A. a covalent bond
B. NH3 and oxygen B. an ionic bond
C. nitrogen and water C. a dative covalent bond
D. N2O and water. D. a hydrogen bond

37. The scale of a chemical balance is made of iron plate 46. The alkaline hydrolysis of fats and oils produces soap
and coated with copper electrolytically because. and
A. iron is less susceptible to corrosion than A. propane 1, 1, 3-triol
copper B. propane – 1, 3, 3-triol
B. copper is less susceptible corrosion as ion C. propane-1-2-2-triol
C. copper is less susceptible to corrosion than D. propane-1-2-3-triol
ion
D. copper and ion are equally susceptible to 47. which of the following is NOT a monomer?
corrosion. A.

38. A metal is extracted for, its ore by the electrolysis of tits

molten chlorine and it displace lead from lead (ll)
trioxonirate(V) solution. The metal is B. CH2 = CH2
A. copper B. aluminium D. CH2 = CHCl
C. zinc D. sodium

39. Mortar is NOT used for under-water construction

because.
A. It hardens by loss of water
B. Its hardening does not depent upon 48. What is the IUPAC name for the compound
evaporation CH3
D. It requires concrete to harden
E. It will be washed away by the flow of water. CH2 = C
40. Which of the following is NOT involved in the
extraction of metals from their ores? CH2CI
A. reduction with carbon A. 1-chloro-2-methylprop-2, 3-ene
B. reduction with other metals B. 1-chloro-2-methlprop-2-ene
C. reduction by electrolysis C. 3-chloro-2-methylprop-1-ene
D. oxidation with oxidizing agent. D. 3-chloro-2-methyprop-1,2-ene

41 Which of the following compounds is an isomer of the 49. The gas responsible for most of the fatal explosion in
compound. coal mines is
A. CH-CH2-CH-CH2-CH3 B. CH-CH2-CH-CH2-CH3 A. butane B. ethene
CH3 C2H5 C. ethane D. methane

C. CH-CH2-CH-CH3 D. CH3-CH-CH2-CH3
C2H5 CH3
50. Three liquids X,Y and Z containing only hydrogen and
carbon were burnt on a spoon, X and Y burnt with sooty flames
while Z did not. Y is able to discharge the colour of bromine
water whereas X and Z cannot. Which of the liquids would be
aromatic in nature?
A. X and Z B. Y
C. X D. Z

Chemistry 2 0 0 8
[G.M.V at s.t.p = 22.40 dm3]

7. Equal volumes of CO, SO2 NO2 and H2S, were released

1. Which of the following is a physical change? into a room at the same point and time. Which of the
following gives the order of the room?
A. The bubbling of chlorine into water A. CO2, SO2, NO, H2S,
B. The bubbling of chlorine into jar containing B. SO2, NO2, H2S, CO
hydrogen C. CO, H2S, SO2, NO2
C. The dissolution of sodium chlorine in water D. CO, H2S, NO2, SO2
D. The passing of steam over heated iron. [S = 32, C=12, 0=16, N = 14, H =1]
2. Changes in the physical states of chemical substances 8. A basic postulate of the kinetic theory of gases is that
T are shown in the scheme below. the molecules of a gas move in straight lines between
Liquid T collisions. This implies that.
Z Y A. collisions are perfectly elastics
B. forces of repulsion exist
Solid T X Gaseous T C. forces of repulsion and attraction are in
equilibrium
The letters X, Y and Z respectively represent D. collisions are inelastic.
A. sublimation, condensation and freezing
B. sublimation, vaporization and solidification P Q R S
C. freezing, condensation and sublimation 9. Proton 13 16 17 19
D. evaporation, liquefaction and sublimation. Electron 13 16 17 19
Neutron 14 16 35 20
3. In the reaction: SnO2 + 2C Sn + 2CO the mass of coke Which of the four atoms P,Q,R and S in the above data
containing 80% carbon required to reduce 0.032 kg of can be described by the following properties: relative
pure tin oxide is atomic mass is greater than 30 but less than 40 ; it has
A. 0.40 kg B. 0.20 kg an odd atomic number and forms a unipositive ion in
C. 0.06 kg D. 0.40 g solution?
[Sn = 119, O = 16, C = 12] A. P B. Q
C. R D. S
4. The Avogadro’s number of 24 of magnesium is same as
that of 10. Which of the following terms indicates the number of
A. 1 g of hydrogen molecules bonds that can be formed by atom?
B. 16 g of oxygen molecules A. Oxidation number
C. 32 g of oxygen molecules B. Valence
D. 35.5 of chlorine molecules. C. Atomic number
5. If a gas occupies a container of volume 146 cm3 at 18oC D. Electronegativity.
and 0.971 atm, its volume on cm3 at s.t.p is
A. 133 B. 146 11. X(g) X(g). The type of energy involved in the
C. 266 D. 292 above transformation is
A. ionization energy
6. The volume occupied by 1.58 g of gas s.t.p is 500 cm3. B. sublimation energy
What is the relative molecule mass of the gas? C. lattice energy
A. 28 B. 32 D. electron affinity
C. 344 D. 71
12. Chlorine, consisting of two isotope of mass numbers 20. What is concentration of H+ ions in moles per dm3 of a
35 and 37, has an atomic of 35.5. The relative abundance solution of pH 4.398?
of the isotope of mass number 37 is. A. 4.0 x 10-5 B. 0.4 x 10-5
A. 20 B. 25 C. 4.0 x 10-3
D. 0.4 x 10-3
C. 50 D. 75
21. What volume of 11.0 M hydrochloric acid must be dilute
13. 10.0 dm3 of air containing H2S as an Impurity was passed to obtain 1 dm3 of 0.05 M acid?
through a solution of Pb(NO3)2 until all the H2S had A. 0.05 dm3 B. 0.10 dm3
reacted. The precipitate of PbS was found weight 5.02 C. 0.55 dm 3
D. 11.0 dm3
g. According to the equation: Pb(NO3)2 + H2O ’! PbS
“!+2HNO3 the percentage by volume of hydrogen 22. If 10.8 g of silver is deposited in a silver coulometer
sulphides in the air is. connected in series with a copper coulometer, the
A. 50.2 B. 47.0 volume of oxygen liberated is
C. 4.70 D. 0.47 A. 0.56 dm3 B. 5.50 dm3
[Pb = 207, S = 23, GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3] C. 11.20 dm 3
D. 22.40
dm3
14. A blue solid, T, which weighted 5.0 g was placed on a [Ag = 108, Cu = 64, GMV at s.t.p = 22.40 dm3 ].
table. After 8 hours, the resulting pink sold was found
to weight 5.5 g. It can be inferred that substance T 23. 0.1 faraday of electricity deposited 2.95 g of nickel
A. is deliquescent during electrolysis is an aqueous solution. Calculate
B. is hydroscopic the number of moles of nickel that will Be deposited by
C. has some molecules of water of crystallization 0.4 faraday
D. is efflorescent A. 0.20 B. 0.30
C. 0.034 D. 5.87
15. The effluent of an industrial plant used ins the [Ni = 58.7]
electrolysis of concentrated brine, with a flowing
mercury cathode may contain impurities like. 24. Cr2O72- + 6Fe2+ + 14H+ 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O. In the
A. oxygen above chromium change from.
B. hydrogen A. +7 to +3 B. +6 to +3
C. mercury (ll) chloride C. +5 to +3 D. –2 to+3
D. hydrogen chloride
25. In the reaction 10-3 + 51- + 6H+ 312 + 3H2O, the
3
16. The solubility in moles per dm of 20 g of CuSO4 oxidizing agent is
dissolved in 100 g of water at 180oC is A. H+ B. 1-
A. 0.13 B. 0.25 C. 10-3 D. 12
C. 1.25 D. 2.00
[Cu = 63.5, S = 32, O = 16] 26. Fe2O3(s) + 2Al Al2O3 + 2Fe(s) are –1670 kJ mol-1 and
–822kJ mol-1 respectively, the enthalpy change in kJ
17. Smoke consists of for the reason is
A. solid particles dispersed in liquid A. +2492 B. +848
B. solid or liquid particles dispersed in gas C. –848 D. –2492
C. gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid
D. liquid particles dispersed in liquid. 27. Iron galvanized with zinc catholically protected from
corrosion. This is because
18. NaC2O4 + CaCl CaC2O4 + 2NaCl. Given a solution A. zinc has a more positive oxidation potential than
of 1.9 g of sodium oxalate in 50 g of water at room iron
temperature, calculate the minimum volume of 0.1 M B. zinc has a less positive oxidation potential than
calcium oxalate required to produce maximum calcium iron
oxalate using the above equation. C. both have the same oxidation potential
A. 1.40 x 102 dm3 D. zinc is harder than iron.
B. 1.40 x 102 cm3
C. 1.40 x 10-2 dm3 28. Which of the following samples will react faster with
D. 1.40 x 10-2 cm3 dilute dtrioxonitrate (V) acid?
A. 5 g of lumps of CaCO3 at 25oC
19. 2.0 g of monobasic acid was made up to 250 cm3 with B. 5 g of powered CaCO3 at 25oC
distilled water. 25.00 cm3 of this solution required 20.00 C. 5 g of lumps of CaCO3 at 50oC
cm3 of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. D. 5 g of powered CaCO3 at 50oC
The molar mass of the acid is
A. 200 g B. 160 g 29. In the reaction ,
C. 100 g D. 50 g 2Hl(g) H2(g) + I2(g), H = 10 kJ;
the concentration of iodine in the equilibrium mixture
can be increased by
A. raising the pressure
B. raising the temperature
C. adding the temperature 39. To make coloured glasses, small quantities of oxides of
D. lowering the pressure metals which form coloured silicates are often added to
the reaction mixture consisting of Na2CO3 and SO2. Such
30. Which of the following gases can be collected by a metal is
upward displacement of air? A. potassium B. barium
A. NO B. H2 C. zinc D. copper
C. NH3 D. Cl2
40. Which of the following compounds gives a yellow
31. The brown fumes given off when trioxonirate (V) acid residue when heated and also reacts with aqueous
consist of sodium hydroxide to give a white gelatinous precipitate
A. NO2 and O2 B. H2O and NO2 soluble in excess sodium hydroxide solution.
C. NO2, O2 and H2O D. NO2 and H2O A. (NH4)2CO3 B. ZnCO3
C. Al2(SO4)3 D. PbCO3
32. Which of the following tests will completely identify
any one of sulphur (lV) oxide, hydrogen, carbon (lV) 41. A cycloalkane with molecular formula C5H10 has
oxide and nitrogen (ll) oxixde? A. one isomer B. two isomers
A. pass each gas into water and test with blue C. three isomers D. four isomers
litmus pare
B. pass each gas into lime water 42. The structure of cis-2butene is
C. expose each gas to atmospheric air A. CH3 -CH=CH-CH3
D. passs each gas to concentrated -
tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid.

33. In the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia,

the catalyst commonly used is finely divided.
A. vanadium B. platinum
C. iron D. copper

34. A metallic oxide which reacts with both HCl and NaOH
to give salt and water only can be classified as
A. an acidic oxide
B. an atmospheric oxide
C. a neutral oxide
D. an atmospheric oxide 43. What is the IUPAC name for the hydrocarbon
CH3
35. Which of the following metals will liberate hydrogen
form steam or dilute acid? CH3—C = CH— CH—CH3
A. copper B. iron
C. lead D. mercury CH2

36. Coal fire should not be used in poorly ventilated rooms CH3
because A. 2-ethyl-4-methylpent-2-ene
A. of the accumulation of CO2 which cause deep B. 3,5-dimenthylhex-3-ene
sleep C. 2,4-dimenthylhex-3-ene
B. it is usually too hot D. 2-methyl-4-ethylpent-3-ene
C. of the accumulation of CO which causes
suffocation 44. CH3 = CH P. Compound P, in the above reaction, is.
D. it removes most of the gases in the room
A. CH — C = CH NH2
37. The major component of the slag from the production
of iron is NH2
A. an alloy of calcium and iron B. CH3 — C CH Na
B. coke C. CH3 — C C — Na
C. impure ion D. CH3 — C C — NH2
E. calcium trioxosilicate (V)
45. The label on a reagent bottle containing a clear organic
38. Sodium hydroxide should be stored in properly closed liquid dropped off. The liquid was neutral to litmus and
containers because it gave a colourless gas with metallic sodium. The liquid
A. readily absorbs water vapour from the air must be an
B. is easily oxidized by atmospheric oxygen A. alkanoate B. alkene
C. turns golden yellow when exposed to light. C. alkanol D. alkane
D. Melts at a low temperature.
46. COOH COOH + H2O
+ NaOH 50. Which of the following compounds represents the
COOH COO-Na+ polymerization product of ethyne?
The above reaction is an example of
A. displacement reaction
B. a neutralization reaction
C. an elimination reaction
D. Saponification A..

47. Alkanoic acids have low volatility compared with

Alkanoic because they
A. are more polar than alkanols
B have two oxygen atoms while alkanols have
one
C. form two hydrogen bonds while alkanols B.
donot
D. form two hydrogen bonds while alkanols form
one.

48. The octane number of a fuel whose performance is the

same as that of a mixture of 55 g of 2, 2, 4-trimethyl C.
pentane and 45 g of n-heptanes is
A. 45 B. 55
C. 80 D. 100

49. Which of the following is formed when maltose reacts

with concentrated tetraoxosulphate (Vl) acid.
A. Carbon (lV) oxixde D.
B. Coal tar
C. Charcoal
D. Toxic fumes

Chemistry 2 0 0 9
1. Which of the following can be obtained by fraction of 4. In two separate experiments 0.36 g and 0.71 g of chlorine
distillation? combine with a metal X to give Y and Z respectively.
A. Nitrogen from liquid air An analysis showed that Y and Z contain 0.20 g and
B. Sodium chloride for sea water 0.40 g of X respectively. The data above represents the
C. Iodine from a solution of iodine in carbon law of .
tetrachloride A. multiple proportion
D. Sulphur from a solution of sulphur in carbon B. conversation of mass
disulphide. C. constant composition
D. reciprocal proportion.
2. Which of the following are mixture? I Petroleum ii Rubber
latex. Iii Vulcanizes’ solution. Iv Carbon (ll) sulphides 5. 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressure is placed in
A. I, ii and iii a 20 dm 3 container. Calculate the new pressure it
B. I, ii and iv temperature is kept constant.
C. I and ii only A. 6.7 atm B. 15.0 atm
D. I and iv C. 6.0 atm D. 66.0 atm

3. Aniron oreisknown tocontain 70.0%Fe2O3. The mass 6. A given quantity of gas occupies a volume of 228 cm3
of iron metal which can theorically be obtained from at a pressure of 750 mm Hg. What will be its volume at
80kg of the ore is. atmospheric pressure?
A. 35.0 kg B. 39.2 kg A. 200cm3 B. 225 cm3
C. 70.0 kg D. 78.4 kg C. 230 cm 3
D. 235 cm3
[Fe = 356, O = 16]
7. Calculate the volume of carbon (lv) oxide measure at s.t.p, 15.
produced when 1 kg of potassium hydrogen
trioxocarbonate (iV) is totally decomposed by heat.
A. 28 dm3 B. 56 dm3
3
C. 112 dm D. 196 dm3
3
[G.M.V at s.t.p = 22.4 dm , K = 39, O = 16, C = 12, H = 1]

8. A sample of a gas exerts a pressure of 8.2 atm when

confined in a 2.93dm3 container at 20oC. The number of
moles of gas in the sample is
A. 1.00 B. 2.00
C. 3.00 D. 4.00
[ R= 0.082 litre atm/deg mole]

9. Atoms of element X (with 2 electrons in the outer shell) The electrons of two atoms of Y and Z are arranged in
combine with atoms of Y( with 7 electrons in the outer shells as shown above. The bond formed between the
shell). Which of the following is FALSE? The compound atoms of Y and Z is
formed A. ionic
A. has formula XY B. covalent
B. is likely to be ionic C. dative
C. contains X2+ ions D. metallic.
D. contains Y- ions
16. Which of the following ionsis a pollutant in drinking
10. The ions X- and Y+ are isoelectronic, each containing a water even in trace amount?
total of 10 electrons. How many proteins are in the A. Ca2+
nuclei of the neutral atoms of X and Y respectively? B. Hg2+
A. 10 and 10 B. 9 and 9 C. Mg 2+
C. 11 and 9 D. 9 and 11 D. Fe2+

11. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 17. The solubility of copper (ll) tetraoxosulphate (Vl) is 75
3s2 3p3. How many unpaired electron are there in the g in 100 g of water at 100oC and 25 g in 100 g of water at
element. 30oC.What mass of the salt would crystallize, if 50 g of
A. 5 B. 4 copper (ll) tetraoxosulphate (Vl) solution saturated at
C. 3 D. 2 100oC were cooled to 30oC?
A. 57.5 g B. 42.9 g
12. Which of the following represents the type of bonding C. 28. 6g D. 14.3 g
present in ammonium chloride molecule?
A. Ionic only 18. A sample of temporary hard water can be prepared in
B. Covalent only the laboratory by.
C. Ionic and dative covalent A. dissolving calcium chloride in distilled water
D. Dative covalent only. B. saturating lime water with carbon(lV) oxide
C. saturating distilled water with calcium
13. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing hydroxide
electronegativity? D. dissolving sodium hydrogen trioxocarbonate
A. Chlorine, aluminium, magnesium, phosphorus, (lV) in some distilled water.
sodium.
B. Sodium, magnesium, aluminium phosphorus, 19. A property of a colloidal dispersion which a solution
chlorine does not have is .
C. Chlorine, phosphorus, aluminium, magnesium, A. the Tyndall effect
sodium. B. homogeneity
D. Sodium, chlorine, phosphorus, magnesium, C. osmotic pressure
aluminium. D. surface polarity.

14. A quantity of air was passed through a weighed mount 20. 50 cm3 of sulphur (lV) oxide, 800cm3 of ammonia, 450
of alkaline pyrogallol. An increase in the weight of the cm3 of hydrogen chloride, 1.0 cm3 of water at 15oC.
pyrogallol would result from the absorption of. Which of the following is suitable for demonstrating
A. nitrogen B. neon the fountain experiment?
C. argon D. oxygen. A. Sulphur (lV) oxide and hydrogen chloride
B. Carbon (lV) oxide and ammonia
C. Ammonia and hydrogen chloride
D. Carbon (lV) oxide and sulphur (1V) oxide
21. C. lower the activation energy for the reaction
D. lower the heat of reaction, H, for the reaction,

28. 1.1 g of CaCl2 dissolved in 50 cm3 of water caused a rise

in temperature of 34oC. The heat reaction, H for CaCl2
in kJ per moles is
A. -71.1 B. –4.18
C. +17.1 D. +111.0
[Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5, specific heat of water is 4.18 KJ-1

29. NO + CO 1/2 N2 + CO2 H = -89.3kJ

.What conditions would favour maximum conversion

Which of the following substances could be of nitrogen (ll) oxide and carbon(ll) oxide in the reaction
satisfactorily used as X in the above figure? above?
A. Ammonia and Potassium hydroxide A. low temperature and high pressure
B. Potassium hydroxide and sodium chloride B. high temperature and low pressure
C. Ammonia and ethanoic acid C. high temperature and high pressure
D. Ethanoic and sodium chloride D. low temperature and low pressure.

22. What volume of CO2 at s.t.p would be obtained by 30. Which of the following equilibria is unaffected by a
reacting 10cm3 of 0.1 M solution of anhydrous sodium pressure change?
trioxocarbonate (lV) with excess acid? A. 2NaCl 2Na + Cl2
A. 2.240 cm3 B. 22.40 cm3 B. H2 + I2 2HI
C. 224.0 cm3 D. 2240 cm3 C. 2O3 3O2
[G.M.V at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3 D. 2NO2 N2O4

23. If a current of 1.5 A is passed for 4.00 hours through a 31.

molten tin salt and 13.3 g of tins is deposited, What is Initial concentration of no in moles Initial Rate (moles / sec)
the oxidation state of the metal in the salt? 0.001 3.0 x 10-5
A. 1 B. 2 0.002 1.2 x 10 -4
C. 3 D. 4 The data in the table above shows the rate of reaction of nitrogen
[Sn = 118.7, F = 96500 C mol-1] (ll) oxide with chlorine at 25oC. It can be concluded that doubling
the intial concentration of NO increase the rate of reaction by
24. Which of the following equivocal solutions, Na2CO3, factor of
Na2SO4, FeCl3, NH4Cl and CH3 COONa, have pH greater A. two B. three
than? C. four D. five
A. FeCl3 and NH4Cl
B. Na2CO3 CH3 COONa and Na2SO4, 32. Which of the following gases will rekindle a brightly
C. Na2CO3 and CH3 COONa glowing splint?
D. FeCl3 , CH3, COONa. NH4Cl A. NO2 B. NO
C. N2O D. Cl2
25. MnO-4 + 8H+ + ne M++ + 4H2O. Which is the value
of n the reaction above? 33. Which of the following salts can be melted without
A. 2 B. 3 decomposition?
C. 4 D. 5 A. Na2CO3 B. CaCO3
C. MgCO3 D. ZnCO3
26. 2H2(g) + SO2(g) 3S(s) + 2H2O(1). The above reaction is
A. a redox reaction in which H2S is the oxidant and 34. Oxygen gas can be prepared by heating
SO2 is the reductant. A. ammonium trioxonirate (V)
B. a redox reaction in which SO2is the oxidant and B. ammonium trioxonirate (lll)
H2S is the reductant. C. potassium trioxonirate (V)
C. Not a redox reaction because there is no oxidant in D. manganese (lV) oxide.
the reaction equation
D. Not a redox reaction because there is no reductant
in the reaction equation.

27. Manganese(lV) oxide is known to hasten the

decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. Its main actions
is to.
A. increase the surface area of the reactants
B. increase the concentration of the reactants
35.
42. The final products of the presence of ultraviolet light
are hydrogen chloride and
A. chloromethane
B. tetrachloromethane
C. trichloromethane
D. dichloromethane

43. How many grams of bromine will be required to

completely react with 10 g of propyne?
A. 20 g B. 40 g
C. 60 g D. 80 g
[C = 12, H = 1, Br = 80].
The appropriate test paper to use in the above 44. Ethene when passed into concentrated H2SO4 is rapidly
experiment is moist. absorbed. The product is diluted with water and then
A. litmus paper warmed to produce.
B. potassium heptaoxodichromate (1V) A. ethanol B. diethyl ether
paper C. ethanal D. diethyl sulphate.
C. lead (11)trioxonirate (V) paper.
D. Universal indicator paper. 45. One of the advantages of detergents over soap is that
detergents.
36. Addition of aqueous ammonia to a solution of Zn++ A. are easier to manufacture
gives a white precipitate which dissolves in an excess B. foam more than soap
of ammonia because. C. form soluble salts with hard water
A. zinc is amphoteric D. are able to deter germ more than soap.
B. zinc hydroxide is readily soluble
C. zinc forms a complex which is readily 46. CH3CH2 CHCH3 alc.KOH CH3CH = CHCH3
soluble in excess ammonia
D. ammonia solution is a strong base. X CHCH3 + CH3CH2CH =CH2
37. Which of the following, in clear solution, forms a white The above reaction is an example of
precipitate when carbon(1V) oxide is bubbled into it for A. dehydration
a short time? B. dehydrohalogenation
A. KOH B. NaOH C. neutralization
C. Ca(OH)2 D. Al(OH)3 D. a fission reaction
38. Copper (11) tetraoxosulphate (V1) is widely used as a 47. A certain liquid has a high boiling point. It is viscous,
A. Fertilizer B. Fungicide non-toxic, miscible with water to be hygroscopic. This
C. Disinfectant D. Purifier liquid is most likely to be.
A. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
39. Which of the following metals can be prepared in B. CH3CH2OHCH3
samples by the thermal decomposition to their C. CH3CH2CHOHCH3
trioxonirate (V) salt? E. CH3OHCHOCH2 OH
A. Copper and mercury
B. Silver and copper 48. The compound.
C. Mercury and silver CH3¯CH¯CH3
D. Magnesium and mercury
sCH2Cl
40. Which of the following compounds can exist as Is known as
geometric isomers? A. 1-chloro-2-methylbutane
A. 2-methylbut2-ene B. 1-chloro-2-methylpronane
B. But-2-ene C. 2-chloromethylethane
C. But-1-ene D. 1-chloro-2,2-dimethylethane
D. H 49. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the
complete hydrolysis of a glyceride by sodium
Cl — C—Br hydroxide?
A. 3 moles of NaOH are required for each mole of
H glyceride
41. How many structural isomers can be written for the B. 3 moles of glycerol are produced
alkyl bromide C2H9Br? C. only one mole of soap is formed.
A. 3 B. 4 D. Concentrated H2SO 4 is essential for the
C. 6 D. 8 completion of the reaction.
50. Which of the following are the products of the reaction
between CH3COOH and Cl2 in sunlight?
A. ClCH2COOH + HCl
B. CH3COCl + HOCl
C. CH3COOCl + HCl
D. CH3COCl + H2O

Chemistry 2 0 1 0
1. Which of the following substances is not a 9. The nucleus of the isotope tritium, contains
homogeneous mixture? A. two neutrons with no protons
A. Filtered sea water B. one neutron and one proton
B. Soft drink C. two neutron and one electron
C. Flood water D. two neutron, one proton, and one electron.
D. Writing ink
10. How many lone pairs of electron are there on the central
2. There is a large temperature interval between the melting atom of the H2O molecules?
point and the boiling point of a metal because. A. 1
A. metals have very high melting points B. 2
B. metals conduct heat very rapidly C. 3
C. melting does not break the metallic bond but D. 4
boiling does.
14 17
D. the crystal lattice of metals is easily broken. 11. N +X 8
O + 11 H . In the above reaction ,
X is a
3. How many moles of [H+] are there in 1 dm3 of 0.5 solution A. neutron, B. Helium atom
of H2SO4 C. Lithium atom D. Deutrium atom
A. 2.0 moles B. 1.0 mole
C. 0.5 mole D. 0.25 mole 12. Four elements P,Q,R and S have 1,2,3 and 7 electrons
in their outermost shells respectively. The element which is
4. wH2SO4 + xA(OH)3 yH2O + zAl2(SO4)3. The unlikely to be a metal is
respective values of w, x, y and z in the equation above A. P B. Q
are C. R D. S
A. 2,2,5 and 1 B. 3,2,5and 2
C. 3,2,6 and 1 D. 2,2,6 and 2 13. The pollutants that are likely to be present in an
industrial environment are
5. A given mass of gas occupies 2 dm3 at 300 K. At what A. H2S, SO2 and oxides of nitrogen
temperature will its volume be doubled keeping the B. NH3, HCl and CO
pressure constant? C. CO2 NH3 and H2S
A. 400 K B. 480 K D. Dust, No and Cl2
C. 550 K D. 600 K
14. Which of the following gases dissolves in water
6. If 100 cm3 of oxygen pass through a porous plug is 50 vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall?
seconds, the time taken for the same volume of A. Oxygen
hydrogen to pass through the same porous plug is B. Carbon (11) oxide
A. 10.0 s B. 12.5 s C. Nitrogen
C. 17.7 s D. 32.0 s D. Sulphur (lV) oxide
[ O = 16, H = 1]
15. Water for town supply is chlorinate to make it free
7. Which of the following is a measure of the average
from
kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance.
A. bad odour
A. Volume B. Mass
B. bacteria
C. Pressure D. Temperature
C. temporary hardness
8 An increase in temperature causes an increase in the D. permanent hardness.
pressure of a gas in a fixed volume due to an increase in
the 16. On which of the following is the solubility of a
A. number of molecules of the gas gaseous substance dependant? 1. Nature of solvent.
B. density of the gas molecules 11. Nature of solute 11. Temperature. 1V.Pressure.
C number of collisions between the gas A. l, ll, lll and lV B. l and ll only
D. number of collision between the gas molecules C. ll only D. l, lll and iV only
and the walls of the container.
17. An emulsion paint consist of 26. In which of the following is the entropy change
A. gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid positive?
B. liquid particles dispersed in liquid A. H2O(l) H2O(g)
C. solid particles dispersed in liquid B. Cu2+(aq) + Fe(s) Fe2+(aq)+Cu(s)
D. solid particles dispersed in solid C. N2(g) + 3H2(g 2NH3(g)
D. 2HCl(s) N2(g) + Cl2(g)
18. A sample of orange juice is found to have a pH of
3.80. What is the concentration of the hydroxide ion 27. In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward
in the juice? reaction related to that that of the reverse reaction?
A. 1.6 x 10-4 B. 6.3 x 10-11 A. The addition of the two is expected to be
-4
C. 6.3 x 10 D. 1.6 x 10-11 one
B. The product of the two is expected to be
19. Arrange HCl, CH3 COOH, C6H5CH3 in order of one
increasing conductivity. C. The two equilibrium constants are identical
A. HCl,CH3 COOH,C6H5CH3 D. The product of the two is always greater
B. C6H5CH3 HCl, CH3, COOH than one.
C. C6H5CH3 COOH, HCl,
D. CH3, COOH, C6H5CH3,HCl 28. Which of the following equilibra shows little or no
net reaction when the volume of the volume of the
20. Which of these is an acid salt? system is decreased?
A. K2SO4 Al2(SO4)3.24H2O A. H2(g) + l2(g 2Hl(g)
B. CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 B. 2NO2(g N2O4(g)
C. NaHS C. PCl5( PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
D. CaOCl2 D. ZnO(s) + CO2(g ZnCO3(s)

21. How many grams of H2SO4 are necessary for the 29. For a general equation of the nature xP + yQ mR
preparation of 0.175 dm3 of 6.00 M H2SO4? + nS, the expression for the equilibrium constant is
A. 206.0 g A. k [P]x [Q]y
B. 103.0 g B. [P]x [Q]y
C. 98.1 g
D. 51.5 g [R]m [S]n
[S = 32.06, O = 16.00, H = 1.00].
C. [R]m [S]n
22. Copper (ll) tetraoxosulphate (lV) solution is
electrolyzed using carbon electrodes. Which of the [P]x [Q]y
following are produced at the anode and cathode
respectively. D. m [R] n [S]
A. Copper and oxygen
B. Oxygen and copper X [P] y [Q].
C. Hydrogen and copper
D. Copper and hydrogen 30. Which of these statements is TRUE about
carbon(1V)oxide?
23. Calculate the mass, in kilograms, of magnesium A. It supports combustion
produced by the electrolysis of magnesium(ll) B. It is strong acidic in water
chloride in a cell operating for 24 hours at 500 amperes. C. It is very soluble in water
A. 2.7 B. 5.4 D. It supports the burning of magnesium to
C. 10.8 D. 21.7 produce magnesium oxide.
[Faraday = 96,500 C mmol-1, Mg = 24]
31.
24. MnO2 + 2Cl- + 4H Mn2+ +Cl2 + 2H2O. The change
is oxidation numbers when the manganese, chlorine
and hydrogen ions react according to the above
equation are respectively.
A. 2, 2, 4 B. –1,-2 4
C. –2, 1, 0 D. 2, 4, 0

25. S2O32- + l2 S4O62- + 21. In the reaction above,

the oxidizing agents is
A. S2O32-
B. l2 In the experiment above, Z can be
C. S4O62- A. a solution of sodium dioxonitrate(lll) and
D. l- ammonium chloride
B. a solution of lead trioxonitrate(V)
C. a solution of sodium trioxonitrate(V) and 42. CH3
ammonium chloride
D. concentrated tetraoxosulphate (Vl) acid and CH3¯C = CH¯CH2¯CH¯ CH3
sodium trioxonitrate(V).
CH2
32. Which of the following combination of gases is used
for metal welding? 1. Oxygen and ethyne. ll Hydrogen CH3
and ethyne. 1ll. Hydrogen and oxygen. 1V Ethyne, The IUPAC name for the hydrocarbon above is
hydrogen and oxygen. A. 2-ethyl-5-methylhex-2-ene
A. 1 and 11 B. 111 and 1V B. 2, 5-dimethylhex-2-ene
C. 1 and 111 D. 11 and 1V C. 3,5-dimethylhept-3-ene
D. 3,6-dimethylhexpt –3-ene
33. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is unstable 43. Which of the following compounds is a secondary
in air? alkanol?
A. NO2 B. NO A. CH3¯ CH2¯CH¯ CH3
C. N2O4 D. N2O5
OH
34. The gas formed when ammonium trioxonitrate (V) is C. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
heated with sodium hydroxide is D. CH3 CH2 OCH2 CH3
A. hydrogen CH3
B. nitrogen(1V) oxide
C. oxygen CH3¯ C¯OH
D. ammonia
35. Safety matches contain sulphur and
CH3
A. Potassium trioxochlorate(V)
44. Which of the following compounds reacts with sodium
B. Potassium trioxonitrate (V)
metals as well as silver and copper salt.
C. Charcoal
A. CH3 Ca = C ¯CH3
D. Phosphorus sulpide
B CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
36. Addition of an aqueous solution of barium chloride C. CH3 Ca CH3
to the aqueous solution of a salt gives a white D. CH3 CH CH CH3
precipate.
45. Which of the following are isomers?
A. nitrate B. carbonate
A. Ethanol and dimethyl ether
C. chloride D. sulphide
B. Benzene and methylbenzene
37. Sodium hydroxide solution can be conveniently C. Ethanol and propanone
stored in a container made of D. Trichloromethane and tetrachloromehane
A. lead B. zinc
46. The function group present in an treatment with a
C. aluminum D. copper
saturated solution of NaHCO3 is .
38. Which of the following is NOT used as raw material A. hydroxyl group
in the solvary process? B. carbonalkoxyl group
A. Ammonia C. carbonyl group
B. Sodium chloride D. carboxy group.
C. Calcium trioxocarbonate
47. The characteristic reaction of carbonyl compounds is.
D. Sodium trioxocarbonate(V1)
A. Substitution B. Elimination
39. Duralumin consists of aluminum, copper, C. Addition D. Saponificatioon
A. zinc and gold
48. An organic compound containing 40.1% carbon and
B. lead and manganese
6.667% hydrogen has an empirical formula of .
C. nickel and silver
A. C2H4O2 B. C2H3O2
D. manganese and magnesium.
C. CH2O D. CH3O
40. CaO(s) + H2O(l ) Ca(OH)2(s) H = -65kJ. The 49. Alkanals can be differentiated from alkanones by
process represented by the above equation is known as. reaction with.
A. dissolution B. slackin A. 2,4-dinitrophenlhydrazine
C. liming D. mortaring B. hydrogen cyanide
C. sodium hydrogen sulphite
41. The carbon atoms in ethane are
D. tollen’s reagent.
A. sp3 hybridized
B. sp hybridized 50. An example of a polysaccharide is
C. sp2 hybridized A. dextrose B. mannose
D. not hybridized. C.glucose D. starch.
Chemistry 2 0 1 1
1. The dissolution of common salt in water is physical
change because D. greater than the forces of attraction in both
A. the salt can be obtained by solid and the liquid phases
crystallization
B. the salt can be recovered by the evaporation 9. An element, E, has the electronic configuration
of water. 1s22s22p63s23p3. The reaction of E with a halogen X
C. Heat is not generated during mixing can give.
D. The solution will not boil at 100oC A. EX3 and EX5 B. EX3 only
C. EX5 only D. EX2 and EX3
2. Which of the following substances is mixture?
A. Sulphur powder B. Bronze 10. Two atoms represented as 235 92Uand 238 92U are
C. Distilled water D. Ethanol A. isomers B. allotropes
C. isotopes D. anomers
3. How many moles of oxygen molecules would be
produced dfrom the decompostition of 2.5 moles of 11. As the difference in electronegativity between
potassium trioxochlorate (V)? bonded atoms increase, polarity of the bond
A. 2.50 B. 3.50 A. decreases B. increases
C. 3.75 D. 7.50 C. remains unchanged
D. reduces to zero.
4. A balanced chemical equation obeys the law of
A. Conservation of mass 12. Which group of elements forms hydrides that are
B. Definite proportions pyramidal in structure?
C. Multiple proportions A. 111 B. 1V
D. Conservation of energy C. V D. V1

5. At 25oC and 1 atm, a gas occupies a volume of 1.50 13. Water has a rather high boiling point despite its low
dm3. What volume will it occupy at 100oC at 1 atm? molecular mass because of the presence of
A. 1.88 dm3 B. 6.00 dm3 A. hydrogen bonding
C. 18.80 dm3 D. 60.00 dm3 B. covalent bonding
C. ionic bonding
6. A gaseous mixture of 80.0 g of oxygen and 56.0 g of D. metallic bonding
nitrogen has a total pressure of 1.8 atm. The partial
pressure of oxygen in the mixture is 14. Argon is used in gas-filled electric lamps because it
A. 0.8 atm B. 1.0 atm helps to
C. 1.2 atm D. 1.4 atm A. prevent the reduction of the lamp filament
[O = 16, N = 14] B. prevent oxidation of lamp filament
C. make lamp filaments glow brightly
7. D. keep the atmosphere in the lamp inert.

15. The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to

contain
A. CO2 SO3 and N2O
B. CO2 CO and N2O
C. SO3 CO and NO2
D. PH3 H2O and CO2

16. Water can be identified by the use of

A. an hydrogen copper(11) tetraoxosulphate(1V)
B. an hydrogen sodium trioxocarbonate(1V)
Which of the curves above represents the behavior C. potassium heptaoxochromate(vii)
of 1 mole of an ideal gas? D. copper (11) trioxocarbonate(iv)
A. 1 B. 11
C. 111 D. 1V 17. The phenomenon whereby sodium trioxocarbonate
(1) decahydrate loses some of its water crystallization
8. For iodine crystals to sublime on heating, the on exposure to the atmosphere is known as
molecules must acquire energy that is A. deliquescence B. hygroscopy
A. less than the forces of attraction in the solid C. effervescence D. efflorescence
B. equal to the forces of attraction in the solid
C. necessary to melt the solid
18. A student prepares 0.5 M solution each of hydrochloric From the data above, it can be deduced that the most
and ethanoic acids and then measured their pH. The powerful reducing agent of the four metals is
result would show that the A. Cu B. Fe
A. pH values are equal C. Ba D. Zn
B. HCl solution has higher pH
C. Sum of the pH values is 14 25. The oxidation states of chlorine in HOCl, HClO3 and
D. Ethanoic acid solution has a higher pH. HClO4 are respectively
A. -1, +5 and +7
19. B. –1 ,-5 and 7
C. +1, +3 and +4
D. +1, +5 and +7

26. A reaction takes place spontaneously if

A. ÄG = O
B. ÄS < O and ÄH > O
C. ÄH < TÄS
D. ÄG>O

28. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g),

H2O(g) and CO(g) in kJ mol-1 are –394, -242 and –110
respectively. What is the standard enthalpy change
For which salt in the graph above does the solubility for the reaction CO(g) + H2O CO2(g) + H2(g)?
increase most rapidly with rise in temperature A. -42 kJ mol-1
A. CaSO4 B. KNO3 B. +42 kJ mol-1
C. NaCl D. KCl C. –262 kJ mol-1
D. +262 kJ mol-1
20. NH3 + H3O NH4 + H2O. it may be deduced from
the reaction above that 29. 10 g of a solid is in equilibrium with its own vapour.
A. a redox reaction has occurred When 1 g of a small amount of solid is added, the
B. H3O+ acts as an oxidizing agent vapour pressure
C. H3O+ acts as an acid A. remain the same
D. Water acts as an acid B. drops
C. increase by 1%
21. 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide in 250 cm3 of solution D. increase by 99%
contains
A. 0.40 moles per dm3 30.
B. 0.10 moles per dm3
C. 0.04 moles per dm3
D. 0.02 moles per dm3

22. During the electrolysis of a salt of metal M, a current

of 0.05 A flow for 32 minutes 10 second and deposit
0.325 g of M. What is the charges of the metal ion?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
[M = 65,l = 96,500 C per mole of electron] In the diagram above, curve X represents the energy
profile for a homogeneous gaseous reaction. Which
23. Which of the following reactions occurs at the anode of the following conditions would produce curve Y
during the electrolysis of a very dilute aqueous for the same reaction?
solution of sodium chloride? A. increase in temperature
A. OH –CH OH B. increase in the concentration of a rectant
B. Cl- - e- Cl C. addition of a catalyst
C. OH + Cl- HCl D. increase in pressure.
D. Na+ + e- Hg Na/Hg amalgam
31. NaCl(s) + H2SO4(1) HCl(g) + NaHSO4(s). In the
24. Half – cell reaction E0 reaction above. H2SO4 behaves as
Cu2+(aq) + 2e Cu(s) +0.34V A. a stron acid
Fe2+(aq) + 2e Fe -0.44V B. an oxiding agent
Ba2+(aq) + 2e Ba(s) -2.90V C. a good solvent
Zn2+(aq) + 2e Zn(s) -0.76V D. a dehydrating agent.
32. Which of these salts will produce its metal, oxygen and 40.
nitrogen(1V) oxide on heating? H
A. Silver trioxonitrate(V)
B. Sodium trioxonitrate (V) H2N CH C OH
C. Calcium trioxonitrate (V) The two functional groups in the above compound
D. Lithium trioxonitrate (V) are.
A alcohol and amine
33. An experiment produces a gaseous mixture of carbon B. acid and amine
(1V) oxide and carbon(11) Oxide. In order to obtain C. aldehyde and acid
pure carbon (11) oxide, the gas mixture should be D. ketone and mine
A. passed over heated copper(11) oxide
B. bubbled through concentrated 41. The fraction of crude oil used as jet fule is
tetraoxosulphate(V1) acid A. refinery gas
C. bubbled through sodium hydroxide solution B. diesel oil
D. bubbled through water. C. kerosene
D. gasoline
34. Which of the following is property of ionic chlorides?
A. They can be decomposed heat. 42. CH3CHCH2CHCH2CH3
B. They react with aqueous AgNO3 to give q
white precipitate which is soluble in excess CH3 CH3.
ammonia The IUPAC nomenclature for the compound above is.
C. They explode when in contact with dry A. dimethylhexane
ammonia gas B. 3,5 dimethlpentane
D. They react with concentrated C. 1,1 dimethyl , 3 methylpentane
tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid to give white D. 2,4 dimethylhexane.
fumes of chlorides gas
43. It is not desirable to use lead tetraethyl as an anti-
35. When dilute aqueous solutions of (11) nitrate and knock agent because
potassium bromide are mixed, a precipitate is A. it is expensive
observed. The products of this reaction are. B. of pollution effects from the exhaust fumes
A. PbO(s) + Br- (aq) + KNO3 C. it lowers the octane rating of petrol
B. Br2 + NO2(g) + PbBr2(s) D. it is explosive.
C. PbO(s) PbO(s) + K+(aq) + Br(aq) +NO2(g)
D. PbBr2(s) + K+(aq) + NO3(aq) 44. The carbon atoms on ethane are
A. sp2 hybridized
36. Bronze is an alloy will react to B. sp3 hybridized
A. Silver and copper C. sp2d hybridized
B. Silver and gold D. sp hybridized.
C. Copper and nickel
D. Copper and zinc 45. Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene produces
A. an aromatic hydrocarbon
37. Copper metal will react with concentrated B. margarine
trioxonitrate (V) acid to give C. cyclohexane
A. Cu(NO3)3 + NO + N2O4 + H2O D. D.D.T
B. Cu(NO3)2 + NO + H2O
C. CuO +NO2 + H2O 46. O O
D. Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O
CH3 C-OCH2CH2 and CH3CH2CH2 C-OH are
38. The active reducing agent in the blast furnace for the A. isomers
extraction of iron is B. esters
A. carbon B. limestone C. carboxylic acids
C. carbon (11) oxide D. calcium oxide D. polymers.

39. Al2O3(s) + 3H2SO4(aq)=Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2O(1) 47. Palm wine turns sour with time because.
Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH(aq) + 3H2O (1) ’! 2NaAl(OH)4(aq). A. the sugar content is converted into alcohol
We can conclude from the equations above that B. the carbon(1V) oxide formed during the
Al2O3(s) is fermentation process has a sour taste
A. an acidic oxide C. it is commonly adulterated by the tappers
B. an amphoteric oxide and sellers
C. a basic oxide D. microbial activity results in the production
D. a neutral oxide of organic acids within it.
48 49. Which of the represents Saponification?
A. reaction of carboxylic acids with sodium
hydroxide
B. reaction of Alkanoates with acids
C. reaction of carboxylic acids with sodium
alcohols
D. reaction of Alkanoates with sodium
hydroxide.

50. The confirmatory test for Alkanoic acids in organic

qualitative analysis is the
A. turning of wet blue litmus paper red
B. reaction with alkanols to form esters
C. reaction with sodium hydroxide to foem salt
The function of the copper (11) tetraoxosulphate (V1) and water
in dilute H2SO4 in the figure above is to D. reaction with aqueous Na2CO3 to liberate a
A. Dry the gas gas which turns lime water milky.
B. Absorb phosphine impurity]
C. Absorb ethene impurity
D. Form an acetylide with ethyne.

Chemistry 2 0 1 2
1. A mixture of sand, ammonium chloride and sodium
chloride is best separated by 6. For a gas, the relative molecular mass is equal to 2Y.
A. sublimation followed by addition of water What is Y?
and filtration A. The mass of the gas
B. sublimation followed by addtion of water B. The vapour density of the gas
and evaporation C. The volume of the gas
C. addition of water followed by filtration and D. The temperature of the gas
sublimation
D. addition odf water followed by 7. The densities of two gases, X and Y are 0.5 g dm-3 and
crystallization and sublimation. 2.0 g dm-3 respectively. What is the rate of diffusion of
X relative to Y?
2. A pure solid usually melts A. 0.1 B. 0.5
A. over a wide range of temperature C. 2.0 D. 4.0
B. over a narrow range of temperature
C. at a lower temperature than the impure one 8. An increase in temperature curves causes an increase
D. at the same temperature as the impure one. in the pressure of a gas because
A. it decreases the number of Collision between
3 At the same temperature and pressure, 50 cm 3 of the molecules
nitrogen gas contains the same number of molecules B. the molecules of the gas bombard the walls of
as the container more frequently
A. 25 cm3 of methane C. it increase the number of Collision between
B. 40 cm3 of hydrogen the molecules
C. 50 cm 3 of ammonia D. it causes the molecules to combine
D. 100 cm3 of chlorine
9. The shape of ammonia molecules is
4. 8 g CH4 occupies 11.2dm3 at s.t.p. What volume would A. trigonal planar
22 g of CH3CH2CH occupy under the sme condition? B. octahedral
A. 3.7 dm3 B. 11.2 dm3 C. square planar
3
C. 22.4 dm D. 33.6 dm3 D. tetrahedral.
[ C= 12, H =1]
10. The number of electrons in the valence shell of an
5. To what temperature must a gas 273 K be heated in element of atomic number 14 is
order to double both its volume and pressure? A. 1 B. 2
A. 298 K B. 546 K C. 3 D. 4
C. 819K D. 1092 K
11. Which of the following physical properties decreases 17. A major effect of oil pollution in coastal water is the
down a group ion the periodic table? A. destruction of marine life
A. Atomic radius B. desalination of water
B. Ionic radius C. increase in the acidity of the water
C. Electropositivity D. detoxification of the water.
D. Electronegativity.
18. Sodium chloride has no solubility product value
because of its.
A. saline nature
12 B. high solubility
C. low solubility
D. insolubility
Nucleus
19. The solubility in moles per dm3 of 20.2g of potassium
An Electron trioxonitrate (V) dissolved in 100g of water at room
temperature is
A. 0.10
B. 0.20
The diagram above represents atom of C. 1.00
A. Mangnesium D. 2.00
B. Helium [K = 39, O = 16, N = 14]
C. Chlorine
D. Neon 20. A few drops of concentrated PCl are added to about
10cm3 of a solution of pH 3.4. The pH of the resulting
13. Elements X, Y and Z belongs to groups 1,V and V11 mixture is
respectively. Which of the following is TRUE about A. less than 3.4
the bond types of XZ and YZ B. greater than 3.4
A. Both are electrovalent C. unaltered
B. Both are covalent D. the same as that of pure water
C. XY is electrovalent and YZ3 is covalent
D. XZ is covalent and YZ3 is electrovalent. 21. Which of the following compounds is a base?
A. CO2
14. Which of the following atoms represents deuterium? B. CaO
‘ No of No of No of C. H3PO3
protons neutrons electrons D. CH3COOH
A. 1 0 0
B. 1 0 1 22. 20cm3 of a 2.0 M solution of ethanoic acid was added to
C. 1 1 1 excess of 0.05 M sodium hydroxide. The mass of the
D. 1 2 1 salt produced is
A. 2.50 g
15. B. 2.73 g
C. 3.28 g
D. 4. 54 g
[Na = 23, C =12, O = 16, H = 1]

23. What volume of oxygen measured at s.t.p would be

liberated on electrolysis by 9650 coulombs of
electricity?
A. 22.4 dm3
B. 11.2 dm3
The set-up above would be useful for determining the C. 1.12 dm3
amount of D. 0.560 dm3
A. Oxygen in air [Molar Volume of gas = 22.4 dm3, F = 96,500 C mol-1]
B. Water vapour in air
C. CO2 in air 24. Crude copper could be purified by the electrolysis of
D. Argon in air. concentrated copper911) chloride if the crude copper
is
16. A solid that absorbs water from the atmosphere and
A. made both the anode and the cathode
forms an aqueous solution is
B. made the cathode
A. hydrophilic
C. made the anode
B. efflorescent
D. dissolved in the solution.
C. deliquescent
D. hygroscopic
25. H-(s) + H2O(1) H2(g) + OH-(aq). From the equation 31. Which of the following are produced when ammonium
above, it can be inferred that the trioxonirate(V) crystals are cautiously heated in a hard
A. reaction is a double decomposition glass round bottomed flask?
B. hydride ion is reducing agent A. N2O and steam
C. hydride ion is an oxidizing agent B. NO2 and ammonia
D. reaction is neutralization. C. N2O4 and NO2
D. NO and NO2

26 32. 2HCl(aq) + CaCO3(s) CaCl2(aq) + H2O(10 + CO2g).

From the reaction above, which of the following curves
represents the consumption of calcium
trioxocarbonate(lV) as dilute HCl is added to it?

The H for the reaction represented by the energy

profile above is
A. -100 kJ mol-1
B. +100 kJ mmol-1
C. +50kJ mol-1
D. –50 kJ mol-1 A. L B. M
C. N D. P
27. An anhydride is an oxide of a non-metal.
A. Which will not dissolve in water 33.
B. whose solution water has pH greater than7
C. whose solution in water has a pH less than 7
D. whose solution in ware has a pH of 7

28. MnO4(aq) + 8H +(aq) + Fe2+(aq) Mn2+(aq) +5Fe3+ +

4H2O(1). The oxidation number of manganese in the
above reaction change from
A. +7 to +2 B. +6 to +2
C. +5 to +2 D. +4 to +2

29.
In the diagram above, R is a mixture of
A. potassium tetraoxochlorate(Vii) and
concentrated H2SO4
B. potassium tetraoxomanganate (vii) and
concentrated HCl
C. manganese(1V) oxide and concentrated HCl
D. manganese (1V) oxide and concentrated HCl

In the diagram above, the activation energy is 34. Which of these metals CANNOT replace hydrogen
represented by from alkaline solutions?
A. y-x B. x A. Aluminium
C. x-z D. y B. Zinc
C. Tin
30. Which of the following is TRUE of Le Chatelier’s D. Iron
principle for an exothermic reaction?
A. Increase in temperature will cause an increase 35. Clothes should be properly rinsed with water after
in equilibrium constant bleaching because
B. Increase in temperature will cause a decrease A. the bleach decolourizes the clothes
in the equilibrium constant B. chlorine reacts with fabrics during bleaching
C. Addition of catalyst will cause an increase in C. the clothes are sterilized during bleaching
the equilibrium constant. D. hydrogen chloride solution is produced
C. Addition of catalyst will cause a decrease in during bleaching.
the equilibrium constant.
36. Which of these solutions will give a white precipate 45. When sodium ethanoate is treated with a few drops of
with a solution of barium chloride acidified with concentrated tetraoxosulphate(V1) acid one of the
hydrochloride acid? products is
A. Sodium trioxocarbonate(1V) A. CH3COOH
B. Sodium tetraoxosulphate B. CH3COOH3
C. Sodium trioxosulphate (1V) C. CH3COOC2H5
D. Sodium sulphides D. C2H4COOCH

37. SO3 is NOT directly dissolved in water in the 46. One mole of a hydrocarbon contains 48 g of carbon.
preparation of H2SO4 by the contact process If its vapour density is 28, the hydrocarbon is
because. A. an alkane
A. the reaction between SO3 and water is B. an alkene
violently exotheremic C. an alkyne
B. acid is usually added to water and never D. aromatic
water to acid [C= 12, H = 1]
C. SO3 is an acid not dissolve in water readily
D. SO3 is an acid gas. Use the diagram below to answer questions 47 and 48.

38. In an electrolytic set-up to protect iron from

corrosion, the iron is
A. made the cathode
B. made the anode
C. used with a metal of lower electropositive
potential
D. initially coated with tin

39. Which of the following is NOT true of metals?

A. They are good conductors of electricity The reaction taking place in flask G is known as
B. They ionize by electron loss A. hydrolysis
C. Their oxides are acidic B. double decomposition
D. They have high melting points. C. dehydration
D. pyrolysis
40. Which of the following is the correct order of
decreasing activity of the metal Fe, Ca, Al and Na? 48. The caustic soda solution in the conical flask serves to
A. Fe > Ca > Al > Na A. dry ethene
B. Na > Ca > Al > Fe B. remove carbon (1V) oxide from ethene
C. Al > Fe > Na > Ca C. remove carbon (11) oxide from ethene
D. Ca > Na > Fe > Al. D. remove sulphur (1V0 oxide from ethene.

41. H CH3 H H 49. Which of the following orbital of carbon are mixed
with hydrogen in methane?
H¯C ¯ C¯ C P- C A. 1s and 2p
B. 1s and 2s
H CH3 C. 2s and 2p
H D. 2s and 3p
The IUPAC name of the compound above is
A. 2,2-dimethyl but-1-yne 50. Which of the following reagents will confirm the
B. 2,2-dimethyl but-1-ene presence of instaurations in a compound?
C. 3,3-dimethyl but-1-ene A. Fehling’s solution
D. 3,3-dimethyl but-1-yne B. Bromine water
C. Tollen’s reagent
43. When sodium is added to ethanol, the products are D. Benedict’s solution
A. sodium hydroxide and water
B. sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
C. sodium ethnocide and water
D. sodium ethnocide and hydrogen.

44. The general formula of alkanones is

A. RCHO
B. R2CO
C. RCOOH
D. RCOOR
Chemistry 2 0 1 3
1. Chromatography is used to separate components of
mixtures which differ in their rates of 10. Which letter represents a non-metal that is a solid at
A. diffusion B. migration room temperature?
C reaction D. sedimentation. A. T B. R.
C. J. D. X.
2. Which of the following is an example of chemical 11. In the oil drop experiment, Milikan determined the
change? A. charge to mass ratio of the electron
A. Dissolution of salt in water. B. mass of the electron
B. Rusting of iron C. charge of the electron
C. Melting of ice. D. mass of the proton.
D. Separating a mixture by distillation.
12. The stability of ionic solids is generally due to the
3. The number of hydrogen ions in 4.9 g of A. negative electron affinity of most atoms
tetraoxosulphate (VI) acids is B. crystal lattice forces
A. 3.01 x 1022 B. 6.02 x 1022 C. electron pair sharing
23
C. 3.01 x 10 D. 6.02 x 1022. D. positive ionization potentials.
(S = 32, O = 16, H =1, NA = 6.02 x 1023).
4. What volume of oxygen will remain after reacting 8 cm3 13. Which of the following statements is FALSE about
of hydrogen with 20 cm3 of oxygen? isotopes of the same element?
A. 10 cm3 B. 12 cm3 A.They have the same number of electrons in their
C. 14 cm3
D. 16 cm3. outermost shells.
B. they have different atomic masses.
5. A gas sample with initial volume of 3.25 dm3 is heated C. They have the same atomic number and the same
and allowed to expand to 9.75 dm3 is heated and number of electrons.
allowed to expand to 9.75 dm3 at constant pressure. D. they have the same atomic number but different
What is the ratio of the final absolute temperature to number of electrons.
the initial absolute temperature?
A. 3:1 B. 5:2 C. 5:4 14. Helium is often used in observation balloons because
D. 8:3 it is
6. Two cylinders A and B each contains 30 cm3 of oxygen A. light and combustible
and nitrogen respectively at the same temperature and B. light and non-combustible
pressure. If there are 5.0 moles of nitrogen, then the C. heavy and combustible
mass of oxygen is D. heavy and non-combustible.
A. 3.2 g B. 6.4g
C. 80.0g D. 160.0g. 15. When plastic and packaging materials made from
7. A liquid begins to boil when chloromethane are burnt in the open, the mixture of
A. its vapour pressure is equal to vapour pressure of gases released into the atmosphere is most likely to
its solid at the given temperature contain
B. molecules start escaping from its surface A. ethane B. chlorine
C. its vapour pressure equals the atmosheric pressure C. hydrogen chlorine D. ethane.
D. its volume is slightly increased.
8. A particle that contains 8 protons, 9 neutrons and 7 16. Deliquescent substances are also
electrons could be written as A. efflorescent B. anhydrous
A. 16
O B. 17
O+ C. hydroscopic D. insoluble.
8 8
17 + 17
C. 9
O D. 8
O.
17. The difference between colloids and suspensions is
Use the section of the periodic table brought out clearly by the fact that while colloids
below to answer questions 9 and 10. A. do not scatter light, suspensions cannot be
1 L so separated
2
G X 5 6 7 J E 10 B. can be separated by filteration, suspension
3 8 9
11 M R 14 15 T 17 18 cannot be separated
12 13 16
C. can be separated by a membrane, suspensions
9. Which of the letters indicate an alkali metal and a noble cannot
gas respectively? D. do not settle out on standing, suspensions
A. M and E. B. G and E. do.
C. R and L. D. G and L. 18. In general, an increase in temperatue increases the
solubility of a solute in water because
A. more solute molecules collide with each other
B. most solutes
dissolve with the evolution of heat B. Condensation of water vapour.
C. more solute molecules dissociate at higher C. Boiling a sampled of water
temperature D. Cooling a saturated solution.
D. most solutes dissolve with absorption of
heat. 30. Which of the following equibrai is shifted to the
19. Neutralization involves a reaction between H3O+ and right as a result of an increase in pressure?
A. CI- B. OH- C. A. H2(g) + I2(g) 2H(g)
NO3- D. 2-
CO3 . B.2N2O2(g) N2O4(g)
20. Which of the following solutions will have a pH < 7? C.PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
A. Na2SO4(aq) B. NaCI(aq) D. 2O3(g) 3O2(g) .
C. Na2CO3(aq) D. NH4CI(aq). 31. The arrangement above can be used for the collection of
21. What is the pH of a 2.50 x 10-5 M solution of sodium A. sulphur (IV) oxide
hydroxide? B. ammonia
A. 3.6 B. 5.0 C. nitrogen
C. 9.4 D. 12.0. D. hydrogen chloride.
14

12
32.
10

25VOL OF BASE

22. The graph above shows the pH changes for the titration
of a
A. strong acid versus strong base
B. weak acid versus strong base The activation energy of the uncatalysed reaction is
C. strong acid versus weak base. A. x
D. weak acid versus weak base. B. x+ y
23. In the process of silver-plating a metal M, the metal M C. x- y
is the D. y
A. anode and a direct current is used 33. It can be deduced that the rate of the reaction
B. cathode and an alternating current is used A. for path I is higher than path II
C. anode and an alternating current is used. B. for path II is higher than path I
D. cathode and a direct current is used. C. is the same for both paths at all
24. How many moles of copper would be deposited by temperatures
passing 3F of electricity through a solution of copper D. depends on the values of both x and y at all
(II) tetraoxosulphate (VI)? pressures.
A. 0.5 B. 1.0
C. 1.5 D. 3.0 34. In the industrial production of hydrogen from natural
(F = 96 500 C mol-1). gas, carbon (IV) oxide produced along with the
25. 2Cl-(aq) ’!CI2(g) = 2e-(aq). The above half-cell reaction hydrogen is removed by
occurring at the anode during the electrolysis A. washing under pressure
of dilute ZnCI2 solution is B. passing the mixture into the lime water
A. ionization B. oxidation C. using ammoniacal copper (I) chloride
C. reduction. D. recombination. D. drying over phosphorus (V) oxide.
26. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
A. KCI(ag) + H2SO4(aq) KHSO4(aq) + HCI(aq) 35. Sulpur exists in six forms in the solid state. This property
B. 2FeBr2(ag) + Br2( !2FeBr3(aq) is known as
C.
AgNO3(ag) + FeCI3 !3AgCl(aq) + CO Fe(NO3)3(aq) A. isomerism B. allotrophy
D. H2CO3(aq) H2O(l) + CO2(g). C. isotopy D. isomorphism.
27. Cr2O72-(aq) + 14H+(ag) + 6I-(aq) ’! 2Cr3+(ag) + 3I2(g) + 7H2O(1)+.
The change in the oxidation number of oxygen in the 36. A gas that will turn orange potassium
equation above is heptaoxodichromate (VI) solution to clear green is
A. O. B. 1 C. 2 D. 7. A. sulpur (VI) oxide
28. If an equilibrium reaction has “H < O, the reaction will B. hydrogen sulphide
proceed favourably in the forward reaction at C. sulpur (IV) oxide
A. low temperature D. hydrogen Chloride.
B. high temperatures
C. all temperatures 37. Which of the following ions will give a white precipitate
D. all pressures. with aqueous NaOH and soluble in excess of the base?
29. Which of the following processes lead to increase in A. Ca2+ B. Mg2
2+
entrophy? C. Zn D. Cu2+.
A. mixing a sample of NaCl and sand
38. In the extraction of iron in the blast furnace, limestone 45. Aromatic and aliphatic hydrocarbons can be
is used to distinguished from each other by the
A. release CO2 for the reaction A. action of bromine
B. reduce the iron B. use of polymerization reaction.
C. Increase in the strenght of Iron C. Action of heat
D. remove impurities. D. Use of oxidation reaction

39. Which of the following compound will impart a brick- 46. The role of sodium chloride in the preparation of soap
red colour to a non-luminous Busen flame? is to
A. NaCl B. LiCl A. purify the soap
C. CaCl2 D. MgCl . B. separate the soap from glycerol
C. accelerate the decomposition of the fat or oil
40.. Group 1 A metals are not found free in nature because D. react with glycerol.
they O
A. are of low melting and boiling points CH3CH2=CH2- C - H
B. have weak metallic bonding
C. conduct electricity and heat 47. The functional group represented in the compound
D. are very reactive. above is
A. alkanol B. alkanal
41. CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH Conc H2SO X + Y. X and Y in the C. alkanone D. alkanoate
reaction of above are respectively
A. CH3 COCH3 and H2O 48. CxHy + 4O2 3CO2 + 2H2O. The hydrocarbon,
B. CH3 CH2 COCH2 and H2O2 Cx Hy in the reaction above is
C. CH3 COOCH2 CH3 and H2O3 A. propane B. propene
D. CH3CH2 CHO and CH4. C. propyne D. propanone.

42 CHCl3 + Cl2 HCl + CCl4. The reaction above is an 49. An example of a secondary amine is
example of A. propylene B. di-butylamine
A. an addition reaction C . methylamine D. trimethylamine.
B. a substitution reaction
C. chlorination reaction 50. The relatively high boiling points of alkanol are due to
D. a condensation reaction. A. ionic bonding
B. aromatic character
43. CH3 – CH –CH = CH –CH3 CH 3. The IUPAC C. covalent bonding
nomenclature for the compound above is D. hydrogen bonding.
A. 1.1-dimenthyilbut –ene
B. 2-methlypnet 3 –ene
C. 4,4 –dimethy –1but –2 –ene
D. 4 –methylpent –2 –ene .

44. Which of the following pairs has compounds that are

isomers?
A. propanal and propanone
B. ethanoic acid and ethylmethanoate
C. ethanoic acid and thane –1 ,2 –diol
D. 2 –methylbutnae and 2,2 –dimethylbutane

Chemistry 2 0 1 4
1. 35 cm3 of hydrogen was sparked with 12cm3 of 2. 2.85 g of an oxide of copper gave 2.52g of copper on
oxygen at 110o C and 760 mm Hg to produce steam. reduction and 1.90 g of another oxide gave 1.52 g of
What percentage of the total volume gas left after the copper on reduction. The data above illustrates the
reaction is hydrogen law of
A. 11% B. 31%
C. 35% D. 69% A. constant composition
B. conservation of mass
C. reciprocal proportions
D. multiple proportions.
Use the graph below to answer question 3 and 4 10. In the periodic table, what is the property that decrease
along the period and increases down the group
A. Atomic number
B. Electron affinity.
C. Ionization potential
D. Atomic radius.

11. Two elements, P and Q with atomic numbers 11 and 8

respectively, combine chemically values of x and y are
A. 1 and 1 B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 1 D. 3 and 1

12. Oxygen is a mixture of two isotopes 168 O and 18 8 O with

relative abundance of 90% and 10% respectively. The
A sample, X, solid at room temperature, was melted, relative atomic mass of oxygen
heated to a temprature of 358 K and allowed to cool as A. 16.0 B. 16.2
shown in OPQR. C. 17.0 D. 18.0
3. The section PQ indicate that X is
13. 200cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe
A. a mixture of salt
several times to produce copper (11) oxide. When
B. a hydrated salt
cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158cm3.
C. an ionic salt
Estimate the percentage of oxygen in the air.
D. a pure compound.
A. 31% B. 27%
4.. The section OP suggests that X is in the C. 21% D. 19%
A. Liquid state
B. Solid/liquid state 14. Which of the following gases is the most dangerous
C. Solid state pollutant
D. Gaseous state. A. Hydrogen sulphide
5. An element, X, format a volatile hydride XH3 with a B. Carbon (1V) oxide
vapour density of 17.o. The relation mass of X is C. Sulphur (1V) oxide
A. 34.0 B. 31.0 D. Carbon (11) oxide
C. 20.0 D. 14.0
15. A major process involve in the softening of hard water
6. A mixture of 0.20 mole of Ar, 0.20 mole of N2 and 0.30 is the
mole of He exerts a total pressure of 2.1 atm. The partial A. conversion of a soluble calcium salt to its
pressure of He in the mixture is trioxocarbonate (1V)
A. 0.90 atm B. 0.80 atm B. decomposition of calcium trioxocarbonate
C. 0.70 atm D. 0.60 atm (1V)
7. If 30cm3 of oxygen diffuses through a porous plug in C. conversion of an insoluble calcium salt to its
7s, how long will it take 60 cm3 of chlorine to diffuse trioxocrbonate (1V)
through the same plug D. oxidation of calcium atom to its ions.
A. 12 s B. 14 s
C. 21 s D. 30 s 16. On recrystallization, 20g of magnesium tetraoxosulphate
(V1) forms 41 g of magnesium tetraoxosulphate (1V)
8. The temperature of a body decreases when drops of liquid crystals, MgSO4.yH2O. The value of y is
placed on it evaporates because A. 1 B. 3
A. the atmospheric vapour pressure has a cooling effect C. 5 D. 7
on the body (Mg = 24, S=32, O=16, H= 1)
B. a temperature gradient exists between the drops of
liquid and the body 17 A satyrated solution of AgCI was found to have a
C. the heat of vapourization is drawn from the concentration of 1.30 x 100-5 mol dm-3. The solution
bodycausing it to cool product of AgCI. therefore is.
D. the random motion of the liquid molecules causes a A. 1.30x 10-5 mol 2 dm-6
cooling effect on the body. B. 1.30 x 10-7 mol2 dm-6
C. 1.69 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
9. The electron configuration of two elements with similar D. 2.60 x 10-12 mol2 dm –6
chemical properties are represented by
A. Is22s2 2p5 and Is22s22p4 18. The hydroxyl ion concentration, (OH-), in a solution of
B. Is22s2 2p4 and Is22s22p63s1 sodium hydroxide of pH 10.0 is
C Is22s22p63s1 and Is22sI A. 10-10 mol dm-3
D. Is22s2 2p4 and Is22sI B. 10-6 mol dm-3
C. 10-4 mol dm-3
D. 10-2 mol dm-3
19. Which of the aqueous solution with the pH values below 28. One method of driving the positon of equilibrium of an
will liberate hydrogen when it reacts with magnesium endothermic reaction forward is to
metal? A. increase temperature at constant pressure
A. 13.0 B. 7.0 B. decrease pressure at constant temperature
C. 6.5 D. 3.0 C. cool down the apparatus with water
D. decrease temperature at constant pressure.
20. Given that 15.00cm3 of H2SO4 was required to
completely neutralize 25.00 cm3 of 0.125 mol dm-3 NaOH, 29. Oxidation of concentrated hydrochloric acid with
calculate the molar concentration of the acid solution. manganese(1V) oxide liberates a gas used in the
A. 0.925 mol dm-3 B. 0.156 mol dm-3 A. manufacture of tooth pastes
C. 0.104 mol dm-3 D. 0.023 mol dm –3 B. treatment of simple goiter
C. valcanization of rubber
21. When platinum electrodes are used during the D. sterilization of water.
electrolysis of copper (11) tetraoxosulphate (1V)
solution, the solution gets progressively 30. mE + nF pG + qH
A. acidic B. basic In the equation above, the equlibrium constant is given
C. neutral D. amphoteric by
A. (E)m(F)n
22. How many faradays of electricity are required to deposit
0.20 mole of nickel, if 0.10 faraday of electricity (G)p(H)q
deposited 2.98 g of nickel during electrolysis of its
aqueous solution? B. (E)(F)
A. 0.20 B. 0.30
C. 0.40 D. 0.50 (G) (H)

( Ni =058.7, IF=96 500C mol-1) C. (G)p(H)q

23. What is the oxidation unmber of Z in K3 ZCI6 ?
A. -3 B. +3 (E)m(F)n
C. –6 D. +6
24. 2H2S(g) + SO2(g) +H2O(1) 3S (s) +3H2O(1)…. (I) D. (G)(H)
3CuO(s) + 2NH3 (g) 3Cu(s)+3H2)(1)+N2(g)… (ii)
In the equation above, the oxidizing agent in (I) and the (E) (F)
reducing agent in (ii) respectively are
A H2S and NH3 31. A compound that will NOT produce oxygen on heating is
B SO2 and CuO A. potassium dioxonitrate (111)
C. SO2 and NH3 B. lead (1V) oxide
D. H2S and CuO C. potassium trioxochlorate (V)
D. potassium trioxochlorate (V)
25. 2SO 2(g)+O2(g) 2 SO3(g)
In the reaction above, the standard heats of formation 32. Coal gas is made up to carbon (11) oxide, hydrogen and
of SO2(g) and SO3(g) are –297 kJ mol-1 and –396 kJ mol-1 A. nitrogen B. air
respectively. C. argon D. methane
The heat change of the reaction is
A. -99 kJ mol-1 B. –198 kJ mol-1 33.
C. +198 kJ mol-1 D. +683 kJ mol-1

26. ½ N2(g) +1/2 O2(g); H- = 89 kJ mol-1

If the entropy change for the reaction above at 25oC is
11.8 J, calculate the change in free energy, G , for the
reaction at 250C
A. 88.71 KJ
B. 85.48 kJ
C. –204.00 kJ
D. –3427.40 kJ
In the diagram above, the gas Y could be
27. If the rate law obtained for a given reaction is A. hydrogen chloride
rate=k(X)n(Y)m, what is the overall order of the B. oxygen
reaction? C. carbon (1V) oxide
A. nm D. chlorine.
B. n
m 34. 2X- (aq) + MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) X2(g) + Mn2+(aq) + 2H2O(1)
C. n+m
D. n-m
The reaction above can be used for the laboratory C. 3-ethyl-1, 1, 4-trimethypentane
preparation of all halogens except fluorine because it is D. 3-ethyl-2,5,5-trimethypentane
A. a poisonous gas
B. an oxidizing agent 42. The reaction of an alkanol with an alkanoic acid in the
C. electronegative in nature presence of concentrated H2SO4 will produce an
D. highly reactive. A. Alkanal
B. Alkanonate
35. The reaction that occurs during the laboratory test for C. Alkanone
the presence of tetraoxosulphate (V1) D. Alkayne.

A. SO2-4(aq) + Ba2+(aq) dilHNO3 BaSO4 43. The final product of the reaction of ethyne with
hydrogen iodide is
B. Cu(s) +4H+(aq) + 2SO2-4(aq) CuSO4(s) + 2H2O(1) A. CH3 CHI2
+SO2(g) B. CH2I CH21
C. CH3 CI3
C. 4H+(aq)+ 2SO2-4(aq) +2e- SO2-4(aq) +2H2O(1) D CH2 =CHI
+ SO2(g)
CH3
D. CuO(s) + 2H+(aq) + SO2-4(aq) CuSO4(aq)+H2O(1)
44. CH3CH2 C CH3
36. The removal of rust from iron by treatment with
tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid is based on the CH3
A. hydrolysis of the iron How many more isomers of the compound above can
B. reaction of acid with base be obtained?
C. oxidation of the rust A. 5 B. 4
D. dehydration of the iron. C. 3 D. 2

37. Which of the following additives could improve the 45. Synthesis detergents are preferred to soap for laundry
quality of steel? using hard water because
A. Silicon B. Sulphur and phosphorus A. detergent are water soluble while soap not
C. Carbon. D. Chromium and nickel. B. the calcium salts of detergent are water soluble
C. the magnesium salt of soap is soluble in hard
38. Sodium hydroxide is prepared commercially from water
sodium chloride solution by. D. soap does not have a hydrocarbon terminal
A. electrolysis using mercury as cathode chain.
B. hydrolysis in steam using a catal.yst
C. electrolysis using iron as anode 46. The synthetic rubber obtained by the polymerization
D. treating sodium chloride with ammonia and of chlorobutadiene in the presence of sodium is called
carbon (1V) oxide. A. Teflon B. Isoprene
C. Polythene D. Neoprene
39 A sample of a substance containing only C and H burns
in excess O2 to yield 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.7 g of H2O. The 47. 25cm3 of 0.02 M KOH neutralized 0.03 g of a monobasic
empirical formular of the substance is organic acid having the general formula CnH2n+1COOH.
A. CH3 B. CH2 The molecular formula of the acid is
C. CH4 D. C2H5 A. HCOOH B. C2H5COOH
(C= 12, O=16, H= 1) C. CH3COOH D. C3H7COOH
(C= 12, H=1, 0=16)
40. An undesirable paraffin in the petroleum industry which
is particularly prone to knocking is 48 When Fehling’s solution is added to two isomeric
A. iso-octane carbonyl compounds X and Y with the molecular formula
B. n-heptane C5H10O, compound X gives a red precipitate while Y
C. iso-heptane does not react. It can be inferred that X is
D. n-octane O
CH3
41. CH3 CH CH CH2 CH A .CH3 C CH2 CH2 CH3

CH3 CH2 CH3

CH3 B. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 C H

The IUPAC nomenclature of the organic compund with

the above structural formular is
A. 3-ethyl-2, 5-dimethylhexane
B. 4-ethyl-2, 5-dimethylexane
O A. sp3 hybridized carbon atoms only
B. sp3 hybridized carbon atoms only
C. CH3CH2 C CH2 C H C. sp3 and sp hybridized carbon atoms
D. sp3 and sp2 hybridized carbon atoms.
O
H H H O

D. CH3 CH C CH2CH3 50. H C C C C H

CH3 H H H CH3
The compound above is the product of the oxidation of
A. 2 – methylbutan – 2 - o1
CH3 B. 2 – methylbutan –1 - o1
49. C. 2,3 – dimenthylpropan – 1 – o1
D. Pentan –2 – o1

The compound above contains

Chemistry 2 0 1 5
6. A given amount of gas occupies 10.0 dm3 at 4 atm.
1. The addition of water to calcium oxide leads to and 2730C. The number of moles of the gas present is
A. a physical change
A. 0.089 mol
B. a chemical change
B. 1.90 mol
C. the formation of mixture
C. 3.80 mol
D. an endothermic change.
D. 5.70 mol
[Molar volume of gas at s.t.p.= 22.4 dm3 ]
2. A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by
dissolving the mixture in
7. If sulphur oxide and methane are released
A. steam
simultaneously at the opposite ends of narrow tube,
B. dilute hydrochloric acid
the rates of diffusion Rso2 and RCH4 will be in the ratio
C. dilute sodium hydroxide
A. 4:1 B. 2:1
D. benzene
C. 1:2 D. 1:4
[S=32, O= 16, C=12, H=1]
3. 8.0 g of an element X reacted with an excess of copper
(11) tetraoxosulphate (1V) solution to deposit 21.3 g of
8. A solid begins to melt when
copper. The correct equation for the reaction is
A. constituent particles acquire a greater kinetic
A. X(s) +CuSO4(aq) Cu(s) + XSO4(aq)
energy
B. X(s) +2CuSO4(aq) 2 Cu(s) + X(SO4)(aq)
B. energy of vibration of particles of the solid is
C. 2X(s) +2CuSO4(aq) Cu(s) + X2(SO4) (aq)
less than the intermolecular forces
D. 2X(s) +3CuSO4(aq) 3Cu(s) + X2(SO)3(aq)
C. Constituent particles acquire energy of the
above the average kinetic energy
4. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) 4H2O(g) +3CO2(G)
D. energy of vibration of particles of the solid
equals the intermolecular forces.
From the equation abovem the volume of oxygen at
9.
s.t.p. required to burn 50cm3 of propane is
A. 250cm3 B. 150cm3
3
C. 100cm D. 50cm3

5. 30cm3 of hydrogen was collected over water at 27oC

and 780 mm Hg. If the vapour pressure of water at the
temperature of the experiement was 10mm Hgm calcuale
the volume of the gas at 760mm Hg and 70C.
The diagram above represents an atom that can combine
A. 40.0cm3 B. 35.7cm3
3
C. 28.4cm D. 25.2cm3
with chlorine to form 17. 90.0 g of MgCI2 was placed in 50.0cm3 of water to give a
A. a convalent bond saturated solution at 298 K. If the solubility of the salt
B. an electrovalent bond is 8.0-mol dm-3 at the same temperature, what is the
C. a hydrogen bond mass of the salt felt undissolve at the given
D. a co-ordinate bond temperature?
A. 52.0 g B. 58.5 g
10. Which of the following electron configurations C. 85.5 g D. 88.5 g
indicates an atom with the highest ionization energy? [Mg = 24, CI=35.5]
A. 2, 8, 7 B. 2, 8, 8, 1
C. 2, 8, 8, 2 D. 2, 8, 8, 7 18. Soap leather is an example of a colloid in which a
A. Liquid is dispersed in gas
11. The lines observe in the simple hydrogen spectrum are B. Solid is dispersed in liquid
due to emission of C. Gas is dispersed in liquid
A. electron from the atom D. Liquid is dispersed in liquid.
B. energy by proton transition
C. energy by electron transition 19. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 100cm3 of a 0.1
D. neutrons from the atom M HCI solution with 100cm3 of a 0.2 M solution of
NaOH is
12 If an element X of atomic number Z and mass number Y A. 1.3 B. 7.0
is irradiated by an intense concentration of neutrons C. 9.7 D. 12.7
the relevant nuclear equation is
20. In the conductance of aqueous potassium
y
A. x
X + 1o n Y–1
X tetraoxosulphate (1V) solution, the current carriers are
Z+1
the
A. ions B. electrons
Y Y+ 1
B. Z
X + 1o n Z
X C. hydrated ions D. hydrated electrons

C. y
X + 1o n Y
X 21. What volume of 0.1 mol dm -3 solution of
Z Z+1
Z+1 tetraoxosulphate (1V) acid would be needed to dissolve
Y
X + 1o n Y+ 1
X 2.86 g of sodium trioxocarbonate (1V) decahydrate
Z Z-1
D. crystals?
A. 20 cm3 B. 40 cm3
C. 80 cm3 D. 100 cm3
[H=1, C=12, 0= 16,
13. The property used in obtaining oxygen and nitrogen S= 32, Na =23]
industrially from air is the
A. boiling point 22. 1.2 of electricity are passed through electrolytic cells
B. density containing Na+, Cu2+ and AI3+ in series. How many
C. rate of diffusion moles of each metal would be formed at the cathode of
D. solubility each cell?
A. 0.6 mole of Na, 1.2 moles of Cu and 1.2 moles
14. Excess phosphorus was burnt in gas jar and the residual of AI
gas passed successively over concentrated KOH B. 1.2 moles of Na, 0.6 mole of Cu and 0.4 mole of
solution and concentrated H2SO4 before being collected AI
in a flask. The gases collected are C. 1.3 mmoles of Na, 2.4 moles of Cu and 2.4 moles
A. carbon (1V) oxide nitrogen and the rare gases of AI
B. nitrogen (1V) oxide and the rare gases D. 1.2 moles of Na, 2.4 moles of Cu and 3.6 moles
C. nitrogen and the rare gases of AI
D. carbon (1V) oxide nitrogen (1V) oxide and the
rare gases. 23. What mass of gold is deposited during the electrolysis
of gold (111) tetraoxosulphate (V1)when a current of 15
15. Potassium tetraoxomanganate (v11) is often added to A is passed for 193 seconds?
impure water to A. 1.97 g B. 3.94 g
A. reduce organic impurities C. 5.91 g D. 19.70g
B. reduce inorganic impurities [Au = 97, F=96 5000C mol-1]
C. destroy bacteria and algae
D. remove permanent hardness. 24. Fe(s) + Cu 2+ (aq) Fe2+(aq) +Cu(s)
From the reaction above it can be inferred that
16. The soil around a battery manufacturing factory is likely A. Fe is the oxidizing agent
to contain a high concentration of B. Fe is reduced
A. Ca2+ salts B. Pb2+ salts C. Cu2+ loses electrons
2+
C. Mg salts D. AI3+ salts. D. Cu2+ is the oxidizing agent.
25. 2FeCI2(s) + CI2(g) 2FeCI3(s)
The reducing agent in the reaction above is 32. 3CuO(s) +2NH3(g) 3Cu(s) + 3H2O(1) + N2(g)
A. FeCI2 B. CI2 (i) 2NH3(s) + 3CI2(g) 6HCI(s) + N(1) + H2O
C. FeCI3 D. Fe (ii) 4NH3(s) + 3CI2(g) 6H2O(I) + 2N2(g) + HCl
The reactions represented by the equations above
26. The reaction that is accompanied by a decrease in demonstrate the
entropy when carried out constant temperature is A. basic properties of ammonia
A. N2O4(g) NO2 B. acidic properties of ammonia
B. N2 + 3H2 2NH3 C. reducing properties of ammonia
C. CaCO3 CaO + CO2 D. oxidizing properties of ammonia.
D. 2N2H4 3N2 + 4H2O
33. A gas that trun a filter paper previously soaked in
lead ethanoate solution black is
A. hydrogen chloride
27. 32g of anhydrous copper 11 tetraoxosulphate (1V) B. hydrogen sulphide
dissolved in 1 dm3 of water generated 13.0kJ of heat. C. sulphur (1V) oxide
The heat of solution is D. sulphur (VI) oxide.
A. 26.0 kJ mol-1 B. 65.0kJ mol-1
-1
C. 130.0kJ mol D. 260.0 kJ mol-1 34. A solution containing chloride gives a white precipitate
with silver trioxonirate (V) solution.
28. Mg2+(ag) + 2e-(aq) Eo (volts) = -2.370 The precipitate will be insoluble in dilute
Zn2+(ag) + 2e-(aq) Zn(s) Eo (volts) = -0.763 A. HNO3 but soluble in ammonia solution
Cd2+(ag) + 2e-(aq) Cd(s) Eo (volts) = -0.403 B. HNO3 and in ammonia solution
Cu2+(ag) + 2e-(aq) Cu(s) Eo (volts) = +0.403 C. HCI but soluble in ammonia solution
D. HCI and in ammonia solution.
In the electrochemical series above the strongest
reducing agent is 35.
A. Cu(s) B. Cd(s)
C. Zn (s) D. Mg (s)

29.

In the experiment above, X could be a solution of

A. Sodium, trioxonirate (V) and ammonium
chloride
B. Sodium trioxonirate (111) and ammonium
chloride
C. lead (11) trioxonirate (V) and copper turnings
In the diagram above, the activation energy for the
D. potassium, trioxonirate (V) and copper
backward reaction is
turnings.
A. +5 kJ B. +15 kJ
C. +25kJ D. +30kJ
36. The oxide that remains unchanged when heated in
hydrogen is
30. 2X(g) + Y(g) Z(g)
A. CuO B. Fe2O3
In the equation above the rate of formation of Z is
C. PbO2 D. ZnO
found to be independent of the concentration of Y and
to quadruple when rate equation for the reaction is
A. R = k [X][Y]
B. R= k [X]2 [Y]
C. R = k [X]2 [Y]2
D. R = k [X]2 [Y]0
31. 2CI2(g) + 2H2O(g) 4HCI(g) +O2(g) Ho = +115kJ mol-1
In the above equilibrium reaction a decrease in
temperature will.
A. favour the reverse reaction
B. favour the forward reaction
C. have no effect on the equilibrium state
D. double the rate of the reverse reaction
40. Alloys are often used in preference to pure metals bacause 46. How many structural isomers can be drawn for the non-
A. metals are too hard cyclic alkanol with molecular formula C4H10O
B. metals are ductile A. 1 B. 2
C. metallic properties are improved in alloys C. 3 D. 4
D. alloys are a mixture of metals.
47. On cracking medicinal paraffin, a gas is evolved which
gives a pop sound with a lighted splinter and a oily
OH liquid which decolourizes bromine solution is also
obtained. The products of the cracking are
41. CH3 CH2 CHCH(CH3)2 A. carbon (1V) oxide and alkyne
B. carbon (11) oxide and alkane
The IUPAC nomenclature for the above compound is C. hydrogen gas and alkane
A. 4-methylpentan –3-ol D. hydrogen gas and alkane
B. 2-methylpentan –3-0l
C. 3- methylpentan –3 –0l 48. An example of aromatic compound is
D. 1,1-dimenthylbutan-2-0l A. CH6H13OH
B. C6H13CI
42. Dehydration of CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH gives C. C6H5OH
D. C6H14
A. CH2 - CH - CH - CH2 - CH3
B. CH3CH- CH - CH2 - CH3 49. Terylene is synthesized from ethane –1, 2- diol and
C. H - C - C - CH2 - CH3 benzene –1, 4- dicarboxylic acid by
D. CH3 C - C -CH3 A. addition reaction
B. consensation reaction
43. nCH2 =CH2 O2 (initiator) ( CH2 CH2 CH2 C. elimination reaction
D. substitution reaction.
The above equation represents the manufacture of
A. rubber B. polythene 50. Which of the following is true concerning the properties
C. polystyrene D. butane of benezene and hexane?
A. Both undergo subtitution reaction.
44. One mole of a hydrocarbon contains 6 g of hydrogen. B. Both undergo addtion reaction
If the molecular weight is 54, the hydrocarbon is an. C. Both are solids
A. alkanone B. alkane D. Both can decolourize bromine water.
C. alkene D. alkyne

45. The products obtained when a pure hydrocarbon is

burn in excess oxygen are
A. carbon and hydrogen
B. carbon and water
C. carbon (11) oxide and hydrogen
D. carbon (1V) oxide and water.

Chemistry 2 0 1 6
1. 200 cm3 each of 0.1 M solution of lead (11) trioxonirate 3. Which of the following gases will diffuse fastest
(V) and hydro chlorioc acid were mixed. Assuming that when passed through a porous plug?
lead (11) chloride is completely insoluble, calculate the A. Propane B. Oxygen
mass of lead (11) chloride that will be precipate. C. Methane D. Ammonia
A. 2.78 g B. 5.56 g [H = 1, C = 12, N= 14, O = 16]
C. 8.34 g D. 11.12 g
[Pb = 207, CI = 35.5, N = 14, O = 16] 4. Which of the following will have its mass increased
when heated in air?
2. 56.00cm3 of a gas at s.t.p weighed 0.11 g, What is the A. Helium B. Magnesium
vapour density of the gas? C. Copper pyrites D. Glass
A. 11.00 B. 22.00
C. 33.00 D. 44.00 5. What is the temperature of a given mass of a gas
[Molar volume of a gas at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3] initially OoC and 9 atm, if the pressure is reduced to 3
atmosphere at constant volume? 13. The element that is likely to participate in covalent
A. 91 K B. 182 K rather than ionic bonding is
C. 273 K D. 819 K A. Z B. Y
C. X D. W
6.
14. The least reactive elements is
A. W B. X
C. Y D. Z

15. ls22s22p63s23p63d74s2. An element with the electron

configuration above is a
A. non-metal
B. metal
In the diagram above, the mixture of the two solid P C. transition element
and Q can be separated by D. group two element
A. distillation
B. fractional distillation 16. Given that electronegativity increases across a period
C. crystallization and decreases down a group in the periodic table, in
D. fractional crystallization. which of the following compounds will the molecules
be held together by the strongest hydrogen bond?
7. Mg(s) + 2HCl (aq) MgCl2(aq) + H2(g). From the A. HF(g) B. NH(g)
equation above, the mass of magnesium required to C. CH4(g) D. HCl(g)
react with 250cm3 of .5 M HCl is
A. 0.3 g B. 1.5 g 17. 0.25 mole of hydrogen chloride was dissolved in distilled
C. 2.4 g D. 3.0 g water and the volume made up to 0.50dm3. If 15.00cm3
[ M = 27, Cl = 35.5] of the solution requires 12.50 cm3 of aqueous sodium
8. A gaseous metallic chloride MClx consist od 20.22% trioxocarbonate (1V0 for neutralization, calculate the
of M by mass. The formula of the chloride is concentration of the alkaline solution.
A. MCl B. MCl2 A. 0.30 mol dm-3 B. 0.40 mol dm-3
-3
C. MCl3 D. M2Cl6 C. 0.50 mol dm D. 0.60 mol dm-3
[M = 27, Cl = 35.5]
9. In which of the following are water molecules in the
most disorderly arrangement? 18. The correct order of increasing oxidation number of
A. Ice at –10oC B. Ice at OoC the transition metal ions for the compounds
o
C. Water at 100 C D. Steam at 100oC K2Cr2O7, V2O5 and KmnO4 is
A. V2O5 < K2Cr2O7, < KMnO4
10. In order to remove one electron from 3s-orbital of
B. K2Cr2O7, < KMnO4 < V2O5
gaseous sodium atom, about 496 kJ mol-1 of energy
C. KMnO4 < K2Cr2O7, <V2O5
is required. This energy is referred to as
D. KMnO4 < <V2O5 < K2Cr2O7,
A. electron affinity B. ionization energy
C. activation energy D. electronegativity
19. The set of pollutants that is most likely to be
11. Nitrogen obtained from the liquefaction of air has a produced when petrol is accidentally spilled on
higher density than that obtained from nitrogen plastic materials and ignited is
containing compounds because the former contains A. CO, CO2 and SO2
A Water vapour B. Oxygen B. CO, HCl and SO2
C. Carbon (1V) oxide D. Rare gases C. CO, CO2 and HCl
D. SO2, CO2 and HCl
Use the table below to answer question 13 and 14.
20. What is observed when aqueous solution of each of
12. The method that can be used to convert hard water tetraoxosulphate(V1) acid, potassium trioxides (V) and
to soft water is potassium iodine are mixed together?
A. Chlorination A. white precipitate is formed
B Passage over activated charcoal B. a green precipitate is formed
C. the use of an ion exchange resin C. The mixture remains colourless
D. aeration D. The mixture turns reddish-brown.
Use the table below to answer question 13 and 14
21.

From the diagram above, the mass of crystals

29. When a current 1 was passed through an electrolyte
deposited when 1 dm3 of a saturated solution of NaCl solution for 40 minutes, a mass Xg of a univalent metal
is cooled from 80oC to 60oC is was deposited at the cathode. What mass of the metal
A. 117.00 g B. 58.50 g will be deposited when a current 21 is passed through
C. 11.70 g D. 5.85 g the solution for 10 minutes?
[Na = 23, Cl = 35.5] A. x/4 g B. x/2 g
C. 2X g D. 4X g
22. The solution with the lowest pH value is
A. 5 ml of m/n HCl 30. RS(aq) + HF (aq) RF(s) + HS(aq) H =-65.7 kJ mol1.
B. 10 ml of m/n HCl From the equation above, it can be deduced that.
C. 15 ml of m/n HCl A. the heat content of the reactants is lower than
D. 20 ml of m/n HCl that of the reactants ucts
B. the heat content of the reactants is higher
23. The solubility product of Cu(lO3)2 is 1.08 x 10-7.
than that of the products
Assuming that neither ions react appreciably with
C. the reaction is slow
water to form H+ and OH-, what is the solubility of
D. a large amount of heat is absorbed.
this salt?
A. 2.7 x 10-8 mol dm-3
31. Which of the following statements is true of the
B. 9.0 x 10-8 mol dm-3
electrochemical series?
C. 3.0 x 10-8 mol dm-3
A. Electropositivity of metals increase down the
D. 9.0 x 10-8 mol dm-3
series
B. Electropositivity of non-metals decrease down
24. The entropy and enthalpy of a system are a measure of
the series
A. degree of disorderliness and heat content
C. Electronegativity of non-metals increase down
respectively
the series
B. heat content and degree of disorderliness
D. Electropositivity of metal decreases down the
respectively
series
C. heat content of a system only
D. degree of disorderliness only.
32. The gas that will form a white precipitate with acidified
silver trioxonirate (V) is
25. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g). In the chemical
A. NH3 B. SO2
reaction above, the substance that will increase the
C. CO2 D. HCl
rate of production of sulphur (V1) oxide is
A. manganese (1V)oxide
33. Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another in
B. finely divided ion
that they
C. vanadium (V0 oxide
A. dissolve in alkalis
D. nickel
B. react violently with hydrogen without heating
C. are liquids
26. N2O4(g) 2NO2g). Increases in total pressure of
D. displace one another from solutions of their
the equilibrium reaction above will
salts.
A. Produce more of NO2(g) in the mixture
B. Convert all of N2O4(g) to NO2(g)
34. The salt that reacts with dilute hydrochloric which
A. Have no effect on the concentrations of
decolourizes acidified purple smelling gas which
N2O4(g) and N2O4(g)
decolourizes acidified purple potassium
B. Produce more odf N2O4g) in th mixture
tetraoxomanganate(V11) solution is
A. Na2SO4 B. Na2SO3
27. What quantity of electricity will liberate 0.125 mole of
C. Na2S D. Na2CO3
oxygen molecules during the electrolysis of dilute
sodium chloride solution?
35. A pair of compounds that can be used to generate a
A. 24 125 coulombs
gas which physiological effect on human beings is
B. 48 250 coulombs
A. sodium trioxonirate(V) and calcium chloride
C. 72 375 coulombs
B. sodium dioxonitrate
D. 96 500 coulombs
(111) and ammonium chloride
[F = 96 500C mol-1]
C. sodium trioxonirate(V) an ammonium chloride
D. sodium dioxonitrate (11l) and potassium
28. X +Y Z. The rate equation for the
chloride.
chemical reaction above is – [X]=[X]2[Y]
t
36. Hydrogen is used in oxy-hydrogen flames for melting
The overall order of the reaction is
metals because it
A. 0 B. 1
A. evolves a lot of heat when burnt
C. 2 D. 3
B. combines explosively with oxygen
C. is a very light gas
D. is a rocket fuel.
44. Which of the following is a solvent for perfumes?
A C5H12 B. C4H6
37. C. CH3COOH D. C2H5OH

45. When excess ethanol is heated to 145oC in the presence

of concentrated H2SO4 the product is
A. ethyne
B. diethyl sulphate
C. diethyl ether
D. acetone

46. How many grammes of bromine will saturate 5.2 g of

but-l-ene-3-yne?
A. 64.0 g B. 48.0 g
C. 32.0 g D. 16.0 g
[C = 12, H= 1, Br = 80]
47. Polyvinyl chloride is used to produced
A. bread B. pencils
In the diagram above Y is mixture of C. ink D. pipes
A. Calcium hydroxide and ammonium chloride
B. Calcium hydroxide and sodium chloride(V) 48. An organic compound that does not undergo a reaction
C. Sodium chloride and ammonium trioxonirate(V) with both hydrogen cyanide and hydroxylamine can
D. Sodium dioxonitrate(lll) and ammonium be an
chloride. A. alkenes B. alkanal
C. alkanone D. Alkanoic acid
38. What properties of duralumin make it more useful than
its constituent metals? 49. When two end alkyl groups of ethyl ethanoate are
A. it is heavy with a high melting point interchanged, the compound formed is known as
B. it is malleable and has high density A. methylethanoate
C. it is strong and light B. ethyl propionate
D. it is hard and ductile C. methylpronoste
D. propel ethanoate.
39. The pair of metals in the reactivity series that are usually 50.
extracted by the electrolysis of their ores is
A. Magnesium and zinc
B. Magnesium and calcium
C. Copper and zinc
D. Lead and calcium

40. A metal that can be extracted from cassiterite is

A. calcium B. magnesium
C. tin D. copper

41. Which of the following metals is passive to

concentrated trioxonirate(V) acid?
A. iron B. tin
C. copper D. zinc

42. The hydrocarbon the burns in air with a sooty flame is

A. C6H6 B. C3H6 Which of the compounds above would react to take
C. C4H10 D. C6H6 up two molecules of bromine during bromination?
A. 1 only
43. 2-methylprop-1-ene is an isomer of B. 111 only
A. but-2-ene C. 1 and 11 only
B. pent-l-ene D. 11 and 111 only
C. 2-methylbut-ene
D. 2-methylbut-l-ene
Chemistry 2017
1. A mixture of iodine and sulphur crystals can be C. Elements in the same group have the
separated by treatment with number of electron shells
A. water of filter off sulphur D. The non-metallic properties of the elements
B. carbon (1V) sulphide to filter off iodine tent to decrease across each period
C. ethanoic acid to filter off sulphur
D. methanol to filter off iodine 10. The electron configuration of 22X2+ ion is
A. ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2
2. Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures B. ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1
containing solid particles of C. ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
A. small sizes B. large sizes D. ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4p2
C. different sizes D. the same size
11. Which of the following types of bonding does not
3. Which of the compounds is composed of Al, Si, O involves the formation of new substance?
and H? A. Metallic B. Covalent
A. Epson salt B. Limestone C. Co-ordinate D. Electrovalent
C. Clay D. Urea
12. The knowledge of half-life can be used to
4. 50cm3 of carbon (11) oxide was exploded with 150cm3 A. create an element
of air containing 20% oxygen by volume, which of B. detect an element
the reactants was in excess? C. split an element
A. Carbon (11) oxide D. irradiate an element
B. Carbon (1V) oxide
C. Oxygen 13. The shape of CO2,H2O and CH4 respectively are
D. Nitrogen A. bent linear and tetrahedral
B. bent tetrahedral and linear
5. How many moles of HCl will be required to react with C. linear bent and tetrahedral
potassium heptaoxodichromate (V1) to produce 3 D. tetrahedral, linear and bent.
moles of chlorine?
A. 14 B. 12 14. The distance between the nuclei of chlorine atoms in
C. 11 D. 10 a chlorine molecule is 0.914 nm. The atomic radius of
chlorine atom is
6. The ratio of the initial to the final pressure of a given A. 0.097 nm
mass of gas is 1:1:5. Calculate the final volume of the B. 0.914 nm
gas if the initial volume was 300cm3 at the same C. 2.388 nm
temperature. D. 2.388 nm
A. 120 cm3 B. 200 cm3
3
C. 450 cm D. 750 cm3 15. The noble gas, argon, is used for
A. electric are welding
7. The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is B. welding brass
452mm Hg and the total pressure is 780mmHg. What C. underwater welding
is the mole fraction of oxygen? D. steal welding
A. 0.203 B. 0.579
C. 2.030 D. 5.790 16. A side effect of soft water is that
A. it gives offensive taste
8. The fundamental difference between the three states B. excess calcium s precipitate
of matter is the C. it attacks lead contained in pipes
A. shape of their particles D. it encourages the growth of bacteria
B. number of particles in each state
C. shape of the container they occupy 17 Water molecules can be ligands especially when they
D. degree of movement of their particles are bonded to.
A. alkaline earth metals
9. Which of the following the following statements is B. alkali metals
correct about the periodic table? C. transition metals
A. Element in the same period have the same D. group V11 elements
number of valence electrons
B. The valence electrons of the elements in the 18. The air pollutant unknown in nature is
same period increase progressively across A. NO B. CO
the period C. HCHO D. DDT
19. 10dm3 of distilled water used to wash 2.0 g of a electricity required to discharge zinc
precipitate of AgCl. If the solubility product of AgCl A. 0.965 x 104 C B. 4.820 x 104 C
is 2.0 x10-10 moldm-6, what quantity of silver was lost C. 4
9.650 x 10 C D. 48.200 x 104 C
in the process? [F = 96 500 C mol-1]
A. 2.029 x10-3 mol dm-3
B. 1.414 x 10-3 mol dm-3 27. Given that M is the mass of substance deposited in
C. 2.029 x 10-5 mol dm-3 an electrolysis and Q the quantity of electricity
D. 1.414 x 10-5 mol dm-3 consumed, then Faraday’s law can be written as
A. M=Z
20. Hydration of ions in solution is associated with Q
A. absorption of heat B. M=Q
B. reduction of heat Z
C. conduction of heat C. M=Z
D. liberation of heat 2Q
E. M = QZ
21.
28 0.46g of ethanol when burned raised the temperature
of 50 g water by 14.3 K. Calculate the heat of
combustion of ethanol.
A. +3 000 kJ mol-1
B. +300 kJ mol-1
C. -300 kJ mol-1
D. -3 000 kJ mol-1
[C = 12, O = 16, H = 1]
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 jg-1K-1

29. Powdered marble reacts with hydrochloric acid

The diagram above is the solubility curve of solute, solution than the granular form because the
X. Find the amount of X deposited when 500cm3 of powdered form has
solution of X is cooled from 60oC to 20oC A. more molecules
A. 0.745 mole B. 0.950 mole B. more atoms
C. 2.375 moles D. 4.750 moles. C. large surface are
D. relatively large mass
22. HCl(aq) + H2O(1) H3O+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
In the reaction above, Cl-(aq) is the 30. The graph that describes a zero order reaction is
A. Conjugate acid
B. Acid
C. Conjugate base A. Rate
D. Base.

23. In which order are the following salts sensitive to Conc.

light? B. Rate
A. Agl ›AgCl ›AgBr
B. AgCl ›Agl ›AgBr
C. AgBr ›AgCl ›AgI
D. AgCl ›AgBr ›AgI
Conc.
24. Thee pOH of a solution of 0.25 mol dm-3 of
hydrochloric acid is C. Rate
A. 12.40 B. 13.40
C. 14.40 D. 14.60

25. MnO4(aq) + 8H+(aq) ’! Mn2+(aq)+4H2O(1)

Y in the equation above represents Conc.

A. 2e- D. Rate
B. 3e-
C. 5e-
D. 7e-

26. ½Zn2+(aq)+e- ½Zn(s) Conc.

In the reaction above, calculate the quantity of
31. A. increase the quantity of N C. Iron E. copper.
B. increase the yield of NO
C. decrease the yield of NO 42. The least easily oxidized of the metals below is
D. decrease the quantity of O2 A. Ca B. Na
C. Zn D. Al
32. For a reaction in equilibrium, the species involved in
the equilibrium constant expression are 43. The repeating unit in natural rubber is
A. gaseous and solid species A. alkynes
B. liquid and solid species B. isoprene
C. solid and dissolved species C. n-propane
D. gaseous and dissolved species D. neoprene

33. A phenomenon where an element exists in different 44. Unsaturated organic compounds are identified by
forms in the same physical state is known as decolourization of.
A. isomerism B. amorphism A. silver bromide and potassium
C. allotropy D. isotropy tetraoxomanganate(v11) solution
B. bromine water and acidified potassium
34. The substance often used for vulcanization of rubber is tetraoxomanganate(V11) solution
A. chlorine C. silver bromine solution and bromine water
B. hydrogen peroxide D. bromine water and alkaline potassium
C. sulphur tetraoxomanganate (V11) solution.
D. tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid
45. The conditions necessary for thee extraction of a water
35. A gas that is not associated with global warming is molecule form two molecules of ethanol are.
A. CO2 B. SO3 A. less acid and a lower temperature
C. CH4 D. H2 B. excess acid and a lower temperature
C. excess acid and a higher temperature
36. The refreshing and characteristics taste of soda water D. less acid and a higher temperature.
and other soft drinks is as a result of the presence in
them of 46. The chlorinated alkane often used industrially
A. carbon(1V)oxide to remove grease is
B. carbon(11) oxide A. tetrachloromethane
C. soda B. chloromethane
D. glucose C. trichloromethane
D. dichloromethane.
37. A form of carbon used for absorbing poisonous gases
and purification of noble gases is 47. The reaction of carbide with water gives
A. wood charcoal’ A. ethyne B. ethane
B. animal charcoal C. ethane D. Ethanal
C. carbon fibres
D. carbon black. O

38. Synthesic gas is a mixture of 48. CH3-CH2-C--OCH2CH3

A. CH4 and H2O The compound above is an
B. CH4 and H2 A. ether B. ester
C. CO2 and H2 C. alkanal D. alkanol
D. CO and H2
49. Alkanone are generally obtained by the oxidation of
39. Potassium vapour burns with a A. primary alkanols
A. blue-flame B. secondary alkanols
B. brick-red flame C. tertiary alkanols
C. violet flame D. alkanoic acid
D. golden-yellow flame
50. Sucrose is made up to
40. A common characteristics of copper and silver in their A. glucose and glucose
usage as coinage metals is that they B. glucose and fructose
A. have high metallic lustre C. fructose and fructose
B. are not easily oxidized D. galactose and glucose.
C. are easily oxidized
D. are not easily reduced
41. Haematite is an ore of
A. Zinc B. Lead
Chemistry 2018
1. 25cm3 of a gas X contains Z molecules at 15oC
and 75 mm Hg. How many molecules will 25cm3
with relative abundance of 10%. The value of m is
of another gas Y contain at the same temperature
A. 14, B. 12,
and pressure?
C. 18, D. 16
A, 2Y, B. 2Z. C. Y, D. Z.
8. Cancerous growth are cured by exposure to
2. What mass of water is produced when 8.0g of
A. x-rays, B. betta-rays,
hydrogen reacts with excess oxygen?
C. alpha-rays, D. gamma-rays
A. 72.0g, B. 36.0g, C. 16.0g, D. 8.0g
9. Which of the following statement is correct about the
Use the graph below to answer questions 3 and 4
average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas?
A. it increases with increase in pressure,
B. it increases with increase in temperature,
C. It increases with increase in volume,
D. It increases at constant pressure.

10. Millikan’s contribution to the development of atomic

theory is the determination of
A. positive rays, B. cathode rays,
C. charge to mass ratio , D. charge on electron.

11. A particle that contains 9 protons, 10 neutrons and 10

electrons is
A. positive ion B.neutral atom of a metal
C. neutral atom of a non-metal
D. negative ion.

12. An oxide XO2 has a vapour density of 32. What is

3. How long does it take all the solid to melt? the atomic mass of X?
A. 6.0mins, B. 3.0mins, A. 20
C. 2.5mins, D. 1.0min B. 32
C. 14
4. If the gas is cooled, at what temperature will it D. 12
start to condense?
A. 175oC, B. 250oC, 13. The chemical used for coagulation in water
o
C. 125 C, D. 150oC purification is
A. copper tetraoxosulphate (VI)
5. Four elements W,X,Y and Z have atomic numbers B. sodium tetraoxosulphate (VI)
2,6,16 and 20 respectively. Which of these C. aluminium tetraoxosulphate (VI)
elements is a meal? D. calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI)
A. X, B. Z,
C. W, D. Y 14. Environment pollution is worsened by the release
from automobile exhausts of
A. heavy metals B. water vapour
C. smoke D. steam

15. Phosphorus is stored under water to prevent it from

A. smelling B. dehydrating
C. catching fire D. becoming inert

16. Pure solvents are obtained by

A. evaporation B. extraction
6. The diagram above represents the formation of C. condensation D. distillation
A. a metallic bond, B. a covalent bond,
C. an electrovalent bond.
D a coordinate covalent bond

7. An element X with relative atomic mass 16.2 contains

two isotopes 168X with relative abundance of 90% and m8X
26. As the concentration of an electrolyte reduces, the
conductivity
A. decreases B. increases
C. reduces to zero D. is unaffected.

27. C(s) + 2S(g) CS2 H =89kJmol-1

The chemical equation above implies that
A. 89kJ of energy is absorbed
17. At what temperature are the solubilities of L and K B. each of carbon and sulphur has 89 kJ of energy
the same? C. both carbon and sulphur contribute 89kJ of
A. 750C B. 1000C energy
0
C. 90 C D. 820C D. 89 kJ of energy is released

18. If 1 dm3 of a saturated solution of L at 600C is cooled 28. Which of the following best explains the increase in
to 250C, what amount in mole will separate? the rate of a chemical reaction as the temperature
A. 0.25 B. 0.50 rises?
C. 0.75 D. 1.00 A. A lower proportion of the molecules has the
necessary minimum energy to react
19. Deliquescent substance are used for B. The bonds in the reacting molecules are more
A. drying B. melting readily broken
C. wetting D. cooling C. The collision frequency of the molecules
increases
20. What is the decrease in volume of air when D. The molecular collisions become more violent.
pyrogallol is shaken with 30.00cm3 of air?
A. 0.63cm3 B. 0.06cm3 29. In which of the following reaction have the oxidation
C. 15.00cm 3
D. 6.30cm3 number of nitrogen increased?
A. 2NO(g) + Br2 (l) 2NOBr(1)
21. The pollution from petroleum spillage in rivers and B. FeSO4 (aq) + NO(g) Fe(NO)SO4(s)
takes can best be dispersed by C. 2NO(g) + CI2(g) 2NOCI(l)
A. passing of ships through the area D. 2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
B. pouring detergents
C. pouring organic solvents 30. P(g) + Q(g) 3R(s)+S(g)
D. evaporation which of the following will increase the yield of R?
A. Removing some S
22. 3Cu(s) + 8HNO3(aq) 3Cu(NO3)2(aq) + B. Using a larger closed vessel
4H20(i)+2NO(g) C. Adding a positive catalyst
In the equation above, copper is D. Increasing the temperature
A. a base
B. an oxidizing agent 31 Ethanoic acid is
C. a reducing agent A. tribasic B. unionizeable
D. an electron acceptor. C. dibasic D. monobasic

23. NH3(g) + HCI(g) ’! NH4CI(s) 32. A metal M displaces zinc from zinc chloride solution.
The entropy change in the system above is This shows that
A. zero B. indeterminate A. M is more electronegative than zinc
C. positive D. negative B. Zinc is above hydrogen in the series
C. Electron flow from zinc to M
24. What current in amperes will deposit 2.7g of D. M is more electropositive that zinc
aluminum in 2 hours?
A. 32 B. 16 33. In which of the following reactions does reduction take
C. 8 D. 4 place?
{AI= 27, F 96 500C mol-1 A. 2O2-——————O2 + 4e-
25. 2SO2(g)+O2 (g) 2SO3(g) B. Fe2+ - e———————Fe3+
The equilibrium constant for the reaction above is C. 2H+-——————H2
increased by D. Cr – 2e———————Cr2+
A. increasing the pressure of the system
B. increasing the temperature of the system 34. When H is negative, a reaction is said to be
C. increasing the surface area of the vessel A. Endothermic B. Exothermic
D. the addition of a catalyst to the system C. Rerverisble D. Ionic.
ethyne? function as
A. sp B. sp 3 A. a reducing agent B. a catalyst
C. sp 2 d D. sp 2 C. a dehydrating agent D. an oxidizing agent

36. Protein in acid solution undergo 43. During the vulcanization of rubber sulphur is added to
A. Polymorphism A. lengthen the chain of rubber
B. Hydrolysis B. break down rubber polymer
C. Fermentation C. act as a catalyst
D. Substitution D. bind rubber molecules together
44. When sodium reacts with water, the resulting solution is
37. Fermentation is the A. Alkaline B. Acidic
A. breaking down of carbohydrate to glucose C. Neutral D. Weakly acidic.
B. breaking down of sugar to carbohydrate
C. conversion of sugar to alcohol in the presence 45. The general formula for the alkanals is
of yeast A. RCOOR1 B. R1CO
D. conversion of alcohol to sugar in the presence C. RCHO D. ROH
of yeast. 46. Which of the following metals burns with a brick red
flame?
38. Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene produces A. Ca B. Na
A. Cyclohexene B. Oil C. Mg D. Pb
C. Margarine D. Cyclohexane.
47. The gas that can best be collected by downward
39. A characteristics reaction of the compounds with the displacement of air is
general formula Cn2n is A. Chlorine B. Sulphur (IV) oxide
A. Substitution B. Esterification C. Carbon (IV) oxide D. Ammonia.
C. Decarboxylation D. Polymerization
48. A trihydric alkanol is
40. When chlorine is passed into water and the resulting A. Phenol B. Glycol
solution exposed to sunlight, the products formed are C. Glycerol D. Ethanol
A. Chlorine gas and hydrogen 49. The main impurity in iron ore during the extraction of
B. Hydrochloric acid and oxygen iron is
C. Chlorine gas and oxochlorate (1) acid A. Calcium trioxosilicate
D. Oxygen and oxochlorate (1) acid B. Silicon (IV) oxide
C. Sulphur (II) oxide
41. The pair of organic compounds that are isomers is D. Carbon (IV) oxide.
A. But – 1-ene and but – 2-ene
B. Ethanol and propanone 50. A burning candle produces water and
C. Trichlorometheane and tetrachloromethane A. carbon (IV) oxide
D. Benzene and methylbenzene B. carbon (IV) oxide
C. oxygen
42. C12H22O(s) + H2SO4(aq)———12C(s) + 11H2O(l) + H2SO4(aq) D. hydrogen.
In the reaction above, tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid

y 02
2
Chemistry
1.
2019
The formula CH O for ethanoic acid is regarded as its
2
B. molecular formula A.
A. empirical formula
dissolve in each other in the column
C. structural formula B. move at different speeds in the column
D. general formula C. react with the solvent
D. react with each other.
2. Which of the following gases contains the least number
of atoms at s.t.p? 4. A compound contain 31.91% potassium, 28.93%
A. 7 moles of argon chlorine and the rest oxygen. What is the chemical
B. 4 moles of chlorine formula of the compound?
C. 3 moles of ozone A. KClO B. KClO2
D. 1 mole of butane C. KClO3 D. KClO4

3. The chromatographic separation of ink is based on the 5. A little quantity of trichloromethane (b.pt.60oC) was added
ability of the components to to a large quantity of ethanol ((b.pt.78oC). The most
probable boiling point of the resultant mixture is from.
A. 60oC - 78 oC B. 69 oC – 70oC
C. 70 oC - 74 oC D. 82 oC - 84 oC 15. The boiling of fat and aqueous caustic soda is referred to
as.
6. The gas that gives brown colouration in brown ring A. acidification B. hydrolysis
test is C. saponification D. esterification.
A. CO B. NO
C. CO2 D. NO2 16. Ordinary glass is manufactured from silica, CaCO3 and
A. NaHCO3 B. K2SO4
7. Which of the following gives a precipitate when treated C. K2CO3 D. Na2CO3
with NaOH solution?
A. NH4Cl B. Na2CO3
C. AlCl3 E. CH3COONa

8. The reaction of an alkene with hydrogen in the presence 17. OH

of a catalyst is
A. a nucleophilic reaction CH3- C-CH2-CH3
B. an addition reaction
C. a substitution reaction CH3
D. an oxidative reaction The major product of the dehydration of the compound
above is
9. A rock sample was added to cold dilute HNO3. The gas A H
evolved was passed into a solution of acidified K2Cr2O7
and the solution turned green. CH3- C-CH2-CH3
The rock sample contains.
A. SO42- B. SO32- CH3
3-
C. NO D. Cl-
B. CH3- C= CH2-CH3
10. The intermediate product formed when ethanol is
progressively oxidized to ethanoic acid with potassium CH3
heptaoxodichromate (V1) is
A. methanal B. propanal
C. ethanal D. butanal C. CH3 - CH-CH-CH23

11. CH3 CH3

CH3 CH2--C-H D. CH3 CH2CH2CH3

OH CH2
The compound above is a
A. primary alkanols 18. The number of isomers formed by C6H14 is
B. secondary alkanols A. 2 B. 3
C. tertiary alkanols C. 4 D. 5
D. glycol
19. Which of these pairs are synthetic and natural
12, A red precipitate of copper (1) carbide is formed when macromolecules respectively?
ammonium solution copper (1) chloride is introduced A. Nylon and polyethylene, creatine and
into. haemoglobin
A. CH3 - C =C -CH3 B. Nylon and creative, polyethylene and
B. CH3 -CH2 -C a= CH3 haemoglobin
C. CH2 =CH - CH2 CH3 C. Polyethylene and creatine, nylon and
D CH3CH2 CH2 CH3 haemoglobin
D. Haemoglobin and nylon, creatine and
13. The most important use of hydrogen is in the polyethylene
A. manufacture of methyl alcohol
B. manufacture of ethyl alcohol 20. An example of an element that can catenate is
C. hydrogenation of oils A. nitrogen B. chlorine
D. manufacture of ammonia C. carbon D. bromine

14. Which of the following polymers is suitable for packaging

and electrical insulation? 21. Ethanol can easily be produced by
A. Polyethene B. Polystyrene A. distillation of starch solution
C. Polyamide D. Polycarbonate. B. catalyst oxidation of methane
C. destructive distillation of wood
D. fermentation of starch.
22. Hydrogen is readily released when dilute hydrochloric C. 0.44 atmosphere
acid reacts with D. 0.55 atmosphere
A. Ag B. Au
C. Cu D. Na 31. When H2S is passed into a solution of iron (iii) chloride,
the solution turns
23. Which of the following statement is true of a proton? A. brown B. pale green
A. The mass of a proton is 1.0008 g C. colourless D. pale red.
B. The mass of a proton is
C. The mass of proton is 1840 times the mass of 32. Which of the following equations shows that a reaction
an electron is in equilibrium?
D. The total mass of the proton in a particular A. G= H–T S
nucleus is always half the nucleus is always B. G<O
half the nuclear mass. C. G=O
D. G>O

14
24. 6
C X+ B 33. Cu2S(s) + O2(g) 2Cu(s) + SO2(g)
X in the equation above represents. What is the change in the oxidation number of copper
14 13
A. 7
N B. 6
C in the reaction above?
12 12
C. 6
C D. 5
B A. 0 to +2
B. 0 to +1
25. A gas X diffuses twice as fast as gas Y under the same C. +1 to 0
condition. If the relative molecular mass of X is 28, D. +2 to +1
calculate the relative molecular mass of Y
A. 14 B. 56 34.
C. 112 D. 120

26. Which of the following chlorides would exhibit the least

ionic character?
A. LiCl B. MgCl2
C. CaCl2 D. AlCl3

27. A fixed mass of gas has a volume of 92 cm3 at 3oC. What

will be its volume at 18oC if the pressure remains
constant?
A. 552.0 cm3 B. 97.0 cm3 In the diagram above, the curve that represents the
3
C. 87.3 cm D. 15.3 cm3 production of oxygen gas from the decomposition of
KClO3 in the presence of MnO2 catalyst is
A. P
28. The processes which return carbon(1V) oxide to the B. Q
atmosphere include C. R
A. Photosynthesis, respiration and transpiration D. S
B. Respiration, decay and combustion E.
C. Photosynthesis, decay and respiration 35. In the reaction E + F G + H, the backward reaction
D. Ozone depletion, combustion and decay. is favoured if the concentration of
A. E is reduced
29. The postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory which still hold B. G is reduced
is that C. F is increases
A. all element are made of small indivisible D. E is increased
particles
B. particles of different elements combine in a 36. The products of the electrolysis of dilute sodium
simple whole number ration hydroxide using platinum electrodes are
C. atoms can neither be created nor destroy ed A. sodium metal and oxygen gas
D. the particles of the same element are exactly B. hydrogen and oxygen gases
alike C. water and hydrogen gas
D. water and sodium metal

37. PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

30. If 0.75 mole of cyclopropane and 0.66 mole of oxygen are In the reaction above, a decrease in pressure will
mixed in a vessel with a total pressure of 0.7 atmosphere, A. increase the yield of PCl3
what is the partial pressure of oxygen in the mixture? B. increase the yields of PCl5
A. 0.22 atmosphere C. accelerate the reaction
B. 0.33 atmosphere D. decelerate the reaction
38. The Arrhenius equation expresses the relationship 45. When a salt loses its water of crystallization to the
between the speed of a reaction and its atmosphere exposure, the process is said to be
A. catalyst A. effervescence B. efflorescence
B. activation energy C. fluorescence D. deliquescence
C. molecular collisions
D. heat of reaction 46. Three drops of 1.0 mol dm-3 solution of NaOH are added
to 20 cm-3 of a solution of pH 8.4. The pH of the resulting
39. What amount of mercury would be liberated if the same solution will be
quantity of electricity that liberated 0.65 g of zinc is A. less than 8.4 B. greater than 8.4
supplied? C. unaltered D. close to that of pure water.
A. 8.04 g B. 4.02 g
C. 2.01 g D. 1.00 g
[Zn = 65, Hg = 201]
47. Tetraoxosulphate (Vl) acid burns the sk9in by
40. When dissolved in water, NaOH flakes show A. dehydration B. hydrolysis
A. a rapid reaction C. hydration D. heating
B. a slow reaction
C. an exothermic change 48. The substance least considered as a source of
D. an endothermic change environmental pollution is
A. uranium
41. Steam changes the colour of anhydrous cobalt (11) B. lead compounds
chloride from C. organphosphourous compounds
A. blue to white B. white to green D. silicate minerals.
C. blue to pink D. white to red
49. The property which makes alcohol soluble in water is the
42. Which of the following solutions containing only A. ionic character
hydroxyl ions will liberate hydrogen gas when reacted B. boiling point
with magnesium metal? C. covalent nature
A. 1.0 x 10-12 mol dm-3 B. 1.0 x 10-6 mol dm-3 D. hydrogen bonding
C. 1.0 x 10-4 mol dm-3 D. 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3
50. The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water
43. The solubility of a salt of molar mass101 g at 20oC is of
0.34mol dm-3. If 3.40 g of the salt is dissolved completely A. calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate (1V)
in 250 cm3 of water in beaker, the resulting solution is B. calcium trioxocarbonate(1V)
A. saturated B. unsaturated C. calcium tetraoxosulphate (V1)
C. supersaturated D. a suspension. D. calcium hydroxide

44. 25 cm3 of a 0.2mol dm-3 solution of Na2CO3 requires 20cm3

of a solution of HCl for neutralization. The concentration
of the HCl solution is
A. 0.2 mol dm-3 B. 0.4 mol dm-3
-3
C. 0.5 mol dm D. 0.6 mol dm-3

1. What volume of oxygen is produced from the

Chemistry 2 0
032 0 decomposition of 2 moles of KClO3 at s.t.p
A. 22.4 dm3 B. 33.6 dm3
3
C. 44. 8 dm D. 67.2 dm3
[Molar volume of a gas s.t.p = 22.4 dm3]
A. Burning kerosene C. evaporation D. absorption
B. Freezing ice-cream 2. Which of the following is a physical change?
C. Exposing white phosphorus to air 5. 3Cu + pHNO3 3Cu(NO3)2 + 4H2O + xNO
D. Dissolving calcium in water In the equation above, the values of p and x respectively

are
3. What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
Al2(SO4)3.2H2O? C. 6 and 2 D. 8 and 2
A. 14.29% B. 25.39%
C. 50.79% D. 59.25% 6. Neutral atoms of neon with atomic number 10 have the
[A = 27, S=32, H=1, O=16] same number of electrons as
A. O2+ B. Ca2+
4 The filter in a cigarette reduces the nicotine content by C. K. +
D. Mg+
A. burning B. adsorption
A. 0.97 g B. 9.70 g
7. The noble gases owe their inactivity to C. 19.42 g D. 97.10 g
A. octet configuration [K2CrO4 = 194.2 g mol dm-1]
B. cyclic shape
C. hexagonal shape 18. Farmlands affected by crude-oil spillage can be
D. obtuse configuration decontaminated by
A. adding acidic solution
8. According to the kinetic theory, an increase in B. using aerobic bacteria
temperature causes the kinetic energy of particles to C. pouring water on the affected area
A. decrease B. increase D. burning off the oil from the area.
C. remain constant D. be zero
19. When 10g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in 100cm3
1
9. 1. H = Is of water, the solution formed is approximately
II N = Is22s22p3 A. 0.01 mol dm-3 B. 0.10 mol dm-1
III O = Is22s22p4 C. 0.25 mol dm -1
D. 0.50 mol dm-1
IV Zn = Is22s22p63s23p64s23d10 [Na = 23, H= 1, O = 16]

From the above, which of the following pairs is likely to 20. A change in the temperature of a saturated solution
be paramagnetic? disturbs the equilibrium between the
A. I and II B. I and III A. dissolved solute and the solvent
C. I and IV D. I and IV B. Solvent and the undissolved
C. Dissolved solute and the undissolved solute
10. A gas exerts pressure on its container because D. Dissolved solute and the solution.
A. some of its molecules are moving faster than
others 21. If an equilibrium reaction has H > 0, the reaction will
B. of the collision of the molecules with each proceed favourable in the forward direction.
other A. high temperature
C. of the mass of the molecules of gas B. any temperature
D. the molecules of a gas collide with walls of the C. low temperature
container. D. minimum temperature

11. When cathode rays are deflected onto the electrode of 22.
an electrometer, the instrument becomes
A. negatively charged B. positively charged
C. neutral D. bipolar
12. The weakest attractive forces that can be observed
between two molecules is
A. ionic B. covalent
C. coordinate covalent
D. Van der Waals.
13. A consequence of global warming is
A. air pollution
B. water pollution 2HCl(aq)+CaCO3 CaCl2(s) + CO2(g)+H2O(1)
C. increased humidity From the reaction above, which of the curves in the
D. flooding diagram represents the production of carbon(IV) oxide
as dilute HCl is added?
14. Which of the following ions is acidic?
A. L B. M
A. K+ B. NO3-
2- C. N D. P
C. S D. H3O+
23. The commonest feature of reaction at the anode is that
15. The structural component that makes detergent A. electrons are consumed
dissolve more quickly in water than soap is B. oxidation is involved
A. -SO3-Na+ B. -COO- Na+ C. ions are reduced
- +
C. –SO4 Na D. -COO- K+ D. electrode dissolves
24. Which of the following will change when a catalyst is
added to a chemical reaction?
16. A liquid that will dissolve fat is A. The activation energy
A. hydrochloric acid B. The potential energy of the reactants
B. calcium hydroxide C. The heat of reaction
C. kerosene D. The potential energy of the products.
D. water

17. What a mass K CrO is required to prepare 250 cm3 of

25. If Y is an oxidizing agent that reacts with a reducing agent, C. Ca D. Sn
Z, which of the following is correct?
A. Y increases in oxidation number 34. Which of the following statements is true of sulphur
B. Y becomes reduced (1V) oxide?
C. Z loses protons A. It forms tetraoxosulphate(V1) acid with water
D. Z gains protons. B. It is an odourless gas
C. It is an acid anhydride
26. When at equilibrium, which of the reactions below will D. It forms white precipitate with acidified barium
shift to the right if the pressure is increased and the chloride.
temperature is kept constant .
A. 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 35. The salt that will form a precipitate soluble in excess
B. 2SO2(g) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ammonia solution is
C. 2H2(g) +’!O2(g) 2H2O (g) A. Ca(NO3)2 B. Cu(NO3)2
D. 2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) C. Mg(NO3)2 D. Al(NO3)2

27. In the electrolysis of a concentrated solution of sodium 36. The metal liberates hydrogen from cold water in bubbles
chloride using inert electrodes, which of the following only is
ions are discharge at the cathode and anode A. Na B. K
respectively? C. Ca D. Al
A. Na+ and Cl- B. Na+ and OH-
+ -
C. H and OH D. H+ and Cl- 37. Chlorine gas turns a damp starch-iodine paper
A. pink B. colourless
28. CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) C. red D. dark blue
From the reaction above, calculate the standard heat
change if the standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g) 38. The modern process of manufacturing steel form iron
,
H2O(g) and CO(g) in kJ mol-1 are –394, -242 and –110 is by
respectively. A. treatment with acids
A. -262 kJmol-1 B. –42 kJmol-1 B. oxidation
-1
C. +42 kJmol D. +262 kJmol-1 C. blast reduction
D. treatment with alkalis
29. When sugar is dissolved in a tea, the reaction is always
accompanied by 39.
A. positive entropy change
B. negative entropy change
C. no entropy change
D. a minimum entropy change.

30. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

A. Alcohol
B. Sodium acetate solution
C. Solid potassium hydroxide
D. Mercury
In the diagram above, Y is
31. Chlorine gas is prepared in the laboratory by A. NO B. NO2
A. adding concentrated hydrochloric acid to solid C. N2O5 D. N2O4
manganese (1V) oxide
B. adding concentrated tetraoxosulphate (V1) 40. Ethene reacts with hydrogen bromide to give
acid to solid sodium chloride A. CH2Br2
C. dropping concentrated hydrochloric acid onto B. CH3 CH2Br
potassium tetraoxomanganate (V11) crystals C. C2 H2Br2
D. oxidizing concentrated hydrochloric using D. CHBr3
potassium heptadichromate (V1) crystals.
41. Carbohydrates are compounds containing carbon
32. Metal of the transition series have special properties hydrogen and oxygen in the ration
which are different from those of groups 1 and 11 A. 3 : 1: 1 B. 2 : 1: 1
C. 1 : 2: 1 D. 1 : 1: 1
elements because they have partially filled
A. s orbitals B. p orbitals 42 How many isomers does pentane have?
C. d orbitals D. f orbitals A. 6 B. 5
C. 4 D. 3
33. Hydrogen can be displace form a hot alkaline solution
by. 43. The leachate of a certain plant ash is used in local soap
A. Fe B. Cu making because if contains
A. sodium chloride and potassium hydroxide
B. sodium hydroxide 48. The process by which atoms are rearrange into different
C. potassium hydroxide molecular structures in the petroleum refining process
D. soluble carbonates and hydrogen carbonates. is referred to as
A. catalytic cracking B. hydrocracking
44. The formula for ethyl butanoate is C. plolymerization D. reforming
A. C3H7COOC2H5 B. C2H5COOC3H7
C. C4H9COOC2H5 D. C2H5COOC4H9 49. Which of the following is found in cotton
A. Starch B. Cellulose
45. The type of reaction that is peculiar to benzene is C. Fat D. Oil
A. addition B. hydrolysis
C. polymerization D. substitution 50. The principal constituent of natural gas is
A. methane B. ethane
46. Ethanol reacts with excess acidified K2Cr2O7 C. propane D. butane.
A. ethanedioc acid B. ethanol
C. ethyl ethanoate D. ethanoic acid

47. A compound contains 40.0% caron 6.7% hydrogen and

53.3% oxygen. If the molar mass of the compound is
180, find the molecular formula.
A. CH2O B. C3H6O3
C. C6H12O6 D. C6H6O3
[ H = 1, C= 12, O = 16]

Chemistry 2021
1. In the electrolysis of brine, the anode is 7. Which of the following shows little or not net
A. Zinc reaction when the volume of the system is
B. Platinum decreased?
C. Carbon A. 2O3(g) 3O2(g)
D. Copper. B. H2(g) + l2(g) 2Hl(g)
C. 2NO2(g N2O4(g)
2. N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) D. PCl5(g PCl3(g) + Cl2(g
In the endothermic reaction above, more product
formation will be favoured by 2CO + O2 2CO2
A. a decrease in pressure 8. Given that H [CO] is – 110.4 kJmol-1 and
B. a decrease in volume H[CO2]is –393o kJmol-1, the energy change for
C. an increase in pressure the reaction above is
D. a constant volume A. -282.6 kJ B. +503.7 kJ
C. –503.7 kJ D. +282.6 kJ
3. The oxidation state of Chlorine in HClO4 is
A. -1 B. –5 ZnO + CO Zn + CO2
C. +7 D. +1 9. In the reaction above, Zinc has been
4. Which of the following hydrogen halides has the A. displaced B. oxidized
highest entropy value? C. reduced D. decomposed.
A. HBr B. HF
10. What volume of gas is evolved at s.t.p. if 2g of
C. Hl D. HCl Calcium trioxocarbonate(iv) is added to a solution
of hydrochloric acid?
5. The mass of silver deposited when a current of 10A A. 224 cm3 B. 112 cm3
is passed through a solution of silver salt for 4830s C. 2240 cm 3
D. 448 cm3
A. 54.0 g B. 27.0 g [Ca = 40, C=12, O=16, Cl =35.5, H= 1,
C. 13.5 g D. 108.0 g Molar volume of a gas at s.t.p =22.4 dm3]
[Ag = 108, F = 96500 C mol-1]
11. A chemical reaction is always associated with
6. Which of the following acts as both a reducing and A. a change in the nature of the reactants
an oxidizing agent? B. the formation of new substances
A. H2S B. CO2 C. a change in the volume of the reactants
C. H2 D. SO2 D. an increase in the composition of one of
the substances,
12. When a solid substance disappears completely as a 22. Alkanol + Alkanoic acid Ester + Water
gas on heating, the substance is said to have
undergone. The reverse reaction of the equation above is known as.
A. sublimation B. crystallization A. saponification B. hydrolysis
C. distillation D. evaporation C. fermentation D. hydration

13. If a solution contains 4.9g of tetraoxosulphate (V1) acid, 23. CH3 COOH(g) CH4(g) + CO2(g)
calculate the amount of copper (11) oxide that will react The reaction above is
with it A. acidification B. esterification
A. 40.0 g B. 80.0 g C. decarboxylation D.carboxylation.
C. 0.8 g D. 4.0 g
[Cu = 64, O =16, S =32, H =1] 24. A characteristic of the alkane family is
A. substitution reaction
14. Vulcanization involves the removal of B. neutralization reaction
A. the single bond B. a double bond C. addition reaction
C. a polymer D. a monomer D. elimination reaction.

15. The alkyl group can be represented by the general 25. Pollution of underground water by metal ions is very
formula. likely in a soil that has high
A. CnH2n B. CnH2n-2 A. alkalinity B. nitrate content
C. CnH2n+1 D. CnH2n+2 C. acidity D. chloride content

16. C2H5OH(aq) Conc. H2SO4 Y 26. The solubility in mol dm-3 of 20g of CuSO4 dissolved in
180oC 100g of water at 180oC is
In the reaction above, Y represent A. 0.25 B. 0.13
A. C2H5 COOH B. CH4 C. 2.00 D. 1.25
C. CH3 OCH3 D. C2H4 [Cu = 64, S =32, O = 16]

17. In the production of soap, concentrated sodium chloride 27. Which of these compounds is a normal salt?
is added to A. Na2CO3 B. NaHCO3
A. saponify the soap C. NaHSO4 D. NaHS
B. emulsify the soap
C. decrease the solubility of the soap 28. A carcinogenic substance is
D. increase the solubility of the soap A. nitrogen (ll) oxide B. carbon (ll) oxide
C. asbestos dust D. sawdust.
18. Oxyacetylene flame is used for 1ron-welding because it
A. evolves a tot heat when burnt 29. What volume of 0.5mol dm-3 H2SO4 will exactly neutralize
B. dissociates to produce carbon (1V) oxide and 20 cm-3 of 0.1mol dm-3 NaOH solution?
oxygen A. 5.0 cm-3
C. makes the iron metal solidify very quickly B. 6.8 cm-3
combines with oxygen give a pop sound. C. 8.3 cm-3
19. Which of these reagents can confirm the presence of a D. 2.0 cm-3
triple bond?
A. Bromine gas 30. Calcium tetraoxosulphate (V1) dissolves in water only
B. Bromine water sparingly to form a
C. Acidified KMnO4 A. colloid B. solution
Copper (1) chloride C. suspension D. precipitate
20. H CH3
31 Hardness of water is caused by the presence of the
H3C - C - C -CH2 - CH2-CH3 ions of
A. calcium and magnesium
CH3 H B. calcium and sodium
The IUPAC nomenclature of the compound above is C. magnesium and silver
A. 3,4 -dimethylhexane D. sodium and potassium
B. 2,3 –dimethylhexane
C. 2 – ethylhexane 32. It is difficult to achieve an orderly arrangement of the
D. 2 – ethylpentane molecules of a gas because they.
A. can collide with one another in the container
21. An isomer of C5 H12 is B. are too small in size
A. 2 –ethyl butane C. have little force of attraction between them
B. butane D. have no definite shape
C. 2- methyl butane
2- methyl propane
33. The shape of the s-orbital is 41. According to Charles’ law, the volume of a gas becomes
A. elliptical B. spiral zero at
C. circular D. spherical A. -100oC B. -273 oC
o
C. -373 C D. 0 oC
34. Which of the following mixtures of gases is likely to
burn in flame? 42. When steam is passed over red-hot carbon, the
A. Helium and neon substances produced are
B. Neon and nitrogen A. hydrogen and carbon(11) oxide
C. Neon and hydrogen B. hydrogen and carbon(1V) oxide
D. Nitrogen and helium C. hydrogen and trioxocarbonate (1V) acid
D. hydrogen, oxygen and carbon (1V) oxide
35. The property of chlorine which cause hydrogen chloride
to be more ionic than the chlorine molecule is its. 43. Aluminum hydroxide is used in the dyeing industry as a
A. electronegativity B. electropositivity A. dye B. dispersant
C. electron affinity D. electrovalency. C. salt D. mordant

36. 44. Transition metals possess variable oxidation states

because they have.
A. electrons in the s orbitals
B. electrons in the d orbitals
C. partially filled p orbitals
D. a variable number of electrons in the p orbitals.

45. The allotrope of carbon used in the decolourization of

In the experiment above, X is mixture of nitrogen, sugar is
carbon 1V) oxide and A. soot B. lampblack
A. oxygen B. inert gas C. graphite D. charcoal
C. water D. impurities
46. Carbon is tetravalent because
37. A given volume of methane diffuses in 20s. How long A. the 2s and 2p atomic orbital hybridized
will it take same volume of sulphur (V1) oxide to diffuse B. all the atomic orbitals of carbon hybridize
under the same conditions? C. the electrons in all the orbital of carbon are
A. 40s B. 60s equivalent
C. 20s D. 5s D. the electrons in both the 2s and 2p orbital are
[C=12, H=1, S=32, O=16] equivalent.

38. Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 47. Sodium metal is always kept under oil because it
35 and 37 in the ratio 3:1 has an atomic mass of 35.5. A. is reduced by atmospheric nitrogen
Calculate the relative abundance of the isotope of mass B. readily reacts with water
number 37. C. reacts with oxygen and carbon(1V)oxide
A. 60 B. 20 D. reacts vigorous on exposure to air.
C. 75 D. 25
48. Alloys are best prepared by
39. An electron can be added to a halogen atom to form a A. cooling a molten mixture of the metals
halide ion with B. reducing a mixture of their metallic oxides
A. 8 valence electrons C. arc-welding
B. 7 valence electron D. electroplating
C. 2 valence electrons
D. 3 valence electrons 49. Sulphur (1V) oxide bleaches by
A. hydration B. reduction
226 x
40. Ra Rn + alpha - particle C. absorption D. oxidation.
88 86

A. 226 50. Which of the following gases can be collected by the

B. 220 method of downward delivery?
C. 227 A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen
D. 222 C. Chlorine D. Ammonia
Physics
1 9 83- 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions

655
Physics 1983
1. In a resonance tube experiment, a tube of fixed 5.
length in closed at one end and several turning
forks of increasing frequency used to obtain
resonance at the open end. If the turning fork with
BrickCord
Pull
the lowest frequency which gave resonance had a
frequency ƒ1 and the next turning fork to give
resonance had a frequency ƒ2, find the ratio ƒ2/ ƒ1. Fig. 2
A. 8 B. 3
C. 2 D. ½ A brick at rest on a horizontal table is pulled by a
E. 1/3 horizontal cord, as shown in Fig. 2. The force of
friction on the brick
2. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity A. Increase if the pull increases but the brick
A. Force B. Altitude does not move.
C. Weight D. Displacement B. Is directly horizontal to the right
E. Acceleration. C. Decreases if an identical brick is placed
on the first.
3. D. Is zero if the brick is pulled hard enough
P1 to make it slide.
E. Change if the brick is turned on its side.
P3 O O3
6. The force with which an object is attracted to the
O2 earth is called its
A. Acceleration B. Mass
P2 C. Gravity D. Impulse
E. Weight.
Fig. 1
Consider the three forces acting at O and in 7. The refractive index of a liquid is 1.5. If the velocity
equilibrium as shown in Fig. 1. Which of the of light in vacuum is 3.0 x 108m s-1, the velocity of
following equation is/are CORRECT? light in the liquid is
I. P1 cos 01 = P1 cos O2
II. P3 = P1 cos O1 + P2 cos O2 A. 1.5 x 103m s-1
III. P1 sin O1 = P2 sin O2 B. 2.0 x 103m s-1
C. 3.0 x 103m s-1
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. 4.5 x 103m s-1
D. II and III only E. I and III only E. 9.0 x 103m s-1
Which of the following statements about friction 8. If the relative density of a metal is 19, what will be
it NOT correct? the mass of 20cm3 of the metal when immersed in
A. The force of kinetic friction is less than water?
the force of static friction. A. 380g B. 400g
B. The force of kinetic friction between two C. 360g D. 39g
surfaces is independent of the areas in E. 180g
contact provided the normal reaction is
unchanged. 9. Which of the following statements about liquid
C. The force of rolling friction between two pressure is NOT correct? The pressure
surfaces is less than the force of sliding A. At a point in a liquid is proportional to
friction. the depth.
D. The angle of friction is the angle between B. At any point in a liquid is the same at the
the normal reaction and the force friction. same level.
E. Friction may be reduced by lubrication. C. Is exerted equally in all directions at any
point.
D. Of a liquid at any point on the wall of its

656
container acts in a direction 14. If the pressure on 1000cm 3 of an ideal gas is
perpendicular to the wall. doubled while its Kelvin temperature is halved,
E. At a particular depth depends on the then the new volume of the gas will become
shape of the vessel. A. 25 cm3 B. 50 cm3
3
C. 100 cm D. 200 cm3
3
10. A ship traveling towards a cliff receives the echo E. 400 cm
of its whistle after 3.5 seconds. A short while later,
it receives the echo after 2.5 seconds. If the speed 15. A train has an initial velocity of 44m/s and an
of sound in air under the prevailing conditions is acceleration of –4m/s2. Its velocity after 10 seconds
250m s-1, how much closer is the ship to the cliff? is
A. 10 m B. 125 m
C. 175 m D. 350 m A. 2m/s B. 4m/s
E. 1,000 m C. 8m/s D. 12m/s
E. 16m/s.
11. Which of the following is NOT correct?
I. The pitch of a sound note depends on 16. Which of the following conditions are necessary
the frequency of vibrations. and sufficient for total internal reflection to take
II. The intensity of a sound note is place at the boundary between two optical media?
proportional to the amplitude of I Light is passing from optically denser
vibrations. medium to optically less dense medium.
III. Beats are produces by two sources of II Light is passing from optically less dense
sound because one wave is travelling medium to optically denser medium.
faster than the other. III Angle of incidence is greater.
IV. When two sources of sound of IV Angle of incidence if lesser.
frequencies 500 Hz and 502 Hz are
sounded together, a neat frequency of 2 A. I and II only
Hz is observed. B. II and II only
V. The first harmonic of a note has double C. III and IV only
the frequency of the fundamental note. D. I and III only
A. I and II B. II and III E. II and Iv only
C. I and II D. III and IV
E. IV and V. 17. A man of mass 50kg ascends a flight of stairs 5m
high in 5 seconds. If acceleration due to gravity is
12. Which of the following statements about defects 10m s-2, the power expended is
of vision is/ are CORRECT A. 100W B. 300W
I. For a long sighted person, close objects C. 250W D. 400W
appear blurred. E. 500W
II. For a sort sighted person, distant objects
appear blurred. 18. Which of the following arrangements in the
III. Short sight is corrected by using a pair of sequence shown can be used to obtain a pure
converging lenses. spectrum of white light?
A. Source, slit, converging lens, prism,
A. I onl B. II only converging lens, screen.
C. I and II onl B. Source, slit, diverging lens, screen.
D. II and III only C. Source, converging lens, prism, diverging
E. I, II and III. lens, screen.
D. Source, slit, prism, diverging lens, screen
13. The range of wavelengths of the visible spectrum
is 400nm – 700nm. The wavelength of gamma rays 19. 10V
is
A. Longer than 700nm
B. Shorter than 700nm but longer than I1 2Ù
400nm
C. 550nm I2
D. Shorter than 400nm
E. Infinite

657
20V

currents in each resistor is

A. 1A B. 4A
2Ù I3 1Ù C. 16 A D. 18 A
E. 36 A

24. In the circuit shown in Fig. 4, T is a resistor whose

20V resistance falls as temperature increases. L1 and L2
are lamps. Assuming the cell has negligible internal
resistance, as the temperature of T increases
I4 2Ù A. L1 becomes brighter, L2 becomes dimmer.
B. L1 and L2 becomes brighter.
C. L1 becomes dimmer, L2 becomes brighter.
I5 1Ù D. L1 becomes brighter, L2 does not change.
Fig. 3. E. L2 becomes dimmer, L1 does not change.
The diagrams in Fig.3 show three circuits. The
internal resistances of the batteries are negligible. 1L
Which of the currents is the largest? T
A. I1 B. I2 T
C. I3 D. I4
E. I5

20. A milliameter with full scale deflection of 100mA

has an internal resistance of 5 ohms. It would be
converted to an ammeter with a full scale deflection L2
of 1A by connecting a resistance of
A. 5
/99 ohm in series with it Fig. 4.
B. 5
/99 ohm in parallel with it 25. Which of the diagrams in Fig. 5 gives the correct
C. 99
/5 ohm in parallel with it resultant R of two vectors P and
D. 99
/5 ohm in series with it Q?
E. 2 ohms in series with it P P
R
21. It is usual to transmit electric power at high voltage
and low current. Which of the following are I II
possible advantages of the method.
I Heat losses are reduced because the R
currents are small. Q Q
II Thin wires can be used because small
currents are flowing.
III The power can flow faster because the
voltage is high.
A. I only P P
B. I and II only R
C. II and III only
D. I and III only III IV
E. I, II and III. R

22. The linear expansivity if brass is 2 x 10-1 0C-1. If the P

volume of a piece of brass is 100cm3 at 00C, what R fig 5.
will be its volume at 1000C?
A. 10.02 cm3 B. 10.04 cm3 V Q
3
C. 10.06 cm D. 10.20 cm3
3
E. 102.00 cm

23. A 24V potential difference is applied across a

parallel combination of four 6-ohm resistors. The
658
end. Calculate the unstretched length of the spring
A. I B. II assuming Hooke’s law is obeyed.
C. III D. IV
E. V A. 9.33 cm B. 10.00 cm
C. 10.66 cm D. 12.00 cm
26. The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is 0.126 E. 15.00 cm
x 10-6 kg/C. The mass of the metal that a current of
5A deposit from a suitable bath in 1 hour is 33. Each of the diagrams in Fig. 6 represents two
A. 0.0378 x 10-3kg current carrying conductors situated close to each
B. 0.227 x 10-3kg other. In which two diagrams are the forces
C. 0.378 x 10-3kg between the two wires attractive?
D. 0.595 x 10-3kg I
E. 2.268 x 10-3kg

27. Ripples on water are similar to light waves in that

they both
A. Have the same wavelength
B. Are longitudinal II
C. Cannot be reflected
D. Travel at the same speed
E. Can be refracted and diffracted.

28. A piece of wood is floating on water. The forces

acting on the wood are III
A. Upthrust and reaction.
B. Weight and reaction
C. Weight and upthrust
D. Upthrsut and viscosity
E. Weight and viscosity.

29. Of the following derived units, the one that is not

a unit of power is
A. Joule/second IV
B. Ampere/volt
C. Amphere2volt
D. Ohm2/volt
E. Volts2/ohm.

30. A force of 16N applied to a 4.0kg block that is at

rest on a smooth horizontal surface. What is the
velocity of the block at t = 5 seconds? V
A. 4 m/s B. 10 m/s
C. 20 m/s D. 50 m/s
E. 80 m/s

31. 1,000 identical drops of oil of density 5000kg/m3

have a total mass of 5 x 10-4kg. One of the drops Fig .6
forms a thin film of area 0.5m2 on water. The A. I and V B. I and III
thickness of the film is C. II and IVD. II and V
A. 2 x 10-8m B. 2 x 10-9m E. III and IV
-7
C. 2 x 10 m D. 3 x 10-9m
-8
E. 2.8 x 10 m. 34. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
I The mass number is equal to the total
32. The total length of a spring when a mass of 200g is number of protrons and electrons in an
hung from its end is 14cm, while its total length is atom.
16cm when a mass of 30kg is hung from the same II The atomic number is equal to the number
of protrons in an atom
659
III The number of electrons in an atom is
equal to the total number of protons and
neutrons in the nucleus.
A. I only B. II only
C. III only D. I and II only
E. II and III only.
P
35. A short response time is obtained in a liquid-in-
glass thermometer when the
A. Bulb is large and thick-walled.
B. Stem is long and thin.
C. Bulb is small and thick-walled. R
D. Bulb is high density and the bore is large.
E. Bulb is thin-walled and the liquid is a good Fig. 7
conductor of heat. In Fig. 7 above, QR is a vertical conductor and the
current I flows from R to Q. P is a point on the
36. A machine has a velocity ratio of 5. It requires a horizontal plane and it to the South of the wire.
50kg weight to overcome a 200kg weight. The The direction of the magnetic filed at P due to the
efficiency is current is
A. 4% B. 5% A. Upward B. North
C. 40% D. 50% C. South D. West
E. 80% E. East

37. If the normal atmospheric pressure in a laboratory 41. Which of the following best describes the energy
supports a column of mercury 0.76m high and the changes which take place when a steam engine
relative density of mercury is 13.8, then the height drives a generator which lights a lamp?
of water column which atmospheric pressure will A. Heat Light Sound
support in the same laboratory at the same time is Kinetic
A. 0m B. 10 m
C. 13 m B. Kinetic Light Heat
D. 14 m Electricity
E. 18 m
C. Heat Kinetic Electricity
38. An electric current of 3A flowing through an electric Heat and Light
heating element of resistance 20 embedded in
1,000g of an oil raises the temperature of the oil by D. Electricity Kinetic Heat
100C in 10 seconds, then the specific heat capacity Light
of the oil is
A. 1.8 J/g B. 0.6 J/g E. Heat Sound Kinetic
C. 0.18 J/g 0C D. 1.8 J/g 0C Electricity.
0
E. 0.06 J/g C
42. Which of the following statements clearly describe
39. The difference of potential between the terminals the behaviour of the fire alarm shown in Fig. 8
of a cell is 2.2 volts. When a 4 ohm resistor is below given that the linear expansivities of copper
connected across the terminals of this cell, the and steel are 2.0 x 10-5/ 0C and 1.2 x 10-5/ 0C
potential difference is 2 volts. What is the internal respectively?
resistance of the cell?
A. 0.10 ohms B. 0.25 ohms Electric
C. 0.40 ohms D. 2.50 ohms bell
E. 4.00 ohms.

40. Q Copper
I

P Steel Q

Fig. 8.
660
I The bimetallic strip will not be able to E. Highly magnified.
close the circuit when there is fire
II The bimetallic strip will close the circuit 46. The speed of light in vacuum is 3.0 x 108m s-1. If the
when there is fire refractive index of a transparent liquid is 4/3 then
III If the copper and steel are interchanged, the speed of light in the liquid is
the circuit will close when there is fire. A. 0.44 x 108m s-1
A. I only B. II only B. 2.25 x 108m s-1
C. III only D. I and III C. 3.0 x 108m s-1
E. II and III D. 4.0 x 108m s-1
E. 4.33 x 108m s-1
43. Four equal resistors R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected
in series as shown in Fig 9 below. V1, V2 and V3 are 47. If the force on a charge of 0.2 coulomb in an electric
voltmeters connected as indicated. Which of the field is 4N, then the electric field intensity of the
following relations is CORRECT? field is
A. V1 = V3 = V2 . A. 0.8 B. 0.8 N/C
2 C. 20.0 N/C D. 4.2 N/C
B. V1 = 2V2 =V3 E. 20.0 C/N
C. V1 = ½ V3 = V2
D. V1 - V3 = V2 48. The specific latent heat of vapourization of a
E. V2 – V1 = V3 . substance is always
2 A. Less than its specific latent heat of fusion.
B. Greater than its specific heat of fusion.
C. Equal to its specific latent heat of fusion
44. Which of the following may be used to determine D. All of the above depending on the nature
relative humidity in a physics laboratory? of the substance
I Manometer E. None of the above
II Wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer
III Hair hygrometer 49. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
IV A hydrometer A. Refraction B. Reflection
C. Diffraction D. Polarization
A. I only E. Rarefaction
B. II and III only
C. II only 50.
D. III only
E. II, III and IV only

45.

Fig. 11 above shows an inverted U-tube with the

open end, O of one limb below the level, W, of the
water in a tank. In order that water should begin to
flow from the tank it is necessary that
A. The U-tube is completely filled with water
and P should be higher than W.
PQ is a thin rod on a horizontal table, RS is a plane B. P should be lower than O and W
mirror inclined at 450C to the horizontal as shown C. P should be lower than W and O should
in Fig. 10 above. The image of PQ as seen in the reach to the bottom of the vessel.
mirror by the eye, T is D. The U-tube is completely filled with water
A. Horizontal and P should be lower than W.
B. Parallel to the mirror E. The U-tube is completely filled with water
C. At infinity and O should reach the bottom of the
D. Vertical vessel.

661
Physics 1984
1. The distance travelled by a particle starting from 6. For a concave mirror to form a real diminished
rest is plotted against the square of the time elapsed image, the object must be placed
from the commencement of motion. The resulting A. Behind the mirror
graph is linear. The slope of this graph is a measure B. Between the mirror and in focus
of C. Between the focus and the center of
A. Initial displacement curvature
B. Initial velocity D. At the center of curvature
C. Acceleration E. At a distance greater than the radius of
D. Half the acceleration curvature.
E. Half the initial velocity
7. The unit quantity of electricity is called
2. A. The ampere
P T B. The volt
Q R S C. The coulomb
D. The ammeter
E. Electromotive force.

0.1N 0.4N 8. The resistance of a wire depends on

Fig. 1 A. The length of the wire
B. The diameter of the wire
In Fig. 1, PT is a uniform metre rule pivoted at R, C. The temperature of the wire
the 70cm mark. Two forces 0.1N and 0.4N are D. The resistivity of the wire
applied at Q, the 60cm mark and S. the 85cm mark. E. All of the above.
If the metre rule is kept in equilibrium by the forces
and its weight, then the weight of the metre rule is 9. What is the resistance of the circuit shown in Fig.
A. 0.25 N B. 0.30 N 2.
C. 0.35 N D. 0.50 N 2Ohms
E. 0.56 N

3. For which of the underlisted quantities is the 2Ohms

derived unit ML2T-2 correct?
I Moment of a force 3 Ohms
II Work
III Acceleration 4Ohms

A. I only B. II only
C. III only D. I and II Fig. 2
E. II and III
A. 4 Ohms B. 11 Ohms
4. What volume of alcohol with a density of 8.4 x C. 19
/5 Ohms D. 17
/4 Ohms
102kg m-3 will have the same mass as 4.2m3 of petrol E. 8Ohms
whose density is 7.2 x 102kg m-3?
A. 1.4 m3 B. 3.6 m3 10. Two cells, each of e.m.f. 1.5V and an internal
3
C. 4.9 m D. 5.0 m3 resistance 2Ohms are connected in parallel.
3
E. 5.8 m Calculate the current flowing when the cells are
connected to a 1 Ohms resistor.
5. For correcting long sight defects in the human eye A. 0.75 Ohms B. 1.5 Ohms
we require a C. 0.5 Ohms D. 1.0 Ohms
A. Converging lens E. 0.6 Ohms
B. Diverging lens
C. Microscope 11. Which of the following components is NOT
D. Periscope contained in a dry cell? A
E. Plain glass sheet.
662
A. Carbon rod E. Has a relative of fifty percent.
B. Paste of magnesium dioxide
C. Paste of ammonium chloride 18. The lower and upper fixed points marked on a
D. Zinc case mercury-in-glass thermometer are 210mm apart.
E. Copper rod. The end of the mercury column in the tube is 49mm
12. Which of the following can be described above the lower fixed point in a room. What is the
as high tension transmission? temperature of the room in degrees Celsius?
A. High resistance and low voltage A. 55.3 0C B. 23.3 0C
0
B. Low current and high voltage C. 49.0 C D. 16.1 0C
0
C. High current and low voltage E. 76.7 C
D. High voltage and zero current
E. High current and low resistance. 19. If a solid changes directly into a gas when heat is
applied the process is called
13. All the heat generated in a 5 ohms resistor by 2A A. Vaporization
flowing for 30 seconds is used to evaporate 5g of B. Evaporation
liquid at its boiling point. Which of the following C. Sublimation
is the correct value of the specific latent heat of D. Ionization
the liquid? E. Conversion.
A. 120 J B. 60 J g-1
-1
C. 120 J g D. 1 500 J 20. A plane inclined at an angle of 300 to the horizontal
E. 1 500 J g-1 has an efficiency of 60%. The force parallel to the
plane required to push a load of 120N uniformly
14. When vibration occurs in an air column, the up the plane is
distance between a node and an antinodes is equal A. 60 N B. 100 N
to C. 120 N D. 200 N
A. One-quarter of the wavelength E. 240 N
B. One-half of the wavelength
C. The wavelength 21. A body of mass 5kg initially at rest is acted upon
D. Twice the wavelength by two mutually perpendicular forces 12N and 5N
E. Four-times the wavelength. as shown in Fig. 3. If the particle moves in the
direction QA, calculate the magnitude of the
15. Which of the following statements is (are) NOT acceleration.
correct? A. 0.40m s-2 B. 1.40m s-2
-2
I Pressure changes do not affect the speed C. 0.26m s D. 2.60m s-2
-2
of sound in air E. 3.40m s
II The velocity of sound increases with
temperature A
III The quantity of a note depends only on
its frequency. 12N

A. I only B. II only
C. III only D. I and III only è
E. II and III only. O
5N
16. Of two identical turning forks with natural Fig. 3
frequency 256 Hz, one is loaded so that 4 beats per
second are heard when they are sounded together. 22.
What is the frequency of the loaded turning fork?
A. 260 Hz B. 252 Hz 20
C. 248 Hz D. 264 Hz
E. 258 Hz
17. Dew point is the temperature at which water 10
vapour in the atmosphere Force
A. Turns into steam (N) 0 5 10 15 20
B. Solidifies into ice pellets Fig. 4 Distance (m)
C. First condenses into liquid form
D. Is just sufficient to cause cooling
663
body by the force during the first 10 metres of
motion is 26. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius 0.02m.
A. 100 J B. 150 J If the speed of the particle is 0.88m s-1, calculate its
C. 200 J D. 300 J frequency in cycles per second.
E. 600 J A. 2.0 B. 7.0
C. 8.8 D. 14.0
23. A simple pendulum, 0.6m long, has a period of 1.5 E. 17.6
s. what is the period of a similar pendulum 0.4m
long in the same location? 27. Heat is supplied uniformly at the rate of 100W to
A. 1.4 2/3 s B. 1.5 3/2 1.0 x 10-2kg of a liquid for 20 seconds. If the
C. 2.25 s D. 1.00 s temperature of the liquid rises by 50C, then the
E. 2.00 s specific heat capacity of the liquid is
A. 2.0 x 102J kg-1 K-1
A force varying linearly with the distance acts on B. 2.0 x 102J kg-1
a body as shown in Fig. 4. The work done on the C. 4.0 x 104J kg-1 K-1
body by the force during the first 10 metres of D. 4.0 x 104J kg-1
motion is E. 8.4 x 103J kg-1 K-1
A. 100 J B. 150 J
C. 200 J D. 300 J 28. A given mass of an ideal gas occupies a volume V
E. 600 J at a temperature T and under a pressure P. If the
pressure is increase to 2P and the temperature
23. A simple pendulum, 0.6m long, has a period of 1.5 reduced to 1/2T, then the percentage change in
s. what is the period of a similar pendulum 0.4m the volume of the gas is
long in the same location? A. 0% B. 25 %
A. 1.4 “ 2/3 s B. 1.5 “3/2 C. 75 % D. 300 %
C. 2.25 s D. 1.00 s E. 400 %

24. A small steel needle is carefully floated on water in 29. Which of the following properties of matter
a beaker. When a few drops of kerosene are CANNOT be utilized for temperature measurement?
introduced into the water the needle sinks. Which The
of the following statements correctly explain(s) the A. Length of a liquid column
observation? B. Volume of a gas at constant pressure.
I There is a tension on the water surface. C. Pressure of a gas at constant volume
II Kerosene reduces the density of water D. Resistance of a metallic wire
so that the needle becomes denser than E. Current produced in a photoelectric
water. effect.
III Kerosene reduces the surface tension of
water. 30. The image and object distances of a converging
mirror are related by the equation 1/ƒ = 1/v + 1/u and
A. I only B. II only the magnification of the image is m = v/u. Which
C. III only D. I and II of the graphs below represents the relation
E. I and III between m and v?

25. Which of the following statements describes an A. D.

atom accurately? m m
I Atoms of all elements are identical
II An atom contains a nucleus and number
of electrons.
III Due to the electrons in the atom, an atom v v
is negatively charged.
IV Electrons in the atom move in circular
orbits round the nucleus.

A. I and II B. II and III

C. III and IV D. II and IV
E. I, II and III

664
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

v v 34. I

S II

C..
m
N

v
III

Earth’s
magnetic
31. Which of the following statements about the field
compound microscope and astronomical telescope
is (are) correct?
I The final image of a compound Fig. 5
microscope is located at infinity.
II The final image of the astronomical A short bar magnet is placed in the earth’s magnetic
telescope is always erect. field as shown in Fig. 5. Which of the points II and
III The objective lens of a compound II is (are) possible position(s) of a natural point?
microscope has a very short focal length. A. I only B. II only
C. III only D. I and II
A. I only B. II only E. I, II and III
C. III only D. I and III
E. II and III 35. 4 UF

32. A coin is placed at the bottom of a cube of glass

tcm thick. If the refraction index of the glass is ø,
how high does the coin appear to be raised to an 3 UF
observer looking perpendicularly into the glass?
A. 1 .
t–ø

B. t(ø – 1)
ø 4 UF 2 UF
1
C. t>ý 1 + /ø?ý
Fig. 6
D. t .
ø In the circuit in Fig. 6, calculate the effective
capacitance between X and Y.
E. t A. ¾ UF
B. 2 10/13 UF
33. The electromotive force obtained from a simple C. 12 UF
dynamo may be increased by D. 4 12/13 UF
A. Increasing the cross-sectional area of the E. 13 UF
coil.
B. Winding the coil on a soft-iron armature 36. A gun of mass 2.0kg fires a bullet of mass 1.6 x 10-2kg
so as to increase the magnetic flux due East. If the bullet leaves the nozzle of the gun
through the coil.
665
with a velocity of 150m s-1, what is the recoil 42. Cathode rays are
velocity of the gun? A. High-energy electromagnetic waves
A. 150 m s-1 due West B. Protons
B. 1.2 x 10-4 m s-1 due West. C. Streams of electrons
C. 1.2 m s-1 due West D. Neutrons
D. 1.2 m s-1 due East E. Radio waves
E. 150 m s-1 due East
43. A device that converts sound energy into electrical
37. Normal atmospheric pressure at sea-level is 105N energy is
m -2 and the acceleration due to gravity is A. The horn of a motor car
approximately 10m s-1. If the atmosphere has a B. An A.C. generator
uniform density of 1kg m-3, its height is C. A microphone
A. 100 m D. The telephone earpiece
B. 1000 m E. A loudspeaker.
C. 10 000 m
D. 100 000 m 44. Which of the following
E. 1000 000 m I â-particles
II Protons
38. Which of the following is a correct explanation of III Neutrons
the inertia of a body? IV á-particles
A. Ability to overcome the earth’s gravity may be found in light nuclei?
B. Reluctance to stop moving A. I and II
C. Readiness to start moving B. I and III
D. Reluctance to start moving and its C. II and IV
readiness to stop moving once it has D. II and III
begun to move E. I, II, and III.
E. Reluctance to start moving and its
reluctance to stop moving once it has 45. Radio waves have a velocity of 3 x 108m s-1. A radio
begun to move. station sends out a broadcast on a frequency of
800 kHz. The wavelength of the broadcast is
39. If a water pump at Kainji Dam is capable of lifting A. 375.0 m
1000kg of water through a vertical height of 10m in B. 267.0 m
10s, the power of the pump is C. 240.0 m
A. 1.0 kW B. 10.0 kW D. 37.5 m
C. 12.5 kW D. 15.0 kW E. 26.7 m
E. 20.0 kW
(g = 10m s-2) 46.
X
40. What is the apparent colour of a RED SHIRT when
viewed in PURE green light? 4Ohms
A. Red B. Green
C. Yellow D. Black Y
E. Blue
6Ohms
41. The spectrum of white light consists of coloured
lights arranged in the following order
A. Blue, red, green. Yellow, indigo, violet,
orange. Fig. 7
B. Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo,
violet. In the diagram above (Fig. 7), X and Y are
C. Red, orange, yellow, indigo, green, blue, resistances 45 ohms and 65 ohms respectively. If
violet. power dissipation in X is 10W, then power
D. Indigo, green, blue, violet, yellow, red, dissipation in Y is
orange.
E. Yellow, blue, green, violet, orange, indigo, A. 2.4 W B. 4.0 W
red. C. 6.0 W D. 6.7 W
E. 15.0 W
666
47. What is the cost of running five 50W lamps and
four 100W lamps for 10 hours if electrical energy
costs 2 kobo per kWh?

A. N 0.65 B. N 0.13
C. N 3.90 D. N 39.00
E N 234.00

48. Which of the following statements is (are) NOT

true about the emission of photoelectrons from
metallic surfaces?
I All metallic surfaces emit the same
number of photoelectrons in a given light. 50. Fig 8 above represents an insulated cylindrical coil
II Most metallic surfaces in visible and or copper wire wound round a paper tube. The
infrared light. ends of the coil are connected to a sensitive
III A metallic surface emits photoelectric only galvanometer. When a magnet was plunged into
if frequency of the incident light is higher the coil it was observed that the galvanometer
than its own characteristic threshold needle gave a deflection. Which of the following
frequency. correctly describes this experiment?

A. I only B. II only A. The effect illustrated is induced

C. I and II D. II and III electromotive force.
E. III only B. The strength of the current produced is
inversely proportional to the speed with
49. A galvanometer of resistance 5.0Ù has full-scale which the magnet is plunged into the coil.
deflection for a current of 100mA. How would its C. The direction of the current is always
range be extended to 1.0A by placing a resistance such as to enhance the change producing
of it.
A. 5
/9 Ohms in parallel D. The galvanometer gave a permanent
B. 9
/5 Ohms in series deflection.
C. 45 Ohms in parallel E. On removing the magnet from the coil the
D. 45 Ohms in series galvanometer deflected in the same
E. 9
/5 Ohms in parallel. direction.

Physics 1985

1. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental S.I. I Both are used to measure the mass of an
unit? object.
A. Metre B. Ampere II Either of them may be used to measure
C. Kelvin D. Second the weight of an object.
E. Radian III The spring balance works on the principle
of Hooke’s law while the chemical balance
2. A simple pendulum with a period of 2.0s has its works on the principle of moments.
length doubled. Its new period is IV A change in gravity changes the readings
of a spring balance but not that of a
A. 1.00 s B. 1.41 s chemical balance.
C. 0.35 s D. 2.83 s A. I and IV B. II and III
E. 4.00 s C. III and IV D. I, II, and III
E. I and III.
3. Which of the following statements are true about
the spring balance and the chemical balance?

667
4. Which of the following types of motion are 8. A metal block of mass 5kg lies on a rough horizontal
oscillatory? platform. If a horizontal force of 8N applied to the
I A driving board when used by a driver. block through its centre of mass just slides the
II The motion of the balance wheel of a wrist block on the platform, then the coefficient of
watch. limiting friction between the block and the platform
III The motion of the turn-table of a record is
player. A. 0.16 B. 0.63
IV The motion of the center of a ten kobo C. 0.80 D. 1.60
piece as it rolls down an inclined plane. E. 2.00
V. The motion of the needle of a D.C.
ammeter into which a low A.C. current is 9. Which of the following is NOT a force?
passed.
A. I and II only B. I, II and III A. Friction
C. II, III and IV D. I, II and V B. Tension
E. III, IV, and V. C. Upthrust
D. Weight
5. E. Impulse.
10
10. Two masses 40g and 60g respectively, are attached
8 firmly to the ends of a light metre rule. The centre
of gravity of the system is
Velocity
(ms-1) 6 A. At the mid-point of the metre rule
B. 40cm from the lighter mass
C. 40cm from the heavier mass
4 D. 60cm from the heavier mass
E. indeterminate because the metre-rule is
2 light.

11.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Time (s)
Fig 1 P
The graph Fig. 1 above describes the motion of a
particle. The acceleration of the particle during the
motion is
A. 0.00m s2 B. 0.25m s-2
2
C. 4.00m s- D. 8.00m s-2 10 20 300 80
-2
E. 10.00m s M N
L R O
6. If a car starts from rest and moves with a uniform
acceleration of 10m s-2 for ten seconds, the distance
it covers in the last one second of the motion is 30kg Fig 2
A. 95 m B. 100 m
C. 500 m D. 905 m In Fig. 2 above. MN is a light uniform metre rule
E. 1 000 m pivoted at O, the 80cm mark. A load of mass 3.0kg
is suspended on the rule at L, the 10cm mark. If the
7. A block of mass 2.0kg resting on a smooth rule is kept in equilibrium by a string RP, fixed at P
horizontal plane is acted upon simultaneously by and attached to the rule at R, the 20cm mark, then
two-forces, 10N due North and 10N due East. The the tension T in the string is
magnitude of the acceleration produced by the
forces on the block is A. 25 N B. 50 N
A. 0.10m s-2 B. 7.05m s-2 C. 250 N D. 5 000 N
-2
C. 10.00m s D. 14.10m s-2 E. 25 000 N
-2
E. 20.00m s
12. A 0.05kg bullet traveling at 500m s-1 horizontal
strikes a thick vertical wall. A load of mass 3.0kg is
668
suspended on the rule at L, the 10cm mark. If the 19. Two liquids, P at a temperature of 200C and Q at a
rule is kept in equilibrium by a string RP, fixed at P temperature of 800C have specific heat capacities
and attached to the rule at R, the 20cm mark, then of 1.0J kg-1 0C-1 and 1.5J kg-1 0C-1 respectively. If
tension T in the string is equal masses of P and Q are mixed in a lagged
A. 25 N B. 50 N calorimeter, then the equilibrium temperature is
C. 250 N D. 5 000 N A. 440C B. 500C
0
E. 25 000 N C. 56 C D. 600C
0
E. 70 C
13. A force of 100N stretches an elastic string to a
total length of 20cm. If an additional force of 100N 20. A quantity of gas occupies a certain volume when
stretches the string 5cm further, find the natural the temperature is – 730C and the pressure is 1.5
length of the string. atmospheres. If the pressure is increased to 4.5
A. 15 cm B. 12 cm atmospheres and the volume is halved at the same
C. 10 cm D. 8 cm time, what will be the new temperature of the gas?
E. 5 cm A. 5730C B. 3270C
0
C. 300 C D. 1100C
14. Two drivers G and H are at depths 20m and 40m 0
E. 27 C
respectively below the water surface in a lake. The
pressure on G is P1 while the pressure on H is P1. If
21. In a gas experiment, the pressure of the gas is
the atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10m of
plotted against the reciprocal of the volume of the
water, then the value of P2/P1 is
gas at a constant temperature. The unit of the slope
A. 0.50 B. 0.60
of the resulting curve is
C. 1.67 D. 2.00
A. Force B. Force/m
E. 3.00
C. Work D. Force/m3
2
15. The areas of the effort and load pistons of a E. Energy/m .
hydraulic press are 0.5m2 and 5m2 respectively. If a
force F1 of 100N is applied on the effort piston, the 22. Water shows anomalous behaviour
force F2 on the load is A. Below 00C
A. 10 N B. 100 N B. Between 00C and 40C
C. 500 N D. 1 000 N C. At exactly 40C
E. 5 000 N D. Between 40C and 1000C
E. Above 1000C
16. A metal cube of volume 103mm3 is lowered into a
measuring cylinder containing water. If the internal 23. Two thermos flasks of volume Vx and Vy are filled
cross-sectional area of the cylinder is 1.5 x 102 mm2, with liquid water at an initial temperature of 00C.
by how much does the water level rise in the After some time the temperatures were found to
cylinder? be èx, èy respectively . given that
A. 6.67 x 100 mm B. 8.50 x 102 mm Vx = 2 and èx = ½
3
C. 1.15 x 10 mm D. 2.50 x 103 mm Vy èy
5
E. 1.50 x 10 mm The ratio of the heat flow into the flasks is

1
17. A uniform cylindrical block of wood floats in water A. /4 B. ½
with one-third of its height above the water level. C. 4 D. 1
In a liquid of relative density 0.8, What fraction of E. 2
its height will be above the liquid level?
1 1
A. /6 B. /5 24. A good calorimeter should be of
1 4
C. /3 D. /5 A. Low specific heat capacity and low heat
5
E. /6 conductivity.
B. Low specific heat capacity and high heat
18. A thin aluminum plate has a surface area of 1,500m2 conductivity.
at 200C. What will be its surface area when it is C. High specific heat capacity and low heat
cooled to – 200C? conductivity
(Take the linear expansivity of aluminium to be 2.5 D. High specific heat capacity and low heat
x 10-5 K-1) conductivity,
A. 1.503 m2 B. 1.500 m2 E. Dull surface and low heat conductivity.
2
C. 1.498 m D. 1.497 m2
2
E. 1.490 m
669
25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 31. A 450 triangular glass prism can be used as a
reflector of light because
A. Boiling occurs when the saturated A. Refraction never takes place in such a
vapour pressure of the liquid involved prism
equals the external pressure. B. The angle of reflection equals the angle
B. Both the boiling point and the saturated of incidence.
vapour pressure of a given liquid depend C. The refractive index of glass is less than
on the external pressure. 1
C. The saturated vapour pressure rises with D. It is transparent
increase in temperature. E. The critical angle for glass is less than
D. The saturated vapour pressure is 450
independent of the volume available for
the vapour. 32. A convex mirror is used as a driving mirror because
E. It is possible to boil water at a lower I Its image is erect
temperature than 1000C at high altitude. II It has a large field of view
III It has a long focal length
26. Which of the following phenomena CANNOT be Identify the CORRECT statement(s).
explained by the molecular theory of matter? A. I and III only
A. Expansion B. Conduction B. I and II only
C. Convection D. Radiation C. II and III only
E. Evaporation. D. I, II and III only
E. I only
27. In order to find the depth of the sea. A ship sends
out a sound wave and receives an echo after one 33. Two rays of light from a point below the surface of
second. If the velocity of sound in water is 1500m/s, water are equally inclined to the vertical and are
what is the depth of the sea? inclined to each other at 600 in water. What is the
A. 0.75km B. 1.50km angle between the rays when they emerge into
C. 2.20km D. 3.00km air?
E. 3.75km (Take the refractive index of water to be 4/3)
A. 41.80 B. 44.10
0
28. When a sound wave passes from air into water its C. 60.0 D. 83.60
0
A. Speed and frequency increase but its E. 120. .
wavelength remains the same.
B. Speed and wavelength increase but its 34. A narrow beam of white light can be split up into
frequency remains the same different colours by a glass prism. The correct
C. Speed decreases. explanation is that
D. Speed remains the same but its frequency A. White light is an electromagnetic wave
and wavelength change. B. The prism has all the colours of the white light
E. Speed increases but its frequency and C. White light has undergone total internal
wavelength decrease. reflection in the prism
D. Different colours of white light travel with
29. If the fundamental frequency of a closed pipe organ different speeds in glass.
on a day when the speed of sound is 340m s-1 is E. White light consists of yellow, green and red
170 Hz, then the length of the pipe is colours.
A. 50cm B. 70cm
C. 100cm D. 150cm 35. A charge of one coulomb liberates 0.0033g of
E. 200cm copper in an electrolytic process. How long will it
take a current of 2A to liberate 1.98g of copper in
30. An object is placed 15cm in front of a concave such a process.
mirror of radius 40cm. The image formed is A. 5 minutes B. 30 minutes
A. Virtual and 60cm behind the mirror C. 50 minutes D. 60 minutes
B. Real and 60cm in front of the mirror E. 120 minutes
C. Virtual and at infinity
D. Real and at infinity 36. If the distance between two stationary charged
E. Virtual and 40cm from the mirror. particles is doubled, the magnitude of the
electrostatic force between them will be

670
A. Passing on an electric current through a 42. An electric kettle, connected to a 240V mains,
solenoid. produces 6.0 x 105J of heat energy to boil a quantity
B. Repeated stroking of the specimen with of water in 5 minutes. Find the resistance of the
a magnet kettle.
C. Repeated stroking of the specimen in A. 14.4 ohms B. 28.8 ohms
opposite directions with two magnets C. 144 ohms D. 288 ohms
D. Heating of the specimen E. 2 880 ohms
E. Hammering of the specimen in the earth’s
magnetic field’s 43. On which of the following does the operation of a
moving coil ammeter depend?
39. Which of the following will convert a milliammeter I Electromagnetic induction.
to a voltmeter? II Force on a current-carrying
A. Low series resistance conductor in a magnetic field.
B. Low parallel resistance III Magnetic effect of an electric current.
C. High series resistance A. I only B. II only
D. High parallel resistance C. III only D. II and III
E. Parallel resistance equal to milliameter E. I, II and III
resistance.
40. Which of the graphs A – E (Fig. 3) represents the 44.
current-voltage (I – V) relationship for a cell with 10 Ohms
internal resistance?

A.
I 5Ohms

Fig. 4

In Fig. 4, current (I) passes through the parallel

combination. If the power dissipated in the 5 ohms
V resistor is 40W, then the power dissipated in the
10 ohms resistor is
B. C. A. 10 W B. 20 W
C. 40 W D. 80 W
I I E. 100 W

45. Which of the following statements is NOT

V V correct?
A. A galvanometer can be converted to an
D. E. ammeter with a different range by
connecting a high resistance in series.
I I B. An electric current always produces a
magnetic field
C. Maxwell’s screw rule states that if a
corkscrew moves in the direction of the
V V current, the hand turns in the direction of
the lines of force.
Fig. 3 D. Electromagnets are used in electric bells
and telephone receivers.
41. A wire P has half the diameter and half the length E. The lines of force round a straight current
of a wire Q of similar material. The ratio of the carrying conductor are circular.
resistance of P to that of Q is
A. 8: 1 B. 4: 1 46. A transformer has a primary coil with 500 turns
C. 2: 1 D. 1: 1 and secondary coil with 2500 turns. When the
E. 1: 4 voltage input to the primary coil is 120V, the output
is
671
A. 6 000 V B. 600 V C. Shortsighted people cannot
C. 240 V D. 60 V accommodate distant objects.
E. 24 V D. Longsighted people need diverging
spectacles lenses.
47. Which of the following statements about E. A person with long sight has his eye-ball
electrolysis is NOT correct? too short and the image of an object is
A. The substances in solution in the therefore formed behind the retina.
electrolyte become ionized.
B. Ions are electrically charged and are 49. Which of the following features is NOT a
attracted towards electrodes when a characteristic of natural radioactivity?
potential difference is applied. A. Radioactivity is a nuclear phenomenon.
C. Ions may be discharged at the electrodes, B. Radioactivity is exhibited only by
forming bubbles or deposits. elements of mass number greater 206.
D. The mass deposited depends upon the C. The radioactivity of an element is affected
length of time for which current flows. by electric and magnetic fields in the
E. The mass of gas set free or metal surroundings.
deposited is proportional to the square D. The radioactive element is transformed
of the current. into a new element.

48. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 50. What is the number of neutrons in the Uranium
238
A. The average range of distinct vision for a isotope 92
X?
normal eye is from the far distance A. 92
(infinity) up to about 25cm in front of the B. 146
eye. C. 238
B. Longsighted people have difficulty in D. 330
making the eye lens sufficiently powerful E. 119
to the focus on nearby objects.

Physics 1986
1. Which of the following represents the correct Figure 1 is a graph of force against extension for a
precision if the length of a piece of wire is measured spiral spring. The force constant of the spring is
with a metre rule? given by the.
A. 35 mm A. Slope of the linear portion of the graph.
B. 35.0 mm B. Length of the linear portion of the graph.
C. 35.00 mm C. Area under the linear portion of the graph.
D. 35.01 mm D. Area under the entire graph.

3. A heavy object is suspended from a string and

lowered into water so that it is completely
submerged. The object appears lighter because
2.
Force A. The density of water is less than that of
the object.
B. The pressure is low just below the water
surface.
C. It experiences an upthrust.
D. The tension in the string neutralizes part
0 Extension of the weight.
Fig. 1

672
4. Which of the following is a derived unit? In Fig. 3, the forces F1, F2, F3, acting at O are in
A. Kilogramme B. Metre equilibrium. If the magnitude of F1, is 10.0N and
C. Kelvin D. Newton the magnitude of F2 is 5.0N, find the magnitude of
F3.
5. Two objects, one having three times the mass of A. 26.4 N B. 15.0 N
the other, are dropped at the same time from at tall C. 13.2 N D. 10.0 N
building. When they are above the ground, the
two objects will have the same 11. When a box of mass 400g is given an initial speed
A. Momentum of 5m s-1, it slides along a horizontal floor a distance
B. Kinetic energy of 3m before coming to rest. What is the coefficient
C. Potential energy of the kinetic friction between the box and the
D. Acceleration. floor?
(g = 10m s-2)
5 5
6. Which of the following is in a neutral equilibrium? A. /6 B. / 12
1 2
A. A heavy weight suspended on a string. C. /3 D. /3
B. A cone resting on its slant edge.
C. A heavy based table lamp. 12. 12.

D. The beam of a balance in use.

7. A ball is thrown vertically into the air with an W N

initial velocity u. What is the greatest height

reached?
U
A. /2 g
B. 3u2/2g
C. u2/g
D. u2/ 2g.

8. Which of the following assumptions is made in a

1200N

simple pendulum experiment? The

A. Suspending string is inextensible Figure 4 represents a block-and-tackle pulley
B. Bob has a finite size system on which an effort of W Newtons supports
C. Bob has a definite mass a load of 120.0N. If the efficiency of the machine is
D. Initial angle of oscillation must be large. 400, then the value of W is
A. 28.0 N B. 48.0 N
9. C. 50.0 N D. 288.0 N
10cm
13. A constant force of magnitude F acts on an object
Q R of mass 0.04kg initially at rest at a point O. If the
P speed of the object when it has moved 50m from O
is 500m s-1, what is the value of F?
10g A. 0.4 N B. 100.0 N
Fig. 2 C. 250.0 N D. 1 000.0 N
A uniform metre rule QR is balanced on a knife
edge which is 55cm from R. when a mass of 10g is 14. A rectangular tank contains water to a depth of
hung at P as shown in Fig. 2, the mass of the metre 2m. if the base is 4m x 3m, calculate the force on the
rule is base.
A. 550g B. 350g (Density of water = 103kg m-3, g = 10m s-2)
C. 70g D. 35g A. 2.4 x 105 N B. 2.4 x 104 N
4
C. 2.0 x 10 N D. 1.7 x 103 N
10. F1
15. A 1000kg elevator is descending vertically with an
10.0N acceleration of 1.0ms-2, if the acceleration due to
gravity is 10.0m 5s, the tension in the suspending
600 cable is
F2 A. 1.0 N B. 10.0 N
O 5.0N C. 9 000.0 N D. 11 000.0 N
F3 Fig. 3
673
16. A ball attached to one end of a string moves C. Change the state of a unit mass lead at its
anticlockwise around a circle whose centre is O. If melting point.
the string suddenly breaks when the ball is at point D. Change the state of a unit mass of lead at
P, along which of the following paths will it move? its boiling point.
F3
B 21. Which of the following is common to evaporation
A and boiling? They
16.
A. Take place at any temperature.
O P O P B. Are surface phenomena.
C. Involve change of state
D. Take place at a definite pressure.
C D
22. Mercury is suitable as a barometric fluid because
it
O P O P
A. Expands uniformity
B. Is opaque
C. Is several times denser than water
17. The mode of heat transfer which does not requires D. Is a good conductor of heat
material medium is
A. Conduction B. Radiation 23. Which of the following properties makes metals
C. Convection D. Propagation ideal for cooking utensils?
A. High coefficient of expansion
18. The expansion of solids can be considered a B. Good conduction of heat
disadvantages in the C. Low specific heat capacity
A. Balance wheel of a watch D. Poor radiation of heat.
B. Fitting of wheels on rims
C. Fire alarm 24. A gas occupies a volume of 300cm 3 at a
D. Thermostat. temperature of 270C. What is its volume at 540C,
when the pressure is constant?
19. A. 150 cm3 B. 273 cm3
3
C. 327 cm D. 600 cm3
19.
25. When two objects P and Q are supplied with the
Te m p e ra tu re ©

100
90 same quantity of heat, the temperature change in
P is observed to be twice that of Q. The mass of P
80 is half that of Q the ratio of the specific heat
70 capacity of P to Q is
60 A. 1: 4 B. 4: 1
C. 1: 1 D. 2: 1
5 10
Time (min) 26. Which of the following is true of sound?
A. Sound travels faster in air at 200C that at 300C.
Fig.5 B. The frequency of a given sound wave
changes when it crosses the boundary
In an experiment in which molten naphthalene is separating two media..
allowed to cool. The cooling curve in Fig. 5 was C. The wavelength of a given sound wave in air
obtained. The temperature 800C is known as the decreases as the temperature increases.
A. Cooling temperature D. Sound waves cannot be reflected.
B. Boiling point
C. Melting point
D. Vaporization point

20. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead is the

amount of heat required to
A. Melt lead at its melting point
B. Heat a unit mass of lead through 10C.

674
27. 33. A pencil is placed vertically between a concave
mirror and its focal point. The image of the pencil
in the mirror will be
27. A. Real inverted and diminished
Reflected ray B. Virtual, inverted and enlarged
60o
C. Real, erect and enlarged.
Incident ray AIR D. Virtual, erect and enlarged.

Glass 34. A wave of frequency 10 HZ forms a stationary

wave pattern in a medium where the velocity is
20cm s-1. the distance between adjacent nodes is
A. 1.0 cm B. 1.5 cm
Refracted Ray C. 2.0 cm D. 5.0 cm

35.
35.
In Fig. 6, a ray of light in air strikes a glass plate at
an angle of incidence of 600C. The reflected ray is
observed to be perpendicular to the refracted ray.
What is the refractive index of the glass?
A. 1.73 B. 1.50
C. 0.87 D. 0.57.

28. A lens of focal length 12.0cm forms an upright

image three times the size of a real object. The
distance between the object and the image is
A. 8.0 cm B. 16.0 cm
C. 24.0 cm D. 32.0 cm Fig. 7

29. In which of the following arrangements is the In Fig. 7, a resonance tube experiment is performed
wavelength in an increasing order? using one turning fork. As the water level is
A. Gamma rays, infra-red rays, X-rays, lowered the first resonance is obtained when the
radiowaves. length of the air column l = ë/4. The second
B. Gamma rays, X-rays, infra-red rays, resonance is obtained when l equals
radiowaves. A. /2
C. Radiowaves, X-rays, gamma rays, infra-red B. 3 /4
rays. C.
D. Infra-red rays, radiowaves, X-rays, gamma D. 3 /2.
rays.
36. Which of the following is true of the loudness of
30. If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, what is the
sound? It
critical angle at the air-glass interface?
A. Depends on the square of the amplitude of
A. sin-1 ½ B. Sin-1 2/3
the vibrating body.
C. Sin-1 ¾ D. Sin-1 8/9
B. Is proportional to the distance of the observer
31. A dentist obtains a linear magnification of 4 of a from the source of the sound.
hole in a tooth by placing a concave mirror at a C. Is greatest in vacuum
distance of 2.0cm from the tooth. The radius of D. Is independent of frequency.
curvature of the mirror is
A. 5.3 cm B. 3.2 cm 37. A man clapping his hands at regular intervals
C. 2.7 cm D. 1.6 cm. observes that the echo of a clap coincides with
the next clap. If the reflecting cliff is 160m away
32. What is the effect of the increase in the size of the and the speed of sound is 320m s-1, what is the
hole of a pin-hole camera on the image? It frequency of the clapping?
A. Gives a blurred image. A. I Hz B. 2 Hz
B. Corrects for chromatic aberration C. 4 Hz D. 8 Hz.
C. Magnifies the image
D. Brings the image into the sharper focus.
675
38. The vibration of an air column produces the sound 41. Which of the following if NOT a part of the a.d.c.
in the electric motor?
A. Piano B. Guitar A. Field-magnet
C. Flute B. Armature
D. School handbell. C. Commutator
D. Transfomer.
39.
5 42. Which of the following is stored by a dry Leclanche
cell?
5 A. Electrical power
20 B. Kinetic energy
C. Electric current
D. Chemical energy.

43. Which of the following arrangements will produce

an equivalent resistance of 1.5Ù from three 1Ù
resistors?
1 1 1
43.
E
1 1
Fig. 8.
1
In Fig. 8, E is an accumulator with negligible internal
resistance. If the e.m.f. is 9.0V, then the total current
1
is
A. 0.3 A B. 0.8 A 1
C. 1.0 A D. 1.8 A
1

1
R
40. 3 2A
44. Which of the following is true of magnetism?
40. A A. Iron fillings cling mainly round the ends
of a bar magnet.
B. The freely suspended bar magnet comes
to rest in the geographic north-south
6 direction.
C. Like poles attract.
D. Lodestone is a non-magnetic oxide.

45. The angle between the magnetic meridian and the

12V geographic meridian at a locality on the earth is
the
A. Longitude of the locality.
Fig. 6. B. Angle of inclination at the locality
C. Latitude of the locality
In Fig. 9, the value of R is D. Angle of declination of the locality.

A. 3 Ohms 46. The sign of the charge on a charged glass rod may
B. 4 Ohms be determined with
C. 5 Ohms A. A charged electroscope
D. 6 Ohms B. An uncharged electroscope
C. A galvanometer
D. An electrometer.
676
47. The diagrams below depict the current induced in 48. If the inclination at Ibadan is 700S, this means that
a coil as a result of the relative motion between it A. The angle between the geographic meridian
and a bar magnet. Which of the diagrams illustrates and the magnetic meridian at Ibadan is 70
the direction of the induced current? B. The earth’s resultant magnetic intensity at
47.
Ibadan makes angle 70 with the horizontal
N S
direction
C. A magnetic needle will be inclined at 70 to the
vertical at Ibadan.
D. The north pole of a magnetic needle dips
downwards at Ibadan.
N S

49. The wavelength of ultraviolet radiation is 400nm.

If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108m s-1, then the
frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is
N S A. 1.3 x 10-15 Hz B. 7.5 x 105 Hz
11
C. 1.2 x 10 Hz D. 7.5 x 1014 Hz.

50. Which of the following is most strongly deflected

by a magnetic field?
N S
A. gammarays
B. alphaparticles
C. beta-particles
D. X-rays.

Physics 1987
1. Which of the following units is equivalent to kg
ms-1? The velocity – time graph above describes the
A. Ns-1 B. Nms motion of a particle between two points P and Q.
C. Ns D. Js -1 What is the distance between P and Q?
A. 17.0 m B. 18.0 m
2. A man walks 8km north and then 5km in a direction C. 22.5 m D. 30.0 m
600 east of north. Find the distance from his starting
point. 4. A jet engine develops a thrust of 270Ns when the
A.11.36km B. 12.36km velocity of the exhaust gases relative to the engine
C.13.00km D14.36km. is 300m s-1. What is the mass of the material ejected
3. per second?
3. A. 81.00 kg B. 9.00 kg
8
V E L O C I T Y (m s -1 )

C. 0.90 kg D. 0.09 kg
6
4 5.
2
0
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 Q
TIME (s)
677
9. A body rolls down a slope from a height of 100m.
5. Its velocity at the foot of the slope 20ms-1. What
percentage of its initial potential energy is
converted into kinetic energy?
A. 40 % B. 35 %
C. 20% D. 15 %
(g = 10ms-2)
M1
10.
10 [g= 10 ms-1]
M2 Q1 Q2
Fig. 1 Water with high Water with low
Kinetic energy Kinetic energy
Figure 1 above shows two connected bodies of
masses m1 and m2 in equilibrium under gravity. The
tension in the upper string is
A. (m1 – m2)g B. m1g E
C. m2g D. (m1 + m2)g. Electrical Energy
6. An elevator of mass 4800kg is supported by a cable
which can safely withstand a maximum tension of Fig. 3.
60 000N. the maximum upward acceleration the Figure 3 above represents the main sequence of
elevator can have is energy conversion at Kainji dam. The efficiency
A. 2.5m s-2 B. 5.0m s-2 of the system is
-2
C. 7.5m s D. 10.0m s-2
(g = 10m s-2) A. Q1 .
7. Q2
B. E .
Q1
10m C. E .
(Q1 – Q2)
7. D. E .
(Q1 + Q2)

11. The coefficient os static friction between a 40kg

crate and a concrete surface is 0.25. Find the
magnitude of the minimum force needed to keep
the crate stationary on the concrete base inclined
at 450 to the horizontal.[g = 10ms-2]
Fig. 2. A. 400 N B. 300 N
A 50.0kg block is dropped on a string from a point C. 283 N D. 212 N
10m above (Fig. 2). If the force constant of the
spring is 4.0 x 104 Nm -1, find the maximum 12. If a beaker is filled with water, it is observed that
compression of the spring. the surface of the water is not horizontal at the
A. 1.25 m B. 0.50 m glass-water interface. This behaviour is due to
C. 0.25 m D. 0.05 m A. Friction B. Viscosity
(g = 10 ms-2) C. Surface tension D. Evaporation.

8. A constant force of 40N acting on a body initially 13. The mechanical advantage (MA) of an inclined
at rest gives an acceleration of 0.1ms-2 for 4s. plane depends on
Calculate the work done by the force. A. Its length
A. 8J B. 10 J B. Its height]
C. 32 J D. 160 J C. The product of its length and height
D. The ratio of its length and its height.

678
14. A load of 5N gives an extension of 0.56cm in a wire
which obeys Hooke’s law. What is the extension I III
caused by a load of 20N?
A. 1.12 cm B. 2.14 cm P P
diagram
C. 2.24 cm D. 2.52 cm.

15. A cube of side 10cm and mass 0.5kg floats in a

liquid with only 1/5 of its height above the liquid V V
surface. What is the relative density of the liquid? II IV
A. 0.125 B. 0.250
C. 0.625 D. 2.500.
P P
16. The distance between the fixed points of centigrade
thermometer is 20cm. What is the temperature when
the mercury level is 4.5cm above the lower mark?
V V
A. 22.50C B. 29.00C A. I, II B. II, III
0
C. 90.0 C D. 100.00C C. II, IV D. III, IV

17. A metallic strip of iron and brass was heated. Which 21. Hot water is added to three times its mass of water
of the following diagrams accurately illustrates the at 100C and the resulting temperature is 200C. What
shape of the strip after heating? is the initial temperature of the hot water?
A. 1000C B. 800C
17. C. 0
50 C D. 400C
Brass
Iron
dagram 22. 22,000J of heat is required to raise the temperature
of 1.5kg of paraffin from 200C. Calculate the specific
Brass heat capacity of paraffin.
A. 1466J kg-1 0C-1
Iron
Brass B. 2933J kg-1 0C-1
Iron C. 4400J kg-1 0C-1
D. 5866J kg-1 0C-1

23. Calculate the amount of heat required to convert

Brass 2kg of ice at –20C to water at 0 0C. (Specific heat
Iron capacity of ice = 2090J kg-1 0C-1, specific latent heat
of fusion = 333kJ kg-1).
18. The length of a side of a metallic cube at 200C is A. 666J B. 8 360J
5.0cm. Given that the linear expansivity of the C. 666 000J D. 674 360J.
metal is 4.0 x 10-5 k-1 Find the volume of the cube
at 1200C. 24. In which of the following are the substances
A. 126.50 cm3 B. 126.25 cm3 arranged in descending order of their thermal
3
C. 126.00 cm D. 125.00 cm3 conductivities?

19. As a result of air at the top of a barometer, the A. Copper, steel, glass
height of the mercury column is 73.5cm when it B. Steel, copper, glass
should be 75.0cm; the volume of the space above C. Steel, glass, copper
the mercury is 8.0 cm 3 Calculate the correct D. Copper, glass, steel.
barometric height when the barometer reads 74.0cm
and the volume of the space above the mercury is 25. The vacuum in the Thermos flask helps to reduce
6.0 cm3. heat transfer by
A. 72.0 cm B. 74.5 cm A. Convection and radiation
C. 75.1 cm D. 76.0 cm B. Convection and conduction
C. Conduction and radiation
20. A fixed quantity of gas is subjected to various D. Radiation only.
pressures P and the corresponding volumes V
measured at a constant temperature. Which of the 26. Which of the following phenomena explains the
following graphs best represent the results? fact that a house whose roof is coated with white
679
paint will be cooler in the hot season than one of water is 1.33. what is the actual depth of the
coated with black paint? pool?
A. Conduction B. Convection A. 0.75 m B. 1.013 m
C. Refraction D. Reflection. C. 1.330 m D. 13,3000 m

27. A wave has a frequency of 2 Hz and a wavelength 36. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 300 on one
of 30cm. The velocity of the wave is top surface of a parallel-sided glass block of
A. 60.0m s-1 B. 6.0m s-1 refractive index 1.5. The ray finally emerges from
-1
C. 1.5m s D. 0.6m s-1 the lower surface. What is the angular deviation
of the emergent ray?
28. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests A. 600 B. 390
are 100m apart and whose velocity is 25m s-1. At C. 280
D. 00
what interval does the wave crest reach the boat?
A. 2,500.00s B. 75.00s 37. Four lenses are being considered for use as a
C. 4.00s D. 0.25s microscope objective. Which of the following focal
lengths is most suitable?
29. Which of the following instruments has a pure A. -5mm B. +5mm
tone? C. –5cm D. +5cm
A. Guitar
B. Vibrating string 38. If the angle of declination in a place is 100E,
C. Turning fork calculate the true geographic bearing if the
D. Siren. compass reads N400E.
A. N500E B. N400E
0
30. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has C. N30 E D. N250E
a frequency of 40 Hz. How many overtones are
there between 40 hZ and 150 Hz?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4.
4
31. When the length I of a piece of wire under constant P 1
tension is varied, the relationship of the frequency 39 Q
of vibration f with l is
A. f & l B. f & 1/l2
C. f &l D. f & 1/l

32. Which of the following statements supports the 4

assumption that light travels in straight lines?
A. Light can be diffracted
B. A source of light produces distinct
shadows of opaque objects Fig. 4.
C. A source of light produces interference
patterns on a suitably placed screens. In Fig. 4 above, a voltage V is applied across the
D. Light can be reflected. terminals P and Q. the voltage across the 1 resistor
33. If an object is placed in front of two mirrors inclined is
at 900, how many images will be formed? A. V . B V
A. Five B. Four 8 4
C. Three D. Two. C. V. D V
3 2
34. An object 3.0cm high is placed 60.0cm from a
converging lens whose focal length is 20.0cm. 40. Two capacitances of 6uF and 8 uF are connected
Calculate the size of the image formed. in series. What additional capacitance must be
A. 0.5 cm B. 1.5 cm connected in series with this combination to give
C. 2.0 cm D. 6.0 cm a total of 3 uF?
A. 3 uF B. 16 uF
35. A pool of water appears to be 1.0m deep when C. 24 uF D. 30 uF.
viewed vertically from above. If the refractive index

680
41. 46. A galvanometer of resistance 20 is to be provided
41. M N with a shunt that 1/10 of the whole current in a
circuit passes through the galvanometer. The
resistance of the shunt is
A. 2.00 B. 2.22
C. 18.00 D. 18.22
P
-
47. What type of reaction is represented by the
following scheme?
2
1
X + 21Y 3
3
Z + 10n + energy
A. Fusion reaction
Fig. 5
B. Fission reaction
In Fig. 5 above, M and N are insulated metal C. Chain reaction
spheres in contact. A negatively charged ebonite D. Radioactivite decay.
rod P is brought near M. when M and N are
48. Which of the following statements is TRUE of
separated and the rod is taken away, which of the
photoelectric effect?
following statements is CORRECT?
A. It cannot occur in liquids
A. Both M and N have acquired negative
B. The energy of the emitted electron is
charges
independent of the work function of the
B. Both M and N have acquired positive
surface
charges
C. The energy of the emitted electron
C. M has acquired negative charge and N
depends on the wavelength of the
positive charge
incident light
D. M has acquired positive charge and N
D. The greater the intensity of the incident,
negative charge.
the greater the energy of the emitted
42. When a transformer has more secondary windings electron.
than primary winding, it
49. Isotopes are nuclei which have
A. Has a smaller seconder current
A. The same number of neutrons and
B. Has a greater power output
electrons
C. Is a step-down transformer
B. Equal number of electrons and protons
D. Increases the total energy output.
C. The same atomic number but different
43. A current of 0.5A flows through a resistor when number of neutrons
connected to a 40-V battery. How much energy is D. The same number of total particles.
dissipated in 2 minutes?
A. 1 200J B. 1 500J 50. A radioactive sample initially contains N atoms.
C. 2 400J D. 96 000J. After three half-lives the number of atoms that have
disintegrated is
44. The direction of the magnetic field at a point in the
A. N
vicinity of a bar magnet is
8
A. Always towards the north pole of the
B. 3N
magnet
8
B. Always away from the south pole of the
C. 5N
magnet
8
C. Along the line joining the point to the
D. 7N
neutral point
8
D. In the direction the north pole of a
compass needle would point.
45. When two parallel wires carry currents in opposite
directions, the force on either wire is
A. Away from the other wire
B. Zero, because the currents cancel each
other
C. Twice as much as when the currents are
in the same direction
D. Towards the other wire.

681
Physics 1988
1. Which of the following diagrams correctly 6. A particle starts from rest and moves with a constant
represents the relationship between the time (T) acceleration of 0.5m s-2. The distance covered by
1. of swing of a simple pendulum and its length (l)? the particle in 10s is
A. 2.5m B. 5.0m
C. 25.0m D. 50.0m

7. When taking a penalty kick, a footballer applies a

force of 30.0N for a period of 0.05s. If the mass of
the ball is 0.075kg, calculate the speed with which
the ball moves off.
A. 4.50m s-1 B. 11.25m s-1
-1
C. 20.00m s D. 45.00m s-1

8. A 20-toothed gear wheel drives a 60-toothed one,

if the angular speed of the smaller wheel is 120 rev
s-1, the angular speed of the wheel is
A. 3 rev s-1 B. 40 rev s-1
–1
C. 360 rev s D. 2 400 rev s-1

2. Which of the following are the correct SI units of 9.

9.
the quantities indicated?
I N (Force) 3
II. Nm-1 (Torque)
x(m)
III Watt (power) 1
IV kg ms-2 (Momentum).

A. I and II only
B. I. II and III only 2
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and III only.
f(s)
3. A lorry travels 10km northwards, 4km eastwards,
6km southwards and 4km westwards to arrive at a
point T. What is the total displacement? The figure above show the displacement – time
A. 6km south B. 4km north graphs for three different motions. Which of the
C. 6km north D. 4km east. following statements is correct?
A. Graph 2 corresponds to the highest
4. Two forces whose resultant is 100N, are at right velocity
angles to each other. If one of them makes an angle B. Graph 1 corresponds to zero velocity
of 300 with the resultant, determine its magnitude. C. Graph 3 corresponds to a particle moving
A. 8.66 N B. 50.0 N in the negative x direction.
C. 57.7 N D. 86.6 N D. Graph 2 corresponds to a particle moving
in the positive x directions.
5. Which of the following quantities are scalars? 10.

I Electrical potential 10.

II Torque
III Momentum
IV Kinetic energy y
x

A. II and III only

B. I and Ii only
C. III and Iv only
D. I and Iv only.
z

682
The figures above show three different ways of 15.
hanging a heavy picture from a hook. The tension 15.
in the string would be
A. Greatest in X diagram
B. Greatest in Y
C. Greatest in Z 13.4cm
D. Same in each one.
To gas
supply
11. How long will it take a 60kg man to climb a height
of 22m if he expended energy at the rate of 0.25kW? 3.5cm
A. 5.3s
B. 34.5s
C. 41.6s When one arm of a U-tube manometer is connected
D. 52.8s to a gas supply, the levels of mercury in the two
[g = I0ms-2] arms of the U-tube are as shown in the diagram
above. If the atmospheric pressure is 76.0cm Hg,
12. A force, 10N, drags a mass 10kg on a the gas pressure is
horizontal table with an acceleration of A. 62.6cm Hg B. 72.5cm Hg
0.2m s-2. If the acceleration due to gravity C. 79.5cm Hg D. 85.9cm hg
is 10m s-2, the coefficient of friction
between the moving mass and the table 16. The product PV where P is pressure and V is
is volume has the same unit as
A. 0.02 B. 0.08 A. Force B. Power
C. 0.20 D. 0.80 C. Energy D. Acceleration

13. Which of the following graphs correctly describes 17. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature
the variation of the mechanical advantage with of 10kg of copper by1K is its
load for a simple machine whose velocity ratio is A. Specific heat capacity
3? B. Heat capacity
C. Latent heat
D. Internal heat.
13. 18. A tap supplies water at 250C while another supplies
MA MA
water at 750C. If a man wishes to bathe with water
at 40C, the ratio of the mass of cold water to the
mass of hot water required is
A. 1:3 B. 15 : 8
C. 7:3 D. 3:1
Load Load
19. Which of the following graphs clearly illustrates
MA MA the temperature change which takes place as a
piece of ice at - 100C is heated slowly?
19.

ToC T oC

Load Load

0 t(min) 0 t(min)

14. A body whose mass is 2kg and has a volume of

500cm just floats when completely immersed in a TC
o
TC
o

liquid. Calculate the density of the liquid.

A. 4.0 x 102kg m-3
B. 4.0 x 103kg m-3
0 t(min) 0 t(min)
C. 1.0 x 103kg m-3
D. 1.0 x 106kg m-3

683
20. When heat is applied to one end of a metal rod, the 25. A note is called an octave of another note when
molecules at the other end soon begin to vibrate A. Its frequency is twice that of the first note
with greater amplitude than before because heat B. Its frequency is half that of the first note
has been transfer by C. The notes have the same fundamental
A. Radiation B. Convection frequency
C. Conduction D. Evaporation. D. Its periodic time is twice that of the first note.

21. Which of the following media allow the 26. Which of the following factors affects the speed
transmission of sound waves through them? of sound in air?
I Air I Temperature
II Liquids II Pressure
III Solids III Frequency.

A. I and II only A. I only B. II only

B. I and III only C. I and II only D. II and III only.
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III. 27. The speed of sound in air at sea-level is 340m s-1
while that of light is 300,000km s-1. How far (to the
22. nearest metre) from the center of thunderstorm is
an observer who hears a thunder 2s after a
lightning flash?
A. 170m B. 340m
C. 600m D. 680m.

28. A slight loading of a turning fork has the effect of

A. Decreasing its amplitude
X B. Increasing its amplitude
C. Decreasing its frequency
D. Increasing its frequency

Y 29. Two strings of the same length and under the same
tension give notes of frequencies in the ratio 4 : 1.
The diagram above shows two waveforms X and The masses of the strings are in the corresponding
Y. If the frequency is 30 HZ, what is the frequency ratio of
of Y? A. 2: 1 B. 1: 2
A. 12 Hz B. 19 Hz C. 1;4 D. 1 : 16
C. 60 Hz D. 75 Hz
30. To obtain a magnification of 2.5, how far should an
23. Which of the following properties is/are common object be placed from the pole of a thin converging
to all waves? lens of focal length 10.20m?
I Diffraction A. 0.13m B. 0.25m
II refraction C. 0.28m D. 0.50m
III Interference
31.
A. I only B. III only M1
C. I and III only D. I, II and III.

24. A piano wire 0.5m long has a total mass of 0.01kg 60o
and is stretched with a tension of 800N. Calculate diagram
the frequency of the wire when it sounds its
fundamental note.
A. 200 Hz B. 100 Hz
C. 4 Hz D. 2 Hz.

684
In the figure above, what is the angle of reflection opaque object when viewed through the
of the ray of light at mirror M2? arrangement of the filters above is
A. 900 B. 600 A. Yellow B. Red
0
C. 45 D. 300 C. Black D. Blue

32. An object is place 10 cm in front of a concave 37.

mirror of focal length 15cm. What is the positive Magnetic north
and nature of the image formed? 2
A. 30cm and virtual
B. 6cm and real
C. 6cm and virtual
D. 30cm and real. 3 -X 1
33. Which of the following phenomena explain the
formation of a mirage
I Reflection 4
III Refraction
III Diffraction

A. I and II only The wire X in the figure above is at right angles to

B. II and III only the plane of the paper and carries a current into
C. I and III only the paper. At which of the point labeled 1 – 4 will
D. I, II and III. the magnetic flux density due to this current be in
the same direction as that of the horizontal
34. When white light is dispersed by a spectrometer, component of the earth’s magnetic field?
the component having the shortest wavelength is A. 1 B. 2
A. Orange B. Green C. 3 D. 4.
C. Violet D. Red.
38. A spectrum of sunlight is said to be impure when
35. Which of the following statements is TRUE of ultra- A. It is made of only three colours
violet, visible and infra-red rays? B. It has no red colour in it
A. They are all electromagnetic waves with C. The different colours in it overlap
the same wavelength. D. It does not contain white light.
B. Ultra-violet rays have shorter wvelenghts
than infra-red rays and produce 39. A cell of internal resistance 2 ohms supplies
fluorescence. current to a 6-ohm resistor. The efficiency of the
C. Infra-red rays have shorter wavelength cell is
than visible light and produce the A. 12.0 %
sensation of heat. B. 25.0 %
D. The wavelengths increase in the C. 33.3 %
sequence: visible, ultra-violet, infra-red. D. 75.0 %

40. When a resistance R is across a cell, the voltage

across the terminals of the cell is reduced to two-
White thirds of its nominal value. The internal resistance
of the cell is
A. 1 R
36. 3
B. 1 R
object 2
C. 2 R
E F G 3
E. R

E, F and G are yellow, red and cyan transparent

light filters respectively. The colour of a white

685
41. II Moving-iron ammeter
III Hot-wire ammeter.
R X
41 A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III.
A
46. The principle of operation of an induction coil is
based on
A. Ohm’s law
B. Ampere’s law
E C. Faraday’s law
D. Coulomb’s law.
In the circuit above, the ammeter reads a current of
3 amps. When R is 5 ohms and reads 6 amps when 47. A dynamo primarily converts
R is 2 ohms. The value of the unknown resistance A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
X is B. Electrical energy into kinetic energy
A. 1 B. 2 C. Potential energy into kinetic energy
C. 3 D. 4 D. Kinetic energy into potential energy.

42. Which of the following combinations of 2 ìF 48. In a certain fusion reaction, a deuteron (21H)
capacitors will give an effective capacitance of 3 interacts with a triton (31H) and produces an á-
ìF across terminal XY? particle (42He) and a second product. The second
product is
A. A proton B. An electron
C. A neutron D. A gamma ray.

49. Which of the following symbolic representations

is correct for an atom X with 22 electrons and 43
neutrons?
4 3
A. 2 2
X
2 2
B. 4 3
X
6 5
C. 4 2
X
6 5
D. 2 2
X

.
50.
43. A household refrigerator is rated 200 watts. If
electricity costs 5k per kWh, what is the cost of
operating it fo 20 days?
A. N 4:80 B. N 48:00
C. N 480:00 D N 4 800:00

44. Which of the following instruments consumes the

highest current?
Voltage Power
Instrument Rating Rating
A. Electric iron 250V 1kW
B. Television set 220V 110W
C. Torch light 6V 30W
D. Immersion A particle is injected perpendicularly into an
heater 110V 500W electric field. It travels along a curved path as
depicted in the figure above. The particle is
45. Which of the following ammeters may be used to
measures alternating current? A. A gamma ray B. An electron
I Moving-coil ammeter C. A neutron D. A proton.
686
Physics 1989
1. Which of the following is a set of vectors?
A. Force, mass and moment 6.
B. Acceleration, velocity and moment
C. Mass, weight and density
D. Mass, volume and density

2. The magnitude of the resultant of two mutually

perpendicular forces, F1 and F2 is 13N. If the
magnitude of F1 is 5N, what is the magnitude of
F2?
A. 2.6 N B. 8.0 N
C. 12.0 N D. 18.0 N A simple pendulum of mass m moves along an arc
of a circle radius R in a vertical plane as shown in
3. Two points on a velocity-time graph have co- the figure above. What is the work done by gravity
ordinates (5s, 10m s-1) and (20s, 20m s-1). Calculate in a downward swing through the angle Qto 00?
the mean acceleration n between the two points. A. mgR sinQ
A. 0.67m s-1 B. 0.83m s-2 B. mgR (1 - cos Q
C. 1.50m s -2
D. 2.00m s-2 C. mgR
D. mgR (1 - sin Q)
4.
7.

diagram

p q r s

The figure above shows a uniform circular object, A block of mass m is held in equilibrium against a
centre R and diameter PS. A circular section, centre vertical wall by a horizontal force. If the coefficient
Q and diameter PR is cut away from it. If PQRS is a of friction between the block and the wall is u, the
straight line, where is the centre of gravity of the minimum value of the horizontal force is
figure? A. umg
A. Q B. R B. (1 – u)mg
C. A point between P and R C. (1 + u)mg
D. A point between R and S. D. mg
u
5. Which of the following graphs represents motion
with uniform velocity? 8. A thin film of liquid is trapped between two glass
plates. The force required to pull the plates apart
will increase if the
A. Surface tension of the liquid is reduced
B. Perpendicular distance between the
plates is increased.
C. Area of the liquid surface in contact with
the plates is increased
D. Pressure of the air is decreased.

687
9. A block-and-tackle system is used to lift a load of D. 37.0cm
20N through a vertical height of 10cm. If the
efficiency of the system is 40%, how much work is 15. A mass of gas at 70C and 70cm of mercury has a
done against friction? volume of 1200cm3. Determine its volume at 270C
A. 80J B. 120J and pressure of 75cm of mercury.
C. 300J D. 500J
A. 1 200 cm3
10. B. 1 378 cm3
C. 4 320 cm3
D. 4 629 cm3

16. An electric heater is used to melt a block of ice,

mass 1.5kg. If the heater is powered by a 12V
battery and a current of 20A flows through the
coil, calculate the time taken to met the block of ice
at 00C. (Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 x
103J kg-1).
In the figure above, W1 = 200g and W2 = 450g.
Calculate the extension of the spring per unit load. A. 76.0 min
[g = 10m s-2] B. 35.0 min
A. 6.0 x 10-5m N-1 C. 21.0 min
B. 2.5 x 10-4m N-1 D. 2.9 min.
C. 6.0 x 10-4m N-1
D. 2.5 x 10-2m N-1 17. From the kinetic theory of gases, temperature is a

11. Which of the following devices are used to measure A. Form of energy and is proportional to the total
pressure? kinetic energy of the molecules.
I Aneroid barometer B. Form of energy and is proportional to the
II Hydrometer average kinetic energy of the molecules.
III Hygrometer C. Physical property and is proportional to the
IV Manometer. total kinetic energy of the molecules.
A. I and III B. II and III D. Physical property and is proportional to the
C. III and IV D. I and IV. average energy of the molecules.

12. A piece of wood of mass 40g and uniform cross- 18. Which of the following correctly represents the
sectional area of 2cm2 floats upright in water. The variation of the saturated vapour pressure of water
length of the wood immersed is with temperature?
A. 80cm B. 40cm
C. 20cm D. 2cm

13. The pressure on the gas of constant gas

thermometer at the ice point is 325mm of mercury
and at the steam point 875mm of mercury. Find the
temperature when the pressure of the gas is 190mm
of mercury.

A. 30k
B. 243k
C. 300k 19. A vibrator of frequency 60 Hz is used in
D. 303k generating transverse stationary waves in a long thin
wire. If the average distance between successive nodes
14. A column of air 10.0cm long is trapped in a tube at on the wire is 45cm, find the speed of the transverse
270C. What is the length of the volume at 1000C? waves in the wire.
A. 27ms-1 B. 54ms-1
-1
A. 12.4cm C. 90ms D. 108ms-1
B. 13.7cm
C. 18.5cm
688
25. An object is placed 5.6 x 10-4m in front of a
converging lens of focal length 1.0 x 10-8m. The
image formed is
A. Real, erect and magnified
B. Virtual, erect and magnified
20. C. Real, inverted and magnified
D. Virtual, erect and diminished.

26. The magnification of the image of an object placed

in front of a convex mirror is 1/3. If the radius of
curvature of the mirror is 24cm, what is the distance
between the object and its image?
A. 8 cm B. 16 cm
C. 24 cm D. 32 cm
The air column as shown in the figure above is set
into vibration by the turning fork. In this state of 27. The plane mirrors in a kaleidoscope are usually
resonance, the waves in the air column will be placed
A. Stationary and transverse A. At an angle of 600
B. Stationary and longitudinal B. Parallel to one another
C. Progressive and transverse C. Perpendicular to one another
D. Progressive and longitudinal. D. At n angle of 450

21. When the tension in a sonometer wire is doubled, 28. A far sighted person cannot see objects that are
the waves in the air column will be less than 100cm away. If this person wants to read
A. 1/ 2 B. ½ a book at 25cm, what type and focal length of lens
C. 2 D. 2 does he need?
A. Convex, 20cm
22. In a sound wave in air, the adjacent rarefactions B. Concave, 20cm
and compressions are separated by a distance of C. Convex, 33cm
17cm. If the velocity of the sound wave is 340ms-1, D. Concave, 33cm.
determine the frequency.
A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz 29. When a yellow card is observed through a blues
C. 1 000 Hz D. 5 780 Hz glass, the cord would appear
A. Black B. Green
23. In which of the following diagrams is the length of C. Red D. White
the tube equal to one wavelength?
30. Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due to the
23. diagram A. Different hidden colours of the glass
B. Different speeds of the various colours
in glass
C. Defects in the glass
D. High density of glass.

31. Which of the following pairs is NOT part of the

electromagnetic spectrum?
I Radio waves
II Beta rays
III Gamma rays
IV Alpha rays
24. Light of wavelength 5000 x 10-8cm travels in free
space with a velocity of 3 x 108m s-1. What is its A. I and II B. III and IV
wavelength in glass of refractive index 1.5? C. I and III D. II and IV.
A. 3 333 x 10-8cm
B. 5 000 x 10-8cm 32. Two insulated charged spheres of different sizes
C. 6 666 x 10-8cm and carrying opposite charges are connected
D. 7 500 x 10-8cm together by a metallic conductor. Current will flow
from one sphere to the other until both spheres
689
A. Carry the same magnitude and sign of charge. 38.
B. Are at the same potential.
C. Are at the same temperature.
D. Are of the same size.

33. When a number of identical small magnets are

arranged in a line, the strength of the resultant
magnet
A. Is largest when they are arranged end to
end
B. Is greatest when they are arranged
parallel with like poles adjacent to each
other.
C. Depends only on the number of magnets
provided they are parallel. In the above circuit diagrams, A is the ammeter
D. Is greater when the magnets are arranged and V the voltmeter. Which of the circuits is correct
on a wooden surface than on a metal for finding the value of the resistance R?
surface. A. I B. II
C. III D. IV.
34. A bar magnet is most effectively demagnetized by
A. Placing it in a N – 5 position and hitting it with 39.
a hammer.
B. Subjecting it to an electric current from a
battery
C. Bringing its north pole in contact with the
north pole of a very strong magnet
D. Heating the magnet.

35. The resistance of a 5m uniform wire of cross-

sectional area 0.2 x 10-6m2 is 0.425. What is the
resistivity of the material of the wire?
A. 1.10 x 10-6 Ohms m Three 2 – u F capacitors are arranged as shown in
B. 4.25 x 10-6 Ohms m the above circuit. The effective capacitance
C. 2.40 x 10-7 Ohms m between E and F is
D. 1.70 x 10-8 Ohms m A. 0.75 uF
B. 1.33 uF
36. Three resistors, with substances 250Ohms C. 3.00 uF
500Ohms and 1 kOhms are connected in series. A D. 6.00 uF
6V battery is connected to either end of the
combination. Calculate the potential difference 40. The function of a 5-A fuse included in a circuit
between the ends of the 250Ohms resistor. supplying a household refrigerator with power is
A. 0.20V B. 0.86V to keep the
C. 1.71V D. 3.43V. A. Temperature of the refrigerator low and
constant.
37. A calibrated potentiometer is used to measure the B. Current supplied to the refrigerator
e.m.f. of a cell because the below 5A.
A. Internal resistance of a cell is small compared C. Voltage supply constant
with that of the potentiometer. D. Current supplies to the refrigerator
B. Potentiometer has a linear scale. constant and above 5A.
C. Potentiometer takes no current from the cell
D. Resistance of the potentiometer is less than
4
that of a voltmeter.
4

690
41. A. Settle in any direction
B. Settle in a fixed direction only if
conductor PQ is a magnetic material
C. Settle in a fixed direction whether
conductor PQ is a magnetic material or
not
D. Be stationary.
46. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 2 years.
If the initial mass is 40g, which of the following
The total power drawn from the cell in the circuit
rows correctly gives the mass of substance left at
diagram above is
the times stated?
A. 12W B. 24W
2Years 3year 4Years 5Years
C. 32W D. 40W
A 20g 10g
B 30g 20g 10g 0g
42. Which of the following correctly represents the
C 30g 20g 15g
relationship between the temperature rise è and
D 20g 10g 0g
the current l in and experiment to illustrate the
beating effect of the electric current?
47. When a radiation strikes a metal surface, electrons
may be ejected from the metal. The maximum kinetic
energy which may be acquired by an ejected
electron depends on the
A. Intensity of the radiation
B. Source of the radiation
C. Wavelength of the radiation
D. Detection device for the electron.
48. Which of the following is TRUE of the particles
emitted in radioactive disintegration?
A. The alpha particle is the helium nucleus
3
43. An ammeter of resistance 0.1 ohms has a full- 2
H
scale deflection of 50 mA. Determine the B. The alpha particle is lighter than the beta
resultant full-scale deflection of the meter when particle
a shunt of 0.0111Ohms is connected across its C. The alpha particle is deflected more than
terminals. the beta particle in a magnetic field
A. 400 mA B. 450 mA D. The beta particle is deflected more than
C. 500 mA D. 550 mA. alpha particle in a magnetic field.
49. Eight alpha decays and six beta decays necessary
44. The electrochemical equivalent of silver is 0.0012g/
before an atom of 23982U achieves stability. The
C. If 36.0g of silver is to be deposited by electrolysis
final product in the chain has an atomic number of
on a surface by passing a steady current for 5.0
A. 70 B. 78
minutes, the current must be
C. 82 D. 90.
A. 6 000 A B. 100 A
C. 10 A D. 1A

45.

50. A beam of radiation is passed between a pair of

charged plates indicated in the diagram above.
Beam P is undeflected while Q is deflected to the
left. P and Q respectively could be
I. Alpharays Betta-rays
The figure above shows a conductor PQ carrying II x-rays Betta-rays
a current I in the direction shown. At a particular III. gammarays Alpha-rays
position near the conductor is a compass needle IV x-rays Alpharays.
K. Neglecting the earth’s magnetic field, the A. I only B. III only
compass needle will C. I and II D. III and IV.
691
Physics 1990
.1.
A. mv .
M
B. Mv .
M-m
C. Mv .
M+m
D. mv .
M-m

What is the reading of the vernier scale above? 6.

A. 1.88 cm B. 1.80 cm
C. 1.28 cm D. 1.97 mm

2. Which of the following is a fundamental unit?

A. Newton B. Watt
C. Joule D. Second

What is the average velocity of the sprinter whose

velocity-time graph is shown in the figure above?
A. 85.0m s-1 B. 17.0m s-1
-1
C. 8.5m s D. 1.7m s-1

7. Which of the following statements are correct

Two horizontal forces, 10N and 8N and another about an object in equilibrium under parallel forces?
force F, inclined at 300 to the vertical acting as I The total clockwise moments of the
shown in the diagram above, keep the body P in forces about any point equals the total
equilibrium. The weight of the body is anticlockwise moments about the same
point.
A. 2 3 N II The total forces in one direction equals
3 the total forces in the opposite direction
B. 3N III The resolved components along the x-
C. 4 3 N axis equals the resolved component along
3 the y-axis.
D. 2 3N A. I and II only B. I and III only
C. II and III only D. I, II and III.
4. A car moving with a speed of 90km h was brought
uniformly to rest by the application of the brakes 8.
in 10s. How far did the car travel after the brakes X
were applied?
2m
A. 125 m B. 150 m
C. 250 m D. 15 km

5. A particle of mass M which is at rest splits up into

two. If the mass and velocity of one of the particles Y
5N
are m and v respectively, calculate the velocity of
the second particle.
Z
692
A force of 5N acts at a point Y on a rod XYZ as A. l – l0 .
shown in the diagram above. If XY is 2m, what is lÄt
the moment of the force about point X? B. l – l0 .
A. 0Nm B. 3Nm l0 Ä t
C. 7Nm D. 10Nm. C. l0 (1 + Ät)
D. l – l0 .
9. To keep a vehicle moving at a constant speed v, l (1 + Ät)
requires power P, from the engine. The force
provided by the engine is 17. The pressure of a gas when cooled at constant
A. P B. 1/2v volume will decrease because the molecules
v A. Collide less frequently with the walls of
C. pv D. p/v2 the container.
D. P B. Have the same average kinetic energy
V2 C. Break up into smaller molecules
D. Decrease in number.
10. A stone of mass m kg is held h meters above the
floor for 50s. The work done in joules over the
18. 1kg of copper is transferred quickly from boiling
period is
water to a block of ice. Calculate the mass of ice
A. mh B. mgh
melted, neglecting heat loss.
C. mgh/50 D. 0
A. 60g B. 67g
C. 120g D. 133g
11. A body of mass 10kg rests on a rough inclined
plane whose angle of tilt è is variable. is gradually
19. Which of the following conditions will make water
increased until the body starts to slide down the
boil at a temperature of 1000C when the atmospheric
plane at 300. The coefficient of limiting friction
pressure is 750mm Hg?
between the body and the plane is
A. Increase the external pressure
A. 0.30 B. 0.50
B. Reduce the external pressure
C. 0.58 D. 0.87.
C. Heat more rapidly at the same pressure.
D. Reduce the external pressure by a quarter.
12. An inclined plane which makes an angle of 300
with the horizontal has a velocity ratio of
20. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. 2 B. 1
I Land and sea breezes are natural
C. 0.866 D. 0.50.
convection currents.
II Convection may occur in liquids or gases
13. What is the length of the liquid column in a
but not in solids.
barometer tube that would support an atmospheric
III The vacuum in thermos flask prevents
pressure of 102000 Nm-2 if the density of the liquid
heat loss due to convection only.
is 2600 kgm-3? [g = 10 ms-2].
A. I and II only
A. 0.75m B. 0.76m
B. II and III only
C. 3.92m D. 39.23m.
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III.
14. 40cm3 of liquid is mixed with 60m3 of another liquid
Q. If the density of P and Q are 1.00kg m3 and 1.6kg
21. A light wave of frequency 5 x 1014 Hz moves
m3 respectively, what is the density of the mixture?
through water which has a refractive index of 4/3.
A. 0.05 kg m-3 B. 1.25 kg m-3
Calculate the wavelength in water if the velocity
C. 1.30 kg m-3 D. 1.36 kg m-3
of light in air is 3 x 108 ms-1
A. 4.5 x 10-7m B. 6.0 x 10-7m
15. The resistances of a platinum wire at the ice and -6
C. 1.7 x 10 m D. 2.2 x 10-6m
steam points are 0.75 ohm and 1.05 ohm
respectively. Determine the temperature at which
22. A wave disturbance traveling in air enters a medium
the resistance of the wire is 0.90 ohm
in which its velocity is less than that in air. Which
A. 43.00C B. 50.00C
of the following statements is true about the wave
C. 69.90C D. 87.00C
in the medium?
16. A bar of initial length l0 is heated through a
A. Both the frequency of the wave and the
temperature change Ä t to a new length l. The
wavelength are decreased.
linear expansivity, á, of the bar is

693
B. The frequency of the wave is decreased
while the wavelength is increased.
C. The frequency of the wave is unaltered
while the wavelength is decreased.
D. The frequency of the wave is decreased
while the wavelength is unaltered.

23. Shadows and eclipse result from the

A. Refraction of light
B. Rectilinear propagation of light A. I and II only B. II and III only
C. Defraction of light C. III and Iv only D. I and Iv only
D. Reflection of light
29. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point
24. An object which is 3cm high is placed vertically on a very distant object is focused
10cm in front of a concave mirror. If this object A. In front of the retina
produces an image 40cm from the mirror, the height B. On the retina by a converging lens
of the image is C. Behind the retina by a diverging lens
A. 0.75 cm B. 4.00 cm D. In front of the retina a distance 2F from
C. 8.00 cm D. 12.00 cm the lens.

25. A boy looks at the image of an object in a plane 30. When light is incident on an object which is
mirror. He observes two images, a main bright one magenta in colour, which of the following colours
and the other faint. The observed images result be absorbed?
from A. Red and blue B. Green only
A. Reflection only C. Red and green D. Red only.
B. Refraction only
C. Diffraction and interference 31. In a resonance tube experiment, the effective length
D. Reflection and infraction. of the air column for the first resonance is 20cm
26. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates when set into vibration by a tuning fork of
the path of a ray light through a glass prism? frequency 480 Hz. Neglecting end effect, the
velocity of sound in air is
A. 106 Hz B. 213 Hz
C. 318 Hz D. 425 Hz

33. An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long.

Determine the frequency of the fundamental note
assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms-1.
A. 5.1N B. 7.1N
C. 14.0N D. 19.6N

34. One of the properties of the earth’s magnetic field

is that the
27. What must be the distance between an object A. North pole lies in the northern hemisphere
and a converging lens of focal length 20cm to B. Geographic and magnetic meridians
produce an erect image two times the object coincide
height? C. Earth’s magnetic flux is entirely horizontal
A. 20cm B. 15cm at a place where the magnetic vertical dip
C. 10cm D. 5cm is zero.
D. Earth’s magnetic flux is entirely vertical
28. Which of the following correctly represents the at a place where the magnetic dip is zero.
diagram for locating the image P of an object O in
a lens if F is the focal point of the lens? 35. Which of the following statements are true of an
insulated charged body carrying a positive charge?
I It contains excess positive charges
II It creates an electric field
III It possesses potential energy
IV It carries electric current.
694
A. I and IV only B. I and II only A. Heat dissipation
C. I, II and II only D. I, II, III and IV. B. Production of eddy currents
C. Excessive current discharged
36. Which of the following is a vector? D. Excessive voltage discharged.
A. Electric charge
44. A lamp is rated 240V, 60W. The resistance of the
B. Electric field
filament is
C. Electric potential difference
A. 960 Ohms B. 16 Ohms
D. Electric capacitance.
C. 15Ohms D. 4 Ohms
37. Three cells each of e.m.f. 1.5V and an internal 45. A 0 – 10 mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of
resistance of 1.0 Ohms are connected in parallel 30 Ohms can be converted to a 0 –10A ammeter by
across a load resistance at 2.67 Ohms. Calculate using
the current in the load? A. 0.03 ohms series resistor
A. 0.26A B. 0.41A B. 0.03 ohms shunt resistor
C. 0.50A D. 0.79A. C. 9.99 ohms shunt resistor
D. 9.99 ohms series resistor
38. When a known standard resistor of 2.0 Ohms is
46. The number of neutrons contained in the nucleus
connected to the 0.0cm end of a meter bridge the
of 32982U is
balance point is found to be 55.0cm. what is the
A. 92 B. 146
value of the unknown resistor?
C. 238 D. 330
A. 1.10 Ohms B. 1.64 Ohms
C. 2.44 Ohms D. 27.50 Ohms
47. What precaution should a manufacturer take to
ensure that energy loss in a transformer is
39. The total energy required to send a unit positive
minimized?
charge round a complete electrical circuit is the
A. The winding of the transformer should
A. Kinetic energy
be made of high resistance wires.
B. Potential difference
B. The core should be made of thin sheets
C. Electromotive force
of metal.
D. Electrical energy
C. No magnetic material should be used to
40. Which of the following graphs of current against make the core.
voltage illustrates Ohm’s law? D. The flux linking the primary with the
v v secondary coils should be minimum.

48. A substance has a half life of 3 min. after 6 min, the

I I count rate was observed to be 400. What was its
count rate at zero time?
A. 200 B. 1 200
v v C. 1 600 D. 2 400
49. Which of the following graphs represents a voltage
current characteristics curve for a diode?
I I
41. Which of the following is an essential physical
property of the wires used for making fuses?
A. Low density
B. High thermal conductivity
C. Low electrical resistivity
D. Low melting point.

42. Which of the following is most suitable for

protecting the circuit of a 2000W electric iron
connected to a 250V mains?
50. The photocell works on the principle of the
A. 13A B. 8A
A. Voltaic cell
C. 5A D. 3A
B. Emission of electrons by incident
43. Electrical power is transmitted at a high voltage radiation
rather than low voltage because the amount of C. Emission of protons by incident
energy loss is reduced due to electrons.
695
D. Photographic plate.
Physics 1991

1. Which of the following is the most suitable for use Find the tensionT1 in the diagram above if the
as an altimeter? system is in equilibrium.
A. A mercury barometer A. 200/ 3 N
B. A fortin barometer B. 100/ 3 N
C. A mercury manometer C. 300/ 3 N
D. An aneroid barometer. D. 100 N
[g = 10m s-2]
2. A body of weight W N rests on a smooth plane
inclined at an angle Q0 to the horizontal. What is 7. A spring of force constant 1500 Nm-1 is acted upon
the resolved part of the weight in newtons along by a constant force of 75N. Calculate the potential
the plane? energy stored in the spring.
A. W sin Q B. W cosQ A. 1.9J B. 3.2J
C. W secQ D. W tanQ C. 3.8J D. 5.0J

3. A small metal ball is trown vertically upwards from 8. A wheel and axle have radiu 80cm and 10cm
the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 20ms-1. If respectively. If the efficiency of the machine is 0.85,
the ball took a total of 6s to reach ground level, an applied force of 1200N to the wheel will raise a
determine the height of the tower. load of
A. 60m B. 80m A. 8.0 N B. 6.8 N
C. 100m D. 120m C. 8160.0 N D. 9600.0 N

4. An object moves with uniform speed round a circle. 9.

Its acceleration has
A. Constant magnitude and constant direction. F(N)
B. Constant magnitude and varying direction.
C. Varying magnitude and constant direction
D. Varying magnitude and varying direction. 12 -
5. A body of mass 100g moving with a velocity of
10.0 ms-1 collides with a wall. If after the collision,
6 -
it moves with a velocity of 2.0ms-1 in the opposite
direction, calculate the change in momentum.
A. 0.8Ns B. 1.2Ns
C. 12.0Ns D. 80.0Ns 0 12 24
A body is under the action of a force F such that
the force – displacement graph of the body is
semicircular as shown above. The work done on
6. the body by the force in moving through 24 metres
T2
is
o
A. 36 ð J B. 72 ð J
30 C. 144 ð J D. 288 ð J
T1
10. A 20kg mass is to be pulled up a slope inclined at
300 to the horizontal. If the efficiency of the plane
is 75%, the force required to pull the load up the
plane is
A. 13.3 N B. 73.5 N
10kg C. 133.3 N D. 533.2 N

696
11. The spiral spring of a spring balance is 25.0cm
long when 5N hangs on it and 30.0cm long, when
the weight is 10N. What is the length of the spring
if the weight is 3N assuming Hooke’s Law is
obeyed?
A. 15.0 cm B. 17.0 cm
C. 20.0 cm D. 23.0cm V V

12. The mass of a stone is 15.0g when completely T T

immersed in water and 10.0g when completely
immersed in a liquid of relative density 2.0. The
mass of the stone in air is
A. 5.0g B. 12.0g
C. 20.0g D. 25.0g
V V
13. A pilot records the atmospheric pressure outside
his plane as 63cm of Hg while a ground observer T T
records a reading of 75cm of Hg for the atmospheric
pressure on the ground. Assuming that the density 19. How long does it take a 750-W heater to rise the
of the atmosphere is constant, calculate the height temperature of 1kg to water from 200C to 500C?
of the plane above the ground. (Relative density [Specific heat capacity of water = 4200J kg-1 K-1]
of Hg = 13.0 and that of air = 0.00013) A. 84s B. 112s
A. 1 200 m B. 6 300 m C. 168s D. 280s
C. 7 500 m D. 12 800 m
20. The saturated vapour pressure of a liquid increases
14. In which of the following is surface tension as the
important? A. Volume of the liquid increases
A. The floating of a ship in water B. Volume of the liquid decreases
B. The floating of a dry needle in water C. Temperature of the liquid decreases
C. The floating of a balloon in air D. Temperature of the liquid decreases
D. The diffusion of a sugar solution across
membrane. 21. The absolute temperature of a perfect gas is
proportional to the average
15. A thermometer with an arbitrary scale, S, of equal A. Potential energy of the molecules
divisions registers –300S at the ice point and +900S B. Separation between the molecules
at the steam point. Calculate the Celsius C. Kinetic energy of the molecules
temperature corresponding to 600S. D. Velocity of the molecules.
A. 25.00C B. 50.00C
0 22. A room is heated by means of a charcoal fire. An
C. 66.7 C D. 75.00C
occupant of the room standing away from the fire
is warmed mainly by
16. A brass rod is 2m long at a certain temperature.
A. Convection B. Radiation
What is the length for a temperature rise of 100K,
C. Conduction D. Reflection
if the expansivity of brass is 18 x 10-6 K-1?
A. 2.0036m B. 2.0018m 23. A boy timed 30 oscillations of a certain pendulum
B. 2.1800m D. 2.0360m thrice and obtained 1 min. 10s, 1min. 12s and 1 min.
17. What is the difference in the amount of heat given 7s respectively. The mean period of oscillation of
out by 4kg of steam and 4kg of water when both the pendulum is
are cooled from 1000C to 800C? A. 0.14s B. 0.43s
[The specific latent heat of steam is 2,260,000J kg1, C. 2.32s D. 6.97s
specific heat capacity of water is 4200J kg-1 K-1]
24. Which of the following is TRUE of light and sound
A. 4,200J B. 2,260,000J
waves?
C. 9,040,000J D. 9,380,000J
A. They both transmit energy
B. They both need a medium for
18. The graphs below show the variation of volume
propagation
(V) against temperature (T) in Kelvin for a given
C. They are both transverse waves
mass of gas at constant pressure. Which of the
D. Their velocities in air are equal.
graphs depicts the behaviour of an ideal gas?
697
25. The image in pin-hole camera is 32. When the bottom tip of a vibrating turning fork
A. Erect and formed by refraction through a held in contact with a wooden box, a louder sound
lens is heard. This phenomena is known as
B. Virtual and formed by dispersion A. Beats
C. Erect and gets sharper as the hole B. Echoing
becomes larger C. Resonance
D. Inverted and formed by the light from D. Reverberation
each point traveling in a straight line.
33. Which of the following statements is CORRECT
26. When a plane mirror at which a ray is incident is about the earth’s magnetic field?
rotated through an angle Q, the reflected ray will A. The angle of dip is the angle which a free
be rotated through suspended magnet makes with the
A. ½Q B. Q vertical
C. 2Q D. 3Q B. The angle of declination is the angle
between the magnetic meridian and the
27. A trough 12.0cm deep is filled with water of geographic meridian
refractive index 4/3. By how much would a coin at C. The angle of declination is the angle
the bottom of the trough appear to be displaced which a magnetic compass makes with
when viewed vertically from above the water the magnetic meridian.
surface? D. The angle of inclination is the difference
A. 3.0cm B. 6.0cm between the angle of dip and the angle of
C. 9.0cm D. 16.0cm declination.

28. In a ray diagram for a thin converging lens, a ray 34. An insulated rod when rubbed with a material
that is not parallel to the optic axis but passes acquires
through the optic center will A. A negative charge if it is made of glass and
A. Pass through undeviated rubbed with silk
B. Pass through the center of curvature after B. No charge if it is made of glass and rubbed
refraction with fur
C. Emerge parallel to the principal axis C. No charge if it is made of copper and rubbed
D. Pass through the principal focus after with silk
refraction. D. A positive charge if it is made of copper and
rubbed with fur.
29. Which of the following correctly describes the
image of an object, 4cm from a diverging lens of 35.
focal length –12cm?
A. The image is virtual, 3cm in front of the lens
B. The image is real, 6cm behind the lens
C. The image is virtual, 6cm in front of the lens
D. The image is real, 3cm in front of the lens.

30. Two tuning forks of frequencies 256Hz and 260 Hz

are sounded close to each other. What is the
frequency of the beats produced?
A. 2 Hz The internal resistance of each of the cells E1 and
B. 4 Hz E2 shown in the figure above is 2Ù. Calculate the
C. 8 Hz total current in the circuit
D. 258 Hz A. 0.80A B. 0.50A
C. 0.40A D. 0.004A
31. A man hears his echo from a nearby hill 2s after he
shouted. If the frequency of his voice is 260 Hz 36. The function of the system of granulated carbon
and the wavelength is 1.29m, how far away is the mixed with manganese (IV) oxide in a Leclanche
hill? cell is to
A. 330.0m B. 335.4m A. Increase the e.m.f. of the cell to 2.0V
C. 660.0m D. 670.8m B. Prevent local action in the cell
C. Prevent polarization in the cell
D. Make the cell black and hence a good radiator
698
37. A moving coil galvanometer of 300 Ohms 43. If a current carrying coil is mounted on a metal
resistance gives full scale deflection for 1.0mA. frame, the back e.m.f. induced in the coil causes
The resistance, R, of the shunt that is required to A. Inductance B. Eddy currents
convert the galvanometer into a 3.0A ammeter is C. Electromagnetism D. Dipole moment
A. 899.70Ohms
B. 10.00 Ohms 44. The electrochemical equivalent of platinum is 5.0 x
C. 0.10 Ohms 107 kg C-1. To plate-out 1.0kg of platinum, a current
D. 0.01 Ohms of 100A must be passed through n appropriate
vessel for
38. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s Law?
A. 5.6 hours
A. Glass B. Diode
B. 56 hours
C. All electrolytes D. All metals.
C. 1.4 x 104 hours
D. 2.0 x 104 hours.
39.
45. Which of the following statements are TRUE of
isotopes?
I Isotopes of an element have the same
chemical properties because they have
the same number of electrons.
II Isotopes of elements are normally
separated using physical properties
III Isotopes of an element have the same
number of protons in the nuclei.
The net capacitance in the circuit shown above is
A. I and II only
A. 8.0 uF B. 6.0 uF
B. I and III only
C. 4.0 uF D. 2.0 uF
C. II and III only
40. D. I, II and III.
.
46. When an atom loses or gains a charge, it becomes
A. An electron B. An ion
C. A neutron D. A proton.

47. 4g of a radioactive material of half-life 10 days is

spilled on a laboratory floor. How long would it
take to disintegrate 3.5g of the material?
A. 1¼ days
B. 8¾ days
In the above circuit, the fuse wire melts when C. 30 days
A. K is opened D. 80 days.
B. K is closed
C. The 14 – Ohms resistor is doubled with K 48. In a nuclear fusion process, four protons each of
closed mass Mp were fused to produce a nucleus X of
D. The 6 – Ohms resistor is doubled with K mass Mx. Which of the following equations is
closed. CORRECT?
A. 4 Mp > Mx B. 4 Mp = Mx
41. An equipment whose power is 1500W and
C. 4 Mp < Mx D. Mp = Mx
resistance is 375 ohms would draw a current of
A. 0.10A B. 2.00A
49. Which of the following are TRUE for á-decay
C. 4.00A D. 77.5A.
I. Mass number decreases by four
42. To convert an alternating current dynamo into a II Atomic number decreases by two
direct current dynamo, the III Mass number does not change.
A. Number of turns in the coil is increased
B. Strength of the field magnetic is increased A. I and II only B. II and III only
C. Slip rings are replaced with a split ring C. I and III only D. I, II and III.
commutator
D. Coil is wound on a soft iron armature.
699
50. Which of the following phenomena is called C. A metal absorbs quanta of light and then
photoelectric effect? emits electrons
A. High energy electrons impinge on a D. Two electrons are created from quantum
metallic anode which then emits photons of light.
B. A high energy photon emits photons as
it is slowed down

Physics 1992
1. What is the least possible error in using rule 7.
graduated in centimeters?
A. 0.1cm B. 0.5cm
C. 1.0cm D. 2.0cm

2. Which of the following affects the period of a simple

pendulum?
I Mass of the pendulum bob
II Length of the pendulum
III Acceleration due to gravity.

A. I, II and III
B. II and II only
C. I and III only A uniform light rod is kept in horizontal equilibrium
D. I and II only. under the influence of four forces as shown above.
Which of the following equations correctly
3. A boy sits in a train moving with uniform speed on represents the condition of equilibrium for the rod?
a straight track. If from his outstretched palm he A. F1 + F2 = F3 + F4
gently tosses a coin vertically upwards, the coin B. F1 + F2 - F3 + F4 = 0
will fall C. (F1 + F2)ab = (F3 + F4)cd
A. In front of his palm D. F1a + F2b - F3c - F4d = 0
B. Behind his palm
C. Beside his palm
D. Into his palm 8.

4. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform

acceleration of 6 ms-2. What distance does it cover
in the third second?
A. 15m B. 18m
C. 27m D. 30m
5. A stone, Q is thrown with velocity u at an angle of
750 to the horizontal. Another stone R is thrown
with the same velocity u but at an angle of 150 to
the horizontal. The ranges covered by the stones
will be
A. Greater for Q B. Greater for R
C. The same for Q and R
D. Greater for heavier of the stones
In the diagram above, the hanging mass m2 is
adjusted until m1 is on the verge of sliding. The
6. A man weighting 800N climbs up a flight of stairs
coefficient of static friction between the mass m1
to a height of 15m in 12.5s. What is the man’s
and the table is
average power output?
A. m1
A. 667W B. 810W
ms
C. 960W D. 15 000W
700
B. m1g 14. A bridge made of steel is 600m long. What is the
ms daily variation in its length if the night-time and
C. m2 day-time temperatures are 10 0C and 35 0 C
m1 respectively. The linear expansivity of steel is
D. m2g 0.000012 C-1.
m1 A. 0.18cm B. 1.80cm
C. 18.00cm D. 1800cm
9. A machine requires 1000J of work to raise a load of
500N through a vertical distance of 1.5m. Calculate 15. One of the most important applications of bimetallic
the efficiency of the machine. strip is found in the construction of
A. 80% B. 75% A. A thermostat B. An altimeter
C. 50% D. 33% C. A thermocouple D. A hygrometer

10. In an experiment to determine Young’s Modulus 16. At constant pressure, the density of a fixed mass
for a wire, several; loads are attached to the wire of gas is
and the corresponding extensions measured. The A. Constant with temperature
tensile stress in each case depends on the B. Proportional to its volume
A. Load and the extension C. Inversely proportional to its temperature
B. Load and the raiud of the wire D. Independent of its volume
C. Radius of the wire and the extension
D. Extension and the original length of the 17. How much heat is absorbed when a block of copper
wire. of mass 0.05kg and specific heat capacity 390J kg-1
K-1 is heated from 200C to 700C?
11. A. 3.98 x 10-1 J B. 9.75 x 102 J
C. 3.98 x 103 J D. 9.75 x 103 J

18. A block of ice floats on water inside a container. If

the block of ice gets completely melted, the level
of water in the container will
A. Increase
B. Remain the same
C. Decrease
D. First decrease and then increase.

The figure above shows the height of two liquids 19. The space between the double glass walls of a
X and y when some air is sucked out of the thermos flask is evacuated and the two surfaces
apparatus through the pump P. the diameter of the facing the evacuated space are silvered. The
tube in X is twice that of the Y. What is the relative residual source of heat loss takes place by
density of the liquid X with respect to liquid Y? A. Convection
A. 1/3 B. 2/3 B. Radiation from the surfaces’
C. 3 D. 6 C. Conduction through the stopper and the
glass.
12. If a plastic sphere floats in water (density = 1000kg D. Conduction across the walls.
m-3) with 0.5 of its volume submerged and floats in
oil with 0.4 volume submerged, the density of the 20. The equation of wave is
oil is y = 0.005 sin [x(0.5x – 200 t)]1
A. 800 kg m-3 B. 1 200 kg m-3 where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds.
-3
C. 1 250 kg m D. 2 000 kg m-3 What is the velocity of the wave?
A. 4 000 m s-1 B. 400 m s-1
-1
13. A platinum resistance thermometer wire has a C. 250 m s D. 40 m s-1
resistance of 5 ohms at 00C and 5.5 ohms at 100.
Calculate the temperature of the wire when the 21. Which of the following characteristics of a wave
resistance is 5.2 ohms is used in the measurement of the depth of the
A. 800C B. 600C sea?
0
C. 40 C D. 100C A. Diffraction B. Interference
C. Refraction D. Reflection
701
22. A note is the octave of another note if it has 30. Which of the following arrangements of the
A. A frequency twice that of the first note components of electromagnetic spectrum is in
B. Frequency half that of the first note ascending order of wavelengths?
C. The same frequency as the first one A. Gamma rays, ultraviolet rays, x-rays, infra-red
D. A frequency eight times that of the first rays.
note. B. Gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet rays, infra-red
rays
23. What is the frequency of the sound made by a C. Infra-red rays, ultraviolet rays, x-rays, gamma
siren having a disc with 32 holes and making 25 rays.
revolutions per second? D. Gamma rays, ultraviolet rays, infra-red rays, x-
A. 80 Hz B. 600 Hz rays.
C. 800 Hz D. 1 600 Hz
31.
24. Which of the following properties make the convex
mirror useful as a driving mirror?
I The image is real
II The image is erect
III It has a wide field of view
IV The image is magnified

A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III

C. II and III D. I and III.

25. When an object is placed very close to the pole of

a concave mirror, the virtual image obtained is The diagram above represents the field pattern
A. Diminished and upright obtained by bringing the poles of two magnets
B. Diminished and inverted near each other. The poles must be
C. Enlarged and inverted
D. Enlarged and upright. A. N – N poles B. S – S poles
C. S – N poles D. N – S poles
26. A concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 36cm.
At what distance from the mirror should an object 32. The angle between the direction of the earth’s
be placed to give a real image three times the ize of magnetic field and the horizontal is called the
the object? A. Angle of deviation
A. 12 cm B. 24 cm B. Magnetic declination
C. 48 cm D. 108 cm C. Magnetic meridian
D. Angle of dip
27. Which of the following statements is CORRECT
about a long-sighted boy who does not put on 33. Calculate the force acting on an electron of charge
glasses? 1.6 x 10-19 C placed in an electric field of intensity
A. He cannot see distance objects clearly 108V m-‘.
B. Rays of light from a close objects are focused A. 1.6 x 10-11 N B. 1.6 x 10-14 N
-16
in front of his retina C. 1.6 x 10 N D. 1.0 x 10-16 N
C. His eyeball is too long
D. Parallel rays of light are focused behind his 34. When an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, it has
retina. A. No charge at all
B. A negative charge
28. The speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m s-1. What is the C. A positive charge
peed in glass with a refractive index of 1.50? D. Negative and positive charges.
A. 1.5 x 108 m s-1 B. 3.0 x 108 m s-1
8 -1
C. 2.0 x 10 m s D. 6.0 x 108 m s-1. 35. Which of the following factors has no effect on
e.m.f. of a primary cell?
29. If the refractive index of a medium in air is 2.0, what A. Temperature
is the critical angle for this medium? B. Size of the cell
A. 300 B. 420 C. Nature of the plates
0
C. 45 D. 500 D. Nature of the electrolyte.

702
36. A wire of length 15m made of a material of resistivity 12 volts as shown above. Calculate the energy
1.8 x 10-6 ohms-m has a resistance of 0.27 ohms. stored in the capacitor.
Determine the area of the wire A. 7.2 x 10-4 J B. 1.4 x 10-3 J
A. 1.5 x 10-4 m2 B. 1.0 x 10-4 m2 C. -4
1.4 x 10 J D. 1.3 x 10-2 J
-5 2
C. 2.7 x 10 m D. 7.3 x 10-5 m2
42. The heat produced in a conductor carrying an
37. The diagram above shows a meter bridge in which electric is
two of the arms contain resistances R and 2 ohms. A. Inversely proportional to the current and
A balance point is obtained at 60cm from the left the resistance
end. Calculate the value of R. B. Directly proportional to the current, resistance
A. 1.2 Ohms B. 1.3 Ohms and the time.
C. 3.0 Ohms D. 6.0 Ohms C. Inversely proportional to the square of the
resistance, current and the time.
38. D. Directly proportional to the square of the
current, the resistance and the time.

43.

The circuit diagram above contains four ammeter

W, X, Y and Z. Which of the following statements PQRS is a rectangular cell with PQ perpendicular
about the ammeter reading is correct? to the magnetic field as shown in the diagram. If a
A. The reading of W is equal to that of Y current flows in the direction PQRS, in what
and twice that of X. direction will the coil move?
B. The reading of y is greater than that of Z a. Upwards
C. The readings of W and Y are equal and b. Downwards
each is greater than that of X. c. Towards the north pole
D. The reading of Z is equal to the sum of d. Towards the south pole.
the readings of W and Y.
44. The maximum permissible current through a
39. A 5-V battery is connected across the plates of a galvanometer G of internal resistance 10Ù is 0.05A.
2.0 ìF unchanged parallel plate capacitor. The A resistance R is used to convert G into a voltmeter
charge on the capacitor after a long time is with a maximum reading of 100V. Find the value of
A. 1.5 uC B. 10.0 uC R and how it is connected to G.
C. 20.0 uC D. 50.0 uC A. 20,000 ohms in parallel
B. 19,990 ohms in series
40. Which of the following apparatus will require the C. 1,990 ohms in series
smallest fuse rating for its protection? D. 100 ohms in series
A. 60W, 240V B. 60W, 40V
C. 40W, 12V D. 40W, 5V 45. In alternating current theory, the unites of
impedance, r.m.s. voltage and resonance frequency
are respectively equal to
A. Volt, ampere and hertz
B. Ohm, volt and hertz
C. Watt, ohm and radian
D. Ohm, hertz and joule.

41. A capacitor of 10 ìF is connected across a cell of 46. In A.C. circuit theory, the root mean square (r.m.s.)
current, Irms, and the peak (maximum) current I0 are
703
related by 48. The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect
A. I0 = Irms/ 2 depends on the
B. Irms = I0/ 2 A. Intensity of incident light
C. Irms = 1/ I0 2 B. Frequency of incident light
D. I0 = 1/Irms 2 C. Material of the photocathode
D. Potential difference between the cathode
47. Which of the following graphs correctly illustrates and the mode
the number of remaining atoms during a radioactive
decay. 49. After three half life, the function of a radioactive
material that has decayed is
A. 1/8 B. 1/3
C. 2/3 D. 7/8

2 7
50. Al + 10n ’! 2141Na + X
1 3
In the nuclear reaction above, the product denoted
by X is
A. A proton
B. A gamma ray
C. A helium particle
D. An alpha particle.

Physics 1993
1. Which of the following quantities has the same distance covered during the acceleration and the
unit as the watt? retardation periods of the motion.
A. Force x time A. 75m B. 150m
B. Force x distance C. 300m D. 375m
C. Force x acceleration
D. Force x velocity 4. Two forces of magnitudes 7N and 3N act at right
angles to each other. The angle è between the
2. The external and internal diameters of a tube are resultant and the 7N force is given by
measured as (32 ± 2)mm and (21 ± 1) mm A. Cos Q = 3/7 B. Sin Q = 3/7
respectively. Determine the percentage error in the C. Tan Q = 3/7 D. Cot Q= 3/7
thickness of the tube.
A. 27 B. 14% 5. An earoplane lands on a runway at a speed of
C. 9% D. 3% 180kmh-1 and is brought to a stop uniformly in 30
seconds. What distance does it cover on the
3. runway before coming to rest
A. 360m B. 540m
C. 750m D. 957m

6. A rocket burns fuel at the rate of 10kg s-1 and eject

it with a velocity of 5 x 103m s-1.the thrust
exerted by the gas on the rocket is
A. 2.5 x 107 N B. 5.0 x 104 N
2
C. 5.0 x 10 N D. 2.0 x 10-3 N

7. The force experienced by an object of mass 60.0kg

in the moon’s gravitational field is 1.002 x 103 N.
What is the intensity of the gravitational field?
The diagram above shows a velocity – time graph A. 0.60 N kg-1 B. 1.67 N kg-1
representing the motion of a car. Find the total C. 2 -1
6.12 x 10 N kg D. 9.81 ms-1

704
8. Which of the following correctly describe the 12.
energy changes in the generation of light by a
hydroelectric power station?
A. Electrical mechanical potential
light.
B. Potential mechanical electrical
light.
C. Mechanical sound electrical
light
D. Kinetic mechanical electrical
light.

9. A plane inclined at angle è has a velocity ratio of

10 : 1. The inclination of the plane to the horizontal
is given by

A. tan Q = 1/10 In the diagram above, a lever of length 200m is

B. cot Q = 1/10 used to lift a load of mass 180kg. The pivot at P is
C. cos Q= 1/10 120m from the load. What minimum force, F1 must
D. sin Q= 1/10 be applied at the end of the lever?
A. 9N B. 18 N
10. A weightless vessel of dimensions 4m x 3m x 2m is C. 20 N D. 200 N
filled with a liquid of density 1000 kgm-3 and sealed.
What is the maximum pressure this contain can 13. An object of mass 400g and density 600 kgm-3 is
exert on a flat surface? suspended with a string so that half of it if
[g = 10 ms-2] immersed in paraffin of density 900 kgm-3. The
A. 9 x 104 Nm-2 B. 4 x 104 Nm-2 tension in the string is
4 -2
C. 3 x 10 Nm D. 2 x 104 Nm-2 A. 1.0 N B. 3.0 N
C. 4.0 N D. 5.0 N
11.
14. The thermometric property of the thermocouple is
that its
A. e.m.f. changes with temperature
B. Resistance changes with temperature
C. Volume changes with temperature
D. Pressure changes with resistance.

15. A metal rod 800mm long is heated from 100C to

950C. If it expands by .36mm, the linear expansivity
of the metal is
A. 2.0 x 102 K-1 B. 2.0 x 10-2 K-1
2 -1
C. 5.0 x 10- K D. 2.0 x 10-5 K-1
In the figure above the weight X is held in position
by pulling the rope KLM in the direction LM. 16. When the volume of a given mass of gas in halved
Which of the following diagrams shows the force and its temperature doubled, the pressure
acting at point L A. Remains constant
B. Increases by a factor of 4
C. Increases by a factor of 3
D. Decreases by a factor of 4

17. 200g of water at 900C is mixed with 100g of water at

300C. What is the final temperature?
A. 500C B. 600C
0
C. 70 C D. 800C

18. A block of ice at 00C is put in an open vessel and

heated uniformly until half the water boils off.
705
Which of the following graphs best illustrates the C. Acoustic waves
change in temperature during the process? D. Infra-red waves

23. Radio waves emitted from an antenna are picked

up by a radar after reflection from an aircraft in 4 x
10-ss. How far is the aircraft from the antenna?
[c = 3 x 108 ms-1]
A. 6.0 x 102 km B. 1.2 x 103 km
3
C. 3.0 x 10 km D. 6.0 x 105 km

24. The fundamental frequency of vibration (f) of a

wire is measured as a function of the tension (T) in
the wire. Which of the following curves adequately
represents the data?

19. The melting point of a solid is given at 800C. if 105J

of heat energy is required at this temperature to
melt 10g of the solid, the specific latent heat of
fusion of the solid is
A. 1.00 x 103 J kg-1
B. 1.25 x 105 J kg-1
C. 1.00 x 107 J kg-1
D. 8.00 x 108 J kg-1

Use the figure below which shows a stationary

wave in a closed tube to answer questions 20 and
21.
25.

Two mirrors, M1, M2 are inclined at right angles as

shown above. Calculate the angle of reflection of
20. The relationship between L and the wavelength ë the ray of light at mirror M2.
of the stationary wave is A. 300 B. 450
0
A. 2L = C. 60 D. 900
B. L=
26. Which of the following expressions gives the linear
C. L = /3
magnification produced by a concave mirror of
D. 4L = 3
radius of curvature r, if u and v are the object and
image distances respectively?
21. Determine the distance between the consecutive
A. v 1
antinodes XX if the wavelength is 66cm.
r
A. 15 cm B. 30cm
B. 2v 1
C. 60cm D. 120cm
r
C. u 1
22. Which of the following waves can propagate
r
through a vacuum?
D. 2u 1
A. High velocity sound waves
r
B. Ultrasonic waves
706
27. If the focal length of a camera lens is 20cm, the resultant magnetic field pattern in the horizontal
distance from the film at which the lens must be plane?
set to produce a sharp image of an object 100cm
away is
A. 17cm B. 20cm
C. 25cm D. 100cm

28. Which of the following may be used to explain a

mirage?
I Layers of air near the road surface have
varying refractive indices in hot weather
II Road surfaces sometimes becomes good
reflectors in hot weather.
III Light from the sky can be reflected
upwards after coming close to the road
surface.

A. II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only 34. Which of the following correctly explain(s) why
D. I, II and III. soft iron is preferred to steel in electromagnets?
I Soft iron is more readily magnetized than
29. A beam of light is incident from air to, water at an steel.
angle 300, Find the angle of refraction if the II Soft iron is more readily demagnetized
refractive index of water is 4/3. than steel.
A. 150 B. 180 III Soft iron retains magnetism more than
0
C. 22 D. 240 steel.
30. The property of the eye known as its power of
accommodation is controlled by the A. I only
A. Pupil B. Vitreous humour B. II and III only
C. Iris D. Ciliary muscles C. I and II only
D. I, II and III.
31. Which of the following correctly explains(s) why
a green leaf appears green in bright daylight? 35. A current-carrying conductor experiences a force
I It absorbs only the green component of when placed in a magnetic field because the
sunlight. A. Conductor is magnetized
II It absorbs all colours in sunlight except B. Magnetic field of the current interacts
green. with external magnetic field.
III It reflects only the green component of C. Force is due to the motor principle
sunlight. D. Electric field of the current interacts with
A. I only the external magnetic field.
B. II only
C. I and III only 36. A simple cell with mercury-amalgamated zinc
D. II and III only. electrode prevents
A. Local action B. Polarization
32. A field that results from the contact of a positively C. Buckling D. Degradation.
charged ball with the inner wall of an uncharged
hollow conducting sphere is 37. The terminal voltage of a battery is 4.0V when
A. Inside the sphere supplying a current of 2.0A, and 2.0V when
B. On the surface of the ball supplying a current of 3.0A. The internal resistance
C. Inside and outside the sphere of the battery is
D. Outside the sphere. A. 0.5 Ohms
B. 1.0 Ohms
33. A horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic C. 2.0 Ohms
field and the magnetic field of a straight wire X D. 4.0 Ohms
carries current into the plane of a paper. Which of
the following figures correctly illustrates the
707
44. The primary aim in high tension transmission is to
38.
A. Minimize electrical energy losses due to heat
production
B. Increase the rate of energy transfer by using
high voltage
C. Increase the current in the wires.
D. Generate electricity at high current and low
voltage.

45. Determine the inductive reactance when a 30.0mH

inductor with a negligible resistance is connected
to a 1.30 x 103 Hz oscillator.
The current 1 in the figure above is
A. 39.0 Ohms
A. 4.00A B. 1.30A
B. 122.5Ohms
C. 0.80A D. 0.75A
C. 245.0 Ohms
D. 39000.0 Ohms
39. A current of 100mA passes through a conductor
for 2 minutes. The quantity of electricity
46. Which of the following statements correctly
transported is
describe(s) cathode rays?
A. 200C B. 50C
I They consist of tiny particles negative
C. 12C D. 0.02C
electric charges
II They are deflected in a magnetic field but
40. A parallel plate capacitor of area 10cm2 in vacuum
not in an electric field
has a capacitance of 10-2uF. What is the distance
III They consist of fast moving neutrons and
between the plates?
deflected in an electric field.
(S0 = 9 x 10-12 Fm )
A. 9 x 10-13 m B. 9 x 107 m
-3
A. I only
C. 9 x 10 m D. 9 x 107 m
B. III only
C. I and II only
41.
D. II and III only

48. Which of the following are produced after a nuclear

fusion process?
I One heavy nucleus
II Neutrons III Protons
IV Energy

A. I and II B. I and Iv
C. II and III D. II and IV.
In the network shown above, determine the
49. An element X of atomic number 88 and mass
potential difference across the 5ìF capacitor.
number 226 decays to form an element Z by emitting
A. 3V B. 6V
two beta particles and an alpha particles. Z is
C. 12V D. 18V
represent by
22 2
A. 8 2
Z
42. A 40-W instrument has a resistance of 90 ohms. 22 2
B. 8 8
Z
On what voltage should it be operated normally? 22 6
C. 8 6
Z
A. 60V B. 150V 22 6
D. 8 0
Z
C. 225V D. 3 600V
50. The kinetic energy of a photoelectron liberated
43. Which of the following devices may be used to
from a metallic surface depends on the
set u p the voltage in d.c. circuit?
A. Intensity of the incident radiation
A. A step-up tranformer
B. Time duration of the incident radiation
B. A d.c. generator
C. Temperature of the incident radiation
C. A wattmeter
D. Frequency of the incident radiation
D. An induction coil.

708
Physics 1994
1. 1cm 2cm 7. A stone thrown vertically upwards returns to the
ground. Which of the following figures represents
the velocity-time graph?

5cm

What is the reading of the vernier capilers shown

above?
A. 1.79 cm B. 1.73 cm
C. 1.39 cm D. 1.34 cm

2. If it takes 5.0 hours to drain a container of 540.0 8.

cm3 of water, what is the flow rate of water from the
container in kgs-1?
A. 32.5 B. 31.5
C. 30.8 D. 30.0
(Density of water = 100 kgm-3)

3. A boat travels due east at a speed of 40 ms-1. What

is the resultant speed of the boat?
A. 1.3 ms-1 B. 10.0ms-1
-1
C. 50.0 ms D. 70.0 ms-1

4. An object is projected with velocity of 80 ms-1 at

an angle of 30o to the horizontal. The maximum
height reached is
A. 20 m B. 80 m
C. 160 m D. 320 m

5. A motor vehicle is brought to rest from a speed of 8. The diagram above shows a uniform wood of
15 ms-1 in 20 seconds. Calculate the retardation. weight 200 N and length 50 m. it is pivoted at one
A. 0.75 ms-2 B. 1.33 ms-2 end and suspended by a cord at the other end at
-2
C. 5.00 ms D. 7.50 ms-2 an angle of 30o to the wood. Calculate the tension
in the cord if the wood is horizontal.
6. Which of the following is TRUE of a particle moving A. 10 N B. 20 N
in a horizontal circle with constant angular C. 100 N D. 200 N
velocity?
A. The energy is constant but the linear 9. An object of mass 50 kg is released from a height
momentum varies of 2 m. find the kinetic energy just before it strikes
B. The linear momentum is constant but the the ground.
energy varies. A. 250 J B. 1 000 J
C. Both energy and linear momentum are C. 10 000 J D. 100 000 J
constant.
D. The speed and the linear velocity are both 10. A cone in an unstable equilibrium has its potential
constant. energy
A. Decreased B. Increased
C. Unchanged D. Oscillating

709
11. Calculate the magnitude of the force required to
just move a 20 kg object along a horizontal surface 16. A force of 15 N stretches a spring to a total length
if the coefficient of friction is 0.2 of 30 cm. An additional force of 10 N stretches the
A. 400.0 N B. 40.0 N spring 5 cm further. Find the natural length of the
C. 4.0 N D. 0.4 N spring.
A. 25.0 cm B. 22.5 cm
12. Calculate the velocity ratio of a screw jack of pitch C. 20.0 cm D. 15. 0 cm
0.3 cm if the length of the tommy bar is 21 cm.
A. 1 17. Which of these statements are TRUE of pressure
140 in liquids?
B. 14 I Pressure acts equally in all
C. 70 directions.
D. 140 II Pressure decreases with depth.
III Pressure at the same level of a
13. Which of the following graphs correctly represents liquid is the same.
the relationship between the load and the velocity IV Pressure is dependent on the
ratio of a machine? cross-sectional area of the
barometer tube.

A. I and III only.

B. I, II and III only.
C. I, II and IV only.
D. I, II, III and IV.

18. The mass of a specific gravity bottle is 15.2 g when

it is empty. It is 24.8 g when filled with kerosene
and 27.2 g when filled with distilled water. Calculate
the relative density of kerosene.
A. 1.25 B. 1.10
C. 0.90 D. 0.80

19. If a solid X floats in liquid P of relative density 2.0

and in liquid Q of relative density 1.5, it can be
inferred that the
A. Weight of P displaced is greater than that
of Q
14. A spring of length 25 cm is extended to 30 cm by a B. Weight of P displaced is less than that of
load of 150 N attached to one of its ends. What is Q
the energy stored in the spring? C. Volume of P displaced is greater than that
A. 3750 J B. 2500 J of Q
C. 3.75 J D. 2.50 J D. Volume of P displaced is les than that of
Q.

15. 20. The melting point of naphthalene is 780C. What is

this temperature in Kelvin?
A. 100 K B. 315 K
C. 378 K D. 444 K

21. A motor tyre is inflated to pressure of 2.0 x 105 Nm-

2
when the temperature of air is 27oC. What will be
the pressure in it at 87oC assuming that the volume
of the tyre does not change?
A. 2.6 x 105 Nm-2 B. 2.4 x 105 Nm-2
5 -2
In the diagram above, if the atmospheric pressure C. 2.2 x 10 Nm D. 1.3 x 105 Nm-2
is 760 mm, the pressure in the chamber G is
A. 660 mm B. 690 mm
C. 830 mm D. 860 mm
710
22. When 100 g of liquid L1 at 78oC was mixed Xg of 27. Two similar kettles containing equal masses of
liquid L2 at 50oC, the final temperature was 66oC. boiling water are placed on a table. If the surface
Given that the specific heat capacity of L2 is half of one is highly polished and the surface of the
that of L1, find X. other is covered with soot, which of the following
A. 50 g B. 100 g observations is correct?
C. 150 g D. 200 g
28. The equation of a transverse wave traveling along
23. A volume of water is heated from 0oC to 15oC. Which a string is given by y = 0.3 sin (0.5x – 50t) where y
of the following diagrams correctly represents the and x are in cm and t is in seconds. Find the
variation of the volume with temperature? maximum displacement of the particles from the
equilibrium position.
A. 50.0 cm B. 2.5 cm
C. 0.5 cm D. 0.3 cm

29. The sound from a source traveled to the bottom of

the sea and the echo was heard 4s latter. If the
speed of sound in sea water is 1500 ms-1, the depth
of the sea is
A. 6000 m B. 3000 m
C. 1500 m D. 375 m

30. The fundamental frequency of vibration of a

sonometer wire may be halved by
. A. Doubling the length of the wire
B. Doubling the mass of the wire
C. Reducing the tension by half
D. Reducing the absolute temperature by
half.
24. Heat is supplied to a test tube containing 100 g of
ice at its melting point. The ice melts completely in 31. A pipe of length 45 cm is closed at one end.
1 min. what is the power rating of the source of Calculate the fundamental frequency of the sound
heat? wave generated in the pipe if the velocity of sound
A. 336 W B. 450 W in air is 360 ms-1 (Neglect end corrections).
C. 560 W D. 600 W A. 55. Hz B. 148.5 Hz
(Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1) C. 200.00 Hz D. 550.0 Hz

25. If a room is saturated with water vapour, the 32. The note produced by a stretched string has a
temperature of the room must be fundamental frequency of 400 Hz. If the length of
A. at 00C the string is doubled while the tension in the string
B. above the dew point is increased by a factor of 4, the frequency is
C. at 1000C A. 200 Hz B. 400 Hz
D. below or at the dew point. C. 800 Hz D. 1600 Hz

26. Which of the following graphs represents the 33. To produce a parallel beam of light from a concave
variation of pressure P against volume V at mirror, the distance at which the lamp should be
constant temperature? placed from the mirror is equal to
A. the focal length
B. two times the focal length
C. the distance of the image
D. two times the radius of curvature.

711
34. Light of frequency 6.0 x 1014 Hz traveling in air is 40. Which of the following has the lowest internal
transmitted through glass of refractive index 1.5. resistance when new?
Calculate the frequency of the light in the glass. A. Leclanche cell. B. Daniel cell.
A. 4.0 x 1014 Hz C. Accumulator D. Torch battery.
B. 6.0 x 1014 Hz
C. 7.5 x 1014 Hz 41. When biro pen rubbed on a dry silk cloth is moved
D. 9.0 x 1014 Hz very closed to a piece of paper on a dry table, the
pen is found to pick up the paper. This is because
35. An object is placed in front of a converging lens A. Both the pen and the cloth are magnetized
of focal length 200 cm. The image is virtual and B. The pen is magnetized but the cloth is
has a magnification of 2. what is the distance of not
the object from the lens? C. The pen is charged while the cloth is
magnetized
A. 5 cm B. 10 cm D. Both the pen and the cloth are charged.
C. 30 cm D. 40 cm

36. An object is placed directly below a glass block of

thickness 3.0 cm. Calculate the lateral displacement
of the object if the refractive index of the glass is
1.5 42.
A. 1.0 cm B. 1.5 cm
C. 2.0 cm D. 2.5 cm

37. In a projection lantern of focal length ƒ, the object

distance u, is such that
A. u > 2ƒ > ƒ
B. u < ƒ < 2ƒ
C. u = ƒ < 2ƒ
D. ƒ < u < 2ƒ

38. If the Nigerian flag (green, white, green) is viewed

in pure yellow light, which of the following set of In the figure above, XY is of length 1m. The value
colours would be observed on the flag? of R at balance point Z is
A. Green, yellow, green A. 3.0 Ohms
B. Red, yellow, red. B. 13.3 Ohms
C. Black, yellow, black. C. 15.0 Ohms
D. Green, white, green. D. 30.0 Ohms

43. A capacitor 8 uF, is charged to a potential difference

of 100V. The energy stored by the capacitor is
39. Which of the figures below illustrates the A. 1.0 x 104 J B. 8.0 x 10 J
dispersion of white light through a triangular glass C. 1.25 x 10 J D. 4.0 x 10-2 J
prism?

44. Two resistors, R1 = 4Ohms and R2 = 5 Ohms, are

connected in parallel across a potential difference.
If P1 and P2 represent the power dissipated in R1
and R2 respectively, the ratio P1 :P2 is
A. 4: 5
B. 5: 4
C. 16 : 25
D. 25 : 16

712
49.
45.

In the circuit diagram above, calculate the current

in the 12 – Ohms resistor if the cell has an e.m.f. of
12V and an internal resistance of 1 ohms.
A. 0.8 A B. 1.0 A
C. 1.6 A D. 2.4 A
In the curve above, PQRST represents an
alternating voltage frequency 50 Hz. The time
46. Which of the following are found in the receiver interval between point P and R on the graph is
but not in the microphone of a telephone handset?
I Diaphragm A. 25 s
II Soft iron ole pieces.
III Permanent magnet. B. 1 S
IV Carbon blocks 50
A. I and II C. 1 S
B. I and IV. 100
C. II and III
D. III and IV. D. 1 S
200
47. If two parallel conductors carry currents flowing 50. If the light with photon energy 2 eV is incident
in the same direction, the conductors will suitably on the surface of a metal with work
A. Attract each other function 3 eV, then
B. Repel each other A. No electron will be emitted
C. Both move in the same direction B. The few electrons emitted will have a
D. Have no effect on each other. maximum kinetic energy of 1 eV
C. The few electrons emitted will have a
maximum kinetic energy of 3 eV
48. A certain radioisotope of 235
U emits D. Many electrons will be emitted.
92
four alpha particles and three beta particles. The
mass number and the atomic number of the
resulting element respectively are
A. 219 and 87
B. 84 and 223
C. 223 and 87
D. 219 and 81

713
Physics 1995
1. Which of the following is the dimension of 5. When a ball rolls on a smooth level ground, the
pressure? motion of its centre is
A. ML-1T-2 B. MLT-2 A. Translational B. Oscillatory
2 -3
C. ML T D. ML-3 C. Random D. Rotational

2. The length of a displaced pendulum bob which 6. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a
passes its lowest point twice every second is straight line and decelerating uniformly to rest is
A. 0.25m B. 0.45m represented by
C. 0.58m D. 1.00m
[g = 10ms-2]

In the diagram above, P, Q and R are vectors. Which

of the following options gives the correct
relationship between the vectors?
7.
A. P=Q+R B. P=Q–R
C. P=R–Q D. P+ Q+R=0

The acceleration of the system shown above is

A. 2 ms-2 B. 4 ms-2
-2
C. 6 ms D. 8 ms-2

8. What is the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on the

moon, if g is 10ms-2 on the earth?
A. 0.10 ms-2 B. 0.74 ms-2
-2
The value of T in the figure above is C. 1.67 ms D. 10.00 ms-2
A. 10.0 N B. 11.8 N
C. 20.0 N D. 40.0 N 9. A body is projected from the earth’s surface with
the intention of letting it escape from the earth’s
gravitational field. What is the minimum escape
velocity of the body?
A. 14km s-1 B. 13 km s-1
-1
C. 12 km s D. 11 km s-1

714
10. A uniform rod PQ of length 1m and mass 2kg is 15. Which of the following levers has the greatest
pivoted at the end P. If a load of 14N is placed at mechanical advantage?
the centre of the rod, find the force that should be
applied vertically upwards at Q to maintain the rod
in equilibrium horizontally.
A. 68 N B. 28 N
C. 17 N D. 7N
[g = 10 ms-2]

11. A vehicle of mass m is driven by an engine of

power P from rest. Find the minimum time it will
take to acquire a speed v.
A. mv2
P
B. mv2
2P
C. mv
P
D. mv
2P
16. A hydraulic press has a large circular piston of
12. radius 0.8m and a circular plunger of radiu 0.2m. A
force of 500N is exerted by the plunger. Find the
force exerted on the piston.
A. 8 000 N B. 4 000 N
C. 2 000 N D. 31 N

17. The volume of an air bubble increases from the

bottom to the top of a lake at constant temperature
because
A. Atmospheric pressure acts on the surface of
the lake.
A box of mass 40 kg is being dragged along the B. Pressure increases with depth of the lake.
floor by a rope inclined at 600 to the horizontal. C. Density remains constant with pressure
The frictional force between the box and the floor D. The bubble experiences an upthrust.
is 100N and the tension on the rope is 300N. How
much work is done in dragging the box through a 18. Temperature is a measure of the
distance of 4m? A. Quantity of heat transferred into the
A. 680 J B. 400 J molecules of an object
C. 200 J D. 100 J B. Mean kinetic energy of any molecules of
the object
13. Which of the following statements are TRUE about C. Kinetic energy of any individual
frictional force? molecules of the substance.
I It is always a disadvantage D. Amount of work done by the molecules
II It is sometimes a disadvantage of the object.
III It always exists where there is a relative
motion of two bodies that are in contact. 19. A rectangular metal block of volume 10-6m3 at 573K.
IV It is sometimes very useful. If its coefficient of linear expansion is 1.2-x-10-5K-1,
the percentage change of its volume is
14. The energy contained in a wire when it is extended A. 1.5 % B. 1.1 %
by 0.02m by a force of 500 N is C. 0.4 % D. 0.1 %
A. 5 J B. 10 J
C. 103 J D. 104 J

715
20. A piece of wood floats inside water at room B. I and III only
temperature with a fraction of it above the liquid C. II and III only
surface. As the temperature of the water is raised, D. I, II and III.
26. A well=lagged bar of length 100cm has its ends
the part of the wood above the density of liquid maintained at 1000C and 400C respectively. What
will is the temperature at a point 60cm from the hotter
A. Decrease because the density of water end?
decreases with temperature. A. 580C B. 620C
0
B. Increases because the density of water C. 64 C D. 760C
decreases with temperature.
C. Decreases because the density of water 27. Which of the following is the exclusive property
increases with temperature of a transverse wave?
D. Increase because the density of water A. Diffraction B. Refraction
increases with temperature. C. Compression D. Polarization

21. The equation PxVyTz = constant is Charles’ law 28. The wavelength of signal from a radio transmitter
when is 1500m and the frequency is 200kHz. What is the
A. x = 1, y = -1, z = 1 wavelength for a transmitter operating at 1000kHz?
B. x = 0, y = 1, z = -1 A. 7 500 m B. 300 m
C. x = 1, y = 0, z = -1 C. 75 m D. 15 m
D. x = 0, y = 1, z = 1.
29. The difference between sound waves and light
22. An electric kettle with negligible heat capacity is waves is that sound waves
rated at 2000 W. If 2.0kg of water is put in it, how A. Are transverse while light waves are
long will it take the temperature of water to rise longitudinal.
from 200C to 1000C? B. Require a medium to travel while light
A. 420s B. 336s waves do not.
C. 168s D. 84s. C. Can be diffracted but light waves cannot
[specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1 K-1]. D. Cannot be reflected but light waves can.

23. A temperature scale has a lower fixed point of 40mm 30. Which of the diagrams below represents the
and an upper fixed point of 200mm. What is the second overtone of a vibrating string fixed at both
reading on this scale when a thermometer read ends?
600C?
A. 33.3 mm B. 36.0 mm
C. 96.0 mm D. 136.0 mm

24. A quantity of ice at -100C is heated until the

temperature of the heating vessel is 900C. Which
of the following constant is NOT required to the
vessel?
A. Specific heat capacity of ice
B. Specific heat capacity of water
C. Specific latent heat of fusion
D. Specific latent heat of vaporization.
31. The pitch of an acoustic device can be increased
25. Which of the following statements give ‘the TRUE by
differences between evaporation and boiling A. Increasing the frequency
I Evaporation occurs at all temperatures B. Increasing the amplitude
while boiling occurs at a fixed temperature C. Decreasing the loudness
for a given pressure. D. Decreasing the intensity
II Evaporation is a surface phenomenon
while boiling is an interior phenomenon. 32. Total eclipse of the sun occurs when the
III Evaporation is affected by surface areas A. Earth is between the moon and the sun
which boiling is not. B. Sun is between the moon and the earth
C. Moon is between the sun and the earth
A. I and II only D. Ozone layer is threatened
716
33. What is the approximate critical angle for total 40. A 12-V battery has an internal resistance of 0.5
internal reflection for diamond if the refractive ohms. If a cable of 1.0 ohms resistance is connected
index of diamond is 2.42? across the two terminals of the battery, the current
A. 210 B. 220 drawn from the battery is
0
C. 23 D. 240 A. 16.0 A B. 8.0 A
C. 0.8 A D. 0.4 A
34. Which of the graphs represents the relationship
between m and v for a converging mirror?
41.

The diagram above shows two similar bulbs X and

Y connected to a suitable power supply with F as
an appropriate fuse rating. If the filament of X
35. A real object is placed at a distance u cm in front of
breaks, then the
a curved mirror of focal length fcm. If the image is
A. Brightness of Y will reduce
upright and magnified, then the mirror is
B. Brightness of Y will remain constant
A. Convex and u = 2f
C. Brightness of Y will remain constant
B. Concave and u= 2f
D. Fuse F will blow.
f
C. Convex and u = 2
42. The purpose of a dielectric material in a parallel
f
plate capacitor is to
D. Concave and u = 2
A. Increase its capacitance
B. Decrease its capacitance
36. Which of the following pairs of colours gives the
C. Insulate the plates from each other
widest separation in the spectrum of white light?
D. Increase the magnetic field between the
A. Red and violet
plates.
B. Green and yellow
C. Red and indigo
43.
D. Yellow and violet.

37. Two parallel plates at a distance of 8.0 x 10-3m apart

are maintained at p.d. of 600 volts with the negative
plate earthed. What is the electric field strength?
A. 4.8 Vm-1
B. 75.0 Vm-1
C. 4800.0 Vm-1
D. 7,5000.0 Vm-1
The resultant in the figure above is
A. 15.0 uF B. 9.8 uF
38. At different locations on the earth’s surface, the
C. 1.3 uF
earth’s magnetic field is
D. 0.8 uF
A. The same in magnitude and direction
B. The same in magnitude but different in
44. An electric current of 2 amperes flows in a heating
direction
coil of resistance 50 ohms for 3 minutes 20 seconds.
C. Different in both magnitude and direction
Determine the heat produced.
D. Different in magnitude but not in direction.
A. 0.5 kJ B. 8.0 kJ
C. 20.0 kJ D. 40. 0 kJ
39. If a resistance if halved in value and the potential
difference across it is tripled, then the ratio of the
45. If the maximum voltage across a 100-ohm resistor
new current to the old is
is 20V, then the maximum power it can dissipate is
A. 1: 6 B. 1: 3
A. 5.00 W B. 4.00 W
C. 2: 1 D. 6: 1
717
C. 2.00 W D. 0.25 W B. 2000 Ohms
46. Which of the following is required to convert a C. 1000 3Ohms
milliammeter to an ammeter? D. 1000Ohms
A. A high resistance in parallel
B. A high resistance in series 49. The half-life of a radioactive element is 9 days.
C. A low resistance in parallel What fraction of atoms has decayed in 36 days?
D. A low resistance in series. A. 1
16
47. The primary winding of a transformer has 400 turns B. 1
and its secondary has 100 turns. If a source of 4
e.m.f. of 12V is applied to the primary, the secondary C. 1
e.m.f. will be 2
A. 3V B. 6V D. 15
C. 24 V D. 48 V 16

48. An alternating source is connected in series to a 50. A light of energy 5eV falls on a metal and the
3
3 and electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 2eV
3
resistor of a resistance 10 Ohms. The impedance are rejected. The work function of the metal is
of the circuit is A. 0.4eV B. 2.5eV
A. 2000 3Ohms C. 3.0eV D. 7.0eV

Physics 1997

1. At what respective values of X, Y and Z would

the unit of force, the Newton, be dimensionally 5. Two bodies X and Y are projected on the same
equivalent to MxLyTz? horizontal plane, with the same initial speed but at
A. -1, 1, 2 angles 30o and 60o respectively to the horizontal.
B. 1, 2, -2 Neglecting air resistance, the ratio of the range of
C. 1, -1, 2 X to that of Y is
D. -1, 1, -2 A. 1: 1 B. 1: 2
C. 3: 1 D. 1: 3
2. The distance xm traveled by a particle in time t
seconds is described by the equation x = 10 + 12t². 6. Which of the following with respect of a body
Find the average speed of the particle between the performing simple harmonic motion are in phase?
time interval t =2s and t = 5s. A. Displacement and velocity of the body.
A. 60 ms-1 B. 72 ms-1 B. Displacement and force on the body
C. 84 ms -1 D. 108 ms-1 C. Velocity and acceleration f the body.
D. Force acting on the body and the
3. A 5kg block is released from rest on a smooth plane acceleration.
inclined at an angle of 30o to the horizontal.
What is its acceleration down the plane? 7. A body of mass 2 kg moving vertically upwards
A. 5.0 ms-2 B. 5.8 ms-2 has its velocity increased uniformly from 10 ms-1
C. 8.7 ms -2 D. 25.0 ms-2 to 40 ms-1 in 4s. Neglecting air resistance, calculate
[g = 10 ms-2] the upward vertical force acting on the body.
A. 15N B. 20N
4. An arrow of mass 0.1kg moving with a horizontal C. 35N D. 45N
velocity of 15 ms-1 is shot into a wooden block [g = 10 ms-2]
of mass 0.4 kg lying at rest on a smooth
horizontal surface. Their common velocity after 8. A planet has mass m1 and is at a distance r1 from
impact is the sun. A second planet has mass m2 = 10m1 and
A. 15.0 ms-1 B. 7.5 ms-1 is at a distance of r2 = 2r1 from the sun. Determine
C. 3.8 ms-1 D. 3.0ms-1

718
the ratio of the gravitational force experienced by the
C. T= 5 3
planets. F
3
A. 1: 5 B. 2: 5
D. T = 5F
C. 3: 5 D. 4: 5

9.
12. An object of mass 100 g projected vertically
upwards from the ground level has a velocity of 20
ms-1 at a height of 10 m. Calculate its initial kinetic
energy at the ground level.
A. 10 J B. 20 J
C. 30 J D. 50J
[g = 10 ms-2; neglect air resistance]

13. An electric water pump rated 1.5 KW, lifts 200kg of

water through a vertical height of 6 metres in 10
seconds. What is the efficiency of the pump?
A. 90.0% B. 85.0%
For what value of Q are the forces in the diagram above in
C. 80.0% D. 65.0%
equilibrium?
[g = 10ms-2; neglect air resistance]
A. 15o B. 30o
o
C. 45 D. 60o
14.
10.

è W

For a rough inclined plane on which lies a body of

weight W, the angle è in the diagram above
The figure above shows a block of mass m
becomes the angle of friction if
sliding down a rough inclined plane QP at angle
Q. The forces acting on the block along the
A. tan Q = coefficient of static friction
plane QP are
B. cos Q = coefficient of dynamic friction
A. mg sin Q and the normal reaction
C. sin Q = coefficient of sliding friction
B. mg sin Q and the force of friction
D. sec Q = limiting frictional force.
C. mg cos Q and the normal reaction
D. mg cos Q and the force of friction.
15. A load of 20 N on a wire of cross-sectional area
8 x 10-7m -2, produces an extension of 10-4m.
11.
Calculate Young’s modulus for the material of the
wire if its length is 3 m.
A. 7.0 x 1011 Nm-2
B. 7.5 x 1011 Nm-2
C. 8.5 x 1011 Nm-2
D. 9.0 x 1011 Nm-2

16. A cube of sides 0.1 m hangs freely from a string.

A uniform light bean XZ is hinged at X and kept in
What is the up thrust on the cube when totally
equilibrium by the forces T and F as shown in the
immersed in water?
diagram above. If XO = 20 cm and OY = 30cm,
A. 1000N B. 700N
express T in terms of F.
C. 110N D. 10N
[Density of water is 1000 kg m-3, g = 10 ms-2]
A. T= 2 3 F
3
B. T = 2F
719
17. A piece of wire guaze can be made to lie on water A. 1.15 X 109 s B. 1.15 X 107 s
5
because C. 1.15 X 10 s D. 1.15 X 103 s
A. the wire guaze is less dense than water [Specific latent heat of vaporization of
B. the water molecules repel the wire guaze water = 2.3 X 106 J kg-1]
upwards.
C. the water surface has the effect of an 25. What happens when a certain quantity of pure ice
elastic thin skin is completely changed to water at 0oC?
D. of the cohesive forces between the A. Latent heat is absorbed, the mass remains
water and the wire guaze molecules. constant and the volume decreases.
B. Latent heat is given out, the mass remains
18. A liquid of mass 1.0 X 103 kg fills rectangular tank constant and the volume decreases.
of length 2.5 m and width 2.0 m. If the tank is 4 m C. Latent heat is given out, the mass
high, what is the pressure at the middle of the tank? increases and the volume remains
A. 1.0 X 104 Nm-2 constant.
B. 2.0 X 103 Nm-2 D. Latent heat is absorbed, the mass
C. 1.5 X 103 Nm-2 decreases and the volume increases.
D. 1.0 X 103 Nm-2 (g = 10m/52)
26. The correct cooling curve for a molten substance
19. An empty 60 litre petrol tank has a mass of 10 kg. It such as naphthalene is represented by
mass when full of fuel of relative density 0.72 is A. Temp. oC
A. 7.2 k B. 33.2 kg
C. 43.2 k D. 53.2 kg

20. The length of mercury thread when it is at 0oC,

100oC and at an unknown temperature è is 25 mm, Time (min)
225mm and 174mm respectively. The value of is B.
A. 85.0oC B. 80.0oC Temp. oC
o
C. 75.0 C D. 70.0oC

21. Equal masses of copper and rubber are raised to

the same temperature. After sometimes, the copper
was observed to be at a lower temperature because Time (min)
A. the specific heat capacity of copper is
lower than that of rubber C.
B. copper expands more than rubber Temp. oC
C. the specific heat capacity of rubber is
lower than that of copper
D. rubber expands more than copper.

22. Before starting a journey, the tyre pressure of a car Time (min)
was 3 X 105 Nm-2 at 27oC. At the end of the journey,
the pressure rose to 4 X 105 Nm-2. Calculate the
temperature of the tyre after the journey assuming
the volume is constant.
A. 400oC B. 300oC 27. What happens when a gas expands at a constant
o
C. 273 C D. 127oC temperature?
A. It pressure decreases.
23. A mass of a liquid at 300oC is mixed with a mass of B. The total momentum of its molecules
the same liquid at 70oC and the temperature of the remains constant.
mixture is 45oC. Find the ratio of the mass of the C. Its pressure decreases and the total
cold liquid to the mass of the other liquid. momentum of its molecules remains
A. 3: 5 B. 5: 3 constant.
C. 3: 7 D. 7: 3 D. Its pressure decreases and the total
kinetic energy of its molecules
24. A heating coil rated at 1000 W is used to boil off decreases.
0.5 kg of boiling water. The time taken to boil off
the water is
720
28. Ripples on water and light waves are similar
because both
A. have the same frequency
B. can be refracted and diffracted
C. are longitudinal waves
D. have the same velocity.

29. Under constant tension and constant mass per

unit length, the note produced by a plucked string
is 500 Hz when the length of the string is 0.90 m. At Sun
what length is the frequency 150 Hz? 33. Moon Earth
A. 3m B. 4m
C. 5m D. 6m

30. The colours seen in thin films of oil on the road X

and in soap bubbles are due to
A. Reflection B. Interference
C. Diffraction D. Polarization. When the sun, the moon and the earth are as
shown in the diagram above, an observer
standing at X is in
A. penumbra and sees a partial eclipse
B. penumbra and sees a total eclipse
C. umbra and sees a partial eclipse
D. umbra and sees a total eclipse.

34. A boy on looking into a mirror observed that his

face appeared to have grown bigger. The boy
must have been looking at a
A. convex mirror with his face at the focus
B. concave mirror with his face between
31. the focus and the mirror.
C. concave mirror with his face at the
focus
D. convex mirror with his face between the
focus and the mirror.
The diagram above shows two waveforms P and
Q at a particular instant of time. The two waves 35. Light of velocity 3.0 x 108 ms-1 is incident on a
will interfere material of refractive index n. If the velocity of light
A. destructively to produce a wave of a is reduced to 2.4 X 108 ms-1 in the material, what is
larger amplitude n?
B. destructively to produce a wave of a A. 2.33 B. 2.25
smaller amplitude C. 1.33 D. 1.25
C. constructively to produce a wave of a
larger amplitude 36. A patient with a sight defect has a distance of
D. constructively to produce a wave of a distinct vision of 150 cm. For him to be able to read
smaller amplitude. a material placed at a distance of 25 cm, what is the
focal length of the glasses he should wear?
32. If the load at the end of a sonometer wire is A. 15.0 cm B. 17.6 cm
immersed in a bucket of water, the original C. 21.4 cm D. 30.0 cm
fundamental frequency of the wire could be
restored by 37. The electromagnetic waves that are sensitive to
A. decreasing the length of the wire temperature changes are
B. increasing the length of the wire A. X-rays B. gamma-rays
C. increasing the mass per unit of the wire C. ultra-violet rays
D. changing the temperature of the water. D. infra-red rays.

721
38. respectively. Find the balance point from the left
side of the bridge.
A. 20 cm B. 40 cm
C. 60 cm D. 80 cm

44. Two 50 uF parallel plate capacitors are connected

in series. The combined capacitor is then
connected across a 100-V battery. The charge on
In the diagram above, which of the anglesQ1, Q2, each plate of the capacitor is
Q3, and Q4 is the angle of deviation of a ray of light A. 5.00 X 10-5 C B. 2.50 X 10-3 C
-3
through the glass prism, XYZ? C. 1.25 X 10 C D. 1.00 X 10-2 C
A. Q3 B. Q2
C. Q1 D. Q4 45. What is the total electrical energy consumed by
using an electric cooker rated 1000 W for 5 hrs?
A. 5.3 X 103 J B. 6.5 X 103 J
7
39. Which of the figures below showed the correct C. 1.8 X 10 J D. 2.3 X 107 J
distribution of charges on an isolated positively
charged hollow metal? 4.6 The power dissipated in an a.c. circuit with an
r.m.s. current of 5A, r.m.s. voltage of 10 V and a
A. + + C. + + phase angle of 60o is
+
+ + + + A. 25 W B. 50 W
+ + +
+ + C. 120 W D. 125 W
+ +
+ + +
+ +
+ + + 47. The voltage of the domestic electric supply is
+ +
represented by the equation
+ V = 311 sin 314.2t.
B. D. ++ +++
+ + ++ Determine the frequency of the a.c. supply.
+
+ A. 50.0 Hz B. 100.0 Hz
+
+ C. 311.0Hz D. 314.2 Hz
+
+ + [ = 3.142]

48. In a purely inductive circuit, the current

40. Three electric cells each of e.m.f. 1.5V and internal A. lags behind the voltage in phase by 90o
resistance 1.0 Ohms are connected in parallel B. lead the voltage in phase by 90o
across an external resistance of T Ohms!. Calculate C. is in the same phase with the voltage
the value of the current in the resistor. D. leads the voltage by 180o.
A. 0.5 A B. 0.9 A
C. 1.5 A D. 4.5 A 49. One of the features of the fission process is that
A. Its products are not radioactive
41. A galvanometer of internal resistance 50 Ohms has B. It leads to chain reaction
a full scale deflection for current of 5 mA. What is C. Neutrons are not released
the resistance required to convert it to a voltmeter D. The sum of the masses of the reactants
with full scale deflection of 10V? equals the sum of the masses of the
A. 1 750 Ohms B. 1 950 Ohms products.
C. 2 000 Ohms D. 2 500 Ohms
50. The graphite rods surrounding the uranium fuel
42. If 8 X 10-2 J of work is required to move 100 ìC of rods in a nuclear reactor, are used to
charge from a point X to a point Y in an electrical A. Absorb the neutrons and hence halt the
circuit, the potential difference between X and Y nuclear process
if B. Create the neutrons and hence start up
A. 4.0 X 102 V B. 4.0 X 104 V the nuclear process.
C. 8.0 X 102 V D. 8.0 X 104 V C. Slow down the neutrons and hence
sloe\w the nuclear process.
43. In a metre bridge experiment, two resistors 2 &! D. Speed up the neutrons and hence speed
and 3 Ohms occupy the left and right gaps up the nuclear process.

722
Physics 1998
1. The physical quantity that has the same 7. In an experiment, a constant force is applied to
dimensions as impulse is several masses (m) and the corresponding
A. Energy B. Momentum accelerations (a) are measured. Which of the
C. Surface tension D. Pressure. following graphs correctly represents the
experiment?
2. A ball is moving at 18ms-1 in a direction inclined
at 600 to the horizontal. The horizontal
component of its velocity is
A. 9 3ms-1 B. 6 3ms-1
-1
C. 6 3ms D. 9ms-1

A. III and IV only

B. II and IV only
C. I and III only
D. I and II only

8. A uniform metre rule weighting 0.5N is to be pivoted

on a knife-edge at the 30cm-mark. Where will a
force of 2N be placed from the pivot to balance the
metre rule?
A. 95cm B. 25cm
A body on the ground is acted on by a force of C. 20cm D. 5cm
10N at a point P as shown in the diagram above.
What force is needed to stop the body from moving 9. A bullet fired at a wooden block of thickness 0.15m
eastward? manages to penetrate the block. If the mass of the
A. 5N in the direction of East bullet is 0.025kg and the average resisting force of
B. 5N in the direction of West the wood is 7.5 x 103N, calculate the speed of the
C. 5"3N in the direction of West. bullet just before it hits the wooden block.
D. 10N in the Southwest direction. A. 450 ms-1 B. 400 ms-1
-1
C. 300 ms D. 250 ms-1
4. In free fall, a body of mass 1kg drops from a height
of 125m from rest in 5s. How long will it take another 10. A man whose mass is 80kg climbs a staircase in
body of mass 2kg to fall from rest from the same 20s and expends a power of 120W. Find the height
height? of the staircase.
A. 55 B. 105 A. 1.8m B. 2.0m
C. 125 D. 155 C. 2.5m D. 3.0m
(g = 10ms-2) [g = 10ms-2]

5. A ball of mass 0.15kg is kicked against a rigid 11. A parachute attains a terminal velocity when
vertical wall with a horizontal velocity of 50ms-1, A. Its density is equal to the density of air
calculate the impulse of the ball on the wall. B. The viscous force of the air and the
A. 3.0Ns B. 4.5Ns upthrust completely counteract its
C. 7.5Ns D. 12.0Ns weight.
C. It expands as a result of reduced external
6. The force of attraction between two point masses pressure
is 10-4N when the distance between them is 0.18m. D. The viscous force of the is equal to the
If the distance is reduced to 0.06m, calculate the sum of the weight and upthrust.
force.
A. 1.1 x 10-5N B. 3.3 x 10-5N
-4
C. 3.0 x 10 N D. 9.0 x 10-4N

723
12. In a wheel and axle mechanism, the diameters of attained, calculate T.
the wheel and axle are 40cm and 8cm respectively. A. 330C B. 600C
Given that the machine is 80% efficient, what effort C. 870C D. 1140C
is required to lift a load of 100N?
A. 20 N B. 25 N 20. A 500W heater is used to heat 0.6kg of water from
C. 50 N D. 80 N 250C to 1000C in t1 seconds. If another 1000W heater
is used to heat 0.2kg of water from 100C to 1000C in
13. The tendon in a man’s leg is 0.01m long. If a force t2 seconds, find t1 .
of 5N stretches the tendon by 2.0 x 10-5m, calculate t2
the strain on the muscle. A. 50 B. 5
A. 5 x 106 B. 5 x 102 C. 5
/4 D. 1
/5
-3
C. 2 x 10 D. 2 x 10-7
21. How many grams of water at 170C must be added
14. Which of these statements are correct for the to 42g of ice at 00C to melt the ice completely?
pressures in liquids? A. 200g B. 300g
I Pressure in a liquid at a point acts equally C. 320g D. 400g
in all directions [Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.4 x 105Jkg-1,
II Pressure increases with depth Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg-1K-1]
III Pressure at a depth depends on the shape
of the container. 22. A vapour is said to be saturated when
IV Pressures at the same depth in different
liquids are proportional to the densities A. More molecules return to the liquid than
of the liquids. the amount that left it.
B. A dynamic equilibrium exist between the
A. I, II and III only molecules of the liquid and the vapour
B. I, II and IV only molecules at a given temperature.
C. I, III and Iv only C. The vapour pressure is equal to the
D. II, III and IV only. atmospheric pressure
D. All molecules are moving with the same
15. The atmospheric pressure due to water is 1.3 x 106 speed in all directions at a given
Nm-2. What is the total pressure at the bottom of temperature.
an ocean 10m deep?
A. 1.3 x 107 Nm-2 B. 1.4 x 106 Nm-2 23. One valid assumption of the kineic theory of gases
5 -2
C. 1.4 x 10 Nm D. 1.0 x 105 Nm-2 is that
A. the molecules of a gas are constantly in state
16. A solid of weight 0.600N is totally immersed in oil of motion and the number of collisions remain
and water respectively. If the upthrust in oil is constant.
0.210N and the relative density of oil is 0.875 find B. The number of molecules of gas increases with
the upthrust in water. increasing pressure
A. 0.6000N B. 0.360N C. As the temperature increases, the number of
C. 0.240N D. 0.180N collisions made by the gas molecules remain
constant.
17. A platinum resistance thermometer records 3.0Ù D. The molecules of gas are all identical and are
at 00C and 8.0 Ù at 1000C. If it records 6.0Ù in a very small in size.
certain environment, the temperature of the medium
is 24. The physical properties of sound waves can best
A. 800C B. 600C be described by
0
C. 50 C D. 300C A. Reflection and diffraction
B. Polarization and reflection
18. The linear expansivity of brass is 2 x 10-5C-1. If the C. Polarization and diffraction
volume of a piece of brass is 15.00 cm3 at 00C, what D. Polarization and refraction
is the volume at 1000C?
A. 16.03cm3 B. 16.00cm3 25. The velocity of a sound wave at 270C is 360ms-1.
3
C. 15.09cm D. 15.03cm3 Its velocity at 1270C is
A. 120 3ms-1 B. 240ms-1
19. A gas has a volume of 100cm3 at 270C. If it is heated C. 240 3ms -1
D. 720 3ms-1
to temperature T until a final volume of 120cm3 is
724
26. In a closed organ pipe producing a musical note, 34. A man wears convex lens glasses of focal length
an antinode will always be produced at 30cm in order to correct his eye defect. Instead of
A. The closed end the optimum 25cm, his least distance of distinct
B. The open end vision is
C. The middle A. 14cm B. 28cm
D. All the parts of the pipe. C. 75cm D. 150cm

27. A steel wire of length 0.50m is stretched between 35. Which of the following are true about infra-red
two fixed points and its fundamental frequency is radiation?
200Hz. The speed of the wave in the wire is I It is invisible
A. 100 ms-1 B. 120 ms-1 II It is called heat ray
-1
C. 200 ms D. 250 ms-1 III Its frequency is higher than that of blues
light
28. In a resonance tube experiment, if the fundamental IV It travels as a transverse wave.
frequency of the vibrating air column is 280Hz, the
frequency of the third overtones is A. I, II, III and IV.
A. 70Hz B. 840Hz B. I, II and Iv only
C. 1 120Hz D. 1 960Hz C. I, III and IV only.
D. II, III and IV only.
29. An object O lies at a distance m in front of a
concave mirror of the focal length f. If m<f, then 36. The force of repulsion between two point positive
the final image obtained will be charges 5uC and 8uC separated at a distance of
A. Virtual and diminished 0.02m apart is
B. Magnified and erect A. 1.8 x 10-10N B. 9.0 x 10-8N
2
C. Real and inverted C. 9.0 x 10 N D. 4.5 x 103N
D. Diminished and erect.
37. An ebonite rod rubbed with fur attracts a glass
30. An object is placed in front of two plane mirrors rod rubbed with silk because
inclined at an angle è0. If the total number of images A. Ebonite has a negative charge while glass has
formed is 7, find the value of è? a positive charge
A. 300 B. 450 B. Ebonite has a positive charge while glass has
0
C. 51 D. 900 a negative charge
C. Both have negative charges
31. The most suitable type of mirror used for the D. Both have positive charges.
construction of a searchlight is the
A. Concave mirror 38. Which of the following diagrams show the
B. Convex mirror correction of the magnetic lines of force of a vertical
C. Spherical mirror wire XY carrying a current I?
D. Parabolic mirror.

32. The displacement d produced in a glass block of

thickness t and refractive index n when an object
is viewed through it is
A. t–n B. t(1 + 1/n)
1
C. t(1 – /n) D. t(1/n – 1)

33. The correct shape of the graph of uv against 39. Which of the following can be used to reduce local
(u + v) for an object distance u and image distance action in a Leclanche cell?
v in n experiment to find the focal length of a convex A. A carbon rod as the positive pole.
lens is given as B. Pure zinc as the negative pole.
C. Potassium permanganate solution in
contact with the positive pole.
D. Common salt solution.

725
40. A. 5000ðHz
B. 2500ðHz
5000
C. /ðHz
2500
D. /ðHz

46. A transformer which can produce 8V from a 240V

a.c. supply, has an efficiency of 80%. If the current
in the secondary coil is 15A, calculate the current
in the primary coil.
The total resistance measured at PQ in the diagram A. 0.625A B. 1.600A
above is C. 2.500A D. 6.250A
A. 18.0 Ohms B. 11.0 Ohms
C. 4.0 Ohms D. 2.0 Ohms 47. The electrochemical equivalent of metal is 1.3 x 10-
7
kgC-1. The mass of the metal which 2.0 x 104C of
41. Find the work done in moving a 2C charges between electricity will deposit from a suitable electrolyte
two points X and Y in an electric field if the is
potential difference is 100 volts. A. 6.5 x 10-2kg B. 2.6 x 10-2kg
-3
A. 50J B. 100J C. 6.5 x 10 kg D. 2.6 x 10-3kg
C. 200J D. 400J
48. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 80 days.
42. A parallel capacitor has a common plate area of 5 x If the initial number of atoms in the sample is 6.0 x
10-8m-2 and plate separation of 2 x 103m. Assuming 1010, how many atoms would remain at the end of
free space, what is the capacitance? 320 days?
A. 2.25 x 10-17F A. 3.75 x 109 B. 7.50 x 109
B. 4.50 x 10-17F C. 3.00 x 1010
D. 5.63 x 1010
C. 2.25 x 10-16F
D. 4.50 x 10-16F 49. In a nuclear fusion experiment, the loss of mass
amounts to 1.0 x 10-6kg. The amount of energy
43. The iron core of an induction coil is made from obtained from the fusion is
bundles of wires so as to
A. Minimize eddy-currents A. 3.0 x 10-4J
B. Generate eddy-currents B. 3.0 x 10-1J
C. Prevent sparking at the contact breaker C. 9.0 x 104J
D. Get the greatest possible secondary D. 9.0 x 1010J
voltage. [Speed of light = 3.0 x 108ms-1]

44. Electricity is supplied to a school along a cable of 50. In photoelectric effect, electrons will leave the
total resistance 0.5 Ù with the maximum current metal surface when illuminated by light of
drawn from the mains as 100A. the maximum energy appropriate frequency if the photon energy is
dissipated as heat for 1hr is A. Greater than the work function.
A. 3.6 x 103J B. 5.0 x 103J B. Less than the work function
5
C. 3.0 x 10 J D. 1.8 x 107J C. Equal to the work function
D. Equal to the maximum kinetic energy of
45. the electrons.

In the a.c. circuit diagram above, the resonance

frequency is

726
Physics 1999
1. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25ms-1 in 20 6. Two bodies have masse in the ratio 3 : 1. They
seconds. The power developed in the energy is experience forces which impart to them
A. 1.25 x 104 W B. 2.50 x 104W accelerations in the ratio 2: 9 respectively. Find the
C. 6
1.25 x 10 W D. 2.50 x 106 W ratio of the forces the masses experience.
A. 1: 4
2. A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity B. 2: 1
of 200ms-1 into a lead block of mass 0.95 kg. Given C. 2: 3
that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic D. 2 : 5.
energy after impact is
A. 50 J B. 100 J 7.
C. 150 J D. 200 J

3. A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards

with a speed of 10 ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m
high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just
before hitting the ground is
A. 5J B. 10 J
C. 15 J D. 20 J The diagram above shows the velocity-time graph
[g = 10ms-2]. of a vehicle. Its acceleration and retardation
respectively are
4. A. 8.0 ms-2, 4.0 ms-2,
B. 4.0 ms-2, 8.0 ms-2,
C. 4.0 ms-2, 2.0 ms-2,
D. 2.0 ms-2, 4.0 ms-2

8. A particle of mass 10-2kg is fixed to the tip of a fan

blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100
rad s-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the
centripetal force is
The figure above represents a frictionless pulley A. 2N B. 20 N
system in which a weight W is in equilibrium with C. 200 N D. 400 N
a weight of 40N. Find the value of W
A. 13.1 N B. 20.0 N 9. The inner diameter of a small test tube can be
C. 40.0 N D. 80.0 N measured accurately using a
A. Micrometer screw guage
5. B. Pair of dividers
C. Metre rule
D. Pair of vernier calipers.

10. A gas at a volume V0 in a container at pressure P0,

is compressed to one fifth of its volume. What will
be its pressure if it maintains its original
The diagram above shows a solid figure with base temperature T?
PQ and centre gravity G on an inclined plane. A. Po/ 5
Which of the following statements is correct? B. 4/5 P0
A. The solid will fall over if the vertical line C. P0
through G lies outside the base. D. 5P0
B. The solid will fall over if the vertical line
through G lines inside the base. 11. A piece of substance of specific heat capacity 450
C. The solid will not fall over if the vertical J kg-1 K-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m
line through G lies outside the base. from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the
D. The solid can never fall over.

727
substance on hitting the ground when all its 16. I. A liquid boils when its saturated
energies are converted into heat. vapour pressure is equal to the external
A. 2/90C B. 4/90C pressure.
0
C. 9/4 C D. 9/20C II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead
[g = 10 ms-2]. to increase in the boiling point.
III. When the external pressure is increased,
12. the boiling point increases.
IV Dissolved substances in pure water
decrease the boiling point.
Which combination of the above are peculiarities
of the boiling point of a liquid?

A. I, II and III
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV.

The diagram above shows a lift pump with valves 17. When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its
at P and Q. during a downward stroke of the piston, surface tension
A. Both valves are open A. Decreases B. Increases
B. P is open while Q is closed C. Remains constant
C. P is closed while Q is open D. Increase then decreases.
D. Both valves are closed.
18. When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional
13. force on the tyres is
A. A disadvantage because it is in the direction
of motion of the car
B. A disadvantage because it is in the opposite
direction of motion of the car.
C. An advantage because it is in the direction of
motion of the car.
D. An advantage because it is in the opposite
direction of motion of the car.

19. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has

a frequency of 400Hz. How many overtones are
In the J – tube above, Y and X are on the same their between 40Hz and 180 Hz?
horizontal level and 30cm3 of air is trapped above A. 4 B. 3
Y when the atmospheric pressure is 75cm Hg. C. 2 D. 1
Calculate the volume of air trapped above Y when
15cm Hg is now poured into the limb above X. 20. A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the
A. 15 cm3 B. 25 cm3 mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance
3
C. 35 cm D. 45 cm3 between him and his image is
A. 3m B. 5m
14. If the stress on a wire is 107 Nm-2 and the wire is C. 6m D. 10m
stretched from its original length of 10.00cm to 10.05
cm. The young’s modulus of the wire is 21. If a sound wave gors from a cold-air region to a
A. 5.0 x 104 Nm-2 B. 5.0 x 105 Nm-2 hot-air region, its wavelength
8 -2
C. 2.0 x 10 Nm D. 2.0 x 109 Nm-2 A. Increase
B. Decrease
15. A solid weights 10.0N in air, 6.0 N when fully C. Decrease then increase
immersed in water and 7.0 N when fully immersed D. Remain constant
in a certain liquid X. Calculate the relative density
of the liquid. 22. The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere
A. 5/3 B. 4/3 of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will
C. ¾ D. 7/10

728
therefore form a shown. After some time, the poles at P and Q
A. Concave mirror of focal length 5 cm respectively are
B. Concave mirror of focal length 5 cm A. North – North
C. Convex mirror of focal length 5 cm B. North – South
D. Convex mirror of focal length 20cm. C. South – North
D. South – South
23. The equation of a wave traveling along the positive
x-direction is given by y = 0.25 x 10-3 sin (500 t – 29. Four cells each of e.m.f. 1.5 V and internal resistance
0.025 x). Determine the angular frequency of the of 4 Ohms are connected in parallel. What is the
wave motion, effective e.m.f. and internal resistance of the
A. 0.25 x 10-3 rad s-1 combination?
B. 0.25 x 10-1rad s-1 A. 6.0V, 16 Ohms
C. 5.00 x 102rad s-1 B. 6.0V, 1 Ohms
D. 2.50 x 102rad s-1 C. 1.5V, 4 Ohms
D. 1.5V, 1 Ohms
24. Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when
2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling
water to a block of ice without heat loss
A. 8/33kg B. 33/80kg 30.
C. 80/33kg D. 33/8kg
[Specific heat capacity of copper = 400 J kg-1 K-1;
Latent heat of fussion of ice = 3.3 x 105 J kg-1]

25.

In the circuit above, the ammeter reads a current of

5.0 A when R = 8 Ohms and reads 7.0 A when
R = 5 Ohms. The value of the unknown resistance
X is
A. 10.0 Ohms B. 7.5 Ohms
The diagram above represents a transverse C. 5.0 Ohms D. 2.5 Ohms
electromagnetic wave traveling with speed 3.0 x
108ms-1. What is the frequency of the wave? 31. An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal
A. 3.0 x 107 Hz adjustment when the
B. 90 x 107 Hz A. Eye is accommodated
C. 1.0 x 109 Hz B. Focal length of objective lens is longer
D. 3.0 x 109 Hz than that of eye piece
C. Final image is at the near point of eye
27. The temperature gradient across a copper rod of D. Final image is at infinity.
thickness 0.02m, maintained a two temperature
junctions of 200C and 800C respectively is 32. Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than
A. 3.0 x 102 Km-1 B. 3.0 x 103 Km-1 iron because the former
3 -1
C. 5.0 x 10 Km D. 3.0 x 104 Km-1 A. Is easily demagnetized by shaking vigorously
B. Is an alloy of many metals
28. C. Is easily magnetized by alternating current
through one cycle
D. Retains magnetism more than iron.

The diagram above show a magnet X with its South

pole moved along a soft-iron bar PQ in the direction

729
33.
38.

The diagram above shows the prism arrangement

in a
A. Binocular B. Spectrometer
C. Penscope D. Projector In the circuit above, the potential across each
capacitor is 100V. The total energy stored in the
34. The velocities of flight air and glass are 3.0 x 108ms two capacitors is
and 2.0 x 108ms-1 respectively. If the angle of A. 3.0 x 104 J B. 3.0 x 102 J
-2
refraction is 300, the sine of the angle of incidence C. 2.5 x 10 J D. 6.0 x 10-3 J
is
A. 0.33 B. 0.50 39. At what frequency would a 10 H inductor have a
C. 0.67 D. 0.75 reactance of 2000 ohms?
A. ð
/200Hz B. ð
/100Hz
100
35. C. /ðHz D. 100ðHz

40. A 3000 W electric cooker is to be used on a 200V

mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be
used safely with the cooker?
A. 2A B. 5A
C. 10A D. 20A

42. A galvanometer has a resistance of 5 Ù. By using

a shunt wire of resistance 0.05 Ù, the galvanometer
In the series a.c. circuit shown above, the p.d could be converted to an ammeter capable of
across the inductor is 8Vr.m.s. The effective voltage reading 2 A. What is the current through the
is galvanometer?
A. 2V B. 10V A. 2 mA B. 10 mA
C. 14V D. 48V C. 20 mA D. 25 mA

36. The core of an efficient transfoemer should consist 42.

of laminated pieces of metal in order to
A. Increase the heat produced by increasing the
eddy current
B. Increase the heat produced by reducing the
eddy current
C. Reduce the heat produced by increasing the
eddy current
D. Reduce the heat produced by reducing the In the diagram above, if the internal resistance of
eddy current. the cell is zero, the ratio of the power P1 and P2
dissipated by R1 and R2 respectively, is
37. In Fleming’s right-hand rule, the thumb, the
forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at A. R2
right angles represent respectively, the R1
B. R1
A. Motion, the field and induced current R2
B. Induced current, the motion and the field C. R1 + R2
C. Fireld, the induced current and the motion R1
D. Induced current, the field and the motion. D. R1 + R2
R2

730
43. If x is the uncertainty in the measurement of (h = 6.63 x 10-34 JS)
the position of a particle along the x-axis and “Px is 48. In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance, the voltages
the uncertainty in the measurement of the linear across the resistor and the inductor are 30 V and
momentum along the x-axis, then the uncertainty 40 V respectively. What is the voltage across the
principle relation is given as capacitor?
A. x Px >h A. 30 V B. 40 V
B. x Px = 0 C. 50 V D. 70 V
C. x Px < h
D. x Px = 00 49. Gamma rays are produced when
A. High velocity electrons are abruptly stopped
44. Na + Proton X + alpha particle. What are the in metals
values of p and q respectively in the equation B. Energy changes occur within the nucleus
above? atoms
A. 10 and 20 B. 12 and 24 C. Energy changes occur within the electronic
C. 20 and 10 D. 24 and 12. structure of atoms
D. Electrons are deflected in very strong
45. A semi-conductor diode is used in rectifying magnetic fields.
alternating current into direct current mainly
because it 50. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of
A. Allows current to flow in either direction alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film with
B. Is non-linear some of the particles being considerably deflected.
C. Offers a high input resistance This shows that
D. Allows current to flow only in one direction.
A. A gold nucleus contains protons, nuietrons
46. In semi-conductors, the carriers of current at room and electrons uniformly distributed in a tiny
temperature are volume.
A. Electrons only B. The gold nucleus is positively charged and is
B. Electrons and holes concentrated in a tiny volume
C. Holes only C. The gold nucleus emitted alpha particles
D. Electrons and ions D. The gold nucleus is concentrated in a tiny
volume and contains alpha particles.
47. What is the speed of a particle of mass 10-27kg
whose wavelength is 10-8m?
A. 6.63 ms-1 B. 66.30 ms-1
-1
C. 663.00 ms D. 6630.00 ms-1

Physics 2000
1. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is 3. I. The frictional force is
extended by 20cm with an applied force f. If the independent of the area of the surfaces
stone leaves with a velocity of 40 ms-1, the value in contact,
of F is II The frictional force depends on the
A. 4.0 x 104 N B. 4.0 x 103 N nature of the surfaces in contact
C. 2.0 x 103 N D. 4.0 x 102 N III The frictional force depends on the speed
sliding
2. A hand bag containing some load weighting 162N IV The frictional force is directly
is carried by two students each holding the handle proportional to the normal reaction
of the bag next to him. If each handle is pulled at 60 Which combination of the above is true of sliding
to the vertical, find the force on each student’s friction?
arm A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III
A. 324 N B. 162 N C. I, III and IV D. II, III and IV.
C. 121 N D. 81 N

731
4. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, 12. A stream is flowing at 0.75ms-1 and at boat heading
the friction of its volume above the water surface perpendicular for the stream landed at the opposite
will bank at an angle 300. Calculate the velocity of the
A. Remain the same boat.
B. Increase A. 0.65 ms-1 B. 0.86 ms-1
-1
C. Decrease C. 1.00 ms D. 1.50 ms-1
D. Increase then decrease.
13. I. Coherence
5. A simple pendulum has a period of 17.0s. When II Same frequency
the length is shortened by 1.5m, its period is 8.5s. III Same wavelength
Calculate the original length of the pendulum. IV Same intensity.
A. 1.5m B. 2.0m Which of the conditions above are necessary to
C. 3.0m D. 3.0m produce interference fringes?
A. I, II and III B. I, II and III
6. At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure C. I, II and IV D. II and III.
downward is P1 and the pressure upward is P2. It
can be deduced that 14. An engineer intends to deviate a light ray from its
A. P1 = P2 B. P1 > P2 path 1200 through reflection from plane mirror.
C. P1 < P2 D. P1 > P2 Calculate the angle of incidence.
A. 200 B. 300
0
7. I. Its velocity is constant C. 40 D. 600
II No work is done on the body
III It has constant acceleration away from 15.
the center Days 1 Day 2 Day 3
IV The centripetal force is directed towards
the center. Dry 300C 290C 250C
Which combination of the above is true of a body
moving with constant speed in a circular track? Wet 220C 220C 210C
A. I and III B. I and IV
C. II and III D. II and IV The readings above are for three consecutive days
from a wet and dry bulb hygrometer. It can be
8. The velocity v of a particle in a time t is given by concluded that the relative humidity for the three
the equation v = 10+2t2. Find the instantaneous days
acceleration after 5 seconds. A. Increased ssteadily
A. 10 ms-2 B. 15 ms-2 B. Remained unchanged
-2
C. 20 ms D. 60 ms-2 C. Was least on day 1
D. Decrease steadily
9. If the force and the velocity on a system are each
reduced simultaneously by half, the power of the 16. Total internal reflection occurs when light moves
system is from
A. Doubled B. Constant A. Air to water
C. Reduced to a quarter B. Water to glass
D. Reduced by half. C. A dense medium to a less dense medium
D. A less dense medium to a dense medium
10. The velocity ratio of a machine is 5 its efficiency is
75%. What effort would be needed to lift a load of 17. One end of a long wire is fixed while vibrator is
150N with the machine? attached to the other end. When the vibrator is
A. 50 N B. 40 N energized, the types of waves generated in the
C. 30 N D. 20 N wire are
A. Stationary and transverse
11. A rope is being used to pull a mass of 10kg B. Progressive
vertically upward. Determine the tension in the rope C. Stationary and longitudinal
if, starting from resr, the mass acquires a velocity D. Progressive and longitudinal.
of 4ms-1 in 8.
A. 105 N B. 95 N
C. 50 N D. 5N

732
18. A sonometer wire is vibrating at frequency f0. If 24. A transverse wave is applied to a string whose
the tension in the wire is doubled while the length mass per unit is 3 x 10-2kgm-1. If the string is under
and the mass per unit length are kept constant, the a tension of 12N, the speed of propagation of the
new frequency of vibration is wave is
A. f0 A. 40ms-1 B. 30ms-1
-1
2 C. 20ms D. 5ms-1
B. 2 f0
C. f0 25. A quantity of water at 00C heated to about 300C. At
2 each degree rise in temperature, its density will
D. f0 2 A. Rise steadily B. Rise then fall
C. Fall steadily D. Fall then rise.
19. A boy observes a piece of stone at the bottom of a
river 6.0m deep. If he looks from the surface of the 26. A thin wire with heavy weights attached to both
river, what is the apparent distance of the stone ends is hung over a block of ice resting on two
from him. supports. If the wire cuts through the ice block
A. 4.5 m B. 5.0 m while the block remains solid behind the wire, the
C. 5.5 m D. 8.0 m process is called
A. Fusion B. Sublimation
20. A metal of mass 0.5kg is heated to 1000C and then C. Condensation D. Regelation
transferred to a well-lagged calorimeter of heat
capacity 80J K-1 containing water of heat capacity 27. A cell of internal resistance 0.01 ohms can be
420JK-1 at 150C. If the final steady temperature of measured accurately using the
the mixture is 250C, find the specific heat capacity A. Ohm-meter
of the metal B. Potentiometer
A. 92 J kg –1 K-1 B. 133 J kg –1 K-1 C. Electroscope
–1 -1
C. 286 J kg K D. 887 J kg –1 K-1 D. Metre bridge

28. An electron of charge 1.6 x 10-19C and mass 9.1 x

21. 10-31kg is accelerated between two metal plates with
a velocity of 4 x 107ms-1, the potential difference
between the plates is
A. 4.55 x 101V B. 9.10 x 101V
2
C. 4.55 x 10 V D. 4.55 x 103V

29.

The diagram above shows a maximum and minimum

thermometer divided into three portions P, Q and
R. Which of the following is true about the
respective contents of P, Q and R?
A. Alcohol, mercury and alcohol
B. Air, alcohol and mercury
C. Mercury, alcohol and mercury
D. Air, mercury and alcohol.
22. The main reason for making the cover of a vacuum
flask airtight is to prevent heat loss by
A. Conduction B. Evaporation
C. Radiation D. Convection
In the diagram above, a beam of white light travels
23. A travelling wave moving from left to right has an from a rare to dense medium. What colours of light
amplitude of 0.15m, a frequency of 550Hz and a do the rays a, b, c respectively represent.
wavelength of 0.01m. The equation describing the
wave is A. Blue, yellow and red
A. y = 0.15 8In 200 ð (x – 5.5t) B. Green, red and blue
B. y = 0.15 8In ð (0.01x – 5.5t) C. Red, green and blue
C. y = 0.15 8In 5.5 ð (x – 200t) D. Yellow, blue and red.
D. y = 0.15 8Inð (550 x – 0.01t)
733
30. 34. A projector lantern is used to give the image of a
slide on a screen. If the image is 24 times as large
as the slide and the screen is 72.0m from the
projecting lens, what is the position of the slide
from the lens?
A. 4.0m B. 3.5m
C. 3.0m D. 0.3m

35. A radio is operated by eight cells each of e.m.f.

The diagram above shows two capacitors P and Q 2.0V connected in series. if two of the cells are
of capacitances 5uF and 10 uF. Find the charges wrongly connected, the net e.m.f. of the radio is
stores in P and Q respectively. A. 16V B. 12V
A. 200 uC and 100 uC C. 10V D. 8V
B. 100 uC and 200 uC
C. 4 uC and 2 uC 36. A 2H inductor has negligible resistance and is
D. 2 uC and 4 uC connected to a 50/ Hz a.c. supply. The reactance
of the inductor is
31. What optical instrument can best be constructed A. 200 Ohms
with converging lenses of focal lengths 500cm and B. 50 Ohms
5cm? C. 100 Ohms
A. Compound microscope
B. Terrestrial telescope D. 25 Ohms
C. Astronomical telescope
D. Galileo’s telescope 37. If the fraction of the atoms of a radioactive material
left after 120 years is 1/64 What is the half-life of the
32. If a charged ion goes through combined electric material?
and magnetic fields, the resultant emergent A. 2 years
velocity of the ion is B. 10 years
A. E C. 20 years
B D. 24 years
B. EB
C. B 38. A certain readioactive source emits radiations that
E were found to be deflected by both magnetic and
D. E–B electric fields. The radiations are
A. x-rays
33. B. beta rays
C. gamma rays
D. ultra-violet rays

39. In a pure semicondctor, the number of electron in

the conduction band is
A. Equal to the number of holes in the valence
band
B. Greater than the number of holes in the
valence band
C. Less than the number of holes in the valence
In the diagram above, the values of V1 and V2 are band
respectively D. Twice the number of holes in the valence
band.
A. 1V and 1 V
3 40. A cell of internal resistance 1 ohms supplies
B. 1 V and 1V current to an external resistor of 3 ohms . The
3 efficiency of the cell is
C. 1 V and 2 V A. 75% B. 50%
3 3 C. 33% D. 25%
D. 1V and 2 V
3
734
41. Light energy 5eV falls on a metal of work function 46.
3 ev and electrons are liberated. The stopping
potential is
A. 15.0V B. 8.0V
C. 2.0V D. 1.7V

42. In the thermonuclear reaction, the total initial mass

is 5.02 x 10-27kg. The energy released in the process
is In the a.c. circuit above, the current value is
A. 9.0 x 10-10J B. 9.0 x 10-11J
C. -12
9.0 x 10 J D. 9.0 x 10-13J A. 6.67 A
B. 4.00 A
43. The magnetic flux in a coil having 200 turns changes C. 3.00 A
at the time rate of 0.08 Ws-1. The induced e.m.f. in D. 0.58 A
the coil is
A. 1.6V B. 16.0V 47.
C. 25.0V D. 250.0V

44. If the frequency of an emitted x-rays is 1.6 x 1016

Hz, the accelerating potential is
A. 6.6 V B. 66.3 V
C. 663.0 V D. 6630.0 V
If current flows in the direction of the arrows in the
45. solenoid above, the North pole is at
A. P B. X
C. Q D. Y

48. A gas would serve as an electrical conductor under

A. Reduced pressure and reduced potential
B. Reduced pressure and high current
C. Increased magnetic field
D. Exposure to visible light

49. An electric generator with a power output of 3.0kW

at a voltage of 1.5kV distributes power along cables
The correct position for a fuse in the diagram above of total resistance 20.0 ohms. the power loss in the
is cable is
A. S B. Q A. 0.1W B. 10.0W
C. P D. Between P C. 40.0W D. 80.0W
and Q
50. A conductor of length 2m carries a current of 0.8A
while kept in a magnetic field of magnetic flux
density 0.5T. The maximum force acting on it is
A. 8.0N B. 3.2N
C. 0.8N D. 0.2N

735
Physics 2001
1. 5. If a spherical metal bob of radius 3cm is fully
immersed in a cylinder containing water and the
water level rises by 1cm, what is the radius of the
cylinder?
A. 12cm B. 1cm
C. 3cm D. 6cm

6. The resultant of two forces acting on an object is

maximum if the angle between them is
A. 450 B. 00
0
C. 90 D. 1800

In the diagram above, which of the simple pendulum 7. I. The earth is not spherical but
will resonate with P when set into oscillation? elliptical in shape
A. T B. U II Variation in latitude and longitude
C. R and T D. Q and R III Rotation of the earth on its axis
IV Variation in the density of the
2. The height at which the atmosphere ceases to exist earth
is about 80km. If the atmospheric pressure on the On which combination of the above does the
ground level is 760 mmHg, the pressure at a height weight of an object vary on the earth’s surface?
of 20km above the ground level is
A. 380 mmHg B. 570 mmHg A. I, II, III and IV
C. 190 mmHg D. 480 mmHg B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
3. A stone of mass 1 kg is dropped from a height of D. I and II only.
10m above the ground and falls freely under
gravity. Its kinetic energy 5m above the ground is 8. The efficiency of a machine is always less than
then equal to 100% because the
A. Its kinetic energy on the ground A. Work output is always greater than the work
B. Twice its initial potential energy input
C. Its initial potential energy B. Load lifted is always greater tan the effort
D. Half its initial potential energy applied
C. Effort applied is always greater than the load
4. lifted
D. Velocity ratio is always greater than the
mechanical advantage.

9. Which of the following consists entirely of vector

quantities?
A. Velocity, magnetic flux and reaction.
B. Tension, magnetic flux and mass
C. Displacement, impulse and power
D. Work, pressure and moment.

The diagram above is a block-and-tackle pulley 10. Ice cubes are added to a glass of warm water. The
system in which an effort of 80N is used to lift a glass and water are cooled by
load of 240N. the efficiency of the machine is A. Conduction only
B. Convection only
A. 60% B. 50% C. Conduction and convection
C. 40% D. 33% D. Convection and radiation

736
11. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of At what distance from the wall does the wave have
incidence of 350. If the mirror is rotated through an antinode?
100, through what angle is the reflected ray rotated? A. 2m B. 4m
A. 700 B. 450 C. 1m D. 3m
0
C. 25 D. 200
18. A string is fastened tightly between two walls 24cm
12. Find the frequencies of the first three harmonic of apart. The wavelength of the second overtone is
a piano string of length 1.5m, if the velocity of the A. 24cm B. 16cm
waves on the string is 120ms-1. C. 12cm D. 8cm
A. 80 Hz, 80 Hz, 120 Hz
B. 80 Hz, 160 Hz, 240 Hz 19. A gas with initial volume of 2 x 10-6m3 is allowed to
C. 180 Hz, 360 Hz, 540 Hz expand to six times its initial volume at constant
D. 360 Hz, 180 Hz, 90 Hz pressure of 2 x 105Nm-2. The work done is
E. A. 2.0J B. 4.0J
13. The terrestrial telescope has one extra lens more C. 12.0J D. 1.2J
than the astronomical telescope. The extra lens is
for 20. The thermometric substance of an absolute
A. Improving the sharpness thermometer is
B. Creating an inverted image A. Alcohol B. Mercury
C. Magnification of the image C. Helium D. Platinum
D. Erection of the image
21. A cell of internal resistance r supplies current to a
14. The driving mirror of a car has a radius of curvature 6.0 Ohms resistor and its efficiency is 75%. Find
of 1m. A vehicle behind the car is 4m from the mirror. the value of r
Find the image distance behind the mirror. A. 4.5 Ohms
A. 8 B. 4 C. 9 D 4 B. 1.0 Ohms
7 9 2 7 C. 8.0 Ohms
15. D. 2.0 Ohms

22.

If a ray traveling in air is incident on a transparent In the diagram above, the current I is
medium as shown in the diagram, the refractive A. 3/8A B. 9/11A
index of the medium is given as C. 11/9A D. 8/3A
A. Cos& B. Sin&
Sin B SinB 23.
C Cos B D SinB
Sin & Sin&

The pressure of a mass of a gas changes from 300Nm-2 to

120Nm-2 while the temperature drops from 1270C to -73oc.
The ratio of the final volume to the initial volume is

A. 2: 5 B. 5;4
C. 5;2 D. 4;5

17. A plane sound wave of frequency 85.5 Hz and The diagram above shows two capacitors P and Q
velocity 342 ms-1 is reflected from a vertical wall. of capacitances 2uF and 4 uF respectively
737
connected to a.d.c. source. The ratio of energy C. Sulphuric aicd, lead oxide and lead
stored in P to Q is D. Potassium hydroxide, nickel and iron
A. 4: 1 B. 2: 1
C. 1: 4 D. 1: 2 30.

24. A resistance R is connected across the terminal of

an electric cell of internal resistance 2Ohms and
the voltage was reduced to 3/5 of its nominal value.
The value of R is
A. 3 Ohms B. 2 Ohms
C. 1 Ohms D. 6 Ohms

25.
The diagram above shows a closed square box of
side 0.5m in a uniform electric field E in the direction
shown by the arrows. What is the flux for the box?
A. 0.5 E B. 2.0 E
C. 0.2 E D. 0.0 E

31. A bread toaster uses a current of 4A when plugged

in a 240 volts line. It takes one minute to toast
slices of bread. What is the energy consumed by
the toaster?
A. 5.76 x 104J B. 1.60 x 104J
3
C. 3.60 x 10 J D. 1.60 x 102J
The diagram above shows three capacitors C1, C2
and C 3 of capacitances 2ìF, 6 ìF and 3 ìF 32.
respectively. The potential differences across C1,
C2 and C3 respectively are
A. 4V, 6V and 2V
B. 2V, 6V and 4V
C. 6V, 4V and 2V
D. 6V, 2V and 4V

26. A student is at a height 4m above the ground during

a thunderstorm. Given that the potential difference In the circuit diagram above, the ammeter reads a
between the thundercloud and the ground is 107V, current of 3A when R is 5 Ohms and 6A when R is
the electric field created by the storm is 2 Ohms. Determine the value of x
A. 2.0 x 106NC-1 B. 2.5 x 106NC-1 A. 8 Ohms B. 2 Ohms
7 -1
C. 1.0 x 10 NC D. 4.0 x 107NC-1 C. 10 Ohms D. 4 Ohms

27. A working electric motor takes a current of 1.5A 33. When a piece of rectangular glass block is inserted
when the p.d. across it is 250V. If its efficiency is between two parallel plate capacitor, at constant
80%, the power output is plate area and distance of separation, the
A. 300.0W B. 469.0W capacitance of the capacitor will
C. 133.0W D. 4.8W A. Increase
B. Decrease
28. The cost of running five 60 W lamps and four 100W C. Decrease, then increase
lamps for 20 hours if electrical energy costs N10.00 D. Remain constant
per kWh is
A N 280.00 B. N 160.00 34. The ratio of electrostatic force FE to gravitational
C. N 120.00 D. N 140.00 force FG between two protons each of charge e
and mass m, at a distance d is
29. In a Daniel cell, the depolarize, positive and A. e B. e2 C. Gm2
2
negative electrodes are respectively 4ne0Gm Gm 4nE0e2
2
A. Copper sulphate, copper and zinc D. e
B. Manganese dioxide, carbon and zinc 4nE0Gm2
738
35. What is the angle of dip at the magnetic equator? Which combination of the above is true of the
A. 450 B. 00 conduction of electricity through gases?
0
C. 90 D. 1800 A. I and IV only
B. I and III only
36. A cell can supply currents of 0.4A and 0.2A through C. II and IV only
a 4.0 Ohms and 10.0 Ohms resistors respectively. D. II and III only
The internal resistance of the cell is
A. 2.0 Ohms B. 1.0 Ohms 42. Which of the following metals will provide the
C. 2.5 Ohms D. 1.5 Ohms greatest shield against ionizing radiation?
A. Iron B. Manganese
37. Which of the following graphs correctly represents C. Aluminium D. Lead
the variation of mass of a given material deposited
with time for constant current in Faraday’s law of 43. The primary coil of a transformer has N turns and
electrolysis? is connected to a 120 V a.c. power line. If the
secondary coil has 1,000 turns and a terminal
voltage of 1,200 volts, what is the value of N?
A. 120 B. 100
C. 1,000 D. 1,200

44. The process of energy production in the sun is

A. Nuclear fission
B. Nuclear fusion
C. Electron collision
D. Radioactive decay
38.
45. At resonance, the phase angle in an a.c. circuit is
A. 900 B. 600
0
C. 0 D. 1800

46. The force on a current carrying conductor in a

magnetic field is greatest when the
A. Conductor make an angle of 600 with the field
B. Force is independent of the angle between
the field and the conductor
C. Conductor is parallel with the field
In the diagram above, determine the r.m.s. current D. Conductor is at right angles with the field.
A. 31A B. 48A
C. 60A D. 80A 47. A transistor functions mainly as a
A. Switch and an amplifier
39. The particle emitted when 3199K decays to 3199K is B. Rectifier and an amplifier
A. Gamma B. Beta C. Charge storer and an amplifier
C. Electron D. Alpha D. Charge storer and switch.

40. The current through a resistor in a.c. circuit is given 48. Energy losses through eddy currents are reduced
as 2 sin wt. Determine the d.c. equivalent of the by using
current A. Low resistance wires
A. 1 . A B. Insulated soft iron wires
2 C. Few turns of wire
B. 2 2A D. High resistance wires
C. 2A
E. 2A 49. A capacitor of 20 x 10-12F and an inductor are joined
in series.. the value of the inductance that will give
41. I Low pressure the circuit a resonant frequency of 200 kHz is
II High pressure A. 1 H
III High potential difference 16
IV Low potential difference B. 1 H
8
739
C. 1 H
B. Independent of the magnitude of the
64 charge
D. 1 H
C. Proportional to the velocity v only
32 D. Proportional to the magnitude of the
[ 2 = 10] charge only.

50. The magnetic force on a charged particle moving

with velocity v is
A. Proportional to both the magnitude of the
charge and the velocity

Physics 2002
1. Which of the following is the correct shape of the 6. The effect of a particle in a fluid attaining its
velocity-time graph of a spherical steel ball dropped terminal velocity is that the
into a viscous fluid in a tall cylinder? A. Buoyancy force is more than the weight
V
m/s
of the fluid displaced
V
m/s B. Buoyancy force is equal to the viscous
retarding force
C. Acceleration is maximum
t(s)
D. Weighting is equal to the retarding force.
t(s)

V
m/s
V
m/s 7.

Force R
(N)
0.2N Q
t(s) t(s)

2. A particle in circular motion performs 30 oscillations

in 6 seconds. Its angular velocity is 0.1N
A. 6 rad s-1 B. 5 rad s-1 P
-1
C. 10 rad s D. 5 rad s-1
E F
3. A copper cube weights 0.25N in air, 0.17N when 0.05m 0.10m Extension
completely immersed in paraffin oil and 0.15N when
completely immersed in water. The ratio of upthrust The diagram above shows the force-extension
in oil to upthrust in water is curve of a piece of wire. The energy stored when
A. 13 : 10 B. 7 : 10 the wire is stretched from E to F is
C. 3:5 D. 4:5 A. 1.5 x 10-2 J B. 7.5 x 10-3 J
C. 7.5 x 10-1 J D. 2.5 x 10-3 J
4. The hydrostatic blood pressure difference between
the head and feet of a boy standing straight is 8. If the distance between two suspended masses
1.65 x 104 Nm-2. Find the height of the boy. 10kg each is tripled, the gravitational force of
A. 1.5m B. 2.0m attraction between them is reduced by
C. 0.6m D. 0.5m A. One ninth B. One quarter
[Density of blood = 1.1 x 103 kgm-3, g = 10ms-2] C. One third D. One half

5. If the total force acting on a particle is zero, the 9. A wheel and axle is used to raise a load of 500 N by
linear momentum will the application of an effort of 250N. If the radii of
A. Be constant B. Increase the wheel and the axle are 0.4cm and 0.1cm
C. Increase then decrease respectively, the efficiency of the machine is
D. Decrease A. 50% B. 60%
C. 20% D. 40%

740
10. A. Presbyopia
B. Chromatic aberration
C. Myopia
D. Astigmatism

16. The property that is propagated in traveling wave

is
A. Amplitude B. Wavelength
C. Frequency D. Energy

17. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm

forms a real image twice as large as the object. The
The diagram above shows the force (F) acting on object distance is
an object through a distance (x). The work done A. 60 cm B. 40 cm
on this object is expressed as C. 30 cm D. 10 cm
A. F J
x 18. If tension is maintained on a stretched string of
B. Fx2 J length 0.6m, such that its fundamental frequency
C. Fx J of 220 Hz is excited, determine the velocity of the
2 transverse wave in the string.
D. Fx J A. 264 ms-1 B. 132 ms-1
-1
C. 66 ms D. 528 ms-1
11. A body weighting 80 N stands in an elevator that
is about to move. The force exerted by the floor on 19. The radiator of a motor car is cooled by
the body as the elevator moves upwards with an A. Radiation and conduction
acceleration of 5ms-2 is B. Radiation
A. 120N B. 40N C. Conduction
C. 160N D. 80N D. Convection
[g = 10ms-2]
20. A coin placed below a rectangular glass block of
12. Two forces each of 10N act on a body, one towards thickness 9cm and refractive index 1.5 is viewed
north and the other towards the east. The vertically above the block. The apparent
magnitude and the direction of the resultant force displacement of the coin is
are A. 5 cm B. 3 cm
A. 20N, 450 W B. 10 2N, 450 W C. 8 cm D. 6 cm
0
C. 10 2N, 45 E D. 20N, 450 E
21. Blowing air over a liquid aids evaporation by
13. A ray of light which strikes a glass slab from air at A. Decreasing its vapour pressure
normal incidence passes through the slab B. Decreasing its density
A. Undeviated and displaced at a faster speed C. Increasing its surface area
B. Undeviated and undisplaced at a lower speed D. Increasing its temperature
C. Deviated and undisplaced at a lower speed
D. Deviated and displaced at a lower speed. 22. The pressure of 3 moles of an ideal gas at a
temperature of 270C having a volume of 10-3m3 is
14. Which of the following is a characteristic of A. 7.47 x 105 Nm-2
stationary waves? B. 2.49 x 106 Nm-2
A. The distance between two successive nodes C. 7.47 x 106 Nm-2
is one wavelength. D. 2.49 x 105 Nm-2
B. They are formed by two identical waves [R = 8.3 J mol-1 K-1]
traveling in opposite directions.
C. The antinode is a point minimum 23. To produce an enlarged and erect image with a
displacement. concave mirror, the object must be positioned
D. They can be transverse or longitudinal. A. Between the principal focus and the pole
B. Between the principal focus and the
15. Which of the following eye defects can be centre of curvature
corrected using a cylindrical lens? C. Beyond the centre of curvature
D. At the principal focus.
741
24. The colours seen in soap bubbles are due to is shown in the diagram above. What types of
A. Refraction B. Diffraction charges are at X and Y?
C. Interference D. Dispersion A. Both X and Y are positive
B. X is positive and Y is negative
25. The phenomenon that makes sound persist when C. X is negative and Y is positive
its source has been removed is known as D. Both X and Y are negative.
A. Reverberation
B. Acoustic vibration 32. The eye controls the mount of light reaching the
C. Rarefaction retina by adjusting the
D. Echo A. Iris B. Optic nerve
C. Cornea D. Retina
26. Vibrations in a stretched spring cannot be polarized
because they are 33. An electric cell with nominal voltage E has a
A. Longitudinal wave resistance of 3 Ohms connected across it. If the
B. Mechanical waves voltage falls to 0.6Volts, the internal resistance of
C. Stationery waves the cell is
D. Transverse waves. A. 2 Ohms B. 4 Ohms
C. 1 Ohms D. 3 Ohms
27. I. Temperature
II Density of air molecules 34. When connected to a mains 250V, the fuse rating
III Pressure in the plug of an electric device of 1kW is
IV Pitch A. 5A B. 4A
Which of the above will affect the velocity of C. 3A D. 2A
sound air?
A. I, II and IV only B. I and II only 35. The electromagnetic wave that can produce a
C. I, II, III and IV D. II and IV heating effect on the environment is
only. A. Gamma rays B. X-rays
C. Ultraviolet rays D. Infrared rays.
28. Water is poor thermometric liquid because it
A. Wets glass
36. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance
B. Has low vapour pressure
10uF carrying a charge pf 100uC is
C. Is opaque
A. 5 x 10-4 J B. 4 x 10-3 J
D. Is a poor conductor 2
C. 4 x 10 J D. 5 x 104 J
29. The time rate of loss of heat by a body is
proportional to the 37.
A. Temperature of its surroundings
B. Difference in temperature between the
body and its surrounding
C. Temperature of the body
D. Ratio of the temperature of the body to
that of its surrounding.
30. An electric iron is rated 1 000 W, 230 V. What is the
resistance of its element?
A. 57.6 Ohms B. 55.9 Ohms
C. 51.9 Ohms D. 52.9 Ohms
31. From the diagram above, determine the value of
the resistance X
A. 15 Ohms B. 12 Ohms
C. 9 Ohms D. 6 Ohms

The electric field between the two-point charges

742
38. C. Contains electron and hole carriers
D. Consumes a lot of power

45. Which of the following statements is true of the

properties of a moving coil galvanometer?
A. It has a small number of turns of coil
B. There is a strong permanent magnet to give
high magnetic flux
C. The coil ha a small area.
D. There are strong hair springs to give a large
control couple
Calculate the refractive index of the material for
the glass prism in the diagram above. 46. Pure silicon can be converted to a p-type material
A. 3 by adding a controlled amount of
2 A. Pentavalent atoms
B. 4 B. Trivalent atoms
3 C. Hexavalent atoms
C. 2 D. Tetravalent atoms
2
D. 2 47. From the generating station to each substation
power is transmitted at a very high voltage so as
39. The particle that is responsible for nuclear fission to reduce
in a nuclear reactor is A. Heating in the coils
A. Electron B. Neutron B. Magnetic flux leakage
C. Photon D. Proton C. Hysteresis loss
D. Eddy current loss.
40. At what frequency would a capacitor of 2.5uF used
in a radio circuit have a reactance of 250Ohms? 48.
A. 200 Hz
B. Hz
800
C. 2000 Hz
D. 800 Hz

41. The percentage of the original nuclei of a sample Which of the following graphs shows the correct
of a radioactive substance left after 5 half-lives is vector diagram for the circuit above?
A. 1% B. 3%
C. 5% D. 8%

42. A current of 0.5 A flowing for 3 h deposits 2g of a

metal during electrolysis.. the quantity of the same
metal that would be deposited by a current of 1.5 A
flowing in 1h is
A. 18 g B. 10 g 49. The energy associated with the photon of a radio
C. 6g D. 2g transmission at 3 x 105 Hz is
A. 2.00 x 10-29 J
2 3 20 4
43. 1 1
Na + X 9
F + 2
He B. 2.00 x 10-28 J
C. 1.30 x 10-29 J
What particle is X in the reaction above? D. 1.30 x 10-28 J
A. Neutron B. Alpha
C. Gamma D. Beta 50. The carbon-granule microphone works on the
principle of change in
44. A transistor is used in the amplification of signals A. Capacitance B. Voltage
because it C. Inductance D. Resistance
A. Allows doping
B. Controls the flow current
743
.
Physics 2003
1. bead and the wire is 0.1, determine the work done
by the friction
A. 2 x 10-3 J B. 2 x 102 J
-4
C. 2 x 10 J D. 2 x 101 J
-2
[g= 10ms ]

6. The stylus of a phonograph record exerts a force

of 77. x 10-2 N on a groove of radius 10-5 m. Compute
the pressure exerted by the stylus on the groove.
A. 2.42 x 109 Nm-2
B. 4.90 x 108 Nm-2
C. 2.45 x 108 Nm-2
The figure above shows two velocities v1 and v2. D. 3.45 x 108 Nm-2
Which of the following diagrams correctly
represents the vector difference w = v1 – v2? 7. A piece of stone attached to one end of a string is
whirled round in a horizontal circle and the string
suddenly cuts. The stone will fly off in a direction.
A. Tangential to the circular path
B. Perpendicular to the circular path
C. Towards the centre of the circle
D. Parallel to the circular path.

2. If an object just begins to slide on a surface inclined

at 300 to the horizontal, the coefficient of friction is
A. 1
3
B. 1
3
C. 3
D. 3 The length of a piece of glass block was measured
3 of a vernier caliper as shown above. The length of
the glass block is
3. A satellite is in a parking orbit if its period is A. 1.65 cm B. 1.64 cm
A. More than the period of the earth C. 1.66 cm D. 1.63 cm
B. Equal to the period of the earth
C. The square of the period of the earth 9. A test tube of radius 1.0cm is loaded to 8.8g. If it is
D. Less than the period of the earth placed upright in water, find the depth to which it
would sink.
4. What does not drop through an open umbrella of A. 25.2 cm B. 2.8 cm
silk material unless the inside of the umbrella is C. 28.0 cm D. 5.2 cm
touched [g = 10ms-2 density of water 1 000kgm-3].
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Capillarity 10. A 90cm uniform lever has a load of 30N suspended
C. Surface tension at 15cm from one of its ends. If the fulcrum is at the
D. Viscosity centre of gravity, the force that must be applied at
its other end to keep it in horizontal equilibrium is
5. A bead traveling on a straight wire is brought to A. 20 N B. 30 N
rest at 0.2m by friction. If the mass of the bead is C. 60 N D. 15 N
0.01kg and the coefficient of friction between the
744
11. On top of a spiral spring of force constant 19. A 2 000W electric heater is used to heat a metal
500 Nm-1 is placed a mass of 5 x 10-3kg. If the spring object of mass 5kg initially at 100C. If a temperature
is compressed downwards by a length of 0.02m rise of 300C is obtained after 10 min, the heat
and then released, calculate the height to which capacity of the material is
the mass is projected A. 1.2 x 104J0C-1
A. 2m B. 8m B. 6.0 x 104J0C-1
C. 1m D. 4m C. 8.0 x 103J0C-1
D. 4.0 x 104J0C-1
12. A hose of cross-sectional area 0.5m2 is used to
discharge water from a water thank at a velocity of 20. By what factor will the size of an object placed
60ms-1 in 20s into a container. If the container is 10cm from a convex lens be increased if the image
filled completely, the volume of the container is is seen on a screen placed 25cm from the lens?
A. 600 m3 B. 6 000 m3 A. 2.5 B. 1.5
3
C. 240 m D. 2 400 m3 C. 0.4 D. 15.0

13. A force of 100N is used to kick a football of mass 21. On a fairly cool rainy day when the temperature is
0.8kg. Find the velocity with which the ball moves 200C, the length of a steel railroad track is 20m.
if it takes 0.8s to be kicked. What will be its length on a hot dry day when the
A. 100ms-1 B. 32ms-1 temperature is 400C?
-1
C. 50ms C. 64ms-1 A. 20.009 m B. 20.002 m
C. 20.013 m D. 20.004 m
14. The phenomenon whereby the water droplets in
the atmosphere combine with dust particles in the 22. If 1.2 x 106J of heat energy is given off in 1 sec.
air to reduce visibility is From a vessel maintained at a temperature gradient
A. Fog B. Hail of 30km-1, the surface area of the vessel is
C. Mist D. Cloud A. 1.0 x 103m2
B. 1.0 x 102m2
15. Given that Young’s modulus for aluminium is C. 9.0 x 104m2
7.0 x 1010Nm-2 and density is 2.7 x 103kgm-3. D. 9.0 x 102m2
Find the speed of the sound produced if a solid [Thermal conductivity of the vessel = 400Wm-1 K-1]
bar is struck at one end with a hammer?
A. 3.6 x 103ms-1 B. 5.1 x 103ms-1 23.
3 -1
C. 2.8 x 10 ms D. 4.2 x 103ms-1 T0C 0 5 10 15 20 40 60
S.V.P(mmHg) 4.58 6.51 8.94 12.67 17.50 55.10 149.00
16. Thermal equilibrium between two objects exists
The table above shows the saturation vaour
when
pressure against temperature in a certain town. If
A. The heat capacities of both objects are the
the vapour pressure in this town at 200C is 10mmHg,
same
what is the relative humidity?
B. One objects loses heat continuously to the
A. 57.0% B. 17.5%
other
C. 10.0% D. 170.0%
C. The temperatures of both objects are equal
D. The quantity of heat in both objects is the
24. At what position will an object be placed in front
same.
of a concave mirror in order to obtain an image at
infinity?
17. If the distance from a point source of sound is
A. At centre of curvature
doubled, by what factor does the density
B. Between the principal focus and the
decrease?
centre of curvature
A. 2.00 B. 0.25
C. At the pole of the mirror
C. 4.00 D. 0.50
D. At the principal focus
18. If an object is placed between two parallel plane
25. An open pipe closed at one end produces its first
mirrors with their reflecting surfaces facing each
fundamental note. If the velocity of sound in air is
other, how many images of the object will be
v and l the length of the pipe, the frequency of the
formed?
note is
A. Four B. Two
A. v/2l B. 2v/l
C. Eight D. infinite
C. v/5l D. v/4l

745
26. A tuning fork of frequency 340Hz is vibrating just 31. Which of the following pairs of light rays shows
above a cylindrical tube of height 1.2m. If water is the widest separation in the spectrum of white light?
slowly poured into the tube, At what maximum A. Green and yellow
height will resonance occur? B. Indigo and violet
A. 0.45 m B. 0.95 m C. Orange and red
C. 0.60 m D. 0.50 m D. Blue and red
[Speed of sound in air = 340ms-1]
32.
27. A wire of 5 ohms resistance is drawn out so that its
new length is two times the original length. If the
resistivity of the wire remains the same and the
cross-sectional area is halved, the new resistance
is
A. 20 Ohms
B. 5 Ohms
C. 40 Ohms
D. 10 Ohms

28. A ray incident on a glass prism undergoes minimum

deviation when the In the diagram above, what would happen to the
A. Refraction angle equals 900 current, I, if another resistor, R2, is connected in
B. Incident angle is equal to the angle of parallel to R1?
refraction A. It will decrease if R2 is greater than R1.
C. Incident angle is equal to the angle of B. It will increase because the equivalent
emergence resistance will increase.
D. Incident angle equals 900 C. It will decrease if Rs is less than R1
D. It will increase because the effective resistance
29. will decreases.

33. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral triangular

glass prism of refractive index 3/2. Calculate the
angle through which the ray is minimally deviated
in the prism.
A. 37.20 B. 48.60
C. 30.00 D. 42.00

34. The most suitable cell used for short interval

switches in electric bells is a
In the diagram above, if each of the resistors can A. Nickel iron accumulator
dissipate a maximum of 18W without becoming B. Lead-acid accumulator
excessively heated, what is the maximum power C. Daniel cell
the circuit can dissipate? D. Leclanche cell
A. 9W B. 27 W
C. 5W D. 18 W 35. An electron of charge 1.6 x 10-19C is accelerated
between two metal plates. If the kinetic energy of
30. I. It retains its magnetism much the electron is 4.8 x 10-17J, the potential difference
longer than steel between the plates is
II it is more easily magnetized tah steel A. 300V B. 30V
III It is more easily demagnetized than steel C.400V D. 40V
IV It produces a stronger magnet than steel.
Which combination of the above makes iron 36. A magnetic field is said to exist at a point if a force
preferable to steel in the making of electromagnets? is
A. II, III and IV only A. Deflection at the point
B. I, III and Iv only B. Strengthened at the point
C. I and II only C. Exerted on a moving charge at the point
D. II and III only D. Exerted on a stationary charged at the
point
746
37. The operation of an optical fibre is based on the 45. The major difference between a pure
principal of semiconductor and a pure metal is that
A. Polarization of light A. The resistance of a metals increases with
B. Refraction of light temperature, while for semiconductors, it is
C. Interference of light the reverse
D. Dispersion of light B. Metals are harder than semiconductors
C. Metals have forbidden gaps while
38. A positively charged rod X is brought near an semiconductors have not
uncharged metal sphere Y and is then touched by D. While the resistance of metals decrease with
a finger with X still in place. When the finger is temperature, the reverse is the case for
removed, the result is that Y has semiconductors.
A. A negative charge and a positive potential
B. No charge and zero potential 46. If the uncertainty in the measurement of the
C. A negative charge and a negative potential position of a particle is 5 x 10-10m, the uncertainty
D. A positive charge and a zero potential in the momentum of the particle is
A. 3.30 x 10-44Ns
39. In a semiconductor junction diode, as the depletion B. 3.30 x 10-24Ns
or barrier layer is forward-based, the layer C. 1.32 x 10-44Ns
A. Narrows B. Remains constant D. 1.32 x 10-24Ns
C. Widens then narrows D. Widen. [h = 6.6 x 10-34Js]

40. When a nucleus is formed by bringing protons 47. In the calibration of an ammeter using Faraday’s
and neutrons together, the actual mass of the laws of electrolysis, the ammeter reading is kept
formed nucleus is less than the sum of the masses constant at 1.20A. If 0.990g of copper is deposited
of the constituent protons and neutrons. The in 40 minutes, the correction to be applied to the
energy equivalent of this mass difference is the ammeter is
A. Stability B. Lost energy A. 0.05A B. 0.06A
C. Work function D Binding energy C. 0.03A D. 0.04A
[c.c.c. of copper = 3.3 x 10-4gC-1]
41. An electron makes a transition from a certain energy
level Ek to the ground sate E0. If the frequency of 48. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emission is 8.0 x 1014Hz, the energy emitted is emitted from a metal surface is 0.34cV. If the work
A. 5.28 x 1019J function of the metal surface is 1.83cV, find the
B. 8.25 x 1019J stopping potential
C. 5.28 x 10-19J A. 1.09V B. 2.17V
D. 8.25 x 10-19J C. 0.34V D. 1.49V

42. In a fission process, the decrease in mass is 0.01%. 49. The force on a charge moving with velocity v in a
How much energy could be obtained from the magnetic field B is half of the maximum force when
fission of 1.0g of the materials? the angle between v and B is
A. 9.0 x 1010 J B. 6.3 x 1011 J A. 00 B. 900 C. 450 D. 300
11
C. 9.0 x 10 J D. 9.0 x 109 J
[c = 3.0 x 108ms-1] 50. The count rate of a radioactive material is 800
count/min. If the half-life of the material is 4 days,
43. A circuit has an area of 0.4m2 and consists of 50 what would the count rate be 16 days later?
loops of wire. If the loops are twisted and allowed A. 50 count/min B. 25/ count/min
to rotate at a constant angular velocity of 10 rads- B. 200 count/min D. 100 count/min.
1
in a uniform magnetic field of 0.4T, the amplitude
of the induced voltage is
A. 80V B. 20V
C. 8V D 16V

44. When an alternating current given by 1 = 10sin

(120w) passes through a 12 ohms resistor, the
power dissipated in the resistor is
A. 120W B. 20W
C. 600W D. 1200W
747
PHYSICS 2004
TYPE: S Physics7.2004
If u is the object distance and v the image distance,
which of the following expressions gives the linear

1.
magnification produced by a convex lens of focal length f?
A. u + f B. u - f C. v - 1
V f f
D. v + 1
f

8. A ray of light make an angle of 350 with a plane

mirror. What is the angle of reflection?
A. 550 B. 350
0
C. 70 D. 650

The refractive index of the medium M in the 9. The pitch of a sound note depends on
diagram above is A. Timbre B. Harmonics
A 2 B. 1 C. 2 3 D. 3 C. Quality D. frequency
3 3
10. If the angle between two vectors P and Q is 00, the
2. What types of mirrors are capable of producing vectors are said to
parallel beams of light such as those arising from A. Be perpendicular B. Be parallel
the headlamps of a car? C. Intersect at angle 600
A. Cylindrical mirrors D. Intersect at angle 450
B. B. Parabolic mirrors.
C. C. spherical mirrors 11. A machine whose efficiency is 60% has a velocity
D. Plane mirrors. ratio of 5. If a force of 500N is applied to lift a load
P, what is the magnitude of P?
3. A person can focus an object only when it lies A. 750N B. 4166N
within 200cm from him. Which spectacles should C. 50N D. 1500N
be used to increase his maximum distance of
distinct vision to infinity? 12. A body of mass 4kg is acted on by a constant
A. Concave lens B. Plane glasses force of 12N for 3 seconds. The kinetic energy
C. Binoculars. D. Convex lens gained by the body at the end of the time is
A. 162J B. 144J
4. In which of the following material media would C. 72J D. 81J
sound travel faster?
A. Water B. Oil 13. As the pressure of a fluid increase, its viscosity
C. Metal D. Gas A. Decreased B. remains constant
C. Increases then decrease D. In crease.
5. Calculate the angle of minimum deviation for a ray
which is refracted through an equiangular prism 14. I. Jet-propelled aircraft
of refractive index 1.4. II Rocket propulsion
A. 290 B. 600 III The recoil of a gun
0
C. 99 D. 900 IV A person walking
Which of the above is based on Newton’s third
6. What happens to the rays in a parallel beam of law of motion?
light? A. I, II, III and IV B. I and III only
A. They diverges as they travel C. I and II only D. I, II and III only
B. They meet at infinity
C. They intersect 15. In a hydraulic press, a force of 40N is applied on
D. They converge as they travel the effort piston area 0.4m2. If the force exerted on
the load piston is 400N, the area of the large piston
is
748
A. 8m2 B. 4m2
23. The particle and wave nature of matter are
C. 2m2 D. 1m2
demonstrated in the equation
16. A 100kg box is pushed along a road with a force of
A. = h B. = c
500N. If the box moves with a uniform velocity, the
P f
coefficient of friction between the box and the road
C. = 2d sin Q D. = hc
is
E
A. 0.5 B. 0.4
C. 10 D. 0.8
24. For semiconductors to have negative temperature
[g = 10ms-2]
coefficient of resistance implies that
A. They have electrons and holes at high
17. The earth is four times the size of the moon and
temperatures
the acceleration due to gravity on the earth is 80
B. Their resistance is constantly changing with
times that on the moon. The ratio of the mass of
temperature
the moon to that of the earth is
C. Their resistance increases with temperature
A. 1 : 320 B 1 : 1280
D. Their resistance decreases with temperature
C. 1 : 80 D. 1:4
25. Fluorescent tubes produce light by the
18.
A. Refraction of light by gas molecules
B. Excitation of gas molecules
C. Conduction of solar energy
D. Thermal agitation of electrons in the tube.

26. In a reverse biased junction diode, current flows

in by
A. Electrons alone B. Majority carriers
C. Minority carriers D. Positive holes alone
The diagram above shows forces 4N, 6N, 10N and
8N which act at a point O in directions indicated.
27. The energy stored in an inductor of inductance
The net horizontal force is
5mH when a current of 6A flows through it is
A. 7 3N B. 17N
A. 1.8 x 10-2J B. 9.0 x 10-3J
C. 3N D. 13N -2
C. 1.4 x 10 J D. 9.0 x 10-2J
19. A radioisotope has a decay constant of 10-7s-1.
28. X-rays can be used in the study of crystal
The average life of the radioisotope is
structures because they
A. 6.93 x 108s B. 1.00 x 10-7s
7 A. Have an extremely short wavelength
C. 1.00 x 10 s D. 6.93 x 107s
B. Have-a-very-long-reaching wavelength
C. Are very fast
20. A moving-coil galvanometer has a full-scale
D. Are invisible.
deflection of 3A equivalent to 300 deflection. Then
sensivity of the instrument is
29. An a.c. circuit of e.m.f. 12V has a resistor of
A. 10.0 B. 33.0
resistance 8 Ohms connected in series to an
C. 90.0 D. 0.1
inductor of inductive reactance 16 Ohms and a
capacitor of capacitive 10 Ohms. The current flow
21. The binding energy of helium 42He is
in the circuit is
A. 2.017U B. 0.033U
A. 1.4A B. 14.0A C. 1.2A D. 12.0A
C. 4.033U D. 0.330U
[atomic mass of proton = 1.00783U,
30. A generator-manufacturing company was
atomic mass of neutron = 1.00867U]
contracted to produce an a.c. dynamo but
inadvertently produced a d.c. dynamo. To correct
22. In a tuned radio receiver R, L, C series circuit for
this error, the
resonance, the inductive and capacitive reactance
A. Commutator should be replace with slip rings.
XL and XC respectively are related as
B. Commutator should be replace with slit rings
A. XL = 1 B. XL = 1 X.C
C. Armature coil should be made aluminium
X.C 2
D. Armature coil should be made silver.
C. XL = X.C D. XL =2X.C

749
31. Transverse waves can be distinguished from C. 0.02m D. 0.20m
longitudinal waves using the characteristic of [Linear expansivity of the material = 2.0 x 10-5K-1]

A. Diffraction B. Polarization 39. A 50W electric heater is used to heat a metal

C. Reflection D. Refraction. block of mass 5kg. If in 10minutes, a temperature
rise of 120C is achieved, the specific heat
32. When left in a freezer, a bottle full of water cracks capacity of the metal is
on freezing into ice because of the A. 500 J kg-1 K-1 B. 130 J kg-1 K-1
A. Decreases in the volume of water C. 390 J kg-1 K-1 D. 400 J kg-1 K-1
B. Contraction of the bottle
C. Expansion of the bottle 40. I. Wavelength
D. Increase in the volume of water II Medium of propagation
III Wave velocity
34. The change in volume when 450kg of ice is IV Frequency
completely melted is V. Energy
A. 0.05m3 B. 0.45m3 Which of the above are used for characterizing
3
C. 4.50m D 0.50m3 waves?
[density of ice = 900 kgm-3 A. I, II and V. B. II, IV and V
density of water = 1 000 kgm m-3] C. I and IV D. I, III and IV

35. If a force of 50N stretches a wire from 20m to 20.01m, 41. The instrument used for securing a large
what is the amount of force required to stretch the number of similar charges by induction is called
same material from 20m to 20.05m? A. Capacitor B. Electrophorus
A. 100N B. 50N C. Electroscope D. Proof-plane
C. 250N D. 200N
42. A steady current 2A flows in a coil of e.m.f. 12V
36. Tea pots are often silver-coated to prevent hear for 0.4s. A back e.m.f. of 3V was induced during
loss by this period. The stored energy in the loop that
A. Convection and conduction can be utilized is
B. Radiation only A. 7.2J B. 12.0J
C. Conduction only C. 2.4J D. 9.6J
D. Convection only.
43. If 16mA of current flows through a conductor
37. in one second, the number of electrons
transported per second is
A. 1.00 x 1020 B. 1.00 x 1717
-17
C. 2.54 x 10 D. 2.56 x 10-18
[1 electronic charge = 1.6 x 10-19C]

44. The difference between x-rays and gamma rays

is that
A. X-rays arise from energy changes in the
electronic structure of atoms while gamma
rays come from the nucleus.
B. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations
The phase difference between waves P and Q in while gamma rays are negatively charges
the diagram above is radiations.
A. B. 2 C. X-rays have higher frequencies than
2 gamma rays
C. D. D. X-rays are more penetrating than gamma
4 rays.

38. Metal rods of length 20cm each are laid end to end
to form a bridge at 250C. What gap will be provided
between consecutive rails for the bridge to
withstand 750C?
A. 0.22m B. 0.25m
750
45.

In the diagram above, the ratio of the electric power

dissipated in the 6 Ohms and 3 Ohms resistors
respectively is
A. 2:3 B. 1: 2
C. 1: 3 D. 2:1

46. To protect a material from the influence of an

external magnetic field, the material should be kept
in a
A. Square steel ring B. Loop of copper wire
C. Triangular zinc ring D. Soft iron ring.

47. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

A. Grape juice B. Sugar solution
C. Alcohol D. Paraffin

48. Electrical appliances in homes are normally earthed

so that
A. Both the a.c. and d.c. sources can be used
B. A person touching the appliances is safe
from electric shock
C. The appliances are maintained at a higher
p.d. than the earth
D. The appliances are maintained at a lower
p.d. than the earth
49. A cell whose internal resistance is 0.5 Ohms delivers
a current of 4A to an external resistor. The lost
voltage of the cell is
A. 1.250V B. 8.000V
C. 0.125V D. 2.000V

50. Given three capacitors 0.3uF, 0.5 uF and 0.2 uF, the
joint capacitance when arranged to give minimum
capacitance is
A. 0.3uF B. 1.0uF
C. 0.1uF D. 0.5uF

751
Use of English
1 9 83 - 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions And Answers
Use of English 1983
COMPREHENSION building on such a small space as we have
C. the gateway to the university is being rebuilt
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it. D. major part of the project should be completed in the
next few weeks.
The approach to the University is being restructured E. visitors should be debarred from using the gates in
to ease the flow of traffic, give better security and provide an the meantime.
appropriate introduction to a seat of higher learning. The Works
and Services Complex is also under construction , and we intend 5. Which of these is NOT among the reasons given by the
to move into the completed {major}part of it within the next few author for enumerating the examples of the current
weeks. development?
All these projects are being executed with an eye to A. to show that we are capable of executing approved
aesthetics, for we recognize the important influence of a beautiful projects.
and healthy environment on its inhabitants and feel that a cluster B. to convince the Government that we can be trusted
of buildings on a small space such as we have , should be so with task.
well designed as to have a beneficial psychological and C. the inconvenience currently being experienced will
sociological effect on all members of the community. go on indefinitely.
I have gone to these lengths to itemize these examples of D. we are fully aware of the inconveniences being caused
current development for two main reason. Firstly , to advise you but we do not want you to complain.
that the road diversions and other physical inconveniences E. we have the capacity to complete worthy projects
currently being experienced will be on the increase because of within the scheduled time.
intense development activity. We therefore appeal to you to
bear with us in full knowledge and consolation that such II
inconveniences are temporary and will soon yield final tangible Is work for prisoners a privilege to save them from the
results. Secondly, to demonstrate our capacity for executing demoralizing effects and misery of endless unoccupied hours?
approved projects with dispatch, and to assure Government Is it something added to a prison sentence to make it harder and
that we are up to the task. Indeed, I can assure Government that more unpleasant, or something, which should have a positive
its ability to disburse funds to us will be more than matched by value as part of a system of rehabilitation?
our capacity to collect and expend them on executing various Those magistrates who clung to sentences of hard labour
worthy projects in record time. doubtless looked upon strenuous work as an additional
punishment. This point of view is widely accepted as right and
1. From the passage we can gather that proper, but it ignores the fact that unwillingness to work is often
A. there is not muchconsideration for the health of one of the immediate causes of criminality. To send prisoners
the inhabitants. back to the outside world, more than ever convinced that labour
B. there is deliberate effort to inconvenience the is an evil to be avoided, is to confirm them in their old way of
people life.
C. buildings are put up anyhow It has been said that the purpose of prison work in a
D. projects are carried out without approval programme of rehabilitation is twofold: training for work and
E. the inconveniences suffered by the inhabitants training by work. The prisoner, that is to say, needs to be trained
will be for a while. in habits of industry; but over and above this, he will gain
immeasurably if it is possible to rouse in him the consciousness
2. Unless it can be shown that the money voted for projects of self-mastery and of purpose that the completion of any
can be spent on them in good time. worthwhile piece of work can give to the doer. He may find a
A. the development activity will not be intense. pride of achievement in something more satisfying, and more
B. it will not be easy to convince the Government of socially desirable, than crime. But these things can only come
our executive ability when the work itself has a purpose and demands an effort.
C. it will not be difficult to ask Government for funds
D. our final results will be unreliable. 6. According to the author, some magistrates sentence
E. the road diversions and other inconveniences prisoners to hard labour because.
will continue. A. some prisoners are unwilling to work.
B. work is a privilege
3. An eye to aesthetics in this passage means C. prisoners need to learn a trade
A. regard for space. B. beneficial psychological effects D. it is an additional punishment
C. regard for health D. consideration for beauty E. it is a means of rehabilitation.
E. a cluster of buildings.
7. Which of these is NOT the purpose of work in a programme
4. In this passage the author tries to explain why of rehabilitation?
A. it is necessary to establish the Works and Services A. training the prisoners to have satisfaction in work.
Complex in the University. B. developing in them a pride in a sense of achievement.
B. beauty should not be taken into consideration when C. developing in them more satisfaction in work than in crime.
D. helping them to accelerate their reform and discharge. 12. The ‘Save the Children Fund’ in Malawi helps needy
E. training them for work and by work. children by
A. finding families which are willing to adopt the
8. The author thinks that strenuous work in prison. children
A. is a privilege for the prisoners B. finding sponsors for the children’s education and
B. may do more harm than good by opening nutrition centers
C. is part of their punishment C. giving loans and scholarships to students who
D. is a right and proper thing cannot afford to continue their education
E. should be an additional punishment. D. running institutions which give free food
E. clothing and lodging poor children without parents.
9. What the author is trying to put across in this passage is that
A. crime does not pay 13. Samuel Mpetechula was able to graduate from Chancellor
B. prisoners should be made to work hard because
C. work is more desirable than crime A. of the financial assistance given to him by his sponsors
D. life in prison is one of misery. B. his uncle paid his education fees.
E. work in prison without a purpose is bad. C. he was able to win a scholarship to the university
D. the SCF subsidized his educational expenses
10. Demoralizing in this passage means E. of the assistance given to him by the Australian
A. deforming B. reforming C. agonizing Government.
D. destructive E. corrupting.
In questions 14 and 15 choose the meaning which best fits the
underlined phrases taken from the passage.
III
The Save the Children Fund (SCF) was first started in 14. Combat malnutrition means
London on 19th May, 1919 by an English woman --- named Miss A. struggle against the easing of the wrong type of food
Jebb. It is now a worldwide organization, dedicated to helping B. fight ill health caused by over-feeding
needy children everywhere. The SCF of Malawi was formed in C. wipe out ignorance
1953, under the patronage of His Excellency the Life President D. fight to wipe out ill health caused by lack of food
Ngawazi Dr. H. Kamuzu Banda. E. fight against hunger.
‘Our job in Malawi is to give those unfortunate children
15. Deprived of means
the rights that they are deprived of through no fault of theirs.
A. spared B. prevented from getting C. robbed of
These are internationally recognized as the ten rights of children
D. unable to take. E. snatched from.
and include protection, care, food and accommodation, and
relief’, a spokesman for the Fund explained.
IV
One of those who benefited from the help of the Fund is
At the time of the troubles in Ireland, a priest said, ‘Man
Samuel Mpetechula, a graduate of Chancellor. His sponsorship
is half beast.’ A diplomat replied, ‘Yes. And the beast is the half
started in 1967. The SCF of Malawi found him sponsors. They
I like the best.’ The priest meant that few beasts behave as badly
were Mr. and Mrs. Sutton of Australia who paid his school fees
as man when man makes up his mind to behave badly. If you
and continued to help him financially throughout his University
look at the folly and cruelty of today’s world, it is hard to disagree
education.
with the diplomat or the priest. But human nature can be changed.
Mr. Mpetechula said, ‘They even built a house for me at
Anybody, if that is what they most want to do, can change the
home and looked after my family while I was a student. They
most difficult person they know. The art of changing people has
were really helpful to me, and the thought that there were these
been lost in the modern world. That is why the modern world
sponsors caring for me from thousands of kilometers away from
has lost its way.
here was an encouragement for me to work hard at college’.
There are two ways of looking at human nature. One is to
Another important function of the work of the SCF is in
make the best of it as it is and assume that it is the raw material of
the field of nutrition. With the help of the Australian Government,
life which cannot be altered. That is what most people in the free
the SCF established two nutrition rehabilitation centers for
world do today. In these circumstances, if you expect the worst,
children; one at Mpemba and another in Mulanje. ‘The object of
you are seldom disappointed. Faith today has become irrelevant
the centre’, explained Mr. Petre Chimbe, the Executive Secretary
to the everyday needs of so many people in positions of
of the Fund, ‘is to combat malnutrition in children, by giving
responsibility because they do not expect faith to change men.
them the proper food.’
Another way of dealing with human nature is to exploit
11. In Malawi, the ‘Save the Children Fund’ was formed it. All materialists, whether of the right or the left, do this. All
A by an English woman named Miss Jebb in 1919 over the world vanity, fear, ambition, lust and greed are used to
B. in 1919 under the patronage of His Excellency the control the life of men; and if the control breaks down, man does
Life President Ngawazi Dr. H. Kamuzu Banda not hesitate to use force, or to destroy life. The end, he says,
C. under the patronage of His Excellency the Life President justifies the means and men are only of value in so far as they are
Ngawazi Dr. H. Kamuzu Banda in 1953 a means towards the achievement of his ambition. If they cannot
D. in 1953 by a group of social workers headed by Dr. be bribed or forced to play their part, then they must be liquidated.
Mbagunda
16. The priest meant that
E. none of the above.
A. man is both beast and human
B. man could be sores than a beast if he wants to
C. he liked beasts more than man A. was the cook of a trader B .
D. he liked both man and beast worked for a priest
E. really, a man cannot be a beast. C. worked for the speaker’s mother D. was a rich man
E. was a handsome man
17. The modern world has lost its way because
A. it no longer believes in God 22. Which of the following was NOT a quality of Zacharia’s
B. ambition has made people greedy character?
C. people are no longer interested in one another A. Vanity B. Lack of respect for others
D. the technique of influencing people is no more C. Humility D. Arrogance E. Insubordination
E. people are just too selfish.
23. The girls were apparently attracted to Zacharia by
A. wealth
18. What most people do in the free world today is to B. the life of the towns
A. leave other people alone C. the appearance of the young men
B. assume that human nature is bad D. the fact that the young men spoke strange dialects
C. accept human nature as it is since it is immutable. E. food.
D. attempt to change the world E. leave the world as it is.
24. From the passage we can conclude that the young girls
19. Faith today is by and large irrelevant because were
A. nobody thinks it can alter human nature A. attractive B. religious C. modern
B. most people do not believe in God D. easily led E. indifferent
C. being in a position of responsibility nullifies the
importance of faith 25. The speaker’s mother considered that
D. responsible people need not bother about faith A. things were not as good as they used to be
E. the faithful are very few in the world anyway. B. women were foolish
C. the world was corrupt
20. Materialists can be found D. the love of money was the root of all evil
A. in capitalist countries E. it was necessary for attitudes to change.
B. in communist countries
C. in less developed countries LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
D. among people who do not have neighbours.
E. all over the world. In Questions 26 to 34 choose the option nearest in meaning to
the underlined.
V
Typical Zacharia! Devil-may care and irrevererant as ever. 26. The story has to be taken with a grain of salt. This means
No doubt he was just the same when he was cook to a Greek that
trader in the town. In fact, I suspect that to him the Reverend A. you need some salt to listen to the story.
Father is just another sort of trader. Conceited ass, thinking B. there is no salt in the story.
himself superior to the Father! And in what is he superior? C. the story is questionable
Success with women, perhaps? Zacharia knows that they all D. the story is true
admire him and is always striving for still more admiration. He E. you have too much salt in the story.
dresses sharply and walks in a haughty manner that suits his
tallness. And then he feeds his pride on the swarms of girls who 27. It is usually hard to change the course of action when
run after him. It’s maddening to think how little you need to one crosses the Rubicon. The underlined expression, as
attract them. I remember my mother coming home from market in used in this sentence, means to
the town, after selling her vegetables and cocoa. How indignant A. pass through a place called Rubicon
she was: ‘It’s so shameful,’ she cried, ‘our best-looking and B. cross a river called Rubicon
most respectable girls go to town and throw themselves at C. cross a bridge called Rubicon
strangers as ugly as sin, speaking the most outlandish tongues. D. pass a special test
Men I can scarely look at without shuddering! And why? Just E. be irrevocably committed.
money! Money! Ah, what a world! And my father replied in a
buried voice, ‘It’s the times!’ ‘The times!’ shouted mother, ‘can 28. The saleman tried to pull the wool over my eyes. This
you imagine my child Ann with creatures like those?’ implies that the salesman tried to
But perhaps the girls who chase Zacharia aren’t drawn A. force me to buy his goods
by his tallness or his leather shoes. Perhaps they’re only after B. offer me cotton wool
childish things, a bit of bread or a pot of jam, knowing that he’s C. make me buy his wool
a cook. My father often says women are like children in their D. dupe me
desires. And after all, I too can boast a little. Plenty of women E. cover my eyes with wool.
turn to look at me, especially when I’m dressed all in white! But
I’m not vain enough to fuss over a little thing like that. Not like 29. Ijeoma counted her chickens before they were hatched.
Zacharia, who doesn’t know women are simply children. This means that Ijeoma
A. regarded each egg as a chicken
21. Zacharia B. hatched the eggs prematurely
C. assumed that her expectations had already been B. by with one another
realized C. through with one another
D. protected her eggs from breaking D. off from each other E. on with each other.
E. insured the eggs.
39. The school Board has placed an order for…
30. Solo has resigned his job with the Textile Mills. He doesn’t A. all the furnitures and equipments required in the new
seem to worry about getting another job. His plans are schools
still quite in the air. This means that his plans are B. all the furniture and equipment required in the new
A. airmailed B. air tight C. uncertain schools
D. certain E. airborne. C. all of the furniture and equipments required in the new
schools.
31. Ike is head over heels in love with Ngozi. This means that E. many of the furnitures and equipments required in the
A. Ike is friendly with Ngozi. new schools.
B. Ike is trying to fall in love with Ngozi.
C. Ngozi fell on Ike’s heel and both of them fell in love 40. On his way back the boy ran into a long procession of
D. Ike is madly in love with Ngozi. men, women and children in…
E. none of the above. A. white beautiful exceedingly flowing gowns.
B. exceedingly flowing white beautiful gowns.
32. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle after he C. exceedingly beautiful white flowing gowns
had been walked out of the Assembly for violating basic D. white flowing exceedingly beautiful gowns
procedure of the House. This means that the legislator E. flowing exceedingly white beautiful gowns.
has decided to
A. oppose every motion in the House 41. The proprietors should be blamed for such a deplorable
B. support every motion in the House condition in the nursery schools,…
C. condemn every motion A. isn’t it? B. shouldn’t they? C. should they?
D. support the lead given by others D. is it? E. shouldn’t it?
E. become active in the house.
42. I could not believe that our team… the match after being
33. Old customs die hard. This implies that old customs in the lead for most of the match.
A. cause a lot of hardship and death A. to lose B. lost C. will be losing
B. must be stopped D. losing E. loosen.
C. never die out
D. cause hardship for younger people 43. The Head of Department is away to Murtala Mohammed
E. tend to last for a long time. Airport and has asked Dr. Haruna to stand ... for him
A. out B. in C. on D. across E. about.
34. The convict said he was tire of leading a dog’s life. To
lead a dog’s life means to live 44. The Commission was set up to enquire …. the general
A. carelessly B. in disgrace C. in solitude conditions of child abuse in such institutions.
D. in misery E. in poverty. A. at B. from C. after D. before E. into.

In Questions 35 to 70 choose the expression or word which best 45. We hold that the nation, both in its public and private
completes each sentence. sectors… the best consultancy service and advice in all
its endeavours.
35. After the initial confusion, the Manager’s suggestion A. deserve B. is deserving C. deservers
brought.... to the depressed investors. D. are deserving E. richly deserve.
A. a glitter of hope. B. a glimmer of hope.
C. a sparkle of hope D. a raise of hope 46. The situation has deteriorated sharply, and relations
E. a shower of hope. between the two countries may soon be…
A. removed B. broken C. withdrawn D. eliminated
36. The farmer has brought the insecticide because he was E. deferred.
bent on … the insects in his farm.
A. exterminating B. estimating C. extenuating 47. One of the old men… round the lawn three times every
D. extinguishing E. exemplifying. evening.
A. use to run B. are use to run C. is used to running
37. The young lady decided to… D. are used to run E. are used to running.
A. do away with the many advices given by her relatives
B. reject all the advices given by her relatives 48. The problems of Nigeria’s worsening economy seem to
C. reject all the advice given by her relations have… an immediate solution.
D. take to all the advices given by her relations A defined B. defied C. rejected
E. eject all the advices given by her relatives D. rewarded E. retained.
.
38. Two ministers found it very difficult to get…in the Cabinet
A. through with each other
49. This conference is designed to enable delegates… E. was used to traveling.
their personal interests with specialists in various 62. I wish I … your age.
fields. A. to be B. were C. to have been D. would
A. to discuss about B. discussing C. to be E. could be.
discuss D. for discussing E. by discussing.
63. I am looking forward to… you
50. The car owner does not think about the… of his vehicle and A. seeing B. see C. have seen D. will see E. be see.
the other payments involved in owning it.
A. transportation. B. depreciation C. calculation 64. I can’t offer you another loan. I have… moneyleft in myaccount.
D. appreciation E. association. A. a few B. a little C. little D. few E. some

51. The very moment she … her folly, she will come back to 65. I told you you would miss the bus. You … left home earlier.
apologize. A. can’t have B. must have C. will have
A. realized B. is realizing C. will realize D. should have E. had to have.
D. has realized E. realizes.
66. I always prefer the theatre… the cinema.
52. The lazy candidates suggested that it… A. than B. then C. on top of D. before E. to.
A. is time we do away with JAMB
B. was time we do away with JAMB 67. He acts... he were a manager.
C. is time we did away with JAMB A. like B. such as C. such D. as E. as if.
D. was time we did away with JAMB
E. is time we are done away with JAMB. 68. Don’t … the teacher that he… that!
A. tell, said B. say, tells C. talk, spoke.
53. I do not want the light in my room… when I am asleep. D. speak, talked E. tell, told.
A. turned off B. turn off C. to run out
D. turned out. E. turned in. 69. He is very tired. He really is.. staying up late.
A. getting used to B. not used to C. got used to
54. I have applied for… on the campus and I am almost certain D. used to E. being used to.
I shall get it.
A. acommodation B. accommondation 70. He has only ordered some lettuce and tea. He ... on a diet.
C. accommodation D. accomoddation. He is a bit too fat.
E. accommodation. A. can’t be B. needn’t be C. must be
D. mustn’t be E. shouldn’t be.
55. The dead body of the armed robber has … in the street
for three days.
A. laid B. lain C. layed D. lied E. lay. In Questions 71 to 74 choose the option nearest in meaning to
the underlined.
56. Candidates who are not accustomed to… fast will find it
difficult to finish this paper. 71. Had she known he was a high-way robber she would not
A. write B. have written C. be writing have married him. This means
D. writing E. having written. A. she married him before she knew he was a robber.
B. she knew he was a robber when she married him
57. Do you mind… another minute or two? C. she did not marry him because she was a robber.
A. to wait B. wait C. waiting D. she refused to marry the man when she knew he was
D. having awaited. E. being awaited. a robber.
E. she was a robber marrying a highway robber.
58. We shall offer a good job to a … to register guests in the
Central Hotel. 72. Jide is being forced to go to Lagos tomorrow. This means
A. waiter B. watchman C. cashier that Jide …
D. receptionist E. cleaner. A. will go to Lagos B. must go to Lagos
C. wishes to go to Lagos D. is going to Lagos
59. I’ve lived… this street… ten years. E. goes to Lagos.
A. at, since B. for, during C. on, for D. on, from 73. It is sheer fantasy to believe that there could never be a
E. in, for. miscalculation by any nation that has atomic weapons.
Fantasy here means
60. North Africa is … than Northern Europe. A. dream B. hope C. nonsense D. joke E. stupidity.
A. hotter B. more hot C. more hotter D. the hottest
E. hot. 74. The ingenious scheme of the robber broke down because
of the efficiency of the police officer. Ingenious here means
61. I… a lot when I was a student A. suspicious. B. ambitious. C. deceitful D. clever
A. used traveling B. was used to E. stupid.
travel.
C. used to travel D. used travel In Questions 75 to 77 select the wrongly spelt word.
88. He used to play tennis, but he doesn’t…
75. A. disappointed B. embarassed C. equipped A. as of now B. any longer C. again
D. rhythm E. restaurant. D. presently E. since.

76. A. occurence B. surprise C. personnel 89. He was… he had no time to eat.

D. possess E. curiosity. A. so busy that B. very busy C. very busy that
D. too busy that E. busy that.
77. A. quiet B. beleive C. proceed D. precede E. opportunity.
90. It had been raining before the match started, …?
In Questions 78 to 81 fill in the right word/phrase A. isn’t it B. hasn’t it. C. hadn’t it D. wasn’t it E. is it.

78. There is not… sense in what that politician has just said. 91. The mechanic said that he… mend my car before Saturday.
A. many B. plenty C. lot of D. much E. big. A. can’t B. couldn’t C. can’t be able to
D. couldn’t be able to E. won’t be able to.
79. He… the book to the library last week.
A has returned B. had returned C. was returning 92. There was a fire in the market last week which resulted…
D. returned E. was to be returning.. a terrible destruction of property.
A. in B. to C. from D. into E. with.
80. The candidate made… at the village square a day before
the elections. 93. At the end of the month we… each other for five years.
A. a sermon B. an address C. a eulogy A. would know B. should have known
D. a lecture E. a speech. C. should be knowing D. would have been knowing
E. used to know.
81. The policeman was sent to.. the allegation made by the man.
A. investigate B. examine C. probe D. enquire E. observe. 94. The body is sensitive to changes in velocity which, if
too sudden, …
In Questions 82 to 86 which of the options expresses the same A. consciousness may be lost
idea as the one in quotes? B. it may lose consciousness
C. one may become unconscious
82. ‘To be in the red’ is to be D. may cause loss of consciousness
A. in debt B. rich C. a socialist D. red E. dressed in red. E. may lose consciousness.

83. ‘To beat down the price’ is to Each of Questions 95 to 100 consists of a sentence with a phrase
A. flog the price B. reduce the price C. beat the salesman or word underlined. Select the option that best expresses the
D. attack the seller E. control the price. meaning of the phrase or word underlined.

84. To ask after a friend’ is to 95. The thought of his admission to the University keyed
A. ask questions about the friend Olu up to a state of great excitement.
B. inquire about the friend’s welfare A stimulated Olu B. ushered Olu C. opened Olu
C. go after the friend D. frightened Olu E. allowed Olu.
D. like the friend
E. take after the friend. 96. After a careful review of Adamu’s last examination result, the
Principal concluded that his performance left much to be desired.
85. ‘An open secret’ means A was very unsatisfactory B. was very satisfactory
A. a fact that is very secret B. an open matter C. was extremely desirable D. was very brilliant
C. a secret known to everybody D. a confidential matter E. was extremely commendable.
E. a secret told in the open air.
97. The President stood his ground because the Committee
86. ‘To put something aside’ is to members would not be persuaded to arrive at a
A. put it by one’s side compromise on the issue being debated.
B. put it in a side pocket for future use A. yielded his position B. shifted his position
C. keep something for some special purpose C. maintained his position D. defended his position
D. keep in safety E. resisted his position.
E. protect it.
98. The take home pay of many workers is such that they
In Questions 87 to 94 choose the phrase or word which best can hardly make both ends meet
completes the meaning of each sentence. A. live an honest life B. finish their schedule of work
C. keep two jobs at a time D. live within their income
87. One of the… during the football match led to fight E. live on both ends.
between the teams.
A. incidence B. incidences
C. incidents D. occasions E. linesmen.
99. When kerosene was poured on the fire, the effect 100. It was interesting to observe the likeness between
was instantaneous. the pupil and his teacher.
A. momentary B. momentous C. amazing A. similarity B. relationship C. fondness
D. terrifying E. immediate. D. affection E. affinity.

Use of English 1984

COMPREHENSION A. his colleague, Umaru B. the girl he met on the
train C. the railway authorities D. nobody at all
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that E. Joan.
follow it.
5. The source of misunderstanding was
I A. his natural shyness B. the station clock being out of order
It was summer, early afternoon. Jim ran into the station. C. the time given by Jim -- 9 o’clock p.m.?
The 4.30 train was about to leave. As he ran along the platform D. the foggy morning E. Jim’s faulty wrist watch.
he saw a girl just ahead of him. She was young -- about his age.
He followed her into a carriage and sat down opposite her. She II
took out a magazine and was reading it. He took out a book and A British electronics manufacturer has built a factory in
pretended to do the same. After a minute he looked up and which quartz crystals can be grown in 3 weeks. The natural
smiled at her. She didn’t smile back but gave him an encouraging growth of quartz takes 3 million years, and very often the crystals
look. Both returned to their reading but this time she was are not sufficiently pure to satisfy the precise needs of science.
pretending too. However, the manufactured crystal are exceptionally pure, and
He found her attractive and wanted to see her again. But this is important because quartz, in transistor, is used in an
how to arrange it?. He had an idea. He took an old envelope out astonishing number of devices where constant accuracy is
of his pocket and wrote the following words: ‘Hallo! My number required: radio and television transmitters and receivers, space
is 123-4567 and my name is Jim. I would very much like to see satellites and computers are familiar examples. In order to make
you again. Ring me at nine.’ artificial quartz, very small pieces of the natural crystal imported
The train arrived at the terminal. Without looking at the from Brazil are placed in long, narrow, steel cylinders. A high
girl, he handed her the envelope, or rather threw it at her, and pressure and a high temperature are maintained within the
jumped off the train. cylinders for 3 weeks, and at the end of this time the small
When he got home he made himself a cup of coffee and fragments have grown to the required weight of one pound. The
wondered… perhaps she was one of those naturally friendly quartz is then ready to be made into the tiny transistors that
people who smile at everybody. He was listening to the radio have replaced the much larger thermionic valves.
when the telephone rang… it was only Umaru. Nine o’clock,
then 9;30 and no telephone call from the girl. Feeling miserable 6. The manufactured crystals have to be pure
he went to bed early. A. because natural quartz is pure
It was a foggy morning. ‘Hallo, is that Jim? This is Joan. B. to maintain hygiene in factory work
You…’ It was two minutes past nine. C. to satisfy the precise needs of importers.
D. to satisfy the exact requirements of science.
1. On the train Jim was E. otherwise they would take 3 million years to grow.
A. reading a book B. staring at the girl
C. pretending to read D. looking through a magazine 7. According to the passage, quartz is used
E. reading a newspaper. A. only in a few devices B. in a lot of devices
C. in wrist watches D. for jewellery
2. He wanted to see the girl again because E. for steel cylinders.
A. it was summer B. she was attractive
C. he wanted to read her magazine D. she smiled at him 8. Artificial quartz as compared with natural is
E. they had agreed to meet. A. superior. B. inferior C. just the same D. varied
E. limited in use.
3. He hoped to arrange a date with her by
9. Transistors have
A. writing a letter to her B. ringing her up
A. helped to produce quartz
C. waiting at the station D. handing in a short note in a hurry
B. made radio and television inaccessible to the
E. sending a telegram.
working populace
4. That evening he had a telephone call from
C. made transmitters and receivers smaller and lighter.
D. retarded progress in electronics.
E. made transmitters and receivers bigger and heavier.
B. there is an irreconcilable conflict between an artist’s
10. Artificial quartz is produced creativity and the demands that society makes on him.
A. in Brazil C. the artist subordinates his individual talent to the
B. from tiny transistors demands of the society
C. in an astonishing number of devices D. few works of art are entirely original
D. with the help of thermionic valves E. the individual artist needs to be informed about the
E. from natural crystals within steel cylinders. traditions of the society.

III 15. Which of the following represents the writer’s view about
African art in relation to European Art?
Every artist’s work, unless he be a hermit, creating solely A. The African artist is influenced by his society, but the
for his own satisfaction and with no need of sales, is to some European artist is not
extent ‘socially conditioned’; he depends upon the approval of B. In both African and European art there is a blend of
his patrons. Social conditioning is of course part of the field of tradition and individual creativity
study of the social anthropologist, yet I am not aware that the C. African art is tribal, but European art is not
social conditioning of artists has ever been seriously studied. D. Although traditional influences can be seen in
That such study is needed for the proper appraisal of traditional European art, they are much less strong than they are
African art is evident enough when we note the ingenuous in African art
assumption, current in many writings on the subject, that the E. African artists are more imitative than European artists.
carver’s hand is so closely controlled by the custom of centuries
that the credit for any creative imagination which is apparent in IV
his work is due not to him but to the long succession of his
predecessors. One day, Alan, a friend of mine, who likes country life,
Of course, there is an element of trust in this view of the was fishing in a river, when he caught a trout. He tried to pull the
tribal artist as copyist, but it is hardly more valid for the African fish in but it slipped off the hook, flew over his head and landed
than for the European artist. In both cases the work of art is the in a field behind him.
outcome of a dialectic between the informing tradition and the Alan put down his rod, went through the gate and started
individual genius of the artist, and in both the relative strength searching for his trout. Some people, obviously from the city,
of these two forces may vary almost infinitely. To assess the were having a picnic in the field. One of the men shouted ‘What
personal ingredient in an African carving is no easy matter, on earth are you doing?’ Thinking that it was a stupid question
especially if one is confronted with a rare or unique piece in an because they could see how he was dressed, Alan replied
unfamiliar style; but the considerations involved are much the ‘Fishing’.
same as those employed in European art criticism. ‘Don’t be silly, the fish are down in the river’, answered
the man. ‘Fish don’t live in fields!’ He turned to his friends,
11. Most artists are strongly influenced by the laughing, thinking that he had made a good joke.
A. desire for self-expression. B. need to sell their works ‘Oh, but they do’, said Alan. ‘They jump out of the river
C. tastes and wishes of the society to look for flies and I catch them with my hands. ‘At that moment
D. creative imagination E. opinions of critics. he found his trout in the grass and picked it up and showed it to
the picnickers. He put it in his basket and bent down, as if he
12. A social anthropologist is someone who was hunting for another one. The picnickers, no longer laughing,
A. studies only social conditioning spent the rest of the day searching the field.
B. is interested in art and artists
C. studies social conditions and other things 16. Why did the fish land in the field?
D. is interested in the community E. studies the origins of man. A it had wings B. it was a flying fish
C. it was looking for food D. Alan pulled too hard.
13. It would be useful to study the social conditioning of E. it fell off the hook.
artist because
A. we know that African art is entirely influenced by 17. The picnickers were
tradition. A. farmers B. from the nearby village C. tourists
B. traditional art arises from the customs of the people D. people from the city E. anglers like him.
C. an artist’s predecessors solely determine the nature
of his work 18. Where was Alan looking for his fish? He was looking for
D. we do not know the extent to which an artist is the fish
influenced by his society A. in the grass, B. down in the river
E. we do not know very much about how an artist’s C. in front of the gate D. in his basket
creative imagination works. E. among the picnickers.

14. ‘The work of art is the outcome of a dialectic between 19. Alan made the picnickers believe that fish jump out of
the informing tradition and the individual genius of the the river to look for flies by
artist’ means that A. telling a story.
A. the artist is influenced both by the society and by B. finding his trout and showing it to them
his own creative imagination C. taking them down to the river
D. watching how trout catch flies
E. picking up a fish and looking for more. A. try to breed cocoons which would produce more silk
B. determine the survival rate of silkworms
20. ‘He laughs best who laughs last’ (proverb). It is true of C. find out the most suitable areas and conditions for
this story because rearing silkworms
A. the picnickers were enjoying themselves D. search for better method of rearing silk worms
B. finally he found his fish E. find out how cocoons become silkworms.
C. Alan played a good trick on the picnickers
D. fishing is a pastime 25. Choose the meaning which best fits the underlined phrase
E. Alan likes country life. from the passage. Closely guarded secret
A. Carefully hidden from the knowledge of others
V B. Secretly processed business with armed guards
In1973 a Japanese sericulturist arrived in Malawi with a C. Carefully hidden from the view of strangers
batch of 40,000 silkworm eggs. They were taken to the Bvumbwe D. Scarcely known
Agricultural Research Station in Thyolo District. In this station, E. Unknown.
work is being done to determine favourable silkworm rearing
conditions and areas where mulberry trees, whose leaves the LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
worms feed on, could grow well. According to researchers, the
silkworms – which eventually develop into cocoons from which In Questions 26 to 38 choose the option nearest in meaning to
raw silk is produced – do well in areas with warm climatic the underlined.
conditions.
Silk is one of the strongest of fibres. In fact, for thousands 26. The meeting was cancelled because of the convocation.
of years, silk fabrics have been regarded as the most beautiful A. brought up B. called off C. broken off
and durable materials woven by man. Many people call silk the D. dropped out E. phased out.
‘cloth of kings and queens’.
The weaving of silk originated in China. An old Chinese 27. Our town is so small that we are always meeting our
book, believed to be written by Confucius, tells us that the wife schoolmates accidentally.
of Emperor Huang-ti was the first person to make fabrics of silk. A coming across B. falling into C. knocking up
Around 2640 B.C., Emperor Huang-ti asked his wife Hsi Ling- D. running up E. running into.
shih to study the worms that were destroying the mulberry trees
in his garden. The Empress took some of the cocoons into the 28. Can you give a good explanation for your behaviour?
palace to see what they were made of. She dropped one of the A. account for B. call for C. clear up
cocoons into a bowl of boiling water and was amazed to see a D. make up E. give up.
cobweb-like tangle separate itself from the cocoon. She picked
up the gauzy mass and found that one of the threads could be 29. Be careful! We are approaching the crossroads.
unwound almost without end from the cocoon. His Ling-shih A. look up B. watch out C. look up
had discovered silk. She was delighted with the discovery and D. hold up E. look in.
even wove a ceremonial robe for the Emperor out of the cocoon
threads. After that, the officials in the Emperor’s court wore 30. Thousands of students are candidates for the examination
brightly dyed silk robes on important occasions. but only very few pass.
People in other countries regarded the new fibres as A. come into B. call for C. go into D. enter for
something rare and beautiful. A few traders went to China to E. turn up for.
learn about making cloth from silk, but the Chinese kept their silk
worms a closely guarded secret. 31. He went through fire before he qualified as a doctor.
A. had a fire accident B. made a lot of fire
21. Sericulture is C. suffered a lot D. underwent some purification
A. carried out only in China E. required a lot of fire.
B. the breeding of silkworms for the production for silk
C. the research done on silkworms 32. Osyaku started playing football because he thought it
D. the making of cloth from the cocoons of silkworms would develop him physically.
E. the breeding of silkworms in Malawi. A. took up football B. picked up football
C. returned to football D. took up with football
22. It is implied in this passage that silk was discovered E. put in for football.
A. after years of hard work and research by the Empress
B. by accident 33. Once I have finished all my homework I am permitted to
C. in the search for a more durable fibre for making cloth. watch television.
D. after some experiments carried out by the Japanese A. I can watch television at anytime.
sericulturist B. I can only watch television after doing my homework.
E. by design. C. Television comes first, then homework second.
D. I can only finish my homework after permission to
23. According to sericulturists, silkworms watch television
A. cannot survive in a warm climate E. after watching television I finished my homework.
B. may be reared on any tree
C. do well in areas with a warm climate 34. For all he cared, the game was as good as lost.
D. produce the longest threads when they are fed leaves A. He did not care if the game was lost
from the top of the mulberry tree B. He could not care less if the game was lost.
E. are destroyed by heat. C. He was almost certain that the game would be lost.
D. He was afraid the game would be lost.
24. The work carried out at the Agricultural Research E. The game was very good, and he cared very much
Station in Malawi on the silkworm eggs was to about losing it.
35. A basic objective in this respect is the attainment of D. the factory would be shut if the employees did not
self sufficiency in food in about a decade. increase their output
A. Food will soon be sufficient for every body E. the factory was closed because the employees did
B. Mass production of food not work hard enough.
C. We should aim at producing food for sale and
consumption in ten years. In questions 43 to 60 choose the expression or word which best
D. We should be able to feed ourselves in five years. completes each sentence.
E. Our aim is to provide enough food for our needs in
ten years. 43. The student who went home without an exeat has
apologized… his misconduct
36. In their desire to impress their friends and relatives, many A. on B. at C. to D. for E. about.
young workers bite off more than they can chew in terms
of financial obligations. 44. The man has atoned... his sins.
A. have more money than sense A. upon B. on C. for D. at E. against.
B. eat more than they can digest property
C. spend too much money on food 45. The Headmaster was interviewed in connection.. the
D. care too much for their relatives expansion project.
E. take on more responsibility than they can afford. A. to B. with C. for D. about E. at.

37. All the efforts made to settle the quarrel were futile. 46. What do you want me to do now? I’m…. withdrawing
A. successful B. wicked C. reasonable and keeping quiet.
D. remarkable E. fruitless. A. for B. with C. up D. off E. on.

38. The new inspector decided that the culprits should be 47. I am looking …. seeing your family.
brought to book. A. ahead at B. forward to C. forward on
A. should have their names recorded in a book D. for to E. ahead to.
B. should be brought before him to show whether they
could read or not 48. These folktales have been handed… from generation to
C. should be booked generation.
D. should be jailed E. should be made to answer for their A. into B. over C. down D. up E. across.
conduct.
49. John arrived at the airport on time but he could not get…
In questions 39 and 40 select the word oppoisite in meaning to the plane.
that underlined. A. into B. over C. in D. to enter E. to.

39. The long straight trunk of the tree is ideal for round wood 50. The young lovers first met… the University of Ibadan
uses like railway sleepers, rafters and fence posts. Havana Night dance.
A. best B. perfect C. most unsuitable A. in B. at C. in course of D. on E. inside.
D. satisfactory E. poor.
51. I have not seen my housemaster… the beginning of this
40. A book on style without abundant examples seems to me as session.
ineffectual as a book on biology without abundant illustrations. A. from B. in C. for D. at E. since.
A. useless B. difficult C. interesting D. satisfactory
E. attractive. 52. The Chairman of the State School Board has advised
students to desist… blackmailing college authorities.
In questions 41 to 42 choose the expression which best A. from B. in C. on D. against E. by.
completes each sentence.
53. The most stupid boy in the class passed the examination
41. My uncle told me, ‘I have a large house and you are welcome contrary.. the expectation of many people.
to the protection it offers’. My uncle told me that… A. upon B. from C. on D. to E. with.
A. he had a large house, and you are welcome to the
protection it offers 54. The Principal remarked that it was the high standard of
B. he have a large house, and I was welcome to the discipline that was instrumental…. the high percentage
protection it offered. of passes in the school.
C. He had a large house and he was welcomed to the A. upon B. to C. with D. on E. in.
protection it offers
D. he had a large house, and I was welcome to the 55. She wounded the man… the back with her knitting needle.
protection it offered. A. on B. in C. at D. by E. upon.
E. he has a large house, and I am welcome to the
protection it offers. 56. It took the father many days to get… the untimely death
of his son
42. The manager said that unless the employees worked A. off B. over C. by D. through E. across
harder the factory would have to be closed. The
manager said that… 57. While the worshippers closed their eyes in prayer, a
A. the employees were not working hard, and so the thief made… with the collection.
factory would be closed A. out B. away C. up D. by E. through
B. the employees should not close early so that they
could produce more. 58. There is no doubt that every lady takes great pride…
C. the factory was not productive because the her appearance.
employees were lazy A. with B. in C. at D. on E. about.
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

73. Give me a minute to think. I can’t remember the answer… 88. Evelyn: I’ve submitted eight copies. Joseph:
A. out of hand B. ahead C. offhand D. to hand You…eight. Three would have been enough.
E. off head
A. can’t have submitted B. couldn’t have submited 94. Had he known that it would rain, he... his umbrella with him.
C. didn’t need to submitted D. needn’t have submitted A. would have taking B. was going to take
E. must have submitted. C. would be taking D. would have taken E. would take.

89. The present wanton display of riches… morals in our society. 95. Omeime was taking his dog for a walk when the dog
A. will be affecting B. are affecting C. is affecting suddenly… from its chain and escaped
D. was affecting E. had been affecting. A. broke through B. broke lose C. broke even.
D. broke loose E. broke away.
90. The market women… profit ranges from thirty to fifty
percent are making… difficult for the ordinary people 96. After we have taken our share, we shall give… to them.
A. for who/to live B. for whom/lives A. their B. their’s C. theirs D. there E. there’s.
C. by whose/living D. whose/life
E. whose/leaving. 97. I was still sleeping when the national news … this morning.
A. were broadcast B. were broadcasted C. was broadcast
91. Town authorities have put up a railing in front of the exits… D. was broadcasted E. were being broadcasted.
people… out of the stadium and ... straight across the road.
A. prevent/rush/dashing B. preventing/rushing/to dash 98. Each of the contestants… a chance to win.
C. to prevent/rushing/dashing D. to prevent/rush/dash A. has B. have C. get D. gets E. take
E. to prevent/to rush/dash.
99. I gave the book to the library attendant… I think works
92. Someone… the radio cassette since 6p.m I wish he … in the evenings.
turn it off. A. whom B. whose C. which D. who E. of whom.
A. has been playing/would B. is playing/would
C. played/will D. has played/should E. plays/will. 100. The politicians are responsible for the… events have
taken in this country.
93. If the armed robbers… caught, they would have been lynched. A. course B. curse C. coarse D. cause E. corse.
A. would be B. have been C. are D. were E. had been.

Use of English 1985

COMPREHENSION PASSAGE means getting what you want. If you choose to term it
question of semantics. ‘privileges’, it suits me. It is all a
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow. 1. Which of the following is NOT implied in the expression:
‘One naira per meal is a privilege in this country?
PASSAGE I A. Nowhere in this country is food sold for one naira.
B. The price per meal at the Sports Club Cafeteria is one naira.
Obi: Let’s go to the Sports Club Cafeteria. One naira per meal C. It is rare for anybody to feed satisfactorily with one
is a privilege in this country And God knows that I am naira in any hotel in the country
too broke to afford anything more. D. Obi cannot afford more than one naira for one meal
Olu: Got a membership identity card? Don’t forget the place is E. Ordinarily, one naira cannot buy much in the country.
for bona fide members only.
Obi: Forget it. There are other types of identity cards, 2. The conversation about identity cards suggests that
remember. Just flash something before the eyes of those A. without an identity card, no one can be allowed to
men at the gate, provided it looks like an identity card. eat in the Sports Club Cafeteria
Olu: Ee... eh, I see. That is why the place is always congested. I B. without an identity card, no one can be allowedinto
don’t think it is even worth the trouble. I can’t stand a queue. the Sports Club
Obi: That shouldn’t bother you. You don’t have to join the C. there is thorough checking of identity cards at the
queue. Just walk straight to the serving point without Sports Club gate
fear and be sure you shout your order. D. bona fide members of the Club do not have to carry
Olu: But only V.I.Ps have the right to break queues. identity cards
Obi: Sure, but V.I.Ps don’t wear badges on their faces. Pose E. a club member can afford to forget his membership card
man, pose. After all, this is Nigeria.
Olu: You mean there are many impostors here? 3. The conversation about queues in the passage reveals that
Obi: Certainly, and many people with privileges too. If you A. everybody at the Club Cafeteria queues
want to get along, you must pose, and to get along B. club members can always break a queue at the Cafeteria
C. people always break queues in the Cafeteria on the
pretext that they are V.IPs 10. Teresa would say she had eaten already no matter how
D. only people who are capable of posing can break hungry she might be so that
queues A. Ntanya would eat to his satisfaction
E. there is nothing wrong in breaking queues. B. Ntanya would say ‘Thank you mother’
C. she could cook again
4. The conversation about privileges shows that D. she could watch his eat
A. an impostor is one who claims privileges E. every bolus would go down her own throat.
B. to get along must always imply making claims to privileges
C. it is always easy to recognize V.I.Ps in Nigeria, PASSAGE III
because they are always laying claim to privileges Mathematics is the language in which the Book of Nature
D. there are many impostors laying claim to privileges in is written: Mathematics is the queen of the sciences. it is
Nigeria universally agreed that Mathematics is the backbone of Science
E. ‘semantics’ means calling to get along’ ‘privileges’. and Technology. For without Mathematics the engineer is but
an artist or a scultptor. He can build his bridge, attest ot its form
5. From the whole conversation, it is clear that Obi and Olu are and beauty, but without Mathematics he cannot guarantee its
A. irresponsible B. selfish C. privileged reliability to serve the purpose for which it is built. Mathematics
D. ‘go-getters’ E. epitomes of the Nigeria society. is indeed the science of sciences. It is also art of all arts. It is
right, legitimate and defensible to consider Mathematics as an
PASSAGE II Art. The poet, the musician, the artist and the mathematician
Days passed fast for Ntanya and Teresa. They could have a lot in common. Fundamental to all their studies and works
hardly notice the land getting brown all over Kachawanga again, is their common interest in the logical study of related concepts
since neither of them hardly noticed any more the sun come up and objects to form patterns which will produce beauty, harmony
and go down. Ntanya would work very hard in the field hauling and logical order. Thus the poet arranges words to produce a
in the last harvest and Teresa would stay at home washing, pattern called poetry: the musician arranges sounds to produce
cooking and waiting, waiting for him to come home. She would a pattern called music: the artist arranges colours to produce a
cook his meal with extra care and when there was little meat she pattern called painting and the mathematician arranges abstract
would only give bits to the children and not even touch it herself ideas into a pattern, using symbols, to produce equations. Each
but use only the smell to get her food down and reserve the of these patterns - the poem, the music, the painting and the
whole chunk for her husband. When Ntanya would come home equation must stand up to the test of some order, harmony and
with sweat on his brows she would put the wooden tray on a beauty. So if Mathematics is not an art what is art?
stool for him and sit down by him watching him eat with great
satisfaction: every bolus that went down ntanya’s throat would 11. The views expressed in this passage belong to
also go down her own throat. When Ntanya would insist on A. JAMB B. artists C. mathematicians D. the poet
sharing the food with her she would always say she had eaten E. the author of the passage.
already no matter how hungry she might be. Ntanya would then
eat and drink to his satisfaction and always rest a while in the 12. The expression ‘Mathematics is the queen of the
sun after saying ‘Thank you mother’. Sciences’ contians
(Taken from Peter K. Palangyo’s novel: Dying in the sun) A. a contradiction B. an analogy C. an irony
D. a lie E. nonsense
6. Bolus in the passage means
A. Adam’s apple B. throat pill C. liquid 13. ‘Mathematics’ is written with a capital M in this passage because
D. piece of meat E. large morsel. A. the writer is a mathematician
B. the writer does not know how to use punctuation correctly
7. Ntanya and Teresa could hardly notice the land getting C. the writer wants to distinguish between a concept
brown because and a subject
A. they were on their honeymoon D. it is the normal way of writing about the sciences
B. they had just got married E. the writer is confused.
C. they hardly notice the sun
D. the sun did not come up 14. The last sentence of the passage , ‘So if Mathematics
E. Ntanya worked very hard in the field. is not an art what is art?’ is a
A. questions posed for the reader to answer
8. Teresa gave only bits of meat to the children because B. statement put in the form of a question
A. they would get more from Ntanya C. question combined with a statement
B. she cooked it with extra care D. mathematical equation stated in words
C. they were young E. pattern which illustrates beauty, harmony and order
D. she kept most of it for her husband in language.
E. she could not afford meat.
15. Mathematics can be considered as a form of art because
9. Ntanya said ‘Thank you mother’ to A. its main principle is made use of by the arts
A. his mother B. his wife C. his aunt B. it involves drawing of figures
D. Teresa’s mother E. his grand-mother C. it is a form of Fine Arts
D. it is a type of Graphic Arts the last drop of moisture out of the earth. The family sat down in
E. it also involves a study of beauty, harmony and order. despair, waiting and waiting. Their hopes had run so high; the
goats had started producing milk, which they had eagerly poured
PASSAGE IV on their porridge, now they ate plain porridge with no milk. It
My good people: I come before you this evening as a was impossible to plant corn, maize, pumpkin and water-melon
man whose honesty and intergrity have been questioned. Now, seeds in the dry earth. They sat the whole day in the shadow of
the usual political thing to do when charges are levelled against the huts and even stopped thinking, for the rain had fled away.
you is either to ignore them or to deny them without giving Only the children were quite happy in their little girl world. They
details. But before I answer any of your questions, let me state carried on with their game of making house like their mother and
categorically that I have not touched a kobo of the N50,000 we chattered to each other in light, soft tones. They made children
contributed. Every kobo of it has been used in defraying political from sticks around which they tied rags, and scolded them
campaign expenses. severely in an exact imitation of their own mother. Their voices
As a matter of fact, during one of my meet-the-press could be heard scolding all day long: ‘You stupid thing, when I
conferences, Tony Agiwa accosted me and said, ‘Honourable send you to draw water, why do you spill half of it out of the
Senator, what about this fund we hear about?’ I told him there bucket?’ ‘You stupid thing! Can’t you mind the porridge pot
was no secret about the fund and that he should meet Abu O. without letting the porridge burn?’ Then, they would beat the
Abu to get details of the fund. I told him, ‘You will find that the rag-dolls on their bottoms with severe expressions.
purpose of the fund was primarily to defray political expenses.’ The adults paid no attention to this; their nerves were
In answer to another one of his questions, I said that neither stretched to breaking point waiting for the rain to fall out of the
contributors to this fund, nor contributors to any of my sky. Nothing was important, beyond that. All their animals had
campaigns had ever received any special consideration that he been sold during the bad years to purchase food, and of all their
would not have received as an ordinary constituent. And I can herd only two goats were left. It was the women of the family
say that never, since I became a Senator, have I made a telephone who finally broke down under the strain of waiting for rain.
call for them to an agency or have I gone down to an agency on (Taken from Bessie Head’s The collector of Treasures)
their behalf. Records will show that, and these records are in the
hands of the Administrator. 21. The evidence that the family hopes had run high is that the
A. land was ready for planting
16. The author is B. earth was alive with insects singing
A. exonerating himself from allegations of embezzlement C. goats had started producing milk
B. ignoring the allegations of embezzlement D. family ate porridge
C. taking part in a political campaign C. family had corn and maize seeds.
D. demonstrating that he is a Senator
E. trying to implicate Abu O. Abu, a fellow politician. 22. ‘The adults paid no attention to this’ refers to
A. the children scolding the rag-dolls
17. Constituent in the passage means B. the plain porridge C. the burnt porridge
A. a section of his constituency D. their breaking nerves E. the land.
B. his entire constituency
C. his campaigner 23. The family sat down in despair because
D. a person having voting rights where he is living A. the land was ready and ploughed
E. a supporter B. they ate plain porridge with no milk
C. the sun danced dizzily in the sky
18. Accosted in the passage means D. the land was covered in a haze of mist
A. grossly insulted B. greeted C. fought with E. it was impossible to plant seeds.
D. forced E. went and spoke to
24. All their animals had been sold in order to
19. It appears that the N50,000 A. avoid despair B. buy food C. induce rain
A. has been spent C. save animal food E. make the children happy.
B. has been paid into the government treasury
C. will soon be paid into the government treasury 25. ‘Game of making house’ means
D. has been saved by Abu O. Abu A. building a house with sand
E. will be used for future campaigns. B. being happy in the house
C. playing in the house
20. Abu O. Abu is portrayed as D. imitating running a home like adults
A. a corrupt politician B. the administrator of the fund E. playing hide-and-seek in the house
C. an ordinarytaxpayer D. a government official E. a citizen

PASSAGE V LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

The land was ready and ploughed, waiting for the crops.
At night, the earth was alive with insects singing and rustling In Questions 26 to 37 choose the option opposite in meaning to
about in search of food. But suddenly, by mid-November, the the word underlined.
rain fled away: the rain-clouds fled away and left the sky bare.
The sun danced dizzily in the sky, with a strange cruelty. Each 26. To most people last Christmas was an austere period.
day the land was covered in a haze of mist as the sun sucked up
A. prosperous B. harsh C. severe D. sour E. stern. C. making a fool of yourself D. asking him to be your enemy
E. making him break down at work.
27. The chief was generous in his award of university
scholarships 40. The manager often quarrels with his staff because he
A. noble B. considerate C. liberal D. mean E. honest. goes around with a chip on his shoulder.
A. deformed shoulder B. readiness to be angered
28. Chidi is naturally taciturn. C. look of contempt D. an air of superiority
A. friendly B. cheerful C. dumb D. lively E. garrulous. E. search for gossip.

29. He is loved for his altruism. 41. The new employee is so humble and friendly that he will
A. benevolence B. sincerity C. selfishness soon make himself popular.
D. selflessness E. kindness. A. welcomed and accepted B. hated
C. estranged D. rejected E. a personal friend.
30. The Military Governor upheld the decision of his cabinet.
A. held up B. undercut C. maintained D. abolished 42. He took exception to Ezenwa’s remark.
E. reversed. A. was delighted at B. was excited by
C. got demoralized by D. objected to
31. Many untrustworthy students give evasive answers to E. was perplexed by.
questions which they fully understand.
A. direct B. outspoken C. simple D. truthful E. clever. 43. Kelechi hardly ever falls sick.
A. most often B. very seldom C. sometimes
32. The deafening noise of the two jet planes which flew D. frequently E. occasionally
across our compound yesterday made people fear that
an assault on the country might be imminent. 44. The gallant soldiers met their Waterloo at Philippi
A. impending B. ahead C. remote D. eminent E. threatening A. victory B. trouble C. defeat
D. happiest period E. enemy
33. Disgruntled people are indifferent to any plans to rid the
society of evil. 45. It is futile trying to make bricks without straw.
A. different from B. diffident about C. in agreement with A. fertile B. important C. fragile
D. interested in E. opposed to. D. vain E. bad

34. The severity of the harmattan helped me to complete my 46. The ceiling of my bed-room fell in and knocked me out.
writing assignment in record time because I had no choice A. made me unconscious B. removed me
but to lock myself indoors. C. flattened me D. killed me E. frightened me.
A. warmth B. mildness C. moderation D. leniency
E. gentility. 47. In May 1978 the rain fell incessantly and made life drab.
A. at intervals B. recurrently C. repeatedly
35. The increase in transport fares deterred our club from D. concurrently E. continuously
planning an excursion this year.
A. deferred B. irritated C. impelled D. restricted 48. Little Ugochi has a bicycle which is in marvelous
E. encouraged condition.
A. need of a tune up B. excellent C. questionable
36. This card entitles you to attend the film show. D. unstable E. working
A. disqualifies B. discourages C. disenchants
D. proclaims E. satisfies 49. The lecturer maintained his usual good humour in spite
of the cat-calls and the rude behaviour of his students
37. This is an abridged edition of Oliver Twist A. provoked B. obtained C. kept D. lost
A. reprinted B. enlarged C. outdated D. extinct E. improved.
E. banned
In Questions 38 to 71 choose the option nearest in meaning to 50. The class as a whole will have a lecture on scarce
the underlined word or phrase. commodities tomorrow
38. Victor will not attend the dinner party tonight: he is afraid A. argument B. deliberation C. dispute
of his own shadow. D. conference E. talk
A. not in the mood B. attending another party
C. scared of imaginary things 51. Many states practise the ideals of democracy.
D. unhappy with his assigned role
A. government by elections
E. unable to forget his fears.
B. government by representatives
C. government by civilians
39. Telling Ali to break his habit of coming to work late is like
D. government by all the people
knocking your head against a brick wall.
E. oligarchy
A trying the impossible B. asking him to beat you up
A. afloat B. on top of a plank C. above suspicion
52. He lost his voice momentarily. D. raised above a board E. the chairman of a board
A. in a moment B. in a split second
C. for a brief period of time D. without delay 65. It is sheer foolhardiness for unarmed policemen to pursue
E. instantly. armed robbers.
A. nonsense B. bravery C. foolishness
53. The corrupt official had to leave the public service willy D. stupidity E. foolish risk taking
nilly.
A. unprepared B. reluctantly C. willingly 66. Bankole was a man given to much wine.
D. compulsorily E. by retirement A. pushed to B. taken over by C. addicted to
D. forced to E. afflicted by
54. I am yet to write the penultimate paragraph of my essay.
A. last but one B. third to the last C. second 67. The officer refused to be taken in by the private.
D. concluding E. introductory A. won over B. drawn in C. overtaken
D. deceive E. Involved
55. One hindrance to an orderly economic development of
the country is large-scale fraud and corruption. 68. The principal advised the boy to come to grips with
A. difficulty B. element C. reason himself if he wanted to do well at the end of his course.
D. obstacle E. ritual A. criticize himself B. master his difficulties
C. learn to be obedient D. behave himself
56. Stephen was blamed for leaving his door ajar during the E. fight with himself
heavy rainfall.
A. unlocked B. unbolted C. open D. keyless E. locked 69. The judge came down heavily on the accused person in
his judgement.
57. If people don’t want to play the game according to the A. crashed heavily B. fell down heading
rule, that is their business. C. descended upon heavily D. imposed a stiff penalty
A. their business will suffer B. it is not their fault E. crash landed on.
C. they should blame others for it
D. other people will take over their business 70. Employees have been urged to desist from witch-hunting
E. they will have themselves to blame. and character assassination.
A. commanded to stop hunting witches
58. Nigeria, like most other African countries is predominantly B. ordered to stop assassinating witches
agricultural. C. entreated not to accuse individuals unjustly and maliciously
A. mainly B. certainly C. entirely D. undoubtedly D. informed to resist witch hunters and character assassins
E. superficially E. urged to desist from barbaric acts.

59. Despite increasingly punitive laws against hemp 71. The government should stop white elephant projects.
smoking, it is still rising at an alarming rate. A. projects in which white men kill elephants
A. devastating B. exemplary C. barbaric B. projects in which white elephants are used
D. severe E. satisfactory C. projects for painting some elephants white
D. high cost projects with low utility values
60. The Senate postponed the meeting indefinitely. E. low cost projects with high utility values.
A. for a short time B. for six months C. definitely
D. without fixing a date E. for several months 72. Mary goes to school.. bus.
A. in B. on C. with D. through E. by
61. You have been asked to change your laissez-faire attitude
to work. 73. The loud noise in the neighbourhood attracted people
A. stupid B. carefree C. careful D. serious who stared… the thief.
E. responsible A. at B. about C. with D. on E. over

62. Since his father’s death, Osita has not been able to cope 74. The students unrest resulted… the expulsion of the
with the tasks of a family head. ringleaders
A. perform adequately B. tolerate C. accept A. to B. in C. from D. with E. by
D. assess properly E. manage
75. The lawyer insisted.. the full payment of his charge.
63. My spell in the university was an unmitigated disaster A. with B. in C. for D. at E. on
A. an unavoidable B. a painful C. a regrettable
D. an unqualified E. an unfortunate 76. Little children are usually afraid ... thunder.
A. about B. for C. of D. with E. at
64. To be above board is to be
77. On the orders of the steward, the cook rushed… the
market 91. The old politicians were discredited because they tried
A. to B. at C. for D. in E. against to… the people’s ignorance.
A. cash in on B. catch in with C. catch in on
78. The principal advised that we pursue this case cautiously, D. cash in with E. cash in by
otherwise we are bound to be taken… by Ada’s lies.
A. away B. out C. in D. off E. on 92. The plane overshot the… in a minor accident.
A. railway B. hangar C. tarmac D. runway E. road
79. I am very sorry… to attend the meeting yesterday.
A. for failure B. in failing C. to having failed 93. That single… was enough to spoil a whole life time of
D. to fail E. for failing good living.
A. occurence B. ocurence C. occurrence
80. When you are faced with an examination of this nature D. occurrense E. ocurrence.
endeavour to keep your mind... the job and not be
distracted for one moment. 94. The thief ran… luck when the policeman running after
A. at B. in C. for D. on E. to him caught up with him and knocked him down.
A. into B. with C. of D. out of E. off
81. It all depended on what…
A. does he want B. he wants C. he does want 95. Whilst the thief was... the passengers, he kept apologizing
D. he wanted E. did he want for the inconvenience he was causing them
A. robbing B. rubbing C. robing D. rubing E. robbed.
82. Samuel: Would you please come here, John? John: No.
I’m busy… in my farm. 96. Your brigade would be the better for it, if you desisted ...
A. I am working B. I’m working C. I am to work rumor-mongering, observed the Chief of Staff
D. I shall have worked E. I go to work A. from B. away C. into D. away from E. on

83. My colleagues… before I arrived. 97. The court ordered the lorry driver to pay for the ... to my car.
A. started writing B. wrote C. had started writing A. damages B. heavy damages C. destruction
D. have written E. have been writing D. many damages E. damage

84. After the team had conceded two goals, their 98. Journalists always collect and publish ...
enthusiasm… A. informations B. an information C. some informations
A. was beginning to wane B. was waning D. information E. much informations.
C. began to wane D. had begun to wane E. had been waning
99. I have received the answer scripts of Peter and John.
85. The Government… the initial value of the hotel complex What about ...?
at ten million Naira. A. Ngozi B. Ngozi’s own C. Ngozis D. Ngozis’ E. Ngozi’s
A. costed B. had cost C. had valued
D. had constructed E. has costed 100. He received a pat ... the back for his brilliant success in
the examination.
86. James... reminding that not all that glitters is gold. A. by B. at C. in D. on E. for
A. needs B. need C. needing D. needs to E. need to

87. The dull student took a correspondence course as a

means… his standard in the class.
A. to improve B. for improving C. of
improving
D. by improving E. to improving

88. The boy thought that driving a car was not… dangerous
than riding a bicyle.
A. so very B. particularly C. very D. any more E. any
89. I do not want… from such a friend as Jimoh.
A. any more advices B. no more advice C. any advices
D. no advice E. any advice
90. Very few students have satisfactory... these days
becausethe student population has increased
tremendously.
A. acommondation B. accomodation C. accommodation
D. acommoddation E. acommodation.
Use of English 1986

COMPREHENSION B. do not provide the money for the fashion craze

C. endure a lot of hardship to provide for their children
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that D. gladly provide the money for the fashion craze.
follow
5. A likely cause of high blood pressure among the youth is
PASSAGE 1 A. the clothes they wear to parties
It is customary nowadays among fashionable ladies and B. that different clothes are meant for different occasions
gentlemen to acquire strange and sometimes quaint clothes C. that the youth have stuffed their wardrobes,
which are scarcely ever used. Sometimes it may be an apartments and drawars with new clothes
approaching festival, sometimes a two hour ceremony and D. the thought of the choice of what to wear.
sometimes to honour a dead colleague – something triggers off
the modern craze to sew new materials whose use does not PASSAGE II
outlast the moment of craze. And so, people who just occupy Delinquency describes actions that would not be crimes
small apartments in their parent homes, or have rented one room if performed by adults. If a young person performs one of such
in a densely-people house find that more than two-thirds of actions then he has committed a crime. Delinquency is one of
their rooms are filled with bongo trousers which they cannot several status offences – offences that can be committed only
wear, worn out jeans which stink, or specially made cloth for by people in particular stations of life as determined by age,
occasions that are not recurrent. profession or a person’s role in society. For young people such
Although plagued by the problem of school fees for their offences include drinking, driving and smoking under age.
children, parents have had to swallow their own phlegm and Usually they are offences only to the extent that they help to
humour their children who need special clothes for important preserve some of the good things of life for the exclusive
events. Newly employed youths soon find that their comrades enjoyment of the adult world. Delinquency is therefore a weapon
are getting married, and a new and special attire must be used to forged in adult minds and directed by adult hands against young
grace the occasion. University students see matriculation people. It is born out of envy, adult pride and intolerance. If the
ceremonies or induction ceremonies into club membership as world changed overnight and the responsibility to make and
special reasons to make new attire which – you may be sure – enforce laws fell on juvenile shoulders, the adults should expect
they would not wear on another occasion that parallels the one a raw deal in return. Delinquency would then certainly refer
for which these clothes were made. only to many of the adult actions now freely committed by them.
Medical doctors may soon find another cause for the
incidence of high blood pressure among the youth. ‘The desire 6. The writer of the passage believes that delinquency laws are
to acquire new clothes’ is one strong possible cause, but a more A. not relevant to human society
subtle one which haunts like a ghost is the problem of choice of B. only fit for young people
what to wear. The youths have so suffered their apartments, C. unfair to the juveniles
wardrobes, drawers and trunks with so many clothes that the D. very fair to the adult world.
greatest problem they face is the choice of what to wear.
7. Status offences are those that can be committ
A. all adults B. juveniles only
1. A suitable title for this passage is
C. delinquent juveniles only D. specified classes of
A. Fashion craze
people.
B. Fashion craze among the youth
C. University students and induction ceremonies 8. In the view of the writer, drinking under age is an offence
D. Parents and the money for fashion craze. because
A. adults want to have all he drink to themselves
2. In this passage the expression “parents have had to B. adults do not want juveniles to get drunk
swallow their own phlegm’ means parents, C. drunken juveniles can cause disorder in society
A. had to swallow the sputum in their mouths D. adults have a duty to protect young persons.
B. have been phlegmatic all along
9. If the world changed overnight
C. have had to overcome their own pride or prejudice
A. there would be more delinquency laws
D. no longer had to swallow their own phlegm.
B. delinquency would refer to all adult actions
C. delinquency would no more be a crime
3. The youth acquire clothes for
D. delinquency would also change in meaning.
A. burials, great occasions or for matriculation ceremonies
B. occasions that are not recurrent 10. When young people make and enforce laws
C. boosting their ego A. the responsibility will be too heavy on their
D. the purpose of praising their parents. shoulders
B. they would retaliate against the adults
4. In this passage we learn that parents C. their laws will be very juvenile
A. admire their children’s craze for new clothes D. the world will be turned upside down.
place to store their crops, most of which are always destroyed
PASSAGE III by insects and pests before harvest time. All these have adverse
Those who are familiar with it will tell you that Ludo, effects on their productivity.
like human life itself, is a game both of chance and skill. You The government can do a lot to help farmers. farmers’
need skill in deciding how to make the most advantageous use co-operative societies can be encouraged and loans can be made
of the figures that turn up on the die when you cast it. Since available to farmers through government institutions, like banks
each player has at least four alternative ways of using his figures, and finance corporation. Farmers can be taught how to build
two players with equal luck may fare differently, depending on good storage structures for their produce. All these and a lot
how cleverly each one uses his figures. The element of luck, more can help to improve the conditions of farming in these
again as in human life, plays a dominant role however. For no countries.
matter how skilful a player may be in using the figures he gets on
the die, he has a slim chance of winning if he continually throws 16. The most important aspect of agriculture mentioned in
low figures. While a combination of ones and twos may be the passage is
useful in checking the advance of one’s opponents, it will not A. poultry B. fishery C. livestock D. farming.
take one home fast enough to win. On the other hand, consistent
throws of sixes and fives, with even the very minimum of skill, 17. Farming in many countries today is
will help a player to home all his four counters before any of the A. an alternative to poultry
three other players, unless, of course, he has no idea of the B. of great assistance to the economy
game at all. C. for those who are out of jobs
D. for the illiterates.
11. According to the passage, Ludo is
A. more a game of skill than of chance 18. Some countries produce more and better crops than
B. more a game of luck that of skill others because the farmers in the former
C. equally a game of chance and skill A. are more educated
D. a game entirely of luck. B. have greater manpower
C. have more modern equipment
12. It is implied in the passage that two players may fare D. have more fertile land.
equally if they
A. have equal luck 19. In order to help improve the state of farming, the
B. apply similar skill to figures government should
C. apply similar skill to similar figures A. give all farmers enough money to work with
D. have equal skill. B. sell enough fertilizers to all farmers
C. find ways of financing and modernizing the
13. It is implied in the passage, that in Ludo threes and fours are farming system
A. very high throws B. medium throws D. help farmers with the storage of their crops.
C. low throws D. very low throws.
20. A lot of crops harvested are wasted because farmers
14. According to the passage, a player with consistently high A. allow insects and pests to destroy their crops
throws will B. do not have enough money to invest in harvesters
A. almost certainly win a game C. do not have good storage facilities
B. certainly win a game D. harvest too much at a time.
C. almost certainly not win a game
D. deliberately not win a game. PASSAGE V
15. In the passage, the possession of skill specifically It may be argued that museums as an institution and an
enables a player to agency for transmitting cultural heritage are an artificial creation,
A. win so far as objects are removed from their natural or proper
B. throw good figures environments and put into museums which are a different
C. use his figures efficiently environment altogether. However, it seems that museums
D. check his opponents efficienctly themselves have come to be accepted and recognized as the
best equipped institutions devised by man for the assemblage
PASSAGE IV
of cultural objects and their presentation and preservation for
Farming is the most important aspect of agriculture that
the present and future generations.
has attracted attention within the last few years. Agriculture
The artificial character of museums is however being
has several other aspects like fishery, livestock and poultry. All
gradually transformed into a cultural reality. Thus, just as one
these are also important in that they have to do with the
goes to the theatre for plays and other performing arts, the
production of food items which human beings consume for
mosque, the church or the shrine for worship, the library for the
survival.
printed words, today, it is to the museum one goes to see evidence
In many parts of the world today, farming has been
of man’s material outfit. For, no other institution or place so
regarded as the mainstay of the economy. Crops such as cocoa,
readily comes to mind as museums do when evidence of material
rubber and cotton have been produced in such commercial
culture is sought. Herein lies the importance of museums as
quantity that they are sold to other countries. Some countries
cultural institutions and an agency for transmitting culture.
have better comparative advantage in producing certain farm
crops than other countries. In these other countries, there is the
21. Museums are at artificial creation because
need to spend a lot of money on agriculture, particularly farming.
A. they are an agency for transmitting cultural heritage 34. He was locked up for a fortnight
B. natural or proper environments are removed and A. released B. punished C. remanded D. locked out.
put into museums
C. objects are removed from museums to natural or 35. The lady acted courageously when thieves attacked her
proper environments A. shyly B. fearlessly C. indiscreetly D. timidly.
D. objects are removed from their natural or proper
environments and put into museums. In questions 36 to 67 choose the option nearest in meaning to
the word(s) or phrase underlined.
22. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT
part of the main functions of museums? 36. You are free to leave the hall.
A. Preservatic B. Generation A. at an advantage B. opportuned C. at liberty D. right.
C. Presentation D. Assemblage.
37. The culprits will surrender their loot to the Customs officials.
23. The evidence of material culture can best be sought in the A give away B. give out C. given in D. give up.
A. theatre and other performing arts
B. library and the museum 38. The discussion became animated.
C. museum only A. specialized B. lively C. intellectual D. unruly.
D. museum more than any other institution.
39. Rich citizens are often niggardly in their ways.
24. Which of the following phrases in the passage does NOT A. beggarly B. sordid C. miserly D. pompous.
express the artificial character of museums?
A. Removed from B. For transmitting 40. The musician’s popularity is beginning to decline
C. Put into D. Devised by. A. change B. wane C. slide D. disappear.

25. … no other institution or place so readily comes to mind 41. Olu promised to look out for her next time he is in town.
as museums means that museum are A. watch for B. visit C. greet D. take care of.
A. always ready to enter the mind
B. a ready example 42. Thompson was a prosecution witness at the court hearing.
C. recalled with great difficulty A. false B. reliable C. government D. trial
D. remembered with hesitancy.
43. The beggar’s takings snow-balled every hour
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE A. grew B. turned white C. grew into a ball
D. turned into snow.
In questions 26 to 35 choose the option opposite in meaning to
the word(s) underlined 44. His attempts were nipped in the bud.
A. unsuccessful B. cut short C. frustrated D. disqualified.
26. Mr. Jack was most flexible in his instructions. 45. The preacher has made good his promise to visit some of
A. rigid B. correct C. stiff D. upright. his converts today
A. fulfilled B. abided by C. seen to D. accepted.
27. The University has offered temporary accommodation
to its staff. 46. What it! You could be followed said the robber.
A. popular B. permanent C. recognized D. regular. A. Look around B. Be sober C. Be vigilant D. Look out.

28. Mary complained that she slept on the coarse floor. 47. Look at the tell-tale signs of battering on her
A. smooth B. rough C. bad D. harsh. A. confirming looks B. suspicious marks
C. revealing marks. D. signifying marks.
29. Jim was one of the spectators at the concert.
A. ushers B. judges C. guests D. performers. 48. The armed robbers who raided passengers on the
Expressway came to grief when they had a shoot out
30. The Governor declined to give audience to the journalist with the police today.
A. ignored B. accepted C. forgot D. rejected. A. came to a bad end B. became grieved
C. encountered grief D. came to a dead.
31. The debtor’s husband is liable for his wife’s debts
A. unanswerable B. responsible 49. Many of the workers hired for firing the furnace had
C. unquestionable D. accountable. themselves fired as a result of the unfortunate accident.
A. got themselves burned accidentally
32. The lotion recommended by the doctor soothed Okon’s B. jumped into the fire themselves
aching tooth C. got themselves sacked form their jobs.
A. calmed B. extracted C. excited D. worsened. D. were sacked from their jobs.

33. The sun cast its shadow on the wall. 50. The new educational system look off this school year.
A. reflection B. rays C. resemblance D. substance. A. went off B. continued C. began D. resumed.
51. We will surely buy this idea of introducing an entirely 63. The accounts clerk was jailed because he cooked the
new product books.
A. pay for B. accept C. trade in D. barter. A. set fire to the account books
B. sold the books in his office to get money for food
52. This year’s harvest is surplus. C. falsified the accounts to his advantage
A. enough for our need B. limitless D. destroyed the account books by cooking them.
C. more than enough D. plenty.
64. The task was Herculean.
53. Many candidates new apply to read Law because it is a A. irregular B. related to Hercules
lucrative profession. C. stimulating D. demanding.
A. brings plenty of profit
B. brings high prestige 65. The story is rather hard to believe.
C. brings quick money A. incedulous B. incredible C. superstitious D. untenable
D. brings plenty of knowledge.
66. It is advisable to administer the test in the morning when
54. The pressman said that his interview with the President students are fresh.
was off the record. A. perform B. set C. undertake D. give.
A. not written on government record books
B. not intended for publication 67. He broke his mallet ostensibly trying to maintain order
C. not taped although he was actually enjoying the commotion.
D. written elsewhere other than in government records. A. apparently B. carelessly C. angrily D accidentally.

55. She realised that she was up against stiff competition In question 68 to 100 choose the word(s) or phrase which best
when a new large departmental store was opened next to fills the gap(s)
her small provisions shop.
A. next to B. standing next to 68. Jibril found that thieves had entered his house in his
C. opposed to D. faced with. absence. He went to the police to report the …
A. break out B. break up C. break in D. break into
56. Finally, I assured him that I would not go back on my word
A. return to a place 69. After the accused was found guilty by the court, his
B. return to a certain world which reading counsel…. Before sentence was passed.
C. re-use my word A. begged for mercy B. made a please for mitigation
D. fail to keep my promise. C. made an ovation D. made a plea for Migation.

57. Everybody respects the team leader. 70. Four persons accused of currency… are being held by
A. looks up for B. looks up on the security agents
C. looks up to D. looks up at. A. traficking B. traviking C. trafficking D. traffiking.

58. The driver, on seeing the traffic warden, was hesitant to 71. You had to stand in the corridor all the way? Poor you I
start the engine. don’t suppose you enjoyed the journey…?
A. slow B. unable C. anxious D. reluctant. A. don’t you B. did you C. didn’t you D. don’t I.

59. He likes to call attention to unimportant matters. 72. ‘I m sorry I can’t give you any of the oranges, I have …
A. dubious B. incidental C. trivial D. simple. Left’,
A. few B. little C. only a little D. a few.
60. The speaker took his audience down memory lane
before he went to the topic of his lecture. 73. No wonder those plants are dying. They… any water
A. took his audience a journey through a street for ages!
called Memory Lane. A. didn’t have B. hadn’t C. haven’t had D. haven’t
B. recalled events from the past
C. told a late about a place called Memory Lane 74. Darling, do send the children to bed. I can’t … their
D. gave an outline of his lecture. noise any longer’, he said to his wife.
A. make do with B. make up C. deal with D. put up with.
61. The new religious leader hands out an olive branch.
A. sues for peace 75. My wife and I met… on a shop going to Liberia.
B. gives out branches of the olive tree. A. ourselves B. one another C. each other D. ourself.
C. challenges his opponents to a fight
D. blesses his congregation. 76. … yet about the Principal?
A. Are there any news B. Are there some news
62. Though a brilliant student, Binta lost her tongue when C. Is there any news D. Is their any news.
she was asked to give the vote of thanks at the end of the
Governor’s visit to her school. 77. I am… to another week’s holiday this year after such a
A. became dumb. tedious job.
B. became deaf and dumb A. due B. qualified C. looking D. entitled.
C. said nothing because she was shy
D. forgot her native language. 78. I can quickly recite the National Anthem… Now
A. off head B. off by heart C. at hand D. off hand.
79. The committee was frustrated because the Chief A. leaped B. leap C. leapt D. leaping.
withheld his …
A. accent B. access C. assent D. ascent. 91. A number of doctors are not so well disposed to … In
government hospitals these days…they?
80. Gone are the days when the … Enjoy patronage. A. working/do B. work/are C. working/are D. work/aren’t.
A. would B. will C. used to D. could.
92. The only set of loud speakers available… To be
81. He did not attend the final burial… connected according to the instruction.
A. rite B. rights C. rites D. right A. is B. are C. were D. have

82. The officer was compelled to… the suspect’s car. 93. We later on discovered that some members… another
A. seize B. cease C. sieze D. sease. meeting before the one advertised.
A. were holding B. have held C. have been holding
83. He missed the point because he took the statement … D. had held.
A. literally B. literarily C. literacy D. uniliterally. 94. He decided to wait for the bus because he had
A. too many luggage B. many luggages
84. Their high … was an advantage C. a lot of luggage D. plenty luggages
A. moral B. morality C. morale D. morals
95. Thank you for the party, we really….
5. The brave officer ….the time bomb A. enjoyed ourselves B. enjoyed
A. diffused B. devused C. defused D. difused. C. enjoyed very much D. enjoyed to much

86. A number of suspects were paraded… the victim of the 96. We were trying to study for the examinations lastnight
robbery. when the lights…
A. in front of B. before C. for D. to A. were taken away B. came off C. quenched D. went off.
87. If you want peace, you … Prepared for war.
A. had better B. have better C. had better got 97. When he had arranged the furniture, he… the picture
D. had better get. on the wall.
A. hanged B. hung C. hang D. hunged.
88. If only we… We could have overcome the difficulty.
A. had persevered B. have persevered 98. I forgot to bring a pen with me. Would you please…me yours?
C. had persevere D. persevered. A. borrow B. loan C. provide D. lend.

89. We are gradually … to the end of the programme this 99. If you are going to the market, may I…please?
afternoon, remarked the chairman of the wedding A. follow you B. come with you C. come by you
reception. D. come as your second
A. arriving B. getting C. approaching D. going.
100. Wada said that two of his chickens … eggs yesterday
90. We saw him… Over a wall as the police approached morning.
A. layed B. lied C. laid D. lai

Use of English 1987

C OMPR EHENSION From the evidences of these obituaries and In memoriam, every
dead Nigerian must have been something of a saint while alive.
This would explain why the death of most Nigerians is attributed
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that to the evil machinations of the wicked. Only very few people in
follow our country die natural death, and even when they do, the
obituaries etc. always give the impression that such deaths
PASSAGE I constitute the saddest loss to befall the deceased’s family. And
that is why writers of these obituaries and their allied
advertisements are experts on ‘mortuary stylistics’. This
There are one or two things this country can teach ‘mortuary stylistics’, the study in the art of eulogizing the dead
others, one of which is the art of writing obituaries. One suspects and making their loss sound so heart breaking, is one of the
that the reason why some of our newspapers still manage to commodities we can export to other countries.
break even is because of the great amount of revenue they derive
from obituaries. It is not unusual for about one quarter of the 1. The tone of this passage is
volume of an average daily to be constituted of obituaries and A. angry B. satirical C. non-commital D. pleasant.
in memoriam alone. One possible explanation for this, it has
been argued, is that Nigerians value their dead greatly. And 2. Mortuary ‘stylistics’ as used in the passage refers to the
there is a saying amongst us that you do not say evil things A. art of writing obituaries B. text of obituaries
against the dead. This is obviously the philosophy behind the C. study of obituaries D. art of eulogizing the dead.
large dose of encomiums with which our dead are bestowed.
3. ‘One suspects that the reason why some of our PASSAGE III
newspapers still manage to break even …’ Suggests that Manager: Mr. Mbu, I would not describe you as an inefficient worker,
some Nigerian newspapers I therefore find it difficult to understand why the Conference
A. would be running at a loss but for obituaries Room is so untidy, in spite of the fact that I had reminded
B. are patronized only because they specialize in you of the meeting scheduled to take place there this afternoon.
obituaries Secretary: Sir, I did instruct the cleaner to tidy up the
C. derive all their revenue from obituaries place before the meeting.
D. invest huge revenue in obituaries. Manager: Are you trying to hold the cleaner responsible
for the untidy condition of the room?
4. Obituaries are very popular in Nigeria because Secretary: Partly, Sir, I gave him an instruction which he
A. evil things are not said against the dead failed to carry out. It is certainly my intention
B. every dead Nigerian must have lived a saintly life to make a formal complaint against him for
C. only very few Nigerians die natural deaths dereliction of duty.
D. Nigerians value their dead greatly. Manager: And would you wash your hands off any
PASSAGE II blame after that? Do you think that just making
‘You all know how friendly we are with Okperi. Do you a formal complaint against the cleaner absolves
think that any Umuaro man who goes to prison there will come you of all blame? When do you consider an
back alive? But that apart, do you forget that this is the moon of assignment as properly executed: when the
planting? Do you want to grow this year’s crops in the prison execution is properly supervised or not? Was
house in a land where your fathers owe a cow? I speak as your it sufficient for you to give instructions to the
elder brother. I have travelled in Olu and I have travelled in Igbo, cleaner without ensuring that he actually
and I can tell you that there is no escape from the white man. He carried them out?
has come. When suffering knocks at your door and you say Secretary: Sir, I do not see what else I could have done,
there is no seat left for him, he tells you not to worry because he short of doing the job myself. The cleaner is a
has brought his own stool. The white man is like that. Before six-footer and I could not have intimidated
any of you’re here was old enough to tie a cloth between the him physically.
legs I saw with my own eyes what the white man did to Abame. Manager : I see, I await your formal complaint against
Then I knew there was no escape. As day light chases away the cleaner, but I shall not forget that you
darkness so will the white man drive away all our customs. I allowed a board meeting to take place in an
know that as I say it now it passes by your ears, but it will untidy Conference Room.
happen. The white man has power which comes from the true 11. The relationship between the manager and his secretary,
God and it burns like fire. This is the God about whom we preach as revealed in the passage, could be said to be
every eighth day. …. A. strained B. charged C. personal D. cordial.
Unachukwu’s opponents were now shouting that this
was a meeting of an age group, that they had not assembled to 12. ‘I would not describe you as an inefficient worker…’
join with him in chewing the seed of foolishness which they Suggests that the manager
called their new religion. A. is quite pleased with the level of diligence of his
‘We are talking about the white man’s road, ‘said a voice secretary.
above the others. B. has had cause in the past to complain against his
‘Yes, we are talking about the white man’s road. But secretary
when the roof and the walls of a house fall in, the ceiling is not C. is dissatisfied with the level of performance of his
left standing. The white man, the new religion, the soldiers, the secretary
new road – they are all part of the same thing. The white man D. is non-commital over the efficiency of his secretary.
has a gun, a matchet, a bow and carries fire in his mouth. He
does not fight with one weapon alone’. 13. It would appear that the manager feels that the secretary
(Taken form Chinua Achebe’s Arrow of God)
A. should have, if possible, personally cleaned the
Conference Room.
6. The dominant subject of this passage is the B. should have ensured that someone else cleaned
A. white man’s road B. new religion the Conference Room
C. white man’s influence D. white man’s weapons. C. should have ensured that the cleaner did his job
D. is a coward
7. According to the passage, the people of Umuaro and Okperi
A. are friends B. are only acquaintances 14. The secretary’s attitude seems to be
C. are no friends D. can never be enemies. A. Manager Sir, you employed this huge and
recalcitrant cleaner and I am not going to do his job for him.
8. ‘There is no escape from the white man’ in the passage B. ‘It is not the duty o f a secretary to enforce the
means that the instructions he gives to his junior workers’
A. white man will send the people to prison C. ‘I am a secretary by profession, not a cleaner
B. white man can kill all the people with his gun D. ‘It is not terribly important how tidy the
C. people are only trying to run away from the white Conference Room is for the meeting.
man
D. people must accept the white man. 15. The last comment by the manager suggests that he
A. is going to hold the secretary responsible for
9. ‘Passes by your ears’ in the passage means what has happened
A. piercing through your ears. B. is likely to reprimand both the secretary and
B. listening eagerly the cleaner for dereliction of duty
C. making no impression C. will punish the cleaner but warn the secretary
D. accepting as the truth. D. will warn the cleaner and punish he secretary.
10. Unachukwu’s speech in this passage shows that he PASSAGE IV
A. is a coward B. wants his people to suffer Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a
C. loves the white man D. is wise with experience. source of warmth and as a means of light. Before he discovered
less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and
whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him.
His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may well
have developed, could be used for illumination was probably D. not to be compared to any other recording system.
incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.
Lamps, too, probably developed by accident. Early LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching
a twig or fibre burning in the molten fat dropped from roasting In questions 26 to 32 choose the option opposite in meaning to
carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain fat the word(s) in italics
and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which were made of
hollowed stones or sea-shell, have persisted in identical form up 26. The house-wife was hard up before the end of each month.
to quite recent times. A. upset B. penniless C. borrowing D. in no need.

16. Primitive man carried a firebrand during his journeys 27. The retired General became a hard-nosed officer after
mainly for fighting the war.
A. illumination B. cooking of food A. tough B. weak C. indifferent D. bed-ridden.
C. flame preservation D. warmth.
28. The Lions lost the match because their goalkeeper was
17. According to the passage, the torch probably developed in a haze most of the time.
from a A. indisposed B. confused C. alert D. sleeping.
A. firebrand B. twig C. lamp D. fibre.
29. Unless we see the evils clearly, contending against them
18. Primitive man was least concerned with fire as a is like fighting the air.
A. means of cooking B. source of warmth A. avoiding B. struggling with C. combating D. repelling.
C. source of light D. means of travelling
30. The explosive growth of world population has not been
19. One way early man made a lamp was by putting a lighted caused by a sudden increase in human fertility.
reed in a A. fantastic B. gradual C. combustible D. dangerous.
A. hollowed stone B. sea shell C. vessel D. molten fat.
31. It is generally believed that misers are not loved by many.
20. Primitive man preserved fire because A. spendthrifts B. spenders C. hoarders D. savers
A. he used it for illumination during his travels
B. his method of making fire was laborious 32. My brother’s primary school foundation was solid and
C. he wanted to discover how to make a lamp this influenced his secondary education.
D. he wanted to develop the torch. A. sound B. sordid C. shaky D. weak.
PASSAGE V In questions 33 to 55 choose the option nearest in meaning to
Developments in electronic science have transformed the the word(s) or phrase(s) in italics.
art of record keeping in the modern age. Traditionally, records of
events were kept only in people’s minds. It depended very 33. ‘It is very difficult to know who is entitled to essential
much on the retentive power of the human memory. This was commodities these days’, observed the mobbed NNSC
extremely dangerous as people either forgot events wholly or in official.
part, or deliberately falsified details to suit their various interests. A. qualified for B. disqualified from C. eligible D. worthyof
Interminable arguments were thus the order of the day. Even
writing which replaced mental recording was not entirely free 34. ‘This is a miniaturized version of your house’ remarked
from these shortcomings as untruths could be written as true the Architect.
records either willingly or inadvertently. With the advent of the
electronic memory, however, these dangers have been largely A. compressed B. abridged C. decreased D. smaller.
overcome. Recordings on audio and video cassettes now show
not only what happened, but also who did or said what including 35. It is claimed that there is an extinct volcano near Pankshin
how and when. A. extinguished B. inactive C. dead D. disused.

21. The author believes that electronic recording is 36. Bola has sonorous voice.
A. superior only to mental recording A. high-pitched B. beautiful C. strong D. throaty.
B. inferior to both mental recording and writing
C. superior to both mental recording and writing 37. Some workers went on rampage at a trade-fair.
D. inferior to only writing. A. turned violent B. robber C. were angry
D. demonstrated.
22. The writer believes that the art of record keeping has
A. improved over the years 38. We have to identify the protagonists of the new movement.
B. endangered the art of writing A. enemies B. leading figures C. opponents D. Believers
C. changed human memory
D. overcome all the problems facing it. 39. My nephew came in stealthily through the back gate.
A. briskly B. boldly C. wearily D. quietly.
23. How many stages of development did the writer mention
while discussing the art of record keeping? 40. The distance is not more than twenty kilometres as the
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five crow flies.
A. by the longest route B. by the shortest route
24. According to the author, human memory is unreliable C. by air D. by the fastest means.
because people.
A. die and we forget what they said. 41. Your extreme patience sometimes infuriates me.
B. forget events or tell lies A. impresses B. annoys C. frustrates D. amuses.
C. do not always know when events happened
D. do not always know who did what and when. 42. I cannot understand how he suddenly became
audacious contrary to his nature.
25. From the passage, we gather that writing is almost A. proud B. bold C. rude D. hostile.
A. as unreliable as human memory
B. as reliable as electronic memory 43. His has been a life of make-belief
C. more reliable than electronic recording A. faith B. fantasy C. grandeur D. religion
44. seldom comes late to school.
A. very often B. always C. frequently D. hardly ever. 62. One would wish …missed that opportunity to be
45. At the age of 80, Musa wished he could put the clock back. present at the graduation hall.
A. stop the clock B. put down the clock A. to have not B. for having not C. to having
C. go back in time D. have more time. D. not to have.
46. The Director left his secret file to the Secretary in good faith 63. The ceremony was rounded…very late.
A. with proof B. in anxiety C. in anticipation D. in trust. A. up B. off C. of D. out.
47. The Chief approached the issue with convincing d 64. My…brother intends to get married in December.
isinterestedness A. senior B. elder C. older D. oldest.
A. lack of interest B. lack of personal interest
C. inability to be interested D. unwillingness. 65. The…Affairs Officer is expecting all of us in the dining
room.
48. Nothing irritates the clerk more, than being assigned A. Student B. Student’s C. Students D. Students’
miscellaneous duties.
A. classified B. confidential C. unscheduled D. assorted 66. Many a candidate… to realise the difference between
written and spoken English.
49. It is of fundamental importance that one sleeps properly. A. fails B. fail C. have failed D. is failing.
A. undisputed B. basic C. special D. least.
67. Chinyere has not really described the Cabinet as
50. I know you’ve been eaves-dropping all along irresponsible; she only… it in her speech
A. dropping gently B. paying attention A. alluded to B. implied C. applied D. suggested.
C. listening secretly D. dropping all the leaves.
68. …at 9.30 for more news, said the announcer
51. She showed an affected interest in the game. A. Switch on B. Tune in C. Hook on D. Channel in .
A. real B. pretended C. concerned D. slight.
69. The way that big boy bullied his sister with relish makes
52. I would not like you to do the work piecemeal me think he could be a …
A. at meal time B. bit by bit C. badly D. as a masterpiece. A. bully B. sadist C. pugilist D. tyrant.
53. I think I’ll like to reiterate the points earlier made. 70. All… well with Peter.
A. withdraw B. change C. challenge D. repeat. A. are not B. have not been C. were not D. is not.
54. The sudden death of the King put paid to the ambition 71. One... so if she had thought it necessary.
of the Minister. A. would have said B. would say C. may have said
A. encouraged B. rewarded C. benefited D. terminated. D. could say.
72. We have done three quarters of the journey already, we
55. The man insisted on having no strings attached to the … as well see the end of it.
agreement A. can B. might C. could D. may
A. financial obligations B. documents C. conditions
D. moral obligations. 73. My little daughter has … sight, hence, she now wears
glasses.
In questions 56 to 100 choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which A. dimunitive B blurred C. painful D. defective.
best fills the gap(s).
74. Bassey’s evidence led… Okon being imprisoned for
56. I was….hearing distance of the speaker. life. A. at B. into C. in D. to
A. on B. at C. within D. in
75. My boss is usually a charming man but… he can be very
57. Peter was such a skilfull boxer that he was not afraid to irritable.
take…anybody A. atimes B. at times C. those times D. with times.
A. to B. upon C. on D. in.
76. We surely ought to have an…arrangement in case
58. Owing to the constant harassment of the populace by somebody discovers the present strategy.
armed robbers, all night guards have been instructed to A. alternate B. alternating C. alternative D. alternant.
shoot…every moving things
A. at sight B. by sight C. in sight D. off sight. 77. The nurse kept apologizing to mothers as she stuck her
needle… every baby at the clinic
59. My wife and I were to celebrate our silver wedding A. in B. onto C. on to D. into .
anniversary last Sunday. Unfortunately on that ….day,
my father-in-law died mysteriously. 78. One of the ladies who … in the premises … been asked
A. fruitless B. faithful C. futile D. fateful to withdraw
A. sells/have B. sell/have C. sells/has D. sell/has
60. The first graduation ceremony of the university was
attended by men from all….of life. 79. A Tale of Two Cities…the…we are studying for the
A. works B. areas C. walks D. parts. examination.
A. are/novels B. was/novel C. were/novels D. is/novel.
61. …guests enjoyed Joy’s birthday party
A. The whole B. All the C. Every D. Those very
80. We must not take with us the feelings of inadequacy 90. The quarrel has got to a stage where someone has to…
…experienced during our preparations for the debate. A. interrupt B. interfere C. intrude D. intervene.
A. that were B. those were C. that was D. that is.
91. The villages looked…their leader for good examples.
81. Omogbai reported that the examinations…before he A. up to B. on to C. up at D. forward to
arrived in the hall.
A. started B. have started C. had started D. are started. 92. The hunter brought home…antelope
A. alive B. a life C. alive D. a living.
82. In my opinion, neither the players nor the coach … praise
for the result of the match. 93. Do not take my books out of this office unless you… my
A. deserves B. deserve C. are deserving D. is deserving. permission to do so.
A. get B. have C. had got D. are having.
83. No one has said anything yet, but I think I … be getting
a salary increase next month. 94. The man insisted on giving unsolicited…
A. must B. can C. would D. may A. advice B. advices D. advise D. advises.

84. Student: Excuse me sir, must we complete the 95. Cultural patterns are modified as they are … from one
assignment before lunch? generation to the next.
Teacher: No you… A. transported B. transposed C. translated D. transmitted.
A. needn’t B. mustn’t C. can’t D. shouldn’t
96. We discovered at the end of last term that we had to read
85. During the demonstration, the mobile police were … books before we could confidentlysit for our final examination.
instructed to break… the students’ defense line. A. more of many B. very many more
A. off B. open C. through D. down. C. very much more D. more very many.

86. Roli failed because the examination was …difficult for her 97. Chinedu took his umbrella with him in case it…
A. so B. very C. highly D. too. A. rain B. rained C. would rain D. is raining.

87. My brother does not have a flair… Mathematics. 98. The train was too slow so I decided to… at the next stop.
A. for B. in C. at D. of A. get by B. get bye C. get off D. get of.

88. The poor little kid has been down…fever these few days. 99. Dapo has made good use of some useful … on the
A. with B. from C. in D. for chemical composition of chalk.
A. information B. piece of information
89. He did not stop to ask himself why…such thing. C. informations D. pieces of information.
A. should he do B. he should do
C. should he have done D. did he do. 100. Tonye said that he was going to bed because he was…
to do any more work.
A. tired out B. very tired C. too tired D. extremely tired.

Use of English 1988

COMPREHENSION propelled by an unknown benevolent force, I walked a little bit

down the corridor in the direction of a notice board at which
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that some ten young men and women were peering. For want of
follow something to do, I decided to stop and look at the notice board.
PASSAGE I Alas! I had opened on the key to all the riddles that had dribbled
I was to remember my first day at Freedom University me since I set foot on campus that morning. On the board there
for a long time. On arrival on campus, I expected to be met by was a big campus map in which I was able to locate Grant Hall
some stale students (as was the practice in my secondary school) and other places of interest, there were details of the various
but every student around was new like myself. I asked the way activities lined up for the three days of orientation for freshmen
to Grant Hall but no one could tell me. I asked a number of other and a comprehensive list of those offered admission into various
questions about issues that bothered me, such as where and courses. How blissful I felt to see the light of knowledge, having
how to pay the fees, the way to the dinning hall and so on, but been wallowing in the darkness of ignorance. Even then I was
no help was forthcoming. So in the midst of so many people I am not able to escape the thought that though I could not be sure
all alone I mused to myself. The prospect was not in the least how much of the responsibility for the darkness was mine, the
cheerful and all those elation I had felt at gaining entry into a fact that something had not been done to draw attention to that
renowned university at sixteen began to disappear. Then, as if apocalypse of a notice board had contributed clearly to my initial
predicament. All that notwithstanding, I learnt from that incident After you must have listened creatively to what you
an indelible lesson which was to stand me in very good stead have been told, then you can respond if the need arises. It is
throughout my stay in the university: namely, the importance of quite proper that you respond because the process of response
reading notice boards and handbills if one is to be well informed enhances the art of communication. But your response ought
about places and events in the university. to be only a necessary response, a response that will improve
your understanding. This response should involve your
1. The write of the passage felt isolated because monitoring, some of those things you have been told but which
A. there were too many people you do not understand, or politely questioning the rationality of
B. he was a new student in freedom university some of the speakers argument that your response must be
C. there were too many new students constructive, must enhance the communicative worth. It should
D. none of the many people around could help him. not be an unnecessary argument or an opportunity for you to
express dissatisfaction or disaffection. The ability to listen
2. The write says that the prospect was not cheerful because properly aids communication and understanding.
A. no one could tell him how to get to Grant Hall
B. he had felt too elated when he gained admission 6. The passage says that
into the university A. there are many skills of communication of which
C. there was no hope of getting out of his predicament listening is one
D. the other students were hostile. B. the art of listening is the toughest of all communication
skills
3. In the passage, the darkness of ignorance refers to the C. good listening depends on perfect functioning of
A. state of the writer before he found the notice board the auditory organs
B. ignorance of illiterates D. good listening needs formal training.
C. ignorance of those who have not been to university
D. fact that he was a freshman. 7. Creative listening involves all the following EXCEPT
A. efficient concentration
4. According to the passage the writers predicament was B. making sure that what he speaker is saying is audible
caused by C. that the listening must be able to think fast
A. the writer himself D. that there must be a co-ordination of all the
B. those who displayed the notices and perhaps the writer objectivefacilities.
C. the nature of the notice board and where it was placed
8. Creative listening implies all EXCEPT
D. those who displayed the notices.
A. a critical enterprise
B. an uncompromising rejection of the speaker’s
5. The writer remembered his first day in the university for
argument
a long time because he
C. some argument with the speaker
A. had felt very happy at being admitted into the
D. a greater deal of discipline.
university
B. could not get anybody to help him on his first 9. The tone of the passage is
day in the university A. sermonizing B. pleading C. analytical
C. had learnt the hard way how to keep informed D. argumentative
about happenings in the university
D. eventually discovered the notice board by chance. 10. A most suitable title for the passage is
A. Communication skills
B. How to listen attentively
PASSAGE II C. Listening in Communication
To listen properly is hard job, and probably one of the D. Listening argument and understanding.
toughest skills in the art of communication. Good listening has
nothing to do with proper functioning of one’s auditory organs, PASSAGE III
which is assumed to be inevitable. Good listening in the sense In the past learning English as a separate subject seemed
we are interested in, is not a biological factor, but a psychological relatively easy. The textbook selected and graded items of
one. Your auditory organs maybe in perfect order, when actually, language which were put into context and then practised
you cannot use them creatively. Creative listening implies your intensively. New items were carefully controlled so that he
being efficient, in the art of concentration, in other words, you student could cope quite easily. Now that English is used as a
concentrate on what one is saying so as to make sure that you medium of instruction, however, all this has changed. unknown
hear all that is said. At the same time you are concentrating to items of grammar and vocabulary appear in texts which attempt
hear all that is being said, you are also thinking fast, digesting to explain new and often difficult information. Difficulties with
what is being said, allowing your mental faculties and your the language interact with difficulties as regards the subject
memory to accept that which you understand, and to reject that matter. The student’s reading in his own subject slows down
which you do not understand, sorting out what you do not and his comprehension becomes less secure. He expresses
understand and storing them somewhere in your brain for future himself slowly and often fails to convey his ideas exactly. He is
discussion, and, all at the same time, rationalizing what you her, disappointed to find that under pressure he makes a lot of
accepting that which you find rational and rejecting that which unnecessary mistakes in areas where he knows the correct
you do not find rational. language forms. His social relations are difficult as he cannot
find the right phrase quickly enough to keep a conversation
going, so his language often betrays him into dullness, coldness, sudden falls at the very time when standing upright on wobbly
or worst of all, rudeness. Instead of the student being in control legs afforded a new and fascinating perspective on existence.
of the language, the language seems now to be in control of the The child who consequently learns to make a tower ‘stands up’
student. enjoys causing the same tower to waver and collapse. In addition
All of this can be very depressing and the student can to the active mastery over a previously passive event, it makes
start to feel very anxious. Working in a foreign language is also one feel stronger to know that there is somebody weaker – and
very tiring, and the concentration and self-discipline required to towers, unlike little sisters, can’t cry and call, ‘Mummy!’.
correct one’s mistakes is very great indeed.
16. In the passage, ‘manic pleasure’ means
11. Select the most appropriate title for this passage A. wicked pleasure B. children pleasure
A. Problems of learning a new language C. unlimited pleasure D. human pleasure.
B. Problems of learning English as a separate subject
C. Problems of working in English as a foreign language 17. The expression ‘must kick it and make it collapse’ in this
D. Difficulties with interacting in English. context means
A. is forced to kick it and demolish it.
12. The student begins to experience difficulties with English B. is obliged to kick it and make it collapse
when C. cannot resist the urge to demolish it
A. learning English with other subjects D. ought to kick it and make it collapse
B. learning English as a separate subject
C. his comprehension becomes less secure 18. According to this passage, it gives the child great pleasure
D. using English as a medium of instruction. A. for Daddy to see the tower he has built
B. to destroy the tower himself
13. The expression ‘his language often betrays him into
C. to se his tower accidentally destroyed
dullness, coldness, or worst of all, rudeness’ means that
D. to be helped to destroy the tower.
A. his English language lets him down and he
becomes dull, cold and rude
19. How does the author try to explain this ‘destructive stage’?
B. the way he uses the language gives one the i
A. It is the last stage in child development.
mpression that he is dull, cold or rude
B. The child wants to displease his parents.
C. he betrays his bad manners by using English badly
C. It grows out of the child’s recent experiences
D. his dullness, coldness or rudeness betrays
of sudden falls.
his bad manners in language use.
D. The child is just going through a destructive stage.
14. The statement ‘instead of the student being in control of
the language, the language seems now to be in control of 20. What other feeling does the child derive from the fall of
the student’ implies that the his tower apart from pleasure?
A. writer is not serious, he is only being A. Strength B. Anxiety C. Pity D. Depression.
humorous
B. language can make the student behave like an PASSAGE V
Englishman The market was old, timeless Africa, loud, crowded and
C. language can make the student behave rather badly free. Here, a man sat making sandals from old discarded motor-
D. student should stop using the language so as car tyres, there another worked at an old sewing machine, making
not to be controlled by it. a nightgown-like affair while the buyer waited, a little further on,
an old goldsmith worked at his dying art, but using, now, copper
15. The most likely source of difficulty for the student working
fillings instead of gold to fashion the lovely trinkets women
with English as a medium of instruction is
wear the world over; elsewhere a woman sold country cloth
A. the newness of the subject matter in the texts
fashioned with such fine art that only Africans think of it as a
being read
garment of utility. Trade was slow and loud everywhere. This
B. unknown items of grammar and vocabulary in
was as much as social as a shopping centre. For an excuse to
the texts
spend the day at the market, a woman would walk all the way
C. the student’s slow reading rate in his own subject
from her village to town with half a dozen eggs. She would
D. the tiring nature of working in a foreign language.
spread them on a little bit of ground for which she paid rent.
PASSAGE IV Through the day she would squat on the ground and talk to
In order to approach the problem of anxiety in play, let others who came for the same reason. She would refuse to sell
us consider the activity of building and destroying a tower. her wares till it was time to leave. They were the excuse for her
Many a mother thinks that her little son is in a ‘destructive being there. There were many like that. But there were many
stage’ or even has a ‘destructive personality’ because after others for whom trade was an earnest business. Whether is
building a big, big tower, the boy cannot follow her advice to earnest or as an excuse, the traders were boisterously free, loud-
leave the tower for Daddy to see, but instead must kick it and mouthed and happy. The laugher of the market was a laughter
make it collapse. The almost manic pleasure with which children found nowhere else in all the world…
watch the collapse in a second of the product of long play-
labour has puzzled many, especially since the child does not 21. According to the passage, the woman with half a dozen
appreciate it at all if his tower falls by accident or by a helpful eggs in the market
uncle’s hand. He, the builder, must destroy it himself. This A. is doing earnest business
game, I should think, arises from the not so distant experience of
B. comes purposely to enjoy herself 34. The demonstrators have refused to call off their action.
C. is like other traders in the market A. consolidate B. start C. resume D. end.
D. does not like her husband at home.
35. The angry waves swallowed the boat.
22. ‘An old goldsmith worked on his dying art’ means that the A. gentle B. unruffled C. cool D. serene.
A. goldsmith’s trade was no longer popular
B. goldsmith was old and might soon die 36. Ngozi and Ekaete were fast friends when we were in the
C. goldsmith knew well the art of dyeing secondary school.
D. goldsmith now used copper filings. A. friends who run very quickly together
B. friends who go without food for a long time together
23. Which of the following titles BEST reflects the content C. friends who are not easily separated from each other
of the passage? D. friends who spend too much time and energy on
A. A market scene pleasure and excitement together
B. Trading in the market
C. An African market scene 37. My son has just been rusticated from the university.
D. An African shopping centre. A. sent home to get his fees
B. sent home for misconduct
24. Which of the following statements BEST illustrates the C. sent home to rest for sometime
impression the writer has created about the market? D. sent home to become rustic
A. An old, timeless and scantily populated place
B. A place people come to for business or pleasure 39. All we need is a concerted effort to combat the epidemic.
C. An old, crowded and discarded place A. persistent B. dramatic C. joint D. concentrated
D. A place for all types of wares and laughter.
39. Jimoh has cupboard love for Sidikatu
25. Which of the following groups of items may be found A. love that never fails
for sale in the market? B. genuine love
A. Motor-car tyres, eggs and gold trinkets C. love for what he wants from her
B. Eggs, sandals and gold trinkets D. love that can fail in time of trouble
C. Country cloth, gold trinkets and sandals
D. Country cloth, copper trinkets and eggs. 40. Yahaya hardly knows on which side his bread is
buttered in the matter.
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE A. where his interest lies
B. what he must do
In question 26 to 35 choose the option opposite in meaning to C. where he should go
the word(s) in italics D. whom to contact for help.

26. Our government is making determined efforts to eradicate 41. The preacher is under a cloud among the congregation.
illiteracy. A. out of favour B. under observation
A. compulsory B. ineffective C. innocent D. unreliable. C. under weather D. confused

27. Makerere University has a large intake of students 42. The politician played to the gallery to win the election.
each year. A. obeyed the people
A. rejection B. product C. output D. turn-out. B. sang a good song for the people
28. Florence flogged the girl reluctantly. C. went to the gallery
A. eagerly B. calmly C. furiously D. laboriously D. went out of his way to appeal to the taste of the
people.
29. Sola’s car is badly damaged; he has to look for an expert 43. The hefty warder came in and all the prisoners snuffed
mechanic to fix it. out their cigarettes.
A. uneducated B. amateurish C. awkward D. unscientific. A. extinguished B. put out C. squeezed D. put down

30. Coastal plains are often very densely populated. 44. The popularity of the slogan is beginning to wane.
A. weakly B. badly C. rarely D. sparsely A. wear B. slide C. thin out D. decline

31. Wilfred was a mindless criminal. 45. The policeman looked at the face of robber and saw
A. strong B. mindful C. feeling D. memorable. tell-tale sign of a dyed-in-the-wool convict.
A. hardened B. remorseless C. heady D. hardhearted
32. The judge blamed the plaintiff for misleading the court.
46. ‘Marcus bears watching;’ remarked Emperor Nero.
A. defendant B. complainant C. accused D. prosecution.
A. deserves B. needs C. favours D. enjoys
33. The thieves vandalized the vault’s lock. 47. The senior perfect had to carry the can because he refused
A. repaired B. arranged C. serviced D. actuated. to identify the culprit
A. dispose the can of refuse
B. accept responsibility
C. be made one of the scape-goats C. honest completely
D. bear the brunt D. completely honestly

48. The senator had the habit of setting the cat among the 60. The suspect defrauded his … victims of large sums of
pigeons whenever matters concerning his constituency money.
came up for debate A. unsuspected B. unsuspecting
A. illuminating issues that are not clear C. unexpecting D. unexpected
B. monopolizing the discussion
C. making frequent interruptions in the nature of 61. The … of the participating countries will hold a pre-
points of correction conference on the eve of the conference.
D. introducing elements of controversy and confusion A. Auditor Generals B. Auditor General
C. Auditors General D. Auditors Generals
49. Adah has not been regular at lectures because she has
been off colour. 62. The drummers struck their drums with great efforts, and
A. gloomy B. trying to hider her bleached skin the surging crowds of dancers … the grounds around
C. slightly sick D. upset the palace.
A. strutted/thumped B. kicked/stamped
50. When the man lost his two sons in a motor accident, he C. thumped/licked D. stroke/thumped
cracked up.
A. became broken-hearted 63. The chairman’s laughter was with no … to ridicule the
B. became inconsolable applicant.
C. became slightly daranged A. intention B. intend C. intendment D. intent
D. became temperamental
64. The water is not good for drinking; it’s been …. by the
51. The news of his performance in the sessional dead rabbit.
examination has made Okechukwu crestfallen. A. contaminated B. infested C. spoilt D. diseased
A. highly irritable B. dejected C. elated D. pompous
65. The austerity of the times has made people to be more
52. The man rebuked his son severely, but his words seem … in their spending
to have cut no ice. A. watchful B. circumspect C. miserly D. hesitant
A. been unconvincing
B. had no effect 66. Are you sure he prefers a horse ride … a walk?
C. not cooled the boy’s temper A. than to take B. to taking C. instead of take D. than
D. added insult to injury
67. … to your request, we have decided to provide the
53. The urban environment tends to form the nucleus of a necessary information
common dialect A. As regards B. With regards C. With regard D. Regarding
A. setting B. respository C. cell D. core
68. The price of everything seems to have … up in the last
54. I shall be with you presently few months.
A. now B. in a moment A. climbed B. shot C. risen D. flared
C. at present D. for the time being
69. Just to convince you about my commitment to the project.
55. The builder’s taste reflected superflous grandeur I shall … at the office before I leave for Kano tomorrow.
A. excellent B. superlative C. expensive D. too much A. put up an appearance B. put in an appearance
C. put up appearance D. put an appearance
In question 56-100 choose the word(s) or phras which best fills
the gap(s). 70. There was a ... of steps.
A. stair B. height C. flight D. climb.
56. The child’s recent training has not been very effective,
he is likely to … to his old habits. 71. Many young men of nowadays do not know how to
A. revert B. convert C. reverse D. revise properly …. their clothes.
A. press B. iron C. smoothen D. stretch.
57. The students went on whispering in … of the teacher.
A. dishonour B. disagreement 72. The dancers were all in … before their departure.
C. defiance D. disobedience A. good spirits B. good spirit C. high spirit D. high spirits
73. Ebun … the edge of the cliff after his shoes had failed to
58. You can never find Okwu; he is a very … person.
grip.
A. delusive B. elusive C. illusive D. disceptive
A. fell down B. fell off C. fell away D. fell from.
59. You could see that: Akpan did not give theevidence … 74. That old lady prefers … bread … clothes
A. honestly completely A. to bake/than making B. to bake/to making
B. complete honestly
C. baking/to making D. baking/than to make A. to worry B. for worrying
C. worrying D. to have worried
75. I wonder how much …
A. cost these earrings 89. If you don’t want to … your car to robber, then don’t
B. do these earrings cost travel in the night.
C. are these earrings costing A. loose B. loss C. lose D. lost
D. these earrings cost.
90. The beautiful plan made for the expansion of the
76. The college authorities have … the students to end the business fell … as soon as the manager died.
strike. A. down B. out C. in D. through
A. called for B. called on C. called D. called at.
91. The events reported in the newspaper did not happen
77. I have been trying to locate you … years ago; they …
A. since five days B. five days now A. are of recent B. had happened recently
C. since five days now D. for five days. C. are recent D. recently happened

78. The host insisted on … what he called ‘a little gift.’ 92. There is no point getting upset by problems; I take them …
A. me to accept B. me accepting A. in my stride
C. my accepting D. my acceptance. B. on the spur of the moment
C. by leaps and bounds
79. The whole class looked forward to … Kainji Dam at D. in a jiffy.
Christmas.
A. visiting B. visit C. be visiting D. a visit 93. There is no need to stand … ceremony in matters of this
nature.
80. A government spokesman announced that efforts … the A. by B. to C. on D. for
release of the hostages are continuing.
A. to obtain B. in obtaining C. for obtaining 94. The driver will … all the students interested in going to
D. of obtaining Lagos tomorrow at 7.am outside the main buildings.
A. lift B. lift up C. pick D. pick up.
81. I know you think I’m talking nonsense, Shehu, but …
you’ll realize that I was right. 95. What bothered me about the lecture was the speaker …
A. at one time B. on time C. in time D. at times too many irrelevant words.
A. slighted B. sighted C. sited D. cited.
82. The Inspector of Education who made several trips on
the bad roads returned yesterday completely … by fever. 96. The students were suspended because they were …
A. brought down B. put down A. indisciplined B. undisciplined
C. worn down D. worn off C. undiscipled D. disciplinary

83. The vice principal asked the students to always … their 97. We heard the … of brakes which was followed by a
answers only from the textbooks recommended for the crashing noise.
course. A. screaming B. screeching
A. look out B. search out C. look up D. bring up. C. scrapping D. streaking

84. I know that your friend will not accept the proposal … 98. I had not given the question a thought before; my answer
A. and you neither B. and neither you came …
C. neither do you D. neither will you. A. momentarily B. in an instant
C. on the spur of the moment
85. Mark is a very handsome fellow who informs me that he D. just like that
has … for pretty girls.
A. a heart B. a lip C. an eye D. a check. 99. The small girl is … than her elder sister.
A. more cleverer B. very cleverer
86. Wale Agun, in creating his characters, draws freely … C. much cleverer D. much more cleverer.
his experience in life.
A. by B. in C. on D. of 100. … are good friends.
A. He and I B. I and him C. I and he D. He and me
87. When I have an appointment with someone, I hate …
waiting
A. to be keeping B. for being
kept
C. being kept D. in being kept.

88. It’s no good … about the result until you have sat for the
examination.
Use of English 1989

COMPREHENSION B. The stranger came by bus

C. Shola and her father were idle when the stranger came
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that D. Shola’s father measured the stranger from head to foot.
follow.
PASSAGE II
PASSAGE I I am always amazed when I hear people saying that sport
As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was creates goodwill among nations, and that if only the common
handsome and her excitement increased. It was of such a man peoples of the world could meet one another at football or squash,
she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant carriage, like a soldier or they would have no inclination to meet on the battle field. even
someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier, he if one didn’t know from concrete examples (the 1936 Olympic
addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the Games, for instance) that international sporting contests lead to
voluptuous rising of the tide had done. orgies of hatred, one could deduce it from general principles.
‘You’re Tunde Onu, I’m told’, he said to her father. Nearly all the sports practiced nowadays are competitive. You
‘That’s right,’ said her father. play to win, and the game has little meaning unless you do your
‘The bus conductor told me you take people to the islands’, utmost to win. On the village green, where you pick up sides
the man continued. ‘I’d like to go there if you can take me,’ and no feeling of local patriotism is involved, it is possible to
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly play simply for the fun of it and exercise; but as soon as the
measuring his capacity to pay. Then he said: question of prestige arises, as soon as you feel that you and
‘When were you thinking of going?’ some larger unit will be disgraced if you lose, the most savage
‘Right away’ combative instincts are aroused. Anyone who has played even
‘That’s a different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry in a school football match knows this. At the international level,
and he won’t be back before nightfall. sport is frankly a mimic warfare. But the significant thing is not
‘Oh!’ said the stranger. ‘That’s too bad. You couldn’t the behaviour of the players but the attitude of the spectators;
get someone else instead of him?’ and, behind the spectators, of the nations who work themselves
‘I would have to think hard’, he said gloomily, ‘for it’s into furies over these absurd contests and seriously believe-at
not everyone would do for the job of going with me any rate for short period-that running, jumping and kicking a
beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year’ ball are tests of national virtue.
Shola understood her father’s manoeuvre and felt ashamed. Even a leisurely game demanding grace rather than
strength can cause much ill-will. Football, a game in which
1. How would you describe Shola’s father? everyone gets hurt and every nation has its own style of play is
A. A greedy boatman far worse. Worst of all is boxing. One of the most horrible sights
B. An energetic but good-for-nothing man in the world is a fight between white and coloured boxers before
C. A loving father who wants to safeguard the a mixed audience.
interest of his daughter
D. A talkative fool. 6. The 1936 Olympic Games was cited in the passage as an
2. Which of the following is NOT true of the passage? example to show that sports can
A. Shola did not approve of her father’s behaviour A. lead to excessive hatred
towards the stranger B. create goodwill among nations
B. Shola’s father could row the stranger to the C. generate feelings of national prestige
islands alone had he so wished D. make people meet on the battle field.
C. Shola’s father exaggerated the difficulties in
order to raise his fee 7. According to the passage,
D. Shola had recently been disturbed by the tide. A. all the sports practiced nowadays are competitive
B. games have meaning only when the participants
3. Which of the following is true of the stranger in the passage? play to win
A. He was a proud and good looking man with a C. it is possible to play a game simply for the fun of it
deep voice that annoyed Shola D. on the local green, you play not to win but for the fun of it.
B. He was familiar with the people of the islands
C. He was a fine gentleman in need of help 8. Boxing is regarded as the worst game in the passage because
D. He was too proud to reciprocate Shola’s love. A. of the behaviour of the boxers themselves
B. of the amount of ill-will that can be generated
4. ‘Manoeuvre’ in the passage means among spectators of different races
A. shrewdness B. cleverness C. stupidity D. strategy C. of the ill-will that can be generated by a game
that demands strength from the competitors
5. Which of the following is true of the passage? D. it is a game in which both players get hurt rather
A. The stranger was in a bad mood badly.
9. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to
12. As the narrator watched the snake, his feeling changed
the passage?
to those of
A. Running, jumping and kicking a ball are tests of
A. anger and apathy
national virtue
B. antipathy and perplexity
B. At the national level, sport is frankly a mimic
C. perplexity
warfare
D. angry bewilderment.
C. The most savage combative instincts are aroused
by anyone who has played in a school football match
13. The act of the snake was described as ‘fatal’ because the
D. Nations work themselves up because they tend
snake’s attack was going to
to believe that sports are tests of national virtue.
A. be fatal to the plant
10. ‘Mimic’ as used in the passage, means B. make the coiled body not to support itself upon
A. comic B. silent C. imitated D. practiced the narrow ledge
C. result in the crippling of the snake
PASSAGE III
D. result in no possible recovery.
His eyes widened as they fell upon something strange.
Something was moving slowly and cautiously along the gutter.
14. Which of the following statements is NOT true according
The pale yellow and brown of the snake’s body glistened like a
to the passage?
stream of flowing metal. By what mistake had the creature strayed
A. Osun was not an active observer in the combat
into this unlikely place? Impossible to say. Yet there it was; and
between the snake and the little plant.
its slow movements betrayed uneasiness and confusion.
B. The moves of the little plant during the
As he watched it, his instinctive antipathy melted away.
encounter with the snake were not
He could understand so well what the snake was feeling. He
voluntary.
entered into its cold, narrow intelligence and shared its angry
C. The attack of the plant during the combat was
perplexity. Its movements were cramped, its advance difficult,
entirely to blame for the fall of the snake.
and it was in constant danger of slipping over the edge. Now
D. During the combat, the behaviour of the plant
and then it lay still in dull reflection, nursing a cold anger that
could be likened to that of a human being.
could find no vent.
Meanwhile, the little plant bent downwards by every puff
15. The ‘fight’ between the plant and the snake was
of wind, was beating its thin twigs against the gutter like a birch.
prompted by
The snake seemed not to see the plant. It moved forward until a
A. the plant B. Osun C. the wind D. the snake
light touch from the twigs fell upon its head. At this, it stopped
and lifted its neck. The little plant was now doing no more than
lightly sway and dip. The snake, its head still reared, waited,
PASSAGE IV
flickering tongue. One could feel the angry heaving and straining
In the past, famine, various types of diseases, and
in the sluggish brain-the dull red anger waiting to explode. Then
natural disasters checked population growth in many countries.
came a strong gust sweeping along the wall, and at once the
At that time, man had not learnt to till the soil sufficiently to
twigs thrashed down upon the furious head-thrashed down and
improve and increase her yield. Man was unable to do much to
beat it with a movement that seemed to Osun both comic and
conquer these diseases; and natural disasters were regarded as
dreadful: in a flash, the head reared itself higher, the neck drew
a curse of the gods for which man had no answer. Thus, famine,
back, and there was a lunge at the twigs and the empty air. O
diseases, and natural disasters remained a nightmare to mankind.
fatal act! To strike, the snake had been obliged to coil, and its
With the present developments in technology and
coiled body could not support itself upon the narrow ledge. No
modern agriculture, one would have thought that the problem of
recovery was possible; it overbalanced and fell with a thud upon
starvation should have been solved. But starvation still stares
a small flat roof fifty feet below. There, Osun saw the creature
man in the face. The increase in population now accounts for
begin to writhe in agony. It could do not more than twist and
the consequent scarcity of food experienced in many parts of
turn upon the same spot.
the world. However, in some countries, man’s advancement in
Osun was trembling, but beneath his agitation there
technology and medicine has rapidly increased the population
was a deep, troubled wonder. Here was the little plant now
while improved methods of agriculture and food preservation
waving with a kind of jaunty cynicism. And there was the snake
have caused a steady rise in food production. Also, man can
writhing in agony. The world, unquestionably, was a place of
now effectively prevent and cure most diseases in the world.
mystery and horror. This was revealed in the writhing of the Unfortunately, the working population engaged in
crippled snake and in the jaunty waving of the innocent plant n agriculture is so small that it cannot produce enough to satisfy
the wind. the gaping mouths to be fed. In various parts of the world, man
11. The snake was referred to as ‘something strange’ because the has engaged himself in various jobs in order to adjust the food
A. movement of the snake along the gutter was production to match the growing population of his zone, but
slow and cautious population growth continues to outstrip food production
B. movement of the snake betrayed strange measures. Incidentally, the source of food and food preservation
uneasiness and confusion measures can be limited unlike population growth which may
C. colour of the snake’s body was an unusual not be effectively checked. Perhaps the only effective checks to
stream of flowing metal population explosion may be the drastic birth control measures.
D. environment in which the snake was found But many religious sects the world over are opposed to many of
was unusual these birth control measures.
16. In this passage ‘nightmare’ means
23. The central point being stressed in the passage is that
A. a terrifying or deeply distressing dream
A. nuclear war is inevitable in the Third Worldcountries
B. natural disasters
B. nuclear war is imminent in the Third World countries
C. all those hazards which made life hideous
C. a country does not have to be industrialized before
D. a curse
being concerned with nuclear matters
D. the aggressive forces of the world are ready to carry
17. Natural disasters were regarded as a curse of the goods the nuclear battle into the developing nations.
on mankind because man
A. had no satisfactory solution to natural disasters 24. According to the author, current world developments point
B. had not learnt to till the soil sufficiently to
C. was suffering from the woes pronounced on A. an exclusive destruction of the developing countries
mankind by the gods B. a likely spread of nuclear calamity to the Third World
D. could not send a reply to the gods. C. nuclear exchange taking place in Africa, Asia and
Latin America
18. ‘But starvation still stares man in the face’ means starvation D. a confrontation between the industrialized and the
A. looks at the face of man developing countries.
B. is inevitable to man
C. flies in the face of man 25. From this passage, we learn that nuclear exchange in
D. still afflicts man. the Northern Hemisphere would be
A. inconceivable B. inevitable C. fatal to mankind
19. The working population engaged in agriculture cannot D. partially destrutive.
feed the teeming population sufficiently because
A. there are gaping mouths to be fed LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
B. they do not produce what they like to eat
C. there are not enough people engaged in tilling In questions 26 to 35, choose the option opposite in meaning to
the soil the word(s) in italics.
D. improved methods of agriculture have not brought
about a significant increase in food production. 26. The government is making concerted efforts at
providing essential social facilities in the rural areas.
20. Drastic birth control measures may not be effective A. dissipated B. unconcerned C. unsuccessful
checks to population explosion since many religious sects D. uncontrolled.
A. are disinclined to oppose their use
B. object to the use of many of them 27. The western allies frowned at their enemies’ indiscriminate
C. are disinclined to accept them for use bombing of their territory.
D. want the control measures applied. A. impartial B. selective C. unprovoked D. divided.

PASSAGE V 28. The girl is very intelligent, but her jokes are rather outrageous.
The evidence given so far demonstrates that a nuclear A. offensive B. courageous C. pleasant D. unwholesome.
exchange in the Northern Hemisphere would have an
unavoidable global aftermath making the continued existence of 29. We cannot but talk about his invaluable contributions
mankind impossible anywhere. It is also very improbable that a to the affairs of the society.
nuclear exchange would be confined exclusively to the vicinity A. worthless B. costly C. unrecognized D. incalculable.
of the industrialized states. Current developments indicate that
a nuclear disaster would be carried into the territories of the 30. This average fertility figure, of course, conceals wide
developing countries in Asia, Africa and Latin America. These individual variations among the people
developments include the preparations being made by aggressive A. attracts B. covers C. exposes D. concludes
forces for the armed seizure of the Middle East oilfields, the
nuclear missile deployment in the south of Western Europe, the 31. Men living in an extended family know that they have to be
establishment of military bases for the Rapid Development of responsible for the welfare of some other person’s children.
Forces in North Africa and the Indian Ocean, and the tensions A. extensive B. nuclear C. neutral D. contracted.
in the South Atlantic and the Caribbean. 32. The appearance of the pall-bearers was extremely fascinating
A. magnetic B. unorganized C. interesting D. repulsive.
21. A suitable title for the passage is
A. preparation for Nuclear War on the Third 33. Many miners protested against the order to march into
World Countries the coal pits.
B. Possible Effects of Nuclear War on Third A. strut B. amble C. trudge D. ramble
World Countries 34. The hasty action will bring nothing but discredit to them
C. Strategies for a Nuclear Confrontation A. honour B. shame C. reward D. disgrace
D. The Merits and Demerits of Nuclear Exchange
35. The man’s health has deteriorated in the hospital
22. ‘Aggressive’ in the passage means A. collapsed B. improved C. worsened D. revived.
A. militant B. dissident C. reactionary D. revolutionary.
In question 36 to 65, choose the option nearest in meaning to A. quota B. grain C. evidence D. statement
the word(s) or phrase(s) in italics.
51. The case was thrown out because the court lacked
36. The boss made a clean sweep of all the old hands in the office jurisdiction
A. completely got rid B. cleanly swept the office A. jurors to help the judge B. authority
C. made a quick change D. made an adjustment. C. prosecutors D. appellate powers.

37. Her anxiety was apparent to everyone present at the 52. The chief will launch the fund-raising appeal.
ceremony A. make a speech at B. eat his afternoon meal during
A. real B. visible C. transparent D. unknown C. travel by boat to D. start off.
38. Our experience on board the aircraft is nothing to write
home about. 53. Sade has been employed. But she is unhappy because
A. not remarkable B. not unpleasant it is a run of the mill job.
C. nobody’s business D. not a home affair. A. a boring B. an exciting C. a tiring D. an ordinary

39. The rampage was organized and directed by the 54. I would like to believe that this brilliant performance of
militant ones among the students. yours is not just a flash in the pan.
A. soldiers B. rebellious ones C. belligerent ones A. repeated occurrence B. normal happening
D. commandoes. C. flashy happening D. chance occurrence

40. The governor advised his people to get off the beaten 55. As the wedding day approached, the bride began to
tracks in their approach to community matters. develop cold feet.
A. use the old roads A. fall sick B. feel cold C. be reluctant
B. make the tracks better D. become aggressive
C. find new ways
D. avoid beating about the bush. 56. I told my brother to get the matter off his chest as soon
as possible.
41. It was their custom to keep an open house on Sundays. A. give serious thought to the matter
A. welcome all visitors B. say what he has been anxious to say
B. keep the shutters open C. make a brief comment
C. leave the house open D. state his points clearly.
D. expose the whole house.
57. He has a big heart, but he is inept at following a witty
42. The president made a passionate appeal for calm. conversation.
A. inflamed B. disturbing C. intense D. lively A. large B. huge C. warm D. fragile

43. Mali stole the day’s takings from the bakery 58. The clerk refused to answer for the mistakes made by
A. receipts B. collections C. contributions D. offerings. the manager and his assistants.
A. reply to B. give an answer
44. You do not need to stutter in order to show your excitement C. accept responsibility for D. account for
A. jump about B. shout C. sob D. stammer
59. Most of his observations were wide off the mark
45. What embarrasses me is the stealthy way in which the A. comprehensible B. irrelevant C. pertinent
new servant goes about his duties in this house D. unacceptable.
A. indolent B. furtive C. boisterous D. agile
60. I didn’t think she could be so easily taken in by his pretences.
46. I have never been accustomed to seeing my brother in A. flattered B. deceived C. overcome D. blackmailed.
such a pensive mood
A. merry B. infuriated C. thoughtful D. hostile 61. Do you have the same aversion as I do for war films?
A. bitterness B. dislike C. criticism D. preference
47. The administrator’s apathy was soon noticed by all his
subordinates 62. His summary of the meeting was brief and to the point.
A. indifference B. kindness C. concern D. inefficiency A. precise B. accurate C. exact D. crucial

48. The way he handled the whole issue was rather despicable 63. The minister hit on a plan to retain his post after many
A. disturbing B. likeable C. contemptible D. frustrating months of lobbying.
A. drew up a plan B. discovered a plan
49. The authenticity of the reporter’s claims should be C. selected a plan D. designed a plan
established before taking further actions on the matter
A. facts B. source C. evidence D. genuineness 64. My friend will hate his uncle forever because he left
him in the lurch in his hour of need.
50. After careful investigation, the police found no iota of A abandoned him B. punished him
truth in Ibrahim’s allegations. C. disinherited him D. despised him
A. make up B. make do C. make out D. make good.
65. Our school prefect is too officious and we all hate him
because of his behaviour. 81. ‘Leave me alone’ blurted the angry customer. ‘I cant …
A. efficient B. efficacious C. over-zealous D. active with your price hikes’.
A. make do B. put up C. deal D. make up.
In question 66 to 100, choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which
best fill(s) the gap(s). 82. The committee was disgusted … the way the office was
being run.
66. When I met Amadi yesterday it was the first time I … him A. at B. by C. with D. over.
for six months.
A. had seen B. saw C. have seen D. have been seeing. 83. Many a man … done without milk in … tea these days.
A. had/their B. has/his C. have/their D. had/his.
67. A student’s natural ability should be a … factor in his
choosing a course of study at the university 84. The … car is the center of attraction.
A. determined B. determining C. determinant A. small racing light-green
D. determinate B. racing small light-green
C. small light-green racing
68. Many unrelated issues were touched upon in the … of D. light-green small racing.
the discussion
A. cause B. course C. coarse D. curse. 85. If I had not finished my assignment, I would not … the
opportunity to go with the group
69. The traveller had to run … in order to … the train. A. have been given B. be given C. be giving
A. first/catch B. fast/cash C. fast/catch D. first/cash. D. have been giving.

70. When the driver lost control of his vehicle, the 86. You had better … what the doctor recommended this
pedestrians began to run for … morning
A. their dear lives B. their dear life C. dear lives D. dear life. A. done B. do C. did D. be doing.

71. My uncle is one of the … of the society. 87. … with him for two years, I cannot guarantee his good
A. elitists B. elites C. elite D. elitist behaviour.
A. To work B. Having worked C. To have worked
72. The new singlet factory is built on the … of Aba township D. By working.
A. outstretch B. outskates C. outskirts D. outskirt
88. This is the kind of stew …
73. If Kaka hadn’t tried to stand up in the boat, he … into A. which its taste I do not like
the lake. B. which I do not like the taste of it
A. wouldn’t have fallen B. will not have fell C. of which taste I do not like
C. will not have fallen D. wouldn’t have fell. D. the taste of which I do not like.

74. The soldiers were sufficiently equipped with … 89. … is always superior to any other in town.
A. arms and ammunition B. arms and ammunitions A. There’s B. Theirs C. Their’s D. There.
C. arm and ammunitions D. arm and ammunitions.
90. I looked for you all over the campus but I could not … you
75. My younger brother is going to the stream with … boys. A. find B. see C. meet D. catch.
A. two other little B. other little two C. two little other
D. other two little. 91. The manager was angry with Dauda for … seeds of
discord among the workers.
76. Okoro intends to wear his … dress to the zoo this afternoon. A. planting B. sewing C. cultivating D. sowing
A. white cotton new B. white new cotton 92. The government has provided new … for the local
C. new white cotton D. cotton white new government polls.
A. guard lines B. guide lines C. guardlines D. guidelines.
77. Sociologists are concerned with the problem of man in …
A. a society B. the society C. society D. some society. 93. Tsado and his wife are always fighting. The … to be
drawn from this is that they are not happy together.
78. The contractors were short … cash even before the A. reference B. inference C. difference D. deference
project was completed.
A. in B. for C. with D. of 94. The teacher invited Akpan and … to his office
A. myself B. me C. I D. himself.
79. The judge acquitted the accused … all the eight counts.
A. of B. on C. from D. upon 95. One of the rioters who … arrested yesterday … released.
A. was/had been B. were/have been C. was/have been
80. If we go hunting this week-end, we’ll have to … with D. were/has been.
scratch meals and sleep in a hut in the forest.
96. Although I am watching television, I … what you are A. mature/mature B. matured/mature
saying C. mature/matured D. matured/matured.
A. am hearing B. can hear C. have heard D. was hearing
99. Our manager has instructed that … of customers must
97. Because of the …he did to my car, I am going to sue him be barred from our bank.
for … A. those type B. that type C. that types D. this types.
A. damage/damages B. damages/damage
C. damages/damages D. damage/damage 100. He regarded the betrayal of his friend as a stab…the back
A. on B. at C. in D. from
98. He was not a very … student when I first met him but
the years … his character ultimate.

Use of English 1990

COMPREHENSION B. elephants are dangerous animals

C. no young Emopa attracts a girl’s admiration
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that until he has killed a dangerous animal
follow. D. when elephants are sighted, there is great excitement
and fierce competition among the young men.
PASSAGE I
As a rule the Emopa are very brave indeed, and are 2. The legend that the lions were invulnerable was
among the few Africans who still hunt lion with the spear. They confirmed by the fact that
also kill elephants, not for food but for spear blooding, or to A. the local Emopa petitioned a ‘holy man’ to
prove their manhood. When elephants are located, there is come and exorcize the spirits
great excitement and fierce competition among the young men. B. many famous hunters had tried without
Each tries to be the first to blood his spear: the one who does so, success in the past to kill the lions
claims the trophy. No young man is looked upon with favour by C. the ‘holy man’ failed in his bid to exorcise the spirits
the girls until he has won his spurs by killing a dangerous animal. D. brave as the Emopa are, the lions completely
But brave as the Emopa are, two fierce man-eaters overawed them.
completely overawed them. This was partly due to the cunning
and boldness of the lions, partly to the fact that, when hunted, 3. The lions played the game of ‘baw’ because
they would always retreat into dense riverine undergrowth, where A. they wanted to raid a village
it was impossible for a man to poise and throw a spear. Super- B. it was a popular game of unknown antiquity
stitution had also added its quota to the fear with which they played all over Africa
were regarded. It was said that before starting off on a raid the C. they want to decide whether to go on a raid or not
lions would retire to an open sandy place and there make two D. if the omens were good they would raid a
rows of depressions in the sand with their paws. Then, using village and claim a victim.
twigs as counters, they would play the ancient game of ‘baw’ (a
game of unknown antiquity, which resembles draughts and is 4. The famous hunters failed to kill the lions because the
played all over Africa). If the omens were good they would raid A. lions were regarded as supernatural beings
a village and claim a victim; if not, they would wait. Another B. lions were cunning and bold
story had it that the lions were the spirits of two ‘holy men’ who C. Emopa used the spear to hunt for the lions
had now come back in this shape to seek their revenge. So D. hunters did not have enough time.
strongly was this view held that the local Emopa had petitioned
a practicing ‘holy man’ to come from a great distance to exorcise 5. According to the passage, which of the following is
the spirits. He came with book, bell and candle and charged a NOT a superstitious reason for fearing the lions?
fee of a hundred goats, but the lions continued their A. Many famous hunters had tried and failed to kill
depredations. To add to the legend of the lions’ invulnerability the lions
many famous hunters had tried on previous occasions to kill B. The lions were bold and when hunted, they would
them and had failed owing to lack of time. This confirmed the retreat to where a spear could not be thrown at them.
Emopa’s opinion that the lions were supernatural beings and C. The lions were the spirits of two ‘holy men’ who
that it was useless to hunt them. came back to seek their revenge.
1. The young men of Emopa would hunt for elephants because D. The lions played the ancient game of ‘baw’ before
A. they are among the few Africans that hunt lions starting on a raid to determine whether to proceed
with a spear or wait.
PASSAGE II aware that there is any alternative. In a study made in Thailand,
By the time a child has reached the age of two years, it was noted that the literate woman marries later and ceases
the psychologist says that he is ‘self-conscious’. This is not childbearing earlier than her non-literate counterpart. But the
the same as the lay use of the term, although there is a latter is so chained to her household by the necessities of
connection. The psychologist means that the child is aware gathering fuel, preparing food and tending children that she is
that he is a self and not an extension of his mother. This awareness very difficult to reach, even if health services, nutrition,
is shown in such behavioural acts as disobedience and the use education, maternal and child health centers are available in her
of the word ‘no’ with emphasis, because the child is aware that community. She does not understand what they are intended to
he does not have to obey parental commands. Parental do.
(Adapted from Margot Higgins: War on Hunger).
commands (moral imperatives) are given throughout these two
years first for the child’s own safety e.g. ‘Don’t touch the fire
and secondly, so that he begins to develop some sense of right 11. The phrase ‘a dismal picture’ means
and wrong. An adult is able to weigh the consequences of his A. a dull show B. an interesting show
actions, partly because he has developed a concept of idea of C. a sad situation D. a dreadful appearance.
time. The young child lacks this concept and is governed by
immediate desires which must be fulfilled. Thus in some 12. According to the writer, most girls in less developed
situations, he can be excused for not behaving morally, i.e., countries are not in school because
making the choice which is ‘good’ for himself and others. In A. they refuse to be educated
other situations, he knows what is right and chooses not to do B. they prefer getting married and having children
it. Immature adults can also behave in this self-centred way. C. the education of boys is rated higher
D. the girls have no employment opportunities
6. The immature adult is like the child because after leaving school.
A. he has just become self-conscious
B. he has learnt to use the word ‘no’ 13. The non-literate woman is very difficult to reach because she
C. he has no concept of time A. does not understand the value of education
D. some of his actions are deliberately irrational. and health services
B. is too far from the city and from school
7. What main difference is mentioned between the child C. is not permitted to go out to attend clinics for
and the adult? health services
A. Age difference B. Weight difference D. can only gather fuel and prepare food.
C. Time difference D. Developmental difference.
14. The phrase ‘too late’ as used in the passage implies
8. What right has the mother to give orders to the child? that the woman
A. She is the ‘owner’ of the child. A. ought to have started producing children earlier
B. She is stronger than the child. B. goes on producing children when she ought
C. She understands the environment better than the child.
to have stopped
D. She is more self-conscious than the child. C. fails to marry early enough for her to produce children
D. had all her children at an advanced age.
9. The two-year old child begins to refuse orders
A. in order to annoy his parents 15. The writer emphasizes that in less developed countries,
B. because he does not understand them A. the education of girls is not important
C. to assert his independence B. the non-literate woman has some advantage
D. because he has just learnt the new word ‘no’. because she has more children
10. What kind of awareness does the child demonstrate at two?
C. the literate female is a threat to the male in employment
A. That he does not love his mother D. there is a need to give boys and girls equal
B. Consciousness of all things around him opportunities in education.
C. That he should think of himself alone
D. That he is different and separate from others. PASSAGE IV
The importance of the code theory in education lies in
PASSAGE III the fact that the school system requires the use of an elaborated
If we examine the opportunities for education of girls code but not all students have access to it. the importance of
or women in less developed countries, we usually find a dismal this theory to sociology lies in the fact that the differential access
picture. In some countries, the ratio of boys to girls in secondary to the elaborated code does not occur randomly but rather is
schools is more than seven to one. what happens to the girls? controlled by the class system. Lower working-class urban
Often they are kept at home to look after younger siblings and to children tend to have a restricted code. Middle-class children
perform a variety of domestic chores. Their education is not possess both a restricted and an elaborated code. The two
perceived as in any way equal in importance to that of boys. groups enter into different types of relationships and learn to
When a non-literate or barely literate girl reaches adolescence, express themselves in different ways through language. They
she has little or no qualification for employment, even if her do not use language for the same functions, some of which, it
community provides any opportunity for the employment of seems, are necessary for the school situation. When the lower
women. The solution is to get her married as soon as possible, working-class child is expected implicitly to exploit language for
with the inevitable result that she produces children too soon, functions he normally does not express verbally, a discontinuity
too often and too late. With no formal education, she is hardly is created between his home and his school environment. He
has learned to verbalize certain range of meanings in his home soldier looked at the volume and remarked, ‘A book? What’s the
and when he enters school, another range of meanings is point? I’ve already got one!’
required. There is, then a very subtle, but nonetheless very real,
sense in which what is taught is personally irrelevant for this 21. Books are different from other goods because
child. The school system does not talk to him. Middle class A. customers for the book trade are much restricted
children, possessing both codes, experience no such B. books are not manufactured but printed
discontinuity. They can use language for those functions C. one cannot tell so easily which books will
required by the school. prove saleable
D. books can be kept in stock much longer than
other goods.
16. An appropriate title for this passage is
A. Language and Education B. Education and Sociology 22. The problem of selection in the book trade involves
C. Codes and Sociology D. Codes and Education A. holding a stock large enough for the public to
choose from
B. determining which books will sell fast
17. The groups of children mentioned as examples in the C. being a sales representative of large publishing houses
passage are D. being able to review the latest publications.
A. rural and urban working-class and middle-class
B. urban working-class and rural middle-class 23. How many solutions to the bookseller’s problems are
C. urban working-class and rural and urban middle-class offered in this passage?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
D. urban middle class and rural and urban working-
class. 24. Of the solutions proposed for the bookseller’s
problems, how many are actually positive?
18. ‘Restricted code’ and ‘elaborated code’ are A. Two B. Three C. Four D. None.
A. synonyms B. homonyms C. contradictions D. antonyms
25. The story of the old soldier and a book in the passage
is an illustration of the point that
19. It can be assumed reasonably that language has A. the general had already got a book
A. only one code B. a book is of interest only to those to whom
B. two codes that book means something
C. three codes, two used for education C. soldiers do not like the book trade because a
book is enough for a general
D. more than three codes, but only two used for education.
D. booksellers face a real dilemma because of a
constantly changing clientele.
20. ‘The school system does not talk to him’ means that the
A. teachers do not talk to him LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
B. teachers talk to him differently from the way
In each of questions 26 to 36, choose the option opposite in
other pupils do meaning to the word in italics.
C. headmaster and teachers do not talk to him
D. teachers talk to him differently from the way 26. The policeman was asked to investigate the matter.
he is talked to at home. A. ask about B. forget about C. examine D. inquire about
27. Lola was agitated when the sad news of her mother’s
accident was broken to her.
PASSAGE V A. excited B. clam C. uncontrollable D. unreasonable
This passage sums up the two problems peculiar to the 28. Through his parents’ poverty placed many obstacles
book trade which make it different from any other trade – the in his path as a young man, Olu succeeded at last.
problem of selection and the problem of stocking. How is the A. hurdles B. advantages C. temptations D. diversions.
bookseller to tell what, in an enormous output, will prove saleable, 29. Binta sobbed by the door because she had lost her mother’s
before the full weight of unsold items affects the balance of his precious necklace.
business, and how is he, at the same time, to hold a stock large A. cried B. smiled C. wept D. laughed.
enough to enable the public to choose freely? He may seek to
escape from this dilemma by becoming the passive sales 30. The president took exception to the ignoble role the
young man played in the matter.
representative of large publishing houses or distribution A. honourable B. embarrassing C. dishonourable
networks, but he is then no longer a book seller. He may take D. extraordinary.
refuge in the sale of safe items to a restricted circle of customers,
but he thereby cuts himself off from all that is vital in his trade 31. The man who had been seriously ill was convalescing
and dooms himself to mediocrity and stagnation. On the other at a sea-side resort
A. regaining health B. deteriorating in health
hand, he may protect his business from the danger of idle stock C. recuperating D. relaxing.
by speculating on the latest publications, but this is a dangerous
game in that it implies a constantly changing clientele: readers 32. For millions of years, the world’s resources have
remain faithful to their own discoveries and failure to follow up remained boundless.
a book, an author or a type of literature means dismissing the A. unlimited B. scarce C. indomitable D. limited.
public responsible for their success. 33. It seems fashionable, in some quarters today, to decry
This brings us back to the fact that books are examinations and the ability to pass them.
undefinable. The story is told of a certain country with a great A. extol B. abuse C. entreat D. discourage
many generals where it was decided to present a rare and valuable
edition of an old book to a general about to retire. The old
34. Ogedegbe was an intrepid fighter for human freedom 51. Ngozi spoke to her father quite candidly on her
and dignity proposed marriage
A. timid B. half-hearted C. fearless D. undaunted. A. rudely B. faithfully C. frankly D. respectfully.

35. The difference between the experimental procedures was 52. The secretary was advised to put on a cheerful disposition
imperceptible to me. whenever the manager arrives.
A. negligible B. significant C. obvious D. obscure A. a good dress B. a smiling face C. a happy look
D. good make-up.
36. His antipathy to religious ideas makes him unpopular
A. remedy B. consciousness C. hostility D. receptiveness. 53. The cereal is fortified with multi-vitamins.
A. enriched B. prepared C. endowed D. mixed.
In each of questions 37 to 55, choose the option nearest in
meaning to the word or phrase in italics. 54. The lawyer told the court some unsavoury details about
the case.
37. The boss told the man to let sleeping dogs lie. A. unworthy B. unintelligible C. unpleasant
A. not to look for trouble D. uninteresting.
B. not to disturb other people
C. let the dogs sleep well 55. The professor’s thesis was the precursor of nuclear
D. let the trouble begin. studies.
A. preliminary B. climax C. developer D. forerunner.
38. The fact that Ruth has inherited her late husband’s house
is cold comfort to her In each of questions 56 to 100, choose the word(s) or phrase(s)
A. appropriate comfort B. inadequate comfort which best fill(s) the gap(s).
C. no comfort at all D. wet comfort
56. Why do you worry about such … Matters?
39. The headmaster decided to make good his promise to A. insignificant B. significant C. non-significant
the students. D. unsignificant.
A. fulfill B. improve C. complete D. realize
57. It was difficult to … a man walking on the moon two centuries
40. The advertisement served as a smoke-screen for the A. contrive B. perceive C. conceive D. imagine
activities of the company 58. This section of the test will … questions on set passages
A. a camouflage B. a protection C. an enhancement A. consist B. comprise of C. contain D. carry
D. an exchange.
59. Animals in …. behave differently from animals living in
41. My plans are still up in the air. the natural habitat.
A. being publicized B. uncertain C. uncovered A. prison B. bondage C. captivity D. slavery.
D. unprotected.
60. After months of tedious climbing, the team reached the
42. The judge always takes a hardline on such issues … of the mountain
A. complex stand B. simple stand A. end B. summit C. height D. terminal.
C. uncompromising stand D. difficult stand.
61. After Jerry had made the bed, he … on it.
43. The case was dismissed for want of evidence. A. layed B. laid C. lied D. lay
A. for want of facts B. for want of opinions
C. for insufficient discussions D. for lack of proof. 62. Knowledge of figures of speech as well as of idioms and
lexical items………. In this section.
44. That team has become indomitable quite recently. A. is tested B. have been tested C. are tested
A. incorrigible B. disobedient C. unconquerable D. unruly. D. were tested.
63. The buildings damaged by the rainstorm ……….. schools,
45. The flock suddenly became restive after midday. hospitals and private houses.
A. quiet B. submissive C. disorderly D. fidgety A. included B. include C. were included D. was including.
64. I would have been off to see Biola at Festac Town by
46. Your reaction underscores the point I was making. the time you … tomorrow.
A. reveals B. proves wrong C. emphasizes D. justifies. A. returned B. return C. are returning D. would return

47. What he received from the visitor was invaluable 65. The lecturer said that we … be able to finish the next
A. priceless B. worthless C. valueless D. costly. chapter this evening.
A. must B. can C. shall D. should.
48. The potential resources of the university should be
fully exploited. 66. If you want a successful marriage, you … pray for it.
A. important B. latent C. effective D. abundant. A. have better B. better C. had better D. would
better.
49. Tom’s aberrant behaviour attracted attention.
A. rascally B. selfish C. heady D. abnormal 67. I could have agreed with your action if I … not … you
promise to increase he worker’s salaries.
50. A number of people impersonating tax-officials were A. have/heard B. had/heard C. were/haring D. was/hearing.
arraigned before the Chief Magistrate this morning.
A. arranged B. paraded C. moved D. brought. 68. The chemistry teacher seized the girl’s comic … during
the laboratory work.
A. which she had been reading 86. The answers to the questions were discussed … the
B. which she has been reading students.
C. which she had read A. between B. by C. for D. to
D. which she is reading. 87. I can always depend … my father for my survival.
A. on B. in C. upon D. by
69. He … during the whole of last month.
A. was sick B. has been sick C. had been sick D. had sicken. 88. The point … the story is that he is the man’s son.
A. in B. of C. off D. around
70. Ladies and gentlemen, our guest speaker, Dr. Oni …
also a resident doctor at the teaching hospital. 89. The Director is … pains to ensure the success of the
A. who is B. which is C. who was D. is programme.
A. in B. at C. on D. having
71. We are not surprised he was not elected; every one of
his constituents … that he is unreliable. 90. Bola broke … when he heard the news of the arrest of his
A. know B. knows C. will know D. do know twin brother.
A. up B. off C. away D. down
72. I have the … of meeting him.
A. previlege B. privilege C. previledge D. priviledge 91. Yemi said ‘I’m coming’ to her friend Biola who … Was
waiting for her instead of saying …
73. The pastor said ‘lay … your hearts to God’. A. wait for me in a moment B. I will come
A. bier B. bear C. bare D. bar C. I’ll be with you in a moment D. I’ll come now.

74. Now, I am used … Bread without butter. 92. ‘Be that as…we are determined to get to the root of the
A. to eat B. in eating C. of eating D. to eating. matter!’ shouted the officer.
A. you like B. it may C. it would D. it might
75. Dan and Tina met on the ship and greeted …
A. one another B. themselves C. each other D. 93. When the farmers were found guilty of unlawful
theirselves. assembly and procession, their lawyer… before the
sentence was passed.
76. One can no longer take for granted today what … A. begged for mercy B. made a plea for mitigation
enjoyed in the University some years ago, can …? C. made an overture D. made a plea for litigation
A. you/you B. one/one C. he/he D. one/you
94. My price for the pair of shoes is fifty naira. I cannot …
77. Attention has shifted to the teaching of Science anything less than that.
nowadays … the usefulness of the Arts. A. bear with B. settle for C. agree with D. tolerate.
A. in spite of B. not minding C. oblivious to D. forgetting.
95. Aishatu: Could you please give this book to Aminu?
78. … to help him, being the only person in the vicinity. Chidi: Certainly, I … him on something, so it wont be …
A. It was not possible B. There was no one A. I’ll see/anything B. I’ll be seeing/any worry
C. He had nobody D. No person was around. C. I’ll be seeing/any bother D. I can see/any serious.

79. I heard that Kayode’s car was stolen last night. It … be 96. The company representative in Nigeria is a …
true because I saw him… it, this morning. A. smart little Japanese B. little smart Japanese
A. should not/driving B. should not/drive C. smart Japanese little D. little Japanese smart.
C. cannot/drive D. cannot/driving.
97. The shipping company advertised for … accountants.
80. The competitor who … earlier on has started … again A. two young, but highly competent, Nigerian
A. fainted/to run B. had fainted/to run B. young, but highly competent two Nigerian
C. fainted/running D. fainted/on running. C. two Nigerian, young, but highly competent
D. highly competent, but young, two Nigerian.
81. A number of teachers in secondary schools are not so
well disposed to … these days, … they? A. teach/aren’t 98. Let’s have a cup of coffee, …
B. teaching/are C. teach/do D. teach/are A. shall we? B. will we? C. should we? D. could we?

82. If it had rained, we would have had to postpone the 99. No matter to whom I ... nobody in the crowd had a clue
concert. It didn’t rain, so … to what was going out.
A. we won’t have to B. we would have had to A. discussed B. asked C. turned D. contacted
C. we wouldn’t have to D. we didn’t have to.
100. Olu, Akpan and Ovbiagele’s ... make people to believe
83. … all probability, the train will arrive today. that they belong to the same school of thought.
A. In B. Under C. For D. By A. philosophy B. philosophys C. philosophies
D. philososphy’s.
84. We cannot explain his objection … the new law.
A. for B. with C. at D. to.

85. Silk materials ought to be prohibited … being brought

into the country.
A. about B. in C. from D. by
Use of English 1991

COMPREHENSION D. Hearing loss which can be corrected by

medical treatment.
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow. 4. ‘The same thing happened to aviators’ This excerpt
according to the passage means
PASSAGE I A. that riveters were particularly susceptible
The young are not listening to their elders, and perhaps B. industrial and military deafness
they never have. But now it happens that, with many of them, C. that continued loud noise resulted in deafness
the reason may be medical. The young aren’t listening because D. that working in a boiler factory affected one’s
they can’t hear. Just as nagging parents have long suspected, hearing.
otologists (hearing specialists) now report that youngsters are
going deaf as a result of blasting their eardrums with 5. What is the difference between an old-fashioned military
electronically amplified rock ‘n’ roll. band on the one hand and discotheques and rock ‘n’
The hearing specialists used to worry about loud noise roll joints on the other?
as a cause of deafness only in industrial and military situations. A. One is old-fashioned while the other is modern.
They knew that eight hours of daily exposure, year in and year B. One produces sounds for marching, the other
out, to the din of the proverbial boiler factory, would eventually for disco.
result in permanent hearing loss. Riveters were particularly C. One has drums, the other has guitars.
susceptible. Then they learned that the same thing happened to D. One produces amplified sounds, the other
aviators. After the advent of jets, the hazard applied to ground does not.
crews at airports and flight-deck personnel aboard aircraft carriers
– hence the introduction of insulated, noise-absorbing plastic PASSAGE II
earmuffs. The preparation which a study of the humanities can
In discotheques and rock ‘n’ roll joints, the trouble is provide, stems from three observations about education in our
not much in the instruments themselves, or the close quarters. world of accelerating social and technological change. First,
The blame goes to the electronic amplifiers. An old-fashioned with the rate of change, we cannot hope to train our students
military band, playing a march in Ramat Park, generated as much for specific technologies. That kind of vocational education is
sound. But the sound was not amplified and was dissipated in obsolescent. By the time the specific training will have been
the open air. A trombonist sitting in front of a tuba player might completed the world will have moved on.
be a bit deaf for an hour or so after a concert; then his hearing If our education of narrow training, we will not be prepared
returned to normal. A microphone hooked up to a public address to change. Second, and paradoxically, what our students desire
system did not appreciably increase the hearing hazard. What from their education is preparation for specific careers, – business,
he did was multiple microphones and speakers, and the engineering, medicine, computer programming and the like, but
installation of internal microphones in such instruments as we will not be able to train them for a life-long career. Their
guitars and bouzoukis. confronting the depressed job market gives our students a certain
anxiety, but the solution they seek in vocation training is not
1. The young are not listening to their elders because sufficient. Third, we sense in our students a narrowing
A. they never have materialism, with the good life defined in terms of material
B. their parents nag constantly comforts. Education, then means learning to do a job which will
C. they are permanently deaf make money. I see in this definition a limiting sense of what
D. they appear to be going deaf. education and thus life offer, a definition which excludes joy
and meaning. Our approach to the study of the humanities
2. ‘Just as nagging parents have long suspected implies responds to these three related problems. In our changing, yet
that the parents suspected’ that narrowing world, the teaching of the humanities finds one
A. their children did not listen to them powerful justification – it teaches students how to think.
B. children could not hear properly after listening
to amplified music 6. ‘Our world of accelerating social and technological change’
C. otologists were always right means that
D. children were disobedient because they did A. our world is moving too fast socially and technologically
not listen to their parents. B. our world is going through more rapid, social and
technological change
3. What is the result of being subjected to the din of the C. the social and technological change is more exhilarating
proverbial boiler factory for a prolonged length of time? than before
A. loss of hearing which will never improve. D. the social and technological change is accelerating
B. Total deafness eight hours a day. our world.
C. Temporary deafness.
7. What is the major weakness of training students for A. both are out of our control
specific technologies? B. both can accommodate contradictions
A. It trains students for only one type of career. C. neither functions in a continuous manner
B. It helps students to acquire money later when they D. both deal with non-real issues.
are employed.
C. It makes them anxious for a job in the market 13. The child would feel responsible for his mother’s death
D. It cannot help students to cope with the rapid even if it is unconnected with his wishes because
changes in the world. A. he regards his wish as a curse
B. he hates her and wants her deaf
8. ‘We sense in our students a narrowing materialism’ C. his needs are not gratified
means that our students’ concept of education is one that D. he cannot distinguish between wish and reality.
A. prepares them for money, joy and meaning
B. makes them ready to confront the depressed 14. ‘Traumatized’ as used in the passage means
job market A. angered
C. only prepare them to acquire material comforts B. made happy and satisfied
D. trains them for a life-long career. C. made sad and dejected
D. made to feel guilty.
9. According to the writer, a study of the humanities
A. is accepted by present day students as essential 15. From the child’s point of view, in what way is death to a
B. prepares students for specific careers divorce?
C. provides a missing link in the technological A. Both are losses
education of our students B. Both are temporary
D. is the best solution to the problem of C. Both would involve his mother
unemployment. D. He feels responsible in each case.

10. What type of education does the writer advocate for

our students? PASSAGE IV
A. Vocational as well as technological education Undergraduate students in psychology and education
B. Business, engineering, medicine and computer come to their first course in statistics with diverse expectations
programming. of and backgrounds in mathematics. Some have considerable
C. Technological education plus the humanities. formal training and quantitative aptitude and look forward to
D. Technological education only. learning statistics. Other – perhaps the majority, including some
of those who aspire to postgraduate studies – are less confident
PASSAGE III in their quantitative skills. They regard a course in statistics as a
One fact that we have to comprehend is that, in our necessary evil for the understanding or carrying out of research
unconscious mind, we cannot distinguish between a wish and a in their fields, but an evil nonetheless.
deed. We are all aware of some of our illogically dreams in which This third edition, like this predecessor, is directed
two completely opposite statements can exist side by side – primary at the latter audience. It was written with the conviction
very acceptable in our dreams but unthinkable and illogical in that statistical concepts can be described simply without loss of
our walking state. Just as our unconscious mind cannot accuracy and that understanding of statically techniques
differentiate between the wish to kill somebody in anger and the research tools can be effectively promoted by discussing them
act of having done so, the young child is unable to make this within the context of their application to concrete data rather
distinction. The child who angrily wishes his mother to drop than as pure abstractions. Further, its contents are limited to
dead for not having gratified his needs will be traumatized greatly those statically techniques that are widely used in the literature
by the actual death of his mother – even if this event is not of psychology and to the principles underlying them.
linked closely in time with his destructive wishes. He will always The changes that have been made in this edition reflect
take part of or the whole of the blame for the loss of his mother. both the results of our teaching experience and the increasing
He will always say to himself – rarely to others – ‘I did it. I am prominence being given by statisticians to certain topics. Thus
responsible. I was bad, therefore mummy left me.’ It is well to our discussions of some procedures, particularly those in the
remember that the child will react in the same manner if he loses realms of descriptive statistics, which students grasp easily,
a parent by divorce, separation or desertion. have been shortened or rearranged. The treatment of other topics
Death is often seen by a child as an impermanent thing has been expanded. Greater emphasis has been placed on
and has therefore little distinction from a divorce in which he sampling theory, hypothesis testing, and the notion of statistical
may have an opportunity to see a parent again. power.
11. This passage emphasizes
16. The book discussed in this passage is about
A. a child growing up in ignorance
A. psychology and education
B. our unconscious mind
B. mathematics for undergraduate students.
C. a child’s inability to distinguish between
C. quantitative skills for postgraduate studies
dream and reality
D. statistical procedure relating to research.
D. illogical dreams.
17. The expression, ‘necessary evil’ means that
12. Our unconscious minds and dreams are alike in that
A. evil is essential in studying the subject discussed 21. Which of the following titles best sums up the passage?
B. studying the subject is an unpleasant experience A. The need for effective communication
which must be endured B. Breakdown in communication
C. only those who are evil can understand the subject C. Communication in technological societies
D. those lacking in quantitative skills see the D. Bad communication practices.
subject as an evil.
22. According to the passage, which of the following are
18. From the passage, we learn that the book discussed has been NOT likely to contribute to a break-down in
A. reprinted twice B. published three times communication?
C. rewritten three times D. revised twice. A. People’s attitudes and feelings
B. Ambiguously phrased instruction
19. The changes that were made in the book were motivated by C. managements and trade unions
A. a professional experience and popularity of topics D. Management specialists and behavioural scientists.
B. teaching experience and statisticians’ views
of some topics 23. From the text, it can be inferred that a good communicator
C. the examination results of previous needs to
generations of students A. create favourable communication conditions
D. the need to avoid areas which students grasp B. get the technological systems to work efficiently
easily. C. call a spade a spade
D. be able to address 10,000 workers.
20. It can be inferred from the passage that the book was
written by 24. Chasm’ as used in the passage means
A. an educational psychologist A. serious eruption B. disaster C. wide difference
B. more than one author D. disagreement.
C. a prominent statistician
D. a professor of statistics. 25. The most essential tool of communication specifically
mentioned in this passage is
A. specialization B. environment C. writing D. language.
PASSAGE V
All too often, there is a difference between what we say LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
and what we think we have said, and between how we feel we
have handled people and how they think the have been treated. In each of questions 26 to 30, choose the option opposite in
When such ‘gaps’ occur between the intent and the action, it is meaning to the word in the italics.
often stated that there has been ‘a breakdown in communication’.
Sometimes, the break-down is allowed to become so serious 26. I am happy to inform you that your boys are conscientious.
that the gap becomes a chasm, relatives in a family ceasing to A. industrious B. carefree C. dareful D. corrupt.
speak to one another, management and trade unions refusing to
meet, or governments recalling ambassadors when relations 27. My father is a very prosperous businessman.
between states reach a low ebb. A. ungrateful B. unscrupulous C. unskillful D. unsuccessful.
In fact, sometimes when people communicate, either as
individual or within groups, problems inevitably occur; 28. The hostess greeted her guests in a very relaxed manner.
instructions may be impossible to carry out, offence is taken at A. energetic B. athletic C. stiff D. perplexed.
a particular remark, a directive is ambiguously phrased or people’s
attitudes are coloured by jealousy, resentment or frustration. 29. Ayo takes his studies rather lightly
During the past fifty years, industrial, commercial and A. humorously B. tediously C. carefully D. seriously.
public service organizations have grown prodigiously to meet
30. The doctor was very gentle with his patients in the
the needs of advanced technological societies. Sometimes as
examining room.
many as 10,000 people work on the site, or one company employs
A. harsh B. rude C. tough D. unkind.
more than 50,000 people. Clearly, good communications are
essential to the efficient operations of any organization, and In each of questions 31 to 41, choose the option nearest in
vital to the fulfillment of all those who commit their working lives meaning to the word or phase in italics.
to it.
31. There is no love lost between Hassan and Hassana.
For this reason, management specialists and
A. dislike each other
behavioural scientists have devoted much thought and energy
B. are head over heels in love
over recent years to analyzing the problems caused by bad
communication practices, and to creating good communication
C. will love each other
climate and systems.
D. are still good friends.
As a result of the current structure of societies and economies,
most of us will spend our working lives in an organization – for 32. Whether the village head should identify himself with
many of us it will be a large one. If we are to understand our the activities of religious denomination has remained a
working environment, it is essential that we become good burning question.
communicators with social skills. A. a subject of discord
B. a perennial issue
C. a matter of serious controversy 44. Note that only senior members of staff have the … of
D. a sensitive matter. using the toilet upstairs.
A. permission B. occasion C. privilege D. habit
33. I would rather not attend the party.
A. detest attending 45. The chief priest will … the men into the cult today.
B. do not have the enthusiasm to attend A. indoctrinate B. usher C. convert D. initiate.
C. must not attend 46. Jimoh is noted for his … attitude to his seniors at school.
D. have a choice to attend or not to. A. receptive B. respective C. respectful D. respectable.

34. If Garba had listened to advice, he would not have had 47. The girl that my brother introduced to us last week is
to be rushed to the hospital. pretty… ill-mannered.
A. deliberately desired to be rushed A. and B. but also C. as well as D. respectable.
B. was in position to have prevented the need
to be rushed 48. The police report was … to that of the eye witness.
C. was rushed against his wish A. contrary B. inconsistent C. different D. congruent
D. was given a cheque, but preferred to go.
49. The African extended family system gives security to
35. Aduke: Ngozi, let’s visit the market. Ngozi: if you insist, Aduke ... members.
A. is very willing to accompany Aduke A. his B. her C. its D. their.
B. must accompany Aduke
C. is not keen on going with Aduke 50. I know I … read more, but I am tired.
D. is pretending not to be interested in going with Aduke. A. may B. ought to C. would D. could

36. The new leader hands out an olive branch. 51. Insects can become … to insecticides.
A. sues for peace A. immunized B. resistant C. reticent D. immobilized.
B. gives out branches of the olive tree
C. challenges his opponents to a fight 52. The council chairman … the tension between the villagers
D. blesses his supporters. and the tax collectors.
A. dispersed B. defused C. diffused D. disputed.
37. When you go to a foreign country to study, you will
discover that life there is not a bed of roses. 53. If I had been told of the matter earlier, I … there so late.
A. as pleasant as one thought A. would not go B. should not go
B. a bed with roses C. will not have gone. D. would not have gone.
C. an unmitigated disappointment
D. as expected. 54. Each of the candidates that came late … to complete …
A. have/this form B. are having/these forms
38. Because our representative is immature and biased, he C. have/these forms D. has/this form.
takes a jaundiced view of our problems.
A. hazy B. unclear C. prejudiced D. bleak. 55. I wanted to avail myself … the opportunity of listening
to the lecture, but the lecturer failed to turn up
39. The president has sent his regrets. He is unable to attend A. with B. for C. of D. at.
the meeting.
A. explanation B. anxieties C. unhappiness D. apologies. 56. I would have been surprised if … you the orange.
A. plucked B. have plucked C. had plucked D. did pluck.
40. The woman acted courageously when she was attacked
by thieves 57. On getting to the seashore, …
A. shyly B. fearlessly C. timidly D. carelessly. A. it was empty
B. nobody was there
41. We all have both good and bad characteristics. Either C. people had deserted the place
is, however, easily manifested in times of crisis. D. he found nobody there.
A. demanded B. highlighted C. submerged. D. determined.
58. Little did Tunde realize that his frequent unwarranted
In each questions 42 to 100, chose the word(s) or phrase(s) reports about me were working …my advantage.
which best fills(s) the gaps. A. in B. to C. for D. against.

42. The sea waves continue to … the cliff on the west 59. The Board has been having … series of meeting lately.
coast constantly. A. some B. a C. a lot of D. many.
A. impair B. rub C. knock D. erode.
60. … I know, nobody has leopards in this area.
A. So far as B. In as much as C. Provided D. Even as.
43. The college bus was travelling at a high … when the
accident occurred. 61. … him in the crowd, I would have told you at once.
A. velocity B. acceleration C. rapidity D. speed. A. If I will see B. If I saw C. Had I seen D. Should I see.
62. Inyang has always been shy to speak … A. aquired B. acquired C. acquared D. aqcuired
A. in public B. publicly C. in the public D. with the public.
79. The story on the lost jewel was quite …
63. … his uncle helped him or not, he would still not be able A. unbelievable B. unbeliveable C. unbelieveable
to do it. D. unbelivable
A. Although B. If C. Whether D. Since.
80. The patient is suffering from …
64. I have only three tubers of yam … in the store, I cannot A. reumatism B. rheumantism C. rhuematism D. rheumatism.
afford to give you any more.
A. still B. outstanding C. left D. remainder 81. The attitude of my students to … baffles me
A. pronunciation B. pronouncation C. pronunceation
65. Before the bill could be settled, Chuwang … all the money. D. pronounceation
A. has spent B. will have spent C. had spent D. will spent.
82. When we got to the president’s house, we were told
66. Either the chief of the leader of the farmers … to be held that he … two days earlier.
responsible for the revolt. A. may have left B. left C. had left D. has left.
A. were B. are C. is D. have.
83. Atuk, without giving any hint as to what he intended
67. We must observe that most of the support by other states to do, went and … himself.
… only marginal returns. A . hung B. hang C. hanged D. hunged
A. have yielded B. yield C. has yielded D. have yield.
84. Provided you … to the market very soon, we shall be
68. She asked me whether I … the letter for her. able to eat early enough.
A. minded to post B. mind to post C. minded posing A. shall go B. would go C. went D. go
D. minded to posting.
85. He … by now; I can hear all the people shouting:
69. The effort made by the principal to get the students to A. would have arrived B. must have arrived
be serious in their studies … C. had arrived D. should have arrived
A. are appreciated B. will appreciate C. is to appreciate
D. is appreciated. 86. By the time the plane reaches Harare, it … in the air for
twelve hours.
70. How I wish I … my mother’s advice. A. has been B. would be C. would have been D. should
A. had heeded B. have heeded C. heed D. will heed. be

71. Only observers from the Ministry of Works … allowed 87. If only Adoyi … what was good for him he could easily
into the conference room. have avoided the tragedy.
A. is B. are C. have D. been. A. has known B. have known C. knew D. had known.
88. We saw Ifueko … an egg on the wall.
72. A panel set up to probe the organization’s activities … A. smashed B. smash C. smashing D. smashes.
yet to sit
A. are B. is C. will D. would. 89. Many streets in the town … in need of lights at night.
A. stand B. stood C. have stood D. are standing.
73. The school will … for Easter in another six weeks.
A. break off B. break away C. break out D. break 90. I did not enjoy the party. If you had invited Tariere, it …
up. better organized.
A. had been B. would have been C. would be D. could be
74. His power supply was … from the main because he did
not pay his electricity bill. 91. Sibi … novels since she came home
A. blown out B. cut off C. put off D. put out. A. is reading B. had been reading C. has read
D. has been reading.
75. When you’ve finished using the telephone, please hang
… A. down B. up C. off D. on. 92. Asabe is overdue for retirement as she … in this college
since 1954.
76. I do not intend to stay for long at the function. I only want A. is teaching B. has been teaching C. taught D. was teaching.
to …
A. put in an appearance B. put up appearance 93. The boy who stole mango was given … by an eye witness.
C. show up appearance D. keep up appearance. A. out B. in C. away D. up.
94. After listening to the statements form the two students,
77. The man rose to an important position as a result of …
the headmaster realized that it was a trivial argument
hard work.
that ... a serious quarrel between them.
A. sheer B. cheer C. share D. shear.
A. touched in B. drew in C. touched off D. brought up.
78. Ebun Ojo … international fame as an actress
95. Mr. and Mrs. Akoka were sad and disappointed … the 98. The spokesman confirmed that the government would
performance of their son. not give … to the demands of the trade union leaders.
A. about B. for C. at D. over. A. up B. into C. onto D. in.

96. When the transformer blew up, Saka threw himself down 99. Many students have joined the … movement.
… his stomach. A. revivalists’ B. revival C. revivalist D. revivalist’s.
A. at B. over C. to D. on.
100. If they had not all jumped out of the car just in time,
97. I ran … an old friend of mine on Broad Street and they …
brought him home. A. might have been perished
A. into B. to C. over D. across. B. will have perished
C. were all going to perish
D. would have perished.

Use of English 1992

COMPREHENSION 1. The risk referred to in the passage is

A. environmentally induced
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that B. industrially produced
follow. C. man-made
D. sociologically produced.
PASSAGE I
Our planet is at risk. Our environment is under threat. 2. From the passage, it can be deduced that the inhabitants
The air we breathe, the water we drink, the seas we fish in, the of developing countries
soil we farm, the forest, animals and plants which surround us A. take more care of their environment than those
are in danger. New terms and words describe these problems – in developed countries
acid rain, the greenhouse effect, global warming, holes in the B. generate more harmful industrial by-products
ozone layer, desertification and industrial pollution. We are C. degrade the environment to eke out a
changing our environment. More and more gases and wastes livelihood D. cut down trees only for
escape from our factories. Rubbish, oil spillages and detergents farmlands and fuel.
damage our rivers and seas. Forests give us timber and paper,
but there loss results in soil erosion and also endangers wildlife. 3. According to the passage, the size of forest depleted
The richer countires of the world are mainly responsible annually is
for industrial pollution. This is where most of all the commercial A. minimal B. colossal C. infinitesimal D. infinite.
energy is produced. In developing countries, poverty causes
people to change their environment – to overgraze grasslands, 4. The writer holds the richer countries responsible for
to cut down trees for new land and firewood, to farm poor soil industrial pollution because of their
for food. A. technological innovations
The United Nations Environmental Protection Agency B. energy requirements
says that an area of forest the size of Sierra Leone disappears C. industrial revolution
every year. Trees are cut down for timber which is used for D. lack of interest in environmental protection.
building, furniture, paper and fuel. They are also destroyed to
5. The message of the writer is the
provide land on which to graze animals and build new villages
A. need for the developed countries to assist the
and towns. But trees have many other important uses. Trees
poorer ones
protect the land from heavy downpour of rain and their roots
B. grave dangers of global warming
help to hold the soil together. Forests are also the home of many
C. urgent need to protect the natural environment
living things. The amazon forest contains one fifth of all the
D. need to research into other uses of the trees
species of birds in the world. In our forest, there may be plants
in our forests.
and animals which could help in the discovery of new medicines
or crops. PASSAGE II
To rescue and converse our beautiful world, we must act If economists were a bit more modest, they would admit
cooperatively. Individuals, communities, nations and that no one knows exactly how many Nigerians there are. The
international associations, all have a responsibility. By learning National Population Bureau estimated that there would be 116
to protect the natural environment, we can manage the earth’s million in 1986, but this figure was derived from projections based
resources for generations to come. on the much disputed figures of the 1963 census, using an annual
population growth rate that was at best guess work. PASSAGE III
Notwithstanding that the margin of error could be as large as Let’s begin with a picture. He must not have been more
plus or minus 20 million, economists have still felt confident to than thirty years old. The oval face devoid of those wrinkles of
speak of Nigeria’s per capita income, birth and mortality rates, age, the well turfed and black hair and his complete though
literacy rates and so on, as if they were quoting precise figures. brown set of teeth supported this assessment. All he had for
So much in Nigeria is determined on the basis of clothing was a piece of cloth with some words written on it. It
population that the lack of accurate figures has a significantly must have been one of those cloth-posters used by now
adverse effect on policies. One obviously affected area is abandoned by ‘show-biz promoters. Across his neck was yet
development planning, which, for the lack of reliable data, another cloth which bore our national colours of green and white.
frequently looks like an exercise in futility. An example of what His feet were naked just they came from their creator. In one
happens is the country’s Universal Primary Education (UPE) hand he had an empty tin. He talked ceaselessly and in a
scheme launched in 1976. Policy makers had expected, on the disordered fashion. The other free hand emphasized his spoken
basis of the 1975/76 primary school enrolment of just under 5 words and gestures. As he talked, he gazed at you as if you were
million, that they would not have to cope with much more than 6 responsible for his pathetic condition. He looked redeemable,
million school children in the first year. But the enrolment in though. There are many of his type in various Urban centers.
1976/77 turned out to be 8.4 million rising to 10.1 million the Beggars! They are in every conceivable place. At the
following year. The unanticipated cost of catering for the larger bank, the supermarket, the church, the mosque, the post office
number was the main cause of the collapse of that worthy scheme there you will meet them. Before you know it, the more healthy
after only four years. ones besiege you for alms almost to the point assault. Surely,
Population also plays an important role in revenue there is no rationale in giving alms to someone who is physically
allocation, specifically in the sharing of the states portion of the stronger than you are and who, from all indications, can and
Federation Account, some percentage of which is based on should work and fend for himself. Some others are feeble
population or population related factors. Because of the unfortunately handicapped. Women and young girls constitute
contentious nature of the subject, the compromise has been to a sizeable number of these healthy beggars. Some are nursing
use estimates based on the 1963 census figures, even when mothers and one wonders that their husbands are. Conception
such a move produces ridiculous situations. It is for all these by Mr. Nobody, perhaps. The young girls in this category are
reason that the Babangida Administration’s effort to ascertain the mother beggars of tomorrow. But tell me, can’t the society be
the nations’ population is such a worthwhile venture. spared this human waste?

11. The writer is describing a

6. It would be more realistic of economists to A. picture B. man C. picture of a man D. man and a picture.
A. accept the unreliability of Nigeria’s census figures
B. ascertain how many Nigerians there are 12. … this assessment’ refers to the man’s
C. discard the disputed 1963 census figures A. face B. hair C. age D. naked feet.
D. accept marginal errors in the census figures.
13. ‘Beggars’ in the context of the first line of the third
7. Precise national population figures are required in order paragraph is a
to know the A. phrase B. sentence C. noun D. modifier.
A. know the number of people to cater for in the
Universal Primary Education Programme 14. The human waste referred to by the writer is brought
B. be able to undertake proper implementation about by
of governmental policies A. over-feeding
C. avert unanticipated expenditures B. the irresponsible men who female beggars in
D. be able to speak of population statistics with the family way
confidence. C. the mother-beggars of tomorrow
D. the society.
8. ‘The contentious nature of the subject refers to
A. the population 15. An appropriate title for the passage is
B. the disputed 1963 census figures A. A picture, the young man and female beggars
C. development planning B. Mad men and mendicants
D. revenue allocation. C. The problem of mad people in the society
D. Young men and female beggars.
9. The reference to ‘Universal Primary Education’ in this
passage is significant because it shows
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
A. why the census figures were disputed
B. the failure and collapse of the programme
Use the passage below to answer questions 16 to 25. The
C. the misleading effect of unreliable information
passage has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately following
D. how a worthy scheme could be made
each gap, four options are provided. Choose the appropriate
worthless by poor planning strategies.
option for each gap.
10. As far as the solution to the population problem of
Nigeria is concerned, the writer of this passage is In addition to further reading as a vital arm of
A. optimistic B. pessimistic C. indifferent D. disturbed. referencing, the use of the dictionary in language learning should
be emphasized. It cannot be denied that dictionaries do supply
facts about a language, which may be difficult to find anywhere A. relieve B. worsen C. kill D. cure
else…16…[A. Information B.Words C. Details D. Knowledge]
about grammar, usage, status, derivation and so on necessary 35. The instructions on the examination paper are explicit
for comprehension. A. simple B. ambiguous C. detailed D. definite
Certain in the dictionary while context, word analysis
and synonyms search contribute immensely in the [A. forming 36. Okoro is an amateur wrestler
B. getting C. knowing D. creation] of meaning, an efficient use A. skilful B. good C. professional D. strong
of the denied. The ...18… [A. possession B. fact C. use D.
employment] of both the specialist and general dictationaries In each of question 37 to54 choose the option nearest in meaning
should be encouraged as the case may be. Not that students to the word(s) or phrase(s) in italics
jeopardize reading fluency by …19… [A. considering B.
pondering C. meditating D. looking up] every word that they 37. If your life is in turmoil always take courage
A. devastation B. crisis C. trial D. tragedy
do not understand, rather in their bid to read chunks or groups
of words in a text, lexitical items that…20… [A. may B. will C.
38. Do you know one of the most astounding events of my
can D. shall] obstruct meaning may be quickly checked up in
life;
the dictionary Glossing over a word or lexical guessing through
A. special B. amazing C. serious D. outstanding
context may not be sufficient …21… [A. Practice B. Exercises
C. Notes D. Passages] to encourage the use of the dictionary 39. Adeniji is suffering from the consequences of alienation
as an aid to reading and a tool for checking words used in writing A.confinement B. isolation C. enclosure D. imprisonment
must be built …22… [A. on to B. in C. into D. unto] the reading
text. This skill can be easily transferred to the student’s content 40. The terms of the contract stuck in my throat.
areas as well. A. were beyond me B. were not clear
A barrage of criticism, like; students’ excessive reliance C. were ambiguoused D. became obsolete
on the dictionary instead of contextual ...23… [A. reading B.
meaning C. decoding D. guessing], reduction in the speed of 41. He was asked to give copious examples to appear convincing
reading, time argued that …24… [A. asking B. teaching C. A. concrete B. rigid C. cogent D. many
making D. allowing] students to guess the meaning of words
from context and then compare this with the dictionary entry for 42. Some children mimic their teachers
such words is a discovery ...25… [A. procedure B. method A. imitate B. mime C. ridicule D. tease.
C. Means D. strategy] for enlarging the conceptual
environmental and vision of students on the various 43. He works long hours collecting trash to eke out a
interpretations that may be given to a word. livelihood A. try a living B. struggle for a
living C. make a living D. carve out a living.

In each of questions 26 to 36, choose the option opposite in 44. Everybody complained of a lean harvest last year
meaning to the word in italics. A. surplus B. abundant C. poor D. thin.

26. Ojo’s response infuriated his wife 45. He is very modest in his demands
A. annoyed B. pleased C. surprised D. confused. A. honest B. bogus C. extravagant D. humble.

27. He accepted a mundane task without hesitation. 46. The patient disregarded the advice of the doctor
A. great B. lowly C. menial D. moderate A. ignored B. disobeyed C. questioned D. respected.

28. It is a unique opportunity for her to demonstrate the 47. The newly elected leader has pledged to ensure better
reality of her faith life for the citizens
A. strange B. usual C. golden D. unusual A. vowed B. agreed C. undertaken D. undertaking.

29. Her identification with the king is publicly known 48. Statesmen are revered for their objectivity
A. hatred B. disassociation C. relationship D. intimacy A. referred B. respected C. remembered D. rejected.
49. He has been advised to keep his head, the confusion
30. The economic situation in the country is obviously gloomy
notwithstanding
A. encouraging B. moody C. unknown D. regrettable A. avoid being beaten or insulted
B. keep calm
31. One wonders if the situation will improve C. save his head
A. brighten B diminish C disintegrate D worsen D. prevent being beheaded.
32. Language teachers believe that grammar exercises 50. The police ran the criminal to earth
stretch the mind A. jailed him B. knocked him down
A. expand B. ruin C. enrich D. restrict C. discovered him D. buried him

33. These two books are identical 51. Garba always puts his shoulder to the wheel.
A. alike B. similar C. different D. equal A. sits with his shoulders straight when he is driving
B. works energetically at the task in hand
34. The doctor tried to alleviate his patients pain
C. performs tasks assigned him grudgingly
D. holds the steering wheel firmly when he is driving. 70. On his … [A. assumption B. ascension C. acceptance
D. appointment] of office, the new president announced
52. He reneged on the agreement between him and his employees. some drastic measures.
A. kept B. failed to keep C. failed to approve
D. failed to sign. 71. The … was filed … [A. suit/in B. case/in C. suit/at
D. case/at] in Ilorin Magistrate Court.
53. He is credulous
A. credible B. creditable C. gullible D. fallible 72. The plaintiff … [A. asked B. begged C. demanded of
D. prayed] the court to restrain the defendants from
54. The company has gone under further action.
A. suffered some loss B. broken up
C. become broke D. become bankrupt. 73. My experience in Lagos last week was … [A. something
to excite B. nothing to explain at home C. nothing
In each questions 55 to 95, fill each gap with the appropriate to write home D. something to celebrate] about.
option from list following the gap.
74. … [A. Had I seen B. Have I seen C. Should I see
55. Many people believe that nuclear power will solve our D. If I saw] him around, I would have informed you.
energy problems … [A. Indeed B. But C. However
D. On the contrary].This has not been proved to be true. 75. Ahmed is one of the boys who always … [A. does B.
would do C. do D. done] good work.
56. … [A. Conclusively B. To conclude C. In conclusion
D. The conclusion], sign post words are useful to readers. 76. I sent … [A. a parcel of B. a flash of C. an item of
D. number of) news to the press yesterday.
57. Every programming language and software package …
[A. have its B. have their C. has its D. has their] 77. The University has a large collection of sporting … [A.
limitations. equipment B. equipments C. costumes D. aids].

58. A programme of good exercise may help a person 78. He keeps his … [ A. surroundings B. surrounding
fight … [A. out B. at C. with D. off] cold. C. premise D. environments] clean always.

59. Baba and … [A. him B. his C. he D. he’s] participated 79. She has a set of gold … [A. earing B. earings C. earrings
in the tournament. D. ear-ring].

60. It was … [A. they B. them C. those D. theirs] who 80. I have stopped writing letters of application because I …
fought the civil war. [A. have heard B. had heard C. heard D. hear] that
all the vacancies are filled.
61. The physicians have more people in … waiting rooms
than … [A. his/he B. there/they C. their/they D. them/ 81. A survey of opinions on how pupils feel about their
they] have ever had. teachers … [A. has been B. have been C. are being D. is
been] carried out.
62. Before mechanization, workers … [A. wring B. wrung
C. wrang D. wringed] water out of fabrics with their hands. 82. The police are looking for … [ A. two big cars black
B. two cars big black C. two big black cars D. two
63. Four engineers … [A. worked B. are working C. had black big cars].
worked D. have been working] on this system since March.
83. Adaobi is contemptuous … [A. to B. at C. for D.
64. Having worked all night, the security man … [A. had felt of] dishonest people.
B. felt C. is feeling D. has felt] a sense of accomplishment.
84. My goats are grazing … [A. on B. in C. at D. into] the field.
65. Three quarters of the Physics class … [A. improve B.
improves C. are improving D. is improving] dramatically. 85. It … [A. would be B. would have been C. would had
been D. will be] easier if he told us himself.
66. A number of students … [A. is B. has C. have D. do]
missed the opportunity to re-register. 86. Our principal and chairman of the occasion … [A. has
B. having C. have D. had] just arrived.
67. It seems to be a well thought … [A. over B. out C. off
87. From 7 a.m to 9 a.m, he … [A. is kept busy serving B.
D. into] scheme.
keeps busy to serve C. is busied serving D. kept
68. Adekunle is prepared for a…[A. show-off B. show-
down C. show-out D. show up] with his opponent busy to serve] hot chocolate, often not having time for
following his defeat last season. his own breakfast.
88. One of the … [A. school of thought suggest s B.
69. Tosin refused to be … [A. sad B. placated C. schools of thought suggest C. school of thoughts
frustrated D. indifferent] though he has written the same suggested D. schools of thought suggests] selective
examination three times. marking of errors
89. You avoid facing … [A. at B. up C. up to D. on to] the 96. People may not pick flowers in this park.
reality of life. A. People can pick flowers in this park.
B. People may not wish to pick flowers in this park.
90. In … [A. a more deeper sense B. a much deeper C. People are prohibited from picking flowers in this park.
sense C. a most deeper sense D. much more deeper D. People cannot pick flowers from this park.
sense] we, as politicians, are identified with the masses.
97. Tom ought not to have told me.
91. In addition, their comments are vague and abstract, … A. Tom did not tell me but he should.
[A. which students find it B. and students find it C. B. Perhaps Tom was wrong to have told me.
so students find them D. but students find them] C. Tom told me but it was wrong of him.
difficult to interpret. D. It was necessary for Tom not to tell me.

92. We are … to receive your letter and to know that you 98. He can’t be swimming all day.
are … [A. happy/in good health B. grateful/sound C. A. It’s possible he is not swimming now.
pleased /all well D. appreciative/swimming in good B. It’s very likely he is swimming now.
health]. C. He does not have the ability to swim all day.
D. He would not like to swim all day
93. People who live by … [A. each other know B. one
another know C. oneself knows D. themselves know] 99. Bolade would make a mess of cooking the rice.
what loneliness is like. A. It was typical of Bolade to make a mess of things.
B. Bolade cannot cook.
94. It has been confirmed that the election … [A. will be B. C. Bolade will not cook the rice well.
is being C. has been D. have being] held in July. D. Bolade does not like cooking rice.

95. The choice to go to the university or not is … [A. yours’ 100. If I were the captain, I would have led the team to victory.
B. your C. yours D. your’s]. A. I was not the captain but I led the team to victory.
B. I was not the captain but I did not lead the team
In each of questions 96 to 100, select the option (A to D) that to victory.
best explains the information conveyed in the sentence. C. I was not the captain and I did not lead the
team to victory.
D. I was the captain and I led the team to victory.

Use of English 1993

and treat such conditions as pernicious anaemia and

COMPREHENSION hypertension, or to correct congenital malformations by surgical
interventions, increase our understanding of disease but do nor
reduce its incidence. The fact that there are more doctors where
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow certain diseases have become rare has little to do with ability to
PASSAGE I control or eliminate them. It simply means that doctor, more than
other professionals, determine where they work. Consequently,
The diseases afflicting Western societies have
they tend to gather where the climate is healthy, where the water
undergone dramatic changes. In the course of a century, so
many mass killers have vanished that two-thirds of all deaths is clean and where people work and can pay for their services.
are now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die
1. The statement, ‘The diseases afflicting Western societies
young are more often than not, the victims of accidents, violence
have undergone dramatic changes’ implies that
and suicide.
These changes in public health are generally equated A. changes have taken place in the mode of
with progress and are attributed to more or better medical care. disease affliction
B. medical services have been important in
In fact, there is no evidence of any direct relationship between
changing life expectancy
changing disease patterns and the so-called progress of
medicine. C. a lot of significant progress has taken place in
The impotence of medical services to change life public health
D. deaths from diseases in Western societies are
expectancy and the insignificance of much contemporary clinical
minimal.
care in the curing of diseases are all obvious, well documented
but well suppressed.
2. The writer is of the view that the diseases which prevail
Neither the proportion of doctors in a population nor
in contemporary Western societies
the quality of the clinical tools at their disposal nor the number
A. result from modern life styles
of hospital beds is a causal factor in the striking changes in
B. are concentrated among the elderly C. the suffering of every widow represents the
C. kill many people at once burden of all women
D. are resistant to drugs D. widowhood implies the isolation of the woman
in society.
3. The author thinks that the presence of a large number of
doctors in a community 9. The speech of Hassana implies that
A. does not have much effect on the control of A. it is the practice to throw rotten eggs at women
diseases B. it is the practice to cast decayed tomatoes at
B. disguises the true facts about diseases women
C. controls the spread of diseases C. to throw rotten eggs and decayed tomatoes
D. improves the overall quality of life in the community. at women is to reduce their fecundity
D. to throw rotten eggs and decayed tomatoes
4. Many doctors, according to the passage, choose to live at women is dehumanizing.
where A. research facilities are available B. they are most
needed C. they can be near colleagues D. conditions are 10. From the speech by Ime, it is clear that the women
more in their favour. A. intend to do a real battle with the menfolk in
defence of their rights
5. The author’s attitude to developments in medicine is A. B. will no longer perform their traditional duties
matter-of-fact B. cautious C. indifferent D. cynical C. are henceforth prepared to adopt a policy of
confrontation with the men
PASSAGE II D. can do anything that a man can do sometimes
ADUKE: Listen, my fellow women. The issue has little to do even better
with being literate or not. It is true that most members
of NAM (New Awareness Movement) are literate, but PASSAGE III
this does not make all of us enlightened. We must be When I set out for London, little did I suspect that I
able to draw a line between the two. You may be literate was not on journey to God’s own city where harmony reigned
and yet possess a consciousness that is decadent and supreme. So used to the frenzied life of Lagos was I that I had
servile. On the other hand, you may not have received come to associate that city with everything that was chaotic,
any formal education and yet may be the greatest and there was no doubt in my mind that Lagos was one giant
exponent of progressive ideas. symbol of our backwardness. As the plane taxied its way out of
HASANA: I agree with what our sister has said. Let us not allow the tarmac of our national airport, I heaved a sigh of relief, not so
ourselves to be divided by a greedy and an inflated much because I was leaving my own country as that I was being
notion of the of the certificates we possess. In this relieved of the tension that had possessed me during those
century, as we march towards the year 2000, our primary tense hours in the untidy lounge. I had felt so uneasy, my
concern should be how best to improve the lot of thoughts racing from one uncertainty to another. But I was at
womanhood in our society. Let us not forget that for last air-borne, moving away from the whole uncertainty, from
each woman who is beaten up by her man for flimsy the whole load of fear, towards a place which I supposed would
reasons, the status of all of us here is downgraded. For be an El Dorado.
each woman who is insulted for no other reason than Everything that happened in the plane passed through
that of her sex, every one of us here is spat on in the my eyes like pictures on the screen. The white air hostess who
face. For each woman who is denied instructed me on how to use the safety belt was an angel, what
opportunities in the society simply because she is a with her beauty, her pretty blue dress, and her ever-smiling face.
woman, the whole lot of us here are dehumanized. Each The same lady of the air served me snacks and supper. Another
widow in this society is an Everywoman, and the lot of angel, whose queenly voice through an invisible public address
us should be viewed as collective. Each decayed tomato system, dished out occasional information on the progress of
that is cast at her is a collective curse on our fecundity: our journey. I had never felt so relaxed, and my jolted heartbeats
each pebble thrown at her, a missile against our very each time the plane took what appeared like a sudden brief
womanhood. This is an age of awareness, and it is the descent, did not matter. When eventually we were set for landing,
duty of NAM to collectively rise in defence of the rights the anxiety that came over me was almost thrilling. What was the
of women. wonderland going to be like? So overwhelmed was I that I almost
IME: We can no longer allow ourselves to be fried alive. We lost consciousness of what happened thereafter.
are going to squeeze ourselves into tight-fitting But I would never forget the shock that greeted me
trousers,register into judo classes, and then file out when we arrived in the tube station and boarded a train to behold
into the street and punch the face of every man we the sea of white faces and the furtive glances from apparently
behold. indifferent co-passengers. I believe that the nolstagic feeling for
Lagos which later became part of my life all my days in London
6. In distinguishing between literacy and enlightenment, began at this point.
Aduke implies that 11. Before the writer left Lagos, he believed London was
A. it is useless to be literate A. a very neat place B. a very peaceful place
B. enlightenment is inborn C. situated in paradise D. noiseless.
C. progress can take place without literacy
D. both literacy and enlightenment are symbiotic. 12. Before the plane left Lagos, the writer must have
7. Hassana believes that NAM should not be divided by A. had a second thought about leaving his country
A. the worthless certificates which the women possess B. been very hungry in the lounge
B. inflation and greed C. been frightened of all the people in the lounge
C. a misunderstanding of the worth of their certificates D. detested the filth surrounding the lounge.
D. a selfish and over-raced belief in their certificates.
13. When the plane finally took off the writer felt happy because
8. ‘Each widow in this society is an Everywoman’ means that A. he was thrilled to be in a plane
A. every woman in the society is potentially a widow B. he believed that he was travelling to a problem-
B. every widow in the society is a woman free country
C. he no longer felt uneasy
D. for the first time, he would be in El Dorado D. Emeka could have started school early if he
had wished.
14. The writer’s attitude to the air hostesses can be described as
A. lustful B. worshipful C. timid D. gregarious
28. He was between the devil and the deep blue sea.
15. The writer, on getting into the train, was shocked because A. He was in danger.
A. there were no attendants B. He was scared
B. of the large number of white faces C. He stood between the devil and the sea.
C. the people appeared unfriendly D. He was in a dilemma.
D. the train was neater than those in Nigeria.
29. The boys, who rioted, were suspended by the principal.
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE A. Only some of the boys rioted and they were
suspended.
Use the passage below to answer questions 16 to 25. The B. All the boys rioted and were suspended
passage has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately following
each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most C. Many boys rioted and were suspended.
appropriate option for each gap. D. A few boys rioted and were suspended.

Did you ever pause to think that eating and mating may 30. Whoever would have thought that he would lose the
be…16...[A. interlinked B. intertwined C. interposed D. presidential election?
intermingled] to the extent of becoming targets for a planned A. Everyone believed that he would lose the
international political strategy? If by an accident of geography, election
you happen to live in a region of Africa, Asia or Latin America
that is one of the …17…[A. receivers B. receptors C. recipients B. It was commonly believed that he would win
D. obtainers] of foreign ‘aid’, then pay…18… [A. hid B. heed the election.
C. attention D. cognizance] to an insight provided by Josne de C. He was supposed to lose the election.
Castro, a Brazilian sociologist and a former president of the United D. No one believed that he would win th
Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (F.A.O). election.
The United States imposes birth control, not to help
the poor countries ---- no one believes any more in its 31. It’s wonderful that Musa is already out of hospital.
‘disinterested’ aid programme ---- but because that is its strategic, A. The fact that Musa is out of hospital causes
defence…19…[A. aim B. problem C. method D. policy]. We great wonder
must…20…[A. realize B. recognize C. reckon D. discern] that
the pill is North America’s best guarantee of continuing the B. The fact that Musa is out of hospital is a miracle.
domination of the Third world. If ever the Third world achieves C. It is surprising that Musa is out of hospital
normal development, Washington’s ‘Roman Empire’ will...21…[A. D. It is very pleasing that Musa is out of hospital.
be dissolved B. be dismembered C. disintegrate D. disappear].
These views were …22… [A. confirmed B. affirmed 32. You could have heard the sound if you weren’t asleep.
C. established D. reaffirmed] about a decade later, when R.T. A. You were not asleep so you heard the sound.
Ravenholt of the United States Office of Population stated that B. You were asleep so you did not hear the sound.
the United States was seeking to provide the means by which C. You heard the sound though you were asleep.
one quarter of the world’s fertile women can be…23…[A. D. You did not hear the sound though you were
fertilized B. impregnated C. sterilized D. childless] not asleep.
These two statements are indicative of the…24…[A.
conflict B. convergence C. collision D. collusion] of interests 33. Had Aminu been a dull student, his failure wouldn’t
of multinational pharmaceutical corporations, defence strategist have surprised anybody.
and food politicians. Whether or not population planning is
a…25...[A. ploy B. style C. desire D. scheme]of the ruling elite for A. Aminu failed and it surprised everybody since
finding a scapegoat for its ineptitude is debatable. However, it is he was dull.
evident that there exists an inextricable link between food aid B. Aminu was not a dull student and so
and population planning policies. everybody was surprised that he failed
C. Because Aminu was a dull student, everybody
In each of questions 26 to 35 select the option that best explains was surprised that he failed.
the information conveyed in the sentence.
D. Aminu had been a dull student, and so nobody
26. Between you and me, I would say that the equipment was surprised that he failed
has outlived its usefulness. 34. The president of the club said that he would cross the
A. I believe that the equipment is no longer useful bridge on getting there.
to either of us. A. He was waiting for an opportunity to take a
B. I believe that the equipment continues to be decision.
useful to either you or me. B. When he got to the river he would build a
C. My idea of the usefulness of the equipment bridge across it
should remain known only to the two of us. C. He would take a decision at the appropriate time.
D. My idea of the usefulness of the equipment is D. When he got to the river he would cross at the bridge.
shared by both of us. 35. His refusal to helps us, dealt a deathblow to our plans.
A. Because he did not help, our plans did not
27. Emeka wished he had started school early materialize.
A. Emeka started school early as he wished. B. He helped and our plans materialized
B. Emeka regretted starting school early C. He blew our plans to pieces
C. Emeka regretted not starting school early D. He supported our plans so it worked
In each of questions 51 to 64, choose the most appropriate option
In each of questions 36 to 50, choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase(s) in italics.
opposite in meaning to the word(s) in italics.
51. Ator led a dog’s life for the twenty years he stayed in theUnited
36. It is entirely up to you to make a profession of your faith. Kingdom.
A. confess your belief A. lived a dirty life B. was promiscuous
B. turn your faith into a business C. was domesticated D. led an unhappy and troubled life
C. deny your faith
D. loudly proclaim your religion. 52. The chief’s brother was a complete nonentity.
A. upstart B. vagabond C. riff-raff
37. He won the election because he was able to carry his
D. person of inexperience
people with him.
A. alienate his people 53. The principal warned us against burning the candle at
B. go out with the people both ends.
C. have the support of the people A. being careless with candles
D. fail to provide the people with transport. B. wearing ourselves out
C. being too generous
38. They often quarreled before leaving the house but made
D. disloyalty
it up by the time they returned home
A. added it up B. reconciled 54. Biola decided to give the task everything he had.
C. fell out D.compounded the problem A. all his money B. all his time C. complete attention
D. complete attendance
39. The effect of rising prices has snowballed considerably.
A. risen B. decreased C. frozen D. grown. 55. The result of the election would have been different if
some people had not been disfranchised.
40 The economic situation is responsible for the recent
A. disfavoured B. banned from contesting
discord in many families.
C. allowed to rig D. prevented from voting.
A. division B. resourcefulness C. harmony D. suffering
56. We enjoy the story but it sounds larger than life.
41. The college was worried about Tunji’s garrulous tendencies
A. too long and unsubstantiated
A. reticent B. loquacious C. quarrelsome D.
B. a little watery and lifeless
outspoken
C. completely untrue
D. somewhat unusual
42. We have found that cassava is a sine qua non item in
our industry.
57. Olu might visit London next summer.
A. useful B. indispensable C. useless D. dispensable
A. could B. will C. should D. can
43. Science may be a complicated area of learning, but its
58. General Murtala Muhammed excelled in deeds of prowess.
teaching needs to be demystified.
A. simplified B. twisted C. made difficult D. distorted
A. warfare B. politics C. courage D. eloquence.
44. Surveying the sky in the quiet of the night gives me an
59. The teacher’s face broke into an incredulous smile when
ethereal feeling.
he heard Adamu’s reason for coming late.
A. human B. earthly C. mundane D. commonplace
A. irritating B. artificial C. unbelieving D. irresponsible
45. The awareness of mortality has always imposed some 60. Recreation is important in contemporary civilization.
restraint on man’s excesses. A. Leisure B. Treasure C. Freedom D. Pleasure
A. celestiality B. eternity C. continuity D. inestitence
61. He won most of his fights because of his unorthodox style.
A. crude B. dishonest C. aggressive D. unconventional
46. The decision we have taken is irrevocable.
A. responsible B. irresponsible C. reversible D. irreversible 62. Jide says he read in the papers that our uncle has been
47. The lawyer pointed out a discrepancy in the two stories. declared a persona non grata by the French government.
A. similarity B. gap C. falsehood D. difference A. unwelcome guest B. impersonator
C. ungrateful person D. unofficial guest
48. Their high level of dishonesty has made that department
infamous in the entire secretariat.
63. The Vice Chancellor, who is stickler for rules, refused the
A. reputable B. notorious C. unpopular D. acceptable
request by the students for the semester to be rescheduled.
49. When Uche wouldn’t come to quickly enough, the A. a puritan B. a pedantist C. a disciplinarian D. an idealist
principal rushed him to the hospital
A. revive B. pass out C. arrive D. come up 64. The town looked deserted but we moved in with some
trepidation.
50. The governor’s action is out of tune with the
A. confidence B. surprise C. hesitation D. fear
declarations of his party.
A. in disagreement B. in line C. out of touch D. in touch.
In each of question 65 to 100 fill each gap with the most
appropriate option from the list following the gap. 84. The vermin on his body … [A. makes the lunatic look
B. make the lunatic look C. makes the lunatic to
65. I have no respect for individuals who are too...[A. compliance look D. make the lunatic to look] hideous.
B. compliant C. compliable D. complicated].
85. Do you think all … [A. these informations are B. this
66 The policemen who were to keep watch connived… information are C. this information is D. these
[A. with B. at C.to D.for] the robber’s escape. information are] not enough to help the investigator?

67. Kaka is … [A. not only anxious B. anxious not only 86. Do you prefer… [A. going on foot to taking B. to go
C. not only that she is anxious D. anxious] to acquire on foot to taking C. going on foot than taking
knowledge but also eager to display it. D. to go on foot than to take] my rickety car?

68. Wodu will not come… [A. after B. provided C. unless 87. No sooner… [A. did we set out when the rain had started
D. because] she is asked. B. had we set out than the rain started C. were we setting
out than the rain started D. we had set out when the
69. You must forbid… [A. he’s B. that he is C. him for rain started] to fall.
D. his] coming.
88. The company was charged with a … [A. negligence
70. Oche should leave for New York on Friday…[A. all the B. violation C. disregard D. breach] of contract.
things B. all other things C. other things D. other
things all] being equal. 89. The army ran short of … [A. arm and ammunitions
B. arms and ammunitions C. arms and ammunition
71. The woman warned her daughter not to … [A. move D. arm and ammunition].
B. be moving C. be keeping company D. keep
company] with bad boys. 90. The helpless … [A. require B. requires C. does require
D. do requires] our sympathy.
72. Ali is crying because his mother was killed in a…[A. motor
B. traffic C. motor vehicle D. road] accident. 91. My brother got married to a woman with…[A. gorgeous
B. exquisite C. decent D. attractive] manners.
73. Otopkpa is not very bold. He’s not … [A. cut up for
B. cut for C. cut off for D. cut out for] a rough life. 92. The thief we caught yesterday was … [A. disguised
B. concealed C. masked D. veiled] as an official of the
74. Some of the food … [A. is B. are C. were D. have] spoilt. company.
93. The carpenter asked for ten packets of… [A. fifteen-
75. They spent the last holiday with their… [A. sister-in-laws centimetre B. fifteen centimetres’ C. fifteen-
B. sisters-in-law C. sisters-in-laws D. sisters-inlaws] centimetres D. fifteen-centimetres’] nails.

76. You should not need … [A. to tell B. telling C. tell 94. The President refused to shake… [A. hand B. hands
D. to have been told] twice. C. a hand D. his hand] with the visiting Prime Minister.

77. The … [A. story’s length B. length of the story 95. The trader complained that he… [A. had been B. has
C. story length D. stories length] discouraged me from been C. was being D. is being] robbed.
reading it.
96. How can we believe this witness when no one will …
78. When the teacher asked him to join the queue outside, [A. collate B. correlate C. collaborate D.
he considered it … [A. an attack B. an insolence corroborate] his story?
C. an affront D. a disrespect] to his dignity.
97. The journalist’s unpopular views made him the subject
79. When he joined the staff of the school, he had various of much… [A. admiration B. derision C. a
duties … [A. detailed B. assigned C. prescribed dmonition D. suspicion].
D. enlisted] to him.
98. Idubor has gone to see his mechanic because his car
80. The secretary was blamed … [A. for B. about C. over engine needs to be tuned … [A. in B. off C. up D. on].
D. on] the untidy state of the office.
99. I was so anxious to arrive early for the lecture that I …
81. After a long talk with the police, Baba confessed his guilt [A. forgot B. left C. dropped D. abandoned] my
and so the other boys with whom he was accused were … notes in the car.
[A. vindicated B. consoled C. convinced D. exonerated.]
100. Good schools don’t just teach their students, they …
82. You think she hasn’t got any friends? Of course she’s got [A. inform B. instruct C. educate D. coach] them.
… [A. many more B. quite much C. quite a few D. few]

83. He moved out of the house because the landlord and

his wife were always fighting…[A. themselves B.
theirselves C. each other D. one another]
Use of English 1994

COMPREHENSION C. it provide avenues for idle talk

D. it is not destructive in the type of information
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that passed.
follow.
PASSAGE I 2. ‘Grow gossipy’ as used in the passage, means the area
Gossip! Yes, gossip is universal. In some languages, it A. cultivates and controls gossip
may have an outright negative connotation but in English, it B. is a rumour mill
basically means ‘idle talk’, chat about trivial things or matters. C. is ruined by gossip
When moderate and kind, ‘casual talk’ may serve to exchange D. engages in fruitful talk.
useful information as a means of updating one’s knowledge.
The whole neighborhood may grow gossipy with who got 3. When gossip ‘degenerates beyond the bounds of
married, pregnant, died, or it may just be a humorous chitchat propriety and good taste’, it becomes
devoid of malicious intent. A. harmful B. ruthless C. irritating D. astonishing
However, idle talk more often than not, degenerates
beyond the bounds of propriety and good taste. Facts get 4. In the passage, ‘such efforts notwithstanding ’refers to
embellished, exaggerated or deliberately distorted. Humiliation A. attempts at curbing gossip
is made the source of humour, privacy is violated, confidences B. the establishment of the ducking stool
betrayed and reputations injured or ruined. Condemnation takes C. rumour-control centres
the place of commendation, murmuring and fault finding are D. laws enacted against gossip.
extolled. The end result is like the mud thrown on a clean piece
of white cloth. It does not stick but it leaves a dirty and sometimes 5. Which title best sums up this passage?
permanent stain behind. A. gossip: a thing of the past
Gossip has been blamed for sleepless nights, heartache B. gossip: a societal evil
and indigestion. Certainly, it must have caused you some C. gossip and be damned
personal anguish at one time or the other, that is someone must D. gossip: the good and the bad.
at some time have tried getting a knife between your shoulder
blades. Negative gossip is almost universally frowned upon. PASSAGE II
Among the Indians in the United States, gossiping about In many places in the world today, the poor are getting
someone is classified with lying and stealing. Among the Yoruba poorer while the rich are getting richer, and the programmes of
of Nigeria, the tale bearer is detested and often avoided. Indeed, development planning and foreign aid appear to be unable to
throughout history, measures have been taken to curb this reverse this trend. Nearly all the developing countries. But they
‘deadly’ disease. Between the 15th and 18th centuries, the ducking also have a non-modern sector, where the patterns of living and
stool was popularly used in England and Germany and later in working are not only unsatisfactory, but in many cases are even
the United States. getting worse. What is typical condition of the poor in developing
The gossip was tied to a chair and repeatedly ducked countries? Their work opportunities are so limited that they
in water. In modern times, the war against gossiping has also cannot work their way out of their situation. They are under-
been fought. Rumour control centres have been established to employed, or totally unemployed. When they do find occasional
respond to rumours that were potentially harmful to government work, their productivity is extremely low. Some of them have
activities. Laws have even passed to curb gossip. Nicknames land, but often too little land. Many have no land, and no prospect
have been given to those who peddle the trade. Ever heard of of ever getting any. There is no big cities either- and of course
‘Amebo’! no housing. All the same, they flock into cities because their
Such efforts notwithstanding, gossip survives. It is chances of finding some work appear to be greater there than in
alive and flourishing. Gossip is everywhere. There is the villages-where such chances are nil. Rural employment then
neighbourhood gossip, office gossip. Shop gossip, party gossip, produces mass migration into the cities. Rural unemployment
family gossip and funnily enough religious gossip. Gossip becomes urban unemployment.
transcends all cultures, races and civilizations, and it has The problem can be stated quite simply: what can be
flourished and is still flourishing at every level of society. Gossip done to promote economic growth in the small towns and villages,
is deeply a part of human nature. Yet gossip is not inherently which still contain about eighty to ninety percent of the
evil. There is a positive side to casual talk. Knowing where to population? The primary need is workplaces, literally millions of
draw the line between harmless and harmful gossip is the key to workplaces. No one, of course, would suggest that output per
avoiding victimizing others and being a victim yourself. worker is unimportant. But the primary aim cannot be to maximize
output per worker; it must be to maximize work opportunities for
1. Gossip appeals to people because the unemployed and the under-employed. The poor man’s
A. it is entertaining but could be deadly greatest need is the chance to work. Even poorly paid and
B. human being take delight in passing and relatively unproductive work is better than no work at all. It is
acquiring information therefore more important that everybody should produce
something, than that few people should each produce a great given focus either through the guild of wives, the guild of
deal. And in most developing countries, this can only be achieved daughters, or the market women’s guild. Women, through these
by using an appropriate intermediate technology. organs, could make their feelings known on any issue affecting
their community as a whole or females in particular. Thus,
6. According to the passage, the difference between the unpopular edicts or ‘decrees’ could be revoked or revised as a
developing countries and the developed ones is that result of mounted pressure from any of these female associations.
while the former have: No decision was usually taken by the men without prior
A. a modern sector, the latter do not consultation with the leaders of the women’s groups. It must
B. two conflicting sectors, the latter have one however be emphasized that the degree of women participation
C. higher rural unemployment, the latter have in politics was yet much limited when compared to that of men.
higher urban employment
D. appropriate intermediate technology, the latter 11. According to the author, electioneering campaign is
adopt inappropriate one. the approach
A. best used in politics
7. Which of the following statements best explains the B. used in pre-colonial politics
meaning of the phrase ‘reverse this trend’ as used in the text? C. for choosing kings or emirs
A. Return to the former state of affairs D. currently in use
B. reappraise the programmes
C. improve the situation. 12. From the passage, it is obvious that women participated
D. make the rich become poor in politics.
8. From the way the writer describes the typical condition of A. on equal basis with men
the poor in developing countries, one could conclude B. as leaders of men
that: C. to a limited extent
A. rural poverty is a disease D. as chiefs and regents
B. the poor have no hope
C. rural poverty is caused by the rich 13. ‘Political engineering’ in the passage means
D. the problems of the poor are temporary. A. playing of politics
B. maneuvering in politics
9. When the writer says ‘… literally millions of C. studying of politics
workplaces’, he wants the reader to D. steering political events.
A. take the million figure literally
B. appreciate the need for numerous workplaces 14. Which of the following is implied in the passage?
C. realize that the million figure is a mere A. women are not politicians
exaggeration B. women should be confined to the home
C. women are capable of political leadership
10. What is the point made by the writer about solving the D. post-colonial politics should not involve
problem of unemployment in developing countries? women
A. Use appropriate intermediate technology.
B. A few people should produce a great deal. 15. A suitable title for the passage is
C. Stop migration to cities. A. women in politics
D. Create more workplace. B. champions of women liberation
C. great women of yesteryears
PASSAGE III D. electioneering campaigns
Politics in pre-colonial times did not involve the partisan
type of electioneering campaign that we now have. The society PASSAGE IV
was ruled by a king or an emir and his traditional chiefs or by the
council of elders or clan heads. Where there existed the Use the passage below to answer questions 16 to 26. The
hierarchical system as in the Yoruba and Hausa kingdoms, passage has gaps numbered 16 to 26 immediately following
succession to the throne was mainly patriarchal. A recorded each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most
exception was the case of Queen Amina of the Zazzau Empire appropriate option for each gap.
who ruled in the 15th century A.D a host of unsung and
unrecorded women regents and at times women village rulers Two thirds of children in…16…[A. industrialized B.
abound, especially in the present Ondo State where some socialized C. technological D. modernized] societies no longer
influential traditional female chiefs and regents still exist. In have family life. They are virtually abandoned to child-minders
Ibadan, the famous Efunsetan Aniwura held political as well as from a very tender age. The …17...[A. disregard B. indifference
economic sway and it took a lot of drive, brain work and political C. alienation D. inattention] from their mothers brings suffering
engineering for the then king and his council of chiefs to subdue and makes it impossible for them to achieve a healthy social life.
her. The history of the various towns and villages of the period The…18…[A. development B. increase C. appreciation D.
could boast of such women who were actively engaged in the inflation] in the number of suicides, the rates of drug addiction
running of government. and…19…[A. delinquency B. irresponsibility C. satanism D.
In the Igbo soceity, a rise to leadership position was truancy] among young people may be to a large extent, due to
through demonstrated ability in fostering societal survival rather these premature separations which take place before sufficient
than heritage. Women’s voice in the politics of each clan is time has…20…[A. materialized B. occurred C. surfaced D.
elapsed] for attachment to develop. ‘This is one of the causes of In each of questions 31 to 40, choose the most appropriate
psychosis in children today’ says a psychiatrist who believes option opposite in meaning to the word(s) in italics.
that breast-feeding is one of the basic cares which many children
of this age are…21…[A. tantalized with B. denied of C. left with 31. The paper carries many humourous cartoons on
D. spared of]. This psychiatrist argues that breast-feeding Saturdays.
extends into the world outside the womb, a liquid bond with the A. amorous B. grievous C. hilarious D. grave
inside of the mother’s body; a bond…22…[A. close to B. the
same as C. unrelated to D. irrelevant to] that which the baby 32. All through his years in public office, he found his
had with the placenta inside the uterus. Rhythmic rocking to father’s advice invaluable.
and fro is…23…[A. an elongation B. a demonstration C. a A. priceless B. hopeless C. worthless
continuation D. a stretching] of the movement that the child D. helpful.
experienced before it was born. As for the baby’s…24…[A.
squeezing against B. separation from C. likeness for D. 33. The lecturer was merely obfuscating the issue with his
pressure against] its mother’s body, it reminds the child of endless examples.
the…25…[A. reassuring B. uncomfortable C. amusing D. A. complicating B. clarifying C. confusing D. summarizing
unpleasant] pressure of the uterus, and enables it to…26…[A.
unearth B. rediscover C. learn D. explore] the rhythms of its 34. Such measures end up exacerbating the pain.
mother’s breathing and heartbeat. A. aggravating B. increasing C. eliminating D. alleviating

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE 35. In a sentence, there must always be concord between a
subject and its verb.
In each of questions 27 to 30, select the option that best explains A. breach B. departure C. disagreement D. dispute
the information conveyed in the sentence.
36. As soon as the headmaster appeared, the chanting resumed.
27. Had he come that day, the problem would still not have A. Immediately B. Much later C. Soon after D. Almost
been solved. as.
A. He came that day, but the problem was not
solved. 37. In the course of the debate, the speakers were advised
B. He did not come that day, but the problem was to summarize their points.
solved. A. argue B. develop C. round off D. round up
C. He did not come that day, and the problem
was not solved. 38 The elderly often fulminate against the apparent indolence
D. He did not come that day, but his presence of the young generation.
would not have solved the problem. A. protest bitterly about
B. complain seriously about
28. He is now the megaphone of the people’s oppressors. C. promote vigorously
A. He now speaks on behalf of the oppressors. D. commend warmly
B. He now carries the megaphone when the
oppressors speak. 39. We should discourage further investment in existing
C. He is now the oppressor with the loudest factories.
voice. A. productive B.prosperous C. prospective
D. He is the oppressor who now speaks with D. precious
megaphone.
40. Nigeria is gradually experiencing economic recession
29. Here is Mr. Pam the tailor. A. birth B. discovery C. recovery D. destruction.
A. He is the only person known as Mr. Pam, and
he is a tailor. In each of questions 41 to 55, choose the most appropriate
B. He is one of those known as Mr. Pam, and he option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
is a tailor.
C. He is the only tailor, and he is Mr. Pam. 41. We could not put up with his terrible disposition
D. He is one of many tailors, and he is Mr. Pam. A. exterminate B. tolerate C. control D. deal with

30. One of the guarantors shall sign here. 42. She was taken aback by his attitude.
A. It is desirable that one of the guarantors sign A. delayed B. dragged aback C. surprised
here. D. overwhelmed
B. It is reasonable that one of the guarantors
signs here. 43. Many would argue that the achievement commensurate
C. It is obligatory that one of the guarantors with the effort.
signs here. A. unexpected in the light of
D. It is advisable that one of the guarantors signs B. funny compared with
here. C. proportional to
D. the wrong excuse for.
44. They show no finesse in dealing with strangers. In each of questions 56 to 100 fill the gap(s) with the most
A. boldness B. kindness C. tact D. love appropriate option from the list following the gap(s).

45. As a matter of fact, we have been trying to step up 56. When I was in the secondary school, my parents were
production. active members of the … [A. Parents-Teachers
A. maximize B. decrease C. suspend D. increase Association B. Parents’-Teachers’ Association
C. Parent- Teacher Association
D. Parent’s Teacher’s Association.]
46. Ojo used to play tennis everyday.
A. is familiar with playing 57. The pen which you have just picked up is…[A. Charle’s
B. has to play B. Charles’ C. Charless’ D. Charles’s].
C. was in the habit of playing
D. was made to play. 58. It is clear to me that you won’t visit Okoro this holiday,
will you?…[A. Yes, I won’t B. Yes, I will visit C. No,I
47. In his own story, he confirmed that they had been on his won’t D. No,I will not visit]
tail for quite sometime.
A. closely following and watching him 59. Sa’adatu as well as the maids…[A. like plantain chips
B. searching for him B. are liking plantain chips C. is liking plantain
C. giving him a tail chips sD. likes plantain chips].
D. tagging him a talebearer
60. Measles…[A. is B. are C. were D. was] no longer
48. I am surprised to learn that Badmus is an agnostic. impossible to manage these days.
A. someone that believes in God
B. someone who antagonizes God 61. People dislike Jobe because he is a… [A. trickery B.
C. someone who is nonchalant about the tricking C. trickful D. tricky] young man.
existence of God
D. someone who does not believe in the existence 62. If the boys arrived early enough, the match…[A. would
of God. have been played B. will be played C. will have to be
played D. would be played]
49. Although the manager is busy right now, he will soon
be with you presently. 63. There are…[A. appendexes B. appendix C. appendices
A. Immediately B. soon C. without delay D. appendixes] on spelling and pronunciation at the
D. right away end of the book.

50. The governor’s wife, in characteristically simple attire, 64. She usually works hard; but…[A. at times B. atimes C.
walked into the hall unnoticed. attimes D. at time] she could be very lazy.
A. eccentrically B. typically C. consistently
D. intrinsically 65. The police… [A. says they are B. say it is C. say they
are D. says it is] happy about the dwindling crime rate
51. After my husband’s popular election, we had to keep
open house throughout the weekend. 66. The keepers themselves are sometimes… [A. stinged
A. entertain every caller B. stang C. stung D. sting] by the bees.
B. keep all doors open
C. relax security 67. I now realize I…[A. had met B. have met C. met
D. give a party D. meet] you before.
68. The patient was… [A. operated on B. Operated C.
52. Our new Vice-Chancellor has stepped off on the wrong operated for D. operated with] by a group of surgeons
foot. last week.
A. injured his foot while entering his office
B. started off badly 69. The old man couldn’t help…[A. to laugh B. that he
C. made a costly mistake laughed C. laughing D. in laughing] at his grandson’s
D. stepped on the wrong toes. babbling.

53. The corporate existence of any nation is in jeopardy if 70. A range of options…[A. were made B. is made C. are
her leaders pay lip service to her unity. made D. was made] available to the political parties
A. do not promptly pay their taxes. during the recently concluded elections.
B. want to break up the country
C. do not dialogue-regularly over her unity 71. He claimed that Mr. Okoli’s utterance was tantamount
D. are insincere about the problems of her unity to defamation of character, so he sued for…[A. damage
B. some damage C. a damage D. damages].
54. Much to her chagrin, the bridegroom did not turn up
for the wedding 72. I don’t think he can… [A. can’t be B. isn’t it C. can
A. wonder B. surprise C. disappointment D. depression he D. don’t I ]?

55. Ngozi’s countenance is less gloomy: it would appear as 73. The handset was faulty and so it was impossible to…[A
if she is relatively out of the woods. get at B. get over to C. get through to D. get on to]
A. free from difficulties B. just from the forest them by phone.
C. in good condition of health D. out of wants
74. To be extravagant is to be… [A. rich B. luxurious C. 88. My friend…[A. never saw B. did not see C. had not
careless D. wasteful]. seen D. had never seen] me for many years when I met
him last week.
75. The president of the union…[A. would have left B. is
about leaving C. was leaving D. has left] for the airport 89. School buildings that… in 1950…[A. were build/are
by the time the riot started. B. were built/are C. were built/is D. are built/are] now
unihabitable.
76. Until his recent experience. Onimisi used to pride himself 90. Sixty percent of the unskilled workers…[A. are retain
…[A. on B. by C. about D. for] his fearlessness. B. is retained C. were retained D. are retained] yearly
by the company.
77. The trader…[A. exhibited B. displayed C. spread D.
demonstrated] his wares at the trade fair. 91. Defects like…in government’s development plans…
[A. this/calls B. these/calls C. this/call D. these/call]
78. Based on the facts before me. I have no alternative…[A. for extra vigilance.
but b. than C. as D. only] to terminate your appointment.
92. Most of his personal….[A. affects was B. affects were
79. Despite the pressure of work during the week, I shall C. effect was D. effects were] stolen.
endeavour to…[A. put up an appearance B. put up
appearance C. put in an appearance D. put on an 93. Tokyo is one of the most developed… [A. electronics
appearance] at your wedding. centre B. electronic centre C. electronics centres
D. electronic centres] of the world.
80. The expected guest eventually arrived…[A. in
company with B. in company of C. by company of D. 94. The director is to liaise… The management… [A. with/
accompanied with] his wife. in B. in/on C. with/on D. on/with] corporate matters.
81. When we visited him, he offered us a variety of…[A. 95. Some motorists …[A. shuttle along B. shuttle from
hot B. local C. hard D. soft] drinks such as whisky and C. shuttle to D. shuttle between] Sokoto and Kano.
brandy.
96. …[A. Since the cold war is over B. with the cold war
82. The exercise will be easily accomplished by the team if over C. the cold war over D. That the cold war is over],
members had their…[A. pull/resources together B. we can now start meaningful development.
pool/resources together C. pull/resources D. pool/
resources]. 97. My…is for you to refuse the…[A. advise/advice
B. advice/advice C. advice/advise D. advise/advise]
83. I have decided to…[A. abandon B. give up C. discard of the wicked.
D. jettison] drinking alcohol for health reasons.
98. Go straight down the hill and take the third… [A. bend
84. I would like to … [A. accompany B. follow C. e scort B. branch C. junction D. turning] on the left. You can’t
D. join] my father to Kaduna. miss it
85. One…[A. can’t B. shouldn’t C. need not D. dares not] 99. I hereby declare and…[A. inform B. confirm C.
be too careful these days; times are uncertain and walls affirm D. conform] that, to the best of my knowledge,
have ears. this statement is true in all respects
86. I shall never be so tired…[A. as not to be able B. that I
shan’t be able C. and so be unable D. such that I will 100. A citizen in a democracy can…[A. turn up B. bring out
be unable] to write to you. C. bring up D. turn to] the law if he or she wants to correct
an injustice.
87. As you have been here before,…[A. it were better you
B. it is you who will C. you’d better D. you would
better] lead the way.

COMPREHENSION
Use of English 1995
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow. would arrange for my family to join me. Other financial problems
at home would be taken care of by my regular remittances. Would
PASSAGE I I then never think of going back home in future? Not until the
Whenever I have had to ask myself the question why I situation in the country improved considerably, I would answer.
have not left this country for good, many answers rush to my And who did I expect to carry on with the task of national
mind, each striving to be recognized as being the most cogent. I rehabilitation when the likes f me are all out of the country?
am reminded of the popular slogan that this country belongs to Those who messed up the country in the first place, I would
us all’, for which reason every Nigerian must join hands in trying argue. And so on. This dialogue of self has been going on for
to salvage it. I try to dismiss the argument by reasoning that it is the last ten years or so; meanwhile, I am yet to leave the country.
foolhardy attempting to lend a helping hand where one’s services When I wonder how many people share my kind of
are apparently not required. Then I am reminded that if I left the mental experience, realize that we must be very few. For not
country in a hurry just because of our political instability and many have the slightest opportunity of absconding from the
economic hardships, my commitments to my family at home would country; they do not have the place to run to, nor do they have
suffer. I reply by saying that as soon as I got settled abroad, I the means of escape. Even among the elite who consider this
possibility, the uncertainty of a future outside their fatherland reduce mortality rate and improve living conditions. In the field
intimidates. And so we all end up staying and mumbling. of electronics, the invention of the computer is a remarkable
1. To leave the country ‘for good’ means leaving the achievement. The use of computers in economic activities,
country education, administration and business has helped to reduce
A. unexpectedly the exertion of human energy as more activities can be carried
B. for better opportunities out faster and more effectively.
C. permanently However, in spite of the laudable contributions and
D. now that things are not very good lofty accomplishments of technology, it has, nevertheless,
succeeded in introducing several anomalies and, in some cases,
2. The expression ‘each striving to be recognized as being reduced the value attached to human life. In our age, social life
the most cogent’ means each has been greatly altered by technological changes such as the
A. trying to prove its superiority invention of nuclear energy. Those who support the invention
B. determined to prove that it is the most of nuclear energy claim that the only way to maintain peace is to
acceptable be battle-ready. Humanity is greatly threatened and terrorized
C. resolved not to be dislodged by the invention of the nuclear warhead. People now live in
D. attempting to show that it is the brightest. dread of the hour, as no one knows when a conflict may arise
between nations, which may lead to the use of the nuclear bomb
3. The writer’s argument that it is foolhardy to offer one’s assumed to possess the capacity of wiping out humanity within
services where such are apparently not required implies the twinkling of an eye.
that in Nigeria
A. the authorities do not solicit for the services 6. The phrase ‘For nearly a century’ implies that the events
of the citizens described happened
B. mediocrity is the order of the day A. after the present century
C. the authorities are indifferent to offers of help B. before the present century
from the citizens C. at a time that includes the present century
D. to offer to serve the country is dangerous. D. before the development of science and
technology.
4. The writer’s posture as to who caused the problems in
his country can be described as 7. The words ‘conjectures’ and ‘hypotheses’ mean
A. indifferent B. unpatriotic A. guess-work B. prediction
C. self-righteousness D. logical. D. understanding D. conclusion

5. The last paragraph of the passage reveals that 8. The inventors of nuclear energy justify the need for it
A. the writer is a member of the elite which alone by saying that it will
indulges in this king of thinking A. make people fear war and thus create peace
B. people in the country only end up arguing B. enable wars to be fought more effectively
among themselves, while nobody does C. provide a balance of power between war and
anything about the situation peace
C. the majority of citizens in the country do not D. balanced society in the world.
possess the ability to argue the way the writer
does 9. The conclusion one can draw from the passage is that the
D. deciding to leave the country is as bad as direction of the development of science and technology
deciding to stay. A. has continued to be of benefit to humanity
B. leaves nothing more to be invented or
PASSAGE II discovered
The development of science and technology in this C. may lead man back to the early periods
century had led men into many inventions and discoveries. For D. has assumed some negative dimensions.
nearly a century, men were content with the use of railways,
carriages and cars. Another chapter opened when steamships 10. The title that best reflects the contents of the passage is
and airplanes were invented. Thus, through technology, man A. Man, Science and the Environment
conquered the land, the water and the airspace. But there was B. Technology in the Service of Man
one area left unconquered by man: outer space. In fact, outer C. Science and Technology through the
space --- planets, stars and the galaxies --- was known only Centuries
through magnifying lenses. Thus, man operated on mere D. Science, Technology and Human Existence.
conjectures as far as knowledge of these things was concerned.
Consequently, there was no scientific certainty, only hypotheses. PASSAGE III
But today, man has penetrated outer space.
Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct
It is true that science and technology have developed
tremendously in this century. In the field of engineering, for usage of the language, the medium of expression for government
example, the automobile has been invented as a means of easier, and education. Its opposite is a dialectal variant of the language,
more comfortable and faster movement from one place to another. that is, accepted and recognized words, expressions and
Apart from that, methods and instruments for diagnosing structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are
diseases and promoting hygiene and sanitation have helped to generally set apart from standard usage by cultural group or
geographical region. For example, Nigerian, American, Irish and [A. produces B. records C. determines D. decides] the type of
British English differ from one another in many respects and person one is. But it is important to realize that good food …24…
each is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety [A. lends B. gives C. makes D. rewards] one …25…[A.
approaches a single and hypothetical classification known as immunization B. immunity C. release D. retreat] from diseases.
international English. As one moves towards informality and
away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
differences between dialects. In addition to American English
being distinguishable from British English, it is also true that In each of questions 26 to 30, select the option that best explains
British English is not uniform within the United Kingdom. The the information conveyed in the sentence.
level of formality is determined by education and aspiration,
while dialects vary from region to region. 26. Most of the time, their presence is a menace.
[The Department of English, Obafemi Awolowo A. Their presence is always meaningful
University, IIe-Ife: Theuse of English Text (1980)] B. Their presence is seldom a bother
C. Their presence is usually of great concern
11. The author refers to standard English as D. Their presence is frequently a threat.
A. a dialectal variant of language
B. an authoritative style of usage 27. My son, who is in the U.S.A., is studying Engineering.
C. the orthodox and accurate usage of the A. My only son is in the U.S.A. studying
language Engineering.
D. the accepted and recognized words, B. One of my sons is in the U.S.A. studying
expressions and structures, peculiar to a Engineering.
smaller group of language users. C. My sons are in the U.S.A. but only one is
studying Engineering.
12. One characteristic of a dialect as mentioned in the passage is D. Only my son is in the U.S.A. studying
A. informality Engineering.
B. possession of various forms
C. distinction from British English 28. I was one of those who actively believed in his
D. restricted area of usage. development programmes.
A. I was part of those who renounced the
13. According to the author, Nigerian, American, Irish and programmes.
British English can be regarded as B. I was the originator of the programmes.
A. registers B. standards C. I was one of the people who embraced the
C. styles D. languages. programmes.
D. I was one of the great number who developed
14. According to the passage, international English is his programmes actively.
A. a kind of arbitrary classification
B. an imaginary classification 29. The mills of God grind slowly, but they grind
C. an informal standard exceedingly small.
D. a recognized formal standard. A. God has a mill where every material in life is
thoroughly ground.
15. The observance of strict rules is a feature of B. God may seem slow in action, but He
A. formality B. dialects adequately rewards every bit of injustice.
C. languages D. unconventionality C. The world is like a food factory where God
takes His time in grinding all raw materials
Use the passage below to answer question 16 to 25. The passage properly.
has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately following each gap, D. Even though God is never in a hurry, He
four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option achievesall things.
for each gap.
30. People are not interested in who rules
Many Nigerians are yet to appreciate the importance of A. People who rule are not interested in the ruled
…16…[A. consuming B. eating C. swallowing D. taking] good B. The rulers are not indifferent about the people
food. The major reason for this lack of …17… [A. awareness B. C. People are indifferent about the rulers
seriousness C. sense of responsibility D. determination] is to D. People are not ruled by the people they are
be …18…[A. seen B. acknowledged C. discovered D. interested in.
found] in the pattern of spending ...19... [A. recurring B. usual
C. frequent D. common] among the people of this country. This In each of questions 31 to 50, choose the most appropriate
pattern is characterized by lack of …20…[A. thinking B. saving option opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
C. planning D. controlling], which is evident in the wasteful
spending habit of Nigerians, a good number of whom are quite 31. Good students can easily identify spurious arguments.
…21… [A. arrogant B. stingy C. crazy D. extravagant] when A. genuine B. interesting C. false D. illogical.
it comes to buying clothes. This …22… [ A. desire B.
anticipation C. aversion D. regret] for expensive clothes has
been brought about by the belief that it is appearance that …23…
32. Eze’s skin now looks flabby as a result of his changed 47. The video tape recorder was made obsolete by the
circumstances. introduction of the satellite dish.
A. neat B. firm C. weak D. oily. A. antiquated B. useless C. fashionable D. functional.

33. He and his lieutenants have been accused of remaining 48. Segun is somebody who always follows his own inclinations.
intransigent. A. impulses B. aversions C. dispositions
A. rigid B. stubborn C. compromising D. popular. D. deviations

34. In the opinion of most observers, it was a disinterested 49. The poor man is compelled to languish in his poverty-
decision. stricken situation.
A. neutral B. impartial C. biased D. candid. A. luxuriate in B. deteriorate in C. suffer in D. laugh at

35. We watched in wonder as she rattled away in the esoteric 50. The engineers have been urged to make a prototype of
language. the long-awaited Nigeria car.
A. inscrutable B. familiar C. secret D. obscure. A. specimen B. original C. copy D. drawing.

36. She was asked to swallow her pride and get busy. In each of the questions 51 to 67, choose the most appropriate
A. be more realistic B. eat up her own pride option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
C. be more insistent C. be less proud.
51. The young man’s behaviour showed that he was at the
37. Many species in creation have mutated over the years top of the tree.
into new forms of life. A. at the highest position in his profession
A. stabilized B. manifested B. confused
C. transformed D. standardized. C. at a point of preparedness to show good example
D. arrogant.
38. His textile business deals are in gross.
A. wholesale B. imported C. retailed D. exported. 52. The chairman’s reaction was a storm in a tea cup.
A. suitable for the occasion
39. The government is initiating new effective programmes B. less serious than it appeared to be
to boost production. C. more serious than necessary
A. ending/enhance B. reviewing/renew D. greatly diminished in scope.
C. rearranging/increase D. terminating/reduce.
53. Do this job while I am away, but take your time.
40. The culprit unwittingly subjected himself to great A. be careful B. be thorough C. be fast
humiliation. D. don’t be in a hurry.
A. cunningly B. curiously C. foolishly D. subtly
54. The judge took issue with the counsel who complained
41. The masses are controlled by the whims and caprices of double standards.
of their rulers. A. agreed with B. argued with C. criticized
A. wish B. parochialism D. supported.
C. will power D. level-headedness
55. I shuddered in revulsion as I watched the snake slowly
42. In his quest for solidarity, the party leader undertook a swallow the struggling rat.
nation-wide tour. A. was fascinated B. was repelled C. was interested
A. unity B. resistance C. mobilization D. re-organization D. was distressed.

43. Our party is wielding potent political power. 56. At that point, the speaker went off at a tangent.
A. assuming B. renouncing C. restoring A. started to run away like a mad person
D. reappraising. B. took a lashing out at the audience
C. began to discuss unrelated matters
44. The ruler expects full allegiance from his subjects at D. chose to recall previous decision.
all times.
A. obedience B. homage C. disloyalty D. disapproval. 57. The enemy interestingly proved a real bulwark on that
memorable day.
45. In spite of many days of fasting, Musa is still fastidious A. protecting force B. source of trouble
about his food. C. troubleshooter D. tribulation.
A. particular B. undecided C. indifferent D. unmindful.
58. It was evident to whoever listened to his speech that
46. The leader called for concerted efforts in order to get he also had an axe to grind.
over the problems. A. an account to settle with someone
A. combined B. definite C. disparate D. isolated. B. a tool or something to sharpen
C. a bone to pick with someone
D. a personal objective to achieve.
59. He might be compelled to make a momentous decision. 73. The teacher with his wife … [A. were B. were to be
A. a voluntary B. a spontaneous C. an important C. are D. was] here.
D. an involuntary.
74. … [A. if he did this B. if he could do this C. if he were
60. The Principal advised the students to bear with him in doing this D. if he had done this] he would have been
their present situation since every cloud has a silver lining. convicted.
A. every school has its problem
B. every bad situation has something good 75. What saved her was that she … [A. had clinged B.
C. good things always bring problems clung C. clinged D. clang] to the side of the boas.
D. difficulties often bring good things.
76. She has been here … [A. since B. for C. from D. in] the
61. Uche’s mother advised him to talk very little because past three years.
still waters run deep.
A. his enemies may be listening 77. He was … weak [A. so/that B. too/that C. very/that
B. there is no pride in talking too much D. so/when] he could not climb the stairs.
C. there is wisdom in silence
D. talking too much could lead him into trouble. 78. The hospital can now boast of more … [A. women
doctor B. woman doctors C. women doctors
62. Akin made such a dog’s breakfast of his home work. D. woman’s doctors].
A. an excellent job B. a brilliant attempt C. a mess
D. a poor performance. 79. He is one of those who … [A. teachers B. is teaching.
C. are teaching D. teach] in my school.
63. The confuses student found himself in a spot
A. in a particular place 80. The director, no less than his workers … [A. is B. are
B. in a normal situation C. were D. ought] to blame.
C. in a pleasant situation
D. in a difficult situation. 81. The principal asked me … [ A. what is my name
B. what was my name C. what my name was D. what
64. The man who gave the closing remarks at the party my name should be].
spoke tongue in cheek.
A. ironically B. wisely C. profusely D. eloquently. 82. He did not explain what happened … [A. either B. never
C. neither D. rather] did she.
65. New companies in the country always put up classified
advertisements in the dailies 83. Did the boy enjoy …[A. each other B. one another
A. secret B. small C. outrageous D. expensive C. themselves D. theirselves] when they went on
vacation?
66. The Doctor insisted on giving all of us prophylactic drugs. 84. It’s time the room … [A. is redecorated B. was been
A. curative B. preventive C. routine D. special. redecorated C. is being redecorated D. has been
redecorated] it looks awful.
67. The delegates to the Constitutional Conference have
mooted that funding of universities be transferred to 85. Her mother said to her ‘I …[A. would rather you
states where they are located. cooked B. would rather you cook. C. would rather
A. said B. agreed C. proposed D. legislated. you not cook D. would rather you have cooked] the
dinner now.
In each of question 68 to 100, fill the gap (s) with the most
appropriate option from the list following the gaps (s) 86. The driver of the car admitted … [A. to not have B. not
having C. to not having D. not to have] a licence.
68. The workers suffered a lot, toiling … [A. in B. under
C. underneath D. inside] the sun. 87. The panel’s … [A. credit B. credence C. credibility
D. credulity] was stretched to the limit by what they
69. Either Ekaete or you … [A. was B. are C. has D. is] to go. heard.

70. She has the … [A. elision B. illusion C. delusion 88. The poor man was pleased to find…[A. a rubber old
D. allusion] of being intelligent when in fact she is not. discarded B. an old discarded rubber C. a discarded
rubber old D. an old rubber discarded] type
71. … [A. A 90-year-old B. A 90-year-old C. A 90-
year-old D. 90-year-old] women was attacked by a 89. The minister can’t come today because he has … [A. a
group of bandits. former B. a preceding C. a prior D. an advance]
engagement.
72. He was angry with me … [A. on B. for C. of D. at]
being treated nonchalantly. 90. The policemen pointed out a …[A. discrepancy B.
discord C. distinction D. disagreement] between Mr.
Ogene’s two account of the incident.
91. The …[A. cite B. sight C. site D. side] engineer was 96. The fact that Olu was able to guess correctly some of
unhappy with the shoddy work done by the contractors. the questions that were asked, made him … [A. have
the edge on B. obtain a edge over C. have an edge
92. During the examination, a student … [A. requested B. over D. obtain the edge with] the other candidates.
requested for C. requests for D. request] more answer
sheets. 97. This is to congratulate you on your success in the last
examination and to wish you … [A. more grease to
93. It was an … moment for us to be [A. opportune/ your elbow B. more power to your elbow C. some
privileged B. opportune/privileged C. opportune/ grease on your elbow D. some power to your elbow].
privileged D. opportuned/opportune] to welcome the 98. One ot the vice …[A. president acts B. president acts
new Vice-Chancellor. C. president’s acts D. presidents acts] in an interim
capacity.
94. You must study hard this semester in order to avoid
being made … [A. an object of B. an object for C. a 99. The development is to be carried to the ... [A. grass
subject for D. an subject with] ridicule. root B. grassroots C. grassroots D. grass-root] level.

95. One of the three candidates contesting the union 100. A very popular rules is at the … [A. helms of affair B.
election was obliged to …[A. step down B. stand down helm of affair C. reaim of affair D. helm of affairs].
C. step out D. stand out] in favour of his friend.

Use of English 1997

COMPREHENSION A. confused him B. erased his memory
C. damaged his brain D. distorted his thoughts.
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow. 2. Chike left the girl alone because he
A. discovered that she was a thief
Chike must have passed the house five times. And yet B. was afraid of the fat woman
he was still not sure. Was this the house he had visited so often C. did not known her
in the past? The house he used to visit was a bungalow. This D. did not like her.
house, too, was a bungalow. The old house was situated between
two-storeyed building: this one too was so situated. But in spite 3. Many people in the crowd groaned, sighed and hissed
of this feeling of certainty, chike had a vague suspicion that the because they were
house he had passed so often that day might be the wrong A. angry with the girl
house after all. Could an absence of two years have blurred his B. sorry for the girl
memory so badly? C. sorry for the fat woman
After a few moments’ hesitation, Chike began to move D. angry that the woman had lied against the
towards the house and then stopped, as if held back by an girl.
invisible hand. His attention had been attracted by a girl of
about twenty-four, who was tripping along the pavement to his 4. The expression, ‘justice-impelled’ in the passage refers
right. He turned and advanced towards her, and was about to to the desire of the crowd to
call her by what he felt was her name when he discovered that he A. see that the case was taken before a judge
had made a mistake in respect of her identity. B. take the thief to the police station
Just as Chike turned from the girl to continue his quest, C. try the thief immediately
he heard voices shouting, ‘thief! thief!’ and saw a crowd D. see that there was fair play.
materialize in seconds. At the head of this justice-impelled rabble,
was a ludicrously fat woman who, in spite of her size, bounced 5. The impression one has of the fat woman described in
along with the agility of a prize athlete. This barrel bellowed the passage is that she is
loudest and clapped her hands vigorously to punctuate her A. the thief B. a good person C. overzealous
outburst. And as she did so the surplus flesh on her pudgy arms D. domineering.
quivered. ‘They are all the same’, this woman screamed,
addressing nobody in particular. ‘they dress gorgeously, but PASSAGE II
underneath they are rogues.’ Theatre in the recent past used to be a very popular art
Again, she clapped her hands and again, there was a in traditional African society. It used to be a point of intersection
quivering of loose flesh. Chike was so busily occupied with where members of the community not only come to entertain
watching the antics of this woman that he did not notice at first themselves, but ‘join heads together’. In the traditional context
that the object of her venom was the girl he had seen earlier. It African drama therefore, Theatre was a popular and respectable
was this girl that was now surrounded by the crowd, with many institution, which preserved the people’s culture and tradition.
people groaning. Sighing and hissing in unison. Theatre was popular with the people because it emphasized
Chike relaxed, and prepared to watch the drama unfolding community participation, peace and progress. The presentations
before him. focused on the people’s lives, their aspirations, fears and hopes.
1. The expression, ‘blurred his memory’ means
But today, the situation is different. Theatre is becoming very PASSAGE III
unpopular. The financing of the university will always be a
Africa of the present age is pre-occupied with many vexatious problem not only because of the need for it to maintain
problems yearning for immediate solutions. The continent is a level of independence that allows for the thriving of intellectual
facing hydra-headed challenges --- challenges on the political, pursuit but also for the size of funding that is required to maintain
social and economic scenes. In a world where science and an acceptable level of infrastructure in a modern university. The
technology are seen as the solutions to these problems, little experience of the Nigerian university in recent years has in this
attention is paid to the arts. Literature generally, and drama in regard, been almost alarming. The funding level required
particular, is often rated very low on the utility scale. Many in constitute sufficient reasons for diversifying the sources. Even
Africa today look at drama and theatre as a mere thing of fun, a if government was in a position on its own to meet all of the
joke so to say. university’s financial requirements. I consider it desirable that
Elitism is another barrier that militates against the every effort be made to reduce such contribution in the interest
appreciation of theatre as a communal art. Folk theatre is of university autonomy. I also hold the view that the university
appreciated by a negligible number of people. Contemporary should seek to become dependent, in a substantial way, on funds
focus is on literary theatre. Unfortunately. Literary theatre only generated from within. In other words the sources of funding
pretends to serve the interest of its society while in reality it has the university should be diversified as much as possible. Based
a foreign audience in mind. The use of Europeans and American on this principle, we can identify four sources— government,
theatrical conventions by our academic playwrights can bear industry, students and individual philanthropists. I must add
witness to this anomaly. quickly that each source has its own set of problems in its
The popularity of the literary African theatre is further continuing interaction with the university, which ought to be
marred by the medium of communication as most literary dramas addressed here.
in Africa are written in foreign languages, which are not Of all the four major sources of financing university
understood by many Africans. The question often asked is education mentioned above, contribution through fees from the
whether the artist should climb down to the level of his students involves instricate issues of special concern, if
community or stay at his exalted height and wait for the government gives as an expression of its obligation to promote
community to gradually move up to him. general welfare of society, if industry gives in order to enhance
its chances of procurement of needed human, information and
6. Theatre was popular in Africa because it material resources, as well as enhance its social responsibility. If
A. was traditional and simple in nature the general public gives as an indication of voluntary support
B. dealt with the political, social and economic for a worthy social cause, students (and by inference their
problem of the society parents) should give in order to purchase an economic good for
C. was a source of fun meeting their own felt need in the expectation that they will be
D. was communal and reflected the common satisfied with the product purchased.
[Adapted from Onosode, G. O. :‘The Politics of Managing People Prospects
concerns of the people. and Poverty The Role of the University’, 1009 OAU Convocation]

7. One of the reasons why theatre is unpopular in modern 11. It is important for Universities to be independent so
Africa is that it that they can
A. is regarded as not being of much use A. attract funds from industries
B. only deals with cultural and tradition B. determine their goals
C. lacks scientific and academic bases C. be left to expand without any hindrance
D. is always funny and looked down upon. D. carry out effective research.

8. In the passage the terms ‘theatre’ and ‘drama’ are used 12. The writer advocates for multiple sources of university
A. differently B. concurrently C. interchangeable funding in order to
D. sparingly. A. enhance university autonomy
B. reduce dependence on government
9. One of the arguments in the passage is that academic C. ensure that the numerous needs of the
playwrights universities are met
A. express themselves only in foreign languages D. maintain acceptable levels of infrastructural
B. serve as a catalyst in the society’s appreciation development.
of theatre
C. work against the common man’s appreciation 13. The expression ‘intricate issues of special concern’
of theatre means
D. make theatre popular in traditional societies. A. important policy statements
B. interwoven topics of significance
10. By the expression ‘climb down’, the author implies that C. complex matters requiring careful thought
modern playwrights should D. knotty problems that concern everybody.
A. be simplistic in the use if language
B. not move on 14. The word ‘diversified’ as used in the passage means A.
C. use language that is most appreciated by the people differentiated B. varied C. diffused D. widened.
D. wait for the community to catch up with them
15. The source of university funding emphasized in the
passage is
A. government B. industry A. Bassey is very strong
C. the general public D. student B. Bassey is very brave
C. Bassey is determined
D. Bassey is unsympathetic
PASSAGE IV
In each of questions 31 to 50 choose the most appropriate option
The passage below has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
following each gap, for option are provided. Choose the most
appropriate option for each gap. 31. He gave a painstaking account of his account of his
encounter with the ghost of his father
In today’s society, few people at home need feel…16…[A. A. sordid B. fearful C. half- hearted D. tender-hearted.
estranged B. discouraged C. bad D. intrigued] from other people
and … 17…[A. cut out B. off C. cut away D. cut down] from the 32. Bala was put off by Lanre’s conquettish behaviour
world about them. Telephone, television, car, common, social towards him.
and educational …18…[A. interest B. associations C. interests A. unfriendly advantage
C. activity D. escapapades] with other parents, all keep married B. inviting and friendly advances
couples in living …19…[A. contact B. contract C. activity D. C. quarrel some attitude
together] with the rest of the community. If a person D. interesting attitude.
feels…20…[A. deprived B. isolated C. neglected D. cheated], it
may be that he of she has allowed himself of herself to become 33. Since mortality is the lot of man argued the preacher,
so. we must all accept death with equanimity.
The person who…21…[A. administers B. runs C. orders A. concern B. uncertainty C. serenity D. anxiety.
D. arranges] the home is the master of the immediate environment
and is free to plan the daily…22…[A. chores B. timetable C. 34. We admire the minister’s passionate and dynamic
organization D. routing] to allow for time off, or for reading, or characteristics.
cultural or social activities, much more so than the worker in a A. cruel and passive
factory of office. In fact, in the case of a full-time housewife and B. kind and forceful
mother, if she uses her time to good effect, she could C. passive and charmless
develop…23…[A. mentally B. physically C. economically D. D. charmless and cruel.
intelligently] by reading or home study as well as enrich herself
with the ameliorating experience denied to a working woman, 35. I was advised to stay away from cities that are ravaged
namely loving daily contact with her children …24…[A. Bearing by crime.
B. Dressing up C. Washing up D. Bringing up] children is A. spoilt by B. free from C. suffering from D. haven of.
regarded by many people as a rewarding…25…[A. activity B.
experience C. promotion D. engagement] and a labour of love. 36. You can use lethal means if necessary to stop
dangerous characters from molesting innocent citizens
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE A. fatal B. cruel C. harmless D. soft
In each of questions 26 to 30, select the option that best explains 37. His intention was not actually to punish the villagers,
the information conveyed in the sentence. and in any case he is now making moves to pacify them
A. placate B. ridicule C. appease D. annoy.
26. The stadium had a capacity crowd in spite of the
weather. 38. If you are really keen on immediate results, you just
A. The weather favoured the crowd at the have to adopt this pragmatic approach
stadium. B. The crowd defied the weather to fill A. practical B. unrealistic C. opportunistic D. sensible.
the stadium. C. The stadium was not filled because
of the weather. D. The crowd loved the weather at the 39. My friend was reduced to beggary by various ill-
stadium. advised business deals.
A. affluence B. penury C. influence D. poverty.
27. Imona couldn’t have attended lectures yesterday.
A. It was possible that Imona attended lectures 40. Measures were taken to authenticate the number of
yesterday. the booklets received.
B. It was possible that Imona didn’t attend lecturer A. reaffirm B. discredit C. discountenance D. count
yesterday.
C. It was impossible that Imona attended lectures 41. He urged other progressives in the country to join forces
yesterday. with his association
D. It was impossible that Imona didn’t attend A. radicals B. conservatives C. pessimists D. activists
lectures yesterday.
42. Adama’s father simply condoned her bad habits instead
28. The conference is biennial. of punishing her appropriately
A. The conference is held twice every year. A. opposed B. blamed C. accepted D. forbade.
B. The conference is held twice every two years
C. The conference is held once every other year. 43. The undesirable elements who perpetuate these vices
D. The conference lasts for two years. are never detected.
A. aggravate B. overlook C. discontinue D. encourage.
29. Only two ministers survived the recent cabinet reshuffle.
A. In the recent changes in government, 44. Some travellers unwittingly render themselves open
only twoministers were sacked. prey to questionable character.
B. In the recent changes in government, all but A. genuinely B. wholesomely C. knowingly
two ministers remained alive. D. inadvertently.
C. In the recent changes in government, all but
two ministers retained their posts. 45. His father is a shrewd businessman
D. In the recent changes in government, all but A. gullible B. orderly C. reliable D. resourceful.
two ministers were sacked.
30. Bassey is as hard as nail
46. Many people have raised the issued about the need for
an equitable distribution of our wealth 62. You don’t have to agree with our producers.
A. a fair B. an even C. an unjust D. an undue. A. shouldn’t disagree B. must not agree
C. may disagree if you don’t wish
47. The pastor decided to exorcise the evil spirit as the D. may not disagree if you don’t wish.
afflicted member of his congregation cried for help.
A. expel B. dive C. invite D. charm. 63. The new Vice-Chancellor’s immediate concern was to
tide over the major difficulties of the moment
48. He mumbled a few words at the trial and then cried A. temporarily accommodate
A. shouted B. murmured C. charm D. invite. B. permanently handle
C. decisively solve
49. There are many areas of convergence between male D. pretend to solve.
and female behaviour.
A. concomitance B. concordance C. incompatibility 64. The minister’s anger was aggravated by the news of
D. incomparability. the disaster.
A. abated B. magnified C. intensifies D. impeded.
50. The greenhouse effect is beginning to abate in Europe
A. intensify B. extenuate C. surface D. ameliorate 65. The lawyer gave evasive answers to all the questions.
A. Unintelligent B. ineffective
In each of questions 51 to 70 choose the option nearest in C. unreliable D.
meaning to the word(s) or phase in italics. equivocal.
51. Adebayo’s plans for the future are in the air. 66. Their strength is their staggering capacity to
A. suspended B. uncertain C. empty D. floating reproduce.
A. unstable mutiplying power
52. The group of performers thrilled the audience with its B. unreliable attacking power
peculiar choreography. C. qualitative multiplying power
A. form of dancing B. art of theatrics D. overwhelming multiplying power.
C. type of costuming D. mode of singing
67. The sales were lively; the upset price in each case was
53. Our local paper is noted for its incisive editorials on fair.
local politics. A. price that was the highest in the sales
A. sarcastic B. penetrating C. decisive D. destructive. B. price that upset every other buyer
C. highest amount for a bidder to offer
54. The criminal didn’t bat an eyelid when the judge D. lowest selling price of each item.
pronounced the sentence.
A. displayed no understanding whatsoever 68. The cleaner resigned from his job which he said had
B. didn’t shed a single tear become a trivial round.
C. moved none of his eyelids A. unrewarding B. too routine
D. showed no emotion or surprise. C. rather degrading D. unattractive
55. The rally was attended only by people who were 69. The island becomes more enchanting at night
apolitical. A. attractive B. delightful C. accommodating D. livery
A. full of political fervour
B. antagonistic to politicians 70. For a long time, the robber defied police warnings as if
C. new-breed politicians he was inculnerable.
D. not interested in politics. A. perfectly justifiable B. difficult to catch
C. impossible to harm D. indifferent to danger.
56. Smilling broadly, she explained why she always took
exception to being referred to as his wife In each of questions 71 to 100 fill each gap with the most
A. objected to appropriate option from the list following the gap.
B. preferred very much
C. felt specially honoured by 71. He was…[A. assisted B. duped C. cajoled D.
D. liked nothing excepts. encouraged] by the trickster.
57. In those days an ordinary school drop-out would come 72. When the soldiers saw that resistance was…[A.
around putting on airs. inadequate B. inefficient C. futile D. successful] they
A. trying to impress people stopped fighting.
B. trying to oppress people
C. wearing flashy clother 73. you should read all the…[A. brochures B. prospectuses
D. dresses in light materials. C. tickets D. handouts] carefully before you decide
where to go on holiday.
58. Many Nigerian have inured themselves to hardship
A. subjected B. submitted C. accustomed D. endeared. 74. The Emir and conqueror of the enemy territories…[A.
arrives B. are to arrive C. arrive D, are arriving] next
59. There are many venal judges in our law courts today week.
A. Qualified B. professional C. corrupt D. honest.
75. We ought to have visited the Governor…[A. isn’t it B.
60. He is bound to exposes himself by his nefarious oughtn’t we C. shouldn’t we D. haven’t we]?
activities
A. kind B. disreputable C. despicable D. nocturnal. 76. He didn’t sense Obi’s presence in the room did he? …
[A. yes, he did B. No, he did C. yes, he didn’t D. No, he
61. In this house, children are supposed to be in bed by ten didn’t].
o’clock.
A. just before B. not before C. about D. not later than.
77. You can stay here…[A. as long B. so long C. in as 89. The protesters unable to pull down the status …[A. wrenched
much D. for as long ] as you are quiet. B. pushed C. towed D. burnt] it from its fixtures.
78. Where … buses … [A. does these/go B. do this/goes 90. …[A. there’s B. theres’ C. theirs’ D. their’s] been no
C. do these/go D. does these/ goes]? officail reaction to your request yet.
79. Ours…[A. are a resource B. is a resource C. are 91. His looks portend that … [A. some news B. a new C. news
resources D. is a resourced] based venture. D. the news] would be unpleasant.
80. Wale: do you know where my chemistry book is? Tom: 92. By January 1999 I … [A. should have been B. would be
[A. Toyin is with it B. it is with Toyin C. Toyin has it C. can be D. must be] ten years in the service of this
D. Toyin lent it]. institution.
81. The accident occurred when the driver of the car…[A. 93. The accused is optimistic of regaining his freedom
reversed towards B. reversed into C. reversed to D. because there is no witness to [A. correct B. challenge
reversed back into] the lorry. C. corroborate D. contradicts] his story.
82. …[A. Has it been that you asked me B. Had it been 94. Don’t … [A. prevaricate B. predicate C. precipitate
that you asked me C. if you have asked me. D. if you D. be pejorative] said the leader I want a decision now.
had asked me] I would have helped you.
95. Most of the missing jewelry were…[A. found B. taken
83. Those men helped Dupe and … [A. myself B. I C. me C. kept D. recovered] by the police.
D. we].
96. All the cattle on Lamidi’s farm… [A. is tick free B. are
84. The principal warned the students not to take the … tick-free C. is ticks-free D. are ticks-free].
[A. law into their B. laws into their C. law into
their own D. laws into their own] hands. 97. He saw the play and so … [A. was she B. had she
C. should she D. did she].
85. I had hardly… [A. lay B. lied C. lain D. laid] down
to sleep when I heard the gunshot.
98. The … [A. fragrance B. scent C. aroma D. smell]
86. My shoes are worn out; I must see my… [ A. grocer of what she was cooking filled the whole company.
B. tanner C. cobbler D. hosier].
99. I hope I have not … [A. invaded B. encroached
87. Kunle was annoyed for arriving late… [A. also Kemi’s C. intruded D. trespassed] too much on your time.
rather insolent manner B. also that Kemi’s insolent
manner C. and Kemi’s rather insolent manner 100. The exercise presented us with a lot of problems but
also D. and Kemi is also insolent which] put him later it was all … [A. plain B. smooth C. rough
out of temper. D. tough] sailing.
88. A sterile range of mountains, broken at intervals by
deep ravines…[A. enclose B. encloses C. cover
D. covers] almost the whole of this small state.

Use of English 1998

COMPREHENSION

Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that layer of blanket intercedes between the heat of the sun and the
follow inhabitants of the city.
Compared to what obtains in most other Nigerian cities,
PASSAGE I the inhabitants of Jos are openly warm. They are relaxed, and
Those who have visited the city of Jos in Nigeria attest there is the absence of that suffocating feeling, with which a
to its uniqueness. The first striking thing to notice, perhaps, is place likes Lagos is associated, of a people madly rushing to
the benevolence of the climate. It will be no exaggeration to say their graves. The groceries operating at all nooks and crannies
that in no other Nigerian city does one feel so much at peace, so of the city give the impression of a great abundance of a variety
relaxed, with the climate as in Jos. When people say that Jos is of food items. It is almost as if some unseen hands are responsible
cool, the remark is always a compliment, referring to the cool, for the presence of these varieties of edible items. The truth of
serene feeling of being at peace with nature, which one course is that, in Jos, people - civil servants, farmers and traders
experiences in the city. This feeling is topographically symbolized – are socially well-disposed to the influx of the new settlers and
by the surrounding rocky hills, which adorn the horizon from novel ideas and this ensures an apparent high degree of self-
every angle of the city. These hills remind you of castles, excepts sufficiency. You may be hungry in Jos, but you need not be
that whereas castles are man-made, the hills of Jos are natural angry.
edifices in which the master mason who had delicately laid those If other parts of Nigeria had been like Jos, surely the
stones one upon another is no other than God Himself. The sun colonialists would never have left the country without a good
of Jos shines without malice, and even in February and March, fight. Many monuments abound in the city, which tell tales of
when it is scorching hot in most parts of Nigeria, the heat of Jos the Whiteman’s love for this city of solid minerals.
dances charmingly on the surface of the skin, as if afraid of
hurting the organs beneath. It is as if from above a soft protective
1. The presence of a wide variety of edible items in Jos of life and of living in general. Fulfillment is probably the
suggests that embracing word; more ‘fulfillment’ more satisfaction and less
A. the inhabitants are great farmers and frustration for more Homo sapiens. Man wants more varied and
innovators
B. the soil is extremely fertile and receptive fuller achievement in the society as opposed to drabness and
C. there is a high influx of traders and farmers shrinkages. We want more knowledge and more interest as
from other places against ignorance and apathy. Then would we know that the
D. it rains all the year round in the city and its spatial environment is not as small as we think.
environs

2. The benevolence of Jos climate is reflected in the 6. The theme of the passage is
A. feeling of peace and harmony with nature A. population explosion and development in medicine
which the city evokes B. man in a deprived world
B. cold climate of the city which makes people C. development in medicine and hygiene
always dress warmly D. population and the need for qualitative development.
C. fact that the inhabitants of Jos do not need to
work hard
D. average life-span of the inhabitants of Jos, 7. Population explosion is as a result of
which is high. A. cut down in death rates and birth rates
B. lack of birth control and child welfare
3. One distinctive ecological feature symbolizing the close C. development in environmental sanitation
intimacy between Jos and nature, is the D. imbalance between death control and birth
A. bright horizon adorning the city from every angle control.
B. rocky hills standing at various points of the city
like castles
C. sun which shines over Jos with benevolence 8. According to the passage, population explosion has
D. clouds which spread a blanket of protection brought man up against the ecological facts of
between the sun and the earth. A. man’s inhumanity to man, hunger and deprivation
B. pressing hard on the little available space
4. The last paragragh of the passage suggests that
A. the colonialists left Jos only after a fight C. little leeway of man’s colonization of people
B. the colonialists left Jos reluctantly D. squalid African villages.
C. Jos could not contain the many colonialists
D. Nigeria’s independence forced many 9. According to the passage, the main purpose of human
colonialists out of Jos. existences is
A. for procreation
5. ‘The heat of Jos dances caressingly on the surface of
the skin as if afraid to hurt the organs beneath’ this B. to provide cannon-fodder
means in Jos it is C. to live perpetually in penury
A. never hot B. always cold C. never uncomfortable D. to live a life of fulfillment.
D. always warm.
10. ‘Little leeway’ can be replaced with
PASSAGE II A. not much extra space B. no extra space
Population has at last made the grade and emerged as a
world problem. Unfortunately, most of those who speak or write C. plenty of space D. scarcely any space.
about it persist in thinking of it in terms of a race between human
numbers and world resources especially of food - a kind of PASSAGE III
competition between production and reproduction. There is another interesting fact about eye movement.
Certainly, the statistics churned out are important If you record the eye movements of someone who is reading
revealing that indeed, there is a population explosion. But the
you will notice that from time to time the reader goes back and
real explosion is a twentieth century phenomenon, due primarily
looks again at something he has read before; in other words, he
to the spectacular development in medicine and hygiene. This
regresses to an earlier part of the text probably because he
has drastically cut down death rates without any corresponding
realises he does not understand the passage properly. Then he
reduction in birth rates; death control without birth control.
comes back to where he left off and continues reading. At one
World population we are told has more than doubled since 1900
time, it was thought that regression was a fault, but it is a fact a
and will certainly reach well over 5½ billion and possibly 7 billion
very necessary activity in efficient reading.
by the magical year 2000.
There are several different kinds of fault in reading,
The population has brought us up against a number of
which are usually more exaggerated with foreign learners. The
tough ecological facts. Man is at last pressing hard on his spatial
most common one is that most people read more slowly than
environment - there is little leeway left for his colonization of
they should. There is no rate at which people ought to read of
new areas of the world’s surface…
course; it depends on your purpose in reading, how difficult the
What are people for? Surely people do not exist just to
language is, how unfamiliar the material is and so on. But most
provided ‘ bomb-fodder’ for an atomic bonfire or ‘religious fodder’
people read everything at the same slow speed and do not seem
for rival religion sects or ‘cannon-fodder’ for rival national armies
to realise that they can read faster or slower as required. Other
or rival political parties or even consumer-fodder’ for profit
people say the words to themselves or move their lips - these
making systems. It cannot be their aim just to eat, drink and be
habits slow the reader down to something near speaking speed,
merry and to hell with posterity nor to live out their
which is of course much slower than reading speed. Another
undernourished lives in some squalid Asian or African village.
habit which can slow you down is following the line with your
Man’s dominant aim must be to increase in quality-quality
finger, or with a pen.
of human personality, of achievement, of inner experience, quality
If you want to be able to read faster the secret is simply On the day of the mention and the motion, the court
to practise under timed conditions. This means that you should became alive as early as 8.30 a.m as the …22…[A. presiding
give yourself a certain amount of time to read with understanding judge B. court clerk C. justice D. prosecutor] was known for
then check your time when you have finished. Students who his punctuality. He would sit at exactly 9 a.m . The plaintiffs and
have practised fast reading even for only an hour a week, have their counsel were the first to come into the court room, then
shown average improvements of over 50% over a term of ten came the defence counsel. At the dot of the hour, three bangs
weeks’ duration. Reading fast does not necessarily mean reading were heard, immediately after which the court clerk announced
with less comprehension - in fact students usually show small the presence of the judge.
increase in comprehension as well as a dramatic increase in In no time the court clerk read out the case and both
speed. counsels announced their …23…[A. presence B. appearances
[Wallace, M.C: Study Skills in English, C.U.P. 1980]
C. arrivals D.interests] . The counsel to the plaintiffs moved his
motion relying on a six- paragraph …24…[A. oath B. affidavit C.
11. The expression ‘There is no rate at which people ought presentation D. arguments ] which contained the facts of the
to read of course... is used to case. In response, the defence counsel argued on the premise of
A. justify regression in reading an eigth- paragraph …25…[A. counter affidavit B. declaration
B. condemn slow reading habits C. submission D. summons]. The motion was granted according
C. justify a variety of reading speeds to the merit of the argument of the first lawyer.
D. recommend regression in reading.
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
12. According to the passage, the reader regresses so that In each of questions 26 to 35, select the option that best explains
he can the information conveyed in the sentence .
A. look again at what he has read before
B. appreciate what he is reading 26. If I left the country, I would arrange for my family to join me.
C. make sense of what he is reading A. He left the country and his family joined him
D. remember what he is reading. B. In the event of his leaving the country, his
family would join him.
C. He did not leave the country and his family
13. For effective reading, the writer implies that speaking did not join him.
speed is D. He may not leave the country.
A. normal B. inadequate C. necessary D. significant
27. A state of mutual hatred existed for years between the
14. The word ‘exaggerated’ as used in the passage, means two villages of Umuna and Ogboma .
A. pronounced B. problematic C. falsified A. Umuna hated Ogboma.
D. compounded B. Ogboma hated Umuna.
C. Ogboma and Umuna hated themselves
D. Umuna and Ogboma hated each other.
15. The writer implies that when you read unfamiliar material,
your reading speed will be 28. The painting in the museum was beautifully faked.
A. faster B. regular C. irregular D. slower. A. The painting was a good deceptive replica.
B. The painting was well-framed and displayed.
PASSAGE IV C. The painting was deceptively decorated in
The passage below has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately the museum.
following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most D. The painting was carefully hung in museum.
appropriate option for each gap.
29. Ade: Do you mind if I sit down here? Bola: well, yes I
do actually.
On the 21st of June 1994, the Director – General received A. Bola is reluctantly granting the request.
in his office a visitor, the first of its kind in his life. Even though B. Bola is willingly accepting the request.
he really could not make any meaning out of his name, the C. Bola is certainly rejecting the request.
visitor’s second statement that he was a court …16… [A. bailiff D. Bola is objecting to the request.
B. messenger C. litigant D. clerk] readily gave the Director -
General a clear picture of the man’s purpose. He immediately 30. The President held forth for several minutes on the need
gave to the Director- General two sets of papers. The first was a for patriotism.
…17… [A. writ of summons B. subpoena C. call notice D. letter] A. The President was silent for some minutes
which was to notify the Director- General that he and the agency when patriotism was being discussed.
he represented were being sued for …18…[A. battery B. slander B. The President whispered a few things about
C. libel D. contempt] and that he should seek the services of a patriotism.
C. The President spent time saying a few
lawyer who would appear for him on the 6th of July when the things about patriots.
case was for mention. D. The President gave a rather long speech on
The second paper was on a motion of …19…[ A. the importance of patriotism.
summons B. order C. decision D. interlocutory injunction]
which, if granted by the court would restrain the Director – 31. The slide in the price of gold in the world market has left
General or the …20…[A.defender B. defedant C. litigant D. the industry reeling.
prosecution] from publishing further anything on the staff of A. The gradual fall in gold price is making the
the ministry or the …21…[A. witness B. exhibits C. plaintiffs industry unstable.
D. perjurer]. The motion was also slated for 6 th July. B. The stability in gold price is making the
industry stagnant.
ameroun’ is really an indomitable
C. The decline in gold price is making the team A. a powerful B. a prominent C. a weak
industry redundant. D. a cowardly
D. The increase in gold price is making the
industry to boom.
42. To almost everyone in the little village, Ada’s behaviour
32. Fabricated statements published as truths amount to an was most odious
abuse of press freedom. A. repulsive B. difficult C. attractive D. charming.
A. To make known what is not true is
aggressive to press freedom. 43. Aduma was so vociferous during the meeting of the
B. Publishing formulated untruths is misused congregation that he succeeded in incurring the wrath
press freedom. of the chairman.
C. Unplanned publicized untruths are a misuse
of the freedom of the press. A. anger B. admiration C. displeasure D. sympathy.
D. Press freedom is based on published 44. It was an inopportune moment for you to make that
untruths. suggestion.
A. an ideal B. a wrong C. an exact D. a sad .
33. The expected guests arrived at the eleventh hour.
A. The guests arrived at the last minute. 45. He devoted too much time to the peripheral aspects
B. The guests arrived a 11 o’ clock. A. unimportant B. superficial C. minor D. main.
C. The guests arrived at the expected time.
D. The guests arrived eleven hours behind
schedule. 46. The climate of Nigeria is an enervating one
A. a weakening B. an energy sapping
34. After addressing the court for two hours, the defence C. an invigorating D. a sluggish.
counsel rested her case.
A. The defence counsel was tired after speaking 47. The girl’s idiosyncrasy was a passion for bread and butter.
for two hours, so she took a break. A. stupid outburst B. general tendency
B. The judge adjourned the defence counsel’s C. singular characteristic D. occupational calling.
case
after listening for two hours.
C. The defence counsel concluded her defence 48. Once he has decided that something needs doing, my
after speaking for two hours. brother is very unswerving of purpose.
D. The judge advised the defence counsel to A. erratic B. tenacious C. stubborn D. simple.
rest after two hours of address.
49. Those were the days of the fallacy that some languages
35. Benjamin exclaimed, ‘If it is Napoleon who said it, it must are primitive while others are not
be right.’ A. argument B. excuse C. misconception D. truth
A. Benjamin never believes what Napoleon says.
B. Benjamin does not know what is right unless 50. She is immune to the flattery of young men.
Napoleon says it. A. resistant B. susceptible C. insensible
C. Napoleon always says what Benjamin believes D. unresponsive
to be right.
D. Benjamin thinks that Napoleon always says 51. Events in South Africa indicate a kind of political
the right thing. renascence. A. rejuvenation B. decline C. turbulence
D. upheaval.
In each of questions 36 to 53, choose the most appropriate
option opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics. 52. If we must live together as one people, we must learn to
tolerate disparate dispositions.
36. The chairman’s verdict redressed the injustice meted out A. converging B. accommodating C. conflicting
by the secretary. D. opposing.
A. corrected B. restored C . aggravated D. addressed
53. The presidential aspirant warned of the political
37. Uche could not travel last December because of the catastrophe that would follow if the election were
severity of the harmattan. rigged.
A. cold B. mildness C. warmth D. moderation A. problem B. turmoil C. success
D.conflagration.
38. Traveling in the night can be an ordeal.
A. a great exercise B. a great fear In each of questions 54 to 73, choose the option nearest in
C. a great endurance meaning to the word (s) or phrases in italics
D. moderation
39. Mrs. Kofi is very provocative in her style of dressing. 54. The material in the book is presented within an
A. modest B. happy C. angry D. beautiful. eclectic framework.
40. Akoso thought that her father was very callous. A. simple B. a broad C. a restricted D. clumsy.
A. indifferent B. compassionate C. wicked 55. Ohiokhen had a brainwave as to how she could deal
D. careless. with the problem.
A. an imagination B. a desire C. a headache
D. anidea.
67. In my view, the play didn’t come off.
56. Surely, Ahmed is a ball of fire. A. succeed B. fail C. attract applause
D. take place
A. quarrelsome person B. a hot-headed activist
C. a fiery speaker or writer D. a very energetic person. 68. When the chips are down, we will know those who
have the courage to stand.
57. This time, she will be competing with a dark horse. A. When we get to a crisis point
A. a weak and low- spirited person B. In the final analysis
B. a person about whom little is known C. When the blocks are lowered
C. an unpopular candidate D. When we get to the end of the road.
D. a person as strong as a horse.
69. She said boxing is in fact her pet aversion.
A. something she likes very much
58. In answer to the question as to how life is treating him, B. something she dislikes very much
the stranger said ‘it never rains but it pours’. C. a hobby she loves to pursue
A. the blessings of life shower on him like heavy rain D. one thing she can’t miss
B. he is contented with his improved fortunes
C. things are getting decidedly worse 70. The gateman does his work perfunctorily.
D. his financial status is deteriorating. A. without commitment
B. with speed
59. After many years of struggle as a trader he struck C. grudgingly
gold A. became quite rich B. won a D. ethusiastically
big contract C. became a gold miner
D. became a goldsmith. 71. Members of the panel were working at cross purposes.
A. in harmony
60. One significant characteristics of the jet age is that it B. in disunity
encourages people to cut corners. C. for selfish purpose
A. not to face all problems D. for selfless purposes
B. to want to become rich quickly
C. to want to avoid necessary hardships 72. The young man who distributed political pamphlets on
D. not to do the proper thing at the right time. campus was promptly repudiated.
A. disowned B. arrested C. warned D. killed
61. Any student found guilty of examination malpractice
should be allowed to stew in his own juice. 73. Adayi is a die-hard criminal.
A. taste a repeat of the examination A. hard to kill B. hard to arrest
B. suffer the consequences of his action C. remorseless D. resentless
C. bear the burnt of the disgrace
D. forfeit the opportunity of further education. In each of questions 74 to 100, fill each gap with the most
appropriate option from the list following the gap.
62. The lady who won the beauty contest had a good
gait 74. In moments of serious economic hardship, many people
A. stature B. figure C. elegance D. carriage. are…[A. concerned B. inclined C. disposed D. propensed]
to turn to God.
63. It would need a high flyer to make a first class
degree in the university. 75. We cannot all wear expensive shoes in situation of …
A. a smart performer [A. divergent demand and supply B. uneven wear
B. an outright genius and tear C.differing purchasing power D.
C. an outstanding scholar unpredictable national income].
D. an unmitigated swot.
76. That center-forward was … [A. in an off-side position
64. What you will find in the book is a bird’s eye view of B. very well positioned C. a brilliant player D. the
the subject. captain of the team]; consequently the goal was not
A. a detailed account disallowed.
B. a balanced discussion
C. a biased treatment 77. AIDS is … [A. too much a deadly B. very deadly C.
D. a general survey. so deadly a D. such deadly a] disease that it kills
slowly but surely.
65. Hers was a chequered career
A. an interesting and successful career 78. We had a dull evening because … [A. hardly the talk
B. a career full of sorrow and tears had begun when the lights went off B. hardly had
C. a bright and memorable career the talk begun when the lights went off C. the talk
D. a career full of ups and downs. had hardly begun when the lights had gone out D.
the lights had hardly gone out when the talk began].
66. If experience is anything to go by, this action will prove
a political minefield. 79. Soyinka’s masterful … [A. evocation B. invocation
A. a sources of political benefits C. convocation D. revocation] of the atmosphere of
B. a way out of political trouble his childhood helped to make his book, Ake, an outright
C. a causes for political joy success.
D. an invitation to political problems
80. Students will always blame their teachers when
examination results are unfavourable … [A. won’t they 90. The judge with his son… [A. were B. shall C. is D. are]
B. wouldn’t they C. isn’t it D. can’t they] traveling to Lagos now.
81. Okonkwo is a stubborn man; he will never … [ A. chew 91. A university teacher is an… [A. academic B.
B. spit C. eat D. bite] his words. academics C. academician D. academia].
82. Kindly … me your book because my friend has … 92. The adventurers ran into many … [A. dear B. dears
[A. borrow/borrowed B. borrow/lent C. lend/lent C. deers D. deer].
D. lend/borrowed] mine.
83. Three-quarters of the church … [A. were B. was C. 93. The argument between the two neighbours degenerated
is D. are] painted by members the previous day. into …[A. a free to all B. a free fight C. a flee
for all D. a free for all fight].
84. Two young boys have been caught with parts of the 94. The class … [A. comprised of B. comprises of
stolen machine but …[A. neither of them has B. C. comprise D. comprises] more girls than boys this
neither of them have C. none of them has D. none session.
of them have] admitted stealing it.
95. The tourist bought … [A. a brown small Nigerian
85. Watching carefully, I could see the fish … [A. doting earthen pot B. a small brown Nigerian earthen pot
B. crawling C. diving D. darting] along the C. an earthen brown small Nigerian pot D. a
bottom. Nigerian small brown earthen pot].
86. Emeka is now a … student but it took him years to … 96. I have already… [A. hanged B. hunged C. hang
[A. matured/mature B. mature/mature C. mature/ D. hung] the picture on the sitting room wall.
matured D. matured/ matured].
87. The rebels will soon fight back. We have been informed 97. Most of us will attend the conference … [A. holding
… their… [A. of/predicament B. about/indulgence B. held C. being held D. to hold] at Ibadan later this
C. on/rearmament D. as for/advancement]. years.
88. Ali was honest and quiet as a schoolboy, but too much 98. I shall work hard so that I can … [A. secure B. make
drinking has now changed his … and … [A. C. receive D. grab] a distinction in English.
temperature/injured B. character/tightened
C. temperament/loosened D. innocence/worsened] 99. The baby was rather … [A. much more troublesome
his tongue. B. much too troublesome C. so much troublesome
D. very much troublesome] than I could bear.
89. The hospital was closed … because there were no beds
to put patients ... [A. again/upon B. off/on C. 100. Students were forbidden …[A. from joining B. in
down/ at D. up/in]. joining C. to join D. on joining] any secret society.

Use of English 1999

COMPREHENSION before fossil fuels are exhausted, demand will greatly exceed
Read passages, I, II & III carefully and answer the questions supply.
that follow. Each question carries 3 marks. For too many years, the world has consumed fossil
fuels with little thought for the future. In fact, world energy
PASSAGE I consumption increased almost 600% between 1900 and 1965
If present trends continue, the world would face a major and it is projected to increase by another 450% between 1965
crisis by the end of this century: insufficient cheap, convenient and the year 2000. Crude oil has been pumped out of the ground
energy. For without such energy, industrial production will fall, for about 100 years, but over half of it has been consumed in the
agricultural output will drop, transport will be restricted and past 18 years. Coal has been mined for over 800 years, but over
standard of living in developed countries will plummet. At a half of it has been extracted in the past 37 years. In sum, most
present, almost all our energy comes from fossil fuels. The earth’s of the world’s consumption of energy from fossil fuels
reserves of fossil fuels have been formed from organic matter throughout history, has taken place within living memory.
subjected to enormous heat and pressure for millions of years.
1. From the writer’s description of the world energy situation,
But such reserves are finite. Because power demand is increasing
we may conclude that
very rapidly, fossil fuels will be exhausted within a relatively
A. developing nations will soon experience poverty
short time. We can estimate the amount of recoverable fuel under
B. demand for recoverable fuel will plummet
the surface of the earth and we know the rate at which it is being
C. consumption has not affected production
extracted. Fairly simple calculations can therefore determine its
D. decline has not affected demand.
remaining life. If present trends continue, gas and oil reserves
will be exhausted by the middle of the 21st century – about 70 2. The writer seems to suggest that developed nations should
years from now. Similar estimates for coal and wood reserves A. always calculate a fossil fuel’s remaining life
suggest a projected supply of 250-300 years. Of course, long B. reduce industrial and agricultural production
C. reduce dependence on fossil fuels A. arranges welfare packages for every citizen
D. review industrial dependence on energy. B. absorbs the negro into its political structure
C. grants equality to all citizens
3. The writer warns that the world could D. ensures socio-political and legal equality for every citizen.
A. lose all its oil reserves in a mater of years
B. face energy crisis soon if production is not stepped 8. One of the social services provided by democratic nations is
up A. catering for beggars and outcasts
C. experience scarcity and low energy price soon B. social welfare schemes
D. face low energy supply and poor agricultural C. protection from human rights abuses
output. D. security against national disasters.

4. The expression, standard of living in developed 9. From the passage, it is obvious that
countries will plummet, means A. there is a hierarchy of rights
A. the economy of rich nations will stagnate B. all men possess the right to equal political affiliations
B. economic life will improve in rich nations C. there is deprivation in the society
C. purchasing power will decline sharply in rich D. the negro in America are champions of equality.
nations
D. people in developed nations will experience boom. 10. A suitable title for the passage is
A. Democracy
5. Fossil fuels are used in the passage include B. Discrimination
A. wood, kerosene and natural gas C. Equality
B. oil, coal and natural gas D. Freedom
C. lignite, butane and charcoal
PASSAGE III
D. wood, coal and oil.
In many places in the world today, the poor are getting
PASSAGE II poorer while the rich are getting richer, and the programmes of
When Thomas Jefferson wrote in the America Declaration development planning and foreign aid appear to be unable to
of Independence that ‘all men are created equal’, he was not reverse this trend. Nearly all the developing countries have a
seeking to describe men’s endowments, but their political and modern sector, where the patterns of living and working are
legal rights. He was not saying that men do not differ from one similar to those in developed countries. But they also have a
another in the powers and dimensions of their bodies, minds non-modern sector, where the patterns of living and working are
and characters. He was asserting that, despite variations and not only unsatisfactory, but in many cases are even getting
differences, they all possessed the right to equal political and worse.
legal treatment. We must, however, ask of what real value are What is the typical condition of the poor in developing
political and legal equality to a man who has no bread to eat, no countries? Their work opportunities are so limited that they
clothes to wear, no roof to shelter him, no chance to earn a cannot work their way out of their situation. They are
livelihood? What we understand as democratic society must underemployed, or totally unemployed; when they do find
provide for its citizen’s minimum status as a member of that occasional work, their productivity is extremely low. Some of
society, that keeps him from becoming a beggar, outcast or outlaw them have land, but often too little land. Many have no land,
and that offers him some protection in his deprivation, losses and no prospect of ever getting any. There is no hope for them
and fears. in the rural areas and so, they drift into the big cities. But there is
In our time, the nations of the democratic world have no work for them in the big cities either -- and of course no
installed elaborate systems of social security and welfare, ranging housing. All the same, they flock into the cities because their
from compensation for industrial accidents to subsidized chances of finding some work appear to be greater there than in
housing, unemployment insurance, old age pensions, to provide the villages – where they are nil. Rural unemployment, then,
against the characteristic losses and disasters of human life. produces mass-migration into the cities; rural unemployment
The evolving status of the Negro in America is becomes urban unemployment.
attracting the attention of the champions of equality. Much has The problem can be stated quite simply: what can be
been written on the wrongs, injustices and inequalities of the done to promote economic growth outside the big cities, in the
coloured citizen of the USA and much remains to be said, because small towns and villages, which still contain 80 to 90% of the
the history of this struggle for human rights is still unfolding. total population? The primary need is work places, literally
[John Coghlan] millions of workplaces.

6. It could be deduced from the passage that 11. The expression ‘work their way out of their situation’
A. citizens have equal political and legal treatment in America means.
B. the nations of the democratic world have no political A. walk from one village to another
and legal hierarchy B. migrate from village to city
C. democratic nations are expanding the provision of C. work their way out of their village
social welfare. D. change their circumstances.
D. equality obliterates differences and variations among
races and nations. 12. Where are the rich getting richer and the poor poorer?
A. In nearly all developing countries.
7. According to the passage, a democratic nation is one which B. In a majority of countries in the world.
C. In developing countries with modern sectors. D. Horizon, clarity of the troubled spots and certainty
D. In countries with non-modern sectors. are remarkably noted.

13. Underemployment among the villagers refers to 27. The crowd in the hall is intimidating.
A. lack of sufficient land for everyone A. The crowd is frightening. B. The crowd is angry
B. low productivity when working C. The crowd is overwhelming. D. The crowd is
C. fewer people for many jobs riotous.
D. more people for fewer jobs.
28. The manager said that the new loaf was the last word in
14. The gap between the rich and the poor widens because there bakery.
A. are no jobs in the rural areas A. The loaf was the best ever baked.
B. are no employment opportunities in the city B. The loaf was the last to be baked.
C. is no work in the village and the city C. The loaf was the worst to have been baked.
D. is low growth rate in productivity. D. The loaf was the last in the baker’s directory.

15. Migration to the city among villagers is caused by 29. Hundreds of used items will go under the hammer during
A. attractions of the city the weekend.
B. low productivity in the village A. Unserviceable goods will be publicly destroyed at
C. inadequate job opportunities in the village the weekend.
D. shortage of land for cultivation. B. Impounded household items will be sold to the public
before the weekend.
PASSAGE IV C. Damaged items will be sold next weekend.
The passage below has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately D. Many old items will be auctioned this weekend.
following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most
appropriate option for each gap. Each question carries 2 marks. 30. The reformists say elections cannot be free and fair unless
a number of constitutional changes are effected.
Publishing is a fast growing business in Nigeria and there are A. Reformation depends on constitutional changes.
therefore, many publishing houses all over the country. When B. Free and fair elections depend on law reforms.
…16… (A. an article B. an essay C. a book D. a manuscript) is C. Free and fair elections are the primary concern of
submitted by an author, the publisher sends it …17… (A. an the reformists.
assessor B. an evaluator C. a checker d. an examiner) to know D. Effecting constitutional changes is dependent on
if it is actually publishable. This step is important because the electoral reforms.
publisher wants to make sure that the book catches the…18…
(A. market B. audience C. students D. shops) when it is In each of questions 31 to 49, choose the option opposite in
eventually published. In a good publishing house, there is meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
…19… (A. an error-proof B. an editorial C. lithographic
D. an evaluation) section which is concerned with …20… 31. After the surgical operation, the doctor gave the
(A. proof-reading B. reading over C.scanning over D. skimming indication that Mr. Idogo will pull through.
over) the manuscript and correcting both the spelling and typing A. be maimed B. survive C. die D. be revived.
errors. After this, the manuscript is …21… (A. typewritten B.
typeset C. double-spaced D. single-spaced) in readiness for 32. His cruelty to his mother defies logical explanation.
…22… (A. photocopying B. xeroxing C. filming D. printing). A. demands B. offers C. projects D. precludes.
The printed…23… (A. items B. bulletin C. copies D. specimen)
are then stored in the warehouse and a few of them may be sent 33. The tennis player surreptitiously swapped rackets after
to the author as …24… (A. complementary B. complimentary the first set.
C. acknowledgement D. sample) copies. Since it is not just the A. openly retained B. overtly exchanged.
aim of the publisher to offset the cost of production but also to C. quietly surrendered D. violently swung
make some gains, there is a strong marketing division which
promotes sales. A certain percentage of the cover price of the 34. They attacked all regulations designed to emasculate
book is paid to the author as …25.. (A. royalty B. honorarium student militancy.
C. dividend D. interest) A. condone B. isolate C. punish D. strengthen

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE 35. There is no point dissipating energy on a useless argument.
In each of questions 26 – 30, select the option that best explains A. destroying B. conserving C. marshalling D. storing
the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries
2 marks. 36. The secretary runs down anybody that does not sing his praises.
A. hates B. pleases C. honours D. discredits
26. The horizon may not be clear now, but the troubled spots
have certainly been noted. 37. Everyone, including the Principal, believed that he was a
A. The horizon is dependent on the troubled spots. very assiduous student.
B. Clarity of the horizon is dependent on the perception A. assertive B. industrious C. aggressive D. casual
of the troubled spots.
38. The dancing troupe put up a flawless performance.
C. The troubled spots are more perceptible than the horizon.
A. an interesting B. an imperfect C. a satisfactory atmosphere is restive.
D. a careless A. quiet B. chaotic C. restless D. tense
39. My brother married a loquacious woman. 55. When he found himself in a difficult situation, he tried to
A. quiet B. noisy C. talkative D. beautiful double-talk his way through.
A. talk to two people to help him.
40. My eldest brother is now faced with the vicissitudes of B. mix up issues to sound nervous
married life. C. mix up facts to confuse people
A. amazement B. sweetness C. amiability D. D. talk twice to gain sympathy
stability 56. Mr. Dzokoto plays the piano with great dexterity.
41. My father’s advice to me was quite invaluable. A. wisdom B. power C. force D. skill
A. useless B. useful C. helpful D. unsolicited 57. Amina said she married a doting husband.
42. The Minister has finally been dropped from the present A. a loving B. a fun-loving C. an uncaring D. a nagging
cabinet because of his ignoble act. 58. Adamu woke up with a start and took to his heels, claiming
A. criminal B. ignorant C. honourable D. selfish that something was on his trail.
43. There is much indifference in his behaviour A. in his food B. giving him the chase
A. concern B. nonchalance C. willingness D. inconsistency C. hiding near the bed D. staring at him
59. The man preaches egalitarianism without matching it
44. Most warring countries end up in a state of satiation. up with action.
A. hunger B. thirst C. danger D. famine A. salvation B. dedication C. kindness D. equality

45. The officer asked for a more temperate assessment of 60. The prosecutor was accused of obstructing justice.
the matter. A. hindering B. retarding C. impending D. interrupting
A. extreme B. moderate C. radical D. human 61. The Federal Government approved a new salary
46. The lecturers were advised to carry out a cursory survey structure
of Nigerian languages. as an incentive for the Nigerian workers.
A. detailed study B. careful teaching A. a reward B. an encouragement C. a package
C. careful description D. partial consideration D. an advance

47. Musa hates Hadiza for her constant bellicose behaviour. 62. Before embarking on his current research, the professor
A. violent B. gentle C. meek D. troublesome carried out a feasibility study of the area.
48. Abdul is fond of his teacher though he sometimes A. thorough B. perfectibility C. complete D.
makes practicability
derogatory remarks about him. 63. It was a spending spree for all of us when daddy hit the
A. unpleasant B. complimentary C. expressive jackpot.
D. inconsiderate A. cashed his cheque B. received his salary
49. Orinya balances the pail on her head with accustomed C. found money in a pot D. won a lot of money
ease. 64. All the accident victims are bleeding profusely.
A. convincing B. surprising C. unwary D. A. slowly B. excessively C. diffusely D. clearly
unusual
In questions 65 to 89, fill each gap with the most appropriate
In each of questions 50 to 64, choose the option nearest in option from the list provided.
meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
65. It was late when we decided to get…. the train
50. They have tried to circumvent the restriction on the A. off B. down C. out of D. out from
importation of the commodities.
A. bypass B. confront C. oppose D. challenge 66. The accident was due to … driving by the defendant.
A. negligence B. negligible C. negligent D. neglectable
51. It was surprising how we took to the stranger at once.
A. talked so long with B. introduced ourselves to 67. My friend and I have been quarrelling since yesterday
C. formed a liking for D. started fighting and we haven’t… yet.
52. The government is not opening up to the unions in the A. made it out B. made out C. made it D. made it
negotiations; it must have something up its sleeve. up
A. be nursing a hidden agenda 68. He is so credulous… my story about the ghost.
B. be hoping to trap them A. to believe B. that he believes
C. be hiding a last minute package C. in order to believe D. since he believes
D. be intending to dissolve the unions
69. The group never felt strong enough to act in the open;
53. The College Officer insisted that I show him my hostility was the hallmark of their resistance.
credentials A. covert B. overt C. vicious D. erratic
before I could be registered.
A. papers B. qualifications C. testimonials D. identities 70. The freed robber expressed his gratitude in a… prayer
of thanksgiving.
54. Even though there is no obvious riot on the campus, the
A. spurious B. spasmodic C. spontaneous D. sporadic 88. Aggrieved persons are free to seek… in the court of law.
A. reparation B. redress C. consolation D. acquittal
71. He boasts so much about his high scores and he... at
the efforts of others. 89. After two years of courtship, Jide is finally… Ngozi next
A. scorns B. sneers C. grins D. smiles Sunday.
A. being married to B. marrying C. married to
72. The visitor was very uncomfortable because of his… nose.
D. being married by
A. runny B. running C. watery D. flowing
In questions 90 and 91, identify the word that has a different
73. Although the Officer wanted a… report on the matter, he
stress pattern from the others.
got… account.
A. truthful/an uninteresting B. factual/an unpleasant 90. A. Interlocutor B. Opportunity
C. genuine/a ridiculous D. painstaking/a half-hearted C. Ambiguity D. Actualization
74. Immediately I entered the house, I could …. the smell of
91. A. Interrupt B. Contribute
gas from the kitchen.
C. Harmattan D. Entertain
A. feel B. hear C. detect D. smell
In each of questions 92 to 94, the word in capital letters has an
75. I am… admission to the university this year.
emphatic stress. Choose the option that best fits the expression
A. seeking on B. seeking for C. seeking at D. seeking
in the sentence.
76. Some robbers are on the prowl, we must be …
92. The fire destroyed MANY lives.
A. alert B. at alert C. on the alert D. for alert
A. Did the fire destroy the village?
77. Mrs. Ojo was one of … in my village. B. Did the fire destroy some houses?
A. the first two enlightened young ladies C. Did the fire destroy any lives?
B. the two first enlightened young ladies D. Did the fire spare any lives?
C. the two first young enlightened ladies
93. The accused hasn’t even been TRIED yet.
D. the first two young enlightened ladies.
A. Was the accused sentenced to life imprisonment?
78. My friend’s car has… to a halt. B. Has the suspect been apprehended?
A. grinded B. grounded C. ground D. grind C. Why hasn’t the accused been tried yet?
D. Was the accused handed over to the police?
79. By twelve midnight, we will be… en route for Britain.
94. The electricity in OUR premises comes from a generator.
A. airbourned B. airborne C. air borned D.
A. Is the electricity in your compound supplied by a
airbourne
generator?
80. The old man’s speech has become completely… B. Is the electricity in your neighbour’s premises
A. uncomprehensible B. uncomprehensive supplied by a generator?
C. incomprehensive D. incomprehensible C. Does the electricity in your premises come from NEPA?
D. Does everybody in your street receive electricity
81. His chances in the games… seriously jeopardized. from generators?
A. have been B. has been C. have being D. has being
In each of questions 95 to 97, choose from the options the word
82. We found it difficult to identify him as the crowd was… that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the
around him. letter(s) underlined.
A. head to head B. head above head
C. shoulder from shoulder D. shoulder to shoulder 95. Rust
A. loud B. touch C. bought D. march
83. The Principal expressed his… when the students broke
the rules… and he didn’t know how to stop them.
96. Research
A. anger/everyday B. frustration/time and again
A. disturb B. comfort C. affair D. carry
C. disappointment/understandably
D. powerlessness/occasionally
97. Plateau
84. They were all behaving like a bunch of… children. A. wanted B. below C. holiday D. haunted.
A. querulous B. querulous C. querrullous D.
quarrelous In each of questions 98 to 100, choose the word that does not
have the same vowel sound as the others.
85. Our economic programme is… commitment to Nigeria’s
economic growth.
98. A. deep B. lease C. meet D. lace
A. deeply root in B. root in deep C. rooted in a
deep
99. A. loot B. boot C. rout D. route
D. deeply rooted in deep
86. You would be well… to listen to what the teachers says. 100. A. sun B. shun C. son D. short
A. informed B. advised C. reminded D. warned

87. Ndem was suspended from work because he showed COMPREHENSION

no…in dealing with the customers.
A. love B. interest C. character D. finesse Read passages I, II & II carefully and answer the questions
that follow. Each question carries 3 marks.
Use of English 2000
PASSAGE I than by motor vehicle accidents
Time was when boys used to point toy guns and say B. firearms now have figures that are terribly high
‘Bang!’ Now, they aim real guns and shoot one another. Nearly C. more teenagers now carry fire arms than used to be
4,200 teenagers were killed by firearms in 1990. Only motor vehicle the case
accidents kill more teenagers than firearms and the firearms D. more teenagers are now getting killed by firearms
figures are rising. The chance that a black male between the than used to be the case.
ages of 15 and 19 will be killed by a gun has almost tripled since
1985 and almost doubled for white males, according to the 5. In Secretary Donna Shalala’s view, the situation depicted
National Centre for Health Statistics. by the statistics is
Who could disagree with Health and Human Services A. tense and reassuring B. topical and intimidating
Secretary, Donna Shalala, when she pronounced these statistics C. alarming and unbearable D. disturbing and conducive.
‘frightening and intolerable?’ In the shameful light of this ‘waste
of young lives’ in Ms. Shalala’s words, an often-asked question PASSAGE II
seems urgently due to be raised again: Would less violence on You would think that the common cold should be easy
television – the surrounding environment for most children and enough to study, but it is not so easy as it looks. Colds often
young adults – make violence in actual life less normal, less seem to spread from one person to another, so it is often assumed
accepted, less horrifying? that the cold must be infectious, but there are some puzzling
It may be difficult to prove an exact correlation between observations which do not fit in with this theory. An investigator
the viewer of fantasized violence and the criminal who acts out in Holland examined some eight thousand volunteers from
violence after turning off the set. But if the premise of education different areas and came to the conclusion that in each group
is granted – that good models can influence the young – then it the colds all appeared at the same time – transfer of infection
follows that bad models can have an equivalent harmful effect. from case to case could not account for that. Yet at the Common
This is the reasonable hypothesis held by 80 percent of the Cold Research Unit in Salisbury the infection theory has been
respondents to a recent Times Mirror poll who think that violent tested out; two series of about two hundred people each were
entertainment is ‘harmful’ to society. inoculated, one with salt water and the other with secretions
Witness enough mimed shootouts, see enough from known cold victims. Only one of the salt-water group got a
‘corpses’ fall across the screen, and the taking of a human life cold, compared with seventy-three in the other group.
seems no big deal. Even if a simple causal relationship cannot be In the British Medical Journal the other day, there was
established between watching violence and acting it out, is not a report of a meeting, ‘The Common Cold -- Fact and Fancy’, at
this numbed sensitivity reason enough for cutting back on the which one of the speakers reported a study of colds made in
overkill in films and TV? Cirencester over the last five years. Three hundred and fifty
From: The Christian Science Monitor, April 16
– 22, 1993, p. 20, CSPS, Boston, MA, USA.
volunteers had kept diary records of their colds and on an average
each had seven every year, with an annual morbidity of seventy
1. The writer uses ‘numbed sensitivity’ to refer to days. So nearly one-fifth of our lives is spent in more or less
A. deadening of the capacity to feel misery, coughing and sneezing. Some widely held beliefs about
B. objectionable behaviour the common cold have turned out not to be true. It seems that
C. heartlessness on the part of actors. old people are just as liable to colds as the young. Sailors in
D. unreasonable violence. isolated weather ships have just as many colds while on board
and not in contact with the outside world as when on shore. It is
2. What will actually be proved ‘if the premise of education a truism that common illnesses pose more problems than the
is granted’? rare. The rare disease is by comparison much easier to handle.
A. Entertainment on television is harmful to society. There are not so many cases and all of them have been
B. Violence on television encourages violence in real life. intensively studied. Someone has read up all the literature about
C. Good models can influence the young. the disease and published a digest of it. There will be more facts
D. The viewer of fantasized violence is the criminal and fewer fancies.
who acts out violence. Miles Howard: ‘The Spectator’

3. From the passage, it can be inferred that since 1985 6. Which of the following statements can be implied from
A. more black males between the ages of 15 and 19 the passage?
havebeen killing one another with guns. A. People catch more colds in winter.
B. more black males between the ages of 15 and 19 B. The origin of colds is inconclusive.
have been getting killed by guns. C. People catch more colds in warm weather.
C. more white than black males have been getting D. People catch cols equally in warm and cold weather.
killed
by guns. 7. A rare disease can be more easily dealt with than the
D. more black than white males have been killing one common cold because
another with guns. A. medical experts are fed up with the rampant cases of
4. The writer says ‘the firearms figures are rising’ because common colds
A. more teenagers are now getting killed by firearms B. people easily develop resistance to the common colds
C. a dequate research exists to uncover facts bout such
rare diseases C. behave shamelessly like a drunkard
D. common colds are easily not he province of the D. move with care and self-control.
orthodox medical experts.
13. The analogy between young men and sick people is that
8. According to the writer, some widely held beliefs about A. they are easily swayed by emotions
the common colds are: B. they are easily controlled by hunger and thirst
A. inevitable B. irreconcilable C. fallacious D. C. their emotions are active but short-lived
societal D. they are apt to give way to anger.

9. From the information in the passage, there is evidence. 14. According to the passage, young men are
A. against the theory that the common cold is infectious A. violent when they have sexual desires
B. for the theory that the common cold is indeed B. active and restive until they satisfy their desires
infectious C. indignant and fickle in satisfying their sexual desires
C. that old people are immune against the common D. hot-tempered when they are hungry or thirsty.
cold
D. that medical reports are silent on facts about common 15. The writer says that young people are optimistic in
colds. their
dealings with people because they are.
10. The Cirencester volunteers kept a record of their colds A. steadfast B. courageous C. discreet
through D. reckless.
A. the British Medical Journal B. morbidity rates
C. temperature recordings. D. personal diaries. PASSAGE IV

PASSAGE III The passage below has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately
Young men have strong passions, and tend to gratify following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most
them indiscriminately. Of the bodily desires, it is the sexual by appropriate option for each gap. Each question carries 2 marks.
which they are most swayed and in which they show absence of
self-control. They are changeable and fickle in their desires, With the most profound respect to the members of the
which are violent while they last, but quickly over: their impulses Senate, I do not think that it is within the competence of that
are keen but not deep-rooted, and are like sick people’s attacks …16…(A. executive B. judicial C. administrative D. legislative)
of hunger and thirst. They are hot-tempered and quick-tempered, body to pass a motion to …17… (A. enforce B. nullify C. modify
and apt to give way to their anger; bad temper often gets the D. order) the executive action of the President. The Senate is
better of them, for owing to their love of honour they cannot …18…(A. a wing B. a portion C. an anchor D. an arm) of the
bear being slighted, and are indignant if they imagine themselves National Assembly. But it is not by itself alone the National
unfairly treated. While they love honour, they love victory still Assembly. One can imagine the confusion, which would be
more, for youth is eager for superiority over others, and victory created if the …19…(A. House of Representatives B. Judiciary
is one form of this. They love both more than they love money, C. National Assembly D. Executive Council) were to take a
which indeed they love very little, not having yet learnt what it view diametrically opposed to that reflected in the Senate
means to be without it. They look at the good side rather than resolution. The strongest objection to the action of the Senate
the bad, not having yet witnessed many instances of in passing the resolution is the fact that it constituted itself
wickedness. They trust others readily, because they have not the…20… (A. litigant B. defendant C. plaintiff D. attorney) as
yet been cheated. They are sanguine; nature warms their blood well as the judge of the constitutionality of the action of the
as though with excess of wine; and besides that, they have as President. The function of the Senate is to …21… (A. enact
yet met with few disappointments. Their lives are mainly spent B. create C. compose D. annul) laws. But the Senate has no
not in memory but in expectation, for youth has a long future authority or …22… (A. might B. power C. dynamism D.
before it and a short past behind it: on the first day of one’s life strength) to control the President in the exercise of his …23…
one has nothing at all to remember, and can only look forward. (A. official B. authoritative C. judicial D. executive) powers. It
They are easily cheated owing to the sanguine disposition just cannot by a mere resolution or motion give any directive to the
mentioned. Their hot tempers and hopeful dispositions make President regarding the exercise of his powers nor can it undo
them more courageous than older men are; the hot temper what the President has done in the exercise of those powers.
prevents fear, and the hopeful disposition creates confidence; The only way in which the exercise of the powers of the President
we cannot feel fear so long as we are feeling angry, and any can be…24… (A. modified B. standardized C. regulated D.
expectation of good makes us confident. ordered) is by …25…(A. an Act B. a Decree C. a motion D. a
Aristole’s Youth and Old-Age, p. 197
bill) of the National Assembly.
11. The expression, ‘not in memory but in expectation’, as Adapted from The Guardian of July 8, 1999, p. 8
used in the passage, implies LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS
A. innocence, not experience B. future, not present
C. past, not present D. hopelessness, not hopefulness. (Questions 26 to 62 carry 1 mark each.)
12. The statement, ‘nature warms their blood as though with In each of the questions 26 to 30, choose the option that has the
excess of wine’, as used in the text, means same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters
A. act with considerable confidence and trust. underlined.
B. respond with suspicion and alertness
26. boat 39. A. integral B. intimate
A. board B. bought C. discourse D. accelerate
C. go D. glory
40. A. navigate B. envelop
27. air C. legislate D. liberate
A. heir B. her
C. hear D. fire In each of questions 41 to 62, fill each gap with the most
appropriate option from the list provided.
28. pleasure
A. pliable B. pleat 41. Without our relentless campaigns, we might … sure of
C. plenary D. jeopardy victory in the race for the National Assembly.
A. never have been B. have never be
29. thunder C. never had been D. be never
A. prefer B. differ
C. confer D. defer
42. We are all hungry; we … anything to eat since morning.
30. tear (noun) A. didn’t have B. hadn’t had C. haven’t had
A. dare B. care D. never had
C. here D. wear
43. To check desertification in the arid zones, … trees
In questions 31 and 32, choose from the options the word that should
has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the be planted.
letters underlined. A. drought-proof B. drought-resisting
C. drought-effective D. drought-resistant
31. thought
A. theatre B. taught 44. The loquacious young lad reeled off all the names of
C. weather D. fate the
players…
32. caliph A. off head B. offhand C. at heart D. at hand
A. presently B. perhaps
C. powerful D. opponent 45. I like the character that played the role of a political…at
the last convention of our party.
In each of questions 33 to 36, select the word that has the same A. thorncoat B. torncoat C. turncoat D. turnedcoat
pattern of stress as the given word.
46. All the traders in the market saw the woman buy... the
33. ENORMOUS imported suits.
A. interest B. solution A. up B. off C. over D. out
C. stupidly D. character
47. The man declared his intention from the …
34. HONOUR A. outset B. inset C. onset D. offset
A. hotel B. hyena
C. human D. humane 48. The Team Manager told us that the race could only be
won by the…
35. QUALITY A. flat-footed B. bare-footed C. swift-footed
A. guarantee B. accepted D. fore-footed
C. bachelor D. relation
49. The Governor rejected the bill and withheld his…
36. EDUCATION A. accent B. assent C. access D. ascent
A. duplicity B. economics
C. elaborate D. conjectural 50. The new school is not provided with … for science
practical.
In questions 37 and 38, identify the word that has the stress on A. enough equipment B. equipments
the second syllable. C. an equipment D. enough equipments
37. A. reproduce B. always
C. result D. understand 51. Much as I would love to visit him, I’m afraid ...
A. I won’t B. I can’t C. I can’t be able D. of visiting him
38. A. tomato B. photograph
C. yesterday D. tranquil 52. Ilesa witnessed the largest ... of writers at any convention
in recent times.
In questions 39 and 40, identify the word that has a different A. turn-around B. turnover C. turn-out D. turn-on
stress pattern from the others. 53. The warring factions need words of…
A. advise B. adverse C. advises D. advice
54. The politicians were… by the press. A. The politician’s rude remarks were heavily criticized.
A. marooned B. ridiculed C. eclipsed D. ostracized B. The politician’s provocative remarks were heavily
criticized.
55. There are many … to her personality. C. The politician’s bombastic remarks were heavily
A. moods B. styles C. facets D. faces criticized.
D. The politician’s tribalistic remarks were heavily
criticized.
56. There are several… in the farmyard.
A. sheep B. ewe C. lamb D. goat (Questions 68 to 100 carry 1 mark each)

57. Audu fought with his… brother. In each of questions 68 to 84, choose the option nearest in
A. senior B. older C. bigger D. elder meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.

58. The Dark Continent was an… for Africa. 68. The Governor told the chief that he was only on a routine tour.
A. normal and regular visit B. unplanned encounter
A. abuse B. enigma C. eclectic D. epithet C. surprise and impromptu check D. working visit and homage.
59. He arrived… to see his family leave for the countryside. 69. The boy was told that he would need several more
A. in time B. timely C. late D. with time. pints
of blood if he was to survive.
60. You can travel on your own, A. many B. much C. some D. plenty
A. isn’t it B. wouldn’t you. C. can’t you D. shouldn’t
70. The Principal told the teacher to stop browbeating the
you. children.
A. pampering B. bullying C. deceiving D.
61. Our culture does not allow one to … when an elderly caning
person is speaking.
A. cut of B. cut off C. cut in D. cut on 71. Some actions of the Nigerian youth have alienated them
from those who were sympathetic to their cause.
62. Raffle draws like gambling often end in a… for me. A. endeared/kindly B. confronted/ill disposed
C. separated/opposed D. estranged/well disposed.
A. lost B. loss C. loose D. lose
72. The essay topic is nebulous.
In each of questions 63 to 67, select the option that best explains A. vague B. incorrect C. distinct D. clear
the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries
2 marks. 73. The man was able to persuade his willful and obstinate
daughter to follow the career he chose for her.
63. If he were here it could be more fun. A. intelligent but arrogant B. unyielding and obdurate
A. He did not show up and so the occasion lacked much fun. C. obscure and odious D. hardworking and intelligent
B. He was being expected to supply more fun.
C. There was no fun because he was not present. 74. Mr. Okon has been described as an eagle-eyed editor.
A. a short-sighted B. a clear-sighted
D. He was expected but did not show up to liven up the C. a long-sighted D. a quick-sighted.
occasion.
75. Inspite of her grim situation, the young widow smiled
64. Though he is our elected representative, he often takes dutifully at the visitor’s pleasantries.
a rather jaundiced view of our problems. A. unkind comments B. sad stories
A. He takes a rather hazy view of our problems. C. condolence messages D. jocular remarks
B. He takes an unfavourable position concerning our
problems. 76. I have always believed that my mother is a very
C. He takes a rather forceful view of our problems. impassioned woman.
D. He takes a sickly view of our problems. A. emotive B. impartial C. impassive D. emotional

65. When I visited James I only gave him a congratulatory 77. The party gathering was thrown into a state of euphoria
card on account of his promotion. after the election result was announced.
A. The only person I visited was James and nobody A. pleasure B. sadness C. excitement D. confusion
else.
B. It was only James that I gave a congratulatory card to. 78. The family discussed the crime committed and resolved
C. All I gave James when I visited him was a to nail the lie to the counter.
congratulatory card. A. expose it publicly. B. bury it in a coffin.
C. defer action on it D. seek more advice.
D. All I did when I visited James was given a
79. My father was at the apogee of his career when he was
congratulatory card. retired.
A. terminal point B. highest point
66. The events of last Friday show that there is no love lost C. least productive stage D. redundant stage
between the Principal and the Vice-Principal. 80. Though David’s condition is serious, his life is not in
A. They like each other B. They work independently. immediate danger.
C. They cannot part company D. They dislike each A. nasty B. hypertensive C. dangerous D. grave
other. 81. That punch by the young boxer proved to be fatal.
A. effective B. hard C. deadly D. belated.
67. The politician’s inflammatoryremarks were heavilycriticized.
82. The presence of the security men in the area will provide
a moment of respite for the residents. unfathomable lightness.
A. soothing relaxation B. enduring reprieve A invigorating B. irresistible C. predictable
C. lasting security D. temporary relief D. impressive
83. It is time for all concerned to first pick to pieces the strike 94. I’m not interested in buying that shirt. I think it is
action before proffering solutions. overpriced.
A. embrace joyfully B. critically analyse A. too expensive B. overrated C. priceless D. cheap
C. stop abruptly D. commend highly 95. Despite his laxity in other matters, Ojo’s father drew the
84. The new ruler is big-hearted in his dealings with the line at truancy.
people A. favoured B. rejected. C. Emphasized D. Ignored.
A. generous B. cruel C. soft D. proud 96. The string was taut.
A. loose B. firm C. stretched D. tight
In each of questions 85 to 100, choose the option opposite in 97. Hypertension is a debilitating disease that everyone
meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics. should prevent.
A. a mortal B. an enervating C. an energizing
85. The teacher announced that the class would be making D. a horrible
a fleeting visit to the zoo. 98. The Permanent Secretary left his job under a cloud.
A. routine B. brief C. long D. guided A. on a cloudy day B. with a clear record
86. The project is designed to alleviate poverty in the C. in disgrace D. on a sunny day
country. 99. We intend to make the reception a diurnal event.
A. tackle B. exacerbate C. eradicate D. assuage A. a nightly B. a weekly C. a short D. an annual
87. Civil engineering is predominantly a male profession. 100. It is surprising that this politician has now turned
A. absolutely B. essentially C. generally renegade.
D. seldom A. militant B. corrupt C. loyal D. quiet
88. The officer said that he knew nothing to the detriment
of COMPREHENSION
the applicant.
A. damage B. disfavour C. advantage D. Read passages I & II carefully and answer the questions that
background follow. Each question carries 3 marks.

89. When the driver applied the brakes, they acted up PASSAGE I
A. failed B. responded well C. were sluggish The emergence of a standard dialect produces
D. jammed thephenomenon known as “accent” which is quite different from
90. The striking workers have vowed not to return to work dialect. In the process of learning a foreign language, it is normal
until the decision is rescinded. to transfer the patterns of an indigenous language to those of
A. changed B. dismissed C. implemented the foreign language. With time, however, those of form and
D. incorporated most of those of orthography and phonology gradually get
91. It is rare for a leader and his deputy to see eye to eye. eliminated. This is because these can easily be identified and
A. disagree B. respect each other corrected. They are easy to correct because they do not involve
C. be of one mind D. reproach each other patterns of muscular movement. It is also necessary to correct
92. Common sense requires that one should be decorous at them because otherwise they could seriously impair intelligibility.
formal gatherings. With phonetic patterns, on the other hand, there is a
A. courteous B. impolite C. incurious D. careful
93. The diminutive figure bounces over the track with

Use of English 2001

great deal of intelligibility tolerance because muscular patterns Members of a language community control at least two
are involved, thus making corrections difficult when observed. dialects and use both dialects in different situations. In the rural
Besides, phonetic patterns do not impair intelligibility much. areas, the native dialect is used in most situations since there is
Hence the transference of phonetic habits from one language to less movement. Therefore, rural dwellers tend to be parochial
another is both easier to tolerate and more difficult to avoid and maintain the homogeneity of their dialect. In the urban
than transference at the lexico-grammatical level. It follows that community, on the other hand, there is more demand on the
a speaker who is learning a second dialect does so with an standard dialect than on the rural one. This is because people
accent since the muscles of his speech organs would have from different regions converge here. In order to ensure mutual
crystallized in response to the phonetics of his native language intelligibility resulting from the pressure of communication, a
which he learnt first. The speaker therefore speaks the second great deal of demand is made on the standard dialect which now
dialect with the phonetic features of his native dialect. The becomes the lingua franca amongst them.
learning of a standard language is simply the learning of a second
dialect – that which has been standardized. 1. Members of a language community control at least two
dialects because
A. the convergence of people from disparate overwhelmed by intense feelings of joy, love and peace. Despite
regions his attitude, though, he somehow reunites with his physical
results in the pressure of communication. body and lives.
B. there is little demand for the indigenous Adapted from Moody, R. A. (1975) Life after Life
dialects.
C. they want a lingua franca which is produced 6. The NDE man appears to be a spectator in the flurry of
by mutual intelligibility. activities around him because
D. they are made up of both rural and urban A. his new ‘body’ would not allow him to
dwellers. participate.
B. he is moving rapidly through a long dark
2. According to the passage, tunnel.
A. a foreign language produces the transference C. he can only watch as the events unfold
of the correct patterns of dialect features. D. he is now a dead man.
B. speech organs are shaped by indigenous languages.
C. a lingua franca is the consequence of a standard 7. According to the passage, scientific evidence has made
dialect. it possible
D. mutual intelligibility is the consequence of the A. to make conjectures about what happens after
pressure of communication. death
B. to know a little about what happens in the
3. An appropriate title for this passage is world of the dead
A. The Emergence of a Standard Language C. for one to experience the sensation of dying
B. The Phenomenon of Accent and living again
C. The Quest for a Lingua Franca D. for the dead to return and tell their experiences.
D. Members of a Language Community
8. The expression as he reaches the point of greatest
4. The word those, as used in the passage, refers to physical distress, as used in the passage, means when
A. indigenous languages A. the man’s system finally collapses
B. forms of orthography and phonology B. the sick man finally stops breathing
C. foreign languages C. his doctor is ready to pronounce him dead
D. patterns of an indigenous language. D. his condition seems to get worse.

5. Phonetic patterns allow for intelligibility tolerance because 9. A suitable title for the passage is
A. transference is both difficult to avoid and easy to A. A Glimpse into the World of the Dead
tolerate B. Visions of an Afterlife
B. they are involved and difficult to avoid C. Research into the Lives of the Dead
C. they give rise to the phenomenon of accent D. The Sensation of Death and the Afterlife.
which is easy to tolerate
D. they involve muscular patterns which later 10. That the man was shown a panoramic instantaneous
crystallize. playback of the major events of his life suggests that
A. he needs to be entertained to take his mind
PASSAGE II away from the noise around him
It is possible to have a glimpse of life after death. Man B. he needs to see the difference between his
has always believed in an afterlife, but only today do we have past life and his new life
scientific reports of people who seem to have experienced the C. there are video machines in the world beyond
sensation of dying but lived to tell about it. Ongoing research is D. he has to assess his deeds in life.
documenting hundreds of cases each year of the near –death
experience (NDE), and scientists think they are finding a clearly PASSAGE III
identifiable pattern: usually a man is dying and, as he reaches
the point of greatest physical distress, he hears himself The passage below has gaps numbered 11 to 20. Immediately
pronounced dead by his doctor. He begins to hear an following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most
uncomfortable noise, a loud ringing or buzzing, and at the same appropriate option for each gap. Each question carries 2 marks.
time feels himself moving very rapidly through a long dark tunnel.
After this he suddenly finds himself outside of his own physical Before any detailed analysis begins, the first thing to do
body, but still in the immediate physical environment, and he with the raw data is to check through the field record books and
sees his own body from a distance, as though he is a spectator. questionnaires for any …11.. (A. mistakes B. events C. records
He watches the resuscitation attempt from this unusual vantage D. odds), inconsistencies and incompleteness. In some cases, it
point and is in a state of emotional upheaval. may be possible to correct any discovered shortcomings. When
After a while, he collects himself and becomes it is not possible to carry out these …12… (A. plans B.
accustomed to his odd condition. He notices that he still had a corrections C. expectations D. possibilities), a visit to the field
‘body’, but one of a very different nature and with very different may even be necessary. It should however be realized that it is
powers from the physical body he has left behind. Soon after, not very often that a revisit is possible.
things begin to happen. Others come to meet and to help him.
In most scientific…13… (A. questionnaires B. data C.
He glimpses the spirits of relatives and friends who have already
died, and a loving, warm spirit of a kind he has never encountered experiments D. conclusions) such revisits are clearly impossible.
before- a being of light – appears before him. This being asks This is true of many surveys too. A road traffic survey…14.. (A.
him a question, nonverbally – to make him evaluate his life – and classified B. precoded C. conducted D. experimented) to find
helps him along by showing him a panoramic instantaneous out the amount and frequency of daily traffic between two towns
playback of the major events of his life. Then he finds that he cannot be expected to be ...15... (A. observed B. produced C.
must go back to the earth that the time for his death has not yet undertaken D. reproducible). There is no way of going back
come. At this point he resists, for by now he is taken up with his to check whether the number of vehicles reported for any
experiences in the afterlife and does not want to return. He is
particular hour is correct or not. With open-ended questions the 22. The writer uses the expression unless mechanically
…16…(A. method B. responses C. errors D. conclusions) have minded to refer to
to be classified into relatively small number of groups. The A. town authorities laying down tramlines
process of classifying answers and of sometimes identifying B. coachmen and grooms who chose to become
them by number and letter is called…17.. (A. encoding B. mechanics
recording C. coding D. recoding). When closed-ended C. coachmen and grooms adaptable to the new
questions are used, it is possible to code all the possible answers technology
D. those amenable to change and development.
before they are actually received. This is called…18.. (A. recoding
B. coding C. precoding D. encoding). What is done, a check 23. The statement By 1910, the motor car was plainly
through the answers for proper classification, numbering and conquering the highway means that
lettering is still called for at this stage. This whole process of A. highway codes for motor cars came into effect by
checking through questionnaires and notebooks is called …19.. 1910
(A. listing B. posting C. editing D. auditing). Collected data will B. by 1910 motor cars became a common sight
eventually have to be used in drawing …20.. (A. analogies B. on the highways
examples C. references D. conclusions) and writing a report C. the motor car was invented in 1910
about the population from which it came. D. by 1910 many people knew how to drive
motorcars.
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that 24. From the passage, it is obvious that
follow. Each question carries 3 marks. A. the motorcar and the lorry came to displace
the train traffic
PASSAGE IV B. motorcars were mere luxuries which many
By 1910, the motorcar was plainly conquering the people
highway. The private car was now part of every rich man’s tried desperately to acquire
establishment, although its prices made it as yet an impossible C. the motorcar was invented before the express
luxury for most of the middle class. But for the adventuresome trains
youth, there was the motorcycle, a fearsome invention producing D. the train was the fastest means of transport
accidents and ear –splitting noises. Already, the dignified beforethe motorcar and the lorry.
carriages and smart pony-traps were beginning to disappear 25. One of the following statements can be deducted from
from the roads, and coachmen and grooms, unless mechanically the passage.
minded, were finding it more difficult to make a living. A. Significant improvement occurred in road transport since
The roads, which had gone to sleep since the coming of the advent of motorcars, lorries and motorcycles.
the railway, now awoke to feverish activity. Cars and motorcycles B. People no longer used trains with the advent of
dashed along them at speeds which rivaled those of the express cars and lorries.
trains, and the lorry began to appear. Therefore, the road system C. Society would be better off without the chaotic volume
was compelled to adapt itself to a volume and speed of traffic for and speed of motor cars, lorries and motorcycles.
which it had never been intended. Its complete adaptation was D. Human society was static without the express
impossible; but the road surface was easily transformed and, speed of cars and motorcycles.
during the early years of the century, the dustiness and
greasiness of the highways were lessened by tar-spraying. To LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS
widen and straighten the roads and get rid of blind corners and
every steep gradient were tasks which had scarcely been tackled (Questions 26 to 80 carry 1 mark each.)
before 1914. The situation was worst of all in towns where not
only was any large scheme of road widening usually out of the In questions 26 and 27, identify the word that has a different
question, but also where crowding and danger were all too stress pattern from the others.
frequently increased by the short-sighted eagerness of town
authorities in laying down tramlines. 26. A. administrative B. circulation
Yet it was not only the road system that was in need of C. temperamental D. consideration
readjustment; the nervous system of those who used and dwelt
by the roads suffered. The noises caused by the conversion of 27. A. classroom B. programme
the roads into speedways called for a corresponding tightening C. brother D. July
up of the nerves; and, especially in the towns, the pedestrians
who wished to preserve life and limb was compelled to keep his In each of questions 28 to 31, choose the word that does not
attention continually on the stretch, to practise himself in have the same vowel sound as the others.
estimates of the speed of approaching vehicles and to run or
jump for his life if he ventured off the pavement. 28. A. bale B. plait
Adapted from Rachel Carson: The Advent of the Motor Car C. saint D. gate

21. The writer seems to suggest that 29. A. rice B. fight

C. granite D. die
A. the volume and speed of traffic on the roads
increased with the advent of cars, motor cycles 30. A. wind B. people
and lorries C. even D. key
B. there were no roads before the advent of cars
and motorcycles and so people had to be 31. A. enjoy B. log
mechanically minded C. toil D. rejoice
C. coachmen and grooms were not mechanically
minded In each of questions 31 to 56, fill each gap with the most
D. the roads that existed were dormant. appropriate option from the list provided.
32. … (A. Have being B. Having been C. Having being D. 51. Of course, we all saw the culprit … (A. approaching
Have I been) told of his impending arrival, I worked B. approaches C. approached D. approach) and hit
hard to make his short stay very comfortable. the man

33. The weather is probably… appealing for people who 52. The Company Director showed the contractor a …
live in Jos… (A. no less/than B. more/as C. as much/as (A. photocopy B. photograph C. prototype D. microfilm)
D. at least as/but) for foreigners. of the proposed office complex.

34. Ado tried to … (A. recall B. obliterate C. eulogize 53. Had he considered his public image carefully, he …
D. obstruct) all memory of his dead father. (A. would have stood down B. might have stood
aside C. should have stepped down D. would have
35. This imposing edifice … (A. had costed B. costed stepped aside) for his opponent in the election.
C. cost D. have cost) a fortune to build.

36. Three quarters of the hostel… been painted and three 54. The editor was not happy that the Nigerian press was
quarters of the students … (A. has/has B. have/has hemmed … (A. up B. across C. in D. over)
C. have/have D. has/have) moved in.
55. More… (A. energy B. power C. effort D. grease) to
37. They let him go in … (A. respect B. regard C. disregard your elbow as you campaign for press freedom!
D. consideration) of his age.
56. A child that shows mature characteristics at an early
38. …(A. While B. By chance C. Should D. Should in age may be described as … (A. precocious B.
case) you come early to the new house, clean up my ingenuous C. premature D. preconceived).
flat.
In questions 57 and 58, identify the word that has the stress on
39. These villagers… (A. used B. are used C. were used the first syllable.
D. use) to grow rice.
57. A. misread B. resign
40. When Ajike met her… (A. strange B. loving C. caring C. competent D. compel
D. estranged) husband at the party, she felt like
reconciling with him. 58. A. resist B. intact
C. confirm D. salon
41. He does not seem to know how to solve the problem, …
(A. does not he B. does he C. does he not D. doesn’t he)? In each of questions 59 to 62, choose from the options the word
that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by
42. Some scientists are trying to… (A. imitate B. implicate the letter(s) underlined.
C. replicate D. fabricate) human beings in their
laboratories. 59. Past
A. pasture B. castle
43. A wide range of options…. (A. is B. was C. were D. are) C. wrestle D. preached.
made available to the political parties during the recently
concluded elections. 60. Church
A. feature B. chauffeur
44. The meeting was called to…(A. re-present B. reconstitute
C. ocean D. machine
C. reconcile D. recommend) divergent views on the
subject of a national conference.
61. Sure
45. The police came early enough to…(A. detonate B. insulate A. charlatan B. church
C. diffuse D. defuse) the bomb planted by the rioters. C. cheer D. cheap

46. The government which … recruiting … (A. is/their 62. Thank

B. were/ their C. was/its D. are/its) workers suddenly A. Thomas B. though
stopped doing so. C. Thames D. thought
47. They had to … (A. resort to B. switch on C. light up In each of questions 63 to 77, choose the option opposite in
D. fall back on) the generator when the electricity
meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
failed.

48. I do not think any sane person would have acted in such 63. Amina’s performance in the examination surpassed my
a … (A. rational B. cruel C. secret D. composed) manner. expectations.
A. amazed everyone B. lacked merit
49. Neither Agbo nor his parents… (A. has attended B. attend C. was extraordinary good D. was disappointing
C. attends D. attended) the meetings now.
64. As these boys never act in public, the police are now
50. Modern dancing has become rather scientific and so worried about their covert activities.
requires … (A. a rapping voice. B. bizarre costuming A. evil B. open C. cryptic D. ignoble
C. immense instrumentation D. some choreographic
skill).
65. The town was all agog at his unexpected return.
A. unexcited B. excited C. on fire D. surprised C. How will they get to Abuja?
D. Did they fly to Jos?
66. Some equatorial areas have a sultry climate.
A. a hot B. an inclement C. a temperate D. a stable 80. My neighbour BRUISED his thigh while playing
football.
67. The journalist’s write-up contained a plethora of detail. A. Did your neighbour fracture his thigh while
A. simplicity B. shortage C. complexity playing football?
D. spectrum B. Did your neighbour break his leg while playing
tennis?
68. In the latter part of his life, the famous soldier showed C. Did your neighbour play football yesterday?
signs of youthfulness. D. Was your neighbour involved in an accident?
A. bravery B. vitality C. energy D. senility
In each of questions 81 to 85, select the option that best explains
69. It is inconceivable that the rat devoured the cat. the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries
A. contestable B. credible C. incomprehensible 2 marks.
D. unimaginable
81. Adawo is an imp.
70. Ali wondered why the principal was ambivalent about A. Adawo behaves badly.
the students’ future. B. Adawo behaves decently.
A. inconsiderate B. decisive C. anxious C. Adawo behaves differently.
D. ambitious D. Adawo behaves queerly.

71. The teacher taught the rudiments of Chemistry to the 82. The solution lies in choosing between various negative
first grade. alternatives.
A. elements B. fundamentals C. basics A. The solution lies in choosing between the
D. stupidity positive and the negative.
B. The solutions are many.
72. In his naivety, he believed all the stories his friend told C. The solution can be found in one of the
him. negative options.
A. artlessness B. friendliness C. incredulity D. The solution is a negative one.
D. stupidity
83. You must not attend the end-of-year party.
73. Updating the Board’s brochure is an arduous task. A. You do not have to decide whether to attend
A. a regular B. an annual C. a difficult D. an easy the party or not.
B. You have to decide whether to attend the party or
74. The lecture seemed interminable. not.
A. brief B. interesting C. boring D. unending C. It is necessary that you do not attend the party.
D. It is necessary that you attend the party.
75. Had I known about their plan much earlier, I would have
nipped it in the bud. 84. The man reasoned that there ought to be a limit to sycophancy.
A. promoted it B. squashed it C. initiated it D. stopped it A. Sycophants need not talk all the time.
B. There can be no favour beyond a reasonable
76. What a harmless thought he has! point.
A. pleasant B. perfect C. pernicious D. pertinent C. Sycophants should know when to grant
people’s request.
77. There is much apathy towards reading among students D. People should know when not to use flattery.
nowadays. 85. Oche’s chief idiosyncrasy is a passion for pounded
A. indecision B. enthusiasm C. indifference yam.
D. disinclination A. Oche hates pounded yam.
B. Oche’s chief hates pounded yam.
In each of questions 78 to 80, the word in capital letters has an C. Oche’s chief likes pounded yam.
emphatic stress. Choose the option that best fits the expression D. Oche has a penchant for pounded yam.
in the sentence. (Questions 86 to 100 carry 1 mark each.)

78. YOUR sister should come with us tomorrow. In each of questions 86 to 100, choose the option nearest in
A. Should your brother come with us tomorrow? meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
B. Should our brother come with us tomorrow? 86. The professor discussed a number of abstruse topics.
C. Should Ado’s sister come with us tomorrow? A. irrelevant B. useful C. esoteric D. relevant.
D. Should my sister come with us tomorrow? 87. Tade became timorous when she was asked to give the
valedictory speech.
79. They FLEW to Abuja. A. excited B. aggressive C. nervous D. happy
A. Where did they fly to? 88. The men were tardy in offering help.
B. Did they go to Abuja by road?
A. generous B. quick C. brave D. slow 98. Art lies in cherishing the initiative and creative power
89. Ugo has often been described as belligerent. of each person.
A. attractive B. combative C. innocent D. patient A. gift B. strength C. potential D. mind
90. The coalescence of the groups created additional
problems. 99. As the triumphant rebels were returning to their base,
A. union B. fighting C. proscription they met with a serious reverse.
D. disbandment A. an enemy B. an army C. a victory D. a defeat
91. Funmi is just being facetious about her marrying a soldier.
A. unfaithful B. serious C. crazy D. unserious 100. The Conference Centre caters for transients only.
92. The village girl wore sumptuous clothes. A. permanent guests B. professionals C. novices
A. loose-fitting B. cheap C. faded-looking D. expensive D. temporary guests
93. Any chief executive of an organization would find
radical changes blocked at every turn. COMPREHENSION
A. ideas B. innovations C. developments
D. suggestions Read passages I, II & III carefully and answer the questions
94. I cannot understand why Ali should serve in that that follow. Each question carries 3 marks.
moribund administration.
A. crumbling B. purposeless C. prodigal PASSAGE I
D. oppressive If our thought is to be clear and we are to succeed in
95. Bose was angry because her friend called her a pilferer. communicating it to other people, we must have some method of
A. liar B. hypocrite C. criminal D. thief fixing the meaning of the words we use. When we use a word
96. While the hooligans exchanged blows, we looked on whose meaning is not certain, we may well be asked to define it.
complacently. There is a useful traditional device for doing this by indicating
A. questioningly B. sorrowfully C. dejectedly the class to which whatever is indicated by the term belongs,
D. contentedly. and also the particular property which distinguishes it from all
97. The player kept on gamely to the end of the match. other members of the same class. Thus we may define a whale as
A. courageously B. skillfully. C. amateurishly a marine animal that spouts’. ‘Marine animal’ in this definition
D. stubbornly indicates the general class to which the whale belongs, and
‘spouts’ indicates the particular property that distinguishes

Use of English 2002

whales from other such marine animals as fishes, seals, jellyfish
and lobsters. In the same way, we can define an even number as
a finite integer divisible by two, or a democracy as a system of 2. From the passage, which of these is a disadvantage of
government in which the people themselves rule. defining by enumeration.
There are other ways, of course, of indicating the A. The words or objects listed may not all share
meanings of words. We may, for example, find it hard to make a similar characteristics.
suitable definition of the word ‘animal’, so we say that an animal B. Enumeration always leaves doubts in the mind
is such a thing as a rabbit, dog, fish or goat. Similarly, we may of the speaker.
say that religion is such a system as Christianity, Islam, Judaism C. The property and examples enumerated may
not be all-inclusive.
and Buddhism. This way of indicating the meaning of a term by
D. Many important members of the group may
enumerating examples of what it includes is obviously of limited be left out of the enumeration.
usefulness. If we indicated our use of the word ‘animal’ as above,
our hearers might, for example, be doubtful whether a sea- 3. One of these summarizes the approaches to definition
anemone or a slug was to be included in the class of animals. It discussed in the passage.
is, however, a useful way of supplementing a definition if the A. Specifying clearly what distinguishes a
definition itself is definite without being easily understandable. particular word or object from its traditional
Failure of an attempt at definition to serve its purpose may result groups.
from giving as distinguishing mark one which either does not B. Indicating the class of a word and mentioning
belong to all the things the definition is intended to include, or its general property with examples.
does belong to some members of the same general class which C. Giving general and specific features followed
by
the definition is intended to exclude.
Adapted from Straight and Crooked Thinking, by R. H.
examples of what the object or word includes.
Thouless D. Mentioning the class of a word or object with
its specific property.
1. The expression we may well be asked as used in the
passage means 4. The writer uses the expression fixing the meaning of
A. it is quite likely that we will be asked the words we use to mean
B. we cannot escape being asked A. getting even with the people who always ask
C. the listener is always justified to ask questions for definitions
D. it is inconceivable that we will be asked.
B. using definitions to help build up their availability of the products at reasonable prices. This appears to
vocabulary be the sense in deregulation.
C. repairing the damage done by inadequate
definition during communication 6. An appropriate title for this passage is
D. using definitions to help people communicate A. The Advantages of a Deregulated Economy
their thoughts and argue logically.
B. Highlighting the Dangers of Deregulation
5. Which of the following statements can be deduced from C. Making a Case for Deregulation
the passage? D. The problems of the NNPC
A. There are both traditional and modern methods of
defining words. 7. Which of the following statements is true according to
B. Definitions aid communication when enumeration the passage?
is accurately handled. A. The opposition to the deregulation of the oil
C. Every speaker or writer has a method of defining industry is not unanimous.
words. B. The Nigeria Labour Congress has been able
D. Accurate definition is invaluable to to prevent the Government from deregulating
communication but difficult to achieve. the economy.
C. The introduction of entrepreneurs to the oil
industry will make life easy only for a few
PASSAGE II
Nigerians.
Those who have been following the arguments for and
D. A better life for all Nigerians is conditional
against the deregulation of the oil industry in Nigeria may have
upon the deregulation of the economy.
got the impression that deregulation connotes lack of control or
indifference on the part of the Government. But there is nothing
8. The writer seems to suggest that
so far from official quarters to suggest that deregulation will
A. Nigerians do not understand the sense in
cause the Government to relinquish its control of the oil industry
deregulation.
because the absence of direct control does not mean that it will
B. a deregulated economy will cause the
surrender all its rights to the entrepreneurs who may want to
Government to be indifferent to the plight of
participate in the industry. Yet the opposition expressed so far
ordinary Nigerians.
against deregulation stems from the fear that the Government
C. only a heartless cartel will benefit by the
would leave Nigerians at the mercy of a heartless cartel who
deregulation of the oil industry.
would command the heights of the oil industry and cause the
D. the anxiety caused by the deregulation
pump price of fuel to rise above the means of most Nigerians.
question is groundless.
As a result of such fears, many Nigerians have become
resentful of deregulation and, in fact, the Nigeria Labour
9. Which of the following conclusions can be reached
Congress (NLC) has threatened to ‘deregulate’ the Government
from
if it should go ahead with the deregulation plan. But Nigerians
the passage?
have not fared any better with the economy totally in Government
A. Nigerians cannot buy fuel at exorbitant prices.
control. Until recently, the most important sectors of the economy
B. The deregulation of the oil industry does not
were in the hands of the Government. Today, the deregulation of
preclude the Government from exerting its influence.
some of these sectors has broken its monopoly and introduced
C. The deregulation of the economy will solve
healthy competition to make things a little easier for Nigerians.
all the problems of petroleum products
A good example is the breaking of the stifling monopoly of
distribution.
Nigeria Airways. Today, the traveler is king at the domestic
D. The Government is hell-bent on leaving
airports as opposed to the struggle that air travels used to be
Nigerians at the mercy of a heartless cartel.
under Nigeria Airways monopoly. Before, it was almost easier
for a camel to pass through the eye of a needle than for travellers
10. Which of these correctly summarizes the arguments
to board a plane.
adduced by the advocates of deregulation?
Following from this, the apostles of deregulation rightly
A. Deregulating the economy will make the NNPC
heap all the blame for the problems associated with petroleum
more efficient and less wasteful.
products distribution in this country squarely on the
B. Competition in the oil industry will be beneficia
Government, which owns all the refineries and which sells fuel
to several Nigerians.
to local consumers through its agency, the Nigerian National
C. Competition should be allowed in the
Petroleum Corporation (NNPC). In the same way, the Government
production
argues that if the current NNPC monopoly were broken with the
and distribution of petroleum products.
introduction of entrepreneurs to the refining and sale of
D. The Government should deregulate every
petroleum products in the country, the Nigerian people would
aspect of the Nigerian economy.
be all the better for it. It stands to reason that once the Government
continues to fix maximum prices for petroleum products in this
PASSAGE III
country, the deregulation of the oil sector should bring some
Recognizing the need for objectivity in their work, the
relief to the people by ensuring that wastage, corruption and
early report writers worked to develop a writing style which
inefficiency are reduced to the minimum. Consumers will also
would convey this attitude. They reasoned that the source of
have the last laugh because competition will result in the
the subjective quality in a report is the human being. And they
reasoned that objectivity is best attained by emphasizing the
factual material of a report rather than the personalities involved. A. personal and uninteresting
So they worked to remove the human being from their writing. B. personal and interesting
Impersonal writing style was the result. By impersonal writing is C. impersonal and interesting
meant writing in the third person – without I’s, we’s or you’s. D. impersonal and uninteresting.
In recent years, impersonal writing has been
strenuously questioned by many writers. These writers point 14. From the passage, what determines the appropriateness
out that personal writing is more forceful and direct than is of a style is the
impersonal writing. They contend that writing which brings both A. theme B. reader C. writer D. situation
reader and writer into the picture is more like conversation and
therefore more interesting. And they answer to the point on 15. Which of the following best describes the writer of the
objectivity with a reply that objectivity is an attitude of mind passage?
and not a matter of person. A report, they say, can be just as A. He recognizes the need to be critical of report
objective when written in personal style as when in impersonal writing.
style. Frequently, they counter with the argument that impersonal B. He cannot be said to be objective.
writing leads to an overuse of passive voice and a generally dull C. He is being unnecessarily analytic.
writing style. This last argument, however, lacks substance. D. He is completely non-committal.
Impersonal writing can and should be interesting. Any dullness
it may have is wholly the fault of the writer. As proof, one has PASSAGE IV
only to look at the lively styles used by the writers for
newspapers, news magazines and journals. Most of this writing The passage below has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately
is impersonal – and usually it is not dull. following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most
As in most cases of controversy, there is some merit to appropriate option for each gap. Each question carries 2 marks.
the arguments on both sides. There are situations in which
personal writing is best. There are situations in which impersonal It is the business of the scientist to accumulate
writing is best. And there are situations in which either style is knowledge about the universe and all that is in it, and to find, if
appropriate. The writer must decide at the outset of his work he is able, common …16… (A. approaches B. instruments
which style is best for his own situation. C. factors D. experiments) which underlie and account for the
His decision should be based on the circumstances of facts that he knows. He chooses, when he can, the method of
each report situation. First, he should consider the expectations the controlled …17… (A. experiment B. respondent C. data
or desires of those for whom he is preparing the report. More D. system). If he wants to find out the effect of light on growing
than likely he will find a preference for impersonal style, for, like plants, he takes many plants, as alike as possible. Some he stands
most human beings, businessmen have been slow to break in the sun, some in the shade, some in the dark; all the time
tradition. Next, the writer should consider the formality of the keeping all other …18… (A. procedures B. conditions C. studies
report situation. If the situation Is informal, as when the report is D. objects) (temperature, moisture, nourishment) the same. In
really a personal communication of information between business this way, by keeping other variables…19… (A. dark B. constant
associates, personal writing is appropriate. But if the situation is C. good D. natural), and by varying the light only, the effect of
formal, as is the case with most reports, the conventional light on plants can be clearly seen. This …20… (A. method
impersonal style is best. B. research C. tool D. rationale) of using ‘controls’ can be
Lesikar, R. V.: Report Writing for Business applied to a variety of situations, and can be used to find the
answers to questions as widely different as ‘must moisture be
11. One argument given in support of personal writing is present …21… (A. bar B. gold C. iron D. an alloy) is to rust?’
that it and ‘which variety of beans gives the greatest yield in one…22..
A. has informal features which make it more (A. period B. season c. climate D. weather)?’
diverting than impersonal writing In the course of his…23… (A. inquiries B. findings
B. makes writers more focused and less boring C. queries D. experiment), the scientist may find what he thinks
C. can be more objective than impersonal writing is one common explanation for an increasing number of facts.
D. is the style to use in all situations involving The explanation, if it seems consistently to fit the various facts,
businessmen. is called ..24… (A. a principle B. a thesis C. a hypothesis D. an
antithesis). If this continues to stand the test of numerous
12. Which of the following statements is true according to experiments and remains unshaken, it becomes a …25… (A. notion
the passage? B. deduction C. law D. thesis).
A. The impersonal style helps to achieve a
measure of objectivity in report writing. LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS
B. The impersonal style has been widely
acclaimed. (Questions 26 to 75 carry 1 mark each)
C. Most report writing is characterized by the
sparing use of the impersonal style. In each of questions 26 to 50, fill each gap with the most
appropriate option from the list provided.
D. Most writers use the impersonal style to
achieve objectivity in their reports. 26. …(A. In spite of B. Given C. Barring D. In case of) any
problems, I shall travel to London tomorrow on a business
13. According to the passage, most of the writing in trip.
newspapers, news magazines and journals
27. Musa has lived here for five years but he does not 45. We did not understand what the magistrate said
seem able to get over the enormously… (A. bizarre B. about…. (A. assault B. touching C. acid D. insult) and
intricate C. absurd D. fantastic) and elaborate rules battery.
that govern the society.
46. Whenever we have ….(A together a good long talk B.
28. The match gave the team a chance to show their … (A. a long good talk together C. together a long good
mettle B. worth C. position D. prowess) talk D. a good long talk together), we feel better.

29. These… must have … 47. The members of the other team agree… (A. on B. by C. to
A. analysis/attracted B. analyses/attract D. with) all the terms of the contract.
C. analyses/attracted D. analysis/attract) the World
Bank officials. 48. One advantage of the English language in Nigeria is that
it puts everyone… a common…(A. in/advantage B. in/
30. The highly appreciative audience clapped… hands and standing C. on/footing D. at/equality).
showered … (A. its/encomiums B. its/invectives C. their/
encomiums D. their/invectives) on the lecturer. 49. If one perseveres, … (A. she B. they C. one D. he) will
surely succeed.
31. The members elected Baba … (A. to be a chairman B.
chairman C. their chairman D. to become chairman) of 50. … a motor can be harmful … (A. To ride/with B. To ride/
the committee. for C. Riding/to D. Riding/for) your health.

32. The officer described the comment as … (A. dangerous In each of questions 51 to 53, choose the option that has a
B. sad C. ludicious D. libellous) because it was very different vowel sound from the others.
amusing.
51. A. mere B. weird C. hear D. tear (verb).
33. The new manager was responsible for the … (A. uplifting
B. lifting C. uplift D. upliftment) of the organization. 52. A. does B. son C. flood D. world

34. He is… Kaduna… (A. at/in B. at/for C. in/on D. for/in) 53. A. cough B. rough C. rot D. dog
an official assignment.
In each of questions 54 to 56, choose the option that has the
35. The future of the company is… though many seem … same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s)
(A. promising/nostalgic B. dicy/unsatisfied underlined.
C. okay/optimistic D. rosy/pessimistic) about it.
54. preached
36. The army officer said that more… (A. geurrilas A. lotion B. castle C. question D. past
B. guerrilas C. geurrillas D. guerrillas) would be
needed to prosecute the war. 55. business
A. eyes B. grace C. rice D. sink
37. The quality of your questions which… always attracted
attention… (A. has/have B. have/have C. has/has 56. cough
D. have/ has) never been in doubt. A. thoroughly B. of C. trophy D. though

38. Despite all preparations, the wedding did not… In each of questions 57 and 58, choose the word that has a
(A. come on B. come up C. come along D. come off). different stress pattern from the others.

39. Didn’t … (A. somebody B. someone C. anyone D. everyone) 57. A. convenient B. contribute C. embarrass D.
draw your attention to the entry requirements? madam
58. A. suffer B. blackboard C. success D. calendar
40. You are free to solicit… (A. financial B. by financial C. f
or financial D. a financial) support from the Board. In each of questions 59 to 73, choose
41. As election day draws near, the party looks… because the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
many of its members have… (A. cheerless/cross-
carpeted from B. cheerful/moved to C. vulnerable/ 59. I wonder what will be left of his essay when the extraneous
defected to D. successful/declared for) other parties. material is deleted.
A. main B. relevant C. erroneous D. superfluous
42. Ali has been cured of his amnesia; he no longer suffers
from… (A. rounds of anxiety B. bouts of malaria C. 60. Tortoises need cool climates and must have places
pains in his arms D. loss of memory). where they can hibernate.
A. sleep deeply B. relax C. reproduce D. hide at night
43. By this time next year, I… (A. will have been B. would
have been C. could have been D. will be) twenty years 61. They are considered to be legal luminaries.
old. A. experts B. practitioners C. directors D. powers

44. The operations of the bank… not… (A. do/cover B. 62. Practising medicine is not as lucrative as many people
did/covered C. does/cover D. does/covered) cottage think.
and small-scale industries. A. know B. assume C. consider D. understand
63. The manager made disparaging remarks about the retiring C His rise to fame was only temporary.
officer. D. He became successful very suddenly.
A. parochial B. cynical C. derogatory D. rude 78. The politician was pilloried by the press for his
inflammatory remarks.
64. The teacher’s apparent nonchalant attitude was misconstrued A. The politician was closely questioned by the
by his students. press for his remarks.
A. condoned B. misquoted C. misinterpreted B. The politician was criticized by the press for
D. misrepresented. his remarks.
C. The politician was ridiculed by the press for
65. Let us not indulge in recrimination. his remarks.
A. unfounded allegation B. counter-accusation D. The politician was snubbed by the press for
C. accusation D. indictment. his remarks.

66. Teachers of music believe in its therapeutic effect. 79. Audu was taken bad in the middle of the night.
A. lyrical B. healing C. sound D. rhythmic A. He was ill B. He was caught. C. He was drunk
D. He was robbed.
67. The man outran his wife when they heard the eerie sound.
A. hissing B. harsh C. scary D. loud 80. After the successful operation, he recovered by leaps
and bounds.
68. His success may be described as a pyrrhic victory. A. His well-bound wounds aided his recovery.
A. a deserving victory B. costly C. indecisive B. He did a lot of keep-fit exercises.
D. an easy victory C. He used to jog regularly.
D. He got well very rapidly.
69. The Executive Secretary has just assumed office.
A. resumed work B. been sworn in C. started work (Questions 81 to 100 carry 1 mark each.)
D. returned
In each of questions 81 to 85, the word in capital letters has the
70. The warring tribes have been told to parley with each emphatic stress. Choose the option that best fits the expression
other. in the sentence.
A. hold talks B. observe a truce C. suspend hostilities
D. sign a treaty. 81. The university has been TEMPORARILY closed.
A. Has the university been permanently open?
71. He is a stringer for a newspaper. B. Has the campus been permanently closed?
A. a financier of B. a reporter for C. an editor of C. Has the college been temporarily closed?
D. a freelancer for D. Has the university been permanently closed?

72. Adigun’s jokes are always puerile. 82. The king RAN to the palace.
A. entertaining B. empty C. childish D. amusing A. Where did the king run to?
B. Did the queen run to the palace?
73. I wish the commander were less adamant about his C. Did the king walk to the palace?
proposed reprisal attack on the enemy. D. Who ran to the palace?
A. unyielding about/retaliatory
B. tolerant of /surprise 83. He travelled ONLY 20 kilometres before his car stopped.
C. sentimental about/rehearsed A. Did he travel only 20 kilometres after his car
D. supportive of /retributive stopped?
B. Did he travel exactly 20 kilometres before his car
In each of questions 74 and 75, identify the word that has the stopped?
stress on the first syllable. C. Did he travel more than 20 kilometres before
his car stopped?
74. A. comment B. dismiss D. Did you walk only 20 kilometres before the
C. intact D. confuse vehicle stopped?
75. A. commute B. import (verb)
C. intend D. export (noun) 84. The man BOUGHT the newspaper.
A. What did the man buy?
In each of questions 76 to 80, select the option that best explains B. Is this the newspaper which the man bought?
the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries C. Who bought the newspaper?
2 marks. D. Did the man read the newspaper?

76. The organization is constantly in a state of flux. 85. My UNCLE retired from the police.
A. The organization is moribund. A. Did your brother retire from the police?
B. The organization is experiencing good times. B. Did your brother resign from the police?
C. The organization is facing a difficult period. C. Did your uncle retire from the army?
D. There are periodic changes in the D. Did your sister resign from the police?
organization.
In each of questions 86 to 100, choose the option opposite in
77. His meteoric rise to fame surprised everyone. meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
A. People were amazed at his rapid success.
B. He rose to the top quite unexpectedly. 86. The Governor’s visit is an unprecedented event in the
history of he social club.
A. an unnecessary B. a momentous C. a perfect 96. The President gave another extemporaneous speech
D. an insignificant last
Friday.
87. He gave an unsatisfactory excuse but the boss swallowed A. fascinating B. unfavourable C. unprepared D. planned.
it hook, line and sinker.
A. completely B. with a pinch of salt. C. entirely 97. The witness averred that she had seen Dosun at the
D. without mincing words. scene of the crime.
A. confirmed B. argued C. affirmed D. denied
88. The principal took exception to the ignoble role the
teacher played in the matter. 98. The workers suddenly became restive.
A. dishonourable B. extraordinary C. honourable A. fidgety B. calm C. disorderly D. submissive
D. embarrassing
99. The athlete has unexpectedly become indomitable.
89. The hardline posture of the labour leader has not helped A. unruly B. unconquerable C. weak D. disoriented.
matters.
A. imposing B. difficult C. compromising 100. He is notorious for his drunkenness.
D. uncompromising A. known B. renowned C. popular D. well known
COMPREHENSION
90. The high cost of living these days calls for a lot of
frugality. Read passages, I, II and III carefully and answer the questions
A. economy B. recklessness C. prudence D. that follow. Each question carries 3 marks.
extravagance
91. The evidence the leader gave was incontrovertible.
A. logical B. indubitable C. practicable D. contestable PASSAGE I
When man evolved a conscience, his basic relationship
92. Tunde’s reaction underscores the point I was making. with the other animals began to change. Until then, they were
A. contradicts B. justifies C. summarizes D. emphasizes broadly divided into those which ate him when they got the
chance, those which he ate when he got the chance, and a third
93. Everyone admired the manager’s adroit handling of group which competed with him for food, or was otherwise a
the nuisance to him in the business of keeping alive.
crises in he company. In the primitive situation, man was, therefore, basically
A. clever B. clumsy C. skilful D. tactless against Nature but, as the battle was progressively won,
conscience crept in; the awareness of responsibility, and a failure
94. The chairman’s conduct redounds to the image of the
to meet it, produced feelings of guilt. Those who live in cities
company.
A. contributes to B. detracts from C. assists in D. reflects on. and need no longer do battle against Nature are nowadays most
95. Her phlegmatic temperament endears her to her friends. actively for Nature.
A. cold B. stoic C. lively D. irritable.

Use of English 2003

At this time, something like a thousand kinds of animals mean no room for wild animals? Of course not. With ingenuity
(vertebrate animals) can be said to be in danger of extinction. A and forethought, a place can be kept for them. To destroy their
few of them have been reduced to this precarious position by habitat is as unnecessary as it would be to pull down a great
extensive killing but the majority are disappearing only as fast cathedral in order to grow potatoes on the site. A campaign to
as the particular kind of country they need for existence is itself save what remains is the concern of a new kind of Noah’s Ark –
disappearing: and all this at the hands of man, as often as not by the World Wildlife Fund. It does not believe that all is lost.
mistake. Adapted from Peter Scott’s article in Sunday Times
There are three species of turtles whose future survival
is menaced by the demand for turtle soup, which would hardly 1. The basic causes of the elimination of certain animals
justify the extermination of a giant reptile whose family has existed from the earth include
for 200 million years. Leopards are in jeopardy because of the A. man’s decision to live in cities and the
fashion for their skins. As they get rarer, the prices rise and, as development of large farmlands
leopard skin coats become more expensive, the demand increases. B. extensive killing of animals and the fast
No species can long survive the price of N60,000 which a half- disappearance of their favourable habitats
grown baby leopard now carries on its skin. And crocodiles, the C. man’s penchant for meat and the sale of
longest surviving reptiles, are now dwindling alarmingly as a animals for meat and hides
result of the fashion in crocodile skin for ladies’ handbags and D. a deliberate battle against Nature and the quest
men’s shoes. for leopard skin.
The human population explosion spreads mankind
across the land surfaces of the earth at an alarming rate. There 2. From the passage, the attitude of the writer can be
will be twice as many of us before most of us are dead. Does this described as.
A. partial Eagles should soar instead of being intimidated by big names,
B. optimistic for no team is invincible.
C. indifferent
D. pessimistic 6. Which of the following captures the writer’s suggestion
on how the Eagles could improve their performance in
3. The expression when man evolved a conscience means subsequent matches?
when A. Better goalkeeping, a better attack
A. man developed an awareness of right and wrong and a stronger midfield.
B. man’s intellect improved tremendously B. Replacement of injured players, stronger
C. man acquired new habits attackers and a rugged defence.
D. man became a critical creature. C. Good coaching, more strikers and more
defenders.
4. Which of the following statements is true according to D. Fair officiating, good goalkeeping and fast
the passage? players.
A. Man kills animals only when he can afford to do so.
B. Man cannot spare those animals that eat his 7. A suitable title for this passage is
kind. A. African Teams in the 2002 World Cup
C. Man eats all categories of animals. B. The FIFA Korea/Japan 2002
D. Man poses the greatest threat to Nature. C. The Nigerian and the Senegalese Teams
D. The Eagles in World Cup 2002.
5. The sentence There will be twice as many of us before
most of us are dead means 8. From the argument in the last paragraph, it can be
A. some increase in human and animal population concluded that the Eagles were
growth rates A. more experienced than the Senegalese team
B. mankind is fast spreading across the earth B. not as strong as the Senegalese team.
C. many of us will die as a result of population C. more timid and goal-shy than their opponents
explosion D. not sure of getting to the next round of the
D. the population growth rate will double before tournament.
our death.
9. The word debutants, as used in the passage, means
A. hard-fighters B. under-dogs C. first-timers D. giant killers.
PASSAGE II
The 2002 World Cup Competition, also called Korea/ 10. From the passage, it can be concluded that the writer
Japan 2002, kicked off with a match between the defending A. was optimistic about the chances of the Eagles
champions, France, and the Senegalese national team from Africa. B. did not fancy the Eagles’ chances
Nobody had given the Senegalese any chance against the star- C. was non-committal about the chances of the
studded defending champions but the 1-0 scoreline in favour of Eagles
Senegal showed that African football can no longer be taken for D. was certain about the Eagles’ chances.
granted.
This shocking defeat of France had raised Africa’s PASSAGE III
hopes of going beyond the first round of the tournament. So Attitudes towards the smoking of cigarettes and the
when the Super Eagles of Nigeria filed out against Argentina on consumption of alcohol may be used to illustrate typical African
the morning of Sunday, June the second, 2002, many Nigerian ethics. Apart from the fact that smoking has now been linked
football enthusiasts delayed attending church service to watch with lung cancer disease, the African moralist has always
the match live on television. As expected, the Super Eagles put regarded smoking as an indication of moral degradation. A
up strong resistance to the Argentinian challenge and the day number of people have accepted the moralist idea on smoking.
would not have ended on a somber note for Nigerians if the Some have refrained from smoking, and those who could
momentum had been sustained throughout the match. influence others, such as parents and religious leaders, have
The hope of going beyond the first round, though also exerted their influence to prevent others from smoking. On
precarious, was very much alive as the Eagles were expected to the other hand, a good many people have remained indifferent
defeat their next opponents, Sweden and England. But some to the moralist view and have continued to smoke. The same
shortcomings in the Nigerian national team needed to be rectified argument has been applied to the consumption of alcohol. The
to brighten their chances against their next opponents. African moralist, basing his judgement on the behaviour of a
First, the defence needed to be strengthened to prevent few alcoholics, tends to regard the habit of taking alcohol as a
the opponents from incessantly terrorizing the goalkeeper. Then sign of wretchedness. The moralist holds the view that anybody
who forms the habit of consuming alcohol will never do well in
the strikers also needed to improve on their lackluster performance
live. While this may be true in respect of a few people in the
against Argentina, since every Nigerian expected them to society, the fear of the moralist has not been justified. However,
overwhelm their next opponents in the opening rounds. Lastly, the economics is primarily interested in the habit of smoking and
rather than gamble with unfit players, a more creative use of the the consumption of alcohol in so far as they give satisfaction to
reserves would be necessary to smooth the way to the next smokers and drinkers and so generate supply of and demand for
round. tobacco and alcohol. The economist is interested in knowing
If World Cup debutants, Senegal ,could nurse the hope how many packets of cigarettes are consumed and to what extent
of playing in the knock-out stages of the tournament, then the an increase or fall in consumption could affect production, that
is, supply. Similarly, he is interested in how much beer is This kind of delivery is usually reserved for very …18… (A.
consumed and how the supply of beer will adjust to the demand formal B. genuine C. impromptu D. guaranteed) occasions
for it. He examines the habits and the pressures which can lead when exact wording is …19… (A. conclusive B. critical C.
to the readjustment of wants and the reallocation of resources reportive D. speculative), such as the State of the Union Address
to cover the wants. or speeches before the United Nations General …20… (A.
Some moral principles associated with religion tend to Negotiation B. Organization C. Assembly D. Audience). The
lead on to economic problems. Followers of certain religions are primary advantage is that the speech may be highly …21… (A.
expected not to consume pork, take alcohol or smoke tobacco. polished B. advanced C. analogous D. discreet) in terms of
Devotees of some religious groups, on the other hand, can eat word choice, turns of phrase, and development of ideas. The
pork while others are expected to abstain from alcohol and main disadvantage is that this type of delivery is difficult to do
smoking. Strict observance of these moral rules could cripple well. Reading aloud with meaningful …22… (A. anticipatory B.
the breweries, the cigarette factories and some businesses. profuse C. bifocal D. vocal) inflection requires the speaker to
However, there seems to be a growing number of alcohol be very familiar with the text. If not, the words will come out in a
consumers and cigarette smokers – a development which should choppy, expressionless way. Such poor delivery could destroy
be of interest to the economist. any …23… (A. interactive B. restrictive C. positive D. decisive)
effects created by the carefully chosen …24… (A. language B.
11. The positions maintained by the moralist and the slang C. dialect D. rhetoric) Lack of familiarity with the …25…
economist can be described as being (A. exchange B. text C. note D. context) could also prevent the
A. at variance B. very agreeable C. quite indifferent speaker from maintaining eye contact with people being
D. very passionate addressed.
Adapted from Phillips, G. M. et al (1985), Speaking in
12. Which of the following statements is true according to Public and Private, Indianapolis: Bobbs-Merrill
the passage?
A. People who drink or smoke surely die of
cancer. LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS
B. Everyone ignores the moralist view on
drinking and smoking. In each of questions 26 to 30, select the option that best explains
C. Smoking and drinking may have positive the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries
effects on the economy. 2 marks.
D. Total abstinence from drinking and smoking
is a religious obligation. 26. In spite of his humble beginning, Audu now throws his
weight around.
13. It can be concluded from the passage that morality, A. Audu is arrogant despite his simple
religion and economy are upbringing.
A. clearly interconnected B. certainly different B. Despite his obvious poverty, Audu is a proud
C. somewhat interconnected D. certainly unrelated. man.
C. His noble birth notwithstanding, Audu is a corrupt
14. The view expressed by the writer in the last paragraph man.
is that D. From his poor background, Audu is now a rich
A. the number of alcoholics and smokers is man.
certainly increasing
B. more people now abstain from drinking and 27. Ngozi has always considered her father to be an
smoking impassioned man.
C. more people appear to take to drinking and A. Her father is a very lively man.
smoking B. Her father is an emotional man.
D. sales of alcohol and tobacco products have C. Her father is a disciplined man.
improved tremendously. D. Her father is a very strict man.
15. According to the passage, the moralist idea is that
A. it is typically African not to smoke cigarettes 28. The elders rebuked Olu for taking issue with his
B. people should accept a point of view only principal.
when they are convinced A. Olu was cautioned for shouting at his principal.
C. smoking is not good but a little alcohol may B. Olu was scolded for acting in collusion with
be permitted his principal.
D. the smoking of cigarettes is bad and C. Olu was reprimanded for arguing with his
unacceptable. principal.
D. Olu was blamed for issuing a statement
PASSAGE IV denying his principal.

The passage below has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately 29. The manager paid us in hard currency.
following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most A. We were paid in new notes.
appropriate option for each gap. Each question carries 2 marks. B. We were paid in foreign currency.
C. We were paid in dollars and pound sterling.
A prepared speech is not easy to deliver, especially if it D. We were paid in a strong and stable currency.
is not written by the presenter. A …16… (A. document B. free
C. manuscript D. quantum) delivery is one in which the speech 30. If he went to London, he would see the Queen.
has been written out word for word and is read to ...17... (A. a A. When he goes to London, he will see the
gathering B. a conference C. a congregation D. an audience). Queen.
B. He did not go to London and did not see the
Queen. 47. The party supporters vilified the Chairman for the role
C. He did not see the Queen when he went to he played in the crisis that rocked the party.
London. A. elected. B. challenged C. condemned D. impeached
D. He would like to see the Queen when he goes
to London. 48. The company is to shed three thousand staff this year.
A. demote B. lay off C. throw up D. placate
(Questions 31 to 100 carry 1 mark each.)
49. There was a glut of oil on the market.
In each of questions 31 to 45, choose the option opposite in A. a variety of B. an accumulation of
meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics. C. an abundance of D. an increase in

31. Only those who are gullible fall victim to his trickery. 50. A few years ago, nobody would have believed that the
A. saucy B. devastated C. courteous D. astute economy would turn around.
A. deteriorate B. improve C. stagnate D. change
32. He is well known for his inordinate ambition.
A. excessive B. passionate C. moderate D. sound 51. Before announcing his retirement, Ochima resolved to
settle on account with the bank.
33. Students could be timid. A. pay back all he owes B. close his account with
A. friendly B. bold C. covetous D. pugnacious C. retire his loans from D. get back at

34. The witness decided to conceal the evidence. 52. The boys knew that a storm was imminent.
A. divulge B. hide C. destroy D. pugnacious A. possible B. impending C. threatening
D. encroaching
35. The members of the congregation were inspired by the
sermon. 53. The nurse was in favour of voluntary euthanasia.
A. bewitched B. enthralled C. disenchanted D. disorientated A. a painless death B. a simple operation C. a
sleeping pill D. a major operation
36. Agbenu was ecstatic about her result.
A. dispassionate B. sad C. pessimistic D. mad 54. The cynics feared that the nation’s nascent democracy
would fail.
37. The labour leader’s recalcitrant stance was applauded. A. pessimists B. delinquents C. critics D.
A. stubborn B. flexible C. uncompromising D. well- illusionists
informed
55. The essence of governance is to seek the good and
38. A cool bath in a hot weather can be truly invigorating. well-being of the majority of the people.
A. devastating B. unpalatable C. debilitating D. disgusting A. importance B. goal C. characteristic D. secret

39. I am loath to do the assignment. 56. From what she said, one may infer that she does not like
A. willing B. unwilling C. waiting D. dying the course.
A. suppose B. realize C. deduce D. agree
40. Toyin is married to an impatient, self-centered man.
A. a fretful B. a tolerant C. an edgy D. a tolerable 57. He shared his room with a person whose behaviour
was quite nauseating.
41. Gregarious animals can be found in the zoo. A. disrespectful B. disgraceful C. discouraging
A. Various B. Wild C. Lonely D. Tame D. disgusting

42. The doctor examined the patient painstakingly. 58. The carpenter built a commodious wardrobe.
A. perfunctorily B. professionally C. painfully D. carefully A. gigantic B. small C. spacious D. wide
59. Publishing as a business venture has become a hot
43. The company has continued to monopolize the potato in Nigeria.
distribution of the products. A. unpleasant B. profitable C. unacceptable
A. centralize B. specialize C. liberalize D. regularize D. expensive

44. A conservative estimate put the number of missing 60. The man’s story sounded plausible to his audience.
persons at forty. A. fantastic B. credulous C. credible D. entertaining
A. A rough B. An accurate C. A primitive D. An incorrect
In each of questions 61 to 85, fill each gap with the most
45. The agency has sworn to deal with all the apostles of appropriate option from the list provided.
confederation.
A. proponents B. protagonists C. apostates D. opponents. 61. ‘I can’t stand people prying into my private life’, Ladi
said. ‘...,’ (A. Me neither B. Me too C. I also D. Likewise
In each of questions 46 to 60, choose the option nearest in myself) agreed Agbenu .
meaning to word(s) or phrase in italics.
62. The sergeant spoke to me in a … (A. coerce B. coarse
46. The leader has the unstinting support of his party. C. course D. causal) manner.
A. unsparing B. laudable C. uninspiring D. cautious.
63. The reason why he was not offered admission was … 83. It was a free-for-all and the students were blamed for
(A. because B. that C. when D. owning to) his results taking the law… (A. into their hands B. in their hands
could not be found. C. into their own hands D. in their own hands).

64. Adika… (A. receive B. receives C. has received D. had 84. Ali plays… (A. their B. some C. a D. the)violin with
received) a message from the club regularly. remarkable skill.

65. Three quarters of the people in the village … killed but 85. The candidate’s charisma should be a…
only half of their huts … ( A. were/was B. were/were C. (A. determinable B. determining C. determinant
was/was) affected. D. determinate) factor in winning the election.

66. If you saw the photograph of the man, … (A. can In each of questions 86 to 88, choose the option that has the
B. will C. would D. could) you be able to identify him? same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s)
underlined.
67. It is bad to take… (A. someone else’s B. someone’s else
C. someone’s else’s D. someone elses’) property without 86. colonel
permission. A. gaol B. colony
C. golden D. girl
68. As Obande does not know anyone in this city, he hopes
that some kind… (A. men B. individuals C. man D. 87. tend
inhabitants) will put him up for the night. A. jeopardy B. turned
C. earned D. caned
69. Be careful not to… (A lose B. loose C. loss D. lost) this
money. 88. market
A. get B. mortgage
70. How is the new editor… (A. pushing B. going C. getting C. enter D. bachelor
D. moving) on with his work?
In each of questions 89 to 91, choose the option that has a
71. Nowadays, many graduates are not well disposed to different vowel sound from the others.
teaching,… (A. do they? B. they are? C. aren’t they?
D. are they?) 89. A dear B. fair
C. bear D. there
72. The armed robbers went into the house and robbed the
three… (A. women’s occupants B. women occupants 90. A. hope B. cost
C. woman occupants D. woman’s occupants). C. coast D. won’t

73. It is often… that inflation… (A. say/resulted B. said/ 91. A. naught B. north
result C. said/results D. say/result) from too much C. spot D. law
money chasing very few goods.
In each of questions 92 to 94, choose the option that has the
74. If you would do me this favour, I … (A. will B. shall same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s)
C. would D. should) be very grateful. underlined.
92. concrete
75. I have the … (A. privilege B. priviledge C. privelege A. attend B. anxious
D. previlege) of meeting the President. C. concern D. consider
76. My classmate,… (A. that B. whose C. whom D. which)
I haven’t seen for years, wrote to me last week. 93. chalet
A. college B. chemical
77. Four weeks… (A. has been B. are C. were D. is) enough C. chairman D. champagne
for the police to conclude their investigation.
94. teeth
78. The woman is one of the … (A. elitists B. elites C. elite A. though B. taught
D. elitist) of the society. C. thought D. tank

79. The doctor asked the patient what … (A. is the problem In each of questions 95 and 96, choose the option that has a
B. the problem was C. the problem is D. is your different consonant sound from the others.
problem).
95. A. shoe B. ocean
80. He put… (A. a white dozen eggs B. dozen white eggs C. chef D. chief
C. a dozen white eggs D. white dozen eggs) in a basket.

81. Idakwo ran… (A. lest he almost B. lest he will C. lest he 96. A. laugh B. off
should. D. lest he may) miss the train. C. wife D. of
In each of questions 97 and 98, choose the option that has the
82. Course … (A. material B. materials C. material’s same stress pattern as the given word.
D. materials’) writers are to reflect local colour.
97. cement.
the pressmen that the President spoke
A. employ (noun) B. interest to?
C. perfect (adjective) D. include C. Did the President speak to the press?
D. Did the President write to the press?
98. typist
A. rebel (verb) B. superb
C. refuse (noun) D. propose

In each of questions 99 and 100, the word in capital letters has COMPREHENSION
the emphatic stress. Choose the option to which the sentence
relates. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that
follow. Each Question carries 3 marks.
99. My MOTHER served rice and fresh fish stew for dinner.
A. What of kind of meal did your mother serve for PASSAGE I
dinner?
B. Did your mother serve rice and fresh fish stew for If, once in a lifetime, you see a blue moon, don’t think
lunch? your eyes are playing tricks on you. It’s caused by dust in our
C. What kind of stew did your mother serve for dinner? upper atmosphere; ice crystals are what make you see rings
D. Who served rice and fresh fish stew for dinner? round the moon.
Over the centuries, magical powers have been attributed
100. The President SPOKE to the press. to the moon. It has been said to bring on lunacy, affect the
A. Who spoke to the press? growth of plants, eyes of cats, spots of panthers, functions of
women and activities of ghosts. France once had a law against
cutting timber except during a waning moon. The moon, and to

Use of English 2004

a lesser degree the sun, does cause the ocean tides because of
their gravitational pull. But a common mistake of primitive people
is to think that everything timed in the same rhythm as the moon A. rare phenomenon
is caused by it. B. regular event
All the moon gazing, probing and measuring has never C. trick of the moon
solved the big problem: its origin. One theory is that it began as D. life-long opportunity
a planet, got too near the more massive earth, was ‘captured’
and turned into a satellite. Another is that the latter theory is 3. The sentence over the centuries, magical powers have
true, scientists say, there would be two clues: the moon would been attributed to the moon suggests that
consist of lighter material than the earth, and the earth would be A. people perform magic with the moon
left with a scar. As a matter of fact, the moon does weigh less. B. it is a common belief that the moon has magical
And the Pacific Ocean does have a scarlike bottom of basaltic powers
rocks instead of the granite rocks usually found near the earth’s C. the moon actually possesses magical powers.
surface. D. The moon reflects magical powers from the sun’s
But the assumption that, if man can get to the moon, he’ll rays.
find the answer is unfounded. Man has been on the earth
hundreds of thousands of years without determining the earth’s 4. The expression either quest refers to the origin of
origin. Scientists, of course, will never give up either quest. A. the moon or the earth
Indeed, for thousands of years the moon has worked a B. neither the moon nor the earth
spell of fascination over all the people on its near neighbour, C. the moon
the earth. The ancient worshipped this lamp in the sky and D. the earth.
speculated about it endlessly. Modern astronomers continue to
explore its mysteries almost every night of the year, and with 5. A suitable title for the passage is
reason. A. The Magical Powers of the Moon
Ages ago, before artificial light was known, it was B. Facts about the Moon
important as illumination at night. As everyone knows, the moon C. The Lunar Cycle
has no light of its own; it shines with the cold reflection of the D. Moon-Gazing.
distant sun, but actually the moon is a poor satellite with ‘earth
light’ sixty times as bright as the best moonlight. That’s why we PASSAGE II
sometimes see the whole moon faintly when the sun is lighting
up only a narrow crescent. The passage below has gaps numbered 6 to 15. Immediately
following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most
1. The phrase near neighbour, as used in the passage, shows appropriate option for each gap. Each question carries 2 marks.
that
A. moonlight generally shares many characteristics Capitalism is an economic system which is founded on
with ‘earth light’ the principle of free enterprise and the private ownership of the
B. the earth is nearer to the moon than to the sun means of production and distribution. The …6… (A. attorneys
C. the earth actually shares boundaries with the moon. B. determiners C. antagonists D. protagonists) of capitalism
D. Moonlight shines brighter on the earth’s claim that its essential characteristic is economic …7… ( A.
surface than perhaps elsewhere. freedom B. manoeuvring C. manipulation D. exploitation).
The producer is free to produce whatever goods he ..8… (A.
2. The passage suggests that a blue moon is a
manufactures B. buys C. sells D. fanci
consumer B. customer C. marketer D. controller) is equally laughter. We did our jobs doggedly, that notwithstanding,
free to buy what he wants. There is a market mechanism under because our father and mother expected it of us. Out of choice
this system which brings the producer and consumer together our father did everything we did, including fetching water on
and tends to equate the supplies of the one to the demands of the occasion, and commanded us by sheer force of his example.
the other, and …10… (A. neutralize B. decide C. harmonize D.
settle) the whims and caprice of both. It is this same …11… (A. 16. By describing his father as an uncommon man, the
controlling B. production C. operational D. market) mechanism writer
which determines what prices the consumers pay to the means that he is
producers, as well as what share the total …12… (A. profit B. A. amenable B. remarkable C. strict D. kind
output C. dividends D. interest), in cash or kind, goes to each of
the four recognized… 13… (A. factors B. methods C. managers 17. Which of the following describes the father’s role in
D. agents) of production-land, labour, capital and organization. the family?
It is further claimed for this system that every person is capable A. Being too hard on the children.
of watching his or her own interest, and that whatever injustice B. Usurping his wife’s role in the family.
is done by the …14… (A. pricing B. buyers and sellers C. C. Serving the children.
managers D. operations) of the market mechanism, this D. Leading by example.
mechanism tends to bring about a state of …15… (A. equilibrium
B. equidistance C.. opprobrium D. conflict) between the 18. The word atmosphere, as used in the first paragraph of
producers and the consumers. the passage, means
Adapted from The Guardian, October 5, 2003, p. 10 A. pattern B. disposition C. preference D. unity

Read passages III and IV carefully and answer the questions 19. Which of the following statements captures the family’s
that follow. Each question carries 3 marks. approach to housework?
A. No job was reserved for anyone on the basis
PASSAGE III of gender.
We knew early in our life that the atmosphere in our B. Their mother did the cooking and cleaning
home was different from that in many other homes, where willingly.
husbands and wives quarrel and where there was drunkenness, C. The boys were not allowed to do girls work.
laziness or indifference – things we never saw in our family. We D. The water needed was provided by everyone.
chafed and grumbled at the strictness of my father’s regime. We
went to hide whenever we broke the rules too visibly. We knew, 20. A suitable title for the passage is
nevertheless, that our parents wanted good things for us. Some A. A Village Life B. The Unusual Parent
of these, such as the insistence on our going to school and C. The Problem of Water D. An Experience in Early life.
never missing a day, we accepted readily enough, although, like
most other children, we occasionally yielded to the temptation
to play truant. However, in other cases such as their effort to PASSAGE IV
keep us out of contact with the difficult life – the drinking and A Wolf, seeing a Lamb drinking from a river, wanted to find a
fighting and beer-brewing and gambling – their failure was pretext for devouring him. He stood higher up the stream and
inevitable. They could not keep us insulated. By the time we accused the lamb of muddying the water so that he could not
moved about, we were already seeing things with their eyes and drink. The lamb said that he drank only with tip of his tongue,
judging things by the standards we had absorbed from them. and that in any case he was standing lower down the river, and
It was borne in on me and my brother at a very early could not possibly disturb the water higher up. When this excuse
age that our father was an uncommon man. For one thing, in failed him, the wolf said: ‘Well, last year you insulted my father.’
most African families, work around the home was women’s work. ‘I wasn’t even born then,’ replied the lamb.
So we were vastly impressed by the fact that whenever my mother ‘You are good at finding answers, ‘said the wolf, ‘but
was away, my father could and did do all her jobs – cooking, what do you mean by taking up so much of the path where I am
cleaning and looking after us. We lived in this way in a community walking? The lamb, frightened at the wolf’s angry tone and
in which housework was regarded as being beneath male dignity. terrible aspect, told him, with all due submission, that he could
Even in families which, like ours, produced boy after boy – our not conceive how his walking on such a wide path could
sister came fifth – it simply meant that the mother carried a greater occasion him inconvenience. ‘What!’ exclaimed the wolf,
and greater burden of work. In our family, nevertheless, the boys seemingly in great anger and indignation. ‘You are as impudent
did girl’s work and my father did it with us. as your father who seized me by the throat last year, and caused
One of the prime chores of life in the family was fetching me to be kept in a cage for three months.’
water from the pump down the street, some two hundred metres ‘If you will believe me,’ said the lamb, ‘my parents are
from our door. Since the pump was not unlocked until six in the poor simple creatures who live entirely by green stuff; we are
morning and there was always crowding, a system had developed none of us hunters of your species.’ ‘Ah! I see it’s no use talking
whereby you got out before dawn, placed your twenty-litre tin to you, ‘said the wolf, drawing up close to him. ‘It runs in the
in line, and then went home, returning later to take your place. blood of your family to hate us wolves, and therefore, as we
Often, of course, tins would be moved back in line and others have come so conveniently together, I’ll just pay off a few of
moved ahead. This could be corrected if none of those in front your forefathers’ scores before we part. ‘So saying, he leapt at
were too big a challenge. the lamb from behind and garroted him.
When taps were substituted for the pumps, the first one
installed was nearly a kilometre away from our house and we 21. The charges levelled against the lamb are
had to make the treck with the water tins balanced on our heads A. pollution, insolence, obstruction and
-- and indignity because this was the way girls, not proud males, aggression.
carried their burdens. All the children in the neibghbourhood B. exuberance, pollution, wickedness and
knew we did women’s work and I can still hear their derisive stubbornness
C. garrulity, loquacity, pride and arrogance
D. greed, wandering, insolence and disrespect. 31. The poor widow who could not buy the clothes was
seen
22. From the way the story ended, it can be concluded that the … her wool into… (A. making/tailoring B. to spin/
A. wolf and the lamb parted amicably yards
B. lamb did not survive the encounter C. spinning/yarn D. to spill/clothes) yesterday.
C. wolf had encountered the lamb’s parents
D. lamb offended the wolf quite seriously. 32. … (A. Referring to B. With reference to
C. Due to D. Owning to) his illness,
23. Which of the following aptly describes the moral of the story? Muhammad could not come to school.
A. No matter how highly placed he is in society,
the unmindful lawbreaker will always meet his 33. You may not have heard the last word on the matter, …
nemesis. (A. have you B. may you have C. haven’t you D. mayn’t
B. The law is weak in defence of the poor against have you)?
the rich and mighty.
C. The sins of the forefathers are visited upon 34. Agbo says he is not afraid of … (A. no one B. nothing
the children no matter how long it takes. C. nobody D. anybody)
D. If you have made up your mind to hang your
dog, any rope will do for the purpose. 35. The city… as a federal capital only … (A. existed/over
B. has existed/for C. was existing/from D. is existing
24. The expression when this excuse failed him suggests in) the last twenty years.
that the
A. lamb was prepared for the charges levelled against 36. He not only looked after the children when their parents
him died, … (A. also he B. also C. but also D. but he)
B. wolf was uncertain of the charges levelled sponsored their education to university.
againstthe lamb
C. wolf only made up the charges levelled against 37. After so many trials, the experiment… (A. paid up
the lamb B. paid off C. paid out D. paid for).
D. lamb was more intelligent than the wolf.
38. His supporters rallied round him in moments of…
25. The expression angry tone and terrible aspect refers (A. criticism B. disillusionment C. acrimony D. crisis)
to the wolf’s
A. towering size and thunderous voice 39. One needs to exemplify or … (A. declare B. demonstrate
B. harsh voice and menacing posture C. satisfy D. supply) the aspect of the subject being
C. sonorous voice and overbearing attitude discussed.
D. loud voice and fretting movement.
40. Actually, he forgot the one to…(A. whomever B. who
LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS C. whoever D. whom) the job was given.

(Questions 26 to 59 carry I mark each.) 41. The police claim that a number of stolen cars… (A. is
In each of questions 26 and 27, choose the option that has the being B. has being C. have been D. has been)
same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) recovered.
underlined.
42. The storm… (A. did B. wrecked C. made D. wreaked)
26. bear havoc on several buildings in the village.
A. rare B. fear
C. beer D. steer 43. People dislike Mariam because she is… (A trickful B.
27. nine tricky C. a tricker D. trickish)
A. click B. gill
C. pint D. pin 44. The chairman refused to shake … (A. hands. B. his
hand C. hand D. his hands) with the secretary.
In each of the questions 28 and 29, choose the appropriate
stress pattern from the options. The syllables are written in 45. Ali goes to the stadium regularly, but he.. (A. didn’t go
capital letters. B. hasn’t been C. haven’t been D. hadn’t been) to the
28. expostulate church for months.
A. exPOStulate B. exposTUlate
C. expostuLATE D. EXpostulate 46. No teacher of honour would subject his student to any
form of … (A. harrassment B. harrasment C.
29. sufficiency harassement D. harassment).
A. sufficienCY B. suffiCIENcy
C. sufFIciency D. SUFficiency 47. The interpreter was wrong because he gave the
congregation a… (A. unilateral B. literary C. literal
In each of questions 30 to 54, choose the option that best D. lateral) translation of the pastor’s statement.
completes the gap(s)
48. Each of the houses… (A. have got B. has C. have D.
30. He isn’t coming home, is he? …(A. No B. Why C. Yes D. were given) a new look.
Now), he isn’t.
49. The reporter said that the Honourable Speaker… (A. is to
be B. will have been C. might have been D. may have 61. In many countries, democracy is ostensibly being
being) impeached. practiced.
A. Many countries have effective democracy.
50. It is … (A. their’s B. theirs’ C. theirs D. their) B. Democracy is indeed being practiced in many
responsibility to look after their parents in old age. countries.
C. Democracy is apparently practiced in many
51. I shall find time for my…when I get.. (A. pastime/ countries.
through B. pass-time/over C. passtime/through D. D. Many countries have democracy in practise.
past-time/over) with this difficult assignment.
62. Adamu’s father is a key figure in that ministry.
52. All God’s prophets were given the great… (A A. Adamu’s father’s position is essential in the
commition B. comission C. commission D. ministry.
commision) to preach salvation to people. B. The ministry trusts Adamu’s father as a central
figure.
53. Each producer is able to place a price on his product by C. Adamu’s father is a figurehead in the ministry.
considering its… (A assessment B. choice C. D. Adamu’s father keeps the key to the ministry.
judgement D. worth)
63. Everyone was ready to play the devil’s advocate in the
54. The minister addressed the workers to boost their… (A. impeachment controversy.
mural B. morale C. morality D. moral). A. Everyone was willing to fight for the
defenceless citizens no matter the
In each of questions 55 to 57, choose the option that has the consequences.
same consonant sound as the one presented by the letter(s) B. Everyone was willing to defend an unpopular
underlined. point of view concerning the impeachment.
C. Everyone was willing to speak against the
55. caused impeachment to encourage discussion on it.
A. realized, B. frost D. Everyone was willing to be an evil genius in
C. released D. chanced the controversy.

56. mischief 64. The government warns that drink-driving is punishable

A. champagne B. Christmas under the law.
C. brochure D. ritual A. A drunkard driving can be punished.
B. Drinking and driving is an offence.
57. judge C. Driving while drinking is an offence.
A. pleasure B. camouflage D. Driving while drunk is an offence.
C. spinach D. gear
(Questions 65 to 100 carry 1 mark each.)
In each of questions 58 and 59, the word in capital letters has
the emphatic stress. Choose the option to which the given
In each of questions 65 and 66, choose the option that has a
sentence relates. different stress pattern from the others.
58. The student BOUGHT the book.
A. Who bought the book? 65. A. result B. ratify C. taxi D. famous
B. What did the student buy?
C. How will the student get the book? 66. A. orthopaedic B. secondment C. photographic D. oriental
D. Did the student steal the book? In each of questions 67 and 68, choose the option that has a
59. The teacher wants MY pen. different vowel sound from the others.
A. Does the teacher want your ruler?
B. Who wants my pen? 67. A. pot B. hall C. water D. altar
C. Does the teacher want his pen?
D. What does the teacher want? 68. A. tout B. foe C. foul D. owl

In each of questions 60 to 64, select the option that best explains In each of questions 69 to 83, choose the option nearest in
the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries meaning to the word or phrase in italics.
2 marks.
69. The presence of the captain makes the sailors ill at
60. The investigators stated clearly that they had reached a ease.
dead end in their scrutiny of suspects in the murder A. impatient B. easily ill
case. C. uncomfortable D. sickly
A. The end had come for the suspects in the murder
case. 70. Ibro shows enough liberality with his meager income.
B. There was no further progress in the A. insensitivity B. prodigality
investigation of the murder suspects. C. frugality D. generosity
C. The investigators did not know what to do
with suspects’ murder. 71. It is a misnomer to call three thousand naira a living
D. The investigators had evidence to sentence wage.
the suspects to death in the end. A. a wrong description
B. an incontrovertible assertion
C. an appropriate term A. calmed B. confused C. refreshed D. helped
D. a mishmash
87. We found a shady place for the display.
72. The press described the efforts of the government in A. an enclosed B. a stuffy C. an open D. an unsafe
pejorative terms.
A. superlative B. palpable 88. The player writhed in pain after the fall
C. critical D. contemptible. A. cried out B. remained still C. walked out
D. shook violently
73. The town was in such a turmoil that the dance was
called 89. The ship was imperilled by high winds.
off. A. saved B. deceived C. destroyed D. piloted
A. state of darkness B. state of confusion
C. rainy state D. mourning state 90. The team got an ecstatic welcome from the crowd.
A. a joyous B. an unexpected C. an expected D. a cold
74. The festivals create in the people a feeling of pride in
their cultural heritage. 91. Sailors are unusually dauntless in their exploits.
A. legacy B. possession A. excited B. ruthless C. frightened D. selfless
C. history D. heirloom
92. Beauty queens sometimes wear outlandish dresses.
75. Okonkwo manages his household with a heavy hand. A. familiar B. flashy C. beautiful D. attractive
A. using the cane on every occasion
B. without tolerating weaknesses 93. My father’s presentation was rather casual.
C. like a powerful dictator. A. divisive B. vital C. informal D. formal
D. like a heavyweight champion. 94. The Flying Eagles put up a plucky defence against their
76. In spite of constant financial support from his father, opponents
Udenyi treats his studies with considerable levity. A. weak B. Strong C. careless D. tactful
A. lassitude B. wastefulness
C. enthusiasm D. seriousness 95. The journalist said he was working freelance.
A. satisfactorily B. without a pay C. dependently
77. The school’s badge is the insignia of office for all the D. tirelessly
prefects in the school.
A. seal B. recognition C. power D. symbol 96. The injured man is determined to get back at his assailant.
A. visit B. forgive C. identify D. attack
78. Funnily enough, the priest prayed for the robber who 97. The dictator wanted tractable men in his cabinet.
shot him. A. tough B. intelligent C. unruly D. reliable
A. timidly B. fearlessly
C. unexpectedly D. disappointingly 98. After the war, the victors became increasingly
vindictive
79. The mottled skin of a person with HIV indicates an A. treacherous B. arrogant C. vociferous
advanced stage of its development. D. friendly
A. pimply B. scaly C. brown D. spotted
99. The potency of the drug has been acknowledged.
80. The prosecutor was fully able to substantiate the A. action B. inefficacy C. power D. loss
charge.
A. expatiate on B. weaken C. prove D. dismiss 100. The man who scared the girl was a bit deranged.
81. The manager’s knowledge of the strike is of the utmost A. crazy B. amorous C. dangerous D. sane
importance
A. basic B. genuine C. standard D. paramount

82. There has been a downturn in the affairs of the company.

A. a turn-around B. a massive increase
C. a decline D. little progress.

83. His plans boomeranged on him.

A. catapulted B. backfired C. fell D. bounced.
In each of questions 84 and 85, choose the option that has the
stress on the first syllable.
84. A. condemn B. intact
C. afternoon D. bachelor

85. A. impossible B. criticism

C. eleven D. circulation
In each of questions 86 to 100, choose the option opposite in
meaning to the word or phrase in italics.

86. The noise of the fans unnerved the star player.

Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng

Biology
1 9 83- 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng

Biology 1983
1. Root hairs are developed from the … A. a protein B. a carbohydrate, C. a fat
A. root apex B. epidermis of roots D. a fatty acid and glycerol E. an amino acid.
C. vascular bundles D. endodermis
E. pericycle 10. Which of the following elements are necessary for the
formation of chlorophyll in a plant?
Use Fig. 1 to answer questions 2-4 A. Magnesium and iron B. Calcium and potassium
Fig 1 C. Calcium and sulphur D. Potassium and sulphur
E. Phosphorus and potassium.

11. Which of the following statements is NOT true of

mammalian erythrocytes?
A. They have haemoglobin B. They appear yellow
when looked at singly C. They are disc-shaped
D. The cells are more numerous than leucocytes
E. They have nuclei at maturity.

12. In woody plants, gases and water vapour are

transported across the stems by the
Fig 1 represents a cross-section of a part of a A. xylem fibres B. medullary fibres C. medullary rays
dicot plant. D. phloem fibres E. phloem parenchyma.
2. Which of the following features can be used to
identify Fig 1? 13. Which of the following substances is NOT found in
A. Position of 7 B. Its circular nature C. Number of 5 urine?
D. Presence of 3 E. Width of 2. A. Water B. Sodium chloride C. Nitrogenous compounds
D. Calcium chloride E. Nitrogenous salts.
3. The main function of 6 is to
A. separate 5 from 7 B. produce more of 5 and 7. 14. The kidneys of all vertebrates act as osmo
C. produce cork D. translocate water and mineral salt regulators. This means that they
E. conduct carbon dioxide to the other parts. A. keep the composition of the plasma constant
B. regulate osmotic processes C. Control the volume of
4. The main function of 4 is to blood entering the kidneys D. decrease the osmotic
A. surround the inner tissues B. produce cork pressure of blood E. increase the osmotic pressure of
C. produce root hairs D. produce lateral roots blood.
E. produce more of 3.
15. The movement of part of a plant in response to
5. In a dicot leaf, guard cells differ from other external stimulus of no particular direction is
epidermal cells because they A. taxism B. tropism C haptotropic movement
A. have no definite shape B. lack nuclei D nastic movement E. phototropism
C. are smaller D. contain chloroplasts E. lack vacuole.
16. The part of the mammalian brain responsible for
6. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the maintaining balance is the
female agama lizard? A. medulla oblongata B. olfactory lobe
A. Pre-anal pads B. Eardrum C. Gular fold C. cerebellum, D. cerebrum E. frontal lobe.
D. Nasal scale E. Nuchal crest. 17.

7. Herbs differ from shrubs because they

A. do not produce fruits B. are useful to herbalists
C. do not become woody D. are only annuals E. are
only perennials.

8. If an isolated living cell is left in distilled water for two

hours, it is likely to Fig vertical section of onion bulb.
A. lose some of its water to the surrounding water
B. lose all of its water to the surrounding water Which of the labelled parts in Fig 2 will develop into a
C. reproduce by binary fission D. become more turgid. new bulb? A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3 E. 5.
E. die due to excess water.
18. In the onion bulb, food is stored in the
9. If an organic compound has its Hydrogen: Oxygen A. stem B. lateral buds C. cotyledons
ratio as 2:1, it is likely to be D. outer scale leaves E. leaf bases.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
19. Groundnut is not really a ‘nut’ in the biological sense 32. Starting from the skull end, the vertebrae are
because arranged in the following order:
A. it is harvested from inside the ground B. its pericarp A. axis, atlas, cervical, thoracic and limbar
is not hard and tough. C. the fruit is succulent B. atlas, cervical, axis, thoracic and lumbar
E. it is an achene. C. atlas, axis, thoracic, cervical and lumbar
D. atlas, axis, cervical, thoracic and lumbar
20. What type of fruit is formed from a single flower E. atlas, thoracic, cervical axis and lumbar.
having several free carpels?
A. multiple fruit B. Simple fruit C. Aggregate fruit 33. Which of the following diseases could be
D. Dehiscent fruit E. Indehiscent fruit. exclusively associated with a river basin?
A. Malaria B. Syphilis C. Onchocerciasis
D. Cholera E. Poliomyelitis.
21. A 28g soil sample was heated to a constant weight
of 24g. When further heated to red hot and cooled, 34. Which of the following represents the evolutionary
it weighed 18g. What is the percentage of hurmus sequence in these plants? 1. Flowering plants, 2.
in the soil? Ferns, 3. Mosses, 4. Algae, 5. Conifers.
A. 22.2 B. 55.6 C. 75.0 D. 25.9 E. 35.7. A. 2à1à4à3à5 B. 5à4à3à2à1 C. 2à4à5à1à3
22. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused D. 3à2à4à5à1 E. 4à3à2à5à1
by a virus?
A. Rinderpest B. Maize rust C. Newcastle disease 35. Which of the following will NOT allow osmosis to
D. Swine fever E. Cassava mosaic disease. take place?
A. pig’s bladder B. Cellophane C. Parchment paper
23. A centipede differs from a millipede by its D. Transparent polythene E. Cow’s bladder.
A. colour B. numerous abdominal segments
C. paired legs on each abdominal segment 36. Which of the following statements on the
D. poison claws E. cylindrical body. mammalian circulatory system is Not true?
A. Blood in the pulmonary artery is richer in
24. An organism having one pair of identical genes is oxygen content than blood in the pulmonary vein
A. a heterozygote B. a hybrid C. an allelomorph B. The blood in the hepatic portal vein is the richest in
D. a homozygote E. a diploid food substances. C. Blood flow is controlled by
25. Plants which can survive in places where the water valves in the veins D. Arteries are generally
supply is limited are thicker and larger than veins. E. Fibrin helps in the
A .bryophytes B.mesophytes C. xerophytes formation of blood clot.
D.hydrophytes E. pteridophytes. 37. In a positive phototropic response of a coleoptile, the
26. Banana, plantain and pineapple can be grouped region of greatest curvature is brought about by the
together because they A. movement of auxins away from the region of
A. produce small seeds B. are multiple fruits curvature, B. even distribution of auxins in all
C. produce suckers D. have runners E. have bulbils. parts of the coleoptile, C. inhibition of growth
by auxins in the region of smaller curvature
27. One disease NOT caused directly by bacteria is D. concetrationn of auxins in the region of curvature E.
A.malaria B. tuberculosis C. pneumonia D. tetanus absence of auxins in the coleptile.
E. cholera.
28. In what order do the following structures develop 38. The tuber of cassava is NOT a stem tuber because it
during the metamorphosis of the toad? 1. External gills A. is distended with food reserve B. has an aerial
2. Internal gills 3. Forelimbs 4. Hindlimbs 5. Mouth. shoot portion C. has other structures that
A. 1 2 3 4 5 B.1 5 2 4 3 C. 1 3 4 5 D. 5 3 4 1 2 could be called roots D. lacks axillary buds
E. 5 4 3 2 1. E. has a bark over its stored food.
29. The dental formular i 3/3: c 1/1: pm4/4: m2/3 = 42
represents that of a 39. The function of the ossicles (maleus, incus and
A. rabbit B. full grown man C. young child stapes) in the mammalian ear is the
D. dog E. sheep. A. transmission of vibrations B. regulation of
30. Which of the following statements is NOT true of pressures C. support of the inner ear
insectivorous plants? D. maintenance of balance during motion
A. They obtain part of their food by trapping and E. secretion of oil.
feeding on insects B. They attract insects simply
because of pollination. C. They can grow in soils poor 40. Which of the following instruments is used for
in nitrogenous salts. D. They can supplement the determining turbidity of water?
nitrogen supply by feeding on insects E. Examples A. Thermometer B. Secchi Disc C. Rain gauge
include butterworts, sundews and pitcher plants. D. Hygrometer E. Wind vane.

31. Which of these worms is beneficial to man? 41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
A. Hookworm B. Tapeworm C. Roundworm monocot plants?
D. Earthworm E. Guniea worm.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
A. occurrence of secondary thickening B. Parallel 47. When a Spirogyra cell is immersed in a salt solution
venation C. Scattered vascular bundles more concentrated than its cell sap, it
D. Floral parts arranged in threes, E. Periath is A. remains unchanged B. takes up water and burst
usually insignifdicant C. absorbs a little water D. loses water and shrivel
42. Which sequence represnts the correct order of E. becomes turgid.
organism in a food chain? 1. Toad, 2.Mucuna, 3.
Grasshopper, 4.Snake, 5.Hawk. 48. Urea is produced in the
A. 5 4 1 3 2 B. 1 2 3 4 5 A. liver, B. Ladder, C. spleen, D. kidneys. E. gall bladder
C. 2 1 3 4 5 D. 2 3 1 5 4
E. 2 3 1 4 5 49. What is the genetic ration of the F2 generation if members
43. In Rhizopus, carbonhydrate is stored in the form of of F generation are allowed to self-pollinate?
A. glucose B. paramylon C. glycogen D. starch E. oil A. 1tall: 3short B. 3 tall:1 short C. 1 tall: 1 short
44. Which of the following statements about the rate D. 4 shorts: 0 tall E. 4 tall:0 short
of transpiration is INCORRECT? It is 50. The path taken by glucose from the ileum to the heart is
A. dependent on temperature B. affected by changes in A. ileum hepatic portal vein hepatic artery vena
light intensity C. unaffected by humidity cava heart. B. ileum hepatic portal
D. dependent on air movement E. affected by artery hepatic artery venacave heart.
availability of water. C. ileum hepatic portalvein vena cava heart
45. ‘Jointed skeleton’ is absent in the D. ileum hepatic vein vena cava heart.
A. cockroach B. spider C. millipede D. snail E. ileum hepatic portal vein hepatic vein vena cava
E. dragon fly. heart.

46. Which of the following statements about the

definition of man is Incorrect? Man has
A. more molars than incisors B. no diastema
C. the same number of teeth on upper and lower jaws
D. a total of thirty-two teeth E. a total of six molars.

Biology 1984
1. The mouth part of the housefly are adapted for 6. Which of the following is INCORRECT? The
A. lapping and sponging. B. sucking and chewing. prothallus of a fern
C. piercing and sucking. D. chewing and lapping. A. is a flattened heart-shaped structure.
E. biting and chewing. B. is green because its cells contain chloroplasts
C. is the dominant plant D. bears the sexual organs
2. The male toad differs from the female by having E. is attached to the ground by numerous rhizoids.
A. vocal sacs. B. shorter hind limbs.
C. longer fore limbs. D. bulging eyes. 7. Which of the following cell constituents is NOT
E. nictating membrane. common in both plants and animals?
A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplasts
3. Mosses, liverworts and ferns can be grouped C. Ribosomes D. Golgi apparatus
together because they E. Vacoules.
A. are all equatic plants. B. all grow in deserts.
C. are seedless plants. D. have undifferentiated plant 8. The character-producing factors in living organisms are
bodies. E. all produce colourless flowers. A. chromomeres B. alleles C. chromatids
D. chromosomes E. genes.
4. Spirogyra and Mucor can be grouped together as
Thallophyta because. 9. A mixture of mercurous and mercuric nitrates is added
A. they are unicellular organism B. their spores to a food substance. A white precipitate is formed
could be dispersed by wind C. they are capable which on gentle heating turns red. The food
of living independent lives D. they reproduce sexually substance is
only E. their bodies are made up of thallus and A. protein B. oil C. Carbohydrate
filaments alternatively. D. Fat E.Fatty acid.

5. Which of the following invertebrates does NOT 10. The mammalian organ through which nourishment
possess antennae? and oxygen diffuse into a developing embryo is called
A. Centipede B. Crustacean C.Millipede A. amnion B. chorion C. umbilical cord
D. Insect E. Spider D. oviduct E. placenta
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
11. Fig 1 represents a quill feather. The structure labelled 20. A man with a normal haemoglobin (AA) marries a
“M” is the woman who has sickle-cell haemoglobin (SS).
A. quill B. rachis C. superior umbilicus They have a child who has sickle-cell trait. Which
D. inferior umbilicus E. aftershaft of the following genotypes could be associated
with the child’s haemoglobin ?
A. AA B. OO C. AO
D. AS E. SS

21. In a Biuret test, some protein was mixed with sodium

hydroxide solution. Which of the following
chemicals should be added to the mixture for a
positive result?
A. Mercurous nitrate B. Copper sulphate
C. Mercuric nitrate D. Sodium carbonate
E. Ammonium hydroxide

12. Osmosis can be defined as the movement of 22. The removal of a man’s pancreas by surgical
A. molecules from solution of high concentration operation can affect only the digestion of
to low concentration B. molecules from solution of A. starch B. starch, protein and fats
low concentration to ]high concentration C. oils and fats D. proteins
C. water from solution of high concentration to low E. carbohydrate and fats.
concentration D. Water across a semi-permeable
membrane from solution of low concentration to high 23. The parts used by tapeworm to fasten itself to the
concentration E. water across a semi-permeable host’s intestine are the
membrane from solution of high concentration A. neck and suckers B. hooks and suckers
to low concentration C. rostellum and suckers
D. young proglottis and neck E. rostellum,
13. Which of the following statements is NOT true of hooks and suckers.
enzymes? They
A. are proteins B.need cofactors to activate them Use Fig 2 to answer questions 24 - 25
C. are sensitive to hydrogen ion concentration
D. are specific in their action
E. can withstand high temperatures.

14. The dorsal and anal fins of fish are used for
A. upward movements B. controlling rolling
movements C. downward movements
D. steering E. buoyancy.
Fig 2. transverse section of a fowl’s egg
15. Exoskeleton is NOT found in the
A. maggot B. mosquito larva C. earthworm 24. The young chick is formed from
D. caterpillar F. termite A. 3 B. 3 and 4 C. 1,3 and 5 D. 2 E. 4

16. Blood clotting is initiated by 25. Which parts provide food for the developing chick?
A. leucocytes B. platelets C. haemolymph A. 2 and 3 B. 4 and C. 3 and 4
D. haemoglobin E. erythrocytes D. 2 and 5 E. 1 and 2

17. Pepsin is a digestive enzyme which breaks 26. Which of the following types of vertebrate occur
A. cellulose into glucose molecules in equal numbers in the rabbit, rat and man?
B. carbohydrates into simple sugars A. Caudal B. Thoracic C. Lumbar
C. protein into peptones D. fats into glycerol D. Cervical E. Sacral
and fatty acids E. sucrose into glucose and
fructose. 27. Which of the following statements is NOT true of
18. Anaerobic respiration in yeast produces the piliferous layer of a root? It
A. carbondioxide and ethanol B. carbondioxide and A. has a very thin cuticle B. is the outermost
layer of the cortex C. may bear root hairs
water C. carbondioxide and oxygen D. breaks down as the root ages
D. carbondioxide and glucose E. ethanol and water E. is replaced by cork in old roots.

19. Underground stems which grow horizontally 28. A flowering plant is monoecious if
through the soil are A. the androecium is found on one plant
A. blubs B. rhizomes C. runners B. the gynoecium is monocarpous
C. it produces essential organs D. the gynoecium
D. corms E. stolons and androecium are on the same plant
E. the flowers are unisexual
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
29. How many nuclei are found in a pollen tube during 41. Green plants are important in the ecosystem
fertilization? because they are
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7 A. primary consumers B. producers
C. decomposers D. secondary consumers
30. Which of the following is NOT a waste product of plants? E. scavengers.
A. Tannis B. Oxygen C. Carbondioxide
D. Sap E. Alkaloids 42. An anenometer is an instrument for measuring
A. relative humidity B. altitude C. wind speed
31. If an animal is very active and has good muscular D. turbidity E. salinity.
control, it is likely to have well-developed
A. olfactory lobes B. cerebral hemispheres 43. Which of the following is NOT regarded as a
C. optic lobes D. cerebellum E. spinal cord pollutant on land or in the air?
A. Noise B. Smoke C. Sulphur dioxide
32. Which of the following adaptations is NOT D. Carbon monoxide E. Nitrogen
concerned with the flight of birds?
A. Streamlined shape B. Presence of powerful muscles 44. Which of the following groups of factors is
C. Reduced body weight D. Broad sternum completely abiotic?
E. Webbed feet. A. salinity, tide, plankton, turbidity
B. Temperature, pH, soil insect
33. The transect method can be used in ecology to show the C. Wind, altitude, humidity, light
A. number of plants and animals in a habitant D. Conifers, winds, pH, rainfall
B. population of a plant species E. Soil, water, bacteria, salinity
C. distribution of organisms along a line
D. heights of trees in a section of a forest 45. Which of the following lists of diseases, their
E. number of young plants across a forest. causes and transmission is CORRECT?
A. Cholera, virus, severe diarrhoea, infected water.
34. Asexual reproduction does NOT occur in B. Malaria, protozoan, high fever, contact with infected
A. Mucor, Spirogyra and Paramecium person C. Syphilis, virus, veneral disease, sexual
B. Penicillium, Paramecium and Amoeba intercourse D. Smallpox, virus, skin with blister,
C. Mucor, Rhizopus and penicillium close contact with infected person. E. Sleeping
D. Amoeba, spirogyra and Mucor sickness, bacteria, tiredness, headaches and dozing,
E. Rhizopus, Ascaris and Amoeba. tsetse fly bite

35. Fehling’s solution will readily change colour from 46. Erosion can be reduced along a slope by
blue to a reddish colour when it is A. ridging across slope B. ridging up slope
A. mixed with sugar solution in the cold C. ridging down slope D. crop rotation
B. warmed or heated by itself E. bush fallowing system.
C. mixed with reducing sugar in the cold
D. warmed or heated with a complex solution
E. warmed with a solution of reducing sugar. 47. If a handful of soil is shaken with water and left to
settle, the soil particles will settle from light to
37. Normally the flow of blood is NEVER from heavy particles as follows:
A. artery to arterioles B. arterioles to capillaries A. humus, clay, silt, sand, stones B. humus,
C. capillaries to venules D. arterioles to the artery silt, clay, sand, stones C. humus, clay silt,
stones, sand D. humus, sand, silt, clay, stones
E. venules to the vein
E. clay, humus, silt, sand, stones.
38. Heat produced in tissue respiration in plants is 48. Denitrifying bacteria in nature liberate gaseous
A. a chemical from of energy B. the only form of energy nitrogen directly from
C. the main form of energy D. a useful form of energy A. ammonium salts B. soil nitrates
E. a waste from of energy. C. thunderstorms D. soil nitrites
E. plant and animal proteins.
39. The axial skeleton of a mammal does not include
the bones of the 49. Leaching is
A. skull B. tail C. limbs D. back E. neck. A. washing away of humus from the soil surface
B. reduction of soil aeration by pressure
40. Which of the following sequences represents the C. soil erosion by means other than rainfall
process of blood clotting? 1. Fibrin forms a network of D. loss of organic matter due to exposure to
direct sunlight E. washing out of chalk and limestone
threads 2 Red blood cells are caught and a clot is formed
from upper layers of soil by heavy rains
3. Fibrinogen in plasma changes into solube fibrin 4.
Blood is exposed to air. 50. The process of soil erosion is usually from
A. 4,3,2,1 B. 4,3,1,2 C. 3,1,4,2 D. 1,2,3,4 A. rill sheet gully B. gully rill sheet
E. 3,1,2,4. C. sheet gully rill D. sheet rill gully
E. rill gully sheet
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng

Biology 1985
1. In Spirogyra, the pryrenoid 12. A group of similar cells performing the same
A. excrete waste products B. is suspended by function is
cytoplasmic strands C. is mainly used for A. an organ B. a system C. a tissue
respiration D. usually contains starch D. an organelle E. an enzyme.
E. makes the plant slimly to touch.
13. Which of the following is common to a dicotyledonous
2. In which of the following groups of animals are stem and a monocotyledonous root?
flagella and cilia found? A. Medullary rays B. Central pith
A. Flatworms B. Annelids C, Coelenterates C. Wide cortex D. Narrow cortex
D. Protozoa E. Nematodes E. Pericyclic fibres.

3. Which of the following is seed bearing? 14. Which of the following represents the sequence
A. Mosses B. Whistling pine of protein hydrolysis? 1.Polypeptides 2.Amino
C. Algal filamentsD. Livewort acids 3. Proteins 4. Peptones
E. Fern fronds. A. 3à1à2à4 B. 3à2à4à1 C. 3à4à2à1
D. 3à4à1à2 E. 3à1à4à2
4. Each of the following is an arthropod EXCEPT the
A. crab B. spider C. snail D. millipede 15. A food substance which produces red colouration
E. cockroach with Sudan III contains
A. protein B. sugar C. starch
5. In fish the sense organs which detect movements D. cellulose E. fat.
in the water are located within the
A. gills B. operculum C. nostrils D. median fins 16. If calcium is deficient in food this may cause
E. lateral line. A. anaemia B. retarded growth
C. sterility D. goitre E. beri-beri
6. Euglena is an autotrophic organism because it
A. has flagella B. has plant and animal features 17. Partially digested food ready to leave the stomach
C. is found in water D. can manufacture its food is referred to as
E. moves fast. A. chyme B. curd C. glycogen D. paste
E. roughage
7. Which of the following is NOT true of Mucor? It
A. contains chlorophyll B. grows saprophytically 18. The function of lymph nodes is to
C. bears spores in sporangium A. supply oxygen B. filter out bacteria
D. consists of hyphae C. form red blood D. supply amino acids
E. reproduces by conjugation E. supply simple sugars

8. Byrophytes are different from flower because they 19. The vein which returns blood from the head and
A. live in moist habitats B. are small plants arms to the heart is called
C. reproduce sexually and a sexually A. aorta B. inferior vena cava C. superior vena cava
D. have small leaves D. pulmonary vein E. pulmonary artery.
E. have no vascular tissues.
20. Blood platelets are important because they
9. At what stage in the life history of a toad is its A. are amoeboid and nucleated B. produce
mode of breathing similar to that of a fish? antitoxins C. produce antibodies
A. Tadpole stage B. External gill stage D. digest harmful bacteria E. release thrombin
C. Adult stage D. Internal gill stage for blood clotting.
E. Larval stage.
21. If a child can receive blood from all donors, he
10. In lower plants like mosses, the structure which performs belongs to the blood group
the functions of roots of higher plants is called A. O B. A C. B D. AB E. AS.
A. root hairs B. rootlets C. hyphae
D. rhizoids E. thalli. 22. Which of the following events does NOT occur
during anaerobic respiration of glucose?
11. In an angiosperm leaf, the xylem is A. Muscle cell produce lactic acid B. Carbon
A. beside the phloem B. surrounded by the phloem dioxide is produced C. Milk bacteria produce
C. above the phloem D. around the phloem lactic acid D. Energy is not produced
E. in separate bundles from the phloem. E. Germinating seeds produce alcohol.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
23. Identify which of the following are characteristics of 34. The characters by which an organism is recognized are
the vertebrate respiratory surface 1. Moist 2. Vascularized termed its
3. Semipermeable 4. Freelypermeable 5. Dry A. phenotype B. genotype
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,5 C. 2,3,5 D. 2,4,5 E. 1,3,5. C. morphology D. anatomy E. physiology.

24. In mammals, the function of the sebaceous gland is to 35. The hereditary material in a cell is known as
A. produce sweat B. secrete sodium A. ADP B. CNS C. RNA D. ATP E. DNA.
C. secrete water D. produce an oily substance
E. manufacture vitamin D for the skin. 36. A young plant showing yellow leaves is likely to
be deficient in
25. Which of the following organs regulates the A. calcium B. magnesium C. potassium
amount of amino acids and glucose in the body? D. boron E. molybdenum.
A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Spleen
E. Stomach. 37. Germination which results in the cotyledons being
brought above ground is called
Use the diagram below to answer questions 26 and 27 A. hypocotyls B. epicotyl C. epigeal
D. hypogeal E. plumule.

38. The mammalian endocrine system is responsible for

A. transmitting impulses B. regulating body
temperature C. regulating osmotic pressure of blood
D. chemical co-ordination E. the manufacture of
blood.

39. An old man is likely to be long-sighted because

Fig. 1 age effects the
A. optic nerves B. retina C. ciliary muscles
26. Bowman’s capsules are located in the part labelled D. cornea E. aqueous humour.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6
40. In a mammal, stimulus is transferred from the receptor
27. Re-absorption of useful materials takes place in muscle to the central nervous system through the
the parts labeled. A. motor neurons B. effector muscles
A. 1 and 3 B. 3 and 5 C. 5 and 6 C. dendrites D. sensory neurons E. synapses.
D. 6 and 7 E. 2 and 4
41. A relationship between living organisms which is
28. Movements and positions of the head in man are of mutual benefit is
detected by the A. parasitism B. saprophytism C. ecosystem
A. cochlea B. malleus C. utriculus D. symbiosis E. commensalisms.
D. semicircular canals E. outer
42. Which of the following food chains is in the correct
29. The appendicular skeleton is made up of the sequence?
A. limbs B. skull and limbs C. phalanges A. Weeds Tadpoles Beetles Fish Man
D. ulna and radius E. girdles and limbs. B. Weeds Tadpoles Fish Beetles Man.
C.Tadpoles Beetles Weeds Man Fish
30. The maize grain is a fruit and not a seed because it D. Man Fish Beetles Tadpoles Weeds
A. has a large endosperm B. is formed from an ovary E. Fish Beetles Tadpoles Weeds Tadpoles.
C. is a monocotyledon D. has no plumule and radicle
E. has a hypogeal germination. 43. The primary and secondary hosts respectively of
bilharzia are
31. If a flower is protandrous then it A. fish and man B. man and dog C. snail and man
A. must be unisexual B. has an undeveloped D. man and snail E. fish and snail
anroecium C. has no anroecium D. must
be insect pollinated E. can prevent self- 44. Which of the following is NOT caused by bacteria?
pollination. A. Cholera B. Gonorrhoea C. Tuberculosis
D. Onchocerciasis E. Typhoid.
32. For pollen to be released in Crotalaria the insect
must depress the 45. Tsetse fly is harmful to man because it is associated
A. wing B. keel C. standard D. antepetalous with the spread of
stamen E. antesepalous stamen. A. river blindness B. malaria C. sleeping sickness
D. leprosy E. dysentery.
33. Irish potato is a
A. bulb B. tap root C. rhizome D. root tuber
E. stem tuber.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
46. Soil erosion CANNOT be controlled by 49. Atmospheric nitrogen is directly replenished in
A. planting cover crops B. contouring of nature through
sloping ground C. terracing of slopes A. the activities of denitrifying bacteria
D. laying of mulch E. burning of bush B. the breakdown of ammonium salts in the soil
C. the activities of nitrifying bacteria
47. Water retention is highest in soils which are rich in D. the activities of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules
A. sand, poor in humus and devoid of clay E. egestion, death and decay
B. clay and sand, but poor in humus
C. clay and humus, but poor in sand 50. The initial volume of water poured into a bag of
D. clay, poor in humus and devoid of sand dry soil was 50ml and the amount that drained
E. Sand and humus, but poor in clay through was 35ml. The percentage water content
of the fully soaked soil is therefore
48. The origin of mineral particles in the soil is A. 46.7 B. 25.0 C. 20.0 D. 30.0 E. 58.3.
A. humus B. water C. micro-organisms
D. weathered rock E. organic matter

Biology 1986
1. Viruses are regarded as non-living because they 10. When the original king and queen of termites die,
A. can neither reproduce asexually nor sexually they are replaced by
B. cannot survive in their respective environments A. the king and queen of another colony
C. do not possess characteristics to the next B. some adult reproductives from the same colony
D. can neither respire nor excrete. C. some adult workers which are specially fed to breed.
D. Developing nymphs nurtured as secondary
2. Which of the following pairs are fully adapted to reproductives.
terrestrial life?
A. Ferns and algae B. Ferns and mosses 11. The male cockroach differs from the female by having
C. Bryophyte and flowering plants.
D. Flowering plants and conifers. A. mandibles B. a pair of styles C. spiracles
D. a pair of cerci.
3. Which of these animals is radically symmetrical?
A. Squid B. Hydra C. Snail D. Cockroach. 12. The fins making up the limbs of the bony fish are
A. caudal and ventral B. ventral and pelvic
4. Which of the following has cones? C. pelvic and pectoral D. pectoral and dorsal.
A. Angiosperm B. Gymnosperm C. Pteridophyte
D. Bryophyte . 13. The stem differs from the root in having the xylem
and phloem strands
5. For effective functioning of a bird’s quill feather, A. on the same radii B. scattered C. on alternate radii
hooks fit on the ridges of the D. towards the pith.
A. vane B. rachis C. barbules D. barbs. 14. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis has been
demonstrated to come from
6. Which of the following is NOT true of Spirogyra? A. carbon dioxide B. air C. water D. chlorophyll.
A. Reproduces by conjugation B. Reproduces by
fragmentation C. Consists of branched filaments 15. Which of these is a trace element?
D. Consists of unbranched filaments A. Iron B. Copper C. Calcium D. Sulphur.

7. Which of the following lacks chaetae, tentacles 16. The main organic substances found in the human
and antennae? body are
A. Snail B. Crab C. Millipede D. Earthworm. A. carbohydrates, proteins and salts B. salts,
fats and proteins C. fats, carbohydrates and
8. Incomplete metamorphosis in the proteins D. salts, fats and carbohydrates.
A. butterfly B. grasshopper C. mosquito
D. housefly 17. Which of the following elements is essential for
the formation of haemoglobin?
9. Fishes are cold-blooded because their body A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Iron.
temperature is
A. constantly low B. constantly high 18. The severe deficiency of vitamin C leads to
C. dependent on that of their surroundings A. kwashiorkor B. beriberi C. pellagra D. scurvy
D. regulated at will
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
19. In addition to the high calories derived from fats A. keep moving so that the venom will ooze out with
and oils, they are bleeding B. wash the wound with water containing
A. used in producing new cells B. necessary for enzyme antiseptic C. bandage the wound so that germs do
formation C. used as insulators from cold not get in through it D. keep still and apply a
D. required for growth tourniquet above the wound.

20. The extract from a food substance reacting with 30. Deamination occurs in the
sodium hydroxide and copper sulphate solutions A. kidney B. pancreas C. spleen D. liver.
will produce violet to purple coloration if
A. fats are present B. carbohydrate is present 31. In the mammalian skin, melanin and keratin are
C. protein is present D. reducing sugar is present. contained in the
A. sebaceous gland B. sweat gland
21. The three important organs that are situated close C. subcutaneous layer D. malpighian layer.
to the stomach are
A. kidney, liver and gall bladder B. pancreas, liver and 32. Two main distinguishing features of the cervical
kidney C. liver, kidney and spleen D. gall bladder, vertebra are the presence of
pancreas and spleen. A. short neural spine and vertebraterial canal
B. prezygapophysis and cervical ribs
22. Evidence that a tooth is a living part of the C. large centrum and cervical ribs
mammalian body can be found within the D. vertebraterial canal and large centrum
A. gum B. pulp cavity C. cement D. enamel.
33. Nastic movement is
23. Blood circulation in a mammal is said to be double A. response to light stimulus B. non-directional
because C. directional D. response to internal stimulus
A. it passes twice through the heart in the complete
circuit B. it moves in both arteries and veins Use the figure below to answer questions 34 to 36
C. it circulates in both the heart and other organs
D. the heart contains auricles and ventricles

24. Which is the correct order of water loss from the

leaf? 1 Mesophyll 2 Veins 3 Substomatal cavity 4 Stomata
A. 3 2 1 4 B. 2 3 1 4
C. 2 1 3 4 D. 1 2 3 4.

25. The aperture between the left auricle and the left
ventricle is guarded by the
A. auricular valve B. tricuspid valve
C. ventricular valve D. bicuspid valve. Vertical section of a maize grain

26. A major limitation in the use of the potometer for 34. Which of the labelled parts will develop into a
measuring the rate of transpiration is that new maize plant?
A. it is made of breakable glass material A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5.
B. it measures the rate of water intake
C. it measures the rate of water loss through the stem 35. The structure labelled 1 is the
only D. the movement of the air bubble in the A. plumule B. radicle C. cell membrane
potometer cannot be timed accurately. D. seed coat

27. Which of the following statements is not correct 36. The main function of the structure labelled 2 is to
with respect to inhalation in mammals? A. protect the inner parts of the seed
A. intercostal muscles contract B. diaphragm is raised B. nourish the embryo and the growing parts
C. ribs are raised D. pressure of the thoracic cavity C. keep the inner parts moist
decreases. D. maintain the shape of the seed.

28. The equation that can be used to summarize the 37. Gestation in mammals is the period
process of anaerobic breakdown of sugar is A. required for growth after birth
A. C6H12O6+2C2H5OH + 2CO2 B. between the formation of the foetus and birth
B. 6CO2 + 6H2O ’! C6H12O6 + 6O2 C. of development from zygote to birth
C. C6H12O6 + 6O2 ’! 6CO2 + 6H2O+ energy D. before the formation of the zygote.
D. C6H12O6 ’! 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + energy.
38. If a woman who is a carrier of sickle cell trait (AS)
29. If a person is bitten by a snake on the leg, it is married a man who is a sickler (SS) and they had
advisable for the person four children how many of them would be normal
A. Three B. Two C. One D. None
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
39. Which of the following is an example of
discontinuous variation? 45. Which of the following ecological factors are
A. Skin coloration B. Left-handedness common to both terrestrial and aquatic habitats?
C. Body weight D. Height A. Rainfall, temperature, light and wind
B. Salinity, rainfall temperature and light
40. The hormone which regulates the amount of C. Tides, wind, rainfall and altitude
glucose in the blood is called D. Ph, salinity, rainfall and humidity
A. adrenalin B. auxin C. insulin
D. thyroxine. 46. In a community, bacteria and fungi are referred to as
A. producers B. decomposers C. scavengers
41. An instrument that can be used to demonstrate D. consumers
phototropism and geotropism in plants is the
A. auxanometer B. potometer C. klinostat 47. The swollen shoot disease of cocoa tree is caused by a
D. photometer. A. virus B. fungus C. bacterium D. protozoan

42. In an ecosystem, animals which feed directly on 48. A large percentage of tropical soils tend to be
plants are called acidic because they
A. secondary consumers B. primary consumers A. contain large quantities of potash B. contain large
C. producers D. predators quantities of lime C. lose a high proportion of their
organic matter to running water D. lose lime and
43. In an agricultural ecosystem, the biotic component potash from the top soil through rain action
consists of
A. crops, pest and beneficial insects B. crops, 49. The following are methods of soil conservation EXCEPT
temperature and humidity C. pests, beneficial A. contour terracing B. strip cropping
insects and water D. crops, water and soil. C. contour ploughing D. mixed grazing

44. Which of these diseases CANNOT be prevented 50. Samples of different soil types are packed in glass
by immunization? tubes whose lower ends are plugged with cotton
A. Poliomyelitis. B. Tuberculosis wool. If these tubes are suspended in a trough of
C. Cholera D. Onchocerciasis water, water will rise highest after a few hours in
A. sand B. loam C. clay D. humus.

Biology 1987
1. The function of endoplasmic reticulum is 6. A good example of a diploblastic organism is
A. protein synthesis B. intracellular transport of materials A. Amoeba B. Hydra C. Earthworm D. Roundworm.
C. digestion and destruction of foreign bodies
D. production of energy from glucose. 7. The function of the clitellum in the earthworm is to
A. aid digestion B. prevent desiccation C. assist
2. Which of the following features of Euglena is locomotion D. secrete cocoon.
found only in animals?
A. Paramylum granules. B. Flagellum C. Pellicle 8. The crayfish is an arthropod because
D. Pyrenoid. A. its body consists of a cephalothorax and an abdomen
B. it has a pair each of antennae and antennules
3. An organism found on a bare rock surface has C. every segment of its body carries a pair of appendages
features of algae and fungi. The organism is D. its body is covered with an exoskeleton made of
A. an empiphyte B. a lichen C. a bryophyte D. a fern. chitin.

4. In a plant exhibiting alternation of generations, 9. The hypha of Rhizopus is said to be coenocytic

the diploid multicelluar stage is known as because it
A. gametophyte B. spermatophyte C. holophyte A does not contain chlorophyll B. has no cross walls
D. sporophyte. C. is vacuolated D. stores oil globules.

5. A characteristic that distinguishes bryophytes 10. In most true ferns sporangia are grouped into
from flowering plants is the A. indusium B. fonds C. prothalli D. sari.
A. possession of true stems and leaves B. ability
to reproduce asexually C. absence of vascular
tissues D. ability to grow in moist habitats.
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

16. Secondary thickening is initiated in a

dicotyledonous stem by the 25. Which of the plants is likely to have broad leaves
A. xylem parenchyma B. secondary phloem with thin cuticle?
C. endodermis D. cambium. A R. B. S C. T D. U

17. In demonstrating the importance of mineral elements in 26. Which of the plants is likely to be a desert species?
the plants, the culture bottle must be darkened to A. U B.T C.S D. R.
A. prevent algal growth in culture solution
B. allow root growth C. prevent breakdown of mineral 27. Sclerenchyma cells are lignified to
elements D. prevent photosynthesis in the root. A. strengthen and support the plant B. transport
synthesized food C. conduct water and salt
18. The vitamin which is important in the formation of D. protect the plant from injury.
the retina pigments is
A. vitamin A B. vitamin B C. vitamin C 28. The pineapple fruit is best described as
D. vitamin D. A. aggregate, succulent and indehiscent
B. aggregate, succulent and indehiscent
19. Which of the following lists of organs is directly C. multiple, succulent and indehiscent
involved in nutrition? D. multiple, succulent and dehiscent.
A. Oesophagus, bronchus, stomach, pancreas and
anus B. Spleen, pharynx, duodenum, jejunum and
rectum, C. Teeth, oesophagus, ileum lungs and
large intestine, D. Salivary gland, liver, stomach,
villi and colon.

20. In the standard experiment to show that oxygen is

given off during photosynthesis, sodium
bicarbonate is used to
A. neutralize the acid in water B. supply mineral salts to 29. The flower shown above is
water plant, C. supply carbondioxide for A. complete, regular, hermaphroditic with inferior ovary
photosynthesis D. Kill micro-organism in water. B. incomplete, regular, staminate with inferior ovary
C. complete regular, hermaphroditic with inferior ovary
D. incomplete, irregular, pistillate with superior ovary.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
30. A flower showing radial symmetry is said to be 43. The ratio of carriers to sicklers in the F1 generation
A. pentamerous B. protandrous C. protogynous derived from a parental cross of two carriers of
D. actinomorphic. haemoglobin S gene is
A.3:1 B. 1:3 C. 2:1 D. 1:2
31. A samara differs from a cypsela by having
A. an exended pericarp B. a hard pericarp 44. In which of the following crosses will all the
C. a pericarp fused with the seed coat female offspring be colour blind?
D. some hairy outgrowths on the pericarp. A. colour blind mother x colour blind father.
B. colour blind mother x normal father
32. The plantain reproduces asexually by C. carrier mother x colour blind father.
A. suckers B. buds C. fragments D. spores. D carrier mother x normal father.

33. Growth can best be determined in a population of 45. Which of the following relates to edaphic factors?
Spirogyra by measuring the A. The structure of the earth’s surface B. The
A. total lengths of the filaments B. total widths of influence of living organisms on each other.
the filaments C. rate of photosynthesis in the C. Temperature, rainfall and humidity
population D. dry weight of the organism. D. The influence of soils on plants and animals.

34. Most cells in higher animals retain their power of 46. Epiphytes growing on the branches of trees
division EXCEPT provide an example of the relationship known as
A. lymphocytes B. nerve cells C. malpighian cells A. parasitism B. commensalisms C. aprophytism
D. germ cells. D. holophytism.

35. A severe deficiency of thyroxin results in 47. Poliomyelitis is an infectious disease caused by
A. diabetes mellitus B. sexual underdevelopment A. virus B. protozoan C. bacterium D. fungus.
C. cretinism D. gigantism.
48 One of the functions of UNICEF is to
36. The growth of a coleoptile towards unilateral A. prevent and control major diseases B. prevent
light source is due to disease outbreak by administering vaccines
A. rapid rate of photosynthesis B. unequal C. improve the health and nutrition of children
distribution of auxin C. the effect of geotropism and nursing mothers D. monitor environment
D. the effect of photolysis. pollution.
.
37. The sequence of ear ossicles from the fenestra ovalis is 49. Nitrifying bacteria are important because they
A. malleus, incus and stapes B. malleus, stapes and A. release nitrogen to the atmosphere B. convert
incus C. stapes, incus and mallcus D. stapes, malleus Atmosphere nitrogen to ammonia C. combine
and incus. ammonia with nitrogen D. oxidize ammonium salts to
nitrates.
38. The centre for controlling body temperature in
the brain is the 50. The process by which lime is added to clay soils is
A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. medulla known as
D. hypothalamus. A. sedimentation B. flocculation C. leaching
D. manuring
39. Unlike auxins, gibberellins
A. induce the formation of adventitious roots
B. do not affect leaf and fruit abscission
C. cannot stimulate stem elongation
D. are quite effective as herbicides.

40. A gene which expresses itself only in the

homozygous condition is
A. a mutant B. dominant C. recessive D. lethal.

41. An example of monohybrid inheritance in man is

A. astigmatism B. cretinism C. hyperthyroidism
D. albinism.

42. If a plant, homozygous for round and yellow

(RR;YY), is crossed with a wrinkled green type
(rr;yy) all of the resulting seed will be
A. blue and wrinkled B. round and yellow
C. wrinkled and yellow D. round and greenish-yellow.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng

Biology 1988
1. The function of ribosomes in cells is 11. Which stage is found in the muscle of an infected pig?
A. protein synthesis B. starch synthesis A. 3 B.4 C.5 D.6
C. transport of materials D. lipid storage.
12. The long and coiled intestine of a young tadpole is
2. Which of the following structures is common to an adaptation to its
Euglena, white blood cell and Amoeba? A. herbivorous diet B. carnivorous diet C. aquatic
A. Vacuole B. Cell wall C. Cilia D. Cell membrane. habitat D. insectivorous habit.

3. The term ‘Thallophyta’ refers to 13. Lung hooks are used for respiration in
A. ferns and mosses B. algae and fungi C. mosses and A. spiders B. insects C. millipedes D. snails.
liverworts D. fungi and ferns.
14. Insects and millipede have many features in common
4. The following organisms are hermaphrodites EXCEPT EXCEPT
A. snail B. taenia C. schistosoma D. earthworm. A. exoskeleton B. jointed, appendages
C. Compound eyes D. segmented body
5. Parasitic forms are NOT found among
A. platyhelminthes B. nematodes C. moluscs 15. The major function of the swim-bladder in fishes is
D. annelids. A. breathing B. buoyancy C. swimming D. diving

6. Which of the following sets of organism represents

the correct trend from simple to complex structural 16. Which of the following statement gives the BEST
organization? 1 Mollusca 2 Platyhelminthes 3 description of bark?
Nematoda 4 Protozoa A. Tissues outside the vascular cambium
A. 4 1 2 3 B. 4 3 2 1 B. Cork-like tissues found only in stems C. Brown
C. 4 2 1 3 D. 4 2 3 1. tissues never found in primary growth
D. Cork-like tissues of old trees.
7. Spirogyra, Euglena and Chlamydomonas share many
characteristics EXCEPT 17. In the transverse section of the leaf of maize vascular
A. nutrition B. reproduction C. mobility bundles are arranged in
D. irritability. A. a row B. one circle C. alternate positions D. two circles.

8. The prothallus of a fern is equivalent to the 18. If an animal has diastema, it would NOT possess
gemaetophyte generation of a moss because it A. incisors B. cannines C. premolars D. molars
A. is inconspicuous B. has rhizoids C. bears sexual
organs D. is multicellular. 19. If the gall bladder of a mammal is damaged, which of
the following will be most seriously affected?
9. What is the function of trichocyst in Paramecium? A. Glycolysis B. Digestion of starch C. Digestion of fats and
A. Movement B. Defence C. Excretion D. Reproduction. oils D. Digestion of proteins.

Use the diagram below to answer quetions 10 and 11 20. Which of the following will be first digested if
ingested at the same time?
A. Cooked beans B. Cooked rice C. Cod liver oil
D. Roasted beef.

21. If the phloem of a healthy plant is killed by heat

treatment the
A. upward movement of salts will cease B. food manufacture
in the leaves will accumulate C. whole plant will die
immediately D. leaves of the plant will become yellow.

22. In the mammalian respiratory system, exchange of

gases occurs in the
A. lungs B. bronchi C. bronchioles D. alveoli.

23. The main waste products formed in plant are

A. alkaloids, tannins and resins B. water, alkaloids and carbondioxide
10. At which stage in this cycle can man be infected? C. water, carbondioxide and oxygen.
A. 2 B.4 C. 5 D.6.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
24. In the kidney the malpighian corpuscle is located in 37. A red - coloured flower when crossed with a white-
the coloured one produced pink flowers. This is an
A medulla B. helium C. cortex D. pelvis. example of
A. complete dominance B. blending inheritance
25. The skin, through the sweat glads, functions as C. interaction of genes D. back crossing.
A an excretory organ B. a respiratory organ C. a sensory
organ D. a protective organ. 38. The turbidity of a pond can be measured using the
A. anaemometer B. secchi disc C. theodolite
26. Parenchyma cells serve as supporting tissue when D. hydrometer.
they A. contain chloroplasts B. have crystals C. become
flaccid D. become turgid. 39. The most important substances necessary for the
maintenance of life are carbon , oxygen
27. Taxism differs from tropism because A. hydrogen , soil and enzymes B. hydrogen, salt
A. the whole organism is affected B. it is a directional and water C. nitrogen, salt and soil
movement C. it is a response to multi-directional stimuli D. D. nitrogen, salt and water.
part of the organism is affected.

40. If an organism obtains its food by means of

28. A dry dehiscent fruit which breaks up into one haustoria, it is said to be
seeded parts is a A. holophytic B. heterophytic C. Saprophytic
A. schizocarp B. capsule C. follicle D. legume. D. Parasitic.

29. Airspaces are characteristic of seeds or fruits dispersed 41. Which of the following relationship involves only
A. birds B. water C. wind D. explosive mechanism. one organism?
A. Saprophytism B. Commensalism C. Parasitism
30. In vegetative propagation, which of the following D. Symbiosis.
requires part of another plant to develop?
A. Scion B. Bulb C. Rhizome D. Sucker 42. Which of the following has the greatest influence
on the distribution of animals in marine and fresh
31. Which of these plant groups are normally water habitats?
propagated by asexual means? A. pH. B. Salinity C. Water current D. Turbidity
A Banana, yam, pineapple and cassava B. Yam,
cassava , rubber and banana C. Yam, cassava, 43. Which of these groups of animals is likely to be
orange and banana, D. Banana, cassava, coffee found in fresh water?
and pineapple. A. Blood worm, pond skater and scorpion B. Blood
worm, pond skater and dragonfly larva C. Pond
32. In a mammal, the placenta performs functions similar skates scorpion and dragonfly larva. D. Pond skater,
to those of the blood worm and ant-lion.
A. lungs, kidneys and digestive system B. lungs,
heart and nervous system C. liver, intestines and
reproductive system D. intestines, heart and
digestive system. 44. One of the characteristics of plant in the savanna is the
A. possession of thin, smooth barks B. possession
33. The radicle of a bean seedling grows most rapidly in of large tap roots C. production of seedlings on
the region mother plant D. possession of thick, flaky barks.
A. of the root tip B. just above the root tip C. just
around the root tip D. just below the root tip. 45. Which of the following disease can be contracted
areas with fast flowing rivers?
34. The main function of the choroid is A. Schistosomiasis B. Elephantiasis C. Syphilis
A. protection of the eye ball B. transmission of light D. Onchocerciasis.
C. supply of nutrients to tissues of the eye
D. converging light. 46. Which of the following causes pollution?
A. Consumption of canned drinks. B. The addition of
35. What part of the central nervous system is fertilizer to farmland C. Respiration of living
concerned with answering an examination question? organisms D. Burning of refuse.
A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Medulla oblongata
D. Spinal cord. 47. The mineral nutrient that is most bound to the soil is
A. phosphorus B. calcium C. iron D. potassium.
36. If a dark-skinned woman (Bb) marries an albino man
(bb) and they have four children, how many of the 48. The mineral nutrient that easily gets leached out of
children will be dark-skinned? the soil is
A. 3 B. 2 C.1 D.0. A. phosphorus B. calcium C. magnesium D. nitrate.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
49. Most commercial fertilizers are rich in salts of 50. Dead plants and animals are decomposed by bacteria
A. Sodium, iron and calcium B. nitrogen, phosphorus and and fungi into
potassium C. iron, copper and nitrogen D. calcium, A. butterfly B. grasshopper C. mosquito D. housefly.
sodium and phosphorus.

Biology 1989
Use the figure below to answer questions 1 to 3 10. Which of the following is a common characteristic
of crustaceans?
A. Possession of a pair of antennae
B. Possession of two pairs of antennae.
C Each segment has a pair of walking legs
D. Four pairs of walking legs on the
cephalothorax.

11. The pedipalpi in spiders are used for

A. grasping B. Walking C. feeling D. Web spinning.

12. The body of a snail is divided into head

1. The structure labelled 5 is the A. thorax and abdomen B. visceral mass and
A. neucleolus B. Golgi body C. mitochondrion vacuole abdomen C. thorax and foot D. visceral mass and foot.

2. Which of the labelled parts of the cell contains

ribonucleic acid? Use the diagram below to answer questions 13 to 14
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

3. Which structure is known as the power house of

the cell?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

4. When a virus is placed in a non-living medium it

A. becomes dehydrated B. forms spores
C. forms flagella D. becomes crystallized.

5. A characteristic of the phylum coelenterate is that 13. Which of the labelled parts is used for feeling?
A. most of them are marine B. they possess a gut A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4
with a single opening C. they possess
numerous pores on their body D. they are 14. The structure labelled 2 is the
bilaterally symmetrical. A. compound eye B. ocellus C. antenna D. labial palp.

6. A multinucleate body without internal cell 15. In a dicotyledonous stem, each companiosn cells
boundaries is characteristic of is found beside the
A. bryophytes B. fungi C. algae D. gymnosperms. A. endodermal cell B. xylem vessel
C. sieve tube D. pericyclic fibre.
7. Double fertilization is a unique feature of
A. angiosperms B. bryophytes C. pteridophytes Use the diagram below to answer questions 16 to 17
D. algae.

8. Which of the following phyla have members with

both internal and external segmentation?
A. Platyhelminthes B. Nematoda C. Algae
D. Mollusca 16. Which of the structure’s is the molar?
A.1 B.2 C. 3 D.4
9. Mineral salts can be absorbed into the roots by
A. osmosis only B. osmosis and diffusion 17. What is the function of 3?
C. diffusion and active transport D. imbibition only. A. Cutting off large pieces of food.
B. Seizure and tearing of prey
C. Grinding of food D. Tearing of flesh only
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
18. If a healthy potted plant is continuously kept in 29. The components of castor oil seed and the maize
dim of light grain are similar EXCEPT for the
A. the rate of respiration may equal that of A. number of cotyledons B. location of the embryo
photosynthesis B. more carbon dioxide and C. number of radicles D. number of plumules.
water are taken in C. respiration may be halted
D. the volume of oxygen released increases. 30. A corm differs from a bulb in that
A. its stem is the main food storage organ
19. The pancreatic juice contains the enzymes B. it has a flattened disc-shaped stem
amylopsin, C. buds are absent in the axils of the leaves
A. pepsin and trypsinogen B. rennin and D. adventitious roots are present
steapsin C. steapsin and trysinogen
D. steapsin and ptyalin. 31. Exponential increase in the population of an
organism is a characteristic feature of
20. Aged erythrocytes are destroyed in the A. binary fission B. sexual reproduction
A. pancreas B. liver C. lymph nodes D. kidney. C. budding D. vegetative propagation.

21. The seedlings in a rice field were found to have 32. The irreversible life process by which new
thin lanky growth with reddish leaves and poor protoplasm is added to increase the size and weight
root development. This is because the soil lacks of an organism can be termed
A. sulphur B. phosphorus C. potassium D. iron. A. anabolism B. catabolism C. growth
D. development.
22. There will be agglutination when the
A. Group A serum mixes with Group A erythrocytes 33. Fruit enlargement can be induced by spraying
B. Group A serum mixes with Group B erythrocytes young ovary with
C. Group AB serum mixes with Group O erythrocytes A. cytokinin, abscisic acid and ethylene
D. Group B serum mixes with Group B erythrocytes. B. gibberellin, ethylene and abscisic acid
C. auxin, abscisic acid and ethylene
Use the figure below to answer questions 24 to 26 D. auxin, cytokinin and gibberellin.

34. A fundamental similarity between nervous and

hormonal system is that both
A. involve chemical transmission B. have
widespread effects C. shed chemicals into the
blood stream D. evoke rapid responses.

35. The region that controls most of the unconscious

processes of a mammalian body is the
23. Which of the following is the function of lymph? A. cerebellum B. cerebrum C. spinal cord
A. Carries hormones round the body B. Transport D. medulla oblongata.
nutrient and oxygen from blood, capillaries to
the cells. C. Distributes heat uniformly round 36. During cell division, the two strands of chromosomes
the body D. Conveys aminoacids and glucose are joined at a point called
from the small intestine to the liver. A. spindle B. chromatid C. centromere D. aster.

24. The type of joint at the point labelled 5 is the 37. When the two alleles present in an organism are
A. pivot joint B. gliding joint C. ball and socket of the same type, the genotype is described as
D. hinge joint. A. heterozygous B. heterogamous C. homozygous
D. homologous.
25. Which of the labelled bones is the ulna?
A. 1 B. 3 C.4 D.5 38. If parents with blood groups AB and OO produce
six children
26. What is the name of the structure labelled 2? A. three of them will have group B
A. Odontoid process B. Olecranon B. Process B. two of them will have group A
C. Patella D. Condyle. C. all the offspring will h ave group O
D. none of them will have group A.
27. The lumbar vertebra when compared with a
thoracic vertebra has a 39. Which of the following is a sex-linked character?
A. longer neural spine B. wider neural canal A. Sickle-cell anaemia B. Tongue rolling C. Skin colour
C. thicker centrum D. shorter transverse process. D. Colour blindness

28. Wind-pollinated flowers usually have

A. rough pollen grains B. sticky stigmas C. small
and short stigmas D. long styles.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
40. In an ecosystem, the LEAST efficient energy 47. Most irrigated lands often become unproductive
transfer link is from in later years because of
A. producers to primary consumers B. sun to A. loss of fertility B. increase in salinity C. soil
producers C. primary consumers to secondary erosion D. loss of water
consumers D secondary consumers to
decomposers. 48. Farmers practices crop rotation because it
A. helps to prevent soil erosion B. allows two
41. Lichen is an example of crops to be planted at the same time
A. a saprophytic organism B. a symbiotic C. helps to conserve soil fertility
association C. an epiphytic plant D. is an alternative to shifting cultivation
D. a carnivorous plants .

42. A physiological adaptation of plants to the

problem of excessive water loss is
A. reduction in the number of stomata
B. reversal of the normal stomatal rhythm
C. possession of shallow roots
D. possession of waxy cuticle.

43. Which of the ways of controlling bilharzia can

result in pollution?
A Clearing water weeds on which the snails feed.
B. Treating infected people with drugs
C. Preventing contamination of water by infected
urine and faeces D. Applying chemical to kill the
snails.

44. Which of the following diseases can be caused 49. In which of the habitant will the plants show
by a bacterium? xeromorphic features most prominently?
A. ringworm B. poliomyelitis C. malaria D. syphilis. A.X B.R C.P D.Q

45. Which of the following is a dangerous product of 50. Which ecological factor exerts the greatest
coal buming? influence on the structure of the profiles?
A. sulphur dioxide B. carbondioxide C. carbon A. topographic B. edaphic C. biotic D. climatic.
D. nitrogen.

46. 5g of oven dried soil was heated in a furnace for

24hours, after cooling, it weighed 4.8g what is the
amount of humus in the soil?
A. 40.0g per 100g dry soil B.4.4g per 100g dry soil
C. 4.0g per 100g dry soil D. 0.4g per 100g dry soil.

Biology 1990
1. Viruses are considered to be living organisms 4. Which of the following groups of invertebrates
because they reproduces by budding
A. possess transmittable characters B. move from A. Arthropoda B. Annelida C. Mollusca
one place to another C. respond to stimulation D. Coelenterata.
D. ingest food materials
5. The algae, bryophytes and pteriodophytes are
2. Which of the following characteristics is common to similar in that they
Amoeba and Paramecium? A. are sea weeds B. have no vascular tissues
A. Oral groove B. Trichoyst C. Contractile vacuole C. require moisture for fertilization
D. Cilia D. are microscopic plants.
3. Hydra removes undigested food by
A. passing it through the anus B. passing it through 6. The spores of ferns are dispersed by
the mouth C. means of a contractile vacuole A. wind B. water C. insects D. explosive
D. egesting it through the body surface. mechanism.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
7. In bryophytes, sex organs are produced in the 18. The first step in the process of photosynthesis is the
A. gametophyte B. rhizoid C. protonema A. activation of the chlorophyll B. photolysis of water
D. sporophyte C. reduction of carbondioxide D. formation of sugar.

Use the figure below to answer questions 8 and 9 19. Which of the following food substances will produce
a brick-red colour when warmed with Benedicts’s solution
A. Glucose B. Starch C. Egg white D. Maltose.

20. The organ which secretes digestive enzymes as well

as hormone is the
A. liver B. salivary gland C. pancreas D. spleen.

21. The villus in the small intestine is significant because it

A. increases the surface area for absorption
B. increases the surface area for digestion C. assists
in mixing digested food D. assists in filtering
undigested food.

22. If a ring of bark and phloem is removed from a stem, the

A. plant dies immediately B. plant dies after two days
C. movement of food is not affected D. movement of
8. The part labelled 3 is the mineral salts is hardly affected.
A. leaf scar B. lenticel C. auxiliary bud D. girdle scar
23. Transpiration can be measured with a
9. Which part of the twig produces auxins? A. photometer B. hygrometer C. potometer
A.4 B.3 C.2 D.1 D. barometer.
10. Which of the following animals has homodont
dentition? 24. Excretory products responsible for the red, purple and
A. Rat B. Man C. Lizard D. Pigeon. blue colours of flowers are called
A. alkaloids B. tannims C. anthocyanins D. resins.
11. In which of the following does external fertilization
take place? 25. Etiolation is caused by the influence of
A. Toad B. Lizard C. Bird D. Cockroach. A. mineral salts B. water C. carbondioxide D. light.

12. In the tapeworm, the suckers on the scolex are 26. Muscles are indirectly attached to bones by means of
used for A. ligaments B. membranes C. tendons D. sultures.
A. sucking the blood of the host B. holding
fast to the host C. reproduction D. locomotion Use the figure below to answer questions 27 and 28.

13. A feature which adapts birds to flight is the

possession of
A. scally legs B. light bones C. two walking legs
D. a pointed beak.

14. The nephridia in the earthworm form part of the

A. reproductive system B. respiratory system.
C circulatory system D. excretory system.

15. Which of the following diseases is rarely spread

by a housefly? 27. Which structure is the glomerulus?
A. Yellow fever B. Dysentery C. Typhoid fever A. 5 B.3 C. 2 D.1.
D. Poliomyelitis
28. If the blood is too concentrated, more water is absorbed from
16. Which of the following cells is thin-walled and A. 5 B.4 C.3 D.1
living at maturity?
A. Collenchyma B. Sieve tube C. Xylem vessel 29. During mammalian embryo development, large amount
D. Sclerenchyma. of oestrogen and progesterone are produced in the
A. umbilical cord B. amnion C. placenta D. amniotic fluid.
17. The mode of nutrition in which digestion is
extracelluar is
A. holophytic B. parasitic C. holozoic
D. saprophytic.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
30. 38.

The type of placentation shown in the figure above is What stage during cell division is represented in the
A. parietal B. marginal C. axile D. free-central. figure above
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase
31. Fruits which develop without fertilization are described as
A. simple B. pathenocarpic C. aggregate D. compound 39. An individual in the AB blood group is a universal
recipient for blood conation because
32. The elephant grass is propagated vegetatively by A. all the red blood cells do not carry antigen
means of B. all the red blood cells carry antigen A
A. corms B. bulbs C. suckers D. solons. C. all the red blood cell carry antigen B
D. there are no anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum.
Use the figure below to answer questions 27 and 28.
40. Haemophilia results from the mutation of the genes
A. in the sex chromosomes B. which control skin colour
C. which control the mechanism for blood –clotting
D. which control the formation of haemoglobin.

41. In a savanna ecosystem, the abiotic factors include

A. legumes, temperature and sandy soil
B. water, temperature and soil C. minerals, oxygen
and reptile D. water, soil and grasses.

33. All the cell bodies in the spinal cord are found in Use the figure below to answer questions 42 and 43.
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4

34. In a reflex action, impulse flows from

A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 1 C. 4 to 1 D. 4 to 2

35. The part of the ear that is concerned with balance is the
A. semi-cirular canals B. incus C. malleus D. Bastachian tube.

36. In an organism where the 2nd number of chromosomes

is 16, the number of chromosomes in each gamete will be
A. 32 B. 16 C.8 D. 4

37. What would be the result of the first filial generation

(F1) and the second filial generation (F2) of a mono- 42. Which organism is an omnivore?
hydrid cross between pure line normal-winged A. Praying mantis B. Hawk C. Mouse D. Grasshopper.
Disophila? flies and pure line short- winged flies of the
gene for the normal wing is dominant? 43. Which of the organims will have the lowest population
A. F1 flies all short –winged and F2 flies all normal –winged. in an ecosystem?
B. F1 flies all normal –winged and F2 flies all short-winged. A. Hawk. B. Cowpea C. Praying mantis D. Mouse.
C. F1 flies all short-winged and three-quarters of F2
flies are short- winged 44. The salinity of a brackish environment.
D. F1 flies all normal –winged and three –quarters of F2 A. increases immediately after rain B. increases at the
flies are normal –winged. end of the rainy season C. decreases with increase
in micro-organisms D. increases during the dry season.

45. Physiological adaptation to very dry condition in

animals is called
A. hibernation B. aestivation C. rejuvenation
D. xeromophism
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
46. Which set of diseases is spread mainly by insect vectors? 49. What do bacteria in root nodules derive from the host plant?
A. cholera, tenia and gonorrhoea. B. poliomyelitis, A. Protection and minerals B. Water and minerals.
tuberculosis and sypillis. C. cholera, malaria and C. Carbohydrates and water D. Protection and
tuberculosis D. malaria, cholera and river blindness. carbohydrates.

47. Which of the following constitutes pollution? 50. Free nitrogen is released to the atmosphere by
A. Droppings from birds B. Loud disco music A. nitrogen fixing bacteria B. nitrifying bacteria
C. A pack of cigarettes D. Refuse in an incinerator. C. denitrifying bacteria D. saprophytic bacteria.

48. An acidic soil can be improved upon by

A. Sedimentation B. Leaching C. Flocculation
D. Watering.

Biology 1991
Use the figure below to answer questions 1 and 2. 8 The annulus of fern sporangium helps in
A. spore dispersal B. conduction of mineral salt
C. trapping of light energy D. water retention.

9 One of the features which adopts paramecium to its

environment is the possession of
A. a regular shape B. two nuclei C. cilia D. a pellicle.

10 In the earthworm, the cocoon is secreted by the

A. chaeta B. prostomium C.peristomium
D. clitellum.

11. The function of maxillipeds in crayfish is to aid

A. walking B. swimming C. feeding D. respiration.

1. Which of the following structures is associated with 12. The respiratory organ in the land snail is the
aerobic respiration? A. radula B,. mantle C. tentacle D. foot.
A.1 B.2 C. 3 D.4
Use the figure below to answer questions 13 and 14.
2. The structure labelled 5 is used for
A. protein synthesis B. energy production
C. secretion D. excretion.

3. Angiosperms and gymnosperms belong to the plant

group known as
A. schizophyta B. bryophyta C. pteridopyta
D. spermatophyta. 13. The structure labelled 4 is for
A. feeding B. attachment C. excretion D. respiration.
4 Which of the following are non-green plants?
A Euglena B. Fungi C. Spirogyra D. Angiosperms. 14. As the tadpoles develops, the structure labelled 5
A. grows longer B. becomes shorter C. becomes the
5 Sting cells are normally found in hind legs D. remains unchanged.
A. flatworms B. hydra C. snails D. paramecium.
15. The gill rakers of fishes take part in
6 Which of the following are differentiated into true A. feeding B. respiration C. swimming D. diffusion.
roots, stems and leaves?
A. Algae B. Schizophyta C. Pteridophyta 16. A wide pith with a ring of conducting tissue is
D. Bryophyta characteristic of the root of
A. sunflower B. maize C. bean D. okra.
7. To facilitate gaseous exchange, breathing roots have
A. tomata B. mitochondria C. cuticle D. lenticels. 17. Which of the following is formed immediately after the
first product of photosynthesis?
A. Lipid B. Starch C. Oxygen D. Sugar
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the figure below to answer questions 18 and 19. 27. Fibriongen and prothrombin play important roles in the
A. deamination of proteins B. clotting of blood
C. detoxication of substances D. storage of vitamins.

28. Deoxygenated blood flows into the right and left lungs
through the
A. pulmonary vein B. vena cava C. pulmonary artery
D. subclavian vein .

29. Which of the following is a plant excretory product?

A. Oil B. Cytokinin C. Resin D. Amino acids.

30. The movement of the whole organism to an external

stimulus is termed
Dissection showing the Abdominal Cavity of a rat A. tropism B. a taxis C. a nastic movement
D. a phototrophic movement.
18. In the digestive system, absorption of nutrients into
the blood takes places in the part labeled 31. Which of the following vertebrate lays a centrum?
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic D. Lumbar

19. The gland which produces trypsin, amylase and lipase 32. The function of the epididymis in mammals is the
is labelLed A. expulsion of urine B. storage of sperms
A. 6 B.4 C.2 D.1 C. circulation of blood D. activation of sperms.

20. One of the accessory organs of the digestive system is the 33. A collection of achenes formed from several carpels of
A. kidney B. spleen C. liver D. lung. a flower is
A. a multiple fruit B. an aggregate fruit
21. The element common to protein, carbohydrate and lipid is C. a schizocarp D. a simple fruit.
A. hydrogen B. sulphur C. nitrogen D phosphorus.
34. Vegetative propagation is described as asexual
22. The crown of the mammalian tooth is covered with reproduction because
A. cement B. dentine C. caries D. enamel. A. reproductive organs are not involved B. new
individuals are not formed C. many new plants are
23. In living cells, insufficient oxygen may cause a produced D. there is no exchange of genetic
breakdown of glucose into materials.
A. fatty acids B. lactic acids C. glycogen
. D. carbondioxide. 35. Epigeal germination can be found in
A. sorghum B. maize C. millet D. groundnut.
24. Which of the following can bring about the greatest
increase in the rate of transpiration? 36. A dwarf plant can be stimulated to grow to normal
A. Increased humidity B. Reduced temperature height by the application of
C. Reduced wind speed D. Reduced humidity. A. thyroxin B. gibberellin C. insulin D. kinin.

Use the figure below to answer questions 25 and 26. 37. The greatest contribution to genetic studies was made by
A. Thomas Morgan B. Gregor Mendel
C. Charles Darwin D. Robert Hooke.

38. The exchange of genes between homologous

chromosomes is called
A. test cross B. back cross C. crossing –over
D. mutation.

39. When two heterozygotes mate, the dominant trait will

appear in
25. After 30 minutes, the level of sugar solution the above A. the F1 generation only B. the F2 generation only
figure will C. both the F1 and F2 generations D. neither the F1 nor
A. rise in X only B. rise in Y only C. be the same in F2 generation.
X and Y D. fall in Y.
40. Which of the following characters is NOT sex-linked?
26. The process by which water moves from X to Y through A. River blindness B. Baldness.
the semi-permeable membrane is called C. Haemophilia D. Colour Blindness
A. diffusion B. osmosis C. active diffusion
D. osmoregulation.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
41. The most important factors which influence an
organism’s way of life in its habitat are 45. Which of the following is likely to occur in a deciduous
A. the physical and biotic environment B. food and forest during the dry season?
water availability C. temperature, water, light and A. New leaves are formed B . The trees die off.
predator- prey relationship D. competition for food C. The undergrowth increases D. The ground
and space. becomes bare.

42. Organisms in an ecosystem are usually grouped 46. Which of these is NOT an adaptive feature for arboreal life?
according to their tropic level as A. Possession of a long tail B. Possession of claws
A. carnivores and epiphytes B. consumers and parasites C. Possession of teeth D. Counter shading in coat
C. producers and consumers D. producers and saprophytes. colour.

43. 47. Which of the following diseases can be prevented by

innoculation?
A. Symphilis B. Malaria fever C. Tuberculosis
D. Acquired immuned Deficiency Syndrome.

48. Sources of air pollutants are

A. industrial chimneys, burning fossil oils and river
dams B. sulphur dioxide, acid rain and pesticides
C. sulphur mines, vehicle exhausts and aerosols
D. sewage, smoke and old vehicles.
The above diagram represents a competitive interaction
49. Fertilizers are lost from the soil through
between organisms in communities I and II. Which
A. sheet erosion and evaporation B. leaching,
of the following statement is CORRECT? underground seepages and run-off
A. The population of I was higher than II at the C. sheet erosion, gully erosion and wind erosion
beginning of the experiment. B. II was wiped out from D. wind erosion and heavy rainfall.
the environment at the end of the experiment.
C. The population of II was always lower than that of I 50. Nitrogen –fixing micro-organisms in leguminous plants
D. The population of I was lower at the end of the live symbiotically in the
experiment than at the beginning. A. root nodules B. tap roots C. branch roots
D. root hairs.
44. A food web is more stable than a food chain because.
A. it contains more organisms B. it has greater energy
source C. it is not easy to destroy D. every organism
has an alternative food source.

Biology 1992
1. The organelle involved in tissue respiration is the 4. A major difference between platyhelminthes and
A. endoplasmic reticulum B. ribosome C. golgi body coelenterates is that platyhelminthes
D. mitochondrion. A. are multicellular B. have developed a mesoderm
C. reproduce sexually D. reproduce asexually.
2. A tissue can best be defined as.
A. an aggregate of similar cells B. an aggregate of cells 5. The essential structural difference between Hydra and
performing a similar function C. an aggregate of tapeworm is that while Hydra,
similar cells performing the same function A. has tentacles, tapeworm is parasitic
D. a mixture ofdifferent cell types performing the same function. B. is diploblastic, tapeworm is triploblastic C. has a
mouth, tapeworm feeds by suckers
3. Which of the following correctly summarizes the life D. has mesoderm, tapeworm has mesogloea.
cycle of a fern plant?
A. Spore prothallus thalluss porangium. B. Male and 6. The flowering period of plants in a habitat is determined
female gamentangia zygospore sporangium by the
spores. C. Spore thallus spermatozoa + A. duration of sunlight B. intensity and duration of
ovumsporangium D. Prothallus spermatozoid + egg cell rainfall. C. relative humidity of the atmosphere
leafy plant sporangium spore. D. temperature of the habitat.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the figure below to answer question 7 and 8. Use the figure below to answer questions19 and 20.

7. The structure labeled X is used by the organism in the

same way as man uses his
A. oesophagus B. trachea C. stomach D. intestine.
19. The structure labelled 5 is the
8. The structure labelled Y is the A. sweat gland B. sebaceous gland C. blood vessel
A. food vacuole B. nucleolus D. nerve fibre.
C. marcronucleus D. contractile vacuole.
20. Melanin and kerantin are produced in the part labelled
9. Which of the following insects undergoes incomplete A.2 B.3 C.4 D5.
metamorphosis?
A. mosquito B. Termite C. Housefly D. Moth. 21. The bone of the neck on which the skull rests is known as the
A. odontoid process B. axis C. atlas D. occipital condyle.
10. An onion is a bulb because it
A. has a tuberous stem B. has a reduced stem and thick 22. Which enzymes are contained in the pancreatic juice?
fleshy leaves C. has adventitious roots D. bears A. Ptyalin, lipase and pepsin B. Maltase, erepsin and
many buds at the nodes. trypsin. C. Rennin, surcrase and lipase D. Amylase.,
lipase and trypsin.
11. The flow of air and water in or out of the mesophyll
layer of a leaf is controlled by the Use the figure below to answer questions 23 and 24.
A. stomata B. lenticels C. air spaces D. guard cells.

12. Fungi are heterotrophic because they

A. have no leaves B. lack roots C. are filamentous
D. lack of chlorophyll.

13. The major site of photosynthesis in the leaf is the

A. palisade parenchyma B. mesophyll parenchyma
C. upper epidermis D. lower epidermis.

14. 5cm3 dilute sodium hydroxide solution and 5cm3 one 23. The part labeled 3 is the
percent copper sulphate solution are added to a A. cartilage B. ligament C. synovial fluid D. bone.
solution of food specimen. The purple colour which is
observed shows the presence of 24. The function of the part labeled 1 is to
A. glucose B. starch C. fat D. protein. A. secrete a fluid which lubricates the joint B. attach
muscles to the bones at the joint C. bend the bones
15. The blood vessel which carries blood from the at the joint D. hold the joint in place.
alimentary canal to the liver is the
A. hepatic artery B. hepatic vein C. hepatic portal vein 25. Double fertilization in higher plant is significant
D. mesenteric artery. because it ensures the
A. formation of a fertile embryo B. formation of a fertile
16. Gaseous exchange in Aves occurs in the embryo and the endosperm C. development of the seed
A. tracheoles B. bronchi C. air sacs D. trachea. D. development of the fruit.

17. In the absence of oxygen, the pyruvic acid produced 26. In mammalian development, the function of the yolk is to
during glycolysis is converted to Co2 and A. supply nutrients to the embryo B. acts as the shock-
A. water B glycerol C. ethanol D. citric acid. absorber to the foetus C. supply air to the embryo
D. facilitate the process of excretion in the foetus.
18. The excretory organ in insect is the
A. kidney B. malpighian tubule C. flame cell 27. Hydrogeal germination scharacterized by the
D. nephirdium. A. emergence of the plumule out of the ground
B. provision of nourishment by the endosperm
C. elongation of the hypocotyl
D. elongation of the epicotyl.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
28. Fruits which develop without fertilization of the ovule are 37. Mangrove swamp can be found
A. false B. multiple C. aggregate D. parthenocarpic. A. on a sea shore with flat terrain B. where a river
meets the sea C. on a mud flat near the sea.
Use the figure below to answer question 29 and 30 D. where two rivers meet.

38. Soil with the finest particles is called

A. silt B. clay C. sand D. gravel.

39. Malaria symptoms are caused by

A. toxins released into the blood as a result of the
destruction of red blood cells B. the multiplication
of the malarial sporozoites in the liver. C. the invasion of
the red blood cells by the trophozoiters
D. the development of merozoiters into gametocytes.

29. Which part of the curve represents the fastest rate of growth? 40. Which of the following is true of the children of a
A. K B. L C. M. D. N. haemophilic man who marries a woman that is not
haemophilic and does not carry the trait?
30. The grand period of growth is represented by A. All their sons will be haemophilic. B. All their
A. N B. M C. L. D. K. daughter will be haemophilic. C. All their daughters
will be carriers. D. All theirs sons will be carriers.
31. Neurons that receive stimuli from the body or internal
organs are called 41. A child with blood group genotype different from those
A. sensory neurons B. efferent neurons of both parents and with a mother of genotype OO,
C. motor neurons D. relay neurons. can only have a father of genotype
A. A B. B C. AB D. OO.
32. Which of the following is true of a climax community?
A. It persists until the environment or climate changes. 42. If R and r denote the genes for a character, the offspring
B. It changes drastically from one year to the next of the cross between RR and Rr are
C. It is the first stage in succession. D. It is made up of A. RR, 2Rr,rr B. 2RR,2rr C. 2RR, 2Rr D. 4Rr.
the tallest trees and the smallest animals.
43. A mammal with red fur and long ears was crossed with
33. A population is defined as a collection of similar another having white fur and short ears. If the offspring
organisms that had red fur and short ears, then the
A. behave in the same way B. interbreed freely A. characters are linked B. characters are not linked
C. are found in the same habitat D. eat the same food. C. parents are related D. parents are not related.

34. In typical predator food chain involving secondary and 44. Pawpaw seeds collected from a tree with many desirable
tertiary consumers, the organisms become progressively agronomic qualities did not give rise to plants of
A. smaller and more numerous along the food chain desirable characters as the parent because
B. equal in number and size along the food chain A. seeds are not reliable for propagating plants
C. larger and fewer along the food chain D. parasitized B. uncontrolled out-crossing can introduce unwanted
along the food chain as consumers get bigger. variability C. vegetataive propagation is the best
form of reproducion for all crops D. seeds were not
Use the figure below to answer questions 35 and 36. physiologically mature at harvest.

45. Women do not suffer from colour blindness

A. because the trait is sex-linked B. only men are colour
blind C. the genes are recessive and sex-linked
D. the genes occur on both the X and Y chromosomes.

46. The hereditary material of the cell is

A. the R N A B. protein C. the DNA D. carbohydrate .

47. An example of plant adaptation to a xerophytic

35. Which level of the pyramid has the least total stored energy? environment is represented by the development of
A. E B. F C. G D. H. A. fleshy tissues and reduced leaves B. broad canopy
and extensive surface root system C. thick barks
36. Which organism in the pyramid functions as a tertiary and broad leaves
consumer? D. rough leaves and shallow root system.
A. Algae. B. Shark. C. Tadpole. D. Tilapia.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
48. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to 50. Fossil records found in sedimentary rocks offer some
affect the animals living in a fresh water habitat? explanation for the theory of evolution because
A. Turbidity B. Temperature C. pH. D. Salinity. A. the deposits have remains of organisms
characteristic of when they were formed
49. The theory of natural selection was developed by B. different strata have remains of organisms of the
A. Lamarck and Darwin B. Darwin and Wallace same kind C. only organisms with strong parts
C. Wallace and Mendel D. Mendel and Lamarck. are fossilized D. most animals and plant fossils bear
little resemblance to present day living specimens.

Biology 1993
1. On what structures are the units of inheritance situated? Use the figures below to answer questions 10 and 11
A. Golgi bodies B. Ribosomes C. Chromosomes
D. Endoplasmic reticulum.

2. Production of naked seeds is a distinctive feature of

the group of plant called?
A. grasses B. conifers C. legumes D. palms.

3. In which of these features do bryophytes differ from

pteridophytes?
A. Absence of flower B. Alternation of generation
C. Dependence on water for reproduction
D. Presence of a vascular system. 10. Which of the following is the correct order of the
development stages?
4. Which of the following organs or cell components are A. 1 à2à3à4à5 B. 5à1à3à2à4
common to both the sporophyte and the gametophyte C. 2à1à3à4à5 D. 5à3à2à1à4.
of a fern?
A. Rhizoids B. Roots C. Chloroplasts D. Leaves. 11. Stage 3 breathes
A. with the lungs B. with the external gills C. with the
5. In which of the following organisms does a single cell internal gills D. through the skin.
perform all the function of movement , nutrition, growth,
excretion and photosynthesis? 12. The butterfly is of great economic importance because
A. Paramecium B. Euglena C. Amoeba. D. Spirogyra. A. of its use in scientific studies B. it sucks nectar from
flowers C. it adds to the beauty of the environment
6. In which of the following organisms would glycogen D. it pollinates flower of crops and other plants.
be stored?
A. Spirogyra. B. Chlamydomonas. C. Rattus 13. Manufactured food in the plants is transported through the
D. Magnifera. A. xylem B. phoem C. cambium D. cortex.
7. The most successful group of animals in terms of 14. Interveinal chlorosis is normally associated with the
diversity of species is deficiency of
A. mollusca B. arthropoda C. mammalia A. magnesium B. potassium C. iron D. calcium.
D. playthehelminthes.
15. Osmic acid boiled with a solution of food substance
8. Flame cells are the gave a black precipitate . This indicated the presence of
A. excretory system of worms B. excretory and A. fats and oils B. proteins C. amino acids D. starch.
respiratory system of flatworms C. excretory system
of flatworms D. excretory system of flatworms.

9. The spores of mucus are dispersed by

A. water B. wind C. insects D. explosive mechanism.

16. Which of the labeled parts is the diastema?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
17. The lower jaw is typical of a 27. The main function of the petal of a flower is to
A. sheep B. rabbit C. dog D. cat. A. attract pollination agents. B. protect the flower while
still in bud C. serve as landing stage for insects
18. The end products of the digestion of fats and oils in D. protect the inner parts from desiccation.
mammals are
A. maltose and fatty acids B. amino acids and glucose 28. In the mammal, the automonic nervous system consists of
C. fatty acids and fructose D. fatty acids and glycerin. A. sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
B. brain and spinal nerves C. brain and cranial nerves
Use the diagram below to answer questions 19 and 20 D. spinal cord and spinal nerves.

Use the diagram below to answer questions 29 and 30

The mammalian heart 29. In H, the cotyledons are carried above the soil because
A. the epicotyl grows faster than the hypocotyl
19. Blood is pumped into the right ventricle by the B the hypocotyl grows faster than the epicotyl
contraction of the auricle wall through C. both grow at the same rate
A. 1 B. 3 C5 D. 6. D. the epicotyls out grows the radicle.

20. After circulation in the lungs, the blood returns to the 30. The function of the structure labelled G is to
left auricle through A. carry out initial photosynthesis for the seedling
A. 1 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 B. protect the young leaves from mechanical damage
C. protect the young leaves form sunlight.
21. The main function of blood in mammals is to transport D. protect the young leaves form insect.
A. excretory materials from tissues B. carbondioxide
from lungs to tissues C. digested food from all the 31. When it is cold, the blood vessels of the skin
body tissues. D. oxygen to the lungs. A. dilate to increase the amount of blood flowing to the
skin B. constrict to reduce the amount of blood
22. Members of the phylum Protozoa use the contractile flowing to the skin. C. dilate to reduce the amount
vacuole of blood flowing to the skin D. constrict to increase
A. to remove excess food B. for movement the amount of blood flowing to the skin.
C. for digestion D. to remove excess water.
32. Which path does sound entering the human ear follow?
23. The response shown by the tips of the root and shoot A. Oval window ossicles ear drum B. ear drum oval
of a plant to the stimulus of gravity is window ossicles. C. Ear drum ossicles oval
A. haptropism B. phototropism C. hydrotropism window. D. Ossicles ear drum oval window.
D. geotropism.
33. What would happen to a man whose pancreas has been
24. Which of the following is the correct order of the surgically removed?
vertebrae along the spinal column? 4 A. The level of blood sugar would increase.
A. Axis atlas thoracic lumbar cervical sacral B. The glycogen content of the liver would increase.
B. Atlas cervical axis thoracic lumbar sacral. C. His blood pressure would decrease. 4
C. Atlas axis cervical thoracic lumbar sacral D. His weight would increase appreciably.
D. Axis cervical thoracic sacral lumbar.
34. Carnivorous plants are usually found in area
25. Which of the following is TRUE of the process of A. which are deficient in nitrate B. which are deficient
conjugation in Paramecium? in oxygen C. with low pH
A. Micronucleus disintegrates. B. Each ex-conjugant D. where insects are abundant.
divides only once. C. Macronucleus undergoes
division D. Each micronucleus divides twice. 35. What is the term used to describe the sum total of
biotic and abiotic factors in the environment of the
26. The bright colours of the comb and feathers in the organism?
peacock are for A. Habitat. B. Biome. C. Ecosystem D. Ecological niche.
A. sex differentiation B. beauty C. courtship
D. defence.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
36. Important abiotic factors which affect all plants and 45. Carbon monoxide poison tissues by
animals in the habitat are A. constricting the blood vessels B. killing the cells
A. temperature and turbidity B.rainfall and relative C. combining with haemoglobin D. rupturing the blood
humidity C. salinity and wind direction vessels.
D. temperature and rainfall.
46. Which of the following is an example of discontinuous
37. The most important physical factor which affects an variation observed in man?
organism living in the intertidal zone of the seashore is A. Skin colours B. Tongue rolling C. Body weight
A. pH B. salinity C. wave action D. temperature. D. Height.

38. At which trophic level would the highest accumulation 47. During blood transfusion, agglutination may occur when
of a non-biodegrable substance occur? A. Contrasting antigens react with contrasting
A. Primary producers. B. Tertiary consumers. C. Primary antibodies B. Similar antigens react with
consumers. D. Secondary consumers. C. two different antigens react with each other
D. two different antibodies react with each other.
39. Two organisms of different species, living in close
association but not dependent on each other are 48.
referred to as
A. parasites B. commensals C. symbiots D. autorophs
.
40. Which of the following instruments is NOT used in
measuring abiotic factors in any habitat?
A. Microscope B. Thermometer C. Hygrometer D. Wind vane.

41. Plants adapted for life in salty marsh are called

A. hydrophytes B. xerophytes B. halophytes In the illustration above, the genotypes of the
D. epiphytes. offsprings are
A. 1 heterozygous smooth : 2 homozygous smooth:
42. Which group plants would be the first colonizers in an 1 wrinkled B. 1 homozygous smooth : 2
ecological succession changing rocks to soil? heterozygous smooth 1 wrinkled
A Mosses. B. Ferns C. Lichens D. Grasses. C. 2 homozygous smooth : 2 wrinkled
D. 3 heterozygous smoo th : 1 wrinkled
43. Soil fertility can be conserved and renewed by
A. yearly mono cropping B. crop rotation and cover 49. Cold blooded animals are referred to as
crops C. bush burning to remove unwanted debris A. poikilothermic B. homoiothermic
D. avoiding artificial manures. C. polythermic D. homeostatic

44. What ecological condition favors the breeding of black flies? 50. Which of the organism has lost the pentadactyl limb
A. Fresh water habitat B. Water in ponds and swamps structure?
C. Water in small containers D. Fast flowing stream. A. Bat B. Fish C. Frog D. Pigeon.

Biology 1994

4. The soil swallowed by the earthworm to form the worm

1. The membrane surrounding the vacuole in a plant cell cast is ground up in the
is called the A. clitellium B. prostosium C. mouth D. gizzard.
A. plasmalemma B. tonoplast C. nuclear membrane
D. endoplasmic reticulum. 5. Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence
for the following plant groups?
2. The smallest living organisms which share the A. Bacteria ferns algae mosses seed plant.
characteristics of both living and non-living matter are B. Bacteria ferns mosses algae seed plants
A. bacteria B. fungi C. viruses D. protozoa. C. Bacteria algae mosses ferns seed plants
D. Bacteria mosses algae ferns seed plants.
3. Green plants are distinguished from other living
organisms by their ability to 6. In Amoeba, osmoregulation is carried out by the
A. make use of water B. make use of oxygen A. pseudopodium B. food vacuole C. contractile
C. respond to sunlight D. manufacture their own food. vacuole D. nucleus.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the diagram below to answer questions 7 and 8. 13. The failure of transport and respiratory systems in
plants as well as the presence of reddish colour in stems
and leaves result from the deficiency of
A. magnesium B. nitrogen C. potassium D. phosphorus.

14. The dental formula I 3 C1 pm4 m2 is that of a

3 1 4 3
A. goat B. rabbit C. man D. dog

15. The nitrifying bacteria, Nitrosomonas, convert ammonia to

A. nitrites B. nitric acid C. nitrates D. nitrous oxide.

16. The activity of ptyalin of ptyalin is likely to decrease

with an increase in the concentration of
A. oxygen B. starch C. protein D. acid.

17. The phloem parenchyma is sometimes used for

A. food storage B. supporting the stem C. production
Head of a cockroach of the sieve tube D. transporting water.
7. The part used for feeling is labelled
A. 1 B. J C. K D. L. 18. The process by which a red blood cell placed in distilled
water absorbs until it bursts and releases its contents
8. The mouth part of the insect is adapted for into the surrounding is known as
A. biting and chewing B. suckling and chewing A. osmosis B. plasmolysis C. turgidity D. haemolysis.
C. biting and sucking D. piercing and sucking.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 19 and 20.
9. Which of the following combinations differentiates a
bony fish from a cartilaginous fish? I Presence of gills.
II Absence of gill slits III Possession of bony skeleton
IV Possession of laterally compressed body V
Possession of dorso ventrally compressed body
A. I,II and II. B. I, III and IV. C. II, III and IV.
D. II, III and V.

10. Which is the most important adaptation of a bony fish

to life in water?
A. The possession of a streamlined shape
B. The presence of overlapping scales
C. The covering of the body by thin film of shine.
D. The possession of a caudalfin. 19. The most appropriate title for the set up is
A. quantitative measurement of respiration in plants
Use the diagram below to answer questions 11 and 12 and animals B. measurement of respiratory rates in
living organisms C. comparison between
photosynthesis and respiratory
D. comparison of respiratory rates in plants and animals.

20. The part labeled J is called

A. porosimeter B. porometer C. manometer
D. auxanometer.

21. A circulatory system that does not allow mixing of

oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood in mammalian
heart is referred to as
A. open B. haemocoelic C. single D. closed.

11. Which of the labeled part allows for efficient absorption 22. Which of the following waste products in plant is
of water and mineral? excreted through the stomata and lenticels?
A. I. B. II C. III. D. IV. A. Carbondioxide B. Alkaloids. C. Tannins
D. Anthocyanins.
12. Starch is usually stored in the part labelled
A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the diagram below to answer questions 23 and 24. Use the list of ecological constituents below to answer
questions 30 and 31

1. Mango 2. Speargrass 3. Goat 4. Sheep

5. Temperature 6. Beans 7. Rock 8. Water.

3 0. Items 1-4 can be regarded as

A. a population B. a community C. an ecosystem
D. a niche.

31. The physical factors are represented by

A.1,5,6, B. 4,5,7, C. 5,7,8, D. 6,7,8.

32. Which of the following sets is made up of decomposers?

23. The vertebra illustrated is A. Rhizopus, earthworm and protozoa
A. lumbar B. thoracic C. caudal D. cervical. B. Mushroom, rhizopus and bacteria
C. Bacteria, earthworm and nematodes
24. The neural arch is labelled D. Earthworm, sedges and platyhelminthes.
A. I. B. II C. III D. IV.
33. The correct order in a food chain involving the
25. In animals, meiosis comes organisms (1) Grasses, (2) Hawks, (3) Snakes, (4)
A. after fertilization B. after every mitotic division Grasshopper, (5) Lizards is
C. before fertilization D. before every mitotic division. A. 1 2 3 4 5 B. 5 4 3 2 1 C. 1 4 5 3 2 D. 3 2 4 5 1.

26. The fleshy base of a flower to which the different floral 34. The organisms with the least number of individuals in
parts are attached is known as a pyramid of numbers are the
A. calyx B. sepals C. thalamus D. hypothalamus. A. secondary consumers B. tertiary consumers
C. primary producers D. primary consumers.
27. When a short-sighted person views a distant object
without spectacles, the image is formed Use the list of blomes below toanswer questions 35 and 36.
A. on the retina B. in front of the retina C. behind the retina
D. on the blind spot. 1. Desert 2. Rain forest 3. Southern Guinea
savannah 4. Northern Guinea savannah.
28.
35.. A biome with a low annual rainfall, few scattered trees
within dense layer of grasses and found in Kano and
Katsina States is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3. D. 4

36. A biom where small mammals undergo aestivation for

long periods is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3. D. 4

37. Ecological sucession ends with the formation of a stable

A. nich B. population C. pioneer community
D. climax community

38. In a drought situation, plants suffer from water stress

The graph shows the relationship between the body which could result in
and atmospheric temperatures for dog and lizard. What A. reduced biochemical activities B. enhanced
is the most appropriate deduction that could be made chemical activities C. enhanced microbial activities
form the graph? D. reduced phototropic activities.
A. Lizards are more likely to survive hazards than dogs.
B. Both animals maintain a constant body temperature 39. The water-retention capacity of a soil indicates its
C. The dog’s body temperature is independent of the A. fertility B. capillarity C. aeration level D. pH level.
external temperature. D. The lizard’s body
temperature varies with that of the dog. 40. People who suck petrol with their mouths run the risk
of increasing in their blood the concentration of
29. The part of the brain that controls heart beat and A. iron B. lead C. calcium D. magnesium.
breathing is the
A. olfactory lobe B. cerebellum 41. The differences and similarities among living things
C. cerebral hemisphere D. medulla oblongata. account for
A. diversity B. stability C. competition D. evolution.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
42. People with sickle-cell anaemia have haemoglobin 46. A man who has the trait for colour blindness marries a
A. S and are homozygous recessive normal woman. What percentage of their children would
B. A and are heterozygous recessive be sufferers, carriers and normal respectively?
C. S and are heterozygous recessive A. 25% and 50% B. 25%, 50% and 25%
D. A and are homozygous recessive. C. 50%, 25% and 25% D. 25%, 37.5% and 37.5%.

43. In the gene locus for eye colour in humans, the allele 47. Breathing root is an adaptation for survival in the
for brown eyes is dominant over the allele for blue eyes. A. mangrove swamp B. desert C. arboreal habitat D. savanna.
If a homozygous brown-eyed girl has a brother with
blue eyes , what are the likely phenotypes of their 48. Red coloration on the head of a male lizard helps it to
parents’ eye colour? (Eye colour is not a sex-linked trait). A. mark its territory B. camouflage in the environment
C. secure its mate D. defend itself.
A. Both parents have blue eyes. B. Their father has
blue eyes and their mother has brown eyes. 49. A phenomenon by which an animal goes into a state of
C. Both parents have brown eyes. D. Their mother dormancy during the dry season is called
has blue eyes and their father has brown eyes. A. hibernation B. aestivation C. incubation
D. deactivation.
44. If a woman’s genotype is Tt Qq Rr, what would be the
gene content of her eggs? 50. The anatomical evidence usually used in support of
A. TQr tqr B. TQR, tqr C. TqR, tQr D. tQr, TQR. all evolutionary relationship among whales, humans,
birds and dogs is the possession of
45. The sex-linked defect in which very slight cut produces A. thick skin B. pentadactyl limb C. tail
severe bleeding is known as D. epidermal structures.
A. anaemia B. anorexia C. haemophilia D. haemolysis
.

Biology 1995
1. Which of the following does a virus have in common 4. Protein-like bodies are borne on the part labelled
with animal cells? A. II B. III C. IV D. V.
A. Nucleus B. DNA C. Glycogen D. Cytoplasm.
5. The sexual reproductive functions is performed by the
2. Which of the following organelles are likely to be present part labelled
in cells that are actively respiring and photosynthesizing? A. I B. II C. IV D. V
A. Nucleolus and centrioles B. Mitochondria and
chloroplast. C. Lysosomes and ribosomes 6. Which of the following is transmitted through mosquito bite?
D. Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum. A. Filariasis. B. Typhus. C. Plague. D. Schistosomiasis.

3. One common characteristic of fungi, algae, mosses and 7. Which of the following insects lays its eggs in horny,
ferns is that they purse-like cases?
A. show alternation of generations B. reproduce A. Mosquito. B. Butterfly. C. Termite. D. Cockroach.
sexually by conjugation C. produce spores that are
dispersed D. possess chlorophyll II in their tissues. 8. In which of the following vertebrates does the skin
function as a respiratory surface?
Use the diagram below to answer question 4 and 5 A. Rat. B. Lizard. C. Fish D. Frog.

9. Birds maintain their body temperature with the help of their

A. blood which maintains constant temperature
B. feathers which cover the body C. skin which
conserves moisture D. veins which transport fluid
of constant temperature to all body tissues.

10. Secondary thickening in dicotyledonous stem is

controlled by the A. xylem B. phloem C. cambium
D. pericycle.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
11. 2H20 -2H2 + O2(g). The equation above represents a part 23. The term caryopsis is used to describe a fruit in which the
of the light stage of photosynthesis. Which of the A. testa and pericarp are separate B. seed and
following must be present for this reaction to occur? endocarp are fused C. testa and pericarp are
A. Enzyme and light energy. B. carbondioxide and light fused D. seed coat and fruit wall are impermeable.
energy. C. Light energy and chlorophyll II.
D. Chlorophyll and enzyme. 24. The sex of a foetus is determined during
A. meiosis B. copulation C. fertilization D. placentation.
12. In an experiment to investigate the effect of nitrogen
on the growth of plants, the substrate should be a 25. Biological growth refers strictly to an increase in the
medium of A. protoplasm of an organism B. number of organisms
A. washed and sand B. saw dust C. cow dung D. clay soil. C. size of an organism D. development of form.

13. Which vitamin plays an important role in blood clotting? 26. The process of walking is under the control of the part
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin B12. D. Vitamin C. of the brain called
A. optic lobe B. olfactory lobe C. cerebellum
14. The mammalian organ which acts both as a digestive D. medulla oblongata.
and as an endocrine organ is the
A. oesophagus B. liver C. pancreas D. spleen. 27. The gland directly affecting metabolic rate, growth and
development is known as
15. Which of the following is NOT involved in the transport A. adrenal gland B. thyroid gland
of substances in the body? C. mammary gland D. parathyroid gland.
A. Lymph B. Plasma C. Leucocytes D. Erythrocytes.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 28 and 29
16. The end product of glycolysis in plants and animals is
A. pyruvic acid B. citric acid C. aspartic acid
D. malic acid.

17. During respiration, air circulates round plant tissues via the
A. lenticels B. stomata C. guard cells
D. intercellular spaces.

18. The excretory structure in the earthworm is the

A. malpighian tubule B. flame cell C. nephridium
D. kidney.
19. During the bending of the arm, the biceps muscle
A. contracts and the triceps muscle relaxes 28. The diagram represents
B. relaxes and the triceps muscle contracts A. sensory neurone B. relay neurone
C. and the triceps muscle contract D. and the triceps C. afferent neurone D. motor neurone.
muscle relax.
29. The part labelled X is the
20. When a healthy shoot of a flowering plant is illuminated A. axon B. cell body C. terminal dendrites D. synapse.
from one side, auxins accumulate on the
A. non-illuminated side of the shoot 30. Which of the following ions is involved in the
B. illuminated side of the shoot C. upper side of conduction of the nerve impulse?
the shoot D. lower side of the shoot. A. C a2+ B. K+ C. H+ D. Mg2+.

Use the diagram below to answer questions 21 and 22. 31. The depth of illumination in a water body can be
measured with a
A. photometer B. secchi disc C. hydrometer
D. anemometer.

32. In a food chain involving a primary producer, a primary

consumer as well as a secondary consumer, the sharing
of trophic energy is in the form that the
A. primary consumer has more energy than the primary
producer B. secondary consumer takes up all the
energy contents of the primary consumer
21. The type of placentation shown is C. energy is shared equally between the three groups
A. axial B. marginal C. parietal D. central of organism. D. secondary consumer gets only a
small portion of the energy contained in the primary
22. An example of a plant having the placentation shown is producer.
A allamander B. hibiscus C. water lily
D. pride of Barbados.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
33. In spite of the removal of carbondioxide from the 41. The DNA molecules is a chain of repeating
atmosphere, its amount remains more or less constant A. nucleosides B. nitrogenous bases
because C. sugar Sphosphates D. nucleotides.
A. it is produced by green plants during
photosynthesis. B. it is produced during respiration 42. The specific number of chromosomes in each somatic
by animals C. it is absorbed in ocean water cell is represented by
D. green plants release it during the day. A. 2N B. 23 C. 2N D N.

34. In a tropical rain forest, non-epiphytic ferns and fern 43. A man with blood group A is married to a woman with
allies occur as blood group A. Which of the following group
A. middle storey species B. upper storey species combinations is possible if the family has three children?
C. shade-loving species D. emergent species. A. B, A, AB. B. O.A,B. C. B, AB, AB.
D. A,O,A.
35. Colonization of a bare rock surface is termed
A. evolution B. speciation C. primary succession 44. The F, of a cross between a tall and a dwarf plant was
D. secondary succession. tall The F was advanced to F2. How many of 120F2 plant
will be dwarf?
36. Which of the following is a measure for the control of A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120.
bilharzias?
A. Cutting low bushes around homes 45 The sons of a colour-bind woman will be colour blind
B. Application of molluscicides in water bodies regardless of the state of the father because
C. Screening windows and doors with mosquito nets. A. the egg determines the phenotype of the son
D. Application of herbicides in water bodies. B. sons inherit the sex chromosomes of their mothers
C. the father’s sex chromosome is weaker in sons
37. Some of the diseases caused by bacteria are D. sex-linked traits express dominance in females.
A. tuberculosis, gonorrhoea and syphills
B.tuberculosis, gonorrhoea and AIDS 46 The slender, long and slightly curved beak of the sun-
C. Poliomyelitis, syphilis and gonorrhoea bird is an adaptation for feeding on
D. AIDS, cholera and tuberculosis. A. nectar B. small seeds C. big seeds D. insects.

38. Environmental pollutants which can work through the 47. Scales on reptiles are a feature for
media of water, soil and air include A. conserving water B. conserving food C. protecting
A. carbon monoxide B. noise the skin D. locomotion.
C. sulphur (IV) oxide D. smoke.
48 The colour of the ventral surface of a fish is lighter
39. Human height is an example of a feature which depends than that of the dorsal. This is mainly
on both A. an adaptation for moment B. an adaptation for
A. genotype and phenotype B. genetic and camouflage C. for attracting mates
environmental factors C. mother’s genotype and D. for regulating body temperature.
environmental factors. D. phenotipic and environmental
factors. 49. The least evidence in support of the theory of
evolution is provided by the study of
40. A person with type O blood can donate to a patient A. anatomy B. ecology C. geology D. embryology.8
with type A because the donor’s blood
A. lacks antigens B. lacks anti-A antibodies 50. From which group of animals are the mammals generally
C. lacks anti-B antibodies D. has both anti-A and believed to have most recently evolved?
anti-B antibodi\s. A. Reptiles. B. Fishes. C. Amphibians. D. Birds.

Biology 1997
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2. 1. The structure labelled I is the
A. Golgi body B. mitochondrion
C. endoplasmic reticulum D. vacuole.

2. Protein is synthesized in the part labelled

A. I B. II C. III D. IV.

3. Which of the following is the youngest plants tissue?

A. Meristem. B. Phloem C. Epidermis. D. Xylem.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
4. Virus differ from all forms of life because they 16. A food substance was treated with a few drops of Sudan
A have a thick cell wall B. feed on waste products III solution and a red coloration was obtained. The
of other organisms C. cause infectious food contained
diseases D. require other living cells to multiply. A. protein B. starch C. fat D. mineral salt.

5. The endoblast cells found in Hydra are used for 17. Oozing out of water from the leaves of plants in a humid
A. reproduction B. offence and defence environment is known as
C. locomotion and nutrition D. food collection. A. transpiration B. osmosis C. pinocytosis D. guttation

6. Annelids differ from nematodes in that they 18. The element that is essential for the coagulation of
A. exhibit bilateral symmetry B. are triploblastic blood is
C. are metamerically segmented D. possess complete A. potassium B. calcium C. phosphorus D. iron.
digestive system.
19. Anaerobic respiration differs aerobic respiration by
7. Which of the following perform similar functions? the production of
A. Ascospores and ascocarp. B. antherozoids and A. less amount of energy and water B. greater amount
rhizoid. C. Sorus and indusium. D. Strobili and of energy and alcohol C. less amount of energy
inflorescence. and alchohol. D. Greater amount of energy water.

8. In ferns, the saprophyte 20 Stomata pores open when there is

A. develops from a haploid zygote B. reproduces A. an increase in the sugar content of guard cells
sexually to produce spores C. is haploid and B. a decrease in the osmotic concentration of guard
dependent on the gametophyte D. is diploid and cells C. a decrease in the sugar content of
independent of the gametophy. mesophyll cells d. an increase in the sugar content
of mesophyll cells.
9. The group of insects that undergoes complete
metamorphosis is 21. The process of deamination is essential for the
A. houseflies, beetles and cockroaches B. cockroaches, A. digestion of protein B. secretion of bile
grasshoppers and bees C. houseflies, beetles and C. formation of urea D. formation of antibody.
butterflies D. aphids, grasshoppers and butterflies
. 22. A band of connective tissue linking two bones in a
10. The nitrogenous substance that is excreted by birds in joint is known as
order to conserve water is A. tendon B. cartilage C. synovial membrane
A. ammonia B. urea C. uric acid D. nitric acid. D. ligament.

11. In mammals, the exchange of nutrients and metabolic 23. The appendicular skeleton is composed of the pectoral girdle
products occurs in the A. pelvic girdle, fore and hind limbs B pelvic girdle
A. lymph B. lungs C. heart D. liver. and fore limbs C. lumbar vertebrae and pelvic
girdle D. lumbar vertebrae, fore and hind limbs.
12. The part of the stomach nearer the gullet is called the
A. epiglottis B. cardiac sphincter C. duodenum 24. The companion cells are part of the
D. pyloric sphincter. A. pericycle B. phloem C. pith D. xylem

13. Trace elements are required by plants mainly for the 25. In which of the following groups of vertebrates would
A. formation of pigments and enzymes the largest amount of yolk be found in the egg?
B . production of energy and hormones A. Mammals B. Fishes. C. Amphibians. D. Reptiles.
C. manufacture of carbohydrates
D. manufacture of proteins. Use the diagram below to answer questions 26 and 27.

Use the diagram below to answer questions 14 and 15.

26. The function of the part labeled V is for the passage of

A. pollen tube and pollen nucleus B. air, water and
pollen nucleus C. air, antipodal cells and ovum
D. synergids and egg cell.
14. The part that is similar to bone is labelled
A. IV B. III C. II D. I. 27. The female gamete is represented by
15. The parts labelled I and II constitute the A. I B. II C. III D. IV.
A. crown B. neck C. root D. gum
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
28. 38. After a heavy rainfall and the formation of a large pond,
the most likely sequence of changes in the vegetation
of the pond is
A. Euglena- water lily –Spirogyra-grass B. water lily
– Spirogyra grass – Euglena C. Spirogyra –
Euglena – grass – water lily D. Euglena –
Spirogyra – water lily – grass.

39. In a soil sample, the relative amounts of the different

The type of vegetable reproduction illustrated in the soil particles can best be determined by the process of
diagram above is A. filtration B. centrifugation C. precipitation
A. grafting B. adventitious bud C. sucker D. sedimentation.
D. aerial layering.
40. Which is the most important pollutant of the marine
29. Coconut and oil palm fruits can be grouped as environment in Nigeria?
A. berry B. legume C. Capsule D. drupe. A. Insecticides B. Sewage C. Oil D. Inorganic
fertilizers.
30. The substance that is responsible for apical dominance
in plants is known as 41. One of the most effective ways of controlling guinea
A. gibberellin B. tannin C. auxin D. kinin. worm is by
A. treating the disease B. public enlighten men
31. The part of the brain that regulates most biological campaigns. C. accelerating rural development
cycles in humans is D. provision of portable drinking water.
A. olfactory lobe B. optic lobe C. medulla oblongata
D. pineal body. 42. During binary fission in lower organisms, the nucleus
is known to undergo
32. The ability of the eye to focus on both near and distant A. mitosis B. meiosis C. fragmentation D. mutation.
objects is termed
A. image formation B. refraction C. hypermetropia 43. One reason for the success of Mendel’s work is that he
D. accommodation. A. was the first to carry out research work on modern
genetics B. introduced quantitative and qualitative
33. The speed of wind can be measured with an instrument called elements into his work C. selected two characteristics
A. hydrometer B. secchi disc C. anemometer only at a time for study D. drew up his laws of
D. wind vane. inheritance based on his knowledge of chromosomes.
34. 44. The homozygo condition Hbs Hbs results in sickle cell
anaemia whereas HbA Hbs has the sickling trait. What is
the probability that a couple with the sickling trait will
give birth to one normal child?
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/8 D. 0.

45. Which of the following characters is NOT sex-linked?

Which organism in the food-web illustrated above is A. Albinism B. Baldness. C. Haemophilia
an omnivore? C. Colour blindness.
A. Weevils. B. Rat. C. Hawk. D. Praying mantis.
46. Water loss is regulated in plants and animals by both the
35. Toads and lizards in an ecosystem depend on a limited A. scales and the skin B. scales and the hair
quantity of food. This is an example of C. thick leaves and the feathers D. leathery curticle
A. parasitism B. intraspecific competition C. predation and the feathers.
D. interspecific competition.
47. What combination of characters should a prey develop
36. Adaptive features of plants to desert conditions include to survive in the environment of its predator?
A. thick barks, succulent stems and sunken stomata A. Camouflage, well developled limbs and effective
B. thin barks, succulent stems and sunken stomata vision. B. Showy colour, big body and well
C. thin barks, air floats on stems and sunken stomata developed limbs. C. Camouflage, big body and
D. air spaces in tissues, adventitious roots and thick barks. effective vision. D. Show colour, well developed
muscles and an acute sense of smell.
37. The Southern Guinea Savanna differs from the Northern
Guinea Savanna in that it has 48. The three classes in a termitarium are
A. lower rainfall and shorter grasses B. less grasses A. soldiers, queen and workers B. workers, soldiers
and scattered trees C. more rainfall and taller and reproductives C. soldiers, workers and
grasses D. less arboreal and burrowing animals. kings D. kings, queen and soldiers.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
49. Fossil records found in sedimentary rocks offer some 50. Long neck in giraffes is used illustrate the theory of
explanation for the theory of evolution because A. use and disuse B. origin of species C. origin of life
A. the deposits have remains of organisms D. natural selection.
characteristic of when they were formed B. different
strata have remains of organisms of the same kind of
only organisms with strong parts are fossilized
D. most animal and plant fossils bear little resemblance
to present day living specimens.

Biology 1998
1. The nucleus is considered the control organelle of a 9. The structures that prevent food particles from
cell because it escaping through the fish gills are called gill
A. contains the genetic material B. contains the nuclear A. arches B. filaments C. rakers D. lamellae.
sap C. is bounded by the nuclear membrane
D. is located at the centre of the cell. 10. A distinguishing feature of mammals is the possession of
A. skin B. scale C. nail D. hair.
2. The procaryotic cell type is characterized by a
A. complex cytoplasm in which different regions are 11. Which of the following structures is capable of
poorly defined . B. localization of differ regions of producing more tissues in the stem of a herbaceous
the cell into tissues. C. collection of organelles and flowing plant?
macromolecular complexes D. simple cytoplasm A. Epidermis B. Pericycle C. Xylem D. Cambium.
with well-defined regions.
12. The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants takes
3. The natural tendency of organism as they evolve is to place only in
A. decrease in size B. increase in number C. develop A. the leaves B. the green stems C. chlorophylous
specialized structures D. feed indiscriminately. parts D. flowering plants.

4. In snails, the hard calcareous shells are secreted by the 13. In a water culture experiment, a plant showed poor
A. radula B. ctendium C. pneumostome D. mantle growth and yellowing of the leaves. These may be due
to deficiency of
Use the diagram below to answer questions 5 and 6. A. copper B. iron C. magnesium D. calcium.

14. In million’s test, when the reagent is added to a protein

food item, a white precipitate is produced which turns
A blue on heating B. yellow on heating
C. green on heating D. red on heating.

15. Regulation of blood sugar level takes place in the

A. pancreas B. ileum C. liver. D. kidney.
5. The structure labelled I is formed as a result of the
fusion of 16. Unicellular organisms transport essential nutrients
A. two pairs of nuclei B. several pairs of nucleis directly to all parts of their bodies by the process of
C. a pair of nuclei D. two pairs of nucleoli. diffusion because, they have
A. a large volume to surface area ratio B. a large s
6. The special name of the part labelled II is urface area to volume ratio C. their bodies immersed
A. gemetangium B. hypha C. suspensor in the nutrients D. their outer membrane made of
D. zygospore cellulose.

7. The ability of the cockroach to live in cracks and 17. The heat of the adult frog consists of
crevices is enhanced by the possession of A. two auricles and two ventricles B. one auricle and
A. wings and segmented body B. compound eyes one ventiricle B. one auricle and one ventricle
C. claws on the legs D. dorso-ventrally flattened body. C. two ventricles and one auricles D. one ventricle
and two auricles.
8. The case of termites that lacks pigmentation is the
A. king B. worker C. solder D. queen.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
18. In adult mammalian blood, the cells which lack nucleus are the A. An increase in biomass B. A decrease in the
A The diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax efficiency of energy conversion C. An increase in
B. The thoracic cavity increases in volume the numbers of resulting individuals
C. The diaphragm and intercostals muscles contract D. A decrease in the resulting biomass.
D. The diaphragm contracts and the intercostals
muscles to relax. 30. The condition that encourages denitrification is
A. low soil oxygen B. high soil nitrogen C. absence of
19. Which of the following movement occur during soil bacteria D. lightning and thunderstorm.
exhalation?
A. the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals muscles relax. 31. A freshwater plant such as water lily can solve the
20. In which of the following groups of animals is the problem of buoyancy by the possession of
Malpighian tubule found? A. aerenchymarous tissues B. dissected leaves
A. Lizards, snakes and frogs B. Crickets, houseflies C.. thin cell walls of the epidermis
and grasshoppers C. Millipedes, centipedes and D. water-repelling epidermis.
scorpions D. Earthworms, roundworms and
flatworms. 32. The sequence of the biomes in Nigeria from Port
Harcourt to Damaturu is
21. Which of the following is not a function of the A. estuarine ’! rain forest ’! Guinea savannah ’! Sahel
mammalian skeleton? savannah B. rain forest ’! Guinea savannah ’!
A. Protection B. Respiration C. Transportation estuarine ’! desert C. estuarine ’! Guinea savannah
D. Support. ’! rain forest ’! Sahel savannah D. rain forest ’!
estuarine ’! Guinea savannah ’! desert.
Use the diagram below to answer question 23 and 22.
33. Soil micro-organisms are beneficial because of their
involvement in
A. photosynthesis B. translocation C. cycling of
nutrients D. respiration using soil air.

34. Which of the following groups of diseases are

associated with water? I Onchocerciasis II
Schistosomiasis III. Dracunculiasis IV. Elephantiasis V.
Taeniasis.
A. I,II and III B. II, IV and V C. II, III and IV
22. The ovary represented is D. I, II and V.
A. half-superior B. inferior C. superior D. half-inferior. 35. One of the ways in which body cells differ from gamete
cells is in the
23. The corolla is partly represented by A. type of centromeres they contain B. number of
A. I B. II C. III D. IV . chromosome pairs they contain C. type of
chromatids they contain D. number of
24. The most reliable estimate of growth is by measuring chromosomes they contain.
changes in
A. length B. volume C. surface area D. dry weight. 36. In blood transfusion, agglutination occurs when
A. white blood cells from two individuals meet
25. A dry fruit formed from two or more carpels containing B. two different antibodies meet C. two different
several seeds is a antigens meet D. contrasting antigens and
A. follicle B. legume C. capsule D. schizocarp. antibodies meet.

26. The outermost embryonic membrane in the mammal is the Use the diagram below to answer question 37 and 38.
A. amnion B. chorion C. allantois. D. yolk sac.

27. The small masses of nervous tissues in which many

neurons have their nuclei are called
A. dorsal roots B. ventral roots C. ganglia
D. synapses.

28. A group of organisms of different species living in a

particular area is described as a
A. colony B. community C. population D. niche.
The alternate depletion patterns of mineral resources over time.
29. Which of the following is the direct consequence of 37. The unrestricted pattern is presented by
transferring energy from one trophic level to another? A. I B. II C. III D. IV.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
38. The line that represents efficient recycling combined Use the diagram below to answer questions 45 and 46.
with stringent conservation is
A. IV B. III C. II D. I.

39. After one week of life, the weights of five chicks of the
same sex hatched simultaneously from the eggs the
same hen and fed on the same diet were 45g, 40g 35g,
33, and 30g. This is an example of
A. growth rate B. natural selection C. variation
D. mutation.
45. The bird’s bill adapted for fishing is labeled
40. The phenotype of an individual can be summed up as AI B. II C. III D. IV.
the
A. totality of the expressed traits B. individual’s 46. Toes of the feet ending in a sharp, curved hook suitable
physical appearance C. individual’s entire genetical for holding and tearing are most likely to belong to the
make-up D. physiological traits of the individual. bird with the bill in
A. I B. II C. III D. IV.
41. The correct increasing order of size for the cell
compoents responsible for heredity is 47. In the honey bee colony, the drones are
A. chromosome DNA nucleus gene A sterile males with reduced mouth parts B. sterile
B. DNA Gene chromosome nucleus ales with well-developed mouth parts C. fertile
D. Chromosome nucleus DNA gene males with reduced mouth parts D. fertile males
D. DNA gene nucleus chromosome. with well-developed mouth parts.

42. A sex-linked character cannot be passed on directly 48. In the whistling pine leaves are reduced to brown scale
from and young stems are green. This is an adaptation for
A. father to son B. mother to daughter C. mother to A. obtaining food B. conserving nutrients C. storing
son D. father to daughter. water D. reducing transpiration.

43. The biological association that contributes directly to 49. The best explanation for the theories of natural selection
succession in a community is is that
A. competition B. predation C. parasitism A all organisms have equal capacity for survival in
D. commensalism. their habitats B. organisms have varying capacities
for survival in their habitats C. organisms compete
44. The group of insects that have mouth parts adapted or resources and better competitors survive and
for both piercing and sucking is thrive D. habitats allow only organisms that will
A. cockroaches, aphids and mosquitoes B. aphids, not have to complete for survival.
houseflies and moths C. mosquitoes, tsetse flies and
aphids D. aphids, beetles and grasshoppers. 50. The basic point of impact by changes which produce
mutation is the
A. gametes B. chromosomes C. phenotype D. zygote.

Biology 1999
1. The habitat of the cysticercus of Taenia solium is 5. The structure that is most commonly identified in all
A. alimentary canal of cattle B. muscles of pig living cells under the light microscope is the
C. alimentary canal of pig D. muscles of cattle A. mitochondrion B. chloroplast
C. nucleus D. ribosome
2. The organism that has a hydrostatic skeleton is
A. Tilapia B. Hydra C. Mosquito larva 6. Which of the following is an organ?
D. Earthworm A. guard cell B. liver C. xylem bundle D. blood

3. These possession of scales, laying of eggs with shells Use the diagram below to answer questions 7 and 8
and bony structure of the head are characteristics s
hared by
A. birds and reptiles B. fishes and birds
C. reptiles and fishes D. birds and molluscs

4. The group of Arthropods that has no antennae is the

A. crustacca B. chilopoda C. arachnida
D. diplopoda
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
7. The structure labelled II is used for 19. The richest sources of vitamin A are
A. tasting B. feeling C. biting D. sucking A. palm oil and groundnut oil B. palm oil and carrots
C. rice and groundnut oil D. oranges and carrots
8. The structure labelled III represents the
A. mandible B. palp C. proboscis D. labium 20. The force that holds water together in the form of a
stream within the xylem tube is the
9. The division of a body into two equal halves along a l A. cohesion of water molecules to one another by
ongitudinal plane is called hydrogen bonds B. force of gravity attracting
A. bilateral symmetry B. transverse section the water molecules through the hydrogen bonds
C. radial symmetry D. longitudinal section C. attraction between the water and xylem by osmotic force
D. normal flow of water from the ground with the help
10. In which of the following organisms does each cell of gravitational force.
combine the function of nutrition, reproduction and growth?
A. Rhizopus B. Dryopteris C. Brachymenium 21. Yellowing of leaves is a symptom associated with
D. Spirogyra deficiency of
A. iron, calcium and magnesium B. nitrogen, sulphur
11. The key event in the transition of the amphibians from and potassium C. sulphur, phosphorus and iron
water to land is the D. magnesium, nitrogen and iron
A. replacement of the gills with lungs B. possession
of webbed limbs C. development of long hind 22. The lymphatic system of mammals rejoins the blood
C. limbs. D. possession of tympanic circulatory system at the
membrane A. hepatic vein B. subclavian vein C. renal vein
D. common iliac vein
12. In plant cells, the chloroplasts are located
A. inside the cell wall B. outside the protoplasm 23. In dissection, the rib cage of a mammal has to be opened
C. within the vacuole D. within the cytoplasm in order to expose the
A. diaphragm B. liver C. heated D. sternum
13. In woody stems, gaseous exchange take place through the
A. micropyles B. stomata C. lenticels 24. Fertilization in humans usually takes place in the
D. vessels A. lower part of the uterus B. upper part of the uterus
C. lower part of the oviduct D. upper part of the
14. Substances manufactured by the leaves are transported oviduct
to other parts of the plant through the
A. xylem B. companion cells C. sieve tubes 25. Insects visit flowers in order to
D. cambium A. feed on the nectar B. deposit pollen on the stigma
C. pollinate the flowers D. transfer pollen from anthers
15. After a meal of yam has been digested the highest
concentration of glucose is to be found in the 26. In epigeal germination, the cotyledons are
A. hepatic artery B. pulmonary vein A. carried above the ground by the elongating hypocotyls
C. hepatic portal vein D. posterior vena cava B. pulled underground by the elongating hypocotyls
C. pulled underground by the elongating epicotyl
16. The dark reaction of photosynthesis involves D. carried above the ground by the elongating epicotyl
A. fixation of carbon (IV) oxide to give a six-carbon sugar
B. fixation of carbon (IV) oxide with the help of oxygen 27. Bacteria multiply rapidly by means of
C . use of carbon (IV) oxide to produce glucose using ATP A. budding B. fragmentation C. binary fission
D. uhfixation of carbon (IV) oxide on chlorophyll using hydrogen D. spore formation

17. Mammals acclimatize to reduced oxygen content at 28. The correct sequence for the operation of smell in mammals is
high altitudes by A. chemicals àolfactory nerve endingsà brain
B. dissolved chemicals à nasal sensory cell àbrain
A. the stimulation of marrow to reduce the amount of C. chemicals àmucus membrane à sensory cells à brain
erythrocytes produced B. increasing the rate at D. dissolved chemicals à sensory cells àolfactory nerve
which erythrocytes are destroyed à brain
C. the stimulation of marrow to produce more Use the diagram below to answer questions 29 and 30
erythrocytes D. increasing the breakdown of the
protein portion of the erythrocytes

18. The modes of nutrition in Nitrobacteri Ascaris and

Homo sapiens respectively are
A. photosynthetic B. chemosynthetic, parasitic and
holozoic C. photosynthetic, parasitic and
heterophytic D. chemosynthetic, holophytic
and holozoic
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
29. The part labelled III is for Use the diagram below to answer questions 40 and 41
A. protection B. insulation C. lubrication
D. growth

30. The structure labelled II is known as

A. sweat gland B. lymph vessel C. blood vessel
D. nerve ending

31. In mammals, the organ which performs digestive and

endocrine functions is the
A. liver B. pancreas C. gastric gland D. salivary gland

32. The chitin in the exoskeleton of many arthropod is

strengthened by 40. Primary consumers are found in
A. calcium compounds B. organic salts A. 1,2,and 3 B. 1,3 and 7 C. 2,3 and 7 D. 2,4 and 5
C. lipids D. proteins
41. The biomass is likely to increase in the sequence
Use the diagram below to answer questions 33 and 34 A. 1 à2à4à5 B. 1à3à4à5 C. 3à5à6à7
D. 5à4à3à1

42. Which of the following characterized the white

mangrove?
A. prop roots B. buttress roots C. breathing roots
D. stilt roots

43. If the offspring of a cross between brown mouse (bb)

and a black mouse (BB) are allowed to interbreed, how
33. The structure labelled II articulates with III to form a many different genotypes would result?
A. sliding joint B. hinge joint C. pivot joint A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
D. ball-and-socket joint
44. The biological factor that is unique to each individual
34. Which of the bones is the radius? is the
A. I B. II C. III D. IV A. DNA B. eye colour C. blood group E. RNA

35. The construction of dams may lead to an increase in 45. From an evolutionary standpoint, the older a fossil-
the prevalence of bearing rock is the more likely it is to contain
A. typhoid fever, measles and yellow fever A. aves as opposed to amphibians
B. tuberculosis, leprosy and typanosomiasis B. invertebrates as opposed vertebrates
C. guinea worm, malaria and tuberculosis C. angiosperms as opposed to algae
D. malaria, bilharziasis and onchocerciasis D. vertebrates as opposed to invertebrates.

36. Floating microscopic heterotrophs are mostly grouped as 46. The very bright colours in some types of mushroom
A. phytoplankton B. zooplankton C. microbes A. are a warning that they may be poisonous
D. nekton B. indicate that they are very tasty
C. attract potential transporters of their spores
37. Vaccination is carried out in order to D. perform the same function as bright colours in flowers
A. check the production of poison
B. increase the activity of white blood cells 47. The least adaptive feature for arboreal life is that
C. increase the number of red blood cell A. possession of four limbs B. possession of claws
D. stimulate the production of antibodies C. development of a long tail D. counter shading of
coat colour
38. A soil consisting of alumina and iron (II) oxide is known as
A. loamy soil B. clayey soil C. laterite D. podzol. 48. Which of the following is one of Lamarck’s theories?
A. some variations are more favorable to existence in a
39. The sign + is used to indicate an association where an given environment than others
organism gains, while 0 is used where an organism is B. all living organisms are constantly involved in a struggle
unaffected. An association indicated as + 0 is known as for existence C.the size of a given population remains
A. predation B. commensalism C. parasitism fairly constant
D. competition D. new species originate through the inheritance of acquired
traits.

49. The loud cry made by a brooding hen when a predator

is around is meant to
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
A. alert the poultry attendants 50. The most important environmental factor which
B. attract cocks to come and fight the predator epiphytes in the rain forest compete for is
C. advertise the boundaries of its territory to intruders A. water B. nutrient C. light D. space
D. warn its chicks and other chickens of impending danger

Biology 2000
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2 9. In which part of the human body does the secretion of
the growth hormone occur?
A. head region B. waist region C. neck region
D. gonads

Use the diagram below to answer questions 10 and 11

1. The part that will develop into an organ for feeling is labelled
A. IV B. III C. II D. I

2. The part labelled II is the

A. silk thread B. thorax C. fore wing D. anchor

3. Which of the following features are all associated with

monocots?
A. Fibrous root system, branched network of veins and one
seed leaf B. Fibrous root system, two seed leaves and f 10. The parts labelled I and II make up the
loral parts in threes C. One seed leaf, petals in threes or A. glomerulus B. convoluted tubules
groups of threes and parallel venation of leaves C. malpighian body D. bowman’s capsule
D. One seed leaf, net-veined leaves and petals in three or
multiples of three 11. In mammals, re-absorption of salt takes place in
A. IV B. III C. II D. I
4. The set of fins that controls steering, balancing and
change of direction and pitch in fish is 12. The part of the brain that controls body posture in
A. dorsal and anal B. pectoral and pelvic mammals is the
C. caudal and dorsal D. anal and pelvic A. thalamus B. cerebrum C. spinal cord D. cerebrum

5. The most recently evolved structure in animals is the 13. Peripheral arrangement of vascular tissues in dicots is
A. hair B. cilium C. scale D. feather a characteristic of the internal structure of the
A. leaf B. petiole C. steam D. root
6. Coelom is absent in the class of animals termed
A. mollusca B. reptilia C. arthropoda D. coelenterata Use the diagram below to answer questions 14 and 15

7. A characteristic of vertebrates that is unique to mammals is

A. the presence of pentadactyl limbs
B. parental care C. the possession of scrotum
D. pulmonary circulation

8. The order in which organic evolution has progressed in

plants is
A. thallophyta, schizophyta, bryophyta, pteridophyta
and spermatophyta B. schizophyta, thallophyta,
bryophyta, pteridophyta and spermatophyta
C. pteridophyata, spermatophyta, thallophyta, 14. The substance labelled II originates from
schizophyta and bryophyta D. bryophyta,
A. III only B. IV only C. I and IV D. III and IV
pteridophyta, spermatophyta, thallophyta and
schizophyta.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
15. The gas occupying the space labelled I is 25. The part labelled II is the
A. carbon (IV) oxide B. nitrogen A. mesocarp B. pericarp C. endocarp
C. hydrogen D.oxygen D. epicarp

16. The scapula and the ischium are part of the 26. The fruit represented is mainly dispersed by
A. pectoral girdle B. pelvic girdle A. animals B. water C. wind D. birds
C. appendicular skeleton D. hind limb
27. In an experiment to estimate the volume of air in a soil
17. Bacteria in the large intestine of man are important in the sample using a measuring cylinder, it was found that:
A. synthesis of vitamins K and B2 Initial volume of water = p cm3 Volume of soil before
B. digestion of vegetables. C. synthesis of vitamins mixing with water = q cm 3 Final volume of water after
A and D D. absorption of water. adding soil=r cm3. From the data above, which of the
following deductions is correct?
18. Short-sightedness can be corrected by lenses which are A. r=p+q B. r>p+q C. q=r-p D. r<p+q
A. convex B. biconvex C. plano-convex
D. conoave 28. An ecological succession often leads to
A. an increase in species diversity B. a decrease in
19. The inner ear contains two main organs, namely, the species diversity C. an unstable community
A. eardrum and eustachinan tube B. cochlea and D. the dispersal of species
semi-circular canals C. oval window and ossicles
D. pinna and cochlea 29. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to soil nitrogen for
plant use by
20. For growth to occur in organisms, the rate of A. nitrification and combustion B. putrefaction and lighting
A. food storages must be low C. lighting and nitrification D. combustion and putrefaction
B. catabolism must exceed that of anabolism
C. anabolism must exceed that of catabolism 30. I High birth rate and high immigration rate II Low birth
D. food storage must be high rate and high immigration rate III Low mortality rate
and low emigration rate IV High mortality rate and high
21. The production of violet colouration, when dilute Na0H emigration rate.
solution is added to a solution of food substance, Which combination of the above can cause rapid
followed by drops of 1 % CUSO4 solution while making overcrowding in climaxbiotic communities and human
indicates the presence of settlements?
A. protein B. carbohydrates C. fats A. II and III B. I and III C. I and IV D. I and II
D. reducing sugar
Use the graph below to answer questions 31 and 32.
22. The greatest amount of energy will be obtained by the
oxidation of 100kg of
A. meat B. butter C. sugar D. biscuits

23. The chamber of the mammalian heart with the thickest

wall is the
A. right ventricle B. left auricle C. right auricle
D. left ventricle

Use the graph below to answer questions 25 and 26.

31. The soil becomes toxic to plants when the
24. Serum differs from blood plasma because it. concentration of its essential elements is in the range labelled
A. contains blood cell and fibrinogen
B. contains soluble food and mineral salts A. IV B. III C. II D. I
C. lacks the blood protein fibrinogen
D. lacks blood cells and albumin 32. The range at which soil essential element concentration
is recorded for optimal plant growth is marked
A. IV B. III C. II D. I

33. Which of the following growth activities in plants is

brought about by gibberellins?
A. Rapid cell division B. Tropic response
C. Cell elongation D. Main stem elongation

34. Which of the following are adaptations of animals to

aquatic habitats?
A. Gills streamlined bodies and lateral line
B. Lateral line, streamlined bodies and lungs
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
C. Gills, scaly skin and lungs 43. Blood grouping in human beings is derived from
D. Gills, streamlined bodies and spiracles combination of
A. two different alleles B. four different alleles
35. Which of the following is an adaptation of forest species? C. three different alleles D. two different genes.
A. Few stomata B. Thick bark C. Buttress roots
D. Reduced leaves 44. The older fossil-bearing rocks, in contras to the more
recent ones, are more likely to contain
36. In a food chain, each succeeding level in a forward A. animals rather than plant remains B. invertebrates
direction, represent? rather than birds C. flowering plants rather than
A. an increase in the number of individuals mosses D. reptiles rather that fishes
B. a decrease in the number of individuals
C. an increase in the biomass of individuals 45. In a group of male Agama lizards, the one brightest
D. a gain in the total energy being transferred. head colour is the
A. dominant B. youngest C. oldest D. largest
37. The disaster that would have the least destructive
impact on animal life and balance in nature is 46. Examples of water-borne and sex-linked disease are
A. chemical pollution B. forest fires A. taeniasis an malaria B. cholera and gonorrhoea
C. oil spillage D. grasshopper pests C. typhoid and syphilis D. dracunculiasis and haemophilia

38. The legs and beak of an egret resemble those of the 47. The mutation theory of organic evolution was
heron because they propounded by
A. both feed on fishes B. are both birds A. Gregor Mendel B. Hugo Vries
C. occupy similar niche D. occupy the same trophic level C. Jean Lamarck D. Charles Darwin

39. The factors that determine the distribution of vegetable 48. A certain savanna grasshopper changes colour from
zones are green during the rainy season to brown during the dry
A. temperature, light, rain and humidity season bush fires. The reason for these colour changes
B. light, humidity, air and mist C. temperature, light, is that the
air and humidity D. humidity, snow, frost and dew A. grasshopper is getting older
B. environment temperature is changing
40. A cross between an albino female and a genetically C. grasshopper is avoiding predation
normal male will result in offspring that are D. grasshopper is frequently moulting
A. all albino B. all phenotypically normal
C. all genetically normally D. half albino and half normal 49. Complex social behaviou and organization are found
mostly in
41. The pollutants that contribute to the depletion of the A. insects B. birds C. reptiles D. mammals
ozone layer in the atmosphere are
A. radioactive materials B. oxides of sulphur 50. Which of the following structural features are adapted
C. oxides of carbon D. chlorofluorocarbons for uses other than water conservation?
A. Succulent stems B. Scales in a annals
42. The surest way to combine the best qualities of both C. Spines in plants D. Feathers in birds
parents and the offspring is by
A. cross-breeding B. inbreeding C. selective breeding
D. pure breeding

Biology 2001
1. An association between the root nodule of a 4. The jointed structure in insects that bears organs which
leguminous plants and rhizobium sp is known as are sensitive to touch, smell and vibration is the
A. commensalism B. mycorrhiza C. parasitism A. maxilla B. labium C. antenna D. abdomen
D. symbiosis
5. Which of the following groups is the most advanced?
2. Amphibians are normally found A. Pteridophytes B. Bryophytes
A. on dry land and in water B. in water and on moist land C. Thallophytes D. Gymnosperms
C. on moist land D. in water
6. Most monocots are easily recognized by their
3. Viviparity occurs mainly in the A. short leaves with petioles B. long and sword-like
A. mammals B. reptiles C. aves D. amphibians leaves C. long and palm-like leaves
D. short leaves with many veinlets
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
7. Water fleas, wood lice and barnacles belong to the group 18. The enzyme invertase will hydrolyze sucrose to give
A. arachnida B. crustacea C. insecta D. chilopoda A. maltose and glucose B. glycerol and fatty acid
C. glucose and fructose D. mannose and galactose
8. The mode of feeding in Amoeba and Hydra is
A. heterotrophic B. holophytic C. autotrophic 19. When yeast respires anaerobically, it converts simple
D. symbiotic sugar to carbon (IV) oxide and
A. oxygen B. acid C. alcohol D. water
9. Which of the following organisms does not exist as a
single free living cell? 20. The transportation of oxygen and carbon (IV) oxide in
A. Paramecium B. Volvox C. Amoeba mammals is carried out by
D. Chlamydomonas A. leucocytes B. thrombocytes C. phagocytes
D. erythrocytes
Use the diagram below to answer questions 10 and 11
21. The veins of the leaf are formed by the
A. vascular bundles B. cambium cells
C. palisade tissue D. spongy mesophyll

Use the diagram below to answer questions 22 and 23

10. The structures labelled II and III respectively are

A. female organs and rhizoid B. male organs and
rhizoid C. sporophyte and sori D. annulus and
stalk of sporangium
22. The parts which function together to bring about
11. In ferns, the structure above is equivalent to the hearing are labelled.
A. zygote of a moss B. gametophyte generation of a moss A. IV, V and VI B. I, II, IV and VI C. I, II, III and IV
C. sporophyte generation of a moss D. I, II and IV
D. sporophyte of a moss
23. The part labelled II is the
12. The centre for learning and memory in the human brain is the A. fenestra ovalis B. middle ear canal
A. medulla oblongata B. cerebellum C. internal auditory meatus D. ear ossicles
C. cerebrum D. olfactory lobe
24. When specimen X is mixed with few drops of iodine
13. Urea formation occurs in the solution, the appearance of a blue-black colour confirms
A. heart B. liver C. lung D. kidney that X is
A. Galactose B. Starch C. Sucrose D. Glucose
Use the diagram below to answer questions 14 and 15
Use the diagram below to answer question 25 and 26

14. The structure that holds the yolk in position is labelled

A. II B. I C. IV D. III

15. The part labelled IV is the

A. albumen B. germinal disc C. sturdy D. stunted 25. The structure above represents a
A. caudal vertebra B. lumbar vertebra
16. The gas produced during tissue respiration can be C. thoracic vertebra D. cervical vertebra
identified by using
A. calcium hydroxide B. copper sulphate 26. Blood vessels usually pass through the structure labelled
C. calcium carbonate D. sodium hydroxide A. III B. II C. V D. IV

17. A seedling grown in the dark is likely to be 27. Salts and water are absorbed in the roots and
A. etiolated B. dormant C. sturdy D. stunted transported to the leaves by
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
A. diffusion through the xylem tissues B. osmosis 41. Which of the following is likely to encourage inbreeding
through the phloem tissues C. diffusion through in plants
the phloem tissues D. osmosis through the xylem A. Dioecious B. Protandrous C. Manoecious
tissues D. Hermaphrodite

28. The number of plant species obtained from a population 42. A tall plant crossed with a dwarf on produces offspring
study of a garden is as follows: Guinea grass (15), of which half are tall and half are dwarf
Ipomoeas SSP, (5), sida spp (7) and Imperata spp (23) what are the genotypes of the parents?
What is the percentage of occurrence of Imperat, q spp? A. TT, TT B. Tt, Tt C. TT, tt D. Tt, Tt

A. 35% B. 16% C. 46% D. 23% 43. In man, the ability to roll the tongue is a variation
classified as
29. Carbon (IV) oxide content of the atmosphere is least A. anatomical B. physiological C. structural
affected by D. morphological
A. cutting down and clearing of forest B. forest fires
C. burning of fossil fuels D. plant and animal respiration 44. Darwin is considered the first scientist who correctly
explained the theory of
30. The factor that least affects food shortages in sub- A. special creation B. spontaneous generation
Saharan Africa is C. use and disuse D. organic evolution
A. flooding B. pests C. mixed-cropping D. drought
45. The stem of a typical aquatic plant usually has many
31. The epiphytic habitat can best be described as A. air cavities B. intercellular spaces
A. arboreal B. estuarine C. aquatic D. terrestrial C. water cavities D. water-conducting cells.

32. The highest percentage of energy in an ecosystem 46. The role of the male adult honey bee is to
occurs at the level of the A. clean the hive B. ventilate the hive
A. secondary consumers B. decomposers C. mate with the queen D. care for the young
C. producers D. primary consumers
47. The ability of an organism to live successfully in an
33. The greatest influence on a stable ecosystem in nature environment is known as
is exerted by A. resistance B. competition C. succession
A. man B. pollution C. animals D. rainfall D. adaptation

34. A freshwater pond may contain 48. The most important adaptation of xerophytes is the
A. tadpole, water boatman, leeches and crab ability of the protoplasm to
B. water beetle, shrimps, water snail and water bug A. resist being damaged by loss of water
C. water lily, fish, water scorpion and dragontly larva B. store sugar and minerals in the vacuoles
D. pond skater, water lily, shark and mosquito larva C. absorb water and swell
D. shrink from the cell wall
36. The hygrometer is used for measuring
A. relative humidity B. specific gravity 49. A green snake in green grass is able to escape notice
C. rainfall D. salinity from predators because of its
A. disruptive colouration B. countershiping
37. The distribution of plants in a rain forest in governed C. warning colouration D. cryptic colouration
mainly by
A. vegetation B. soil types C. amount of sunlight 50. For heterotrophic organisms, competition is leas caused
D. rainfall pattern by the inadequacy of
A. mates B. space C. light D. nutrients
38. Both recessive and dominant characters are found
A. on different chromosomes in the cell
B. at the same locus of a homologous chromosome
C. mother’s sex cell D. mother’s X chromosome

39. The probability of a baby being a boy or a girl depends

on the condition of the
A. father’s sex cell B. father’s somatic chromosome
C. mother’s sex cell D. mother’s X chromosome

40. Which of the following statements is true of blood

groups and blood transfusion?
A. Group O is the universal recipient
B. Group A can donate to group A only
C. Group AB is the universal recipient
D. Group B can donate to group B only
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng

Biology 2002
1. An Amoeba and an unlaid chicken eggs are 10. Example of competitors are
A. animal tissues B. organelles C. single cell A. lizard and mouse B. snake and lizard
D. organisms C. grasshopper and mouse D. rabbit and snake

2. In corns food is usually stored in the 11. One of the adaptations to life on trees by a monkey is
A. leaves B. stems C. roots D. buds its possession of digits which are
A. extensible B. big C. opposable D. long
3. The animals that move by means of flagella include
A. Chlamydomonas and Euglena B. Planaria and 12. The community of plants in which the same species
Amoeba C. Amoeba and Hydra D. Paramecium a occur from year to year is the
nd Planaria A. annual species B. pioneer vegetation
C. perennial species D. climax vegetation
4. The structures found only in plant cells are
A. cell membrane and cytoplasm B. chromatin and 13. The most common means of transmitting Acquired
nucleolus C. cell wall and chloroplast Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is
D. cell membrane and lysosome A. from mother to child B. through blood transfusion
C. through sexual intercourse D. through the sharing
5.. A flower that has both stamens and pistil is said to be of needles
A. staminate B. pistillate C. perfect D. imperfect
14. Plants tend to prevent overcrowding by means of efficient
6. When oil is poured into the breeding site of mosquitoes, it A. water uptake B. seed germination
A. deprives the larvae of water B. kills the adults C. pollination D. seed dispersal
C. suffocates the pupae D. slows down egg
development. 15. The physical and climatic factors of a region primarily
determine the
Use the diagram below to answer questions 7 and 8 A. kinds of animals inhabiting the area B. types of
plants found in the area C. nature of the soil in the
region D. community of organisms in the region

16. A step in the movement of energy through an

ecosystem is a description that best fits the term
A. food chain B. trophic level C. pyramid of numbers
D. food web

17. In a field experiment the frequency of waterleaf was

observed to be 48 after 20 tosses of a 2m2 quadrant.
What is the density of the plant in the field?
7. The correct evolutionary sequence of the organisms A. 1.2per m2 B. 2.4per m2 C. 4.8per m2
represented is D. 9.6per m2
A. IàIIIàIIàIV B. IIàIIIàIVàI C. IIIàIIàIVàIV
D. IVàIIàIIIàI 18. The supporting tissue of xylem is most poorly
developed in
8. Ovoviparity is the type of fertilization exhibited by the A. mangrove swamp plants B. grassland plants
organism labelled C. submerged water plants D. desert plants
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
19. The addition of lime to clay soil serve to
Use the diagram below to answer questions 9 and 10 A. aid water retention B. close up the texture
C. prevent water-logging D. improve capillary action

20. The excessive use of agro-chemicals could lead to the

pollution of
A. the lithosphere B. the atmosphere
C. fresh water D. space

21. In a population study using the transect method, a

student is likely to record the highest number of species in
9. In the diagram, the hawk is A. a tropical rain forest B. a guinea savanna
A. an omnivore B. a primary consumer C. a sahel savanna D. an estuarine swamp
C. a tertiary consumer D. a scavenger
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
22. In his theory of evolution, Darwin implied that Use the diagram below to answer questions 32 and 33
A. the struggled for existence among living organisms
is sporadic
B. the most successful organisms are those that best
adapt to their environment
C. organs of the body which are not regularly, used by
an organism will disappear
D. ny traits acquired by an organism during its lifetime
can e passed on to its offspring

23. The carnassial teeth of a carnivorous animal consists of the

A. last upper premolar and the first lower molar
B. last upper molar and the last lower molar 32. Which of the following statements is correct about the
C. first upper premolar and the first lower molar experiment?
D. first upper molar and the first lower molar A. The flask must be of the conical type
B. Caustic soda can be replaced with distilled water
24. A feature of the caste systems of bees and termites is that C. The enclosed leaf will lose its green colour
A. the workers are sterile B. the kings are bigger than D. The leaves outside the flask serve as control
the queens C. only the worker perform duties
D. nuptial fight is performed by all members 33. The experimental set-up can be used to demonstrate that
A. light is necessary for photosynthesis
25. The structure that is common in the embryos of B. oxygen is necessary for photosynthesis
mammals, amphibians, birds, fishes and reptiles and C. photosynthesis occurs in the leaves of plants
which is an evidence of their common ancestry is the D. carbon (IV) oxide is necessary for photosynthesis
A. eye B. chorion C. allantois B. gillslits
34. When a marine fish was taken from the ocean and put
26. Animals are restive when the environment in which in a tank of fresh water, it died after a short period
they live becomes because
A. hot and dry B. cold and wet C. warm and humid A. the tank was too small compared to the large ocean
D. windy and snowy B. the body cells of the fish swelled and burst as a
result of the hypotonic fresh water
27. Birds which are large with long straight pointed beaks, C. the body cells of the fish shrank as their sap was
long necks and long legs are likely to be hypertonic to be fresh water
A. insect eaters B. fish catchers C nectar feeders D. there was no food in the tank, so the fish starved
D. fruit eaters
35. Which of the following pairs of organs is located in the
28. Examples of organisms in which extracellular digestion anterior half of the mammalian body cavity?
occurs are A. Kidneys and lungs B. Heart and ovary
A. Fungus, Loranthus and housefly C. Lungs and hearts D. Kidneys and heart
B. Rhizopus, sponges and earthworm C. Roundworm,
tapeworm and Hydra 36. The mode of nutrition exhibited by a tapeworm is
D. Rhizopus, housefly and Hydra A. symbiotic B. saprophytic C parasitic D. holozoic

29. The mammalian erythrocytes differ from erythrocytes are 37. The organ located within the duodental loop in the
A. discoid and nucleated B. discoid and enucleated mammal is the
C. amoeboid and nucleated D. amoeboid and A. spleen B. pancreas C. liver D. gall bladder
enucleated
38. In which of the following groups of fruits is the pericarp
30. The presence of endoskeleton is characteristic of inseparable from the seed coat?
A. invertebrata B. vertebrata C. insecta A. Nut B. Follicle C. Cypsela D. Cryopsis
D. coelenterata
39. A person that is obese must avoid meals containing
31. The capture and digestion of insects by a pitcher plant A. carrots and oranges B. margarine and butter
is a special form of nutrition termed C. beef and beans D. rice and yam
A. autotraphic B. heterotrophic C chemosynthetic
D. saprophytic 40. Tissue respiration is important for the
A. absorption of oxygen into the alveoli
B. release of carbon (IV) oxide into the lungs
C. release of energy for body use
D. exhalation of carbon (IV) oxide from lungs.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the diagram below to answer question 41 and 42 45. To select and retain the desirable trait of large body
size with farmer has observed in his herd, the farmer
needs to
A. feed the animals in the herd with more food
B. cross-breed his animals with a different herd
C. inbreed the animals in his herd
D. prevent diseases in his herd

46. In a population of living things, the parameters of size,

41. The function of absorption is performed by the height, weight and colour are example of
structure labelled A. discontinuous variations B. continuous variations
A.I B. II C. III D. IV C. physiological variations D. non-heritable variations

42. The structure labelled I represents the 47. If XN is the dominant allele for normal vision and Xn the
A. phloem B. xylem C. cortex D. pericycle recessive allele for colour-blindness, a boy with the
genotype YXn will
Use the diagram below to answer questions 43 and 44 A. have normal vision B. be colour-blind
C. be totally blind D. be a carrier of colour-blindness

48. The first four children of a couple were all girls. The
probability that the fifth will also be a girl is
A. 1/5 B. ¼ C. 1/3 D. ½

49. Genetic counselling is important when a marriage is

planned between a
A. Rh woman and Rh man B. Rh woman and Rh man
C. Rh woman and Rh man D. Rh woman and Rh man
43. The gland usually found in the position labelled is the
A. adrenal B. thyroid C. pancreatic D. pituitary 50. What proportion of the offspring of a cross between
two heterozygous parents will exhibit the recessive
44. A hormone secreted at IV serves to condition phenotypically?
A. facilitate the development of facial hairs A. ¼ B. ½ C. ¾ D. 4/4
B. raise the level of calcium ions in the blood
C. lower blood glucose level
D. make the body react to emergencies

Biology 2003
1. The umbrella-shaped fruiting body of a fully developed 3. A noticeable adaptation of the animal to its aquatic
mushroom is the habitat is the possession of
A. mycelium B. basidium C. pileus D. stipe A. webbed digits B. four limbs C. a wide mouth
D. large eyes

4. The similarity among organisms belonging to the same

group will be least within each
A. order B. family C. species D. kingdom

5. Hermaphroditic reproduction can be found among the

A. annelids and molluscs B. pisces and amphibians
C. coelenterates and platyhelminthes D. arthropods
and nematodes
Use the diagram above to answer question 2 and 3.
6. One distinctive feature in the life history of liverworts
2. The processes of water loss and intake indicated by is that they exhibit
the arrows labelled I and II are respectively A. vegetative reproduction B. alternation of generation
A. evaporation and osmosis B. exhalation and osmosis C. sexual reproduction D. asexual reproduction
C. osmosis and diffusion D. urination and diffusion
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the diagram above to answer questions 7 and 8 16. Organisms I, II, III and IV have surface/volume ratios
of 1:2. 1:3, 1:4 and 1:5 respectively. The organism that is
likely to have the most complex transport system is
A. III B. IV C. II D. I

Use the diagram below to answer questions 17 and 18

7. Food is stored in the structure labelled

A. IIII B. IV C. I D. II

8. The structures that are common to both plant and animal

cell are labelled
A. II and III B. III and IV C. IV and I D. I and II

9. The cell component that is present in a prokaryotic cell is the

A. ribosome B. mitochondrion C. chloroplast
D. nuclear envelope 17. The aim of the experiment is to demonstrate
A. the presence of carbon (IV) oxide in exhaled air
10. In the egg of a bird, the embryo is located in the B. that in mammals gaseous exchange take place in the lungs
A. yolk B. embryo disc C. chalaza D. albumen C. the part played by the pleural cavity and diaphragm
in respiration D. that a large amount of oxygen is
11. An insect whose economic importance is both harmful absorbed by the lungs.
and benefit is the
A. butterfly B. mosquito C. blackfly D. tsetsefly 18. In the experimental set-up, the rubber sheet represents
the organ called
Use the diagram below to answer question 12 and 13. A. diaphragm B. lungs C. intercostal D. pleural cavity

19. The part of the mammalian digestive system where

absorption of nutrients takes place is the
A. duodenum B. colon C. ileum D. oesophagus

20 The dark reaction of photosynthesis involves the

A. release of oxygen and the splitting of water
B. photolysis of water and the production of starch
C. reduction of carbon (IV) oxide to organic compounds
D. splitting of water into hydrogen ions

12. The experiment is used to demonstrate that 21. The most important hormone that induces the ripening
A. transpiration occurs through the leaves B. plants of fruit is
lose water through guttation C. leaves are A. Cytokinin B. Indole acetic acid C. Ethylene
important to photosynthesis D. water is necessary D. Gibberellin
for photosynthesis
22. Metabolic production of urea is carried out in the
13. In the experiment, the layer of oil serves to prevent A. urinary bladder and kidney B. pancreas
water loss by C. kidney and malphigian tubule D. liver
A. Osmosis B. Transpiration C. Evaporation
D. Guttation 23. In mammalian males, the excretory and reproductive
system share the
14. If water that has been coloured red is poured at the A. ureter B. testes C. vas deferens D. urethra
base of a wilting plant, it will appear as a red stain in the
cells of the 24. The best method of propagating sugarcane is by
A. phloem B. parenchyma C. xylem D. epidermis A. stem cuttings B. seed sowing C. layering
D. grafting
15. The stunted growth of a leguminous plant suffering
from nitrogen deficiency may be corrected by 25. The response of plants to external stimuli in a non-
inoculating the soil with directional manner is known as
A. saprophytic bacteria B. rhizobium A. nastic movement B. photropism C. tactic
C. denitrifying bacteria D. nitrosomonas D. geotropism
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
Use the diagram below to answerquestions 26 and 27 37. One example of fossil fuels is
A. coral B. limestone C. firewood D. coal

38. If the pair of allelels for baldness is given as Bb, a

female carrier will be denoted by
A. XBXb B. XBXB C. XbY D. XBY

39. An organism that has been extensively used to test the

chromosome theory of heredity is
A. Homo sapiens B. Drosophila melanogaster
26. The structure can be found in the C. Zea Mays D. Musea domestica
A. peripheral and central nervous systems
B. peripheral nervous system only 40. A feature associated with the Y-chromosome in humans is
C. sympathetic and parasymapathetic nervous systems A. facial hairs B. prominent fingernails
D. central nervous system only C. long eyelashes D. enlarged breast

27. The point marked I is referred to as 41. A man and his wife are both heterozygous for the sickle-
A. myelin sheath B. dendrites C. node of Ranvier cell trait. The likely percentage of their offspring that
D. axon will be either carriers or sicklers is
A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%
28. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during
A. meiosis B. cytolysis C. mitosis D. cleavage 42. The type of reproduction that leeds to variation in
animal and plant populations is
29. An example of a caryopsis is A. budding B. vegetative C. asexual D. sexual
A. coconut B. tomato C. guava D. maize grain
43. If a DNA strand has a base sequence TCA, its
30. A limiting factor in a plant population near a chemical complementary strand must be
factory is likely to be A. ATG B. GAT C. AGT D. TAG
A. humidity B. pH C. wind D. light
44. Which of the following requires the use of carbon
31. The pioneer organisms in ecological succession are dating to prove that evolution has occurred?
usually the A. biochemical similarities B. molecular records
A. lichens B. algae C. ferns D. mosses C. fossil records D. comparative anatomy

32. Mycorrhiza is an association between fungi and 45. The presence of sunken stomata and the folding of
A. roots of higher plants B. ilamentous algae leaves are adaptations to
C. bacteria D. protozoans A. prevent entry of pathogens B. prevent guttation
C. remove excess water D. reduce water loss
33. A density-dependent factor that regulates the
population size of organisms is 46. Spines and shells on animals are adaptations for
A. sudden flood B. disease C. fire outbreak A. physical defence B. camouflage C. chemical
D. drought defence D. mimicry

34. The most effective method of dealing with non- 47. The inactive state exhibited by an animal during hot
biodegradable pollution is by dry seasons is termed
A. burying B. dumping C. incineration A. aestivation B. dormancy C. resting D. hibernation
D. recycling
48. An insect with a mandibulate mouth part will obtain its
35. Soil fertility can best be conserved and renewed by the food by
activities of A. chewing B. chewing and sucking C. sucking
A. microbes B. earthwormsv C. man D. rodents D. biting and chewing

36. The correct sequence of biomes from northern to 49. An example of cryptic colouration is the
southern Nigeria is A.bright marks on a poisonous tropical frog on
A. estuarine à tropical rain forest à guinea savanna variegated leaves B. bright colour of an insect-
àsahel savanna B. sahel savanna à sudan pollinated flower C. mottled colours on moths that
savannaà guinea savanna à tropical rainforest rest on lichens D. green colour of a plant
à estuarine
C. sahel savanna à tropical rain forest à estuarineà 50. An argument against Lamarck’s heory of evolution is that
guinea savanna D. guinea savanna à sudan A .acquired traits cannot be passed onto the offspring
savanna à tropical rainforest à sahel savanna à B. disuse of body part cannot weaken the part
estuarine C. disused part is dropped off in the offspring
D. traits cannot be acquired through constant use of body parts.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng

Biology 2004
1. The gall bladder of a mammal has a duct connected to the 9. The bones labelled II are called
A. duodenum B. liver C. pancreas D. small intestine A. thoracic vertebrae B. lumbar vertebrae C. cervical
vertebrae D. sacral vertebrae.
2. The opening of the stoma is controlled by the
A. presence of guard cells B. decrease in solute 10. The breakdown of fats and oils into simpler absorbable
concentration in the guard cells C. increase in compounds is catalyzed by the group of enzymes called
solute concentration in the guard cells A. peptidases B. amylases C. lipases D. hydrolases
D. presence of a pore.
11. The two key cations involved in the action potential of
Use the diagram below to answer questions 3 and 4 nervous transmissions are
A. Mg2 and K+ B. Na+ and Fe2+ C. Fe2+ and Mg2+
D. Na+ and K +
Use the diagram below to answer questions 12 and 13

3. Yam is used in this set-up because it

A. act as a semi-permeable membrane B. act as a storage
organ C. is permeable to the salt solution
D. is a plant material

4. Which of the following results is to be expected If the

set-up is left for several hours?
A. Movement of water from the salt solution
B. Decrease in the size of the yam C. Movement of the 12. The part labelled II is the
salt solution into the water D. Decrease in A. anther B. style C. filament D. stigma
the volume of water inside the yam.
13. The process of pollination involves the transfer of
5. The eggs of birds contain relatively larger quantities of pollens from
yolk than those of amphibians and reptiles because A. III to IV B. IV to I C. II to III D. I to II
A. embryonic development is longer in birds
B. birds lay shelled eggs C. birds are generally bigger 14. The anaerobic fermentation of a glucose molecule
in size D. those of birds are fertilized internally. yields
A. pyruvic acid and alcohol B. 38 ATP molecules
6. In the internal structure of plants, a wide pith in the C. water and carbon (IV) oxide D. 2ATP molecules and
centre is common to alcohol
A. dicot root and monocot stems B. dicot stems and
monocot stems C. dicot stem and monocot roots Use the diagram below to answer questions 15 and 16
D. dicot roots and monocot roots.

7. If a nursing mother is not producing enough milk, her

hormonal system is probably deficient in
A. testosterone B. thyroxin C. insulin D. prolactin

Use the diagram below to answer questions 8 and 9

15. The function of the part labelled III is to

A. produce oil for the skin B. carry blood and
nitrogenous waste C. contract to pull the hair erect
D. conduct nervous impulses
8. The type of joint between adjacent bones in the part
labelled II is the
16. The sweat gland is the structure labelled
A. hinge joint B. suture joint C. sliding joint
A. IV B. III C. II D. I
D. ball-and-socket joint
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
17. The type of reproduction that is common to both Hydra 29. The rods in the retina of the eye are examples of
and yeast is A. organs B. cells C. systems D. tissues
A. grafting B. budding C. conjugation D. binary fission
30. The larval stage of a mosquito is called
18. Epigeal germination of a seed is characterized by A. caterpillar B. maggot C.wriggler D. grub
A. lack of growth of the hypocotyls B. more rapid
elongation of the hypocotyls than the epicotyl 31. The most common characteristic of the fungal hyphae
C. more rapid elongation of the epicotyl than the is the possession of
hypocotyl D. equal growth rate of both the A. cell-like partitions formed by cross-walls
hypocotyl and epicotyl. B. cell-like compartments with one nucleus each
C. a multicellular mycelium in the substrate
19. All living cells require water because it D. cell walls that are both rigid and chitinous
A. is a medium that neutralizes acids in cells
B. is the main source of energy for the cells Use the diagram below to answer question 32 and 33.
C. prevents the development of diseases in cell
D. is a medium for all metabolic reactions.

20. The surface of an alveolus in a mammals is well supplied

with tiny blood vessels known as
A. capillaries B. arteries C. arterioles D. venules

21 Nervous control differs from hormonal control in that

the former
A. is a slower process B. involves only chemical
transmission C. has no specific pathway
D. produces short-term changes
32. The part labelled II is responsible for
22. Identical twins inherit their genes from A respiration B. protein synthesis C. excretion
A. one egg and two sperms B. two eggs and a sperm D. photosynthesis
C. the same egg and sperm D. different eggs and sperms
33. The endoplasmic reticulum is represented by the part
23. Paternity disputes can most accurately be resolved labelled
through the use of A. III B. VI C. I D. II
A. DNA analysis B. fingerprinting C. tongue-rolling
D. blood group typing 34. The function of the long-winged reproductives in a
termite colony is to
24. Sex-linked genes are located on A. protect the young B. participate in swarming
A. X-and Y-chromosomes B. homologous C. feed the young D. disperse the population
chromosomes C. X- chromosomes
D. Y- chromosome. 35. A plant-likefeaturein Euglena is the
A. large vacuole B. gullet C. pellicle D. pigment spot
25. In a Mendelian cross of red and white varieties of the
four o’clock plant, the F1 generation expresses 36. Which of the following is an example of intraspecific
incomplete dominance by having flowers which are competition?
A. multicoloured B. pink C. red D. white A. Yam and potato shoots growing out through the
same window B. A lizard and an ant-eater chasing an i
26. Insects are considered the most successful among the nsect C. A worker termite and a soldier in a limited space
invertebrates because they D. A hawk and an eagle targeting the same chicken
A. survive in various environmental conditions
B. possess the ability to change their forms C. possess 37. The spots and stripes of the leopard and tiger are
exoskeletons D. have wing for flight examples of
A. warning colouration B. countershading C. cryptic
27. The absence of special food and water-conducting colouration D. disruptive colouration
systems restricts the body size in
A the bryophytes and the pteridophyes 38. Rodents gnaw on food with their
B. the thallophytes and the pteridophytes C. liverworts, A. strong jaws B. flat-ridged teeth C. chisel-like front
mosses and ferns D. algae, liverworts and mosses. teeth D. molar teeth.

28. A peculiar characteristic of mammals is that they 39. An evidence of the relationship between living
A. have sebaceous glands B. have teeth C. are warm- organisms and their extinct relatives can best be
blooded D. have lungs. obtained from
A. palaeontology B. embryology C. comparative
anatomy D. comparative physiology.
Uploaded on www.myschoolgist.com.ng
40. Plants survive hot dry conditions by
A. producing numerous leaves B. having numerous 44. Which of the zones is likely to be a desert?
stomata C. having evergreen leave D. storing A. III B. IV C. I D. II
water in large parenchyma cells.
45. High relative humidity will be expected in zones
41. A caterpillar and an aphid living in different parts of A. II and III B. II and IV C. I and IV D. I and III
the same plant can be said to
A. be in similar microhabitats B. occupy different 46. One adaptation of reptiles to water loss is the presence of
ecological niches C. occupy the same ecological A. long tails B. long sticky tongues C. keratinous scales
niche D. be in different habitats D. claws on limbs.

42. The progressive loss of energy at each level in a food 47. The scarcity of food causes a sudden decrease in
chain leads to population size by
A. a decrease in biomass at each successive level A. minimizing the rate of competition B. raising the
B. an increase in the number of organisms at each mortality rate C. bringing about immigration
successive level C. an increase in the total weight of D. decreasing the reproductive rate
living matter at each successive level D. an increase
in biomass at each successive level 48. The association between termites and the cellulose-
digesting protozoan in their guts is an example of
43. The soil type that will be most difficult to plough in a A. mutualism B. saprophytism C. commensalism
wet season is one that is D. parasitism
A. sandy B. loamy C. silty D. clayey
49. A state in Nigeria that is most susceptible to desert
Use the table below to answer questions 44 and 45 encroachment is
A. Kaduna B. Kastina C. Kwara D. Taraba

50. A farm practice that results in the loss of soil fertility is

A. continuous cropping B. mixed farming
C. bush fallowing D shifting cultivation.
Mathematics
1 9 83 - 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions And Answers
Mathematics 1983
1. If M represents the median and D the mode of the 10. If x + 2 and x – 1 are factors of the expressions lx +
measurements 5, 9, 3, 5, 8 then (M,D) is 2kx2 + 24, find the values of l and k
A. (6,5) B. (5,8) C. (5,7) A. l = -6, k = -9 B. l = -2, k = 1 C. l = -2, k = -1
D. (5,5) E. (7,5) D. l = 0, k = 1 E. l = 6, k = 0

2. A construction company is owned by two partners X 11. Make T the subject of the equation
and Y and it is agreed that their profit will be divided in av = 3 2V + T
the ratio 4:5. at the end of the year. Y received #5,000 1- V a 2T
more than x. what is the total profit of the company for
the year? A. 3av/(1-v) B. 2v(1-v)2 - a2v2/2a2v2 - (1-V)2
A. #20,000.00 B. P’0#25,000.00 C. #30,000.00 C. 2v(1 - v) + a v / 2a2v2 + (1 - v)2
2 3 2

D. #15,000.003 E.#45,000.00 D. 2v(1 - v)2 - a4v3/2a3v3 - (1 - v)3

E. 2v(1-v)3 - a4v3/2a3v3 + (1-v)3
3. Given a regular hexagon, calculate each interior angle
of the hexagon. 12.
A. 600 B. 300 C. 1200 Additional
Mathematics
0 0
D. 45 E. 135 (2x-24)O Biology
(3 x-18)O
O
x
Geography
4. Solve the following equations (2 x+12)O
4x – 3 = 3x + y = 2y + 5x – 12 (x+12)O
French
History

A. 4x = 5, y = 2 B. x = 2, y = 5 C. x = -2, y = -5
D. x = 5, y = -2 E. x = -5, y = -2
In a class of 60 pupils, the statistical distribution of the
5. If x = 1 is root of the equation number of pupils offering Biology, History, French,
x3 – 2x2 – 5x + 6, find the other roots Geography and Additional Mathematics is as shown in
A. -3 and 2 B. –2 and 2 C. 3 and –2 the pie chart above. How many pupils offer Additional
D. 1 and 3 E. –3 and 1 Mathematics?
A. 15 B. 10 C. 18
6. If x is jointly proportional to the cube of y and the D. 12 E. 28
fourth power of z. In what ratio is x increased or
decreased when y is halved and z is doubled? 13 The value of (0.303)3 – (0.02)3 is
A. 4:1 increase B. 2:1 increase C. 1:4 decrease A. 0.019 B. 0.0019 C. 0.00019
D. 1: 1 no change E. 3: 4 decrease D. 0.000019 E. 0.000035

7. P Q 14. y varies partly as the square of x and y partly as the

O
O
60 inverse of the square root of x. write down the
45 expression for y if y = 2 when x = 1 and y = 6 when x =
8 cm 4
A. y = 10x2 + 52 B. y = x2 + 1
S R 31 31√x √x
C. y = x2 + 1 D. y = x2 + 1 E. y = 10 (x2 + 1 )
In the above figure PQR = 600, QPR = 900, PRS = 900, x 31 31√ x 31( √x)
RPS = 450, QR= 8cm. Determine PS 15. Simplify (x – 7) / (x2 – 9) ( x2 – 3x)/( x2 - 49)
A. 2√3cm B. 4√6cm C. 2√6cm A. x/ (x - 3)(x + 7) B. (x + 3) (x + 7)/x C. x/(x - 3) (x -
D. 8√6cm E. 8cm 7)
D. x/(x + 3) (x + 7) E. x/(x + 4) (x + 7)
8. Given that cos z = L, where z is an acute angle find an
expression for Co +Z - cosecz 16. The lengths of the sides of a right-angled triangle at (3x
sec Z + tan z + 1)cm, (3x - 1)cm and x cm.
A. l - L B. L2-√1−L2 C. -L-√1−L A. 2 B. 6 C. 18
1+L L2+L-1 (C1+L) +√1−L2 D. 12 E. 0

D. √L−1. E. L-(L2-1) 17. The scores of a set of a final year students in the first
(L1+L2) +√1−L2 1+ √1 - L2+ √1 - L2 semester examination in a paper are
41,29,55,21,47,70,70,40,43,56,73,23,50,50. find the median
9. If 0.0000152 x 0.00042 = A x 108, where of the scores.
1 £ A < 10, find A and B. A. 47 B. 481/2 C. 50
A. A = 9, B = 6`.38 B. A = 6.38, B = -9 C. A = 6.38, B = 9 D. 48 E. 49
D. A = 6.38, B = -1 E. A = 6.38, B = 1
y
18. 12 A. –28, 7 B. 6, -28 C. 6, -1
9 D. –1, 7 E. 3, 2
6
3 25. Find the missing value in the following table.
-3 -2 -1 3 2 1
-3
-6
x -2 -1 0 1 2 3
O
3
-9 y=x -x+3 3 3 3 9 27
-12
-15
A. -3 B. 3 C. –9
D. 13 E. 9
x
Which of the following equations represents the above 26.
graph?
A. y = 1 + 2x + 3x2 B. y = 1 – 2x + 3x2 C. y = 1 + 2x 3x2
D. y = 1 – 2x – 3x2 E. y = 3x2 + 2x - 1 O
O
x
H
G
19. x
130O

If O is the centre of the circle in the figure above. Find

the value of x
O
A. 50 B. 260 C. 100
30 D. 65 E. 130
K F
27. Find the angle of the sectors representing each item in
The above figure FGHK is a rhombus. What is the value a pie chart of the following data. 6,10,14,16,26
of the angle x? A. 150, 250,350,400,650, B. 600, 1000,1400,1600,2600
A. 900 B. 300 C. 1500 0 0, 0, 0,
C. 6 , 10 14 16 26 0,
D. 300, 500,700,800,1300
0 0
D. 120S E. 60 E. None of the above
0-8 m
20. P 28. The scores of 16 students in a Mathematics test are
0
65,65,55,60,60,65,60,70,75,70,65,70,60,65,65,70
R What is the sum of the median and modal scores?
2m
A. 125 B. 130 C. 140
Q D. 150 E. 137.5
30O
29. The letters of the word MATRICULATION are cut and
PQRS is a desk of dimensions 2m x 0.8m which is inclined put into a box. One of the letter is drawn at random from
at 300 to the horizontal. Find the inclination of the the box. Find the probability of drawing a vowel.
diagonal PR to the horizontal.
A. 23035’ B. 300 C. 15036’ A. 2/13 B. 5/13 C. 6/13
0 0
D. 10 E. 10 42’ D. 8/13 E. 4/13

21. Find x if (x base 4)2 = 100 1000base 2 30. Correct each of the number 59.81789 and 0.0746829 to
A. 6 B. 12 C. 100 three significant figures and multiply them, giving your
D. 210 E. 110 answer to three significant figures.
A. 4.46 B. 4.48 C. 4.47
22. Simplify log10a1/2 + 1/4log10a – 1/12log10a7 D. 4.49 E. 4.50
A. 1 B. 7/6log10a C. 0
D. 10 E. a 31. If a rod of length 250cm is measured as 255cm longer in
error, what is the percentage error in measurement?
23. If w varies inversely as V and u varies directly as w3, A. 55 B. 10 C. 5
find the relationship between u and V given that u = 1, D. 4 E. 2
when V = 2
A. u = 8V3 B. u = 2 V C. V = 8/u2 32. If (2/3)m (3/4)n = 256/729, find thevalues of m and n
2 3
D. V = 8u E. U = 8/v A. m = 4, n = 2 B. m = -4, n = -2 C. m = -4, n = 2
D. m = 4, n = -2 E. m = -2, n = 4
24. Solve the simultaneous equations for x
x2 + y – 8 = 0 33. Without using tables find the numerical value of log749
y + 5x – 2 = 0 + log7(1/7)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
D. 7 E. 0
34. Factorize completely 81a4 – 16b4
A. (3a + 2b) (2a – 3b) (9a2 + 4b2) 41. In the figure below find PRQ
B. (3a - 2b) (2a – 3b) (4a2 - 9b2)
C. (3a - 2b) (3a – 2b) (9a2 + 4b2)
D. (3a - 2b) (2a – 3b) (9a2 + 4b2)
E. (3a - 2b) (2a – 3b) (9a2 - 4b2) 235
o
R
35. One interior angle of a convex hexagon is 1700 and
each of the remaining interior angles is equal to x0. find
x Q
P
A. 1200 B. 1100 C. 1050
0 0
D. 102 E. 100 A. 661/20 B. 621/20 C. 1250
D. 1050 E. 650
36. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral in which PQ = PS. PT is a
tangent to the circle and PQ makes and angle 500 with
the tangent as shown in the figure below. What is the 42. Simplify 27a9/8
size of QRS? A. 9a2/2 B. 9a3/2 C. 2/3a2
R
D. 2/3a2 E. 3a3/2

43. Okro
14.5
Beans kg
S Q 14.5 kg Rice
45.4
O Yams kg
50
T 184.5 kg
P
0 0
A. 50 B. 40 C. 1100
D. 800 E. 1000
The farm yields of four crops on a piece of land in
37. A ship H leaves a port P and sails 30km due South. Ondo are represented on the pie chart above. What is
Then it sails 60km due west. What is the bearing of H the angle of the sector occupied by Okro in the chart?
from P? A. 911/20 B. 191/30 C. 331/30
A. 26034’ B. 243026’ C. 116034’ D. 110
E. 910

0 0
D. 63 26’ E. 240
O
44. (x+3y)
38. In a sample survey of a university community the O
following table shows the percentage distribution of P 45
Q O R
the number of members per household. y
No of members (3x+y)O
per household 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Total
Number of
households 3 12 15 28 21 10 7 4 100
In the figure above, PQR is a straight line. Find the
A. 4 B. 3 C. 5 values of x and y
D. 4.5 E. None A. x = 22.50 and y = 33.750
B. x = 150 and y = 52.50
39. On a square paper of length 2.524375cm is inscribed a C. x = 22.50 and y = 45.00
square diagram of length 0.524375. find the area of the D. x = 56.250 and y = 11.50
paper no covered by the diagram correct to 3 significant E. x = 18.0 and y = 56.50
figures.
45. PQR is the diameter of a semicircle RSP with centre at
A. 6.00cm2 B. 6.10cm2 C. 6.cm2
2 2 Q and radius of length 3.5cmc. if QPT = QRT = 600. Find
D. 6.09cm E. 4.00cm
the perimeter of the figure (PTRS p = 22/7)
S
40. If f(X) = 1 + x - 1 find f(1-x)
x-1 x2-1
P
A. 1/x + 1/(x+2) B. x +1/(2x -1) O R
60 O 60
O

C. -1/x - 1/(x-2) D. -1/x + 1/(x2-1)

A. 25cm B. 18ccm C. 36cm

D. 29cm E. 25 5 cm
46. In a triangle PQR, QR = 3cm, PR = 3cm, PQ = 3cm and 49. Q 30O
PQR = 300. find angles P and R
A. P = 600 and R = 900
B. P = 300 and R = 1200
O
C. P = 900 and R = 600
D. P = 600 and R = 600 xO
E. P = 450 and R = 1050 T
x
O 2x O
47. P
S R

130
O
O In the figure above PT is a tangent to the circle with
100 centre O. if PQT = 300. find the value of PTO
A. 300 B. 150 C. 240
0 0
D. 12 E. 60
P Q
50 A man drove for 4hours at a certain speed, he then
In the above diagram if PS = SR and PQ//SR. what is the doubled his speed and drove for another 3 hours.
size of PQR? Altogether he covered 600km. At what speed did he
A. 250 B. 500 C. 550 drive for the last 3 hours?
0 0
D. 65 E. 75 A. 120km/hr B. 60km/hr C. 600/7km/hr
D. 50km/hr E. 100km/hr.
48. Find the mean of the following
24.57,25.63,25.32,26.01,25.77
A. 25.12 B. 25.30 C. 25.26
D. 25.50q E. 25.73

Mathematics 1984

1. Simplify (2/3 – 1/5) – 1/3 of 2/5 6. A man invested a total of #50,000 in two companies. If
3 – 1/1/2 these companies pay dividend of 6% and 8%
A. 1/7B. 7 C. 1/3 respectively, how much did he invest at 8% if the total
D. 3 E. 1/5 yield is #3.700?
A. #15,000 B. #29,600 C. #21,400
2. If 263 + 441 = 714, what number base has been used? D. #27,800 E. #35,000
A. 12 B. 11 C. 10
D. 9 E. 8 7. Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test. The mean of the
boys’ scores and that of the girls were respectively 6
3. 0.00014323/1.940000 = k x 10n where 1 £ k < 10 and n is and 8. find x if the total score was 468.
a whole number. The values of K and are A. 38 B. 24 C. 36
A. 7.381 and –11 B. 2.34 and 10 D. 22 E. 41
C. 3.87 and 2 D. 7.831 and –11
E. 5.41 and –2 8. The cost of production of an article is made up as
follows Labour #70
4. P sold his bicycle to Q at a profit of 10%. Q sold it to R Power #15
for #209 at a loss of 5%. How much did the bicycle cost Materials #30
P? Miscellaneous #5
A. #200 B. #196 C. #180 Find the angle of the sector representing labour in a pie
D. #205 E. #150 chart.
A. 2100 B. 1050 C. 1750
0 0
5. If the price of oranges was raised by 1/2k per orange, D. 150 E. 90
the number of oranges customer can buy for #2.40 will
9. Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300.
be less by 16. What is the present price of an orange?
What is the probability that the number is divisible by
A. 21/2k B. 31/2k C. 51/2k
1 4?
D. 20k E. 21 /2k
A. 1/3 B. ¼ C. 1/5
D. 4/300 E. 1/300
10. Find without using logarithm tables, the value of 19. In a racing competition. Musa covered a distance of 5xkm
Log327 – Log1/464 in the first hour and (x + 10)km in the next hour. He was
Log31/81 second to Ngozi who covered a total distance of 118km
A. 7/4 B. –7/4 C. –3/2 in the two hours. Which of the following inequalities is
D. 7/3 E. –1/4 correct?
A. 0 < -x < 15 B. –3 < x < 3
11. A variable point P(x, y) traces a graph in a two C. 15 < x < 18 D. 0 < x < 15
dimensional plane. (0, -3) is one position of P. If x E. 0 < x < 18
increases by 1 unit, y increases by 4 units. The equation
of the graph is 20. 2x + 3y = 1 and y = x – 2y = 11, find (x + y)
A. -3 = y + 4/ x + 1 B. 4y = -3 + x A. 5 B. –3 C. 8
C. y/x = -3/4 D. y + 3 = 4x D. 2 E. –2
E. 4y = x + 3
21. Tunde and Shola can do a piece of work in 18days.
12. A trader in a country where their currency ‘MONT’ (M) Tunde can do it alone in x days, whilst Shola takes 15
is in base five bought 103(5) oranges at M14(5) each. If days longer to do it alone. Which of the following
he sold the oranges at M24(5) each, what will be his equations is satisfied by x?
gain? A. x2 – 5x – 18 = 0 B. x2 – 20x + 360 = 0
2
A. M103(5) B. M1030(5) C. M102(5) C. x - 21x – 270 = 0 D. 2x2 + 42x – 190 = 0
2
D. M2002(5) E. M3032(5) E. 3x – 31x + 150 = 0

13. Rationalize 22. If fx) = 2(x - 3)2 + 3(x - 3) – 4 and g(y) = √5 + y, find g(f(3))
(5√5 - 7√5)(/√7 - √5 and g{f(4)}
A. -2√35 B. 4√7 - 6√5 C. -√35 A. 3 and 4 B. –3 and 4
D. 4√7 - 8√5 E. √35 C. –3 and –4 D. 3 and –4
14. Simplify E. 0 and √5
3n – 3n – 1
3 x 3 – 27 x 3n – 1
3 n
23. The quadratic equation whose roots are 1 - 13 and 1 +
A. 1 B. 0 C. 1/27 13 is
D. 3n – 3n – 1 E. 2/27 A. x2 + (1 - √13)x + 1 + √13 = 0
B. x2 + (1 - √13)x + 1 - √13 = 0
15. p varies directly as the square of q an inversely as r. if C. x2 + 2x + 12 = 0 D. x2 – 2x + 12 = 0
2
p = 36, when q = 3 and r = p, find p when q = 5 and r = 2 E. x – 2x – 12 = 0
A. 72 B. 100 C. 90
D. 200 E. 125 24. Find a factor which is common to all three binomial
expressions
16. Factorise 6x2 – 14x - 12 4a2 – 9b2, a3 + 27b3, (4a + 6b)2
A. 2(x + 3) (3x - 2) B. 6(x - 2) (x + 1) A. 4a + 6b B. 4a – 6b
C. 2(x - 3) (3x + 2) D. 6(x + 2) (x - 1) C. 2a + 3b D. 2a – 3b
E. (3x + 4) (2x + 3) E. none

17. A straight line y = mx meets the curve y = x2 – 12x + 40 25.

in two distinct points. If one of them is (5,5), find the P
5 cm
other
A. (5,6) B. (8,8) C. (8,5) Q
D. (7,7) E. (7,5)
S
18. The table below is drawn for a graph y = x2 – 3x + 1 11 cm

T
R 4 cm

x -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
1
y=x2 - 3x + 1 1 -1 3 1 -1 3 1 What is the volume of the regular three dimensional
From x = -2 to x = 1, the graph crosses the x-axis in the figure drawn above?
range(s) A. 160cm3 B. 48cm3 C. 96cm3
3 3
A. -1 < x < 0 and 0 < x < 1 D. 120cm E. 40cm
B. -2 < x < -1 and 0 < x < 1
C. -2 < x < -1 and 0 < x < 1 26. If (x - 2) and (x + 1) are factors of the expression x3 + px2
D. 0 < x < 1 E. 1<x<2 + qx + 1, what is the sum of p and q?
A. 0 B. –3 C. 3
D. –17/3 E. –2/3
27. A cone is formed by bending a sector of a circle having 34.
an angle of 2100. Find the radius of the base of the cone
if the diameter of the circle is base of the cone if the
diameter of the circle is 12cm r r
A. 7.00cm B. 1.75cm C. Ö21cm
D. 3.50cm E. 2Ö21cm
60O O
O
28. X r 60 60 r
120 Find the area of the shaded portion of the semi – circular
figure above.
A. r2/4(4p - 3 3) B. r2/4(2p + 3 3)
3 cm 2
C. 1/2r p D. 1/8r 3
E. r2/8(4p + 3 3)

35. P
Y Z
5 cm 44O
Using XYZ in the figure above find XYZ r
A. 290 B. 31020’ C. 310 O
0 0
20
D. 31 18’ E. 59
Q
29. The sides of a triangle are (x + 4)cm, x cm and (x- 4) cm S
respectively. If the cosine of the largest angle is 1/5,
find the value of x
A. 24cm B. 20cm C. 28cm y
D. 88/7ccm E. 0cm R
In the figure above QRS is a line, PSQ = 350 SPR = 300
30. If a = 2x/1 – x and b = 1 + x / 1 – x and O is the centre of the circle find OQP
then a2 – b2 in the simplest form is A. 350 B. 300 C. 1300
A.3x+1/(x-1) B. 3x2-1/(x-1)2 D. 250
E. 650

2 2
C. 3x +1/(1-x) D. 5x2-1/(1-x)2
2 2
E. 5x -2x -1/(1-x) 36. If pq + 1 = q2 and t = 1/p – 1/pq
( x-1) express t in terms of q
31. Simplifty (1 + 1 ) (x+2) A. 1/p – q B. 1/ q – 1
( x+1) C. 1/q + 1 D. 1+q
E. 1/ 1- q
A. (x2 - 1)(x + 2) B. x2 (x + 2)/x + 1
C. x2 - (x + 2) D. 2x(x + 2) 37. The cumulative frequency function of the data below
E. 2x(x + 2)/x + 1 is given by the frequency y = cf(x). what is cf(5)?
Scores(n) Frequency(f)
32. Q 3 30
4 32
5 30
P R 6 35
7 20

V A. 30 B. 35 C. 55
D. 62 E. 92
W S
38. In the figure determine the angle marked y
A. 660 B. 1100 C. 260
0
D. 70 E. 440
T
P
In the figure above PQRSTW is a regular hexagon. QS O
intersects RT at V. calculate TVS. 44
A. 600 B. 900 C. 1200 r
0 0
D. 30 E. 80 20
O

33. Find the integral values of x which satisfy the Q

S
inequalities –3 < 2 –5x < 12
A. -2, -1 B. –2, 2 C. –1, 0
D. 0,1 E. 1,2 y
R
39. A right circular cone has a base radius r cm and a vertical 45. Bar Chart
2y0. the height of the cone is 10
A. r tan y0cm B. r sin y0cm
8

Frequency
0
C. r cot y cm D. r cos y0cm
E. 0
r cosec y cm 6
4
40. Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that
2
both show up the same number of point?
A. 1/36 B. 7/36 C. ½ 0
D. 1/3 E. 1/6 0-9 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59
Marks
41. The larger value of y for which (y - 1)2 = 4y – 7 is
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 The bar chart above shows the mark distribution in a
D. 7 E. 8 class test. Find the number of students in the class.
A. 9 B. 2 C. 60
42. y D. 30 E. 34

46. S T
+1

135O
1
2x

P
- 2x -

O R
y=

y =x 2

Q
x
In the figure above, O is the centre of circle PQRS and
PS//RT. If PRT = 1350, then PSQ is
A. 671/20 B. 450 C. 900
3 0 1 0
Find the x coordinates of the points of intersection of D. 33 /4 E. 22 /2
the two equations in the graph above.
A. 1,1 B. 0,-4 C. 4,9 47. XYZ is a triangle and XW is perpendicular to YZ at W.
D. 0,0 E. 0,4 if XZ = 5cm and WZ = 4cm, calculate XY.
A. 5√3cm B. 3√5cm C. 3Ö3cm
43. If sin q = x/y and 00 < q < 900 D. 5cm E. 6cm
then find 1/ tan q
A. x/√(y2 – x2) B. x/y X
C. √y2 –n2
√y2−x2 D. (√y2 – x2)/(√y2 – x2)
E. √y2 – x2/y
5 cm
44.
P
Y 4 cm Z
6 cm
10 cm
R
Q 48. Measurements of the diameters in centimeters of 20
8 cm copper spheres are distributed as shown below

Class boundary in cm frequency

S T
12 cm 3.35-3.45 3
3.45-3.55 6
In the figure above TSP =PRQ, QR = 8cm. PR = 6cm and 3.55-3.65 7
ST = 12cm. Find the length SP 3.65-3.75 4
A. 4cm B. 16cm C. 9cm
D. 14cm E. Impossible insufficient data What is the mean diameter of the copper sphere?
A. 3.40cm B. 3.58cm C. 3.56cm
D. 3.62cm E. 3.63cm
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

50. What is the acute angle formed when the point V joined
to Q?
V R S A. 600 B. 300 C. 450
0 0
D. 90 E. 15

P O

Mathematics 1985
1. Arrange the following numbers in ascending order of A. 3/2B. 2/3 C. 2
magnitude 6/7,13/15,0.865 D. 3 E. 18
A. 6/7 < 0.865 < 13/15
B. 6/7 < 13/15 < 0.865 8. Without using tables, evaluate Log24 + Log42 – Log255
C. 13/15 < 6/7 < 0.865 A. ½ B. 1/5 C. 0
D. 13/15 < 0.865 < 6/7 D. 5 E. 2
E. 0.865 < 6/7 < 13/15
9. John gives one third of his money to Janet who has
2. A sum of money was invested at 8% per annum simple #105.00. He then finds that his money is reduced to
interest. If after 4years the money amounts to #330.00, one-fourth of what Janet now has. Find how much
find the amount originally invested. money John had at first.
A. #180.00 B. #165.00 C. #150.00 A. #45.00 B. #48.00 C. #52.00
D. #200.00 E. #250.00 D. #58.00 E. #60.00

3. In the equation below, solve for x if all the numbers are in 10. Find x if Log9x = 1.5
base 2? 11/x = 1000/(x + 101) A. 72.0 B. 27.0 C. 36.0
A. 101 B. 11 C. 110 D. 3.5 E. 24.5
D. 111 E. 10
11. Write h in terms of a =b(1 - ch)
4. List all integers satisfying the inequality (1-dh)
-2 < 2x – 6 < 4
A. 2,3,4,5 B. 2,3,4 C. 2,5 A h = (a - b) B. h = (a + b )
D. 3,4,5 E. 4,5 (ad- bc) (ad - bc)

5. Find correct to tow decimal places C. h = (ad - bc) D. h = (1 - b)

100 + 1/100 + 3/1000 + 27/10000 (a- b) (d - bc)
A. 100.02 B. 1000.02
C. 100.22 D. 100.01 E. h = (b - a)
E. 100.51 (ad - bc)

6. Simplify 1/2 + 1 12. 221/2% of the Nigerian Naira is equal to 171/10% of a foreign
1 currency M. what is the conversion rate of the M to the
2 + ------------- Naira?
1 A. 1M = 15/57N B. 1M = 211/57N
18
2 - -------------- C. 1M = 1 /57N D. 1M = 381/4N
3
4 +1/5 E. 1M = 384 /4N
A. ¾ B. –1/3 C. 169/190
D. 13/15 E. 121/169 13. Find the values of p for which the equation x2 – (p - 2)x
+ 2p + 1 = 0 has equal roots
7. If three number p,q,r are in the ratio 6:4:5 find the value A. (0,12) B. (1,2) C. (21,0)
of (3q – q)/(4q + r) D. (4,5) E. (3,4)
14. If ex = 1 + x + x2/12 + x3/1.2.3 + ….. find 1/e1/2 25. If f(x - 2) = 4x2 + x + 7 find f(1)
A. 1 - x + x2 - x2 +... B. 1 + x + x2 + x2 A. 12 B. 27 C. 7
2 123 24 3 2 1.22 23.3 D. 46 E. 17
2 2
C. 1 + x + x - x +... D. 1 - x + x2 - x2 +
3 4.
2 1.2 2 3 2 1.22 23.3 26. In DXYZ, XY = 13cm, YZ = 9cm, XZ = 11cm and XYZ =
3 3 4
E. 1+ x + x - x + q0. find cos q0
1.2 12.4 12.63 A. 4/39
B. 43/39
5. (4√3 + 4√2) (4√3 - 4√2) (3√ + √2) is equal to C. 209/286
A. 0 B. 4√3 + 4√2 D. 1/6
C. (4√2 - 4√3) (√3 + √2) E. 43/78
D. √3 + √2 E. 1
27. Find the missing value in the table below
16. In a restaurant, the cost of providing a particular type
of food is partly constant and partly inversely x -2 -1 0 1 2 3
proportional to the number of people. If the cost per y = x2 - x + 3
O
3 3 3 9 27
head for 100people is 30k and the cost for 40 people is
60k, find the cost for 50 people A. -32 B. –14 C. 40
A. 15k B. 45k C. 20k D. 22 E. 37
D. 50k E. 40k
28. Find the number of goals scored by a football team in
17. The factors of 9 – (x2 – 3x - 1)2 are 20matches is shown below
A. -(x - 4)(x + 1)(x - 1)(x - 2) No . of goals 0 1 2 3 4 5
B. (x - 4)(x - 1)(x - 1)(x + 2) No . of matches 3 5 7 4 1 0
C. -(x - 2)(x + 1)(x + 2)(x + 4)
D. (x - 4)(x -3)(x - 2)(x + 1) What are the values of the mean and the mode
E. (x - 2)(x + 2)(x - 1)(x + 1) respectively?
A. (1.75, 5) B. (1.75, 2)
18. If 32y – 6(3y) = 27 find y C. (1.75, 1) D. (2,2)
A. 3 B. –1 C. 2 E. (2,1)
D. –3 E. 1
29. If the hypotenuse of a right angle isosceles triangle is
19. Factorize abx2 + 8y – 4bx –2axy 2, what is the length of each of the other sides?
A. (ax - 4) (bx – 2y) B. (ax + b) (x – 8y) A. √2 B. 1/√2 C. 2√2
C. (ax – 2y) (by – 4) D. (abx - 4) (x – 2y) D. 1 E. 2 -1
E. (bx - 4) (ax – 2y)
30. If two fair coins are tossed, what is the probability of
20. At what real value of x do the curves whose equations getting at least one head?
are y = x3 + x and y = x2 + 1 intersect? A. ¼ B. ½ C. 1
A. -2 B. 2 C. –1 D. 2/3 E. ¾
D. 0 E. 1
31. The ratio of the length of two similar rectangular blocks
21. If the quadrilateral function 3x2 – 7x + R is a perfect is 2:3, if the volume of the larger block is 351cm3, then
square find R the volume of the other block is
A. 49/24 B. 49/3 C. 49/6 A. 234.00cm3 B. 526.50cm3
3
D. 49/12 E. 49/36 C. 166.00cm D. 729.75cm3
3
E. 104.00cm
22. Solve the following equation
2/(2r – 1) – 5/3 = 1/ (r + 2) 32. The bearing of bird on a tree from a hunter on the
A. (-1, 5/2) B. (-1, -5/2) ground is N720E. what is the bearing of the hunter from
C. (5/2, 1) D. (2, 1) the bird?
E. (1, 2) A. S180W B. S720W
0
23. Solve for (x,y) in the equations C. S72 Eq D. S270E
0
2x + y = 4: x2 + xy = -12 E. S27 W
A. (6, -8); (-2,8) B. (3, -4); (-1, 4)
C. (8, -4); (-1, 4) D. (-8, 6);(8, -2)
E. (-4, 3);(4, -1)
24. Solve the simultaneous equations
2x – 3y + 10 = 10x – 6y = 5
A. x = 21/2, y = 31/3 B. x = 31/2, y = 21/3
1
C. x = 2 /4, y = 3 D. x = 31/2, y = 21/5
1 1
E. x = 2 /2, y = 2 /3
33. X 39. A solid sphere of radius 4cm has mass of 64kg. What will
be the mass of a shell of the same metal whose internal
25 and external radii are 2cm and 3cm respectively?
15 A. 5kg B. 16kg C. 19kg
D. 25kg E. 48kg
8
Y Z
K 40. S

In D XYZ above, XKZ = 900, XK = 15cm, XZ cm and YK 145 O

R
= 8cm. Find the area of the D XYZ.
A. 180sq.cm B. 210sq.cm
C. 160sq.cm D. 320sq.cm P Q
E. 390sq.cm O

34. Without using tables. Calculate the value of 1 + sec230?

A. 21/3 B. 2 C. 11/3
D. ¾ E. 3/7
In the figure above POQ is the diameter of the circle
35. What is the probability that a number chosen at random PQRS. If PSR = 1450, find x0
from the integers between 1 and 10 inclusive is either a A. 250 B. 350 C. 450
0 0
prime or a multiple of 3? D. 55 E. 25
A. 7/10 B. 3/5 C. 4/5
D. ½ E. 3/10 41. N
M
36. Find the area of a regular hexagon inscribed in a circle
of radius 8cm.
K
A. 16√3cm2 B. 96√3cm2 L
2
C. 192.3cm D. 16cm2
2
E. 32cm
J I
37. X

H
N
In the figure above GHIJKLMN is a cube of side a. find
the length of HN
86 O A. 3√a B. 3a C. 3a2
122
O Q D. a√2 E. a√3
M
42. PQRS is a trapezium of area 14cm2 in which PQ//RS, if
PQ = 4cm and SR = 3cm, find the area of DSQR in cm2
P
A. 7.0 B. 6.0 C. 5.2
D. 5.0 E. 4.1

43.
Y
Q
In the figure above, MNOP is a cyclic quadrilateral, O
MN and PQ are produced to meet at X and NQ and MP 0
are produced to meet at Y. if MNQ = 860 and NQP = 1220,
find (x0, y0) 0
O

S P
A. (280 ,,360) B. (360 ,280) R
0, 0
C. (43 ,61 ) D. (610 ,430)
0 0
E. (36 ,43 )

38. If cosq = √3/2 and 0 is less than 900, calculate

cot (90 - q) / sin2q In the figure PQ is the tangent from P to the circle QRS
A. 4√3/3 B. 4√3 with SR as its diameter. If PQR = q0, which of the following
C. √3/2 D. 1/√3 relationship 00 is correct.?
E. 2/√3 A. q0 + f = 900 B. f0 = 900 - 200
0 0
C. q =f D. f0 = 200
0 0 0
E. q + 2f = 120
44. A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls. Two Redballs 48. In a class of 120students, 18 of them scored an A grade in
are taken from the bag without replacement. What is Mathematics. If the section representing the A grade
the probability that they are both red? students on a pie chart has angle Z0 at the centre of the
A. 1/3 B. 2/9 C. 2/15 circle, what is Z?
D. 1/5 E. 3/5 A. 15 B. 28 C. 50
D. 52 E. 54
45. How many 2 2cm diameter discs can be cut out of a
sheet of cardboard 218 2p3/4cm long and p1/2cm wide? 49.
A. 49 B. 219 C. 217p3/4( 2p + 2)
D. 10 3/4
2 p (1 + 2) E. 29( 2 + 1) 80O

46. Two points X and Y both on latitude 600S have O

longitudes 1470E and 1530W respectively. Find to the

40
nearest kilometre the distance between X and Y O
measured along the parallel of latitudes (Take 2 R = 4 x 20
xO
104km, where R is the radius of the earth).
A. 28.850km B. 16.667km
C. 8.333km D. 6.667km In the figure above find the angle x
E. 3.333km A. 1000 B. 1200 C. 600
0
D. 110 E. 1400
47.
50. If a (x+1) - (x +1) = bx
( x-2 ) ( n+2)

120O Find a simplest form

3 A. x2 – 1 B. x2 + 1 C. x2 + 4
3 D. 1 E. x2 - 4

In the figure above the area of the shaded segment is

A. 3p B. 9 3/4
C. 3(p - 3 3/4) D. 3( 3 - p)/4
E. p + 9 3/4

Mathematics 1986
1. Evaluate 5. Find the reciprocal of 2/3
(212)3 – (121)3 + (222)3 1/2 + 1/3
A. (313)3 B. (1000)3
C. (1020)3 D. (1222)3 A. 4/5 B. 5/4
C. 2/5 D. 6/7
2. If Musa scored 75 in Biology instead of 57, his
average mark in four subjects would have been 60. 6. Three boys shared some oranges. The first receive 1/3
what was his total mark? of the oranges, the second received 2/3 of the remainder,
A. 282 B. 240 if the third boy received the remaining 12 oranges. How
C. 222 D. 210 many oranges did they share?
A. 60 B. 54
3. Divide the L.C.M. of 48, 64 and 80 by their H.C.F C. 48 D. 42
A. 20 B. 30
C. 48 D. 60 7. If P = 18, Q = 21, R = -6 and S = -4 calculate (P - Q) + S2
A. -11/216 B. 11/216
4. Find the smallest number by which 252 can be C. –43/115 D. 41/116
multiplied to obtain a perfect square
A. 2 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7
8. Simplify 0.03 x 4 x 0.00064 20. Factorize x2 + 2a + ax + 2x
0.48 x 0.012 A. (x + 2a)(x + 1) B. (x + 2a)(x - 1)
A. 3.6 x 102 B. 36 x 102 C. (x2 - 1)(x + a) D. (x + 2)(x + a)
C. 3.6 x 103 D. 3.6 x 104
21. Solve the equation 3x2 + 6x – 2 = 0
9. Udoh deposited #150 00 in the bank. At the end of 5 A. x = -1,±√3/3 B. x = -1,±√15/√3
years the simple interest on the principal was #55 00. C. x = -2, ±2√3/3 D. x = -2, ±2√15/3
At what rate per annum was the interest paid?
A. 11% B. 71/3% 22. Simplify. 1/ 5x +5 + 1/7x + 7
C. 5% D. 31/2% A. 12/35+7 B. 1/35(x+1)

10. A number of pencils were shared out among Bisi, Sola C. 12x/35(x+1) D. 12/35x + 35
and Tunde in the ratio 2:3:5 respectively. If Bisi got 5,
how many were shared out? 23. The curve y = -x2 + 3x + 4 intersects the coordinate axes
A. 15 B. 25 at
C. 30 D. 50 A. (4,0)(0,0)(-1,0) B. (-4,0)(0,4)(1,1)
C. (0,0)(0,1)(1,0) D. (0,4)(4,0)(-1,0)
11. The ages of Tosan and Isa differ by 6 and the product
of their ages is 187. write their ages in the form (x, y), 24. Factorize (4a + 3)2 – (3a - 2)2
where x > y A. (a + 1)(a + 5) B. (a - 5)(7a - 1)
A. (12, 9) B. (23, 17) C. (a + 5)(7a + 1) D. a(7a + 1)
C. (17, 11) D. (18, 12)
25. If 5(x + 2y) = 5 and 4(x + 3y) = 16, find 3(x +y)
12. In 1984, Ike was 24 years old and is father was 45 years A. 0 B. 1
old in what year was Ike exactly half his father’s age? C. 3 D. 27
A. 1982 B. 1981
C. 1979 D. 1978 26. Simplify 1/ x - 2 + 1/ x + 2 + 2x / x2 - 4

13. Simplify ( 1 1 ) x -1/√3 A. 2x/ (x-2) (x+2) (x2 - 4) B.2x/x2 - 4

(√5 + √3 − √5 − √3)
C. x/x2 - 4 D. 4x/ x2 - 4
A. √3/√5 B. –2/√3
27. Make r the subject of the formula
C. –2 D. –1
S = 6/v - w/2
A. V = 6 = 12 B. v = 12
14. Find n if Log24 + Log2Z – Log2n = -1
S2 w 252 - w
A. 10 B. 14
C. v = 12 - 2s2 D. v = 12
C. 27 D. 28
w 2s2 + w
15. (91/3 x 27-1/2) / (3-1/6 x 3-2/3)
28. Find the values of x which satisfy the equation
16x – 5x 4x + 4 = 0
A. 1/3 B. 1
A. 1 and 4 B. –2 and 2
C. 3 D. 9
C. 0 and 1 D. 1 and 0
16. If x varies directly as y3 and x = 2 when y = 1, find x
29. a/b –c/d = k, find the value of
when y = 5
(3a2 – ac + c2)/(3b2 – bd + d2) in term of k
A. 2 B. 10
A. 3k2 B. 3k – k2
C. 125 D. 250
C. 17k2/4 D. k2
17. Factorize completely.
30. At what point does the straight line y = 2x + 1 intersect
3a + 125ax3
2
the curve y = 2x2 + 5x – 1?
A. (2a + 5x )(4 + 25ax)
A. (-2,-3) and (1/2, 2) B. (-1/2 0) and (2, 5)
B. a(2 + 5x)(4 – 10x + 25ax2)
C. (1/2, 2) and (1, 3) D. (1, 3) and (2, 5)
C. (2a + 5x)(4 - 10ax + 25ax2)
D. a(2 + 5x)(4 + 10ax + 25ax2)
31. A regular polygon on n sides has 1600 as the size each
interior. Find n.
18. If y = x/(x – 3) + x/(x + 4) find y when x = -2
A. 18 B. 16
A. -3/5 B. 3/5
C. 14 D. 12
C. –7/5 D. 7/5
32. If cos q = a/b, find 1 + tan2q
19. Find all the numbers x which satisfy the inequality 1/
A. b2/a 2 B. a2/b2
3(x + 1) – 1 > 1/5 (x + 4)
C. (a2 + b2) / (b2 – a2) D. (2a2 + b2)/ (a2 + b2)
A. x < 11 B. x < -1
C. x> 6 D. x > 11
33. In the diagram below, PQ and RS are chords of a circle 38. An arc of circle of radius 6cm is 8cm long. Find the area of
centre O which meet at T outside the circle. If TP = the sector.
24cm, TQ = 8cm and TS = 12cm, find TR. A. 51/3cm2 B. 24cm2
2
C. 36cm D. 48cm2
Q
P T 39. X

O
R
S 4 3

A. 16cm B. 14cm
C. 12cm D. 8cm Y Z
6
34. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower 50 In XYZ above, determine the cosine of angle Z
metres high from a point X on the ground is 300. From a A. ¾ B. 29/36
point Y on the opposite side of the tower, the angle of C. 2/3 D. ½
elevation of the top of the tower is 600. find the distance T
between the points X and Y. 40. S
A. 14.43m B. 57.73m
C. 101.03m D. 115.47m
O O
35. A girl walk 45 metres in the direction 0500 from a point Q 20 35
R
to a point X. She then walks 24metres in the direction Q
1400 from X to a point Y. How far is she then from Q?
A. 69m B. 57m In the figure above PQT is isosceles. PQ = QT. SRQ
C. 51m D. 21m = 350, TQ = 200 and PQR is a straight line. Calculate
TSR.
S
36. A. 200 B. 550
C. 75 D. 1400

11 m 41. Find the total surface are of a solid cone of radius 2 3cm
and slanting side 4 3cm
A. 8√3cm2 B. 24cm2
P R C. 2
15√3cm D. 36cm2

6m 12 m 42. If U and V are two distinct fixed points and W is a

variable point such that UWV is a straight angle. What
8m Q is the locus of W?
A. The perpendicular bisector of UV
The figure is a solid with the trapezium PQRS as its B. A circle with UV as radius
uniform cross-section. Find its volume C. A line parallel to the line UV
A. 102m3 B. 576m3 D. A circle with the line UV as the diameter
3
C. 816m D. 1056m3
43.
37.
Q

x P
T
O
65O

35O
R

PQ and PR are tangents from P to a circle centre O as

shown in the figure above. If QRP = 340. Find the angle
marked x.
A. 340 B. 560 In the figure above, PQ//ST, RS//UV. If PQR = 350 and
0 0
C. 68 D. 112 QRS = 650, find STV
A. 300 B. 350
0
C. 55 D. 650
44. An open rectangular box externally measures 4m x 3m x 48. The people in a city with a population of 109 million were
4m. find the total cost of painting the box externally if it grouped according to their ages. Use the diagram below
costs #2.00 to paint one square metre. to determine the number of people in the 15-29 years
A. #96.00 B. #112.00 group.
C. #136.00 D. #160.00

45. Of the nine hundred students admitted in a university

in 1979, the following was the distribution by state 24O
Anambra 185
O
Imo 135 52 O
Kaduna 90 116
O
Kwara 110 64
O
Ondo 155 104
Oyo 225
In a pie chart drawn to represent this distribution, the
angle subtended at the centre by Anambra is
A. 500 B. 650
0
C. 74 D. 880
A. 29 x 104 B. 26 x 104
46. Find the median of the numbers 89, 141, 130, 161, 120, C. 16 x 104 D. 13 x 104
131, 131, 100, 108 and 119
A. 131 B. 125 49. A man kept 6black, 5 brown and 7 purple shirts in a
C. 123 D. 120 drawer. What is the probability of his picking a purple
shirt with his eyes closed?
47. Find the probability that a number selected at random A. 1/7 B. 11/18
from 40 to 50 is a prime C. 7/18 D. 7/11
A. 3/11 B. 5/11
C. 3/10 D. 4/11 50. The table below gives the scores of a group of students
in a Mathematics test

If the mode is m and the number of students who scored

4 or less is S. What is (s, m)?
A. (27,4 ) B. (14, 4)
C. (13, 4) D. (4, 4)

Mathematics 1987

1. Convert 241 in base 5 to base 8 4. Reduce each number to two significant figures and then
A. 718 B. 1078 evaluate (0.02174 x 1.2047)
C. 1768 D. 2418 0.023789
A. 0.8 B. 0.9
2. Find the least length of a rod which can be cut into C. 1.1 D. 1.2
exactly equal strips, each of either 40cm or 48cm in
length. 5. A train moves from P to Q at an average speed of 90km/
A. 120cm B. 240ccm hr and immediately returns from O to P through the
C. 360cm D. 480cm same route and at an average speed of 45km/h. find the
average speed for the centre journey.
3. A rectangular has lawn has an area of 1815square yards. A. 55 00km/hr B. 60 00km/hr
If its length is 50meters, find its width in metres. Given C. 67.50km/hr D. 75 00km/hr
that 1meters equals 1.1yards
A. 39.93 B. 35.00 6. If the length of a square is increased by 20% while its
C. 33.00 D. 30.00 width is decreased by 20% to form a rectangle, what is
the ratio of the area of the rectangle to the area of the
square?
A. 6.5 B. 25.24
C. 5.6 D. 24.25
7. Two brothers invested a total of #5,000.00 on a farm 18. The formula Q = 15 + 0 5n gives the cost Q (in Naira) of
project. The farm yield was sold for # 15, 000.00 at the feeding n people for a week. Find in kobo the extra cost
end of the season. If the profit was shared in the ratio of feeding one additional person.
2:3, what is the difference in the amount of profit A. 350k B. 200k
received by the brothers? C. 150k D. 50k
A. #2,000.00 B. #4,000.00
C. #6,000.00 D. #10,000.00 19. If P varies inversely as V and V varies directly as R2,
find the relationship between P and R given that R = 7
8. Peter’s weekly wages are #20.00 for the first 20 weeks when P = 2
and #36.00 for the next 24 weeks. Find his average A. P = 98R2 B. PR2 = 98
weekly wage for the remaining 8 weeks of the year. If C. P = 1/98R D. P = R2/98
his average weekly wage for the whole year is #30.00
A. #37.00 B. #35.00 20. Make y the subject of the formula
C. #30.00 D. #5.00 Z = x2 + 1/y3
A. y = 1 B. y = 1
9. A man invests a sum of money at 4% per annum simple (z - x2) 3 (Z + x3) 1/3
interest. After 3 years, the principal amounts to
#7,000.00. find the sum invested C. y = 1 D. y = 1
A. #7,840.00 B. #6,250.00 (Z - x2) 1/3 3
√Ζ − 3√ x2
C. #6,160.00 D. #5,833.33
21. Find the values of m which make the following quadratic
10. By selling 20 oranges for #1.35 a trader makes a profit function a perfect square
8%. What is his percentage gain or loss if he sells the x2 + 2 (m + 1) x + m + 3
same 20 oranges for #1.10? A. -1, 1 B. –1, 2
A. 8% B. 10% C. 1, -2 D. 2, -2
C. 12% D. 15%
22. Factorize 62x + 1 + 7(6x) - 5
11. Four boys and ten girls can cut a field in 5 hours. If the A. {3(6x) – 5} {2(6x)} + 1}
boys work at 1/4 the rate of which the girls work, how B. {3(6x) – 5} {2(6x)} - 1}
many boys will be needed to cut the field in 3 hours? C. {2(6x) – 5} {3(6x)} + 1}
A. 180 B. 60 D. {2(6x) – 5} {3(6x)} - 1}
C. 25 D. 20
23. Find two values of y which satisfy the simultaneous
12. Evaluate without using tables. equations x + y = 5, x2 – 2y2 = 1
A. 625/8 B. 8/625 A. 12, -2 B. –12, 12
C. 1/8 D. 8 C. –12, 2 D. 2, -2

13. Instead of writing 35/6 as a decimal correct to 3 24. An (n - 2)2 sided figure has n diagonals find the number
significant figures, a student wrote it correct to 3 places n of diagonals for a 25 sided figure
of decimals. Find his error in standard form A. 7 B. 8
A. 0.003 B. 3.0 x 10-3 C. 9 D. 10
2
C. 0.3 x 10 D. 0.3 x 10-3
25.
14. Simplify without using tables
(Log26 – Log23)/(Log28- 2Log21/2) f(x)
A. 1/5 B. ½
C. –1/2 D. Log23/Log27

15. Simplify without using tables

2√ 14 x 3√21) / 7√24x 2√98)
A. 3√14 B. 3√21 -1 0 1
4 4
C. 3 √14 D. 3 √2
28 28 A cubic function f(x) is specified by the graph show
16. If p – 2/3 (1 – r2)/n2, find n when r = Ö1/3 and p = 1 above. The values of the independent variable for which
A. 3/2 B. 3 the function vanishes are
C. 1/3 D. 2/3 A. -1, 0, 1 B. –1 < x < 1
C. x, - 1 D. x> 1
17. If a =U2–3V2 and b = 2UV + V2 evaluate (2a - b) (a – b3 ),
when u = 1 and v = -1 26. Solve the inequality x – 1 > 4(x + 2)
A. 9 B. 15 A. x > -3 B. x < -3
C. 27 D. 33 C. 2 < x < 3 D. –3 < x < -2
27. Simplify (x2 - y2) / (2x2 + xy-y2) Y
A. x+-y B. x +y 34.
2x + y 2x - y
C. x - y D. x - y
2x - y 2x + y

28. The minimum value of y in the equation

y = x2 – 6x + 8 is 9 cm 16 cm
X Z
A. 8 B. 3 T
C. 0 D. –1

29. Find the sum of the first 21 terms of the progression – In the figure above, XYZ = YTZ = 900, XT = 9cm and
10, -8, -6,…. TZ = 16cm. Find YZ
A. 180 B. 190 A. 25cm B. 20cm
C. 200 D. 210 C. 16cm D. 9cm

30. Find the eleventh term of the progression 4, 8, 16,.. 35. Two chords QR and NP of a circle intersect inside the
A. 213 B. 212 circle at X. if RQP = 370, RQN = 490 and QPN = 350, find
11
C. 2 D. 210 PRQ
A. 350 B. 370
31. Q C. 49 0
D. 590
x
36.
R
O O T y
30 y

x
P
x
x

In the diagram above, POQ is a diameter, O is the centre

of the circle and TP is a tangent. Find the value of x.
A. B. 400 In the figure above, find the value of x.
0
C. 45 D. 500 A. 1100 B. 1000
0
C. 90 D. 800
32. P
2h
37. Q R
2 cm

3h
Q R

P S
T S 2 cm 2 cm

In the diagram above, QR//TS, QR:TS = 2:3. find the In the figure above, PQRS is a rectangle. If the shaded
ratio of the area of triangle PQR to the area of the area is 72sq.cm find h
trapezium QRST A. 12cm B. 10cm
A. 4:9 B. 4:5 C. 8cm D. 5cm
C. 1:3 D. 2:3
38. The sine, cosine and tangent of 2100 are respectively
33. Three angle s of a nonagon are equal and the sum of six
other angles is 11100. Calculate the size of one of the A. -1/2, 3/2, 3/3 B. 1/2, 3/2 3/3
equal triangles
A. 2100 B. 1500 C. 3/2, 3/3, 1 D. 3/2, 1/2 1
0
C. 105 D. 500
39. If tan q = (m2 – n2)/2mn, find sec q
A. (m2 + n2)/(m2 – n2) B. (m2 + n2)/2mn
2 2
C. mn/2(m – n ) D. m2 n2/(m2 – n2)
45. What is the locus of the mid-points of all chords of length
40. From two points X and Y, 8m apart, and in line with a pole, 6cm within a circle of radius 5cm and with centre O.
the angle of elevation of the top of the pole are 300 and A. A circle of radius 4cm and with centre O
600 respectively. Find the height of the pole, assuming B. The perpendicular bisector of the chords
that X, Y and the foot of the pole are on the same C. A straight line passing through center O
horizontal plane. D. A circle of radius 6cm and with centre O
A. 4m B. 8√3/2m
C. 4√3m D. 8√3m 46. Taking the period of daylight on a certain day to be
from 5.30a.m to 7.00p.m, calculate the period of daylight
41. A room is 12m long. 9m wide and 8m high. Find the and of darkness on that day
cosine of the angle which a diagonal of the room makes A. 187030’ 172030’ B. 1350225’
0 0
with the floor of the room C. 202 30’157 30’ D. 1950165’
A. 15/17 B. 8/17
C. 8/15 D. 12/17 47. The goals scored by 40 football teams from three league
divisions are recorded below
42. What is the circumference of radius of the earth?
A. R cos q B. 2p R cos q
C. R sin q D. 2p R sin q
What is the total number of goals scored by all the
43. The base of a pyramid is a square of side 8cm. If its teams?
vertex is directly above the centre, find the height, given A. 21 B. 40
that the edge is 4.3cm C. 91 D. 96
A. 6cm B. 5cm
C. 4cm D. 3cm 48. The numbers 3,2,8,5,7,12,9 and 14 are the marks scored
P by a group by a group of students in a class test if P is
44. the mean and Q the median the P + Q is
A. 18 B. 171/2
C. 16 D. 15

49. Below are the scores of a group of students in a music

test

Q R
If CF(x) is the number of students with scores less than
or equal to x, find CF(6)
A. 40 B. 38
C. 33 D. 5

50. Find the probability of selecting a figure which is

X parallelogram from a square, a rectangle, a rhombus, a
kite and a trapezium
The figure above is an example of the construction of a A. 3/5 B. 2/5
A. perpendicular bisector to a given straight line C. 4/5 D. 1/5
B. perpendicular from a given point to a given line
C. perpendicular to a line from a given point on
that line
D. given angle.

Mathematics 1988
1. Simplify (1 1 / (2÷ 1 of 32)
2 4 3. A 5.0g of salts was weighed by Tunde as 5.1g. what is
A. 3/256 B. 3/32 the percentage error?
C. 6 D. 85 A. 20 B. 2
C. 2 D. 0.2
2. If x is the addition of the prime numbers between 1 and
6, and y the H. C.F of 6,9, 15, find the product of x and 4. Find correct to one decimal place,
y 0.24633 /0.0306
A. 27 B. 30 A. 0.8 B. 1.8
C. 33 D. 90 C. 8.0 D. 8.1
5. Two sisters, Taiwo and Kehinde, own a store. The ratio 16. If g(y) = y – 3/11 + 11/ y2 – 9 what is g(y + 3)?
of Taiwo’s share to Kehind’s is 11:9. later Kehinde sells
2/3 of her share to Taiwo for #720.00. Find the value of A. y + 11 B. y + 11
the store. 11 y(y+6) 11 y(y+3)
A. #1,080.00 B. #2,400.00 C. y + 30 + 11 D. y + 3 + 11
C. #3,000.00 D. #3,600.00 11 y(y+3) 11 y(y-6)

6. A basket contains green, black and blue balls in the 17. Factorize completely (x2 + x) 2 (2x + 2)2
ratio 5:2:1. if there are 10 blue balls, find the A. (x + y)(x + 2)(x - 2) B. (x + y)2(x - 2)2
2 2
corresponding new ratio when 10green and 10black C. (x + 1) (x+ 2) D. (x + 1)2(x + 2)2(x- 2)
balls are removed from the basket.
A. 1:1;1 B. 4:2:1 18. Simplify (x - y)
C. 5:1:1 D. 4:1:1 (x1/3 - y1/2)
A. x = xy + y2
2
B. x2/3 + x1/3 + y2/3
th
7. A taxpayer is allowed 1/8 of his income tax free, and
pays 20% on the remainder. If he pays #490. 00 tax, C. x2/3 - x1/3 y1/3 - y2/3 D. x2 - xy + y2
what is his income?
A. #560.00 B. #2,450.00 19. Solve the following equation for x
C. #2,800.00 D. #3,920.00 x2 + 2x + 1 = o
r2 r1
8. Evaluate (8 1/3 x 5 2/3) / 102/3
A. 2/5 B. 5/3 A. r2 B. 1/r2
C. 2√5 D. 3√5 C. –1/r2 D. 1/r

9. If Log102 = 0.3010 and Log103 = 0.4771, evaluate, without 20. List the integral values of x which satisfy the inequality
using logarithm tables log104.5 1 < 5 < -2x < 7
A. 0.3010 B. 0.4771 A. -1,0,1,2 B. 0,1,2,3
C. 0.6352 D. 0.9542 C. -1,0,1,2,3, D. -1,0,2,3

10. Find m such that (m ¸ 3) (1 - √3 )2 = 6 - √3 = 6 - 2√3 21. Given value that 3x – 5y – 3 = 0

A. 1 B. 2 2y – 6x + 5 = 0
C. 3 D. 4 the value of (x, y) is

11. The thickness of an 800-paged book is 18mm. Calculate A. (-1/8, 19/24) B. (8, 24/10)
the thickness of one leaf of the book giving your answer
in metres and in standard form. C. (-8, 24/19) D. (19/24, -1/8)
A. 2.25 x 10-4m B. 4.50 x 10-4m
-5
C. 2.25 x 10 m D. 4.50 x 10-5m 22. The solution of the quadratic equation
bx2 + qx + b = 0
12. Simplify ( x + 2) - (x - 2) A -b±√b2 − 4ac B -b± p2− 4pb
( x + 1) ( x +2) 2a 2a
A. 3 B. 3x + 2 C -q±√q2 - 4bp D -q±√p2 - 4bp
x+1 (x+1) (x+2) 2p 2p
C. 5x + 6 D. 2x2 + 5x + 2
(x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 1) (x + 2) 23. Simplify 1 + 1
(x2+5x+6) (x2 + 3x + 2)
13. If 1/p = (a2 + 2ab + b2) A. x+3 B. 1
(a - b) and (x+1) (x+2) (x+1) x+2) x+3)
1/q = (a + b) C. 2 D. 4
(a2 - 2ab + b2) find p/q (x+1) (x+3) (x+1) (x+3)
A. a+b B. 1
a-b a2 - b2 24. Evaluate (4a2 - 4ab2)
C. a - b D. a2 - b2 (2a2 + 5ab - 7b2)
a+b
14. If x varies inversely as the cube root of y and x = 1 when A. a -b B. 2a + 7b
y = 8 find y when x = 3 2a + b a - b
A. 1/3 B. 2/3
C. 8/27 D. 4/9 C. 2a - 7b D. 2a - 7b
a +b a-b
15. If a = -3, b = 2, c = 4, calculate (a3-b3-c1/2)
(b-1-c)
A. 37 B. –37/5
C. 37/5 D. –37
Using the graph to answer questions 25 and 26 31. S
T
o
x
y
4

Q
3 P

3xo
2 O
y=I 40

1 R
In the figure above, PQ is parallel to ST and QRS = 400.
find the value of x
-4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 1 A. 55 B. 60
-2 C. 65 D. 75

-1 32. For which of the following exterior angles is a regular

polygon possible?
25. What is the solution of the equation i 350 ii 180 iii. 1150
x2 – x – 1 = 0? A. i and ii B. ii only
A. x = 1.6 and x = -0.6 B. x = -1.6 and x = 0.6 C. ii and iii D. iii only
C. x = 1.6 and x = 0.6 D. x = -1.6 and x = -0.6
33.
Q R 9cm
26. For what values of x is the curve Y T
y = (x2 + 3) / (x + 4)
A. -3 < x< 0 B. –3 < x < 0
C. 0<x<3 D. 0<x<3

27. The solution of x2 – 2x – 1 0 are the points of intersection

of two graphs. If one of the graphs is y= 2 + x – x2, find
the second graph.
P 7cm S
A. y= 1 – x B. y=1 + x
C. y= x – 1 D. y = 3x + 3 In the figure above, PS = 7cm and RY = 9cm. If the area
of parallelogram PQRS is 56cm 2, find the area of
28. If the sum of the 8th and 9th terms of an arithmetic trapezium PQTS.
progression is 72 and the 4th term is –6, find the common A. 56cm2 B. 112cm2
2
difference. C. 120cm D. 1762
A. 4 B. 8
C. 62/3 D. 91/3 34. A quadrilateral of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away
from each corner of a rectangle 25cm long and 18cm
29. If 7 and 189 are the first and fourth terms of a geometric wide. Find the perimeter of the remaining figure
progression respectively find the sum of the first three A. 38cm B. (38 + 12p)cm
terms of the progression. C. (86 - 12p)cm D. (86 - 6p)cm
A. 182 B. 91
C. 63 D. 28
Q
35. 5
30. 6 S
Q
P T

P R

O
In the figure above STQ = SRP, PT = TQ = 6cm and QS
120 = 5cm. Find SR.
T A. 47/5 B. 5
100O R
C. 37/5 D. 22/5
S
36. Four interior angles o f a pentagon are 900 – x0, 900 + x0,
In the figure above, PQRS is a circle. If chords QR and 100 – 2x0, 1100 + 2x0. find the fifth interior angle.
RS are equal, calculate the value of x A. 1100 B. 1200
A. 800 B. 600 C. 1300
D. 1400
0
C. 45 D. 400
37. S 45.

50O

60 cm
P

Q
30 cm
R

In the figure above, PS = RS = QS and QSR = 500. find

QPR.
A. 250 B. 400
0
C. 50 D. 650 In the figure above, a solid consists of a hemisphere
surmounted by a right circular cone with radius 3.0cm
38. R and height 6.0cm. find the volume of the solid.
Z
A. 18pcm3 B. 36pcm3
3
C. 54pcm D. 108pcm3
O
55
46. PQR is a triangle in which PQ= 10ccm and QPR = 600. S
45
O
is a point equidistant from P and Q. also S is a point
Y
X equidistant from PQ and PR. If U is the foot of the
perpendicular from S on PR, find the length SU in cm to
one decimal place.
A. 2.7 B. 2.9
P C. 3.1 D. 3.3
Q
47. In a class of 150 students, the sector in a pie chart
In the figure above, XR and YQ are tangents to the representing the students offering Physics has angle
circle YZXP if ZXR = 450 and YZX = 550 find ZYQ. 120. How many students are offering Physics?
A. 1350 B. 1250 A. 18 B. 15
0
C. 100 D. 900 C. 10 D. 5

39. From a point 14√3 metres away from a tree, a man 48. If x and y represents the mean and the median
discovers that the angle of elevation of the tree is 300. respectively of the following set of numbers; 11,
If the man measures this angle of elevation from a point 12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,21,. Find x/y correct to one
2meters above the ground how high is the tree? decimal place.
A. 12m B. 14m A. 1.6 B. 1.2
C. 14√3m D. 16m C. 1.1 D. 1.0

40. Alero starts a 3km walk from P on a bearing 0230. she 49.
then walks 4km on a bearing 1130 to Q what is the bearing
of Q from P?
A. 26052’ B. 5208’
0
C. 76 8’ D. 900 In the distribution above, the mode and the median
respectively are
41. If cot q = x/y, find cosec q A. 1.3 B. 1.2
C. 3.3 D. 0.2
A. 1/y(x2+y) B. (x/y)
50. If two dice are thrown together, what is the probability
C. 1/y(x2+y) D. y/x of obtaining at least a score of 10?
A. 1/6 B. 1/12
42. In triangle PQR, PQ = 1cm, QR = 2cm and PQR = 1200. C. 5/6 D. 11/12
Find the longest side of the triangle
A. 3 B. 3 7/7
C. 3 7 D. 7

44. If a metal pipe 10cm long has an external diameter of

12cm and a thickness of 1cm, find the volume of the
metal used in making the pipe.
A. 120pcm3 B. 110pcm3
3
C. 60pcm D. 50pcm3
Mathematics 1989
1. Which of the following is in descending order? 13. Make R the subject of the formula
A. 9/10,4/5,3/4,17/10 B. 4/5,9/10,3/4,17/20 S = √(2R +Τ )
C. 6/10,17/20,4/5,3/4 D. 4/5,9/10,17/10,3/4 (3RT)
A. R = T B. T
2. Evaluate 2,700, 000 x 0.03 ¸ 18,000 (TS2 - 1) 2(TS2 - 1)
A. 4.5 x 100 B. 4.5 x 101
2
C. 4.5 x 10 D. 4.5 x 103 C R= T D. T
(TS2 + 1) 2(TS2 + 1)
3. The prime factors of 2,520 are
A. 2,9,5, B. 2,9,7, 14. Find the value of the expression
C. 2,3,5,7, D. 2,3,7,9, 32 - 64 81 when x = -3/4
81x3 xx2 16
1
4. If 12e = X7 find x where e = 12 A. 10 /2 B. 101/6
3
A. 20 B. 15 C. 3 /8 D. –131/2
C. 14 D. 12
15. The cost of dinner for a group of students is partly
5. Simplify 3√64r -6)1/2 cconstant and partly varies directly as the number of
students. If the cost is #74.00 when the number of
A. r B. 2r students is 20, and #96.00 when the number is 30, find
C. 1/2r D. 2/r the cost when there are 15 students.
A. #68.50 B. #63.00
6. What is the difference between 0.007685 correct to three C. #60.00 D. #52.00
significant figures and 0.007685 correct to four places
of decimal? 16. If f(x) = 2x2 + 5x + 3, find f(x + 1)
A. 10-5 B. 7 x 10-4 A. 2x2 – x B. 2x2 – x + 10
-5
C. 8 x 10 D. 10 -6 C. 4x2 + 3x + 2 D. 4x2 + 3x + 12

7. If a : b = 5: 8, x : y = 25 : 16, evaluate a/x : b/y 17. Solve the positive number x such that
A. 125:128 B. 3:5 2(x3 – x2 – 2x) = 1
C. 3:4 D. 2:5 A. 4 B. 3
C. 2 D. 1
8. Oke deposited #800.00 in the bank aat the rat of 121/2%
simple interest. After some time the total amount was 18. Simplify (32x - 4x2)
one and half times the principal. For how many years (2x + 18)
was the money left in the bank A. 2(x - 9) B. 2(9 + x )
A. 2 B. 4 C. 81 – x2 D. –2(x - 9)
C. 51/2 D. 8
19. Factorize completely y3 – 4xy + xy3 – 4y
9. If the surface area of a sphere is increased by 44%. A. (x + xy)(y + 2)(y - 2)
Find the percentage increase in its diameter. B. (y + xy)(y + 2)(y - 2)
A. 44 B. 30 C. y(1 + x)(y + 2)(y - 2)
C. 22 D. 20 D. y(1 - x)(y + 2)(y - 2)

10. Simplify 4 - 1 20. If one of x3 – 8-1 is x – 2–1 , the other factors is

(2-√3) A. x2 + 2-1 x – 4-1 B. x2 - 2-1 x – 4-1
A. 2√3 B. –2., √3 C. 2 -1
x +2 x+4 -1
D. x2 + 2-1 x –4-1
C. –2 + √3 D. 2, -√3
21. Factorize 4a2 + 12ab – c2+ 9b2
11. Find p in terms of q if Log3p + 3log3q = 3 A. 4a(a – 3b) + (3b - c)2
A. (3)3 B. (q)1/3 B. (2a + 3b – c )(2a + 3b + c)
(q) (3) C. (2a – 3b -c)(2a –3b + c)
C. (q)3 D. (3)1/3 D. 4a(a – 3b) + (3b +c)2
(3) (q)
22. What are K and L respectively if ½ (3y – 4x)2 = (8x2 +
12. What are the values of y which satisfy the equation kxy + Ly2)
9y – 4 ( 3y) + 3 = 0 A. -12, 9/2 B. –6, 9
A. -1 and 0 B. –1 and 1 C. 6, 9 D. 12, 9/2
C. 1 and 3 D. 0 and 1
23. Solve the pair of equation for x and y respectively A. 1,10 B. 2,10
2x-1 – 3y-1 = 4 C. 3,13 D. 4,16
4x-1 + y-1 = 1
M
A. -1,2 B. 1,2 31.
C. 2,1 D. 2,-1
N
2
24. What value of Q will make the expression 4x + 5x + Q a
complete square?
A. 25/16 B. 25/64 Q
C. 5/8 D. 5/4 R

25. Find the range of values of r which satisfies the following MN is a tagent to the given circle at M, MR and MQ are
inequality, where a, b and c are positive. r/a+r/b+r/c >1 two chords. If QMN is 600 and MNQ is 400, find RMQ
A. r> abc B. r>abc A. 1200 B. 110
0
bc + ac + ab C. 60 D. 200

C. r > 1/a + 1/b + 1/c D. r>1/abc 32. P

26. Express 1 - 1

cm
4
(x + 1) (x - 2)
A. -3 B. 3 H K
(x +1)(2-x) (x+1)2-X)

cm
3
Q R
C. -1 D. 1
(x+1)(x-2) (x+1)(x-2) In the diagram above, HK is prallel to QR, PH = 4cm and
HQ = 3cm. What is the ratio of KR;PR?
27. Simplify x - (x+ 1 ) 1/2 A. 7:3 B. 3:7
(x + 1) (x + 1) 1/2 C. 3:4 D. 4:3

A. 1 B. - 1 33. A regular polygon of (2k + 1) sides has 1400 as the size

x+1 x+ 1 of each interior angel. Find K.
A. 4 B. 41/2
C. 1 D. 1 C. 8 D. 81/2
x x+1 S
34. T
28.
y
b
a g

m
c k h 24O
P R
d f l x
Q
-1 1 2 3 i 4 5 6
If PST is a straight line and PQ = QS = SR in the above
j
e diagram, find y
A. 240 B. 480
0
C. 72 D. 840
On the curve above, the points at which the gradient of
S
the curve is equal to zero are 35.
A. c.d.f.i.l B. b.e.g.j.m
C. a.b.c.d.f.i.j.l. D. c.d.f.h.i.l
P
29. The sum of the first two terms of a geometric progression
is x and the sum of the last two terms is y. if there are n R 60O
terms in all, then the common ratio is
A. x/y B. y/x Q
C. (x/y)1/2 D. (y/x)1/2 In the above diagram PQ is parallel to RS and QS bisects
PQR. If PQR is 600, find x
30. If –8, m,n, 19 in arithmetic progression, find (m, n) A. 300 B. 400
0
C. 60 D. 1200

36. PQRS is a rhombus. If PR2 + QS2 = kPQ2. Determine k.

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
37. In DXYZ, Y = Z = 300 and XZ = 3cm find YZ 45. O
A. √3/2cm B. 3√3/2cm
C. 3√3cm D. 2√3cm

38. In DPQR, the bisector of QPR meets QR at S. the line PQ

is produced to V and the bisector of VQS meets PS
produced at T. if QPR = 460 and QST = 750, calculate X
QTS W
A. 410 B. 520 T
C. 640
D. 820 Y
Z
Y
39. OXYZW is a pyramid with a square base such that OX
= OY = OZ = OW = 5cm and XY = XW = YZ = WZ =
S
6cm. Find the height OT.
A. 2√5 B. 3
C. 4 D. √7

46. In preparing rice cutlets, a cook used 75g of rice, 40g of

O 3yO margarine, 105g of meat and 20g of bread crumbs. Find
y 56
O

P R the angle of the sector which represents meat in a pie

Q chart.
A. If PQR is a straight line with OS = = QR, A. 300 B. 600
calculate TPQ, if QT//SR and TQS = 3y0. C. 112.5 0
D. 157.50
A. 620 B. 560
2 0
C. 20 /3 D. 182/30 47. In a class of 30 students, the marks scored in an
examination are displayed in the following histogram.
40. R

No . of students 10
Z
X
8

6
S T
4
If x : y = 5:12 and z = 52cm, find the perimeter of the
triangle. 2
A. 68cm B. 84cm
C. 100cm D. 120cm 0
20 40 60 80 100
41. The pilot of an aeroplane, flying 10km above the ground Marks scored
in the direction of a landmark, views the landmark to
have angle of depression of 350 and 550. find the distance What percentage of the students scored more than
between the two points of observation 40%
A. 10(sin 350 – sin 550) A. 14% B. 40%
B. 10(cos 350 – cos 550) C. 452/3% D. 531/3%
C. 10(tan 350 – tan 550)
D. 10(cot 350 – cot 550) 48. In a family of 21 people, the average age is 14years. If
the age of the grandfather is not counted, the average
42. A sin2x – 3 = 0, find x if 0 < x < 900 age drops to 12years. What is the age of the
A. 300 B. 450 grandfather?
C. 600 D. 900 A. 35years B. 40years
C. 42years D. 54years
43. A square tile has side 30cm. How many of these tiles
cover a rectangular floor of length 7.2cm and width 49. If n is the median and m is the mode of the following set
4.2m? of numbers,2.4,2.1,1.6,2.6,2.6,3.7,2.,1,2.6, then (n, m) is
A. 336 B. 420 A. (2.6,2.6) B. (2.5,2.6)
C. 576 D. 720 C. (2.6,2.5) D. (2.5,2.1)

44. A cylindrical metal pipe 1m long has an outer diameter 50. The numbers are chosen at random from three numbers
of 7.2cm and an inner diameter of 2.8cm. find the volume 1,3,6. find the probability that the sum of the two is not
of metal used for the cylinder. odd.
A. 440pcm3 B. 1,100pcm3 A. 2/3 B. ½
3
C. 4,400pcm D. 11,000pcm3 C. 1/3 D. 1/6
Mathematics 1990
1. Simplify (43/4 - 61/4) 12. If a = 2, b = -2 and c = -1/2,
(4 of 1 1/4)
1/5
evaluate (ab2 – bc2) (a2c - abc)
A. 0 B. –28
A. -77/8 B. –2/7 C. –30 D. –34
C. –10/21 D. 10/21
13. Y varies inversely as x2 and X varies directly as Z2. find
2 2 2 3
2. The H.C.F. of a bx + abx and a b – b is the relationship between Y and Z, if C is a constant.
A. b B. a+b A. Z2y = C B. Y = CZ2
C. a(a + b) D. abx (a2 – b2) C. Y = CZ 2
D. Y= C

3. Correct 241.34 (3 x 10-3)2 to 4 significant figures 14. Find the value of r in terms of p and q in the following
A. 0.0014 B. 0.001448 equation
C. 0.0022 D. 0.002172 P/2 = (r/(r+q)
A. r = q B. pq2
2
4. At what rate would a sum of #100.00 deposited for 5 2-p 2 - q2
2 2
years raise an interest of #7.50? C. r = p q D. p
A. 11/2% B. 21/2% 2 - pq q(2-p)
C. 15% D. 25%
15. If f(x - 4) = x2 + 2x + 3, find f(2)
5. Three children shared a basket of mangoes in such a A. 6 B. 11
way that the first child took ¼ of the mangoes and the C. 27 D. 51
second ¾ of the remainder. What fraction of the
mangoes did the third child take? 16. Factorize 9(x + y)2 – 4(x - y)2
A. 3/16 B. 7/16 A. (x + y) (5x + y) B. (x + y)2
C. 9/16 D. 13/16 C. (x + 5y) (5x + y) D. 5(x + y)2

6. Simplify and express in standard form 17. If a2 + b2 = 16 and 2ab = 7 find all the possible values of
(0.00275 x 0.00640/( 0.025 x 0.08) (a – b )
A. 8.8 x 10-1 B. 8.8 x 102 A. 3, -3 B. 2, -2
-3
C. 8.8 x 10 D. 8.8 x 103 C. 1, -1 D. 3, -1

7. Three brothers in a business deal share the profit at the 18. Divide x3 – 2x2 – 5x + 6 by (x - 1)
end of contract. The first received 1/3 of the profit and A. x2 – x –6 B. x2 – 5x + 6
the second 2/3 of the remainder. If the third received C. x2 – 7x + 6 D. x2 – 5x - 6
the remaining #12.000.00, how much profit did they 19. If x + = 4, find the x2 + 1/x
share? A. 16 B. 14
A. #60,000.00 B. #54,000.00 C. 12 D. 9
C. #48,000.00 D. #42,000.00
20. What must be added to 4x2 – 4 to make it a perfect
8. Simplify √ 160r + √ (71r + √100r
2 4 3
square?
A. -1/x2 B. 1/x2
A. 9r2 B. 12 3r C. 1 D. -1
C. 13r D. 13r
21. Find the solution of the equation
9. Simplify √27 + 3/√3 x – 8 √x + 15 = 0
A. 4√3 B. 4/√3 A. 3, 5 B. –3, -5
C. 3√3 D. 3√/4 C. 9, 25 D. –9, 25

10. Simplify 3Log69 + Log612 + Log664 – Log672 22. The lengths of the sides of a right-angled triangle are
A. 5 B. 7776 xcm. (3x-1)cm and (3x + 1)cm. Find x
C. Log631 D. (7776)6 A. 5 B. 7
C. 8 D. 12
11. Simplify (1 + 1 ) -1
x-1 y-1 23. The perimeter of a rectangular lawn is 24m, if the area of
A. x/y B. xy the lawn is 35m2, how wide is the lawn?
C. y/x D. (xy)-1 A. 5m B. 7m
C. 12m D. 14m
32. The angle of a sector of a circle, radius 10.5cm, is 480.
25. Simplify x + y - x2 calculate the perimeter of the sector
(x+y) (x-y) (x2 - y2) A. 8.8cm B. 25.4cm
A. x2 B. y 2
C. 25.6cm D. 29.8cm
x2 - y2 x2 - y2
C. x D. y 33. P
x2 - y2 x2 - y2

26. Given that x2 + y2 + z2 = 194, calculate z if x = 7 and√ y = 3

A. √10 B. 8
C. 12.2 D. 13.4 S

100 O
27. Find the sum of the first twenty terms of the arithmetic
progression Log a, Log a2, Log a3 Q R
A. log a20 B. log a21
200
C. log a D. log a210 In the figure above PS = QS and QSR = 1000, find QPR
A. 400 B. 500
0
24. A carpainter charges #40.00 per day for himself and C. 80 D. 1000
#10.00 per day for his assistant. If a fleet of a cars were
painted for #2,000.00 and the painter worked 10 days 34. X
more than his assistant, how much did the assistant
receive?
A. #32.00 B. #320.00
4 cm
5 cm
28. Find the sum of the first 18 terms of the progression 3, P
0
6, 12 ………..
3 cm Q
A. 3(217 - 1) B. 3(218 ) - 1 )
18
C. 3(2 + 1) D. 3(218 - 1) 3 cm

29. y
Y
0
Z
In triangle XYZ and XQP, XP = 4cm, XQ= 5cm and PQ =
QY = 3ccm. Find ZY
-1 0 2 x A. 8cm B. 6ccm
C. 4cm D. 3cm

35. Find the length of a side of a rhombus whose diagonals

are 6cm and 8cm.
A. 8cm B. 5cm
What is the equation of the quadratic function C. 4cm D. 3cm
represented by the graph above?
A. y = x2 + x - 2 B. y = x2 – x –2 36. Each of the interior angles of a regular polygon is 1400.
2
C. y = -x – x + 2 D. y = -x + x + 2 how many sides has the polygon?
30. At what value of x is the function x2 + x + 1 minimum? A. 9 B. 8
A. -1 B. –1/2 C. 7 D. 5
C. ½ D. 1
37. S
31. Q
R

O
81 x 22O
P T
P S Q

In the diagram above, the area of PQRS is 73.5cm2 and

its height is 10.5cm. find the length of PS if QR is one- In the figure above, PQRS is a circle. If PQT and SRT
third of PS. are straight lines, find the value of x.
A. 21cm B. 171/2cm A. 590 B. 770
C. 14cm D. 101/2cm C. 103 0
D. 1210
38. In a regular pentagon, PQRST, PR intersects QS at O. 44. 4 cm
calculate RQS.
A. 360 B. 720
C. 108 0
D. 1440 6 cm

39. If cos q = 12/13, find 1 + cot2 q 6 cm

A. 169/25 B. 25/169
C. 169/144 D. 144/169

40. Find the curved surface area of the frustrum in the figure.
X A. 16 10cm B. 20 10
C. 24 D.

45. The locus of a point which moves so that it is

equidistant from two intersecting straight lines is the
8 cm A. perpendicular bisector of the two lines
B. angle bisector of the two lines
C. bisector of the two lines
D. line parallel to the two lines
Y Z
46 4, 16, 30, 20, 10, 14 and 26 are represented on a pie chart.
Find the sum of the angles of the sectors representing
In the figure above, YXZ = 300, XYZ = 1050 and XY = all numbers equal to or greater than 16.
8cm. Calculate YZ. A. 480 B. 840
0
A. 162√cm B. 8√2cm C. 92 D. 2760
C. 4√2cm D. 2√2cm
47. The mean of ten positive numbers is 16. when another
41. number is added, the mean becomes 18. find the
O 6c S eleventh number.
m
8 cm A. 3 B. 16
C. 18 D. 30
T
11 cm
48. Below are the scores of a group of students in a test.

P R

If the average score is 3.5, find the value of x.

Q A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

In the figure above PQR is a semicircle. Calculate the 49. Two numbers are removed at random from the numbers
area of the shaded region. 1,2,3 and 4. what is the probability that the sum of the
2
A. /7cm2 B. 1492/7cm2 numbers removed is even?
1 2
C. 243 /7cm D. 2671/2cm2 A. 2/3 B. ½
C. 1/3 D. ¼
42. A cylindrical pipe, made of metal is 3cm, thick if the
internal radius of the pipe is 10cm. Find the volume of 50. Find the probability that a number selected at random
metal used in making 3m of the pipe from 41 to 56 is a multiple of 9
A. 153πcm3 B. 207πcm3 A. 1/9 B. 2/15
3
C. 15,300πcm D. 20,700πcm3 C. 3/16 D. 7/8

43. If the height of two circular cylinders are in the ratio 2:3
and their base radii are in the ratio 9. what is the ratio of
their volume
A. 27:32 B. 27:23
C. 23:32 D. 21:27
Mathematics 1991
1. Simplify 31/3 – 11/4 x 2/3 + 12/5 13. Evaluate (Xy2 - X2y)
A. 217/30 B. 3 9/10
(x2 - xy)
C. 41/10 D. 4 11/36 when x = -2 and y = 3
A. -3 B. –3/5
2. If 2257 is the result of subtracting 4577 from 7056 in base C. 3/5 D. 3
n, find n.
A. 8 B. 9 14. A car travels from Calabar to Enugu, a distant of pkm
C. 10 D. 11 with an average speed of ukm per hour and continues
to Benin, a distance of qkm, with an average speed of
3. Find correct to 3 decimal places wkm per hour. Find its average speed from Calabar to
1 ÷ 1 Benin.
0.05 5.005 - (0.05X2.05) A. (p+q)/(up+wq) B. u+w
A. 99.998 B. 98.999
C. 89.899 D. 9.998 C. uw(p+q)/(wp+uq) D. (wp+uq)/(u+wq)

4. Express 62/3 as a decimal correct to 3 significant figures. 15. If w varies inversely as uv/u + v and is equal to 8 when
A. 20.6 B. 20.667 u = 2 and v = 6, find a relationship between u, v, w.
C. 20.67 D. 20.7 A. upw = 16(u + t) B. 16ur = 3w(u + t)
C. upw = 12(u + t) D. 12upw = u + r
5. Factory P produces 20,000 bags of cement per day while
factory Q produces 15,000 bags per day. If P reduces 16. If g(x = x2 + 3x ) find g(x + 1) – g(x)
production by 5% and Q increases production by 5% A. (x + 2) B. 2(x + 2)
determine the effective loss in the number of bags C. (2x + 1) D. (x + 4)
produced per day by the two factories.
A. 250 B. 750 17. Factorize m3 – m2 – m + 2
C. 1000 D. 1250 A. (m2 + 1)(m - 2)
B. (m + 1)(m + 1)(m + 2)
6. Musa borrows #10.00 at 2% per month interest and C. (m + 1)(m + 1)(m - 2)
repays #8.00 after 4 months. However much does he D. (m2 + 2)(m - 1)
still owe?
A. #10.80 B. #10.67 18. Factorize 1 – (a - b)2
C. #2.80 C. #2.67 A. (1 – a - b)(1 – a - b) B. (1 – a + b)(1 + a - b)
C. (1 – a + b)(1 – a + b) D. (1 – a - b)(1 + a - b)
7. If 3 gallons of spirit containing 20% water are added to
5gallons of another spirit containing 15% water, what 19. Which of the following is a factor of rs + tr – pt –ps?
percentage of the mixture is water? A. (p - s) B. (s - p)
A. 24/5% B. 167/8% C. (r - p) D. (r + p)
1
C. 18 /8% D. 187/8%
20. Find the two values of y which satisfy the simultaneous
8. What is the product of 27/5 – (3)3 and (1/5)? equation 3x + y = 8
A. 5 B. 3 x2 + xy = 6
C. 1 D. 1/25 A. -1 and 5 B. –5 and 1
C. 1 and 5 D. 1 and 1
9. Simplify 2log2/5 – log72/125 + log9
A. 1 – 4log 3 B. –1 + 2log3 21. Find the range of values of x which satisfy the inequality
C. –1 +5log2 D. 1-2log2 (x/2 + x/3 + x/4) < 1
10. Rationalize (2√3 + 3√2)/(3√2 - 2√3) A. x < 12/13B. x < 13
A. 5-2 6 B. 5+2 6 C. x< 9 D. x < 13/12
C. 5 3 D. 5
22. Find the positive number n, such that thrice it s square
11. Simplify (1/3 + √5) – 1/3 - √5 is equal to twelve times the number.
A. -1/2 5 B. 1/2 5 A. 1 B. 2
C. –1/4 5 D. 0 C. 3 D. 4

12. Multiply (x2 –3x - + 1)2 by (x - a) 23. Solve the equation (x - 2)(x - 3) = 12
A. x3 – (3 - a)x2 + (1 + 3a)x –1 A. 2,3 B. 3,6
B. x3 – (3 - a)x2 + 3ax – a C. –1,6 D. 1,6
C. x3 – (3 - a)x2 + (1 + 3a) – a
D. x3 + (3 - a)x2 + (1 + 3a) - a
24. Simplify (√1 + x + √ x) 34. If the exterior angles of a pentagon are x0, (x + 5)0, (x +
(√ 1 + X - √ x) 10)0, (x + 15)0 and (x + 20)0, find x
A. 1- 2x - 2√x(1 + x) B. 1 +2x +2√x(1+x) A. 1180 B. 720
C. √x(1+x) D. 1 + 2x - 2√x (1+x) C. 62 0
D. 36 0

25. Evaluate x2(x2 - 1)1/2 – (x2 – 1)1/2 use the figure below to answer questions 35 and 36
A. (x2 – 1)1/2 B. (x2 – 1) T
2 1
C. (x – 1)- D. (x2 – 1)-1/2

26. Find the gradient of the line passing through the points Q P
(-2,0) and (0, -4)
A. 2 B. –4 R M
C. –2 D. 4
N
27. At what value of x is the function y = x2 – 2x – 3
minimum? PMN and PQR are two secants of the circle MQTRN
A. 1 and PT is a tangent
B. –1 35. If PM = 5cm, PN = 12cm and PQ = 4.8cm, calculate the
C. –4 respective lengths of PR and PT in centimeters.
D. 4 A. 7.3,5.9 B. 7.7,12.5
C. 12.5,7.7 D. 5.9,7.3 36.
28. What is the nth term of the progression 27, 9,3,………..? If PNR = 1100 and PMQ = 550, find MPQ.
A. 27(1/3)n – 1 B. 3n + 2 A. 400 B. 300
0
C. 27 + 18(n - 1) D. 27 + 6(n - 1) C. 25 D. 150

29. Find the sum of the 20 term in an arithmetic progression 37.

whose first term is 7 and last term is 117
152O O
A. 2480 B. 1240 30
C. 620 D. 124

30. P Q
y

110O
In the figure above, find the value of y
x A. 280 B. 1220
R 0
C. 150 D. 1520

120O 38. P

T S

In the figure above, find the value of x

A. 1300 B. 1100
0 S
C. 100 D. 900

31. The angles of a quadrilateral are 5x – 30, 4x + 60, 60 – x 68

and 3x + 61. find the smallest of these angles. Q R T

A. 5x – 30 B. 4x + 60
C. 60 – x D. 3x + 61. In the figure above, PQ = PR = PS and SRTY = 680. find
QPS.
32. The area of a square is 144sqcm. Find the length of its A. 1360 B. 1240
0
diagonal C. 112 D. 680
A. 11√3cm B. 12cm
C. 12√2cm D. 13cm 39. A flagstaff stands on the top of a vertical tower. A man
standing 60m away from the tower observes that the
33. One angle of a rhombus is 600. the shorter of the two angles of elevation of the top and bottom of the flagstaff
diagonals is 8cm long. Find the length of the longer are 640 and 620 respectively. Find the length of a flagstaff.
one A. 60(tan 620 – tan 640)
A. 8√3 B. 16/√3 B. 60(cot 640 – cot 620)
C. 5√3 D. 10/√3 C. 60(cot 620 – cot 640)
D. 60(tan 640 – tan 620)
40. Simplify cos2x (sec2x + sec2x tan2x) 47. 3% of a family’s income is spent on electricity. 9% on
A. Tan x B. Tan x sec x food. 20% on transport, 11% on education and 7% on
C. Sec2 x D. Cosec2 x extended family. The angles subtended at the centre of
the pie chart under education and food are respectively
41. If cos x = √a/b, find cosec x. A. 76.80 and 25.20 B. 10.80 and 224.60
A. b B. b C. 112.4 and 72.0 D. 39.60 and 212.40
0 0

√b-a √ a
C. b D. √ b - a Use the following information to answer question 48
√ b-a a and 49.
No of defective
42. From a point Z, 60m, north of X, a man walks 60Ö3m
per box 4 5 6 7 8 9
eastwards to another point Y. find the bearing of y from No . of boxes 2 7 17 10 8 6
x.
A. 0300 B. 0450 Fifty boxes each of 50balls were inspected for the
0
C. 060 D. 0900 number which were defective. The following was the
result
43. A surveyor walks 500m up a hill which slopes at an
angle of 300. calculate the vertical height through which 48. The mean and the median of the distribution are
he rises respectively
A. 250m B. 500Ö3/3m A. 6.7,6 B. 6.7,6.5
C. 250Ö2m D. 250Ö3m C. 6,6.7 D. 6.5,6.7
P 4 cm Q
44. 49. Find the percentage of boxes containing at least 5
defective bolts each.
A. 96 B. 94
6 cm C. 92 D. 90
8 cm

50. A crate of soft drinks contains 10bottles of Coca-cola,

V 8 of Fanta and 6 of Sprite. If one bottle s selected at
random, what is the probability that it is NOT a Coca
S W 2 cm R
cola bottle?
A. 5/12 B. 1/3
In the figure above, PQRS is a square of side 8cm. What C. ¾ D. 7/1
is the area of UVW?
A. 64sq.cm B. 54sq.cm
C. 50sq.cm D. 10sq.cm

45. Find the total area of the surface of a solid cylinder

whose base radius is 4cm and height is 5cm.
A. 56pcm2 B. 72pcm2
2
C. 96pcm D. 192pcm2

46.

Find the volume of the figure above.

A. pa2/3 B. pa 2y
2
C. pa /3(y + x) D. (1/3pa2 x + y)
Mathematics 1992
1. Find n if 34n = 100112 11. Factorize 9p2 – q2 + 6pr – 9r2
A. (3p – 3q + r)(3p – q – 9r)
A. 5 B. 6 B. (6p – 3q + 3r)(3p – q – 4r)
C. 7 D. 8 C. (3p – q + 3r)(3p + q – 3r)
D. (3p – q + 3r)(3p – q – 3r)
2. The radius of a circle is given as 5cm subject to an error
of 0.1cm. what is the percentage error in the area of the 12. Solve the equation y - 11 y + 24 = 0
circle. A. 8,3 B. 64,9
A. 1/25 B. ¼ C. 6,4 D. 9,-8
C. 4 D. 25
13. A man invested a sum of #280.00 partly at 59% and
3. Evaluate Logban if b = 1/an partly at 4%. If the total interest is #12.80 per annum,
find the amount invested at 5%.
A. n2 B. n A. #14.00 B. #120.00
C. 1/n D. 1/n C. #140.00 D. #160.00

4. What is the value of x satisfying the equation 42y / 43x = 14. If x + 1 is a factor of x3 + 3x2 + kx +4, find the value of k
2? A. 6 B. –6
A. -2 B. –1/2 C. 8 D. –8
C. ½ D. 2
15. Resolve (3/x2 + x – 2) into partial fractions
4 -1
5. Simplify {(1.25 x 10 ) x (2.0 x 10 ) A. 1 - 1 B. 1 1
(6.25 x 105 x-1 x+2 x+2 x-1
C. 1 - 1 D. 1 1
A. 4.0 x 10-3 B. 5.0 x 10-2 x+1 x - 2 x-2 + x+1
C. 2.0 x 10-1 D. 5.0 x 103
16. Find all values of x satisfying the inequality –11≤ 43x ≤ 28
6. Simplify 5√18 - 3√72 + 4√50 A. -5 ≤ x ≤ 18 B. 5 ≤x ≤ 8
A. 17√4 B. 4√17 C. –8 ≤ x ≤ 5 D. –5 < x ≤ 8
C. 17√2 D. 12√4
y 4
17.
7. If x = 3 - √3, find x + 36 / x
2 2
3
A. 9 B. 18 2
C. 24 D. 27 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
-1
8. If x = {all prime factors of 44} and
y = {all prime factors of 60}, the elements of x∩y and -2

xÇy respectively are. -3

A. {2,4,3,5,11} and {4}

B. {4,3,5,11} and {3,4} The sketch above is the curve of y = ax2 + bx + c. find a,
C. {2,5,11} and {2} b, and c respectively
D. {2,3,5,11} and {2} A. 1,0,-4 B. –2,2,-4
C. 0,1,-4 D. 2,-2,-4
9. If U = {0,2,3,6,7,8,9,10} is the universal set, E = {0,4,6,8,}
and F = {x: x2 = 26 ,}, x is odd}. Find (ECF)’ where means 18. Find the sum of the infinity of the following series. 3 +
the complement of a set 2 + 4/3 + 8/9 + 16/27 + ..
A. 1270 B. 190
A. {0} B. U C. 18 D. 9
C. C D. f
19. What is the nth term of the sequence 2,6,12,20,…?
10. Make l the subject of the formula A. 4n – 2 B. 2(3n - 1)
s = ut + ½ at2 C. n2 + n D. n2 + 3n +2
A. 1/a [u± √(u2−2as)] B. 1/a [-u± √(u2 - 2as]
20. For an arithmetic sequence, the first term is 2 and the
C. 1/a [u±√(u2 + 2as) D. 1/a [-u±√(u2 + 2as)] common difference is 3. find the sum of the fist 11 terms.
A. 157 B. 187 28. F
C. 197 D. 200
H
21. If the binary operation * is defined by m*n = mn + m + n x K
O O
for any real number m and n, find the identity element 109 109
under this operation.
A. e= 1 B. e = -1 G M
C. e = -2 D. e= 0

Use the matrices below to answer questions 22 and 23. If in the diagram above, FG is parallel to KM, find the
value of x
22. When PT is the transpose of P, calculate [PT] when x = 0, A. 750 B. 950
0
y = 1 and z = 2 C. 105 D. 1250
A. 48 B. 24
C. –24 D. –48 29. X is a point due east of point Y on a coast Z is another
point on the coast but 6.3km due south of Y. if the
23. PQ is equivalent to distance ZX is 12km, calculate the bearing of Z from X
A PPT B. PP-T A. 2400 B. 2100
0
C. QP D. PP C. 150 8 D. 600

24. P Q 30.
U
X
6 cm
O
20
105O O 6 cm
T R
S
In the figure above, TSP = 1050 and PRQ = 200, find
PQR
A. 1300 B. 1200 The above diagram is a circle with centre O. find the
0
C. 75 D. 300 area of the shaded portion.
A. 9πcm2 B. 9(π -2)cm2
2
25. If the angles of a quadrilateral are C. 18πcm 3D. 36πcm2
(p + 10)0, (p + 20)0 and 4p0, find p
A. 63 B. 40 31. The locus of a point which is equidistant from two
C. 36 D. 28 given fixed points is the
A. perpendicular bisector of the straight line
Q joining them
26. B. parallel line to the straight line joining them
C. transverse to the straight line joining them
D. angle bisector of 900 which the straight line
joining them makes with the horizontal

P R 32. What is the perpendicular distance of a point (2, 3 )from

S
the line 2x – 4y + 3 = 0
A. √5/2 B. -√5/20
In the figure above, PQR is a semicircle while PQ and C. –5/√13 D. 0
QR are chords. QS is the perpendicular from Q to the
diameter PR. What is the expression for QS? 33. Find the equation of the line through (5, 7) parallel to
the line7x + 5y = 12
A. QS = PS.SR A. 5x + 7y = 120 B. 7x + 5y = 70
B. QS = √(PS.SR) C. x + y= 7 D. 15x + 17y = 90
C. QS = √2 √(PS.SR)
D. QS = 1/√2√(PS.SR) 34. Given that q is an acute angle and sin q = m/n, find cot q.

27. Determine the distance on the earth’s surface between A. n2 - m2 B. (n + m) (n - m)

two towns P(Lat. 600N, Long. 200E) and Q(Lat. 600N, m m
Long 250W)
A. 800p/9km B. 800Ö3p/9km m
C. 800pkm D. 800Ö3pkm C. D. n
n2 - m2 n2 - m2
35. Y 43. x 2 4 6 8
f 4 y 6 5
R
O
15
If the mean of the above frequency distribution is 5.2,
X 30O
find y
Z
10 cm A. 6.0 B. 5.2
C. 5.0 D. 4.0

In the figure above, if XZ is 10cm, calculate RY in cm 44. No . of children 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

A. 10 B. 10(1 – 1/Ö3) No . of families 7 11 6 7 7 5 3
C. 10(1 - Ö3) D. 10(1 - 1Ö2)

36. Evaluate lim (x-2) (x2+3x-2) Find the mode and median respectively of the
x-->2 (x2-4) distribution above
A. 0 B. 2 A. 2,1 B. 1,2
C. 3 D. 4 C. 1,5 D. 5,2

37. If y = x, find d2y/dx2 45. If the scores of 3students in a test are 5,6 and 7 find the
A. 2 cos x – x sin x B. sin x + x cos x standard deviation of their scores
C. sin x – x cos x D. x sin x – 2 cos x A. 2/3 B. 3/2√3
C. √ 2/3 D. √3/2
38. Ice forms on a refrigerator ice-box at the rate of (4 –
0.6t)g per minute after t minute. If initially there are 2g 46. Sample variance can be defined as
of ice in the box, find the mass of ice formed in 5 minutes. S2 = 1/n n=1 (x1-x)2 and
A. 19.5 B. 17.0 S2 = 1 n∑n=11 (x1−x)
C. 14.5 D. 12.5 (n-1)
Where n is the number of sample observations. There
39. Obtain a maximum value of the function is no difference practically between the above
f(x) = x3 – 12x + 11 definitions when
A. -5 B. –2 A. n =35 B. n > 35
C. 5 D. 27 C. n < 35 D. n=5

40. A student blows a ballon and its volume increases at a 47. Two perfect dice are throw together. Determine the
rate of p (20 – t2)ccm3s-1 after t seconds. If the initial probability of obtaining a total score of 8
volume of 0cm3, find the volume of the balloon after 2 A. 1/12 B. 5/36
seconds. C. 1/8 D. 7/36
A. 37.00π B. 37.33π
C. 40.00π D. 42.67π 48. The probability of an event P is ¾ while that of another
Q is 1/6. if the probability of both P and Q is 1/12, what
41. Evaluate the integral π/12 cos 2x dx
π/4
is the probability of either P or Q?
A. -1/2 B. –1 A. 1/96 B. 1/8
C. ½ D. 1 C. 5/6 D. 11/12

42. A storekeeper checked his stock of five commodities 49. Five people are to be arranged in a row for a group
and arrived at the following statistics. photograph. How many arrangements are there if a
married couple in the group insist on sitting next to
Commodity Quantity each other?
A. 48 B. 24
F 215
G 113 C. 20 D. 10
H 108
K 216 50. A student has 5 courses to take from Mathematics and
M 68 Physics. There are 4 courses in Mathematics and 3 in
Physics which he can choose from at will. In how many
What angle will commodity H represent on a pie chart? ways can he choose his courses so that he takes exactly
A. 2160 B. 1080 two courses in Physics?
0
C. 68 D. 540 A. 11 B. 12
C. 10 D. 7
Mathematics 1993
1. Change 7110 to base 8 12. Which of the following is a factor of
A. 1078 B. 1068 15 + 7x – 2x2?
C. 718 D. 178 A. x-3 B. x+3
C. x-5 D. x+5
2. Evaluate 3524/0.05 correct to 3 significant figures.
A. 705 B. 70000 13. Evaluate
C. 70480 D. 70500 (x+1/x+1)2 – (x-1/x-1) 2
A. 4x2 B. (2/x+2) 2
3. If 9 (x-1/2) x2
= 3 , find the value of x. C. 4 D. 4(1+x)
A. ½ B. 1
C. 2 D. 3 14. Solve the following simultaneous equations for x.
x2 + y – 5= 0
4. Solve for y in the equation 10y, X5(2y-2) x 4(y-1)=1 y – 7x + 3=0
A. ¾ B. 2
/3 A. -2, 4 B. 2, 4
C. 1 D. 5
/4 C. -1, 8 D. 1, -8

5. Simplify 1/3-2 – 1/3+2 15. Solve the following equation

A. 4 B. 2
/3 (3x-2)(5x-4)=(3x-2) 2
C. 0 D. -4 A. -3/ 2, 1 B. 1
2 2
C. / 3, 1 D. / 3, 4/5
6. If 2 log3 y+ log3x2 = 4, then y is
Q
A. (4-log3x2)/2 B. 4/log3x2 16. 30O
2
C. /X D. ± 9/ X
O
7. Solve without using tables xO
log5 (62.5)-log5 (1/2) T
A. 3 B. 4 x
O 2xO
P
C. 5 D. 8
The figure above represents the graphs of y= x (2-x)
8. If #225.00 yields #27.00 in x years simple interest and y = (x-1) (x-3). What are the x-coordinates of p,
at the rate of 4%per annum, find x q and r respectively?
A. 3 B. 4 A. 1,3,2 B. 0,0,0
C. 12 D. 27 C. 0,2,3 D. 1,2,3

17. If the function f is defined by

9. f(x+2)=2x2 + 7x – 5, find f(-1)
X A. -10 B. -8
Y
C. 4 D. 10

18. Divide the expression

x3 + 7x2 –x –7 by -1 +x2
3 2
A. –x +7x -x-7 B. –x3-7x+7
C. X-7 D. X+7
Z
19. Simplify
The shaded portion in the venn diagram above is 1/p-1/q –p/q-q/p
A. XÇZ B. Xc ÇYÇZ A. 1/p-q B. -1/p+q
C. c
XÇY Ç Z D. XÇYÇZc C. 1/pq D. 1/pq(p-q)

10. If x2 + 9 = x+ 1, solve for x 20. Solve the inequality

A. 5 B. 4 y2-3y>18
C. 3 D. 1 A. -2<y<6 B. y<-3 or y>6
C. y>-3 or y>6 D. y<-3 or y<6
11. Make x the subject of the relation
1+ax/1-ax = p/q 21 If x is negative, what is the range of values of x within
A. p+q/a(p-q) B. p-q /a(p+q) which
C. p-q/apq D. pq/a(p-q) x+1/3 > 1/x+3
A. 3<x<4 B. -4<x<-3
C. -2<x<-1 D. -3<x<0
22 A man’s initial salary is #540.00 a month and increases Q
after each period of six months by #36.00 a month.
Find his salary in the eighth month of the third year. O
A. #828.00 B. #756.00
C. #720.00 D. #684.00 960
P
R
23. If k+1, 2k-1,3k+1 are three consecutive terms of a In the diagram above. O is the centre of the circle
geometric progression, find the possible values of the and POQ a diameter. If POR = 960 , find the value of
common ratio. ORQ.
A. 0,8 B -1, 5/3 A. 840 B. 480
0
C. 2, 3 D. 1, -1 C. 45 D. 420

24. A binary operation * is defined on a set of real 30.

numbers by x*y = xy for all real values of x and y, if Q P
x*2 = x, find the possible values of x 340
A. 0, 1 B. 1, 2 R
C. 2, 2 D. 0,2 730

25 S
T
In the diagram above, QP//ST; PQR. = 340 , QRS=
P Q
0
73 and RS = RT. Find SRT
A. 680 B. 1020
0
C. 107 D. 1410
T R U
31. P T
U V S
S
PQRST is a regular pentagon and PQVU is a 500
rectangle with U and V lying on TS and SR x
respectively as shown in the diagram above. Calculate Q R
TUV
A. 180 B. 540 In the figure above, PT is a tangent to the circle at u
0
C. 90 D. 1080 and QU//RS. If TUR=350 and SRU = 50. 0 find x.
A. 950 B. 850
26. A regular polygon has 1500 as the size of each interior C. 50 0
D. 350
angle. How many sides has the polygon?
A. 12 B. 10 32.
C. 9 D. 8 P
9c
27. Calculate the length, in cm, of the arc of the circle of m
m
4c

diameter 8cm which subtends an angle of 221/ 20

A. 2π B. π
π/ Q R
C. 2
/3 π D. 2 3 cm S
In the diagram above, QPS = SPR, PR= 9cm, PQ=
28. 4cm and QS=3cm. Find SR.
P A. 63/ 4 B. 33/ 8
3
C. 4 /8 D. 22/ 3
S Q
T
O 33. The three sides of an isosceles triangle are of lengths
x+3, 2x+3, 2x-3 respectively. Calculate x.
A. 0 B. 1
R C. 3 D. 6
In the diagram above, PQRS is a circle with O as 34.
centre and PQ//RT if RTS = 320 , find PSQ
A. 320 B. 450
C. 58 0
D. 900 S
m
5c
29. O

Q
cm
2
T
In the figure above, the line segment ST is tangent 42 Quantities in the proportions 1,4,6,7 are to be
to the two circles at S and T. O and Q are the centres represented in a pie chart. Calculate the angle of the
of the circles with OS = 5cm, QT = 2cm and OQ = sector with proportion 7
14cm. Find ST. A. 200 B. 800
0
A. 7"3 B. 12cm C. 120 D. 1400
C. “87cm D. 7cm
43.
35. P X Q

T U V

S R
Y

The bar chart above shows the distribution of marks

In the figure above, the area of the square PQRS is in a class test. How many students took the test?
100cm 2. If the ratio of the area of the square TUYS A. 15 B. 20
to the area of the square XQVU is 1:16, find YR C. 25 D. 50
A. 6cm B. 7cm
C. 8cm D. 9cm 44. The following marks were obtained by twenty
students in an examination
36. Find the radius of a sphere whose surface area is 53 30 70 84 59 43 90 20 78 48
154cm2 ( π =22/7) 44 60 81 73 50 37 67 68 64 52
A. 7.00cm B. 3.50cm Find the number of students who scored at least
C. 3.00cm D. 1.75cm 50marks
A. 6 B. 10
37. Find the area of the sector of a circle with radius 3m, C. 13 D. 14
if the angle of the sector is 600
A. 4.0m 2 B. 4.1m 2 45.
2
C. 4.7m D. 5.0m 2

38. The angle between latitudes 300S and 130N is

A. 170 B. 330 Estimate the mode of the frequency distribution
0
C. 43 D. 530 above.
A. 13.2g B. 15.0g
39. If sin θ= cos 0, find 0 between 00 and 3600. C. 16.8g D. 17.5g
A. 450 ,2250 B. 1350 ,3150
0 0
C. 45 ,315 D. 1350 ,2250 46. The mean of the ages of ten secondary school pupils
is 16 but when the age of their teacher is added to it,
40. the mean becomes 19. Find the age of the teacher.
A. 27 B. 35
C. 38 D. 49

0 0 47
P 30 45
H
5m
Q
1-5 2
From the figure above, calculate TH in centimeters. 6 - 10 4
A. 5/(√3+1) B. 5/√3-1 11 - 15 5
C. 5/√3 D. √3/5 16 - 20 2
21 - 25 3
41. If two angles of a triangle are 300 each and the longest 26 - 30 2
side is 10cm, calculate the length of each of the other 31 - 35 1
sides. 36 - 40 1
A. 5cm B. 4cm
C. 3√3cm D. 10√3/5cm
Find the median of the observations in the table
above.
A. 11.5 B. 12.5 49. Calculate the standard deviation of the following
C. 14.0 D. 14.5 data.
7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13.
48. A number is selected at random between 20 and 30 A. 2 B. 4
both numbers inclusive. Find the probability that the C. 10 D. 11
number is a prime
A. 2
/11 B. 5
/11 50. The chances of three independent event X, Y, Z
C. 6
/11 D. 8
/11 occurring are 1/ 2 , 2/ 3, ¼ respectively. What are the
chances of y and z only occurring?
1 1
A. /8 B. /24
1
C. /12 D. ¼

Mathematics 1994
1. Evaluate 10. Simplify
/ 3÷[5/ 7(9/ 10 – 1 + 3/ 4)]
1
[(2m - u)2 – (m – 2u)2]
28 13
A. /39 B. /84 (5m 2 – 5u2)
39 84
C. /28 D. /13 A. ¾ B. 2/5
C. 2m – u/5m + u D. m – 2u/m + 5u
2. Evaluate (0.36x 5.4 x 0.63) (4.2 x 9.0 x 2.4)
correct to 2 significant figures 11. Factorize
A. 0.013 B. 0.014 a 2x – b2y – b2x + a 2y
C. 0.13 D. 0.14 A. (a - b)(x + y) B. (y - x)(a - b)(a + b)
C. (x - y)(a - b)(a + b) D. (x + y)(a - b)(a + b)
3. Evaluate Log5(0.04)
(Log318 – Log32) 12. Find the values of p and q such that (x - 1) and (x -
A. 1 B. -1 3) are factors of px3 + qx2 + 11x - 6
2
C. /3 D. -2/3 A. -1,-6 B. 1,-6
C. 1,6 D. 6,-1
4. Without using tables, solve the equation
y
8x-2 = 2/ 25 13.
A. 4 B. 6
C. 8 D. 10
0 (3.0) x
5 Simply √48 – 9/ √3 + √75
A. 5√3 B. 6√3
(0.-27)
C. 8√3 D. 18√3

6. Given that “2 = 1.414, find without using tables, the

value of 1/ ”2 The equation of the graph above is
A. 0.141 B. 0.301 A. y = (x - 3)3 B. y = (x + 3)3
C. 0.667 D. 0.707 C. 3
y = x – 27 D. y = -x3 + 27

7. In a science class of 42 students, each offers at least 14. If a = 1, b = 3, solve for x in the equation
one of Mathematics and Physics. If 22 students offer a/a – x = b/x – b
Physics and 28 students offer Mathematics, find how A. 4
/3 B. 2
/3
many students offer Physics only? C. 3
/2 D. ¾
A. 6 B. 8
C. 12 D. 14 15. Solve for r in the following equation
1/(r – 1) + 2/(r + 1) = 3/r
8. Given that for sets A and B, in a universal set E, A⊆ A. 3 B. 4
B then C. 5 D. 6
A∩(A∩B)’ is
A. A B. O/ 16. Find P if x – 3/(1 - x)(x + 2) = P/(1 – x) + Q/(x + 2)
C. B D. ∑ A. -2/3 B. -5/3
5 2
C. /3 D. /3
9. Solve for x if 25x + 3(5x) = 4
A. 1 or -4 B. 0 17. Find the range of values of x for which 1/x > 2 is
C. 1 D. -4 or 0 true
A. x<½ B. x < 0 or x > ½
C. 0<x<½ D. 1<x<2
18. y
26.
50O
-4 2x-y-2=0
-2
x 30O
0 1 2 3
-2

Find the inequality which represents the shaded The equation of the line in the graph above is
portion in the diagram A. 3y = 4x + 12 B. 3y = 3x + 12
A. 2x – y – 2 £ 0 B. 2x – y – 2 ³ 0 C. 3y = -4x + 12 D. 3y = -4x + 9
C. 2x – y – 2 < 0 D. 2x – y – 2 > 0
27.
19. If the 6th term of an arithmetic progression is 11 and Q
the first term is 1, find the common difference. R
12 5
A. /5 B. /3 O
C. -2 D. 2 38O

20. Find the value of r if log10r + log10r 2 + log10r 4 + log10r8 S

P
+ log10r 16 + log10r 32 = 63
A. 10-8 B. 100
C. 10 D. 102 In the diagram above, O is the centre of the circle. If
SOQ is a diameter and <PRS is 380, what is the value
21. Find the nth term of the sequence of <PSQ?
3,6,10,15,21,….. A. 1480 B. 1040
0
A. n(n - 1/2) B. n(n + 1/2) C. 80 D. 520
C. (n + 1)(n + 2)/2 D. n(2n + 1)
28. If three angles of a quadrilateral are (3y – x - z)0, 3x0,
22. A binary operation * is defined on the set of all positive (2z – 2y - x) 0, find the fourth angle in terms of x, y, and
integers by a*b = ab for all positive integers a,b. which of z.
the following properties does NOT hold? A. (360 – x – y - z)0 B. (360 + x + y - z)0
0
A. Closure B. Associativity. C. (180 – x + y + z) D. (180 + x + y + z)0
C. Identity. D. Inverse.
29. An open rectangular box is made of wood 2cm thick. If
23. the internal dimensions of the box are 50cm long, 36cm
x mod 10
O 2 4 6 8 wide and 20cm deep, the volume of wood in the box is
A. 11520cm3 B. 36000cm3
2 4 8 2 6 3
C. 38200cm D. 47520cm3
4 8 6 4 2
30. Calculate the perimeter in cm, of a sector of a circle of
6 2 4 6 8
radius 8cm and angle 450
8 6 2 8 4 A. 2π B. 8 + 2π
C. 16 + 2 π D. 16 + 16 π
The multiplication table above has modulo 10 on the R
set S = {2,4,6,8}. Find the inverse of 2 31.
60O
A. 2 B. 4
C. 6 D. 8
50O
24. Solve for x and y Q T
1 1 x = 4
P
3 y 1 1
A. x = -3, y = 3 B. x = 8, y = 3 In the diagram above, PTS is a tangent to the circle
C. x = 3, y = -8 D. x = 8, y = -3 TQR at T. calculate < RTS.
A. 1200 B. 700
0
25. The determinant of the matrix C. 60 D. 400
(1 2 3)
(4 5 6) is 32.
(2 0 -1) 6 cm 5 cm
h
A. -67 B. -57
C. -3 D. 3 7 cm
In the diagram above, find h.
12 12
A. /7cm B. /7 V6cm C4
A3
7 1
C. /12cm D. /2 V51cm 43. 43.2
O
64.8 O

F
72O A2
33. O
144
A1
h
The grades A1, A2, A3, C4 and F earned by
students in a particular course are shown in the pie
chart above. What percentage of the students
In the frustum of a cone shown above, the top diameter obtained a C4 grade?
is twice the bottom diameter. If the height of the frustum A. 52.0 B. 43.2
is h centimeters, find the height of the cone. C. 40.0 D. 12.0
A. 2h B. 2πh
C. πh D. πh/2 44.
x 1 2 3 4 5
34. What is the locus of a point P which moves on one side f 2 1 2 1 2
of a straight line XY, so that the angle XPY is always
equal to 900
A. The perpendicular B. A right-angled triangle. The table above shows the frequency distribution
bisector of XYX of a data. If the mean is 43/14, find y.
C. A circle D. A semi-circle. A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
35. If M(4,q) is the mid-point of the line joining L(p, -2)
and N(q, p), find the values of p and q. 45. The mean of twelve positive numbers is 3. when
A. p = 2, q = 4 B. p = 3, q = 1 another number is added, the mean becomes 5. find
C. p = 5, q = 3 D. p = 6, q = 2 the thirteenth number.
A. 29 B. 26
36. y C. 25 D. 24

(0,4) 46. Find the mean deviation of the set of numbers 4, 5, 9

A 0 B. 2
C. 5 D. 6
(3,0)
(0,0) x 47. Class interval 1-5 6-10 11-15 16-20 21-25
Frequency 6 15 20 7 2
37. The angle of depression of a boat from the top of a
cliff 10m high is 300. how far is the boat from the Estimate the median of the frequency distribution
foot of the cliff? above.
A. √ /3m
5 3
B. 5√3m A. 101/2 B. 111/2
C. 10√3m D. √ /3m
10 3
C. 1
12 /2 D. 13

38. What is the value of sin (-6900)? 48.

A. √3/2 B. -√3/2 x 1 2 3 4 5
C. -1/2 D. ½ f y+2 y-1 2y + 3 y+4 3y - 4
39. If y = 3t 3 + 2t 2 – 7t + 3, find dy/ dt at t = -1
A. -1 B. 1 Find the variance of the frequency distribution above
3 9
C. -2 D. 2 A. /2 B. /4
5
C. /2 D. 3
40. Find the point (x, y) on the Euclidean plane where
the curve y = 2x2 – 2x + 3 has 2 as gradient. 49. Age in years 10 11 12
A. (1,3) B. (2,7)
C. (0,3) D. (3,15) Number of pupils 6 27 7
41. Integrate (1 – x)/x3 with respect to x.
A. (x – x2)/(x4 + k) B. 4/x4 – 3/x3 + k The table above shows the number of pupils in each
2
C. 1/x – 1/2x + k D. 1/3x3 – 1/2x + k age group in a class. What is the probability that a
pupil chosen at random is at least 11 years old?
1
42. Evaluate (2x + 1)2 dx A. 27
/40 B. 17
/20
-1 33 3
C. /40 D. /20
A. 32/3 B. 4
C. 41/3 D. 42/3
50. In a survey, it was observed that 20 students read pr oba bi li t y of t h e st uden t s wh o rea d bot h
newspapers and 35 read novels. If 40 of the students newspapers and novel?
1 2
read either newspaper or novels, what is the A. /2 B. /3
3 3
C /8 D. /11

Mathematics 1995
1. Calculate 33105 - 14425 A. (-6, 0)(-1, 0) B. (-3,0)(-2, 0)
A. 13135 B. 21135 C. 43025 D. 11035 C. (-6, 0)(1, 0) D. (2, 0)(3, 0)

2. Convert 3.1415926 to 5 decimal places 15. Factorize completely the expression

A. 3.14160 B. 3.14159 C. 0.31415 D. 3.14200 abx2 + 6y – 3ax –2byx
A. (ax – 2y)(bx - 3) B. (bx + 3)(2y - ax)
3. The length of a notebook 15cm, was measured as C. (bx + 3)(ax – 2y) D. (ax – 2y) (ax - b)
16.8cm. calculate the percentage error to 2 significant
figures. 16. Solve the following inequality (x - 3)(x - 4) ≤0
A. 12.00% B. 11.00% C. 10.71% D. 0.12% A. 3≤ x ≤ 4 B. 3<x<4
C. 3≤x<4 D. 3 < x ≤4
4. A worker’s present salary is #24,000 per annum. His
annual increment is 10% of his basic salary. What would 17. The 4th term of an A. P is 13cm while the 10th term is 31.
be his annual salary at the beginning of the third year? find the 31st term.
A. #28,800 B. #29,040 C. #31,200 D.#31,944 A. 175 B. 85
C. 64 D. 45
5. Express the product of 0.0014 and 0.011 in standard
form. 18. Simplify x2 - 1
A. 1.54 x 102 B. 1.54 x 10-3 C. 1.54 x 104 D. 1.54 x 10-5 x3 + 2x2 – x - 2
A. 1/x + 2 B. x – 1/x + 1
6. 3/4
Evaluate (81 - 27 ) 1/3 C. x – 1/x + 2 D. 1/x – 2
3 x 23
A. 27 B. 1 C. 1/3 D. 1/8 19. Express 5x – ½ (x - 2)(x - 3) in partial fraction
A. 2/x – 2 – 3/x – 3 B. 2/x – 2 + 3/x – 3
7. Find the value of (16)3/2 + log100.0001 + log232 C. 2/x – 3 – 3x –2 D. 5/x – 3 + 4/x – 2
A. 0.065 B. 0.650 C. 6.500 D. 65.00 y
20.
8. Simplify √12 - √3
√12 + √3 -1 0 1 2 x
A. 1/3 B. 0 C. 9/15 D. 1

9. Four members of a school first eleven cricket team are

also members of the first fourteen rugby team. How Use the graph of the curve y = f(x) above to solve the
many boys play for at least one of the two teams? inequality f(x) > 0.
A. 25 B. 21 C. 16 D. 3 A. -1≤ x ≤ 1, x > 2 B. x ≤-1, 1, < x > 2
C. x≤ -1, 1 ≤ x ≤ 2 D. x ≤ 2, -1 ≤ x ≤ 1
10. If S = (x : x2 = 9, x > 4), then S is equal to
A. 0 B. {0} C. f D. {f} 21. Which of the following binary operation is commutative
in a set of integers?
11. If x – 1 and x + 1 are both factors of the equation x3 + A. a*b = a + 2b B. a*b = a + b –ab
px3 + qx + 6 = 0, evaluate p and q C. a*b = a2 + b D. a*b = a(b + 1)/2
A. –6, -1 B. 6, 1 C. -1 D. 6, -6
12. 22. If a*b = +√ab, Evaluate 2*(12*27)
2
Find a positive value of p if the equation 2x – px + p A. 12 B. 9
leaves a remainder 6 when added C. 6 D. 2
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
23. Find the sum to infinity of the following sequence
13. Find r in terms of K, Q and S if s = 2r√ (QπΤ+Κ) 1, 9/10, (9/10)2, (9/10)3
A. r2 - k B. r2 - k A. 1/10 B. 9/10
2πr Q Q
2
4πr2Q C. 10/9 D. 10
C. r2 - k D. r2 - k
2πr2Q 4πr2Q 24. Find the value of K if 2, 1, 1
2, 1 k
14. The graph of f(x) = x2 - 5x + 6 crosses the x-axis at the 1, 3 -1 = 23
points A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
25. If X = 1, 2 and Y = 2, 1
33.
0, 3 4, 3
12 cm
A. (10, 7) B. (2, 7)
(12, 9) (1, 17) 14 cm
C. (10, 4) D. (4, 3)
( 4, 6) (10, 9)
In the diagram above, the base diameters is 14cm while
the height is 12cm. Calculate the total surface area if
26.
81O the cylinder has both a base and a top (p = 22/7)
x
O A. 836cm2 B. 528cm2
53 C. 308cm2 D. 154cm2
Q
34.
Determine the value of x in the figure above
A. 1340 B. 810
0
C. 53 D. 460
30O
Z
P 10 cm R
27.
Y
X In the diagram above, find PQ if the area of triangle
PQR is 35ccm2
A. 97cm B. 10cm
50
O

P T C. 14cm D. 17cm

35. A schoolboy lying on the ground 30m away from the

foot of a water tank lower observes that the angle of
PT is a tangent to the circle TYZX, YT = YX and <
elevation of the top of the tank is 600. Calculate the
PTX = 500. calculate <TZY
height of the water tank.
A. 500 B. 650
0
A. 60m B. 30.3m
C. 85 D. 1300
C. 20.3m D. 10.3m
28. In a triangle XYZ, <YXZ = 440? and <XYZ = 1120. 36. QRS is a triangle with QS = 12m, <RQS = 300 and
calculate the acute angle between the internal triangle <QRS = 450, calculate the length of RS.
of <XYZ and <XZY. A. 18√2m B. 12√2m
A. 420 B. 560 C. 6√2m D. 3√2m
0
C. 68 D. 780
37. Which of the following is a sketch of y = 3 sin x?
3
29. Find the distance between two towns P(450N, 300N) and
A. B.
Q(150S, 300W) if the radius of the earth is 7 000km. 0 0
2 2
A. 1 100 B. 2 200 2 2 3
3
3 3
C. 11 000 3 3
C. D.
3 0
0
30. Two perpendicular lines PQ and QR intersect at (1, -1). If 2 2 2 2
3 3
the equation of PQ is x – 2y + 4 = 0, find the equation of
QR.
38. The derivative of cosec x is
A. x – 2y + 1 = 0 B. 2x + y – 3 – 0
A. tan x cosec x B. – cot x cosec x
C. x – 2y – 3 = 0 D. 2x + y – 1 = 0
C. tan x sec x D. –cot x sec x
31. P is on the locus of a point equidistant form two given
39. For what value of x is the tangent o the curve y = x2 –
points X and Y. UV is a straight line through Y parallel
4x + 3 parallel to the x – axis?
to the locus. If < PYU is 400 find <XPY
A. 3 B. 2
A. 1000 B. 800
0
C. 1 D. 0
C. 50 D. 400
O
117
40. Two variables x and y are such that dy/dx = 4x – 3 and y
32. k
m = 5 when x = 2. find y in terms of x
n A. 2x2 – 3x + 5 B. 2x2 – 3x + 3 C. 2x2 – 3x D. 4
xO
41. Find the area bounded by the curve y = 3x2 – 2x + 1, the
In the diagram above, k, m, and n are parallel lines.
coordinates x = 1 and y = 3 and the x-axis
What is the value of the angle marked x?
A. 24 9. B. 22 47 C. 21 D. 20
A. 370 B. 630
0
C. 117 D. 1530
42. 13 14 15 16 17
Age in years
46. The variance of the scores 1,2,3,4,5 is
No . of students 3 10 30 42 15
A. 1.2 B. 1.4 C. 2.0 D. 3.0

The frequency distribution above shows the ages of Use the table below to answer questions 47 and 48
students in a secondary school. In a pie chart constructed
to represent the data, the angle corresponding to the 15 Class Frequency Class Class
years-old is Interval Boudaries Mid-point
A. 270 B. 300 C. 540 D. 1080
1.5-1.9 2 1.45-1.95 1.7
2.0-2.4 1 1.95-2.45 2.2
43.
Economics
History 2.5-2.9 4 2.45-2.95 2.7
O 90 O 3.0-3.4 15 2.95-3.45 3.2
150
French
3.5-3.9 10 3.45-3.95 3.7
C. R. K. 4.0-4.4 5 3.95-4.45 4.2
4.5-4.9 3 4.45-4.95 4.7
The pie chart above shows the distribution of students
in a secondary school class. If 30 students offered 47. find the mode of the distribution
French, how many offered C.R.K? A. 3.2 B. 3.4 C. 3.7 D. 4.2
A. 25 B. 15 C. 10 D. 8
48. The median of the distribution is
44. The mean and the range of the set of numbers A. 4.0 B. 3.5 C. 3.2 D. 3.0
0.20,1.00,0.90,1.40,0.80,0.80,1.20,and 1.10
are m and r respectively. Find m + r 49. Let P be a probability function on set S, where S =
A. 1.11 B. 1.65 C. 1.85 D. 2.45 (a1,a2,a3,a4) find P(a1) if P(a2) = P(a3) = 1/6 and P(a4)1/5
A. 7/10 B 2/3 C. 1/3 D. 3/10
45. Class 1-3 4-6 7-9
Frequency 5 8 5 50. A die has four of its faces coloured while and the
remaining two coloured black . What is the probability
Find the standard deviation of the data using the table that when the die is thrown two consecutive times, the
above top face will be white in both cases?
A .5 B. √6 C. 5/3 D. √5 A. 2/3 B. 1/9 C. 4/9 D. 1/36

Mathematics 1997
1. If (1PO3)4 = 11510, find P A. 19 + 4"15/11 B. 19 + 4"15/19
A. 0 B. 1 C. 19 + 2"15/11 D. 19 + 2"15/19
C. 2 D. 3
8. Find the simple interest rate per cent per annum at
2. 2 2
Evaluate 64.764 – 35.236 correct to 3 significant which #1000 accumulates to #1240 in 3 years.
figures A. 6% B. 8%
A. 2960 B 2950 C. 10% D. 12%
C. 2860 D. 2850
9 If U = {S,P,L,E,N,D,O,U,R}
3. 3 3
Find the value of (0.006) + (0.004) in standard form. X = {S,P,E,N,D}
A. 2.8 X 10-9 B 2.8 X 10-8 Y = {P,N,O,U,R}
-7
C. 2.8 X 10 D. 2.8 X 10-6
Find X∩(Y’UZ).
4. Given that loga 2 = 0.693 and loga 3 = 1.097, find A. {P,O,U,R} B. {S,P,D,R}
loga 13.5 C. {P,N,D} D. {N,D,U}
A. 1.404 B. 1.790
C. 2.598 D. 2.790 10. A survey of 100 students in an institution shows that
80 students speak Hausa and 20 students Igbo, while
5. Simplify log296 – 2log26 only 9 students speaks both languages. How many
A. 2 - log23 B. 3 – log23 students neither Hausa nor Igbo?
C. log23 – 3 D. log23 – 2 A. 0 B. 9
C. 11 D. 20
6. If 8x/2 = [23/8][43/4], find x
A. 3/8 B. ¾ 11. If the function (x) = x3 + 2x2 + qx – 6 is divisible by x +
C. 4/5 D. 5/4 1, find q.
A. -5 B. -2
7. Simplify (2√3+3√5)/(3√5 - 2√3) C. 2 D. 5
12. Solve the simultaneous equations
2
/ x – 3/ y = 2, 4/ x + 3/ y = 10 24. Find the non-zero positive value of x which satisfies
A. x = 3/ 2, y = ½ B. x = ½, y = 3/2 the equation
1 3
C. x = - /2, y = - /2 D. x = ½, y = - 3/2
x 1 0
13. Find the minimum value of x2 – 3x + 2 for all real 1 x 1 = 0
values of x. 0 1 x
A. -1/4 B. -1/2
C. ¼ D. ½ A. 2 B. 3
C. 2 D. 1
14. Make f the subject of the formula v
t=
1 1 25. Each of the base angles of an isosceles triangle is
+
f g
580 and all the vertices of the triangle lie on a
circle. Determine the angle which the base of the
A. gv – t 2/gt 2 B. gt 2/gv – t 2 triangle subtends at the centre of the circle.
C. v/t 1/2 - 1/g D. gv/t 2 – g A. 1280 B. 1160
0
C. 64 D. 580
15. What value of g will make the expression 4x2 – 18xy
– g a perfect square? 26. F
A. 9 B. 9y2/4 K
34O
2
C. 81y D. 81y2/4 x
O
16. Find the value of K if 5+2r/ (r+1)(r-2) expressed in partial 47
fraction is K/ r-2 + L / r+1, where K and L are constants. G R
H
A. 3 B. 2
C. 1 D. -1 From the figure above, FK//GR and FH = GH,< RFK
= 340 and < FGH = 470. calculate the angle marked
17. Let f(x) = 2x + 4 and g(x) = 6x + 7 where g(x) > 0. x.
solve the inequality f(x)/g(x) < 1 A. 420 B. 520
A. x<-¾ B. x > - 4/3 C. 64 0
D. 720
C. x > - 3/4 D. x > - 12
25 cm
18. Find the range of values of x which satisfies the 27. 3 cm
inequality 12x2< x + 1 2 cm
A. -1/4 < x < 1/3 B. ¼ < x <1/3 X Y
C. -1/3 < x<1/4 D. -1/4 < x <-1/3

19. Sn is the sum of the first n terms of a series given by The figure above shows circles of radii 3cm and 2cm
Sn = n 2 – 1. find the nth term. with centres at X and Y respectively. The circles have
A. 4n + 1 B. 4n – 1 a transverse common tangent of length 25cm.
C. 2n + 1 D. 2n – 1 Calculate XY.
A. 630 cm B. 626 cm
20. The nth term of a sequence is given by 31-n. find the C. 615 cm D. 600 cm
sum of the first three terms of the sequence.
13
A. /9 B 1 28. A chord of a circle diameter 42cm subtends an angle
1 1
C. /3 D. /9 of 600 at the centre of the circle. Find the length of
the minor arc.
21. Two binary operations * and Ä are defined as m*n = A. 22 cm B. 44 cm
mn – n – 1 and m Ä n = mn + n – 2 for all real numbers C. 110 cm D. 220 cm
m, n. find the values of 3Ä (4*5). [ π = 22/7]
A. 60 B. 57 29. An arc of a circle subtends an angle of 700 at the
C. 54 D. 42 centre. If the radius of the circle is 6cm, calculate the
area of the sector subtended by the given angle.
22. If xy = x + y – xy, find x, A. 22 cm 2 B. 44 cm 2
when (x*2)+(x*3) = 68 C. 66 cm 2
D. 88 cm 2
A. 24 B. 22
C. -12 D. -21 30.
23. Determines x + y if 8 cm
5 cm 11 cm
2 -3 (x) = (-1)
10 cm
-1 4 (y) (8)
A. 3 B. 4 Find the volume of the prism above.
C. 7 D. 12
A. 990 cm3 B. 880 cm3 41. Integrate 1/x + cos x with respect to x.
C. 550 cm3 D. 495 cm3 A. -1/x2 + sin x + k B. 1nx + sin x + k
C. 1nx – sin x + k D. -1/x2 – sin x + k
31. A cone with the sector angle of 450 is cut out of a
circle of radius r cm. find the base radius of the
cone. 42. If y = x(x4 + x2 + 1), evaluate 1
-1
dyx
A. r/16cm B. r/8cm A. 11/12 B. 11/16
C. r/4cm D. r/2cm C. 5/6 E. 0

32. A point P moves so that it is equidistant from 43.

points L and M. if LM is 16cm, find the distance of Housing
P from LM when P is 10cm from L. 69O Basic
A. 12cm B. 10cm 60
O

Transport 50O
C. 8cm D. 6cm
61 Others
O

33. The angle between the positive horizontal axis and Meal
a given line is 1350. find the equation of the line if
it passes through the point (2, 3). The pie chart above shows the income of a civil
A. x–y=1 B. x+y=1 servant in a month. If his monthly income is #6000,
C. x+y=5 D x–y=5 find his monthly basic salary.
A. #2000 B. #2600
34. Find the distance between the point Q(4, 3) and the C. #3100 D. #3450
point common to the lines 2x – y = 4 and x + y = 2
A. 3 10 B. 3 5 44.
C. 26 D. 13

35. The angle of elevation of a building from a

measuring instrument placed on the ground is 300.
if the building is 40m high, how far is the
instrument from the foot of the building?
A. 20√3m B. 40√3m
C. 20√3m D. 40√3m
In an examination, the result of a certain school is as
36. In a triangle XYZ, if <XYZ is 600, XY = 3cm and shown in the histogram above. How many candidates
YZ = 4cm, calculate the length of the side XZ. did the school present?
A. “23cm B. “13cm A. 12 B. 16
C. 2"5cm D. 2"3cm C. 18 D. 19

37. X 45. Age 20 25 30 35 40 45

2 cm No . of students 3 5 1 1 2 3
5 cm Z Find the median age of the frequency distribution in
150 O the table above
A. 20 B. 25
Y E C. 30 D. 35

In the figure above, XYZ is a triangle with XY = 46 The following are the scores of ten students in a test
5cm, XZ = 2cm and XZ is produced to E making the of 20 marks; 15,16,17,13,16,8,5,16,19,17. what is the
angle YZE = 1500. if the angle XYZ = è, calculate modal score?
the value of the sin è. A. 13 B. 15
A. 3/5 B. ½ C. 16 D. 19
C. 2/5 D. 1/5
38. Differentiate 6x3-5x2+1 47. Find the standard deviation of the following data -
3x2 5,-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,4,5
3
A. 2 + 2/3x B. 2 + 1/6x A. 2 B. 3
C. 2-2/3x3 D. 2-1/6x C. √10 D. √11

39. d/dx cos(3x2 – 2x) is equal to 48. Find the difference between the range and the variance
A. -sin(6x - 2) B. -sin(3x2 – 2x) of the following set of numbers 4,9,6,3,2,8,10,5,6,7
C. (6x - 2) sin(3x – 2x) D. (6x - 2) sin (3x2 – 2x)
2
where d2 = 60.
A. 2 B. 3
40. Find the gradient of the curve y = 2 √x – 1/x at the C. 4 D. 6
point x= 1
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
49. In a basket of fruits, there are 6 grapes, 11 bananas 50. A number is selected at random between 10 and 20,
and 13 oranges. If one fruit is chosen at random, both numbers inclusive. Find the probability that the
what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape numbers is an even number.
or a banana? A. 5/11 B. ½
A. 17/30 B. 11/30 C. 6/11 D. 7/10
C. 6/30 D. 5/30

Mathematics 1998
1. If 10112 + X7, = 2510, solve for X In the venn diagram above, the shaded region is
A. 14 B. 20 A. (PÇQ)ÈR B. (PÇQ)ÇR
C. 24 D. 25 C. (PÇQ’)ÇR D. (PÇQ’)ÇR

2. Evaluate [1/0.03 ÷ 1/0.024] -1, correct to 2 decimal 10. When the expression pm 2 + qm + 1 is divided by (m
places - 1), it has a remainder 2 and when divided by (m +
A. 3.76 B. 1.25 1) the remainder is 4. find p and q respectively
C. 0.94 D. 0.75 A. 2, -1 B. -1, 2
C. 3, -2 D. -2, 3
3. If b3 = a -3 and c 1/3 = a 1/2b, express in terms of a
A. a -1/2 B. a1/2 11. Factorize r 2 – r (2p + q) + 2pq
3/2
C. a D. a-2/3 A. (r – 2q)(2r - p) B. (r - q)(r + p)
C. (r - q)(r – 2p) D. (2r - q)(r + p)
4. Given that Log4(y - 1) + Log4(1/2x) = 1 and Log2 (y +
1) + log2x = 2, solve for x and y respectively 12. Solve the equation x - (x - 2) – 1 = 0
A. 2, 3 B. 3, 2 A. 3/2 B. 2/3
C. -2, -3 D. -3, -2 C. 4/9 D. 9/4

5. Find the value of K if K/”3 + “2 = “3 - 2 13. Find the range of values of m for which the roots of
A. 3 B. 2 the equation 3x2 – 3mx + (m 2 – m - 3) = 0
C. “3 D. “2 A. -1<m<7 B. -2<m<6
C. -3<m<9 D. -4<m<8
6. A market woman sells oils in cylindrical tins 10cm
deep and 6cm diameter at #15.00 each. If she bought 14. Make a/x the subject of the formula
a full cylindrical jug 18cm deep and 10cm in diameter x + a/x – a = m
for #50.00, how much did she make by selling all A. m – 1/m + 1 B. 1 + m/1 – m
the oil? C. 1-m/1 + m D. m + 1/m – 1
A. #62.50 B. #35.00
C. #31.00 D. #25.00 15. Divide 2x3 + 11x2 + 17x + 6 by 2x + 1
A. x2 + 5x + 6 B. 2x2 + 5x + 6
7. A man is paid r naira per hour for normal work and C. 2x2 – 5x + 6 D. x2 – 5x + 6
double rate for overtime. If he does a 35-hour week
which includes q hours of overtime, what is his 16. Express in partial fractions
weekly earning in naira? 11x + 2
A. r(35 + q) B. q(35r - q) 6x2 – x – 1
C. q(35r + r) D. r(35r - q) A. 1/3x – 1 + 3/2x + 1 B. 3/3x + 1 – 1/2x – 1
C. 3/3x – 1 – 1/2x + 1 D. 1/3x + 1 + 3/2x- 1
8. Given the universal set U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,} and the
sets P = {1,2,3,4,} Q = {3,4,5} and R = {2,4,6}. Find 17. If x is a positive real number, find the range of values
PÈ(QÈR). for which
A. {4} B. {1,2,3,4} 1/3x + ½ > 1/4x
C. {1,2,3,5,6} D. {1,2,3,4,5,6} A. x> - 1/6 B. x>0
C. 0<x<4 D. 0<x<1/6
9. P
Q y
18.

(0, 3)
(2, 0) x

The shaded area above represents

R A. x≥0, 3y + 2x ≥ 6 B. x≥ 0, y≥3, 3x + 2y≥ 6
C. x ≥ 2, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y ≤6 D. x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y≥6
19. If p + 1, 2p – 10 ,1 – 4p2 are the consecutive terms of In the diagram above, PQ//ST and ÐPQR = 1200, ÐRST
an arithmetic progression, find the possible values = 1300. find the angle marked x.
of p. A. 500 B. 650
0
A. -4, 2 B. –2, 4/11 C. 70 D. 800
C. –11/4, 2 D. 5, -3
P Q
20. The sum of the first three terms of a geometric 27.
progression is half its sum to infinity. Find the
positive common ration of the progression.
A. ¼ B. ½ T 10cm S 8cm R
C. 1/3"3 D. 1/3"2
In the figure above, PQST is a parallelogram and TSR
21. x
O p q r s is a straight line. If the area of ∠QRS is 20cm 2, find
the area of the trapezium PQRT.
P r p r p
A. 35cm 2 B. 65cm 2
p q r s C. 70cm 2
D. 140cm 2
q
r r r r X
r 28.
s q s r q
O
32
The identity element with respect to the multiplication R
shown in the table above is Y 40
O

A. p B. q Q
T
C. r D. s
TQ is tangent to circle XYTR. ∠YXT = 320,
22. The binary operation * is defined by x*y = xy – y – x ∠RTQ = 400. find ∠YTR.
for all real values x and y x*3 = 2 * x, find x. A. 1080 B. 1210
0
A. -1 B. 0 C. 140 D. 1480
C. 1 D. 5
29. A chord of a circle radius Ö3cm subtends an angle of
23. The determinant of matrix x, 1, 0 600 on the circumference of the circle. Find the length
1-x, 2, 3 of the chord.
1, 1+ x, 4 A. √3/2 cm B. 3/2 cm
in terms of x is C. √3 cm D. 3 cm
A. -3x2 - 17 B. -3x2 + 9x – 1
C. 3x2 + 17 D. 3x2 – 9x + 5 30. A cylindrical drum of diameter 56 cm contains 123.2
litres of oil when full. Find the height of the drum in
24. Let I= 1 0. P= 2 3 Q= u, 4 + u centimeters.
0 1 4 5 -2v, v A. 12.5 B. 25.0
be 2 x 2 matrices such that PQ=1. find (u,v) C. 45.0 D. 50.0
A. (-5/2, -1) B. (-5/2, 3/2) 31. The locus of all points at a distance 8 cm from a
C. (–5/6,1) D. (5/2, 2/3) point N passes through point T and S. if S is
equidistant from T and N , find the area of triangle
25. T STN.
S A. 4√3 cm 2 B. 16√3 cm 2
30O 2
O
C. 32cm D. 64 cm 2
35
P R
32. If the distance between the points (x, 3) and (-x, 2)
is 5. find x
Q A. 6.0 B. 2.5
C. 6 D. 3
In the diagram above, PR is a diameter of the circle 33 The midpoint of the segment of the line y = 4x + 3
PQRS. PST and QRT are straight lined. Find Ð QSR. which lies between the x-axis and the y-axis is
A. 200 A. (-3/2, 3/2) B. (-2/3, 3/2)
B. 250 C. (3/8, 3/2) D. (-3/8, 3/2)
C. 300
D. 350 34. Solve the equation
R cos x + sin x = 1/cos x – sinx
26. for values of x such that 0 ≤ x < 2π
x
120O A. π/2, 3π/2 B. π/3, 2π/3
130O C. 0, π/3 D. 0, π
P Q
S T
35. P
10 A. 2/3 B. 1
C. K+ 1 D. (K + 1)2
15 8 R
O
30 45. Find the positive value of x if the standard deviation
T
Q of the numbers 1, x +1, 2x + 1 is √6
A. 1 B. 2
In the diagram above, QTR is a straight line and∠
C. 3 D. 4
PQT = 300. find the sine of ∠PTR.
A. 8/15 B. 2/3
46. A bag contains 16red balls and 20blue balls only. How
C. ¾ D. 15/16
many white balls must be added to the bag so that
the probability of randomly picking a red ball is equal
36. For what value of x does 6 sin (2x - 25)0 attain its
to 2/5?
maximum value in the range 00 ≤x ≤ 1800?
A. 4 B. 20
A. 121/2 B. 321/2
1
C. 24 D. 40
C. 57 /2 D. 1471/2
47. F oo d
37. From the top of a vertical mast 150m high, two 120O

Tr
Housin
huts on the same ground level are observed. One

ansport
due east and the other due west of the mast. Their g
angles of depression are 600 and 450 respectively. S ch o o l
F ee s
Find the distance between the huts.
A. 150 (1 + √3)m B. 50 (3 + √3)m
The pie chart above shows the monthly expenditure
C. 150√3m D. 50/√3m
of a public servant. The monthly expenditure on
housing is twice that of school fees. How much does
38. If y = 243 (4x + 5)-2, find dy/dx when x = 1
the worker spend on housing if his monthly income
A. -8/3 B. 3/8
is #7.200?
C. 9/8 D. –8/9
A #1000 B. #2000
C. #3000 D. #4000
39. Differentiate x/cos x with respect to x.
A. 1 + x sec x tan x B. 1 + sec2x
48.
C. cos x + x tan x D. sec x + x sec x tan x

40. Evaluate π2(sec2x – tan 2x)dx

A. π/2 B. π-2
C. π/3 D. π+2
41. Find the equation of the curve which passes
through the point (2, 5) and whose gradient at any The bar chart above shows the distribution of marks
point is given by 6x - 5 scored by 60 pupils in a test in which the maximum
A. 6x2 – 5x + 5 B. 6x2 + 5x + 5 score was 10. if the pass mark was 5, what percentage
2
C. 3x – 5x – 5 D. 3x2 – 5x + 3 of the pupils failed the test?
A. 59.4% B. 50.0%
42. If m and n are the mean and median respectively of C. 41.7% D. 25.0%
the set of numbers 2,3,9,7,6,7,8,5 and m + 2n to the
nearest whole number. 49. In a recent zonal championship games involving
A. 19 B. 18 10teams, teams X and Y were given Probabilities 2/
C. 13 D. 12 5 and 1/3 respectively of wining the gold in the
Average hourly football event. What is the probability that either team
43. earnings (N) 5 - 9 10 - 14 15 - 19 20 - 24 will win the gold?
A. 2/15 B. 7/15
No . of workers 17 32 25 24
C. 11/15 D. 13/15
E sti m a t e t h e m ode of th e a bove fr equen cy
distribution. 50. If x, y can take values from the set {1,2,3,4,}, find
A. 12.2 B. 12.7 the probability that the product of x and y is not
C. 12.9 D. 13.4 greater than 6.
A. 5/8 B. 5/16
44. Find the variance of the numbers K, K + 1, K + 2. C. ½ D. 3/8
Mathematics 1999
1. If (a 2b3c)/a -1b4c5 12. The first term of a geometrical progression is twice
What is the value of P + 2q? its common ratio. Find the sum of the first two terms
A. 5/2 B. –5/4 of the progression if its sum to infinity is 8
C. –25/4 D. –10 A. 8/5 B. 8/3
C. 72/25 D. 56/9
2. Find the value of x if √2/(x + √2) = 1/(x - √2)
A. 3√2 + 4 B. 3√2 – 4 13. Tope bought x oranges at #5.00 each and some
C. 3 - 2√2 D. 4 + 2√2 mangoes at #4.00 each. If she bought twice as many
mangoes as oranges and spent at least #and at most
3. A trader bought 100 oranges at 5 for #1.20,20 oranges #, find the range of the value of x
got spoilt and the remaining were sold at 4 for #1.50. A. 4≤x≤5 B. 5≤x≤8
find the percentage gain or loss C. 5 ≤ x ≤ 10 D. 8 ≤ x ≤ 10
A. 30% gain B. 25% gain
C. 30% loss D. 25% loss 14. If m*n = m/n – n/m, for m,n E R, evaluate –3 *4
A. -25/12 B. –7/12
4. If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, P = {3, 4, 5}, Q = {2, 4, 6} C. 7/12 D. 25/12
and R = {1, 2, 3 4}, list elements of (PÈQ’ÇR).
A. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} B. {1, 2, 3, 4} 15. Find the matrix T if ST = I where S = (-1, 1)
C. {1} D. Æ (1, -2)
and I is the identity matrix.
5. Divide 24346 by 426
A. 236 B. 356 A. (-2, 1) B. (-2, -1)
C. 526 D. 556 (-1, 1) (-1, -1)
C. (-1, -1) D. (-1, -1)
6. If 29 x (Y3) 9 = 35 (Y3) 9, find the value of Y (01, -1) (0, 1)
A. 4 B. 3
C. 2 D. 1 16. Divide 4x3 – 3x + 1 by 2x - 1
A. 2x2 – x + 1 B. 2x2 – x – 1
7. Simplify √(0.0023 x 750)/(0.00345) x 1.25 C. 2x2 + x + 1 D. 2x2 + x - 1
A. 15 B. 20
C. 40 D. 75 17. Three consecutive positive integers k, l and m are
such that l 2 = 3(k + m). find the value of m.
8. If log810 = x, evaluate log85 in terms of x. A. 4 B. 5
A. 1
/2x B. x – 1/ 4 C. 6 D. 7
1
C. x – /3 D. x – 1/ 2 y
18.
9. A group of market women sell at least one of yam, 45
O

plantain and maize. 12 of them sell maize, 10 sell -1 0 1 x

yam and 14 sell plantain. 5 sell plantain and maize, 4
sell yam and maize, 2 sell yam and plantain only
while 3 sell all the three items. How many women The shaded portion in the graph above is represented
are in the group? by
A. 25 B. 19 A. y + x – x3 0, y – x £ 0 B. y - + x 3 ³ 0, y – x £ 0
C. 18 D. 17 C. y + x – x3 £ 0, y + x ³ 0 D. y – x + x3 £ 0, y + x £ 0

10. Given that Q = (6, 0) and Q + P = (7, 2) 19. Factorize completely

(4, 5) (6, 8) x2 + 2xy + y2 + 3x + 3y – 18
evaluate /Q + 2P/ A. (x + y + 6)(x + y - 3) B. (x - y - 6)(x - y + 3)
A. 90 B. 96 C. (x - y + 6)(x - y - 3)
C. 102 D. 120
20. The sum of two members is twice their difference. If
11. A binary operation * is defined by a*b = ab + b for the difference of the numbers is P, find the larger of
any real number a and b. if the identity element is the two numbers.
zero, find the inverse of 2 under this operation A. p/2 B. 3p/2
A. 2/3 B. ½ C. 5p/2 D. 3p
C. –1/2 D. 56/9
21. Express 1/x3 - 1
A. B.

C. D.
22. In MNO, MN = 6 units, MO = 4 units and NO – 12 30. From the Point P, the bearings of two points Q and R
units. If the bisector of angle M meets NO at P, are N670W and N230E respectively. If the bearing of R
calculate NP. from Q is N680E and PQ = 150m, calculate PR.
A. 4.8 units B. 7.2 units A. 120m B. 140m
C. 8.0 units D. 18.0 units C. 150m D. 160m

23. Find the equation of the locus of a point P(x, y ) such 31.
that PV = PW, where V = (1, 1) and W = (3, 5) P T Q
x
A. 2x + 2y = 9 B. 2x + 3y = 8
C. 2x + y = 9 D. x + 2y = 8 O
S 110

24. 3 cm R
In the figure above, PQRS is a circle with ST//RQ. Find
4 cm
the value of x if PT = PS
A. 700 B. 550
0
C. 40 D. 350
6 cm

32. E
Find the value of l in the frustum above.
A. 5cm B. 6cm 34
O
F
C. 7cm D. 8cm H 42
O

X
25. G

In the diagrams above, EFGH is a cyclic quadrilateral

2m in which EH//FG and FH are chords. If ∠FHG = 420
120cm and ∠ΕFH = 340, calculate ∠HEG
A. 340 B. 420
Y 1cm Z 0
C. 52 D. 760

Find the length XZ in the triangle above 33. If the maximum value of y = 1+ hx – 3x2is 13, find h.
A. √7m B. √6m A. 13 B. 12
C. √5m D. √3m C. 11 D. 10

26. Find a positive value of a if the coordinate of the

1
centre of a circle x2 + y2 – 2ax + 4y - a = 0 is (a, -2) 34. Evaluate –2
(x - 1) 2
and the radius is 4 units A. -31/3 B. 7
A. 1 B. 2 C. 9 D. 11
C. 3 D. 4

π/4
27. A man 1.7m tall observes a bird on top of a tree at an 35. Evaluate (x -1)2dx
angle of 300. if the distance between the man’s head A. √2 + 1 B. √2 - 1
and the bird is 25m, what is the height of the tree? C. -√2 - 1 D. 1 - √2
A. 26.7m B. 14.2m
C. (1.7 + 25√3m)/3 D. (1.7 + 25√2m)/2 36. Find the area bounded by the curve
O y = x(2 - x), the x-axis, x = 0 and x = 2
28. A. 4 sq units B. 2sq units
9
P
C. 11/2 sq units D. 1/3 sq units
x
37. If y = 3x2 (x3 + 1)1/2find dy/dx
6
Z T A. 6x(x3+1) + 3x2/2(x3+1)1/2 B. 12x(x3+1) + 3x2/2(x3+1)1/2
In the figure above, TZ is tangent to the circle QPZ. C.(15x4 + 6x)/6x2(x3+1)1/2 D. 12x(x3+1) + 9x4/2(x3+1)1/2
Find x if TZ = 6 units and PQ = 9 units.
A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6 38. Find the volume of solid generated when the area
enclosed by y = 0, y = 2x and 3 is rotated about the x –
29. Find the tangent of the acute angle between the lines 2x axis.
+ y =3 and 3x – 2y = 5 A. 81π cubic units B. 36π cubic units
A. -7/4 B. 7/8 C. 18π cubic units D. 9π cubic units
C. 7/4 D. 7/2
39. What is the derivative of t2sin (3t - 5) with respects to the
variable? The grades of 36 students in a class test are as shown
A. 6t cos (3t - 5) B. 2dt sin (3t - 5) – 3t2 cos (3t - 5) in the pie chart above. How many students had
2
C. 2t sin (3t - 5) + 3t cos (3t - 5) excellent?
D. 2t sin (3t - 5) + t2 cos 3t A. 7 B. 8
C. 9 D. 12
40. Find the value of x for which the function y = x3 – x has No of students 2 2 11 10 16 51 40 10 25 15 20
a minimum value. 47. Marks 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A. -√3 B. -√3/2
C. √3/3 D. √3
The marks scored by students in a test are given in the
41. Three boys play a game a luck in which their respective above. Find the median.
chances of wining are ½, 1/3 and ¼. What is the A. 7 B. 6
probability that one and only of the boys wins the game? C. 5 D. 4
A. 1/24 B. 1/12
C. 11/24 D. 23/24 48. A student calculated the mean of 5 numbers as 45, 3.
while rechecking his working, he discovered that his
42. A number is selected at random from 0 to 20. what is total was short by 20.5. what is the correct mean of the
the probability that the number is an odd prime? 5 numbers?
A. 8/21 B. 1/3 A. 24.8 B. 41.2
C. 2/7 D. 5/21 C. 49.4 D. 65.8

43. If 6Cr/6P/r = 1/6, find the value of r. 49. The sectorial allocations to various ministries in a state
A. 1 B. 3 budget are as follows:
C. 5 D. 6 Agriculture - #25 000 000.00
Education - #20 000 000 .00
44. If the standard deviation of the set of numbers 3, 6, x, Women affairs - #35 000 000.00
7, 5, is √2, find the least possible value of x. Commerce and
A. 2 B. 3 Industries - #20 000 000.00
C. 4 D. 6 In a pie chart to represent this information the
corresponding angle to agriculture is
45. How many two digit numbers can be formed from the A. 250 B. 450
0
digits 0, 1, 2, if a digit can be repeated and no number C. 50 D. 900
may begin with 0
A. 4 B. 12 50. The mean of four numbers is 5 and the mean deviation
C. 16 D. 20 is 3. find the fourth number if the mean deviation of the
first three numbers is 2.
46. A. 6 B. 10
C. 11 D. 17

Mathematics 2000
C. –2/5, 1 D. 2, 3/5
1. Let P = {1,2,u,v,w,x}
R = {2,3,u,v,w,5,6,y} 4. In a youth club with 94 members, 60 like modern
and R = (2,3,4,v,x,y) music and 50 like like traditional music. The number
of members who like both traditional and modern
Determine (P - Q) ∩ R. music is three times who do not like any type of
A. {1, x} B. {x, y} music. How many members like only one type of
C. {x} D. φ music?
A. 8 B. 24
2. If the population of a town was 240000 in January C. 62 D. 86
1998 and it increased by 2% each year, what would
be the population of the town in January 2000? 5. Evaluate (2.813 x 10-3) x 1.063
A. 480 000 B. 249 696 5.637 x 10-2
C. 249 600 D. 244 800 reducing each number to two significant figures and
leaving your answers in two significant figures.
3. If 2√3 - √2/√3 + 2√2 = m + n√6, A. 0.056 B. 0.055
Find the values of m and n respectively C. 0.054 D. 0.54
A. 1, -2 B. –2, 1
6. A man wishes to keep some money in a savings 3
3
2
deposit at 25% compound interest so that after 3 A. 2 B. 1
1
years he can buy a car for #150,000. how much does -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
0 -1
he need to deposit now? -3 -2 -1 -1 1 2 3
-2
-2
A. #112,000.50. B. #96,000.00 -3
-3

C. #85,714.28 D. #76,800.00
3
3 2
7. If 31410 – 2567 = 340x, find x C. 2
D. 1
A. 2n + 1 B. 2n – 1 1
-3 -2 -1-10 1 2 3
C. 4 D. ¼ -3 -2 -1 0
-1
1 2 3 -2
-2 -3
-3
8. Audu bought an article for #50 000 and sold it to
Femi at a loss of x%. Femi later sold the article to
Oche at a profit of 40%. If Femi made a profit of
#10,000, find the value of x. 18. Find the values of t for which the determinant of the
A. 60 B. 50 matrix (t -4 0 0 )
C. 40 D. 20 (-1 t+t 1 ) is zero
(3 4 t-2)
9. Simplify 3(2n + 1) – 4(2n -1 )/2(n + 1) – 2n
A. 2n + 1 B. 2n - 1 A. 0, 2, 3 B. –4, 2, 3
C. 4 D. ¼ C. –4, -2, -3 D. 4, -2, 3

10. If P3446 – 23P26 = 2PP26, find the value of digit P. 19. If (x - 1), (x + 1) and (x - 2) are factors of the
A. 2 B. 3 polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx – 1, find a, b, c, respectively
C. 4 D. 5 A. -1/2, 1, ½ B. ½, 1, ½
C. ½, 1, -1/2 D. ½, -1, ½
11. Evaluate 5-3log52 x 22log23
A. 8 B. 11/8 20. A trader realizes 10x –x2naira profit from the sale of
C. 2/5 D. 1/8 x bags of corn. How many bags will give him the
maximum profit?
12. A binary operation * is defined by a * b = a b. if a * 2 A. 4 B. 5
= 2 –a, find the possible values of a. C. 6 D. 7
A. 1, -1 B. 1, 2
C. 2, -2 D. 1, -2 21. Solve the inequality 2 – x > x2
A. x < -2 or x > 1 B. x > 2 or x < -1
13. The 3rd term of an A. P. is 4x – 2y and the 9th term is C. –1 < x> 2 D. –2 < x < 1
10x - 8y . find the common difference.
A. 19x - 17y B. 8x - 4y 22. If a and b are the roots of the equation 3x2 + 5x – 2 =
C. x–y D. 2x 0, find the value of 1/α + 1/β
A. -5/2 B. –2/3
14. Find the inverse of p under the binary operation * by C. ½ D. 5/2
p * q= p + q – pq, where p and q are real numbers
and zero is the identity. 23. Find the minimum value of the function f(θ ) = 2/3 –
A. p B. p–1 cosθ for ο ≤ θ ≤ 2π.
C. p/p – 1 D. p/p+1 A. ½ B. 2/3
C. 1 D. 2
(a, b)
15. A matrix P(a, b) is such that PT= p, where 24. A frustum of a pyramid with square base has its upper
(c, d) and lower sections as squares of sizes 2m and 5m
PT is the transpose of P, if b = 1, then P is respectively and the distance between them 6m. find
A. (0, 1) B. (0, 1) the height of the pyramid from which the frustum
(1, 0) (-1, 0) was obtained.
C. (0, 1) D. (1, 1) A. 8.0m B. 8.4m
(1, 1) (-1,0) C. 9.0m D. 10.0m

16. Evaluate (1/2 – ¼ + 1/8 – 1/16 + …….) -1 25. P is a point on one side of the straight line UV and P
A. 2/3 B. 0 moves in the same direction as UV. If the straight
C. –2/3 D. –1 line ST is on the locus of P and ∠ VUS = 500, find ∠
UST.
17. The solution of the simultaneous inequalities 2x – 2 A. 3100 B. 1300
0
£ y and 2y 2 £ x is represent by C. 80 D. 500
26. A ship sails a distance of 50km in the direction S50E 34. y
and then sails a distance of 50km in the direction
N400E. find the bearing of the ship from its original y= 16
position.
A. S900E B. N400E
0
C. S95 E D. N850E

27. An equilateral triangle of side √3 cm is inscribed in x

a circle. Find the radius of the circle.
A. 2/3cm B. 2cm
C. 1cm D. 3cm If the diagram above is the graph of y=x2, the shaded
area is
28. 3y = 4x – 1 and Ky = x + 3 are equations of two A. 64 square units B. 128/3 square units
straight lines. If the two lines are perpendicular to C. 64/3 square units D. 32 square units
each other, find K
A. -4/3 B. –3/4
C. ¾ S
D. 4/3 35. Find the value of (cos2θ – 1/sin 2θ) dθ
π

A. π B. π
/0
29. C. -π/ 0 D. π
O
50
P 30O R
36. If y = 2y cos 2x – sin 2x, find dy/dx when x = ë/4
Q A. π B. –π
C. π/2 D. – π/2

37. A bowl is designed by revolving completely the area

In the diagram above, if ∠ RPS = 500, ∠ RPQ = 300 enclosed by y = x2 – 1, y= 0, y = 3 and x ³ 0 around
and PQ = QR, find the value of ∠ PRS the y-axis. What is the volume of this bowl?
A. 800
F
B. 700 A. 7 π cubic units. B. 15 π/2 cubic units
8 π cubic units 17 π/2 cubic units.
0
C. 60 D. 500 C. D.

38. If the volume of a hemisphere is increasing at a steady

30. O rate of 8 πm 3s-1, at what rate is its radius changing
E N when it is 6m?
G
A. 2.50ms-1 B. 2.00ms-1
H C. 0.25ms-1 D. 0.20ms-1

39. A function f(x) passes through the origin and its first
derivative is 3x + 2. what is f(x)
In the diagram above, EFGH is a circle center O. FH A. y = 3/2x2 + 2x B. y = 3/2 x2 + x
is a diameter and GE is a chord which meets FH at C. 2
y = 3 x + x/2 D. y = 3 x2 + 2x
right angle at the point N. if NH = 8 cm and EG = 24
cm, calculate FH. 40. The expression ax2 + bx + c equals 5 at x = 1. if its
A. 16cm B. 20cm derivative is 2x + 1, what are the values of a, b, c,
C. 26cm D. 32cm respectively?
A. 1, 3, 1 B. 1, 2, 1
31. If P and Q are fixed points and X is a point which C. 2, 1, 1 D. 1, 1, 3
moves so that XP = XQ, the locus of X is
A. a straight line B. a circle 41. X and Y are two events. The probability of X and Y
C. the bisector ∠ PXQ D. the perpendicular is 0.7 and the probability of X is 0.4. If X and Y are
bisector of PQ independent, find the probability of Y.
A. 0.30 B. 0.50
32. In a regular polygon, each interior angle doubles its C. 0.57 D. 1.80
corresponding exterior angle. Find the number of
sides of the polygon. 42. If the mean of the numbers 0, x + 2, 3x + 6 and 4x +
A. 87 B. 6 8 is 4, find their mean deviation.
C. 4 D. 3 A. 0 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
33. A predator moves in a circle of radius √2 centre (0,
0), while a prey moves along the line y = x. if 0≤ x≤ 43. In how many ways can the word MATHEMATICS
2, at which point(s) will they meet? be arranged?
A. (1, 1) only B. (1, 1) and (1, 2) A. 11!/9! 2! B. 11!/9! 2! 2!
C. 11!/2! 2! 2! D. 11!/2! 2!
The cumulative frequency curve above represents
44. the ages of students in a school. Which are group
do 70% of the students belong?
A. 15.5 – 18.5 B. 15.5 – 19.5
C. 16.5 – 19.5 D. 17.5 – 20.5
A dice is rolled 240 times and the result depicted in
the table above. If a pie chart is constructed to 47. The variance of x, 2x, 3x 4x and 5x is
represent the data, the angle corresponding to 4 is A. x√2 B. 2x2
A. 100 B. 160 C. x 2
D. 3x
0
C. 40 D. 600
48. Find the sum of the range and the mode of the set of
45. If U = {x : x is an integer and {1 ≤ x ≤ 20} numbers 10, 5, 10, 9, 8, 7, 7, 10, 8, 10, 8, 4, 6, 9, 10,
E 1 = {x : x is a multiple of 3} 9, 10, 9, 7, 10, 6, 5
E 2 = {x : x is a multiple of 4} A. 16 B. 14
And an integer is picked at random from U, find the C. 12 D. 10
probability that it is not in E 2
A. ¾ B. 3/10 49. In how many ways can a delegation of 3 be chosen
C. ¼ D. 1/20 from among 5 men and 3 women, if at least one man
at least one woman must be included?
46. A. 15 B. 28
C. 30 D. 45

50.

No . Of
Pupils

The table above shows the frequency distribution of

the ages (in years) of pupils in a certain secondary
school. What percentage of the total number of pupils
is over 15 years but less than 21 years?
A. 35% B. 45%
C. 50% D. 60%

Mathematics 2001
1. Find the principal which amounts to #5,000 at simple 6. If y/2 = x, evaluate
interest in 5 years at 2% per annum (x3/y3 + 1/2) + (1/2 – x2/y2)
A. #5000 B. #4900 A. 5/16 B. 5/8
C. #4800 D. #4700 C. 5/4 D. 5/2
2. A ca r dea l er bough t a secon d-h a n d ca r for 7. Simplify (3√64a 3)-3
#250,000.00 and spent #70 000.00 refurbishing it. A. 8a B. 4a
He then sold the car for #400 000.00. what is the C. 1/4a D. 1/4a
percentage gain?
A. 20% B. 25% 8. Factorize 4x2 – 9y2 + 20x + 25
C. 32% D. 60% A. (2x – 3y)(2x + 3y) B. (2x + 5)(2x – 9y + 5)
C. (2x – 3y + 5)(2x – 3y - 5)
3. Evaluate 21.05347 – 1.6324 x 0.43, to 3 decimal D. (2x – 3y)(2x + 3y + 5)
places.
A. 20.351 B. 20.352 9. If tow graphs y = px2 and y = 2x2 – 1 intersect at x =
C. 20.980 D. 20.981 2, find the value of p in terms of q
A. (7 + q)/8 B. (8 – q)/2
4. Evaluate (0.14)2 x 0.275)/7(0.02) correct to 3 decimal C. (q – 8)/7 D. 7 / (q –1)
places
A. 0.033 B. 0.039 10. Solve the equations: m 2 + n 2 = 29;m + n = 7
C. 0.308 D. 0.358 A. (5, 2) and (5, 3) B. (5, 3) and (3, 5)
C. (2, 3) and (3, 5) D. (2, 5) and (5, 2)
5. Given that p = 1 + √2 and q = 1 - √2, evaluate (p2 –
q2)/2pq 11. Divide a 3x – 26a 2x + 156a x – 216 by
A. -2(2 + √2 ) B. 2(2 + √2) a 2x – 24a x + 108
C. -2√2 D. 2√2
A. a x – 18 B. ax – 6 A. 4 B. –2
C. ax – 2 D. ax + 2 C. –4 D. –12

12. Find the integral values of x and y satisfying the 20. If P = 3 -3 4 then -2p is
inequality 3y + 5x £ 15, given that y > 0, y< 3 and 5 0 6
x > 0. 1 2 1
A. (1, 1), (2, 1), (1, 3) B. (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3)
C. (1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1) D. (1, 1), (3, 1), (2, 2) A. -6, 4, -8 B -6, 4, -8
y
5, 0, 6 -10, 0, 6
y+
13. 2 x+
7, 5, -1 -14, 5, -1
2=
-x - 2= 0
1 2y0
-2
P
T
C. -6, -4, 2 D -6, 4, -8
x
S -1 -10, -2, -12 -10, 0, -12
-2 -14, 10, 2 -14, 40, 2

Triangle SPT is the solution of the linear inequalities 21. Find the number of sides of a regular polygon whose
A. 2y – x – 2 ≤ 0, y + 2x + 2 ≤ 0,≥0, x ≤ 0 interior angle is twice the exterior angle
B. 2y – x – 2 ≤ 0, y + 2x + 2 ≤ 0, ≤ 0 A. 2 B. 3
C. 2y – x – 2 ≤ 0, y + 2x + 2 ≤ 0, ≤ 0, x ≤ -1 C. 6 D. 8
D. -2y < x ≤ 2 ≤ 0, y + 2x + 2 ≤ 0, ≤ 0 S
22.
14.. The sixth term of an arithmetic progression is half of T
its twelfth term. The first term is equal to
75O
A. half of the common difference 25O
P Q R
B. double of the common difference
C. the common difference D. zero In the figure above, PQR is a straight line segment,
PQ = QT. Triangle PQT is an isosceles triangle, <
15. A man saves #100.00 in his first year of work and SRQ is 750 and < QPT = 250. calculate the value of <
each year saves #20.00 more than in the preceding RST.
year. In how many years will he save #580.00 A. 250 B. 450
0
A. 20 years B. 29 years C. 50 D. 550
C. 58 years D. 100 years
23. A cylindrical tank has a capacity of 3080m 3. what is
16. An operation * is defined on the set of real numbers the depth of the tank if the diameter of its base is
by a*b = a + b + 1. if the identity elements is -1, find 14m?
the inverse of the element 2 under. A. 20m B. 22m
A. -4 B. –2 C. 23m D. 25m
C. 0 D. 4
17 24. A sector of a circle of radius 7.2 cm which subtends
x k l m an angle 3000 at the centre is used to form a cone.
What is the radius of the base of the cone?
k l m k
A. 6cm B. 7cm
l m k l C. 8cm D. 9cm
m k l m 25. The chord ST of a circle is equal to the radius, r of
T h e i dent i t y el em en t wi t h respect t o t h e the circle. Find the length of arc ST.
multiplication shown in the table above is A. πr/2 B. πr/3
A. k B. l C. πr/6 D. πr/12
C. m D. o
26. A point P moves such that it is equidistant from the
18. Given that matrix k = (2, 1) the matrix points Q and R. find QR when PR = 8cm and < PRQ
(3, 4) = 300
k2 + k + 1, where I is the 2 x 2 identity matrix, is A. 4cm B. 4√3cm
A. (9, 8 ) B. (10, 7) C. 8cm D. 8√3cm
(22, 23) (21, 24)
27. Find the locus of a point which moves such that its
C. (7, 2) D. (6, 3) distance from the line y = 4 is a constant, k.
(12, 21) (13, 20) A. y=4+k B. y=k –4
C. y=k±4 D. y=4 ±k
19. Evaluate -1 -1 -1
3 1 1 28. A straight line makes an angle of 300 with the positive
1 2 1 x-axis and cuts the y-axis at y = 5. find the equation
of the straight line.
40.
A. √3y = x + 5y√3 B. √3y = -x + 5√3
C. y=x+5 D. y = 1/10x + 5 No . of cars 8
7
6
5
29. P(-6, 1) and Q(6, 6) are the two ends of the diameter 4
3
of a given circle. Calculate the radius 2
1
A. 3.5 units B. 6.5 units

Yellow

White

Green

Blue
Red

Black
C. 7.0 units D. 13.0 units
Color of cars
30. Find the value of p if the line joining (p, 4) and (6, -
The bar chart above shows different colours of cars
2) is perpendicular to the line joining (2, p) and (-1,
passing a particular point of a certain street in two
3)
minutes. What fraction of the total number of cars is
A. 0 B. 3
yellow?
C. 4 D. 6
A. 4/15 B. 1/5
C. 3/25 D. 2/25
31. The bearing of P and Q from a common point N are
0200 and 300 0 respectively. If P and Q are also
41
equidistant from N, find the bearing of P from Q. No . of taxis 8
A. 3200 B. 2800 7
6
0
C. 070 D. 0400 5
4
3
2
32. 1
0 0

0.5
2.5
4.5
6.5
8.5
10.5
12.5
t t
No . of passengers

The histogram above shows the distribution of

3t passengers in taxis of a certain motor park. How many
taxis have more than 4 passenger?
Find the value of q in the diagram above.
A. 14 B. 15
A. 300 B. 600
0 C. 16 D. 17
C. 100 D. 1200
Using the table below to answer questions 42 and
33. Differentiate (2x + 5)2(x - 4) with respect to x
43
A. (2x + 5)(6x - 11) B. (2x + 5)(2x – 13)
C. 4(2x + 5)(x - 4) D. 4(2x + 5)(4x - 3) Score 4 7 8 11 13 8
Frequency 3 5 2 7 2 1
34. If y = x sin x, find dy/dx when x = π/2
A. π/2 B. 1
42. Find the square of the mode
C. –1 D. π/-2
A. 25 B. 49
C. 64 D. 121
35. If the gradient of the curve
y = 2kx2 + x + 1 at x = 1 find k
43. The mean score is
A. 1 B. 2
A. 11.0 B. 9.5
C. 3 D. 4
C. 8.7 D. 7.0
36. Find the rate of change of the volume V of a sphere
44. Find the range of 1/6, 1/3, 3/2, 2/3, 8/9 and 4/3
with respect to its radius r when r = 1
A. 4/3 B. 7/6
A. 4π B. 8π
C. 5/6 D. ¾
C. 12π D. 24π
45. Find the variance of 2, 6, 8, 6, 2 and 6
37. Find the dimensions of the rectangle of greatest area
A. √5 B. √6
which has a fixed perimeter p.
C. 5 D. 6
A. Square of sides p/4 B. Square of sides p/2
C. Square of sides p D. Square of sides 2p
46. Cumulative
frequency 50

38. Evaluate 2(2x - 3)2/3 dx 40

A. 2x – 3 + k B. 2(2x - 3) + k 30
P
C. 6/5(2x - 3)5/3 + k D. 3/5(2x - 3)5/3 + k 20

10
39. Find the area bounded by the curves Q Q Q
0
5.5

10.5

15.5

20.5

25.5

30.5

y = 4 – x2
A. 101/3 sq. units B. 102/3 sq. units Masses (Kg)
1
C. 20 /3 sq. units D. 202/3 sq. units
The graph above shows the cumulative frequency 49.
of the distribution of masses of fertilizer for 48 Colour Blue Black Yellow White Brown
workers in one institution. Which of the following No . of beads 1 2 4 5 3
gives the interquartile range?
A. Q3 – Q1 B. Q3 – Q2 The distribution of colors of beads in a bowl is given
C. Q2 – Q1 D. ½ (Q3 – Q1) above. What is the probability that a bead selected at
random will be blue or white?
47. Find the number of ways of selecting 8 subjects from A. 1/15 B. 1/3
12 subjects for an examination. C. 2/5 D. 7/15
A. 498 B. 496
C. 495 D. 490 50. Teams P and Q are involved in a game of football.
What is the probability that the game ends in a draw?
48. If 6Pr = 6, find the value of 6Pr+1 A. ¼ B. 1/3
A. 15 B. 30 C. ½ D. 2/3
C. 33 D. 35

Mathematics 2002
1. A trader bought goats for #4 000 each. He sold them 8. Find the value of & if the line 2y - &x + 4 = 0 is
for #180 000 at a loss of 25%. How many goats did perpendicular to the line y + 1/ 4x – 7 =
he buy? 0
A. 36 B. 45 A. -8 B. –4
C. 50 D. 60 C. 4 D. 8

2. Simplify (√0.7 + √70)2 9. A bucket is 12cm in diameter at the top, 8cm in

A. 217.7 B. 168.7 diameter at the bottom and 4cm deep. Calculates its
C. 84.7 D. 70.7 volume.
A. 144πcm 3 B. 304πcm 3/3
3. Evaluate C. 72πcm 3
D. 128πcm 3/
(0.21 x 0.072 x 0.0054)/ (0.006 x 1.68 x 0.063)
correct to four significant figures. 10.
A. 0.1286 B. 0.1285 O
C. 0.01286 D. 0.01285 X Z

4. In a school , 220 st uden ts offer Biol ogy or

Mathematics or both. 125 offer Biology and 110 Y
Mathematics. How many offer Biology but not In the diagram below, XZ is the diameter of the circle
Mathematics? XYZW, with centre O and radius 15/2cm. If XY =
A. 125 B. 110 12cm, find the area of the triangle XYZ.
C. 95 D. 80 A. 75cm 2 B. 54cm 2
2
C. 45cm D. 27cm 2
5. Simplify 52.4 – 5.7 – 3.45 – 1.75
A. 42.2 B. 42.1 11. Find the coordinate of the midpoint of x and y
C. 41.5 D. 41.4 intercepts of the line 2y = 4x - 8
A. (-1, -2) B. (1, 2)
6. Without using tables, evaluate C. (2, 0) D. (1, -2)
(343)1/3 x (0.14)-1 x (25)1/2
A. 7 B. 8 12. A chord of a circle subtends an angle of 1200 at the
C. 10 D. 12 centre of a circle of diameter 4Ö3cm. Calculate the
area of the major sector.
7. A. 32πcm 2 B. 16πcm 2
2
C. 8πcm D. 4πcm 2
RO r
13. If tan q = 4/3, calculate sin 2 θ - cos2 θ.
A. 7/25 B. 9/25
In the diagram below are two concentric circles of C. 16/25 SD. 24/25
radii r and R respectively with centre O. if r = 2/5 R, P

express the area of the shaded portion in terms of π 14. x

and R. Q

A. 9
/ 25πR2 B. 5
/ 9πR2 R S
C. 21
/ 25πR 2
D 21
/ 23πR2 O
72
T
23. The range of the data k + 2, k – 3, k + 4, k – 2, k, k – 5,
In the diagram above, PST is a straight line, PQ = k + 3, k – 1 and k + 6 is.
QS = RS. If < RSRT = 720, find x. A. 6 B. 8
A. 720 B. 360 C. 10 D. 11
0
C. 24 D. 180
24.
15. The locus of a point P which is equidistant from two
given points S and T is
A. a perpendicular to ST
B. a line parallel to ST The distribution above shows the number of days a
C. the angle bisector of PS and ST group of 260 students were absent from school in a
D. the perpendicular bisector ST particular term. How many students were absent for
at least four days in the term?
16. A solid hemisphere has radius 7cm. Find the total A. 40 B. 120
surface area. C. 160 D. 210
A. 462cm 2 B. 400cm 2
2
C. 308cm D. 66cm 2 25. Music History
U80
Q
17. 30 -x x 40 -x
50O
20
R
O
The venn diagram below shows the number of
P 128 students offering Music and History in a class of 80
students. If a student is picked at random from the
The angle PGR below is class, what is the probability that he offers Music
A. a scalene triangle only?
B. an isosceles triangle A. 0.13 B. 0.25
C. an equilateral triangle C. 0.38 D. 0.50
D. an obtuse – angled triangle
26. Find the mean of the data 7,-3,4,-2,5,-9,4,8,-6,12
18. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 20 A. 1 B. 2
right angles. How many sides does the polygon have? C. 3 D. 4
A. 10 B. 12
C. 20 D. 40 27. The probability of a student passing any examination
is 2/3. if the student takes three examination, what is
19. Find the equation of the set of points which are the probability that he will not pass any of them?
equidistant from the parallel lines x = 1 and x = 7 A. 1/27 B. 8/27
A. y= 4 B. y= 3 C. 4/9 D. 2/3
C. x =3 D. x=4
28. How many three-digit numbers can be formed from
20. 3cm 32564 without digit being repeated?
A. 10 B. 20
23cm C. 60 D. 120

29. The acres for rice, principle, cassava, cocoa and palm
oil, in a certain district are given respectively as 2,5,3,
In the diagram below, a cylinder is surrounded by a 11 and 9. what is the angle of the sector for cassava
hemispherical bowl. Calculate the volume of the in a pie chart?
solid. A. 360 B. 600
A. 216πcm 3 B. 198πcm 3 C. 108 0
D. 1800
3
C. 180πcm D. 162πcm 3
30. Calculate the mean deviation of the set of numbers
21. A hunter 1.6m tall, views a bird on top of a tree at an 7,3,14,9,7 and 8
angle of 450. If the distance between the hunter and A. 21/2 B. 21/3
1
the tree is 10.4m, find the height of the tree. C. 2 /6 D. 11/6
A. 8.8m B. 9.0m
C. 10.4m D. 12.0m 31. Find the maximum value of y in the equation
y = 1 – 2x – 3x2
22. The mean of a set of six numbers is 60. if the mean of A. 5/3 B. 4/3
the first five is 50, Find the sixth number in the set. C. 5/4 D. ¾
A. 110 B. 105
C. 100 D. 95 32. If the 9th term of an A. P is five times the 5th term,
find the relationship between a and d.
A. a + 2d = 0 B. a + 3d = 0 C. (-3, 0) D. (9, 4)
C. 3a + 5d = 0 D. 2a + d = 0 (0 -3) (12, 1)

33. The time taken to do a piece of work is inversely 41. Find the range of values of x for which
proportional to the number of men employed. If it x + 2/4 – 2x – 3/3 <4
takes 45men to do a piece of work in 5 days, how A. x > -3 B. x<4
long will take 25 men? C. x > -6 D. x<8
A. 5 days B. 9 days
42. If x varies directly as n and x = 9 when n = 9, find x
C. 12 days D. 15 days
when n = 17/9
A. 27 B. 17
34. The binary operation is defined on the set of integers
C. 4 D. 3
p and q by p*q = pq + p + q. find 2 (3*4)
A. 19 B. 38 43. The sum of infinity of the series
C. 59 D. 67 1 + 1/3 + 1/9 + 1/27 + ……………… is
A. 3/2 B. 5/2
35. If –2 is the solution of the equation 2x + 1 – 3c = 2c C. 10/3 D. 11/3
+ 3x – 7, find the value of c.
A. 1 B. 2 44. Make r the subject of the formula
C. 3 D. 4 x/r + a = a/r
A. a/(x – a) B. (a/x + a
36. If N = 3 5 -4 C. a 2/(x – a) D. a 2/(x + a)
6 -3 -5
-2 2 1, find /N/ 45. If y = x2 – 1/x, find dy/dx
A. 2x + x2 B. 2x – x2
A. 91 B. 65 C. 2x – 1/x2 D. 2x – 1/x2
C. 23 D. 17

37. Use the graph below to find the values of p and q if 46. Evaluate sin3xdx
px + qy < 4 y A. -2/3 cos 3x + c B. –1/3 cos 3x + c
(0,2) C. 1/3 cos 3x + c D. 2/3 cos 3x + c
(-4,0)
x 47. A circle with a radius 5cm has its radius increasing
at the rate of 0.2cms-1. what will be the corresponding
increase in the area?
A. p = 1, q = 2 B. p = 2, q = 1 A. 5p B. 4p
C. p = -1, q = 2 D. p = 2, q = -1 C. 2p D. p

38. The inverse of the function f(x) = 3x + 4 is 48. If dy/dx = 2x – 3 and y = 3 when x = 0, find y in
A. 1/3(x + 4) B. 1/4(x + 3) terms of x.
C. 1/5(x - 5) D. 1/3(x - 4) A. x2 – 3x B. x2 – 3x + 3
2
C. 2x – 3x D. x2 – 3x – 3
39. Solve for x in the equation
x3 – 5x2 - x + 5 = 0 49. Find the derivative of y = sin 2(5x) with respect to x
A. 1, 1 or 5 B. –1, 1 or –5 A. 2 sin 5x cos 5x B. 5 sin 5x cos 5x
C. 1, 1 or –5 D. 1, -1 or 5 C. 10 sin 5x cos 5x D. 15 sin 5x cos 5x
40. If P = (2, 1)
(-3 0) and I is a 2 x 2 unit matrix, evaluate 50. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = 3x2 – 2x + 5
p2 – 2p + 41 at the point (1, 6) is
A. (2, 1) B. (1, 0) A. 1 B. 4
(4, 1) (0, 1) C. 5 D. 61.

Mathematics 2003
1. Simplify 1 – (21/ 3 x 11/ 4) + 3/ 5 A. 133 B. 113
A. -231/ 60 B. –27/15 C. 63 D. 84
C. –119/ 60 D. –11/15
3. Simplify 2134 x 234
2. A cinema hall contains a certain number of people. A. 132114 B. 103114
If 221/ 2% are children, 471/ 2% are men and 84 are C. 103214 D. 122314
women, find the number of men in the hall.
4. A woman buys 270 oranges for # 1800.00 and sells A. (1 3) B (1 -3)
at 5 for #40.00. what is her profit? (0 1) (0 -1)
A. #630.00 B. #360.00
C. #1620.00 D. #2160.00 C. (1 3) D. (-1 3)
(0 -1) (0 -1)
5. Simplify (√98 - √50)
√32 16. Find the values of x and y respectively if 3x – 5y + 5
A. ½ B. ¼ = 0 and 4x – 7y + 8 = 0
C. 1 D. 3 A. -4, -5 B. –5, -4
C. 5, 4 D. 4, 5
6. The sum of four numbers is 12145. what is the
average expressed in base five? 17. If –(x, 2) = (3, 3x)
A. 411 B. 401 (4x, 1) (4, –5) find the value of x
C. 141 D. 114 A. -2 B. –5
C. 2 D. 5
7. Evaluate log√24 + log1/216 – log432
A. -2.5 B. 5.5 18. Find the r ange of values of x sati sfying the
C. –5.5 D. 2.5 inequalities 5 + x ≤ 8 and 13 + ³ 7.
A. -6 ≤ x ≤ 3 B. -6 ≤ x ≤ -3
8. Given: C. 3≤x≤6 D. –3 ≤ x ≤ 3
U = {Even numbers between 0 and 30}
P = {Multiples of 6 between 0 and 30} 19. x varies directly as the product of U and V and
Q = {Multiples of 4 between 0 and 30} inversely as their sum. If x = 3 when U = 3 and V =
1, what is the value of x if U = 3 and V = 3?
Find (PUQ)c. A. 4 B. 9
A. {0, 2, 6, 22, 26} B. {2, 4, 14, 18, 26} C. 6 D. 3
C. {2, 10, 14, 22, 26} D. {0, 10, 14, 22, 26} y
20.
9. In a class of 40 students, 32 offer Mathematics, 24 P 0
=
offer Physics and 4 offer neither Mathematics nor x+1=0 y -x
Physics. How many offer both Mathematics and
Physics?
A. 16 B. 4 x
C. 20 D. 8 O
y+
x=
10. Find (1/0.06 ÷ 1/0.042) , correct to two decimal
-1
0
places Q
A. 4.42 B. 3.14
C. 1.53 D. 1.43 Tr ia n gl e OPQ a bove i s th e sol ut i on of t h e
inequalities.
11. If 92x – 1/27x + 1 = 1, find the value of x. A. x – 1 ≤ 0, y + x ≤ 0, y, - x ≤ 0
A. 2 B. 8 B. x + 1 ≥ 0, y + x ≤ 0, y, - x ≥ 0
C. 5 D. 3 C. y + x ≤ 0, y – x ≥ 0, x – 1 ≥ 0
D. x –1 ≤ 0, y – x ≥ 0, y + x ≥ 0
12. Factorize completely
4abx – 2axy – 12b2x +6bxy 21. Three consecutive terms of a geometric progression
A. 2x(3b - a)(2b - y) B. 2x(a – 3b)(b - 2y) are given as n – 2, n and n + 3. find the common
C. 2x(2b - a)(3b - y) D. 2x(a – 3b)(2b - y) ratio.
A. 2/3 B. 3/2
13. The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic C. ½ D. ¼
progression is 252. if the first term is –16 and the
last term is 72, find the number of terms in the series. 22. The length a person can jump is inversely
A. 7 B. 9 proportional to his weigth. If a 20kg person can jump
C. 6 D. 8 1.5 m, find the constant of proportionality.
A. 30 B. 60
14. The graphs of the function y = x2 + 4 and a straight C. 15 D. 20
line PQ are drawn to solve the equation x2 – 3x + 2 =
0. what is the equation of PQ? 23. P
N
A. y = 3x + 2 B. y = 3x – 4 O O
C. y = 3x + 4 D. y = 3x – 2 42O 40
M
15. A matrix P has an inverse P-1 = (1 -3) Q
(0, 1) Find P.
In the diagram above, O is the centre of the circle, 29. An aeroplane flies due north from airports P to Q
POM is a diameter and ∠ MNQ = 420. calculate and then flies due east to R. if Q is equidistant from
∠QMP. P and R, find the bearing of P and R.
A. 1380 B. 1320 A. 2700 B. 0900
C. 420 D. 480 C. 135 0
D. 2250

24. The locus of a point P which moves on one side only 30. Find the value of p, if the line of which passes through
of a straight line XY so that ∠ XPY = 900 is. (-1, -p) and (-2, 2) is parallel to the line 2y + 8x – 17
A. the perpendicular bisector of XY = 0.
B. a circle C. a semicircle A. –2/7 B. 7/6
D. an arc of a circle through X,Y C. –6/7 D. 6/7
P R
25. 31. Find the equation of the locus of a point P(x, y) which
is equidistant form Q(0,0) and R(2, 1).
A. 2x + y = 5 B. 2x + 2y = 5
C. 4x + 2y = 5 D. 4x – 2y = 5

32. An arc of a circle subtends an angle of 300 on the

circumference of a circle of a radius 21cm. Find the
Q S length of the arc
A. 66cm B. 44cm
In the diagram above, PQ is parallel to RS. What is C. 22cm D. 11cm
the value of α + β + y?
A. 1800 B. 900 33. A trapezium has two parallel sides of length 5cm and
0
C. 200 D. 3600 9cm. If the area is 121cm 2, find the distance between
the parallel sides.
26. Whicch of the following is the graph of sinθ for A. 7cm B. 3cm
-π ≤ ο ≤ 3π C. 4cm D. 6cm
2 2
34. O Z
1 1
45
A. B.
0 0
3 3
2 2 2 2
1
2
1
2
X 7 cm

C. D.
1 1 Y

0
XYZ is a circle centre O and radius 7cm. Find the
3 0
2 2 2 3 area of the shaded region.
1 2 2 2
1 A. 14cm 2 B. 38cm 2
2
C. 77cm D. 84cm 2

27. R 35. A triangle has vertices P(-1, 6), Q(-3, -4) and R(1, -
4). Find the midpoints of PQ and QR respectively.
O
A. (-1, 0) and (-1, -1) B. (-2, 1) and (-1, -4)
C. (0, -1) and (-1, -4) D. (-2, 1) and (0, 1)
Q
40O
P S 36. Evaluate 3
(x2 – 2x)dx
2

A. 4/3 B. 1/3
In the diagram above, PQR is a straight line and PS C. 2 D. 4
is a tangent to the circle QRS with /PS/ = ∠/SR/ and
SPR = 400. find ∠PSQ. 37. If y = 3 sin (-4x), dy/ dx is
A. 200 B. 100 A. -12 cos (-4x) B. 12 sin (-4x)
C. 40 0
D. 300 C. 12x cos (4x) D. –12x cos (-4x)

28. If π/ 2 ≤ 2π, find the maximum value of f(θ) = 4/6 + 2 38. Determine the maximum value of
cos θ y = 3x2 + 5x – 3 at
A. 1 B. ½ A. 6 B. 0
C. 4 D. 2/3 C. 2. D. 4

39. Find the slope of the curve

y = 2x2 + 5x – 3 at (1, 4).
A. 7 B. 9 A. #48.00 B. #96.00
C. 4 D. 6 C. #42.00 D. #84.00

40. 45. The range of 4, 3, 11, 9, 6, 15, 19, 23, 27, 24, 21 and
16 is
A. 23 B. 24
C. 21 D. 16

46.
Number 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency 12 20 x 21 x -1 28

The histogram above shows the ages of the victims The result of tossing a fair die 120 times is
of a pollution. How many people were involved in summarized above. Find the value of x.
the pollution? A. 21 B. 19
A. 18 B. 21 C. 22 D. 20
C. 15 D. 20
47. If nP3 – 6 (nC4) = 0, find the value of n
41. Value 0 1 2 3 4 A. 6 B. 5
C. 8 D. 7
Frequency 1 2 2 1 9
48. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that the
Find the mean of the distribution above. sum of the numbers is divisible by 3.
A. 4 B. 3 A. ½ B. 1/3
C. 1 D. 2 C. ¼ D. 2/3

42. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5. find 49. Find the number of committees of three that can be
the standard deviation formed consisting of two men and one woman from
A. 2 B. 3 four men and three women.
C. √3 D. √2 A. 24 B. 18
C. 3 D. 6
43. A bag contains 5 blsck ball and 3 red balls. Two balls
are picked at random without replacement. What is 50. By how much is the mean of 30, 56, 31, 55, 43 and
the probability that a black and a red balls are picked? 44 less than the median.
A. 5/14 B. 13/28 A. 0.50 B. 0.75
C. 3/14 D. 15/28 C. 0.17 D. 0.33

44. On a pie chart, there are four sectors of which three

angles are 450, 900 and 1350. if the smallest sector
represents #28.00, how much is the largest sector?

Mathematics 2004
C. (0, 0) and (1, 1) D. (√2, √2) only A 2
/ 25 B. 19
/ 60
7 19
C. / 12 D. / 35
1 4 2 4 3 4. A farmer planted 5000 grains of maize and harvested
_ 5000 cobs, each bearing 500 grains. What is the ratio
1 3 x 4 of the number of grains sowed to the number
harvested?
y 3 4 4 A. 1:500 B. 1:5000
C. 1:25000 D. 1:250000
Find x and y respectively in the subtraction above c
arried out in base 5 5. Three teachers shared a packet of chalk. The first
A. 2, 4 B. 3, 2 teacher got 2/5 of the chalk and the second teacher
C. 4, 2 D. 4, 3 received 2/15 of the remainder. What fraction did the
third teacher receive?
11 12
2. Find p, if 4516 – p7 = 3056 A. /25 B. /25
13 8
A. 6117 B. 1427 C. /25 D. /15
C. 1167 D. 627
1
3. / 10 x 2/ 3 + 1/ 4 6. Given that 3√42x, find the value of x
________________
A. 2 B. 3
1
/ 2 ÷ 3/ 5 - ¼ C. 4 D. 6
y
7. Simplify 1/√3 + 2 in the form a + b√3
A. -2 - 3 B. –2+ 3 16.
C. 2- 3 D. 2+ 3
x
8. If 6logx2 – 3logx3 = 3log50.2, find x.
A. 3/8 B. ¾
C. 4/3 D. 8/3
P Q
9.

The shaded area in the diagram above is represented

by
A. {(x, y) : y + 3x < 6}
B. {(x, y) : y + 3x < - 6}
C. {(x, y) : y - 3x < 6}
R D. {(x, y) : y - 3x < - 6}

17. What are the integral values of x which satisfy the

inequality –1 < 3 – 2x ≤ 5?
The shaded region in the venn diagram above A. -2, 1, 0, -1 B. -1, 0, 1, 2
A. Pc ∩(QR)B. P∩Q C. -1, 0, 1, D. 0, 1, 2
C. Pc U(Q∩R) D. Pc ∩ (QUR)
18. The nth terms of two sequences are Qn – 3.2n-2 and
10. In a class of 40 students, each student offers at least Um = 3.22m – 3. find the product of Q2 and U2
one of Physics and Chemistry. If the number of A. 3 B. 6
students that offer Physics is three times the number C. 12 D. 18
that offer both subjects and the number that offers
Chemistry is twice the number that offer Physics, find 19. Given that the first and fourth terms of a G.P are 6
the number of students that offer Physics only. and 162 respectively, find the sum of the first three
A. 25 B. 15 terms of the progression.
C. 10 D. 5 A. 8 B. 27
C. 48 D. 78
11. Find the values of x where the curve
y = x3 + 2x2 – 5x – 6 crosses the x-axis. 20. Find the sum to infinity of the series ½, 1/6, 1/
A. -2, -1 and 3 B. -2, 1 and –3 18,……………
C. 2, -1 and –3 D. 2, 1 and 3 A. 1 B. ¾
C. 2/3 D. 1/3+
12. Find the remainder when
3x3 + 5x2 – 11x + is divided by x + 3 21. If the operation * on the set of integers is defined by
A. 4 B. 1 p*q = “pq, find the value of 4*(8*32).
C. –1 D. –4 A. 16 B. 8
C. 4 D. 3
13. Factorize completely ac – 2bc – a 2 + 4b2
A. (a – 2b)(c + a – 2b) 22. The inverse of the matrix (2 1)
B. (a – 2b)(c - a – 2b) (1 1)
C. (a – 2b)(c + a + 2b) is
D. (a – 2b)(c - a + 2b)
A. (1 1) B. (1 -1)
14. y is inversely proportional to x and y = 4 when x = 1/ (-1 2) (1 2)
2 . find x when y = 10
A. 1/10 B. 1/5 C. (1 1) D. (1 -1)
C. 2 D. 10 (1 2) (-1 2)

15. The length L of a simple pendulum varies directly as 23. If P = 1 0 -1

the square of its period T. if a pendulum with period 3 4 5
4 secs is 64cm long, find the length of a pendulum -1 0 1 then /P/ is
whose period is 9 sec. A. -8 B. 0
A. 36cm B. 96ccm C. 4 D. 8
C. 144cm D. 324cm
24. The sum of the interior angles of a pentagon is 6x +
6y. find y in terms of x
A. y = 60 – x B. y = 90 – x A. (4, -4) B. (4, 4)
C. y = 120 – x D. y = 150 – x C. (2, 2) D. (1,1)

25. PQRSTV is a regular polygon of side 7cm inscribed in 33.

15 cm
a circle. Find the circumference of the circle PQRSTV. X
A. 22cm B. 42cm
C. 44cm D. 56cm
45O 60O
26. 35O
O
Find the value of x in the figure above.
20 A. 20√6 B. 15√6
C. 5√6 D. 3√6

34. The shadow of a pole 5√3 m high is 5m. find the

angle of elevation of the sun.
A. 300 B. 450
P, R and S lie on a circle centre O as shown above C. 60 0
D. 750
while Q lies outside the circle. Find ÐPSO.
A. 350 B. 400 35. Find the derivative of (2 + 3x)(1 - x) with respect to
0
C. 45 4 cm D. 550 x
A. 6x – 1 B. 1 – 6x
27. C. 6 D. –3

36. Find the derivative of the function

y = 2x2(2x - 1) at the point x= -1
A. -6 B. –4
C. 16 D. 18

In the diagram above, PQ =4cm and TS = 6cm, if the 37. If y – 3 cos (x/ 3), find dy/ dx when x = 3π/ 2
area of parallelogram PQTU is 32cm 2, find the area A. 2 B. 1
of the trapezium PQRU C. –1 D. –3
A. 24cm 2 B. 48cm 2
2
C. 60cm D. 72cm 2 38. What is the rate of change of the volume v of
hemisphere with respect to its radius r when r = 2?
28. An arc of a circle of length 22cm subtends an angle A. 2π B. 4π
of 3x0 at the centre of the circle. Find the value of x C. 8π D. 16π
if the diameter of the circle is 14cm.
A. 300 B. 600
0
C. 120 D. 1800
3
39. Evaluate 1
(x2 - 1) dx
29. Determine the locus of a point inside a square PQRS
which is equidistant from PQ and QR A. 62/3 B. 2
/3
A. The diagonal PR. B. The diagonal QS C. -2/3 D. -62/3
C. Side SR
D. The perpendicular bisector of PQ. 40. Other s
s 60O
Ma ize
n
Be a

30. The locus of a point which is 5cm from the line LM

is a 150O
A. pair of lines on opposite sides of LM and M i lle t
parallel to it, each distances 5cm form LM
B. line parallel to LM and 5cm from LM
C. pair of parallel lines on one side of LM and The pie chart above shows the distribution of the
parallel to LM crops harvested from a farmland in a year. If 3000
D. line distance 10cm from LM and tonnes of millet is harvested, what amount of beans
parallel to LM. is harvested?
A. 9000 tonnes B. 6000 tonnes
31. Find the value of α2 + β2 if a + b = and the distance C. 1500 tonnes D. 1200 tonnes
between the points (1, α) ands (β, 1) is 3 units.
A. 3 B. 5 41. I. Rectangular bars of equal width
C. 11 D. 14 II. The height of each rectangular bar
is proportional to the frequency of
32. Find the midpoint of the line joining P(-3, 5) and Q the3 corresponding class interval.
(5, -3). III. Rectangular bars have common
sides with no gaps in between.
46. In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a
A histogram is described by group of 5 students in a debating competition?
A. I and II B. I and III A. 10 ways. B. 15 ways.
C. I,II and III D. II and III® C. 20 ways D. 25 ways.

42. 47. A committee of six is to be formed by a state governor

from nine state commissioners and three members
of the state house of assembly. In how many ways
can the members of the committee be chosen so as to
include one member of the house of assembly?
A. 924 ways B. 840 ways
C. 462 ways D. 378 ways
The graph above shows the cumulative frequency
curve of the distribution of marks in a class test. What 48. Some white balls were put in a basket containing
percentage of the students scored more than 20 twelve red balls and sixteen black balls. If the
marks? probability of picking a white ball from the basket is
A. 68% B. 28% 3/7, how many white balls were introduced?
C. 17% D. 8% A. 32 B. 28
C. 21 D. 12
43. The mean age of a group of students is 15 years. When
the age of a teacher, 45 years old, is added to the 49. An unbiased die is rolled 100 times and the outcome
ages of the students, the mean of their ages becomes is tabulated as follows:
18 years. Find the number of students in the group.
A. 7 B. 9
C. 15 D. 42

44. The weights of 10 pupils in a class are 15kg, 16kg,

17kg, 18kg, 16kg, 17kg, 17kg, 17kg, 18kg and 16kg. What is the probability of obtaining 5?
What is the range of this distribution? A. 1
/6 B. 1
/5
A. 1 B. 2 C. ¼ D. ½
C. 3 D. 4
50. A container has 30 gold medals, 22 silver medals and
45. Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3 and 4 18 bronze medals. If one medal is selected at random
A. 1.0 B. 1.5 from the container, what is the probability that it is
C. 2.0 D. 2.5 not a gold medal?
4 3
A. /7 B. /7
11 9
C. /35 D. /35
Economics
1 9 83 -
2023
JAMB
Questions
Economics 1983
1. Which of the following items is NOT included in D. Birth rate divided by the net migration
measuring national income by the income E. Death rate minus the net migration.
approach?
A. Wages and salaries of public servants 6. Which of the following sets fully represents
B. Student grants and scholarships. factor of production?
C. Profits of companies.
D. Income earned by self employed persons A. Sunlight, machinery, man, land
such as lawyers. B. Land, labour, capital, enterprise
E. Rents on property. technology
C. Capital, technology, ideas, market, land.
2. A down ward sloping demand curve intersects a D. Land, water, weather.
fixed supply curve. A shift of this demand curve E. Money, market, middlemen.
to the right implies that
A. both price and quantity will increase 7. Production possibilities (alternatives)
B. only price increase P Q R S T
C. only quantity increase Units of shelter 5 4 3 2 0
D. the price remains constant Units of food 0 5 9 12 15
E. the price falls. Based on the above production possibilities table,
the real cost of a unit of food when alternative R
3. Which of the following items is NOT an is selected is
argument for locating industries in rural areas? A. One unit of shelter
A. Rural areas supply agricultural raw B. Three units of shelter
material. C. One third of a unit of shelter
B. The pace of development will be D. Six units of shelter
quickened in rural areas. E. Two units of shelter.
C. Employment will be provided for rural
inhabitants. 8. The concept of economic efficiency primarily
D. Capital is easily available in rural areas. refers to
E. Suitable humid climate is sometimes found A. Obtaining the maximum output from
in rural areas. available resources at the lowest possible
cost
4. B. Conservation of our petroleum resources
C. Equity in the distribution of the nation’s
wealth
D. Producing without waste
E. The limited wants unlimited resources
dilemma

9. If successive units of labour are added to a piece

of land while capital and technology remain
constant, a point will be reached in the level of
production when each added unit of labour will
O add less to the output than previous units of labour.
The curves D0D0 and S0S0 are the demand and A. The productivity of labour
supply curves respectively. B. The law of diminishing marginal utility
What happens government subsidizes producers C. The law of diminishing returns
in order to boost output? D. The concept of factor intensity
E. Labour intensive production.
A. The supply curve will shift S0S0 to S2S2
B. The supply curve will shift from S0S0 to S1S1 10. In perfect competition a firm’s price is equal to its
C. The supply curve will shift from S2S2 to S1S1 marginal revenue which is again equal to average
D. The supply curve will shift from S1S1 to S0S0 revenue. This form maximizes its profits when
E. The demand curve will shift from D0D0 to D1D1 its marginal cost (MC)is equal to price (p).
Which of the curves in the diagram below
5. The natural growth rate of a population is the represents the firm’s marginal cost (MC?
A. Sum of the birth rate and the death rate A. Curve I
B. Sum of the birth rate and the net B. Curve II
migration rate C. Curve III
C. Birth rate minus the death rate D. Curve IV
E. Curve I and III B. Demand pull and cost push inflation
intensifying each other
C. Both of them bringing about a reduction
in the price level
D. That demand pull and cost push inflation
increase employment
E. That wages and prices are rising at a
proportional rate

16. In an inflationary period which of the following

statement is NOT true?
A. Wages rise simultaneously with prices
B. The purchasing power of money
11. A Nigerian household’s demand curve for diminishes
semovita is downward sloping because C. More money runs after a limited quantity
A. The demand for semovita is high goods
B. The local markets are flooded with D. Money supply increases
semovita E. Aggregate real demand exceeds
C. It is produced in Nigeria aggregate real supply
D. Every household can afford to buy
semovita 17. Retailers in an economy perform the function of
E. Higher prices attract lower quantities while A. Production B. Exchange
lower prices attract larger quantities C. Distribution D. Hoarding
E. Investment
12. The table below shows the market schedule for
semovita. 18. In a sole proprietorship the decisions are made
by the
QUANTITY QUANTITY A. Government B. Board of directors
PRICE DEMANDED SUPPLIED C. Management D. Shareholders’ conference
per 5 kg bag in bags in bags E. Owner

N3.00 15,000 1,500 19. Which of the following enterprises does NOT
N4.00 13,000 3,000 pursue the sole objective of profit maximization
N5.00 10,000 6,000 A. Roads Nigeria Ltd.
N6.00 7,000 7,000 B. Union Bank of Nigeria Ltd.
N7.00 5,000 9,000 C. Nigerian Electric Power Authority
N8.00 4,000 12,000 D. Volkswagen (VW) Nigeria Ltd.
N9.00 2,000 14,000 E. Kingsway Nigeria Ltd.

What is the market equilibrium price? 20. Public expenditure creates expansionary effects
A..N5.00 B. N8.00 C. N9.00 in the economy when it is
D. N7.00 E. N6.00 A. In excess of government revenue
B. Channelled into capital projected
13. Marginal cost curve intersects average cost curve C. Diverted into imports
A. From above at its lowest point D. Financed through oil revenue
B. From below before the lowest point E. Completely financed through part of the
C. From below at its lowest point year total collection taxes.
D. From below after the lowest point
E. At zero point 21. The maintenance of general economic stability in
the country necessarily relies heavily on
14. Palm oil industry is located in Bendel State A. Federal fiscal policy
because the state B. Coordinated federal, state and local
A. Imports raw material for palm oil fiscal policies
industry C. Tax and revenue policies of state
B. Is a palm tree growing area governments
C. Soil is unsuitable for other crops D. Federal grants to state and local
D. Government does not engage land for governments
other crops E. Federal grants to local governments
E. Land is suitable for oil

15. The meaning of ‘wage-price spiral’ is 22. The supply of loanable funds is significantly
A. Demand pull and cost push inflation influenced by
pulling each other in different directions A. Commercial banks B. Mortgage banks
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

30. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments means

A. Imports of the country exceeding its
exports
B. Overall deficit or surplus in the current
account and capital account of the
balance of payments
In the above diagram P1S is a supply curve for a C. Capital flowing out of the country ex
manufactured good. It shows that ceeds the capital flowing into the country
A. When price is Po1 quantity supplied is D. Deficit in the trade balance
infinitely elastic E. Export earnings exceed cost of imports.
B. The higher the price the greater the
quantity supplied 31. Petroleum ‘glut’ in international trade means
C. The higher the price the lower the A. A fallen in petroleum production
quantity supplied B. An over supply of petroleum
D. When price is zero quantity supplied C. A higher petroleum price offered by the
becomes infinite buyer
E. When price is infinite quantity supplied D. A higher petroleum price demanded by
becomes zero the seller
E. Higher prices for the consumption of pe
26. In the event of a limited liability company going troleum
into liquidation each
A. Shareholder may lose the maximum of the 32. International trade is necessary because
amount he has invested A. No country can live in economic isolation
B. Shareholder loses nothing B. Different countries are differently
C. Shareholder loses everything including his endowed in natural and man-made
house resources
D. Shareholder’s liability becomes unlimited C. Some countries have comparative costs
E. Shareholder will lose the amount he has advantage in the production of particular
invested plus a proportion of his bank commodities over other countries
account D. The world demand for and supply of
various categories of commodities is
27. A greater burden of the taxes on essential goods is expanding very fast
borne by the E. Countries want to build up their foreign
A. middle income group exchange reserves.
B. Higher income group
C. Lower income group 33. Mono-product economies are those that
D. People falling between the middle and A. Have a rich cultural heritage
higher income group B. Product only raw materials
E. Top few richest people of the country. C. Live from the export of their raw
products
28. Comparative cost doctrine of international trade D. Produce one main commodity
means specialization in production E. Specialize in agriculture industries
A. According to absolute cost advantage
B. According to absolute cost disadvantages 34. The quickest way of achieving an economic union
C. According to Comparative cost on regional basis is to remove all
disadvantages A. Currency barriers B. Language barriers
C. Political barriers D.
E. Legal barriers. 42. Agriculture plays a dominant role in West Africa
economies because
35. If an economy is growing at an annual rate of 7% A. The Green Revolution in Nigeria is
and 4% of it is known to be due to the improve agricultural
ments in labour and capital combined, the B. It supplies all the foodstuff consumed in
balance of 3% is usually due to West Africa
A. Land and related factors C. There are large plantations of cocoa,
B. Abundance of natural resources groundnut and palm oil in West Africa
C. Level of human capital D. It is the main source of revenue in
D. Technical progress or other factors Nigeria
E. The discipline of political leaders E. It employs more than 50% of the total
labour force in West Africa
36. A major function of middlemen in Nigeria is the
distribution of 43. Which of the following defines Economics most
A. Commodities to all consumers regardless comprehensively?
of income A. Buying and selling B. Organization of industries.
B. Commodities to consuming centres and C. Study of human behaviour in the
the collection of money income to allocation of scarce resources.
producing centres D. National development planning and budgeting
C. Economic welfare to all E. Banking and insurance
D. Wealth to all 44. Age structure in Nigeria is such that the working
E. Poverty within the society. age-group is in the years
A. 1-15 B. 15-65 C. 30-40 D. 40-65E. 65 and above
37. When a government owns enterprises a numbers
of advantages arise. Which of the following is NOT 45. NEPA as a public corporation is
one of such advantages? A. A power-generating industry in Nigeria
A. More capital is provided B. Organized in a perfectly competitive market
B. Pricing policy may be in the interest of C. A duopoly
consumers D. A monopolistically competitive industry
C. Government workers may be indifferent E. A monopoly
towards the public.
D. Infrastructures are rapidly developed. 46. Full employment is a situation in which
E. Income may be more evenly distributed A. Every adult is employed
B. All adult who can work are employed
38. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of C. All persons who have attained the age of
localization of industries? 15 years and above are employed
A. Reaping of external economies D. Only the disabled are not employed
B. Development of a pool of skilled labour E. All those who are able and eligible to work
for the industry can find employment
C. Development of subsidiary industries
D. Development of organized markets 47. When demand is elastic, it means that consumer
E. Growth of conurbations. A. React more proportionately to price change
B. Are not sensitive to price change
39. The monetary system that requires double coincidence C. Will stop buying when price increases
of wants is known as D. React less proportionately to price change
A. The gold standard B. Barter E. React equally to price change
C.The commodity syste D.The gold exchange standard
E. The cheque system 48. Demand for a factor of production is
A. A composite demand B. A joint demand
40. The effect of emigration on a country’s population, all C. A derived demand D. An elasticity of demand
other things remaining equal, is to E. Cross-elasticity of demand
A. Increase its size B. Cause overpopulation
C. Increase its growth rate 49. Differentiated product is the characteristic
D. Reduce the proportion of children feature of
E. Reduce its size A.Perfect competition B. Pure competition
C.Monopolistic competition D.Monopoly E.Oligopoly
41. Money performs a number of functions. ONE of
these functions makes it possible for any person 50. Nigeria is currently implementing the
to provide for old age. Because of that particular A. Third development plan
function, money is regarded as a B. Second development plan
A. Medium of exchange B. Measure of value C. Fourth development plan
C. Unit of account D. Store of value D. Fifth development plan
E. Standard for deferred payments. E. First development plan.
Economics 1984
1. The main economic objective behind the production
of goods and services in any economy is to 8. The advantages that accrue to a firm as the size of the
A. Maximize profits B. Satisfy human wants firm increases are known as
C. Become self-reliant D.Create job opportunities A. External diseconomies B.Internal returnes to scale
E.Make people wealthy. C. Internal economies D.Internal diseconomies
E. Constant returns to scale.
2. Demand for a commodity by a consumer is the
quantity of that commodity that the consumer 9. One of the advantages of large-scale production is that
A. Demands at a given price at a point in time A. There is a rise in the cost of administration
B. Demands at a given price B. Consumers sacrifice their individual tastes
C. Actually digests C. The firm can use labour-saving machinery
D. Produces, given its price D. The demand for a firm’s products become
E. Can store away during bad weather localized
E. Decision making takes a long time because
3. Division of labour is limited by different levels of management are involved.
A. The size of the market B. The productivity of capital
C. Cost of production D. The factors of production 10. Which of the following is NOT an obstacle to economic
E. Government policy development?
A. Low level of investmentB. Lack of modern technology
4. The production within the domestic territory of a C. High rate of population growth
country is called the D. Low productivity E. Dedicated leadership
A. Net national product B. Gross domestic product
C. Net income D. Disposable income 11. An ageing population refers to the preponderance on
E. Gross national product A. Middle-aged people in the population
B. Young people in the population
5. In discussing the reasons why wages differ C. Women in ht population
between occupations, which of the following D. Old men in the population
should be regarded as a cardinal point that needs E. Old people in the population
to be emphasized?
A. Length and cost of training 12. Let TC = total cost
B. Demand and supply TVC = total variable costs
C. Attractiveness of the job TFC = total fixed costs
D. Influence fo trade unions. ATC = average total costs
E. Government intervention. AVC = average variable costs
AFC = average fixed costs
6. A rightward shift in the production possibility Q = output
frontier may be due to Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Use of inferior inputs A. TC = TFC + TVC
B. Inefficiency B. ATC = AVC + AFC
C. Improvement in production techniques and practices C. AFC = TFC
D. Changes in the product mix Q
E. Changes in consumers’ tastes and preferences. D. TVC = AVC
Q
7. Fixed Variable Total Marginal Average E. AVC = TVC
Quantity Cost Cost Cost Cost Cost Q
N N N N N 13. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the size
1 750 200 950 - 950 of the economically active population?
2 750 560 1310 360 655 A. Age structure
3 750 900 1650 ? 550 B. Occupation of workers
C. Proportion of men to women
The above table shows the short-run costs of a firm. D. Average length of the working day
What is the firm’s marginal cost for the third item E. Efficiency of the labour force
produced?
A.N350.00 B. N349.00 C. N360.00
D.N370.50 E. N505.00
14. The population level that yields the maximum output C. The substitution effect and the rise in real
when combined with available resources is known as income of the consumer
A. Dependent population D. The rise in demand for the complementary goods
B. Maximum population E. The increase in the demand for factors of
C. Active population production
D. Production population
E. Optimum population. 21. An imperfectly competitive market is one where
A. A large number of firms sell homogenous products
15. P B. Input and output prices are unaffected
S0 C. Each firm faces a horizontal demand curve
S1 D. Each firm maximizes profit by selecting an out
put level at which marginal cost equals market price
E. Commodities are differentiated

S0 22. In taxation, the benefit principle requires that

A. Everybody must draw benefits from taxation
S1
B. All those who earn more income must pay more
O Q taxes
In the above diagram the supply curve S0S0 shifts to a C. Only those who derive benefits from services
new position S1S1 to indicate provided from public revenue should be taxed
A. A drop in supply D. Taxes paid by businesses should be shifted to
B. A rise in supply those consumers benefiting from such
C. A supply-push inflation consumer commodities
D. A stable supply curve E. Everybody pays an equal amount
E. An increase in quantity supplied.
23. A perfectly competitive firm does not influence the
16. If X and Y are two goods, then the cross elasticity of demand for its commodities by lowering its price below
demand for X with respect to Y is defined as the the market price because
A. Percentage change in the quantity of X divided A. It is illegal price cutting
by the percentage change in the price of Y B. Other competitors will be angry
B. Percentage change in the quantity of X divided C. Total revenue will decline due to its inelastic
by change in the price of Y demand curve
C. Change in the quantity of X divided by change D. It is able to sell all it wants at the market price
in the price of Y E. It does not maximize profit.
D. Percentage change in the quantity of X divided
by the price of Y 24. Pricing and output decisions of sellers are highly
E. Percentage change in the quantity of Y. interdependent in markets known as
A. Oligopoly B. Perfect competition
17. For two substitute goods, the cross elasticity of C. Monopoly D. Monopolistic competition
demand is E. Imperfect competition.
A. Greater than one but less than two
B. Zero C. Negative 25. One disadvantage of sole proprietorship is its
D. Positive E. Infinity A. Limited liability B. High profits
C. High sense of ownership D. Low credit rating
18. The control of prices by legislation usually produces a E. Low failure rate.
number of consequences. Which of the following is
NOT an associated problem of maximum price control? 26. The Channel for food distribution in Nigeria consists of
A. Excess supply B. Favouritism A. Farmers and their families
C. Bribery and corruption D. Black marketing B. Producers, wholesalers and retailers
E. Hoarding C. Producers and consumers
D. Producers and processor
19. For a non-discriminating monopolist in Nigeria, price at E. Farmers. Processors and consumers.
the profit maximizing output is
A. Equal to marginal cost 27. Which of the following is NOT true of debentures and
B. Greater than marginal cost debenture holders?
C. Greater than average total cost A. Debentures are instruments for raising
D. Equal to marginal revenue long-term capital by limited liability companies
E. Equal to total revenue B. Debentures are fixed interest-bearing securi
ties with specifies maturity date.
20. A demand curve slopes downwards because of C. Debenture holders are creditors to the
A. An increase in the money income of the company and therefore do not share in the
consumer risk of the company
B. A decrease in the money income of the consumer D. Debenture holders are entitled to interest
payments whether or not profits are made. 36. Generally property taxes
E. Preference shareholders receive their share A. Are borne entirely by landlords
of profits before debenture holders receive B. Cannot be shifted in the long run
their entitlements. C. Are borne by all (renters, owner-occupiers
and landlords)
28. The economic goal of public utilities is to D. Are borne only by renters
A. Maximize profits B. Expand assets E. Are borne by a few industrialists.
C Minimize cost D.Provide essential services
E. Pay higher dividends to shareholders 37. One of the major effects of an increase in government
expenditure on a nation’s economy is that it
29. The basic principles of co-operative societies are those of A. Creates investment opportunities for foreign
A. Active participation of capitalists in the investors
affairs of co-operative societies B. Leads to indigenization of the private sector
B. Workers ownership and worker control C. Raises the level of total tax revenue
C. Sole proprietorship D. Raises the level of aggregate demand
D. Partnership E. Controls the spread of monopoly
E. Denying of credit facilities to members
38. Public expenditure on services, such as education and
30. The most important factor determining the location of health, is known as expenditure on
the cement industry in Nigeria today is A. General services B. Community services
A. Capital and government policy C. Social services D. Economic services
B. The nature of the product, infrastructure and E. Administrative services
government policy
C. Nearness to the market and source of power Questions 39 and 40 are based o the table below:
D. Price of the product and source of labour
E. Raw materials The international production set for Nigeria and
Austria is:
31. The most important characteristic of money is
A. Portability B. Intrinsic value Product Nigeria Austria
C. Acceptability D. Usefulness
E. Beauty Cocoa 20 tonnes 12 tonnes
Lace 10 metres 8 metres
32. The Central Bank instrument of control does NOT include
A. Open market operations 39. The opportunity cost ratio for cocoa and lace for
B. Moral suasion Austria and Nigeria is
C. A rise in cost of production.
D. Selective credit control A. 2, 2 B. 2, 1, 5 C. 1, 5, 4
E. Printing banknotes D. 1, 5, 2 E. 0.5, 1,5

33. Cost push inflation takes place due to 40. From the table it can be deduced that
A. The rapid increase in the demand for goods A. Nigeria should produce cocoa and lace
B. An increase in productivity of the factors of B. Austria should produce cocoa and lace
production C. Nigeria can benefit from producing lace only
C. A rise in the cost of production D. Nigeria should not produce any of the
D. A rise in the standard of living products
E. The low wage rate of the workers. E. Austria should produce lace and Nigeria
should produce cocoa.
34. Lord Keynes identified three motives for holding money,
that is, keeping one’s resources in liquid from instead 41. The following, except ONE, are the differences between
of in some form of investment. The motive which international trade and internal trade.
relates to making provision for the ‘rainy day’ is known as A. Differences in currencies
A. Transaction purposes B. Governments control
B. Precautionary motive C. Mobility of factors of production
C. Transactions motive D. Cultural differences.
D. Investment motive E. Exchanges of goods and services
E. Rainy day motive.
42. Let Px represent the price of exports and Pm the price of
35. If a person demands money for buying and selling sec imports. Then the items of trade (TOT) are said to be
urities it is referred to as demanding money for favourable if
A. Transaction purposes
B. Speculative purposes A. Px < 1 C. PX >1
C. Transactionary purposes Pm Pm
D. Meeting the educational expenses of children
E. Carrying out gambling activities.
B. Px < 1 D. Px =1 46. The above diagram illustrates
Pm Pm A. The circular flow of income
E. 0 < Px < 1 B. Gross national product plus depreciation
Px C. Incomes of the sector
D. The profit of business enterprises
43. Which of the following items does NOT belong to a E. The output approach to national income
country’s current account in the balance of payments determination.
account?
A. Merchandise exports B. Merchandise imports 47. In the diagram (I) refers to the calculation of national
C. Travel D. Foreign currencies E.Insurance services income through the
A. Expenditure approach
44. An improvement in Nigeria’s terms of trade should B. Input-output approach
A. Lead to a fall in cost of her imports in terms of C. Flow of funds approach
what she must sacrifice to obtain them D. Income approach
B. Make ‘made in Nigeria’ goods cheaper to buy E. Output approach
C. Increase Nigeria’s domestic output of
commodities 48. In the same diagram, (III) refers to the calculation of
D. Lead to an increase in her exchange rates national income through the
E. Lead to an increase in Nigeria’s exports of A. Income approach
petroleum B. government earnings approach
C. expenditure approach
45. Which of the following is NOT a feature of economic D. output approach
underdevelopment o a country? E. flow of funds approach
A. Large number of high income earners relative
to the population 49. Given the present state of the Nigerian economy, which
B. High annual income for the few of the following measures will promote a more rapid
C. High incidence of poverty economic development?
D. Low daily calorie intake per person A. Complete dependence on oil exports
E. High infant mortality rate B. Concentration on agricultural exports
C. Diversification of the economy
Production of Goods D. Building of more schools and universities
and servises
(IV) E. Introduction of nuclear energy in Nigeria
Consumption
Expenditures
(III) 50. Which of the following does NOT represent the
behaviour of a monopolist?
Business and
Personal Sector
Government Sector A. Management the market price of his goods
B. Manipulating both the price and quantity of
(I)
Wages, Interest, Rent his goods at the same time
C. Raising the price at one market, lowering at
(II)
another market
Production Services D. Manipulating only quantity, price being a given
factor
E. Manipulating the quality of his goods

Economics 1985
1. One main quality of a good is that it The interdependence between household and business
A. Is sold in the market enterprise illustrated in the figure above is known as
B. Satisfies wants A. Market interaction
C. Is made in the factory B. Cash flow
D. Is always tangible C. Circular flow of income
E. Is non-perishable D. Supply and demand for goods and services
E. Household preference schedule
2. Pays wages and salaries
offers labour services, 3. Bisi needs book costing N10.00. If Bisi buys the book
instead of the hat, the opportunity cost of his choice is
sells goods the
A. Cost of the book B. Cost of the hat
pays for goods C. Book D. Hat E. N10.00
4. An economic problem exists whenever B. An increase in demand for X will shift the
A. There is scarcity and choice supply of Y
B. There are no buyers for our goods C. An increase in demand for Y will raise the price X
C. There are too many sellers D. An increase in demand for X will cause less of
D. Many people are out of work Y to be produced.
E. All raw materials are imported E. A probable tax on Y cause more of X to be
supplied
5. The meaning of scale of preference is
A. Preparing a list of goods and services to be 11. In market economies, resources are allocated through the
purchased in order of priority A. Government authorities
B. Showing the monthly income B. Price system
C. Budget preparation without due regard to C. Banking system
proper priorities D. Central planning bureau
D. Consumer preference for luxurious goods E. Revenue allocation formula
E. Consumer preference for foreign goods
12. Study the figure below
6. Optimum population is desirable because it enables an
economy to attain maximum
A. Per capita income
B. Per capita output
C. Per capita real income
D. Per capita revenue
E. Growth rate

7. The age distribution of a population is NOT influenced by

A. Birth rates
B. Death rates
C. Patterns of immigration
D. Patterns of emigration At point H, the price elasticity of supply is
E.. School leaving age A. Perfectly inelastic
B. Inelastic
8. One theory of population contends that population C. Unit elastic
tends to increase much faster than the supply of food, D. Perfectly elastic
and that if the growth in population is not checked, it E. Elastic
will be checked by natural forces like misery, disaster
and food shortage. This theory was propounded by 13. At every point on an indifference curve, the
A. Prof. Paul Samuelson A. Total utility is decreasing
B. Adam Smith B. Prices fo all goods are constant
C. David Richardo C. Consumer is satiated
D. Rev. Thomas Malthus D. Level of utility is constant
E. Prof. Ojetunji Aboyade E. Level of utility is increasing

9. Units of Quantity Total Marginal 14. Under perfect competition, the long-run equilibrium
Consumed Utility Utility requires
A. MR = MC
0 - - B. MR = AC = AR
1 10 10 C. MR > MC
2 15 5 D. MR = MC = AR = AC
3 17 2 E. AR = AC
4 18 1
5 18 0 15.

The table above illustrates the law of

A. Diminishing marginal utility
B. Diminishing marginal productivity
C. Diminishing returns
D. Increasing returns
E. Increase total utility

10. If in the short run commodity X and commodity Y are

supplied jointly, which of the following is correct?
A. An increase in demand for X will increase the
supply of Y
D. Sells shares to members of the public and
In the figure above, the broken line labelled M is the publishes its account
Marginal Revenue Curve of a E. Is a limited liability company
A. Monopoly
B. Competitive firm 23. Limited liability means
C. State corporation A. The debts of a company can only be paid from
D. Partnership business as well as private funds of the owners
E. Monopsony B. The debts of the company are paid from
business as well as private funds of the owners
16. If a monopoly is attempting to maximize profit, which of C. Government cannot tax company
the following should it attempt to do? D. The debts of the company must be paid from
A. Select that output at which ATC is at minimum Private funds only
B. Set price equal to TC E. The company does not have to pay its debts.
C. Maximize revenues
D. Maximize revenues 24. The purchasing power of the Naira will fall when
E. Equate marginal cost to marginal revenue. A. The Naira is devalued
B. Government cuts all salaries and wages
17. The amount of labour a producer hires relatives to C. There is inflation
other factor inputs depends on the D. The colour of the Naira is changed
A. Price of labour or its wage E. Workers are retrenched
B. Price of labour, machinery and other imputs
C. Price of machinery 25. When a business has unlimited liability
D. Price of the other inputs A. All its profits can be taxed away by the
E. Type of machinery government
B. All its assets are owned by the members of its
18. Which of the following is NOT a feature of under- board of directors
development? C. The business ceases to exist at the death of
A. Low per capita income one of its owners
B. Vicious circle of poverty D. The owners are responsible for all its financial
C. Low level of industrialization debts
D. Greater dependence on primary production E. The owners are not responsible for all its
E. High per capital income financial debts.

19. The inefficient distribution of scarce commodities in 26. Which of the following factors is most responsible for
Nigeria is mostly due tot he the concentration fo population around the oil fields in
A. Inefficiency of the middleman Eastern Nigeria?
B. Inefficiency in the production process A. Establishment of industries
C. Long chain of the distribution system B. Presence of mineral deposits
D. Sovereignty of the consumers C. Transportation facilities
E. Ineffectiveness of retailers D. Favourable soil
E. Favourable climatic conditions
20. Warehousing facilities in the distribution and
marketing of products are provided by 27. The petro-chemical industries are located in the Rivers
A. Manufacturers State of Nigeria due to
B. Wholesalers A. Favourable climate
C. Retailers B. Favourable soil C. Oil deposits
D. Consumers D. Palm oil products E. Coal deposits
E. Sellers
28. One of the functions of a commercial bank is that it is
21. A corporation can obtain funds by issuing bonds. A A. Responsible for monetary policy
bond is a form of debt which falls due for repayment B. Responsible for issuing of currency notes
after C. The lender of last resort
A. 6 months D. The banker of the government
B. 9 months E. A banker of demand and time deposits of
C. 2 years customers.
D. 5 years 29. Because money serves as a standard of deferred
E. 10 or more years payments
A. It serves as a store of value
22. A firm is said to be a public Joint Stock Company when B. Goods can be bought on credit with
it determined value
A. Is owned by the government C. Future trade becomes possible
B. Is operated as a public corporation D. It serves as a unit of account
C. Is operated in a non-democratic fashion E. It becomes valueable
D. It would worsen Nigeria’s foreign exchange
30. Which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for situation
trade by barter. E. Nigeria’s oil would sell for less in the world
A. Need for double coincidence of wants market
B. Multiple exchange rate
C. Impossibility of future trade 38. Foreign exchange control in Nigeria is administered by the
D. Impossibility of large-scale production A. United Bank for Africa
E. Indivisibility of commodities B. Union Bank of Nigeria
C. First bank of Nigeria
31. A state budget is an outline of planned D. Central Bank of Nigeria
A. Expenditures and revenues expected within a E. National Bank of Nigeria
financial years
B. Expenditures of ministries and parastatals 39. Under the ECOWAS agreement, a Nigerian can enter
within a given period and stay in Ghana without a visa for a period of
C. Recurrent and capital expenditures within a year A. 14 days B. 30 days C. 60 days D. 90 days
D. Sources of revenue derivation for a financial year E. 100days
E. Use of different kinds of taxation is a given year
40. How many National Development Plans did Nigeria
32. Which of the following is NOT among the canons of have between 1960 and 1984?
taxation as set out by Adam Smith? A. One B. Two C. Four D.Five E. Six
A. Equality B. Security C. Certainty
D. Convenience E. Economy 41. If an economy grows at an annual rate of 6%, of which
4% is deemed to be due to improvement in the
33. An example of a regressive tax is productivity of labour and capital combined, the
A. The personal income tax remaining 2% is generally attributed to
B. The graduated corporation income tax A. Technical progress
C. A general sales tax B. Size of the population
D. The inhertance tax C. Amount of natural resources
E. The excise tax D. The environment
E. The quality of human resource
34. Tax which is levied on goods manufactured, sold or
used within the country is 42. The process by which a country attempts to reduce the
A. Sales tax B. Excise tax C. Direct tax import of manufactured goods by encouraging firms to
D. Income tax E. Poll tax produce these goods at home is described as
A. Export promotion
35. By terms of trade, we mean the B. Import -substitution
A. Ratio of exports to imports C. Industrialization
B. Difference between exports and imports D. Export-diversification
C. Difference between current account and E. Import-creation
capital account
D. Index of export prices to import prices 43. Under normal circumstances a producer will bear the
expressed as a percentage entire burden of taxation on his output if the
E. Ratio of short-term capital movements A. Demand for his product is completely elastic
B. Supply of his goods is more elastic than the
36. The argument of tariff protection in less developed demand
economies is that such a measure would C. Demand for his product is more elastic than
A. Raise the price of goods affected abroad the supply
B. Make consumers pay a higher price for the D. Production of his commodities is subject to
domestically produced output diminishing returns
C. Protect young industries from ruinous E. Production fo his commodities is subject to
competition from abroad increasing returns to scale
D. Help reduce excess capacity in domestic
industries 44. Which of the following is NOT a part of the fixed cost
E. Stifle private investment initiative of a limited liability company?
A. Interest on loans
37. Devaluation of the Naira as a condition for the B. Rent on buildings
International Monetary Fund loan is considered C. Depreciation reserves
inadvisable because D. Management expenditure
A. It would allow for more money to be spent on E. Wages
luxuries
B. The interest rate on the loan would increase 45. The act of combining factor inputs in order to obtain
C. It would decrease the demand for Nigeria’s specific output is known as
exports A. Factor procurement B. Manufacturing
C. Investment D. Industrialization 48. The table below illustrates the law of diminishing
E. Producion returns on a farm.
Fixed Unit Variable Total Marginal
46. Disguised unemployment Of land Unit of Output Product
A. Exists when manpower is not being utilized (Hectares) Labour (TO) (MP)
efficiently
B. Calls for the implementation of five-year plans 5 1 10 10
C. Can be eliminated if the press is free 5 2 25 15
D. Can be eliminated if the capital output ratio is 5 3 X 21
increased 5 4 60 14
E. Is a statistical artifact with no economic 5 5 73 13
meaning 5 6 82 Y

47. Output Total Cost (N) Which pair of the following answers is appropriate for
the missing information in the spaces marked X and Y?
1 20 A. X = 20, Y = 6 B. X = 38, Y = 9
2 56 C. X = 46, Y = 9 D. X = 46, Y = 14
3 96 E. X = 10, Y = 10
4 144
5 160 49. The unemployment associated with a recession is called
A. Voluntary B. Frictional C. Cyclical
In the table above, the marginal cost when output is D. Structural E. Disguise
two units is,
A.N16.00 B. N20.00 C. N36.00 50. When total revenue is a t a maximum, marginal revenue is
D. N40.00 E. N48.00 A. Constant B. Negative C. Zero
D. Positive E. Maximum

Economics 1986
1. Choice in economic life is necessitated by C. Extent of the market
A. The need to construct scale of preference D. Disadvantage of standardization
B. The opportunity cost of consumption
C. Unlimited wants 6. Production in Economics can be defined as the
D. Scarcity of economic resources A. Totality of producing, buying and consuming
B. Transformation fo raw materials and services
2. Which of these is the real cost of satisfying any want in order to provide ultimate utility
in the sense of the alternative that has to be foregone? C. Transformation of raw materials and services
A. Variable cost B. Opportunity cost in order to make maximum profit
C. Total cost D. Prime cost D. Production of goods and services for
consumption
3. Under normal circumstances the concept of consumer
sovereignty implies that 7. A firm achieves least cost in production by
A. The consumer and not the producer owns substituting factors until
the means of production A. Their factor prices are equal
B. The producer and not the consumer B. Their marginal-physical-products are each
determines what is to be produced equal to their factor prices
C. The consumer and not the producer C. Their marginal-physical-products are each zero
determines what is to be produced D. The ratio of their marginal-physical-products
D. Both the consumer and the producer equals the ratio of their prices.
determine what is to be produced
8. If a person receives a higher wage than would be
4. A firm is at its optimum size when necessary to induce him to work, he is said to be
A. It produces the greatest output at the receiving
minimum cost A. Rent B. Profit C. Interest D. Period of training
B. It has a motive to increase output
C. Marginal cost equals marginal revenue 9. Mobility of labour is NOT affected by
D. Marginal cost is less than marginal revenue A. Optimum size of population B. Marriage and family
C. Regulation trade unions D. Period of training
5. The degree of specialization is limited by the
A. Availability of specialized skills and machinery 10. A country has a population distribution shown below:
B. Marginal cost exceeding marginal revenue
Aged Group in Years Corresponding Percentages 17. If the price of commodity X falls from N40.00 to N3.00
Above 60 25 what is the price elasticity of demand?
15 - 60 60 A. 0.62 B. 0.73 C. 1.00 D. 1.50
0 - 14 15
18. The revenue accruing to the seller of commodity X as a
The dependency ratio is result of a fall in price will
A. 3 : 2B. 1 : 4 C. 2 : 3 D. 2 : 3 E. `1 : 5 A. Increase B. Fall
C. First fall but will increase later
11. Population density refers to D. Remain unchanged
A. Densely populated urban centre
B. The total area divided by the total population 19. Which of the following is an important function of prices
C. Densely populated rural areas in a market economy?
D. The total population divided by the total area. A. Ensuring that resources are used in the most
efficient manner
12. What fundamentally determines how much a consumer B. Ensuring an equitable distribution of goods
spends in a producer’s shop? and services
A. Individual’s propensity to consume C. Ensuring that all industries are perfectly
B. Level of his taxation competitive in the long run
C. Level of his income D. Equating level of purchases with level of
D. Individual’s taste or fashion needs.

13. Which of the following statements describes a mixed 20. One major difference between monopoly and perfect
economy? competition is that
A. The government and the private sector A. the perfect competitor is a price taker while
interact in solving the basic economic problems the monopolist determines his own output
B. The invisible hand solves the basic economic B. Homogeneity of purpose exists for the
problems perfect competitor while non-homogeneity of
C. The government produces and distributes all purpose exists for the monopolist
goods and services C. Sellers are located all over the world in the
D. Society answers the ‘what’, ‘how’, and ‘for case of perfect competition but sellers are
whom’ questions only through the market located only in one country in the case of the
system. monopolist
D. There is free entry and exit in perfect competi
14. In drawing an individual’s demand curve for a tion but no free exit in monopoly
commodity, which of the following is NOT kept
constant? The 21. A producer sustains a loss in the short run if
A. Individual’s money income A. Marginal revenue is less than price
B. Price for substitutes B. Price is less than average cost
C. Price of complementary goods C. Average variable cost is less than average cost
D. Price of the commodity under consideration D. Marginal cost is less than marginal revenue

15. Given that beef and fish are substitutes, a rise in the 22. A monopolist will practise price discrimination in two
price of beef relative to that of fish will markets if
A. Induce greater demand for beef A. The cost of separating the markets is large
B. Induce greater demand for fish B. The markets have different elasticities of
C. Induce lower demand for fish demand
D. Equate demands for beef and fish C. There is free flow of information in the two
markets
16. The main function of price mechanism is to D. There is a patent of the commodity
A. Limit consumer demand
B. Enable producers make profits 23. In the normal channels of distribution the breaking of
C. Allocate scarce resources among competing bulk is performed by the
ends A. Producer B. Wholesaler C. Retailer
D. Ensure consumer sovereignty D. Consumer
Use the table below to answer 17 and 18
Market Demand Schedule for Commodity X 24. The most important advantage of co-operative
societies is
A. Their high degree of democracy
B. The increase in the cost of marketing
C. That members are encouraged to save money
D. The possibility of raising loans for the
members
25. In a public company, shares are A. Bill of Exchange
A. Sold to one person only B. Banker’s order
B. Distributed freely C. Fixed deposit account
C. Advertised to members of the public for D. Open market operation
subscription
D. Disposed of by the Chief Executive 33. Gresham’s law in Economics shows that
A. Bad money drives good money out of
26. Which of the following is a characteristic of a private circulation
limited liability company? B. Good money drives bad money out of
A. Its shares can be sold to the public circulation
B. The number of shareholders ranges from fifty C. Gold must be available to maintain the value
to one hundred of paper money
C. All shareholders have equal powers and D. The price level varies directly with the
responsibilities quantity of money
D. The number fo shareholders ranges from two
to fifty 34. Given that the cash reserve ratio is 10 percent, what is
the maximum amount of money that the banking
27. One of the advantages of a partnership over a sole system can create from an initial cash deposit of
proprietorship is that N1 000.00?
A. It is the most popular form of business A. N100.00 B. N1 000.00 C. N9 000.00
organization D. N10 000.00
B. The partner can easily withdraw from the
business 35. The most important economic characteristic differenti
C. It makes an increase in the capital of the ating commercial banks from other financial institutions
business possible is their.
D. There is no limit to the number of people who A. Function as a safe and profitable store place
may bring in capital for savings
B. Role in financing balance of payments
28. Which of the following is an external economy derived deficits
by a firm? C. Status as an intermediary between savers and
A. Low cost opportunities enjoyed by being in a borrowers
place where other producers concentrate D. Ability to create and destroy money
B. Technical economies enjoyed by varying the
factors of production 36. Deflation is a persistent fall in the general price level
C. Economies of management by putting and is usually caued by
administrators where they are most efficient A. A reduction in total demand
D. Marketing advantages attained through B. An increase in government spending
preferential treatment in the purchase and C. An increase in the money supply
distribution of produce D. An increase in aggregate demand

29. Which of the following advantages of localization of 37. Which of the following causes of inflation is related to
industries may also be a disadvantage? demand-pull inflation?
A. External economies A. Low productivity on farms and in firms
B. Concentration of industries and of people B. Poor storage facilities
C. Development of organized markets C. Poor distribution system
D. Reduced cost of research D. Increase in government expenditure on
construction
30. The Nigerian Bank for Commerce and Industry is
A. A commercial bank 38. Which of the following is NOT a goal of modern budgets?
B. A development bank A. The control of inflation
C. An industrial bank B. The reduction in income inequlaity
D. A merchant bank C. The shift of all resources from the private to
the public sector
31. To control inflation, the monetary authorities of a D. Economic development
country can
A. Reduce taxes 39. The best technical description of a progressive tax is a
B. Advise government to increase its A. Tax which takes money from the rich than from
expenditure the poor
C. Engage in expansive monetary policy B. More equitable tax than a regressive one
D. Engage in restrictive monetary policy C. Tax which takes higher proportion of extra
naira received as income rises
32. Which of the following is used by the Central Bank to D. Tax which falls directly on those in the high
control the rate of interest? income brackets.
40. Tax incidence is the analysis of
46. ECOWAS will enable the countries involved to achieve
A. How progressive a tax is
A. Comparative political advantage over other
B. How a tax is collected
countries not in the region
C. How distorting a tax is
B. A large market for their products
D. Who ultimately pays the tax
C. Military superiority over countries not in the
41. In International trade, country specializes in the produc region
tion of a commodity or group of commodities for which D. Lower the transportation cost of goods within
it has the region
A. A buoyant market
B. Plenty of raw materials 47. Which of the following methods is most likely to lead
C. The greatest relative advantage to an increase rate of growth in the national economy?
D. Executive manpower A. An increase in wages and profits
B. An increase in consumer demand
42. Balance of payments deficit in Nigeria CANNOT be
C. A greater fraction of the National Product
solved by
going into investment
A. Importing more goods and services
D. A continuous rise in bank loans
B. Devaluation of the currency
C. Imposing import duties
48. The differences between the Gross Domestic Product
D. Imposing import bans on some commodities
and the Gross National Production is the
43. The term, balance of trade, can be defined as the A. Allowance for total depreciation
A. Relation between value of exports and value B. Total interest payments
of imports over a given period of time C. Total tax and interest payments
B. Balance owed to the rest of the world in D. Net income from abroad
payment for imports
C. Price paid for imports in terms of exports 49.. Which of the following strategies will provide more
D. Relation between payments of all kinds made employment opportunities for Nigerians?
by a country to the rest of the world, over a A. Investment in social services
given period of time. B. Industrialization
44. The terms of trade is often measured by the ratio of the C. Economic planning
index of export prices D. Eradication of illiteracy
A. Divided by the index of import prices
multiplied by 100 50. A nation’s distribution of income shows
B. Multiplied by the index of import prices A. The value of all goods produced in the
C. Plus the index of import prices multiplied by 100 economy
D. Minus the index of import prices B. How income is dividend among different
groups
C. Where the economy system is on its
45. A society which forgoes present consumption production possibility curve
A. Is forced to do so because of excessive D. The consumption behaviour of the people
consumption within the country in the post
B. Is devoting new resources to new capital
formation
C. Is merely devoting resources to the replace
ment of capital
D. Expects to consume only that amount
tomorrow which was forgone today

Economics 1987
1. A production possibility curve shows A. Microeconomics B. Macroeconomics
A. How much of the resources of society C. Production D. Indifference curve
are used to produce a particular commodity
B. The rate of inflation 3. Which of the following best describes the con
C. The rate of unemployment in the economy cept of opportunity cost?
D. The various combination of two commodities A. A special bargain or sale at below market price
that can be produced B. Costs for inputs tend to go up as we use
more of them
2. The study of the economic behaviour of individual C. Goods that are not produced in order to
decision-making units (consumers resources own produce more of another good
ers and business firms) in a free-enterprise D. A cost that constantly decreases
economy is known as
4. Market is defined as B. Is not equal to Marginal Cost
A. One geographical location where people C. Is higher than Average Variable Cost
meet to buy and sell D. Is not at least equal to the minimum of the
B. The demand and supply of goods and Marginal Cost curve
services
C. A group of people whose sole interest is to 14. In the process of shipping, Mr X whose salary per
make profit month does not exceed N200, finds that the price of a
D. Any organization at framework which links commodity he used to purchase with a fixed amount
the buyers and sellers of a good or service. of N200 has now risen to N230. He therefore decides
not to buy this commodity at all Mr X is thus affected
5. The additional revenue obtained by using one more by the
unit of a factor is called its A. Substitution effect of a price change
A. Marginal product B. Income effect of a price change
B. Additional product C. Opportunity cost of a price change
C. Marginal revenue product D. Inflation effect of a price change
D. Average product
15. Price can be defined as
6. Labour productivity is defined as A. A rate of exchange B. A medium of exchange
A. Output per man/hour C. The cost of a product D. The standard of accounting
B. Average output
C. The maximum number of hour worked 16. In the operation of market forces, the market is in
D. Total level of output equilibrium at the point where
A. Demand and supply curves intersect in more
7. Efficiency of labour is enhanced by than one point provided the market is cleared
A. Involvement in own family affairs B. The excess in the market can be conve
B. Mechanization processes niently stored
C. War against indiscipline C. Excess demand is negative
D. Improved working condition and training D. Demand and supply curves intersect

17. A shift in the demand curve, for a commodity when

8. Average Fixed Cost is the supply curve is vertical will lead to a change in the
A. Average Total Cost less the sum of Average A. Price only B. Quantity only
Variable Cost C. Quality only D. Price and quantity
B. Half the sum of all costs
C. Total Fixed Cost divided by the level of 18. Given an original price of N3.50 per kilogram of rice
output and a change in price of N1.40; and given the quantity
D. Total Fixed Cost plus Marginal Cost purchased at the old price as 10kg and a change in
quantity as 5 kg after the price change the elasticity is
9. The residual of production which accrues to the equal to
ownership of land after all other expenses have been A. 10.20 B. 3.57 C. 1.25 D. 0.80
met is called
A. Wages B. Rent C. Interest D. Profit 19. For normal goods the income eleasticity of demand is
A. Positive B. Negative C.Zero D. Infinite
10. In the history of Economic Thought, the concept of
Division of Labour is usually associated with 20. Y
A. David Richardo B. J. M. Keynes
C. Adam Smith D. Karl Marx

11. The form of capital which is usually consumed or

transformed into finished goods and services in the P S
production process is called
A. Industrial capital B. Social capital
C. Fixed captal D. Circulating capital
O X
12. The shut-down point fora firm in the short run is the In the diagram above, PS is the supply curve for a
output at which particular commodity, while OP is the price. Which of
A. The price of the product is lowest the following statements is correct?
B. Marginal Cost is not constant A. The quantity supplied is infinitely elastic
C. Average Variable Cost is not covered B. When price is zero, the quantity supplied is
D. Average Cost is minimum infinite
C. When price is infinite, the quantity supplied
13. In the long run a firm will leave an industry if price is zero
A. Does not cover at least Average Total Cost D. The quantity supplied is indefinite
Use the following information to answer questions 21 tion where there are few buyers and many sellers?
and 22 A. Oligopoly B. Monopoly C. Duopoly
X, Y and Z are the only three consumers of a com D. Oligopsony
modity.
Their respective demand schedules for the commodity 28. To which of the following sectors do services belong?
are as given below: A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Construction
X Y Z
Price Quantity Price Quantity Price Quantity 29. The liability of the sole trade is
# (Units) # (Units) # (Units) A. Indeterminable B. Unlimited
0 24 0 15 0 40 C. Transferable D. Limited
2 15 2 10 2 30
5 10 5 5 5 15 30. Which of the following is NOT a type of
10 0 10 2 10 5 business ownership
A. Debenture holding B. Private company
21 The market demand curve for the commodity cuts the C. Partnership D. Joint stock venture
quantity axis when quantity is
A. 75 units 31. Which of the following is a disadvantage of regional
B. 35 units concentration of industries?
C. 7 units A. Development of congested urban areas
D. Not determinable from he schedules except B. Existence of regional unemployment
when graphed C. High cost of labour
D. Immobility of labour
22. What is market demand for the commodity when price
is N5 32. A limited liability company is usually owned by
A. 65 units B. 40 units C. 30 units D. 20 units A. An individual B. A government
C. Share-holders D. Two or more partners
23. If a good is an inferior good, then
A. It is also necessarily a figgen good 33. Money market differs from capital market in that it
B. The quantity of the good demanded varies A. Deals with short-term loans while capital
inversely with its price market deals with long-term funds
C. Its income elastic of demand is negative B. Deals with honey only while capital market
D. The poor buy the good only out of habit deals with capital as well
C. Is limited in scope while capital market is not
24. An increase in supply will lower price unless D. Uses interest rates while capital market does not
A. Supply is perfectly inelastic
B. Demand is perfectly elastic 34. The main reason for charging interest is to
C. It is followed by an increase in demand A. Reward entrepreneurial effort
D. Demand is highly inelastic B. Redistribute profits
C. Reward investors for present use of capital
25. Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a D. Mobilise more funds for development
purely competitive market? 35. In the keynesian model,
A. Demand is inelastic A. The demand for money is inversely
B. Demand is infinitely elastic related to the rate of interest
C. Marginal Cost is falling B. Investment is directly related tot he rate of
D. Price is greater than Marginal Cost interest
C. Investment is not related to the rate of
interest
D. The demand for money is directly related to
the rate in interest

36. If inflation is anticipated to continue,

I II A. People will lose confidence in goods
B. Lenders will demand higher interest rates
C. The growth of full-employment output will
be accelerated
D. People will want to hold more money

37. Ad valorem tax means

III IV A. A certain percentage tax based on the value
grams above is the consumer surplus correctly shaded? of the commodity
A. I B. II C. III D. IV B. A certain percentage tax based on the
volume of the commodity
27. What form of market is found in an imperfect competi- C. A tax on the income of the consumer
D. Payment of a tax on the profits made A. The marginal propensity to save is high
B. The marginal propensity to consume is high
38. In order to raise more revenue for a certain period, C. The consumption pattern is negative
government should impose higher taxes on goods D. There exists perfect correlation between con
whose demand is sumption and savings
A. Elastic B. Inelastic C. Perfectly elastic
D. Unitary elastic 45. Transfer payments are
A. Transfer earnings
39. A budget with a projected revenue in excess of its B. Money transferred from one country to another
expenditure is said to be C. Unearned income
A. Balanced B. Surplus D. Payment transferred from one account to another
C. Deficit D. Inflationary
46. Capital consumption allowance refers to
40. The money which government spends yearly for the A. Personal consumption expenditure
maintenance of its schools is B. Indirect business taxes
A. Used only for wages and salaries C. Depreciation of capital equipment
B. Part of the government’s capital expenditure D. expenditure on capital equipment.
C. Part of the government’s recurrent expenditure
D. The government’s budget for its schools. 47. The difference between personal income and
personal disposable income is
41. Which of the following applies to a commodity sold A. Personal income tax
abroad at a price lower than that in the producing country? B. Investment income
A. Dumping B. Counter-trade C. Bilateral trade C. Personal savings
D. Trade liberalization D. Consumption expenditure

42. The rate of exchange between a domestic and a 48. Frictional unemployment
foreign currency is defined as the A. Is total unemployment minus structural
A. Terms of trade B. Occurs when the unemployed are persons
B. Domestic currency price of a unit fo the with specific training
foreign currency C. Occurs when the number of job seekers
C. Foreign currency price of gold exceeds the number of vacancies.
D. Domestic currency price of gold D. Occurs when people are changing jobs.

43. Which of the following best explains the structural 49. For the improvement of the welfare of a people, a high
changes in the population of a country? production level is not enough because
A. Positive changes in the size and ethnic A. The have-nots deserve more than a fair share
composition of the population B. Equitable distribution is necessary
B. A decrease in the size of the population C. Productive efficiency is vital
C. An increase in the birth rate which is higher D. Savings in the country must be guaranteed
than the decrease in the death rate at more than 50 per cent of income earned.
D. Change in the age, sex and occupational
composition of the population 50. Economic development is defined as
A. Positive change plus growth
44. Statistical information available in most West African B. Availability of more goods and services
countries suggests that C. Outward shift of the production possibility
curve
D. Growth in the national income

Economics 1988
1. Scarcity in economics means that D. It makes use of field work.
A. Human wants are limitless
B. The economy has very few resources 3. When a variable is associated with time period, it is
C. The economy can scarcely produce anything A. A flow B. A stock C. Circular D. Static
D. Resources are limited in relation to wants
4. Ufuoma is a consumer. His scale of preference shows
2. Economics is often described as a sciences because that he prefers a pair of shoes to a wrist watch; he
A. Laboratory experiments are performed prefers the wrist watch to a pair of trousers; he prefers
B. It makes use of controlled experiments the pair of trousers tot he pair of shoes.
C. It uses scientific methods to explain ob This means that Ufuoma is
served phenomena and predict future events A. Rational B. Consistent C. Inconsistent
D. Transitive 13. The output at which total revenue equals total cost is
known as
5. Air is essential to life but commands no price! A. Profit-maximizing output
Diamond is not essential to life but commands a high B. Break-even level output
price! This is the paradox of C. Loss-minimizing output
A. Thrift B. Value C. Abundance D. Scarcity D. Least-cost output

6. The average product of labour in a given period is 14. The demand and supply equations for a commodity
obtained by dividing the are given respectively as
A. Number of workers by the total product D = 20 -1/2P
B. Total product by the number of hours S = 8 - 1/4P
actually worked Recalling that at equilibrium, D = S, the equilibrium
C. Change in total product by the change in the price (P) and quantity (Q) can be obtained as
total number of workers A. P = 12, Q = 16
D. Total product by the number of workers B. P = 14, Q = 10
C. P = 12, Q = 14
7. Developments outside a given firm which reduce the D. P = 16, Q = 12
firm costs are called
A. Internal economics B. External economics 15. A commodity is said to have a derived demand when
C. External diseconomics D. Optimum effects the commodity
A. And another have joint demand
8. Which of the following BEST describes the products B. Is demanded because of what it can help to
function” produce
A. It indicates the best output to produce C. Is demanded for different purposes
B. It relates naira inputs to naira outputs D. Has inelastic demand
C. It relates physical outputs to physical inputs
D. It indicates the best way to combine factors 16. If all goods were free a rational consumer would consume
to produces any given output. A. An infinite amount of each good
B. The amount where marginal utility became
9. zero
C. The same amount as when each good had a
price
D. The amount where marginal utility was the
highest

17. Which of the following changes in equilibrium price

A textile firm operates a plant in the North (where and quantity is as a result of an upward shift in the
capital is expensive relative to labour) as well as a market demand for a commodity?
plant in the South (where labour is expensive relative A. Both the price and the quantity fall
to capital). In the diagram above, the Southern plant B. The price rises and the quantity falls
will minimize cost by combining labour and capital in C. The price falls and the quantity rises
the amounts indicated by D. Both the price and the quantity rise
A. P B. Q C. X D. Y
18. One factor which influences the slope of a non-linear
10. The Law of Diminishing Returns begins to operate when demand curve for a commodity is the
A. Total product begins to rise A. Price of the commodity
B. Total products begins to fall B. Quantity of the commodity demanded
C. Marginal product begins to fall C. Availability of substitutes
D. Marginal product begins to rise D. Availability of complements

11. The assumption of profit maximization implies that profits 19.

A. Is the most important consideration of the firm
B. Is the sole consideration of the firm
C. Assumes an insatiable proportion in the
instinct of management
D. Is made in order to break-even

12. Total fixed cost measures the cost of

A. All plant and machinery
B. All assets where quantity cannot be varied
in the short run
C. All assets upon which the firm has control
D. Property owned by the firm
A. Implication for partners’ liability
If in the demand-supply diagram above the quantity B. Legal limitation placed on the number of
supplied is OQ, then partners
A. Price will be OP C. Difficulties arising from having two co-
B. There will be excess demand of RT ordinate heads of a firm
C. Price will be ON D. Fact that each partner regardless of the
D. Price will tend to rise capital he contributes, must have the same
voting rights
20. One of the characteristics of an imperfect market is
A. A large number of buyers and sellers 29. Under partnership, investors who have no desires to
B. A lack of homogeneity of products be actively involved in the day-to-day management of
C. An adequate awareness of market conditions such organisations, are called
by buyers and sellers A. Stockbrokers
D. The availability of substitutes B. Sleeping partners
C. Part-time investors
21. Total revenue is always equal to D. Ordinary partners
A. Marginal revenue multiplied by the quantity
sold 30. Localization of industries refers to the
B. Average revenue plus marginal revenue A. Tendency to concentrate industries in
C. Marginal revenue multiplied by marginal cost particular areas
D. Average revenue multiplied by the quantity B. Sitting of industries in certain areas
sole. C. Deliberate policy of influencing location of
industries generally
22. If prices fall in a perfectly competitive industry, the D. Zoning of industries
firms in that industry, in the short run will
A. Not decrease in number 31. Restriction on credit creation by commercial banks
B. Keep output at the same level but make can be effected through
losses A. An overdraft
C. Reduce production B. Loans and advances
D. Intensify the advertisement of their products C. Demand deposits
D. Liquidity ratio
23. Which of the following is TRUE at the quantity of
output where Average Cost (AC) per unit has reached 32. Which of the following factors enhances the ability of
its minimum level? commercial bank to create money?
A. AVC = FC B. MC = AC A. Reduction in the reserve ratio
C. MC = AC D. AC = AFC B. Leakage of cash out of the banking system
C. Excess reserves
24. In the short run, the monopolistic competitor D. Insistence on collateral security
A. Always makes profit
B. Always incurs a loss 33. In any economy, what is used as money is determined
C. Always break-even by
D. May close down A. Government acceptance of a commodity
standard
25. Price leadership is B. Government acceptance of an inconvertible
A. A form of tacit collusion paper standard
B. Used to explain price rigidity C. Laws and customs
C. Illegal in Nigeria D. Its use as a store of value
D. A form of overt collusion
34. The rate at which money changes hands is known as
26. The additional revenue obtained by using one more the
until of a factor is called A. Rate of inflation
A. Average product B. Velocity of transaction
B. Marginal product C. Velocity of money
C. Diminishing returns D. Velocity of circulation
D. Marginal revenue product
35. Merchant banks perform all the following functions
27. In a public company, entrepreneurial functions are EXCEPT
performed by the A. Raising of capital for industry
A. Workers B. Shareholders B. Provision of current account facilities
C. General manager D. Board of directors C. Management of investment portfolios
D. Provision of credit for overseas trade
28. The most important limitations on the partnership as a
form of business enterprises is the 36. Which of the following is a direct tax?
A. Sales tax B. Purchase tax A. Consumption equals saving
C. Export duties D. Property tax B. Saving equals investment
C. Imports equal exports
37. Which of the following is a direct tax? D. National income equals national expenditure
A. Excise tax B. Corporate income tax
C. Property tax D. Highway- 45. In estimating the national income of a country, the
three approaches usually adopted are the
38. When a nation is experiencing balance of payments A. Expenditure, value-added and output
surplus, it is in a better position to B. Income, final product and output
A. Increase its foreign exchange reserves C. Expenditure, income and output
B. Increase its liabilities to foreigners D. Avoidance of double counting, final
C. Reduce its foreign exchange reserves expenditure and value-added
D. Devalue its national currency
46. If technology becomes less capital-intensive, it
39. Which of the following is a good example of invisible means
item on balance of payments account? A. An increase in the capital/labour ratio
A. Shipping an aviation B. Export and imports B. An increase in the labour/capital ratio
C. Merchandise D. Bullion C. A fall in the labour/capital ratio
D. Increased unemployment
40. Deficit financing is mostly facilitated by the existence of
A. Stock exchange market B. Commercial bank 47. The most threatening problem for the less developed
C. Central bank D. Capital market countries is
A. The continual depletion of their soil fertility
41. The Malthusian theory of population predicts that B. The rise of nationalism
growth in food production will C. Population explosion
A. Keep pace with population growth D. Their indiference towards economics growth
B. Be at a faster rate than population growth
C. Be at a slower rate than population growth 48. An increase in an economy’s productive capacity
D. Be more rapid than population growth in the implies
development countries A. An increase in the economy’s rate of capital
replacement
42. If aggregate income is N500.00 and aggregate B. An increase in the economy’s capital stock
consumption is N400.00, this means that the average C. A decrease in government spending
propensity to consume is D. An increase in government spending
A. 0.20 B 0.80 C. 1.25 D. 2.00
49. Collectivism refers to the system of management of
43. Which of the following items is subtracted when state enterprises in a
computing Gross National Product at factor cost, by A. Mixed economy
the expenditure method? B. Co-operative organization
A. Consumption expenditure C. Capitalist economic system
B. Indirect taxes D. Socialist economy
C. Exports and property income from abroad,
D. Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation 50. The group of unemployed members of a community
who are physically handicapped or disabled, is
44. Which of the following occurs in the circular flow of generally classfied under unemployment as.
economic activities with no leakages? A. Frictional B. Cyclical
C. Residual D. Hidden

Economics 1989
1. In its simplified form, the circular flow of income 2. The need to construct a scale of preference is
concept refers to the necessitated by
A. Real flows in goods and services between A. The need to satisfy wants
the product and factor markets B. Scarcity and the need for choice
B. Monetary payments for goods and services C. Scarcity of resources
produced by individual firms D. Non-availability of factors of production
C. Transactions in goods and services and
payments for such transactions between 3. A shift in the production possibility frontier could
individual firms and households result from
D. Money flows associated with transactions A. The need to satisfy wants
between individual firms and households B. Scarcity and the need for choice
C. Scarcity of resource
D. Non-availability of factors of production

4. The primary problem of economics is

A. To obtain a more equitable distribution of
money income
B. Production a given output with the lowest
cost combination of factors of production
C. Adoption of capital-intensive technology
D. Increasing the quantity of the fixed factor of In the diagram above what happens when the
production minimum wage is fixed at OW?
A. Unemployment is reduced
5. Efficiency in production involves B. Unemployment results
A. Reducing the size of the work force C. The demand schedule will shift
B. Producing a given output with the lowest D. The supply schedule will become steeper
cost combination of factors of production
C. Adoption the quantity of the fixed factors of 12.
production
D. Increasing the quantity of the fixed factor of
production

6. If X represents the factors of production and Y

represents the factor price, which of the following
sets of association is correct?
A. (Land, rent), (capital, wage), (labour, profit),
B. (Land, interest), (capital, profits), (labour,
wage),
C. (Land, wage), (capital, interest), (labour,
rent),
D. (Land, rent), (capital, interest), (labour, If the curve above shows the relationship between
wage). the price of commodity X and the quantity demanded
fo commodity Y, then X and are
7. If the cost of production for a firm continues to A. Complementary goods B. Substitutes
increase as its output rises, the firm is said to be C. Inferior goods D. Luxury goods
experiencing
A. Large-scale production 13. Which of the following factors is an important
B. Profit maximization determinant of the magnitude of price elasticity of
C. Economies of scale demand?
D. Diseconomies of scale A. The production period
B. Cost of storage
8. Given perfect competition in the capital market, the C. Durability of the product
opportunity cost of capital is adequately reflected by D. Availability of factors of production
the
A. Interest rate B. Returns on capital 14. The marginal theory of distribution makes an asser
C. Alternative capital foregone tion that the price of any factor depends upon its
D. Shadow rice of foreign exchange marginal
A. Utility B. Productivity
9. If at 10k per kg, 1000kg of yam were purchased and a t C. Rate of substitution D. Revenue
5k per kg, 1,500 kg were purchased, the resultant point
elasticity of demand is 15. In order to increase its profit margin, the monopolist
A. 0.33 B. 0.0001 C. 1 D. 10 000 can manipulate
A. Both price and output B. Either price or output
10. If, as the price of a commodity rises, the quantity C. Only it price D. Only its output
demanded of the commodity remains the same, then
the demand for the commodity is 16. For a purely competitive industry, a fundamental
A. Static B. Infinitely elastic requirement of the demand curve faced by individual
C. Externally determined D. Perfectly inelastic firms is that it should be
A. Downward sloping and price inelastic
11. B. Perfectly price elastic
C. Downward sloping but price inelastic
D. Perfectly price inelastic
17. The merging of firms engaged in different stages of 25. Which of the business organizations listed below is
production and marketing is called characterized by limited authority and liability of the
A. External economies of scale individual owners?
B. Vertical integration A. Sole proprietorship B. Partnership
C. Horizontal integration C. Joint Stock companyD. Co-operative society
D. Economic union
26. A company is said to be highly geared if the
18. Which of the following is an important function of the A. Value of fixed interest loans is high compared
retailer? with share capital
A. Grants credit to the wholesaler B. Value of share capital is high compared with
d to
B. Breaks bulk and sells products in small units fixed interest loans is sai
c o m p an y
C. Reduces cost of distribution C. Dividend rate is high B. The geared on
N w- tu a t i
D. Generates demand for products through D. Interest rate is high be lo ever se si
r
advertisement i f t h e pl i e s
ap

19. Q(ton) 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000 27. Industries that can be randomly located are characterized by
A. Relatively low transport cost for both raw
TC(N) 16000 18000 19800 21000 24000 31500 4000 materials and output and factor mobility
B. Relatively heavy transport cost for raw
TR(N) 2000 22500 24000 24500 24500 18000 15000 material or output
C. Constant returns to scaled
D. Significant economy of scale
The table above gives the various levels of output (Q)
and its corresponding total cost of production (TC) 28. The term ‘double coincidence’ of wants is usually
and total revenue (TR) for a firm. associated with a
Which output level Q results in maximum profit? A. Bilateral exchange mechanism
A. 400 B. 500 C. 600 D. 700 B. Monetary exchange mechanism
C. Stock exchange system
20. One of the purposes of advertisement in marketing is to D. Barter exchange mechanism
A. Change the quality of the product
B. Raise the quantity of the product demanded 29. A major factor affecting the value of money is the
as its price falls A. Price level
C. Shift the demand curve for the product to the right B. Banking habit
D. Raise production costs C. Transaction motive
D. Divisible nature of money
21. The size of a business unit tends to be small if the activity
A. Involves mass production of goods 30. Cost-puch inflation is caused by
B. Requires a large capital A. Growth of government expenditure
C. Requires division of labour B. Increase in factor prices
D. Involves the provision of direct services C. Increase in money supply
D. Hoarding
22. Which type of business organization has the attribute
of effectively combining management with control? 31. The stock exchange market is where
A. Sole proprietorship A. Businessmen borrow some capital
B. Partnership B. The federal government trades on treasury
C. Limited liability company bills
D. Co-operatives C. Existing bonds and stocks are traded
D. New stocks and shares are bought or sold
23. The co-operatives as a form of business organization
differs from partnership by having 32. Commercial bank reserves at the Central Bank have
A. Several sources of capital for business the effect of
financing A. Controlling credit and money supply
B. Ability to issue preferred stocks to members B. Discouraging banking operations
C. Entrenched democratic control in the C. Advancing trade prospects
conduct of business D. Reducing bank frauds
D. Established rules and regulations governing
the activities of its members. 33. A tax is defined as regressive if
A. The proportion of income paid as tax
24. The type of business finance that entitles the holder increase as the income level increases
to a fixed rate of dividend is B. All income groups pay the same percentage
A. Preferred stock B. Common stock their income as taxes
C. Debenture D. Bank loan C. The proportion of income taken by the tax
falls as income increase
D. The proportion of income taken by the tax is 40. By using exchange controls, a country tries to
a fixed nominal amount of income fr all eliminate a balance of payments deficit by
income groups A. Limited her imports to its currency value of
exports
34. Government intervention in an economy is often B. Reducing the nations domestic price level
justified on the on the ground that C. Limiting her exports to its currency value of
A. Wants are unlimited while resources are imports
scarce D. Overvaluing the country’s currency
B. Productivity is higher in the public than in
the private sector 41. The law of comparative advantage states that a country
C. Free market may not work or produce desire should spcialize in the production of a commodity
results A. For which local demand is greatest
D. Opportunity cost of government expenditure B. In which its opportunity cost is lower than
is zero that of the trade partner
C. For which foreign demand is greatest
35. The three major groups of government revenue are D. For which there is abundant supply of raw
A. Investments income, direct tax and indirect materials
tax
B. Import duties, excise tax and export duties 42. International and inter - regional trade differ primarily
C. Company tax, personal income tax and import because.
duties A. comparative advantage is relevant to the
D. Company tax, import duties and excise tax former but not the latter.
B. products flow across national boundaries
36. The main objectives of public expenditures does NOT C. there are different resources supplies among
include countries of the world
A. Stabilization of national economy D. of regulation from GATT.
B. Achievement of a more equitable income
distribution 43. Optimum population is the population level at which
C. Meeting the social heeds of the people A. Death rate is at a minimum
D. Revenue sharing and profit maximization. B. Per capita income is at maximum
C. Population is at a miximum
37. A perfect example of a public good is D. Death rate is equal to birth rate
A. Air B. Education C. Defence D. transport
44. The group of people engaged in banking or insurance
38. A balanced budge is defined as a condition of services by occupational distributions are claasified as
A. Balance of payments equilibrium A. Primary producers
B. Equality of aggregate demand and aggregate B. Secondary producers
supply C. Tertiary producers
C. Equality of planned receipts and planned D. Technical producers
expenditure
D. Equality of planned exports and planned 45. The difference between gross national product and
imports net national product is equal to
A. Gross investment
39. B. Net investment
ITEM AMOUNT C. Net foreign income
(Million Naira) D. Capital depreciation
46. The value of the total output produced within Nigeria
Visible exports 55.54 by all residents (citizens and non-citizens) is referred
to as the
Visible imports 53.32 A. Gross national product
B. Disposable income
Invisible exports 30.56 C. National income
D. Gross domestic product
Invisible imports 28.70
47. The multiplier is defined as
Balance 4.08 A. The ratio of the change in income to the
change in investment
The amount, N4.08 million, shown as balance in the B. The change in investment dividend by the
table above represents change in income
A. Terms of payments B. Balance on current account C. 1 D. 1
C. Balance of trade D. Terms of trade (1-MPS) (MPC)
48. If C stands for consumption expenditure, I for 50. The primary goal of development planning in Nigeria
investment, X for exports, and M for imports, then is to
national income is A. Increase profitability of enterprises
A. C + I+ X + M B. C + I+X - M B. Achieve a rapid increase in the welfare and
C. C + I - X + M D. C+I+X standard of living of Nigerians
C. Increase the level of gross domestic product
49. A sustained increase in the per capita income of a D. Make Nigeria a super-power
country over a period of time is called
A. Economic growth
B. Economic development
C. Structural change
D. Stagflation

Economics 1990
1. If one orange costs 20k and one kilogram of beef 7. A firm achieves least-cost in production by substitu
costs N10.00, the opportunity cost of one kilogram of tion factors until
beef is A. Their prices are equal
A.50 orange B. 10 orange B the ratio of their marginal-physical-products
C. 5 orange D. N9.80 equals the ratio of their prices
C. Their marginal-physical-products are each
2. In economic life. Choice among alternative depends on the equal to their factor prices
A. Income of the decision make D. Their marginal-phsical-products are each
B. Scarcity of resources equal to zero
C. Scale of preference of the decision maker
D. Status of the decision maker 8. Economics of scale operate only when
A. Marginal cost is falling with input
Use the diagram below to answer question 3 and 4 B. Average cost is falling with output
C. Fixed cost is variable
D. Variable cost is less than fixed cost
GOODS AND SERVICES
9. At the point of profit maximization by a firm, marginal
BUSINESS FIRM
cost is
AND
GOVERNMENT
A. Minimum B. Falling C. Constant
D. Rising
Y
10. A Situation in which all inputs are doubled and
PAYMENT FOR GOODS AND SERVICES
A simple circular flow of income diagram output also doubles is known as
A. Constant proportion B. Constant returns
3. The flow labelled Y refers to C. Increasing returns to scale
A. Real income B. Factor payments D. Constant returns to scale
C. Factors input D. National income
11. The demand curve would shift to the when there is a rise in
4. The lower half of the diagram indicates A. Constant proportions B. Constant returns
A. The flow of goods and services C. Increasing returns to scale E. Constant
B. Payment for goods and services returns to scale
C. The flow income
D. Government transaction 12. The law of diminishing marginal utility indicates that if
a consumer increase his consumption of a commodity
5. One of the major advantage of specialization is that continously his
A. The worker becomes a tender of machines A. Total utility must fall
B. It causes more employment of labour B. Marginal utility must fall
C. Less machinery is required for production C. Marginal utility may rise even though his
D. The worker waster less time between total utility is falling
operation D. Marginal utility may fall even though his
total utility may be rising
6. Which of the following reward is associated with
entrepreneurship as a factor of production? 13. Technical progress that leads to reduction in costs result in
A. Salaries B. Profits C. Interests A. An increase in equilibrium price and quantity
D. Rent B. A decrease in equilibrium price and quantity
C. An increase in equilibrium price and de
crease inequilibrium quantity C. Price is above marginal revenue
D. A decrease in equilibrium price and increase D. Average variable cost is at a minimum
in equilibrium quantity
21. Which of the following is the major function of the
14. If an increase in income induces a reduction the wholesaler?
demand for beans, beans can be referred to as A. Bulk breaking
A. A normal good B. An inferior good B. Provision of useful information to the
C. A substitute D. A giffen good manufacturer on products
C. Provision of after sales service to consumers
15. The demand for a product is said to be price inelastic if D. Provision of warehousing facility
A. The price elasticity of demand is less than one
B. The price elasticity of demand is greater than one 22. In the distribution channels for goods and services,
C. A reduction in price results in an increase in the middleman’s mark-up margin provides a rough
quantity demanded measure for the
D. An increase in price result in a decrease in the A. Quantity discount allowed final consumers
quantity demanded B. Reward for business entrepreneurship
C. Effectiveness of government control over
16. Which of the following graphs represents the price economy’s marketing channels
quantity relationship between tea and lemon, if they D. Extent of exploitation of the final consumer
are perfect complements?
23. Which of the following reasons could induce a
A. C. manufacturer to by pass the wholesaler in the
P (tea) P (ea)
distribution chain?
Q (lemon) C. Q (lemon)
A. To provide the quantity needed by retailers
P (ea) B. To collect usefully information on his
product
C. To provide ware housing facilities
A.
B. C.
D.
P (tea) P (ea) D. To violate government regulation on
distribution
Q (lemon) C. Q (lemon)
P (ea)
24. A major difference between a state-owned enterprise
17. In the below diagram, RTX, are the marginal cost and and private enterprise is that the former
the average cost curve respectively of a perfectly A. Is not expected to cover its cost of produc
competitive firm. The supply curve of the firm is tion while the latter is
indicates by B. Is not always expected to maximize profits
A. TX B. RT C. ST D. TY while the 33 later is
C. Has shareholders while the latter does not
D. Has a board of directions while the latter
does not

25. Divorce of ownership from control is a characteristic of

A. Sole proprietorship
B. A limited liability company
C. Partnership
D. A private limited company

18. An imperfect market in which there is only one buyer 26. Capital provided by individuals to the firm by
of a commodity is purchasing stocks is called
A. Monopsony B. Oligopoly C. Monopoly A. Debt capital B. Fixed capital
D. Duopoly C. Circulating D. Equity capital

19. The tailoring service is competitive partly because it 27. Which of the following factors is the most important
consists of a large number of in siting a petro-chemical plant?
A. Large-scale enterprises A. Nearness to the source of raw materials
B. Medium scale enterprise B. Nearness tot he source of power
C. Small scale enterprises C. Availability of labour
D. Government-owned enterprises D. Proximity of financial institutions

20. Which of the following is applicable to a monopolistic 28. Which of the following will be the effect of allowing
firm operating at the output where marginal cost only economic factors to dictate the location fo
equals marginal revenue? industries in Nigeria?
A. Cost of production is at a minimum A. A more even development of the different
B. The plant is of optimum size parts of the country will be assured
B. There will be an unbalance spread in the C. Curve Z
distribution of industries D. Curve Y
C. The less developed parts of the country will
be able to attract more industries 37. Under a system of freely floating exchange rate, an
D. Only the government will be able to finance increase in the international value of a country
the establishment of industries (s)currency will cause
A. Its exports to rise
29. If the same basket of goods which cost N12.00 in 1985 B. Its imports to rise
cost N15.00 in 1987 is C. Gold to flow into that country
A. 25 B. 80. C. 100 D. 125 D. Its currency to be in surplus

30. Which of the following is like to be inflationary? 38. Balance or trade is te difference between
A. Tax increase B. Increase in unemployment A. Exports and imports of goods and service
C. Budget surplus D. Wage increases B. Capital inflows and capital outflows
C. Visible and invisible balances
31. The basic purpose of imposing legal reserve require D. Exports an imports of goods
ments on commercials banks is to
A. Assure the profitability of commercial banks 39. Which of the following is likely to reduce a surplus in
B. Provide a device through which credit the balance of payments of a country?
creation by bankscan be controllled A. Devaluation B. Increased tarrif on imports
C. Provide a proper ratio between earning and C. Export promotion D. Currency appreciation
non-bank assets
D. Provide the Central Bank with with working 40. Which of the following is a tariff?
Capital A. Limit on the amount of good which can be
imported
32. Find the total credit that the banking system can B. Interest rate on foreign loans
create if primary deposits is just N100.00 while the C. Government payment to domestic producers
cash ratio is 20% for exports
A. N700.00 B. N600.00 C. 500.00 D. N400.00 D. Tax on imported goods

33. Which of the following is a liability of a commercial bank? 41. Import duties will increases total expenditure on
A. Deposits in the bank imports if the demand for imports is
B. Loans made by the bank to individuals A. Elastic B. Inelastic C.Infinitely elastic
C. Loans made by the bank to other banks D. Derived
D. Bonds purchased by the bank
42. Which of the following is likely to hinder labour
34. A tax on a commodity whose supply is perfectly inelastic is mobility in Nigeria?
A. Shifted completely on the consumer A. Higher wages elsewhere
B. Completely borne by the supplier B. Cultural similarities
C. Divide in the ratio 60:40 between the C. Good accommodation
consumer and the supplier D. Ignorance of job opportunities elsewhere
D. Divided half-and-half between the producer
and the consumer 43. If birth rate is constant and death rate declines,
population
Use the figure to answer question A. Falls B. Expands C. Stabilizes
D. Oscillates

44. If the government invests the sum of N1 000.00 and

the marginal propensity to consume is 0.75, what it
the change in income?
A. N 1000 000.00 B. N4 000 000.00
C. 6 000 000.00 D. N14 000 000.00

45. The system of measurement of national income as the

sum of all final demands is called
35. The relationship between tax rate and income which is A. Income approach B. Expenditure approach
relevant to a progressive tax is shown by C. Is payable tot he disabled members of the
A. Curve X B. Curve Y C. Curve Z community
D. Curve X and Z D. Accrues tot he environmental sanitation
authorities for refuse
36. The relationship between tax rate and income which is
relevant to a proportional tax is depicted by 46. Disposable income is an income which
A. Curves Z and Y B. Curve X A. Is available for consumption and savings
B. Pensioners receive from the government 49. The most common index used for measuring development is
C. Is payable tot he disabled members of the A. The level of literacy B. Per capita income
community C. Nutritional level D. Population growth rate
D. Accrues to the environmental sanitation
authorities for refuse disposal 50. Agriculture is central to Nigeria’s economic develop
ment because
47. In equilibrium, injections are equal to A. Nigeria’s comparative advantage lies mainly
A. Withdrawals B.Surplus of imports over exports in agro-allied industries
C. Government spending D. Wages B. Agriculture is the largest employer of labour
C. Agriculture accounts for an insignificant
48. Social overhead capital refers to domestic product
A. Balanced growth B. Gross investment D. Nigeria earns limitless goreign exchange from
C. The building of infrastructures agriculture
D. Capital formation

Economics 1991
1. In market economy, the question of what, how and for 6. If units of a variable factor are increasingly added to a
whom to produce are solved by the fixed factor and the marginal physical product keeps
A. Elected representatives of the people increasing, production is said to be taking place under
B. Planning committee condition of
C. Price mechanism A. Increasing returns to the variable factor
D. Government B. Increasing returns to scale
C. Constant returns to the variable factor
2. Economic goods are termed scarce goods when they are D. External economies of scale
A. Not available insufficient quantities to
satisfy all wants for them 7. At any given level of output, the total cost of a firm
B. Not produced in sufficient quantities to equals the
satisfy the effective demand them A. Marginal cost plus the average cost
C. Of high quality B. Fixed costs less its variable cost
D. Of primary importance in satisfying the C. Average cost multiplied by its output
needs of a society D. Economic costs multiplied by variable costs.

3. A school girl who needs a book and mirror, each 8. At any given level of output, a firm’s total variable
costing five naira, decides to purchase the book cost equals
instead of the mirror since she cannot pay for the two A. Total cost less marginal cost
at the same time. Determine the real cost of her books B. Total cost less total fixed cost
A. The five naira she spent on the book C. Total cost less average cost
B. Five naira real cash value D. Average variable cost and marginal variable
C. The mirror D. The book cost

4. Macroeconomics is a study of economic science from 9. Consider the following diagram where XYZ repre
the point of view of sent the average cost curve of a firm.
A. Resource markets or production units
B. Individual producers of consumers
C. Aggregate or general economy
D. Companies or individual firms
XY shows that as output increases the average cost
5. In combining inputs x and y the entrepreneur obtains declines. However, this decline cannot continue
the maximum output from a given money outlay when indefinitely because of
A. Px = Py A. Managerial economies
Mpx Mpy B. Indivisibilities
C. The extent of the market
B. Mpx = Mpy D. The pooling of dissimilar risks
Px Py
10. If the price of a ball point pen falls from N1.00 to N0.60
C. Px.MPx=Py.MPy and the quantity demanded increases from 200 to 300,
the point elasticity of demand is equal to.
D. Px.Py=MPx.MPy A. 1.25 B. 0.80 C. 0.50 D. 0.40
11. If a society is operating on the production possibility Q (tons) 600 700 800 900
curve, this implies that the resources are 1000
A. Fully and efficiently utilised TC (#) 6800 8700 8400 9600 1100
B. Fully but inefficiently utilised MC (#/ton) 10 6 12 14
C. Efficiently but not fully utilised
D. Abundant 18. Consider the table above showing output (Q), total
cost (TC) of production and marginal cost (MC) for a
12. A market is in disequilibrium if firm in a competitive market. Suppose price (P) = N12,
A. The quantity purchased is greater than the what is the maximum profit the firm can make?
quantity sold A. N2 000.00 B. N1 200.00 C. N1 000.00
B. The quantity sold differs from the quantity D. N400.00
purchased
C. At a lower price, a larger quantity is sold 19. In a perfectly competitive market, the firm is in long-
D. The quantity demanded differs from the run equilibrium at the output where
quantity supplied A. Marginal cost is minimum
B. Average cost is minimum
Use the diagram below to answer questions 13 and 14, C. Total revenue is maximum
D. Marginal revenue is maximum

Use the diagram below to answer questions 20 to 22

20. The firm portrayed is selling in

A. A purely competitive market
13. The excess profit made by the firm in the short-run is B. A market in which demand is elastic at all prices
represented by C. An imperfectly competitive market
A. ORTZ B. OPVY C. QRTW D. ORSX D. A market in which companies produce
homogeneous commodities
14. The long-run equilibrium price and quantity for the
firm are respectively 21. Demand is relatively inelastic
A. OP, OY B. OR, OZ C. OR, OX D. OQ, OZ A. At P2 range B. In the P2 P4 price range
C. At P3 only D. At any prices below P2
15. The cross-elasticity of demand between complemen
tary goods is 22. Which of the following statements must hold if price
A. Unitary B. Positive C. Zero D. Negative discrimination is to be possible?
A. Elasticities in the various markets must not differ
16. Resources are efficiently allocated when production B. The seller must recognise
takes place at that output where price equals C. The markets must not be separated but
A. Marginal revenue integrated
B. Average variable cost D. The markets should be separable but there
C. Marginal cost D. Total cost should be no resale

17. Comparison of the price and output decisions of a 23. The ordinary partner in a partnership
perfectly competitive firm with those of a monopolist A. Takes no active parti in management of the
shows that the business
A. Monopolist charges a lower price than the B. has limited liability in case of business failure
perfect competitor C. Has unlimited liability in case of business failure
B. Perfect competitor charges a lower price and D. Cannot be sued personally on matters
produces a larger output than the monopo relating to the business
list
C. Perfect competitor produces a smaller output 24. A possible factor which limits the extent of growth of
than the monopolist a firm is the
D. Monopolist charges a lower price and A. Existence of a monopoly
produces a larger output than the perfect B. Bureaucratic delays in decision-making
competitor. C. Use of by-products
D. Unwillingness to share ownership and control
25. One of the most outstanding disadvantage of co- D. A country’s currency officially issued
operative societies as business organization is that 33. An effect of inflation is that is
A. True spirit of co-operation is marred by A. Discourages trade by barter
delegated authority B. Favours debtors at the expense fo creditors
B. Members show much interest C. Increases the real income of salary earners
C. It is poorly financed D. Increases the value of a country’s exports
D. Membership interest is centered on sharing
of essential commodities 34. Banks aid economic expansion and development by
A. Being very strict in lending policies
26. A disadvantage of a join-stock company is B. Mobilizing savings for investment lending
A. Unlimited liability C. Paying interest on deposit accounts
B. Limited liability D. Charging high interest on loans
C. Continuity
D. Loss of controlling interest 35. The term ‘Stock of Capital’ means
A. Amount of money necessary to start a business
27. A characteristic of a debenture is that B. Total amount receiveable by all factors of
A. Its yield is based on profits production
B. Its yield is a fixed rate of interest C. Amount of equipment plant and inventory
C. It has no redemption date existing at a time
D. There is a voting when interest is paid D. Total amount available for economic development

28. Industries tend to be located closer to market centres 36. A tax that takes an increasing fractional of income as
than to the sources of major raw materials if the income goes down is called
A. Products are relatively cheap to transport to A. Conditional B. Regressive C. Progressive
market centres D. Proportional
B. Products are relatively more expensively to
transport are relatively more expensive to 37. Budget deficit is the amount by which
transport than the major raw materials A. Total expenditure exceeds revenue
C. Raw materials are bulky B. Recurrent expenditure exceeds revenue
D. Raw materials can also be imported C. Capital expenditure exceeds revenue
29. One disadvantage of trade by barter is that D. Recurrent expenditure exceeds capital
A. People are happier when they exchange the expenditure
same quantities of goods through the
medium of money rather than by baster 38. The average tax rate is defined as
B. The person wishing to buy good X may not A. Total tax rate less the marginal tax rate
have good Y which is what the other person B. The tax rate which applies to additional value
wants of income
C. One person must always be cheated when C. The ratio of total taxes paid to total income
trade takes place by barter D. Marginal tax rate for being progressive
D. It increase the initial cost of producing
goods 39. Personal distribution of income implies
A. The way income is distributed among
30. One of the functions of Development Banks is to specific households or spending units
A. Mint money for the development of the B. The distribution of income according to
economy basic resource classes
B. Provide short-term loans to commercial C. Dividing income according to industries
banks D. Dividing income between personal taxes
C. Provide medium and long-term finance for consumption expenditures and savings
development of the banking system
D. Provide medium and long-term finance for 40. One of the advantages of international trade is that is
the development of the economy A. Increases world output
B. Encourages economic independence among
31. To perform its function as a store of wealth and nations
standard for deferred payment, money must be C. Restricts spread of technical knowledge
A. Portable B. In attractive form D. Promotes self-reliance and satisfaction with
C. Stable in value only what can be produced internally
D. Spent more on capital goods than on
consumer goods 41. There is an improvement in the terms of trade of a
country if
32. Fiduciary issue is that part of
A. The issue of notes backed entirely by gold A. A large quantity of exports is given up to
B. A country’s currency which is not negotiable obtain a unit of imports
C. The issue of notes not backed by gold B. The volume of exports is greater than the
volume of imports
C. A smaller quantity of exports is given up to 46. The Gross Domestic Product is defined as the total value of
obtain a unit of imports A. All final goods and services produced in a
D. The value of exports is greater than the value country during the year
of imports B. All assets of a country in a particular year
C. Exports net of total value of imports
42. Under flexible exchange rates, a deficit could be corrected by D. All receipts.
A. Freezing the gold point
B. Appreciation of other currencies 47. Stage of Value of Sale Value
C. Removing export subsidies Product Input of Output
D. Removing tariffs
Maize farmer - N10.00
43. The higher the dependency ratio the Flour miller N10.00 N12.00
A. Larger the proportion o f the employed Baker N12.00 N15.00
relative tot he unemployed Shop keeper N15.00 N20.00
B. Smaller the proportion of the active labour
force relative to the inactive The value of total output in the economy using the
C. Smaller the number of the non-working age value added approach is
groups relative to the active labour force A. N57.00 B. N37.00 C. N20.00 D. N15.00
D. Lower the birth rate
48. If W stands for wages/salaries, P for profit, R for
44. The age distribution of a country’s population is of interest and Z for rent on land and real estate, then
economic importance because it affect the national income is
A. Pattern of expenditures A. W-P-R-Z B. W+ P+Z-R
B. Size of the army C. P-R-Z+W D. W+P+R+Z
C. Optimum size of firms
D. Location of industries 49. In the national income and product accounts, double
counting is avoided if
45. It is important to measure the National Income of a A. Only final goods are counted
country because B. Only intermediate goods are counted
A. It is a major determinant of the standard of C. Only intermediate and final goods are
living counted
B. It reveals hazards of development like D. The value of all goods and services are
pollution and congestion added together
C. It reveals the distribution of the citizens’
savings in foreign banks 50. A major obstacle to economic development is
D. Its size determines the extent of political A. A rise in industrial output
stability B. Low farm productivity
C. Free trade
D. Ineffective trade unions

Economics 1992
1. Which of the following situations can give rise to B. Amount of Y it produced
economic problems? C. Total amount of Y it could have produced
A. Unlimited human wants D. Extra amount of Y it could have produced
B. Wants of varying importance
C. Limited means available for satisfying wants 4 which of the following is applicable in a wholly
D. Means used in different ways. capitalist economy?
A There is government intervention in price
2. Scale of preference refers to determination.
A. Consumers preference for luxurious goods B. consumer sovereignty does not exist.
B. The household monthly income C. The price mechanism allocates resources.
C. List of goods and services in order of D households cannot freely decide what to
priority spend on goods and service.
D. Budget preparation without paying due 5
regard to priority Age group( years) Distribution ( %)
Above 60 30
3. For an economy which last year produced only two 15 - 60 45
commodities X and Y, the real cost of the quantity of 0 - 14 25
X which it produced can be measured by the
A. Amount of X it could not produce The estimated dependency ratio of the population
distribution shown above is
A. 11 : 9 11. At what level of input has diminishing marginal
B. 9 : 11 returns set in?
C. 7: 3 A. 3 B. 16 C. 20 D. 22
D. 3: 7
13. The U-shape of the long-run average cost curve can
6. Population Food Production be experience by the
(Million) (million tonnes) A. Law of increasing returns
50 220 B. Law of constant returns
70 210 C. Law of diminishing returns
90 225 D. Concepts of economics and diseconomics of
100 275 scales

In the data above, what is the optimum population is 14.

million? Quantity of Short-run
A. 50 B. 70 C. 90 D. 100 Singlets total costs(N)
0 1 000
7. The major objective of the current campaign for family 10 1 200
planning in Nigeria is to 20 1 400
A. Reduce the death rate 30 1 600
B. Limit the number of women a man can marry 40 1 800
C. Keep the population growth rate constant
D. Raise the standard of living of the popula The short-run total costs for different level of output
tion for a firm producing singlets are shown above.
Calculate the variable cost per unit at an output of 20
8. The migration of young people from rural to urban A. N1000 B. N 400 C. N 70 D. N 20
areas in Nigeria should help to raise the
A. Standard of living in the urban areas 15. The price mechanism is more effective in achieving
B. Total productivity of labour in the rural areas efficient performance of the economy than the
C. Marginal productivity of labour in the rural planning mechanism because of the
areas A. Role of supply and demand
D. marginal productivity of labour in the urban B. Role of material incentive
area C. Existence of buyers and sellers
D. Role of money
9. By definition, variable cost (VC) is related to total
costs (TC) and fixed cost (FC) by the equation. 16. If demand is relatively inelastic and sellers are able ro
A. VC = TC + FC raise the price of their commodity, then there will be a
B. VC = TC - FC A. Fall in both quantity demanded and total
C. VC = TC/FC revenue
D. VC = (TC)(FC) B. Fall in the quantity demanded and a rise in
total revenue
10. The higher the price fo capital relative tot he price of C. fall in the quantity demanded and a rise in
labour, the more production techniques should be marginal revenue
A. Labour-intensive D. rise in both the quantity demanded and the
B. Capital-intensive marginal revenue
C. Fixed 17.
D. Technology-intensive

Use the following production and cost data of a

profit-maximizing firm to answer questions 11 and 12
Unit of Total Total Total
Total Output Fixed Variable
Input Cost Cost
0 0 100 0
1 3 100 100
2 8 100 124
3 16 100 172
4 20 100 190
5 22 100 200
18. If in the graph above, it is assumed that the price is
Calculate the marginal physical product of the last initially P1, it can be deduced that price will
unit of input A. Fall because there is a surplus
A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 10 B. Remain constant because it is the equilibrium
price D. Bank loan
C. Rise because there is a shortage
D. Double 26. Farmer’s income may fall if they produce more cash
crops for export because
19. A. Foreign demand is inelastic
B. The price of the crops will rise
C. Of domestic currency depreciation
D. Of export duties

27. Under the Nigerian structural adjustment programme,

the marketing of agricultural commodities in Nigeria
has been placed under
A. The marketing boards
In the diagram above, the profit maximizing output is B. The commodity boards
C. The river basin authorities
A. Q1 while 1 = AC and II = MC D. Private investors and individuals
B. Q1 while 1 = MC and II =AC
C. Q2 while 1 = MC and II = AC 28. The primary barrier to land reform in developing
D. Q3 while 1 = AC and II = MC countries is the
A. Frequent opposition by the landlords
20. A firm with marginal cost equal to its marginal revenue B. Realization that output levels might fall
will produce will produce the equilibrium output if it is C. Fear that peasants will be cut off from credits
in D. General contentment with the present
A. Pure competition only arrangement
B. Prue monopoly only
C. Monopolistic competition only 29. Firms are often set up close to each other in order to
D. Any type of market take advantage of
A. Supply of skilled labour
21. An important function for the retailer is to B. Agglomeration economies
A. Grant credit tot he wholesaler C. Internal economies of scale
B. Break bulk and sell products in small units D. External economies of scale
C. Reduce cost of distribution
D. Generate demand for products through 30. The consumer-goods industry is predominant in the
advertisement industrial sector of the Nigerian economy because of
A. Availability of market and most of the raw
22. The main handicap of sole proprietorship is materialsrequired
A. Limited liability B. Availability of the necessary machinery
B. Lack of technical know-how required
C. Low profit margin C. Experience of Nigerian producers
D. Inadequate capital D. Relatively lower cost of production of such
goods
23. The type of business organization mostly used for
producing public goods in Nigeria is 31. A significant effect of the growth of the oil sector in
A. Sole proprietorships Nigeria has been to
B. Limited liability companies A. Increase the rate of unemployment
C. Co-operative societies B. Diminish the percentage contribution of the
D. Statutory corporations. agricultural sector to GNP
C. Slow down the pace of industrialization and
24. The main reason for the current programme of urbanization
privatization and commercialization of public enter D. Retard the rate of economic growth
prises in Nigeria is to
A. Reduce public expenditure 32. Because most of her crude oil is exported, the foreign
B. Encourage efficiency in the performance of exchange earnings and the forward linkage effects
such enterprises Nigeria realizes from her oil production are
C. Reduce the number of public enterprises A. Both high
D. Raise the prices of goods and services B. Respectively high and low
produced by the enterprises C. Respectively low and high
D. Both low
25. The types of business finance that entitles the holder
to a fixed rate of dividend is 33. Which of the following is NOT directly concerned
A. Preferred stock with dealings in treasury bills?
B. Common stock A. The Stock Exchange
C. Debenture B. The Central Bank
C. Commercial banks Use the information below to answer question 41 and
D. Discount houses
Year 1 Year2
34. Monetization refers to the ratio of GNP at current prices (Nm) 20,000 27,000
A. Total transactions to monetary transactions Population (million) 20 24
B. Monetary assets to total assets
C. Monetary transactions to total transactions 41. What is the percentage increase in GNP between year
D. Money in circulation to total income 1 and year 2?
A. 3.5%
35. The best way to reduce the supply of money in the B. 14.0%
economy is to C. 20.0%
A. Increase the liquidity ratio D. 35.0%
B. Increase the number of bank notes and
cheques produced 42. Calculate the GNP per head of the population in year 1
C. Decrease treasury bills and year 2
D. Liberalize access to credit
A. N2000.00; N1000.00
36. The total amount of money in circulation includes B. N1125.0; N2000.00
cash C. N1000.00; N2000.00
A. And current account balance owned by the D. N1000.00; N1125.00
non-bank public
B. Owned by banks and the non-bank public 43. In national income accounting, aggregate saving in
C. And current account balances owned by any year is defined as
banks and the non-bank public
D. Owned by banks, the government and the A. All disposable income not spent on con
non-bank public sumption
B. All savings deposits in all banks during the
37. To reduce the high rate of inflation in the economy, year
Government should C. All savings and time deposits in all banks
during the year
A. Increase taxes and have a budget surplus D. The value of inventory change for the year
B. Increase taxes and have a budget deficit
C. Decrease taxes and have budget deficits 44. Which of the following combination is a veritable set
D. Decrease taxes and have a balanced budget of development indicators?

38. When interest are high and still rising the least-cost A. Growth of government expenditure and
method used by public limited companies to obtain imports
additional funds for their operations is by B. Growth of population and national income
C. High fertility, literacy and school enrolment
A. Obtaining long-term loans from merchant rates
bank D. Low infant mortality and high per capita
B. Obtaining short-term loans from commercial income and literacy rate
banks
C. Selling floating-rate debenture stocks to the 45. If an economy grows at an annual rate of 5% of which
general public 3% is deemed to be due to improvement in the
D. Selling new ordinary shares to the general productivity of labour and capital combined, the
39. The objective of public finance is to promote remaining 2% is generally attributed to
A. Full employment, national income and price A. The size of the population
stability B. Technical progress
B. Government revenue drive and expenditure C. The environment
to as high a level as possible D. The amount of natural resources
C. The expansion of government social-
services 46. If a country has a balance of payment crisis, which of
D. Government revenue drive and minimise the following measures can best bring about an
government expenditure improvement in the short run?
A. Large-scale importation on foreign goods
40. An account from which allocations are made to the B. Investments in capital market abroad
three tiers of government in Nigeria is called the C. Large-scale export of locally made goods
A. National Income Account D. Repayment of debt to her creditors
B. Public Sector Account
C. Federation Account 47. The terms of trade of a country is defined as
D. National Revenue Mobilization Account A. Index of import price
Index of export price x 100
B. Index of exportation 49. The Nigerian Trust Fund is managed on behalf of
Index of importable x 100 Nigeria by the
A. World Bank
C. Index of visible imports B. International Monetary Fund
Index of visible exports x 100 C. African Development Bank
D. Economic Commission for Africa
D. Index of export prices
Index of import price x 100 50. One of the gains by member states of the Economic
Community of West African States is
48. When a foreigner on a visit to Nigeria, pays for hotel A. Monocultural dependency
accommodation and meals with some foreign cur B. Trade creation
rency, the amount paid should be recorded in C. Trade inversion
Nigeria’s balance of payments as an item of D. Economic independency
A. Nigeria’s invisible export trade
B. Nigeria’s import trade
C Nigeria’s visible trade
D. Foreign capital inflow into Nigeria.

Economics 1993
1. It is impossible to satisfy all human wants because B. Capitalist economy
A. Areas of fertile land are very limited C. Subsistence economy
B. Oceans and seas limit land space for farming D. Mixed economy
C. Resources are not equitably distributed
D. Available resources are limited 6. The working population refers to
A. A population where the average age is falling
Use the diagram below to answer question 2 and 3 B. The population within the ‘0-14’’ age bracket
C. The economically active segment of the
Y
population
D. The dependent population

7. Which of the following factors is NOT responsible

for the rural/urban drift in Nigeria?
A. The infrastructural facilities in cities
0
x B. Declining fertility of rural farm lands
C. Rural electrification programme
D. Higher living standards in urban areas
2 The above diagram showing th e maximum possible
combination of commodities X and Y produced in 8. An accurate census is important to a country because
Nigeria is called the it helps
A. Production indicator A. In solving unemployment problem
B. Maximum production B. To ensure equitable population redistribu
C. Production possibility curve tion relative to natural resources
D. Total output curve C. In deciding on the creation of more local
governments
3. How many units of goods X is produced for 8 units D. In providing a sound basis for formulating
of commodity Y development policy
A. 80 B. 40 C. 20 D. 0
9. If 502.75 million tonnes of grains are consumed
4. The main function of the price system is to annually by a population of 88.5 million people, the
A. Distribute resources equally among compet per capita grains consumption will be
ing ends A. 6.00 tonnes B. 5.68 tonnes C.0.60 tonnes
B. ensure efficient allocation of resources in the D. 0.57 tonnes
economic system
C. allocate goods and services equally 10. In the theory of production and cost, the average
D. minimize cheating. total cost of a firm is minimized when the marginal
cost curve cuts the average total cost at its.
5. A system in which the means of production is held in A. Lowest point B. Middle point
trust for the people by government is known as a C. Maximum point D. Downward slopping section
A. Socialist economy
11. A firm faces diminishing returns when its In the diagram above, what is the lowest possible
A. Total output diminishes price the monopolist could charge and still break even
B. Average output diminishes without there being excess demand?
C. Marginal output diminishes
D. Marginal revenue diminishes 18. At equilibrium one of the distinctive features of
monopoly compared with perfect competition is that
12. If labour productivity in the cement industry is as in the former
increasing output of cement is expanded, then the A. Price is always equal to marginal cost
amount of labour perfect competition is that in the B. Supply is always equal to demand
former C. Price is always higher than marginal cost
A. Less than zero B. Decreasing D. There are always many buyers and many sellers
C. Constant D. Increasing
19
13. If profit maximization is assumed to be the objective of
a business enterprise, labour must be paid a wage rate
equal to the
A. Marginal revenue of te enterprise
B. Marginal revenue product of labour in the
enterprise
C. Average revenue of the enterprise
D. Marginal cost of production

14. In the diagram above, the marginal propensity to

consume (MPC) is equal to

A. RP
TP
Quantity
B. TP
From the diagram above, shift in the demand curve RP
from D0D0to D1D1 implies C. RT
A. A rise in the demand for the commodity RP
B. Fluctuation in the demand for the commodity D. RT
C. A fall in the demand for the commodity TP
D. An equilibrium in the demand for the Use the table below to answer questions 20 and 21
commodity
Output Tota l Average Marginal
15. If the equilibrium price fo a certain commodity is In Units Revenue Revemie Revenue
N120.00 and the government fixes its price at N110.00 In # in # in #
the supply will be
A. Greater than the equilibrium supply 1 20 20 -
B. Smaller than the equilibrium supply 2 38 19 18
C. The same as the equilibrium supply 3 54 - 16
D. A determinant of the market forces of 4 68 - -
equilibrium 5 80 16 -
20. Given an output of 3 units, the average revenue is
16. If the price elasticity of demand for a certain commod A. N16.00 B. N18.00 C. N20.00 D. N24.00
ity is less than unity, then
A. An increase in the price of the commodity 21. Determine the marginal revenue if the total revenue is
will raise the total revenue of the producer N80.00
B. An increase in price leaves the total revenue A. N12.00 B. N14.00 C. N16.00 D. N18.00
unchanged
C. A decrease in price raises the total revenue 22. Which of the following functions does the wholesaler
of the supplier perform to save the retailer the burden of carrying
D. A decrease in price leaves the total revenue large stock?
constant I. Breaking the bulk
II. Packing the goods in smaller
17. containers
III. Providing vital information
IV. Granting credit facilities

A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III

D. I, II and IV
23. Production is said to be completed when rural area?
A. Goods and services reach the consumers A. The deregulation of the banking system
B. Prices of goods or services are determined B. The increase in the number of merchant
C. Goods are sold to the wholesaler banks
D. Goods are packaged C. The community banking scheme
D. The deregulation of interest rate
24. A debenture share entitles its holder to
A. Participate in the annual general meeting of 34. The sum of N80.000 is deposited in a bank and the
the company cash ratio of the banking system is 10%. Calculate
B. Share in the dividends declared the total sum of money the bank can create from the
C. Received a fixed interest on sums invested deposit
D. Have a representative on the Board of Directors A. N100.00 B. N800.00 C. N1 000.000
D. N8 000.000
25. A public liability company is different from private
limited company because it 35. Economic development is distinguishable from
A. Is registered with the Registrar of companies economic growth because the farmer
B. Is a l legal entity A. Is not concerned with growth parameters
C. Can raise capital of any size by way of loans B. Affects only the poor people
D. Can sell shares in the Stock Exchange C. Also includes and efficient distribution of
economic growth
26. A modern corporation is owned by D. Is an increase in the production of goods
A. Debenture holders and services
B. Ordinary shareholders
C. Preference shareholders D. Creditors 36. Which of the following can be considered as being
outside the objectives of public finance?
27. Wheat grows best in A. The allocation of resources to various
A. Tropical climate B. Temperate climate sectors of the economy
C. Equatorial climate D. Hot desert B. The objectives of even distribution of
income and wealth
28. On the basis of the contribution to employment, the C. The achievement of economic stability
most important economic sector in West Africa is D. The deregulation of the economy
A. Industry B. Agriculture
C. Construction D. Commerce 37. The joint ventures operating in the Nigeria oil
industry are between
29. The most popularly adopted industrialization strategy A. The NNPC and independent markers
in West Africa is B. The NNPC and multinational marketers
A. Import substitution B. Export promotion C. The NNPC and producers/marketers
C. Ports development D. Multinational corporations and independent
D. Infant industries protection marketers

30. One of the most important factors that should be 38. Which of the following are the major disadvantages
considered in the location of an industry is of direct system of taxation?
A. Nearness to the financial centre I Disincentive to hard work
B. Assured patronage by government function II. Difficulties in assessment and
aries collection
C. Availability of inputs and market III. Imperfections in tax assessment
D. Availability of adequate security
A. I and II B. I and III
31. Since the mid-1980s, the most disturbing development C. II and III D. I, II and III
in the industrial sector in Nigeria is
A. Labour intensity B. Capital intensity 39
C. Poor technology No Items Amount
D. Capacity under-utilization (Nm)
1. Wages and Salaries 380
32. The money market is a financial market that special 2 Profits a and Rents 110
izes in the provision of 3 Payments to foreigners on assets
A. Short-term loans and advances held in Nigeria 10
B. Medium-term loans
C. Long-term loans 4 Income from foreign assets held
D. Venture capital for development projects by Nigerians resident abroad 20
5 Depreciation 40
33. Which of the following programme in the monetary
sector is aimed at enhancing the banking habit of the Using the table above, calculate the net income
A. N58 m B. N54 m C. N50 m D. N46 m A. With the highest opportunity cost
B. For which output per worker is lower than in
40. According to the income approach to national income other countries
measurement, the national income of a country is C. With the lowest opportunity cost
equal to D. For which output per worker is the same with
A. The value of all output produced in the those fo other countries
country over the relevant period of time at
market prices 46. Devaluation is effective when
B. The value of output at factor cost A. Demand for imports is price inelastic
C. The value added of production B. Demand for imports is neutral
D. C+I +G C. Production for export is low
D. Demand for exports is price elastic
41. The best index for international comparison of
standards of living is the 47.

O u tp u t/u n em plo y m en t
A. Gross national product
B. Net national income
C. Per capita income
D. Gross national income

42. The G. D. P. of Nigeria will be greater than her G.N.P. If

A. The value of goods and services to Nigeria Output
is greater than the value of those from
Nigeria O Time
B. Consumption is greater than investment
C. Government expenditure are greater than the What type fo unemployment is revealed by the dotted
foreign aid received lines on the graph above?
D. The value of goods and services produced A. Frictional unemployment
by Nigerian businesses abroad is less than B. Cyslical unemployment
that of foreign businesses in Nigeria. C. Circular unemployment
D. Underemployment
43. Below equilibrium, the gap between aggregate demand and 48. From which of the following does Nigeria derive trade
the full employment lev4el of income is called the concessions?
A. Inflationary gap B. Income gap A. I. M. F. B. World Bank
C. Unemployment D. Deflationary gap C. A. D. B D. E.E.C.

44. Which of the following are the advantages of 49. Tariffs on imports are meant to
Nigeria’s membership of ECOWAS? A. Prevent a country from becoming a dumping
I. A greater opportunity for trade ground for foreign goods
according to comparative cost B. Discourage exports
advantage C. Encourage exports
II. A larger market for industries D. Increase the level of external dependency
producing under conditions of
decreasing cost 50. The international Bank for Reconstruction and
III. Competition for home based Development is important to developing countries
monopol firms because it
A. I and II only B. I and III only A. Gives loans to member countries for legal
C. II and III only D. I, II and III proceedings
B. Offers grants and aid for defence
45. Comparative advantage implies that a country will C. Offer loans to member countries for soci-
specialize in producing the commodity economic activities
D. Offers grants and aid to finance luxury
project

Economics 1994
1. The basic economic problems of the society include 2. Opportunity cost is an economic cost is an economic
A. What to produce, how and or whom concept which describes the
B. How to produce and sell A. Monetary equivalent of the utility of a commodity
C. Scarcity, when to produce and how B. Amount of time or money invested on a
D. Scarcity, for whom to produce and where commodity
C. Sacrifice made for the satisfaction of a want
D. Cost of retaining an optimum level of
production of commodities 9. The population fo country X in 1990 was 35 million.
The births were 450,000 while it recorded 210,00
3. If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 and the deaths. If in the same year, its immigrants were 20,000
investment expenditure changes from N100 million to and 10,000 of its citizens left the country, calculate the
N140 million in a given economy, find the level of total population of the country at the end of 1990.
equilibrium in te given economy, using the formula A. 24,250.00 B. 25,350.00
1___ C. 34,750.00 D. 35,250.00
K= 1-MPC
10. If the actual population in a country is less than the
( K = Multiplier; MPC = Marginal Propensity to optimum population, then
Consume) A. It is desirable to have a large population
A. N20 million B. N40 million C. N80 million B. It is necessary to have an improved technol
D. N200 million ogy to sustain the population
C. It is desirable to have smaller population
4. The circular flow of income defines the D. The available resources are inadequate to
A. Relationship between ends and means in the sustain the population
economic system
B. Allocation of income to various members of 11. Unemployment can be reduced by
the household A. Restricting the productive base of the
C. Flow of goods, serves and money among the economy
various `macro-sectors of the economy B. Adopting capital - intensive techniques of
D. Micro-economic relationship in economic production
analysis C. Adopting a mixture of labour and capital
intensive techniques of production
5. The necessity of choice is due to the fact that D. Adopting a mixture of labour and capital-
A. Human wants are insatiable intensive techniques of production
B. Consumer like to maximize satisfaction
C. Resources are abundant 12.
D. Consumer are selective Y
W
Capital goods

6. The graph above represents a production function. At

which of the points does diminishing returns set in? Z
N

M O N
Consumer goods
Production possibility curve of country X
If the economy of the country is operating X, the
implication is that
A. I B. J C. K D. L A. The productive capacity is being fully utilized
B. The productive capacity is not being fully utilized
7. In a mixed economy, decisions to produce are taken C. Too little of consumer goods is being produced
by D. There is a disequilibrium between the
A. Men and women acting in their own best production of capital and consumer goods
interest
B. The government acting in the interest of the 13. When the Total Product (TP) is at maximum point, the
country Marginal Product (MP) and the Average Product (AP)
C. The market women, the labour unions and respectively are
the employers association A. Zero and decreasing B. Decreasing and zero
D. Private individuals, organization and the C. Negative and decreasing D. Both at their maximum
government
14. In the long run, all production factors are
8. Every economy requires an accurate census because A. Fixed B. Semi-fixed C. Variable D. Semi-variable
it assists in
A. Solving inflation problem 15. A company’s expenditure on raw materials is regarded as
B. Proving a sound framework for policy A. Explicit cost B. Implicit cost
formulation C. Prime cost D. Average cost
C. Stimulating economic activities in the
national economy 16. The basic relationship between the cost of production
D. Solving unemployment problem and the market
A. Always reflects the cost of labour D. Set his price to maximize his profit
B. Reflects the variable, but not the fixed cost f
production 24. Cross elasticity of demand can be mathematically
C. Does not rise above variable costs expressed as the
D. Is determined by the cost of production and A. Percentage change in quantity of commodityX
the current rate of inflation Percentage change in quantity of commodity Y
17. A firm determines its profits when it studies its B. Percentage change in quantity demanded
A. Marginal Cost B. Average Cost percentage change in price
C. Total Cost C. Percentage change in quantity demanded of
D. Average Cost relative to price in the market commodity X
Percentage change in price of commodity Y
18. An increase in the supply of labour in a factory while D. Percentage change in quantity demanded
other things remain equal will lead to Percentage change in income
A. An increase in the wage rate and an increase
in the number of people employed 25. The basic idea behind brand differentiation under an
B. A decrease in the wage rate and a decrease imperfect market arrangement is to
in employment A. Stimulate demand for rival product
C. An increase in the wage rate and decrease in B. Create demand for the particular product
employment C. Enable the product to penetrate the market
D. A decrease in the wage rate and an increase D. Enable the product to compete with others
in employment
26. In the long run, a firm in a perfectly competitive
19. A demand which is positively related to price is true of market will make
A. Normal goods B. Giffen goods A. Normal profit B. Abnormal profit
C. Ostentatious goods D. Capital goods C. Marginal profit D. No profit

Use the table below to answer 20 and 21 27. Output restriction, fixing of prices, creating obstacles,
to free entry into the market are features of
Price in N Quantity demanded Quantity A. Pure monopoly
10 50 450 B. Perfect competition
20 150 350 C. Monopolistic competition
30 250 250 D. Monopsonist competition
40 350 150
50 450 50 28. A major shortcoming of the sole proprietorship form
of business is lack of

20. What is the equilibrium quantity? A. Working capital B. Patronage

A. 50 B. 250 C. 350 D. 450 C. Continuity D. Market

21. Above the equilibrium point, a further rise in price tends to 29. In the event of liquidation of a private limited liability
A. Increase demand and restrict supply company, t he shareholder’s liability is limited to their total.
B. Restrict demand and restrict supply A. Income from all source
C. Increase demand and decrease supply B. Family assets
D. Decrease demand and increase supply C. Collateral offered for bank loans
D. Investments in the company
22. Price (#) Quantity Sold
5 15 30. The major factor that causes fluctuations in the
5 16 supply of agricultural produce is
5 17 A. High price B. Pests
5 18 C. Weather variations D. Rural-urban migration

31. The system of agricultural practice which involves

From the table above, marginal revenue is hunting, gathering and growing of food crops for
A. N5 family consumption only is described as
B. N6 A. Peasant agriculture B.Plantation agriculture
C. N8 C. Co-operative farming
D. N10 D. Subsistence farming

23. Elasticity of demand is an effective tool in the hands 32. What is the term used to describe a policy aimed at
of a producer in that it enables him promoting the local production of goods which are
A. Raise his profits and lowers his cost usually imported?
B. Discourage buyers from cheating A. Deregulation B. Import substitution
C. Determine what he will produce C. Tariff reduction D. Backward integration
33. Labour-intensive strategy fo industrialization C. Economy policy D. Fiscal policy
emphasizes the use of
A. Stem B. Manual method of production 42. The national income of a country indicates that the
C. Synthetic raw materials D.Hydro-electric power gross national income was N17 700 million and gross
domestic product was N16 800 million. The difference
34. Petroleum is the mainstay of the Nigerian economy of N900 million represents
because it is the A. Debt repayments B. investments abroad
A. Main foreign exchange earner C. net income from abroad D. capital consumption
B. Greatest employer to labour
C. Greater contributors to the growth of agriculture 43. If national income rises by 6% and population rises
D. Source of high income for its workers by 3%, per capital income will
A. Rise by 6 percent B. Fall by 3 percent
35. An indigenous company wholly owned by the federal C. Fall by 6 percent D. Rise by 3 percent
government of Niger which currently engages in
prospecting for oil is 44. One of the ways by which the government can speed
A. The Nigerian National Oil Company up economic development is through the
B. Peak Petroleum Industries Nigeria Limited A. Increase in consumption pattern of the people
C. Nigeria Exploration and Production Company B. Encouragement of savings, investment and
D. The Nigeria National Petroleum Corporation equitable distribution of goods and services
C. Increase in the rate of population growth so
36. An increase both the legal reserve ratio and discount as to ensure that the country has a large
rate has the effect of labour force
A. Increasing the quantity of money in circula D. Encourage of importation of raw materials to
tion produce consumers goods
B. Decreasing the quantity of money in
circulation 45. A sustained increase in the production of goods and
C. Increasing the value of money services in a country is called economic
D. Decreasing the value of money A. Development B. Growth C. Diversification
D. Planning
37. Inflation in the Nigeria economy bay be fueled by increase in
A. The dollar price of crude oil 46. One of the techniques for rectifying a deficit balance
B. The sale of company share of payment is
C. Government expenditure A. Import promotion B. Devaluation
D. Sale of government bond C. Physical intervention D. Borrowing from abroad

38. Gresham’s law in economic shows that 47. The main objective of the Economic Community of
A. Good money drives out bad money West African State is to
B. Bad money drivers out good money A. Establish a West African Development Bank
C. The value of money varies inversely with the B. Create a West African army
price level C. Introduce a common currency for the sub-
D. Gold must be available to maintain the value region
of paper money D. Promote the free movement of persons,
goods and services within the sub-region
39. Monetary policy aimed at reducing demand-pull
inflation in the country may be carried out through 48. In international trade, shipping and other freight
A. Increase in taxation of private companies, charges are treated as
public corporation and private individuals A. Invisible items B. Unilateral transfers
B. Increase in cash reserve ratio of commercial C. Capital transactions
banks and the sales of government securities D. Autonomous capital transactions
C. Decrease in government expenditure on
education 49. A situation in which a commodity is sold abroad
D. Direct price control in the market place below its cost fo production in the home country is
known is
40. Progressive tax structure is designed to A. Dumping B. Counter trade C. Bilateral trade
A. Take more from the income of the poor D. Trade liberalization
B. Take more from the income of the rich
C. Take equal proportion of income from both 50. The borrowing rights of a member country of the
the rich and the poor international Monetary Fund are determined by
D. Reduce the problems emanating from tax A. The seriousness of the country’s economic
impositon problems
B. Its balance of payments position
41. Taxes and government expenditures are instruments of C. Its quota to the Fund
A. Monetary policy B. Tax policy D. The size of its gold reserve
Economics 1995
1. The ultimate objective of economics is to 7. An ageing population is a population
A. make effort to understand how the economy A. with a high dependency ratio
works B. with many young people
B. make the best use of scarce resources C. in which the number of old person is
C. organize production at the lowest cost increasing
D. decide under what circumstances in the D. that is dominated by very old people
economy
8,. The population of Ohaha L.G.A. Was 480 000 in
2. December 1980 out of which 60% were females . If
within one years no births were recorded ,but 5% of
the males died, what will be the population of the
L.G.A. In December 1981?
A. 96000 B. 192 000 C. 288 000 D. 470 400

9. What is meant by labour supply?

A. Number of people in working population
B. Number of men and hour they work
In the circular flow of income above, the direction of C. Number of hours during which the middle
flow of payments for consumption purchases is aged persons works
shown by the arrow D. Number of work force multiplied by the
A. K B. L C. M D. N hours they work

3. A student in Obu’pu Secondary School discover that 10. The advantage which firms obtain directly from
he simultaneously needs a biro, an exercise book, an expanding their operations are referred to as
eraser and a ruler, but that he can purchase only one A. Internal economies of scale
of these items. What is the first thing he is expected B. External economics of scale
to do? C. Economies of localization
A. Check how much money he has D. Economies of resource allocation
B. Find out which is the cheapest of the items
C. Draw up a scale of preference 11. The factor of production that has the highest degree
D. Weigh the opportunity cost of each item of mobility is
against the others. A. land B. labour C. capital D.entrepreneurship

4. What to produce in any society is determined by the 12. Any payment to a factor of production in excess of
A. expenditure of the people on different what is necessary to keep that factor in its present
commodities employment is known as
B. competition among the different producers A. real income B. profit
C. competition among the difference consum C. economic rent D. real wage
ers’
D. supply and demand in the factor markets 13. No of workers Total Output (Units)
1 24
5. The active intervention of the central authorities in 2 46
the management of a country’s economy rests upon 3 60
the 4 84
A. failure of the market forces to produce 5 95
satisfactory 6 110
B. superiority of the centrally planned economy 7 115
over/the private enterprise economy
C. result-oriented nature of the private In the table above, the marginal product of the 2nd
enterprise economy worker and the average product of the 5th worker
D. cost-minimization strategy of a mixed respectively are
economy A. 23 and 20 B. 22 and 19 C. 14 and 19 D.11 and 20

6. The problems of conducting census include 14. Given that TC = TFC + TVC and TR = AR X Q profit is
A. high rate of rural-urban migration equal to
B. poor geographical distribution of population A. (AR + Q) - TFC
C. high birth rate in the country B. (TFC + TVC)
D. poor town planning in urban areas Q
C. (AR X Q) - TC AC
D. (TC X Q) Price MC
AR
P1 T
15. The opportunity cost of the use of productive P2 S
resources which a producer owns and so does not R
P3
pay for, constitutes P4 M
A. a fixed cost B. an implicit cost D
C. a variable cost D. a prime cost MR
Q1 Q2 Q3 Qty
16. The effect of changes in the condition of demand on a A. OQ1MP4 B. P4MTP1 C. OQ1TP1
demand schedule with the price constant is a D. OQ2SP2
A. movement along the demand curve
B. deflation of the demand curve 24. Stocking small quantities of a variety of goods is a
C. hyperbola formation by the demand curve function of the
D. shift of the demand curve A. manufacturer B. wholesaler
C. retailer D. consumer
17. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the
effect of changes in demand and supply on price? 25. In a joint stock company, preference shareholder are
A. Adecrease in supply will lead to a fall in those who receive
price and a fall in the quantity bought an A. high dividends when profits are high and
sold little or nothing when profits are low
B. An increase in demand will lead to a fall in B. a fixed rate of dividend and ha ve the first
price and in the quantity bought an soled claim on the net profits of the company
C. A decrease in demand will lead to a rise in C. the remaining profits after all other share
price and in the quantity bought an sold holders have been paid
D. An increase in supply will lead to a fall in D. dividends quarterly when others receive
price and a rise in the quantity bought and annually
sold
26. The major reason for the survival of small shops
18. In a free market economy, available resources are more despite competition from large business enterprises is
efficiently allocated by complete reliance on because of
A. development planning B. strategic planning A. the small capital outlay involved
C. capital budgeting D. price system B. regularity and constant supply of commodi
ties
19. In order to maximize his profit, a businessman who C. their local services and longer hours of
faces a very clastic demand for his products is operation
advised to D. they take prompt decisions and actions
A. slightly increase the price of his products
B. slightly reduce the price of his products 27. One of the major advantages of public enterprises it
C. leave his prices unchanged that
D. discriminate his prices A. they are highly subsidized
B. they are the largest employers of labour
20. What is the elasticity of demand for commodity X, if C. their operations are highly standardized
at a price of N25 the quantity demanded is 80 and D. they take prompt decisions and actions
when the price is reduced to N20 the quantity
demanded is 100? 28. When public enterprises become commercialized it
A. 1.25 B. 1.45 C. 0.25 D. 0.15 means that
A. the product of the enterprises are further
21. If y represents the income earned by workers in a subsidized
factory, find the range of their income which satisfies B. they are expected to operate with the
the following inequality 4y-300>500 primary aim of making profits
A. y > 300 B. Y > 250 C. y > 200 D. Y > 150 C. the government has decided to divest itself
of such enterprises
22. Both in the short run and in the long run, a firm D. th e staff of the enterprises will be laid off
maximizes its profits when
A. MC = MR B. AC = MC C. AVC = AC 29. Which of th e following statements are TRUE of
D. MC = AVC agriculture in Nigeria?
I it provides food for the growing
23. population
II a large proportion of the popula
tion is engaged in
III agricultural products are used as
raw materials by the local industries A. when the inflation rate is high and the
IV it serves as a sources of heavy economy is experience a boom
equipment to local industries B. of economic depression accompanied by low
A. I and II only B. I, II and III only capacity utilization
C. I, III and IV only D. II and III only C. when trade unions are clamouring for higher
wages
30. In recent times, agriculture in Nigeria tends to lose its D. when the price of crude petroleum is rising
vital labour force as a result of
A. lack of an effective agricultural policy 38. The sharp increases in the prices of most goods and
B. employment opportunities in the oil sector services during the last quarter of 1994in Nigeria were
C. rural-urban drift mainly due to
D. low prices of agricultural product A. ban on importation of foreign good
B. population upsurge
31. The government can influence the price of agriculture C. the introduction value-added tax
products by D. increase in transport costs
A. fixing minimum prices when agricultural
output is low 39. The best method to curb inflation in Nigeria is to
B. fixing maximum prices in years of bumper A. reduce important of commodities
harvests B. increase the general level of production
C. the use of buffer stocks an stabilization C. reduce the volume of money supply
funds D. set up price control boards
D. paying all farmers producing identical crops
a uniform amount of money 40. A bank is said to be distressed when it
A. is unable to deal with the Central Bank
32. The crucial factors which determine the location of B. has a low capital base
petroleum refineries in Nigeria are availability of raw C. has low level of deposits
materials and D. experiences serious liquidity crisis
A. capital B. political consideration
C. nearness to source of power D. labour 41. One method through which the Central Bank can
restrict the commercial banks’ power of credit
33. Infant industries denote industries which expansion is to
A. are introducing new products A. demand for increase special deposits
B. are too young to compete in the world B. decrease the cash ratio
market C. buy securities in the open market
C. produce baby food and mothercare products D. reduce the rate of interests at which banks
D. are allowed time enough to mature for borrow from it
recognition
42. Which of the following is cheapest for the govern
34. When compare with a labour-intensive industry, a ment in improving the welfare of its citizens?
capital-intensive industry employers more A. subsidy B. income supplement
A. workers than capital C. donation to specific projects
B. workers than machinery D. wage increase
C. raw material than capital
D. machinery than workers 43. Which of the following is mostly used to determine
the cost of living?
35. The major source of Nigeria’s foreign exchange is the A. marginal changes in prices
export of B. consumer price index
A. skilled manpower B. palm-kernel and cocoa C. prices of imported and exported commodities
C. crude oil D. groundnuts and cotton D. producer price index
Use the diagram below to answer questions 44 and 45.
The diagram explains the effect of government’s
36. The most important goal of OPEC is to imposition of an indirect tax on a good characterized
A. present a united front for the purpose of by zero price elasticity of demand
raising prices of crude oil
Price (p)
B. bring unity among the petroleum exporting D S1
states
C. ensure political stability among member P1 E S0
states
D. ensure that rules on quota production are P2 D1 H
strictly followed
S1
S0 D
37. The Central Bank’s expansionary monetary policy is Q0
O Quantity (Q)
justified at a period
44. The total tax revenue is represented by
A. P1EHP0 B. P0HQPO 48. The demands made on each other by the agricultural
C. P1EQ0O D. P1ED1P0 and industrial sectors as the economy grows are
reflected in
45. The tax imposed is borne A. backward and forward linkages
A. totally by the consumer B. horizontal and vertical linkages
B. totally by the producer C. vertical linkages
C. equally by both the consumer and the producer D. functional linkages
D. by the government
49. Foreign exchange rate in a free market economy is
46. Ajanka, a medical student entitled to an annual determined by
allowance of N6 000, decides to leave the university A. The government B. The Central Bank
to take up a job where he earns N7 000 per annum. By C. Demand and supply D. Commercial banks
this singular act, the national income level will.
50. The primary objective of all international economic
A. increase by N1 000 B. decrease by N7 000 organizations is to
C. increase by N7 000 D. increase by N13 000 A. ensure that third world countries get a better
share of the worlds’ resources
47. An increasing population might be of economic B. promote international economic co-operation
benefit to a country if for the mutual benefit of all members
A. the female population is greater than the C. enforce structural adjustment programmes
male population on less developed countries
B. the dependency ratio is increasing as the a D. encourage exports from the developed to the
continuously total population less developed countries
C. a continuously higher proportion falls into
the working class category
D. the rural and urban proportions are bal
anced

Economics 1997
1. With a given level of money income, a consumer latter is characterized by complete private
maximizes satisfaction from the consumption of goods ownership.
and services when he B. in the former, prices act as signals in the
A. total utility derived from each good or allocation of resources, it is the central
service is increasing at an increasing rate authority that performs this function in the
B. marginal utility derived from each good or latter
service is increasing at the same rate C. taxes are levied in a capitalist economy there
C. marginal utility derived per naira spent is the is not taxation in a socialist economy
same for all the goods and services D. income and wealth are equally distributed in
D. total utility derived from all the goods and the socialist economy, this is not so in a
services is large. capitalist economy

2. Ike’s scale of preference reveals that he prefers 5. Given that at the beginning of 1973, Nigeria with a
bananas to pawpaw, pawpaw to oranges and oranges population of 75 million had a birth rate of 3% per
to bananas. Ike’s preferences are therefore annum. This implies that in that year.
A. inconsistent B. consistent A. the population increased by 2.25 million
C. transitive D. rational B. there were 2.25 million live births
C. the government had to make provisions for
3. One of the features of a free market economy is that 2.25 million children
A. resources are directed by the price mechanism D. 2.25 million children were born.
B. workers do not earn equal wages
C. the profit motive is severely constrained 6. When a country’s population is experiencing increas
D. decision on the economy are taken by ing returns, that country is said to be
bureaucratic structures A. overpopulated B. economically poor
C. over producing goods and services
4. One of the fundamental differences between a D. underpopulated
capitalist and a socialist economy is that while
A. the former is characterized by complete 7. In a country, if the proportion of people who are
government ownership of resources, the below 15 years is 45% and those above 60 years is
30%,this implies that the 13. Graph
costs IV
A. Dependency ratio is high
B. Population is optimum
III
C. Active population is large
D. Population is growing according to Malthus II
theory

8. One of the objectives of Nigeria’s current population

policy is to
A. reduce the birth rate I
B. reduce the emigration rate
Quantity of
C. increase the birth rate output per period
D. enhance longevity
In the diagram above, the curve which represents the
9. Labour productivity is the ratio of firm’s short-run average variable cost is curve
A. Labour to output B.Man-hours to output
C. Output to man-hours A. I B. II C III D. IV
D. Average products to man-hours
14. A good is said to be inferior if its demand
10. The type of cost which has to be covered for a firm to A. rises as income rises
continue production in the short-run is the B. falls as income rises
A. Overhead cost B. Fixed cost C. rises as its price falls
C. Marginal cost D. Average variable cost D. is perfectly inelastic

Use the diagram below to answer question 11 and 12 15. Given a market demand curve Q = 120 - 2p and a
supply curve Q = 4 p, the equilibrium price and
Consumer quantity respectively are
goods A. 20 and 80 B. 30 and 120 C. 40 and 60
D. 60 and 240

16. If a demand curve that intersects a perfectly inelastic

supply curve shifts rightward, then
A. the equilibrium price and quantity will
increase
B. only the price will increase
C. only the quantity will increase
D. the price will remain constant
17. The elasticity of demand for a firm’s product 2. If the
II firm reduces its prices its price by 20 per cent, its sales
I
revenue will increase by
Capital goods A. 10 per cent B. 20 per cent
C. 30 per cent D. 40 per cent
The current stage of the economy is depicted in curve I
18. If the percentage change in the income of the
11. Point P suggests that the economy is consumers of an industrial product is less than the
A. reaching full employment but not full resulting percentage change in the quantity de
production manded of the product, then the income elasticity of
B. attaining full production but not full demand for the product is
employment A. lees than one B. equal to one
C. under capitalized C. greater than one D. equal to zero
D. attaining both full employment and full
production 19. A market where there are many differentiated products
is called
12. The movement of curve I to II suggest A. monopoly B. perfect competition
A. an improvement capital goods technology C. monopolistic competition D. oligopoly
but not in consumer goods technology
B. a movement from unemployment to full
employment
C. that the output for the society has declined
D. a gain in consumer goods technique and not
in capital goods technique
B. a price fall results in its fall
Cost C. a price fall results in its rise
SMC
D. a price rise leaves the income unchanged

27. Plywood industries are often located near the source of

M E F A. finance B. labour
AR = MR = P C. power D. raw materials

N 28. A firm is said to have benefited from external econom

G H ics in production if it has realized
A. a more efficient management of resources
B. a better combination of factors of produc
tion
Quantity C. reduced resource costs due to operations of
other firms
D. a higher profits level due to increase sales
20. From the diagram above, the quantity of
output is determined by the point 29. One of the dangers of the localization of industries
A. M B. N C. H D. F A. residual unemployment
B. mass unemployment
21. The best channel of distribution of baked bread is C. structural unemployment
through D. cyclical unemployment
A. wholesalers to retailers then to consumers
B. direct sales to consumers 30. A glut in the world market for crude oil means
C. wholesalers to consumers A. a fall in crude oil production
D. retailers to consumers B. an excess supply of crude petroleum
C. a higher crude oil price offered by the buyer
22. A form of business organization which is character D. a higher crude oil price demanded by the
ized by limited authority and liability of the individual seller
owners is the
A. sole proprietorship B. partnership 31. The main problem of the Organization of Petroleum
C. joint stock company Exporting Countries is how to
D. co-operative society A. prevent members from violating their quota
B. enhance the quality of petroleum products
23. The shares that must be redeemed first at liquidation C. compete with he North Sea Producers
of a company are D. ensure viable crude reserves
A. preference shares
B. non-voting ordinary shares 32. The most important attribute of money is
C. ordinary shares A. homogeneity B. relative scarcity
D. debentures C. divisibility D. general acceptability

24. The suggestion that peasants in Africa have back 33. Which of the following is inflationary?
ward-bending supply curves of output implies that A. an increase in taxation
their response to an increase in the price of their B. an increase in savings
crops will be to C. a decrease in money supply
A. increase their output D. an increase in government expenditure
B. decrease their output
C. keep their output constant 34. In commercial banking, an account from which the
D. hoard their output customer cannot withdraw money instantly is

25. The most important requirement for increasing A. demand deposit account
agricultural output in Nigeria is B. tme deposit account
A. for a government to go into large scale C. special deposit account
farming D. savings deposit account
B. to employ relevant foreign technology and
reform the land tenure system 35. Banks can create more money by
C. to increase farmer’s incomes and improve A. increasing its cash ratio with the Central
the farming techniques Bank
D. to employ more extension workers B. issuing more bank cheques
C. accepting more deposits from customers
26. What is the effect of inelastic demand for agricultural D. lending out money from customers’ deposits
products on the income of a farmer?
A. a price rise results in its fall 36. Stocks and shares as well as bonds are examples of
instruments used in the
A. commodity markets B. money markets 44. The major determinant of the total volume of output in
C. capital markets D. security markets an economy is the
A. level of wholesale prices
37. The use of legally permissible means to reduce tax B. dize of the labour force
liabilities is known as tax C. level of total expenditure
A. evasion B. avoidance D. composition of consumer spending
C. relief D. exemption 45. The most important factor in ensuring economic
development is the
38. The greatest proportion of government revenue in A. effective mobilization of domestic savings
Nigeria comes from B. presence of foreign capital
A. export of raw materials C. formulation of appropriate government
B. income taxes on individuals and businesses policies
C. customs duties and excise taxes D. attraction of foreign aids and grants
D. loans and grants from industrially advanced
countries 46. Which of the following classes of goods accounts for
the largest proportion of Nigeria’s imports?
39. One of the factors which is likely to check the growth A. food and animal products
of public debts is B. consumer goods
A. bridging the resources gap C. chemicals
B. debt repudiation D. machinery and transport equipment
C. debt rescheduling
C. debt-equity swap 47. Counter trading is an international arrangement whereby
A. goods and services are exchanged in a
40. If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.75 and manner similar to barter
private investment increases by N10 billion while B. goods and services are sold on the counter
government expenditure decrease by N15 billion, GDP C. crude oil is sold to a foreign country
will decrease by D. goods are shipped to countries on which the
A. N12 billion B. N15 billion C.N 20 billion United Nations has placed a trade embargo
D. N 25 billion
48. In recent years, Nigeria’s balance of payments has
41. Given: Investment = N100 million continued to register a deficit due to
Consumption = N200m + 0.75 Y I. Increased government overseas’
Y = C+ I spending
II. Increasing prices of exports
Where, Y = Income, C = Consumption and I = III. Rising import prices
Investment IV. More payments to overseas’
investors
What is the income level to the nearest million? A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV
A. N100 million C. N 1 000 million C. I, III and IV D. II, III and IV
B. N300 million D. N1 200 million 49. The organization which provide credits to help
countries achieve short-term balance in their balance
42. The total money values of all goods and services of payments is the
produced in a country during a certain period is A. economic Community fo West African State
measured by using the B. international Monetary Fund
A. Income method C. Output method C. international Bank for Reconstruction and
B. Expenditure method D. Factor method development
D. african Development Bank
43. Privatization of government-owned companies means the
A. relinquishing of government’s equity 50. An important feature of a cartel is that
participation to private individuals A. members do no reduce price below the cartel
B. recapitalization of distressed government - price
owned companies B. each member has a fixed output above which
C. joint participation of government and private it is not expected to produce
individuals C. a powerful member fixes the price at which
D. commercialization and deregulation of the others will sell
economy D. members fix the prices for their products
Economics 1998
1. 6. The dependency ratio between 1960 and 1990 is
Goods Y A. Increased by 5% B. Increased by 2%
P
C. Decreased by 2% D. Decreased by 5%

N M 7. In 1990, the difference between the dependent

population and the active population ration is
A. 22% B. 20% C. 16% D. 4%

O L Goods X 8. The short-run period in produce is defined as a period when

A. L B. M C. N D. P A. there is at least one fixed factor
B. all costs of production must be covered
In the diagram above, full employments is indicated by C. the output cannot be varied
D. current output is not profitable
2. Units of consumption marginal utility
of commodity X (units) 9. Specialization often improves economic performance
1 100 because it
2 80 A. Permits exploitation of economies of scale
3 50 B. Incorporates external economies
4 20 C. Is based on the law of variable proportions
D. Allocate resources according to absolute
From the table above, the total utility for the indi advantage
vidual who consumea 3 units fo commodity X is
A. 50 units C. 230units 10. Which of the following statements best describes the
B. 150 units D. 250 units relationship between average product and marginal
product?
3. One of economic problems of Nigeria today arises from A. Marginal product and average product
A. The overutilization of human an natural curves rise and fall together
resources B. Marginal product equals average product at
B. Inavailability of mineral resources the minimum point of the latter
C. Inadequate manpower resources C. Average product curve will rise as long as
D. The underutilization of human and natural marginal product is greater than average
resources product
D. Marginal product equals average product at
4. In certain circumstances, a centrally planned economy the maximum point of the former
adopts the rationing system because of
A. The scarcity of goos and services in the 11. Total output Fixed cost Variable cost
market (Units) (#) (#)
B. Low real and money wages 100 100 100
C. The need for equitable distribution of goods 120 100 110
and service 160 100 120
D. Transportation and distribution problems 200 100 140
240 100 160
5. Given that
B = Births X = Emigrants The average total cost when output is 200 units in the
D = Deaths M = Immigrants table above is
The population of a country over a period of time will A. N1.00 B. N1.20 C. N1.40 D. N2.40
rise if
A. A = D and X > m B. B-D =O and M >X 12. When a firm is reaping economies of large-scale
C. D -B =O and m = x D. X > M and D > B production, it experiences a fall in its
A. Long-run marginal cost
Use the table below to answer question 6 and 7 B. Long-run average cost
C. Long-run total cost
.Population Statistics of a Country D. Short-run marginal cost
Age range in % of population
years 1960 1990
60 and above 35 38
18 - 59 40 42
1 - 17 25 20
P
13.
P S
Price
19.
MC AC
P2

P MR
P1

S P
O N KL F Quantity
Q Q
In the diagram above, the price P2 in price control In the diagram above, profit is maximized at the output level
situation, is referred to as A. ON C. OL
A. Minimum price B. Mark -up price B. OK D. OF
C. Maximum price D. Mark-down price
20. Unlike the retailer, the wholesale provides
14. P A. Useful information to the manufacturer about
consumers’ taste
D B. After sales service to the consumer
C. Useful information to the customers on the
benefits and uses of the product
D. Useful information about market trends and
P1
Finance to the manufacturer
D 21. Liquidation of a limited liability company implies that the
Q Q1 Q A. Company may not pay its debt
The shaded triangle in the diagram above is known as B. Debts of the company can only be paid from
its own assets
A. Excess supply B. Consumer surplus C. Debts of the company are paid from both
C. Excess consumption D. Producer surplus business and private funds of the owners
S1 D. Debts of the company must be paid from
15. D1 public funds only
S0

D0 22. One form of business organization which is not

motivated solely by the profit objective is the
A. Joint stock company
B. Private limited company
C co-operative society
S1 D1
D. Ordinary partnership
S0
D0 23. Which of the following can have their shares quoted
O on the stock exchange?
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Quantity
A. Public corporations
In the diagram above, D0D0 is the original demand B. A partnership
curve, S0S0 is the original supply curve, D1D1 is the C. A consumer co-operative
new demand curve S1S1 is the is the new supply D. A public limited liability company
curve. What is the new equilibrium quantity?
A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. Q4 24. The sector that employs the largest proportion of the
active labour force in Nigeria
16. If an increase in the price of a commodity leads to A. Oil sector B. Federal civil service
increase in total revenue, then it means that the C. Financial sector D. Agricultural sector
demand for this commodity is
A. Normal B. Elastic C. Inelastic D. Abnormal 25. An entirely domestic effort directed at improving
agricultural production in Nigeria is the
17. Given that the elasticity of demand for a commodity is A. Agricultural Development Programme
2.5, the percentage change in the quantity demanded B. Agro-industrial Development Scheme
as a result of a 10 percent change in its prices is C. Food and Agricultural Organization
A. 0.25 B. 0.40. C. 4.00 D. 25.00 D. National Land Development Authority

18. The producer in a perfectly competitive market is face 26. A factor that influences the location of a firm near its
with a demand curve whose elasticity is market is the
A. Unitary B. Greater than one C. Infinite A. Transportation of bulky raw materials
D. Less than one B. External economies
C. High cost of transporting finished goods
D. Availability of skilled manpower
27. In many developing countries, infrastructural problem D. Reduction in total tax revenue
is acute due tot he shortage of
A. Industries and industrial equipment 37. When an indirect tax is levied on the producer of a
B. Savings, investment and consumption good, the burden on the consumer will depend largely
C. Natural resources for development on the
D. Supporting services that encourage eco A. Elasticity of demand for the good
nomic activities B. Proportion of the consumer’s income spent
on the goods
28. Export-promotion policy is primarily concerned with the C. Elasticity of demand and supply of the commodity
A. Processing of raw materials to increase their D. Availability of substitutes for the commodity
value
B. Making of international routes safe for 38. If a government wants to reduce the level of inflation, it will
export commodities A. Run a budget surplus
C. Reduction in the number of imported items B. Run a budget deficit
D. Encouragement of the production of export C. Run a balance budget
commodities D. Borrow more money

29. The petroleum industry in Nigeria is 39. In a country’s national income increased from N1000
A. The sole source of the nation’s revenue billion to N1100 billion over a period of 2 years, what
B. The oldest industry in the country was the average annual rate of growth of national
C. The mainstay of the economy income over the period?
D. A factor in the decline in the nation’s foreign A. 5% B. 15% C. 20% D. 100%
reserves
40. A fall in the marginal propensity to save will lead to
30. Crude petroleum is a good example of a A. A decrease in national income
A. Lasting asset B. Wasting asset B. An increase in national income
C. Synthetic product D. Costless resource C. No change in national income
D. An increase in disposable income
31. One of the techniques of monetary control used by
the Central Bank of Nigeria is 41. Which of the following is a transfer payment?
A. Selective credit control A. Dividend to a shareholder
B. Budget deficit B. Gift to a motherless Babies’s Home
C. Foreign exchange control C. Salary to a worker
C. Monitoring the general rice level D. Rent to a landlord

32. Which of the following is true about the value of money? 42. The major objective of economic growth is to
A. It varies inversely with the price level A. Redistribute income and other benefits of growth
B. It varies directly with the price level B. Equalize opportunities for education and
C. It depreciates in the period of deflation employment
D. It is not affected by the price level C. Increase the aggregate expenditure on goods
and services
33. If the reserve requirement for commercial banking in D. Increase the real per capita income
Nigeria were 30%, a commercial bank which receives
an initial cash deposit of N3 000 is in a position to lend out 43. The Family Support Programme in Nigeria essentially
A. N9 000 B. N3 330 C. N2 770 D. N2 100 focuses on
A. The generation of employment
34. An issue of bank-notes not backed by gold but by B. The alleviation of poverty
government securities is known as C. Agricultural and industrial development
A. Fiduciary issue B. Guaranteed money D. Economic emancipation of women
C. Seigniorage D. Legal tender
44. Economically, underdeveloped countries are charac
35. A rise in the market price of fixed interest securities is terized by
an indication that the A. High rate of population growth and low rate
A. Supply of money has decreased of economic growth
B. Liquidity preference has increased B. High rate of economic growth and low rate of
C. Market rate of interest has risen population growth
D. Market rate of interest has fallen C. High rate of population growth and high rate
of economic growth
36. An increase in government expenditure will lead to D. Low rate of population growth and low rate
A. Investment opportunities for foreign of economic growth
investors
B. An increase in the level of aggregate demand 45. One of the major consequences of urban-biased
C. An increase in total tax revenue development programmes in Nigeria is that they
A. Led to rapid rural-urban migration 48. If a country has a balance of payments surplus on
B. Led to unprecedented urban wealth current accounts, this means that
C. Transformed rural areas into urban centre A. The total invisible export is greater than
D. Increased the level of specialized manpower invisible import
in the cities B. The value of goods exported must be greater
than the value of goods imported
46. Development plans have not been successful in some C. There must be a positive balance on capital
developing countries largely because of account
A. Very large working population D. The aggregate of the balance of trade and
B. Increasing level of consumption the invisible balance must be positive
C. Scarcity of industrial raw materials
D. Shortage of skilled labour and experts 49. If a country operates a freely floating exchange rate
system, and suffers a balance of payments deficit, the
47. The balance of visible trade is the difference between deficit can be eliminated through
the value of A. A rise in the external value of its currency
A. Imported and exported goods B. A fall in the external value of its currency
B. Imported and exported services C. An increase in the volume of imports
C. Current account and capital account D. The consumption of more foreign goods
D. Exchange rate of local and foreign currencies 50. The Economic Commission for Africa was set up by the
A. UNO B. ECOWAS C. OAU
D. IMF

Economics 1999
1. In a firm three employees earn N5,500 each, four earn 6. Period 1 Period 2
N3,300 each, two earn N5,000 each and one earns
N7,000. The mean income of the employees is Family income N1,OOO, N1,500
A. N5,200 B. N4,760
C. N4,670 D. N2,080 Expenditure on clothing N100, N 200

2. Abubakar has the choice of buying either a house or

a Mercedes Benz car for N1.5m plus NO.5m running
cost. If he decides to buy the Mercedes Benz car, his In the table above, the income elasticity of clothing is
opportunity cost is A. N1.5m B. N2.0m C. the house D. A. 0.5 B. 2.0 C. 2.5 D. 5.0
the car
7. A capitalist economy is one characterized by the
3. The shape of a production possibility frontier is A. private ownership of factors of production
determined by the B. ownership of factors of production by rich
A. increasing relative costs Members of the society
B. returns to scale C. use of capital and labour in fixed proportions during
C. diminishing returns to a fixed factor production
D. increasing returns to a variable factor. D. use of capital intensive methods of production

4. Normative economics deals with 8. In a planned economy, what shall be produced is

A. what is and not what should be determined primarily by
B. facts and not figures A. what the consumer wants
C. facts and figures B. government decisions
D. value judgements C. price mechanism
D. the pattern of consumer spending.
5. The determinants of elasticity include
A. price time and availability of alternatives. Use the diagram below to answer questions 9 and 10
B. technology and cost of production
C. time and availability of alternatives Do and SO are initial demand and supply curves with
D. price, time and technological changes.. equilibrium at E1. Other supply and demand curves
with equilibrium points are indicated.
D2 S1 B. ensure equitable distribution of income and
Price (P) D0 S0 wealth
C. determine the demand for and the supply of
D1 E6 S2 goods and services
E3 E4 D. remove all the constraints on production of
E8 E5
E1 goods and services.
E7 E2
E9
16. S/No. Sector No. of People
I Agnculture,
foreslry and fishing 10, 050
Quantity (Q) ll. Mining and quarrying 1, 500
III. Transport and communication 2, 000 000
IV. Manufacturing 1, 750, 000
9. Points E6 and Es are respectively equilibra points for
V. Basic construction 750,000
A. DO and S0; Do and S2 B.D1 and S2; D2 and S0 VI. Distributive 3,000,000
C. D2 and S1;D2 and S2 D. D2 and S0; D0 and S2 Vll. Administration 1,250,000

10. Identify the three important factors that can make 80 Calculate the total number of people engaged in,
to become either S1 or S2. tertiary production from the data above.
A. Technology, weather and population A. 5 000 000 B. 6250000
B. Technology, price and tastes C. 11 750 000 D. 12250000
C. Weather, price and technology
D. Population, weather and tastes 17. One of the characteristics of an imperfect market is
the
11. D0 A. large number of buyers and sellers in the market
D S0
S1
D1 S B. awareness of market conditions by buyers
C. availability of substitutes
P0 P0
D. heterogeneity of products.
P1 P1
D0
S0 D 18. A characlerislic of the average fixed cost is that, it
S D1
S1
A. rises and falls faster than the marginal cost
O q0 q1 O q0 q1 B. is V-shaped and intersects the price axis
C. is always higher than the average variable
The graphs above illustrate cost
A. joint demand B. derived demand D. falls continuously but is never equal to zero
C. composite demand
D. competitive demand. 19. In perfect competition, every firm is a price
A. makerB. taker C. giver D. bidder.
In the diagram above, the consum.er equilibrium at point
A. G B. H C. J D. K. 20. Given that the total fixed cost is HI 000, lotal variable
cost N2 500 and the output, 100 unit Find the
13. A utility maximizing household will allocate its expenditure so average lotal cost of producing one unit.
that A. N60 B. N45
A. more naira is spent on commodities with the C. N35 D. N30
highest utility
B. less naira is spent on commodities with the 21. Which of the following falis continuously as output
loweSt utility expands?
C. the utility of the last naira spent on each A.. A verage fixed cost. it B. Marginal cost.
commodity is equal C. Average variable cost D. Averagc cost
D. the amount spent on each commodity is
equal. 22. A major obstacle to rapid agricultural development in
Nigeria is the
14. The downward sloping part of the long-run average A. ineffective use of crude implements
cost curve of a firm may be attributable to B. inabilily or farmers to adopt modem technology
A. diminishing returns C. introduction of the Green Revolulion prograrnme
B. the law of variable proportions D. declining population growth rate.
C. diseconomies of scale
D. increasing returns to scale. 23. The land tenure system in Nigeria impedes
agricultural Production because .
15. The main function of price in the economic system if is to A. land fragmentation makes possible easy access to
A. allocate scarce resources among competing land ownership
uses B. in discourages specialization of factors of production
C. it limits opportunity for mass production of A. an opportunity cost B. an economic rent
agricultural goods C. transfer eamings D. surplus value
D. small landholders generally do not get
enough fertilizers to use. 32. No Items Amount
(Nm)
24. The major problems of cooperative Societies in 1. Wages 9000
Nigeria is that. 2. Salaries 7000
A .they oftenlack cohension and continuity 3 Government
B. their liability is unlimited to members pensions 1500
C. voting is by proxy 4 Unemployment pay
D. their management style is poor. and other social
bene fits 1000
25. The primary objective of establishing the Export 5. Rent and interest 1500
Processing Zone is to 6. Profits 1500
A. facilitate agricultural production
B. encourage the production and processing of From the table above calculate the national income.
export commodities A. N18,500 m B. N19,OOO m
C. erect structures that will facilitate the C. N19,500 m D. N20,500m
processing of imported raw materials
D. erect economic structures near the port 33. National income at factor cost means national income
at
26. The first petroleum exploring company to discover A. current prices B. nomi nal prices
crude petroleum in Nigeria was C. last year price D. pricesbase year
A. Mobil B. Texaco
C. Agip D. Shell-BP. 34. The value of the multiplier depends on
A. MPC and level of income
27. Concentrating industries in one place is B. level of pesonal income
advantageous because there are gains in terms of C. level of personal savings
A. external economies B. internal economies D. government policy and MPC
C. economies of scale D. cost economies.
35. One of the major problems of product distribution in
28. Import substitution industrialization refers to most developing countries is
A. the concentration of industries for even A. lack of storage facilities
development B. large number of middlemen
B. selling up of industries for regional C. inadequate manpower
development D. inadequate means of transportation
C. a situation in which local industries are set
up to produce goods formerly imported 36. Non-bank financial intermediaries do not
D. the bann ing of imports which are A. provide credit facilities B. accept deposits
substitutes for domestically produced C. accept demand deposits D. sell shares.
goods.
37. Inflation which is caused mainly by increases in the
29. An entrepreneur will continue to employ labour up to prices of factors of production is described as
a point where A. cost-push inflation B. demand-pull inflation
A. costs are minimized B. maximum efficiency is C. crawling infla tion D. spiral inflation.
attained
C. wages are equal to marginal product of 38. The relationship between the value of money and the
labour price level is
D. marginal product of labour is equal to zero. A. direct B. unpredictable C. diverse D. inverse.

30. Optimum population is defined as the level of 39. People hold money for
population at which A. charity B. safe keeping
A. per capita output is maximized C. profit making D. speculative purposes.
B. population is neither increasing nor
decreasing 40. Bills of exchange originate from a
C. total national income is maximized A. central bank B. commercial bank
D. marginal efficiency of population is C. commu nity bank D. development ba.nk
maximized”
41. If high unemployment goes hand in hand with
31. When a worker earns more than the wage just rising prices the situation created is
sufficient to keep him in his job the excess income is
called
A. hyper inflation B. stagflation C. a group of countries decide to remove
C. moderate Inflation D. galloping Inflation. restrictions on im ports from one another D.
the UNCTAD is in force.
42. One of the functions of money is that it helps.
A. detect frauds in matters of exchange 47: Devaluation helps in checking adverse balance of
B. postpone payments without loss of count payments if the
C. store information about the intrinsic benefits A. demand for imports is e1astic
of an item B. demand for imports is inelastic
D. record information about the valuation of an item. C. supply of expor;ts is elastic
D. demand for exports is inelastic. ,
43. Fiscal policy involves changes in
A. open market operations 48. Gains from trade depends on
B. revenue and expenditure of government A. comparative advantage
C. money supply to the economy B. absolute advantage
D. imports and exports. C. distributive cost advantage
D. absolute cost advantage.
44. Economic development may be defined as economic
growth 49. Favourable terms of trade is importaflt to a country
A. in a given country B. over a long period because it facilitates
C. and improved health facilities A. economic prosperity for importers and
D. and improved distribution of wealth. exporters
B. export of hard currency by the government
45. The price of a good will not be affected by the C. economic prosperity for the country
imposition of a sales tax on it if the D. import of hard currency by the government.
A. supply is inelastic B. demand is inelastic
C. supply is perfectly elastic 50. The most acceptable economic measure for trade
D. demand is perfectly elastic. protection is to
A. improve standards of living
46. A free trade area emerges when B. protect Infant industries
A. traders from one part of the country can C. safeguard strategic industries
move freely to other-parts D. promote foreign trade.
B. customs regulations are harmonized among
countries

Economics 2000

1. Economics can be defined as 120

No of students

A. reduction in spending in the face of 100

competing alternatives 80
B. allocation of resources to alternative uses 60
C. economic behaviour of small units like the 40
household and the firm 20
D. the study of economic aggregates like
inflation and national income. Scores

2. I. What and how much will be produced? II. 3. How many students took the examination?
How will it be produced? A. 280 B.240 C. 200 D. 80
III. For whom will it be produced?
IV. How much will be exported and consumed? 4. If the pass mark was 40, how many students passed
the examination?
From the above, identify the combination of basic A. 100 B. 120 C. 160 D.200
resource allocation questions in economic .analysis.
A. 1.11 and III B. I,ll and IV C. I, III and.IV 5. In a capitalist economy, the economic problem of what
D. II, III an. IV J goods to produce is decided mainly by
A. shadow prices B. profit level C. relative prices
Use the histogra... below to answer questio..s 3and 4 D. a central planner.
No. of 120 students
6. Which of the following is an example of derived demand?
A. Tax relief. B. Labour. C. Wage increase. D. Entertainment.
D. consumer sovereignty is lacking.
Use the information below to answer questions 7 and 8.
14. The condition for equilibrium price and quantity
When commodity X sold for N25 per unit, 50 units of under perfect competition is
commodity Y were purcnased. With an increase in the A. MC = AR = TRB. TC=AR=P
price of commodity X to N5Q per unit, the demand for C. MC=AR=P D. MC=AR=TC
commodity Y fell to 2{) units. ,r
I5. External diseconomies of scale result from excessive growth of
7. Determine the cross elasticity of demand. A. the whole industry B. some sectors of the
A. 1.7 B.0. 6 C. -0.6 D. -1.7 industry C. external factors D. internal factors.

8. The two commodities can be classified as Use the table below to answer questions 16 and 17.
A. substitutes B. durable and non-durable
C. intermediate and final D. complements.
Variable Total Marginal Average
9. A centrnl argument of cardinal utility is that utility is Factor Product Product Product
A. measurnble B. psychological C. ranked 1 1 1 1
D. intangible. 2 6 5 3
10. 3 24 18 8
Good one 4 48 X 12
5 Z 25 14.6
L1 6 93 20 Y
U
Y Z
I3 16. The marginal product X is
L2 W
A. 18 B. 20 C. 24 D. 25
V I2
I1 17. The average product Y is
A. 8.0 B. 12.0 C. 14.6 D. 15.5
O L1 Good two
In the diagram above, L1. L1. and L2L2 are budget 18. In a small scale business. the fixed cost is #5 000.00.
lines.I1.,I2 and I3 are indifference curves. Which variable cost is #15 000.00 and the output is 500 units.
poin are optimal? What will be the unit cost of the goods?
A. UandW. B. U and Z. C. VandW. D. Y and Z. A. #400.00 B. #80.00 C. #40.00 D. #20.00

Use the diagrams below to answer questions 11 and 12. 19. If a total cost curve is plotted, marginal cost can be
illustrated by the
Commodity I Commodity II A. slope of the tangent to the curve at any
given output
Price D2 Price D2
S
B. V-shaped curve cutting the total cost curve at its
D1 S D1 S lowest point
P1 P1 C. straigh line from the origin to the midpoint of the
P2 P2 curve
D. straight line cutting the curve at its highest
S D2 S
point.
D1 S D1 20.
O Q1 Q2 Quantity O Q1 Q2 Quantity (MC AVC)
T
11. Commodities 1 and II are in MC
A. competitive supply B. joint supply C. substitute W
supply D. derived supply. L AVC

12. The supply of commodity II increasing from S1S1 to U

S2S2
A. leads to a fall in price from OP1 to OP2
B. moves the pricebelow OP2
C. increases the price from OP2 to OP1
D. moves the price to OP1 O Quantity
In a price-laking firm, the portion UT above is the
13. In a free market system, trading can only take place when firm's .
the A. average revenue curve B. supply curve
A. market is not working efficiently C. demand curve D. long-run average cost curve.
B. equilibrium price is attained
C. price of a commodit tends to attract consumers
30. Industries contribute to national economic develop
21. The short-run equilibrium in a perfectly competitive ment because they
market requires that A. utilize local raw materials
A. marginal cost be equal to total revenue B. employ an increasing number of labour
B. marginal cost and marginal revenue be equal C. provide recreational facilities
C. costs are mutually determined by buyers and D. use modern machines which replace human
sellers labour.
D. the marginal cost curve cuts the total cost curve.
31. The Nigerian economy is monocultural because
22. Quantity Total Revenue from sales of government revenue is derived mainlY from
commodity sold of commodity A. agriculture B. manufacturing C. coal D. crude oil.
43 #228.00
44 #233.00 32. As a producers' association, the OPEC expects its
45 #238.00 members to maintain production wh'ere marginal cost is
A. greater than price B. less than price
The firm whose sales and total revenue of the C. equal to price D. equal to average cost.
commodity as given above is
A. a monopolist 33. A well conducted census is important for
B. a monopolistic competitor, A. effective defence
C. a perfect competitor B. effective revenue generation
D. an oligopolist. C. good economic planning
D. optimum population.
23. At the point where marginal revenue of a monopolist
is equal to zero, its total revenue will be 34. The age distribution of a country's population determines
A. falling B. rising C. equal to zero D. maximum. the
A. ratio of the dependent to the working group
24. A distinguishing characteristic of cooperative B. total age of all working class adults
societies is that voting power depends on the C. male fe male ratio D. percentage of married women.
A. number of shares held B. status of the member
C. equality of members D. management's decision. 35. Firms continue to employ workers until the wage rate
equals the.
25. The concept of privatization presupposes A. average product of labour
A. efficiency B. market price B. marginal revenue product of labour
C. indigenization D. foreign trade. C. total product of labour
D. sum of marginal revenue and average revenue of
26. One problem in the marketing of agricultural product labour.
in Nigeria is 36.
A. the seasonal nature of the commodities' Wage
B. high price of the commodities
C. the changing tastes of consumers
D. inadequate storage facilities. W1
SL
27. Increased output will cause farmers' revenue to decrease
when market demand is W2
A. elastic B. inelastic C. unitary elastic D. perfectly elastic. W3
W4 DL
28. A primary industry is concerned with
Labour
A. extraction of resources in their raw state SL = supply curve of labour
B. the operation of small scale enterprises DL = demand curve of labour
C. the economic activities of primary producers
D. clearing and cultivation of land only. In the diagram above, ifW1, W2, W3 and W4 are
different wage rates, the minimum wa~rate is
29. The slow pace of industrial growth in Nigeria can be A. W4 B. W3 C. W2 D.W1
attributed to
A. overdependence on the oil sector 37. A major effect of a long distribution chain is
B. inadequate number of unskilled labour .~ A. high retail prices B. scarcity of commodities
C. lack of raw materials C. low retail prices D. low producer earnings.
D. inadequate infrastructural facilities.
38. The major function of the wholesaler to his customers
is
A. breaking of bulk B. offering personal services
C. stocking a variety of goods
D. providing transport facilities.
39. Which of the fo!lowing is used for measuring
C. loan sought is long term
national Income?
D. the percentage of interest charged is more.
A. Output income and wages.
B. Import expenditure and output.
45. An aspect of taxation that involves normative economics is the
C. Income, output and ex penditure.
A. tax rate B. effect on incentive to work
D. Export, import and output.
C. fairness of the tax D. tax burden.
40. Exclusions that make Gross National Product a poor
46. Public, debt is composed of
measure of welfare are
A. internal debts and World bank loans
A. government purchases
B. money owed to local and foreign contractors
B. govern ment military outlays
C. internal and external debts
C. wages and sala ries
D. loans granted by IMF and ADB
D. housewives' services.
47. A country exporting mainly primary products and with
41. An increase in money supply, other things being equal, will
a hign percentage of her labourforce in agriculture is said to
A. lower interest rates B. reduce income
be
C. ensure trade balance D. increase money demand.
A. developing B. developed
C. poor D.underdeveloped:
42. A persistent rise in the general level of prices Implies
A. an Increase In some prices
48. A country's import price index by 1995 was 50 and her
B. a one-time rise in pr:ices
index of export price was 70. Calculate the terms of trade.
C. a steady fall in the purchasing power of
A. 20% B. 8.71% C. 120% D. 140%.
money
D. that the higher the price level, the more the value
49. If the United Kingdom buys gold for £ 60 an ounce
of money.
and Nigeria buys the same ounce for N500, what will
be United Kingdom's exchange rate with Nigeria?
43. Two principal ways by which banks can lend money
A. £ 0.05 = N1.00 8. B. £ 0.06 = N1.00
to their customers are through
C. £0.11 = N1.00 D. £0.12 = N1.00.
A. loans and overdrafts
B. loans and discounting bills
50. Being a member of the OPEC, Nigeria is in a
C. overdrafts and cheques
favourable position to
D. overdrafts and treasury bills.
A. export her crude oil
B. control world crude oil prices
44. A capital market differs from the money market in that
C. reap the benefit of a cartel
in the former
D. borrow money from members.
A. loan sought is short term
B. loan repayment is guaranteed

Economics 2001
1. If the pice elasticity of demand for a good isO.43, an
increase in the price of the good will result in ; 4. For a supply curve, an increase in the price of a commodity
A. an increase in profit by 43% B. a net gain will result in
C.a decrease in profit by 43% D. a net loss A. a decrease in supply
B. a decrease in the quantity supplied
2. In a free market economy the price system allocates C. an increase in supply
resources D. an increase in the quantity supplied.
A. under government's directives
B. to ensure general welfare 5. A nominal good with close substitutes is likely to
C. to their best alternative uses have price elasticity of demand
D. to reduce poverty. A. between zero and one B. equal to unity
C. less than unity D. greater than unity.
3. At consumer equilibrium, the slope of the
indifference curve is 6. Economics is regarded as a social science because it
A. half the slope of the budget constraint line A. adopts the scientific method in production
B. equal to the slope of the budget constraint line B. is an agent of socialization
C. greater than the slope of the budget constraint line C. the scientific medod in the study of human
D. less than the slope of the budget constraint line. behaviour
D. deals with social problems.
16. A firm’s shut-down point is reached when the average
Total Utility revenue fails to cover the
A. average variable cost
B. marginal cost C. average total cost
D. average fixed cost

17. Internal economies of scale are expected to bring

about
A. an increase in short-run average cost
B. an increase-in long-run average cost
O Quantity C. a decrease in long-run average cost
. D a decrease in short-run avtrage cost.
7. The diagram above shows the total utility curve.
At the point M, marginal utility 18. In the long- run a monopolist maximizes his profit
A. increases B. is unity when the marginal cost equals
C. diminishes D. is zero. A. total revenue B. marginal revenue
C. average cost D. price.
8. A change in supply is best described as a
A. movement along the supply C&D'Ve 19. The long run is a period during which a firm
B. shift of the supply curve to the left or to the right A. sells input to purchase fixed asset
C. shift of the supply curve to the left B. varies all its inputs
D. shift of the supply curve to the right C. sources all its inputs from within
D. replaces all its inputs.
9. When a generalization is made based on ohserved
facts, it is known as 20. An important feature of perfect competition is that
A. deductive reasoning B. inductive reasoning A. the movement of goods and services is
C. theoretical reasoning D. normative reasoning. restricted
B. there is adequate knowledge of existing
10. A major problem facing all economies is how to prices
A. increase consumption of imported goods C. prices are centrally administered
B. improve trade among nations D. individual economic units can influence
C. transform from a developing In a developed prices.
economy
D. allocate scarce resources. 21. If government fixes price below the equilibrium price,
what effect will it have on demand?
11. A vertical supply curve indicates that A. Quantity demanded and supplied will be
A. the quantity supplied is responsive to price equal.
B. the same fixed quacl;ity will re supplied no matter B. Quantity supplied will be greater than quantity
the price demanded.
C. an increase in price will result in an increase C. Quantity demanded will increase.
in the quantity supplied D. Quantity demanded will decrease.
D. there is a fixed price for the commodity below
which no supply will be made. 22. An imperfect market exists-;here
A. the product is homogenous
12. In a demand curve. the lelationship between price and B. there is perfect information among the few
quantity is buyers and sellers
A in determine B. direct C. nil D. inverse. C. both buyers and sellers have free entry into
and free exit from the market
13. If die arithmetic mean of 1, 2, 5, 6, and i8 is 8.0,find the D. the location of some sellers gives them an
value of .x advantage over others.
A.7.0 B. 6.0 C. 8.5 D. 8.0
23. A production function relates
14. The fixing of the price of an item above or below the A. cost to output B. wage to profit
equilibrium price is mostlikely to take place in a C. cost to input D. oulput to input.
A. centrally planned economy B. free market economy
C. developed economy D. mixed economy. 24. The table below shows demand schedule for eggs.
Price per Qty demanded Qty. supplied
15. A consumer's scale of preference is an arrangement of his dozen (#) (in dozen) (in dozen)
A. scarce resources in order of iniportance 100 410 570
B. needs in order of importance 90 450 530
C. sources of income and their importance 80 490 490
D. requirement and how to satisfy them. 70 530 450
60 570 410
What is the equilibrium price? 35. The capital market is a market for tnKJin:9(:" financial
A. NIOOB. NII0 C. N6O D. N80 assets such as
A. bankers acceptances
25. A major advantage of specializatiun and division of B. treasury bills
labour is that C. long-term securities
A. time wastage will be minimized D. commercial papers.
B. trade unions will be encouraged
C. were will be a ready market for labour 36. In national income accounting. NNP is derived by
D. workers will be adequately rewarded. subtracting from the GNP
A. uansfer payments
26. Which of lhe following is an example of a fixed cost? B. indirect taxes
A. Fuel cost. B. Electricity bill. C. allowance for wastage
C. Rent on building. D. Transportation D. capital consumption.
cost.
37. Economic growth can be accelerated through
27. In the agricultural sector, improved extension services facilitate A. balancing of savings and consumption
A. acquisilion of techniques B. postponement of current consumption
B. arabic crop production C. planned current consumption
C. mobility of labour D. increased current consumption.
D. livestock production.
38. An increase in the discount rate is an indication of a
28. A disadvantage of concentrating industries in an area Central Banks intention to pursue
is that it could A. an expansionary monetary policy
A. lead La collusion among we firms B. a disciplined monetary policy
B. result in environmental pollution C. a dynamic monetary policy
C. bring about dieconomies of scale D. a contractionary monetary policy.
D. increase lhe cost of production.
39. The efficiency of labour can be. increased by
29. The losses suffered by a sole proprietor are A. constant training of workers
A. usually equal to the amount invested B. retirement'ofworkers on a regular basis
B. usually less than the amount invested C. engaging expatriates only
C. limited to the amount invested D. placing an embargo on recruitment. .
D. not limited to the amount invesled.
40. In Nigeria, revenue sharing from the Federation
30. To facilitate the exportation of crude oil from Nigeria. special accou.nt is between the
A. airtrips were constructed for jets toevacuate A. executive the judiciary and the legislature
the oil B. federal and state governments and the.
B. roads were built to connect the major oil wells to parastatals
the ports C. federal and state governments and the
C. pipelines were laid to connect the major oil senate
wells to the ports D. federal state and local governments. .
D. railway lines were constructed to connect
the major oil wells to the ports. 41. The reduction of high fertility rate is a measure in
population control designed to make the
31. An industry is a A. female population higher than the male
A. company producing unrelated commodities B. female and male population equal
B. group of firms producing related commodities C. male population higher than the female
C. group of firms producing distinct commodities D. growth in population more sustainable
D. firm producing differentiated commodities.
42. National debt is an expected outcome of a
32. The raising of funds by selling stocks to the public is called A. deficit budget
A. equity financing B. stock financing B. consolidated budget
C. debt financing D. loan financing. C. balanced budget
D. surplus budget.
33. A tax that increases at a higher percentage as income
increases is called 43. The distribution channel that contributes most to the
A. a proportional tax B. a regressive tax cost of productfon is
C. a progressive tax D. an income tax. A. producer-wholesaler-consumer
B. producer-retailer-consumer
34. The price paid for labour services is the C producer -retailer -wholesaler-consumer
A. commission rate B. wage rate D. producer -wholesaler-retailer -consumer
C. income rate .D. salary rate.
44. Money may not be accepted as a store of value if 48. The loans from the World Bank to developing
A. its value is unstable countries are mainly to support
B. it is easily transferable A. the establishment of more universities
C. its value is stable B. capital-intensive technology
D. it is easily divisible C. infrastructural investments
D. their low level of consumption.
45. In order to accelerate economic development a country
must 49. The major reason why nations engage in international
A stimulate her population growth rate trade is that
B. pursue a high population growth rate A. it allows free movement of factors of
C. pursue arational populationpolicy production
D. pursue an incremental population policy. B. it makes possible the use of capital-
intensive method of production.
46. If the laboul force in a given community is 2,000,000, C. nations are substantially different in their
in the wage employment 200,000 and the unemployed endowments of economic resources
are 80,000, what is the unemployment rate in the D. it affords the trading nations the opportunity
community? to earn high profit.
A. 0.4% B. 40.0%
C. 10.0% D. 0.4.0% 50. A country with over-valued currency will
47. GNP is not a good measure of social welfare because A. expect balance of payments surplus
there are unrecorded B. have increased demand for her exports
A. indirect taxes B. social costs C. increase her foreign reserve
C. government subsidies D. transfer payments D. decrease her foreign reserve

Economics 2002
1. If goods P and Q are purchased by a consumer, a fall
5.
in the price of P with the price of Q unchanged will Good Y
cause the budget line to
A. rotate outwards away from the origin
B. Shift parallel inwards
C. rotate inwards towards the origin 18-
D. shift parallel outwards 15-
13-
2. One of the reasons for an exceptional demand curve is the 9-
6-
A. availability of credit facilities
0-
B. availability of substitutes
1 2 3 4 Good X
C. change in the price of thecommodity
In the diagram above, the marginal rate of substitution
D. expectation of a futur change in price.
of X for Y for a movemer from S toTis
A.5:1 B.1:5 C.18:4 D. 13:3
3. The elasticity of supply of perishable goods is
A. elastic B. zero
6. A scientific approach in economic entails
C. inelastic D. unitary
A. a normative method only
B. both inductive and deductiv methods
4.
C. a deductive method only
D. both inductive and normative methods.
Children
40%
7. In a centrally planned economy. the economic
problem of deciding what to produce is dependent on
A. state command B. relative prices
25%
35%
Men
C. average cost D. average profit.
Women
8. A shift in supply curve indicates that a different
quantity will be supplied at each possible price
because
A. supply is facing competition
In the pie chart above, the percentage for children is
B. consumers are willing to pay higher prices
equivalent to
C. price has changed
A. 2880 B. 1440 C. 900 D. 720
D. other factors than price have changed
9. The demand for factors of production is an example of 18. One way of correcting the balance payments problem of
A. competitive demand a country is to
B. derived demand A. devalue the currency
C. composite demand B. introduce import-promotion measures
D. joint demand C. deemphasize import
D. buy investments abroad
10. A student as N30.00 willl which to buy a ruler costing
N18.00 and an exercise book costing N25.00. If he 19. One of the problems arising from the localization of
buys the exercise book.His opportunity cost is industries is
A. the exercise book B. N25.00 A. high prices of output
C. N18.00 D. the ruler. B. structural unemployment
C. the exportation of output
11. Import substitution aims at D. the scarcity of foreign exchange.
A. substituting agricultural products with , industrial ones
B. substituting imports with agricultural exports 20. The major purpose of the African Development Bank is to
C. improving the balance of payments A. educatepeasant farmers in new techniques
D. the diversification of industries. B provide loans for development banks in
12. Some of the key indicators of 'I underdevelopment in distress
a country are C. provide loans fo infrastructural development
A. poverty low level of literacy and low income D. provide loans for trade development.
B. poverty low income and low unemployment level
C poverty high level of literacy and low Income 21. As a country gets more developed, th percentage of
D. low level of illiteracy, low income and' poverty labour engaged in agriculture tends to
A. switch over to trading
13. ECOWAS has taken a giant step towards economic B. remain constant
integration by C. increas steadily
A. Iintroducing a common currency for' D. decrease steadily
traveilers
B. presenting a united front against foreign 22. A deficit budget can be used to
economicexploiters. A. starve the economy of funds economic
C. holding frequent meetings at various state development
capitals B. protect t economy from inflation
D. increasing economic', stability among member C. stimulate recovery from trade depression provide
states. measures to remedy
D. balance of payments.
14. One of the major factors militating against 23.
industrialization in Nigeria is the
A. frequent breakdown of equipment Cocoa Cocoa
Tonnes Tonnes
B. failure to get foreign partners and supporters 20 Ghana 20 Nigeria
C. inadequacy of infrastructural facilities
D. absence of government participation.

15. The types sources and uses of government income 5 5

are mainly concerned with Cotton (Tonnes) Cotton (Tonnes)
A. public budget B. public finance In the diagrams above, the Opportunity cost of a
C. public expenditure D. public revenue unity of cotton in terms cocoa is
A. 20 for Ghana 60 for Nigeria
16. The present privatization policy in Nigeria is aimed at B. 1/4 for Ghana 1/2 for Nigeria
A. reducing the prices of goods and services C. 5 Ghana 30 for Nigeria
B. increasing efficiency in production D. 4 for Ghan for Nigeria.
C. poverty alleviation
D. reducing incom~ inequality 24. External finance for a limited lial company is mainly
sourced throug
17. One of the roles of the NNPC in the production and A. the issuing of shares
refining of crude oil is to ` B. the least equipment
A. secure maximum government revenue and C. trade credits
regulate price D. loans
B. protect the local operators in the petroleum
industry. 25. One of the major criticisms of the 1962 National Devel
C. prevent the smuggling of petroleum opment Plan that
products A. its execution was based on foreign-sourced
D. satisfy the domestic consumption petroleum financial measures resources B. it failed to
products.
incorporate lessons gained from earlier plans to 34.
enhance efficiency D S
C. planned expenditure based too heavily on expected P(#)
ear from crude oil.
D. it came too quick after the country's independence

26. Which of the following yields more revenue to 60

Nigeria? 0
A. Value added tax B.Royalties 100 200 300 Q
C.Direct tax D.Indirect tax
In the diagram above what is the excess demand at
27. In the short run a firm's marginal cost curve above the the price of N60?
point of shut-down in it's A. 3000 B. 100 C. 600 D 200
A. supply curve B. revenue curve
C. demand curve D. cost curve 35. The equilibrium wage in an economy is determined by
the
28. The benefits that accrue to a firm as a result of an A. supply and demand for labour
improvement in the industry it belongs to are called B. rate of inflation
A. internal economies of scale C. workers' union
B. market economies D. public service
C. external economies of scale
D. economies of scale .36. If the growth rate of available resources continuously
outpaces that of the population, a country will
29. As a firm increases its output the average fixed cost eventually experience
A. tends to decrease continuously A. under population
B. rises and then falls B. maximum population
C. remains constant C. optimistic
D . tends to rise continuously D. a decrease in output-input ratio

30. The economic policy of deregulation is aimed at 37. The middlemen in the chain of distribution are
encouraging A. wholesalers and retailers
A. a competitive market structure B. manufacturers and consumers
B. an oligopolistic market structure C. consumers and wholesalers
C. a duopolistic market structure D. retailers and consumers
D. a monopolistic market structure .
38. The Malthusian theory of population growth is often
31. The effect of an increase in demand for a commodity said to be
accompanied by a decrease in supply will be to A. oversimplified B. ambiguous
A. decrease the equilibrium quantity and affect C.optimistic D.pessimistic
the price in an indeterminate way
B. raise the price of the commodity and affect 39. Improved labour efficiency can be measured by
the quantity in an indeterminate way A. the constancy of input-output ratio
C. lower its price while affecting the equilibrium B. an increase in input- output ratio
quantity in an- indeterminate way C. an increase in output-input ratio
D. raise its price as well as the equilibrium D. a decrease in output-input ratio
quantity. .
40. National income estimates can be used to
32. Under conditions of perfect competition a firm's A. compare a country's growth rate with that of
supply curve is determined by it's another over a period of time.
A. fixed cost curve B. variable curve cost B. differentiate between the rich ana the poor in a
C. total cost curve D. marginal cost curve country
C. prepare a country's annual budget
33. The short-run equilibrium output for a monopolist is D. project the level of a country's economic
determined by the development
A. intersection of the marginal cost and
marginal revenue curves 41. In Nigeria, the bank that can correctly be described as
B. highest point on the total revenue curve a unit bank is
C. intersection of the average revenue and A. the Central Bank
average cost curves B. Ccommunity Bank
D. minimum point on the average cost curve C. People's Bank
D. Mortgage Bank
42. Creeping inflation implies that there is a 46. Liquidity preference refers to the
A. rapid but not permanent Increase In the general A. wish to hold more funds for precautionary
price level purposes
B. gentle but not permanent increase in the general B. need to increase the money supply in order
price level to lower the interest rate
C. rapid and persistent increase in the general price C. demand to hold money as assets rather than
level as stocks
D. gentle and persistent increase in the general price D. need to borrow money for short
level. periods to meet some temporary crises.

43. In a closed economy, the marginal propensity to 47. If the country's GNP in the current year is N65 billion
consume is 0.6 and the average propensity to and the GNP deflator is
consume 0.8. The value of the multiplier is A. 30.0 B. 130.0. C. 15.0 D. 1.3
A. 2.7 B. 2.6 C. 2.4 D. 2.5
48. Insurance companies invest mainly in instruments
44. Excess demand inflation can be controlled through traded on the
A. contractionary trade policy A. commodity market B. open market
B. expansionary monetary policy C. capital market D. money market
C. contractionary fiscal policy
D. expansionary fiscal policy 49. The solution to the problem of double coincidence of
wants requires a buyer and a seller whose demands
45. The primary objective of the NDIC is to are precisely
A. provide regulations guiding the finance A. complementary B. supplementary
houses C. composite D. competitive
B. give protectiqll to banks against fraud
C. give protection to bank depositors 50. The stock exchange is a market for the buying and
D. give protection to the CBN against fraud. selling of
A. existing shares
B. monetary instruments
C. new shares D. treasury bills.

Economics 2003
1. The price of a good rises from N5 to N8 and the 5. An improvement in technology will enable
quantity demanded falls from 200 to 190 units. Over the country to produce at
this price range, the demand curve is A. V B. W C. X D. Z
A. fairly inelastic
B. fairly elastic 6. If the country is currently producing at point Y, it can
C. perfectly inelastic increase production of producer goods by moving to
D. perfectly elastic the point
A. v B. W C. X D. Z
2. In economis analysis, a statement is said to be normalize if,it
A. can be tested scientifically 7.
B. relates to value judgment
C. is contradictory In the table above, the price of commodity y is N2
D. is incorrect and that of x is N1 while the individual has an income
of N12. Determine the combination of the two
3. Utility is the satisfaction derived from commodities the individual should consume to
A. production B. distribution maximize his utility
C. consumption D. demand A 3y and 3x B.6y and 4x
4. If there is and increase in demand without a C. 3y and 6x D.5y and 5x
corresponding increase in supply, there will be 8. When two variables are positively related, the graph
of the relationship
A. fall in price B. rise in price
A. is a straight line
C. shift in supply curve to the right B. is a downward-sloping curve
D. shift in demand curve to the left C. is an upward sloping curve
Use the production possibility curve of a country D. has a negative intercept
represented in the diagram below to answer
questions 5 and 6
9. For an inferior good, a decrease in real income lead to 18. A normal supply curve is usually positively sloped
A. an outward shift of the demand curve A. because the relationship between
B. an inward shift of the demand curve B. supply and price is negative
C a lowed equilibrium price C. price and demand is negative
D. a change in quantity demanded D. price and supply is positive

10. In a planned economy the emphasis is on 19. The best method of production in an under-populated
A. individual choice and decisions country is
B. public ownership and control A. labour-extensive B. land-intensive
C. private ownership and control C. capital-intensive D. labour-intensive
D. prices and competition
20. Insurance companies, pension and provident funds
11. Price elasticity of supply is a ratio of the change in and unit thrusts are all examples of
A. quantity supplied to the c change in demand A government financial agencies
B. original quantity to a change in new quantity B. non-govenmental organizations
C. quantity supplied to the change in price C. non-bank financial institutions
D. price to the change in quantity supplied. D. rural-based revenue mobilisers

12. the long-run average cost curve is called a planning 21. For a firm, value added can be defined as the difference
curve because it shows what happens to costs when between the
A. variable inputs are increased A. value of its output and the cost of
B. fixed factors are increased production
C. different sizes of plants are built B. total revenue and toatla cost
D. a bigger size of plants is built C. input prices and product prices
D. value of its output and inputs purchased
13. Imperfect market is characterized by from other firms
A. many buyers and few sellers
B. a large number of buyers and sellers 22. Securities are described as listed when they are:
C. non-preferential treatment A. bought and sold purely for development
D. perfect mobility of factors of production purposes
B. mobilized as short-term debt instruments
14. Short-run period in production is a period for a firm C. Mobilized as long-term debt instrument
to be able to change its D. Traded on a recognized stock market
A. variable inputs B. total outputs
C. total revenue D. scale of operation 23. The commercial banks differ from non-bank financial
institutions because they
Use the table below to answer questions 15 and 16 A. accept deposits withdrawable by cheque
Output produced Fixed cost Total cost B. mobilize savings C. invest surplus plus
per day (unit) per day (N) per day (N) D. contribute to economic development

20 60 100 24. Inflation that is usually associated with periods of

30 60 120 trade boom is
40 60 130 A cost-push inflation B.demand-pull inflation
50 60 135 C. creeping inflation D. stagnation
60 60 150
70 60 170 25. The term “Near Money” is best described as
80 60 190 A. a financial assets that is convertible to cash
B. a financial instrument that is readily
15. The ATC at 30 units of output is convertible to cash
A. 120.000 B.N60.00 C.N40.00 D.N3.00 C. government financial instrument that is
convertible to cash
16. At 60 units of output, the AVC is D. time deposits with low interest rates
A. N150.00 B. N90.00 C.N2.50 D.N1.50
26. The distinguishing characteristic between the money
17. If the demand curve facing a frim is sharply downward market and the capital market lies in whether the
sloping, the firm is likely to be A. finds mobilized are private or public
A. a perfect competitor B. securities are primary or secondary
B. a monopolistic competitor as it can have a C. debt instruments provided are long-term or
limited influence as it can have a limited short-term
influence on price D. securities are in debentures of ordinary shares.
C. an oligopolist as it can collude with other
firms to have some influence on price
27. If Nigeria’s composite price index in 1999 was 36. Statutory organisations usually established by Acts
140.03% and 144.05% in 2000, the rate of inflation in of parliament are called
2000 was A. public enterprises
A. 4.02% B. 2.10% C. 2.06% D. 1.03% B. public corporations
C. cooperative societies
28. The monetary control instrument most effectively D. joint-stock companies
used by the Central Bank of Nigeria is the
A. discount rate B. reserve ration 37. A greater burden of the taxes on essential goods is
C. margin requirements D. open market operations borne by the
A. higher income group B. newly recruitment workers
29. The major objectives of a revenue allocation formula C. lower income group D. contract workers
in a country is to
A. share revenue between the public and 38. Privatization and commercialization of public enterprises in
private sectors Nigeria is necessitated by
B. ensure the financial viability of the country A. the IMF conditions B.the IBRD conditions
C. share revenue between the different tiers of C. the government’s loss of interest in them
government D. their operational inefficiency
D. divert revenue from areas of surplus to areas
of need 39. The theory of comparative advantage states that a
commodity should be produced in that nation where the
30. The effectiveness of devaluation as a solution to a A. absolute cost is least B.absolute money cost is least
balance of payments problems depends on the C. opportunity cost is least
A. relative elasticities of demand D. production possibility curve increases
B. foreign investments of business
C. value of visible and invisible goods 40. The effect of an increase in the personal income tax is to
D. value of invisible items of both domestic A. raise the absolute price level B.distort the economy
and foreign trades C. reduce unemployment
D. reduce the disposable income
31. IBRD as an international monetary institution is
concerned with the 41. An important factor hindering the rapid development
A. balance of payments problems of member nations of the industrial sector in Nigeria.
B. financing of private business in member nations A. excessive demand for finished products
C. development of infrastucture in member nations B. the dominance of the oil sector
D. improvement of trade among member nation C. rural-urban migration
D. inadequate infrastructure facilities
32. An advantage of the soleproprietorship over the
partnership form of business organization is that 42. The demand for labour is an example of
A. it enjoys limited liability for debt in the event of failure A. competitive demand B. derived demand
B. Its existence is limited bty an individual’s life span C. composite demand D. joint demand
C. It relies on the decision of friends to succeed
D. The possibility of conflict is management in 43. The major role of multi-national companies in the
virtually non-existent petroleum industry in Nigeria is
A. oil prospecting only B. oil marketing only
33. The distinction between capital and recurrent C. the establishment of refineries
expenditure lies in the D. oil marketing prospecting
A. amount of expenditure involved
B. source of the revenue generated 44. Fixing the prices of agricultural products can be a problem
C. nature of the goods and services to be provided because of the
D. time frame o the expenditure A. unpredictable output of farmers
B. instability of government policies
34. Under a floating exchange rate regime, the determinant of C. activities of marketing boards
the exchange rate is D. size of agricultural exports
A. the system of government
B. demand for and supply of foreign goods 45. Occupational mobility as applied to factors of
C. the highest denomination of the currency production means the case by which
an act of the national assembly A. factors can be transferred from one place to another
B. factors can be transferred from one form mof use
35. To compare the standard of livingamong nations, the to another
most widely used economic indicator is the C. resources can be transferred from one place to another
A. per capital nominal income D. resources can be transformed from one form to another
B. real domestic output
C. real gross national income
D. real per capital income
46. The labour force of a country can be determine by xamining the B. the resources are more than enough to cater
A. Sex distribution of the population for the population
B. Occupations distribution of the population C. the size of the population is greater than the
C. age structure of the population annual budget
D. geographical distribution of the population D. the resources are inadequate to cater for the
population
47. Two basis features common to an 49. When a union is composed of workers with same
industry are skill, it is called
A. similarity of products and production processes A. an industrial union B. a workers’ union
B. similarity of products and source of raw materials C. a craft iunion D. a technical union
C. production processes and source of capital
D. source of capital ands labour supply 50. An adverse environmental impact of the petroleum
industry on the economy is
48. A country is said to be over populated when A. the vandalisation of oil equipment
A. there are too many able-bodied men and B. oil spillage C. communal riots
women in the country

Economics 2004
1. By advertising, a monopolistic competitive firm tries to shift its 9. Which of the financial institution is charged with the
A. supply curve to the right B. demand curve to the right formulation of monetary policies in Nigeria?
C. supply curve to the left D. demand curve to the left A. The Central Bank of Nigeria
B. The Nigeria Deposit Insurance Corporation
2. Given than Y = C + I and C = bY where b = 0.8, what is C. The Abuja Commodity Exchange
the multiplier? D. The Lagos Stock Exchange
A. 5 B. 10 C. 4 D. 2
10. GDP differs from GNP because GDP
3. The role of the Central Bank in the economic development A. is inclusive of depreciation
of Nigeria is to B. emphasizes the final goods and services
A. give short-and medium-term loans to the public C. produced within the country at a particular period
B. give financial and technical advice to customers D. emphasizes the market value of all final
C. use the cheques and bank drafts to facilitate goods and services produced by nationals
business transactions
D. maintain a stable price system 11. The distinction between perfect competition and
monopolistic competition is that the latter is characterized by
4. The primary function of non-bank financial institutions is to A. a single market price
A. manage investment portfolios for government B. many buyers and sellers
B. mobilize saving for investment C. product differentiation
C. grant loans to banks D. homogeneity of product
D. receive deposits from banks
12. The downstream activities of oil companies in Nigeria involve
5. At the maximum point of the total product curve of a A. refining and distribution
firm, marginal revenue is B. prospecting and drilling
A decreasing B. increasing C. constant D. zero C. Off-shore drilling
6. In a n open economy, the GNP is measured as D. Management of spillage and pollution
A. C+I+G+X B. C+I+G+(X-M) C. C+I+G+M D. C+I+G 13. The movement of goods and services from the products to
7. the consumers is refereed to as
A. external trade B. the distribution chain
C. the circular flow D. consumption

14. The purpose of conducting a census is to enable a country to

A. plan her capital inflow and outflow
B. determine the growth rate of population
The diagram above represents the short-run position
C. determine the optimum level of population
of a monopolist. The profit-maximizing output is
D. plan her growth and development
A. Q3 B. Q4 C. Q1 D. Q2
15. A major cause of the slow pace of industrialization in
8. The capital market provides business firm with the Nigeria is inadequate
avenue to A. raw materials B. landmass
A. lease capital equipment B. obtain long-term funds C. skilled labour D. communal labour
C. obtain short-term fundsD.purchase capital equipment
16. The maximum wage legislation seeks to 27. The excess of aggregate expenditure over full emploment
A. fix wages above the equilibrium wage rate level of output is referred to as
B. set wages below the equilibrium wage rate A. GNP gap B. Deflationary gap
C. deter employers from exploiting their employees C. Inflationary gap D. recessionary gap
D. ensure an upper limit to the wages payable
28. The tax levied on goods and services at each stage of
17. The marketing of agricultural commodities in Nigeria production is
is hampered by A. surfax B. VAT C. Ad valorem tax D. PAYE
A. lack of adequate storage facilities
B. the existence of farmers’ associations 29. The number of shareholders in a private limited
C. the existence of commodity exchange liability company ranges from
D. the abolition of ,arketing boards. A. two to seven B. two to three
C. two to fifty D. two to twenty
18. Import duty concessions on industrial inputs directly
benefit the 30. A major reason for having national development plan is to
A. consumers B.external sector C. commercial sector A. ensure efficient use of available resources
D. manufacturers B. involve people in national programmes
C. make government spend more on production
19. The labour force in Nigeria falls between the ages of D. ensure that more citizens are involved in planning
A. 18 and 45 B. 18 and 55 C.18 and 60 D. 18 and 30
31. The difference between payments and receipts for
20. Government’s involvement in agricultural business in visible trade is called
Nigeria’s is most manifested in the A. bilateral trade B. current balance
A. establishment of farm settlements in each C.balance of payment D. balance of trade
state of the federation
B. establishment of credit guarantee schemes 32. One of the cause of the present high rate of inflation
for small-scale farmers in Nigeria is
C. formation of farmers’ cooperative socities A.Increasing budget surplus B. Increasing factors costs
D. procurement and distribution of fertilizers C. Exchange rate appreciation D. High capacity utilization

21. The difference between birth and death rates of a 33. The final stage in the production process of any commodity
given population is referred to as the involves its movement from the
A. mortality rate B. fertility rate C.natural growth rate A. retailer to the wholesaler B. producer to the wholesaler
D. linear growth rate C. retailer to the consumer D. wholesaler to the retailer

22. Fiscal policy is the government’s plan to control 34. A change in demand for a normal good means
aggregate demand by manipulating A. a shift in the demand curve
A. the demand and supply of money B. a change in the price elasticity
B. revenue and expenditure C. the demand changes as price changes
C. tastes and preferences of consumers D. a movement along a given demand curve
D, the structure of production and employment
35.
23. A country is said to have absolute advantage when she
A.has a higher opportunity cost in the production of a good
B.can sell to oother countries without buying from them
C.can produce more of any good with fewer resources
D.has a lower opportunity cost in the production of a good.
In the diagram above, ST is the budget line while I.II
24. The European Union was formed to promote free and III represent indifference curves. A rational
trade within member nations consumer will choose to consume at point
A. Promote free trade within members nation. A. M B. J C. K D. L
B.Promote economic integration in non-member countries
C. Assist countries to achieve their economic goals 36. In order to increase revenue, the seller of a commodity
D. Finance development projects in member nations. whose demand is fairly elastic is advised to
25. if budget deficits are financed by borrowing, the A. increase price B. reduce outpur
crowding-out effects can be offset by an increase in C. reduce price D. retain price
A. government expenditure B. savings C.interest rates
D. exchange rates 37. In any set of data, the median represent the
A. value that is most representative of the data
26. When the importation of a commodity is limited to a B. mid-position when the values are arranged
definite quantity, the trade control means used is known as in ascending or descending order
A. exchange control B. tax relief C. mid-position when the values are arranged
C. devaluation D. quotas randomly
D. difference between the highest and the
lowest values when arranged ascending order.
38. Combination) Beans (Unit) Rice (Unit) 45. Use the diagram below to answer questions 45
K 15 19 and 46
L 20 17
M 24 16

The table above shows the combinations of beans and

rice that can be purchased by a consumer.

The opportunity cost of moving from K to L is

A. 2 units of rice B. 5 units of beans C. 17 units of rice
D. 20 units of beans

39. One of the assumption of ordinary utility in 45. When there is a change fron T to N, it implies
consumer behaviour is that that
A. consumer are irrational A. supply has increased
B. marginal utility rises contionously B. quantity supplied has increased
C. utility is measurable C. quantity demanded has i ncreased
D. utility can only be ranked D. price has fallen

40. A large standard deviation is an indication of 46., A movement from M to T implies that there
A. the size of the sample has been
B. a wide spread around the mean A. a decrease in supply
C. a wide difference between the mean and the B. an increase in demand
mode C. a decrease in price
D. the difference between teh highest and the D. an increase in price
lowest values.
47. A necessary condition for specialisataion in an
41. A m ajor characteristics of a mixed economy is that economy is the existence of
A. economic decisions are emade by both the A. a regulated market
rich and the poor B. a competitive market
B. both primary and secondary production are C. a medium of exchange
undertaken D. adequate capital
C. the federal and the state governments
undertake joint projects 48. A firm operating at full capacity will experience
D. economic activties are undertaken by both rising short-run totall costs when
the public and private sectors A. prices of its variable inputs rise
B. prices of its variable inputs fall
42. Given the cost function C = 160 + 36Q, what is teh C. there is a change in m anagement
average cost at 20 units of output? D. labour productivity increases
A. N720 B. N216.00
C. N44.00 D. N880.00 49. In a textile factory, teh cost of cotton used is a
typical example of
43. If an increase in the p rice of good X leads to an A. an average cost B. a variable cost
increase in the supply of good Y, X and Y are said to C. a total cost D. a fixed cost
be
A. jointly supplied B. competitive 50. A black market can occur when
C. composite D. jointly demanded A. supply is excess of deman
B. consumption of the commomdity is
restricted
44. C. prices are set by government above the
equilibrium
D. prices are set by government below the
equilibrium

The diagram above shows the shifts in both

demand and supply curves. What is the new
equilibrium point after the shifts?
A. E3 B. E1
C. E4 D. E2
LITERATURE – IN
ENGLISH
2010 - 2 0 1 8

JAMB Past Questions

And Answers
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

2
C. coming back of the Agunwa to the A. totalitarian dictatorship
society to live again B. exploitation and cruelty
D. ill-luck and tragic events attributed to C. retributive justice
D. class segregation.
a predestined fate
19. How did Winston start his rebellion
13. The constant companions of Nnaife's against the state .
family are . A. By engaging in anti-party activities
A. togetherness and happiness B. By keeping a private diary
B. poverty and hunger C. When he started a secret affair
C. sickness and joblessness D. When he spied on the party.
20.The party seeks power for .
D. disagreement and humiliation
A. the nation
B. its own sake
Questions 14 to 16 are based on C. its members
Ferdinand Oyano's The Old Man and D. peoples' sake
the Medal.
14. The disagreement between Mvondo and Questions 21 to 30 are based on
Nti centres on the latter‟s claim to have selected poems from Ker, D. et al
(eds.) New Poetry from African;
.
Soyinka, (ed.) Poems of Black
A. assisted Meka in getting the medal Africa; Senanu K.E. and Vincent T.
B. eaten the entire entrails of a sheep (eds.): A selection of African Poetry;
C. eaten more than his share of the food Umukoro, M et al (eds.) Exam Focus:
D. been in a white man‟s office literature in English; Eruvbetine,
A.E. et al (eds.): Longman
Examination Guides and Nwoga, D.
15. Meka can be best be described as .
I. (ed): West African Verse.
A. an egocentric old man
B. a simple-hearted old man 21. As the dancers move through paths
C. an impulsive old man strewn with glass chips, the images in
D. an old religious bigot Adeoti's Naked Soles change from .
A. joy to excitement
16. In the novel, the colonialists treat B. inaction to action
C. pain to grief
the Africans with .
D. sorrow to joy.
A. Kids‟ gloves 22. Rubadiris's An African Thunderstorm,
B. disdain says that during thunderstorm in the
C. indifference village
D. honour A. women cook their food
B. children play in the rain
Questions 17 to 20 are based on C. children are delighted while
George Orwell's Nineteen Eighty-four women move in and out
17. The Ministry of peace is concerned with D. both women and children are
making _. delighted.
A. instruments 23. 'Yet in their finger upon
B. weapons Our navel
C. wars The midwives of the spirit say
D. reconciliation They feel a foetal throb.

18. The subject matter of the novel is .

3
The dominant literary device used in D. inspiring
the extract above from Acquahs' In the
Navel of the Soul is A. epigram Questions 31 to 40 are based on
B. allegory General Literary Principles.
C. enjambment
D. rhythm. 31. A play which mainly aims at provoking
24. In Kunene's A heritage of excessive laughter is called
Liberation, the poet persona requests A. tragi-comedy
that the weapons of warfare be handed B. comedy
to their . C. a farce
A. friends D. D. satire.
B. relations
C. grand children 32. Both comedy and tragedy have .
D. families A. happy ending
25. The predominant device in Launko's End B. climax
of the War is . C. tragic hero
A. onomatopoeia D. stanza
B. antithesis
C. oxymoron 33. A formal dignified speech or writing
D. paradox praising a person or a thing for past or
26. The theme of the poem Give Me The present deeds is
Minstrel's Seat centres on A. premiere
A. divorce B. eulogy
B. fortune C. anthology
C. marriage D. lampoon
D. companionship.
27. The poet persona in Marvell's To His 34. The narrative style in which the hero
Coy Mistress is willing to praise the tells his own story directly is the .
lady's eyes for A. objective
A. thirty thousand years B. subjective
B. six decades C. first- person
C. two centuries D. third-person.
D. a century.
28. In Lawrence's Bat, the poet persona 35. The physical, historical or cultural
mistakes the bats for background of a literary work is referred
A. owls to as
B. swallows A. episode
C. pipistrello B. plot
D. sparrows C. time
29. In Eliot's Journey of the Magi, the D. setting
magi are aided on their journey by
A. donkeys 36. A plot structure that defies chronology
B. horses can be described as
C. camels A. open-ended
D chariots. B. circular
C. episodic
30. According to Cope‟s Sonnet VII, poetry is D. organic
basically .
A. boring 37. Pun as a literary device deals with
B. therapeutic A. placing two opposite phrases
C. philosophical B. placing words side by side

4
C. playing on words The mood conveyed in the excerpt
D. arrangement of words above is one of
A. sadness
38. In a narrative poem, the poet attempts B. frustration
to C. sympathy
A. summarize a story D. dilemma.
B. describe a place 44. 'That age is best which is the first,
C. preach a sermon when youth and blood are warmer,
D. tell a story But being spent, the worse, and
39. The account of experiences of an worst
individual during the course of a journey Time still succeed the former.
is known as The rhyme scheme in the excerpt above
A. a travelogue is
B. an autobiography A. bbaa
C. a catalogue B. aabb
D. a memoir C. abab
D. abba.
40. Satirical writing employs _.
A. epigram 45. But the towering earth was tired
B. synecdoche sitting in one position. She moved,
C. irony suddenly, and the houses crumbled,
D. onomatopoeia. the mountains heaved horribly, and
the work of a million years was lost.
Questions 41 to 50 are based The subject matter of the extract above
on Literary Appreciation. is
Use the quotation below to answer A. storm
questions 41 and 42. B. sea waves
41. „Basha: You dumb skull of a bone C. house movement
head . . . you will face court martial D. earthquake.
for this. You look everywhere? You
search inside toilet bowl? Wole 46. And your laughter like a flame
Soyinka: King Baabu piercing the shadows Has revealed
The person being addressed above is a Africa to me beyond the snow of
A. soldier yesterday.
B. student From the poem above, shadow means
C. domestic servant A. famine
D. lawyer B. bleak future
C. period of sufferings
42. From the tone of the speech above, the D. abstract ideas.
speaker is obviously
A. enraged 47. Don't panic. Be calm, If you are
B. lackadaisical some how upset ...try to regain your
C. elated exposure.
D. happy. The speaker in the excerpt above is
A. hopeless
43. 'That year the harvest was sad, like a B. uncertain
funeral, and many farmers wept as they C. afraid
dug up the miserable yams. One man D. confident.
tied his cloth to a tree branch and
hanged himself'. Chinua Achebe: Use the lines below to answer
Things Fall Apart questions 48 and 49.

5
48.Move him into the sun Gently its
touch awoke him once, At home,
whispering of fields unsown Always
it woke him even in France Until this
morning and this snow If anything
might rouse him now This kind old
sun will know Think how it wakes
the seeds Woke, once, the clays of a
cold star Are limbs, so dear
achieved, are sides Full nerved still
swarm too hard to stir Was it, for
this the clay grew tall? 0 what made
fatuous sunbeams toil To break
earth's sleep at all.
The poem can be described as
A. a lyric
B. an epic
C. a sonnet
D. an elegy.

49.The theme of the poem is

A. futility of life
B. distortion of life
C. creation of life
D. vanity of life

50. A cursing rogue with a merry

farce,
A bundle of rags upon a crutch,
Stumbled upon that windy place
Called cruachan, and it was as much.
The rhyme scheme of the stanza above
is
A. aabb
B. abab
C. bbaa
D. abba.

6
ANSWER KEYS 50. B

1. A
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. B
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. D
36. D
37. C
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. A
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. D
48. C
49. A

7
UTME 2011 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS

1. Which Question Paper Type of should she do here? My dismal scene I

Literature-in- English is given to you? need act alone. Come, vial’.
A. Type A The intention of the speaker above is to
B. Type B A. commit
C. Type C B. suicide
D. Type D C. take a temporary harmful substance
D. escape from harsh realities of life
Questions 2 to 5 are based on J. C De
Graft’s Sons and Daughters.
7. The play reaches the point of denouncement
A. at the family feast
2. From it’s resolution of conflicts, the pay
can be described as B. when Romeo kills Paris at the tomb
A. tragedy C. at the reconciliation of the feuding families.
B. comedy D. when Romeo is informed of Juliet’s death
C. farce
D. melodrama 8. The news of Juliet's death is broken to
Romeo in Mantua by
3. The prevailing theme of the play is ---- A. Balthasar
A. love B. Friar Lawrence
B. affluence C. Boy
C. social decadence D. Friar John
D. self-will
4. The final harassment of Maanan takes place in 9. In the play, Mercutio can be described as
A. Ofosu’s office A. fraudulent
B. Lawyer B’s house B. quarrelsome
C. Lawyer B’s chamber C. gentle
D. Ofosu’s house D. kind-hearted
10. The plot of the play is
A. simple
5. ‘Everything in this room outrages my sense
of beauty, undermines my will to create B. complicated
pictures of lasting appeal. ’ The speaker in C. convoluted
the quotation D. chronological
above is
A. happy Questions 11 to 13 are based on
B. frustrated Ferdinand Oyono's The Old Man and
C. excited the Medal.
D. tired
11. The heavy downpour on the night of
Meka's investiture symbolizes
Question 6 to 10 are based on A. revelation
William Shakespeare’s Romeo B. mockery
and Juliet. C. conviction
D. blessing
6. ‘Farewell – God knows when we shall meet
again. I have a faint cold fear thrills 12. Vandermayer's attitude and action towards
through my veins, Meka illustrates the church's
A. despondency
That almost freezes up the heat of lie. I’ll
call them back again to comfort me. B. suspicion
Nurse! – What

8
C.infuriation
D. hypocrisy

13. 'As he opened and shut his mouth his

lower jaw went down and came up,
puffing up and then deflating the skin
under his chin.'
The subject of description in the lines above is
A. the high commissioner
B. M. Pipiniakis
C. the white chief
D. M. Fouconi

Questions 14 to 16 are based on

Buchi Emecheta's The Joy of
Motherhood.
14. For attempted murder, Nnaife was jailed for
A. four months
B. three months
C. five months
D. two months

15. In the novel, Nwokocha Agbadi is famous

for his oratorical powers and
A. height
B. treachery
C. illiteracy
D. wealth
16. In the novel, the handing over of a baby boy
in a dream to Nnu Ego by her personal god
signifies A. reincarnation
B. future blessing
C. idol worship
D. doom

Questions 17 to 20 are based on George

Orwell's Nineteen Eighty-Four
17. The novel draws a picture of
A. a useless past
B. a totalitarian future
C. an unstable moment
D. a peaceful atmosphere

18. The power and oppression of an irresistible

evil debased Winston's dreams of .
A. freedom and democracy
B. internal security

9
C.wealth and capitalism
D. sovereignty

19. Room 101 symbolizes a place of

A. rest
B. fun
C. humiliation
D. tour

20. The novel can be described as

A. optimistic
B. antagonistic
C. persuasive
D. pessimistic

Question 21 to 30 are New Poetry based

on selected poems Ker, D. e t al (eds.)
Bew Poetry from Africa; Soyinka, (ed.):
Poems of Black Africa; Senanu K. E and
Vincent, T. (eds.): A Selection of African
Poerty; Unukoro, Met al (eds.): Exam
Focus: Literature in English; Eruvbetine,
A.E. et al(eds.): Longman Examination
Guides and Nwoga, D.I (ed): West
African Verse.

21. In Naked Soles, Adeoti writes that the

carnival of naked soles dances through
A. scorching sun
B. a dirty room
C. blooming thorns
D. a cloudy atmosphere

22. In Rubadiri's An African Thunderstorm,

the thunderstorm begins with
A. rain from the west
B. clouds from the east
C. rain from the east
D. clouds from the west

23. The theme of Acquah's In the Navel of the Soul is

A. the conflict of traditions
B. ensuring that traditions were strictly observed
C. the futility of man and his tradition
D. the strength in diversity of
culture and traditional views.

10
24. In Kuene’s A Heritage of Liberation, the
persona is concerned with the
A. people's struggle for survival
B. criticism of modern tradition
C. intolerance of the new generation
D. celebration of African
tradition. E.
25. Lanko’s End of the War portrays the
A. silence of
B. usefulness of praise singers
C. irony of life
D. arrangement of war

26. 'Woman cannot exist except by man, What is

there in that to vex some of them so?' The
statement above from the poem Give Me The
Minstrel's Seat exemplifies
A. litotes
B. rhetorical question
C. transferred epithet
D. synecdoche

27. Marvell, in To His Co Mistress uses the

imagery of Coy death to
A. appreciate God's power
B. underscore life's transience
C.condemn the lady
D. scare the lady
28. To sustain the interest of readers, Lawrence in Bat
uses
A. elision
B. hyperbole
C. suspense
D. oxymoron

29. 'With a running stream and a water-mill

beating the darkness. And three trees on the
low sky.' • In the excerpt above from Eliot's
Journey on the Magi, the dominant literary
device is
A. oxymoron
B. personification
C. hyperbole
D. alliteration

30. The tone of Cope's Sonnet VII is generally

11
A. persuasive
B. humorous
C. optimistic
D. mournful

Questions 31 to 40 are based on

General Literary Principles.

31. The large space above the proscenium in a

theatre from which the scenes are
controlled is called
A. aside
B. setting
C. anachronism
D. flies

32. 'Good warriors make others come to them

and do not go to others When you
induce opponents to
come to you, then their force is always
empty, like attacking emptiness with
fullness is throwing on eggs.' Zhang Yu:
The Art of War.
The theme of the passage above is
A. folly of soldiers
B. inspiration
C. spurring people to action
D. war

33. The repetition of single words or

phrases at the beginning of lines is
A. assonance
B. parallelism
C. onomatopoeia
D. alliteration

34. A ballad is meant to be

A. acted
B. sung
C. discussed
D. read
35. In drama, dramaturge is he who
A. writes or edits plays
B. feature in a play
C. directs a play
D. acts a film.
36. Travelogue is a work of art written
A. by a famous playwright

12
B. before the death of the author
C.by an unpopular novelist
D. on a journey
37. Plays are basically meant to
A. change the world
B. keep people out of trouble
C. be ready for pleasure
D. be presented on stage
38. A character who re-enacts familiar
experiences that Leaders easily identify
with is
A. round character
B. flat character
C. stock character
D. static character
39. The plot of a story generally refers to the
A. intrigue made by a character against the hero
B. way the writer ends the story
C. way in which the events of the
story are organised
D. way in which the writer begins the story
40. The metric pattern in a line of poetry
with five stressed and five unstressed
syllables is
A. trochaic decametre
B. dactylic metre
C. iambic pentameter
D. anapaestic metre

Question 41 to 50 are based on

literary Appreciation.

41. Theseus: Now, fairHippolyta, our nuptial hour.

Draws on space four happy days bring
in. Another moon. But 0, me thinks
how slow This old moon wanes, she
lingers my desires, Like to a step-dame
or a dowager,
Long withering out a young man's revenue.
William Shakespear. A midsummer Night's
Dream The literary devices used in the excerpt
above are
A. personification and smile
B. irony and suspense
C. alliteration and synecdoche
D. rhyme and refrain.
42. 'You are the silent code of pleasure locked
in wordless wonder. You are the hive of
treasure, no
13
dragon can plunder' Gbemisola Adeoti
:Dream Code.
The excerpt above achieves its
rhetorical effect through the use of
A. repetition and meiosis
B. metaphor and rhyme
C.caesura and hyperbole
D. alliteration and irony
43. It was not yet closing time, but already
most staff were trooping out of their
offices. The lift was working now and he
squeezed himself into it, breathing with
difficulty the body odour emitted by one
of the passengers. He sighed with relief
when they got to the ground floor and
tumbled out of the lift.'
Ken Saro-Wiwa: A Forest of Flowers
In the excerpt above, the subject's
experience in the lift is
A. timely.
B. comfortable.
C. unpleasant
D. amusing
44. 'Do not thank me, instead, let me ask
you one question, Now you have all
come here sprawling vomiting, rubbing
tears on one another begging me to do
my duty and help you. But what about
you yourselves? What have you done to
help yourselves? Answer. Or is the land
at peace? Are not people ailing and
dying?'
OIa Rotimi: The Gods Are Not To Blame
In the excerpt above, the land is
not at peace because of
A. chieftaincy tussle
B. famine and war
C. political unrest
D. sickness and death
45. ‘In those days. When civilization kicked
us in the face, when holy water slapped
brows. The vultures built in the shadow
of their talons.' David Diop: The Vulture
The dominant literary device used in
the lines above is
A. pun
B. metaphor
C. personification

14
D. simile 50. The wood decay, the woods decay and
fall, The vapour weep their burthen to the
46. I am not afraid of anything; he told them. I ground, Man comes and fills the field and
have done almost everything in this lies beneath, And after many a summer
world. I have you can think of an been dies the swan. The subject matter of the
committed all c y jailed for most of them. lines above is
I have been in prison more hours than I A. death
have been out of it within the last five B. rainfall
years. C. famine
In recounting his criminal life, the speaker's D. storm
tone is
A. regretful
B. boastful
C. subdued
D. repentant
47. 'I have said too much unto a heart of stone,
And laid my honour too unchary on it',
There's something in me that reproves my
fault,. But such a headstrong potent fault it
is That it but mocks reproof.' William
Shakespeare: Twelfth Night
A heart of stone in the lines above is an
example of
A. metonymy
B. litotes
C. assonance
D. metaphor
48. 'Blood was prove no solace to the king. The
rejection he had suffered at Idama's hands
pushed his spirit into a comfortless hole in
which, alone with himself, he searched in
vain for ways to run from his inner
emptiness.' Ayi Kwei Armah:
Two Thousand Seasons
The narrator’s attitude to the king is one of
A. envy
B. sympathy
C. suspicion
D. contempt
49. 'Homage to Peregede the triumphant
mother of morning radiant in
Chameleon's velvet. Let today's dawn
bring on its rails trains of good tidings.'
Gbemisola Adeoti: Salutation to the gods
The excerpt above is an example of
A. invocation
B. limerick
C. ode
D. elegy
15
ANSWER
KEYS 34. B
17. B
35. A
1. D 18. A
36. D
2. B 19. A
37. D
3. D 20. D
38. A
4. D 21. A
39. C
5. B 22. C
40. C
6. B 23. D
41. A
7. C 24. D
42. C
8. A 25. D
43. C
9. B 26. C
44. D
10. D 27. B
45. C
11. B 28. B
46. B
12. D 29. C
47. D
13. D 30. B
48. D
14. A 31. B
49. A
15. D 32. D
50. A
16. 33. B
34. B

16
UTME 2012 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS

1. Which Question Paper Type of The lines above suggest that the tragedy in the play
Literature-in- English as indicated above
is given to you?
A. Type Green
B. Type Purple
C. Type Red
D. Type Yellow
Question 2 to 5 are based on J.C. De
Graft's Sons and Daughters.
2. Who is the paternal aunt to Aaron and
Maanan?
A. Mrs Bonu
B. Hannah
C. Fosuwa
D. Adwao
3. From the play, George is a
A. laboratory assistant
B. pharmacist
C. nurse
D. medical doctor

Use the quotation below to answer questions

1 and
5. ‘If you touch me, I shall smash your
face with this bottle.’

4. "If you touch me, I shall smash your face with

this bottle"
The statement is made by
A. Manaan to lawyer B
B. Manaan to Mrs Bonu
C.James to Awere
D. Awere to Aaron

5. The issue at stake is that

A. Maanan is trying to compromise
B. Lawyer B is trying to kiss Maanan
C. James sees Awere as a bad influence
D. Mrs Bonu is taunting Maanan for loving
her husband

Questions 6 to 10 are based on

William Shakespeare’s Romeo
and Juliet

6. "From forth the fatal loins of these two

foes A pair of star-crossed lovers take

their life..."

17
A. could have been averted C.prayer
B. is predestined D. celebration
C.is brought on enmity
D. brought misfortune on the lovers

7. O she doth teach the torches to

burn bright! It seems she hangs
upon the cheek of night
A rich jewel in an Ethiop's ear."
From the lines above, Juliet's beauty is
presented
A. in contrast to the dark night
B. as a source of envy to all
C.in terms of riches
D. as being outstanding
8. "The all-seeing sun, Ne'er saw match
since first the world begun."
The lines above were spoken by
A. Count Paris in praise of Juliet
B. Romeo in praise of Juliet
C.Romeo in praise of Roseline
D. Lady Capulet in praise of Roseline

9. The major role of Mercutio in the play is to

A. serve as a contrast to Romeo
B. aid and abet Romeo's passion
C.annoy Tybalt
D. accompany Romeo to Friar Lawrence

10. The play shares the feature of

classical tragedy through the
use of
A. violence on stage
B. chorus
C.comic relief
D. flashback

Questions 11 to 13 are based on

Ferdinand Oyono’s The Old Man
and the Medal.

11. "Meka, kneeling down in his usual

fashion with his behind up in the air.
Kelara knelt down beside him. Amalia
and her husband knelt down as well."
The actions of Meka, Kelara,
Amalia and her husband signify
A. parade
B. dance

18
12. "He had knocked his toes against so many D. fiction
things that he had no toenails anymore and
the yaws he had suffered from his youth had 18. Winston writes that the hope of the country lies
on the
twisted his toes up so that they pointed to
A. ministry of the truth
the sky" B. proles
The description above is in reference to the foot C.party
of D. children

A. Kelara 19. In the novel, two minutes hate

B. Meka is a programme designed for
C. Egamba A. parents
B. thought police
D. Mvondo
C.the community
D. children
13. "They said their prayers in a monotonous
sing-song, kneeling on their bamboo bed like
camels waiting to be loaded." 20. To drop his philosophy of life and imbibe
The dominant figure of speech in the excerpt above the tenets of the party, Winston is
is subjected to all forms of torture and
inhuman treatment by
A. rhetorical question
A. O'Brien
B. simile
B. thought police
C. metaphor
C.Big Brother
D. mixed metaphor
D. Goldstein
Questions 14 to 16 are based on Buchi
Questions 21 to 30 are based on selected
Emecheta’s
poems from Johnson, R, et al (eds.): New
The joy of Motherhood.
Poetry from Africa; Soyinka, W. (ED.):
Poems of Black Africa; Senanu, K.E. and
14. As a symbol of material success and fulfilment, Vincent, T. (eds.): A Selection of African
Ibuzza community places a lot of importance on Poetry: U. Maduka, C.T et al: Exam Focus:
A. childbirth Longman Examination Guides; Nwoga, D.I.
B. wealth (ed.): West African Verse and Adeoti G:
C. male child Naked Soles.
D. female child
21. The movement in Adeoti's Naked
Soles is characterized by
15. Ona on her dying bed appeals to Agbadi to A. hope and agreement
A. give her a befitting burial B. freedom and self-determination
B. take good care of her children C.pricks and tears
C. take another wife D. disappointed and disarray
D. allow Nnu Ego marry a man of her choice
22. One of the dominant themes if Rubadin's
16. The little money Nnaife makes after returning An African Thunderstorm is the
from Fernando PO is used for A. relationship between man and woman
A. expanding Nnu Ego's business B. activities of man during rainy seasons
B. taking care of his family C.effect of rain on women and children
C. sending his children to school D. problem of climate change
D. getting more wives
23. In Kunene's A Heritage of Liberation, the
Questions 14 to 16 are based on George weapons are to be preserved for the generation
Orwell’s Nineteen Eighty-Four. yet unborn by the
A. gods
17. The novel is mainly classified as a B. elders
A. metaphor C.people
B. hyperbole
C. satire
19
D. government Questions 31 to 40 are based on
general Literary Principles.
24. Give Me The Minstrel's Seat ends on a clarion 31. A literary work in which the characters and
call for events are used as symbols is known as
A. freedom A. characterization
B. peace B. allegory
C. rectitude C.metaphor
D. commitment D. parallelism

25. "...the youthful hue/sits on thy skin 32. Characterization in a novel refers to the
like a morning dew..." A. writer's opinion of the characters
The excerpt above from Marvell's To His B. way the characters are revealed to the reader
Coy Mistress is an example of C.characters and the way they behave
A. simile D. reader's opinion of the characters
B. anaphora 33. In literary work, verbal irony refers to a
C. paradox A. device in which the speaker means the
D. onomatopia opposite of what he says
B. situation in which a character
26. In Lawrence's Bat, the poet compares bats with speaks or acts against the trend of
A. sparrows events
B. swans C.difficult situation which defies a logical
C. swallows or rational resolution
D. crows D. device in which the actor on stage
means exactly what he says
27. Elliot's The Journey of the Magi could
be said to examine the issues of 34. In the theater, words spoken by a character that
A. three trees on the low sky are meant to be heard by the audience but not
B. empty wine-skins by the other characters on stage is called
C. spiritual rebirth A. aside
D. holy pilgrimage B. soliloquy
C.acoustic
28. "We would be believing we dreamt it" D. tone
The figure of speech in the line above from
Acquah's In the Navel of the Soul is 35. Drama is the representation of a complete
A. apostrophe series of actions by means of
B. assonance A. movement and gesture for the
C. antithesis screen and audience
D. alliteration B. speech, movement and gesture for the stage only
C.speech, movement and gesture for
29. The casualties in Launko's End of the War the stage, screen and radio
A. women D. speech, gesture and movement for the
B. children screen and radio
C. men
D. soldiers 36. A poet's use of regular rhythm is known as
A. allegory
30. The theme of Cope's Sonnet VII is B. assonance
A. art of poetry C.metre
B. adventure D. onomatopoeia
C. contempt for literature
D. isolation 37. A literary genre which directly imitates
human action is
A. drama

20
B. comedy C.abab
C. prose D. baba
D. poetry
44. Unequal laws unto a savage race, That
38. A fable is a story in which board, and sleep, and feed....
A. allegations are made about characters The lines above show that the speaker
B. animals or things are used as characters A. detects discrimination
C. there is an important setting B. is desirous of adventure
D. the story is told in poetic form C.hates his old wife
D. knows much of his city men
39. The juxtaposition of two contrasting ideas in a
line of poetry is 45 How can I look at Oyo and say I hate long shiny
A. euphemism cars? How can I come to the children and
B. synedoche despise international schools? And
C. catharsis Koomson comes, and the family sees
D. oxymoron Jesus Christ in him....
The feeling conveyed by the speaker above is one
40. The main aim of caricature is to of
A. describe A. anger
B. expose B. alienation
C. emphasize C.hope
D. ridicule D. despair

Questions 41 to 50 are based on 46. "Hide me now, when night children

Literary Appreciation haunt the earth" Wole Soyinka:Night
Night children in the stanza above reflects
the consciousness of
41. O! Ceremony, show me but thy worth
What is thy soul of adoration A. birds
The figure of speech in the lines above is B. armed robbers
A. antithesis C.animals
B. invocation D. spirit beings
C. personification
D. apostrophe 47. "Serrated shadows, through dark leaves, Til,
bathed in warm suffusion of your
42. "What eyes will watch our large mouths, dapped cells Sensation pained me,
Shaped by the laughter of big children faceless, silent as night thieves."
Wole Soyinka: Night
What eyes will watch our large mouths?"
Birage Diop:Vanity The dominant mood in the lines above is one of
The tone of the lines above is one of A. apprehension
A. sarcasm B. defiance
B. sacrilege C.joy
C. chiasmus D. indifference
D. eulogy
48. "The drums overwhelmed the guns " J.P
Clark:
43. The old man slept in his favourite
Casualties
chair The wind ran its fingers
through his hair He looked like a The poet in the excerpt above uses
tree gone dry of sap And his hands A. litotes
were dry upon his lap The rhyme a B. symbolism
scheme of the poem above is C.onomatopoeia
A. bbaa D. alliteration
B. aabb
49. ‘. They do not see the funeral piles
At home eating up the forests ’

21
J.P. Clark:Casualties
The imagery created in the above excerpt is
achieved
through
A. metaphor
B. personification
C. synecdoche
D. metonym

50. "I cannot rest from travel: I will drink

Life to the lees, all times I have enjoyed
Greatly, have suffered greatly"
A.L. Tennyson: Ulysses
The lines above inform the reader that the poet
A. is determined to suffer
B. has his poetic imagination kindled
C. will cure his sour mood
D. will not drink much

22
ANSWER
KEYS
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. B
44. A
45. A
46. D
47. A
48. C
49. A
50. B

23
UTME 2013 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS

1. Which Question Paper Type of A. attempting to steal

Literature-in- English is given to you? B. attending a feast uninvited
A. Type B C.engaging in a shouty match
B. Type I D. holding a sword to commit murder
C. Type B
7. "What, drawn and talk of peace? I
D. Type U
hate the word As I hate hell, all
Montagues, and thee Have at
Questions 2 to 5 are based on J.C. De thee,coward!"
Graft's Sons and Daughters.
Use the excerpt below to answer Based on William Shakespeare's Romeo and
questions 2 and 3. Juliet, the lines above reveal the speaker as a
A. violence seeker
James: Let me swear, woman. And I will B. peace maker
swear by my father's coffin that if.... C. real Montague
D. trouble shooter
2. The lines depict James as a
A. traditionalist 8. Romeo’s mood, at the beginning of the play
B. Christian can be described as
C. pagan A. melancholic and sentimental
B. dreamy and hopeful
D. Muslim
C. frustrated and pensive
D. gay and elated
3. The speaker is referring to
A. Fosuwa 9. "O'deadly sin! O rude unthankfulness!
B. Awere Thy fault our law calls death, but the kind
C. Maanan Prince, taking thy part, hath rushed aside
D. Hannah the law, And turned that black word
"death" to banishment."
4. Aaron' .All I need really is a place in an Art
The speaker in the passage above is
school, engineering can go hang
itself. The dominant figure of A. Lord Montague
speech in the excerpt above is B. Friar Lawrence
A. metonymy C. Apothecary
B. synecdoche D. Lord Capulet
C. personification
D. metaphor 10. " .. Put up thy sword
Or manage it to part these men with me."
5. From the play, the character of Aaron The speech above was made when
represents the A. Tybalt challenges Romeo to duel
A. painters B. Prince Escalus arrives to make peace
B. art work between the families
C. new generation C. Romeo and Paris engaged themselves in a fight
D. old generation D. Benvolio tries to separate the servants of
the feuding families
6. 'Uncle, this is a Montague, our foe; A villain
that is hither come in spite, To scorn at our Questions 11 to 13 are based on
solemnity this night.' Ferdinand Oyono's the Old Man and
The villain in the excerpt above is the Medal

11. For his sacrifices to the church, Meka gets

A. appointed into the church elders' council
B. the privilegde to choose a permanent
place to sit

24
C.a place near an aged leper B. the party
D. a land to build a new house C.the thought police
D. individuals
12. "Since I came to this country, I have
never seen cocoa as well dried as 19. The action in the novel is built around
yours." A. Winston Smith
B. O'Brien
The speaker above is C. Julia
A. Nkolo D. Big Brother
B. the Commandant
C. the Catechist 20. Winston Smith works in the Record
D. Nua Department of the Ministry of
13. To the white men, the medal that is A. love
given symbolizes B. truth
A. harmonious relationship C. peace
B. love D. plenty
C. peace
D. friendship Questions 21 and 30 are based on
selected poems from Johnson, R. et al
Questions 14 to 16 are based on Buchi (eds.): New Poetry from Africa; Soyinka,
Emecheta’s The Joy of Motherhood. W. (ed.): Poems of Black Africa; Senanu,
14. Nnu Ego is blamed for the misfortunes of her K.E. and Vincent, T. (eds): A Selection of
A. parents African Poetry; Umukoro M. et al: Exam
B. husband Focus: Literature in English; Eruvbetine,
C. siblings A.E. et al (eds.): Longman Examination
D. children Guides: Poetry for Senior Secondary
Schools NWOGA, D.I. (ed.) West African
15. According to the novel Nnaife becomes Verse
frustrated when 21. The dominant poetic technique
A. Oshiaju secures a scholarship to study employed in Adeoti's Naked Soles is
abroad A. zeugma
B. he is arrested and charged for B. oxymoron
attempted murder of his in-law C. hyperbole
C.his wife gives birth to female twins D. onomatopoeia
D. he is recruited into the army
22. Rubadiri's An African Thunderstorm
16. Adaku remains faithful to Nnaife until she can be described as
A. starts keeping unnecesary friends A. didactic
B. is unable to give birth to a male child B. dramatic
C. is rebuked by the Ibuza society for C. traditional
abusing Nnu Ego D. satirical
D. becomes rich and powerful
23. 'Since it was you who in all these thin
Questions 17 to 20 are based on George seasons." The device employed in the line
Orwell’s Nineteen Eighty-four above from Kunene's The Heritage of
17. The Ministry of Love is concerned with Liberation, is an example of
A. peace and freedom A. apostrophe
B. torture and pain B. allusion
C. joy and peace C. anecdote
D. hatred and pain D. aside

18. The instruments of power and torture belong to 24. "Let me ask for what reason or
A. the government rhyme women refuse to marry?

25
Woman cannot exist except by man, D. difficult
what is there in that to vex some of them
so? The lines above from Give Me The
Minstrel's Seat is an example of
A. pathetic fallacy
B. chiasmus
C. ironical statement
D. rhetorical question

25. ‘Time winged chariot’

The line above from Marvell's To His Coy
Mistress
depicts
A. how fast time flies
B. the usefulness of time
C. the measurement of time
D. how fast events unfold

26. Lawrence's Bat opens with the description of

the
A. scene
B. creatures
C. bats
D. scenery
27. The theme of Eliot's The Journey of Magi is
A. quest for salvation
B. escape from persecution
C. nature
D. journey

28. Acquah's In The Navel of the Soul describes

the
A. lack of experienced midwives in the society
B. excesses of the new generation churches
and politicians
C. complications of motherhood and child
bearing
D. conflict between the church and tradition

29. "Listen...they will tell you...

to beat drums is mere children's
play, the adult's is to start
echoes...
The lines above from Launkos' End of the
War, enhance the -----
A. rhyme of the poem
B. rhythm of the poem
C. language of the poem
D. use of imagery

30. The language OF Cope’s Sonnet VII past

event in a literary work is
A. complicated
B. simple
C. poetic complicated
26
Question 31 to 40 are based on
General literacy Principles
31. A device used by a writer to recall past
event in a literary work is
A. interlude
B. anti-climax
C. flashback
D. foreshadowing

32. A paragraph in prose is equivalent to a

A. trope in poetry
B. verse in poetry
C. stanza in poetry
D. meter in poetry

33. A fable is a brief narrative illustrating wisdom

and
A. urgency
B. origin
C. custom
D. truth

34. A device used in poetry to achieve

emphasis or stress a point is known as
A. rhyme
B. assonance
C. repetition
D. alliteration

35. A literary work that ridicules the

shortcomings of people or ideas is
A. a masque
B. a satire
C. an irony
D. a fable

36. The figure of speech in which the writer

means the exact opposite of what he
intends to say is
A. satire
B. irony
C. paradox
D. metaphor

37. Action without speech in a play is

A. soliloquy
B. aside
C. epilogue
D. mime

38. A literary work that teaches moral is said to be

A. impressive

27
B. didactic Use the quotation below to answer questions 44
C. instructive and 45.
D. corrective
Will no one tell me what she sings
39. A mistake committed by the hero which leads to perhaps the plaintive numbers flow
his downfall is known as for old, unhappy, far off things
A. comic relief And battles long ago.
B. terse Or is it some more humble lay,
C. climax Familiar matter of today?
D. tragic flaw 44. The lines above show that the persona
A. does not understand the girl's language
40. The speech made by a character to himself on B. is so much in love with the girl
stage is C. so hates the words of the girl
A. monologue D. understands the girl's songs
B. epilogue
C. aside 45. The line end in a literary device known as
D. soliloquy A. transferred epithet
B. rhetorical question
Question is based on Literary Appreciation. C. Irony
D. conceit
41. "Women as a clam, on the sea's crescent
I saw your jealous eye quench the sea's 46. Oh incomprehensible God!
Fluorescence, dance on the pulse Shall my pilot be
incessant. Wole Soyinka: Night My inborn stars to that
The lines above suggest that women are Final call to thee...
A. magicians
B. covetous The literary device used in the first line is
C. dogmatic A. passion
D. seers B. apostrophe
C. burlesque
Use the quotation below to answer question D. rhetoric
42
and 43.
"Busy old fool 47. "Busy old fool, unruly sun,
Unruly sun Why dost thou thus."
Why dost thou thus J. Donne:The Sun Rising
Through windows From the lines above, the poet sees the
sun as
And through curtains A. a necessary evil
Call on us?" B. a light provider
J. Donne: The Sun Rising C. illumination after darkness
42. The excerpts above suggests D. an unnecessary evil
A. praise of nature
B. invitation to the sun Use the quotation below to answer questions 48
C. welcoming the sun and 49.
D. indictment of the sun
The body perishes, the heart stays young.
43. The figure of speech involved in the lines above is The platter wears away with serving food.
A. simile No log retains its bark when old,
B. personification No lover peaceful while the rival weeps.
C. epigram 48. The theme of the poem above is
28
D. pun A. permanence of love
B. decaying nature of wood

29
C. non-peaceful nature of love
D. diminishing nature of love

49. “No lover peaceful while the rival weeps" means

that
A. there is true and permanent love
B. the two lovers weep together
C. the pain of one lover is felt by the other
D. there is no permanent love

50. "Will college make you a better Olokun

priest?
Will it make you serve our ancestors better?
Look at me. An able-bodied, strong-hearted
priest
of Olokun. Did I go to college?"
Grace Osifo: Dizzy Angel
The literary device used in the passage above is
A. simile
B. parallelism
C. onomatopoeia
D. metaphor

30
ANSWER
KEYS 30. A
1. D
31. C
2. A
32. C
3. B
33. D
4. C
34. C
5. C
35. B
6. B
36. B
7. D
37. D
8. C
38. B
9. A
39. D
10. D
11. A 40. A
12. B 41. B
13. D 42. D
14. D 43. B
15. C 44. B
16. A 45. B
17. A 46. B
18. A 47. A
19. A 48. A
20. A 49. C
21. D 50. D
22. C
23. A
24. D
25. A

31
UTME 2014 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS

1. Which Question Paper Type of A. two decades

Literature-in- English is given to you? B. twelve years
A. Type F C.forty days
B. Type S D. eighteen months.
C. Type L
D. Type S 8. Caliban's intention to rape Miranda is born
out of the desire to
Questions 2 to 5 are based on Femi A. destroy the Island
Osofisan's Women of Owu B. compete with Ferdinand
2. In the play, the gods are portrayed as C. populate the Island with Calibans
A. helpless D. marry her.
B. architects of man's destiny 9. The character associated with savagery in the
C. amorous play is
D. saviours of mankind A. Ariel
B. Stephano
3. Orisaye describes Balogun Kusa as C. Caliban
A. a great warrior D. Ferdinand
B. an enemy and a butcher 10. Prospero is portrayed as a man who is
C. a friend in need A. full of mistrust for everybody
D. a good leader B. more interested in studying than in governance
C. dependent on the spirits for his survival
4. Erelu is D. eager to conquer the world
A. the oldest wife of the Oba Akinjobi
B. a courtier to the Alaafin of Oyo Questions 11 to 13 are based on Asare
C. the most brilliant woman in Owu Konadu's A Woman in Her Prime.
D. the first wife of the Oba 11. The novel explores the theme of
A. exploitation of the African woman
5. Balogun Kusa is killed by a B. sex discrimination in Ghana
A. god C. women liberation in Nigeria
B. herbalist D. child quest of an African woman
C. lunatic
D. soldier 12. According to the novel, the worst calamity that
can befall a woman is
A. inability to bear male
Questions 6 to 10 are based on
William Shakespeare's The B. inability to marry
Tempest. C. divorce children
6. In the play, Ariel is identified as D. barrenness.
A. leader of the spirits
B. Prospero's daughter 13. In the novel, Asogo is a game in which
C. Alonso's wife A. fathers narrate animal stories
D assistant to Sycorax B. boys abuse girls with music
C. girls sing songs of praise admonition
7. Before the shipwreck that occurs at the D. mothers lure their babies to sleep
beginning of the play, Prospero and his
daughter have lived in the Island for

32
Questions 14 to 16 are based on
Chimamanda Adiechie’s Purple
Hibiscus

14. In the novel, one of the changes introduced

into St. Agnes’ church by Father is that

A. there must be fasting every month

B. the Credo must be recited in lgbo
C. the Kyrie must be rendered only in Latin
D. everyone must take holy communion

15. Eugene Achike in the novel is portrayed as

A. a soft and gentle husband
B. an uncompromising traditionalist
C. a fanatical Catholic adherent
D. a tough retired soldier.

16. In the Achike family, the character who is

central to the theme is
A. Kambili
B. Mama
C. Sisi
D. Jaja

Questions 17 to 20 are based on

Ernest Hemingway's The Old Man
and the Sea.

17. In the novel, the type of fish caught by

Santiago after days of effort is
A. shark
B. iris
C. marlin
D. geisha

18. The novel demonstrates the

A. attempt to catch fish
B. desire to understand life
C. influence of the sea on man
D. struggle of man against-defeat

19. In the novel, the attitude of the old

man toward nature is quite
A. cautious and sceptical
B. hostile and callous
C. careless and indifferent
D. warm and friendly.

20. Santiago's second dream occurs

A. the night before his fishing expedition
B. in his house
C. at the end of the book

33
D. when he sleeps on the boat for a few hours.

Questions 21 to 30 are based on Selected

Poems from Ker,D. et al (eds.) New Poetry
from Africa; Soyinka, (ed.): Poems of
Black Africa; Senanu
K.E. and Vincent, T. (eds.): A Selection of
African Poetry; Umukoro, M et a! (eds.):
Exam Focus: Literature in English;
Ernubetine, A.E. et al (eds.): Longman
Examination Guides and Nwoga, D.1. (ed):
West African Verse.

21. The dominant image in Adeoti's Hard Lines is

A. auditory
B. gustatory
C. visual
D. tactile.

22. The tone of Umeh's Ambassadors of

Poverty can be described as
A. metaphorical
B. sarcastic
C. admonitory
D. panegyrical

23. Owonibi's Homeless, not Hopeless,

the persona explains that street
beggars
A. always worry about heaven
B. rarely sleep and dream
C. attend conferences in towns
D. are concerned with their daily needs.

24. Cheney-Coker's Myopia is a

A. dirge
B. lament
C. sonnet
D. ballad

25. Jared Angira is an African poet from

A. Sierra-Leone
B. Kenya
C. South Africa
D. Ghana.

26. The dominant technique used in Serenade is

A. metaphor
B. simile
C. oxymoron
D. apostrophe

27. The sun in Donne's The Sun

Rising is depicted through the
use of

34
A. invocation C.character delineation
B. ellipsis D. causal arrangement of events
C. enjambment
D. apostrophe 35. Tone and mood of a poem refer to
A. setting
28. In Raleigh's The Soul's Errand, the soul is B. space
portrayed as a C. locale
A. friend of suffering masses D. atmosphere
B. fearless message-bearer
C. restorer of lost glory 36. A funny incident within a serious situation is
D. messenger of hope and peace. A. tragicomedy
B. tragic hero
29. The allusion in Hughes's The Negro C. comedy
Speaks of Rivers is mainly D. comic relief
A. biblical
B. historical 37. In literature, a flat character can be
C. classical described as one who
D. literary A. dies abruptly
30. Fletcher's Upon An Honest Man's Fortune B. achieves greatness
encourages people to C. is undeveloped
A. condemn soothsaying D. undergoes changes
B. move in the direction of God
C. accept soothsaying 38. Dramatis personae in a play refers to
D. accept life as it is. A. cast list
B. protagonist and antagonist
Questions 31 to 40 are based on C. list of characters
General Literary Principles D. order of appearance

31. An action in a play that stimulates the audience to 39. The speech made at the end of a
pity a character is dramatic performance is generally
A. pathos called
B. parody A. a dirge
C. pyrrhic B. a monologue
D. props C. a prologue.
D. an epilogue
32. Purgation of emotion, pity and fear is
A. epilogue 40. Which of the following is central to
B. exposition narrative fiction?
C. catharsis A. Objectivity
D. catastrophe B. Subjectivity
C. Verisimilitude
33. A device in drama where a character speaks D. Dialogue
alone is
A. apostrophe Questions 41 to 50 are based on
B. dialogue Literary Appreciation.
C. soliloquy
D. aside 41. He put himself in uniform, made one for his
five- year-old son, and marched with the infant
34. A plot in a literary work is about from dawn till noon every market day, on the
A. resolution of conflicts main road singing `Kayiwawa beturi…
B. law of poetic justice The persona in the excerpt above is portrayed as
A. energetic

35
B. a policeman C. grasshoppers
C.a soldier D. light opera
D. abnormal 48. The most dominant figure of speech in the
excerpt is
42. He is a faithful liar A. metaphor
The above is an example of B. simile
A. epigram C. personification
B. oxymoron D. hyperbole
C. euphemism
D. antithesis 49. You
Your head is like a drum that is beaten
43. Fights by the book of arithmetic for spirits. You
The figure of speech in the line above is Your ears are like the fans used for blowing
A. hyperbole fire. The lines above are a good example of
B. Euphemism A. caricature
C. Litotes B. ridicule
D. Innuendo C. satire
D. lampoon
44. And when you trudge on one horny pads
Gullied like the soles of modern shoes Pads 50. 'This thing you are doing is too heavy for
that even jiggers cannot conquer you, he said. I went to school only a little
Horny pads in the lines above is a reference to but I have killed many many more years in
a this world than you have'. G. Okara: The
A. policeman voice
B. madman It can be inferred from the passage above that the
C. sole of a pauper A. listener is wise
D. sole of a soldier. B. speaker is a porter
45. 'Lift not the painted veil which those who live C. listener is more experienced
call life: though unreal shapes be picture E. speaker is more experienced.
there, And it but mimic all we would believe
With colours idly spread-behind, lurk fear.'
P.B Shelley: Sonnet The stanza above is
an example of a
A. quatrain
B. sonnet
C. couplet
D. sestet

Use the following excerpt to answer

questions 46 to 48.

`I wonder how long, you awful parasites,

shall share with me this little bed, And
awake me, from my sweet dreams be lost,
sucking blood from my poor head...' By
Mbure: To a Bed-Bug
46. The lines are an example of a
A. limerick
B. lampoon
C. light verse
D. light opera
47. The poet persona expresses dismay about
A. bat
B. cockroaches

36
ANSWER 25. A
KEYS 26. D
1. D 27. D
2. B 28. B
3. B 29. A
4. A 30. D
5. C 31. A
6. A 32. C
7. D 33. C
8. D 34. D
9. C 35. D
10. A 36. D
11. A 37. C
12. D 38. C
13. D 39. D
14. B 40. D
15. C 41. D
16. A 42. B
17. C 43. D
18. D 44. C
19. A 45. A
20. D 46. A
21. C 47. B
22. C 48. C
23. D 49. D
24. B 50. D

37
UTME 2015 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS

C. presence of the strangers

D. Problem of his family and their
1. 'Busy old fool, unruly sun why economic implications
windows and through curtains call 8. Fletcher's Upon An Honest Man's Fortune
on us?' The most vivid figure of speech achieves its lyrical effect through the use
in the lines above from Donne's The Sun of
Rising is A. Synecdoche
A. simile B. Antithesis
B. diction C. enjambment
C. personification D. Ballad
D. pun
2. The allusion in Hughes's The Negro 9. Rhythm is achieved in Raleigh's The
Speaks of Rivers is mainly Soul's Errand through the use of
A. biblical A. Metaphor
B. classical B. Alliteration
C. literary C. repetition
D. historical D. Antithesis
3. In Adeoti's Hard Lines, Sodium cyanide 10.The title of Umeh's Ambassador of
is Poverty is
A. poisonous A. Repetition
B. adhesive B. A simile
C. sweet C. an alliteration
D. fragrant D. An irony
4. In owonibi's Honieless, not Hopeless the 11.The repetition of a consonant sound in
persona explains that street beggars quick succession for sound effect is
A. Always worry about in heaven A. Alliteration
B. Attend conferences towns B. Pun
C. are concerned with their daily needs C. onomatopoeia
D. Rarely sleep and dream D. Assonance
5. The poet persona in Serenade is a 12.A play in which the acts succeed one
A. Suitor Another without probable or
B. Mother necessary sequence is
C. spinster A. Episodic
D. Passer-by B. Simple
6. In Cheney-Coker's Myopia, peasants C. linear
refer to D. Convoluted
A. Under-privileged masses
13.A technique by which a previous scene
B. Politicians or action can be recalled in a play to
C. farmers shed light on the present action is
D. Rural dwellers A. Climax
7. In Angira's Expelled, the poet persona B. Flashback
laments the C. interlude
A. Loss of his property D. Catharsis
B. Harrowing experiences from the 14. Criticism is a literary activity which seeks
stranger's visit to

38
A. Find faults in a literary work A. Afraid
B. Analyse and evaluate a literary B. Excited
work C. compare and contrast novels C. pessimistic
D. Discover the beauty of a literary work D. Reassuring
15.A situation where an actor addresses the 22. 'Her neck is rope-like thin, long and
audience without the other actors skinny and her face sickly pale.' Okot
hearing him is called p' Bitek: Song of Lawino. The style used
A. Soliloquy in the lines is
B. Chorus A. Narrative
C. aside B. Argumentative
D. Solo C. dramatic
16.A band of singers and dancers in drama D. Descriptive
who act as a link between the play and 23. 'once upon a time son, they used to
the audience is the laugh with their eyes; but now they
A. Chorus only laugh with their teeth, while
B. Clown their ice-block-cold eyes search
C. Playwright behind my shadow' G. Okara: Once
D. Cast upon a time The lines above are
17.A character whose name is used as the expressive of
title of the text is A. Friendliness
A. Antagonist B. Insincerity
B. Round C. jealousy
C. eponymous D. Sympathy
D. Flat
18.In poetry, the term license 24. 'when she opens her heart the
implies A. Freedom to sell poems savior's image!' Traditional: Love
B. Liberty the poets take with language Song. the allusion in the lines above
C. approval given to poets to compose shows
poems A. That the poet is a Christian
D. Honour given to deserving poets B. That his love had a heart surgery
19.The person who takes the leading role in C. the climax of love relationship
a play or novel is the D the anti-climax of love relationship
A. Protagonist 25.'Ay, your times were fine times
B. Actor indeed you have been telling us of
C. antagonist them for many a long year. Here we
D. Actress live in an old rumbling mansion, that
20.A form of writing in which the poet write looks for all the world like an inn,
with nostalgia about simple village life is but we never see company.'
A. Ballad Goldsmith: She Stoops to Conquer. The
B. Romance figure of speech in the world like an inn
C. epic is A. Irony
D. pastoral B. Euphemism
21. „We all make decisions. Sometimes it C. simile
is wrong, sometimes it is right.' The D. Metaphor
speaker in the lines above is

39
26. 'She gave out colanuts and together B. fights with the speaker
they ate to appease the angry earth C. detests the speaker
and amadioha spoke through D. Betrays the speaker
lightning and thunder.‟ The figure of 31. The flourishing fish market in the novel
speech in the third line above is Is located In
A. Personification A. St. Louis
B. Simile B. Canary Island
C. hyperbole C. Cleveland
D. Metaphor D. Havana
27. 'Ay, your times were fine times 32. In summary, the old man can
indeed you have been telling us of be described as
them for many a long year. Here we A. A Marxist
live in an old rumbling mansion, that B. an idealist
looks for all the world like an inn, C. an optimist
but we never see company.' D. A realist
Goldsmith: She Stoops to Conquer. The 33. As he struggled with fish and the
figure of speech in the world like an inn sharks, the old man constantly talks to
is A. hopeful himself because
B. frustrated A. He is afraid of the sea
C. regretful B. that is what all fishermen do
D. Happy C. it will make the sharks leave
28. 'Her neck is rope-like thin, long and D. The boy has left him
skinny and her face sickly pale.‟ Okot 34. To the old man, mandolin is
p‟ Bitek:Song of Lawino.The style used in A. A symbol of oppression B.
the lines is the cause of the ill-luck
A. Ridicule C. a source of encouragement
B. admonition D. Typical of lazy youths
C. anger 35. The subject matter of the novel is
D. sympathy A. Domestic violence
29. „Ah. sunflower, weary of time who B. religious zeal
contests the steps of the sun C. child abuse
seeking after that sweet golden D. Marital infidelity
clime where the travellers' Journey 36. In the Achike family, the character
is done. The figure of speech in the who is central to the theme is
second line above is A. Kambili
A. Simile B. mama
B. metaphor C. sisi
C. irony D. Jaja
D. Hyperbole 37. The novel exposes
30. „There is no art to find the minds A. Military dictatorship
construction on the face he was a B. the travails of a single girl
gentleman on whom I built an C. what happens in a family with a
absolute trust.' Shakespeare: Macbeth, high-handed father
The gentleman in the lines above D. The problem of running a large family
A. Annoys the speaker in an urban society
40
38.'A priest rushed forward and poured B. he wants his back, so he can rule
libation,... Having thus appealed to again
the keeper of the spirit world, they C. he sees his usurpation from one side
waited for results. Moments passed D. He is unfair to Miranda
before the bearers could move 44.An idea that recurs in the play is
again.' The incident is the A. People's love for power
A. Sacrifice to make pokuwaa pregnant B. people's love for money
B. burial of Yaw Boakye C. development of the Island
C. search for Yaw Boakye D. Love at first sight
D. Search for the missing black hen 45.Gonzalo in the play is
39.According to the medicine man, pokuwaa A. Antonio's brother
has miscarriage because B. a Milan Senator
A. Kwadwo often beats her C. a Neapolitan Councillor
B. she is barren from birth D. Sebastian's co-conspirator
C. her mother does not offer 46.In the play, the gods are portrayed as
thanksgiving sacrifice A. Saviours of mankind
D. Kwaswo's mother is a powerful witch B. architects of man's destiny
40.'A priest rushed forward and poured C. helpless
libation... Having thus appealed to D. Amorous
the keeper of the spirit world, they 47.In the play, Osofisan shows that war
waited for results. Moments passed A. Is destructive
before the bearers could move B. is injurious to the gods
again.' The incident narrated above C. builds human society
takes place D. Must be fought with patriotic zeal
A. On the way to the stream 48.Orisaye insists that she receives
B. at the market place revelations from
C. close to the cemetery A. Sango
D. At the village square B. Ogun
41.The central theme of the play is C. Orunmila
A. Man and nature D. Obatala
B. heaven and earth 49.In the play, a General of the Allied
C. sin and forgiveness Forces is
D. Slow and steady A. Okunade
42.In the play, Prospero leaves his B. Erelu
Dukedom of Milan to devote his time to C. Akinjobi
the pursuit of D. Anlugbus
A. Magic 50.In the play, Oba Asunkungbade is the
B. knowledge A. War leader of Ijebu
C. romance B. Ooni of lfe
D. Recreation C. Monarch of Oyo
43.Prospero's sense of justice is one sided D. Founder of Owu-Ipole
because
A. While he is angry with Antonio, he
enslaves Ariel and Caliban

41
ANSWERS KEY
1. C 46. B
2. C 47. A
3. B 48. D
4. D 49. A
5. A 50. D
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. A
10.
11. A
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. C
18. B
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. D
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. C
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. D
45. C

42
UTME 2016 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS
D. Rigging
1.The usual works you know these things. We'll
dangle this babe before the Chief fora price.
He will employ her and we can make use of
her to get what we want. She will run the
errands while we pick the bucks'. The babe in
the excerpt above refers to
A. Ogeyi
B. Alice
C. Ochuole
b. Aloho
2. '0! God forgive me. Is this a trap or what?
God! Poor girl! Whatever is her reason for
this dangerous decision.'
A. Chief
B. Doctor
C. Inspector Inaku
D. ACP Yakubu

This question is based on Frank Ogodo0gbecheis

Harvest of Corruption
3. The central setting of the play is
A. Mabu
B. Gbossa
C. Darkin
D. Jabu
This question is based on Frank
OgodoOgbeche's Harvest of
Corruption

4. ‘Good day (He says without looking up.)

See me there by 4 p.m. Okay? Bye!' there
in the excerpt above refers to the
A. Court room
B. Police station
C. Airport
D. Akpara hotel

This question is based on Frank Ogodo0gbeche's

Harvest of Corruption

5. Chief Ade Amaka is involved in which of

the following crime?
A. Child trafficking
B. Land grabbing
C. Smuggling

43
This question is based on
Williams Shakespeare's
Othello
6. 'ill-starred wench, pale as thy smock,
When we shall meet at compt.' The
device used in the lines above is
A. simile
B. pun
C. metaphor
D. paradox

This question is based on

Williams Shakespeare's
Othello
7. Othello kills Desdemona because the
A. former is jealous
B. former's race is insulted
C. latter is a witch.

8. Brabantio is opposed to the

relationship between Othello and
Desdemona because
A. he prefers lago
B. Othello is a Moor
C. Roderigo woos her first.
D. Desdemona is too young

This question is based on

William Shakespeare's
Othello
9. 'soft you; a word or two before you go. I
have done the state some service, and
they know't No more of that, I pray you, in
your letters, When you shall these unlucky
deeds relate ', The speech above is made.
when the speaker is
A. travelling
B. sick
C. dying
D. eloping

This question is based on

William Shakespeare's
Othello
10. '0 heaven; How got she
out? 0 treason of the
blood.
Father, from hence trust not
your daughters' minds
By what you see them act. Is there not
charms By which the property of youth
44
and maidhood

45
May be abused?
The speaker of the excerpt above is
A. Brabantio
B. Othello
C. Gratiano
D. Roderigo

This question is based on Ammadarko's Faceless

11. The name of Kabria's husband is
A. Kwei
B. Kpakp
o
C.Adade
D. Ottu

The question is based on AmmaDarko's Faceless

12. 'She was both a child and an adult and
could act like both
The character being referred to in the
excerpt above is
A. Fofo
B. Baby T.
C. Odarley
D. Obea.

13. The question is based on AmmaDarko's

Faceless. The writer of the novel is from
A. Germany
B. Scotland
C. Ghana
D. Nigeria

This question is based on BayoAdebowale's

Lonely Days.
14. Windows in mourning in Kufi wear garments
that are
A. red
B. black
C. white
D. dull

This question is based on BayoAdebowale's

Lonely Days.
15. In the novel bage cap signifies everlasting
A. happiness
B. sorrow

46
C. freedom
D. despair

This question is based on BayoAdebowale's

Lonely Days
16. Yaremiss only son is
A. Alani
B. Wande
C. Olode
D. Deyo

This question is based on Richard Wright's

Native Son
17. Bigger burns Mary body in the
A. toilet
B. basement
C. backyard
D. wardrobe

This question is based on Richard Wright's

Native Son.
18. Mary's lover is
A. Earlone
B. Buckley
C. Bigger
D. Max

This question is based on Richard Wright's

Native Son.
19. 'Suppose Mary had not burned? Suppose
she was still there, expose’ The dominant
literacy device in the excerpt above is
A. apostrophe
B. euphemism
C. syntactical parallelism
D. rhetorical question

This question is based on Richard Wright's

Native Son
20. Bigger and the gang rob Negroes because
A. they are the same
B. it is not a crime
C. they are helpless
D. it is easier
21. One of the themes in Morris The Proud King is

47
A. arrogance
B. greed
C. education
D. achievement.
22. 'The panic
Of growing older
Spreads fluttering wings from year to year'
The dominant figure of speech in the lines
above from Peters' The Panic of Growing
Older is
A. onomatopoeia
B. metaphor
C. personification
D. apostrophe

23. Kofi Awoonor is a poet from

A. Cameroon
B. Nigeria
C. Ghana
D. Kenya

24. Okara's Piano and Drums symbolizes

A. superiority of the white man
B. how Africa is becoming complex
C. simplicity of the European society
D. the complexities of the Western society

25. But such a tide moving seems asleep, Too full

for sound and foam, When that which drew
from out the boundless deep Turns again
home.' The rhyme scheme in the excerpt
above from Tennyson's Crossing the Bar is
A. abba
B. abab
C. abed
D. aabb

26. 'So strength first made a way; Then beauty

flowed, then wisdom, honour, pleasure.' The
lines above from Herbert's The Pulley is an
example of
A. personification
B. paradox
C. metaphor
D. antithesis

27. Blake's The School Boy can be referred to as

48
A. dramatic
B. instructive
C. satiric
D. expository
28. `If we cry roughly of our torments; Ever
increasing from the start of things, What
eyes will watch our large mouths; Shaped by
the laughter of big children What eyes will
watch our large mouths?' The language of
the persona of the above excerpt in Diop's
Vanity is
A. inciting
B. submissive
C. imploring
D. diplomatic

29. 'Dinner tonight conies with; gun wounds,

Our desert tongues lick the vegetable;
blood-the pepper' From the lines above in
Hallowell's The Dining Table, the
persona is
A. thirsty
B. displeased
C. hungry
D. sick

30. 'blue Peter on empty ships all peters with

petered out desires.' It can be deduced from
the lines above in Adeoti’s Ambush that the
Peters are
A. disappointed
B. betrayed
C. lazy
D. greedy

31. An art that is both literary and theatrical is

A. prosody
B. a prose
C. drama
D. a poem

32. The speech made by a character to

himself on stage is
A. epilogue
B. monologue
C. aside
D. soliloquy

49
33. In literature, a round character is associated with
A. change and growth
B. simplicity and modesty
C. stability and determination
D. running down other characters

34. In a narrative poem, the post attempts to

A. summarize a story
B. preach a sermon
C. describe a place
D. tell a story

35. The continuation of meaning without pause,

from one line to the next is
A. enjambment
B. synecdoche
C. alliteration
D. melodrama

36. The plot of a story generally refers to the

A. way in which the writer begins the story
B. intrigue made by a character against the hero
C. way the writer ends the story
D. way in which the events of the story
are organized

37. A didactic piece is one in which the writer

A. teaches human lessons
B. dictates to the reader
C. condemns human foibles
D. discuses dialectic themes

38. What basically distinguish literature from

other disciplines
A. communication of idea
B. use of creative imagination
C. portrayal of places
D. exposition of human experience

39. A reward or punishment a character receives

in a literary work is
A. point of attack
B. poetic justice
C. popular outcry
D. poetic license

50
40. In literary criticism, the vocabulary or
language used by a writer is generally
known as
A. figure of speech
B. diction
C. expression
D. rhythm

41. Weep not child, weep not my darling, With

these kisses, let me remove your tears The
ravening clouds shall no longer be victorious
They shall no longer possess the sky ...The
speaker of the lines is
A. pessimistic
B. optimistic
C. helpless
D. carefree

42. 'You see that Benz at the rich's end? Ha!

That motoka is motoka,lt belongs to the
Minister for fairness. Who yesterday was
loaded with a doctorate. At Makerere with
whisky and I don't know what Plus I hear
the literate thighs of an undergraduate
Theo Luzuka: The Motoka The excerpt
above can be described as
A. sad
B. humorous
C. strange
D. serious

Questions 43 to 50 are
based on Literary
Appreciation.
43. `... for my purpose holds To sail beyond the
sunset and the baths; of all the western
stars, until I die.'Tennyson: Ulysses. From
the excerpt above, the persona does not
intend to
A. undertake dangerous adventure
B. stop travelling
C. die
D. travel at night

44. 'And my children left their peaceful

nakedness for the uniform of iron and
blood.' David Diop: Loser of Everything.
In the lines above, the imagery depicts a
displacement of
A. village life by barrack life

51
B. nature by science
C.innocence by violence
D. the natural by the artificial

45. 'Now we have come to you, And are amazed to

find Those you have loved and respected Mock
you to your face.' Kwesi Braw: Lest we
should Be The
Last
The lines above convey the feeling of
A. satisfaction
B. hope
C. disappointment
C. fear

46. The times has come when I can fool

myself no more I am no man sadiku. My
manhood ended near a week ago.
The lines above reveal that the speaker
A. has become impotent
B. loves women
C. is tired of marriage
D. is disgusted with life.

47. 'In those days When civilization kicked us in

the face When holy water slapped our
cringing brows. The vultures built in the
shadow of their talons.' David Diop: The
Vulture. The dominant Literary device used in
the lines above is
A. metaphor
B. pun
C. simile
D. personification.

48. ‘The leaves are withered Roses fold and

shrink Dog the panting athlete shows his
tongue dwarled A shadow flees Nude under
and crack.' Nuts wrinkle and crack.’ W.
Kamera: Poems in Four Parts. One dominant
image presented in the lines above is that of
A. death
B. summer
C. tiredness
D. spent life

52
49. When I remember by gone days I think
how evening follows morning So many I
loved were not yet dead, So many I love
not yet born.
The period of life the poet has arrived at is
A. middle age
B. adolescence
C. old age
D. early childhood

50. ‘Behold her, single in the field You solitary

Highland lass! Reaping and singing by
herself
O listen! For the value profound is
overflowing with sound.’ Words worth:
The Solitary Reaper.
The lines above constitute
A. an apostrophe
B. an aside
C. an interior monologue
D. soliloquy

53
ANSWER
KEYS
26. A
1. D
27. C
2. A
28. C
3. B
29. B
4. D
30. B
5. C
31. A
6. A
32. A
7. A
33. A
8. B
34. D
9. C
35. A
10. A
36. D
11. C
37. A
12. A
38. D
13. C
39. B
14. B
40. B
15. C
41. B
16. A
42. B
17. B
43. B
18. A
44. C
19. D
45. C
20. B
46. A
21. A
47. D
22. C
48. A
23. C
49. A
24. B
25. B

54
UTME 2017 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS
C. Othello's suspicion
Question 1 to 5 are based on Frank
Ogodo Ogbeche's Harvest of
Corruption
1. Aloho perceives her pregnancy as a
form of
A. reward
B. blessing
C. punishment
D. injustice

2. The play can be referred to as

A. dramatic irony
B. allegory
C. fable
D. satire

3. According to Ochuole, government job is

A. a waste of time
B. time consuming
C. good for hardworking youths
D. an avenue to personalize public fund

4. En! En! En! You have come again... I am

not always comfortable when you start
dishing out this you born again stuff...'
A. Ochuole
B. Aloho

5. Aloch is warned about associating with

Ochuole be-cause the latter is
A. too sophisticated
B. proud
C. mischievous
D. born-again

Question 6 to 10 are based on

William Shakespeare's Othello.

6. She is abused, stol'n from me and

corrupted By spells and medicines
bought of mountebanks; . The excerpt
above refers to
A. Brabantio's suspicion
B. lago's distrust of Emilia

55
D. Cassio's disaffection for lago

7. The play is first staged at

A. Liverpool stadium
B. Manchester stadium
C. Whitehall palace London
D. London Threatre
8. `All's One-Good faith, how
foolish are our minds! If I do die
before thee, prithee, shroud me.
In one of those same sheets.'
The plea in the excerpt above is made by
A. Desdemona to Emilia
B. Othello to lago
C. Lago to Emilia
D. Cassio to Bianca

9. „Let him do his spite; My services

which I have done the signiory
Shall out-tongue his
complaints.'Tis yet to know
Which, when I know that boasting
is an honour,' The speaker in the
excerpt above is
A. Brabantio
B. Othello
C. Cassio
D. Lago

10. „O heaven; How got she out?

O treason of the blood
Father, from hence trust not
your daughter‟s minds
By which the property of youth
and maidhood May be abused?
The speaker of the excerpt above is
A. Brabantio
B. Othello
C. Gratiano
D. Roderigo

Question 11 to 13 are based

on Amma Darko's Faceless.

11. Sodom and Gomorrah used in the

novel is an example of

56
A. mixed metaphor space between two' The style of the
B. allusion lines above is
C. synecdoche A. narrative
D. euphemism B. dramatic
C. descriptive
12. The novel focuses on D. expository
A. stubborn children B.
negligent parents C. 18. Bigger kills Mary due to
greedy politicians D. A. fear
peer group influence B. envy
13. Fofo chooses to spend the night in C. hatred
front of the provision store because D. distrust
A. it is a Sunday
B. she is ill 19. Weekly, Bigger is to be paid
C. she does not want to risk losing her A. twenty dollars
job B. twenty-five dollars
D. she has nowhere to go 1 C. thirty dollars
D. thirty-five dollars
Question 14 to 16 are based on Bayo
Adebowale's Lonely Days. 20. Mr Dalton is of the opinion that Negroes
are happier when they are
14. Labankada signifies A. together
A. wealth and peace B. servants in the white family
B. wealth and life C. educated
C. wealth and prosperity D. given some respect
D. wealth and protection
Question 21 to 30 are based on
15. The women of kufi are powerful Selected Poems from Johnson, Ret
A. singers al(eds): New poetry from Vincent,
B. farmers T.(eds): A selection of African
C. traders Poetry; Gbemisola.: Naked Soles;
D. widows Hayward, J African Verse. Morris'
21. The Proud King is
16. The windows in the land are joined by A. didactic
the loss of B. pastoral
A. love C. traditional
B. family D. lyrical
C. fame and wealth
D. dignity and status 22. Mystic rhythm in the third line of the first
stanza of Okara's Piano and Drums
Question 17 to 20 are based on A. express mood
Richard Wright's Native Son B. provides music
17. 'Light flooded the room and revealed C. carries a definite message
a black boy standing in a narrow D. are for pleasurable dancing

57
23. The line above in Adeoti's Ambush is an B. pity
example of C. joy
A. pun D. scorn
B. alliteration
C. metaphor 30. Awoonor's The Anvil and the Hammer
D. simile presents a picture of the
A. past and present
24. The mood of the person in B. past and future
Tennyson's Crossing the Bar is that C. future
A. pain D. olden days
B. frustration
C. hope Question 31 to 40 are based on
D. love General Literacy Principles
31. Totality of the effects produced on a
25. Having a glass of blessings standing by,' reader of a literary work is
The line above from Herbert's The Pulley A. tone
is an example of B. mood
A. synecdoche C. plot
B. personification D. diction
C. hyperbole
D. simile 32. An art form in which singers and
26. Peter's the Panic of Growing Older can musicians performs dramatic work
be referred to as combining text and music is
A. metaphysical A. concert
B. philosophical B. opera
C. satirical C. theatre
D. metaphorical D. pantomime
33. In literature, local colour is
27. One vivid device in Blake‟s The School A. universal
Boy is B. restricted
A. oxymoron C. only English
B. rhetorical question D. only American
C. ironical statement
D. metaphor 34.A clue to an event that will happen later
in a work of art is
28. „… and my boots have suddenly A. flashback
become too reluctant to walk me.‟ B. foreshadowing
The persona in the above excerpt in C. premonition
Hallowell's The Dining Table is D. digression
A. exhausted
B. excited 35.. . Comedy of lower kind in which
C. indifferent believability is sacrificed for the main
objective of exciting laugh is
29. The tone of Diopo‟s Vanity is one A. farce
of A. anger B. comedy

58
C. melodrama
D. tragi comedy 40. „Behold her, single in the field
You solitary Highland Lass‟
36. „I am on the world's extreme Reaping and singing by herself
corner.' Kofi Awoonor: Song of Sorrow. O listen! for the value profound
The speaker in the lines move is Is overflowing with the sound.‟ Words
A. indifferent worth: The Solitary Reaper
B. sad The lines above constitute
C. angry A. an apostrophe
D. in pain B. an aside
C. an interior monologue
37. Then I sat myself quiet... for five D. soliloquy
And forty turbulent years I waited,
sapped, famished,
For love to wake from her sickly
slumber;
The figure of speech in the last line
above is
A. assonance
B. personification
C. metaphor
D. oxymoron

38. We have rain but hate to plant

We have the heat and the glory of the
rainbow
But we kill our own suns with hurtful
glee
The poet's feeling call be described as
that of
A. disappointment
B. indifference
C. anxiety
D. joy

39. When I remember by gone days

I think how evening follow morning
So many I loved were not yet dead,
So may I love not yet born
The period of life the poet has arrived at
is
A. middle age
B. adolescence
C. old age
D. early childhood

59
ANSWER KEYS
1. C 20.B
2. C 21.A
3. D 22.C
4. C 23.B
5. C 24.C
6. A 25.A
7. D 26.A
8. A 27.B
9. A 28.A
10.A 29.A
30.A
11.B
31.B
12.B
32.B
13.C
33.B
14.C
34.B
15.C
35.A
16.D
36.B
17.C
37.B
18.A
38.A
19.B
39.A
40.A

60
UTME 2018 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH QUESTIONS

Questions 1 to 10 are based on 6. A poet's use of regular rhythm is known

General Literacy Principles. as
A. allegory
1. A literary work in which the B. assonance
characters and events are used as C. metre
symbols is known as D. onomatopoeia.
A. characteristics
B. allegory 7. A literacy genre which directly imitates
C. metaphor human actions is
D. parallelism A. drama
B. comedy
2. Characterisation in a novel refers to the C. prose
A. writer‟s opinion of the characters D. poetry
B. way the characters are revealed
to the reader 8. A fable is a story in which
C. characters and the way they A. allegations are made about
behave characters
D. readers of the characters. B. animals or things are used as
characters
3. In literacy work, verbal Irony refers to a C. there is an important setting
A. device in which the speaker D. the story is told in poetic farm
means the opposite of what he
says 9. The juxtaposition of two contrasting
B. situation in which a Character ideas in a line of poetry is
speaks or acts against the tread of A. euphemism
events B. synecdoche
C. difficult situation which defies a C. catharsis
local or rational resolution D. oxymoron
D. device in which the actor on stag:
means exactly what he says. 10. The main aim of caricature is to
A. describe
4. In the theatre, words spoken by a B. expose
character that are meant to be heard by C. emphasize
the audience but not by the other; D. ridicule.
characters on stage is called
A. aside Questions 11 to 13 are based on
B. soliloquy Richard Writer's Native Son.
C. acoustic
D. tone 11. Bigger kills Mary due to
A. fear
5. Drama is the representation of a B. envy
complete series of actions by means of C. hatred
A. movement and gesture for the D. distrust
screen and audience
B. speech, movement and 12. Weekly, Bigger is to be paid
gesture for the stage only A. twenty dollars
C. speech, movement and gesture B. twenty-five dollars
for the stage, screen and radio C. thirty dollars
D. speech, gesture and movement D. thirty-five dollars
for the screen and radio

61
13. Mr Datton is of the opinion that C. humiliation
Negroes are happier when they are D. torture
A. together
B. servants in the white family 20. The novel can be described as
C. educated A. optimistic
D. given some respect. B. antagonistic
C. persuasive
Questions 14 to 16 are based on D. pessimistic.
Bayo Adebowale's Lonely Days.
Questions 21 to 25 are based on
14. Windows in mourning in Kofi J.P Clark's Wives Revolt.
wear garments that are
A. red 21. In the play, the central idea is that
B. black gender equality is
C. white A. both undesirable and unattainable
D. dull B. desirable but unattainable
C. attainable and desirable
15. In the novel, bage cape signifies D. obnoxious but desirable
everlasting
A. happiness 22. In their flight, the women settle at Iyara
B. sorrow in order to
C. freedom A. cure cross-piece
D. despair. B. hurt their husbands
C. forestall reconciliation
16. Yaremi's only son is D. seek peace
A. Alani
B. Wande 23. `...Great Orators in the assembly, and
C. Olode poor nannies at home:" Those being
D. Deyo. ridiculed here are the
A. husbands
Questions 17 to 20 are based on B. old-women
George Orwell's Nineteen Eighty- C. wives
four. D. spinsters

17. The novel draws a picture of 24. …Those with full breasts have walked
A. a useless past out, and that leaves you, me, and, the
B. a totalitarian future old-girls returned home on retirement,
C. an unstable moment it's the dry season child." The character
D. a peaceful atmosphere to whom the words are spoken in the
play is in
18. The power and oppression of an A. front of the veranda of Okoro's
irresistible evil debased house
Winston's dreams of B. the-kitchen, upstage
A. freedom and democracy C. Okoro's front yard, down stage
B. internal security D. the direction of the kitchen, off
C. wealth and capitalism stage
D. sovereignty
25. The mutual exchange of abuse in the
19. Room 101 symbolises a place of play is reminiscent of
A. rest A. Ikaki
B. fun B. Udje

62
C. Etiyeri C. Gratiano
D. Ekpe D. Roderigo

Questions 26 to 30 are based on Use the following excerpt to answer

Williams's Shakespeare's Othello. questions 31 to 33.

26. "ill-starred wench, Pale as thy smoke; "I wonder how long, you awful parasites,
When we shall meet at compt" Shall share with me this little bed,
The device used in the line above is And awake me, from my sweet dreams
A. simile be lost,
B. pun Sucking blood from my poor head...
C. metaphor Mbure: "To Bed-Bug"
D. paradox 31. The lines are an example of a
A. limerick
27. Othello kills Desdemona because the B. lampoon
A. former is jealous C. light verse
B. former's race is insulted D. light opera.
C. latter is a witch
D. latter is an idol 32. The poet persona expresses dismay
about
28. Brabantio is opposed to the relationship A. bat
between Othello and Desdemona B. cockroaches
because C. grass coppers
A. he prefers Lago D. light opera
B. Othello is a moor
C. Rodgerigo woos her first 33. The most dominant figure of speech in
D. Desdemona is too young the excerpt is
A. metaphor
29. "Soft you; a word or two before you go. B. simile
I have done the state some service an,' C. personification
they know' No more of that, I pray you, D. hyperbole
in your letters, When you shall these
unlucky deeds relate" The speech above 34. You
is made when the speaker is Your head is like a drum that is beaten
A. travelling for spirits
B. sick Your
C. dying Yours ears are like the fans used for
D. eloping blowing fire.
The lines above are a good example of
30. "0 heaven; How got she out? A. caricature
O treason of the blood! B. ridicule
Father; from hence trust not your C. satire
daughters' minds D. lampoon.
By what you see them act. Is there not
charms 35. How can I look at Oyo and say
By which the property of youth and I hate long shiny cars? How can I
maidhood come to the children and despise
May be abused? international schools? And Koomson
The speaker of the excerpt above is comes; and the family semi Jesus
A. Brabantio Christ in him...
B. Othello

63
The feeling conveyed by the speaker 40. The lines above inform the reader
above is one of that poet
A. anger E. is determined to suffer
B. alienation F. has his poetic imagination kindled
C. hope G. will cure his soar mood
H. will not drink much
D. despair

36. "Hide me now, when night children

haunt the earth" Wole Soyinka:
"Night" Night children in the stanza
above reflects the consciousness of
A. birds
B. armed robbers
C. animals
D. spirit beings

37. Serrated shadows, through

dark leaves
Till, bathed in warm suffusion of
your dapped cells
Sensation pained me, faceless, silent
as night thieves
Wole Soyinka: “Night”
The dominant mood in the lines above is
one of
A. apprehension
B. defiance
C. joy
D. indifference

38.“The drum overwhelmed the guns…”

J.P Clark: “Causalities”
The poet in the excerpt above uses
A. litotes
B. symbolism
C. onomatopoeia
D. alliteration

39.“… They do not see the funeral piles,

At home eating up the forests…” J.P
Clark: “Causalities” The imagery
created in the above uses
A. metaphor
B. personification
C. synecdoche
D. metonymy

“I cannot rest from travel: I will

drink, life to the lees, all times I
have enjoyed, Greatly, have suffered
greatly”. A.L. Tennyson: ”Ulysses”

64
19.D
ANSWER KEYS 20.A
1. B 21.C
2. C 22.B
3. A 23.A
4. A 24.A
5. B 25.B
6. C 26.A
7. A 27.A
8. B 28.B
9. D 29.C
10.D 30.A
11.A 31.A
12.B 32.B
13.B 33.C
14.B 34.D
15.C 35.D
16.A 36.B
17.A 37.A
18.A 38.C
39.A
40.B

65
66
Principles of
Accounts
1 9 94- 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions
CHECK OUT MORE OF OUR PAST UTME STUDENTS RESULTS

2. Assigning revenues to the accounting period in which 10. Account of Tanko Nig Ltd.
goods were sold or services rendered and expenses in-
curred is known as Dr. Cr.
A. passing of entries B. consistency convention N N
C. matching concept D. adjusting for revenue. 1/10 Bal. b/f 5,000 2/10 Cash 3,000
Sales 10,000 15/10 Bank 6,500
3. The accounting convention which states that ‘profit must
not be recognized until realized while all losses should
be adequately provided for’ is termed What is the closing balance of the account shown above?
A. N 5,000 B. N 6,500
A. materiality B. objectivity C. N 5,500 D. N 15,000.
C. consistency D. conservatism.
11. The suspense account is used to correct book keeping
4. Accounting information is used by investors and credi- errors where the
tors of a company to predict
A. amount involved is quite significant
A. future cash flows of the company B. item involved is not material
B. future tax payments of the company C. item involved is unknown
C. potential merger candidates for the company D. error does not affect the agreement of the trial
D. appropriate remuneration for the company’s balance.
staff. 12. The discount column of a three column cashbook is not
balanced off but periodically transferred to the discount
5. Antics Electronics Company recently bought six genera- accounts because discounts.
tors. Which of the following is the correct method of
recording this transaction. A. are not important in cash book
A.Debit generator account and credit cash account. B. are cash items only
B. Debit purchases account and credit cash account. C. do not form part of double entry
C. Debit cash account and credit purchases account. D. are used for bank reconciliation.
D. Debit cash account and credit generator account.
13. When is a petty cash account debited?
6. When a business incurs labours cost in installing a fixed A. When the fund is established and every time
asset, the cost is treated as money is spent
A. additional cost to the asset B. when the fund is established and every time it
B. business wages and salaries is replenished
C. installation cost of the asset C. when the fund is established and when the size
D. business cost of the asset. of the float is decreased
D. Every time money is drawn from the petty cash.
7. What is the cardinal rule of the double entry system?
A. Debit the increasing account and credit the 14. When preparing a bank reconciliation statement, which
decreasing account. of the following is deducted from the balance per bank
B. Debit the receiving account and credit the statement?
giving account. A. Bank charges. B. Uncleared cheques
C. Debit the asset account and credit the liability C. returned cheques D. Unpresented cheques.
account.
D. Debit the revenue account and credit the 15. The financial position of an organization at a particular
expenditure account. time can be ascertained from the

8. Malam Gambo bought a freezer for his shop costing N A. statement of sources and application of funds
10,500. In recording, he debited office expenses account B. statement of retained earnings
and credited the bank account. What book keeping error C. balance sheet D. profit and loss account.
has he committed?
A. N 23,000 B. N 29,000
16. Given: C. N 36,000 D. N 43,000.
N 23. From which of the following sources are creditors con-
Purchase 20,000 trol account most likely to be posted?
Sales 40,000 A. Supplier’s invoices
Carriage inwards 5,000 B. Cash disbursements journal
Carriage outwards 5,000 C. Subsidiary debtor’s ledger
Opening stock 10,000 D. Purchases journal.
Closing stock 5,000
Use the information below to answer questions 24 and
What is the cost of good sold? 25
A. N 30,000 B. N 25,000 Chukwuma Okeke did not keep his books based on the
C. N 20,000 D. N 15,000 double entry principle. On 1st January 1993, Cash in hand
was N60, Bank overdraft N1,100, Debtor N7,240, Stock
17. The net profit or loss for the year is determined in the N27.450, Furnishings N2,000 and creditors N6,990. As at
profit and loss account after 31st December 1993, Cash in hand was N40, Cash at bank
A. deducting purchases from sales was N 1,050, Debtors N6,750, Stock N29, 180, Furnish-
B. deducting cost of goods sold from sales and ings N2,000 and Creditors N 6,090.
adding administrative expenses
C. adding commissions received to gross profit 24. Compute the capital as at 1st January 1993.
D. eliminating all expenses from gross profit A. N29,800 B. N28,900 C. N26, 700 D. N20,800.
and adding any other income.
25. Determine his net profit as at 31st December 1993.
Use the table below to answer question 18 and 19 A. N2,000 B. N2,200
Stock Cost price Qty (units) C. N3,500 D. N4,200.
N
Opening balance1/1/90 3.00 3,000 26. Which of the following categories of labours cost will be
Purchases January 3.50 15,000 classified as direct?
Purchases February 4.00 25,000 A. Accountant’s salary B. Factory workers’ salary
Sales January 4.50 13,000 C. Managing director’s salary D. Cashier’s salary.
Sales February 5.00 28,000
Use the information below to answer questions 27 and
18. Using LIFO, determine the value of closing stock. 28
A. N 9,600 B. N 7,600 Unit Unit Total Unit
C. N 6,000 D. N 2,000. Cost Cost Sold
N N
19. What is the gross profit at the end of February, if the Begining inventory 20 6 120
closing stock were valued at N 20,000? Sale No. 1 18
A. N 65,000 B. N 57,000 Purchase No. 1 30 8 240
C. N 48,000 D. N 37,000. Sales No. 2 20
Purchase No 2 10 9 90
20. A trial balance shows provision for doubtful debts, N Total 60 38
190 and debtors, N 6,000. It is required to write off further
N320 as bad debts and maintain the provision at 2½% of 27. Using the FIFO method of stock valuation, the
debtors. To do this, the profit and loss should show a ending inventory cost is
A. credit of N 20 and a debit of N 100 A. N 146 B. N 165
B. credit of N 28 and a debit of N 300 C. N 186 D. N 314
C. credit of N 48 D. debit entry of N 414
28. Using the LIFO inventory procedures, the ending
21. If a bad debt previously written off inventory cost is
is subsequently repaid, the amount collected is recorded A. N136 B. N 176
as an C. N 196 D. N 264
A. income in the profit and loss account
B. income in the balance sheet 29. The major difference between the receipt and
C. addition cash in the profit and loss account payment account and the income and expenditure ac-
D. expense in the balance sheet. count is that while the former
A. is kept by the treasurer, the latter is not
22. Beginning and ending accounts receivable balances were B. deals with all receipt and payments in the year
N 8,000 and N 15,000 respectively. If collections from regardless of the time it relates to the latter
customers during the period were N 36,000, them total is for just that year
sales on account would be C. is a T-account the latter is not
D. is not in the ledger, the latter is.
30. The following information relates to a hockey club:
37. Under which of the following conditions is a partnership
N dissolved?
Subscription owing at the beginning 40 A. Change of the partnership’s head office.
Subscription owing at the end 35 B. Admission of a new partner.
Subscription received in the advance at the C. Purchase of a large quatity of fixed assets.
beginning 15 D. Retirement of a manager who is not a partner.
Subscription received During the period 2,560
38. When shares issued are paid for the accounting entry
The amount to be shown in the income and expenditure required is
account would be A. debit bank or cash account and credit share
A. N 2,500 B. N 2,540 capital and/or premium account
C. N 2,570 D. N 2,590. B. credit bank or cash account and debit shares
capital and/or premium account
31. The net profit from the trading account of a non-profit C. debit shares account and credit capital account
making organization would be treated as income in the D. credit shares account and debit capital account.
A. income and expenditure account
B. receipt and payment account Use the information below to answer questions 39 and
C. balance sheet 40
D. statement of affairs A limited liability company has an authorized share capi-
tal of N 50 million split into 100 million shares. 80 million
Use the information below to answer questions 32 and 33. shares were offered for subscription at 60k per share
Ada and Udo are lawyers who went into partnership as payable in full on application. These have been fully
Ado & Co. Ada brought cash of N12,000, furnishing subscribed and issued.
worth N18,000 and a motor vehicle worth N70, 000 Udo
on the other hand brought in cash N10,000, his building 39. What is the nominal value of each share?
valued at N05,000 and a personal computer worth A. N2 B. N0.80 C.N0.60 D. N0.50
N135,000.
40. What is the issued capital?
32. What is the capital of Ado & Co.? A. N40 million B. N48 million
A. N22,000 B. N100,000 C. N50 million D. N80 million.
C. N 150,000 D. N 250,000.
41. The document setting out theregulations regarding
33. What is the profit sharing ratio if it is based on capital shares, meetings and internal organization of a company
contributed by Ada and Udo? is known as
A. 2:1 B. 3:2 A. memorandum of association
C. 2:3 D. 1:2 B. articles of association
C. prospectus D. company law.
34. The major distinguishing element between the final ac-
counts of a partnership and a sole trader is the 42. An advantage of using accounting ratio is that they
A. drawings account B. appropriation account A. can be easily calculated
C. capital account D. creditors account. B. facilitate decision-making
C. are stipulated by law
35. Good will appears in the books of a business only if it D. show errors and frauds.
has been
A. purchased at a certain price 43. The accounts of Buba (Nig.) Plc
B. raised in connection with the admission of a showed the following for the year ended December 31,
new partner 1993:
C. raised to account for the true value of a N
business on the death of a partner Gross sales 219,900
D. raised in order to prevent the balance sheet Sales returns and
showing that the business is insolvent. allowances 4,900
Net sales 215,000
36. Kayode, Akpan and Kachalla are in partnership. Their
respective capital accounts had the following balances: Accounts receivable (net):
N40,000 N50,000 and N70,000. The partners agree to ad- 1/1/93 20,000
mit Wamo as a new partner with a one-fifth interest in the 31/12/93 30,000
partnership capital in exchange for N50,000 cash. Wamo’s
equity in the resulting partnership is The turnover of accounts receivable is A. 6.14 times per
A. N32,000 B. N50,000 year B.8.14 times per year C. 8.60 times per year D. 8.64
C. N42,000 D. N50,000. times per year.
46. What is the net profit (or loss) contributed by depart-
44. Given: ment B?
Sales N20,000 A. N 2,000 B. (N2,000)
Costs of sales N15,000 C. (N 300) D. N300.

The gross profit margin would be 47. The expenditure on a good or service which is consumed
A. 33.33% B. 25.00% either immediately or within a current accounting period
C. 20.00% D. 14.28% is called

Use the information below to answer questions 45 and A. fixed expenditure B. capital expenditure
46 C. annual expenditure D. recurrent expenditure

Perebeni Enterprises has two departments A and B, with 48. The receipts from a special tax levy to pay maturing inter-
following information est obligation are recorded in
A B A. Capital Project Fund B. Debt Service Fund
N N C. Tax Assessment Fund D. Special Revenue Fund.
Open. Stock 5,000 1,500
Purchases 26,000 3,000 49. The cash basis of accounting requires the recognition
Close. Stock 7,000 2,500 of revenue only when they are
Sales 45,000 4,000 A. due B. earned
C. paid D. received.
The following expenses are to be shared in the ratio 4:1
50. The amount for individual items on a government
Rent N 8,300 budget is called a
General Expenses N 3,200 A. vote B. deposit
C. loan D. grant.
45. What are the company’s gross profit for the year?
A. N11,500 B. N12,500
C. N20,000 D. N23,000.

Principles of Account 1995

1. Which of the following factors’ has aided the develop- A. Journals and ledgers
ment of Accounting? B. Sales invoice and cashbook
A. The emergency of nation states C. Cash book and debit note
B. The discovery of mineral resources in D. Sales invoice and debit note.
commercial quantity.
C. The growth in size of businesses and the 5. Given: Motor van, N3,600, Premises, N5,000: Loan from
separation of ownership and management. R. Nwaeke, N1,000: Cash at bank, N1,650: Stock of goods,
D. The development and management of a N4,800: Creditors, N2,560: Cash in hand, N250 and Debt-
sophisticated monetary system. ors, N6,910. Calculate the capital figure.
A. N19,650 B. N18,650
2. Which of the following concepts stipulates that account- C. N 17,850 D. N 19,850.
ing profit is the difference between revenue and expenses?
6. Which of the following transactions is BEST recorded in
A. Accrual concept B. Conservation Concept the general journal?
C. Prudence Concept D. Materiality concept. A. Payment of rent with a cheque.
B. Payment of stock with cash
3. An effective accounting system should provide infor- C. Purchase of an asset on credit terms
mation D. Transfer of cash from head office to branch.
A. on new products and methods
B. for customer feedback and requirements 7. Diamon Ringo business was started when Mr. Diamon
C. on internal and external reporting for managers brought in a Cheque of N 500,000 which was paid into
and third parties the bank account. Which of the following entries prop-
D. for promoters, directors, labour unions and erly records the transaction?
distributors. A. Cash account was credited with N 500,000 and
the capital account was debited with N 500,000
4. Which of the following accounting records are source B. Bank account was debited with N 500,000 and
documents? capital account was credited with N 500,000
C. Bank account was credited with N 500,000 the balance in Adama’s cash accounts?
and capital account was debited with A. N 1.680 Dr. B. N 1,080 Cr.
N 500,000. C. N 600 Dr. D. N 480 Cr.
D. Mr. Diamon’s’account was debited with
N500,000 and the cheque account was 15. Why are adjustments in the profit and loss account nec-
credited with N 500,000. essary?
A. to cover some expenses of the following year.
8. One major advantage of a ledger is that it B to ascertain the actual expenses incurred and income
A. is a book of original entry earned during the year.
B. is only accessible to shareholders during C. To show the provisions made during the year
liquidation D. To show the total expenses paid and income received
C. removes the need for preparing a balance sheet during the year.
after each transaction
D. can be used by any type of business. Use the information below to answer questions 16 and
17.
9. A trial balance is usually prepared by an accounting from MACHINERY
account balances in the ledger for the purpose of
A. classifying account in the ledger Historical cost 5,000,000.00
B. testing arithmetical accuracties of the ledger Estimated useful life 20 years
account balances Residual value N25,000:00
C. identifying the balance sheet items Date of acquisition 1/1/71
D. providing a basis for establishing the Depreciation method Straight line
accountant’s competence.

10. What are the advantages of an imprest petty cash book? 16. Accumulated depreciation on the asset as at 31/12/81
(i.) Cheque can be drawn easily (ii.) A check on the use of was
cash (iii.) Liability of the petty cashier is limited to the A. N 2,487,500.00 B. N2,736,250.00
value of petty cash. (iv.) Loses through the petty cashier C. N 4,511,192.00 D. N 4,975,000.00.
can be minimized.
A. I, II, and III and III only B. I, II and IV only 17. The book value of the asset as at 31/12/86 was
C. I, III and IV only D. II, III and IV only. A. N3,731,250.00 B. N2,487,500.00
C. N 1,268,750.00 D. N1,020,000.00
11. Bola, UTC’s regular customer, owed N 1,000 on account
of radio brought. If he sent in a cheque for N 1,500, UTC Use the information below to answer question
would send him a 18 and 19
A. credit note B. debit note C. journal voucher D. way bill.
The following is a draft balance sheet as at 31/12/92
12. A payment of cash of N20 to John was entered on the
Accumulated
receipt side of the cashbook in error and credited to John’s
Cost Depreciation Net
account. Which of the following journal entries can be
N N N
used to correct the error?
Fixed Assets 200,000 100,000 100,000
A. John: N 40 Dr,Cash N 40Cr
(Tan)
B. Cash N 40 Dr, John: N 40 Cr.
Current Assets:
C. John: N 20 Dr, Cash N 20 Cr.
Stock in trade 10,000
D. Cash: N 20 Dr, John: N 20 Cr.
Trade debtors 4,500
Cash at bank 22,800
13. The following represents extracts from the trading ac-
Cash in hand 9,700
count of a retail outlet for a given month:
Trade creditors ?
N
Capital ?
Opening Stock 2,400
Closing Stock 6, 400
Trade creditors’ account was maintain at 25% of the
Other expenses 2,000
capital
Sales 11,000
Profit 900
18. What was the balance in the trade creditors account as
at 31/12/92?
What is the purchase figure for the month?
A. N 29,800 B. N 29,500
A. N 13,000 B. N 12,100
C. N 29,400 D. N 29,000.
C. N 12,000 D. N 11,200.
19. What was the balance in the capital account as at 31/12/
14. Adama’s bank account showed on overdraft of N600
92?
on 31st March. On going through the account. It was
A. N76,000 B. N83,000
discovered that the N 1,080 paid into the account on
C. N117,600 D.N117,650.
29th March had not been a credited. What should be
20. The trial balance showed wages N 2,500 and a note stated A. prime Cost and factory overhead
that N500 wages were due but unpaid. When preparing B. prime cost and office overhead
final accounts and balance sheet, it is required to debit C. raw materials consumed and fixed
profit and loss account with cost
A. N3,000 and show wages accrued N500 in the D. Raw materials and Administrative
balance sheet overhead.
B. N2,000 and show wages accrued N 500 in the
balance sheet 28. The below information is provided for Amusa Com-
C. N3,000 and show wages prepaid N500 in the pany Ltd. a manufacturer.
balance sheet. N
D. N2,000 and show wages paid in advance N500 Prime cost 999,000
in the balance sheet. Manufacturing Overhead 132,000
Closing work in progress
21. Sales ledger control account contains the total amount transferred to the trading Account 1,116,000
in respect of
A. creditors B. debtors If included in the manufacturing overhead were rents of N
C. investors D. shareholders. 5,000 paid in advance, what is the opening work in progress
for the period?
22. The purchases ledger account control of a company had A N85,000 B. N80,000
an opening balance of N45,600 credit and closing bal- C. N70,000 D.N65,000.
ance of N72,600 credit. The made company payments of
N437,000 to credit suppliers during the period; and had 29. Subscription in arrears are A. credited to the income
discount received of N18,600 on this account. What were and expenditure account and shown as
the credit purchases for the period? A. liability in the balance sheet
A. N509, 600 B. N482,600 B. debited to the income and expenditure account
C. N428, 600 D. N18, 400. and shown as an asset in the balance sheet
C. credited to the income and expenditure account
23. The starting point for the production of accounts from and shown as a asset in the balance sheet
incomplete records is to D. debited to the income and expenditure account
A. ascertain the total sales and shown as a liability in the balance sheet.
B. compute the opening stock of goods sold
C. verify the total purchases 30. Where a non-profit making organization prepares the
D. prepare an opening statement of affairs. account using accruals basis of reporting the statement
showing how well the organization is doing is the
Use the information below to answer questions 24 and 25. A. appropriation account B. balance sheet
C. income and expenditure account
I. A retailer when fixing his selling price adds one-quar- D. receipts and payment account.
ter: to the cost of the article. II. The expense of the re-
tailer is 10% of his sales. 31. A charitable club has the following Figures:-
III. The total sales is N23,000 IV. He turned over his N
stock five times in the year Subscriptions received in 1991 2,800
Subscriptions unpaid in 1990 300
24. Compute the average amount of stock in hand at Subscriptions paid for 1992 150
cost price. Subscriptions due 1991 180
A. N3,860 B. N3,806 C. N3,680 D. N3,086.
How much should be charged to the income and expendi-
25. The net profit for the year is ture of this club as subcribution for 1991?
A. N5,750 B. N5,650 C. N3,200 D.N2, 300. A. N2,530 B. N2,680
C. N2,830 D. N2,980
26. Given: N
Prime cost 320,000 32. A member of a club paid N1,000 as his subscription for
Factory cost 32,000 1993 and N1,200 as subscription for 1994. If the
Working in progress at beginning 25,000 financial year of the society ended on 31st December
Working in progress at close 19,000 1993 the N1,200 subscription will be treated in the
Administrative expenses 21,000 balance sheet as
A. current asset B. current liability
Determine the production cost. C. capital D.
A. N296,000 B. N277,000 profit.
C. N258,000 D. N246,000.
33. Which of the following is a strong feature of
27. The factory cost of goods produced is made up of partnership?
A. The life of the partnership is generally as-
sumed to be indefinite
B. The owners are liable personally for all debts Profit and loss A/C 13,000
of the business. Trade creditors 30,000
C. The transfer of ownership is frequent an easy Accruals 5,000
to accomplish Stock 10,000
D. The partnership is complex to form because of Debtors 40,000
many legal and reporting requirements. Bank 25,000

34. Interest on a partner’s drawing is debited to the 39. Equity shareholder fund is
A. partner’s current account and credited to the A. N130,000 B. N120,000
profit and loss appropriation account C. N113,000 D. N100,000
B. profit and loss appropriation account
C. profit and loss account and credited to the
partner’s current account. 40. If a 10% dividend is approved, what is the dividend
D. partner’s current account and credited to the payable to ordinary shareholders?
profit and loss account. A. N13,000 B. N 11,300
C. N10,000 D. N8,000
35. A partnership on admitting a new member, revalued
the business’ land and building from N30,000 to 41. Which of the following ratios gives an idea of the
N70,000. The difference of N40,000 should be liquidity of a firm?
A. credited to land and building account A. Turnover ratio B. Quick ratio
B. debited to asset revaluation account C. Debt ratio D. Divided yield.
C. credited to asset revaluation account
D. credited to profit and loss appropriation 42. A total of N400,000 shares of N1 each are to be issued
account by Sariki Company Ltd. at a price of N1.20 per share.
Use the information below to answer questions 36 and 37. Applications were received for 600,000 shares out
of which 100,000 were dishonored. If the available
Halidu and Hamed are business partners with N30,000 shares are distributed pro rata, what refund will be
and N20,000 capital respectively. At the end of the finan- due a subscriber who applied for 5,000 shares?
cial year, a profit of N12,000 which included Halidu’s sal- A. N1,000 B. N1,200
ary of N3,000 was made C. N4,800 D. N6,000

36. Halidu’s share of the profit is 43. The measure of a company’s ability to pay its debts.
A. N7,500 B. N6,000 quickly is called
C. N5,400 D. N4,500. A. current ratio B. turnover ratio
C. acid test ratio D. return on investment.
37. Hamed’s share of the profit should be
A. credited to partners’ capital account 44. Department accounts are maintained to ascertain the
B. credited to partners’ current account A. profits of the entire organization
C. credited to appropriation account B. contribution of each department
D. debited to partners’ drawings account. C. expenses of each department
D. sales of each department.
38. The conversion of a partnership business into a
limited liability company affords the 45. The Asa branch of Emene Company Ltd. Made a
A. general partners the chance of enjoying the sale of N 549,000 from the goods sent from the head
limited liability protection office during the period ended 31/12/94. These sales
B. limited liability partners the chance of en were based on a 22% mark up. If branch expenses
joying the limited liability protection were N34,400 and there were no discrepancies, what
C. creditors the chance of enjoying the should be the net profit of the branch for the period?
limited liability protection A. N6,500 B. N64,600
D. debtors the chance of enjoying the limited C. N85,380 D. N514,600
iability protection.
46. Which of the following statement is current about the
Use the information below to answer questions 39 and 40 head office current account and the branch current
account?
Yakubu (Nigeria) Limited (Extract) Balance Sheet as at 31st A. Both always have debit balances
December 1993. B. Both always have credit balances
Authorized Issued C. The head office current account has a credit
N N N balance while the branch current account
Ordinary shares 100,000 80,000 has a debit balance.
10% preference shares 30,000 20,000 D. The head office current account has a debit
Share premium 20,000
balance while the branch current account has Doctors’ and nurses’ Salaries 120,000
a credit balance. Administrative expenses 50,000
47. Which of the following are sources of revenue to 48. Capital expenditure is
share governments in Nigeria? I Statutory A. N420,000 B. N380,000
allocation, II Fines from customary courts, C. N240,000 D. N200,000
III Petroleum tax IV Income tax.
A. I and II only B. II and III only 49. Recurrent expenditure is
C. I and IV only D. III and IV only. A. N390,000 B. N360,000
C. N 350,000 D. N 170,000
Use the information to answer questions 48 and 49
50. A governmental accounting system must make sure
Eko Local Government Expenditure that
N A. revenue exceeds expenditure
Hospital building 200,000 B. all applicable legal provisions are complied with
Drugs 180,000 C. capital expenditure is equal to revenue
Hospital beds and Mattresses 40,000 D. capital project fund is tied to recurrent
expenditure.

Principles of Accounts 1997

1. The most important reason for studying accounting is 7. Books of original entry are use for
that A. recording business transactions
A. the information provided by accounting is useful B. the adjustment of accounts
in making decisions C. reminding the bookkeeper to post transactions in
B. accounting plays an important role in a society the ledger
C. the study of accounting leads to a challenging D. Informing about the state of affairs.
career
D. accounting provides gross profit information. 8. The term posting in accounting refers to
A. recording entries in the journal
2. In preparing accounting records, the owners of a B. transferring the balances in the ledger to the trial
business and the business are treated as balance C. tracing amounts from the journal to the
A. the same person B. having business relation- ledger to find errors
ship C. separate legal entities D. partners D. transferring entries to the ledger from the journal.

3. Creditors use accounting information for the purpose 9. Erroneous rearrangement of financial figures such as
of writing N624 as N264 is called
A. planning sales to a company A. transposition B. principle
B. controlling a company’s affairs C. commission D. omission
C. investing in a company
D. assessing a company liquidity. 10. Bank Account
N N
4. The instruments that are generated when firms enter Capital 50,000 Purchase 20,000
into business transactions with others are called Sales 38,500 Rent 2,590
A. purchases documents B. journals Motor V 6,500
C. source documents D. invoices.

5. The document that is used to acknowledge the accep- What is the balance of the bank account shown above?
tance of the return of goods by the seller from the buyer A. N 88,500 debit B. N88,500credit
is known as C. N59,410 credit D. N59,410 debit.
A. credit note B. debit note
C. invoice D. voucher. 11. Which of the following demonstrates the imprest
system?
6. The effects of the payment of a liability is that it A. Float-> expenses paid —>cash in bank--> float.
A. increases both assets and liabilities B. Float --> cash from bank --> expenses paid float
B. increases assets and decreases liabilities C. Float--> expenses paid--> cash from bank --> float
C. decreases assets and increases liabilities D. Float--> cash in bank--> expenses paid -> float.
D. decrease both assets and liabilities.
12. When a sum of money appears on the credit side of the
cash book. but not on the debit side of the bank state-
ment, the sum is regarded as
A. uncredited cheques B. dishonoured cheques
C. direct remittance to the bank D. unpresented cheques. 21. The process of allocating the cost of an intangible
asset over its useful life is known as
13. An examination of the cahs book on 3rd August 1993 A. depreciation B. extraction
showed a different balance from the bank statement of C. depletion D. amortization
31st July 1993 which read N722. Uncredited cheques were
Bimpe N 40: Wale N60 while unpresented cheques were: 22. The principal use of control accounts is to
Usman N 20. Kalu N32 and Musa N 70. What is the cash A. Localize errors within the ledgers
book balance after the reconciliation? B. prevent fraud C. increase sales
A. N700 B. N 770 D. record assets and liabilities
C. N800 . D. N 822.
23. In the absence of a sales day book or sales account,
Use the information to answer questions 14 and 15 the credit for sales can be computed from
A. creditors control account
On 30/05/93 Tolu & Co. paid 2 years rent of N50,000 B. debtors control account
which was debited to the rent account C. opening figures of the balance sheet
D. closing figures of the balance sheet
14. At 31/12/93, what portion of that amount was prepaid?
A. N14,583 B. N 25,000 24. Which of the following conditions best represents
the net effect of discount allowed on credit sales on
C. N 35,417 D. N 37,415
the account of a business?
A. Decrease in the closing balance of sales ledger
15. The adjustment needed as at 31st December, 1993 as?
control account
A. debit rent account and credit adjustment
B. increase in net profit
account
C. increase in the values of sales.
B. debit prepayment account and credit rent
D. decrease in the value of purchases in the trading
account prepayment account
account.
D. debit adjustment account and credit
prepayment account
25. The total of the creditors at the beginning of the
year was N4,600 and at the end of the year N5,250.
16. The receipt of cash from a customer who bought goods
During the year, N26,500 was paid to suppliers and
with N800 list price 25% trade discount and 2/10, n/30 term
N130 was received in discounts from these suppliers.
would, If paid within discount period, amount to
The purchases for the year would be
A. N576 B. N588
A. N26,630 B. N27,038
C. N600 D. N624
C. N27,150 D. N27,280
17. At the end of a financial period, the trading profit and loss
26. Given N
account of a company showed a profit of N120,000. It was
Capital at the beginning 20,000
however recorded that revenue of N12,000 was recovered as
Drawings 3,000
expenses while expenses of N4,000 had been recorded as
Capital at end 30,000
revenue. What should be the correct profit for the period?
New capital introduced 8,000
A. N104,000 B. N128,000
C. N136,000 D. N144,000
What is the profit for the period?
A. N4,000 B. N5,000
18. Given N
C. N6,000 D. N8,000
Net profit 25,000
Cost of sales 25,000
27. In analyzing incomplete records, which of the
Sales 85,000
following should be investigated?
Determine the total expenses.
A. The general ledger.
A.N45,000 B.N35,000 C.N25,000 D.N15,000
B. The purchases daybook and sales day
book
19. Given capital, N13,000;office machinery, N9,000; credi-
C. The nature trading activities and the basis
tors, N900; stock of goods, N1,550; debtors, N275; cash
on which goods are sold.
at bank, N5,075 and loan from Jumbo, N2,000. What is
D. The asset register together with the
the balance sheet total?
depreciation schedule
A. N19,500 B. N18,500 C. N17,900
D. N15,900
28. Which of the following stock valuation methods is
suitable under inflationary conditions?
20. The recording of wages due but not yet paid, is an
example of an adjustment for A. FIFO B. LIFO
A. apportionment of revenue between two periods C. Simple average D. Weighed
B. recognizing accrued expenses average
C. recognizing unaccounted revenue
D. recognizing prepaid expenses.
29. Given N Welfare
Direct material 10,000 expenses 1,000
Director labour 5,000 Raffle prize 950
Director expenses 2,000 Balance c/d 10,690
Factory overhead 4,000
What is the prime cost? 17,020 17,020
A. N21,000 B. N17,000
C. N15,000 D. N6,000 Additional Information
1:1:93 31:12:93
30. The understatement of closing value of work-in- N N
process would have the effect of Subscription in arrears 300 450
A. understating cost of goods manufactured Furniture 7,000
B. overstating prime cost of goods manufactured Subscription received in advance 500 400
C. overstating cost of goods manufactured Rate owing 50 60
D. understating prime cost of goods
manufactured. 34. Subscription relating to the accounting year 1993 in
the income and expenditure account is
31. Emeka Manufacturing Company (Extract) A. N15,050 B. N14,550
Manufacturing Account. C. N14,300 D. N13,400

Direct material N5,000 35. Accumulated fund on 1st January 1993 is

Direct labour N4,000 A. N8,570 B. N8,470
Direct expenses N3,000 C. N7,850 D. N7,520
Factory overhead N2,500
Selling and distribution N1,500 36. Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in partnership and
they share profit and losses on ratio 3:2:1. Their
Calculate the production cost. respective capitals are N20,000, N15,000 and N5,000
A. N16,500 B. N15,000 on which they are entitled to interest at 5% per
C. N14,000 D. N12,500 annum. The profit for the year before charging interest
on capital amounted to N5,500. Calculate the profit
32. The difference between a trading account and a for Adamu.
manufacturing account is that while the A. N583 B. N1,000
manufacturing account C. N1,167 D. N1,750
A. has no particular period, the trading account
has Use the table below to answer questions 37 and 38
B. does not consider the cost of goods involved, Partners Current Account
the trading account does Musa Kalu Lawal Musa Kalu Lawal
C. is concerned with the cost of production N N N N N N
the trading account is not Interest Interest
D. is not concerned with the stock of raw On on
capital 10,000 8,000 8,000 capital 800 600 360
materials, the trading account is.
Drawings 8,800 10,000 6,000 Share of
33. An income and expenditure account is a summary 28,800 18,000 14,000 profit 26,200 13,100 13,100
of
Balance Balance
A. all income and expenditure during a period
b/d 1,800 4,300 540 c/d 1,800 4,300 540
B. revenue income and expenditure during a
period 28,800 18,800 14,000
C. receipts and payment during a period
D. the trading income during a period The current account above for Musa, Kalu and Lawal has
some errors in the arrangement of accounts.
Use the information below to answer questions 34 and 35
37. The correct closing balance for Musa’s current account
Gbagada Social Club is
Receipt and Payments Account for the year 1993 A. N36,200 credit B. N16,600credit
N N C. N16,600debit D. N1,800 credit

Balance b/d 720 Rent 180 38. The correct closing balance of Lawal’s current
account is
Subscriptions 14,300 Furniture 3,500 A. N21,100 debit B. N14,740 debit
C. N14,740 credit D. N540 credit
Proceed from raffle draws 2,000 Rate 580
39. Faruk and Osawe are in partnership sharing profits
Stationery 120 and losses in the ratio of 3:7. Faruk is to receive a
salary of N9,000. In one accounting period, the business Udoh trading company
recorded a loss of N1,500 (before deduction Balance sheet as at 31st December, 1992
of Faruk’s salary). The appropriate distribution of
the net loss would be Capital 39,000 Land 20,000
Loan term 15,000 Building 30,000
A. Faruk,(N450);Osawe,(N1,050) Creditors 9,000 Stock 4,000
B. Faruk,(N3,150); Osawe (N7,350), Acrued wages 5,000 Cash 8,000
C. Faruk,(N2,250);Osawe,(N5,250), Debtors 6,000
D. Faruk, (N8,550);Osawe,(N1,050) 68,000 68,000

40. On partnership dissolution, if partner’s capital account 45. What is the working capital?
has a debit balance and the partner is insolvent, the A. N12,000 B. N11,000
deficiency will in accordance with the decision of the C. N8,000 D. N4,000
case of Garner v Murry, be
A. Borne by all the partners 46. The acid test ratio in the company is
B. Borne by the insolvent partner, A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 2:3 D. 3:2
C. Written off,
D. Borne by the solvent partners 47. If goods are invoiced to the branch at cost and the in-
voice par value is N2,000 with 5% discount rate, cash
41. Share premium can be used to remitted to the head office is
i. Write off discount on shares ii. Give loans to direc- A. N2,100 B. N2,000
tors, iii. Pay dividends, iv. Pay company’s formation C. N1,900 D. N100
expenses
A. i and iv only B. i and iii 48. Which of the following are advantages of departmental
C. ii and iii only D. iii and iv only accounts? (i) The department making the highest profit
can be easily determined (ii) The capital of the business
42. A company has 5% debentures worth N500,000, ordi- can be calculated easily (iii) Easy knowledge of the
nary capital N2,000,000, and preference shares N1,500,000. sources of funding (iv) Encouragement of healthy rivalry
If the company made a profit of N1,000,000, the deben- among the various departments.
ture interest would amount to A. i and iv only B. ii and iii only
A. N1,000,000 B. N500,000 C. ii and iv only D. iii
C. N50,000 D. N25,000 and iv only

43. Alabede (Nig.) limited issued 50,000 ordinary shares of 49. Public sector accounting is based on
N1 each at market value of N2.50 each. The share pre- A. cash B. accrual
mium is C. budgets D. consolidated fund.
A. N125,000 B. N100,000
C. N75,000 D. N50,000 50. The end result of governmental accounting procedure is
to
44. A dividend of % in a company on 500,000 ordinary shares A. keep proper records of government
of N1 nominal value has been declared. How much will a expenditures
shareholder receive if he has 200 shares? B. give financial information to the public and
A. N500,000 B. N50,000 investors
C. N200 D. N20 C. produce timely and accurate financial re
Us the information below to answer questions 45 & 46. ports timely and accurate financial reports
for legislators and the public
D. give information on the performance of
public enterprises

Principles of Account 1998

2. Cost reports for attention of management should
1. The Act establishing the Institute of Chartered
reflect
Accountants of Nigeria (ICAN) came into force on
A. as much details as possible
A. 1st September, 1960 B. 1st October, 1960
st B. summary figures only
C. 1 October,1963 D. 1st September,1965.
C. details of non-controllable expenses
D. cost and comparable data useful in decision-
making.
3. Responsibility accounting is particularly concerned 9. If the inventory at the end of the current year is
with understated and the error is not caught during the
A. historical accounting B. controllable costs following year, the effect is to
C. storekeeping D. valuation of stocks A. understate income this year and understate in
next year
4. An advantage of the use of the voucher system is B. overstate income this year and overstate in next
that it year
A. reduces the number of cheques that will be C. understate this year’s income with no effect on
written during any given period next year’s
B. provides a highly flexible system for handling D. overstate the income for the two-year period.
unusual transactions
C. provides a comprehensive record of business 10. The total of the discounts received column in the
done with particular suppliers cash book is posted to the
D. ensures that every expenditure is reviewed and A. credit of the discounts received account
verified before payment is made. B. debit of the discounts allowed account
C. credit of the discounts allowed account
5. A business transaction is recorded in the books of D. debit of the discounts received account.
accounts when the
A. owner of the business invests his N10,000 in Use the information below to answer questions 11 and 12
another company
B. business retains part of its profits for future The initial imprest as at July 1st was N500. Petty cash voucers
expansion purposes with the custodian by July 15th added up to N394. An IOU slip
C. business applies for overdraft facilities from received from a co-worker was N65 and there was a shorage
its bankers of N5 cash. The co-worker made refund on July 18th just
D. owner of the business collects N5,000 from before the imprest was replenished.
the accountant.
11. What was the actual cash in the till as at 15th July?
6. When a transaction causes an asset account to A. N106 B. N101 C.N70 D. N36
increase, there is
A. a decrease of equal amount in the owner’s 12. The amount required to replenish the payments made
equity account from the imprest was
B. an increase in a liability account A. N399 B. N394
C. an increase of equal amount in another asset C. N358 D. N101
account
D. a decrease of equal amount in a liability 13. State Bank collected a note for Al-Makura Company.
account. This collection, not yet recorded in Al-Makura’s
7. N books, appears on the bank reconciliation as
Bank account 59,410 A. an addition to balance per books
Capital account 50,000 B. a deduction from balance per bank statement
Purchases account 20,000 C. an addition to balance per bank statement
Rent 2,500 D. a deduction from balance per books.
Stationery 90
Typewriter 6,500 14. Mayana Corporation uses special journals to record
Sales 38,000 its transactions. If one of Mayana’s customers
returns merchandize purchased with cash (for a
In preparing a trial balance from the list of balances refund), it makes an entry in the
given above, what is the total in debit and credit A. cash receipts journal B. sales journal
columns? C. general journal
A. N147910 B. N138500 D. cash disbursement journal.
C. N88500 D. N85800
15. Sobande Incorporation acquire a machine that
8. The purchase of two generators by Hassan involved the following expenditures and related
Electronics Enterprises should be recorded as factors
A. an acquisition of fixed assets. N
B. an expense in its general office expenses Gross invoice price 15,000
column. Sales tax 900
C. an acquisition of stock, Purchases discount taken 300
D. a part of capital in the capital account. Freight 750
Assembly of machine 500
Installation of machine 800
Assorted spare parts for future use 1,200
Turning and adjusting machine 700
Payments by debtors 12112
What is the initial accounting cost of the machine? Discount allowed 638
A. N19,550 B. N18,950 Sales returns 1500
C. N18,350 D. N17,500
Prepare the sales ledger control account and deter
16. A pottery company had sales of N176,000 during mine the balance due from debtors.
the current period and a gross profit rate of 40%. A. N40935 B. N27961
The company’s cost of merchandize available for C. N26685 D. N1185
sale during the period was N128,000. The company’s
ending inventory is 23. Determine the year’s purchases from the following
A. N22,400 B. N32,000 information relating to a firm
C. N51,200 D. N76,800 N
Total creditor’s b/f 7200
Use the information below to answer questions 17 and 18 Total cash payments to suppliers 98800
Wazobia Enterprises Balance Sheet as at 1/1/95 Total creditors c/f 8400

Liabilities N Assets N A. N7,200 B. N98,800

Capital 40,000 Furnishing 10,000 C. N100,000 D N105,200
Ceiling fan 1,500
Cash in hand 28,500 24. Derive the total sales figure from the following
40,000 40,000 information extracted from a firm’s cash book and
other relevant records.
If at 31/1/95 the following information was ascertained (i) N
Rent shop N12,000 paid for the year (ii) Total purchases Total debtors b/f 5,600
N15,000 (iii) Total sales N8,200 (iv) Stock of goods left Total cash receipts from debtors
N10,000 (v) Paid sales boy N500. and cash sales 153,000
Total debtors c/f 6,800
17. What is the new balance sheet total as at 31/1/95?
A. N40,000 B. N41,500 A. N6,800 B. N153,000
C. N41,700 D. N48,500. C. N154,200 D. N159,800

18. What is the balance on its cash account as at 31/1/95? 25. The statement of affairs prepared from incomplete
A. N22,800 B. N21,200 records can be described as
C. N9,200 D. N800 A. the summary of all the business transac
tions of the trader ascertained by the
19. On 1st January, 1993, Lobo Company purchased accountant
equipment for N18,000. It uses straight-line B. a balance sheet at a particular date
depreciation and estimates an eight-year useful life showing the assets and liabilities of the
and a N2,000 salvage value. On 31st December, 1996, business
it sells the equipment for N8,000. In recording this C. a schedule of all the business ventures
sale, it should reflect entered into for the period to which the
A. N10,000 loss B. N2,000 loss records relate
C. N6,000 gain D. N8,000 gain D. the statement that shows the profit or loss
made during the period.
20. The balance on a purchases ledger control account
represents the 26. The contribution margin on a job is the
A. present amount that a business owes its A. gross profit
suppliers at date. B. net profit
B. Total credit available to the business at the C. excess of sales revenue over variable costs
end of the year to be utilized in future D. difference between fixed and variable costs.
C. total credit the business enjoyed for the
particular year from its suppliers. D. total credit 27. The objective of allocating all costs to product is to
owed the business by its customers. A. produce a scientifically accurate cost
B. avoid unallocated overhead and compute
21. A powerful instrument of control over both the sales total product cost
ledger and the clerk whose duty is to post the ledger C. co-ordinate the cost and financial accounts
is the D. compute the contribution of the product
A. total debtors account. B. Purchases day book to the final profit.
C. sales daybook D. Cash book.. Use the information below to answer questions 28 and 29
22. Mini Enterprises sales Ledgers as at 31/12/94 read:
N Raw materials inventory at the beginning of a period was
Balance b/f 12750 N46,800 and at the close of the period there was a balance of
Total credit sales 28185
N38,600. From the purchases made during the period, 36. Which of the following is an intangible asset and a
defective materials costing N9,200 were returned. Cost of measure of a firm’s superior earning power?
materials consumed during the period was N448500. A. Patent B. Goodwill
C. Trademark D. Right issue.
28. What was the total purchases made during the
period? Use the information below to answer questions 38 and 39
A. N487100 B. N457700
C. N449500 D. N440300 Dan & Baker are in partnership with capitals of N50,000
and N30,000 each. The partnership agreement provides
29. What is the cost of materials available for use during that: (i) profits be shared in the ratio of capital (ii) Baker
the period? be paid a salary of N8,000 (iii) both partners pay inter-
A. N487100 B. N449500 est on drawings at 6% p.a.
C. N448500 D. N440300. At the end of the year, Dan drew N15,000 while Baker
drew N14,000 in four equal installment on 31/3, 30/6, 30/
30. A non-profit-making organization differs from a profit 9 and 31/12. The net profit for the year was N48,000.
making on in that N5,000 is to be written off the Goodwill account.
A. it does not earn income
B. proceeds from sale of shares form part of its 38. What is the interest on the drawings by Baker?
income A. N210 B. N315
C. all its income is committed C. N450 D. N840
D. annual subscriptions and levies form part of
its income. 39. Determine the total interest on capital due to the
partners.
31. The limitations of the receipts and payments account A. N1200 B. N1800
arise mainly because of the reliance C. N3000 D. N4800
A. cash movement as evidence of transaction
B. the accounting officer to report 40. The ordinary shareholders enjoy the following rights
C. the capital account of the organization except the right to
D. the transaction papers as evidence of A. vote at annual general meetings
transaction B. elect the board of directors
C. participate in additional issues of shares
32. The trading account is to a sole trader what income D. receive dividends at a predetermined rate.
and expenditure account is to a
A. partnership 41. Granada Corporation has net assets of N600,000 and
B. public limited organization contributed capital of N180,000. The corporation has
C. manufacturing organization 30,000 shares of common stock outstanding with no
D. non-profit-making organization. preferred stock. This suggests that the corporation
has
33. Which of the following indicate that a partnership A. a book value of N14 per share
business is in place? (i) there is a business (ii) it is B. a book value of N20 per share
run commonly by partners (iii) it has profit-making C. a deficit of N420,000
in view (iv) partners’ liability is limited. D. retained earnings of N600,000
A. i and ii only B. i,ii and iii only
C .i,ii and iv only D. ii,iii and iv only. 42. Under which of these conditions can a company
issue shares at discount? (i) a resolution must be
34. When forming a partnership, new partners should passed at a general meeting (ii) the amount of
record non-monetary assets on the new discount must be stated in the resolution (iii) the
partnership’s books at share must have existed for at least six years. (iv) on
A. their current fair market values the order of a court.
B. their historical costs when first used A. i,ii and iii only B. i,ii and iv only.
C. their historical costs when first purchased C. i,iii and iv only D. ii,iii and ivonly
by each new partner
D. the highest values practical so that future 43. The part of equity which is payable on winding up
income tax deductions are maximized. is called
A. general reserve B. revenue reserve
35. Umar and Ahmed share profits and losses equally C. capital reserve D. normal reserve
and have capital balances of N40,000 and N60,000
respectively. If Abdullahi purchases a one-third 44. To compute gearing ratio, divide
interest with no bonus, how much will he have to A. profit by capital employed
contribute to the partnership? B. current assets by current liability
A. N33,333 B. N40,000 C. profit by total assets
C. N44,444 D. N50,000 D. long-term debt by equity capital.
is necessary for proper
45. Which of the following entries is effected by a accountability in the public sector.
department when goods are charged to it at selling
prices? 48. In a public corporation, the capital expenditure
A. Stock account is debited incurred in a financial period is
B. Purchases account is debited A. spread over the useful life of the assets
C. stock account is credited through depreciation
D. mark-up account is debited. B. apportioned at a pre-determined rate
stipulated by law
46. The difference between the closure of the books of C. written off in the year in which they occur
a branch and those of a separate company is that D. merged with recurrent expenditure and
A. there is retained earnings account on reported in one lump sum.
the branch books
B. the revenue and expense account is 49. Money not required to meet chargeable expenditure
closed to branch current account in any fiscal year under cash accounting, should be
C. there is no retained earnings account A. surrendered to the consolidated revenue fund
on the branch books B. carried forward to the next financial year
D. the revenue and expense account is not C. reserved to meet any deficits or contingencies
closed to the home office current account D. returned to the taxpayer.

47. The term fiscal compliance means 50. If a monthly insurance premium is remitted to a
A. all financial and related laws and company by the state government, the initial
regulations are adhered to deductions from employees are recorded in
B. only the budget for the current period is A. the general fund B. agency fund
compiled with and no deficits allowed C. special fund D. general long-term fund.
C. all physical assets requirements have been met

Principles of Accounts 1999

1. Accrual concept stipulates that 5. When a proprietor withdraw cash from the business
A. revenue should be recognized when it is for private use, he
earned A. debits cash account and credits drawings
B. costs should be recognized when the account
expenditure is paid B. credits cash account and debit its bank
C. revenue should be recognized only when account
cash is paid C. debits bank account and credit drawings
D. costs should be recognized when they account
are incurred. D. credits cash account and debit drawings
accounts.
2. The basic role of accounting is to;
A. detect fraud 6. A basic unifying concept in accounting implies that
B. altest to financial statement A. where creditors’ accoun is zero, the
C. measure performance assets are equal to the owner’s equity.,
D. protect shareholders B. there should be a balance in he
creditors’s account in order to measure
3. The need for changes in accounting theory in
total assets
Nigeria was influenced by the
C. revcenues should be supported by
A. dynamics of commercialization and
invested and owners’s capital
privatization policies
D. total assets can be less than liability and
B. growth in size of business units
equity.
C. introduction of he structural adjustment
programme
7. A source document for the sales day book is
D. inconvertibility of the nation’s currency.
A. requisition form B. an invoice
4. A book-keeping error occurs when there is a. C. a customer advice D. a credit advice.
A. deliberate manipulation of records
B. unintentional correct posting in the 8. In a cash book, the opening balance was N7,600,
ledger closing balance N9,200 and the total cash received
C. intentional failure to record transactions during the period was N18,000. What was the amount
and oversights that are no intended of cash paid out during the period?
D. interest records and completely A. N8,900 B. N9,800
oversights that are not intended. C. N14,600 D. N16,400
9. If the total discount allowed in cash book was N230 15. Calculate the gross profit for the period
and the total discount received was N255 and the A. N535,650 B. N628,300,
total following is true concerning the two discounts? C. N637,950 D. N647,600
A. They must be balanced in the cash book
and the difference taken to the debtors 16. Chibuike bought 36 notebooks at N10 each from
ledger, John and was given a trade discount of 5%. In
B. they must be balanced in the cash, addition, he as offered 1% cash discount which
balance and the difference taken to the he took advantage of. How much did Chibuike
trial balance. pay?
C. They should not be balanced in the cash A. N338.58 B. 342.000
book before being taken to the trial C. N345.42 D. N360.00.
balance.
D. They should not appear in the trial 17. Depreciation on a particular piece of machinery
balance a they were already either was N2,700 during the fifth year of its service
received or paid out. life and N4,050 during the sixth year. The
logical explanation for this is that.
10. Which of the following bank reconciliation items A. an addition was made to the asset
should not be added or subtracted from the bank during the sixth year.
statement balance to determine the adjusted cash B. the estimate of salvage value on this
balnce? equipment was decreased at the
A. Outstanding cheques beginning of the fifth year
B. Bank service charges C. a unit-of-output method of depreciation
C. deposits in the mail not yet received by was used during the sixth year.
the bank D. the estimated remaining service life of
D. Bank error, charging a company for the asset was increased at the
another company’s cheques. beginning of the sixth year.

11. The fixed amount of money given to a petty cashier 18. The main features of the single entry system
at the beginning of a period is called are that
A. imprest B. petty cash A. books of accounts are not maintained
C. float D. cash advance and business relies only on bank
statement
12. A provision for bad debt account had N3,800 at the B. the journal records are absent and only
beginning of the year and N4,220 at the close of the the main ledger is kept
year. If bad debts are calculated at the rate of 1/20% of C. there are incomplete classifications and
annual credit sales. what was the credit sales for the recording procedures
period? D. only credit sales transactions and credit
A. N210,000 B. N844,400 purchases are recorded.
C. N840,000 D. N500,000.
19. The principal function of a sales ledger control
13. Asa company bought a vehicle worth N20,000 and account is to
the vehicle is to be depreciated 5% using the A. serve as internal check and provide
reducing balance method of depreciation, what would quick information for the preparation of
be the value of the assets after 3 years? interim financial statements
A. N19,000.00 B. N18,050.50 B. serve as external check and provide
C. N17,147.50 D. N16,290.13 quick information for the preparation of
interim financial statements
Use the information below to answer questions 14 and 15 C. provide quick information for the
N preparation of customers’ statements,
Capital: Opening balance 307,000 D. provide information for the control of
Closing balance 342,000 salesmen’s activities
Net profit for the period 121,600
Opening stock 98,800 20. In dealing with incomplete records, fixed assets
Purchases 706,000 are posted to
Carriage inwards 17,500 A. opening profit and loss as brought
Cost of goods sold 740,700 forward figures
Total selling, general and B. closing balance sheet as carried forward
Administrative exps 526,000 figures
Discount received 9,650 C. closing balance sheet as brought
forward figures
14. What is the closing stock for the period? D. closing profit and loss as bought
A. N69,300 B. N84,300 forward figures.
C. N81,600 D. N106,400
Use the information below to answer questions 21 and22
Aminu and Sons credit purchases (Extract) as at February, 1996 27. The difference between the factory cost of
N production and prime cost production is
Feb 1 Credit balances 40,000 A. direct materials B. direct labour
Debit balances 1,000 C. selling expenses D. overhead.
Feb 28 Purchases journal totals 500,000
28. Receipts and payments account of a non-profit
Returns outwards journal total 50,000
making organisation is principally a summary of
Cheques paid to suppliers 400,000
the
Promissory notes sent to suppliers 30,000
A. bank entries B. cash book entries
Discount received from suppliers 8,000
C. expenditure entries D. balance sheet entries.
Credit balances in the purchases
ledger set off against debit balances
29. Given: N
in the sales ledger 2,000
Club debtors at start 150
Cash sales 4,850
21. The total for the purchases ledger control account
Club debtors at close 900
is
Cash received from debtors 550
A. N480,000 B. N490,000
C. N500,000 D. N540,000
What is the amount club sales
A. N6,150 B. N4,850
22. What is the balance c/d in the purchases ledger
C. N4,650 D. N1,300
conrol account?
A. N2,000 B. N8,000 30. A credit balance on a receipts and payments
C. N40,000 D. N45,000. account indicates that the non-profit making
organisation.
23. Given: N A. had more revenues than expenses during
Total cash received from debtors 30,000 the period
Total purchases for the period 21,000 B. did not owe much liabilities during the
Amount owed by debtors at the beginning period
of the period 4,000 C. received more cash than it paid out during
Equipment bought 2,500 the period
Amount owed by debtors at the D. made more cash payments than it received
end of the period 3,000 during the period.
Determine the value of sales for the period.
31. Goodwill can be valued in partnership when,
A. N29,000 B. N31,500
A. partners make profits
C. N46,500 D. N50,000
B. large losses are made
24. When the factory cost of production has been C. a partner retires
ascertained, manufactured goods are transferred D. a new branch is opened.
to trading accounts by
A. debiting manufacturing account and 32. As part of the initial investment, a partner
crediting trading account contributes office equipment that originally cost
B. crediting sales account and debiting N20,000 and on which provision for depreciation
trading account of N12,500 had been recorded. If the partners agree
C. debiting sales account and crediting on a valuation of N9,000 for the equipment, what
trading account amount should be debited to the office equipment,
D. crediting manufacturing account and what amount should be debited to the office
debiting trading account. equipment account?
A. N7,500 B. N9,000
25. Lawal and Co makes blocks and sells to builders.
C. N12,500 D. N20,000
In computing prime cost, which of the following
33. When a partner makes a drawing of stock items
costs would be considered appropriate?
from a partnership, the accounting impact of the
A. Cement, sand and carriage outward
drawing is to increase the partner’s
B. Water, carriage inwards and cement
A. Goodwill account balance
C. Sales boys wages, cement and sand
B. Current account credit balance
D. carriage outwards, carriage inwards and
C. Current account debit balance
cement.
D. Profit and account credit loss
26. Manufacturing cost can be classified based on balance.
A. timing of charges, degree of averaging, ease
of traceability and timing of charges 34. Appropriate Account
B. degree carriage inwards and cements Kudu Wale
C. degree of averaging and size of capital Interest on capital 750 550
D. number of employed, timing of charges and Salaries 800 600
management style. Share of profits 3,300 3,300
Determine the net profit of the partnership in preparing a Memorandum of Incorporation, the
A. N 9,300 B. N 6,600 C. N 4,850 D. N 4,450 journal entry is to debit
A. Preliminary expenses, credit cash, accounts.
35. Dele and Seun who are in partnership, have decided to B. Promoters, credit creditors’ Accounts.
convert their business into a limited liability company C. Lawyer’s credit cash accounts
where both become directors. To convert the business D. Cash credit incorporation accounts.
A. They will simply continue since there are
no new members. 42. Calls in advance are treated in the balance sheet as
B. The partnership is formally ended and new A. Current asset B. Current liability
company books opened. C. fixed assets D. fixed liability.
C. The shares and all other items will be shared
equally and not in their former ratios. 43. Shares issued to a vendour in payment of business
D. Computation of goodwill must b e done as purchased would require a debit to
it is legally required. A. Cash account and credit to share capital account
B. Share capital account and credit to vendor’s
36. If a sole proprietorship is purchased for cash, then account
A. The purchaser debits his business purchase C. Vendor’s account and credit to share capital
account with the consideration he pays. account.
B. All assets and liabilities must be bought D. Share capital account and credit to cash
C. Goodwill results where value liabilities taken account.
is higher than the value of assets.
D. The vendor debits his businesspurchase 44. The best method of allocating expenses among
account with the consideration he receives. departments is to
A. Allocate expenses to each department in
37. The market price per ordinary share of a corporation proportion to the sales of that department
listed on the stock exchange is most closely related to its B. Charge against each department those
A. Earnings per share costs which are within its control
B. Redemption price per share C. Charge expenses against each department
C. Book value per share in proportion to the purchases of that
D. Call price per share department.
D. Allocate expenses to each section of the
38. Which of the following events increases a corporation’s department in relation to the number of
shareholders equity? people.
A. Donation of shares out of the corporation’s
45. To record the transfer of stock fro one department to
own stock to the corporation
another, the correct entry would be to debit
B. The corporation’s purchase of treasury
A. Gods outwards and credit goods inwards.
stock.
B. Merchandise account and credit department
C. Shares of previously subscribed stock
stock account
issued to subscribing stockholders
C. Department transferring and credit department
D. A municipality donation of land to the
receiving
corporation
D. Department receiving and credit department
transferring.
Use the information below to answer questions 39 and 40
Use the information below to answer question 46 and 47.
Zoom Plc Balance Sheet (Extract) as at 31st December 1997 Amoga Limited invoiced goods at a cost of N 10,000 to its Ikeja
N N branch at a margin of 20%. The branch later returned goods
Paid-up capital 200,000 Fixed assets 300,000 worth N 1,200 at invoice price to the head office.
Share premium 15,000 Investment 180,000
46. The profit margin should be
Profit & loss a/c 60,000 Stock 28,000
A. debited to goods sent to branch account
Debtors 90,000 Creditors 200,000
B. debited to branch stock adjustment account
Provision (3,000) 87,000
C. credited to branch adjustment account
Other current Cas 60,000
D. credited to branch stock account.
Liabilities 100,000 Bank 100,000
755,000 755,000 47. What is the correct entry in the head office books at the
point of initial transfer of the goods?
39. The quick ratio is A. Branch stock account would be credited
A. 0.82 : 1 B. 0.91 : 1 C. 0.95 : 1 D. 1.53 : 1. with N10,000
B. Branch stock account would be debited
40. Determine the owner’s equity with N12,000
A. N 200,000 B. N215,000 C. Goods sent to branch account would be
C. N 275,000 D. N755,000 debited with N10,800.
D. Goods sent to branch account would be
41. If a promote pays a lawyer N5,000 for services rendered credited with N12,000.
48. Capital and revenue expenditures of government are A. Balance sheet
usually accounted for under funds which include B. Advances account.
A. Personal advances, technical and public funds. C. Debtors account
B. Technical, special trust and commercial funds. D. Profit and loss accounts.
C. Personal advances, treasury clearance and special
trust funds. 50. The conventional source of public revenue include
D. Commercial loans and treasury clearance funds. A. Loans, taxation, foreign reserves and dividends.
B. Interest, royalties, taxation and loans
49. Which of the following accounts is kept by local gov- C. Crude oil, interest, posted price and taxation
ernments in Nigeria? D. Taxation, deficit budgeting, royalties and loans.

Principles of Accounts 2000

1. On November 1, 1998, Zaria Holdings owed N 13,600 in 8. A source document that aids the ascertainment of
respect of creditor. On November 15, it purchased goods amount paid out of a current is the
worth N69,000 and paid a cheques of N51,600. On No- A. Teller B. Cheque stub C. Cheque D. teller stub
vember 29, one of the Holdings’ cheque’s worth N3,000
was returned while the creditor granted N1,500 discount. 9. Yahuza Enterprises
The amount owed by Zaria Holdings as at November 29 Trial Balance (Extracts) as at Dec. 31, 1998.
is N N
A. N32,5000 B. N32,000 Capital 21,000
C. N31,000 D. N29,500 Premises 90,000
Debtors 35,000
2. To write off bad debt, debit Provisions 1/1/98
A. Debtor’s account and credit provision for bad Depreciation 9,000
debt. Bad and doubtful debts 1,500
B. Bad debt account and credit debtor’s account.
If a premise is to be depreciated at 10% on cost and a
C. Debtor’ account and credit bad debt.
5% provision is to be allowed on debtors, the total as-
D. Provision for bad debt.
set in the balance sheet is
A. N 125,000 B. N 114,500 C. N 105,500 D. N 105,250
3. In order to make the cash book balance equal to the
bank statement, it is usual to add 10. The most convenient cash book used by a petty trader
A. Uncredited cheques. B. Direct payments by bank operating in an area where there is no banking facility is
C. Bank charges D. Unpresented cheques. A. Four column B. Three column
C. Single column. D. two column
Use the information below to answer the questions 4 and 5
11. A general journal contains
N
A. Date narration, folio, debit and credit.
Sale 20,000
B. Date narration, folio, debit and purchases.
Cost of sales 10,000
C. Folio, credit, date, debit and sales.
Operating expenses 2,500
D. Debit, credit, narration, date and discount.
Expenses prepaid included in operating expense 500
12. Which of the following errors will affect the trial bal-
4. Calculate the net profit. ance totals?
A. N12,500 B. N10,000 C. N8,000 D. N7,500 A. Posting discount allowed to the debit side of the
discount allowed account.
5. What is the gross profit margin? B. Omission of one account from the list when ex-
A. 100% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30% tracting from the ledgers.
C. Failure to post sales of N 2,000 and purchases of
6. The main object of book keeping is to record economic. N 2,000 from subsidiary ledgers.
A. Transactions systematically for routine managerial D. Omission of sales of N 3,000 and purchase of
decision making. N 2,000.
B. Events clearly to ensure adequate checks and bal-
13. An expense account is closed by a debit to
ances
A. An asset account and credit to the expense
C. Events clearly to facilitate strategic managerial de-
account.
cision-making
B. The expense account and a credit to an asset
D. Transactions systematically to ascertain the finan-
account.
cial position of a business.
C. Profit and loss account and a credit to the expense
37. Which of the following is an example of intangible as-
account.
set?
D. The expense account and a credit to profit and
A. Trade debtors B. Stock of goods
loss account.
C. trade creditors D. Motor vehicles
14. The accounting convention which stipulates that money
or goods taken from the business by the owner for per- Determine the receipt from debtors
sonal use should be treated as deductions from capital A. N22,470 B. N17,470 C. N8,440 D. N5,000
is
A. Cost B. Prudence 20. The items entered in an opening statement of affairs of
C. Consistency D. Entity an enterprise that keeps incomplete record are
A. Sales income B. Receipt
Use the information below to answer questions 15 and 16
from debtors C. Fixtures and fittings D. Rent paid
Cost raw materials consumed 300,600
21. In a manufacturing company, the total cost of goods
Carriage inwards 6,700
produced is equivalent to
Returns of raw materials 10,800
A. Purchases B. Sales
Closing stock of raw materials 100,250
C. Cost of goods sold D. Cost of materials used.
Manufacturing wages 27,000
22. Given: Sales Ledger Control Account (Extracts)
Lighting, power, insurance and rent relating
N
to the factory are apportioned 1/3/5, 1/6/
Balance b/f 10,600
and 1/7 with totals N30,000, N75,000;
Total cash payments by debtors 32,275
N36,000 and N56,000 respectively.
Total credit sales 59,193
15. What is the cost of the opening raw materials? Discount received 9,700
A. N 418,350 B. N 404,950 C. N 400,250 D. N 398,250 Balance c/f 20,751
Discount allowed 2,890
16. The production cost of finished goods is
A. N 524,600 B. N 408,000 C. N 381,600 D. N 327,600 Determine the sales returns
A. N24,577 B. N13,877 C. N7,067 D. N2,890
17. Amin Ltd. Creditors Ledger Control Account (Extracts)
Beginning control account N 23. The simplest form of single entry procedure consist of
Balances: keeping a
Debit 32,000 A. Day book or general journal
Credit 61,000 B. Cash book and ledger accounts showing debt-
Purchases during the year: ors and creditors balances
Cash 30,000 C. Cash journal, sales journal and purchases jour-
Credit 60,000 nal
Payment to suppliers: D. Day book in which transaction are described
Cash 13,000 in chronological order.
Cheque 29,000
Debtor’s contra 6,000 24. A fixed cost is fixed only in relation to
A. The quantity of goods produced
The closing control account balance is B. The quantity of goods sold
A. N 41,000 B. N 65,000 C. N 71,000 D. 77,000 C. A given period of time a range of activities
D. A given period of time and the nature of activity.
18. Given: N
Depreciation of plant and 25. One of the shortcomings of single entry procedures is
machinery 1,600 that
Factory rent 650 A. A trial balance is not available
Indirect wages 695 B. Profits are overestimated
General indirect expenses 726 C. There are no subsidiary books
Lubricants 1,235 D. There are no control accounts.
Carriage inwards 829
Factory power 350 26. When a customer’s cheque is returned unpaid in a debtor’s
Bank charges 612 control accounting system, the treatment will be
Carriage outwards 2,900 A. debit bank, credit customer and credit control
account.
Determine the total factory overhead cost B. credit bank, debit customer and debit control
A. N4,485 B. N5,256 C. N6,085 D. N6,556 account.
C. debit customer, credit control account and
19. Given N credit bank.
Cash book items: D. credit control account, debit bank and debit
Paid to suppliers 10,800 customer.
Expenses paid 6,900
Drawings made 900 27. Didi Ltd. Offered 10,000 ordinary shares of N1.50 each
Balances at start 15,750 at a discount of 2% which were fully subscribed. With
Balances at end 3,870 regard to the offer above,
Drawings from bank to shop 1,720 A. Shares are never offered at a discount; the offer is
invalid 36. The accumulated fund of a non-trading concern can
B. The value of shares in the capital account will be equally be referred to as
lowered by 2%. A. members’ equity B. share capital
C. The company incurs a loss to the tune of 2% of the C. general fund D. surplus fund
offer.
D. Each of the subscribers loses 2% of investment. 37. When a purchased business is revalued the effects is that.
A. a decrease in the value of assets has no effect no
Use the information below to answer questions 28 and 29
value of goodwill
Maro Merchant Bank Plc is to issue 500,000 ordinary
B. an increase in the value of asset is treated as
shares of 50k each at N 3,000 per share. Applications
an increase in the value of goodwill
were received for 1,550,000 shares fully paid, 1,250,000
C. a decrease in the value of asset is treated as a
shares are to be issued on a pro rata basis and excess
decrease in the value of goodwill
subscriptions were dishonored and refunds made
D. an increase in the value of asset is treated as
decrease in the value of goodwill
28. The refund due to an application for 25,000 shares is
A. N45,000 B. N30,000 C. N7,500 D. N5,000
38. An item of appropriation in partnership profit and loss
account is.
29. What will be the number of shares to be issued to a
A. interest on partners’ capital
subscriber who applied for 30,000 shares?
B. interest on partners’ loan
A. N20,000 B. N18,000 C. N15,000 D. N12,000
C. employees’ salaries
D. partners drawings
30. Which of the following items does not feature in the
Use the information below to answer question 39 and 40
balance sheet of a club?
Rakya ad Joy are in partnership and agreed that 5% interest per
A. Arrears of current year’s subscription
annum is to be charged on drawings. The drawing made by both
B. Salary arrears paid in the current year
partners in one year were:
C. Rental income received in advance
Rakiya, N200 on March 31 and N300 on September 30, Joy, N100
D. Advance subscription in respect of a coming year.
on April 1 and N240 on July 1
31. An outright sale of partnership amounts to the
39. The interest on Joy’s drawing is
A. compenstion of vendors by the purchase
A. N6.00 B. N7.25 C. N9.00 D. N9.75
B. admission of a new partner
C. purchase of rights of a dead partner
40. Assuming that Rakiya was not credited with any in
D. change of sharing ratio of vendors
come during the period, what is her closing current ac
count balance?
32. Given:
A. N340.00 credit B. N349.75 debit
N
C. N500.00 credit D. N511.25 debit
Opening Cash balance 20,000
Sale of match tickets 15,000
41. A business is acquired at par when the
Clearing of pitch 1,200
A. purchase consideration equals good will
Refreshments 3,500
B. purchase consideration equals net value
Referees’ allownace 1,000
C. purchase consideration is greater than the net
Cost of petrol for bus 1,120
value is greater than the liabilities.
Donation from local government 3,800
Yola Social Club
The club’s cash balance is Statement of Account 1999 Financial Year
A. N39,180 B. N34,830 N
C. N34,830 D. N31,980 31/12/98:
Subscription in arrears 21,000
Use the information below to answer question 33 and 34 Subscription in advance 12,000
Maimalari Ltd had 1. Earnings per share 30k Receipts during 1999:
111. Par value of each share N1.20 1V. Market price per Arrears 1998 21,000
share N1.50 Dues 1999 48,000
Advance 2000 11,000
33. The companys’ yields is The subscription transferable to the income and
A. 20.00% B. 25.00% C. 31.33% D. 39.17% expenditure account is
A. N48,000 B. 59,000 C. N60,000 D. N69,000
34. What will be the price earnings ratio of the company?
A. 3.91 B. 3.19 C. 2.95 D. 2.55 43. The most appropriate basis for apportioning inventory
holding cost among departments is to use the value of
35. The partnership Deed noramally specifies A. purchase B. opening stock C. closing stock
A. how profits or losses are to be shared D. average stock
B. the capital to be contributed annually
C. how salaries are paid to employees. 44. The body constitutionally charge with the accounts of
D. the profit that should be earned annually the Federation and other Assembly in the
A. Public Accounts Committee B. Public Audit
Committee C. Internal Audit Committee 48. Recurrent expenditure are expenses for the period not
D. External Audit Committee. exceeding. A. 10 years B. 5 years C. 2years D. 1 year

45. 1. Meet growth and diversification needs. 49. A major benefit derived from the reconciliation of branch
11. Reach out to particular customers or markets and head office books is to
111. Comply with some regulatory directives. A. determine accurate returns by the branch
1V. Increase employees’ income B ascertain the correct profit or loss on branch
Which of the reasons above do consider in estalishing activites
branches. C. enable the branch to keep control over stock
A 1 and 11 B. 1, 11 and 111 C. 11, 111 and 1V D. enable the branch to ascertain debtors balance
D. 111 and 1V
50. Haial Limited with three departments has a total of
46. The channel through which all government borrowing N7,2000,000 as the net debtors for the year ended 31/12/
and domestic lending transactions pass is called 97. The company’s policy provides for 15% bad debt
A. special trust fund B. agency fund C. national laon annually. Whcih of the following represents the total
fund D. contingency fund balance of debtors before adjustments?
A. N6,120,000 B. 6,120,300 C. N8,280,000 D. N8,820.00
47 Given:
Dept A Dept B
2 2
Floor space 400m 60m
Machine 1200 1400
Turnover N36million N64 million
Labour hoours 1000 1400

A joint cost N72 million incurred by the two depart

ments was apportioned N30 million to
A. and N42 million to B. The basis used for
apportionment must have been
A. labour hours B. floor space C. turnover
D. machine hours
Principles of Accounts 2001
1. The current growth in the volume of trading and 10. In a petty cash book, the closing balance was N235,
financial dealings in Nigeria is helped by imprest N1250, while the stationery expenses were N655.
A. Increased financial activities. how much was paid for other general expenses?
B. Government intervention A. N360 B. N355 C. N350 D. N305.
C. Credit as a factor in business
D. Paying for goods in cash. 11. When a bill is negotiated to a abank, it is said to be
A. Surrendered B. Cashed
2. Cost accounting entails provision of information C. Discounted D. Accepted
A. For investment purpose B. For decision making
C. To shareholders D. To stockholders 12. Given that the balance as per cash book after necessary
adjustments was N4,315, unpresented cheques were
3. The main objective of accounting report is to provide N1,688 and the bank statement balance was N4,791, what
information about was the balance of the uncredited cheques?
A. A company’s shareholding A. N1,223 B. N1,212 C. N1,202 D. N1,115
B. An entity’s management C. The efficacy of assets
D. A company’s economic resources. 13. If a property developing company sells a completed
building to an interested third party, this sale can be
4. If liabilities amounted to N12,045, other assets N36,800 treated in the books of the company as
and equity N26,896, the cash at hand would be A. Capital receipt B. Revenue receipt
A. N2,241 B. N2,214 C. N2,141 D. N2,114. C. Windfall receipt D. Miscellaneous Receipt.

Use the information below to answer questions 5 and 6 Use the information below to answer questions 14 and 15
Given N
Fixed assets 85,600 Palaju Enterprises had fixed assets of N3,100,000 at the end of the
Sales 197,000 year. Fixed assets costing N900,000 with provision for deprecia-
Stock 34,300 tion of N150,000 were disposed of during the period. Fixed assets
Salaries and wages 37,000 of N100,000 were added during the year. Provision for deprecia-
Purchases 127,700 tion was N350,000 at the beginning of the year and N300,000 at
Share capital 120,000 the end of the year.
Creditors 16,050
Motor expenses 10,500 14. What was the value of fixed assets at the beginning of
Debtors 25,000 the year?
A. N2,900,000 B. N3,800,000
5. What is the cash balance? C. N3,900,000 D. N4,000,000
A. N12,095 B. N12,590 C. N12,905 D. N12,950
15. The depreciation expense charged for the year is
6. Determine the total of the trial balance. A. N450,000 B. N250,000
A. N335,050 B. N333,050 C. N323,050 D. N230,550 C. N150,000 D. N100,000

7. The accuracy of journalizing is checked by 16. A reduction in the catalogue price of an article given by
A. Ensuring that debit totals equal credit totals. a wholesaler to a retailer is called a
B. Posting all journal entries to ledger accounts. A. Bad debt B. Trade discount C. Premium D. Cash
C. Adding all figures in the debit column. discount.
D. Comparing accounts in the ledger against the jour-
nals. Use the information below to answer questions 17 and 18.

8. Hauwa Ltd bought 10 bags of rice for N500 each. The Stock Control Account [Extract] as at January, 2000
company was given 5% and 12% trade and cash dis- Date Receipts Issues Balance
counts respectively. What will be recorded as discount Qty Unit Amt Qty Unit Amt Amt
received in the company’s book? Price Price
A. N250 B. N570 C. N600 D. N850 N N N N N
Jan. 1 100 5. 00 500.00 - - - 500.00
9. A cash book had opening balance of N15,200, closing Jan. 5 50 6.00 300.00 - - - 800.00
balance N18,400 and total cash received during the Jan. 7 - - - 40 6.00 240.00 560.00
period N36,000. What was the amount of cash paid out Jan. 10 50 4.00 200.00 - - - 760.00
during the same period? Jan. 15 - - - 50 4.00 200.00 560.00
A. N17,800 B. N19,600 C. N29,200 D. N32,800 Jan. 20 - - - 10 X Y Z
17. What is the stock valuation method used? 50,000
A. Last In First Out B. First In First Out. Bar credit purchases 40,000
C. Average cost D. Weighted average. Payment to suppliers 30,000
Bar expenses 1,000
18. The value of x is Bar closing stock 15,000
A. N4.00 B. N5.00 C. N5.50 D. N6.00
25. What is the bar profits?
Use the information below to answer questions 19 and 20 A. N20,000 B. N15,000 C. N14,0000 D. N10,000.
N
Purchases ledger opening balance 4,000 26. How much is owed to supplier?
Sales ledger opening balance 6,000 A. N50,000 B. N40,000
Credit purchases during the year 25,000 C. N30,000 D. N20,000
Discounts allowed 1,000
Returns inwards 2,000 27. Lubricating oil and spare parts of machinery are examples
Credit sales during the year 10,000 of
Returns outwards 6,000 A. Direct material B. Indirect materials
C. Indirect expenses D. Direct expenses
19. Calculate the sales ledger balance .
A. N3,000 B. N6,000 C. N10,000 D. N13,000 Use the information below to answer questions 28 and
29
20. What is the purchases ledger balance? N
A. N4,000 B. N23,000 C. N24,000 D. N29,000 Subscriptions received during the year 30,000
Subscription owed last year 4,000
21. For an incomplete record to provide necessary informa- Subscription received for next year 6,000
tion, it must be converted to
A. Complete records B. Double entry records 28. The N6,000 subscription received is
C. Statement of affairs D. Single entry. A . Current asset B. Current liability
C. Fixed asset D. Capital
Use the information below to answer questions 22 and 23
29. What is the subscription to be charged to income and
Given: 31/12/98 31/12/99 expenditure account?
Assets: Plant & Mach. 1,500 1,200 A. N36,000 B. N34,000
Fixtures 700 520 C. N30,000 D. N20,000
Stock 500 600
Debtors 900 400 30. A club received rent N10,000 and donation N30,000. It
Cash 200 300 paid N6,000 for entertainment and is still owing N16,000.
Liabilities: Creditors 500 600 The balance of the receipts and payment account is
Loan 600 400 A. N24,000 B. N22,000 C. N14,000 D. N8,000

22. Determine the total fixed asset from the opening bal- 31. Given N
ance sheet Club training profit 12,000
A. N2,200 B. N2,020 Members’ subscription 15,000
C. N1,720 D. N1,270 Profit on sale of fixed assets 2,500
Loss on sale of investment 1,000
23. What is the capital from the opening balance sheet? Wages 16,500
A. N3,600 B. N2,700 C. N2,070 D. 1,520. Other expenses 10,000

24. Given: N Determine the club’s excess of income over expenditure

Direct material 2,500 A. N500 B. N1,500 C. N2,000 D. N2,500
Direct labour 5,500
Direct expenses 1,000 32. The excess of income over expenditure is usually trans-
Overhead expenses 1,500 ferred to the
A. Accumulated fund B. Profit and loss account
From the data above, compute the prime cost C. Current assets in the balance sheet
A. N8,500 B. N7,500 C. N6,500 D. N6,000 D. Current liabilities in the balance sheet.

Use the information below to answer questions 25 and 33. Partner’s salaries and drawing are usually posted to the
26 A. Trading account B. Current account
C. Capital account D. Partners’ accoun.
Bar opening stock 10,000
Amount owed to bar suppliers at the 34. marmuhu and Yusuf are in partnership sharing profits
beginning of the year 10,000 and losses in the ratio 2 : 1. On 31/3/2000, the partner-
Bar sales ship decided to admit Idris who is to take ¼ of future
profits without changing the ratio of Murhunu and Creditors
Yusuf. What is the new profit-sharing ratio of Marhunu 15,000
and Yusuf? Debtors 13,000
A. 50% : 25% B. 50% : 20% Cash in hand 5,000
C. 25% : 50% D. 25% : 25%. 41. Determine the net current assets.
A. N43,000 B. N28,000 C. 13,000 D. N3,000
35. If a partner pays a premium of N500 for 1/5 share of
profit, then the total value of goodwill is 42. Calculate the shareholder’s fund.
A. N500 B. N2,000 C. N2,500 D. N3,000 A. N60,000 B. N75,000 C. N85,000 D. N185,000

36. On the dissolution of a partnership business, the net 43. The law that currently regulates the registration of com-
book value of the assets is transferred to panies in Nigeria is the
A. Debit of realization account. A. Constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria,
B. Credit of realization account. 1999.
C. Debit of bank account B. Nigerian Enterprises Promotion Decree, 1972.
D. Credit of bank account C. Companies and Allied Matters Decree, 1972.
D. Companies Decree, 1968.
37. Baba Ltd acquired the business of Bello Ltd and caused
the separate existence of the latter company to termi- 44. X and Y are two departments that are to share 50% of all
nate. This situation is best described as joint costs equally and the balance in the ratio 2 : 1. If a
A. Absorption B. Merger um of N150,000 is incurred jointly, what will the portion
C. Conversion D. Dissolution. attributable to X?
A. N37,500 B. N62,500 C. N87,500 D. N100,000
38. Where a company acquires controlling shares of an-
other and the consideration is paid in cash, the entries 45. Department F transferred some goods to department G
in the books of the purchases are debit at a selling price. The goods were not sold at the end of
A. Investment and credit cash the accounting period. Which account is affected at the
B. Investment and credit shares time of preparing a combined balance sheet?
C. Purchases and credit cash A. Creditors B. Debtors C. Stock D. Suspense.
D. Purchases and credit shares.
46. The correct entry to reflect the receipt of cash sent by a
39. Given branch to a head office is
Capital 200,000 Total assets 210,000 A. Debit cash and credit branch current account
Liabilities 10,000 B. Debit branch current account credit cash
210,000 210,000 C. Credit branch debtors and debit cash
D. Credit branch current account and debit branch
If the business is purchase at a price including a good- debtors.
will of N20,000, what must have been the purchase price?
47. To account for expenses paid by head office on behalf
A. N190,000 B. N210,000 of the branch, the branch should
C. N220,000 D. N230,000. A. Debit head office account and credit cash
B. Debit profit and loss account and credit head of-
40. The main difference between the ordinary and prefer- fice account
ence shareholders is that C. Credit cash and debit profit and loss account
A. The former receive dividends while the latter do D. Credit profit and loss account and debit head of-
not fice account.
B. The latter are not members of the company while
the former are 48. The officer responsible for ascertaining whether all pub-
C. In the case of winding up, the former are paid first lic expenditure and appropriation are in line with ap-
before the latter. proved guidelines is the
D. The former have rights while the latter do not A. Account General B. Auditor General C.
Finance Minister D. Permanent Secretary
Use the information below to answer questions 241
and 42 Use the information below to answer questions 49 and
50
Given: N
Authorized capital: Given: PTF Trial balance [Extract] as at 31 December
100,000 ordinary shares of N1 each 1999.
issued and fully paid: Dr Cr
50,000 ordinary shares of N1 each 50,000 N’000 N’000
10,000 8% preference shares of N1 each 10,000 Cash 2,000
Reserves Investments 3,000
25,000 Accounts receivable 6,000
Fund balance 11,000 50. If only 1/3 of the investment is sold for N2m and N5m
11,000 11,000 realized from the accounts receivable, what will be the
balance of the fund?
49. Assuming all the investments realized N4m, what will A. N9m B. C. N13m D. N16m
be the ending fun balance?
A. N8m B. N11m C. N13m D. N16m
Principles of Account
Principles of Account 2002
1.
1999 - Type A
In preparing the final account, the bad debt account is
closed by a transfer to theA. Balance sheet B. Provi- 7. I. Fixtures account II. Machinery account
sion for bad debt C. Profit and loss account C. III. Wages account IV. Rent account.
Trading account. Which of the above are nominal account?
A. III and IV B. I and II
2. Given N C. I and III D. II and III
Stock (1/4/94) 800
Purchases of flour 2,450 8. NAFARA & SONS Balance Sheet items as at 31st De-
Sales 4,745 cember, 9187
Wages of bakery staff 675 N
Carriage outwards 50 Capital 74,480
Salary of administrative staff 225 Creditors 15,875
Stock (31/3/95) 940 Prepaid expenses 580
Capital 1,540 Motor vehicles 34,750
Determine the cost of goods sold. Furniture 35,850
A. N2,575 B. N2,985 C. 3,250 D. 3,925. Accrued expenses 645
Stock 8,100
3. In a petty cash book the imprest is N1,380 Cash balances 9,911
Expenses: N Debtors 1,809
Stationery 350 Compute the value of current assets.
Cleaning material 335 A. N20,400 B. 20,465 C. 35,695 D. N19,820
General expenses 265
Use the information below to answer questions 9 and
How much was received to maintain the imprest at the end of the 10
month? The Assets and Liabilities of Udo Co. Ltd, as at 31st
A. N950 B. N970 C. N430 D. N380 December, 2000.
N
4. Income statement for the year ended June 30, 2001 Capital 50,000
N N Debtors 46,000
Office rent 20,000 Revenue 820,000 Loan 100,000
NEPA (light) 15,000 Stock 20,000
Salary of staff 120,000 Motor vehicle 120,000
Miscellaneous Building 70,000
Expenses ? Accrued wages 30,000
Net income ? . Bank 30,000
.
9. The value of capital invested by own owners is
Miscellaneous expenses is 10% of revenue. A. N110,000 B. N105,000 C. N101,000 D. N100,000
Calculate the net income
A. N583,000 B. N563,000 10. The liabilities of Udo Co. Ltd is
C. N483,000 D. N683,000 A. N180,000 B. N181,000 C. N177,000 D. N110,000

5. An entry in a subsidiary book which does not form part 11. The normal accounting entry to record the dishonour
of the double entry system is a of a cheque by a businessman is to
A. Contra entry B. Journal entry A. Debit cash book and credit suspense account.
C. Single entry D. Memorandum entry. B. Debit cash book and credit drawer
C. Credit cash book and debit suspense account
6. In an incomplete record, the preparation of the bank D. Credit cash book and debit drawer.
reconciliation ensured that
A. All cash taking are banked
B. The cash book is correct
C. There are no overdrafts
D. There are no hidden loans.
Use the information below to answer questions 12 and 18. Determine the prime cost
13 A. N7,500 B. N6,500 C. N9,000 D. N8,000

Statement of Assets and Liabilities as at 31st Decem- 19. The cost of goods manufactured is
ber, 2001. A. N11,000 B. N12,000 C. N14,000 D. N9,000
N(m)
Shareholder’s interest 240 20. I. Orientation II. Entity III. Legal status IV.
Current liabilities 20 Finance
Current assets 110
Fixed assets 140 Which of the characteristics above distinguishes a
profit-making from a not-for-profit-making organization?
12. What is the net working capital? A. I, II, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II and III D. I and
A. N90m B. N70m C. N100m D. N80m II

13. Determine the value of the trade investment. Use the information below to answer question 21 and 22.
A. N8m B. N10m C. N15m D. N20m
Adex Ltd. Issues stock to its retail branch at cost price. The
14. The concise statement used to explain entries in the following particulars relate to Ede branch
general journal is known as N
A. Narration B. Summary Stock at branch 1st January at cost 400
C. Inforrnation D. Commentary Goods sent to branch at cost 8,000
Returns to head office 340
Use the information below to answer questions 15 and 16. Cash sales 9,160
Stock at branch 31st December at cost 720
Erero’s Trading Account for the month ended 31/05/2001.
21. What is the gross profit carried to the profit and loss
N N N account?
Opening stock 45,000 Sales 161,000 A. N1,820 B. N1,640 C. N1,530 D. N1,870
Purchases 110,000 Less returns 4,000
Less returns 6,000 104,000 157,000 22. Calculate the cost of goods credited to the head office
149,000 trading account.
less closing stock ??? A. N7,660 B. N7,500 C. N7,460 D. N7,200
Cost of sales ???
Gross profit ??? 23. Nasara manufacturing Plc has three direct labour em-
157,000 157,000 ployees that work 40 hours each a week for 50 weeks a
year. Factory overhead costs of N60,000 is distributed
The gross profit ratio for the company is 25%. on the basis of direct labour hours. Compute the over-
head rate.
15. If the total expenses is N20,845, what will be the net
profit for the company during the month? A. N12 per hour B. N16 per hour
A. N19,149 B. N16,168 C. N21,655 D. N18,405 C. N10 per hour D. N15 per hour

16. The closing stock for this company is Use the information below to answer questions 24 and 25.
A. N72,000 B. N45,000 C. N42,500 D. N31,250 Receipts and Payments Account [Extract]

17. In a departmental accounting system, which of the fol- N N

lowing expenses will most likely be apportioned on the Balance b/d 4,000 Motor vehicle
basis of turnover? Expenses 820,000
A. Carriage outwards B. Carriages inwards Subscription Insurance 3,000
C. Discounts received D. Returns outwards. received ? Ambulance
Donations Expenses 12,500
Use the information below to answer questions 18 and 19. received 6,000 Electricity 1,000
Refreshment sales 10,000 Balance c/d ? .
N . .
Stock of raw materials (1st January) 3,000
Direct wages 2,500 Subscriptions received are always put at 125% of the
Direct expenses 1,000 total donations received and refreshment sales.
Factory overheads 2,000
Cost of raw materials used 5,500 24. What is the closing cash balance?
Stock of finished goods (31st December) 2,000 A. N11,500 B. N12,000 C. N13,000 D. N13,500
25. Compute the subscriptions received 7,000 Debtors for
A. N30,000 B. N28,000 C. N24,000 D. N20,000 subscriptions 1,000
Creditors for
Use the information below to answer questions 26 and 27 supplies 1,000 Bank 1,500
Subscription in
Total Dept. P Dept. Q advance 2,000 .
N N N 10,000 35,000
Sales 10,000 6,000 4,000
Purchases 4,000 1,000 3,000 The working capital of the club is
Discount received 1,000 ? A. N5,000 B. N4,000 C. N3,000 D. N7,000
Discounts allowed 2,000 ?
33. Costs that vary in proportion to the level of production
Discount (allowed and received) are apportioned to the two de- in a manufacturing environment are known as
partments on the basis of departmental sales and purchases. A. Control costs B. Overheads C. Direct costs D.
Indirect costs.
26. Department P’s share of discount received is 34. A company operating a chain of retail provision stores
A. N750 B. N1,000 C. N250 D. N500. invoices goods to the branches at cost plus a mark-up
of 25% on selling price?
27. What is department Q’s share of discount allowed? A. 35% B. 30% C. 20% D. 15%
A. N2,000 B. N1,500 C. N800 D. N1,200
35. Given: N
Use the information below to answer questions 28 and 29. Cash purchases 25,000
Income and Expenditure Account Trade creditors 45,000
Opening balance of trade creditors 35,000
N N
Calculate the purchases for the period
Waged 12,000 Subscriptions
A. N80,000 B. N35,000 C. N105,000 D. N70,000
Received 20,000
Electricity 5,000 Donations
36. Which method of pricing can be used satisfactorily in
Depreciation: received 10,000
either a rising or falling price situation?
Furniture 1,000 Profits on sale
A. Standard price B. Market price
of investment 5,000
C. FIFO D. Average method.
Other expenses ?
Excess of income 37. Given N
over expenditure ? . Capital at start 3,250
35,000 35,000 Capital at close 6,250
Additional capital during the period 1,000
It is the tradition of the club to write off an amount equal to 25% Calculate the profit or loss
of the subscriptions received as other expenses. A. N8,500 loss B. N2,000 loss
28. What is the amount to be written off as other expenses? C. N2,000 profit D. N8,500 profit.
A. N4,500 B. N6,000 C. N4,000 D. N5,000.
38. In a control account, discount received is found on the
29. Determine the club’s excess of income over expenditure A. Debit side of the purchases ledger control account
A. N12,000 B. N15,000 C. N10,000 D. N14,500 B. Debit side of the sales ledger contol account
C. Credit side of the purchases ledger control account
30. The gross profit on manufactured goods is the differ- D. Credit side of the sales ledger control account.
ence between the cost of goods manufactured and the
A. Market value of goods produced 39. In an incomplete record system, a trading account can-
B. Prime cost of production not be prepaid until the
C. Indirect cost of production A. Day book has been balanced
D. Goods produced. B. Amount of personal drawings has been estab-
lished
31. given that 1/3 of the N6,000 stock held by a branch is C. Cash book has been balanced
purchased from outsider. If goods are invoiced to branch D. Amount of sales and purchases has been estab-
at 25% on cost, the provision for unrealized profit is lished.
A. N1000.00 B. N333.33 C. N666.66 D. N800.00 Use the information below to answer questions 40 and 41.
Date Qty Rate Total
32. A.S.D. Club Balance Sheet [Extract] (units) (N) (N)
January 2nd 500 25 12,500
N N
March 7th 250 28 7,000
Accumulated fund 6,000 Motor van 4,000 Issue were made a follow:
Add surplus Date Qty (units)
income 1,000 Stock 3,500 January 9th 200
February 14th 200
March 11th 200 What is the opening balance on the consolidated rev-
enue fund account?
40. The closing stock on March 11th by LIFO valuation is A. N10,000m B. N12,000m
A. N4,200 B. N2,700 C. N4,500 D. N3,900 C. N9,000m D. N11,000m

41. The value of closing stock as at February 14th by simple Use the information below to answer questions 47 and 48.
average method is
A. N3,900 B. N2,500 C. N4,100 D. N2,700. The partnership agreement between Abba, Bada and Kaka con-
tains the following provisions: (i) 5% interest to be paid on
42. Given an incomplete record without sufficient informa- capital and no interest to be charged o drawings (ii) Profits and
tion to determine profit, the necessary thing to do it to losses to be shared in the ration 3:2:1 respectively.
A. Draw up the statement of affairs. (iii) Net profits as at 31/12/95 N2,250.
B. Draw up a T-account to establish the amount. Abba Baba Kaba
C. Compare the journal entries with the cash book . N N N
D. Cross-check the cash book for further information. Capital 5,000 4,000 3,000
Current account 250 100 175
4.3 Control accounts help to verify the arithmetic accuracy Salary 300 300 -
of the postings from the Drawings 600 500 250
A. Subsidiary books into the trial balance
B. Ledgers into the trial balance 47. Abba’s capital balance at the end of the year will be
C. Journals into the ledgers A. N5,475 B. N5,725
D. Subsidiary books into the ledgers. C. N4,400 D. N5,000.

44. Keeping records under the single entry system has the 48. Current account balance of Kaka at the end of the year
advantage of will be
A. Duality in terms of records A. N250 B . N350 C. N175 D. N325.
B. Completeness in terms of records
C. Accuracy in terms of operation 49. Upon the dissolution of a partnership, the Partnership
D. Simplicity in terms of operation Act provides that the amount realized should be
A. Used to pay all taxes due to government
45. Given: N B. Used to start a new partnership business by mem-
Sales 195,200 bers who are willing
Stock 1st January 34,000 C. Shared equally by the existing partners
Purchases 126,000 D. Used in paying the debts and liabilities of the firm
Sales returns 1,200 to persons who are not partners.
Purchases returns 2,000
If the gross profit is N66,000, what is the value of stock 50. In the public sector, the method of accounting that re-
at 31st December? ports revenues and expenditures in the period in which
A. N30,000 B. N40,000 C. N50,000 D. N20,000 they are received and paid is called
A. Fund accounting
46. Given: N(m) B. Commitment accounting
Balance at 31 December 14,744 C. Cash accounting
Treasury Bills issued Jan – Dec 7,124 D. Accrual accounting
Revenue for the year 6,387
Expenditure 8,767
Principles of Accounts 2003
1. Which of the following is used to update the
cash book in bank reconciliation? 7. The transaction would be recorded in the cash
A. Interest received and unpresented cheques book as debit
B. Commission and debit note A. cash and credit bank B. bank and credit cash
C. Unpresented cheques and direct credit C. cash and credit cash D. bank and credit bank
D. Interest received and direct credit
8. Which accounting concept supports the assertion
2. The two legally recognized professional that economic reality takes precedence over
accounting bodies in Nigeria are the legal issues?
A. Institute of Certified Public Accountants A. Realization concept B. Substance over form
of Nigeria and the Institute of Cost and C. Conservatism D. Measurement concept
Management Accountants of Nigeria.
B. Association of Accountants of Nigeria and 9. The transaction that completes its double entry
the Institute of Management in the same ledger account
Accountants of Nigeria appears in.
C. Institute of Chartered Accountants of A. cash account and personal account
Nigeria and the Association of National B. bank account and general ledger
Accountants of Nigeria C. discount received and discount allowed
D. Nigeria Accounting Association and the D. cash account and bank account
Executive Cost and Management Accountants
of Nigeria. 10. Given: N
Capital 1 000
3. Verifiability in accounting is only possible when Liabilities 500
there are Assets 1 500
A. minutes of meetings B. payment vouchers
C. source documents D. audit certificates The accounting equation can be expressed as
A. N1 000 + N500 + N1 500 = N3 000
Use the information below to answer questions 4 and 5 B. N1 000 – N500 + N1 500 = N2 000
N C. N1 000 + N500 = N1 500
Capital 2 000 D. N1 500 + N500 = N2 000
Bank 1 200
Purchases 2 500
Sales 6 700
Stock 1 300 11. The recording phase of accounting is known as
Creditors 1 000 A. bookkeeping B. trial balancing
Fixed assets 3 700 C. ledger accounting D. final accounting
Drawings ?
Use the information below to answer questions 12 and 13.
Drawings are always estimated at 50% of capital
Motor Vehicle Account as at 31st December, 2001
4. The trial balance total is N
A. N 9 700 B. N 8 700 Debit:
C. N 7 900 D. N 7 800 Jan. 1, cost 1,950 000
Dec. 31, Addition 400 000
Credit:
5. Compute the amount withdrawn Jan. 1, Depreciation 1,360 000
A. N 2 000 B. N 1 500 June 30, Sales proceeds 700 000
C. N 1 200 D. N1 000
The vehicle sold was purchased on January 1, 1998 at a cost of
Use the information below to answer questions 6 and 7. N1,000 000 and had depreciated at 25% on cost.

Ezekiel Malgwi is a retailer. He recorded sales representing 12. Assuming that depreciation is charged on theaddition
95% cash and 5% credit. He took the total cash sales of N19 of the year at the rate of 15% on reducing balance, what
000 from the business tray and banked it. should be the net book value of the vehicle as at 31st
December 2003?
6. The credit sales for the period would be A. N111 000 B. N280 000
A. N5 000 B. N1 900 C. N289 000 D. N340 000
C. N1 000 D. N950
A. N3. 20 B. N3. 00
13. What is the actual profit or loss arising from the C. N2. 20 D. N2. 00
vehicle disposed of?
A. N250 000 loss B. N50 000 loss 19. Using the periodic simple average method, the
C. N450 000 profit D. N575 000 profit cost per unit is
A. N4. 25 B. N3. 25
14. Given: C. N2. 25 D. N1. 25
I. Order of performance
II. Order of liquidity Use the information below to answer questions 20 and 21.
III. Vertical order
IV. Horizontal order Purchases ledger control account
N N
The orders in which a balance asset is arranged are Balance b/d 2,900
A. I and 11 B. I and IV Discount received 1,000 Credit purchases ?
C. II and III D. III and IV Bills payable 1,500 Bills payable
Cash paid to dishonoured 1,600
Use the information below to answer questions 15 and 16 Suppliers 8,000
N N Returns outwards 3,000 Dishonoured
Capital 24 000 Cheques 2,000
Land and building 8,470 Balance c/d ?
Mortgage on premises 11 090 ? ?
Drawings 3,000
Profit and loss 3 600 Credit purchases are always put at 150% of the total cash paid
Furniture and fittings 5,120 to suppliers
Motor Vehicles 3,462
Closing Stock 3,000 20. Calculate the closing balance of the ledgeraccount
Debtors 11,474 A. N6 900 B. N6 400
Creditors 7 354 C. N5 000 D. N4 000
Cash 1,518 21. Determine the credit purchases
46,044 46 044 A. N15 500 B. N13 500
C. N13 400 D. N12 000
15. What is the capital employed?
A. N44 600 B. N43 052 22. In a control account, provision for bad debts is
C. N43 044 D. N38 600 found on the
A. debit side of the purchases ledger control
16. Calculate the value of fixed assets account
A. N15 992 B. N18 470 B. debit side of the sales ledger control account
C. N27 000 D. N27 052 C. credit side of the purchases ledger
control account
17. Provision for discount allowed can be recorded D. credit side of the sales ledger control account
as a debit to 23. The stock valuation data is important because it
A. the profit and loss account and a credit to enables management to
provision for discount allowed A. separate debtors from creditors
B. provision for discount allowed and a credit to B. determine the cost of stock at the end of
the profit and loss account business
C. discount allowed and a credit to the profit and C. determine the cost of stock at the beginning of
loss account business
D. expenses and a credit to customers’ account D. determine the total cost of goods purchased

Use the information below to answer questions 18 and 19 24. During the year ended 31st December 2001, Nuju
Enterprises paid rent as follows:
Date Details Jan. 20 N24 000 for a period of 4 months
Feb. 1 Purchased 400 units at N1.00 each May 16 N30 000 for a period of 5 months
“ 5 Purchased 200 units at N2.00 each Oct. 15 N36 000 for a period of 6 months
“ 10 Purchased 200 units at N3.00 each What is the overpaid portion of the rent?
“ 15 Issued 320 units A. N36 000 B. N18 000
“ 20 Purchased 200 units at N4.00 each C. N12 000 D. N6 000
“ 25 Issued 120 units
25. Advertising expenses incurred on a product in a
18. Calculate the price per unit of closing stock using the business organization should be charged to
periodic weighted average method.
A. production department B. sales department respectively. What is N’s share of the expenses?
C. administration department A. =N=10 000 B. =N=15 000
D. purchases department C. 18 000 D. 20 000
26. Four broad classifications of overheads are Use the information below to answer questions 34 and 35
A. production, selling, distribution and material =N=
B. production, selling, distribution and administration Total sales of ticket 300 000
C. selling, distribution, production and wages Amount received from the sales 260 000
D. distribution, selling, administration and material Cash purchase of the club house 100 000
27. Given: N Credit purchase of equipment 60 000
Cost of raw material issue to production 37,000 Electricity bill paid 5 000
Opening stock of raw material 2,000 Salaries owed 2 000
Purchases of raw material 38,000
Wages 5,000 34. What is the receipts and payment account balance?
What is the closing stock of raw material? A. =N=260 000 B. =N=233 000
A. N4 000 B. N3 000 C. =N=155 000 D. =N=100 000
C. N2 000 D. N 1 000
35. What is the balance of the income and expenditure
Use the information below to answer questions 28 and 29 account?
PQ Manufacturing Company N A. =N=300 000 B. =N=293 000
Raw materials (1/1/2001) 3,500 C. =N=193 000 D. =N=133 000
Raw materials (31/12/2001) 4,900
Purchase of raw materials 56,000 36. The first step in converting a single entry to a double
Salary 63,000 entry system of bookkeeping is to prepare a
Wages 148,050 A. Suspense account B.Statement of affairs
Factory lighting 3, 080 C. Realization accountC. Trial balance
Plant Depreciation 2,800
Factory Insurance 2,170 37. Emeka Enterprises Statement of Affairs at start
Assets Liabilities
28. The overhead cost is =N= =N=
A. N71 050 B. N68 250 Cash 70 000 Creditors 85 000
C. N67 970 D. N66 080 Inventory 58 000 Bank Loan 60 000
Machines 100 000
29. The company consumed raw materials worth
A. =N=54 600 B. =N=56 000 What is the capital at start?
C. =N=57 400 D. =N=59 500 A. =N=53 000 B. =N=63 000
C. =N=73 000 D. =N=83 000
30. Income and expenditure account is more informative
than receipts and payments account because it 38. Receipts and payments account is the summary of
discloses A. Income and expenditure B. Cash book
A. Cash B. Cheques C. Balance sheet D. Profit and loss
C. Debtors D. stocks

31. A company has two departments X AND Y. Y 39. Given: =N=

transferred goods to X at a profit margin of 25%. Total debtors b/d 31/12/99 25 000
=N=10 000 worth of goods was not sold at the end of Cheques received from debtors 225 000
the accounting period. How much is the unrealized Total debtors c/d 31/12/00 15 000
profit?
A. =N=2 000 B. =N=2 500 Determine the sales figure.
C. =N=12 000 D. =N=12 500 A. =N=295 000 B. =N=265 000
C. =N=245 000 D. =N=215 000
32. Given: Rich Social Club =N=
Cash 100 000 40. Which of these is a capital expenditure warrant?
Loan 30 000 A. Provisional general warrant
Subscription in arrears 5 000 B. Development fund general warrant
Subscription in advance 15 000 C. Reserved expenditure general warrant
D. Supplementary warrant
33. A company has departments M and N. The expense
incurred wholly in M is =N=5 000. General expenses 41. For the purpose of conversion of a partnership to a
incurred amount to =N=25 000. Expenses are company, a total purchase consideration of =N=3.6m
apportioned in the ratio 2:3 for departments M and N was paid. I f 30% of the purchase consideration was
in cash and the rest by 50k shares, how many shares
were issued?
A. 1 080 000 B. 2 160 000 ZEBRA PLC
C. 3 600 000 D. 5 040 000 Balance sheet as at 31 st March, 2002
N N N
42. Given: Capital 100 000 Fixed assets:
I. The consolidated revenue fund Current Land and
balance b/d =N=650 000 Liabilities buildings 50,000
II. Issues from contingency fund Creditors 30 000 Furniture 10,000 60,000
amounted to =N=240 000 Current
III. Amount transferred to contingency Assets:
fund is =N=210 000 Stock 30,000
What is the consolidated revenue fund balance? Debtors 30,00
A. =N=1 100 000 B. =N=680 000 Cash 10,000 70,000
C. =N=440 000 D. =N=410 000 130,000 130 000

Use the information below to answer questions 43 and 44 The business was acquired on 1 st April, 2002 at a purchase
consideration of N120 000 by SOZ. All assets and liabilities
=N= were taken over except the cash.
Goods from head office 13,400
Returns to head office 118 To open the new firm’s bank account, additional N20,000 was
Rates and insurance paid 188 paid into the bank.
Wages paid 913
Cash remitted to head office 16,625 47. The goodwill on purchase is
Stocks at 1/1/2000 1,875 A. N90 000 B. N30 000
Rent paid 325 C. N19 000 D. N18 000
Stock at 31/12/2000 1,975
Sundry expenses 200 48. Calculate the networth of the business
A. N120 000 B. N90 000
43. The profit realized from the trade is C. N80 000 D. N30 000
A. N4 069 B. N1 817
C. N1 440 D. N1 328 49. Gross profit in the branch adjustment account is
transferred to the branch
44. What is the total expenses? A. trading account
A. N1 875 B. N1 764 B. receipts and payments account
C. N1 626 D. N1 426 C. profit and loss account
D. income and expenditure account
45. The necessary accounts to be opened on the issue of
ordinary share capital are 50. Mamza Nigeria Limited issued 20 000 ordinary shares
A. preference share capital, cash and allotment of N1.50 per share
accounts On 2 nd July 2002. 1 500 ordinary shares were fully
B. bank and ordinary share capital accounts subscribed for and their monies received as below:
C. cash and ordinary share capital accounts N
D. nominal value and ordinary share capital On application 0.40
accounts On allotment 0.20
46. The amount of each invoiced goods sent to the First call (including premium of N 0.50) 0 70
branch is debited to
A. branch expense account and credited to branch The last and final call was yet to be made.
debtors’ account What is the balance of the ordinary share capital
B. branch stock account and credited to the goods account after the first call was received?
sent to branch account A. N300 B. N1050
C. branch debtors’ account and credited to branch C. N1200 D. N1950s
expense account
D. goods sent to branch account and credited to
branch expense account

Use the information below to answer questions 47 and 48.

Principles of Accounts 2004
1. The accounting principle that is applied to check 11. Zakari started business in January 2000. He bought
arbitrary actions on the part of accountants is a shop costing N54,000 and stock worth N7,600.
A. Consistency B. Materiality profit for the year amounted to N22,100. His closing
C. Objectivity D. Realization capital was N73,800

2 The loss of equipment in a fire disaster results in Zakari’s personal drawings amounted to
A. decrease in current asset A. N2,300, B. N9,900, C. N17,100, D.N19,500
B. an increase in liabilities and assets
C. a decrease in assets and capital, 12. The balance on the provision for
D. an increase in liabilities and a decrease in depreciation account is
assets. A. added to fixed assets on the balance sheet
B. deducted from fixed assets on the balance sheet
3. A source document is used for verifying the C. deducted from the profit and loss account
A. Amount due to creditors, B. Actual cost of an D. added to the current liabilities of the account
asset, C. Selling price of goods, D. Amount due from
debtors 13. Given:
Rates paid during the year amount to N2,250 at N125
4. The rule of accounting equation requires that account per month and N1,035 was paid for electricity in the
payable should be placed under same period an N115 per month
A. Liabilities, B. Equities
C. Assets D. Capital Determine the amount of prepaid rates
A. N345, B. N750, C. N1,380 D.N1,500
Use the information below to answer questions 5 and 6
Use the information below to answer questions 14 and 15
Cash Book Date Receipt Issued (Units
N N May 2 80 @ N3.00 -
Capital 6 600 Purchases 3.500 May 10 50 @ N3.20 -
Sales 3 000 Stationery 1300 May 17 - 20
Debtors 2 500 Wages 2 700 May 25 - 60
May 31 20 @ N2.90 -
The owner wishes to maintain an amount equal to 1/3 of capital
as drawings 14. What is the value of raw materials issued on May 17th
based ion the LIFO method?
5. The amount withdrawn is A. N60, B. N61, C. N62, D. N64
A. N2,100, B. N2, 200, C. N4,400, D.N6,400
15. Based on the FIFO method of valuation, the total cost of
6. The cash book closing balance will be raw materials issued is
A. N900, B. N2,400, C. N4,200, D.N4,600 A.N150, B. N160, C. N240, D. N250

7. A debit in the suspense account will appear in the 16. Where closing stock is undervalued, the effect is
balance sheet as A. an increase in gross profit,
A. A current asset, B. A current liability B. a decrease in gross profit,
C. Capital D. Drawings C. an increase in purchases,
D. a decrease in purchases
8. The recipient whose name appears on cheque is
called a Use the information below to answer questions 17 and 18
A. Payer B. Drawer C. Drawee D. Payee N
Opening balance 10,640
9. The imprest account is subsidiary to the Purchases 26,912
A. ledger account, B. Bank account Returns inwards 492
C. Cash book D. Petty cash Returns outwards 810
Cash discount received 1,348
10. The three-column cash book differs Cash discount allowed 1,560
from the two-column cash book in Cash paid to suppliers 20,808

A. Cash column, B. Discount column At the year-end, the purchases ledger showed a
B. Bank column, D. Folio column debitbalance of N108.
.
17. The total on the debit side of the purchase ledger con- 24. What is the figure for purchases?
trol account will be: A. N2,400, B. N2,500, C. N4,200, D.N5,200
A. N22,966 B. N22,15
C. N21,834, D. N21,054 25. Cost classification in relation to charges is determine
by the level of
18. The balancing figure in the purchases A. raw materials B. labour
ledger control account is C. activity D. profitability
A. N15,828 B. N15,720
C. N14,940 D. N14,694 Use the information below to answer questions 26 and 27
N
19. In a sales ledger, contra entry is found on the Materials consumed 16,600
A. debit side of the debtors’ control account Direct cost 5,400
B. debit side of the creditors’ control account Factory rent 2,300
C. credit side of the debtors’ control account Factory lighting 1,200
D. credit side of the creditors’ control account
Cost of production to be transferred at cost plus 20% mark-up
20. The beginning and ending accounts receivable balances
were N20,000 and N30,000 respectively. The collection 26. The gross profit on manufacture is
from customers during the period was N70,000. What A. N6,120 B. N6, 100
was the total sale on account? C. N5,100 D. N5,000
A. N20,000 B. N60,000
C. N80,000 D. N120,000 27. The market value of goods produced is
A. N30,500 B. N30,600
21. Given : C. N31,600 D. N31,620
General expenses account
N Use the information below to answer questions 28 and 29
Paid by cheque 671
Paid by cash 70 On January 1, 2000, a club’s assets and liabilities were as
Acrued b/f 65 follows: N
Acrued c/f 115 Club house 8000
Subscription in arrears 300
Determine how much to be charged profit and loss ac- Cash 1000
count Wages owed 100
A. N606, B. N786, C. N791, D.N856
The club has 50 members and annual subscription is N100 per
22. In converting single entry to final account, the balanc- member. Subscription received is N4,000 and this includes
ing figures on the income and expenses accounts are 1999 arrears of N200
transferred to the
A. revenue and expenditure account 28. The accumulated fund is
B. receipts and payments account A. N9,400 B. N9,300
C. profit and loss appropriation account C. N9,200 D. N9,100
D. profit and loss account
29. In the balance sheet, the subscription in
Use the information below to answer questions 23 and 24 arrears will be
N A. N200 B. N300
Beginning inventory ? C. N1,200 D. N1,300
Purchases ?
Ending inventory 4,800 30. Where the debit side of the income and expenditure
Sales 12,800 account is higher than the credit side, the difference is
Wages 1,040 a
Gross profit 5,900 A. Deficit B. surplus
C. Gain D. loss
The beginning inventory was estimated at 80% of sales.
31. In the balance sheet of a not-for profit making
23. Determine the amount for the beginning inventory organization, subscription paid in advance is regarded
as a
A. N20,140 B. N10,240 A. current asset B. current liability
C. N8,140 D. N7,240 C. capital D. reserve
ship provide 3% interest on capital and salaries of N1,500 and
32. A rapidly growing business organisation with N1,000 respectively for the PARTIES. The profit & loss are to
multiple units that is interested in comparing the be shared in the ration 3:2 miscellaneous expenses of N2,500
performances and weakness of each unit should were incurred with gross profit of N6,500 during the financial
adopt year.
A. manufacturing accounts 39. The balance of profit and loss account will be
B. consolidated accounts A. N4,000 B. N2,800
C. departmental accounts C. N1,500 D. N300
D. joint venture accounts
40. What is Kunle’s share of the profit?
Use the information below to answer questions 33 and 34 A. N600, B. N300, C. N180, D. N120
Dept. S Dept. T Total
N N N 41. When a new partner is admitted to a partnership there is
Gross profit b/d 6,000 4,000 10,000 a need to revolved the
Less: salaries&wages 1,800 1,200 3,000 A. capital of the business
Electricity ? ? 2,000 B. capital and liabilities of the business
Depreciation 60 ? 1,000 C. assets and capital of the business
Net profit c/d ? 1,600 4,000 D. assets and liabilities of the business
6,000 4,000 10,000
42. The accounting entry to record the premium on good-
will is to debit
33. What is the net profit by department S?
A. cash and credit old partners’ capita,
B. goodwill and credit revaluation
A. N3,600 B. N3,000
C. assets and credit capital
C. N2,400 D. N2,000
D. capital and credit assets
34. The depreciation to be charged to department T is 43. The expenses incurred in promoting a company are:
A. N300 B. N400 A. promoters’ expenses, B. floating expenses
C. N500 D. N600 B. preliminary expenses C. the board’s expenses

3. Before Moses died, God appointed ... to succeed him. 13. According to Jeremiah’s prophecy, the domination of
A. Joshua B. Aaron nations by Nebuchadnezzar was
C. Eleazar D. Balaam E. Manasseh A. against the wish of God.
B. part of the divine purpose.
4. The treatment for those bitten by the fiery serpent was C. the result of his military might.
to D. the result of the wickedness of nations.
A. drink from the Red Sea E. the result of his righteousness and belief in
B. look at the bronze serpent God.
C. fast for seven days
D. call upon the Lord 14. Ezekiel was ordered to eat... and then go to speak to
E. repent the house of Israel.
A. honey B. locusts
5. In order that Benjamin might be brought to Egypt, C. bread D. fish
Joseph detained E. a scroll
A. Reuben B. Levi C. Judah
D. Simeon E. Zebulon 15. The place where Abraham was asked to sacrifice Isaac
was
6. When Joseph’s brother came to him in Egypt, he said A. Moriah B. Sinai C. Bethel
to them, ‘You are...’ D. Tabor E. Zion
A. spies B. robbers C. traitors
D. sinners E. war-mongers 16. The one who was to be the wife of Isaac was known
A. by her coming to the well to draw water.
7. Sarah gave birth to...in her old age. B. because she was a descendant of Abraham’s
A. Joseph B. Isaac C. Jacob brother.
D. Simeon E. Benjamin C. because she said ‘Drink, and I will water your
camels’.
8. As a condition of his covenant with God, Abraham had to D. because her name was Rebecca.
A. circumcise every male E. By her height and beauty.
B. sacrifice to God every month
C. keep the Sabbath 17. Achan was
D. pray to God daily A. one of the spies who visited Rahab in Jericho.
E. recite the Shema. B. one of the two men who prophesied in the
camp in the wilderness.
9. What was the condition of the earth before the creation C. one of the judges of Israel.
of the world? D. the one who took some of the devoted things
A. The earth was without form and void. when Jericho fell.
B. There was a firmament above the earth. E. the king of the Amalekites whom Samuel
C. Light infrequently penetrated the earth. hewed into pieces.
D. The heaven was very close to the earth.
E. The earth was inhabited by angels and spirits. 18. How is it you were not afraid to put forth your hand to
destroy the Lord’s anointed? was said by
10. God wanted to destroy the world because A. Elijah to Ahab when Ahab sought to kill him.
A. Adam and Eve disobeyed him. B. David to the Amalekite who claimed to have
B. Cain killed Abel his brother. killed Saul.
C. the sons of God were taking the daughters of C. Joab to Absalom when the latter rebelled
men as wives. against David.
D. the people made a tower of Babel to get to D. David to Saul when Saul attacked him with a
heaven. spear.
E. the earth was filled with violence. E. David to Goliath.
19. The prophet regularly addressed as ‘son of man’ was 28. What is the main lesson of the parable of the prodigal
A. Jeremiah B. Ezekiel son?
C. Isaiah D. Amos E. Hosea. A. Parents must not be partial.
B. A son should always obey his father.
20. What was the last miracle God performed before the C. God forgives those who sincerely repent.
Israelites were released from Egypt? D. One should not be wasteful.
A. Thick darkness brought about by the hot wind E. Brothers should love each other.
‘Khamisin’.
B. The pollution of the Nile. 29. ‘These men who have turned the world upside down have
C. The slaughter of all the male children. come here also, and Jason has received them. Which town
D. The plague of locusts. is referred to here?
E. The slaughter of the first born. A. Tarsus B. Ephesus
C. Corinth D. Thessalonica E. Athens.
21. Who was the prophet who proved on Mount Carmel
that Yahweh is greater than Baal? 30. ‘And you, child, will be called the prophet of the Most
A. Elijah B. Elisha High’, refers to
C. Nathan D. Hosea A. Samuel. B. Jesus. C. Jeremiah.
E. Amos. D. John the Baptist. E. Moses.

22. On the third day of creation God made 31. The parable of the mustard seed teaches that
A. light. B. the firmament. A. the kingdom of God is invisible.
C. the earth. D. animals. E. man. B. although the kingdom of God is for all, very
few enter it.
23. The Lord said to Moses: Cut two tablets of stone like C. the kingdom of God will expand world-wide
the first; and I will write upon the tablets the words that from what appears to be an insignificant
were upon the first tablets which you broke. On what beginning.
occasion was this said? D. It is not certain when the kingdom of God will
A. At the renewal of the Covenant. come.
B. During the election of Aaron. E. The kingdom of God is within us.
C. Just before the election of Joshua.
D. After the first fall of Manna from heaven. 32. When the women got to the tomb of Jesus they found
E. Shortly before the conquest of Jericho. the stone rolled away and
A. saw Jesus coming out of the tomb.
24. The city of Jericho was captured by the Israelites B. Jesus was no longer in the tomb.
A. after a fierce battle lasting seven days. C. Jesus was sitting in the tomb.
B. because the army of the city was betrayed by D. immediately saw a vision of Jesus.
some of its soldiers. E. saw an angel singing hallelujah.
C. because the defence system was very weak.
D. at the blast of the trumpets of the priests. 33. ‘You shall be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea
E. because famine had broken out in the city and and ... and to the end of the earth.
the inhabitants surrendered because of A. Rome. B. Antioch. C. Damascus.
hunger. D. Samaria E. Israel.

25. The call of Isaiah took place 34. Paul was first arrested in Jerusalem because he
A. on the return from the Babaylonian captivity. A. brought Greeks into the temple.
B. in the year of the death of King Uzziah. B. became a Christian.
C. during the dedication of the temple by king C. preached Christ in the temple.
Solomon. D. spoke against the temple.
D. shortly before the rise of the Maccabees. E. preached against circumcision.
E. after David had completely defeated the
Philistines. 35. Which country in Africa provided Jesus with a refuge
when Herod sought to destroy him?
26. When Zechariah doubted the announcement of the A. Algeria. B. Egypt. C. Morocco.
birth of John he D. Ethiopia. E. Libya.
A. fell down and fainted.
B. was struck dumb. 36. ‘After me comes he who is mightier than I, the thong of
C. rebuked the angel Gabriel. whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and
D. knelt down and prayed. untie’. Who said this?
E. told his wife about it. A. Jesus Christ. B. Mary Magdalene.
C. Mark D. John the Baptist
27. Herod wanted to kill the child Jesus because E. The annuciation angel.
A. he thought he would became a prophet.
B. he learnt that he was born king of the Jews. 37. Who addressed Jesus at Jericho, saying, ‘Jesus, son
C. the wise men worshipped Jesus. of David, have mercy on me?’
D. he was born of a virgin. A. Bartimaeus the blind beggar.
E. he was born in a manger. B. Simon the leper.
C. Simon of Cyrene.
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

40. ‘The Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of 46. And he came to ... where he had been brought up; and,
the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the
to be born will be called holy, the Son of God’. This was Sabbath Day, and stood up to read.
said by the angel Gabriel to Identify the missing place into he above text.
A. ElizabethB. Zechariah A. Jerusalem. B. Bethlehem. C. Nazareth.
C Mary D. Joseph E. The Shepherds. D. Capernaum. E. Bethany.

41. ‘But I say to you that hear, love your enemies, do good 47. ‘Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be
to those who hate you, bless those who curse you, of the seven for they all had her? This question was
pray for those who abuse you’. Jesus said this put to Jesus by the
A. on the road to Calvary. A. Pharisees. B. Scribes. C. Chief Priests.
B. on the road to Emmaus. D. Sadducees. E. Sanhedrin.
C. on the road to Jerusalem. 48. Pilate gave Jesus to the Jews to be crucified because
D. during the Transfiguration. A. he found Jesus guilty of the charges.
E. During the Sermon on the Mount. B. Jesus refused to defend himself.
C. the Jews gave him money.
42. What did the Apostles do when complaints were made D. Jesus did not answer him.
to them that some sections of the new Christian community E. the Jews brought pressure upon him.
were not being supplied with their needs for
sustenance? They 49. Paul was converted so that he might
A. gave out more money for buying food. A. stop persecuting the Apostles.
B. said that they had neither gold nor silver. B. help Peter in the work.
C. appointed seven deacons to undertake the C. not be killed for his sins.
care of the new Christians. D. bear the name of the Lord before the Gentiles.
D. appointed the Apostles: James, Peter and John E. see visions.
to oversee the supply of provisions to the
new Christians. 50. Paul and Silas were imprisoned at
E. decided to call a council in Jerusalem to look A. Athens. B. Philippi C. Antioch
into the matter. D. Corinth E. Ephesus.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1984

1. After the Flood, God allowed all food to be eaten except 4. ‘... I the Lord your God am a jealous God, visiting the
A. olive leaves. iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third
B. flesh with its blood in it. and fourth generation of those who hate me, but
C. animals with cloven hooves. showing steadfast love to thousands of those who love
D. reptiles. me and keep my commandments’. This statement was
E. birds of prey. made by God when
A. He gave the Ten Commandments to Moses.
2. ‘Two nations are in your womb, and two peoples, born B. the Israelites disobeyed God’s
of you shall be divided ...’. This was addressed by God commandments.
to C. the family of Aaron was elected to the
A.Deborah B. Miriam C. Rebekah priesthood.
D. Delilah E. Sarah. D. He commanded Moses to go to meet Pharaoh.
E. the Israelites had settled in the Promised Land.
3. The wife of Moses was
A. Esther B. Zipporah 5. The three sons of Noah were Shem, Ham and
C. Hagar D. Michal A. Lot B. Hirah C. Cain D. Japheth E. Eber.
E. Ruth.
6. Identify the INCORRECT option. The Israelites were
instructed to eat the Passover
A. with girded loins B. with shoes on feet A. beg for forgiveness
C. with staff in hand D. raw B. plead with God to preserve the life of his child
E. remnants the following morning. by Uriah’s wife
C. request that the punishments threatened by
7. For rebelling against Moses and God, the Israelites God would not come to pass
were bitten by the fiery snakes. The cure for the snakebites D. ask Nathan to beg Uriah’s wife to pardon him
was E. simply wait for whatever God would bring on
A. a drink of the water from the rock him.
B. anointing the affected part of the body with
oil 16. ‘If he (Baal) is a god, let him contend for himself
C. to call on the name of Yahweh because his altar has been pulled down’. Who pulled
D. a herbal preparation by Aaron down the altar?
E. a look at the bronze serpent. A. Moses B. Joshua
8. Joshua was appointed to lead the Israelites to the C. Gideon D. Samson E. Joash
Promised Land because
A. Moses was too old to lead them there 17. Hannah prayed to God at Shiloh for a son because.
B. the Israelites preferred Joshua to Moses A. Elkanah hated her for being barren
C. Moses never returned from Mount Sinai B. Peninnah provoked her sorely
D. of Moses’ rebellion in the wilderness of Zin C. She had sinned against the Lord
E. he was a powerful soldier. D. She had only daughters
E. She wanted her son to succeed Eli.
9. The covenant was renewed on Mount Sinai because
A. there was a new generation which did not 18. God pronounced utter destruction on the Amalekites
remember the first because
B. the people had taken part in Korah’s rebellion A. they were hostile to the Kenites who lived
C. the people had demanded water from the rock among them
D. Aaron had made a golden calf B. they were hostile neighbours of Isreal like the
E. the people had wanted to return to Egypt. Philistines
C. Saul desired to acquire the Amalekite territory
10. Those inspired by God to lead the tribes of Israel in D. they opposed Israel on their way from Egypt
battle were the to the promised land
A. judges B. captains of the Guard E. God wanted to wipe out every element of Baal
C. priests D. prophets E. Levites. Worship in Canaan.

11. Each of the spies sent out by Moses on God’s command 19. As David was about to die, he charged Solomon to
to report on the nature of the Promised Land was a keep God’s statutes, commandments, ordinances and
A. great warrior B. wise Judge C. priest testimonies, so that he, Solomon, might.
D. Levite E. leader in his own tribe. A. prosper and the Davidic dynasty be preserved
forever
12. God revealed to Samuel that he was going to punish Eli B. receive his father’s blessing
because he C. have children who would succeed him
A. did not correct his sons’ sinful behaviour D. avenge the enemies of David
B. did not offer sacrifice as the law required E. complete the temple project.
C. did not warn the people of Israel to stop
20. In the trade treaty between king Solomon and Hiram of
sinning
Lebanon, Solomon was to supply wheat and oil while
D. warned his sons but did not punish them
Hiram was to supply.
E. offered sacrifices to other gods.
A. grains only B. precious stones
C. wheat and oil D. timber E. silver
13. The sun stood still when
A. Moses led the Israelites out of Egypt 21. To whom was this addressed?
B. Jericho fell to the army of Joshua ‘Your father made our yoke heavy. Now therefore lighten
C. Noah came out of the ark the hard service of your father and his heavy yoke
D. Joshua defeated the Amorites at Gideon upon us and we will serve you’.
E. Moses came down from the mountain with A. Jeroboam B. Nebat
the table of the law. C. SolomonD. Rehoboam
E. Ahijah
14. ‘I repent that I made Saul king’. What incident does
this refer to? 22. ‘I have been very jealous for the Lord, the God of hosts’
A. The anointing of Saul for the people of Israel have forsaken thy covenant,
B. When Saul failed to pray thrown down thine altars and slain thy prophets with
C. During Saul’s encounter with the Ammonites. the sword; and I even I only, am left; and they seek my
D. When Saul was offering sacrifice to God. life to take it away. ‘ This was said by
E. When Saul disobeyed God over Amalek. A. Jeremiah before the Temple
B. Elijah at a cave in Mount Carmel
15. David’s first reaction after he had been rebuked by C. Moses at a cave in Mount Horeb
God through the prophet Nathan for his sin against D. Elisha at a cave in Mount Nebo
Uriah and with Uriah’s wife was to E. Elijah at a cave in Mount Horeb
23. ‘Thus saith the Lord of Hosts, the God of Israel, Amend ‘But he went out and began to talk freely about it, and
your ways and your doings. Trust not in lying words to spread the news, so that Jesus could no longer
saying: “The temple of the Lord, the temple of the Lord, openly enter a town, but was out in the country; and
the temple of the Lord”. This message was given by people came to him from every quarter.
A. Amos B. Micah C. Jeremiah A. the Gerasene demoniac
D. Uzziah E. Ezekiel. B. The leper from Galilee
C. Jairus
24. Which prophet gave this cry? D. The blind man of Jericho
‘Woe is me! For I am lost, for I am a man of unclean lips, E. The demoniac of Capernaum.
and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips’.
A. Hosea B. Jeremiah 33. ‘An evil and adulterous generation seeks for a sign,
C. Isaiah D. Amos E. Haggai but no sign shall be given to it except the sign of Jonah,’
According to St. Mathew, Jesus said this to the
25. The prophet who proclaimed a new covenant of God A. disciple of John the Baptist
with Israel and Judah was B. multitude of people
A. Ezekiei B. Jeremiah C. lawyers and the scribes
C. Hosea D. Micah E. Haggai. D. Sadducees and the Zealots
E. Pharisees and the Sadducees.
26. The synoptic gospels refer to the
A. books of the New Testament 34. And Jesus said to them, ‘Follow me and I will make you
B. first four books of the New Testament fishers of men. ‘This was addressed to
C. first three book of the New Testament A. Simon Peter and James
D. first five books of the Bible B. James and John
E. Didache. C. Simon Peter and John
D. Andrew and James
27. ‘And he will go before him in the spirit and power of Elijah, E. Simon Peter and Andrew.
to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children’. The person
whose future work was being described here was 35. Hosanna means
A. Zachariah B. John the Baptist A. ride on in majesty B.ride on in glory
C. Paul D. Jesus Christ C. ride on to die D.ride on to
E. Joseph Calvary E. save now.
28. He said therefore to the multitudes ... ‘You brood of
36. One of the reasons why Jesus denounced the Scribes
vipers! Who warned you to flee from the wrath to come?’
and Pharisees was that they
Who was the speaker?
A. did not make many converts
A. John the son of Zachariah.
B. did not practice what they preached
B. John the son of Zebedee
C. did not preach regularly in the temple
C. John Mark
D. took great care of the tombs of their ancestors
D. Jesus Christ
E. often appeared in the market-place.
E. Simon Peter
29. ‘You shall not tempt the Lord your God’ was said by 37. Simon the Cananaean was
Jesus to A. the original name of Peter
A. Peter after his confession B. one of the twelve
B. the leper who asked to be cleansed C. the Pharisee in whose house the woman
C. Caiaphas at his trial anointedJesus
D. the devil in the wilderness D. the one who carried Jesus’ cross
E. the sons of Zebedee who demanded the best E. one of the brothers of Jesus.
seats in the kingdom.
38. The reason why Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of
James and Salome went to where Jesus was buried on
30. The people of Nazareth found it difficult to believe what
the third day after the burial was to
Jesus preached to them because they
A. plead with the soldiers who were keeping
A. were idolaters
watch there
B. were stubborn
B. anoint the body of Jesus
C. knew him from childhood.
C. see if the body of Jesus was still there
D. had been scolded by him
D. see if Jesus had risen from the dead
E. could not understand his doctrine.
E. weep at the tomb according to the custom of the
31. In the parable of the sower, the seeds on the goods Jews.
ground are meant to represent those who
39. To some who trusted in themselves that they were
A. accept and live by God’s word
righteous and despised others, Jesus told the parable of
B. feed the poor
the
C. have and love riches
A. rich man and Lazarus
D. give alms in market places
B. Pharisee and the tax-collectors
E. preach the words of God.
C. wise and foolish virgins
D. prodigal son
32. Who is being referred to here?
E. good Samaritan.
A. Paul B. Silas C. Barnabas
40. The main reason why Peter and John were arrested by D. Peter E. Stephen
the officers of the Temple after they had cured the lame
46. The seven deacons were appointed to
man at the gate called beautiful was that they
A. conduct a mission to the Gentiles
A. healed the sick
B. replace the twelve
B. proclaimed in Jesus the resurrection
C. lead the Church in Jerusalem
C. incited the people to revolt
D. help in the distribution of food
D. abused the elders of the people
E. preach the Gospel.
E. disapproved of worship in the temple
47. Which ruler said this in the course of Paul’s defense?
41. The conversion of Paul was made possible by
‘In a short time you think to make me a Christian!’
A. Simon B. Zacchaeus
A. Festus B. Agrippa C. Herod
C. The risen Jesus D. Matthew
D. Caiaphas E. Pilate.
E. Barnabas
48. When Paul arrived in Rome, the people he first
42. Who is being referred to here?
addressed were
‘Let his habitation become desolate, and let there be
A. the local leaders of the Jews
no one to live in it’ and ‘His office let another take.’
B. the early Roman Christians
A. Judas Iscariot B. Stephen
C. The Roman soldiers who were guarding him
C. Joseph Barsabbas D. Justus
D. The pagans whom he wanted to convert
E. Matthias
E. Apollos and his followers who were expecting
43. Which of the following was NOT one of the decisions his arrival.
of the Jerusalem Council communicated to Gentile
49. ‘For I am ready not only to be imprisoned but even to
Christians?
die at Jerusalem for the name of the Lord Jesus. ‘Who
A. Abstinence from eating meat offered to idols.
was this devoted person?
B. Compliance with circumcision rites.
A. Stephen B. James
C. Avoidance of eating meat with blood in it.
C. Peter D. Paul
D. Abstinence from eating strangled animals’
E. Barnabas
flesh.
E. Avoidance of fornication. 50 Complete the quotation which relates to Paul’s voyage
to Rome
44. The proconsul when Paul arrived in Corinth was called
Do not be afraid, Paul, you must stand before Caestar,
A. Festus B. Pontius Pilate
and lo ...
C. Gallio D. Agrippa E. Felix
A. Ceasar will give you a favourable judgment’
45. Identify the speaker
B. All who seek your life will perish
Now, I know that the Lord has sent his angel to deliver
C. I have a large number of disciples in Rome’
me out of the hand of Herod and from everything that
D. My name will be glorified in your mission
the Jewish people expected to happen to me.’
E. God has granted you all those who sail with
you

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1985

1. According to Genesis Chapter 1, on the 6th day, God A. 75 years B. 91 years C. 99 years
created D. 105 years E. 120 years
A. the firmament
B. light 4. ‘You would bring down my grey hairs with sorrow to
C. dry land and sea Sheol.’ Jacob said this to his children because
D. man and living creature A. Joseph was unjustly imprisoned
E. the sun, moon and stars. B. Joseph had been reported killed
C. the famine was very sever
2. The flood lasted while Noah was in the ark, for D. the Ishmaelites had bought Joseph and had
A. two weeks resold him to Potiphar
B. ten weeks E. He feared that Benjamin would be lost to him
C. ten days like Joseph.
D. a hundred days
E. a hundred and fifty days 5. And the magician said to Pharaoh, ‘ This is the finger
of God’. This statement was made after the plague of
3. ‘Walk before me, and be blameless.’ How old was the A. frogs B. blood
addressee when this voice came? C. locusts D. boils
E. gnats.
6. The father of Moses was of the tribe of E. the Israelites wanted to be like other people
A. Levi B. Benjamin who had kings
C. Zebulun
D. Gad E. Judah 17. God took the Kingdom from Saul because he
A. was not strong enough
7. When did the Israelites say ‘All that the Lord has spoken B. did not offer sacrifices to the Lord
we will do’? C. disobeyed the Lord by offering burnt
A. After Joshua’s farewell speech sacrifices himself
B. At Mount Sinai D. was arrogant
C. When Moses spoke to them before his death E. had consulted soothesayers.
D. After the incident of the golden calf
E. When God asked them to gather manna from 18. How was Saul killed?
heaven A. He was killed by Jonathan.
B. He took his own sword and fell upon it.
8. The 5th of the Ten Commandments is a warning C. His armour-bearer killed him.
A. not to bow down to idols D. The Philistines killed him.
B. not to kill E. An Amalekite killed him.
C. to avoid adultery
D. not to bear false witness 19. The commander of David’s army was
E. to honour one’s father and mother. A. Abner B. Joab
C. Abiathar D. Zadok
9. Hear now, you rebels: shall we bring forth water for E. Adonijah.
you out of this rock? Was spoken by Moses
A. in the valley of Moab 20. King David committed adultery with
B. at Mount Hor A. Michal B. Bathsheba
C. in the wilderness of Zin C. Jezebel D Merab
D. at Mount Nebo E. Athaliah.
E. in the wilderness of Paran
21. Which prophet encouraged Jeroboam I to revolt
10. The spies sent out into the land of Canaan were NOT at the initial stage?
required to find out whether the A. Micaiah. B. Jeremiah.
A. people who dwelt in it were few or many C. Nathan. D. Ahija. E. Joel.
B. land they dwelt in was good or bad
C. cities they dwelt in were camps or strongholds 22. The city of Samaria was built by
D. land was flowing with milk and honey A. Omri B. Jeroboam
E. land was forested C. Shemmer D. Jehu E. Ahab

11. Who was chosen to lead the Israelites after Moses’ 23. The prophet from Tekoa was
death? A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah C. Joel
A. Deborah B. Abimelech D. Hosea E. Amos.
C. Samuel D. Joshua E. Caleb
24. Which king reigned after Hezekiah?
12. Joshua’ first victory was in A. Josiah B. Amon
A. Ai B. Gibeon C. Jordan
D. Gilgal E. Jericho C. Jehoiakim D. Jehoahaz
13. Sisera was put to death by E. Manasseh
A. Barak B. Deborah
C. Joshua D. Jael E. Abinoam 25. Which was NOT a complaint of the people when
Nahemiah was rebuilding Jerusalem?
14. ‘But I will be with you and you will smite the Midianites A. Let us get grain; that we may eat and keep
as one man’ was said by God to alive.
A. Moses B. Joshua B. We are mortgaging our fields, our vineyards
C. Deborah D. Gideon E. Joash and our houses.
C. We have borrowed money for the King’s tax.
15. The name ‘Samuel’ means D. The strength of the burden-bearers is failing.
A. the Strength of God E. We are forcing our sons and daughters to be
B. the Child of Tears slaves.
C. I have asked him of the Lord
D. The fruit of my tears 26. Jesus was said to be ‘of Nazareth’ because
E. The future prophet of the Lord. A. he took a Nazarene vow
B. his ancestor David lived in Nazareth
16. Samuel’s sons were rejected as judges because C. he was brought up in the city of Nazareth
A. they were wicked D. he made Nazareth his preaching headquarters.
B. they were not from the royal family
C. they perverted justice and took bribes 27. Luke gave the most detailed account of Christ’s infancy
D. they were too ignorant because he
A. Was his blood relation
B. Was writing to the Jews E. Stephen raised from the dead.
C. Was writing an orderly account of events
37. ‘Grant us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your,
D. Was writing to Theophilus.
left, in your glory.’ The petitioners were
E. Copied from one of the evangelists.
A. Peter and Andrew B. James and Andrew
C. John and Peter D. James and John
28. ‘You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the
E. James and Peter.
wrath to come?’ was part of the Preaching of
A. Jesus Christ B. Zechariah 38. Today salvation has come to this house, for this is also
C. Paul D. John the Baptist a son of Abraham. This was said of
E. Barnabas. A. Levi B. Stephen
C. Zacchaeus D. Lazarus
29. Which of these statements is correct?
E.Simon the lepers.
A. The order in which Jesus was tempted Varies
in Matthew and Luke but the tests remain the 39. In the parable of the ten maidens, the five were called
same. foolish they
B. Matthew follows Luke’s order in which Jesus A. were sleeping before the marriage feast
was tempted. B. forgot their lamps
C. The temptation story of Jesus is found in C. had no wedding dresses
Mark only. D. did not go out of meet the bridegroom
D. Only Luke gives us the story of Jesus E. did not take additional oil with them.
temptation.
E. The story of Jesus’ temptation is found in Luke 40. ‘I find no crime in this man. ‘Who made this statement?
and John only. A. Caiaphas B. Annas
C. Herod D. Caesar E. Pilate
30. Who of these was NOT one of the twelve?
A. Peter B. Andrew 41. Concerning the events that will precede the end of the
C. Luke D. James E. John. world, Jesus asked his followers to pray that it would
not happen
31. Who said ‘I am not worthy to have you come under my
A. Yet B. Suddenly
roof?
C. In winter D. At night
A. The Syrophoenician woman
E. In spring
B. Jairus
C. The Centurion at Capernaum 42. Theophillus was
D. Zacchaeus A. One of the twelve apostles
E. Peter B. The one for whom the Act of the Apostle was
written
32. ‘The Kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in field’.
C. The centurion converted by Peter in Ceasarea
This parable teaches about the
D. One of the seven deacons
A. hidden nature of the Kingdom
E. A governor of Judea
B. cleverness of the land speculator
C. urgency of entry into the Kingdom
43. And the angel said to him, ‘Dress yourself and put on
D. growth of the Kingdom
your sandal’. The addressee was
E. preciousness of the Kingdom.
A. John B. Paul
33. The renowned interpreters of the Mosaic Law in the C. Peter D. Silas E. James
time of Jesus were the
44. On the road to Gaza, Philip converted and Baptized a
A. Sadducees B. Scribes
A. Minister of the Candace
C. Zealots D. Herodians
B. Roman Officer C. Centurion
E. Pharisees
D. Samaritan E. Hellenist
34. ‘This is my beloved son: listen to him’, was said
A. in Gethsemane 45. After his conversion Paul first went to
B. at the Transfiguration A. Damascus B. Jerusalem
C. at Jesus’ Baptism C. Tarsus D. Antioch
D. at the Birth of Jesus E. Caesarea
E. at the Crucifixion
46. An eloquent Jew from Alexandria, well versed in the
35. ‘The Kingdom of heaven may be compared to a man Scriptures, was
who sowed good seeds in his field; but while men were A. Aquila B. Cornelius
sleeping his enemy came and sowed weeds amongst
the wheat, and went away.’ The owner of the field was C. ClaudiusD. Apollos E. Silas
A. the devilB. a son of the Kingdom
C. an angle D. the son of man 47. The ecumenical Council of 49 A.D held in Jerusalem
E. a son of the evil one. was mainly to discuss the
A. persecution of the early Christians
36. When Herod the Tetrarch heard of the fame of Jesus,
B. roles of Paul the apostle
he thought that He was
C. leadership of Peter
A. Elijah raised from the dead
D. fate of gentile Christians
B. Isaiah brought back to life
E. general progress of the Church
C. John the Baptist raised from the dead
D. Jeremiah came back to life
48. An alter was set up to the Unknown God in the Greek 50. The people of Malta thought that Paul must be a
town of murderer because he
A. Athens B. Thebes C. Ephesus A. was bitten by a poisonous snake
D. Macedonia E. Sparta B. told them about hell
C. was being taken to Rome as a prisoner
49. ‘You have appealed to Caesar: To Caesar then you shall
D. preached to them about the crucifixion of
go. This statement was made to Paul by
Jesus
A. Agrippa B. Festus
E. was going to answer charges before Caesar.
C. Claudius Lysias D. Publius
E. Felix

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1986

1. ‘This at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; 10. To whom was this addressed?
she shall be called Woman because she was … ‘Rule over us you and your son and your grandson also,
A. The first woman for you have delivered us out of the hand of Midian.
B. The mother of all living A. Deborah B. Samson C. Gideon D. Jephthah
C. The man’s partner
D. Taken out of man. 11. Who asked this question?
‘Which is better for you that all seventy of the sons of
2. When God called Abram out of Haran, his first place of Jerubbaal rule over you, or that one rule over you?
call in Canaan was A. Abimelech B. Ahimelech C. Jotham D. Elimelech
A. Bethel B. Negeb C. Shechem D. Moreh.
12. At childhood, the word of the Lord came to Samuel
3. ‘This is none other than the house of God, and this is because he
the gate of heaven’, was said by A. was righteous
A. Abraham at Shechem B. Jacob at Bethe B. had the qualities of a prophet
C. Moses at the burning bush D. Moses at Sinai. C. was to announce the punishment for the house
of Eli
4. The Egyptians enslaved the Israelites and forced them D. slept near the altar
to build
A. store-cities B. bridges C. temples D. canals. 13. ‘Cursed be the man who takes food before evening
before I am able to avenge myself on my enemies.’ This
5. The Passover was to remind the Israelites of was said by Saul during the battle between Israel and
A. God’s execution of judgment on the gods of the
Egypt A. Ammonites B. Jebusites C. Amalekites
B. God’s smiting of all the first born in Egypt D. Philistines
C. The seven days of eating unleavened bread
D. The eating of roasted lamb while standing. 14. Who was the man who, in an attempt to prevent a
disaster, touched the Ark and died when David was
6. The consecration of the people of Israel took place at returning it to Jerusalem?
the foot of Mount A. Obed-edom B. Abinadab C. Uzzah D. Ahio
A. Carmel B. Nebo C. Sinai D. Gilboa
15. The suggestion made by prophet Nathan to Bathsheba
7. What occasion is reflected in this statement? ‘It is not to foil Adonijah’s attempt to usurp the throne of David
the sound of shouting for victory, or the sound of the was to
cry of defeat, but the sound of singing that I hear.’ A. have Adonijah banished
A. Celebrating the Exodus B. remind David of his promise that Solomon would
B. Rejoicing for the water from the rock succeed him
C. Praising God after receiving the Ten C. have Solomon secretly anointed by Zadok
Commandments D. plead with Adonijah to abandon the attempt.
D. The apostasy of Aaron and the people.
16. It was wrong for King Solomon to have married foreign
8. When Moses was instructed to view the Promised Land women because
afar, he A. they would entice him to worship idols
A. made arrangements to capture it B. the women of Israel were more beautiful
B. summoned the elders and informed them about C. they were very jealous
the land D. a King should not have too many children
C. was struck dead immediately
D. prayed for a successor to shepherd the people 17. How many months were the Israelites on forced labour
in Lebanon allowed to spend at home for every month
9. Who gave this advice? ‘Now therefore, fear the Lord at the labour camp?
and serve him in sincerity and faithfulness; put away A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
the godswhich your fathers served beyond the River
and in Egypt, and serve the Lord.’ 18. Which of the following Kings said ‘Behold your gods,
A. Moses B. Joshua C. Aaron D. Caleb of Israel, who brought you up out of the land of Egypt?
A. Rehoboam B. Ahab C. Jeroboam D. Zedekiah
19. The jar of meal shall not be spend and the cruse of oil D. pinnacle of the temple-wilderness-high
shall not fail, until the day that the Lord sends rain mountain
upon the earth. From the context, which of these
statements is UNTRUE? 29. When Christ called Levi to follow Him, he
A. The meal in the jar and the oil in the cruse A. waited two days before he obeyed
were continually replenished thereafter B. accounted for the tax he collected and
B. The widow of Zerephath prepared food for responded
Elijah C. took some of the money he collected before
C. The widow and hers son ate the food and following Him
waited for their death. D. left everything and followed Him
D. The woman was gathering sticks to prepare
her last meal 30. The miracle which touched on ingratitude is the
A. healing of Bartimaeus
20. Which of these Kings did not assassinate his B. raising of Jairus’ daughter
predecessor but was assassinated by his successor? C. cure of the ten lepers
A. Shallum B. Pekah C. Hoshae D. Pekahiah D. cure of the demoniac

21. Hosea said that the children of Israel shall dwell many 31. The parable of the unmerciful servant teaches that
days without king or prince without sacrifice or pillar, A. we should exercise patience until our debtors pay us
without … B. we should forgive our debtors from our hearts
A. ephod on teraphim B. prophet or seer C. all debts should be reported
C. dream or vision D. Tummim or Urim D. debtors should be jailed until they pay all their debts.

22. To whom does this refer? 32. The ways in which various people hear the word of
And he burned his son as an offering, and practised God are described in the parable of the
soothsaying and augury, and dealt with mediums and A. Sower B.Wheat and the tares
with wizards. He did much evil in the sight of the Lord, C. Fig tree D. Vineyard
provoking him to anger.
A. Hezehiah B. Manasseh C. Josiah D. Jehoiakim 33. But if it is by the spirit of God that I cast out demons, then
…
23. Who was that Egyptian king who not only made Eliakim A. God has defeated Satan
king of Judah but changed Eliakim’s name to Jehoiakim? B. the kingdom of Satan cannot stand
A. So B. Neco C. Shishak D. Hophra C. the kingdom of God has come upon you
D. the kingdom of Satan is already divided.
24. Jeremiah wrote to the exiles in Babylon and encourages
them to 34. ‘I assure you, unless you change and become like little
A. fight for their return children, you will not enter the kingdom of God.’
B. come back home to rebuild the temple This is a warning by Jesus against
C. seek the welfare of Babylon A. anger B. ambition C. wealth D. disobedience
D. disobey the king of Babylon
35. Jesus taught that fasting in addition to prayers, is
25. Which of these prophets made this prophecy of Zion’s necessary in some situations, during the healing of the
happy future at the return of the exiles? “And the A. blind beggar B. dropsied man
ransomed the Lord shall return, and come to Zion with C. gerasene demoniac D. epileptic boy
singing; everlasting joy and shall be upon their heads;
they shall obtain joy and gladness and sorrow and 36. Jesus did not grant the request of the sons of Zebedee
sighing shall flee away. because
A. Jeremiah B. Isaiah C. Zephaniah D. Ezekiel A. they were not qualified for the privilege they
asked for
26. Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his B. He did not want to encourage rivalry among the
name shall be called Emmanuel, which means disciples
A. Son of Emmaus B. God with us C. it was not His to grant the request
C. Saviour D. God is our D. they could not drink with Jesus’ cup.
Redeemer.
37. The parable which teaches persistence in prayer is that
27. What specific reply did John the Baptist give to the of the
soldiers during his preaching? A. Unjust judge B. Sower
A. ‘Collect no more than is appointed you’ C. Good Samaritan D. Prodigal son
B. ‘Do not begin to say to yourselves: we have
Abraham as our Father 38. To give the widow’s mite is to give
C. ‘Bear fruits that befit repentance A. more that others B. less than others
D. ‘Be content with your wages. C. everything possible D. two copper coins

28. The order of the locations of Jesus’ temptations 39. Which of these women was absent during the crucifixion
according to Matthew is of Jesus Christ?
A. wilderness-high mountain-pinnacle of the A. Mary Magdalene B. Elizabeth
Temple C. Mary mother of Jesus D. Salome
B. wilderness-pinnacle of the temple-high
mountain 40. To explain the outpouring of the Holy Spirit on the day
C. high mountain-wilderness-pinnacle of the of Pentecost, Peter quoted Prophet
temple
A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah C. Joel D. Ezekiel
41. To whom was this addressed?“While it remained A. Agabus and Barsabba
unsold, did it not remain your own?And after it was B. Barsabba and ElymasC. Elymas and Judas
sold, was it not at your disposal? How is it that you D. Judas and Silas
have contrived this deed in your heart? Youhave not
46. Lydia received Paul and Silas into her house when they
lied to men but to God.”
came to
A. Elymas B. Ananias C. Saul D. Sapphira
A. Philippi B. Thessalonica C. Ephesus D. Troas
42. “Truly I perceive that God shows no partiality” was said
47. Paul standing in the Areopagus, used the teaching of
by
the poets of the people to introduce God the Creator at
A. Cornelius B. Peter C. Paul D. Philip
A. Thessalonica B. Athens C. Corinth D. Salamis
43. After the killing of James the son of Zebedee, Herod
also arrested Peter because 48. On his final journey to Jerusalem, Paul lodged at the
A. Peter had promised to die with Jesus house of
B. the Jews were pleased with the murder of James A. Jason B. Agabus C. Mnason D. Trophymus
C. Herod wanted to show his zeal for the Law of
Moses 49. ‘In a short time you think to make me a Christian’ was
D. Peter was the head of the Church said by
44. The proconsul of Paphos during the visit of Paul and A. Claudius Lysias B. Felix the Governor
Barnabas was C. King Agrippa D. Festus the Governor
A. Marcus Felix B. Lucius Publius
C. Sergius Paulus D. Porcus Festus 50. The final port of departure for Italy where the Centurion
put Paul on board was
45. Which leading men among the brethren in Jerusalem, A. Myra B. Alexandria C. Syracuse D. Fair
and who were themselves prophets were sent to Havens
Antioch with a letter in the company of Paul and
Barnabas?

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1987

1. ‘Our sister, be the mother of thousands and ten thousands;
and my your descendants posses who was the sister? 8. Whoever touches the ‘mountain of God’ shall be put to
A. Rachel B. Rebekah C. Hannah D. Peniah death by
A. hanging B. shooting C. strangling D. beating
2. ‘Cast out this slave woman with her son; for the son of 9. ‘Take off the rings gold which are in the ears of your
this slave woman shall not be heir with my son Isaac. wives, your sons and your daughters and bring them
Who was the slave woman? to me’.
A. Michael B. Sarah C. Hagar D. Puah A. decorating the Ark B. offering sacrifice
C. erecting an altar
3. ‘… thoms and thistles it shall bring forth to you and D. fashioning a molten calf
you shall eat the plants of field. In the sweat of your
face you shall eat bread’.To whom were these words 10. God commanded that Aaron should speak for Moses
spoken? to the Israelites, but Moses should be to Aaron as
A. Cain B. Esau C. Adam D. Abel A. God B. master C. brother D. priest
4. Abraham circumcised his son, Isaac, on the eighth day 11. On the first day when the Israelites left part of the bread,
because. it bred worms and became foul, but on the sixth day
A. It was the custom of his tribe to do so when they left part of the bread it did not become foul
B. God commanded him to do so because
C. He wanted to distinguish Isaac from Ishmael A. they roasted it immediately
D. Isaac was the son of promise. B. God commanded them to keep it
C. Moses wanted to save them the trouble of
5. Who among Joseph’s brothers was bound by Joseph searching for bread everyday
when they went to Egypt to buy grain? D. by them they have discovered a better way of
A. Simeon B. Reuben C. Benjamin D. Judah preserving it.
6. Joshua was buried in the hill-country of 12. Who was regarded as the greatest prophet in the Old
A. Moab B. Naphtali C. Judah D. Ephraim Testament for seeing God face to face?
A. Elijah B. Jeremiah C. Isaiah D. Moses
7. ‘Take handfuls of ashes from the kiln and let Moses 13. Whoever rebels against your commandment and disobeys
throw them toward heaven I the sight of Pharaoh’. your words, whatever you command him, shall be put
A. the death of all Egyptian flocks and cattle to death: only be strong and of good courage.
B. the death of the first born and beast The above passage was addressed to:
C. boils ad sores on man and beast A. Moses B. Joshua C. Deborah D. Aaron
D. locusts eating up every herbage.
14. Which of these statements did God make to Joshua A. Mary was too tender and lovely.
before the crossing of the Jordan? B. the angle warned Joseph not to be harsh on
A. You shall lead my people with the staff of Mary.
Moses in your hand C. Joseph was disappointed with Mary.
B. The people of Israel will murmur against you D. he was a just man.
as they did to Moses.
C. This book of the law shall not depart out of 27. Though Herod wanted to put John the Baptist to death,
our mouth he feared the people, because they held him to be a:
D. You shall select for yourself men of valour A. priest B. preacher C. prophet D. for-runner of Christ.
who will cross the Jordan with you.
28. Which of these if NOT included in the instructions
15. Achan, who took of the devoted things during the fall given to the disciples during their mission?
of Jericho was from the tribe of A. Heal the sick B. Judge the people
A. Reuben B. Benjamin C. Judah D. Manasseh C. Cleanse lepers D. Raise the dead.

16. Who among the following people was connected with 29. Jesus asked his disciples not to disclose their vision of
the war between Israel and King Jabin of Cannan? the transfiguration until the
A. Egbon B. Jael C. Ehud D. Gideon A. Crucifixion B. Resurrection
C. Ascension D. Pentecost.
17. ‘Alas, my daughter: you have brought me very low and
you have become the cause of great trouble to me for I 30. When Peter confessed Jesus as the Christ, Jesus replied
have opened my mouth to the Lord, and I cannot take that it had been revealed to Peter by
back my vow. A. my Father B. flesh and blood
A. Hannah B. Peninah C. Samson D. Jephthah. C. the spirit of the living God
D. the son of man.
18. Elkanah went to worship and to sacrifice to the LORD
at Shiloh 31. Which of the following prophesied the signs of the
A. annually B. monthly C. fortnightly end?
D. every Sabbath A. Jeremiah B. Daniel C. Malachi D. Amos

19. Uriah did not wish to go down to his house because 32. The parable of the labourers in the vineyard teaches
A. his wife was pregnant above all God’s
B. Joab would set him in the forefront of the battle A. generosity B. strictness C. partiality D. justice.
C. the Ark was in the battle field
D. David lay with his wife. 33. According to Jesus, every kingdom divided against itself
is
20. Then the spirit of the Lord will come mightily upon A. laid waste B. selfish C. satanic D. without a
you, and you shall prophesy with them ... leader.
A. Samuel B. Saul C. David D. Jonathan.
34. Jesus taught that one should make friends quickly with one’s
21. The evil spirit that tormented Saul left him whenever he A. enemy B. neighbour C. master D. accuser.
A. was asleep B. was at prayer C. drink wine
D. heard David’s music 35. The Pharisees and Scribes accused the disciples of
Jesus of transgressing the tradition of the leaders
22. Saul was made king publicly before the Lord and before because they
all the people of Israel at A. did not regard synagogue rules
A. Mizpah B. Gilgal C. Bethel D. Dan. B. did not pray before meals
C. ate with unwashed hands
23. When the Queen of Sheba heard Solomon’s fame D. disobeyed the elders.
concerning the name of the Lord, she came to test him
with her 36. ‘Why this waste? For this ointment might have been
A. questions B. beauty C. army D. wealth. sold for a large sum and given to the poor.’ The event
which led to this saying took place in
24. The greatest of David’s domestic problems that seemed A. Capernaum B. Jerusalem C. Jericho D. Bethany.
to break his heart was the
A. rape of Tamar by Amnon 37. At His triumphal entry into Jerusalem, Christ had to sit
B. killing of Amnon by absalom on an ass because He
C. conspiracy of Absalom against him A. had need of it B. was humble
D. murder of Absalom by Joab. C. wanted to fulfill the scriptures
D. was a king.
25. Besides the gifts of wisdom, what other gift did the
Lord promise to Solomon but with a condition? 38. But Jesus answered them, ‘You are wrong, because
A. Riches B. Honour C. Long life D. Victory in you know neither the scriptures nor the power of God.
Warfare For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given
in marriage, but are like angels in heaven.’
26. When Joseph discovered that his betrothed Mary was A. Sadducees B. Pharisees C. Gentiles D. Samaritans.
with child, he decided to divorce her quietly because
39. “... Let both grow together until the harvest; and at 44. Peter explained that the disciples were not filled with new
harvest time I will tell the reapers, Gather the weeds wine but with the Holy Spirit according to the prophecy
first and bind them in bundles to be burned, but gather of
the wheat into my barn.” This passage is on the parable A. Joel B. Micah C. Isaiah D. Jonah
of the
A. mustard seed B. sower 45. Who advised the Sanhedrin to keep away from the
C. tares D. treasure hidden in a field. apostles and let them alone?
A. Cornelius B. Stephen C. Gamaliel D. James.
40. ‘Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for
righteousness, for they shall ...’ 46. Saul travelled to Damascus in order to
A. inherit the earth B. be satisfied A. obtain letters of authority from the High Priest
C. obtain mercy D. see God. B. be converted to Christianity
C. be baptized by Ananias
41. Jesus charged his disciples not to depart from Jerusalem
D. arrest those belonging to the Way.
but to wait for the promise of the Father.
This promise was fulfilled when 47. Peter was criticized by the circumcision party in
A. Jesus ascended into heaven. Jerusalem because he
B. the Holy Spirit filled the disciples on the day A. converted the gentiles
of Pentecost. B. raised Dorcas to life
C. Jesus resurrected from the dead. C. ate with the gentiles
D. the holy Spirit descended upon Cornelius and D. baptized Cornelius
all who heard Peter’s preaching. 48. Who prophesied a great famine over all the world at
Antioch?
42. On their return to Jerusalem immediately after the A. Agabus B. Aeneas C. Claudius D. Barnabas.
Ascension, the apostles devoted themselves to
A. preaching B. healing C. alms-giving D. prayer. 49. While Peter was still speaking this, the holy Spirit fell
on all who heard the word.
43. One of the main qualifications of the successor to Judas Where did this happen?
was that he should be a witness A. Jerusalem B. Caesarea C. Antioch D. Damascus.
A. from the time of John the Baptist
B. of the Ascension 50. Then they cast him out of the city and stoned him and
C. during the time of Christ’s ministry and death the witnesses laid down their garments at the feet of
D. of the Resurrection. young man named Saul.
A. James B. Philip C. Barnabas D. Stephen

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1988

1. The reference in Genesis chapter 6 to the union between 6. ‘I have sinned this time; the Lord is in the right, and I
the ‘Sons of God’ and the ‘Daughters of Men’ explains and my people are in the wrong; Pharaoh said this after
the origin of the plague of the
A. hermaphrodites A. hailstorm B. death of the first born C. locusts
B. mighty men of renown D. darkness
C. gods and goddesses
D. dwarfs. 7. The request of Moses that Israel should be allowed to
go and worship God was interpreted by Pharaoh to
2. ‘Two nation’s in Rebekah’s womb refers to the mean
A. Ammonites and Moabites A. disobedience B. idleness C. lawlessness D. disloyalty
B. Moabites and Edomites
C. Edomites and Israelites 8. The Passover lamb was to be kept until the fourteenth
D. Israelites and Ishmaelites. day of the first month when the whole assembly was to
kill their lambs
3. Joseph’s rough treatment of his brothers was to A. in the morning B. at noon
A. revenge on them C. in the evening D. at midnight.
B. prolong their starvation
C. assure himself that they were not spies 9. Pharaoh’s horsemen and his army overtook the fleeing
D. prove their sincere contrition Hebrews, encamped by the sea, at
A. Migdol B. Etham C. Succoth D. Pihahiroth.
4. Which of the following BEST describes Abraham’s
reaction to God’s promise of a son by Sarah? 10. The sin of the Israelites that led to the punishment by
A. Humility B. Optmism C. Generosity fiery serpents was
D. Faithlessness A. making the golden calf
B. speaking against God and Moses
5. ‘Mahanaic is so called becaused Jacob saw the angles C. planning to return to Egypt
of God as God’s D. trying to stone Caleb and Joshua.
A. priests B. servants C. messengers D. army
11. During the confirmation of the covenant, Moses was A. the intrigues for succession to the throne
invited by the Lord along with B. David’s popularity
A. Aaron, Nadab and Abihu C. the fame of Solomon’s wisdom
B. Aaron, Eleazar and Nadab D. David’s love for Uriah’s wife.
C. Abihu, Eleazar and Nadab
D. Eleazar, Aaron and Abihu. 23. As David took to flight from Jerusalem on account of
Absalom’s conspiracy, he was apprehensive of the role of
12. ‘Go into the hills, lest the pursuers meet you; and hide A. Ahitophel B. Ahijah C. Abiathar D. Shimel.
yourselves three days, until the pursurers have
returned; then afterwards you may go your way’. Who 24. To whom did God promise to give the kingdom after
gave this advice? Solomon’s heart turned away from the Lord?
A. Deborah B. Rebekah C. Rahab D. Sihon A. Rehoboam B. Ahijah C. Jeroboam D. Jehoram

13. When Joshua burned Ai, he also put to death the king 25. What did Solomon provide for Hiram in exhcnage for
of Ai, by timber of cedar and cypress?
A. burning B. stoning C. hanging D. shooting. A. War equipment B. Food C. Wives D. Money.

14. In Jothams’s parable of the trees, Abimelech is very 26. The gift of gold to the infant, Jesus indicated his
much likened to the A. royal status B. priestly status
A. fig B. bramble C. olive D. vine C. prophetic status D.messianic mission.

15. The preservation of the twelve stones by Joshua in Gilgal 27. Herod ordered the killing of children when he
was to A. learnt that a king was born
A. constitute a museum B. had been tricked by the wise men
B. found a place of worship C. could not see the new baby
C. remind Israel of the crossing of River Jordan D. searched in vain for the wise men.
D. indicate that the site was a quarry.
28. ‘And you, O Bethlehem, in the land of Judah, are by no
16. Samson, as a Nazarite, was required to avoid alcohol means least among the rulers of Judah; for from you
A. women and dead lions shall come a ruler who will govern my people Israel.’
B. unclean things and shacing This statement fulfills the prophesy of
C. shaving and swearing A. Joel B. Micah C. Amos D. Nahum.
D. shaving and women.
29. According to Mark, what were the disciples forbidden
17. Which city was captured by Joshua before the disaster to take for their journey?
at Ai? A. Gold, silver and bag
A. Bethel B. Jericho C. Hebron D. Gilgal B. Bread, bag and staff
C. Sandals, staff and two tunics
18. ‘I have brought Agag the king of Amalek, and I have D. Bread, bag and money.
utterly destroyed the Amalekites.’ This declaration was
made by 30. How many days elapsed between Peter’s confession
A. David B. Solomon C. Samuel D. Saul and transfiguration?
A. Five B. Six C. Seven D. Eeight.
19. ‘O Lord of hosts, if thou will ... give to thy maidservant
a son, then I will give him to the Lord all the days of his 31. The young man who wanted to know from Jesus what
life, and no razor shall touch his head’. Who said this? good deed would qualify him for heaven, ‘went away
A. Sarah B. Rachael C. Hannah D. Samson’s sorrowful’ because he
mother. A. hated the poor
B. was uncertain about treasure in heaven
20. Eli fell down and died because of the C. had great possessions
A. defeat of the Israelites D. would realize little money from the sale of his
B. behaviour of his delinquent children goods.
C. capture of the Ark of Covenant
D. death of his two children 32. In St. Matthew’s record of the ethnical teaching of Jesus
(chapters 5-7), the most important divine demand that
21. “Then Saul fell at once full lenght upon the ground, will enable a man inherit the kingdom of God is
filled with fear because of the words of Samuel; and A. doing the will of God
there was no strenght in him ...” This happened when B. practising charity
Samuel C. prophesying
A. rebuked Saul for sparing Agag D. perfoming miracles.
B. told Saul that God had rejected him and had
33. The answer ‘You are the Christ, the son of the living
chosen David to be king
God’ was made by Peter in the neighbourhood of
C. condemned Saul for offering sacrifice before his
A. Bethlehem in Judea
arrival
B. Capernum
D. was invoked from the dea.
C. Caesarea
22. Ammon’s incest with Tamar marks the begining of
D. Bethsaida.
A. Nathan B. Zadok C. Ahimelech D. Abiathar.
34. ‘You shall not tempt the Lord your God.’ To which 42. ‘Take heed and beware of the leaven Pharisees and
temptation did Jesus give this reply? Sadducees.’ This leaven is their
A. Bowing down to the devil A. wealth B. hypocrisy C. wisdom D. teaching.
B. Turning stone into bread
C. Jumping from the pinnacle 43. The three thousand converts on the day of Pentecost
D. breaking his long fast. devoted themselves to
A. breaking of bread and the prayers
35. Which of these parables teaches about judgement and B. speaking in tongues
separation? C. healing and preaching
A. The Dragnet B. The Hidden Treasure D. prophesying.
C. The Sower D. The Leaven
44. Two of the seven deacons are
36. ‘If anyone would be first, he must be last of all and A. Paramenas and Proselytus
servant of all’. What does this saying of Jesus teach? B. Simon and Stephen
A. Endurance B. Lack of ambition C. Nicanor and Nicolas
C. Humility D. Relaxation. D. Prochorus and Protus.

37. The appearance of Elijah and Moses at the 45. According to the apostle’s speech before the
transfiguration indicates the significance of the Sanhedrin, the holy Spirit is given by God to
A. prophets and apostles A. the followers of Christ
B. prophets and the law B. the disciples of Jesus
C. Spirit and the word C. those who obey God
D. Kings and the judges D. those who fast and pray.

38. One of the illustrations of Jesus on true greatness is 46. In his speech concerning the replacement of Judas
A. giving alms to the poor Iscariot, Peter quoted from
B. preaaching the gospel A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah C. Joel D. the Psalms.
C. becomig like a child
D. knowing how to pray. 47. When Peter escaped from prison during the passover,
the guards were
39. From which town did Jesus send two of his diciples to A. drunk B. struck dead C. transfixed D. fast asleep.
make adequate preparation for the last entry into
Jerusalem? 48. One of the seven Hellenists who preached the gospel
A. Bethphage B. Golgotha in Samaria, and from Azotus to the Syrian capital,
C. Jericho D. Bethany Caesarea, was
A. Stephen B. Prochorus C. Nicanor D. Philip.
40. Which religious groups asked Jesus about payment of
taxes to Ceasar?
49. Simon the magician was rebuked by Peter in Samaria
A. Pharisees and Sadducces.
because he
B. Pharisees and Herodians
A. perverted the minds of the people
C. Sadduccees and Herodians
B. opposed the teaching of the apostles
D. Herodians and Zealots.
C. Wanted to purchase spiritual power with
41. When the Pharisees accused Jesus’ disciples of money
plucking heeds of grain on the Sabbath, Jesus reffered D. refused to be baptized.
them to what David did during the high priesthood of
50. The disciples were for the first time called Christians in
A. Tarsus B. Antioch C. Jerusalem D. Judea.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1989

1. ‘Then the Lord God said, “It is not good that the man B. Going to Jerusalem every year.
should be alone;…” C. Keeping of the Passover
A. Assistant B. Woman D. Circumcision in the flesh of the foreskins.
C. Helper D. Companion
4. God appeared to Jacob in a dream and Jacob made a vow to
2. The first generation of mankind was destroyed in the great A. return to his father’s house
flood of water because of B. furnish the house of God
A. corruption and violence C. make Bethel his new home
B. disobedience to the Torah D. pay tithe to God.
C. worship of idols
D. immoral sex relationships. 5. Joseph saw his sale by his brothers as God’s plan to enable him.
A. revenge on his brothers
3. Which of the following is the sign of the covenant between B. become the lord of Egypt
God and Abraham? C. become a father to Pharoah
A. The sprinking of blood on door posts D. preserve life.
6. The two Hebrew midwives instructed by Paroah to kill the 16. ‘My little finger is thicker than my father’s loins’ means
Hebrew male babies at birth were that in comparison with his father
A. Shipharah and Zipporah A. reign more wisely B. be more lenient
B. Pu’ah and Miriam C. be harsher D. be more just
C. Shipharah and Puah
D. Zipporah and Puah 17. What portion have we in David? We have no inheritance
in the son of jesse.
7. The Egyptian magicians were able to reproduce the first To your tents, O Israel!….
three miracles done by Moses and Aaron, but the fourth This declaration marked the end of
which they were unable perform was the plague of A. monarchy in Israel B. united kingdom in
A. gnat from the dust Israel
B. frogs C. confederacy in Israel D. divided kingdom in
C. swarm of bees Israel
D. locusts.
18. The incident which inspired King Josiah to undertake a
8. The possibility of crossing the Red Sea was seen by reform was the
Israel as A. prophecy of Huldah the prophetess
A. God’s active presence in their midst B. scarifies of Hilkiah the priest
B. the miraculous power of Moses’ rod C. discovery of the book of the law
C. a punishment of the Egyptians D. preparation of the passover
D. a favour deserved by Israel.
19. ‘Seek good, and not evil that you may live; and so the
9. In Exodus 17 and Numbers 20, similar incidents of lack of Lord, the God of hosts, will be with you have said…’
water for the congregation are recorded. A significant Which prophet gave this advice?
difference however, is that in Exodus 17, Moses is commanded to A. Hosea B. Amos C. Isaiah
A. strike the rock D.Jeremiah
B. strike the rock twice
C. speak to the rock 20. And at the time of the offering of the oblation, the prophet
D. speak to the rock twice came near and said, ‘… O Lord, answer me, that this people
may know that thou, O Lord, art God, and that thou had
10. The only commandment which has a promise attached it turned their hearts back.’
concerns What happened after this prayer?
A. respecting parents A. There was heavy rain
B. keeping the Sabbath B. There was thunder and lightning
C. not taking the name of the Lord in vain C. There was a strong wing
D. not coveting our neighbour’s house. D. The fire of the Lord fell.

11. ‘What is sweeter than honey’ ‘What is stronger than lion?’ 21. One of the reasons why Sennacherib could not enter
Who gave this riddle? Jerusalem and conquer it as he did to Samaria was that
A. Joseph B. Solomon A. his god told hi9m to return home from his camp
C. Samson D. Ahimelech B. thousand of his soldiers miraculously died overnight
C. he willingly changed his mind and returned to
12. ‘Draw your sword and kill me, lest men say of me. “A his country
woman killed him.” D. fight broke out among his soldiers.
The speaker was
A. Sisera B. Samson 22. When the Chaldean army captured King Zedekiah, they
C. Abimelech D. Ahimelech A. hung him on a tree
B. slew his wives before his eyes
13. A famous prophetes who was also a judge in Israel was C. bound him in fetters
A. Hannah B. Sarah D. cut off his figures and toes
C. Peninah D. Deborah
23. ‘All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every
14. Gideon was also called Jerubbaal because he one to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the
A. pulled down the altar of Baal and cut down inquity of us all.’
the Asherah beside it This messianic prophecy was made by
B. led the Israelites against the Midianites who A. Jeremiah B. Amos
were Baal Worshippers C. Ezekiel D. Isaiah
C. turned Israel away from Baal worship
D. tested God. 24. The vision of ‘dry bones’ teaches that
A. there is life after death
15. Joshua was full of the spirit of wisdom because B. there will be a resurrection of the body
A. he did everything as the Lord had commanded him C. there will be a new creation
B. Moses had laid his hand upon him D. exiled Israel will be restored.
C. the Lord had promised to be with him as He
was with Moses 25. Gilgamesh Epic is the Babylonian equivalent of the biblical
D. he meditated on the book of the law day and story of the
night.
A. Patriarchs B. creation 36. From the Parable of the friend at midnight we learn that
C. fall D. flood A. we should always make our requests even at
26. To whom was the birth of Jesus announced with a sign? midnight
A. An angle of the Lord B. The shepherds B. we cannot receive anything from God if we don’t
C. Herod the Great D. The wise men ask
27. The central message of John the Baptist in the Jordan C. an evil father will always give good gifts to his
region was about a baptism. children
A. with water B.with the Holy Spirit D. the heavenly Father will always give the Holy
C. of forgivenessD. of repentance Spirit to anybody.

28. Jesus heard a voice saying: ‘Thou art my beloved son; 37. And he was in the wilderness forty days, tempted by
with thee I am well pleased.’ Jesus heard this voice during Satan; and he was with the wild beasts, and the angels
His ministered to him, Jesus was led into the wilderness by
A. baptism B. transfiguration A.The devil B. The Spirit
C. crucifixion D. ascension. C.Demons D.Angles

29. According to Herod, Jesus was John the Baptist raised 38. Which of the following instructions was given only to
from the dead because He the seventy and not to the twelve when Jesus sent His
A. was a prophet like one of the prophets disciples on missions?
B. was Elijah the prophet A. Wipe off the dust from their feet
C. had the powers of John at work in him B. Salute no one on the road
D. had become known. C. Take on bag
D. Go from house to house
30. When John sent his disciples to ask Jesus ‘Are you the
one who is to come….? 39. ‘But new wine must be put into fresh wine-skins.
Jesus immediate reaction was to A. Eating B. Drinking
A. cure many diseases C. Fasting D. Praying
B. ask them to tell John about his miracles
C. speak to the crowds concerning John 40. ‘Then render to Caesar the things that are Caesar’s and
D. ask the crowds what they went into the to God the things that are God’s
wilderness to see The above quotation teaches
A. Rejection of civil authority
31. ‘Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among B. Obedience to civil authority
men with whom he, is pleased!’ is usually referred to as C. Indifference to civil authority
A. The angles’ song B. David’s song D. Disobedience to civil authority
C. Shepherd’s song D. Luke’s song.
41. Who requested for the body of Jesus after His death?
32. ‘I tell you, not even in Israel have I found such faith.’ A. Nicodemus the Pharisee
This statement was made during the healing of the B. Simon of Cyrene
A. ten lepers B. paralytic C. Simon the disciple
C. blind man D. centurion’s D. Joseph of Arimathea
servant
42. ‘Did not our hearts burn within us while he talked to us
33. When they saw the man who had been possessed by …?
demons in his right mind, the Gerasrnse This expresses the regret of
A. fled the city for fear A. Peter’s audience at Pentecost
B. asked Jesus to depart from then B. The twelve after His arrest
C. asked Jesus, ‘what is your name?’ C. Cleopas and one other disciple
D. asked Jesus to stay on with the. D. Cornelius and his friends

34. One of the objectives, according to Mark, for which Jesus 43. Paul was accused of apparently being a preacher of
appointed the twelve, was for them to foreign divinities in Athens because he preached Jesus
A. love one another and the
B. make disciples of al the nations of the earth A. Cross B. Law
C. cast out demons C. Resurrection D. Second coming
D. denounce the hypocrisy of the Pharisees and 44. When Paul and Barnabas healed a cripple at Lystra, the
the Sadducess. people named them
A. Zeus and Hermes
35. ‘Get behind me, Satan! For you are not on the side of God, B. Seus nd Apollo
but of men.’ C. Jupiter and Mercury
The reason for this sharp rebuke was that the addressee D. Zeus and Mars
A. confessed that Jesus is the Christ.
B. wanted to dissuade Jesus from dying on the 45. Paul told the Athenians that they were very religious
cross because
C. desired to be the right hand of Christ A. Some of their poets said that men are the
D. wanted Jesus to worship him. offsprings of God
B. They dedicated an altar to the Unknown God
C. Their Epicurean and Stoic philosophers B. Believe in the Lord Jesus
always discussed religious issues C. Release us and wash our wounds
D. The city was full of idols and symbols of D. Trust in God and pray always
religious devotion
49. “Let it be known to you then that if this salvation of
46. The elders at Jerusalem advised Paul on his arrival in God has been sent to the Gentiles, they will listen”
the city to This implies that
A. Avoid the Jewish Christians A. The Gentiles will be more receptive to Christianity
B. Purify himself along with men under vows than the Jews
C. Join those in the temple for prayer and fasting B. The Jews have lost the opportunity of salvation f
D. Preach the good news orever
C. The gentiles are very understanding
47. ‘Do not be afraid, but speak and do not be silent; for I
D. Paul has completely lost hope in the Jews.
am with you, and no man shall attach you to harm you;
for I have many people in this city.’ 50. During the voyage to Rome, some people thought that
The city referred to was Paul was a god because
A. Corinth B. Ephesus A. He caused rain to fall
C. Athens D. Troas B. An angel appeared to him
C. He was not harmed by a viper
48. To the question of the Philippian Jailer, Men, what must D. He broke his chains easily.
I do to be saved? Paul replied,
A. Confess your sins and give alms

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1989

1. ‘Then the Lord God said, “It is not good that the man D. Zipporah and Pual
should be alone;…”
A. Assistant B. Woman 7. The Egyptian magicians were able to reproduce the
C. Helper D. Companion first three miracles done by Moses and Aaron, but the
fourth which they were unable perform was the plague
2. The first generation of mankind was destroyed in the of
great flood of water because of A. gnat from the dust B. frogs
A. corruption and violence C. swarm of bees D. locusts.
B. disobedience to the Torah
C. worship of idols 8. The possibility of crossing the Red Sea was seen by
D. immoral sex relationships. Israel as
A. God’s active presence in their midst
3. Which of the following is the sign of the covenant B. the miraculous power of Moses’ rod
between God and Abraham? C. a punishment of the Egyptians
A. The sprinking of blood on door posts D. a favour deserved by Israel.
B. Going to Jerusalem every year.
C. Keeping of the Passover 9. In Exodus 17 and Numbers 20, similar incidents of lack
D. Circumcision in the flesh of the foreskins. of water for the congregation are recorded. A significant
difference however, is that in Exodus 17, Moses is
4. God appeared to Jacob in a dream and Jacob made a vow commanded to
to A. strike the rock
A. return to his father’s house B. strike the rock twice
B. furnish the house of God C. speak to the rock
C. make Bethel his new home D. speak to the rock twice
D. pay tithe to God.

5. Joseph saw his sale by his brothers as God’s plan to 10. The only commandment which has a promise attached
enable him. it concerns
A. revenge on his brothers A. respecting parents
B. become the lord of Egypt B. keeping the Sabbath
C. become a father to Pharoah C. not taking the name of the Lord in vain
D. preserve life. D. not coveting our neighbour’s house.

6. The two Hebrew midwives instructed by Pharaoh to 11. ‘What is sweeter than honey?’
kill the Hebrew male babies at birth were ‘What is stronger than lion?’
A. Shipharah and Zipporah Who gave this riddle?
B. Puah and Miriam A. Joseph B. Solomon C. Samson D. Ahimelech
C. Shipharah and Puah
12. ‘Draw your sword and kill me, lest men say of me. “A C. he willingly changed his mind and returned to
woman killed him.” ’ his country
The speaker was D. fight broke out among his soldiers.
A. Sisera B. Samson C. Abimelech D. Ahimelech.
22. When the Chaldean army captured King Zedekiah, they
13. A famous prophetes who was also a judge in Israel was A. hung him on a tree
A. Hannah B. Sarah C. Peninah D. Deborah. B. slew his wives before his eyes
C. bound him in fetters
14. Gideon was also called Jerubbaal because he D. cut off his figures and toes
A. pulled down the altar of Baal and cut down
the Asherah beside it 23. ‘All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned
B. led the Israelites against the Midianites who every one to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him
were Baal Worshippers the inquity of us all.’
C. turned Israel away from Baal worship This messianic prophecy was made by
D. tested God. A. Jeremiah B. Amos C. Ezekiel D. Isaiah.

15. Joshua was full of the spirit of wisdom because 24. The vision of ‘dry bones’ teaches that
A. he did everything as the Lord had commanded A. there is life after death
him B. there will be a resurrection of the body
B. Moses had laid his hand upon him C. there will be a new creation
C. the Lord had promised to be with him as He D. exiled Israel will be restored.
was with Moses 25. Gilgamesh Epic is the Babylonian equivalent of the
D. he meditated on the book of the law day and biblical story of the
night. A. Patriarchs B. creation C. fall D. flood.
16. ‘My little finger is thicker than my father’s loins’ means 26. To whom was the birth of Jesus announced with a sign?
that in comparison with his father A. An angle of the Lord
A. reign more wisely B. be more lenient B. The shepherds
C. be harsher D. be more just. C. Herod the Great
17. What portion have we in David? D. The wise men
We have no inheritance in the son of jesse. 27. The central message of John the Baptist in the Jordan
To your tents, O Israel!…. region was about a baptism.
This declaration marked the end of A. with water B. with the Holy Spirit
A. monarchy in Israel C. of forgiveness D. of repentance
B. united kingdom in Israel
C. confederacy in Israel 28. Jesus heard a voice saying: ‘Thou art my beloved son;
D. divided kingdom in Israel with thee I am well pleased.’
Jesus heard this voice during His
18. The incident which inspired King Josiah to undertake a A. baptism B. transfiguration C. crucifixion
reform was the D. ascension.
A. prophecy of Huldah the prophetess
B. scarifies of Hilkiah the priest 29. According to Herod, Jesus was John the Baptist raised
C. discovery of the book of the law from the dead because He
D. preparation of the passover. A. was a prophet like one of the prophets
B. was Elijah the prophet
19. ‘Seek good, and not evil that you may live; and so the C. had the powers of John at work in him
Lord, the God of hosts, will be with you have said…’ D. had become known.
Which prophet gave this advice?
A. Hosea B. Amos C. Isaiah D. Jeremiah 30. When John sent his disciples to ask Jesus ‘Are you
the one who is to come...?
20. And at the time of the offering of the oblation, the Jesus immediate reaction was to
prophet came near and said, ‘… O Lord, answer me, A. cure many diseases
that this people may know that thou, O Lord, art God, B. ask them to tell John about his miracles
and that thou had turned their hearts back.’ C. speak to the crowds concerning John
What happened after this prayer? D. ask the crowds what they went into the
A. There was heavy rain wilderness to see
B. There was thunder and lightning
31. ‘Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among
C. There was a strong wing
men with whom he, is pleased!’ is usually referred to as
D. The fire of the Lord fell.
A. The angles’ song B. David’s song
21. One of the reasons why Sennacherib could not enter C. Shepherd’s song D. Luke’s song.
Jerusalem and conquer it as he did to Samaria was that
A. his god told him to return home from his camp 32. ‘I tell you, not even in Israel have I found such faith.’
B. thousand of his soldiers miraculously died This statement was made during the healing of the
overnight A. ten lepers B. paralytic
C. blind man D. centurion’s B. Simon of Cyrene
servant. C. Symon the disciple
D. Joseph of Arimathea.
33. When they saw the man who had been possessed by
demons in his right mind, the Gerasenes 42. ‘Did not our hearts burn within us while he talked to us
A. fled the city for fear ...?’ This expresses the regret of
B. asked Jesus to depart from then A. Peter’s audience at Pentecost
C. asked Jesus, ‘what is your name?’ B. the twelve after His arrest
D. asked Jesus to stay on with the. C. Cleopas and one other disciple
D. Cornelius and his friends.
34. One of the objectives, according to Mark, for which
Jesus appointed the twelve, was for them to 43. Paul was accused of apparently being a preacher of
A. love one another foreign divinities in Athens because he preached Jesus
B. make disciples of al the nations of the earth and the
C. cast out demons A. cross B. law C. resurrection D. second coming.
D. denounce the hypocrisy of the Pharisees and 44. When Paul and Barnabas healed a cripple at Lystra, the
the Sadducess. people named them
35. ‘Get behind me, Satan! For you are not on the side of A. Zeus and Hermes
God, but of men.’ B. Zeus and Apollo
The reason for this sharp rebuke was that the addressee C. Jupiter and Mercury
A. confessed that Jesus is the Christ. D. Zeus and Mars.
B. wanted to dissuade Jesus from dying on the 45. Paul told the Atheniasn that they were very religious
cross because
C. desired to be the right hand of Christ A. some of their poets said that men are the
D. wanted Jesus to worship him. offsprings of God.
36. From the Parable of the friend at midnight we learn that B. they deidcated an altar to the Unknown God.
A. we should always make our requests even at C. their Epicurean and Stoic philosophers always
midnight discussed religious issues.
B. we cannot receive anything from God if we D. the city was full of idols and symbols of
don’t ask religious devotion.
C. an evil father will always give good gifts to 46. The elders at Jerusalem advised Paul on his arrival in
his children the city to
D. the heavenly Father will always give the Holy A. avoid the Jewish Christians
Spirit to anybody. B. purify himself along with men under vows
37. And he was in the wilderness forty days, tempted by C. join those in the temple for prayer and fasting
Satan; and he was with the wild beasts; and the angels D. preach the good news.
ministered to him. 47. ‘Do not be afraid, but speak and do not be silent; for I
Jesus was led into the wilderness by am with you, and no man shall attack you to harm you;
A. the devil B. the Spirit C. demons D. angels. for I have many people in this city.’
38. Which of the following instructions was given only to A. Corinth B. Ephesus C. Athens D. Troas.
the seventy and not to the twelve when Jesus sent His
disciples on missions? 48. To the question of the Philippian Jailer, ‘Men, what
A. Wipe off the dust from their feet must I do to be saved? Paul replied,
B. Salute no one on the road A. confess your sins and give alms
C. Take no bag B. believe in the Lord Jesus
D. go from house to house. C. release us and wash our wounds
D. trust in God and pray always.
39. ‘But new wine must be put into fresh wine-skins.
What issues was raised to which this statement was a 49. “Let it be kown to you then that if this salvation of God
response? has been sent to the Gentiles, they will listen.”
A. Eating B. Drinking C. Fasting D. Praying. This imples that
A. the Gentiles will be more receptive to
40. ‘Then render to Ceasar the things that are Ceaser’s and Christianity than the Jews
to God the things that are God’s.’ B. the Jews have lost the opportunity of salvation
The above quotation teaches forever.
A. rejection of civil authority C. the Gentiles are very understanding
B. obedience to civil authority D. Paul has completely lost hope in the Jews.
C. indifference to civil authority
D. disobedience to civil authority. 50. During the voyage to Rome, some people thought that
Paul was a god because
41. Who requested for the body of Jesus after His death? A. he caused rain to fall
A. Nicodemus the Pharisee B. an angel appeared to him
C. he was not harmed by a viper
CHRISTIAN
D. RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1990
he broke his chains easily.

1. “Be fruitful and multiply ...” C. The lamb should be eaten boiled with its head,
. This statement occurs first in Genesis following the legs and inner parts.
creation of D. It should not be eaten in haste.
A. day and night
B. the earth and the seas 10. Before God met with Israel at Mount Sinai, Moses
C. living creatures and birds charged his people not to
D. Adam and Eve A. go near the mountain
B. go near a woman
2. “… Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his C. tremble at the sight of smoke
blood be shed; for God made man in his own image…” D. tremble at the sound of thunder.
The above passage explains the
A. origin of blood revenge 11. “It is not the sound of shouting for victory, or the sound
B. prohibition of suicide of the cry of defeat, but the sound of singing that I
C. importance of blood hear.”
D. disapproval of violence A. consecration of the Israelites at Mount Sinai
B. crossing of the Red Sea
3. The four promises of God to Abram were land, C. fall of Jericho
A. Greatness, riches and blessings D. worship of a god.
B. Fame, circumcision and many descendants
C. Many descendant, greatness and medium of 12. In order to stay alive, anyone who was bitten by the
blessings fiery serpent had to
D. Greatness, salvation and blessings. A. touch the bronze serpent
B. make a bronze serpent
4. “God has made laughter for me; every-one who hears C. kill a serpent
will laugh over me.” D. look at the bronze serpent
This statement was made at the birth of
A. Ishmael B. Isaac C. Esau D. Samuel 13. “… As I was with Moses, so I will be with you I will not
fail you or forsake you…”
5. The main point emphasized in the story of Joseph’s In the above passage, God addresses
treatment of his brothers in Egypt was that A. the spies B. Joshua C. Aaron D. Gideon.
A. God’s design for anybody cannot be stopped
B. it is good to forgive one’s enemies 14. The cities of the Amorites were completely devastated
C. one should test any old enemy before trusting by Israel through the combined forces of
him A. plague, hailstone and sword
D. wrongful action weakens the valiant. B. plague, panic and hailstone
C. panic hailstone and sword
6. “Put off your shoes from feet; for the place where you D. panic, plague and sword.
stand is holy.”Where was this statement made?
A. Mount Horeb B. Mount Sinai 15. In which of the Philistine citied did Samson carry away
C. Jericho D. Gilgal on his shoulder, the doors, posts and bar of the city
gate?
7. When the Israelites were caught between Pharaoh’s A. Ashdod B. Askelon C. Gath D. Gaza.
army and the Red Sea, God instructed Moses to
A. command the sea to be divided 16 The king that reigned in Samaria during the prophecies
B. throw his rod into the sea of Amos and Hosea was
C. strike the sea twice A. Jeroboam, the son of Nebat
D. stretch out his hand over the sea B. Jeroboam, the son of Joash
C. Ahab, the son of Omri
8. “Who is the Lord that I should heed his voice and let D. Jehoash, the son of Jeohaz.
Israel go? I do not know the Lord, and moreover I will
not let Israel go.” 17. The kink who disguised himself when he traveled to
A. He increased their burden Romoth-gilead was
B. He killed their male children A. Ahijah B. Jehu C. Abah D. David.
C. He hesitatingly released them
D. He appealed to them to stay in Egypt. 18. Which of the following kings built the city of Samaria?
A. Jeroboam II B. Ahab C. Omri D. Rehoboam
9. Which of the following is a condition for the eating of
the Passover? 19. The theme of Amos’s prophecies centres on the
A. A fatted lamb should be taken from among A. holiness of God
The sheep or goat B. jealousy of God
B. Anything that remained until morning should C. righteousness of God
be burnt D. punishment of evil
20. The event which ultimately led to the destruction of 29. “… Rob no one by violence or by false accusation, and
the Northern Kingdom was the invasion of be content with your wages.”
A. Syria by Assyria and Judah A. scribes B. multitudes C. soldiers
B. Jerusalem by Syria and Israel D. tax collectors.
C. Damascus by Judah and Syria
D. Assyria by Israel and Judah 30. “… The heaven was opened, and the Holy Spirit
descended upon him in bodily form, as a dove, and a
21. What was king Hezehiah’s reaction to the letter of threat voice came..”
from the Assyrian king? A. being baptized B. praying to God
A. He spread it before God in the temple and C. at the Transfiguration D. in the temple
prayed
B. He sent for his fellow kings to come and assist 31. James and John caused the other disciple of Jesus to
him be angry because they
C. He summoned his soldiers to fight the A. did not go with the others on the missionary
Assyrians journey
D. He sent to the prophets for advice B. asked for a special favour to sit with Jesus in
22. Manasseh did what was evil in the sight of the Lord glory
because he C. were Lazy
A. married foreign women D. deflected to join the disciples of John the
B. persecuted the prophets of Yahweh Baptist
C. encourage idol worship
D. waged wars against the people of God. 32. What is the significance of Jesus allowing His disciples
to take certain things and not others on their missionary
23. Who was the last king of Judah that suffered at the journey to the evangelist?
hands of Nebuchadnezzar, king of Babylon? A. Adequate material and spiritual preparation
A. Jehoiakim B. Manasseh C. Jehoiachin should be made for the work
D. Zedekiah B. He should depend on his audience for every
need
24. The image of jealousy which Ezekiel saw was the C. He should have absolute confidence in the
A. fornication among the Israelites sufficiency of God
B. worship of Baal in the land of Israel D. He should not leave a place where he is not
C. abomination in the temple received without placing a curse on the people
D. destruction of the temple.
33. …” Moses and Elijah, who appeared in glory and spoke
25. What reason did the people around Jerusalem give for of his departure…
wanting to assist the returned exiles in rebuilding the A. return of Jesus ot Capernaum
temple? B. return of Jesus to Nazareth
A. They shared the same geographical location C. ascension of Jesus into Heaven
with the jews D. crucifixion of Jesus in Jerusalem
B. They themselves were Jews by descent
C. They were commanded to do so by king Cyrus 34. Jesus pronounced ‘woe’ on the rich during the sermon
of Persia. on the plain because they
D. They also worshipped the same God as the A. loved money more than God
B. were oppressive
26. Jeremiah’s vision of the rod of almond was meant to C. had receive their reward on earth
symbolize that God D. were proud.
A. would protect Jeremiah at all times
B. would confirm His word through Jeremiah 35. In the parable of the sower, the seeds that fell on the
C. would send evil from the North upon the people rock represent people who
D. had appointed Jeremiah as a prophet before A. believed for a short while and later fell away
his birth B. resisted the good news
C. believed and were later enticed by riches
27. “Behold, this child is set for the fall and rising of many D. were drawn away by ambitions.
in Israel, …”
A. few Israelites would be save 36. “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
B. no Israelite would be saved A. keep the commandments and surrender his
C. all Israelites would be saved wealth
D. many Israelites would be saved B. keep the commandments and pay tithe
C. repent and believe the gospel
28. ‘… Did you not know that I must be in my Father’s D. do to others as he wished other to do to him
house?
A. The Publicans 37. “Go your way; your faith has made you well”.
B. The Sadducees This statement was addressed to
C. Joseph and Mary A. Bartimaeus
D. The Lawyers and Pharisees. B. the Centurion
C. the Paralytic
D. the woman with the Issue of blood C. the Apostles, Paul and Barnabas were here
ordained priests
38. The disciples could not cast out the dumb spirit D. Paul and Barnabas were here confirmed
because Christians and the first Apostles.
A. it was stubborn
B. they were not familiar with that particular spirit 45. The reason for the first Apostolic Council in Jerusalem
C. they had not been fasting was that
D. it could only be driven out by prayer A. Paul’s Apostleship was in dispute
B. circumcision was enjoined on the Gentile
39. Which of the following did NOT believe in the convertsas necessary for salvation
resurrection of the dead? C. the Gentiles were discriminated against at the
A. The Essenes B. The Herodians fellowship meals
C. The Pharisees D. The Sadducees. D. the widows of Hellenistic Jews were
discriminated against in the daily ministration,
40. The Holy week starts with the 46. Before the Areopagus, Paul declared that the Unknown
A. Transfiguration God was
B. Cleaning of the temple A. indeed the creator of all
C. Triumphal entry B. truly a fake deity
D. Baptism of Jesus C. spiritually
D. a manifestation of the human mind
41. Where did Jesus go after His triumphal entry into
Jerusalem? 47. Owing to the uproar in Jerusalem, the tribune ordered
A. Bethphage Paul to be examined by scourging, but changed his
B. Bethany mind when he discovered that Paul was
C. Jerusalem A. an Innocent man B. a Roman Citizen
D. Nazareth C. a Pharisee D. a Jew

42. Pilate delivered Jesus to be crucified because he 48. When Paul and his companions were ship-wrecked,
A. wished to satisfy the crowd the soldiers planned to kill the prisoners but the
B. feared Caesar centurion prevented them because
C. found Him guilty A. they were Roman Citizens
D. was afraid of the chief priests B. they would have to account for them
C. te wanted to save Paul’s life
43. The two disciples on the way to Emmaus recognized D. it was not lawful to kill
Jesus
A. while He was teaching 49. “… You shall indeed hear but never understand and
B. before they go to the village you shall indeed see but never perceive.”
C. when they got to Jerusalem To which prophet did Paul attribute this saying?
D. at the breaking of bread while at table A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah
C. Joel D. Ezekiel
44. “Then after fasting and praying, they laid their hands
on them and sent them off. 50. On arrival in Rome, Paul first addressed
The significance of the laying on the hands in this A. Caesar’s household
passage is that B. the Gentiles
A. the Church under the guidance of the Holy C. the Roman Council
Spirit initiated the missionary work of Paul and Barnabas D. the Jewish Council
B. the teachers’ and prophets’ hand conferred
authority on Paul and Barnabas

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1991

1. “I heard the sound of thee in the garden, and I was C. send out the dove
afraid, because I was naked; and I hid myself.” The D. remain in the ark.
question that immediately followed this statement was
A. “What is this that you have done?” 3. “. . . Let peoples serve you, and nations bow down to
B “Who told you that you that you are naked?” you . . .” This statement was made by
C. “Where are you?” A. God B. Abraham C. Jacob D. Isaac
D. “Have you eaten of the tree of which I 4. “This lad is gone; and where shall I go?” Which of
commanded you not to eat?” Joseph’s brothers uttered these words?
A Benjamin B. Judah C. Reuben D. Simeon.
2. One of the rules given to Noah after the flood was that
he should 5. Pharaoh oppressed the Israelites because
A. cultivate the land A. he feared that they might join his enemies to fight
B. not to eat the flesh with its blood him
B. they continued to give birth to male children
C. the midwives did not kill the children at birth B. she was childless
D. he did not know Jacob and Joseph. C. she was a second wife
D. she was young.
6. “... The LORD will fight for you, and you have only to
16. Who was unfaithful to her husband as Israel was to
be still...” The Lord fought for the people of Israel on
God?
the occasion referred to in the statement by
A. Gomer B. Rahab C. Jezebel D. Lo-ruhamah.
A. drowning the Egyptian army in the Red Sea
B. opening a chasm in the earth and swallowing
17. “... To your tents O Israel!” This was a signal for
their enemies
A. war B. plebiscite C. rebellion D. truce.
C. raining fire and brimstone on their enemies
D. raining hail and stones on their enemies.
18. “As the Lord God of Israel lives, before whom I stand,
there shall be neither dew nor rain those years except
7. When Moses delayed to come down from the mountain,
by my words.” Who was the Israelites king during the
the Israelites
period of the drought?
A. murmured against God and Moses
A. Omri B. Ahab C. Jeroboam I D. Jeroboam II.
B. decided to go back to Egypt
C. went up to look for him 19. When Elishah received the message about Benhadad’s
D. asked Aaron to make gods for them iII-health, the prophet wept because
A. Benhadad was his friend
8. Moses could not enter the promised Land because he B. Benhadad would not recover from the sickness
A. was too old to cross the border C. Hazael would not succeed him
B. was too busy preparing his successor D. Hazael would be cruel to Israel.
C. did not give due regard to God
D. died in the wilderness 20. “... Incline thy ear, O Lord, and hear, open thy eyes, O
Lord, and see; and hear the words of Sennacherib,
9. Moses consecrated Joshua as the new leader of Israel
which he has sent to mock the living God ...”This was the
in the presence of
prayer of
A. Aaron B. Eleazar C. Zadok D. Mariam.
A. Josiah B. Isaiah C. Rabshakeh D. Hezekiah.
10. “All that you have commanded us we will do, and wherever
21. “...Behold, I am bringing upon Jerusalem and Judah
you send us we will go. Just as we obeyed Moses in all
such evil that the ears of every one who hears of it will
things, so we will obey you ...” This pledge was made
tingle ...” The above was said because of the sins of
to Joshua by the
A. Josiah B. Manasseh C. Amon D. Zedekiah.
A. Reubenites, the Gadites and part of the tribe
Manasseh 22. Saul initially desired to kill David because
B. twelve tribes of Israel A. David became very popular after killing Goliath
C. two spies sent to Jericho B. David wanted to overthrow him
D. seventy elders C. David married Michal and befriended Jonathan
D. Saul was tormented by an evil spirit.
11. Rahab the harlot assisted the Israelites spies as they
prepared to attack 23. God revealed to Solomon that the kingdo would be
A. Ai B. Gideon C. Jericho divided after him because he
D. the five kings of the Ammorites. A. had many wives
B. over-taxed and enslaved the people
12. “Out of the eater came something to eat. Out of the C. was too extravagant
strong came something sweet.” This riddle was D. worshipped other gods.
explained first to Samson’s
24. “In the year that king Uzziah died, I saw the Lord sitting
A. parent-in-law B. wife C. parents D. friends.
upon a throne, high and lifted up; and His train filled
the temple.” Which prophet is associated with this
13. For offending God, the Israelites were delivered into
vision?
the power of Midian for
A. Amos B. Hosea C. Isaiah D. Jeremiah.
A. seven years B. nine years
C. twelve years D. fifteen years. 25. King Herod granted the request of the daughter of Herodias
by beheading John the Baptist because
14. Gideon was able to defeat the Midianites with a reduced A. the King was impressed by the way she
number of soldiers because he danced
A. was a good fighter B. John the Baptist opposed the king’s
B. was a prudent warrior love affairs with Herodias
C. had better weapons C. Herod was bound by oath and personal
D. had faith in God integrity
D. Herod was anxious to see John the Baptist
15. Elkannah would give Hannah only one portion of the
dead.
sacrifice because
A. he loved her
26. Which of the following is NOT a condition for being a 36. “.. . For the Son of man also came not to be served but
disciple of Jesus? to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.”
A. Having a good knowledge of the scriptures This statement was made by Jesus
B. Self denial A. after healing two blind men near Jericho
C. Taking up of the cross daily B. immediately before he told the parable of the
D. Confessing Jesus. householder
C. during the discussion that followed the
27. According to Mark’s Gospel, the first miracle of Jesus
request of the sons of Zebedee
was
D. as he was foretelling his crucifixion and
A. healing a leper
resurrection.
B. opening the eyes of a blind man
C. healing a man with an unclean spirit
37. Herod was very glad to see Jesus at the trial because
D. raising a dead boy to life.
A. John the Baptist spoke to him about Jesus
28. When the disciples thought that the kingdom of God was B. he believed that Jesus was the Messiah
to appear immediately, Jesus told them the parable of the C. he hoped to see Jesus perform some miracles
A. great banquet B. prodigal son D. the quarrel between Herod and Pilate was
C. pounds D. vineyard. settled on account of Jesus.

29. The miracle which Jesus performed on the Sabbath was 38. “Blessed is the King who comes in the name of the
the healing of the Lord! Peace in heaven and glory in the highest!” This
A. Gerasene demonic B. paralytic verse is connected with
C. epileptic boy D. man with A. the birth of Jesus.
withered hand. B. Jesus’ triumphant entry into Jerusalem
C. the resurrection of Jesus Christ
30. Peace makers are blessed because they shall
D. the song of the disciples after the Last Supper.
A. obtain peace of mind
B. see God
39. According to Mark, the people who saw where Jesus
C. inherit the earth
was laid were Mary Magdalene and
D. be called the sons of God
A. Mary the mother of Jesus
31. “He who hears you hears me, and he who rejects you B. Mary the mother of James
rejects me, ...” The above statement was addressed to C. Joanna
A. the 12 whom he sent out to preach D. Salome
B. all the disciples, just before the Ascension
C. the 70 whom he sent out to preach 40. The message of the risen Christ to the woman who
D. all the disciples during the Sermon on the came early to the tomb was to be relayed to the disciples
Mount. and to
A. the Jews B. the Sadduccees
32. “A great Prophet has arisen among us! and God had visited
C. Thomas D. Peter.
his people. “These statements were made during the
A. healing of the Centurion’s slave
41. “I have no silver and gold, but I give you what I have;
B. raising of the son of the widow of Nain
in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, walk.” This
C. raising of Tabitha
was said by Peter to a lame man
D. raising of Lazarus.
A. at the pool called Bethsaida
33. Jesus gave the sign of Jonah to the Pharisees to indicate
B. carried by four friends
his
C. at the gate called Beautiful
A. three-fold office as Prophet, Priest and King
D. who was also blind.
B. transfiguration and glorification
C. messianic role
42. The immediate cause of the stoning of Stephen was his
D. death and resurrection.
A. condemnation of the Jews
34. The Jews asked Jesus whether they should pay their B. declaration of Jesus as the Righteous One
tax or not because they wanted to C. condemnation of the Jewish rite of
A. entrap him in is talk circumcision
B. praise his teaching D. claiming to see Jesus at the right hand of God.
C. help him and his disciples to pay taxes
D. evade paying taxes. 43. “But when they recognized that he was a Jew, for about
two hours they all with one voice cried out, “Great is
35. Jesus began to teach his disciples about his suffering,
Artemis of the Ephesians!” Who was the Jew alluded to
rejection, crucifixion and resurrection after
here?
A. the Transfiguration
A. Paul B. Alexander C. Gaius D. Aristarchus.
B. the healing of the blind Bartimaeus
C. Peter’s Confession
44. Saul and Barnabas were sent on their mission by the
D. the encounter at Gethsemane
A. church at Antioch
B. apostles at Jerusalem
C. church at Tarsus D. advised to do so by the elders.
D. Christians in Rome.
48. During Paul’s trial by the Tribunal, he brought a division
45. The Jerusalem Council sent a group of four, with a letter between the Pharisees and Sadduccees by mentioning
to Antioch. At the end of their mission, which of the the issue of
following remained behind in Antioch? A. the Resurrection
A. Judas and Silas B. faith in God through Jesus
B. Silas and Paul C. the miracle of God
C. Paul and Barnabas D. the judgment
D. Barnabas and Judas
49. On the Island of Malta, Paul healed a man who was
46. “They have beaten us publicly, uncondemned, men A. born blind
who are Roman citizens, and have thrown us into B. deaf and dumb
prison; and do they now cast us out secretly?. . .” This C. lame from birth
experience of Paul was in D. sick with dysentery.
A. Athens B. Jerusalem C. Philippi D. Caesarea.
50. “Your blood is upon your heads! I am innocent. From
47. Paul purified himself in the Temple after the third missionary now on I will go to the Gentiles.” The above statement
journey because he was was made by
A. unclean A. Jesus B. Paul C. Peter D. James.
B. under vow
C. afraid of the Jews

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1992

1. What was upon the face of the deep on the first day of C. an influential prisoner
creation? D. the second in command of Pharaoh,
A. Light B. Cloud C. Water D. Darkness
8. The children of Israel cried out to God for help in Egypt
2. “Let there be lights I the firmament of the heavens to because
separated the day from the night …” A. their male children were killed
This statement was made by God on the B. they were hungry and overworked
A. third day B. fourth day C. they were in bondage
C. fifth day D. sixth day D. Moses failed to look after them.,

3. The story of the Fall teaches that 9. “What is this we have done, that we have let Israel go
A. man was made in the image of God from serving us?”
B. it is a sin to disobey God The above statement was made by
C. Adam was less guilty than Eve A. the Egyptian soldiers
D. God created man naked. B. the Egyptian magicians
C. the Cananites in the wilderness
4. ‘On that day all the fountains of the great deep burst D. Pharaoh and his servants.
forth and the windows of the heavens were opened.
The result of this was a 10. The manna which the Israelites left till the morning in
A. great earthquake B. heavy rainfall disobedience to God.
C. consuming fire D. violent wind. A. bred worms and changed colour
B. melted and bred worms
5. “Who would have said to Abraham that Sarah would C. bred worms and became foul
suckle children?…” D. melted and became foul,
A. Ishmael B. Sarah
C. God D. Hagar. 11 God gave the ten commandments to the people of
Israel because He
6. The quotation, “Let me not look upon the death of the A. is a jealous God
child” comes form the story about B. wanted their days to be long
A. Solomon and the two harlots C. redeemed them from slavery in Egypt
B. the expulsion of Hagar and Ishmael D. frowned at those who took His Name in
C. Moses when he was placed on the bank of the Nile vain.
D. Bathsheba and David’s illegitimate child.
12. “…Choose this day whom you will serve, … as for me
7. Joseph’s dream about his future leadership of his and my house, we will serve the LORD.”
brothers was fulfilled when he became The Israelites’ response to the above statement is ‘…we
A. an overseer of Potiphar’s house A. also will serve the LORD, for He is our God’
B. an interpreter of dreams B. cannot serve the LORD, for He is a holy God’
C. will serve the LORD though He is a jealous
God’ 22. According to the birth and infancy narratives in St.
D. cannot put away the foreign gods among us Matthew, the angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a
because our fathers served them’. dream three times. In the second appearance, he instructed
Joseph to
13. God’s anger was kindled against Eli and his children A. accept that Mary was a virgin
because Eli did not B. expect a baby boy
A. train his children in the way of the LORD C. go into exile D. return form exile.
B. warn his children against sin
C. apply appropriate sanctions on his children 23, “Lord, now lettest thou thy servant depart in peace,
when due according to thy word; for mine eyes have seen thy
D. know the gravity of their actions. salvation …”
This was said at the dedication of Jesus by
14. The prophets whom Saul met at Gibeath-elohim a A. Anna B. the high priest C. Simeon
confirmation that the LORD had anointed him D. Zechariah
to rule over God’s people, were
A. false prophets B. ecstatic prophets 24. “You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the
C. court prophets D. classical prophets wrath to come?
A. Pharisees and the Sadducees
15. While David was being anointed king, he received B. Pharisees and the Scribes
A. a protest from Saul C. Sadducees and the Lawyers
B. the promise of eternal reign D. Zealots and the Herodians
C. a gift from Samuel
D. the Spirit of the LORD. 25. The second temptation of Jesus according to Luke’s
account of the gospel was
16. Against whom were the Israelites fighting when King A. giving the kingdoms of the world to Jesus if
David committed adultery with Uriah’s wife? he would worship the devil
A. The Amorites B. The Ammonites B. a command for a stone to become bread
C. The Hittites D. The Syrians C. jumping down from the pinnacle of the temple
D. denying the name of God, the Father,
17. According to Psalm 51, the sacrifice acceptable to God is.
A. a clean heart 26. What did Christ say should be the qualification of whoever
B. obedience was to be first or great among the apostles?
C. a lamb without blemish A. Being baptized with Christ’s baptism
D. a broken spirit B. Being a slave of all
C. Giving one’s life as a ransom
18. Solomon could devote his attention to the building of D. Drinking from the same cup as Jesus,
the house of the LORD because
A. of the supplies from the Queen of Sheba 27. A would-be disciple, who puts his hand to the plough
B of Hiram’s co-operation and looks back, lacks
C. there was neither adversary nor misfortune A. faith B. kindness C. repentance
D. of David’s purchase of the site for the building. D. total commitment.

19. The immediate cause of the division of the kingdom 28. In which miracle story was Jesus mistaken for a ghost
was by his disciples?
A. Rehoboam’s foolishness A. The feeding of the five thousand
B. Solomon’s bad government B. Calming of the storm and sea
C. Prophet Ahijah’s instigation C. Healing the demoniac
D. Jeroboam’s rebellion. D. Walking on the sea.

20. “Arise go to Zarephath, which belongs to Sidon, and 29. According to Luke, the healing of the paralytic was
dwell there. Behold, I have commanded a widow there intended to show that
to feed you”. A. God alone can forgive sins
What exactly necessitated this event? B. Jesus has authority to forgive sins
A. The drought caused by Elijah’s curse C. the Holy Spirit makes intercession for sinners
B. Ahab’s evil in the sight of the LORD D. faith and prayer can heal.
C. The ravens ceased to feed Elijah
D Elijah’s fight from Ahab. 30. “…I adjure you by God, do not torment me, …” what is
the significance of this statement?
21. “Blessed be the Lord God of Israel, …” is a hymn of A. The demons wanted to reach an agreement
praise by with Jesus.
A. the Virgin Mary at the Annunciation B. The demons wanted to reach an agreement
B. Zachariah at the birth of John the Baptist with Jesus.
C. Simeon at the presentation of Jesus in the C. It is a recognition of the fact that demons
Temple are subject to Jesus.
D. Elizabeth at the visit of Mary. D. It shows that demons hate Jesus.
31. The story of the healing of blind Bartimaeus teaches D. daughters of Jerusalem
that
A. prayer is very basic to healing 4.0 What was the first statement of Jesus on the cross according
B. there is need to persistently shout for to Luke’s account of the gospel?
attention A. ‘It is finished.’
C. Jesus is the Son of David B. ‘Today you shall be with me in paradise.’
D. faith is a pre-requisite to healing, C. ‘Father forgive them for they do not know
what they do.’
32. The parable of the prodigal son emphasizes that D. ‘I thirst.’

A. it is not good for the son and the father to 41. Very early in the morning, on the first day of the week,
quarrel three women went to the tomb of Jesus to
B. repentance and reconciliation are A. see whether He had risen
important B. decorate it
C. the father loves the second son more than the C. anoint the body of Jesus
first D. see whether the soldiers had carried the body
D. the first son was jealous. away.

33. According to Matthew’s account of the gospel, the 42. “…Let all the house of Israel therefore know assuredly
most important divine requirement for entering the that God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus
kingdom of heaven is whom you crucified…”
A. preaching the gospel As a reaction to this declaration, the Jews
B. doing the will of God A. decided to kill Peter and the apostles
C. practicing charity B. went back to their houses in anger
D. performing miracles. C. were deeply troubled and asked what they should
do
34. After their mission, the seventy disciplines reported to D. ridiculed Peter and the apostles.
Jesus that
A. many people repented 43. “…You have not lied to men but to God”
B. they enjoyed the hospitality of people The immediate effect of this statement of Peter on the
C. they were honoured and respected liar was that he
D. demons were subject to them in His name A. became afraid
B. became ill
C. fell down dead
35 The appearance of Moses and Elijah at the transfiguration D. repented and was forgiven ,
underscores the importance in the ministry of Jesus of
A. prophets and apostles 44. The apostles created a new office in the ministry besides
B. the law and the prophets prayer and preaching, in order to address the problems of
C. the Spirit and the word A. Injustice B. false prophecy
D. judges and kings C. incest D. adultery

36. “This is my beloved Son; listen to him”. ‘This was said 45. Saul’s encounter with the Risen Christ on the road to
on the occasion of Jesus’ Damascus convinced him that
A. baptism B. temptation A. he needed salvation
C. transfiguration D. resurrection him. B. Jesus is the Son of God
C. the faith of his father was right
37. “…My house shall be a house of prayer; but you have D. he should have gone to Damascus with more
made it a den of robber” armed escort.
Just before making this statement, the speaker
A. locked up the temple 46. When Saul escaped from Damascus to Jerusalem after
B. taught in the temple his conversion, the disciples in Jerusalem
C. drove out those who sold in the temple A. welcomed him
D. went out of the temple. B. were afraid of him
C. were indifferent towards him
38. Which of the following questions did the high priest D. were full of sympathy for him
ask Jesus during His trial?
A. ‘Are you the Christ, the son of the Blessed?’ 47. Paul and Barnabas were referred to as ‘gods’ in Lystra
B. ‘Are you greater than Solomon?’ because they
C. ‘Are you the King of the Jews?’ A. were agents of the unknown God
D. ‘Are you the Son of David?’ B. silenced Elymas the magician
C. healed a crippled man
39. “…Do not weep for me, but weep for yourselves and D. proclaimed the gospel with power.
for your children…:
These words were addressed by Jesus to the 48. “... Abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and
A. sons of Jerusalem from blood and from what is strangled and from
B. men of Bethlehem unchastity...”To which issue was the above a response?
C. women of Bethlehem A. Immoral behaviour
B. Circumcision controversy 50. According to Paul, which of the following is the
C. Idol worship greatest?
D. Demon possession. A. Truth B. Love C. Faith D. Hope

49. “... I am a Pharisee, a son of Pharisees; with respect to

the hope and resurrection of the dead I am on trial.”
This was part of the address of Paul to
A. the Jerusalem crowd
B. King Agrippa and Festus
C. the Sanhedrin
D. the tribune.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1993

1. According to the creation account of Genesis 1, C. believed in Moses
God charged man to D. made a golden calf.
A. rest on the Sabbath day
B. worship Him 8. The golden calf which Aaron made for the people of
C. have dominion over all the earth Israel signified
D. obey all His commandments. A. a return to the gods of Egypt.
B. the final break with the god that brought
2. “Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his them out of Egypt.
blood be shed; for God made man in his own image.” C. the beginning of idolatry in Israel
This statement explains the D. the end of Moses’ leadership of the people
of Israel.
A. existence of blood revenge 9. During the giving of the law at Mount Sinai, the
B. significance of blood Israelites wanted Moses to speak to them instead of
C. disapproval of violence God because
D. prohibition of blood revenge. A. the people were afraid and trembled
B. they thought they would die
3. When God told Abraham that Sarah would have a child, C. they did not consecrate themselves
Abraham laughed because D. Moses was their spokesman.
A. Hagar prompted him
B. his wife Sarah laughed 10. Where did Joshua gather all the tribes of Israel for
C. they were too old to have a child presentation before God?
D. he already had a child called Ishmael. A. Shechem B. Dan C. Sinai D. Shiloh
4. After Jacob’s dream at Bethel, he promised that he would 11. The valley of Eshcol is symbolic to Israel because it
A. continue to live there forever was the place where
B. give a tenth of all he would have to God A. Moses and his people had a resounding
C. return immediately and settle there with his victory over the Amalekites
family B. the men of Israel cut down the cluster of
D. go to his father’s house in peace. grapes
C. the spies set out to survey Canaan
5. Why did Judah advise his brother against shedding the D. the Israelites challenged the leadership of
blood of Joseph? Moses and Aaron.
A. He was afraid of blood
B. Joseph was their brother 12. The report brought by the men who followed Caleb to
C. Blood is life spy the land of Canaan showed that the land
D. He wanted to raise some money by selling Joseph. A. was desolate
B. had rich fruits
6. Why did God redeem the Israelites from the hands of C. devoured its inhabitants
Pharaoh? D. flowed with milk and honey
A. God remembered His covenant with Abraham,
Isaac and Jacob. 13. The Shema emphasizes the
B. They yoke of the Israelites was heavy A. unity of God
C. God wanted to show His power to Pharaoh B. had rich fruits
D. He wanted to show that Moses was powerful C. omnipotence of God
D. importance of Israel to the world,
7. When the people of Israel saw the great work of the
LORD in drowning the Egyptians, they 14. “The LORD give you children by this woman for the
A. built an altar to the LORD loan which she lent to the LORD;…”
B. became afraid of Moses rod. A. Samuel B. Isaac C. Samson D. Ishmael
15. A good example of parental upbringing is manifested in D. appreciate the sufferings of man.
the son of 26. One important fact about Mary brought out in Jesus
A. Samuel B. Eli C. David D. Asa. miracle of changing water to wine was that she
A. attended marriage feasts regularly
16. The leadership potential of David was demonstrated B. must intercede for a miracle to occur
publicly for the first time when he C. was a sister of the bridegroom
A. was anointed by Samuel D. had a deep insight of her son and His ability.
B. killed Goliath, the Philistine giant
C. spared King Saul’s life into he cave 27. The raising of Lazarus illustrates that Jesus
D. killed two hundred Philistines. A. loved Mary and Martha
B. was a good friend of Lazarus
18. Although David refused to kill Saul because he was
C. is the giver of life
the LORD’S anointed, he still believed that
D. was a person of emotion
A. Saul would be killed by the Philistines
B. Saul would one day repent 28. “Lord, do not trouble yourself, for I am not worthy to
C. the LORD would eventually smite Saul have you come under my roof, …”
D. Saul’s soldiers would cause him to die in The continuation of this message by the centurion
battle., indicated that
A. he was afraid of Jesus
19. “Blessed be you, my son David! You will do many B. he had faith in the power of Jesus’ word
things and will succeed in them”, the above C. as a Gentile, he did not like the Jews
statement was made when David D. as an army officer, he wanted to avoid contact
A. spared Saul’s life with Jesus.
B. was blessed by his father
C. met Saul on Mount Gillboa 29. The epileptic boy could not be healed by the disciples
D. encountered Abner. because
A. they had not ye received power
20. Solomon asked God for wisdom to enable him B. the disease was incurable
A. live a long life C. their prayers were not intensive enough
B. deal decisively with his enemies D. they had to wait for Jesus
C. acquire wealth and power
Questions 30 an 31 are based on the Sermon on the Plain.
D. discern what was right.
30. The poor in spirit are promised
21. The consequence of Rehoboam’s unwise decision at
A. plenty of food B .the kingdom of God
the time the Israelites came to him at Shechem
C. the earth D. satisfaction.
eventually resulted in
A. a rebellion
31. Those that are hated and reviled shall
B. a war
A. have a great reward in heaven
C. his overthrow
B. See God
D. his fight from Jerusalem
C. be called sons of god
22. The new covenant which God was to make with the D. receive mercy.
house of Israel was that it would be
A. written upon their hearts 32. Jesus’ objective for sending out the twelve was
B. for the tribe of Judah alone A. for them to teach the Gentiles about the God
C. the means of Judah alone of the Jews
D. everlasting. B. to train the disciples in His ministry
C. to demonstrate that He was about to be
23. According to Luke, John the Baptist instructed the crucified
multitudes that came to be baptized to D. to divert the attention of Herod from Himself.
A. flee from the coming wrath
B. bear fruits that befit repentance 33. Who appeared and talked with Jesus during the
C. be charitable to one another transfiguration?
D. give thanks for being Abraham’s children. A. Moses and Elijah B. Moses and Samuel
C. Samuel and Elisha D. Elisha and Elijah
24. “Go and search diligently for the child, and when you
have found him bring me word,…” 34. “Great us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your
The intention of the speaker in this context was to left, in your glory…”
A. pay homage to the Lord Jesus Why was this request by the sons of Zebedee not
B. kill all the children in the area granted?
C. present gifts to the child A. They were not qualified for the privilege
D. kill the child. B. The other disciplines disagreed with them
C. They were unable to drink the cup
25. Jesus was tempted in the wilderness in order to D. It was not the duty of Jesus to grant their
A. proved that He was the Son of God request.
B. prepare Him for His earthly ministry
C. prepare Him for His crucifixion 35. Where did Jesus lodge after he cleansed the temple?
A. Jerusalem B. Bethphage C. Nazareth D. A. are like a noisy gong
Bethany B. are like a clanging cymbal
C. gain only the world
36. At the trials of Jesus, Pilate was perplexed because D. gain nothing
A. the Jews had no genuine case against Him
B. Jesus gave no answer to the charges 44. “Now the company of those who believed were of one
C. the Jews asked for the release of hart and soul…”
Barabbas, a notorious criminal This reveals that the early Christians
D. he knew that Jesus had performed many A. had everything in common
miracles among the Jews., B. prayed together every hour
C. celebrated the Holy Communion daily
37. Why did the accusers of Jesus stay behind while He D. were always filled with the Holy Spirit.
was led to the Praetorium?
A. It was forbidden to follow the accused 45. The suggestion to choose the seven deacons was made
B. They were prevented from entering by
C. It was a Sabbath day A. Paul B. Peter C. the twelve D. the church
D. They did not want to be defiled.
46. “And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I
38. Who was forced to carry the cross behind Jesus? will pour out my Spirit upon all flesh, and your sons
A. Peter B. Joseph of Arimathea and your daughters shall prophesy, and you’re your
C. Andrew D. Simon of Cyrene, men shall see visions…”This prophecy was fulfilled
A. during the baptism of Jesus
39. “Truly I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise”. B. at Pentecost
A. Zacchaeus B. the repentant robber C. during the Transfiguration
C. the centurion D. Cleopas. D. at His crucifixion.
40. According to Luke, the people who first got to Jesus’ 47. But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has
tomb were come upon you, and you shall be my witnesses in
A. Mary the mother of Jesus, Peter and John Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria and to the end
B. Peter and Joanna of the earth.
C. Mary Magdalene and the other women This statement commissions the apostles to
D. Peter and John. A. establish the church in Jewish cities
41. Jesus Christ, the Good Shepherd was loved by the B. preach only to the Jews
Father because He C. carry the gospel to all continents
A. understood the needs of the sheep D. preach to the Gentiles in and outside Palestine
B. loved the sheep
C. tended the sheep 48. Who was sent by God to restore Saul’s sight after his
D. laid down His life for the sheep. encounter with Jesus on the road to Damasus?
A. Simon B. Stephen C. Aeneas D. Ananias.
42. Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life: he
who believes in me, though he die, yet shall he live, 49. “Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to
and whoever lives and believes in me shall never die…” which I have called them
On what occasion was this statement made? This statement was made by the
A. On the day of Jesus resurrection A. Holy Spirit B. Church C. elders D. apostles.
B. When Jesus demonstrated the fact of His
resurrection to Thomas 50. Following his encounter with the apostles, the 80 ruler
C. On the day Jesus restored Lazarus back of Cyprus
to life A. dismissed them
D. When Jairus daughter was raised from the B. became blind for resisting the gospel
dead. C. requested that they choose another time to
43. According to Paul, if we give away all that we and we preach the gospel
deliver our bodies to be burnt, but have not love we D. believed the gospel.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1994

3. Naboth did not agree to release his vineyard to Ahab
1. When Elijah escaped to the brook Cherith, he was fed because
by A. the amount offered for it was too small
A. angels B. doves C. ravens D. sparrows,
B. it was his major source of income
C. it was his only vineyard
2. The contest on Mount Caronel was to prove that
D. it was the inheritance of his fathers.
A. Baal was the god of Israel
B. Baal controlled nature
4. What did Gehazi deceitful receive from Naaman?
C. God was supreme to other gods A. two talents of silver and two festal garments
D. Israel had faith in God B. two talents of silver and two shekels of gold
C. two festal garments and two talents of gold 14. Selling the needy for a pair of shoes in Amos means
D. two thousand shekels and two festal garments. A. exchanging the needy for shoes
B. equating human beings with material things
5. The greatest achievement of King Josiah of Judah was C. trade by barter
his D. oppressing the needy.
A. rebuilding the Temple
B. sweeping reforms of the religious life of his 15. ‘Thus says the LORD: “For three transgressions of
people Israel and for four, I will not revoke the punishment…”.
C. curtailing the Assyrian aggressions In the latter part of this prophecy, Amos condemned
D. training a worthy successor before his death. Israel for
A. not remembering the covenant of
6. Jerusalem fell in 586 B.C. to the Babylonian King called brotherhood
A. Nebuchadnezzar B. Nabopolassa B. fighting and destroying Gilead
C. Asshurbanapal D. Psammetichus I. C. completely neglecting social justice
D. rejecting the laws and statutes of the LORD.
7. And the King (Artaxerxes) said to me, “Why is your
face sad, seeing you are not sick? This is nothing else 16. From Hosea’s teaching, we learn that God
but sadness of the heat” Why was the addressee sad? A. will pour His Spirit on all flesh
A. The condition of Jerusalem was deplorable B. will create a new heart in His people
B. He was fasting because of Jerusalem C. prefers steadfast love to sacrifice
C. Enemies of Jerusalem were laughing at him D. prefers steadfast love to sacrifice
D. He was in exile in Babylon.
17. The central theme of Isaiah’s teachings is that
8. Although Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego were cast A. no sinner can be saved
into the Fiery furnace, King Nebuchadnezzar was B. every sinner will be saved
astonished to see four men in the furnace. He said the C. no sinner is beyond redemption
fourth man was like D. the vilest sinner will not be redeemed,
A. a prophet B. an angel of the LORD 18. “Whom shall I send, and who will go for us? Then I
C. a son of the gods D. a priest said,” Here am I! Send me.”
Why did Isaiah offer himself to be God’s messenger
9. In the belly of the fish Jonah prayed to God to A. Because the king had died and he needed
A. punish the people of Nineveh another job
B. forgive him B. Having been cleansed of his sins, he saw the
C. stop the tempest need to warn others.
D. deliver him. C. Because he had seen the beauty of heaven
and wanted to work for God
10. The sins of Nineveh notwithstanding, God spared the D. There were no other prophets
inhabitants because
A. Jonah was reluctant to deliver the message to 19. Who, according to Ezekiel, did the exiles blame for their
them plight
B. the people responded positively to God’s A. Moses and Aaron B. The Egyptians
mercy C. Their fathers D. Their enemies.
C. Nineveh was made up of a large population
which did not know its right from its left 20. God told Jeremiah that He would give Jerusalem into
D. Nineveh was a great and prosperous city with the hands of the Chaldeans because the Israelites
one hundred and twenty thousand A. had provoked God to anger
inhabitants. B. were few in number
C. did not prepare adequately for war
11. Daniel was distinguished above all other satraps and D. were engaged in merry-making
presidents because he
A. worshipped only one God 21. The expression ‘dry bones’ in Ezekiel refers to
B. had an excellent spirit in him A. an Israelite proverb
C. refused to worship the golden image B. the whole house of Israel
D. interpreted the king’s dream. C. the slain in the valley
D. sinful Israelites and Judeans,
12. Daniel could not be harmed by the lions because
A. an angel shut the mouths of the lions 22. According to Paul, the law and the prophets bear
B. The lions were not hungry witness to the
C. a pillar of cloud separated Daniel from the lions A. righteousness of God
D. Daniel understood their language. B. covenant with Israel
C. crucifixion of Christ
13. The Israelites did evil in the eyes of the LORD in the D. wickedness of the Jews
days of the Judges by
A. serving the Philistines 23. According to Paul in his Letter to the Galatians, one is
B. practicing human sacrifice justified by
C. marrying the Canaanites A. works of the law
D. serving the Baals.
B. faith in Jesus Christ 33. There are varieties of gifts and so different people have
C. love for the neighbour different gifts. Who gives all these gifts?
D. love for God. A. Angels B. The Holy Spirit
C. The apostles D. The disciplines,
24. The function of the law to believers before the coming
of Christ was that of a 34. The overriding principle in the use of spiritual gifts is
A. custodian B. Judge C. servant D. father. A. decency and order B. growth and power
C. faith and love D. Zeal and power
25. Justification by grace shows that work is
A. not required for salvation 35. For the administration of the churches, Paul directed
B. complementary to grace that Christians should
C. the primary requisite for salvation A. surrender all they have to the church
D. opposed to salvation. B. regularly contribute to the church
C. donate when it is convenient
26. All Christians who have been baptized into Christ Jesus D. live a communal life.
were baptized
A. Into his death B. by fire 36. Contribution of relief materials for the needy in the
C. under the law D. by his church according to Paul, must be
disciples A. enforced
B. specified
27. In what way did God condemn sin in the flesh? C. with cheerfulness
A. He allowed Jesus to be crucified D. witnessed by two other Christians.
B. Repentance was made possible for the
forgiveness of sin 37. Paul teaches that we should obey governing authorities
C. Resurrection of the flesh rendered sin in order to avoid
ineffective A. imprisonment and execution
D. He sent His own Son in the likeness of man. B. ridicule and punishment
28. ‘But you are not in darkness brethren, for that day to C. unemployment and hunger
surprise you like a thief. That ‘day’ refers to the D. God’s wrath and a bad conscience,
A. Pentecost B. resurrection of Christ
C. coming of the LORD D. ascension 38. When Paul says if anyone will not work, let him not eat,
he is saying that
29. The main aim of the teaching of Christ’s humility in A. the unemployed should not eat
Paul’s Letter to the Philippians is that every Christian B. the lazy person must eat only a little
should C. everyone should toil and labour with his hands
A. regard himself as equal to Jesus because He D. every person should seek lucrative job.
came in human form
B. confess that Jesus Christ is LORD to the 39. Paul worked harder than any of the apostles because
glory of God the Father A. he had the strength to do so
C. work out his own salvation with fear and B. of the grace of God that was with him
trembling C. Jesus personally revealed Himself to him
D. look into the interest of others and do nothing D. he was formerly a persecutor of the
from selfishness. church.

30. According to Paul’s Letter to the Philippians, God 40. Christian wives are to be subject to their husbands
exalted Jesus and gave Him a name which is above all A. since their husbands take care of them
names because He B because it is fitting in the LORD
A. was His Son C. because it is the natural thing to do
B. was humble and obedient unto death D. since women are not expected to be heard.
C. never committed any sin
D. was the greatest man ever born. 41. On being revealed at the coming of Christ, the lawless
will be slain by the
31. In the Letter to the Galatians, Christians are encouraged A. sword of God B. gospel message
to bear one another’s burdens in order to C. Power from aboveD. breath of His
A. enter the kingdom to God mouth,
B. be children of God
C. be rewarded in heaven 42. An important feature of the second coming of Jesus as
D. fulfill the law of Christ. taught by Paul is the
A. outbreak of a world war
32. ‘Be angry but do not sin means that anger B. establishment of a world government under
A. is not a serious sin Christ
B. it is not a sin at all C. reign of the lawless one
C. is an unforgivable sin D. resurrection of the dead
D. Could be an occasion for sin.
43. ‘What you sow does not come to life unless it dies?
This statement refers to the
A. parable of the sower Who are the men of old mentioned as examples of faith
B. good works which are expected of the in the Letter to the Hebrews?
Christian A. Elijah, Ezekiel and Job
C. resurrection of dead B. Solomon, Rehoboam and Hezekiah
D. reward of the works of Christians. C. Amos, Hosea and Joel
D. Abel, Abraham and Rahab.
44. Paul’s experience as recorded in his second Letter to
the Corinthians, teaches that the attitude of Christians 48. According to James, effective prayer is that which is
to suffering should be that of offered
A. obedience B. perseverance A. loudly B. silently C. in faith D. with emotion.
C. rebellionD. rejection.
49. According to Peter, Christians living among non-Christians
45. In the Letter to the Hebrews, it is found that despite the should
victory through faith in God of the men of old, they did A. maintain good condition
not receive what was promised. What was this B. live like them
promise? C. be suspicious of them
A. Jesus Christ B. They Holy Spirit D. avoid them.
C. The Law D. Reward.
50. Peter enjoins Christians to be good citizens by
46. Abraham’s faith and works were better illustrated when A. using their freedom to fight for their right
he B. not taking part in politics
A. took lot with him to Canaan C. submitting to civil authorities
B. offered his son, Isaac, on the altar D. fighting non-Christians in the society.
C. parted ways with Lot
D. spoke with angels.

47. ‘Now faith is the assurance of things hoped fo ... For

by it the men of old received divine approval.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1995

1. “Let us make man in our image...” 7. When the Hebrews left Egypt, God did not lead them
In the statement above, ‘man’ refers to by the way of the land of the Philistines because
A. Eve B. Adam C. male D. male and female A. it was far from Canaan
B. He did not want them to see war and return to
2. In the covenant with Noah, God equates blood with Egypt
A. sacrifice B. life C. murder D. food C. He wanted to test their faith
D. the Hebrews went out of Egypt not equipped
3. The covenant with Abraham stipulates that an for war.
uncircumcised male shall
A. not marry in Israel 8. Samuel’s reaction during his first encounter with God
B. find it difficult to have a child showed that he was
C. not stand before the Lord A. inexperienced in dealing with God.
D. be cut off from his people B. curious
C. afraid of the voice he heard
4. Joseph was hated the more by his brothers because D. misinformed.
A. he was his father’s favourite
B. he was the first son of Rebecca 9. From the accounts in the First Book of Samuel, Eli’s
C. of his dreams attitude to his children showed parental
D. his father bought him a coat of many colours. A. control B. intolerance C. weakness D.
responsibility.
5. Pharaoh set Joseph over all the land of Egypt because he was
A. a man of vision 10. David demonstrated his submission to the will of God
B. compassionate and honest when he
C. discreet and wise A. lamented the death of Saul and Jonathan
D. of a high moral standard. B. prevented the killing of Saul
C. took Bathsheba as his wife
6. In the burning bush, God revealed Himself to Moses as D. received Abner in Hebron.
the God of
A. war B. peace C. deliverance D. fire 11. When David repented of his adultery with Bathsheba,
he said,
A. “I have done wrong...”
B. “I have sinned against the Lord” C. When Jesus fed the multitude
C. “Have mercy on me..” D. Following the invitation of Jesus to a meal by
D. “The man who has done this deserves to die...” a Pharisee.

12. “The Lord has set the sun in the heavens, but has said 22. “Follow me and leave the dead to bury their own dead”
that he would dwell in thick darkness...” By this statement, Jesus means that
A. law giving at mount sinai A. disciples should not attend burials
B. dedication of Solomon’s temple B. there is no life after death
C. crossing of the Red Sea C. following Him comes before anything else
D. ten plagues of Egypt. D. disciples should leave their families in God’s
care.
13. In the first three chapters of the Book of Hosea, his
main teaching is that 23. The disciples became terrified when they saw Jesus
A. one can marry a harlot walking on the sea because
B. God loves us despite our sins A. they thought He would drown
C. one should forgive others B. they thought He was a ghost
D. one should keep the commandments of God. C. they lacked faith
D. there was great storm in the sea.
14. The valley of Achor in the Book of Hosea is a door of
A. love B. hope C. peace D. wisdom. 24. By the miracle of raising Lazarus to life, Jesus wanted to
A. demonstrate His love for Lazarus
15. “Come, let us return to the Lord; for he has torn, that he B. reward Mary and Martha for their charity
may heal us; he has stricken, and I he will bind us up.” C. convince the people that He was the LORD of
This call is to encourage life
A. response to God’s love D. seek self-glorification.
B. concern for one’s nation
C. social justice and true religion 25. The Jews sought all the more to kill Jesus after the
D. response to the need of the nation. healing the man at the pool of Bethzatha because they
thought that He
16. With reference to prophet Isaiah vision, which of the A. claimed to have authority to forgive sins
following attributes must a minister of God possesss? B. made Himself equal with God
A. Dedication B. Knowledge C. Anointing C. did not agree with the law of Moses
D. Holiness. D. sid that He was born before Abraham.

17. What did God give to Ezekiel to eat in his vision? 26. In the gospel according to Matthew, the disciples could
A. Scroll B. bread C. Manna D. Burning coal. not heal the epileptic boy because
A. they had little faith
18. Jesus was baptized by John the Baptist B. they did not pray enough
A. to fulfil the prophecy about Him C. the boy’s father had no faith in them
B. so that the heavens could open up blessings D. Jesus was not present.
for all believers
C. to fulfil all righteousness 27. In the parable of the sower, the seed which fell on rocky
D. so that the Holy Spirit could descend upon ground refers to people whose conversion is
Him. A. Unfruitful B. genuine C. superficial D. lasting.

19. “Thou art my beloved Son; with thee I am well pleased.” 28. The parable of the lost sheep teaches much about God’s
This statement was made during the A. forgiveness B. love C. wisdom D. endurance.
A. transfiguration B. ascension
C. holy week D. baptism. 29. Turning the other cheek as preached by Jesus, implies
that believers should
20. According to the temptation narratives in the gospels A. never retaliate
according tto Matthew and Luke, Jesus overcame Satan B. retaliate proportionately
because He C. love one another
A. depended on the word of God D. love their enemies.
B. was too wise for Satan
C. knew Satan’s tactics 30. According to Matthew’s account of the gospel, Jesus
D. was the Son of God. charged the twelve disciples to give without pay
because they themselves
21. “Why does your teacher eat with tax collectors and A. were to be perfect
sinners? B. would be fed by others
On what occasion was this question asked?” C. would be repaid by God
A. Following the call of Matthew D. had freely received.
B. When Jesus ate in the house of Zacchaeus.
31. Which diciples were with Jesus during the 40. Who was the second martyr of the early church
transfiguration? A. James the brother of John
A. Peter, James and Andrew B. John the son of Zebedel
B. John, James and Philip C. James the Lord’s brother
C. Peter, Jmes and John D. Stephen.
D. Andrew, Thomas and John.
41. The Christian concept of Justification is that
32. Jesus wept over Jerusalem because
A. through faith in Jesus the sinner is now
A. the people did not believe in Him
regarded by God as guiltless
B. the city did not know the things that made for
B. by one’s efforts in keeping the law, man is now
peace
perfect before God
C. people were buyinh and selling in the temple
C. through his own knowledge, man can now do
D. the Pharisees and the priests had misled the
what is pleasing to God
people.
D. by his natural wisdom, a sinner could be
33. In the Gospel according to Luke, the multitude that reconciled to God.
followed Jesus during the triumphal entry rejoiced and
praised God with a loud voice because 42. According to Paul, those who rely on the works of the
A. they realized that Jesus was a prophet from law are under a curse since
Nazareth A. the law is made for the weak
B. of the mighty workds that they had seen done B. the law brings about salvation
by Jesus. C. none can fully keep the law
C. Jesus was for the first time riding on a colt D. the works of the law are of the devil.
D. they believed that Jesus would deliver them
from the hands of their enemies. 43. According to the Letter of Paul to the Roman, sin
reigned in death, while grace reigned through r
34. Jesus did not appeal to His Father for legions of angels ighteousness to
to fight for Him because A. salvation B. eternal life
A. it was not proper for angels to physically fight C. eternal peace D. eternal joy.
human beings.
B. He could, on His own, avoid the cross 44. Christians believe that they are children of God because
C. He wnted the scriptures to be fulffiled A. they keep the laws and covenants of Abraham
D. the disciples were watching and praying. as commanded by God.
B. they are church goers and benefactors
35. What did Pilate achieve by sending Jesus to Herod? C. they are descendants of Abraham Isaac and
A. He escaped the anger of the Jews Jacob
B. Jesus was not killed in his hands D. through faith, they were baptized into Christ
C. Herod and Pilate became friends and put on Christ.
D. He was able to pacify the Jews.
45. Christians ought to be humble because
36. Which of Jesus’ word on the cross led a bystander to A. the law commanded it abolutely
give him vinegar? B. Jesus Christ demonstrated it
A. “Father, forgive them; for they know not what C. It is a spiritual gift
they do.” D. only the humble will inherit eternal life.
B. “Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit.”
C. “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken 46. According to Paul, spiritual gifts, if properly employed,
me” help in
D. “It is finished.” A. attracting converts
B. hastening miracles
37. When Jesus said that Lazarus would rise again, Marhta C. identifying evil doers
thought that D. edifying the church.
A. Jesus would raise her brother from the dead
B. her brother would rise again at the last day 47. Paul advised Christians in Thessalonica to keep away
C. Jesus was talking of his own resurrection from any brother who is
D. He was talking of spiritual resurrection. A. living in sin
B. very stingy in giving
38. What kind of a man was elected to replace Judas Iscariot? C. living in idleness
A. A critic of the Jews D. not proclaining the gospel.
B. A co-witness of the resurrection
C. An opponent of the religious leaders
D. A supporter of religious liberty

39. The event of the day of Pentecost was prophsed by

A. Jonah B. Joel C. Jeremiah D. Micah.
48. The order of events at the second coming of Christ will 49. Which of the following commandments is described by
be that James as the royal law?
A. those who are alive will be caught up first A. You shall have no other gods before me
before the dead will rise. B. You shall love the Lord your God with all your
B. the dead will rise first before the living are heart.
cought up C. You shall love your neighbour as yourself.
C. the dead and the living will be caught up D. You shall not covet your neighbour’s property.
together
D. only the dead will rise leaving behind those 50. “If your enemy is hungry, feed him ...”
who are alive. This statement implies
A. vengeance B. kindness
C. forgiveness D. charity.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1997

1. In extolling the sovereignty of God, Amos contrasted This is a part of David’s Lamentation over
Him with the Nile, which he described as A. Abasalom B. Jonathan C. Abner D. Saul
A. rising and sinking
B. drying and flooding 9. The mother of the living child asked Solomon to give
C. the source of the waters of the sea the child to the other woman because
D. the source of Egypt’s power. A. killing the child would serve no useful purpose
B. her heart yearned for the child
2. By keeping God’s covenant, the people of Israel C. she was confident that the king would ensure
would become justice
A. the conquerors of nations D. she believed the child would recognize her at
B. a kingdom of priests to God maturity.
C. the inheritors of the earth 10. Hosea’s matrimonial experience symbolizes God’s intention
D. a nation where God would manifest Himself. to
A. reform Israel and make her greater
3. According to Jeremiah, the vital element in the new B. review his covenant with Israel
covenant God would make with the Jews was that C. discipline Israel for her infidelity
A. He would bless all nations through the Jews D. redeem Israel from her unfaithfulness
B. Man would be enable to keep God’s law
C. salvation would come through a virgin’s seed 11. The harlotry of Gomer is compared to Israel’s
D. the individual would be accountable before A. abandonment of the ephod
God. B. false n insincere sacrifices
C. oppression of the poor
4. Joseph saw his rise to leadership position in Egypt D. unfaithfulness to God.
in relation to his brothers as
A. a proof of his superiority over them 12. ‘Holy, holy, holy is the Lord of hosts; the whole earth
B. an opportunity to avenge their evil deeds is full of his glory.”’
C. a time to test their honesty A. Solomon dedicated the temple
D. a means of preserving their lives. B. Josiah completed his reformation
C. Uzzia of Judah died
5. ‘If you will go with me, I will go; but if you will not go D. David brought the ark to Jerusalem.
with me, I will not go.’’’
In the statement above, ‘you’ refers to 13 “Hear the word of the LORD, you rulers of Sodom! Give
A. God B. Balaam C. Deborah D. Jael. ear to the teaching of our God, you people of Gomorrah!
The nation referred to a Sodom and Gomorrah in the
6. The name Ichabod means statement above is
A. without glory B. unfolding glory A. Israel B. Judah C. Samaria D. Ephraim.
C. perpetual glory D. departed glory
14. Jeremiah was not anxious to accept God’s call to become
7. How did David perceive that his child from a prophet because
Bathsheba was dead? A. it was hazardous profession
A. Bathsheba Iamented the loss of her child. B. he knew that people would not listen to him
B. He saw his servants whispering together. C. he needed to know God more
C. He received a message to that effect from joab. D. he was too young and inexperienced.
D. God revealed it to him through Nathan.
15. The devil’s principal purpose for tempting Jesus Christ
8. ‘As one falls before the wicked you have fallen.’’ was to
A. show that nobody is above temptation 26. Jesus’ injunction not to lay up treasure on earth for
B. demonstrate that he controls the world ourselves implies that the Christian should
C. lure Jesus Christ from his mission A. not bank his money
D. prove that after all, Jesus is only human. B. give his money to charity
C. not be extravagant
16. ‘ Foxes have holes, and birds of the air have nest; but D. be rich in good works.
the son of man has nowhere to lay his head.”
The statement above implies that 27. The seventy disciples who returned from their
A. discipleship costs much missionary work were told by Jesus to rejoice because
B. the son of man need no house A. they were well received by people
C. church buildings are unnecessary B. the spirits were subject to them
D. suffering is inevitable in life. C. their names were written in heaven
D. they preached to many people.
17. According to Luke, following Jesus involves
A. confession B. self-denial 28. According to Matthew, when Jesus was transfigured
C. baptism D. daily prayers. A. his face shone like the sun
B. his body became as white as light
18. In the healing ministry of Jesus Christ, which of the C. he could only communicate with heaven
following played a very vital role? D. he saw Elisha and Moses.
A. Faith B. Patience C. Love D. Repentance.
29. According to Matthew, Jesus entered Jerusalem riding
19. Jesus healed the only son of the widow of Nain because A. a horse and a donkey
A. the crowd pleaded with him B. an ass and a horse
B. the widow demonstrated faith in Him C. a colt and a donkey
C. he had compassion on her D. an ass and a colt.
D. he wanted to make people believe in Him.
30. The prayer of Jesus before his arrest showed that
20. The healing of the paralytic brought by his four friends A. he was sorrowful and troubled
demonstrates B. his disciples had not understood his
A. the power of Jesus to heal all types of diseases thoroughly
B. that the friend had faith in the healing power C. he was not prepared to die on the cross
of Jesus D. he wanted his disciples to be prayerful.
C. the compassion of Jesus on the sick man
D. that Jesus has power to forgive sin. 31 “Are you the king of the Jews?
21. According to mark and Luke, the response of blind Jesus’ reply to the question above by Pilate was
Bartmaeus to healing was to A. “You have said so”
A. follow Jesus immediately B. “My kingship is not of this word
B. run to show himself to the priests C. “Who has made you a prince and a judge over
C. confess Jesus as a prophet us?”
D. speak to the Jew about Jesus D. “Why put me to the test, you hypocrites?”

22. The parable which teaches about God’s judgment is that 32. According to Matthew, when the women went to see
of the the sepulcher, the
A. sower B. lost sheep C. weeds D. mustard A. found that the disciples had been thee
seed. B. saw an angel sitting upon the stone
C. met Jesus on the way
23. The parable of the good Samaritan implies that D. found the guards rolling back the stone.
A. Samaritans always love their neighbours
B. Priests and Levites hardly show love 33. Jesus used the illustration of the vine to teach that a
C. neighbourliness is expressed in love and Christian that abides in Him will surely
concern A. be a good shepherd
D. a good neighbour must show love to his B. resurrect on the Last Day
enemies. C. be a bread of life
D. bear much fruit.
24. Luke ends the sermons on the plain with an analogy of
a building to emphasize the importance of 34. Two of the seven disciple chosen to serve tables in the
A. preaching and hearing the word early church were
B. hearing and obeying the word A. Parmenas and Timon
C. studying and doing the word B. Mathias and Cornelius
D. preaching and abiding by the word. C. Nathaniel and Philip
D. Stephen and Andrew
25. Jesus implies in His teaching on adultery, prayer, alms
and fasting that these are more of matters of 35. “Give me also this power, that any one on whom I lay
A. the heart my hands may receive the Holy Spirit”
B. individual interpretation A. very crafty B. money conscious
C. religious beliefs C. ignorant D. fraudulent.
D. social norms.
36. At the Beautiful Gate, Peter and John healed a man who A. removed from their midst
was B. punished severely
A. lame B. blind C. deaf D. dumb C. forgiven and comforted
D. made to confess his sins
37. The people referred to as pillars of the Jerusalem church,
who gave Barnabas and Paul the right hand of 44. The greatest spiritual gift to seek
fellowship were for is
A. Cephas, John and mark A. speaking in tongues
B. James, john and silas B. love
C. John, silas and Simon C. healing
D. James, Cephas and john. D. working of miracles.

38. The condition for justification according to Paul is 45. One of the civic responsibilities Christians are
A. merit and favour commanded to carry out is
B. possession of spiritual gifts A. honoring elders in the society
C. ability to keep God’s commandments B. maintaining holiness in life
D. faith in Christ crucified. C. obedience to lawful authority
D. observing the law faithfully.
39. On which of the following grounds will faith be null
and promise void? 46. In the course of his ministry, Paul worked night and
A. Faith is a necessary condition for justification. day so that
B. Believers saved through grace A. he might not be burden to any one
C. Salvation comes through adherence to the B. his followers might eat
law. C. he could raise money for the work of the gospel
D. Justification is by God’s grace D. he could pay the debt he was owing the
brethren.
40. According to the Letter of Paul to the Romans,
Christians are to yield themselves to God as men who 47. Those who have fallen asleep before the coming of the
A. have been raised from death to life lord are those
B. no longer live by the works of law A. sleeping naturally
C. receive baptism after circumcision B. dead physically
D. have listened to the gospel of Christ. C. dead spiritually
D. who are unfaithful
41. God sent His Son, Jesus Christ, into the world in the
likeness of sinful flesh in order 48. James enjoins Christians to remain impartial by
A. to destroy the law A. showing love to all without distinction
B. that the law might be fulfilled B. loving their neighbours as themselves
C. that man may walk in the flesh C. treating all brethren equally
D. to save the righteous D. giving everyone his due

42. “… at the name of Jesus every knee should bow… 49. According to James, the man who prays to God and at
every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord…” the same time doubts is
The statement above demonstrates the Lordship of A. ignorant of God’s purpose
Jesus over B. disobedient to God
A. Christians only C. double-minded
B. non-Christians only D. deceive by Satan.
C. all religious persons
D. all creation. 50. Peter admonishes Christian that suffering for Christ’s
sake brings God’s
43. Paul told the Corinthians that if any one has caused A. salvation B. blessing
pain to the church, he should be C. love D. righteousness

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1998

1. God made two great lights to 3. When God heard the groaning of the people of Israel in
A. shine upon the earth Egypt, He
B. rule the day and the night A. got angry with the Pharaoh
C. demarcate between the day and the night B. sent a warning to the Pharaoh
D. give light to the world. C. remembered His covenant with Abraham
D. plagued the Egyptians with drought.
2. God commanded the earth to bring forth living creatures
according to their kinds on the 4. The golden calf which Aaron made for Israel was an
A. 3rd day B. 4th day C. 5th day D. 6th day evidence of.
A. lack of faith in God
B. ‘loss of confidence in Moses 15. The would be disciple who wanted to go and bury his
C. a plot to replace Moses father before following Jesus was told that he
D. an attempt to revolt against God A. was not fit for the kingdom of God
5. “Is it because there are no graves in Egypt that you B. should go and proclaim the kingdom of God
have taken us away to die in the wilderness?” C. should go and build a house first
This question was asked by the Israelites when D. was filled with worldly desires
A. they were hungry in the wilderness
B. there was no water for them to drink 16. According to Matthew, the first two disciples to be
C. the spies brought evil reports about Canaan called by Jesus were
D. the Egyptains marched after them. A. Peter and Andrew B. Peter and John
C. James and John D. James and
6. God promised to send bread from heaven to the people Andrew
of Israel, so as to see if they would 17. Jesus had compassion for the five thousand people
A. walk in His law B. remain stubborn fed by Him because they were
C. return to Egypt D. feel satisified A. hungry but had no time to eat
B. like sheep without a shepherd
7. “Behold, I am about to do a thing in Israel, at which the C. strangers from the country and villages far
two ears of everyone that hears it will tingle”. away
A. Eli the priest D. poor and had no money to buy food
B. Samuel the prophet
C. Hophni and Phinehas 18. What was Jesus’ response when the message of
D. Joel and Abijah Lazarus’ illness reached Him?
A. He asked Mary and Martha to take care of him
8. Why did David spare the life of King Saul at Ziph? B. He said that the Son of God may be glorified
A. Saul was anointed by God by it.
B. Saul was a fellow Israelite C. He hurried to Bethany to see him.
C. He did not want to shed blood D. He instructed that he should be brought to
D. He was Saul’s son-in-law. Him.

9. Nathan told David that although God had put away his 19. At the country of the Gersenes, Jesus
sin, he would still be A. raised Jairus’ daughter from the dead
A. made to weep and fast B. healed the centurion’s servant
B. bereaved of the child C. raised the widow’s son from the dead
C. visited with plague D. healed the man who had demons.
D. required to make atonement.
20. The parable of the wheat and the tares illustrates that
10. The ark of the covenant brought before Israel and King A. the kingdom of God is already established on earth.
Solomon contained B. both good and evil live in the world
A. the rod of Moses C. it is impossible to overcome enemies
B. the image of a serpent D. the wheat cannot grow where there are weeds.
C. the law of Moses
D. two table of stone 21. Jesus’ teaching on swearing is that Christians should
A. not swear falsely
11. Hosea accused Israel of harlotry because B. swear when necessary
A. her daughters were cult prostitutes C. not swear at all
B. her men moved with harlots D. swear by the head.
C. the people worshipped other gods
D. the women ran after other husbands. 22. What blessing has Jesus promised the pure at heart?
A. They shall obtain mercy
12. Who among the following was consecrated and B. They shall see God
appointed prophet before he was born? C. The earth shall be theirs only
A. JoelB. Josiah C. Jeremiah D. Nehemia. D. They shall be comforted.

13. “Son of man stand upon your feet, and I will speak with 23. “The harvest is plentiful, but the labourers are few; ...”
you”. Jesus made the statement above during the
The statement above was made during the call of A. commissioning of the seventy others
A. Isaiah B. Hosea C. Samuel D. Ezekiel. B. mission of the twelve
C. sermon on the mount
14. Satan promised to give Jesus all the Kingdoms of the D. triumphal entry.
world if He would
A. turn stones to loaves of bread 24. “... Hosanna to the Son of David!...”
B. throw Hmself down from the pinnacle of the The statement above indicates Jesus’
temple A. power B. priesthood C. kingship D. exaltation.
C. bow down and worship him
D. perform a miracle. 25. With regard to the triumphal entry, which of the
following descriptions is peculiar to Luke?
A. People who followed cried hosanna.
B. The disciples were sent to bring the animal. C. God’s grace as a gift
C. People spread their garments on the road. D. Being at peace with God.
D. The disciples set Jesus on the animal.
36. According to Paul, what bear witness to the righteousness
26. According to Mattew, when Christ was arrested, He of God are
was led to A. faith and the law
A. Caiaphas B. Annas C. Pontius Pilate B. grace and saving gift
D. Herod the Great C. faith and the prophets
D. the law and the prophets
27. The conviction of Jesus by the high priest and the 37. The consequence of setting one’s mind on the things
elders was on the ground that He of the flesh is
A. uttered blasphemy A. poverty B. infertility C. death D. suffering.
B. healed on the Sabbath day
C. said He would destroy the temple 38. Paul admonished the Romans to live a new life in Christ
D. refused to obey Roman laws. by yielding themselves to God as men who
A. have been brought from death to life
28. In the account of John about the resurrection, Mary B. will receive judgment in the last days
was first asked why she was weeping by C. will meet Christ in God’s kingdom
A. Jesus B. two angles C. the guard D. Salome. D. have suffered for the sake of the gospel

29. “Lord, who knowest the hearts of all men. Show which 39. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a
one of these two thou has chosen to take the place. custodian;... Custodian here means the
From which Judas turned aside, ... A. Church B. law C. priest D. covenant.
Who were the two men referred to in the statement above?
A. Justus and Matthias 40. Paul, writing to the Philippians, said that God highly
B. Joseph and Barsabbas exalted Christ and bestowed on Him the name which is
C. Justus and Barsabbas above every name because He was
D. Joseph and Justus. A. both god and man
B. the Son of God
30. The criteria for the choice of the seven Deacons were C. obedient and humble
A. Wisdom and understanding D. the saviour of mankind
B. Good repute and being fill of the spirit
C. Good repute and knowledge 41. According to Paul, Christian should forgive one
D. Wisdom and knowledge another so that
A. Satan may not gain advantage over them
31. At Pentecost, Peter explained that God had promised B. their prayers may be heard
to pour out His Spirit on all C. God may forgive them
A. Gentiles B. the God fearing D. they may not perish in sin.
C. the believers D. flesh.
42. Spiritual gifts, according to Paul, should be used for
32. The resolution of the Jerusalem council was that the the
Gentiles should abstain from food offered to idols, A. upliftment of individuals in the church
A. unchastity, Iying and what is strangled B. edification of the Church
B. blood, what is strangled and strong drinks C. eradication of enimity among Christians
C. what is strangled, blood and unchastity D. uplifment of the community
D. Iying, unchastity and strong drinks.
43. Paul considered the Philippians’ gifts to him as
33. “Then in seemed good to the apostles and the elders,... A. a duty they owed him
to choose men from among them and send them to B. indispensable to his life
Antioch with Paul and Barnabas; C. an exhibition of Christian maturity and
A. Judas and Barsabbas generosity
B. John and James D. a fragrant offering and a sacrifice acceptable
C. Peter and Mark to God
D. Judas and Silas
44. ‘For rulers are not a terror to good conduct, but to
34. Peter and John were arrested and imprisoned because bad’.Christians, therefore, must do what is good and
they they would
A. healed a man lame from birth A. receive their approval
B. condemned the Pharisees and the Sadducees B. get a reward
C. cursed the high priest C. become servants of God
D. were preaching the gospel of Jesus D. be left alone to preach the Gospel

35. According to Roamans, all who have sinned and fallen 45. ‘Now we command you, brethren, in the name of our
short of the glory of God will be justified by Lord Jesus Christ, that you keep away from any brother
A. works of the law who is living in idleness...
B. the worship of God through Christ The Statement above was made to teach
A. Christian charity B. Justice 49. The importance of love in the teaching of Peter is that
C. dignity of labour D. humility. it
A. covers a multitude of sins
46. The second coming of Jesus Christ, according to Paul, B. brings together all believers in the community
will be preceded by the coming of C. takes one eternal life
A. Elijah the prophet D. extends to Christians only.
B. John the Baptist
C. the man of lawlessness 50. According to Peter, when the Chief Shepherded is
D. the man of righteousness manifested, Christians will
47. Is it not the rich who oppress you, is it not they who A. cast all their anxieties on Him
drag you into court? B. obtain eternal life
James asked his question in his teachings on C. be saved from their sins
A. humility B. impartiality C. loyalty D. obtain the unfading crown of glory.
D. citizenship

48. The wisdom of God is necessary for salvation, hence

James teaches that Christians should
A. ask for it when they can
B. endure all trials to get it
C. ask in faith to get it
D. claim it as a right.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1999

1. “Behold, I have given you every plant yielding seed 6. Deborah was a judge when Israel was under the yoke
which is upon the face of all the earth, and every tree of
with seed in its fruit; ...” A. Moab B. Midian C. Canaan D. Philistine.
In the statement above, God made all provision for man to
A. tend and preserve 7. When Jacob woke from sleep on his way to Haran, he
B. have enough food was afraid and named the place Bethel because he
C. make a beautiful garden believed that the
D. look at and admire A. place was a part of heaven
B. place had a ladder that led to heaven
2. God told Noah that ‘Whoever sheds the blood of man C. angels of the Lord lived there
by man, shall his blood be shed; ... because D. place was the gate of heaven.
A. man is made in God’s image
B. man is his brother’s keeper 8. God rejected the sons of Eli from being priest over His
C. blood is the life of man people because they were
D. man was the last creature. A. blasphemous and unrestrained
B. avaricious and fearful
3. What did God promise the Israelites after their rescue C. thieves and murderers
from Babylon to make them fear Him for ever? D. immoral and seditious.
A. A new heart and a new life
B. A new covenant and a new spirit 9. The final consequence of Saul’s disobedience to God
C. Prosperity and security was his
D. One heart and one way. A. defeat in battle
B. abandonment by his armour-bearer
4. The Lord appeared to Abraham and promised his C. dethronement by the people
descendants the land of the canaanites at D. death in the war front.
A. Mount Sinai
B. the Oaks of Mamre 10. God forgave David when he took Bathsheba, the wife
C. the Oak of Moreh of Uriah because
D. the Mountain east of Bethel. A. the child he had with her died
B. David accepted his guilt
5. When Joseph narrated his second dream, he was r C. David fasted and laid upon the ground
ebuked by Jacob because the dream would D. David was a man after God’s heart.
A. make his brothers all the more jealous
B. subject his parents to his authority 11. Abner sent messengers to David at Hebron because
C. make the family harvest sheaves he wanted to
D. send the family to Egypt as slaves. A. bring over all Israel to David
B. reconcile Ishbasheth with Judah
C. spy on Hebron and capture it later
D. reconcile David with Ishbosheth.
12. Where did the Lord appear to Solomon in a dream
A. Horeb B. Gibeon C. Gath D. Jericho 23. The vision of the dry bones of Ezekiel portrays
A. famine B. hope C. punishment D. judgement.
13. The division of David’s kingdom was a direct consequence
of 24. What was Peter’s reaction when he saw the great shoal
A. Absalom’s revolt of fish he and his partners caught?
B. Jeroboam’s revolt A. He felt very pleased
C. Solomon’s forced labour B. He was embarrassed
D. Rehoboam’s unwise decision C. He confessed being a sinner
D. He was greatly confused.
14. Naaman’s leprosy was transferred to Gehazi as a result
of 25. In the feeding of the five thousand, according to
A. the testimony of the maid of Israel Matthew, the first thing that Jesus did was to
B. Gehazi’s disobedience to God A. order the loaves and fish to be brought to Him
C. the gifts he received from Naaman B. break the loaves and fish brought to Him
D. the bathe Gehazi took in the river Jordan. C. look up to heaven and pray to God
D. give thanks to God and have the fish and
15. The prayer of Elijah is the name of God of Abraham, loaves shared.
Isaac and Jacob brought down fire from heaven which
A. killed all the prophets of Baal 26. Acording to John, the six stone jar of water which Jesus
B. destroyed the demonic spirits of Jezebel turned into wine were kept there for the
C. caused rain to fall immediately A. collection of drinking water
D. consumed the burnt offering. B. Miracle
C. Jewish rites of purification
16. The reforms of King Josiah were made possible by the D. wedding
A. discovery of book of law
B. encouragement he received from Hezekiah 27. When the man with an unclean spirit in the region of t
C. sacrifices he made to God he Gerasenes saw Jesus, he
D. destruction of the chariot Ahaz A. acknowledge Him as the son of the most High
God.
17. As Nehemiah embarked on reconstruction of Jerusalem, B. pleaded to be cast into the Abyss
he faced threats and opposition from C. requested to follow Him as a disciple
A. Lacrit Malchijah D. pleaded that a miracle be performed to cleanse
B. Artaxerxes and Darius him.
C. Shadrack and Abednego
D. Sanballat and Tobiah 28. “To you it has given to know the secrets of the kingdom
of heaven, but to them it has not been given ...” This
18. Amos told the Israelites that they have turned justice statement was made after Jesus had told the parable of
into the
A. injustice B. poison C. wormwood D. anguish. A. mustard seed B. sower
C. wheat and tares D. leaven
19. Hosea compared Judah’s love for the Lord to the
morning cloud because it 29. The parable of the lost sheep portrays the sheperd as
A. goes away early like the dew being
B. is a sincere love A. foolish B. patient C. careless D. loving.
C. goes up to God like a smoke
D. is a delicate love 30. “... Do not lay up for yourselves treasures on earth, ...”
This statement shows that Jesus
20. The attribute of God which Isaiah emphasize most is A. does not want Christians to be rich
His B. forbids worldly possessions by believers
A. goodness B. holiness C. love D. kindness C. wants Christians to seek first kingdom of God
D. regards poverty as a condition for the kingdom
21. ... even though you make prayers, I will not listen ... of God.
Why will God the Holy one of Israel not listen?
A. because they sacrifice with incense to Him 31. Jesus commissioned the twelve disciples charging them
B. because God detests their burnt offerings of to
rams A. go to all the world and preach
C. becuase their hands are full of blood B. go to the lost sheep of the house of Israel
D. because their new moon gift are a burden to C. receive hospitality and wages for their labour
Him. D. performed healing miracles among the
Samaritans.
22. How did God convince Jeremiah of his divine call?
A. He anointed him with oil 32. According to Mark, after Jesus had triumphantly
B. He spoke to him directly from heaven entered Jerusalem, He
C. He sent a prophet to inform him A. went first into the temple
D. He touched his mouth. B. went to Bethany with the twelve
C. wept over the city and prophesied its D. decent from Abraham.
destruction
D. addressed the Pharisees who had asked Him 41. According to Galatians, what makes all believers sons
to rebukes His to rebuke His disciples. of God is
A. the law B. faith in Christ Jesus
33. According to Matthew, the inscription over Jesus when C. faith in God D. righteousness of
he was crucified was God.
A. “This is the King of the Jews”
B. “The king of the Jews” 42. Speaking in tongue according to Paul, is where
C. “Jesus of Nazareth, the king of the Jews” A. there is one with the gift of interpretation
D. “This is Jesus king of the Jews”. B. the Holy Spirit is present during worship
C. there are apostles and evangelists
34. Which disciple asked Jesus, “Lord, we do not know D. those speaking in tongues are many.
where you are going; how can we know the way?”
A. Peter B. James C. Thomas D. John. 43. Paul says that anyone who does acts of mercy should
do so with
35. “... For he was numbered among us, and was alloted his A. zeal B. liberality C. faith D. cheerfulness.
share in this ministry...”
What hapen to the person referred to in the statement 44. Paul advises Christians to obey authorities because;
above? A. it could lead to salvation
A. He was crucified B. rulers want people to obey them
B. He committed suicide C. they have divine mandate
C. He abandoned the ministry D. they are God’s children.
D. He was taken into heaven
45. The second coming of Christ shall be recognized by:
36. The disciples in the early church chose the seven A. His arrival in Jerusalem
deacons inorder to B. a cry of command
A. solve the problem of murmuring by the C. earthquakes and wars, darkness on earth
Hellenites D. darkness on earth.
B. have adequate daily distribution of food
C. take proper care of the neglected widows 46. “And the dead in Christ will rise first; then we who are
D. devote themselves to prayer and teaching the alive, who are left, shall be caught up together with
world. them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air”
From the statement above, Paul’s belief was that he
37. The sound which came from heaven on the day of would;
Pentecost is likened to that of A. live to witness the second coming of Christ
A. a mighty wind B. a surging ocean B. have died before the second coming of Christ
C. cracking flames D. heavy thunder C. resurrect at the second coming of Christ
D. have been in paradise before the second
38. What were the major issues of controversy that led to coming.
the appearance of Paul and Barnabas before the Council
in Jerusalem? 47. According to James, whoever keeps the whole law but
A. Circumcision and food offered to idols fails in one point
B. Unchastity and the Law of Moses A. will be forgiven in heaven
C. Circumcision and the Law of Moses B. has become guilty of all of it
D. The Law of Moses and Pollution by idols. C. will be punished for a little while
D. must asks for forgiveness.
39. According to John, the distinctive quality of the
disciples of Jesus Christ is 48. James in his Epistle urged the brethren to count their
A. preaching the word of God trials as joy because the testing of their faith produces;
B. witnessing to unbelievers A. joy B. wisdom C. righteousness
C. laying down their lives for others D. steadfastness.
D. showing love to one another.
49. According to Peter, if a Christian suffers for his faith,
40. God has extended the promise He made to Abraham to he should not be
all those who share his faith based on A. ashamed B. worried C. blamed D. afraid.
A. righteousness of faith
B. observance of the law 50. Peter says that Chrisitan would put to silence the
C. the grace of God ignorance of foolish men by
A. preaching the resurrection
B. being humble
C. doing right
D. praying daily.
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 2000
1. Joseph called the name of his first born Manasseh, 10. Moses fled Egypt to the land of Midian because
meaning God has A. he was afraid that his crime would be made known
A. made him forget his hardship and his father’s house. B. Pharaoh wanted to kill him for the crime he had
B. made him fruitful in the land of his affliction. committed.
C. rescued him from the hands of Potiphar C. his countryman asked if he would also kill him
D. made him not to forget his brothers and his house D. he had killed an Egyptian and buried him in the
hold sand.

2. “…Now therefore lighten the hard service of your fa 11. The LORD sent Samuel to Saul to go and destroy the
ther upon us, and we will serve you.” This request was Amalekites because
made to Rehoboam because A. they opposed Isreal on their way out of Egypt
A. the people had another person in mind B. they were idolaters
B. the people wanted to test his wisdom C. they disobeyed God
C. of an impending revolt D. their land had been given to Isreal after the battle.
D. the people wanted some relief.
12. In the creation story, man was permitted to
3. “You are the man…’’ A. plant fruit trees for food
This statement by Nathan made David immediately B. water the garden
A. order him out of the palace C. make garments of skin
B. order the killing of the child D. name all the creatures.
C. confess and ask for forgiveness
D. abdicate his throne. 13. God instructed Moses on Mount Sinai to
A. speak to the rock B. strike the rock
4. One of the consequences of C. consecrate the people D. pray for the people.
Saul’s disobedience was that
A. the Philistines killed him 14. ‘’’…If it be so, our God whom we serve is able to deliver
B he killed himself us from the burning fiery furnance…’’’ The statement
C the Amalekites killed him above portrays Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego as
D his armour bearer killed him. A. men of faith B. disillusioned men
C. stub born men D. men with pride.
5. “…The Lord will fight for you, and you have only to be
still.” This statement was made by Moses when the 15. Prohet Ezekiel described the house of Isreal as having a
A. Egyptians were pursuing the Isrealites before the hard forehead and stubborn heart because the people
Red Sea. A. lacked confidence in him
B. Isrealitis were standing before Joshua B. refused to listen to him
C. Isrealites were standing before King Pharaoh. C. had taken God for granted
D. Isrealitis’ charious were crossing the Rea Sea. D. had endured suffering.

6. God told Solomon that He would surely tear the 16. ‘And the LORD God appointed a plant, and made it
kingdom from him and give it to his come up over Jonah…’ The statement above taught
A. son B. brother C.servant D. army commander. Jonah that
A. the repentance of the Ninevites would be short-
7. Why did Job kill Abner? lived
A. He wanted to avenge the death of his brother. B. God is sovereign
B. He feared that Abner would take over his post. C. his assignment would not last long
C. Abner only came to deceive David. D. God is merciful.
D. He was an enemy who came to spy on David.
17. “Why is your spirit so vexed that you eat no food?”
8. When God told Abraham that Sarah would have a child, The addressee was sad because
Abraham laughed because A. Naboth refused to give him his vineyard
A. he already had a child by Hagar B. he had an encounter with Elijah
B. his wife Sarah was barren C. his inheritance had been taken away
C. his wife was too old to have a child D. Jezebel refused to speak to him.
D. he was amused by the promise.
18. Isaiah teaches that the LORD wants His people to
9. In the beginning, God created the demonstrate holiness by
A. heavens and the earth A. observing religious festivals
B. animals and the birds B. offering more sacrifices
C. light and the darkness C. doing justice and not evil
D. water and the dry land.
D. honouring their father and mother. 30. When Jesus entered the temple in Jerusalem, He
19. One of the reforms of King Josiah was that A. contended with the scribes and the Pharisees.
A. he worshipped at the brook Kidron B. read from the book of Isaiah
B. he defiled Topheth in the valley of the sons of Hinnom. C. beat everyone that sold and bought
C. he allowed the worship of Asherah D. drove out all who sold and bought.
D. the priests were allowed to worship in the temple.
31. Jesus’ reply to the Devil’s command to throw Himself
20. The main lesson of Hosea’s teachings is that God down from the pinnacle of the temple was
A. will pour His spirit on all flesh. A“… Man shall not live by bread alone…”
B. accepts every free-will offering B. “… You shall not tempt the Lord your God.”
C. will create a new heart in His people C. ’’… You shall worship the Lord your God and Him
D. prefers steadfast love to sacrifice. only shall you serve.”
D. “He will give his angels charge of you.”
21. The reaction of Naaman to the instruction of Elisha
showed that he was 32. “Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” The
A. proud B. faithless C. ignorant D. stubborn. lawyer who asked this question wanted to
A. put Christ to the test. B. please the crowd
22. Daniel became distinguished above all other presidents C. prove his knowledge of the law D. condemn Christ.
and satraps because he
A. interpreted the king’s dreams 33. In the story of stilling the storm, the disciples were
B. refused to worship the golden calf. surprised because
C. worshipped only one God A. Jesus was deeply asleep in the boat while the
D. had an excellent spirit in him. storm raged
B. Jesus rebuked them for lack of faith
23. When Elijah escaped from Ahab to the brook Cherith, C. the wind and the sea obeyed Jesus
he was fed by D. the storm disturbed the boat even with Jesus in
A. angels B. ravens C. doves D. sparrows. it.

24. The man appointed by the Holy Ghost to go on the 34. In his reference to the events of the day of Pentecost,
missionary journey with Saul was Peter said that they were the fulfillment of the prophecy
A. Lucius B. Barnabas C. Peter D. Mark of
A. Jeremiah B. Joel C. Jonah D. Isaiah.
25. The mark of a true disciple according to Jesus Christ is
A. loving one another 35. “Yes, Lord; I believe that you are the Christ, the Son of
B. keeping the ten commandments God, He who is coming into the world.” The confession
C. knowing the word was made during the
D. fasting and praying. A. changing of water to wine
B. transfiguration of Jesus Christ
26. The main complaint of the Hellenists against the C. raising of Lazarus
brews in the early Church was that their D. healing of the epileptic boy.
A. men were neglected 36. Before Jesus raised Jairus’ daughter, the people mocked
B. widows were neglected Him because he
C. new converts were neglected A. told them that the girl was not dead but sleeping
D. children were neglected. B. rebuked them for weeping and mourning over the
dead
27. Peter, James and John were asked to keep their C. did not pray before performing the miracle
experience of the transfiguration secret until D. did not arrive at the place before the girl died.
A. the kingdom of God comes
B. they met the other disciples 37. When Bartimaeus wanted Jesus to heal him, he
C. they descended from the mount A. waited for Him by the roadside
D. the son of man is raised from the dead. B. requested to be led to Him.
C. expressed his faith in Him.
28. According to Jesus, every branch of tree that bears D. persistently cried out for help.
fruit, He would prune. Branch in this context refers to
A. man B. an angel C. the Jews D. the Gentiles. 38. The teachers of the law accused Jesus of blasphemy
because He
29. John declares that for a man to have eternal life he must A. claimed to have power to heal the sick
A. preach the gospel of Christ B. declared that He had authority to forgive sin
B. possess the Holy Spirit C. said sin was the cause of sickness
C. beat everyone that sold and bought D. called Himself Son of Man.
D. drove out all who sold and bought.
39. “Have nothing to do with that righteous man, for I have
suffered much over him today in a dream.” This state
ment was made by Pilate’s wife during 46. Paul declares in Romans that as by one man’s
A. the arrest of Jesus B. Jesus’ betrayal disobedience many were made sinners, by one man’s
C. Jesus’ trial D. Jesus’ crucifixion. obedience many will
A. be made righteous B. be made pure C. became
40. According to Jesus, believers who forgive the sins of steadfast in faith D. become loyal to God.
others will
A. enter the Kingdom of God B. be forgiven by God 47. According to James, the prayer of a righteous man
C. receive a crown of life. D. inherit the earth. A. can cleanse his sins B. has saving power
C. can move mountains D. has great power in its
41. In the parable of the wheat and the tares, the bad seed effects.
was sowed by the
A. Devil B. Scribes C. Pharisees D. Sadducees. 48. ‘…. the day of the Lord will come like a thief in the
night.’ The day of the Lord in the statement above
42. According to Paul, generosity produces. refers to the day of
A. righteousness B. thanksgiving to God C. salvation A. retribution B. repentance
D. the grace of God C. judgement D. tribulation.

43. ‘Is it not they who blasphem the honourable name which 49. Peter urges Christians to live as free men without
was invoked over you?’ According to James in the state necessarily using their freedom as a pretex for
ment above, they refers to the A. evil B. immorality
A. principalities B. needy C. authorities D. rich. C. greed D. partiality.

44. Paul reminded the Thessalonians that he did not eat 50. Those that have been baptized into Jesus Christ,
anyone’s bread without paying for it. This statement according to Paul, are
teaches. A. cleansed of their sins B baptized into His death
A. self respect B. creativityC. hardwork D. humility. C sanctified in Him D. baptized into the Christian fold.

45. According to Paul, he who loves his neighbour has

A. eternal life B. overcome all evils C. fulfilled the law.
D. peace with God.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 2001

1. What did Saul do after his defeat of the Amalekites: was made to King Saul by the
A. He set up a monument for himself A. Amalekites B. Philippines
B. He returned to Shiloh C. Hittites D. Ziphites
C. He offered sacrifices to god
D. He repented to his sins 5. ‘The LORD give you children by this woman. Eli
offered this prayer because of Hannah’s
2. “Let us flee from before Israel: for the Lord fights for A. love for the service
them…” the statement above was made by the B. loan of Samuel to the lord
Egyptian when C. desire for more children from GOD
A. Moses stretched out his hand over the sea D. faith in GOD
B. their chariots were clogged in the sea
C. the LORD drove the sea back by a strong 6. The river that flowed out of Eden to water the garden
east wind. divided and became four rivers namely
D. the angel of God stood between them and A. Nile, Pishon, Euphrates and Tigris
Hebrews B. Pishon, Tigris, Gihon and Nile
C. Gihon, Pishon, Tigris and Euphrates
3. Moses told the Israelites that the LORD would give D. Pishon, Euphrates, Gihon and Jordan.
them flesh in the evening and bread in the morning
because he had 7. King Rehoboam refused to take the counsel of
A. heard their prayers the elders because
B. seen their suffering A. it was wrong counsel
C. promised to feed them B. he was afraid of the outcome of their counsel
D. heard their murmuring C. he was stubborn
D. it was a turn of affairs brought about by the
4. “Is not David hiding himself on the hill of Hachilah; LORD
which is on the east of Jeshimon? The report above 8. King Saul asked Jesse to send David to him because
he wanted David to C. avoiding evils and praying for others
A. kill goliath D. Learning to do good and seeking justice
B. marry his daughter, Micheal
C. become Jonathan’s friend 16. God promised the faithless Isrealites that if they
D. serve him repented of their sins and returned to Him. He
would
9. The new covenant God made with the house of Israel A. deliver their enemies into their hands
and the house of Judah was written on B. fill them with his knowledge
A. their hearts C. give them favour in the sight of the nations
B. stones D. give them shepherds after his own heart
C. their foreheads
D. tablets 17. “........When my soul fainted within me, I remembered
the LORD; and my prayer came to thee.. ” The prayer
10. All the words which the LORD has spoken we will above was offered by Jonah
do. What was Moses response to this declaration by A. at Nineveh B. at Tarshish
the Israelites? C. in the ship D .in the belly of the fish
A. He asked them to pick twelve stones
to represent the tribes 18. The ark of the God of Isreal must not remain with
B. He offered peace offerings to the LORD us.......” The Philitines who made the statement
C. he charged them to walk faithfully before the above were anxious to get rid of the ark because
LORD. A. they could not handle it
D. he said that the LORD was witness to their B. the hand of God was heavy upon them
declaration. C. their women were becoming barren
D. the Isrealites had mustered forces against
11. The sign of the covenant between God and Noah for them
all future generations was
A. blood 19. “At the time shall arise.... the great prince who has
B. treaty of peace charge of your people.......” in the statement above
C. circumcision by Daniel, the great prince refers to
D. bow in the cloud A. Gabriel B. the Deliver
C. Micheal D. the Messiah
12. The signs that God showed to Moses at his call were
meant to 20. According to Hosea, the LORD would not hav pity
A. convince the people that he had upon the children of his faithless wife because
been sent by God A. they were rebellious children
B. prtray him as superior to the Egyptian B. they had not been faithful
magicians C. their mother had not shown pity on them
C. enable him to perform miracles before D. their mother had played the harlot
Pharaoh
E. convince Pharaoh that he was the prophet of God 21. God decided not to bring evil in Ahab’s days but in
the days of son because Ahab
13. King Josisah defiled Topheth which was in the valley A. asked God for mercy
of the sons of Hinnom during his reform in Israel so B. returned Naboth’s vineyard
that C. fasted for forty days
A. he might revive the worship of the sun God D. humbled himself before God
B. he might pull down Topheth and break 23. When the Babylonians captured King Zedekiah,
Molech into peices they
C. no one would worship Moleh A. killed him immediately
D. no one might sacrifice human beings again B. assaulted his wives in his presence
to Molech C. put out his eyes
D. took his sons to Babylon
14. Amos declared that the Jews who built houses of
Hewn stone would not dwell in them because they 24. The men who threw Shadrach, Meshach and
A. trampled upon the poor Abedenego into the fire were
B. persecuted the prophets A. amazed that the Hebrews were not burnt
C. swore falsely B. assisted to escape from being burnt
D. worshipped other gods C. promoted by the king
D. consumed by the flames
15. What acts of righteousness did Isaiah admonish his
people to demonstrate? 25. “Hear this word, you cows of Bashan... who
A. helping the poor and offering sacrifice oppress the poor, who crush the needy...” cows of
B. defending the orphans an respecting the Bashan in the statement above refers to the
widows A. wicked kings B. women of Samaria
C. Judges in Isreal D false prophets D. the high priest and the Sadducees were jealous

26. “It is enough; now O LORD, take away my life; for 35. After the mission of the seventy, Jesus declared
I am no better than my fathers.” the prayer above that he had given
was said by Elijah when A. the gift of healing B. power over
A. ran out of food the roman authorities C. authority over all the
B. had no water to drink at the brook Cherith power of the enemy D.the gift of knowledge
C. learnt that Ahab was looking for him of the word
D. was threatened by Jezebel
36. Jesus did not go immediately to attend to Lazarus
27. In his effort to rebuild the walls of Jerusalem, who has reported sick because he
Nehemiah prayed against insults of A. wanted His disciples to believe in Him
A. Tobiah and Sanbaliat B. was too busy attending to her people
B. Amon and Shallum C. did not know how serious the sickness was
C. Nebuchadnezzer and Tobiah D. careless about Lazarus
D. Geshem and Hulda
37. In the parable of the wheat and tares, the harvest
28. According to Luke, Jesus healed the epileptic boy by time refers to the
A. telling the boy to have faith A. white judgement throne
B. rebuking the unclean spirit B. millennium reign of christ
C. binding the evil spirite in him C. tribulation period
D. touching the boy D. close of the age

29. According to Luke Jesus last words on the cross were 38. Peter teaches that good Christian conduct is
A. “ I thirst”B. woman behold your son characterized by love and
C. “father, into thy hands I commit my spirit” A. impartial judgement
D. “father , forgive them; for they know not B. forbearance C. fear of God
what they do” D. hardwork

30. ‘Father Abraham, have mercy upon me, and send 39. Paul teaches that the excercise of spiritual gifts by
Lazarus..... Abraham could not grant the rich man’s individual believers should be used to promote
request because’ A. faith B. cooperation C. competition
A. the rich man lived in luxury while on earth D. Knowledge
B. there was a chasm between them 40. Peter advises the elders to tend the flock of God with
C. he had no pity on the rich man A. authority and compassion
D. his dogs used to lick Lazaurus’s sores B. a willing and cheeful heart
C. knowledge and understanding
31. In the story of the transfiguration of Jesus, Moses, D. zeal and credibilty
Elijah represented the
A. Old testament saints 41. Paul warned the Thessalonians against the deciet
B. glory of God of false teachers concerning
C. end of the age A. their salvation in Christ
D. law and the prophets B. activities of the man of sins
C. the resurrection of the dead
32. .....but he who enters by the door is the shepheredof D. the second coming of Christ
the sheep...... the door in the
statement refers to 42. Paul described the gifts he received from the
A. the law B. the gospel Philipians as
C Peter D. Jesus A. peace offering B. treasure in heaven
C. pleasin to God D. free will offering
33. In order to fufil the law of Moses, Jesus told the
leper He had healed to go and 43. According to Paul, the purpose of the law is
A. proclaim the good news A. to increase the knowledge of sin
B. show himself to his household B. tobring about justification by the faith
C. show himself to the priest C. the fulfilment of divine promise
D. make sacrifice to God D. to promote the faith in the cruccified Christ

34. The Jewish religious leaders arrested and 44. The man who stirred up the people against Paul in
imprisoned the apostles the second time because Ephesus was
A. they performed miracles in the name of Jesus A. Alexander B. Aristarchus C. Demetrius
B. they disobeyed the law D. Gaius
C. the high priest and the Sadducees excused
them of treason
45. Paul teaches that believers have been buried and 48. According to Paul, God would send a strong
raised with Chirst so that they migh delusion upon those who will perish because they
A. adhere to the law A. did not show love to the brethren
B. walk in the newness of life B. had an unforgiving spirit
C. grow in the knowledge of Christ C. were false teachers
D. walk in liberty D. refused to belive the truth

46. According to James, because believers hold the 49. According to Romans, justification is by faith
faith of the lord Jesus Christ, they should through
A. not show partially A. obedience to the law
B. not yield to temptation B. works righteousness
C. pray for one another C. Being filled with the Holy Spirit
D. overcome evil with good. D. redemption in Christ

47. According to Pauls’s letter to the Philipines, Christ 50. Peter teaches that Chritians should prepare for the
demonstrated His humility by day of the Lord by
A. praying for his enemies A. giving aims to the poor
B. washing the feet of his disples B. having sober reflection
C. taking the form of a servant C. living holy and godly lives
D. dying on the cross D. fasting and praying.

1. Moses sent men to spy out the land of Canaan in order to

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 2002

1. David did not allow Abishai to destroy Saul because he B. ruler and his followers
A. believed in the judgement of God C. master and his servant
B. wanted to avoid being guilty before the Lord D. shepherd and his sheep
C. wanted to disarm Saul before killing him
D. wanted to see if Saul would repent eventually. 7. ‘David departed from there and escaped..... and when his
brothers and all his father’s house heard it..... In the
2. The reward for total obedience to the commandments of statement above, where did David escape to ?
God is A. Mizpeh of Moab B. The land of Judah
A. wisdom B. life and length of days C. The cave of Abdullam D. The wilderness
C. knowledge D. marital possessions of Engedi

3. Adam named his wife Eve because she was 8. Hiram, King of Tyre, was friendly with King Solomon
A. deceived by the serpent because he
B. the one that misled him A. was afraid of war
C. the bone of his bones B. wanted to assist
D. the mother of all living. C. loved the wisdom of Solomon
D. loved David, Solomon’s father
4. What was the immediate reaction of Moses when he cast
his rod on the ground at Mount Hereb and it became a 9. ‘Go from your country and your kindred and your father’s
serpent ? house to the land that I will show you... where was
A. He shouted for joy Abraham when this command was given
B. He fled from it A. Sheckem B. Bethel C. Ur D. Haran
C. He took it by the tail
D. He caugth it immediately 10. The LORD repented of the evil which he intended for
His people because Moses
5. The consequence of King Solomon’s failure to keep the A. burnt the golden calf which the people made
LORD’S commandment was B. broke the tablets out of his hands
A. God’s promise to tear away part of the kingdom C. made the people drink of the water of the burnt
B. the disloyalty of his subjects calf
C. the rebellion of the vassal states against his rule D. reminded Him of his promise to Abraham, Isaac
D. the loss of God’s favour and Israel

6. According to Prophet Isaiah, the creative ability of God is 11. The altar that Gideon built the oak of Ophrah was called
likened to that of a A. The LORD is represent B. The LORD is strenght
A. potter and his earthen vessel C. The LORD is peace D. The LORD is great
12. The second creation story ends with the institution o f C. be filled with the Holy Spirit
A. the sabbath B. the Passover D. baptize sinners who would come to him
C. marriage D. circumcission
21. What were the two emblems Jesus used during the Last
13. The greatest dometic problem King David experienced Supper?
which almost cost him his kingdom was A. the bread and the blood of the lamb
A. his adultery with Bathsheba B. the bread and the wine
B. the killing of Uriah C. The Unleavened bread and the fruit of the vine
C. the proclamation of Adonijah as king D his blood and his body
D. the revolt ofAbsalom against him
22. The condition Peter gave for a person that would replace
14. The declaration by God that he would make a nation of the Judas Iscar lot was that he must be
son of the slave woman meant that He A. a witness to Jesus ministry
A. recognized Ishmael as Abraham’s descendant B. full of faith
B. was not partial towards Isaac and Ishmael C. a disciple of John the Baptist
C. did not like the way Ishmael was sent out by D. a Galilean
Abraham
D. was responsilbe for sending Ishmael out of 23. “They have no wine”
Abraham’s house. Jesus immediate response to the statement above was
A. “Do wathever he tells you”
15. The chief buftler said to Pharaoh, I remember my faults B. “Fill the jar with water”
today ...... Faults refer to his C. “.... Draw some out and take it to the steward of te
A. sins before he was imprisoned by Pharaoh east”
B. inability to interprete Pharaoh’s dream D. “O woman, what have you to do with me ? My
C. inability to identify competent magicians, wise hour has not yet come”.
men and interpreters of dreams
D. forgetting the young Hebrew who interpreted his 24. The Macedonians who travelled with Paul to Ephesus were
dream correctly while in prison A. Alexander andGaius
B. Demetrius and Aristarchus
16. ... The earth produced of itself, first the blade, then the ear, C. Gaius and Aristarchus
then the full grain in the ear... The statement above was D. Demetrius and Alexander
made by Jesus in the parable of the
A. sower B. mustard seed C. weeds D. seed 25. “O faithfulness and perserve generation, how long am I to
growing secretly be with you and bear ith you..........”
Jesus statement above was addressed to
17. Peter became frightened as he walked on the sea because A. the Jews because of their unbelief
A. he saw a ghost B. His disciples because they could not heal
B. he doubled Jesus C. the Pharisee because of their hypocrisy
C. of the wind D. His own people because they did not give Him
D. it was dark and cloudly honour

18. What did the blind man by the roadside near Jericho do on 26. According to the first Epistle of John, to have the son is to
recieving his sight? have
A. he jumped for joy and went away A. salvation B. the Holy Spirit C. the Father D. life
B. he thanked Jesus for healing him
C. He followed Jesus, glorifying God 27. In the explanation of the parable of the weeds, Jesus said
D. he gave praise to God for making him whole that the righteous will
A. live forever in the kingdom of God
19. The order of the crucifixon events according to Luke’s B. be set aside from all cause of sin
Gospel is C. enter into glory with the Son of man
A. cruxifixion, lots casting for His dress, scoffing and D. shine like the sun in their Father’s kingdom
mockery
B. mockery, lots casting for His dress, scoffing and 28. The resolution of the Council at Jerusalem was that the
cruxifixion Gentiles should abstain from
C. lots casting for His dress, mockery scoffing and A. adultery, greed, strangled meat and divination
cruxifixion B. homosexuality, idolatry, fornication and strangled
D. crucifixion, scoffing, mockery and lots casting for meat
His dress C. idolatry, unchasitystrangled meat and blood
D. circumcision, whoremongering, homosexuality
20. The angel told Zachariah that John the Baptist would drink falsehood.
no wine nor strong drink because he would
A be the forerunner of Jesus 29. ..... And I will say to my Soul, Soul you have ample goods
B. only eat locusts and wild honey laid up for many years take you ease, eat, drink, be merry..
God’s response to the statement above was that 39. Paul boasted about the believers in Corinth for their
A. the servant should enter into the rest of his Lord A. zeal in prayer B.offering for the saints
B. his soul was required of him C. maturityin Christ D. display of spiritual gifts
C. his soul should be satisfied with his increase
D. he should lay up more treasures for himself 40. God exalted the name of Jesus above every other name in
heaven and on earth because
30. Before the cock crowed, Peter denied Jesus three times. A. Jesus was born in the likeness of man
Who was the first person to recognize him as soon as one B. as son of God, He counted equality with God a
of the disciples? thing to be grasped
A. A bystrander B. 4 maid C. in humility, he counted others better than Himself
C. One of the rulers D. The High Priest D. He humbled himself to be born in human form
and was obedient to death
31. The woman with the flow of blood touched the garment of
Jesus because 41. How did Joshua react to the defeat of the Isrealites by the
A. she had heard the reports about Jesus men of Ai?
B. she had suffered much under many physicians A. He rent his clothes
C. the crowd could not allow her to speak to Jesus B. He fasted all day
D. she believed that she would be well. C. He prayed to God
D. He consulted the priest.
32. In Paul’s letter to the Thessalonians, believers were
admonished to prepare for the Second Coming of Christ 42. Hosea declares that the upright walk in the ways of the
A. keeping awake and being sober LORD , but transgressors
B. praying and fasting A. scorn them B. reject them
C. preaching peace and tolerance C. stumble in them D flee from them.
D. encouraging idlers to work hard
43. After Nebuchadnezzar had destroyed Jerusalem, he took
33. Paul taught the Romans that while they were yet enemies of the inhabitants into exile but left behind the
God, they were reconcilled to him by the A. poorest people B. noblemen C. priests
A. suffering of Jesus Christ D. temple guards
B. death of Jesus Christ
C. ascension of Jesus Christ 44. According to Amos, the type of famine God said he would
D. resurrection of Jesus Christ send upon the people of Israel was
A. that of bread B. thirst for water
34. Paul declared to the believers in Corinth that no one can C. not hearing the word of the LORD
say Jesus is Lord except by D. hunger for baskets of summer fruits.
A. revelation knowledge B. grace
C. the Holy Spirit D. faith 45. “....The soul that sins shall die. The statement above by
Prophet Ezekiel means that
35. According to Peter, the genuineness of Chrisitian faith is A. a sinner shall not escape punishment
tested B. the wages of sin is death
A. trials B. fire C. suffering D. temptation C. God will Judge the soul of a sinner
D. every person is responsible for his own sin
36. In Colossians, Paul admonished believers not to lie to one
another because they 46. The consequence of Hiel’s building of Jericho was that he
A. were joints heirs with Christ in the kingdom A. was killed by Ahab
B. were waiting for the Second Coming of Christ B. was made a commander in Ahab’s army
C. had put off the old nature with its practises C. was highly repected by his tribe
D. had known the truth from the very beginning D. lost two o f his sons

37. Paul teaches that believers who maintain good conduct 47. “.... I send you to the people of Isreal, to a nation of rebels.”
before governing authorities shall The statement above was God’s message to
A. recieve approval B. enjoy peace A. Prophet Isaiah B. Prophet Jeremiah
C. be shown hospitality D. be higly C. Prophet Amos D. Prophet Ezekiel
honoured
48. Daniel was set up to be thrown to the lions by the
38. According to Peter, when the chief Shepherd would be A. counsellors of Nebchadnezzar
manifested, the elders would obtain the B. adviser of king Xerxes
A. unfading crown of glory C. presidents and satraps of Persia
B. scepter of authority D. lords and nobles of Medes
C. house of glory
D. crown with stars
50. Elijah knew of the covetous act of Gehazi because
49. According to Hosea, one of the punishments for the sins of A. it was reported to him
Isreal was that B. he saw him from afar
A. they would not recieve divine revelation C. he went with him in spirit
B. they would eat but would not be statisfied D. he saw the gifts with him
C. the LORD would send famine upon the land
D. their women would become barren.

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 2003

A. measure the entire land 8. Saul visited the witch of Endor when he was beiseged
B. share out the land by the
C. know if it was god or bad A. Philistines B. Amorites
D. know if it was flowing with milk and honey C. Amalekites D. Moabites

2. The two sons of Samuel that became Judges in ISrael 9. Why did Saul tell the Kenites to go away from among
were the Amalekites?
A. Joel and Abijah B. Abimelech and Abidjah A. God did not tell him to destroy the Kenites
C. Hophni and Phinehas C. Joel and Abimelech B. Saul married from the Kenites
C. The Kenites showed kindness to Israel
3. “Let us make man in our image, after our likeness...”In D. The Kenites had blood convenant with Israel
the statement above, in our image implies man
A. becoming God 10. “...And they shall be my people, and i will be their
B. being a representative of God and fellow men God...” This convenant was made with Israel through
C. being like God prophet
becoming the exact picture of God A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah
C. Amos D. Hosea
4. The murmuring of the congregation in the wilderness
against Moses and Aaron were an indication of the 11. How many sons of Jesse passed before Samuel before
people’s David was chosen as King?
A. lack of patience with them A. 5 B. 7
B. lack of faith in them C. 7 D. 8
C. fear of dying by the sword
D. inability to get to the promise land 12. “Whoever does not come out after Saul and Samuel, so
shall it be doen to his oxen!”
5. When the glory of teh LORD appeared to moses and A. The power of the Lord came upon them
Aaron in the wilderness of Zin, the Lord said they B. The dread of the Lord came upon them
should C. The spirit of the Lor came upon tehm
A. tell the rock before tehir eyes to yield its water D. The word of teh Lord came to them
B. strike the rock with rod to bring out water for
them 13. “...Do not forsake her, and she will keep you, love her
C. fetch water for the people and their cattle and she will guard you...”
D. tell the people to go around teh rock A. intelligence B. wife
C. knowledge D. wisdom
6. The last event taht boosted Gideon’s courage to go
against the Midianities was the 14. Joseph was made prime minister iN Egypt
A. apperance of the angel who called him a man A. interpreted teh dreams of Pharaoh’s servants
of valour in the prison
B. sign in which God caused teh dew to be on B. resisted teh temptation by Potiphar’s wife was
the fleece C. faithful and upright man
C. test God gave Gideon’s men at teh waterside D. Interpreted Pharaoh’s dream and counselled
D. dream told by the Midianities about the barley him to what to do
bread
15. Nehemiah in exile fuinctioned as the King’s
7. At the confirmation of the cocenent, after Moses had A. guard. B. secretaru
addressed the people, they answered and said, C. cupbearer D. adviser
A. “We are going to obey the Lord our God”
B. to beware of false prophets and teachers 16. In days of Uzziah, Isaiah saw a vision concerning
C. obeying fully the ten commandments A. Samaria and Judah
D. We shall keep all the comamndments of God B. Judah and Jerusalem
C. Samaria and Jerusalem
D. Judah and Israel
26. ‘ “What have you to do with us O son of God?
17. God said that any member of Ahab’s family who died in Have you come here to torment us before the
the open country would be time? This statement reveals that the demoniacs in
A. eaten up by the dogs the country of the Garderenes
B. buried by foreigners A. recognised the supreme power of Jesus.
C. eaten by the birds B. wanted to question Jesus’s authority
D. left unburied C. were threatened by the power of Jesus
D. did not expect Jesus to come to them at that
18. “Take away all iniquity; accept that which is good...”
time.
what was the iniquity Hosea as referring to in the
statement above? 27. According to Luke, the mandate given to the twelve
A. Adultery B. Ignorance
at their commissioning was to
C. Idolatry D. Injustice
A. rid the entire region of Galilee of evil spirits
19. According to Jeremiah, the role of the shepherds which B. preach the gospel to the poor
God will give to His people is to C. preach the kingdom of God and heal
A. feed the people with knowledge and D. go about doing good to all people.
understanding
B. heal the guilt oe the people 28. According to John, the accusation of the Jews
C. gather the scattered children of Israel levelled against Jesus before Pilate was that He was
D. lead them to greener pastures A. an evildoer B. an impostor
C. a perverter D. a blasphelmer
20. King Nebuchadnezzar assembled the straps, the
prefects and the governors to 29. ‘ “ ... Go and learn what this means, ‘I desire mercy
A. tell him his dream and not sacrifice’...
B. send them to the provinces A. Healing of the lepers
C. interpret his dream B. Eating with tax collectors
D. the dedication of the image C. Call of the twelve apostles
D. the dedication of the image D. Deliverance of the demoniac.

21. Where did Elijah kill all the prophets of BAll after, ateh 30. Jesus did not go with the centurion to heal his servant
contest with Ahab? because he
A. Kishon B. Carmel A. exhibit great faith
C. Zaraphath D. Cherith B. spoke to Jesus as a man under authority
C. was not worthy for Jesus to come under his
22. “...The fathers have eaten sour grapes,a nd teh roof.
children’s teeth are set on edge...” D. was a Gentiles.
A. parents are punished for the sins of their
children 31. The disciples celebrated the passover with Jesus be
B. children ar epunished for the sins of their cause
parents
A. He was going to be betrayed by one of them
C. parents are punished for the sins of thsier
granparents B. it was the first day of unleaved bread
D. great grandchildren are punished fr the sins C. they had sacrificed the passover lamb
of their forefathers D. they wanted to keep the passover feast with
Him.
23. After Jonah had been thrown into the sea and sea
ceased from its raging, the men with him 32. According to Matthew, true wisdom is
A. praised the Lord fo saving them A. seeking first God’s kingdom and His righteous
B. feared teh LORD, offered sacrifice and made ness.
vows B. knowing the truth and doing it at all times
C. prayed to God for forgivenss C. to beware of false prophets and teacher.
D. rowed hard to bring teh shhip back to land D. obeying fully the ten commandments.

24. Zedekiah, the king o Judah, as captured by teh army of 33. The condition Jesus required from Jairus in order to
the Chaldeans heal his daughter was that he should
A. at Riblah B. in the plains of Jericho A. pray and fast
C. At Arabah D. on the outskirts of Jerusalem B. not fear but believe
C. put out thosee weeping in the hose
25. Two Christian virtues to be learned in the story of the D. repent and confess his sins.
good Samaritan are
A. kidness and fairness 34. According to Peter’s speech on the day of Pentecost,
B. justice and humility God made Jesus
C. compassion and humility A. Lord and King B. holy and mighty
D. comparisson and mercy C. both Lord nd Christ
D. overcome death and sin.
35. “Unless you are circumcised according to thecustom of who love Him?
Moses, you cannot be saved” The men who taught the A. Eternal life
above came from B. Abundant blessing
A. Jerusalem B. Judah C. Honourable position in life
C. Samaria D. Phoenicia. D. Heirs of the kingdom.

36. According to John, Jesus said the work of God is 44. According to Paul, a ruler does not bear the sword
A. preaching the gospel in vain but he
B. healing the sick A. leads men into the ways of God
C. feeding the hungry who are in need B. executes God’s wrath on the wrong doer
D. believing in Him who he had sent. C. rules as influenced by the people
D. enforces civil duties.
37. “What shall we do to these men? For that a notable
sign has been performed through them is manifested to 45. In Paul’s Epistle to the Galatians, as long as an heir
all ...” is a child, he is under
A. guardians B. custodians
38. Why was Paul arrested and detained at Philippi? C. protectors D. teachers.
A. He never stopped proclaiming Jesus as Lord
and Saviour 46. According to Peter, believers who are reproached
B. The Jews did not want him to preach in the for the name of Christ are blessed because the spirit
Gentiles’ territories of
C. He cast out the spirit of soothsaying from a A. glory and of God rest upon them
slave girl B. patience rests upon them
D. He was preaching the unknown God. C. hope rests upon them a perverter
D. love and God rests upon them.
39. Jesus said His disciples had been made clean by
A. their abiding in Him 47. In interpersonal relationships, Paul advises
B. His abiding in them always believers to
C. the word he spoke to them A. emulate his good gesture
D. their walking in the spirit. B. obey the law of Moses
C. think with osber judgement
40. Following the death of Stephen, the only group of D. think of others first.
believers not scattered by the great persecution
against the Jerusalem Church were the 48. In his letter to Philemon, Paul described Onesimus
A. deacons B. apostles as his
C. prophets D. disciples. A. brother
B. fellow worker
41. The first second in the order of hierarchy of spiritual C. fellow prisoner
gifts enumerated by Paul are D. child.
A. healers and helpers
B. teachers and workers of miracles 49. Thessalonians, Paul advises believers await
C. apostles and prophets ing the coming of the Lord to put on the
D. administrators and speakers. A. armour of hope
B. helmet of righteousness
42. According to Galatians, Christ redeemed us from C. breast plate of faith
the curse of the law by D. breast plate of salvation
A. dying on the cross
B. becoming a curse for us 50. According to Corinthians, the same spirit gives
C. resurrecting from the dead varieties of gifts while the same Lord gives varities of
D. ascending into heavens. A. service B. prophecy
C. working D. healing.
43. According to James, what does God promise those
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 2004
1. What effect did the sudden death of Ananias and C. cast off as a branch
Supphira have on the early disciples? D. condemned already
A. Many more disciples were won to God
B. Great fear gripped them all 9. ‘ “ … Are you the only visitor to Jerusalem who does
C. The disciples became more united not know the things that have happened there in these
D. Apostle peter was highly respected days?” ’
The things being referred to in the statement above are
2. Paul and Barnabas were sent out on the first missionary the
work from Antioch to Seleucia by the A. arrest, trials and judgment of Jesus
A. prophets and teachers B. crucifixion, death and resurrection of Jesus
B. church elders C. triumphal entry and cleansing of the temple
C. other disciples D. birth and presentation of Jesus.
D. holy spirit
10. According to Paul, just as the law came to increase
3. ‘ “… We must work the works of him who sent me, trespass, so sin came to increase
while it is day; night comes, when no one can work” ’ A. righteousness
Jesus made the statement above after the healing B. punishment
of the C. grace
A. centurion’s servant B. ten lepers D. ungodliness.
C. man born blind D. paralytic man
11. According to Peter, Christians who suffer
4. ‘ “They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we do according to the will of God will receive
not know where they have laid him.” ’ A. forgiveness
What happened immediately after Mary Magdalene B. the Crown of Glory
made the statement above? C. the Holy Spirit
A. Peter and the other disciple went towards the D. blessing
tomb
B. the guards were afraid and ran away from the 12. Paul declares that Christians have the same functions,
tomb but they have gift that differ according to
C. Mary stood, weeping outside the tomb A. their devotion of prayer
D. two angels appeared to Mary by the tomb. B. their suffering and endurance
C. grace given to the
5. ‘ “ … For it this plan or this undertaken is of men, it D. enablement by the spirit.
will fail; but if it is of God, you will not be able to
overthrow them…” ’ 13. According to Romans, as one man’s trespass led to
Them is Gamaliel’s statement above refers to condemnation all, so will on man’s act of righteousness
A. Peter and John lead to
B. Peter and the apostles A. acquittal and life for all men
C. Paul and timothy B. salvation and new life for all men
D. Paul and silas C. justification and hope for all men
6. Jesus declared that men love darkness rather than light D. sanctification and life for all men
because
A. their hearts were hardened 14. ‘ And let steadfastness have its full effect …’
B. they had no truth What does James say would be the outcome of this
C. they had been blinded effect?
D. their deeds were evil A. Righteousness and faith.
B. Trial and endurance
7. ‘ “ … This Jesus God raised up, and of that we all C. Humanity and obedience
are witnesses…” ’ D. Perfection and completion
The statement above was made by Peter on the occasion
of his 15. ‘Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in
A. sermon on the day of Pentecost Christ Jesus…’
B. release from prison by the Jews This mind in Paul’s statement above means a mind of
C. healing of the lame man at the gate called A. humanity B. faith C. holiness D. prayer.
Beautiful
D. address to the disciples for the replacement 16. Peter teaches that servants should be submissive to
of Judas. their masters with all respect, not only to the kind and
gentle but also to the
8. According to John, he who does not believe in the A. impatient B. inconsiderate
only Son of God is C. wicked D. overbearing
A. none of his own
B. not worthy of the Kingdom
17. In Romans, Christians are admonished to put on the 26. ‘ “ Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and
Lord Jesus Christ and not to before you were born I consecrated you; I appointed
A. rely on the law B. judge one another you a prophet to the nations.’’ ’
C. make provision for the flesh The statements above was made by God during the
D. take advantage of one another A. consecration of Prophet Isaiah
B. he was very excited about the discovery
18. Paul teaches that those who have been baptized into C. he realized that God was angry with Israel
Christ been baptized into His D. no one was able to read the word of the book.
A. service B. death C. kingdom D. suffering
28. According to Jeremiah, other nations would find glory
19. On the third day of their capture of the Ark of God, the in God and bless themselves in Him only when Israel
Philistines discovered that A. swears in truth, in justice and in uprightness
A. Dagon, their god, had fallen and broken to B. becomes loyal to God and repents of her sins
pieces C. returns to God, honours and glorifies Him
B. Dagon had disappeared from its place D. comes to God with prayer and fasting
C. The Ark has swallowed Dagon, their god
D. The Ark had been standing on Dagon. 29. Hosea proclaimed that Israel should return to God and
plead that he should
20. One of the sins of Manasseh for which the LORD send A. accept their worship
bands of the Chaldeans, Syrians, Moabites and B. bless them abundantly
Ammonites to destroy Judah was C. take away their iniquity
A. the release of a thousand captives D. grant them victory in battle
B. his failure to obey God’s prophets
C. the arrest of the King of Babylon 30. The response of Eli after Samuel had told him the Lord’s
D. the shedding of innocent blood. message as regards his sons’ acts of blasphemy was that
A. sacrifice would be offered on their behalf
21. Elijah decreed that there would be neither rain nor dew B. he would call them and rebuke them
for three years because C. God should have mercy on them
A. Ahab had forsaken the commandment of God D. He was the LORD, and should do what pleased
by erecting an altar for Baal Him.
B. Nebat the son of Rehoboam connived with
Ahab to kill him 31. Rehab’s reward for hiding the messengers sent by
C. he was sure that he would be fed by the ravens Joshua to spy out the city of Jericho was that
D. Jezebel the wife of Ahab killed Obadiah. A. she and her household were spared
B. the city of Jericho was spared for her sake
22. God called Jonah and send him to the people of Nineveh C. she married one of the spies and became a
to queen
A. pray for their repentance D. the gold, bronze and iron in the city were given
B. pray to Him for their forgiveness to her
C. cry against their wickedness
D. preach His word to them. 32. David’s victory over he Amalekites who raided Ziklag
was due to
23. Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and A. the fact that David was a mighty man in battle
Jezebel, God declared that B. his swearing to the Egyptian servant of the
A. dogs would lick Ahab’s blood where they had Amalekites not to kill or harm him
licked Naboth’s C. the great army that followed him to fight the
B. Ahab’s descendants would never ascend the Amalekites
throne is Israel D. his prayer in seeking the approval of God
C. He would require the blood of Naboth from before pursuing them
Ahab’s hand
D. the sword would not depart from the house of 33. God did not lead the Israelites by the way of the land of
Ahab. the Philistines although that was near because
A. He did not want them to see war and return to
24. According to Amos, God decided to raise up a nation Egypt
that would fight and oppress Israel because the people B. The Egyptians would have overtaken them
A. were corrupt and enslaved the poor C. They were afraid of the Philistines
B. claimed to achieve fame by their own strength D. He wanted them to learn through hardship in
C. rejected him and sold the righteous for silver the wilderness
D. turned justice into poison.
34. One of king Solomon’s unwise policies was the
25. What did king Josiah do to the altar that was erected A. incessant fighting of wars against his enemies
by Jeroboam at Bethel? B. signing of treaties with the kings of the
A. He rained cursed upon it. surrounding nations
B. He removed its items C. use of forced labour to build the house of God
C. He broke its stones into pieces D. making of sacrifices in high places.
D. He burnt it down
35. ‘ “It is not good that the man should be alone; I will 43. ‘ “ … Just so, I tell you, there is joy before the angels
make him a helper fit for him.’’ ’ of God over on sinner who repents.’’ ’
After this statement, the first thing God did was to Jesus made this statements after telling the parable of the
A. form beasts and bird and bring them to the A. prodigal son B. lost coin
man C. dishonest stewadD. lost sheep
B. take one of the man’s ribs and close up its
place with flesh 44. According to Luke, the leper healed by Jesus was
C. make a rib into a woman and bring her to the commanded to
man A. go and show himself to his friends
D. cause a deep sleep to fall upon the man. B. find out from the priest what he should offer
C. tell people about the cleansing
36. Joseph’s brothers decided not to kill him because D. make an offering for his cleansing.
A. pleaded with them
B. was loved by their father 45. After the great confession by Peter, Jesus charged the
C. was their brother and their flesh disciple to
D. was the first son of his mother A. announce that the kingdom of heaven had c
ome
37. King Saul ordered that those who had opposed his B. tell no one that he was the Christ
ascent to the throne should not be put to death because C. go away from the crowd to rest
A. God had wrought deliverance in Israel D. beware of the leaven of the Pharisees.
B. They had fought bravely in battle
C. They had been reconciled with him 46. The Angel of the Lord told Zachariah that the son
D. God had forgiven their evil intentions would
A. make the disobedient repent of their sins
38. After Saul realized that God would have nothing to do B. turn may of the sons and daughters of Israel
with him, he sought the help of to God
A. Achish B. a prophet C. Samuel D. a medium. C. go before God in the spirit and power of Elijah
D. turn the hearts of the children to their father.
39. A promise made by king Saul to anyone that could face
and defeat Goliath was 47. When they returned from their mission, the seventy
A. giving his daughter in marriage to the person reported that
B. making the person second in command in Israel A. their needs were fully met
C. giving the person part of his land B. even Samaritans accepted their message
D. making the person the captain of his army. C. they saw Satan fall like lightning
D. even demons were subject to them
40. The LORD said to Moses that the people should gather
just a day’s portion of bread so that He might test their 48. “Take heart, it is I; have no fear.’’’
A. self-control B. patience This statement was made by Jesus when
C. obedience D. faith. A. He appeared to two disciples on the way
to Emmaus
41. What were the Israelites asked to do before meeting B. He was walking on the sea in the night
with God on Mount Sinai? C. Mary Magdalene saw him at the sepulehre
A. To be consecrated have their garments washed D. The women saw Him after resurrection
B. To touch the border of the mountain
C. To fast and have their feet washed 49. “… Blessed is the kingdom of our father David that is
D. To fast, pray and be consecrated. coming…”
The declaration above was made by the crowd during
42. ‘ “ To you I will give all this authority and their glory; the
for it has been delivered to me, and I give it to whom I A. triumphal entry into Jerusalem
will…”’ B. feeding of the four thousand
This statement was made during the C. Passover feast
A. ascension of Jesus D. Transfiguration of Jesus
B. sermon on the mount
C. temptation of Jesus 50. After healing the man at the pool of Bathzatha, the
D. triumphal entry into Jerusalem. Jews sought all the more to kill Jesus because
A. they hated the man that was healed
B. he did his on the Sabbath
C. they were unhappy that he healed the man
D. he claimed that God his father was still working
Government
1 9 83 - 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions
Government 1983
1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the D a weak government E controlled by the rich
parliamentary system of government?
A Ministers are usually members of parliament 8. An unwritten consititution operates in
B The Prime Minister is politically responsible to A. Guinea B U.S.A. C Great Britain
the parliament D China E Nigeria.
C The Head of State is the powerful organ of
government 9. A sovereign state is one
D The Head of Government may advise the Head A whose constitution can only be changed by
of State to dissolve parliament a military government B where its
E The Party in opposition provides the Shadow citizens can speak without fear or favour
Government. C in which sovereignty is invested in the military
D whose citizens are free to evade responsibility
2. Capitalism is an economic system in which E whose government decisions are made
A the economy of the State is centrally planned independent of sovereign interference
and controlled 10. Representative Democracy is best characterized by
B Private persons are permitted to undertake A free elections and proper register of voters
enterprises B proper constituencies and a real choice of
C accumulatation of private property is candidates
forbidden C a politically educated electorate
D that means of production are owned and D representation only for the poor
controlled by the State E rule by the interest groups.
E all big industries and the land are publicly
owned for common good. 11. The primary function of a legislature is
A appointing a president B law making
3. The process of depriving persons of the right of C vetoing bills
voting is called D monitoring the judiciary
A enfranchisement B disqualification E re-assigning civil servants
C dismissal D prohibition
E disenfranchisement. 12. According to Marxist theory, those who own and con
trol the means of production in a capitalist soceity are
4. Bicameralsm refers to A exploiters B. colonialists
A a one chamber legislature C. workers D. shareholders
B the process of voting in the leigslature E. bourgeoisie
C the upper chamber in a legislature
D a two chamber legislature 13. While political parties aim at forming a government
E legislature in all sovereign States. pressure groups aim at
A imposing military rule
5. The principle of the separation of powers implies that B causing social unrest
the three main organs of government work C influencing governmental decisions
A separately D controlling a nation’s economy
B independently and co-operatively E getting workers to untie
C against one another
14. When the electorate vote for representatives who in
D relunctantly and gradually for the executive
turn vote on their behalf we say it is
E together in the interest of other nations.
A. an indirect election B. an unfair election
C. a rigged election D. a disputed election
6. The main function of the judiciary is to
E. a biased election
A serve as the watchdog of the Executive
B enact laws 15. An election which is coducted to fill a vacant seat in a
C execute the laws of the land legislature is called a
D interpret the laws A by election B. general election
E protect the interest of accused persons. C referendum D plebiscite
E mini election.
7. A totalitarian government is
A a government that aspires to control every 16. Which of the following countries does NOT operate a
aspect of a citizen’s life Federal consititution
B a government for the masses A U.S.A. B. Canada
C a government of the people, by the people, C Nigeria D. France
and for the people E Switzerland
17. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that
A it is faster than other systems 25. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means
B nobody can be prevented from voting that they
C it ensures the anonymity of each voter A have a career
D losers can ask for another secret vote B are not the servant of a particular goverment
E it extends the franchise to all adults C. are trained for the duties they performed
D are credited or blamed for anything they do
18. Which of these statements is CORRECT about Propor E are entitled to pension and gratuity when they
tional Representatation? retired
A It makes the assembly representative of all
citizens 26. The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 were
B It is simple to operate A UPN, NPN, PPA, PPP, NPP and NAP
C It preserves the party system B. NPN, UPN, NPP, PRP, PPP, and NNDP
D. It gives the parties seats in proportion to C. PPA, NCNC, GNPP, NPN, UPN, and PPP
their popular support D. UPN, GNPP, NAP, PRP, NPP and NPN
E. It legalies dictatorship E. NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA.

27. Which if the following is NOT a pressure group in

19. In a one party State
Nigeria?
A there are no free citizens
A Farmers
B. communism is banned
B. The Nigerian Union of Teachers (NUT)
C. the communist party is the only legal party
C. The Catholic church
D. the ruling party is the onlylegal party
D. Academic Staff Union of Universities (ASUU)
E. elections to the legislature are held at the party’s
E Nigeria Medical Association (NMA)
conferences
28. The N.C.N.C. sent a delegation to London in 1947 to
20. A cabinet system of government is practised in protest against the
A Britain and Canada B. Nigeria A Burns consitutions
C. The Soviet Union B Republican Constitutions
D. All European countries including Britain C. Richards Constitution
E. The United States of America D. Lyttleton Consitition
E Macpherson Consitution
21. A party system made up of more than two parties may
not qualify for the title of a multi-party system when 29. A popular principle of colonial administration in
A the country in question has a unitary British West Africa was
form of government A association B indirect rule
B the country in question has a federal form C paternalism D westernization
of government E assimilation
C the parties are not competitive
D different parties are supported by distinct 30. The three great Nigerian nationalists between 1950 and
political interests 1966 were
E the parties have identical structure A Herbert Macaulay, Nnamdi Azikiwe and
Obafemi Awolowo
22. A proclamation by the Head of State ending a session B Ahmadu Bello, Nnamdi Azikiwe and Theophilus
of parliament is called Danjuma
A. a dissolution B. an adjournment C. Obafemi Awolowo, Herbert Macaulay and Ahmadu
C. a prorogation D. an abrogation Bello
E. a devolution D. Nnamdi Azikiwe, Obafemi Awolowo and Ahmadu
Bello
23. The constitutions of the Federal Republic of Nigeria E. K.O. Mbadiwe, S.L. Akintola and Herbert Macaulay
A promotes unity in diversity
31. The first Governor-General of colonial Nigeria was
B allows for the dominance of the minority
A. Sir Hugh Clifford B. Sir James Robertson
ethnic groups
C. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe D. Sir Ralph Moore
C concentrates governmental power at one
E. Lord Lugard
level of government
D advances the interest of the rich 32. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by
E ensures the dominance of one political party. A General Yakubu Gowon
24. The transfer of authority to local government council B. General Aguiyi Ironsi
is known as C. General M. Mohammed
A demarcation B delegation D. General O. Obasanjo
C fusion D fragmentation E. General Hassan Katsina
E devolution 33. The legislature in every state of the FederaRepublicof
Nigeria is called the
A State National Assembly A Promotion of Africans to senior service
B. State Legislative Council positions
C. State Traditional Council B. Increase African representation in the
D House of Assembly legislative asemblies
E. State House of Representatives. C. Improved conditions of service and salaries
for Africa
34. The 1979 Nigerian Consititution is unique because it D. Withdrawal of Military bases from Africa
A provides for a head of government E. Reduction of the dictatorship of colonial officers.
B introduces a participation of women in
politics 44. Under the 1979 Nigerian Constitution, each state is
C provides for a head of state who is also head allowed to elect
of government A. two senators B. five senators
D provides for a House of Chiefs C. as many senators as the state can finance
E. makes all men equal before the law D. from two to five senators depending on the
35. The supreme organ of the U.N.O. is the population of the state E. ten senators.
A General Assembly B Secrectary General
C. World Court E. World Bank 45. The Independence Constitution
A. provided for a republican status for the country
36. Which Public Commission was not establsihed by the B. created a unitary state
1979 constitution? C. was negotiated by Nigerians
A Udoji Commission D. was imposed on Nigerians by the British
B. Federal Electoral Commission E. intro duced the military into Nigerian politics.
C. Public ServiceCommission
D. Public Complaint Commission 46. The first general election in Nigeria was held in
E. National Population Commission A. 1933 B. 1952 C. 1955 D. 1959 E. 1964

37. Local Government Reforms were carried out by the 47. The 1979 Nigerian Constitution provides for
Federal Military Government in Presidential elections every
A 1970 B. 1976 C. 1979 A. four years B. eight years
D. 1967 E. 1966. C. time the military hands over the reins of
government
38. Lagos became a Gowon Colony in D. time the incubent is impeached or dies
A 1900 B. 1914 C. 1886 D 1881 E 1862. E. time the Vice President is impeached
39. Nigerian elites agitated against colonial rule
A by guerrila warfare B. by civil war 48. In Nigeria, the constitution that preserves civil liberty
C. through television D. through newspapers is the
E. by bribing colonial governors A. Public Complaints Commission
B. Federal Electoral Commission
40. The first political party in Nigeria was formed after the C. Law courts
introduction of the D. National Security Organisation
A. Richards Constitution E. Police Commission
B. Clifford Constitution
C. Bourdillon consitution 49. Nigeria became a Federation under the new constitu
D. Macpherson Consittution tion of 1954 became the constitution
E. Lyttleton Constitution A. provided for equal representation between
the North and the South
41. The ECOWAS treaty was signed in 1975 in B. created the post of a Prime Minister
A Accra B. Banjul C. Freetown C. provided for a division of members of
D. Abidjan E. Lome parliament
42. The major innovation of the Republican consittution D. provided for a division of functions between
of 1963 was that the centre and component units.
A. the Prime Minister ceased to be Head of State E. abolished the practice of nominating some
B. the Governor’s office as the representative of the members of parliament.
Queen was abolished
C. the Cabinet was no longer responsible to the 50. The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of the
legislature A. O.A.U B. O.P.E.C. C. U.N.O.
D. it introduced the Executive Presidential System D. N.A.T.O. E. E.C.O.W.A.S
E. the Prime Minister was nominated by the
Executive Council

43. Which of these was NOT a demand of the nationalists

movements in Nigeria?
Government 1984
1. In a presidential system of government the Executive E. an oligarchy
A. executes its own laws only
B. legislates all binding laws 9. The most basic property of pressure groups which
C. makes laws for the National Assembly differentiates them from political parties is that they
D. forms the government A. are not as interested in politics
E. executes all anti-government plotters. B. do not have permanent organisations
C. do not seek to influence public opinion
2. A Constitution is a legal document D. do not support candidates in elections
A. drawn up by lawyers E. do not nominate candidates as their own
B. enacted by military decree official representatives
C. forming the basis upon which a government
rules the country 10. In a presidential system of government, ministers are
D. which must not be altered by any succeeding A. collectively responsible to the Senate
government B. collectively responsible to the president
E. only likely to suceed in a country where C individually responsible to the president
there is union government D. individually responsible to no one
E. individually and collectively responsible to
3. One features of a totalitarian State is the existence of the electorate
A. a single recognised party
B. pressure groups C. opposition groups 11. The three principal organs of government are the
D. a colonial power E. fierce political rivalry A. Legistlature, the Public Service and Judiciary
B. Political Parties, the Executive and the
4. A system in which a few powerful and rich nobles Judiciary
own land which is hired out to the poor people to farm C. Executive, the Legislature and the Public
is called Corporation
A. feudalism B. co-operatives D. Legislature the Executive and the judiciary
C. socialism D. communism E. Judiciary, the Local Government and the
E. communalism legislature

5. The principle of check and balances is necessary 12. The three FUNDAMENTAL rights of citizens are
becauseit A salvation, property, freedom of thoughts
A prevents government from becoming B. employment, property and social security
dictatorial C. life, liberty and property
B. prevents the Executives from funtioning D. free education, peaceable assembly and
C. makes the Execuives stronger than the other freedom of thought
organs E. freedom of movement, association and religion
D. makes the three organs hate each other
13. In a democracy, franchise is given to all
E. leaves each organ of government A. resident adults B. citizens
independent of the Judiciary. C. citizens except members of the armed
forces
6. When a constitution is difficult to amend we say it is D. loyal party members
A federal B. unitary E. qualified adult citizens.
C. written D. fragile E. rigid.
14. The citizenship of a country may be acquired by an
7. A politcal authority which maintains sovereign power individual through
over a specific geographical area is termed A. decolonization B. nomination
A. the nation B. the nation-state C. nationalization D. neutralization
C. the state D. nationalism E. naturalization
E. imperisalism
15. Which of the following is NOT a public corporation in
8. A government in which control of ultimate power is Nigeria?
by a few who rule in their own selfish interests is A Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board
classified as B. Nigerian Steel Development Authority
A. a democracy B. a dictatorship C. Nigerian National Oil Corporation
C. an aristocracy D. a monarchy D. Nigeria National Shipping Line
E. Nigerian Railway Corporation E. Joseph Stalin

16. Government means the machinery established by a 26. Which of the following was NOT the responsiblitiy of
State to manage the affairs of the the Federal Electoral Commission in Nigeria?
A rulers B. aliens A. supervision of polling
C. civil servant D workers and B. compilation of Electoral register
peasants E. people C. delimitation of constituencies
D. counting and publication of election results
17. The judicial organ of government is the body which E. swearing in of members of the Houses of
A. implements the law B. makes the law Assembly.
C. punishes law makers D. interprets the law
E. rewards law makers 27. Which of the following is NOT a civic obligations of
every Nigerian citizen?
18. A constitutionally defined set of individual rights A Freedom of conscience and religion
which governments are obliged to protect constitutes B. Obedience to laws C. Payment of taxes
A. statutory rights B. equity rights D. Voting by adults E. Respect for the
C. customary rights D. civil rights national flag and anthems.
E. natural rights.
28. The main deliberative organ of the U.N.O. is the
19. An electoral districts is a A. Security Council B. General Assembly
A. polling booth B. constituency C. Economic and Social Council
C. ward D. local government area D. Secretariat
E. subsidiary of the state. E. International Court of Justice.

20. In a parliamentary system of government, ministers 29. The first black African State to gain political indepen
are dence from a colonial power was
A. collectively responsible to parliament A. Nigeria B. Liberia C. Ghana
B. not members of the legislature D. Ethiopia E. Guinea
C. appointed by a two-thirds majority of of the
legislature 30. The major conflict that threatened the existence of the
D. representative of various interests in the country O.A.U. as an international organization from 1982-3
E. chosen from the Upper House. was the conflict
A. in Chad
21. A fascist regime is both B. between Namibia and South Africa
A. fair and legitimate B. response and responsible C. between the Polisario Front and Morrocco
C. representative and accountable D. in Angola
D. democratic and constitutional E. between Somalia and Ethiopia.
E. authoritarian and totalitarian.
31. Voting first started in Nigeria in 1923 because the
22. Capitalism often encourages Clifford Constitution of 1922 granted
A. public ownership of all forms of enterprises A. independence B. self-government
B. a centrally planned economy C. dominion status D. elective principle
C. private ownership of the means of production E. decolonization
D. anarchy E. deconcentration of political and
economic powers in the same hands 32. Which organ of the U.N.O. can impose mandatory
sanctions on any of its members?
23. Citizens legally qualified to vote for parliamentary A. The General Assembly
candidates form B. The Security Council
A. a ward B. the electorate C. The Secretariat
C. members of the House of Assembly D. The Economic and Social Council
D. a Trade Union Congress E. political parties. E. The International Court of Justice.

24. Elections among candidates from the same party before 33. A historic feature of the Legislative Council that met
the final elections are called in 1923 was that for the first time it
A. running mates B. electoral colleges A. included official members who were Nigerians
C. party conventions D. primaries B. included only British officials
E. second ballots. C. acted in a deliberative capacity
D. included elected African members
25. With whom is fascism associated? E. legislated for the whole country
A. Adolf Hitler B. Karl Marx
C. John Locke D. Benito Mussolini 34. The Richards’ constitution
A. Abolished the elective principle in choosing
members of the Legislative Council B. Clifford’s Constitution
C. Richard’s Constitution
B. amalgamated the northern and southern D. The 1963 Constitution
groups of provinces E. The 1979 Consittution
C. Established a central legislative council
D. abolished regional assemblies 43. The Constitution which introduced the ministerial
E. abolished the system of indirect rule system into the Nigerian Political system is the
A. Richard’s Constitution
35. The military was last in power in Nigeria between B. Lyttleton Constitution
A 1954 and 1960 B. 1960 and 1966 C. Macpherson constitution
C. 1966 and 1975 D. 1966 and 1979 D. Independence Constitution
E. 1979 and 1983. E. Republican constitution

36. Which of the following was NOT established by the 44. The Minorities Commission appointed in Nigeria in
1979 Nigerian Constitution? 1957 recommended that
A. Police Service Commission A. more states should be created in the
B. National Universities Commission Federation
C. Federal Electoral Commission B. no more states should be created before
D. National Population Commission independence
E. National Economic Council C Nigeria should revert to a unitary structure
ofgovernment
37. To which of these groups did Nigeria belong before D. the Federal Legislature should legislate for
the formation of the O.A.U? the minority areas
A. The Brazaville group E. all the minority areas should constitute one
B. The Monrovia group state.
C. The Casablanca group
D. The West Africa group 45. The second military coup d’etat in Nigeria took place on
E. The O.P.E.C group A. January 15, 1966 B. October 1, 1966
C. July, 29, 1966 D. July 29, 1975
38. The international organization formed after the E. February 13, 1976.
Second World War to guarantee international peace
and security is called 46. To be elected President of Nigeria, the 1979 Constitu
A. The European Common Market tion states that one must have attained the age of
B. The British Commonwealth of Nations A. 21 years B. 35 years
C The League of Nations C. 50 years D. 60 years
D The United Nations Organization E. 65 years
E The World Bank
47. Which of the following international organisations
39. The two parties which formed the coalition govern was in exisitence before the outbrteak of the Second
ment in 1959 were the World War?
A. N.C.N.C. and the A. G. A. The O.A.U. B. The League of Nations
B. N.P.C. and the N.C.N.C. C. The UNO
C. N.P.C. and the G.A. D. The Commonwealth of Nations
D. P.R.P and the U.P.G.A E. ECOWAS
E. N.P.C. and the N.N.A.
48. Rates are generally collected in Nigeria by
40 The 1953 motion that Nigeria should become indepen A. the State Ministry of Finance
dent in 1956 was moved by B. the Department of Inland Revenue
A. Chief Anthony Enahoro C. the Emirate or Traditional Council
B. Sir Ahmadu Bello D. the Local Government Council
C. Chief Obafemi Awolowo E. Presidential Liaison officers
D. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
E. Sir James Robertson 49. An electoral district for a local government election is a
A constituency B. local government area
41. Southern Nigeria was divided into Eastern and C. polling booth D. ward E. market
Western Provinces for administrative purposes in
A. 1935 B. 1937 C. 1939 50. All the following are organs of the O.A.U. EXCEPT
D. 1941 E. 1945 A. The commission on Mediation, Conciliation
and Arbitration
42. Under what constitution did the Supreme Court B. The Council of Ministers
become the highest Court of Appeal in Nigeria? C. The General Secretariat
A. Macpherson’s Consititution D. The Economic Commission for Africa
E. The Assembly of Heads of State ad Government.
Government 1985
1. Public opinion is important because it
A. tells government what action it must take 10. Delegated legislation is the power to make laws by
B. lets government know what the people want A. local councils when parliament is recess
C. allows the police to determine trouble makers B. bodies other than parliament
D. protects minorities C. the International Law Commission
E. guarantees a free press D. military rulers E. parliament.

2. Which branch of government is responsible for 11. In a unitary system of government

implementing laws? The A. political power is diffused
A. Executive B. Legislature B. there is a high degree of centralization
C. Judiciary D. Police C. there is no separation of powers
E. Civil Service. D. parliament is very weak
E. legislative powers cannot be delegated to local
3. Universal Adult Suffrage means all councils.
A. adult citizens can vote
B. citizens can vote 12. Case-laws are made by the
C. qualified citizens can vote A. Legislature B. Executive
D. literate citizens can vote C. Judiciary
E. males can vote D. Attorney General and Minister of Justice
E. President
4. In a democarcy, sovereignty is vested in
A the community B. public officials 13. The theory of separation of powers was for the first
C. judges D. the Head of State time clearly formulated by
E. the legislature A. Jean Bodin B. Jean Austin
C. Baron de Montesquieu
5. A bill that applies to the whole population and is D. Lord Bryce E. A.V. Dicey
intended to promote the general welfare is called
A. a privatebill B. a decree 14. The deliberate tampering with the delimitation of
C. an appropriaione bill constituencies in order to win more seat is called
D. a public deal E. an eddict. A. gerontocracy B. gerrymandering
C. delimitation D. bureaucracy
7. The rule of law implies E. devolution
A. the rule by lawyers
B. that only the Head of State is above the law 15. Fascism developed in
C. the absence of a military government A. France B. Germany C. Italy
D. that no one is above the law D. Soviet Union E. China
E. that only the National Assembly can make laws
16. Which of the following is a good example of a
8. A one party system of government confederal state?
A. is found in Africa A. Nigeria B. Switzerland
B. allows no official opposition C. U.S.A. D. Ghana
C. does not provide for a legislature E. ECOWAS
D. is practised only where the citizens share
identical views about policy 17. In a simple majority electoral system, the candidate
E. does not accept the doctrine of separation of that wins is the one who
powers. A. obtains the greatest number of votes cast
B. has spent the most amount of money
9. A constitution is classified as unwritten because it C. has travelled most widely in the country
A. is used in Britain D. is endorsed by the traditional rulers
B. has nowritten records E. has most support among labour union leaders
C. makes no provision for a clear cut separation
of powers. 18. An election conducted to fill a vacant post in a
D. does not emanate from the legislature legislature is known as
A. a primary election B. a general election
E. is not contained in any one document. C. a by-election
D. a referendum
D Dr. Lasisi Osunde E. Alhaji Ali
Chiroma
E. an indirect election
28. Under the 1979 Nigeria Constitution, the supreme
19. Constitutionalism means
court judges were appointed by the
A. the constitution is largely made up of
A. judicial services commission
conventions B. the constitution B. President C. honourable chief
is not easy to amend justice D.
C. the provisions of the constitution are strictly senate
adhered to D. there is a E. national assembly
constitutional Head of State
E. there is parliamentary supremacy 29. The annual budget of the O.A.U. is approved by the
A. Assembly of Heads of State and Government
20. Which of these is NOT a member of the Judiciary? B. Council of Ministers
A. The chief justice C. Secretary-General
B. A high court judge C. A magistrate D. General Assembly
D. A lawyer E. A grand khadi E. Economic Commission for Africa.

21. A person who is disenfranchised is 30. Lagos was first amalgamated with the Western Region
A. allowed to be voted for B. allowed to as a result of the
excersie his voting right A. Clifford Constituion (1922)
C. not permitted to vote D. allowed to B. Richards Constitution (1946)
nominate a candidate C. Macpherson Constitution (1951)
E. a prohibited immigrant D. Lyttleton Constitution (1954)
E. Independence Constitution (1960)
22. The head of the executive branch in a parliamentary
system is called the 31. One of the non-permanent members of the United
A. prime minster B. president Nations Security Council is
C. majority leader D. senate president A. Britain B. U.S.S.R C. U.S.A.
E. governor-general. D. China E. Nigeria

23. The political neutrality of civil servants implies that they 32. Local government in Nigeria are created in order to
A. are not allowed to join any organization or A. create more civil service jobs
group B. have no dealings with B. encourage competitions and rivalry among
politicians C. are not allowed to groups
be involved in partisan politics C. bring the government nearer to the people
D. have permanent tenure D. prevdent the creation of more states.
E. are not allowed to vote E. levy import duties.

24. The supreme power of a state to make and enforce laws 33. The amalgamation of the Northern and Southern
within its jurisdiction is called Protectorates of Nigeria was in
A. decolonization B. independence A. 1914 B. 1922 C. 1951
C. nationalism D. sovereignty D. 1953 E. 1960
E. enfrachisement
34. ECOWAS is
25. Ceremonial and executive powers are usually fused in a A. an international military/defence organization
A unitary system of government B. a regional economic organization
B. federal government C. democratic C. a trans-national religious group
system D. presidential system of D. a West African English-speaking organization
government E. parliamentary system of E. an international organ of the United Nations.
government
35. Which of the following is NOT a member of ECOWAS
26. The members of the Nigerian Constituent Assembly A Nigeria B. Togo C. Ghana
were elected in 1983 by D. Bourkina Fasso E. Cameroun
A. bye-election B. a general election
C. electoral colleges D. referenda 36. The Lyttleton Constitution is important because it
E. indirect election A. confirmed that Nigeria would be independent
in 1960
27. The name of the president of the Nigerian Labour B. confirmed Nigeria’s federal structure
Congress elected in 1983 is C. introduced franchise into Nigeria n politics
A. Mr. Wahab Goodluck D. made Nigeria sovereign
B. Alhaji Shehu Kangiwa E. abolished the principle of indirect rule.
C. Alhaji Hassan Sunmonu
37. The Macpherson Constitution of Nigeia created a responsiblity of the federal government
A. bicameral legislature for Eastern Nigeria E. the supreme court of Nigeria was made the
B. bicameral legislature for the Central government highest judicial authority in the country.
C. unicameral legislature for Western Nigeria
43. Which of the following nations does not have veto
D. bicamenral legislature for Western Nigeria.
power in the Secuirty Council of the UNO?
E. unicameral legislature for Northern Nigeria.
A. Britain B. China C. France
38. The Arthur Richards constitution introduced into Nigeria D. Germany E. U.SA.
A. federalism B. republicanism
44. Public corporations are established mainly to
C. regionalism D. the multi-party system
A. cater for the welfare of their board members
E. the office of Prime Minister
B. give advice to the government on commerce
C. co-ordinate the affairs of several amenities
39. In 1966, the Military intervened in Nigeria politics because
on a commercial basis
A. the country was not operating a presidential
E. develop the rural areas.
system of government
B. the number of legislature was too large 45. The first military coup d’etat in Nigeria occurred on
C. crude oil had been discovered in the country A. October 1, 1960 B. October 1, 1963
D. there was a high level of corruption in the C. January 15, 1966 D. January 15, 1967
country E. December 31, 1983
E. the political processes had broken down
46. Nigeria adopted a republican constitution on
40. The Nigerian National Democratic Party (NNDP) of A. October 1, 1960 B. October 1, 1963
the pre-independence era C. October 1, 1966 D. May 1, 1967
A. dominated the political scene in Lagos E. October 1, 1979
B. was formed to replace the Action Group as
47. The folowing six political parties were registered for
the ruling party in the Western Region
the 1983 elections
C. had branches all over the country
A. NCNC, UPN, NPP, NNDP,UMBC, NAP
D. was warmly supported by traditional rulers
B. NPN, NAP, NPP, PRP, GNPP, UPN
E. was not opposed to indirect rule
C. NPN, NNA, PPP, PRP, PPA, UPN
41. The Clifford Constitution D. NPP, Chop Chop, PPP, PPA, UPN, PRP
A. provided for universal adult suffrage E. UPN, AG, NNDP, PRP, NAP, PPA.
B. made Governor dependent on the Executive
48. In Nigeria, the office of Prime Minister was first created in
Council
A. 1954 B. 1957 C. 1958 D. 1959 E. 1960.
C. provided for an unofficial majority membership of
the Legislature Council D. provided for 49. The non-permanent members of the Security Council
African representation on the Executive Council of the United Nations Organisations (UNO) are elected for
E. introduced the elective principle into Nigerian A. 5 year terms B. 4 year terms
politics. C. 3 year terms D. 2 year terms
E. 1 year term.
42. Under the Independence Constitution
A. the governor-general could appoint any 50. The Economic Commission for Africa is an organ of
member of the House of Representatives as a A. O.A.U. B. ECOWAS
prime minister C. U.N.O. D. E.E.C. E. UNESCO
B. a bicameral legislature was introduced in the
country
C. forty-four members were elected into the
Senate
D. higher education was made the exclusive

Government 1986
1. Aristocracy is the system of government in which the 3. A nation state is synonymous with a
few rule for A. sovereign state B. dependent territory
A. their own benefit B. the benefit of all C. nation D. political community
C. the benefit of their friends
D. the benefit of a few 4. Legislative supremacy exists in
A. Britain B. France
2. The two primary elements in politics are C. Soviet Union D. Nigeria.
A. war and peace B. order and conflict
C. patriotism and economic sabotage 5. Presidentialism is a system of government in which
D. nationalism and freedom. A. there is elected head of State who
excercises actual executive powers 16. According to Marxist theory, those who live by
B. the head of State is not the chief executive selling their labour are referred to as the
C the executive functions are the responsiblity A bourgeoisie B. proletariats
of the entire members of a cabinet C. feudal lords D. slaves
D. all members of cabinet must also be members
of the legislature. 17. A social system in which power is derived from
control over land is called
6. The main function of the upper chamber in a parlia A. oligarchy B Feudalism
mentary system of government is to C. socialsim D. presidentialism
A. initiate new legislation B. Executive laws
C. acts as a check on the lower chamber 18. A system of government in which power derives from
D. direct the activities of the lower chamber total control of the instruments of force is called
A. monarchy B. oligarchy
7. The federal constitution which concedes to the C. capitalism D. fascism
components units the right to secede is that of
A. the United States B Australia 19. Which of the following ideologies emphasizes the
C. Brazil D. the Soviet Union abolition of goverment and law?
A. Totalitarianism B. Communism
8. The principle of two levels of government in a C. Anarchism D. socialism
country is called
A. the parliamentary system B. dictatorship 20. The writ of habeas corpus is applied to secure the
C. nationalism D. federalism A right to personal liberty B. indepen
dence of the judiciary C. freedom
9. In a cabinet system, the executive is appointed from the of the press D. right to own private property.
A. legislature B. opposition C. upperhouse
D. weaker party in the coalition 21. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental human
right in Nigeria?
10. An important advantage of creating more constituents A. Right to education
units in a federal state is to B. Right to personal liberty
A. enhance the people’s participation in C. Freedom of thought
government B. enable ambitious D. Freedom of conscience
politicians gain political power
C. make the state gain more power. 22. Proportional representation is recommended because it
D. curb the powers of the federal government. A. favours small parties
B. is simple to operate
11. Under the presidential system C. leads to liberal democracy
A. the party with the majority of seats forms the D. preserves the party system
Executive
B. there is the principle of collective responsi 23. A system of voting in which the voters are asked a
bility ‘yes’ or ‘no’ question on a major issue is called
C. the president may come from any of the A ‘first past the post’
parties D. the constitution must be unwritten B. a referedum C. an absolute majority
D. an indirect election.
12. The major function of the legislative assembly is to
A. debate on committee reports 24. A political manifesto is a document which outlines
B. represent the people C. make laws A a country’s development
D vote on bills B. a partys programme
C. the national policy D. anethnic interest
13. In a parliamentary system who ensures that members
are in the House to vote on major issues? The 25. One argument against a multi-party system is the
A. party leader B. speaker of the house A. inability to develop the nation
C. clerk of the House D. Whip B. encouragement of diverse opinion and
opposition C. ability to attract foreign
14. A system in which no single person serves as the investment D. banning of pressure groups.
chief executive is known as
A. repbulican B. revolutionary 26. Pre-colonial Igbo society was
C. Collegial D. parliamentary A. centralized B. acephalous
C. feudal D. capitalist
15. The idea of democracy was first associated with the
A. Romans B. Persians C. Greeks D. Egyptians 27. Which of the following ethnic groups had centralised
administration in pre-colonial Nigeria?
A. Ibibio B. Ijaw C. Tiv D. Hausa
28. In which of the following ethnic groups was pre- 39. The head of state in the first republic of Nigeria was
colonial political structure NOT infuenced by the A. an executive president B. a nominal
Islamic culture? president C. a party leader
A. Kanuri B. Nupe C. Tiv D. Fulani
D. a nominee of the whole country.
29. The British Government revoked the charter of the 40. Which of the folowing parties formed the opposition
Royal Niger Company and took over the direct in the House of Representatives during Nigerian first
administration of Nigeria in republic
A. 1861 B. 1900 C. 1906 D. 1914 A. NCNC and NEPU B. AG and UMBC
C. NPC and NNPC D. NCNC and MDF
30. The Minorities Commission appointed in 1957 was
headed by 41. The main objectives of the Public Service Review
A. Sir Henry Willink B. Justice Udo Udoma Commission headed by Chief Jerome Udoji
C. Chief Festus Okotie-Eboh was to make the Nigerian public service
D. Sir Allan Lennox-Boyd A. less corrupt B. more attactive financially
C. more efficient and result-oriented
31. The Zikist Movement was popular for its D. superior to the private sector.
A. philosophy of non-violence
42. Local governments in Nigeria receive the bulk of their
B. promotion of mass literacy
financial resources from
C. militant nationalism
A. the state government B. the federal
D. encouragement of multi-party system
government C. rates and taxes
D. local investment projects.
32. Which of the following sets of factors contrbuted to
the development of nationalism in Nigeria? 43. The term ‘Chief-in-Council,’ in Nigeria means that the Chief
A. Racial discrimination and oppression A. is elected by the council B. is superior to the
B. Corruption and ethnicity council C. cannot oppose the decision of the
C. Parternalism and indirect rule council D. is nominated by the government.
D. Election malpractices and party differences
44. Traditional rulers under the 1976 Local Government
33. Which constitution was created to legislate for the Reforms had
Lagos Colony and the Southern Provinces? A executive powers B. Chief-in-council status
A. The Richards Consittution C. limited powers D. legislative powers.
B. The Clifford Constitution
C. The Lyttleton Constitution 45. Nigeria is NOT a member of
D. The Macpherson Constitution A. the Commonweath B. OPEC
C. ECOWAS D. NATO
34. Judges in Nigeria enjoys security of tenure
A. if they are appointed by the president 46. The greatest achievement of nationalist movement in
B. if they have the support of the Nigerian Bar Africa is the
Association A. Unity of Africa States
C. if they are of good behaviour B. love and peace among African STates
D. during the life of the government which C. sovereignty of most African States
appoints them. D. economic independence of African States.

35. Before the 1963 Constitution, the highest court of 47. The administrative headquarters of O.A.U. is in
appeal for Nigeria was the A. Addis Ababa B. Lagos
A. Supreme Court B. Federal High Court of C. Accra D. Nairobi
Appeal C. Privy Council 48. The World Health Organisation is an agency of
D Federal High Court A. The E.E.C. B. NATO
36. Which of the following is NOT a function of the C. ECOWAS D. The U.N.O.
Police Force in Nigeria? 49. The organ of the United Nations primarily responsible
A. Traffic control B. Arrest of criminals for maintaining international peace and security is the
C. Making of laws D. Prosecution of criminals A. General Assembly B. Security Council
37. In Nigeria, the highest court for muslims is the C. International Court of Justice
A. Alkali Court B. Sharia Court of Appeal D. Economic and Social Council
C. Supreme Court D. Upper Area Court 50. Which of these groups of African leaders is closely
38. Who was appointed by the federal government of associated with the formation of the O.A.U.?
Nigeria as the administrator of western region in 1962? A. Haile Selassie, Abubakar Tafwa Balewa, William
A. Dr. M.A. Majekodunmi B. Chief Odeleye Tubman B. Abubakar Tafawa Balewa, Jean
Fadaunsi C. Chief S.L. Akintola Bokassa, Kwame Nkrumah C. Kwame Nkrumah,
D. Chief Remi Fani Kayode Nmamdi Azikwe, Jomo Kenyatta. D. Julius Nyerere,
Kwame Nkrumah, Haille Selassie.
We're the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials,study materials, guaranteed
assistance. Scoring 250,290,300 is easy with us.
Give Us A Call : 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 0903335 9054, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

TUTORIALS AND EXAM ASSISTANCE*.

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

CENTER ABUJA*

H
1)READING,
2)PAST QUESTIONS,
3)TUTORIALS
4)EXAM ASSISTANCE , DUBS,RUNS, EXPO

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

SPEND BUT HAVE TIME TO STUDY.

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

FROM ALL DAYS AND SESSIONS(hard and soft copy) SEND ME A
MESSAGE AND YOU'LL GET IT BUT NOT FREE!!!! IT'S VERY
AFFORDABLE.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

(SECTION THREE)

PART ONE: *( PAY TO GET YOUR OWN CBT EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)*

THIS PART IS FOR THOSE WHO WILL READ BUT NEEDS A BACK UP(I
CALL THIS THE HELPER PACKAGE).(RUNZ, EXPO, CHEAT, DUBS)

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

YOUR EXAM TIME.

We also create Videos and Audios with the questions and answers sent to
candidates so you wont get bored easily, so you can request you get the
answers in Audio format , Video format, PDF Format ..

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

We Can Upload Answers Directly To Your Computer when writing the Exam,
that means when you login all answers would have been ticked correctly, you

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

need not to carry out anything else but go through what we have done and
submit.

I'M SURE A LOT OF CANDIDATES ARE DOUBTING THIS, BUT YOU CAN
SINCE YOU'RE IGNORANT,

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

THE EARLY HOURS OF THE DAY, DOESN'T THAT MEAN YOU WON'T BE
ABLE TO LOGIN?

THAT'S FALSE, YOU'LL LOGIN AND YOUR TIME FRAME FOR THE EXAM
WILL BE INTACT, AND YOU CAN MAKE CHANGES TO THE ANSWERS
WE PICKED FOR YOU, WE USE NETWORK JAMMERS TO ENSURE THE
TIME ISN'T DEDUCTED.

THE CBT ENGINEERS WILL RELOAD THE EXAM, THIS ISN'T HACKING
OR TWEAKING AND HAS ZERO GLITCHES. ALL ANSWERS ARE 100%
CORRECT IF YOU ARE NOT READY TO MAKE 300+ THEN MAKE
REASONABLE CHANGES.

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

WENT OFF , OR THE JAMB CBT NETWORK GOT TURNED OFF AND THE
CBT EXAM OFFICIALS HAD TO GET THE EXAM RESTARTED? (ASK
PEOPLE WHO HAVE WRITTEN JAMB CBT COUNTLESS TIMES THEY
KNOW, THE EXAM CAN BE RESTARTED)

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

HINDRANCE BECAUSE NOTHING WILL BE DONE IN THE HALL
EVERYTHING HAS BEEN PUT IN PLACE BEFORE THE EXAM BEGAN.

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

YOUR SCORES.

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

PRINCIPALS, TUTORIAL MASTERS,WEB MASTERS, INDIVIDUALS AND
COORDINATORS THAT REALLY WISH TO HELP THEIR CANDIDATES
CAN TEXT US FOR NEGOTIATIONS!!
OUR CANDIDATES SUCCESS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO US....

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

A) Questions and Answers

Depending on the options you paid for, you'll be getting the exact
questions and answers four hours before the exam.

When you get the PDF or Audio or Video option ( default option is PDF),
Don't print it out, even if you do print it out don't take it to your Exam center

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

note.. Write out the questions and the answers chosen ( no need to write the
full options, just the option that's the answer), Writing helps memorization.

Depending on your email provider, you'll find the message in your inbox
folder or spam folder.

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

B) DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

So obviously we won't answer all the questions correctly, we answer some
questions incorrectly.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

you've taken jamb before I'm sure you're aware questions can be flagged, so
that way you know it's a wrong answer.
You can make as much changes as you want.

If you went for the 250, 290 option, It's the same the questions
unattempted is flagged.

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

score 250, 290, 300 and Above, All guaranteed, NO reason to fail!

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

We’re the best to ensure your success this year, Intensive tutorials, study
materials, guaranteed assistance. 250,290,300 is easy with us!

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

Give Us A Call Today And Be A Freshman!!!
Don't miss this Opportunity Get CONNECTED Get REMEDY!!!
Providing Education Related Assistance Since 2012©

Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070421 01989, 070466 33922, 09011 270636, 070874 91028

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

1) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: you receive your exam questions and answers to your email
address, four hours before the exam(go for this if you're good with cramming, if you can't Cram
quickly,you might struggle using this package)
2) DIRECT ANSWER: We get access to your exam, using your registration details, and take your
exams for you,from our CBT center, so when you log in at your exam center the questions have
already been ticked correctly.(this package requires noeffort from you,entirely dependent on us)RECOMMENDED
Government 1987
1. A confederal system of government means 11. A special election organised to decide on a political
A. strong regional governments and a weak issue is
central authority B. a strong central A. plebiscite B. by-election
authority and weak regional governments C. general election D. primary election
C. a strong central authority and strong
regional governments D. a weak central 12. The electorate means
authority and weak regional governments A. elected members of the Assembly
B. candidates for election C. electoral officers
2. The organs of government which are normally fused D. citizens qualified to vote
in a military regime are the
A. Civil service and parastatals B. Legisla 13. The term ‘Rule of Law’ refers to situations in which
ture and the Executive C. Executive and the A. lawyers are the rulers B. laws are supreme
Judiciary D. Judiciary and the Legislature C. the judiciary is independent
D. parliament makes laws
3. In a monarchical form of Government, sovereignty
resides with 14. Which of the following is NOT a unique feature of
A. the council of ministers B. royality federal constitution?
C. peasantry D. the entire citizenry A. Division of power B. At least two
levels of government C. Supremacy of the
4. A constitution is rigid if it constitution D. Independence of the
A. cannot be amended B. is found only in judiciary
one written document C. requires special
procedures for amendment 15. An important principle of the civil service is
D. is changed only by judicial interpretation A. authoritarianism B. anonymity
C. nepotism D. partisanship
5. In a unitary state, power is concentrated in the
A. local government B. constituent units 16. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a charac
of the state teristic feature of a state?
C. major ethnic groups D. national government A. A territory B. An army
C. A government D. A system of laws
6. Fundamental rights are best guaranteed by
A. independent judiciary B. good leadership 17. In a federal system of government
C. effective legislature A. the central government shares powers
D. efficient civil service equally with the state governments
B. all the states of the federation are equal in
7. The main objective of pressure groups is to size and population C. state courts
A. win political power control federal couts D. the central
B. conduct free and fair elections government has exclusive power over defence
C. mobilize support on behalf of governmen and foreign affairs
D. protect the interests of its members
18. Bicameral legislature exists
8. Franchise means A. where cameramen are allowed to cover the
A. resident aliens can vote B. French people can proceedings of the legislature B. to prevent the
vote C. right to vote D. executive order concentration of power in one legislative house
C. to provide jobs for more politicians D. to ensure
9. A parliamentary system of government is charcterized by that just laws are passed
A. separation of powers B. fusion of powers
C. delegated legislation 19. Socialism is associated with
D. legislative supremacy A. Karl Marx B. Nicolo Machiavelli
C. Aristotle D. Plato
10. Under proportional representation, elections are won
on the basis of 20. The body that selects the head of government
A. simple majority of votes cast following a general election is the
B. absolute majority of votes cast A. senate B. electoral college
C. two-thirds majority of votes cast C. electoral committee D. supreme court
D. votes received relative to those of other parties
21. In liberal democracies, elections help to
A. determine the acceptability of the government
B. unite the country against outside groups 33. Under the indirect rule system
C. create goodwill throughout the nation A. chiefs were allowed to govern their people
D. identify the richest groups in the country B. colonial administators shared power equally
with traditional rulers C. traditional rulers
22. A major feature of the presidental system of were encouraged to adopt the British system
government is that the of government D. colonial adminis
A. president is not responsible for his ministers trators increased the powers of traditional rulers
mistakes B. ministers are not collectively responsible
to the president C. president does not need the 34. The fundamental Objectives and Directive principles
legislature to pass laws D. president is not a member of State Policy in the 1979 constitution do not include
of the legislature A. democracy and social justice
B. federal character and inequality
23. The termination of a session of a legislature by C. concentration of wealth and provision of
proclamation issued by the head of states is called maximum welfare
A. prorogation B. dissolution D. national integration and ethnic loyality
C. plebiscite D. summons
35. Nigerian federalism before 1966 was bedevilled by
24. The forceful domination of one country by another is called A. amendment clauses of the constitution
A. nationalism B. totalitarianism B. large number of local government areas
C. dictatorship D. colonization C. lack of unifomity of the civil service
D. uneven sizes of the constituent regions
25. Which of the following traditional political systems
was republican? 36. Nigeria attained independence in 1960 through
A. Igbo B. Yoruba A. negotiation between the British government and
C. Fulani D. Bini Nigerian nationalists B. armed struggle by Nigerian
nationalists and traditional rulers C. negotiation
26. Which of the following is a function of the local between the British government and the United
government in Nigeria? Nations D. negotiation between the British government
A. Collection of radio and television licence fees and traditional rulers
B. Collection of company tax
C. Appointment of customary court judges 37. The Clifford constitution was notable for
D. Appointment of traditional rulers A. amalgamating the Northern and Southern
provinces B. introducing indirect rule
27. An important factor that brought about the introduction C. establishing the legislative council
of federalism in Nigeria was the D. creating a Northern majority in the
A. existence of three regions B. division legislative council
of governments C. diversity and
complexity in social and cultural patterns 38. Under the Macpherson Constitution, members of the
D. existence of cultural and bicameral legislature central legislature were
A. appointed by the governor-general
28. When did Nigeria adopt the nineteen-state structure? B. chosen from the regional legislature
A. 1960 B. 1966 C. 1976 D. 1979 C. elected directly by the whole country
D. appointed by the regional Lt-Governors
29. Who was the architect of the British rule in Nigeria?
A. George Tubman Goldie 39. The founder of the Universal Negro Improvement
B. Frederick Lugard C. Hugh Clifford Association was
D. Arthur Richards A. Casely Hayford B. Herbert Macaulay
C. Marcus Garvey D. W.E.B. Du Bois
30. The head of the first military government in Nigeria was?
A. General Muritala Muhammed 40. The foremost nationalist leaders in pre-independent
B. General Yakubu Gowon Nigeria were
C. General Johnson Aguiyi-Ironsi A. Herbert Macaulay, Nnamdi Azikiwe, Obafemi
D. General Olusegun Obasanjo Awolowo and Shehu Shagari
B. Herbert Macaulay, Nnamdi Azikiwe, Obafemi
31. Herbert Macaulay was the first president of Awolowo and Ahmadu Bello
A. NCNC B. AG C. Herbert Macaulay, Nnamdi Azikiwe, Obafemi
C. UMBC D. NEPU Awolowo and Muhammadu Ribadu
D. Alvan Ikoku, Samuel Akintola, Herbert
32. The Nigerian Youth Movement was formed to Macaulay and Ahmadu Bello
A. fight for greater participation of Nigerians in
colonial politics B. enable the educated elite seize 41. The 1976 Local Government Reforms declared that
power from the cheifs C. establish more schools
throghout the country D. fight for the free movement traditional rulers should
of youths A. Perform executive functions
B. preside over local government councils 46. The UNO charter aims at
C. perform advisory roles D. enact laws A. ensuring economic equality among nations
B. protecting the right of refugees
42. By-laws are C. ensuring world peace and security
A. enactment by the legislature D. ensuring fair treatment for prisoners of war
B. regulations enacted by local governments
C. fundamental judicial statements 47. The commonwealth of Nations is made up of
D. private bills A. African and Asian States
B. Britain and some of her former colonies
43. One of the objectives of the OAU is to ensure C. France and some of her former colonies
A. mutual assistance of member states in D. French and English speaking African countries
suppressing domestic uprising
B. non-interference in internal affairs of 48. Which of the following countries belonged to the
member state C.constant read justment of Casablanca Group?
territorial boundaries of member states A. Liberia B. Tunisia
D. unification of liberation movements in C. Mali D. Cote d’Ivoire
Southern Africa
49. Public corporations are set up to
44. The administrative headquaters of ECOWAS is in A. make profit B. compete with private sector
A. Lome B. Cotonou C. cater for those businesses that cannot be left
C. Dakar D. Lagos entirely to private enterprise
D. enhance the prestige of government
45. The UNO was founded in 1945 to replace the
A. OAU B. NATO
C. Commonwealth of Nations 50. In Nigeria, the institution that preserves civil liberty is the
D. League of Nations A. Public Complaints Commission
B. law court C. Civil Service Commission
D. police commission

Government 1988
1. The right to direct and command people is 7. Fascism emphasises
A. authority B. power A. individualism B. equality
C. opinion D. obedience C. nationalism D. collectivism

2. The application of the rule of law can be hindered by 8. Government by the few is
A. independence of the judiciary A. dictatorship B. monarchy
B. irresponsible press C. unequal C. oligarchy D. autocracy
distribution of wealth
D. free access to education 9. The doctrine of separation of powers is associated with
A. Montesquieu B. Locke
3. When sovereignty reast with component states in a C. Marx D. Hobbes
political system, the constitution is referred to as
A. flexible B. unitary C. confederal D. federal 10. The primary function of the judiciary is to
A. make laws B. protect the citizens
4. Constitutions originate from a belief that there is need for C. interpret laws D. execute laws
A. limited government B. freedom of worship
C. full employment D. judicial independence 11. Which of the following nations operates an unwriten
constitution?
5. In a parliamentary system of government, the offices A. U.S.A B. Canada
sof head of states and head of government are C. Australia D. Great Britain
A. fused B. separated
C. not defined D. indistinguishable 12. Which of the following encourages capitalism?
A. Public ownership of all forms of enterprise
6. Citizenship may be changed by B. Even distribution of wealth
A. renunciation B. remarriage C. Private ownership of the means of production
C. divorce D. conviction D. Centrally plannmed economy
13. The principle of collective responsibility means that 25. Which of the following groups are all public corporations?
ministers A. UAC, NNPC, NPA, NEPA
A. are collectively responsible to the Head of State B. NITEL, NAA, NUC, NTC
B . are collectively responsible for cabinet decisions C. NEPA, NNPC, NITEL, NAA
C. are heads of their respective departments D. UAC, NTC, NTC, NPA, NAA
D. must always show a sense of responsibility to
their fellow ministers 26. The Public Complaints Commission is enpowered to
investigate compliaints and
14. One of the important advantages of federalism is that A. prosecute false complainants`
A. any component state can secede at any time B. report findings to appropriate authorities for action
B. each state can develop at its own pace C. reprimand authorities against whom com
C. each state can only spend money allocated plaints are made D. refer complaints
to it by the centre D. citizens cannot to traditional rulers
be taxed by both state and federal governments
27. The basic unit of government in pre-colonial Yoruba
15. A major difference between power and authority is land was the
that authority is A. town B. empire
A. popularly acquired B. more costly to C. palace D. ward
exercise C. less dependent on force
D. exercise more frequently 28. The ruling system in pre-colonial Hausa-Fulani
societies where rulers were both religious and political
16. In simple plurality electoral system, the winner receives heads was referred to as
A. more that half of the votes cast A. meritocracy B. oligarchy
B. overwhelming majority of all votes cast C. Theocracy D. aristocracy
C. more votes than those for all other
D. the highest vote cast in favour of any candidate 29. Which of the following governors of Nigeria opposed
the demands of the National Congress of British West
17. A major weakness of unicameral legislature is that it Africa?
A. delays legislation B. is unsuitable for a unitary A. Lord Frederick Lugard B. Sir Arthur Richards
state C. breeds struggle for power D. does not C. Sir Hugh Clifford D. Sir Alan Burns
provide a check against hasty legislation
30 The major change effected by the government of
18. An essential feature of democracy is Major-General J.T.U Aguiyi-Ironsi was the
A. rigid constitution B. people’s consent A. abolition of federalism
C. supremacy of parliament D. bicameral legislature B. reposting of government officials
C. dissolution of boards of corporations
19. A characteristic feature of communism is D. creation of states
A. free enterprise B. liberal democracy
C. dictatorship D. multi-party system 31. Which of the following principal officials was NOT a
member of the state House of Assembly?
20. Which of the following is NOT a mode of constitu A. The leader of the house B. The speaker
tional change? C. The deputy speaker
A. Party manifesto B. Formal amendment D. The clerk of the House
C. Judicial decision D. Staturoty revision
32. According to the 1976 Local Government Reforms, the
21. A tax is a chief executive of a local government council is the
A. private bill B. speaker’s bill A. supervisory councilor B. chairman of
C. public bill D. judicial bill the local government council
C. governor of the state
22. Attempts to influence legislation by persuading D. secretary of the local government council
legislators are known as
A. socialization B. gerrymandering 33. One of the major features of the constitution opera
C. lobbying D. electioneering tive in the British West African colonies during the
1920’s was the
23. One main feature of government in many pre-colonial A. introduction of the elective principle
societies in Nigeria was B. removal of colonial governors by colonial
A. age-grade organization B. grade union legislative councils
C. student’s organization D. council of obas C. introduction of universal adult suffrage
24. The Nigerian Nationalist Movement was greatly assisted D. abolition of the local governments
by the 34. The principle of regionalism was introduced into
A. Manufacturers Association of Nigeria Nigerian politics by the
B. Chamber of Commerce, Agriculture and Industry A. Macpherson constitution
C. trade unions D. Traditional ruler B. Lyttleton constitution
C. Richards constitution 43. The following are members of the commonwealth EXCEPT
D. Clifford constitution A. Lesotho B. Jamaica
C. Kenya D. Gabon
35. The Nigeria Council was created by
A. Hugh Clifford B. Arthur Richards 44. One of the functions of the Minstry of External affairs is the
C. Federick Lugard D. Graeme Thompson A. deportation of illegal aliens
B. issuance of passports
36. A landmark of the Lyttleton constitution was C. defence of the country’s borders
A. creation of the post Prime Minister D. promotion of national interest
B. creation of the second chamber at the centre
C. creation of the position of speaker of the 45. The five permanent members of thew United nations
House of Representatives Security Council are
D. removal of the governor-general as chairman A. China, U.K, U.S.S.R, U.S.A. and France
of the Federal Cabinet B. U.S.S.R, Germany, Canada, India and China
C. U.K, France, U.S.A, Brazil and Ethiopia
37. A common provision in he 1963 and 1979 constitution is the D. U.S.A, China, Liberia, U.S.S.R and Italy
A. registration of political parties by FEDECO
B. financing of local governments by the 46. Before the O.A.U. was formed in 1963, Nigeria was a
Federal Government member of the
C. Judicail Service Commission A. Monrovia Bloc B. Afro-Arab Bloc
D. bicameral legislature for the central government C. Casablanca Powers D. Brazzavile Group

38. Africans were first elected to the legislative council in 47. Which of the following has NOT been a Secretary-
British West Africa in General of the O.A.U
A. Ghana B. Sierra Leone A. Adebayo Adedeji B. Ide Oumaro
C. The Gambia D. Nigeria C. Diallo Telhi D Edem Kodjo

39. Under the independence constitution, the head of 48. The appointment of the Secretary-General of the
government was the O.A.U is made by the
A. governor-general B. president A. Economic Commission of Africa
C. prime minister D. premier B. O.A.U. Secretariat
C. Council of the Foreign Ministers
40. The Nigerian National Alliance of the first Republic D. Assembly of Heads of State and Government
was made up of
A. NCNC and N NDP B. NPC and AG 49. Nigeria is a member of
C. NPC and NNDP D. NCNC and AG A. OPEC, NATO and ECOWAS
B. O.A.U, U.N.O & ECOWAS
41. When did the Federal Military Government abolish C. ECOWAS, NATO & OAU
the four regions in Nigeria? D. The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and
A. 1963 B. 1966 the O.A.S.
C. 1970 D. 1976
50. Which of the following pairs are members of ECOWAS?
42. The headquaters of the Economic Commission of A. Nigeria and Cameroon B. Liberia and Congo
Africa is located in C. Senegal and Zaire D. Cape Verde and Burkina
A. Ghana B. Kenya C. Nigeria Faso
D. Ethiopia

Government 1989
1. Proportional representation favours a 3. A country made up of semi autonomous units is
A. multi-party system B. three party system A. a confederation B. a federation
C. two party system D. one party system C. a region D. unitary

2. Capitalism is an economic system which emphasises 4. When a state is subject to no other authority it is said to be
A. Communism B. collectivism A. powerful B. legitimate
C. individualism D. internationalism C. authoritative D. sovereign
5. One of the factors that led to the decline of feudalism is 15. Which of the following is NOT usually associated
A. opposition to the system by the wealthy with the activities of political parties?
B. indulstryalization C. opposition to the A. providing political education B. selecting and
sytem by the oppressed supporting candidates for public office C. forming
D. the discovery of new lands the government D. controlling the judiciary

6. The major advantage of the principle of separation of 16. The political neutrality of civil servants is guaranteed
powers is that it provides for by not allowing them to
A. an executive premier B. a powerful A. vote B. be members of any interest group
legislature C. a very strong executive C. engage in partisan politics D. have dealings
D checks and balances with politicians

7. The cabinet can be described as a link between the 17. An unwriten constitution is one which
A. executive and the legislature A. embodies only trandition and customs
B. legislature and the electorate B. relies on the memories of elders and priests
C. executive and the judiciary C. codifies the basic laws in one document
D. legislature and the local government councils. D. embodies the basic laws in more than one
document
8. Unicameral refers to
A. a two-chamber legislature B. the process 18. Fascism is a system of government which
of secret voting in the legislature A encourage poitcal sissent and opposition
C. the lower chamber in a legislature B. represses individual freedom opposition
D. a one chamber legilsature promotes equality
C. promotes the international brotherhood of man
9. While pressure groups aim at influencing government
decisions the primary aim of political parties is to 19. Representative democracy is characterized by
A. promote the welfare of their members A. free elections and up-to-date register of voters
B. execute particular programmes B. properly delineated constituencies and a real
C. influence legilsation in order to benefit their choice of candidates
members D. control political powers. C. a politically educated electorate
D. rule by interest groups
10. Delegated legislation is justified by the
A. superior knowledge if issues by the executive 20. In a modern democracy the ultimate source of
B. fear that public debates in parliaments would sovereignty is the
endager national security A. legislature B. people C. supreme court
C. slow and unwiedly process of decision D. armed forces.
making in legslative houses
D. constitutional superiority of the executive 21. Which of these is a common feature of totalitarian regime?
over the legislative branch of government A. Existence of opposition groups
B. Competing political parties
11. The obligation to pay taxes regularly is justified because C. A single recognized party
A. ciizens choose their own government D. Freedom of association
B. citizens enjoy services provided by government
C. government does not discriminate in its 22. Which of the following according to Marx, is the
provision of services to different parts of the correct order in which societies progress?
nations A. Capitalism, feudalism, communism
D. taxes are the only source of government B. Feudalsim, socialism, capitalsim, communism
revenue C. communsim, socialism, captialism, Feudalism
D. Feudalism, capitalism, socialsim, communism
12. An important function of the legislature is
A. judicial review B. review of executive policies 23. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a charac
and actions C. lobbying D. defending government teristics of a nation state?
policies A. Definite boundary B. Sovereignty
C. Independence D. Common language
13. A common means of influencing public opinion is
A. A public policy making B. legislation 24. Public opinion refers to views and ideas expressed by
C. propaganda D. lobbying A. citizens regarding government policies or
other issues
14. An electoral system in which the candidate who B. government regarding the public interest
receives the largest number of votes wins is C. elites about what the public wants
A. the preferential ballot B. the second D. students about the public.
ballot C. proportional system
D. plurality system
25. An issues over which both the centre and the state
can excercise authority in a federal system is 36. The leader of the Northen People congress was
A. Shared B. split C. exclusive D. concurrent A. Yakubu Maitama Sule
B. Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
26. In the traditional Hausa Fulani political system C. Aminu Kano D. Ahmadu Bello
poltical authority was vested in the
A. Emir B. Talakawa C. Alkali 37. The Queen of England ceased to be the head of state
D. Emirate council of Nigeria at
A. independence in October 1960
27. Which of the following pre independence B. the attainment of self-government byu the
organisation was formed in London in 1945? regions C. the adotpion of
A. The Jami’yyar Mutanen Arewa B. The Igbo State the Republican Constitiution in October 1963
Union C. The Egbe Omo Oduduwa D. Urhobo D. the inception of the presidential system in
Progressive Union October, 1979

28. Igbo traditional system of government encouraged 38. Under the 1963 Constituion, federal judges were
participation through appointed by the
A. Ozo title B. segmentary kinship A. pesidents on the advise of the prime minister
C. divine kingship D. town assembly B. Chief Justice of the Federation
C. Prime Minister
29. In the 1950s the Northern Elements Progressive Union D. Judicial Service Commision
was notable in Nigeria politics be cause it
A. opposed Northern traditional rulers 39. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was
B. agitiated for the formation of a unitary form A. written and flexible B. written and rigid
of government C. flexible and unwritten and unwritten
C. allied with the Northern People Congress to D. unitary and rigid.
form the Regional Government
D. won the election to the Nothern House of 40. The major policital parties in Nigeria during the First
Assembly. Republic were
A. NPC, NCNC, AG
30. The author of the famous book Renascent Africa B. UMBC, AG, NEPU
which inspired African nationalism is C. NNDP, NEPU, NPC
A. Obafemi Awolowo B. Duse Mohammed Ali D. NPC, AG, NNDP
C. Ernest Ikoli D. House of Assembly.
41. The main source of local government finance since
31. The civil sevice was first regionalised by the the 1976 reforms has been
A. Richards Consittution B. Clifford Constitution A. loal states B. levies
C. Lyttleton Constitution D. Independence Constitu C. revenue from courrt fines and licenses
tion. D. the federal governent

32 The motion by Anthony Enahoro demanding 42. Under the 1979 Constitution of Nigeria, the president
independence for Nigeria was moved in of the federal republic could only be removed from
A. 1951 B. 1953 the office by
C. 1956 D. 1957 A. the national assembly B. the senate
C. the house of representatives
33. The office of the Prime minister of Nigeria was first D. a motion approved by at least two-thirds of
created by the all the state houses of assembly
A. Ibadan consitional conference of 1950
B London constituional conference of 1953 43. Under the 1979 Constitution of Nigeria, the head of
C. London constitutional conference of 1957 the judiciary was the
D. London constitutional conference of 1958. A. Attorney-General and Minister of Justice
B. Chief Justice of the Federation
34. Southern Nigeria was divided into Eastern and C. Solicitor-General and Permanent Secretary,
Western Provinces for administrative purposes in Federal Ministry of Justice
A. 1935 B. 1937 C. 1939 D. 1941 D. Chief Registrar of the Supreme Court.

35. Which of the following aroused and promoted 44. Ombudsman as an institution in Nigeria is known as the
nationalistic feeling among Ngiera? A Public Complaints Commission
A. Slave trade, indirect rule and amalgamation B. Code of Conduct Bureau
B. Economic exploitation, racial discrimination and C. Public Service Commission
politcal political parties C. communal riots news D. Political Bureau
media and religious differneces D. Traditional rulers,
district officers and governors-general.
B. Queen of Great Britain
45. Which of the following sets of nations belongs to C. Prime Minister of Great Britain
both the ECOWAS and the UNO? D. Secretary-General of the Commonwealth
A. Sierra Leone and Uganda
B. Zimbabwe and Nigeria 48. Which of the following principle does NOT govern
C. Cameroun and Burkina Faso Nigeria’s foregin policy?
D. Ghana and Mauritania A. National interest B. Non-alignment
C. African intersts D. Inernational terrorism
46. Fundamental human rights of citizens are provided for in
A. the United Nations Charter 49. During the struggle for Angloan Independence
B. the OAU Charter C. the constitution Nigeria supported
of Amnesty Internation A. UNITA, B. MPLA C. FNLA
D. the 1979 Constituion of Nigeria. D. SWAPO
50. Within the United Nations, the veto power is excerse in
47. The head of Commonwealth of Nations is the
A. UNESCO, B. WHO
A. chairman of the conference of the Common-
C. the General Assembly
wealth Heads of Governments
D. the Security Council

Government 1990
1. Which of the following functions is performed by 8. An indispensable aspect of the constitution of a
both political parties and pressure groups? democratic state is
A. Contesting election A. press censorship B. presidentialism
B. Interest articulation C. fundamental human rights
C. Formal opposition to government D. socialism ideology
D. Working for the interest of their members
9. A good democratic constitution should aspire to
2. The excercise of political power involves evolve the following EXCEPT
A. winning elections B. using the police A. a judiciary dependent on the executive
C. deciding cases D. Allocating values B. genuine and truly national politcal parties
C. a free and fair electoral system
3. Sovereignty is limited by D. the establishment of the principle of accountablity
A. the criminal case B. decrees for public officers
C. the legal system D. international law
10. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of
4. The pronouncenent of judges which have the force democracy?
of law are called A. Popular sovereignty B. Regular elections
A. judgement B. judicial oaths C. Majority rule D. Limited franchise
C. orders- in-council D. judicial precedents 11. The principle of separation of powers is fundamental to the
A. parliamentary system
5. Constitutional disputes between states in a federation B. presidential system C. totalitarian system
can only be settled by D. federal system
A. parliament B. the Supreme Court
C. a tribunal D. the Court of Appeal 12. Under socialism, the control of power resides with the
A. peasants B. bourgeoise
6. The second ballot is based on the principle that a C. nobles D. proletariat
successful candidate must obtain
A. absolute majority B. simple majority 13. Marxism is directed against
C. forty percent of the votes A. state ownership of the means of production
D. fifty percent of the votes B. materialsim C. the proletariat
D. socialism
7. Which of the following is the least democratic
selection process? 14. The rule of law implies that
A. First past the post system A. judges interpret the law
B. Proportional representation B. lawyers interpret the law
C. Indirect Election D. Co-option C. everyone is subject to the law
D. the legislature make the law
15. A by-law is made by C. promote missionary activities
A. parliament B. congress D. exploit and expropriate Nigeria resources for
C. an electoral college British interests.
D. the local government
28 Which of the following factors contributed most to
16. The notion of ‘carpet-crossing’ in a parliamentary cash crop production during the colonial administra
democracy involves tion in Nigeria?
A. crossing from the Lower house to the Upper house A. Education B. Pacification
B. changing party allegiance after election C. Forced Labour D. Taxation
C. opposing party discipline in parliament
D. resigning from parliament. 29. Under the military regime in Nigeria, state enactment
are known as
17. In a parliament, the most extensive amendment to a A. Laws B. decrees C. edicts
bill takes place at the D. promulgations
A. first reading B. committee stage
C. second reading C. final stage 30. The military normally belongs to the arm(s) of
government known as
18. A set of internalized norms which guides political A. the legislature and the judiciary
action is called B. the executive
A power B. value C. law D. symbol C. the judiciary
D. the judiciary and the executive
19. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by
A. law of sedition B. law of trespass 31. The first policital party in Nigeria was the
C. press censorship D. martial law A. Nigerian National Democratic Party
B. Nigeria Youth Movement C. Action Group
20. Habeas corpus is an essential process for safeguard D. National Councils of Nigeria and the Cameroons
ing the right of citizens to
A. vote B. personal liberty 32. The major problem of the Nigerian federal strucutre in
C. own property D. freedom of speech the first republic was
A. ethnicity B. politicization of the military
21. The most effective way of monitoring public opinion is C. lopsided size of the component units D. rigging
A. by examining the questions asked by journalists of elections
B. by the frequency of the press releases of pressure
groups C. by referendum D. through opinion poll. 33. The legislative organ of the Federal Government in
the first republic was the
22. In a true democracy, franchise can be limited by A. parliament B. judiciary
A. sex B. education C. age D. wealth C. legislature Council D. national assembly

34. Which of the following is an autonomous governmental

23. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying
agency?
A. socialism B. capitalism
A. The Civil Service Commision
C. feudalism D. nazism
B. The National Security Council
C. The Manpower Advisory Committee
24. Which of the following served as the electoral college
D. The National Emergency Relief Agency
during the election into the Constituent Asssembly in
1978? 35. Which of the following was the LEAST important
A. Local communities B. local government council rationale for Nigerian federalism?
C. the Federal Electoral Commission D. Traditional A. The vastness of the territory and the size of the
councils population B. Diverse cultures C. Economic benefits
D. Bicameral legislature
25. Traditional rulers in Nigeria exercised the greatest
political powers under
36. One of the agreements of the 1957 constitutional
A. the military administrations
conference was that
B. the second republic C. the first republic
A. Southern Camerouns should constitute a separate
D. indirect rule.
region B. a House of Chiefs was to be created in
26. During the second republic, some local government the Western Region C. the office of the speaker of the
councils were created by House of Representatives was to be created D. the
A. state governments B. the federal government police was to be regionalized
C. the national assembly D. the judiciary
37. The two nationalist leaders who led the tour of
27. The principal objective of British colonial policy in Northern Nigeria in 1946 to campaign against the
Nigeria was to Richards Constitution were
A. Lay a solid foundation for Nigeria independence A. Ahmadu Bello and Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
B. help build a virile Nigeria economy B. Nnamdi Azikiwe and Obafemi Awolowo
C. Ahmadu Bello and Samuel Ladoke Akintola B. Cameroon and Niger
D. Herbert Macaulay and Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Togo and Namimbia D. Botswana and Zaire

38. Indirect election was first introduced in Nigeria by the 45. The headquarters of the O.A.U. Liberation Committee
A. Lyttleton Constitution B. Macpherson constitu is located in
tions C. Richards Constitutions A. Lagos B. Addis ABaba
D. Clifford consititution C. Dar-es-Salam D. Harare

39. The motion of self government was moved in 1953 by the 46. Which of the following groups advocated for political
A. Northern People’s Congress union of Africa States?
B. Action Group C. National Council A. The Congo Group B. The BrazzavilleGroup
of Nigerian and the Cameroon C. The Casablanca Group D. Th e Monrovia Group
D. Northern Elements Progressive Union
47. Nigeria’s first external affairs minister was
40. Which of the following had a centralized administra A. Alhaji Nuhu Ramali B. Prof. Ishaya Audu
tion in pre-colonial Nigeria? C. Dr. Okoi Arikpo D. Jaja Wachukwu
A. The Igbos B. The Tivs
C. The Ibibios D. The Yorubas. 48. The first conference of the Non-Aligned Movement
was held in
41. In which of the following states was the governor A. Belgrade B. Bandung C. Havana D.Harare
impeached during the second republic?
A. Borno B. Bendel C. Kaduna 49. Which of these countries is NOT a member of the
D. Anambra Commonwealth of Nations?
A. Papua New Guinea B. Sri-Lanka
42. The ECOWAS trade liberalization programme C. Grenada D. Ruwanda
excluded trade in
A. unprocessed goods B. crude oil 50. In international relations, countries have a right to
C. traditional crafts D. Industrial products A. export oil B. create more states
C. diplomatic immunity of their envoys
43. The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of D. own a police force.
A. The OAU B. ECOWAS
C. The E.E.C. D. The U.N.O.

44 Which of the following pairs of countries were trust

territories of the United Nations
A. Tanganyika and Ghana

Government 1991
1. Political authority is vested in the A. The confirmation of the appointment of the
A. state B. judiciary chief justice by the legislature
C. government D. armed forces. B. Widespread use of tribunals
C. Payment of the salaries of judicial officers
2. An indispensable feature of any government is by government.
A. a written constitution B. the independence D. Making the minister of justice the attorney
of the judiciary C. the separation of powers general
D. political power
6. Bicameral legislatures are popular in
3. The unrestrained power of a state over its citizens A. unitary system B. federal system
defines the concept of C. confederal system D. rigid system
A. nationalism B. self- determination
C. nation-state D. sovereignty 7. One of the weaknesses of confederation is the
A. over centralization of authority
4. Case-laws are made by the B. lack of a central army
A. legislature B. council of ministers C. tendencies towards secession
C. judiciary D. president D. absence of local indepedence
5. Which of the following undermines the independence
of the judiciary?
8. A system of government which emphasizes co- 18. In the parliamentary system, when parliament defeats
ordinate status of component units is referred to as a major government bill the
A. federal B. confederal A. prime minister dissolves parliament
C. unitary D. communal B. entire cabinet resign C. speaker resigns
D. opposition immediately forms a new government
l9. A flexible constitution is one that is
A. amended periodically B. easy to amend 19. A bill becomes an Acts of Parliament after it has been
C. ammedable with difficulty A. passed by the parliament
D. easy to interpret B. signed by the head of state
C. processed through the committee of the house
10. Unlike the British, the United States constitution is D. debated in the house.
A. rigid, federal and written
B. flexible, unitary and unwritten 20. The primary duty of citizens to the state is
C. rigid, written and con-federal A. loyalty to traditional rulers
D. flexible, federal and unwritten B. obedience to ministers
C. obedience to politicians
11. The terms, oligarchy and democracy, identify govern D. allegiance to the government
ments according to
A. the number of people who participate in it 21. Individual rights are said to be inalienable if they
B. the philosophy of the state. A. apply to citizens and aliens alike
C. formal distribution of power among govern B. cannot be denied under any circumstances
mental levels D. institutional C. can only be denied after due legal process
structure and relationships. D. can only be denied by the legislature

12. Governments whose central convern is the equitable 22. Elections present the electorate the opportunity to
distribution of wealth are said to be A. control government policies
A. feudalist B. capitalist C. socialist B. control members of parliament
D. fascist C. assess the performance of the previous
representatives D. choose among
13. The presidential system of government ensures candidates
A. democratic rule more than other systems
B. the sharing of executive powers with the 23. The process of removing an elected official by the
legislature electorate after an election is termed
C. the concentration of powers in the chief A. impeachment B. plebiscite
executive C. recall D. referendum
D. The decentralization of executive power
24. Groups which seek to bring about changes in
14. The notion of checks and balances guaranteethat government policies without actually controlling the
A. the executive is able to control the legislature personnel of government are known as
B. the judiciary can stop all executive actions. A. trade unions B. pressure groups
C. each branch powers government acts as C. secret societies D. elite groups
watch dog over other branches
D. the legislature is subrodinate to the judiciary 25. The style of government in the Sokoto caliphate was
. A. democratic B. authoritarian
15. The principle of collective responsibility implies that C. populist D. totalitarian
A. the prime minister can dissolve the entire
parliament 26. Which of the following traditional political systems
B. the head of state can dismiss the prime minster was segmentary?
C. each offending minister can be reassigned A. Kanem Bornu B. Benin
D. the cabinet stands or falls together C. Igbo D. Yoruba.

16. The application of the rule of law may be constrained by 27. Which of the following led to the introduction of
A. securing the enture of office of judges indirect rule in Nigeria by the British?
B. insulting judges from partisan politics A. Need for adequate financial resources
C. employing men of proven integrity as judges B. Desire for rapid development
D. involking emergency powers C. Speedy transition to independence
D. Manpower and personnel shortages
17. A device for controlling prolonged debates in
parliament is called 28. Warrant chiefs were appointed to
A. an adjournment B. a prorogation A. prevent tribal wars B. supervise native courts
C. a dissolution D. guillotine C. decide divorce cases D. take charge of local
administrations.
29. The 1946 Constitution is characterized by D. judiciary, the executive and the legislature.
A. official majority in the legislative council
B. non-official majority in the legislature council 40. Nigeria is NOT a member of the
C. non official majority in the executive council A. non-aligned nations B. Organisation of
D. federal system of government. Petroleum Exporting Countries C. Organisation
for Economic Co-operation and Development
30. The Willink Commission was set up to D. InternationalMonetary Fund.
A. solve boundary problems
B. review revenue allocation formula 41. Nigeria broke diplomatic relations with France under
C examine issues relating to the welfare of groups the Balewa government over
D draw up a new constitution A. the Algeria war of independence B.French policy
in the Congo C. atomic tests in the Sahara
31. The state legislatures of the second republic in Nigeria had D. French involment in Togolese politics.
the following EXCEPT a
A. speaker B. senate leader 42. The Obasanjo administration nationalized the assets
C. deputy speaker D. clerk of the house. of the British Petroleum over the British government’s
policy in
32. Which of these constitutions recognised local government A. Kenya B. Zimbabwe
as the third tier of government? C. Anglola D. Botswana.
A. The 1946 constitution
B. The 1960 Constitution 43. Nigerian foreign policy implementation is the
C. The 1963 Constitution responsiblity of the
D.. the 1979 Constitution. A. Department of Immigration B. Ministry of
External Affairs
33. A condition for judicial independence is the appointment of C. Nigerian Institute of International Affairs
judges by the D. Ministry of Budget and Planning
A. Civil Service Commission
B. Judicial Service Commission 44. The head of a Nigerian misson in a Commonwealth
C. Law Review Commission country is called
D. Code of Conduct Bureau A. an Ambassador B. a Consul General
C. a High Commissioner D. an Attache
34. The federal system of government in Nigeria was
abolished in favour of a unitary one by 45. Which of the following is NOT a statutory function
A General Yakubu Gowon of an embassy?
B. General Murtala Mohammed A. Issuance of visas
C. Major General Johnson Aguiyi-Ironsi B. Collection of information C. Espionage
D. Major General Muhammed Buhari D. Welfare of her citizens

35. One of the measures taken in 1988 to grant more 46. ECOWAS is aimed at uniting the West African states
autonomy to the local govenments in Nigeria was the A. politically B. socially
A. abolition of state ministries of local government C. culturally C. economically
B. creation of the post of supervisory councillors
C. creation of the post of chairmen of local govern 47. Which of these following countries pioneered the
ment D. abolition of its supervision by idea of ECOWAS alongside Nigeria?
state governments. A. Cote d’Ivoire B. Mali
C. Liberia D. Togo
36. Traditional rulers were restricted to ceremonial rules
by the Local Government Reforms of 48. Which of these countries was NOT a foundation
A. 1966 B. 1976 C. 1984 D. `1987 member of the Organisation of Africa Unity?
A. Ghana B. Ethiopia
37. Which of the following is NOT associated with local C. Zimbabwe D. Tanzania
government elections?
A. Consittuency B. Ballot box 49. The United Nations was founded with the primary
C. Electoral officer D. Ward objective of
A. terminating colonialism in the world
38. The Public Service Review Commision of 1994 made B. ending the Second World War
proposals to ensure that the public service was C. promoting world peace and security
A. more effective than the private sector D. uniting all nations into a world federation
B. more attractive than the private sector
C. professionalized 50. Until her independence, Namibia was a
D. efficient and result oriented. A. Germany colony
B. South African province
39. Under military regimes, the branches of government C. United Nations trusteship
that become fused are the D. British protectorate.
A. judiciary and the executive B. judiciary and
the legislature C. legislature and the
executive
Government 1992
1. A political authority which exercises sovereign power 11. Law making under military is done through
over a specific geographical area is termed a A. delegated legislation B. administrative
A. nation B. state C. dominion D. leviathan enactment C . the promulgation of decrees
D. the Ministry of Justice
2. The process by which political beliefs and values are
transmitted from one generation to another is best 12. The most critical debates on a bill and ammendments
known as political to it take place during the
A. socialization B. culture A. first reading B. second reading
C. training D. decentralization C. third reading D. assent

3. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of 13. The fundamental rights of citizens include
government is associated with A. social security and free speech
A. monarch B. the presidential system B. religious freedom and collective agression
C. fascism D. the parliamentary system C. immunity from libel and right to employment
D. right to life and liberty.
4. One criticism of delegated legislation is that it
A. subjects citizens to executive decrees 14. Electoral colleges have been criticized because they
B. makes laws too flexible A. are very expensive B. create more
C. makes laws too technical seats in the legislature C. make the
D. is not useful in emergency situation legislature too responsible D. sometimes
negate the wishes of the electorate.
5. A system of government in which the central government is
supreme over other levels is 15. Universal adult suffrage is usually restricted in most
A. totalitarian B. confederal political systems to
C. federal D. unitary A. those with landed property B. literates
C. citizens D. those not more than 70
6. Which of the following defines a constitution? years old
A. Any written legal document B. Basic laws for
the conduct of modern government 16. An election in which citizens are called upon to vote f
C. Rules adopted in legislative proceedings or or against a specified issue is called a
D. The doctrine that limits the powers of government. A. mandate B. referendum C. by-election
D. run-off election
7. Which of the following ideologies advocates governmental
control over all sources of powers? 17. The most important objective of political parties is to
A. Totalitarian B. Feudalism A. elect their spokesmen B. lobby the government
C. Liberation D. Democracy C. form effective national organisations D. control
the government
8. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable means
of achieving democracy? 18. The primary function of a pressure group is to
A. Referendum B. Recall A. win and control governmental power
C. Initiative D. Riots B. elect their officials
C. influence government policy
9. In the cabinet system of government, individual D. organise workers to confront government
responsibility of minsiters means that
A. errors. 19. The biased presentation of information in order
B. a minister must hold his surbordinates influence public opinion is refered to as
responsbile for his failures A. mobilization B. propaganda
C. the prime minister can remove an erring minister C. indoctrination D. distortion
D. no individual can be held responsible for
government decisions 20. Which of the following was a great military political
power before the colonization of Nigeria
10. The principle of collective responsibility does not A. The Idoma Kingdom B. The Nupe kingdom
operate under the presidential system of government C. The Kwararafa empire D. The Igala empire
because
A. cabinet members are responsible people 21. The Yoruba traditional governmental system was
B. the legislative and the executive work together A. egalitarian B. republican
C. the executive is elected for a fixed term C. democratic D. monarchical
D. the judiciary will overrule the impeachment
of the cabinet
22. During the pre-colonial period in Eastern Nigeria 32. The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the
autocratic rule was made difficult by the A. Supreme Court B. High Court
A. activities of secret socieities C. Judical Committee of the Privy Council
B. rulers fear of detronement D. Court of Appeal
C. absence of a system of centralized authority
D. demands of pressure groups. 33. The highest decision making body in Nigeria under
the Buhari regime was the
23. Vassalage as a political system was practised by the A. Armed Forces Ruling Council
A. Ibibio and Igala B. Tiv B. Supreme Military Council
C. Hausa Fulani D. Igbo and Efik C. National Council of States
D. Federal Executive Council
24. Which of the following was NOT a feature of colonial
administration in Nigeria? 34. Under the 1979 Constitution, the function of the Civil
A. Forced labour B. Low prices and exports Service Commission include the
C. Taxes on the population D. Education levy A. appointment of Civil Service Commissioners
B. appointment, promotion and discipline of
25. Dual mandate was proposed by civil servants
A. Hugh Clapperton B. Hugh Clifford C. negotiating better conditions of service for
C. Lord Lugard D. George Goldie civil servants.

26. The Northern People’s Congress stand during the 35. The primary factor which led to the formation of
nationalist struggle for Nigeria’s independence was for political parties in colonial Nigeria was
A. immediate independence for Nigeria A. introduction of the elective principle and
B. Gradual evolution towards independence representative institutions
C. the continuation of British rule B. increased wealth of the indigenous elites
D. independence in 1956. C. granting of self government by the colonial
administration D. call by black people all over
27. The Aba women riot was caused by the attempt to the world for a final assault on colonialism
introduce
A. indirect rule to Southern Nigeria C. direct taxes 36. Three of the principles used in revenue allocation
C. the warrant chief system D. forced labour in Nigeria are
A national interest, cultural ethnocentrism and
28. One of the unique innovations of the 1951 constitution national unity
was the introduction of B. land mass, primary school enrolment and
A. regional premiers B. the office of the speaker geographical location
C. the office of the prime minister C. derivation, equality and even development
D. regional executives D. needs, derivation and relative stability

29. The Constituent Assembly of 1978 had the primary 37. The results of the 1973 census in Nigeria were
responsiblity of rejected because
A. drafting a constitution for the Second Republic A. the figures were unacceptable to the U.N.
B. deliberating on, debating and amending the draft B. the figures were controversial
constitution. C. Nigerians were contented with the existing
C. passing the constitutio into law D. conducting a population figures
referendum on the draft constitution D. there were preparations for a fresh census

30. To quality to be President of the Federal Republic of 38. One of the advantages of privatization is that it
Nigeria under the 1979 Constitution a candidate must A. relieves government of its liquidity problem
A. be at least 40 years of age B. makes the poor to be richer
B. be a Nigerian by birth C. have the C. gives private individuals control over public
highest number of votes cast at the election corporations
D. have not less than 1/4 of the votes cast at D. makes public corporations more effective
the election in each of at leat 2/3 of all states
in the federation. 39. The most important aspect of the 1976 Local Government
Reforms was the
31. By statute, the main responsibility of the armed forces A. introduction of a uniform system of local
of Nigeria is to government B. introduction of party
A. form a military government politics at the local levels C. subordination
B. maintain law and order C. defend the off local government to the Federal and state
sovereignty of the country Governments. D. recognition of local
D. take part in peace-keeping operations in government as utonomous and sovereign
troubled neighbourhood countries. government
40. Local governments were created in Nigeria mainly to 45. Nigeria’s foreign policy of non-alignment was a reaction to
A. realise the objective of full employment A. British imperialism
B. bring government nearer to the people B. East West ideological competition
C. prevent the creation of more states C. militarism of ex-colonial powers
D. encourage competition and rivalry amongst D. Third World poverty
ethnic groups
46. Which of the following countries had a strained
41. The Nigeria Military Government launched the relationship with Nigeria over the Angolan crisis of 1975?
Second National Development plan in 1970 purposely A. The Soviet Union B. Tanzania
A. to develop all the disadvantaged states C. The United States of America
B. to accelerate the development of the country D. South Africa
C. for rapid economic and social development
of the country after the civil war 47. In the First Republic, Nigeria was very relunctant to
D. to further the cause of a united, strong and have meaningful interaction with
self reliant nation A Italy B. the Soviet Union
C. the United States of America D. Germany
42. A feature unique to General Murtala Muhammed’s
Supreme Military Council as compared to that of 48. The major liberation organisation which fought for
General Yakubu Gowon was the Namibia’s independence was
A. inclusion of civilians as members A. SWAPO B. A.N.C.
B. exclusion of military governors from the council C. FRELIMO D. M.P.L.A.
C. inclusion of the Chief Justice as a member
D. the exclusion of the Inspector-General of Police 49. Which of these international organisations is the
from the council predesecessor of the United Nations?
A. The European Economic Commun ity
43. A major problem of militarygovernments in Nigeria is the B. The Organisation of American Sattes
A. absence of proper accountability C. The League of Nations
B. abolition of the post of ombudsman D. The North Atlatic Treaty Organisation.
C. absence of the rule of law
D. encouragement of foreign investors. 50. The dramatic rise in the membership of the U. N. during late
1991 and early 1992 is best accounted for by the
44. In 1973, following an O.A.U. resolution, Nigeria broke A. admission of a large number of newly
diplomatic relations with independent African States.
A. South Africa B. France B. appointement of the first African as
C. Israel D. Cuba Secretatry General.
C break up of the Soviet Union into indepen
dent Republics.
D. expansion fo the membership of the Security
Council.

Government 1993
1. Political authority refers to the 4. Ultimate power in a confederal state is
A. ability to effect political action A. concentrated in the central government
B. capacity to produce desired political results B. consittutionally divided between the centre
C. capacity to reshape the political behaviour of and the units
citizens C. exercised by the larger units
D. recognized right to excercise political power D. vested in the constituents units.

2. The sovereignty of a state is determined by 5. Federalism is a constitutional arrangement in which

A. economic and legal aspects A. the national and regional governments
B. social and political aspects C. political derive their powers from the constitution
and legal aspect B. the national goverrment acts only through
D. economic and political aspects the regional governments
C. regional and local authorities exist at the
3. The civil service belongs to the organ or government pleasure of the national government
called the D. the national government does not reach
A. legislature B. executive individual citizens directly
C. judiciary D. parastatals
6. A written constitution is one that C. the emergency of ideal leadership
A. cannot be modified or amended B.can only be D. equal representation
ammended by the highest legislative body
C. is contained in a single document D. is drawn 18. Free and fair elections do NOT accommodate
up by draftsmen A. obedience to the rules of the game
B. equality of all votes C. freedom of choice by voters.
7. A federal system of govenment can exist without D. partial electoral administration
A. decision of powers B. supremacy of the ritten
constitution C. an executive presidential system 19. Proportional representation is often criticized because it
D. a rigid ammendment procedure A. tends to preserve the multi-party system
B. is too simple to operate C. ensures
8. As a political ideology, communism seeks to that each party has a minister
A. concentrate national wealth in the hands of a few D. provides that each states is represented
B. abolish collective ownership of property according to its population
C. provide adequate opportunities for citizens
to make profits D. eliminate all 20. Interest groups are important to democracies because they
forms of socio economic inequality A. reperesent the masses B. do not allow misrule
C. represent groups who otherwise would be left out
9. Nazism as a doctrine was proposed by D. provide a forum for confronting the government
A. Benito Mussolini B. Adolf Hitler
C. Karl Marx D. Joseph Stalin 21. In the Habe political system, the Sarki was assisted in
performing his executive functions by the
10. Despite the doctrine of separation of powers the A. alkali B. khadi
legislature plays quasi-judicial role as a result of its C. ulama D. galadima
A. investigative powers B. financial powers
C. emergency powers D. appropriation powers 22. In the Oyo empire, the Alaafin was
A. an absolute monarch B. popularly elected
11. In the presidential system of government, the president is C. a constitutional monarch
A. elected only through the electoral college D. worshipped as a deity
B. empowered to dissolve the legislature
C. Head of State and Head of Government 23. Which of these sets represents the disadvantages of
D. vested with absolute powers. colonialism?
A. Exposure to western education, cultural
12. In the Westminster system of government, formal imperialism and external trade relations
legislation can take the following forms EXCEPT B. Cultural imperialism and external manipulate
A. royal proclamations B. orders in council and foreign control of domestic economy
C. acts of parliament D. ministerial pronouncement C. External manipulation, civil service evoultion
and liberal democracy
13. Delegated legislation is disadvantageous because it D. Liberal democracy, foreign domination and
A erodes the principle of separation of powers cultrual imperialism
B. makes hasty review of legislation possible
C. disallows quick action during emergencies 24. Imperialism was adopted by Europe to
D. increases the work of the legislature A. expand its economic and political base
B. develop the economies of the colonies
14. The principle of the rule of law stipulates that C. establish a democratic society similar to that
A. only judges interpretes the law of Europe
B. law makers are above the law D. end ethnic rivalries in the colonies.
C. everybody is equal before the law
D. lawyers make laws 25. The Lagos Colony and the Southern Protectorate of
Nigeria were joined in the year
15. Gerrymandering means A. 1904 B. 1906 C. 1910 D. 1914.
A. the second ballot system
B. single transferable vote 26. Tubman Goldie was famous for the
C. the manipulation of constituency boundaries A. suppression of local rulers
D. the tyranny of the majority. B. merger of British companies into the United
African Company C. Akassa Raid
16. Another term for an colonialismn electoral district is a D. treaty of friendship and the race of Nikki
A ward B. local government area
C. politically demarcated area D. consituency 27. Which of the following internal factors did NOT affect
the development of nationalist movements in colonial
17. Franchise ensures Nigeria?
A. participation in public affairs
B. a classless democratic system
A. Denial of equal opportunities to Nigerian vis-a-vis B. 1979 Constitution C. Murtala/ Obansanjo
their European counterparts. regime D. Buhari regime
B. The establishment of political parties and
newspaper 37. In Nigeria, public corporations are also know as
C. the influx of West Indian and American A. multinational corporations
intellectuals B. private enterpises C. parastatals
D. The development of modern education D. co-operative societies

28. One significant aspect of the Legislative Council of 38. The local governement is an example of
1922 was that A. concentration of power
A. Africans were in the majority B. separation of power
B. it made laws only for the southern Provinces C. devolution of power D. delega
C. the Colony of Lagos and the Protectorate of tion of power
Southern Nigeria were merged
D. laws governing land ownership in the north 39. The body responsible for exercising the functions of
were extended to the south. local governments in the 1976 reforms was the
A. local government commission B. local
29. The 1960 Independence Constitution could be described as government council C. local government
written committee D. committee of
A monarchical and parliamentary chairmen and supervisory councillors
B. republican and parliamentary
C. monarchichal and presidential 40. Diarchy refers to the
D. federal and republican A. rule by the government and the opposition
parties B. mixture of parliamentary
30. The governor-general of Nigeria at the time of political and presidential systems
independence was C. rule of political and economics elites
A. Lord Frederick Lugard B. Sir John D. rule by the military and civilians
Macpherson C. Sir Arthur Richards
D. Sir James Robertson 41. Nigeria’s relations with other nations is determined by her
A. political culture B. political socializatio
31. Before the collapse of Nigeria’s first republic in 1966, C. national interest D. national
the prime minister was both consciousness
A. the head of government and a law maker
B. the head of state and Commander-in-Chief of 42. The foreign policy of Nigeria is centred on Africa
the armed forces because of her
C. Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces and A. membership of O.A.U B. membership of
party leader ECOWAS C. concern for and attention of
D. Head of State and party leader. African problems D. commitment to end
colonization in Africa
32. In Nigeria, the function of the Council of states is
A. judicial B. investigative 43. The major organization through which Nigeria pursues
C. legislative D. advisory her economic, political and social interest in West
Africa is
33. Under the military administrration, supreme court A. ECOWAS B. A.D.B.
decision are subject to review by C. E.C.A D. O.A.U
A. Sharia Court of Appeal B. no other court
of law C. Federal Court of Appeal 44. A state is admitted into the United Nations on the
D. Judicial tribunal A. recommendation of the secretary-general to
the security council
34. Public Commissions established under the 1979 B. concurrent vote of the Security Council and the
constitution were expected to be General Assembly
A. independent of the executive C. enabling action of the General Assembly
B. part of executive C. advisory to the D. sponsorship of any member of the organization
exective
D. advisory to the legislature. 45. The highest policy making body of the O.A.U. is the
A. the Economic and Social Commission
35. Which ofthe following was an ad hoc Revenue B. Council of Ministers C. General
Allocation Commission? Secretariat D. Assembly of Heads of States
A. Ashby Commission B. Adedeji Commission and Governments
C Udoji Commission D. Phillipson Commission
46. To which of these bodies did Nigeria belong before
36. The term federal character was popularised by the the formation of the O.A.U in 1963?
A. 1975 Constitution Drafting Committee A. Cassablanca group B. Monrovia group
C. African and Malagasy Union 49. Financial contributions to the liberation movements in
D. Pan African Union Southern Africa by African governments were
chanelled through the
47. Who was the first Nigerian to be appointed President A. E.C.A B. ECOWAS
of the International Court of Justice at the Hague? C. O.A.U. D. U.N.O.
A. Justice Taslim Elias
B. Justice Bola Ajibola 50. Prior to 1991, veto power was exercised in the United
C. Justice Daddy Onyeama Nations Security Council by
D. Justice DanleyAlexander A. France, Germany, the Soviet Union, Italy and
Japan
48. An agency of the United Nations which specialize in B. Japan, the United States, Italy, Germany and
the welfare of children is the France
A. W.H.O B. U.N.E.S.C.O. C. the soviet Union, People Republic of China,
C. U.N.I.C.E.F D. U.N.D.P. Great Britain, France and the United States
D. Italy, the United States, the Soviet Union,
Germany and France

Government 1994

1. A society that is politically organised under a 7. Switzerland is often cited as a classic example of a
government is called a country with
A. sovereign state B. community A. unitary constitution
C. national state D. polity B. quasi-unitary constitution
C. federal constitution
2. Political power is naked force when it is exercised without D. confederal constitution
A. set objectives B. state apparatus
C. governmental legitimacy 8. What is the major distinguishing characteristic
D. sovereignty between flexible and rigid constitution?
A. Manner of documentation
3. The major difference between a state and a nation is B. One is unwritten
that the latter presupposes a C. Amendment procedure
A. heterogenous population D. Degree of legality
B. homogenous population
C. well-defined territory 9. Which of the following best defines democracy?
D. more organized system A. Government based on virtuous principles and
laws B. Government based on the
4. The principle of judicial independence makes sense spirit and letter of the constitution.
only when judges C. Government based on the free consent of the
A. have freedom to try any case governed. D. Government which
B. are themselves above the law recongnizes and respects human rights as
C. have permanent tenure of office enshrined in the constitution
D. can join any political party of their choice 10. An economic system in which the major means of
production are owned and controlled by a few
5. A federal system of government has the following individuals is called
three advantages A. socialism B. communism
A. economics of scale, uniform development C. communalism D. capitalism
and political unity B. economics of scale,
uniform development and strong army 11. The essence of checks and balances is to
C. strong army, greater security and economics A. enhance the functioning of government and
of scale D. economic co-operation, uniform prevent arbitary use of power B.ensure that
development and greater security people have their own rights C. make
sure that power is not delegated to other bodies
6. Constitutionalism means or individuals D. prevent political parties from
A. promotion of the constitution putting pressure on government
B. respect for the constitution
C. electoral processes based on the constitution 12. The power of a head of state to dissolve the legisla
D. voting rule and regulations ture and order a general election is usually associated
with the
A. presidental system of government having self-government B. British colonialists
B. monarchical system of government were no longer interested in governing their acquired
C. parliamentary system of government territories C. French administrative policies did not
D. unitary system of government allow for political agitation D. nationalists in
British West Africa were more united than their
13. Accountability in public office means that officers shall French counterparts
A. keep proper account of states finances
B. render good account of their activities 24. In British West Africa, the elective priciple was first
C. not accept bribes and gratification introduced in
D. declare their assets periodically A. Nigeria B. Ghana
C. Sierra Leone D. The Gambia
14. The act of bringing a legislative session to an end
only for business to continue later is called 25. A thorny issue during the 1957/58 Nigerian constitu
A. adjournment B. prorogation tional conferences was the
C. resolution D. abrogation A. leadership of the first post-independence
government B. problem of
15. Which of the following violates the principle of the ethnic minorities C. control of the Mid-
rule of law? West by the Western Region
A. Arbitrary increases of prices by traders D. status of Lagos
B. Criticism of government actions by the press
C. Arbitrariness of government policies 26. In the 1963 Constitution, there was seperation of
D. Arbitrariness of individuals in the society powers between the
A. president and the commander-in-chief of the
16. An electoral system which restricts voting rights to armed forces B. executive and the legislature
only male adults is termed C. head of state and the president D. head of
A. popular franchise B. male suffrage government and the head of state
C. limited franchise D. adult suffrage
27. A major feature which differentiated the 1963 and 1979
17. Which of the following best represents duties and constitutions was that in the fomer,
obligations of government? A. ministers were appointed from the National
A. Respect for national symbols Assembly B. ministers were appointed
B. Provision of public utilities from outside the National Assembly
C. Care of public property C. the prime minister was elected by the whole
D. Obedience of laws country D. the National Assembly
comprised the senate and the House of
18. An electoral process in which candidates for elective Assembly
offices are selected by party members is known as
A. primary election B. electoral college 28. A court order compelling the executive or its agencies
C. direct election D. preferential voting to produce an unlawfully detained person is called a writ of
A. mandamus B. subpoena
19. The principle whereby a legislator’s tenure is abruptly C. habeas corpus D. injunction
brought to an end by his constituency is known as
A. rejection B. reference 29. The primary function of the Armed Forces of Nigeria is to
C. recall D. return A. promote and protect the security of the nation
B. protect the head of states and commander-
20. One of the main fuctions of a political party is in-chief of the armed forces of the nation
A. political evalutionB. interest aggregation C. protect the citizens against corrupt and
C. political account ability D. interest determination oppressive politicians
D. project the country’s image by participating
21. Which of the following traditional Nigerian societies in peace keeping operations
practised the system of checks and balances?
A. Tiv B. Yoruba 30. Which organ was enshrined in the 1979 constitution
C. Hausa D. Igbo to protect public servants from political interference
and arbitrary dismission?
22. In terms of administrative structure, which of the A. Public Complaints Commission
following sets of pre-colonial Nigeria political systems B. Code of Conduct Bureau
do NOT match? C. Federal Judicial Service Commission
A. Igbo and Tiv B. Benin and Igbo D. Federal Civil Service Commission
C. Sokoto and Oyo D. Benin and Sokoto
31. The political party that replaced NNDP before
23. Nationalist activities were earlier in British than in independence was
A. NYM B. NCNC
French West Africa because the C. UNDP D. AG
A. French West Africans were not interested in
32. Apart from discussing the draft of the 1979 constitution, C. Nigeria businessmen who represent foreign
what was the major pre-occupation of the Constituent interests
Assembly in 1978? D. Nigeria contractors to foreign government
A. Revenue Allocation B. Sharia issue
C. Formation of Political Parties 42. Which of the following countries is closely associ
D. Election of a President ated with the development of Ajaokuta Steel Project?
A. U.S.A B. Germany
33. The first minority state to be created in the Nigerian C. India D. Russia
federation was
A. Benue-Plateau B. Cross River 43. The foreign affairs minister who advocated the
C. Kwara D. Mid-west ‘Concert of Medium Powers’ was
A. Prof. Ibrahim Gambari
34. One major constraint on the smooth operation of B. Major-General Joe Garba
federalism in Nigeria is the C. Alhaji Rilwanu Lukman
A. lack of an acceptable revenue allocation formula D. Prof. Bolaji Akinyemi
B. inability to conduct a successful census
C. high cost of administration 44. Which of the following reasons best explains why
D. frequent change of government Nigeria during the first republic, could not pursue an
independent foreign policy?
35. One of the basic differences between ministries and A. The numerous differences among the ethinic
public corporations is that while ministries are groups
A. run on rules, public corporations are not B. Lack of political ideology
B. wholly owned by the government, public C. Nigeria was a non-aligned country
corporations are owned by both government D. Nigeria’s economy was dependent on the
and individuals Western countries
C. not established with specific statutes, public
corporations are 45. The British prime minister who opposed the cancella
D. not important in developmental process, tion of Nigeria’s debt was
public corporations are A. Margaret Thatcher B. Edward Heath
C. John Major D. Harold Wilson
36. Privatization and commercialization of public enter-
prises in Nigeria will lead to further entrenchment of 46. Which of the following African countries received
A. socialism B. capitalism Nigeria’s assistance to fight her war of independence
C. welfarism D. fascism in 1975/76?
A. Namibia B. Angola
37. The 1976 Local Government Reforms has C. South Africa D. Mozambique
A. reduced political corruption at the local level
B. resulted in accelerated development in the 47. Which Nigerian was the executive secretary of the ECA?
rural areas C. created more A. Chief Emeka Anyaoku
autonomy for local administration B. Prof. Adebayo Adedeji C. Chief
D. reduced the political roles of traditional rulers Matthew Mbu D. Alhaji Abubakar Alhaji

38. The Babangida administration’s transition to civil rule 48. Nigeria was regarded as a ‘Frontiline State’ because she
programme officially started in A. assisted liberation struggles in Southen Africa
A. 1992 B. 1990 B. assisted ECOMOG troops in Liberia
C. 1987 D. 1985 C. sent troops for peace-keeping in Somalia
D. sent policemen to Namibia
39. A major negative impact of military intervention in
Nigerian politics is the 49. The major strategy used by OPEC to influence oil
A. politicization of the military price is by
B. domination of the economy by foreign powers A. determining the quantity of oil to be produced at
C. poor performance of the military in foreign any given period B. influencing buyers at the
peace-keeping operations international market to buy at high price C.allowing
D. neglect of the welfare of military personel member countries to produce at their discretion
D. increasing the supply of the commodity
40. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new
Federal Capital was headed by 50. The Gulf war of 1990 is an indication that the U.N.O. is
A. Graham Douglas B. Mamman Nasir unable to
C. Rotimi Williams D. Akinola Aguda A. ensure free world trade B. stop colonialism
C. control armament
41. The term, comprador borgeoisie, has been used by D. ensure permanent world peace
scholars to describe
A. foreign businessmen in Nigeria
B. foreign diplomats working in Nigeria
Government 1995
1. The concept of sovereignty can best be defined as the 11. Bye-laws made by the Minister of Transport for running the
A. state of being supreme in authotity Nigerian Railway Corporation is an exercise of
B. power of the executive president A. delegated power B. parliamentary power
C. supremacy of the legislature C. statutory power D. residual power
D. supremacy of the executive
12. The application of the rule of law can be limited by
2. Power is understood to mean the A. giving judges full authority
A. right to compel obedience B. invoking emergency powers
B. capacity to compel obedience C. securing the tenure of office of judges
C. relationship between the government and D. insulating judges from partisan politics
the people
D. desire to seize thestate apparatus 13. Laws made by the attorney-general and minister of
justice are called
3. The institutions which constitute the main organs of A. temporary laws B. bills of attainder
the government of a nation are the C. case laws D. ex post facto laws
A. legislature, the executive and the judiciary
B. judiciary and the civil service 14. The legal process by which an alien is accepted as a
C. trustee and the presidium national of a country other than his own is known as
D. civil service and the senate A. naturalization B. citizenship
C. expatriation D. indigenization
4. The executive arm of government includes the
A. police B. courts 15. The inalienable rights of the citizen are best protected
C. national assembly D. senate president through
A. an elected government
5. Unicameral legislature is often criticized for B. a humane head of state C. a constitution
A. restricting the scope of participation D. a fearless judiciary
B. cheapening the opportunity for participation
C. condoning the participation of traditional rulers 16. Enfranchisement describes the process of
D. narrowing participation to the military A. allowing eligible persons the right to vote
B. allowing special categories of persons to
6. A legal document yet to be enacted into law but still contest elections C. allowing
under debate in the legislature is known as all women the right to vote
A. an edict B. a decree D. the actual act of voting
C. a white paper D. a bill
17. An electoral system that apportions legislative seats
7. According to Marxist theory, those who own and to a group relative to its actual voting strength is
control the means of production in a capitalist society referred to as
are the A. franchise B. simple plurality
A. producers B. bourgeoisie C. proportional representation
C. colonialists D. proletariats D. discriminatory majority

8. A distinctive feature of a democratic system of 18. A non party election occurs when
government is the A. all candidates run as independents
A. existence of periodic competitive elections B. there are no party symbols
B. existence of a single political party C. only party candidates contest
C. absence of strong pressure groups D. voters have no parties
D. centralization of all power in the executive
19. The major distinguishing factor between a political
party and a pressure group is that while the former
9. The goal of the theory of seperation of power is to
A. is effectively organized, the latter is not
A. make the executive dependent on the legislature
B. engages in propaganda, the latter is not
B. give more powers to the legislature
C. seeks power, the latter influences it
C. protect individual liberty
D. does not form a government, the latter does
D. create efficiency in the judiciary
20. Public opinion is the view expressed by a
10. The power of the courts to declare legislative A. few members of the society
enactments as unconstitutional is known as judicial B. few articulate members in the society
A. ruling B. review C. majority of the members of a society
C. interpretation D. edict D. group of individuals in the society
21. On what is charismatic authority based? 32. Which of the following was NOT a function of
A. inherited wealth and power FEDECO during the second republic?
B. tyrannical tendencies A. Organizing, conducting and supervising all
C. institutional procesess elections B. Providing guidelines, rules
D. Personal ability and influence and regulations for political parties
C. Arranging for the registration of persons
22. In which of the following Nigerian pre-colonial qualified to vote
political units was the principle of separation of power D. Swearing-in of elected candidates
institutionalized?
A. Oyo Empire B. Benin Empire 33. Who among the following served as chairmen of NEC
C. Hausa states D. Bornu Empire under General Babangida?
A. Chief Ani and Justice Ovie-Whisky
23. The geographical entity in which the traditional ruler B. Prof. Awa and Prof Nwosu
was born the religious and political head was the C. Prof. Uya and Alh. Kurfi
A. Tiv society B. Efik kingdom D. Col. Wase and Chief Esua
C. Jukun kingdom D. Sokoto caliphate
34. The Minorities Commission appointed in 1957 in
24. In which order did the various European groups Nigeria was headed by
penetrate into the interior of present-day Nigeria? A. JusticeUdo Udoma B. Sir Henry Willink
A. Explorers, missionaries, traders and imperialists C. Sir Allan Lennox-Boyd
B. Explorers, trader, missionaries and imperialists D. Justice Darnely Alexander
C. Explorers, traders, imperialists and missionaries
D. Explorers, imperialists, traders and missionaries 35. Nigeria adopted the nineteen-state structure in
A. 1960 B. 1966
25. Indirect rule was introduced in Nigeria because C. 1969 D. 1976
A. traditional rulers were powerful
B. there were few administrators in the country 36. Privatization of public corporations in Nigeria implies
C. the colonialists were poor administrators A. government divestment from the companies
D. the native authorities were already well organized B. the public take over of companies
C. the autonomy of government companies
26. The breakdown of the Macpherson Constitution was D. the commercialization of public corporations
partly caused by the crisis within the
A. N.C.N.C. B A.G. 37. Examples of public corporations in Nigeria are
C. N.P.C D. N.N.D.P. A. UAC and CFAO B. NEPA and UAC
C. CFAO and NCC D. NEPA and NRC
27. The first leader of the National council of Nigeria and 38. Presidentialism in Local government administration is
the Cameroons was understood to mean
A. Nnamdi Azikiwe B. Michael Okpara A. the abolition of the role of traditional rulers
C. Samuel Ikoku D. Herbert Macaulay as chairmen B. local government
chief executives to be known as presidents
28. Under the 1963 Constitution, a bill could only become C. chairmen of local governments to serve as
law if it was accented to by the accounting officers
A. Prime minister B. president D. the phasing out of the post of the concilors
C. queen D. governor-general
39. Local government have been stripped of one of their
29. The first executive president of Nigeria was important functions through the establishment of the
A. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe A. National Primary Education Commission
B. Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa B. National Health Care Commission
C. General Yakubu Gowon C. National Board of Local Governments
D. Alhaji Shehu Shagari D. National Orientation Agency

30. Which of the following organs control the Civil service? 40. The military administration that attempted to tackle
A. parliament and the courts the problem of inefficiency in the public sector by
B. trade unions and the courts mass retirement of public officers was the
C. the police and parliament A. Gowon administration B. Muritala administration
D. tribunals and interest groups C. Obasanjo administration D. Buhari administration

31. Under the Civil Service Reforms of 1988. the Nigerian 41. Under military regimes in Nigeria, the branches of
Civil Service became government that were fused are the
A. nationalized B. professionalized A. executive and the legislature
C. bureacratized D. indegenized B. executive and the judiciary
C. legislature and the judiciary
D. executive, the legislature and the judiciary
42. Nigeria is the major shareholder in the 47. Which of the following countries has the right to veto
A. OPEC Fund for Development the decision of the Security Council of the UNO?
B. African Development Bank A. Switzerland B. Argentina
C. World Bank C. China D. Sweden
D. International Monetary Fund 48. The primary objective of the UNO is to
A. maintain international peace and security
43. Nigerian soldiers have been deployed for peace B. promote fundamental human rights
keeping mission to C. develop bilateral relations among nations
A. Burundi and Yugoslavia B. Ethiopia andKorea D. serve as a co-ordinating platform for the actions
C. Somalia and Rwanda D. Haiti and Lebanon of nations

44. The adoption of non-alignment as a principle of 49. The OAU is founded on the principle of
Nigerian foreign policy is aimed at A. settlement of international disputes by armed
A. promoting Nigerian’s leadership aspiration in struggles
Africa B. justifiable interference in the domestice
B. placing Nigeria on a comfortable position to affairs of member states
contribute to international peace and morality C. sovereign equality of member state
C. enabling Nigeria assume equal status with D. equal contribution by member states
the world powers
D. fulfilling a basic requirement for her accep 50. One of the achievements of ECOWAS is the
tance into the Security Council of the UN A eradication of colonialism
B. adoption of vehicle insurance scheme
45. The country whose interest conflicted with those of C. settlement of Liberian refugees
Nigeria over Angola in 1975 was D. respect for human rights
A USSR B. USA
C. France D. Cuba

46. The principle of Africa being the centre-piece of

Nigeria’s foreign policy has been demonstrated in
A. Egypt B. Gabon
C. Zambia D. Namibia

Government 1997
1. Authority refers to the 4. The official report of proceedings in parliament is
A. might to secure compliance from other within known as the
a given social setting A. Hansard B. diary of events
B. power to exercise might over others behaviour C. gazette D. summary of proceedings
C. mandate to exercise power over others
D. ability to compel others to act in a particular way 5. An important feature of the federal system of government is
the existence of a
2. Government is different from other political organiza A. strong national legislature
tions because B. President with veto power
A. it has legitimate power over citizens C. court system with impartial judges
B. its officials have fixed terms of office D. multiple tiers of government
C. it can punish those who violate its rules
D. it is made up of elected officials 6. An important aspect of an unwritten constitution is that it
A. is easy to understand by everybody
3. Judicial independence in a modern democracy can be B. safeguards the monarchy
ensured by C. contains customary laws and conventions
A. the confirmation of the appointment of D. is not easily amended
judges by the legislature
B. the provision that judges can only be 7. The ideology that advocates the complete control of
removed from office by the president-in-council the sources of power is
C. making judges independent of the ministry A. totalitarianism B. socialism
of justice C. liberalism D. democracy
D. safeguarding the security of tenure of judges
8. Shadow cabinet is associated with the 18. The process of dividing a country into electoral
A. communist system B. presidential districts is known as
system C. parliamentary system A. demarcation B. delineation
D. fascist system C. delimitation D. distribution

9. One basic characteristic of parliamentary system of 19. Political parties are formed essentially to
government is that the A. capture state power
A. upper and lower houses of the legislature B. replace bad governments
have equal powers C. complete with the military for power
B. cabinet is part of the legislature D. satisfy the needs of members
C. prime minister is usually a member of the
upper house 20. A systematic effort to manipulate te beliefs, attitudes
D. opposition party members are also included and actions of the public through the mass media and
in the cabinet other means is called
A. political education B. public opinion
10. In a presidential system, the theory of separation of C. propaganda D. brainstorming
power is not absolute because the president
A. can declare a state of emergency 21. In the Igbo political system, authority was shared among
B. can be impeached by the court A. men and women with ozo titles
C. assents to bills D. can declare laws B. all age groups and warrant chiefs
null and void C. elders of the community and ofo title holders
D. title holders and age groups
11. The principle of checks and balance is found mainly in
A. parliamentary system B. presi 22. The crucial check on an autocratic Oba in the pre-
dential system C. monarchies colonial Yoruba political system was
D. oligarchies A. presenting to him a suicide symbol
B. avoiding the palace
12. During the second republic in Nigeria, the branch of C. sending him a exile
the legislature responsible for ratifying presidential D. refusing to carry out his orders
nominees for appointments was the
A. Senate B. Council of states 23. A major feature of the system of government in the
C. House of Rrepresentative Sokoto Caliphate was that
D. Public Service Commissions A. it was based on customs and traditions
B. it was theocratic
13. A tax law originates from C. it was democratic
A. a private member’s bill B. an education tax bill D. power was effectively decentralized
C. a judicial bill D. a public bill
24. The people of Southern Nigeria first came in contact
14. The order used by the court against unnecessary with Europeans through
detention is A. military expeditions B. Church missions
A. interlocutory injunction B. habeas corpus C. gunboat diplomacyD. peaceful trade
C. that of extradition D. mandamus
25. Nigeria’s first law making body after the amalgamation
15. When school pupils sing the national anthem and was know as the
salute the flag, they are A. Nigerian Council B. National Assembly
A. performing their obligations as citizen C. Nigeria National Assembly
B. exercising their rights as citizens D. Legislative Council
C. practicing to be leaders of tomorrow
D. carrying out their responsibilities as citizens 26. One major flaw of the British indirect rule in Nigeria
was that the system
16. A major duty of citizen is to A. made use of traditional institution
A. vote at elections B. associate freely B. championed ethnocentrism
C. pay taxes D. join political parties C. encouraged the use of European administrators
D. was not centralized
17. The simple plurality electoral system is often criticized
because 27. The nationalist organization formed in Nigerian in the
A. the ruling party may lose the election late 1930s was the
B. the winner may not poll an absolut majority A. National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroons
C. it works against all opposition parties B. Nigerian Youth Movement
D. it is easy to rig C. Nigerian National Democratic Party
D. Action Group
28. In 1947, Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe led a delegation to the 37. For pre-independence political parties in Nigeria
British Colonial Office in London to protest against the included the
A. provisions of the Richards Constitution A. AG, NCNC, NNDP, and NYM
B. appointment of Bernar Bourdillon as B. NNDP, NCNC, NPC and AG
Governor-General C. NNDP, NCNC, NPC and UMBC
C. appointment of Oliver Lyttelton as colonial D. NYM, NCNC, NPC and NNDP
secretary
D. provision of the Macpherson constitution 38. In Nigeria, functions shared by the central and state
governments include
29. Under the 1922 Clifford constitution, franchise was A. external representation, education and
granted in Calabar and Lagos to provision of water
A. all adults B. male adults B. construction of roads, defence and health
C. persons with an annual income of at least 100 C. control of ports, health and education
D. male adults with an annual income of at least 100 D education, provision of water and
construction of roads
30. Under the 1979 Constitution in Nigeria, each state of
the federation 39. The creation of more states in Nigeria has
A. had a bicameral legislature A. eliminated ethnic and religious conflicts
B. had equal legislators in the House of B. reduced the gap between rich and poor states
Representatives C. increased the powers of the federal government
C. had an equal number of senators D. increased the power of the states and local
D. was provided with a presidential liaison officer governments

31. Under he 1963 Republican Constitution, the power of 40. After the botched coup of January 1966, power was
judicial review was vested in the handed over to General Johnson Aguiyi-Ironsi by the
A. supreme court B. parliament A. senate B. president
C. president D. the chief justice of the federation C. house of representatives
D. council of ministers
32. Between 1966 and 1975, the highest legislative body
in Nigeria was the 41. Nigeria’s major export commodities in the early years
A. Armed forces revolutionary council of her independence were
B. Supreme military council A. cocoa, groundnut and ginger
C. Armed forces ruling council B. cocoa, rubber and benniseed
D. Provisional ruling council C. cocoa, palm oil and groundnut
D. rubber, kolanut and cotton
33. Three important concepts associated with a well
organized civil service are 42. The foreign affairs minister who introduced economic
A .meritocracy, neutrality and bureaucracy diplomacy as a foreign policy intiative was
B. general orders, confidentialism and red-tapism A. Prof. Bolaji Akinyemi
C. neutrality, anonymity and impartiality B. Major-General Ike Nwachukwu
D. bureaucracy, confidentialism and general orders C. Prof. Ibrahim Gambari
D. Major-General Joseph Garba
34. The public agency now mandated to register births
and deaths in Nigeria is the 43. Non-alignment is no longer relevant in Nigeria foreign
A. National Civil Registration Commission policy because
B. Civil Service Commission A. she is seen as the leader of Africa
C. Ministry of Health B. her focus is now on Africa
D. National Population Commission C. of the formation of the ECOWAS
D. the cold war has ended
35. Under the Babangida administration, the political
bureau recommended at the federal level, 44. In 1978, the Obasanjo Administration nationalized the
A. unicameral legislature and multi-party system assets of the British Petroleum and the Barclays Bank
B. bicameral legislature and multi-party system in Nigeria in reaction to the British
C. unicameral legislature and two-party system A. monopoly of Nigeria’s oil markets
D. bicameral legislature and two-party system B. occupation of the Falkland Islands
C. continued trade links with South Africa
36. The first political party that contested election in D. reluctance to write off Nigeria’s debts
Nigeria after the Clifford Constitution was
A. Nigerian Youth Movement
B. National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroons 45. Nigeria broke diplomatic relations with France in 1961
C. Northern People’s Congress because of
D. Nigerian National Democratice Party A. France’s atomic test in the Sahara Desert
B. the poor relations of the Franco-Phone
countries with her
C. General de-Gaulle’s negative attitude towards her 48. Nations join international organizations so that they could
D. France’s diplomatic relations with Israel A. advance their interests
B. get foreign aid
46. In 1993, Nigeria troops were on peace-keeping C. form alliances
assignment to D. become more developed
A. Liberia and Burundi
B. Rwanda and Liberia 49. The organ of the U.N.O. with full representation is the
C. Chad and Liberia A. Security Council
D. Liberia and somalia B. General Assembly
C. Trusteeship Council
47. Nigeria established a trust fund for other African D. International Court of Justice
countries with the
A. International Bank for Reconstruction and 50. Which of the following was the last to win indepen
Development dence from colonial rule?
B. Nigerian Industrial Development Bank A. Cote d’Ivoire B. Algeria
C. African Development Bank C. Tanzania D. Angola
D. Economic Commission for Africa

Government 1998
7. A major characteristic of the socialist system is its
1. Which of the following defines the concept of provision for
government? A. limited privacy B. public ownership
A. The process of administering justice in a country C. unlimited privacy D. private ownership
B. The process of supervising the activities of
legislature 8. In the presidential system of government, the chief
C. The orderly management andcontrol of the executive is
affairs of a country A. elected by the entire electorate
D. The orderly transfer of power to duly elected B. nominated by the legislators
politicians C. selected by the party with the majority of
seats in the legislature
2. The most distinguishing characteristic of the state is D. appointed by an independent judiciary
A. government B. population
C. territory D. sovereignty 9. The resignation of the cabinet after a defeat in
parliament is an expression of the principle of
3. The judiciary assigns clear meaning to the laws by A. political accountability
A. interpretation B. enforcement B. collective responsibility
C. adjudication D. revision C. checks and balances D. rule of law

4. The structure of government implies the 10. Ceremonial and executive powers are fused in the
A. law making process of government A. parliamentary system of government
B. law enforcement process of government B. presidential system of government
C. organization of power and functions of C. federal system of government
government D. unitary system of government
D. method of revenue allocation by government
11. The empowerment of the Police Service commission
to make rules for the appointment, promotion and
5. If the central government has less power than the
dismissal of its personnel, is an example of
component units, the constitution is said to be
A. a decree B. a penal law
A. federal B. unitary
C. a delegated legislation D. an executive order
C. confederal D. unwritten
12. The principle by which both the governors and the
6. In democracy, ultimate authority resides in the governed are bound by the law is called
A. electorate B. people A. constitutionalism
C. head of state D. armed forces B. constitutional supremacy
C. rule by decree D. rule by law
13. The rights of a citizen can be withdrawn by the state if 24. The Aro system in Igboland was a
the person A. political organization B. commercial organization
A. leaves the country C. religious organization D. imperial organization
B. is convicted by a court
C. opposes the government 25. In 1879, four British companies were merged to form
D. is pronounced dead the United African Company by
A. Frederick Lugard B. John Beecroft
14. In a democracy, franchise is given to all C. Tubman Goldie D. Macgregor Laid
A. adult citizens B. citizens
C. loyal party members D. resident adults 26. Which of the following was a feature of the government of
a British protectorate?
15. The major advantage of secret balloting is that it A. Legislative council B. Provincial
A allow people to vote freely authority C. Executive council
B. ensures the anonymity of the voter D. Native Authority
C. extends the franchise to all adults
D. is faster than the other systems 27. Educated elites did not like the system of indirect rule
in Nigeria because it
16. A candidate who wins an election by a simple A. did not make provision for them
majority, must have been voted for by B. was exploitative and cumbersome
A. majority of the electorate C. made traditional ruler too powerful
B. most of the electorate D. was undemocratic and oppresive
C. a good number of the voters
D. a majority of the voters 28. The Nigerian Council was created by
A. Hugh Clifford B. Arthur Richard
17. A party system can be defined by the C. Frederick Lugard D. Bernard Bourdillon
A. structure of political parties
B. manner the government and the parties operate 29. Nationalism in Nigeria was facillitated by
C. relationship between the parties and the voters A. the actions of the veterans of the two world
D. number of political parties in a country wars and traditional rulers
B. the activities of Christian churches and
18. One major aim of a pressure group is to missionaries
A. capture political power C. education and urbanization
B. influence the policies of the government D. rapid economic growth
C. install a government of its choice
D. implement policies that will benefit its member 30. The 1946 constitution was remarkable because it
A. created ministerial positions in Nigeria
19. Which of the following is the commonest means of B. introduced regional governments in Nigeria
expressing public opinion? C. introduced for the first time, the elective principle
A. Handbill B. Newspaper D. brought about self-government for Nigeria
C. Radio D. Television
31. Which of the following statements is true about the
20. One effective way by which governments ascertain
public support and reactions is through 1963 and 19790 constitutions?
A. the press B. social mobilization A. Both had provisions for the office of the president
C. opinion leaders D. elections B. Both had provision for the office of a
constitutional president
21. An acephalous pre-colonial political system is C. Both provision for the office of the Prime
best represented by the Minister and president
A. Oyo empire B. Igbo political D. Both had provisions for the office of an executive
organization C. Ijaw political president
organization D. Benin empire
32. The premier of Western Region immediately after
22. The administration of the capital of the emirate under independence was
the pre-colonial Hausa-Fulani political system was A. Chief Obafemi Awolowo
entrusted to the B. Chief Ladoke Akintola
A. Galadima B. Waziri C. Dr. M.A. Majekodunmi
C. Sarkin fada D. Sarkin pawa D. Alhaji D.S. Adegbenro

23. In the pre-colonial Yoruba society, the power of the 33. During the period 1960 to 1966, Nigeria was governed
Oyomesi were checked by the under the
A. Baale B. Ogboni A. presidential system of government
C. Are onakakanfo D. Bashorun B. Westminster system of government
C. confederal system of government
D. unitary system of government
34. Which of the following was not established under the A. organization of FESTAC
1979 Nigerian constitution? B. construction of roads
A. National Council on Education C. creation of twelve states
B. National Economic Council D. civil service purge
C. National Security Council
D. National Defence Council 44. An example of Nigeria’s external cultural relations in her
A. establishment of diplomatic relations with
35. Federalism was adopted in Nigeria as a constitutional other nations B. economic aid to
response to the problem of neighbouring countries
A. educational imbalance B. national identity C. exchange of students with friendly nations
C. ethnic pluralism D. trade interactions with developing countries
D. manpower and resources
45. At independence in 1960, the permission to establish
36. In a federal system, the power allocated to both the a diplomatic mission in Nigeria was not granted to
central and the state governments is said to be A. the United States of American
A. exclusive B. concurrent B. Japan C. the United Kingdom
C. residual D. inherent D. the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics

37. In the botched Third Republic, the unit of representa 46. The concept of Africa as the centre-piece of Nigerian
tion in the House of Representatives was the foreign policy implies that Nigeria should
A. local goverment B. electoral ward A. interfere in the internal affairs of other
C. senatorial district D entire state African States B. support seces
sionist movement in Africa
38. Public corporations mainly differ from the ministries in C. participate in any peace-keeping operation in
that they Africa
A. are not bureaucratic D. lay more emphasis on African issues
B. provide social services to the public
C. require highly professional staff 47. The organ responsible for the general adminstration
D. are organized as business enterprises of ECOWAS is the
A. Executive Secretariat B. Council of
39. The privatization of public corporations is aimed at Ministers
A. making their goods and services available C. Authority of Heads of State and Government
B. making them reliable D. Tribunal of the Community
C. making them more efficient
D. allowing the public to control them 48. The first international organization Nigeria joined after
independence is the
40. One major democratic innovation in local government A. United Nations Organization
adminisration introduced by the Babangida regime was the B. Organization of African unity
A. appointment of portfolio councillors C. Commonwealth of Nation
B. appointment of retired military officers as D. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
sole administrators
C. selection of head of personnel management 49. The Security Council of the United Nations Organiza
departments from the councillors tion is composed of
D. separations of powers between the executive A. the Western industrial nations
and legislative arms of the councillors B. the five permanent members
C. the five permanent members and other
41. The change in the role of traditional rulers in local members periodically elected
government administration in Nigeria can be attrib D. eleven member states elected by the General
uted to the Assembly
A. 1976 local government reforms
B. involvement of the military in politics 50. The headquaters of the Economic Commission for
C. lack of support for the traditional rulers by Africa is located in
the citizens D. 1988 civil service reforms A. Ghana B. Kenya
C. Nigeria D. Ethiopia
42. Which of the following factors was not responsible
for the military intervention in Nigeria politics in 1966?
A. willingness of politicians to relinquish power
B. the Western Regional election of 1965
C. the Federal election of 1964
D. ethnic politics and lawlessness

43. One outstanding action for which the Gowon

administration will be remembered in Nigeria’s political
history is the
Government 1999
1. In a federal state, power is shared 12. The most important function of the executive organ of
A. between the central government and the government is to
local authorities A. formulate policies B. give assent to bills
B. among the states of the federation C. control foreign policy D. enforce laws
C. among the major regions of the country
D. between the central government and other 13. The process of learning the norms and values
co-ordicnate units associated with a political system is referred to as
political
2. In a federal system of government the centre is A. socialization B. indoctrination
A. superior to the other components C. culture D. participation
B. inferior to the other components
14. Which of the following best decribes the role of the
C. equal to the other components
civil service?
D. of-unlimited jurisdiction
A. promoting the interest of civil servants
B. advising government and implementing its
3. In a presidential system of government, ministers are
policies
A. individually responsible to the president
C. keeping records for government
B. individually responsible to the senate
D. providing information on government and its
C. collectively responsible to the president
agencies
D. collectively responsible to the electorate
15. One instrument for safeguarding the rights of citizen is
4. The principle of collective responsibility implies that A. judicial interpretation
A. individual views cannot be expressed B. presidential pardon C. legislative
B. decisions taken are defended in spite of intervention D. writ of habeas corpus
individual opinions
C. those who hold different views must acquiesce 16. Legislative control over delegated legislation can be
D. government cannot be personalized performed through
A. withdrawal of delegated powers by the
5. A government controlled by a few people for their judiciary
own interests is said to be B. nulification of unconstitutional legislation
A. an autocracy B. a tyranny C. investigation into the exercise of delegated
C. an oligarchy D. a meritocracy power
D. approval of legislation by the Chief Justice
6. In the parliamentary system of government, formal
legislation can take the following forms except 17. The feature which best differentiates pressure groups
A. royal proclamations B. order in council from political parties is that they do not
C. acts of parliament D. ministerial pronouncement A. have interest in politics
B. seek to influence public opinion
7. One of the distinctive features of democracy is that it C. have permanent organization
A. connotes civil rule D. nominate ministers
B. facilitates popular participation
C. provides for a unicameral legislature 18. The notion of equality before the law is the same as
D. is not associated with one party system the principle of
A. supremacy of the constitution
8. A hereditary system of government is B. rule of law
A. an oligarchy B. a gerontocracy C. independence of the judiciary
C. an aristocracy D. a monarchy D. social equality
9. The separation of judicial, legislative and executive 19. A constitution is classified as unwritten when it
functions is designed to A. does not emanate from the legislature
A. promote freedom B. prevent tyranny B. provides for separation to powers
C. promote peace D. prevent anarchy C. originates from Britain
D. is not cotained in any single document
10. Bicameral legislatures are a common feature of
A. monarchical systems B. confederal systems 20. A state is said to be fascist when
C. federal systems D. unitary systems A. its leader is patriotic but the citizen are not
B. all rights all liberties are subordinated to
11. In a federal constitutional legislative powers that are
state interest C. its citizens are
shared by two levels of government are referred to as fanatically in love with their leader
A. exclusive B. extra-ordinary D. all rights and liberties are placed above state
C. residual D. concurrent interests
21. A dominant two-party system is operated in 32. During the 1957 constitutional conference, the Willink
A. the United Kingdom and the United States Commission was set up to
B. India and Pakistan A. recommend a date for independence
C. France and Germany B. suggest an equitable revenue allocation formula
D. South Africa and Senegal C. create new regions in Nigeria
D. recommend solutions to the problem of the
22. Indirect legislation can be achieved by minorities
A. judicial interpretation and precedent
B. passing of bills and making of decrees 33. The duty of an Alkali under the Hausa-Fulani political
C. passing a private member’s bill system is to
D. the two legislative chambers considering a bill A. adjudicate under islamic laws
B. make islamic laws
23. Naturalization is a process of acquiring citizenship by C. execute islamic laws
A. persons of dual nationality D. make treaties under Islamic laws
B. foreign visitors to a country 34. The motion for self-government in Nigeria proposed
C. resident foreigners of good character by Chief Anthony Enahoro in
D. persons born abroad A. 1950 B. 1953
C. 1956 D. 1958
24. The ideology which states that each person is the
best judge of what is in his self-interest is 35. The legislative functions of the government of Benin
A. liberalism B. socialism kingdom were performed by the Oba and a council of
C. fascism D. feudalism chiefs known as
A. Esama B. Ndichie
25. The Code of Conduct Bureau was established essen C. Uzama D. Enogie
tially to
A. ensure the independence of the public service 36. The highest ruling body under the Murtala/Obasanjo
B. enhance probity and accountability in public regime differed remarkably from that of the Gowon
service C. protect the right of the public Administration because of the
D. reduce corruption in public life A. inclusion of civilians as members
B. exclusion of military governors from the council
26. The British government revoked the charter of the C. inclusion of the Chief Justice as a member
Royal Niger Company and took over the administra D. exclusion of the Inspector General of Police
tion of Nigeria in from the council
A. 1861 B. 1885
37. Decree No34 of May 1966 is also known as the
C. 1900 D. 1914
A. State Security Decree
B. Suspension and Modification Decree
27. The Independence Constitution can be described as
C. Public Order Decreee
A. monarchical and presidental
D. Unification decree
B. republican and parliamentary
C. monarchical and parliamentay 38. In 1979, the Unity Party of Nigeria contested and won
D federal and republican gubernational elections in
A. Lagos, Ogun, Imo, Oyo and Bendel
28. Which of the following parties formed the opposition B. Lagos, Kwara, Oyo, Ogun and Benue
in the House of Representatives during Nigeria’s First C. Lagos Ogun, Oyo, Ondo and Bendel
Republic? D. Lagos, Kwara, Ogun, Oyo and Ondo
A. AG and UMBC
B. NCNC and NEPU 39. Rates are usually collected in Nigeria by
C. NPC and NNDP A. minister of commerce in the states
D. NCNC and AG B. local government councils
C. the department of inland revenue
29. The first Head of Government in independent Nigeria was D. the traditional rulers
A. Nnamdi Azikiwe B. Ahmadu Bello
C. Tafawa Balewa D. Herbert Macaulay 40. One of the main reason for the creation of more local
goverments in Nigeria is to
30. A feature common to the 1963, 1979 and 1989 consti A. make them more responsive to people’s needs
tutions of Nigeria was that they provided for a B. weaken the powers of traditional authorities
A. republican system B. Prime Minister C. make them more receptive to traditional rulers
C. ceremonial head of states D. establish them as the third tier in the federal
D. president as head of government structure
31. The Lagos colony and Protectorate was amalgamated
41. Based on its objectives, the Organization of African
with the protectorate of southern Nigeria in
Unity can primarily be classified as
A. 1886 B. 1893
A. a social organization
C. 1906 D. 1922
B. a political organization 47. One of the underlying principles of Nigerian foreign
C. a cultural organization policy is
D. an economic organization A. encouragement of peace keeping operations
in African B. interference in the
42. Nigeria’s role in ECOMOG is essentially informed by her internal activities of other countries
A. desire for peace and stability C. non- commitment towards African unity
B. chairmanship of ECOWAS D. respect for sovereign equality of all states
C. desire to establish democracy
D. membership of ECOWAS 48. Before a new member is admitted to the United
Nations Organization, its application much be
43. The annual budget of the OAU is approved by the approved by all
A. council of ministers A. permanent members of the Security Council
B. secretary general B. members of the General Assembly
C. assembly of heads of state and government C. members of the Economic and Social Council
D. General assembly D. members of the International Court of Justice

44. The major strategy used by OPEC to influence oil 49. Which of the following international organizations
price is by was in existence before the outbreak of the Second
A. allocating production quotas to members World War?
B influencing buyers at the international A. the OAU B. The League Nations
market to buy at high price C. The UNO D. The ECOWAS
C. allowing member countries to produce at
their discretion 50 The organ of the United Nation Organization respon
D. increasing the supply of the commodity sible for the former colonies of defeated world war ii
powers is the
45. Nigeria was suspended from the Commonwealth
because of her A. General Assembly B. Security Council
A. tacit approval of military dictatorship C. Economic and Social Council
B. negative position towards other nations D. Trusteeship Council
C. complete negligence of freedom of the press
D. violation of fundamental human rights

46. Nigeria’s non aligned policy means that she will

A. have nothing to do with the super-powers
B. not take sides in international issues based
on ideological considerations
C. avoid having any dealing with any country
with ideological leanings
D. relate only with member countries of the
Non-Aligned Movement

Government 2000
1. The civil service cadre responsible for the general 4. The rule of law is a cardinal principle associated with
supervision and control of ministers is the A. democratice systems B. federal systems
A. administrative B. professional C. communist systems D. feudal systems
C. executive D. clerical
5. The main function of public opinion is to
2. A disadvantage of the one-party system is that it A. change the policy of government
A. makes accountability difficult B. provide direction for public policy
B. negates freedom of association C. support the policy of government
C. emphasizes political differences D. indoctrinte the people
D. delays decision making
6. A typical form of delegated legislation is
3. Citizenship refers to the A. act of parliament B. decree
A. indigenous member of a state C. bye-law D. gazette
B. social status of a person in a state
C. highest position in a state 7. A referendum is a device to ensure that
D. legal status of a member of a state A. elections are free and fair
B. legislators vote to resolve contentious issues
C. bye-elections are held to fill vacant positions 19. Separation of powers is a principle which enable each
D. decisions are effected with the consent of citizens arm of government to
A. probe one another
8. One main weakness of a unitary system of govern B. overlap the functions of the other
ment is that C. carry out its constitutional functions
A. is facilities the domination of minority groups D. moderate the scope of the constitution
B. the constitution can be amended easily
C. it is run as single entity 20. The main attributes of a state are
D. carpet-crossing and opposition are made difficult A population territory, government and sovereignty
B. the press, the legislature, the executive and the
9. Pressure groups harmonize different individual judiciary
concerns through interest C. federal, state and local governments
A. mobilization B. aggregation D. government, the police and the armed forces
C. manipulation D. articulation
21. The General Purpose Committee of the local government
10. The act of removing an elected official by the functions as a
electorate is referred to as A. committe for awarding contracts
A. impeachment B. consensus B. cabinet of the local government
C. plebiscite D. recall C. body responsible for supervising self-help
11. One of the major source of a constitution is projects D. committee of the local
A. judicial precedence B. political debate government on public relations
C. opinion poll D. executive order 22. Nigeria observed the principle of collective responsi
12. A characteristic of public opinion is that it is bility between
A. positive B. static A. 1993 and 1999 B. 1985 and 1993
C. dynamic D. nagative C. 1979 and 1983 D. 1960 and 1966

13. Coalition government arises when 23. The political party with the widest spread of member
A. one of the parties has a majority in parliament ship in Nigeria during the Second Republic was the
B. no party has a majority in parliament A. GNPP B. NPP
C. two or more parties co-operate to pass a bill C. NPN D. UPN
in parliament 24. Military intervention in Nigeria arose from
D. the ruling party is defeated in parliament A. perceived incapacity of civilians to govern
14. One of the central tenets of the fascist dectrine is that B. military corporatism and egocentrism
the leader is C. international presusures for change
A. supreme relative to the constitution D. civilians desire to give up power
B. subordinate to the norms of the society 25. Federalism was introduced in Nigeria under the
C. subordinate to the laws of the state A. Richards constitution
D. weak relative to the constitution B. Lyttelton constitution
15. Which of the following electoral bodie in Nigeria C. Macpherson constitution
conducted elections from 1979 to 1983? D. Independence constitution
A. National Electoral Commission
26. Regional consciousness in Nigeria was introduced by the
B. Independence National Electoral Commission
A. Lyttelton constitution
C. National Electoral Commission of Nigeria
B. Clifford constitution
D. Federal Electoral Commission
C. Macpherson constitution
16. Constitutionalism refers to the D. Richards constitution
A. process of operating a constitution
27. How many states were creaed in Nigeria in 1967?
B. process of drafing a constitution
A. 21 B. 19 C. 12 D. 4
C. adherence to a constitution
D. amendment of an existing constitution 28. The day-to-day operation of public corporation is the
direct responsibility of the
17. Under a presidential system of government, the
A. management B. union workers
legislature and the executive are
C. supervising ministry D. board of directors
A. elected separately to a fixed term
B. elected separately to an unfixed term 29. Under the independence constitution of Nigeria,
C. appointed by the judiciary to a fixed term Dr.Nnamdi Azikiwe was
D. appointed at the same time to an unfixed term A. Head of State B. Governor-General
C. Prime Minister D. Lieutenant-Governor
18. The Supreme Court, through its interpretation of the
constitution, is a 30. Which of the following contributed greatly to the
A. protector of the state B. guardian of freedom introduction of the Clifford Constitution?
C. participator in the politics of the state A. Nigerian National Democratic Party
D. preserver of the status quo B. Lagos Youth Movement
C. Nigerian Youth Movement 41. Nigeria’s quest for a leadership role in Africa hinges
D. National Congress of British West Africa principally on her
A. military might B. economic strength
31. In Nigeria, the Local Government Service Commission C. size and population D. generosity
is set up by the
A. local government councils 42. Which of the following wold powers was the first to
B. federal government come to Nigeria’s aid during the civil war?
C. state government A. Britain B. USA
D. local government chairmen C. Germany D. USSR

32. In the 1930s, the political movement that challenged 43. Nigeria’s relations with African countries are under
the NNDP domination of Lagos politics was the scored by its policy of
A. NYM B. AG A. non-alignment B. afrocentrism
C. NPC D. NCNC C. political diplomacy
D. peaceful co-existence
33. Residual powers in the 1979 constitution of Nigeria
were vested in the 44. The foreign policy thrust of the Babangida adminis
A. local and state governments tration was
B. state governments A. economic diplomacy
C. federal governments B. war against narcotics C. military aggression
D. local governments D. African interest

34. The Nigeria Public Complaints Commission as the 45. One of the principle objectives of the OPEC is to
Ombudsman suffers most from A. harmonize the oil policies of member countries
A. poor knowledge of the workings of the B. discipline erring oil-producing countries
public service C. determine oil prices in the international market
B. manipulation by political office holders D. assist non-oil producing, developing states
C. too many complaints to handle effectively
D. lack of power to enforce its decisions 46. How many countries constitute the Economic
Community of West African States?
35. A charateristic of most pre-colonial government in A. 16 B. 15 C. 13 D. 11
Nigeria is that they
A. had no defined functions 47. The charter of the United Nations was drawn up in
B. performed only executive function A. New York B. Washington DC
C. had no clear separation of powers C. Los Angeles D. San Francisco
D. observed independence of the judiciary
48. The two leaders that played the most prominent roles
36. Prior to the formation of the OAU in 1963, Nigeria in the formation of the ECOWAS were
identified with the A. Acheampong and Jawara
A. Monrovia Group B. Casablanca Group B. Gowon and Eyadema
C. Brazzaville Group D. Libreville Group C. Kerekou and Tubman
D. Kounche and Senghor
37. In 1991, the African Economic Community Treaty was
signed in 49. The Secretary-General of the OAU is appointed by the
A. Addis Ababa B. Abuja A. Council upon the recommendation of the
C. Lome D. Tripoli Assembly B. Council upon the
recommendation of the Secretariat
38. The first African Secretary -General of the United C. Assembly upon the recommendation of the
Nations is Council D. Defence Commission upon
A. Kofi Annan B. Joe Garba the recommendation of the Secretariat
C. Boutrou Boutrous-Ghali
D. Ibrahim Gambari 50. The approval of budgetary and financial matters in
39. Nigerians opposed the Defence pact with Britain at the United Nations is the responsibility of the
independence because it A. General Assembly
A. was forced on Nigeria by Britain B. Security Council
B. was very ambiguous C. Trusteeship Council
C. was of no benefit to Nigeria D. Economic and Social Council
D. offended their pride at independence

40. The Technical Aid Corps scheme in Nigera aims at

strngthening relations with
A. countries in the Northern Hemisphere
B. countries in the Sorthern Hemisphere
C. African Countries
D. West African Countries
Government 2001
1. Power differs from influence in that it is C. serves as the fountain head of authority
A. persuasive while influence is directive for the exercise of power
B. coercive while influence is harmful D. promotes citizen participation in government
C. coercive while influence is persuasive and administration
D. arrogant while influence is corruptible
10. When a bill passed by the legislature is vetoed by the
2. The standing committee of legislature is one executive, the action underscores the principle of
A. whose members stand while deliberating A. probity and accountability
B. that has statutory responsibilities B. separation of power
C. that performs ad hoc functions C. collective responsibility
D. that has all legislators as members D. checks and balances

3. Where the constitution is supreme, unconstitutional 11. In the legislative process, a bill is a
facts of the executive and the legislature can be A. motion accepted for debate
hecked by the courts through B. motion rejected after debate
A. recall B. judicial review C. proposal before the legislature
C. vote of no confidence D. impeachment D. law passed by the legislature

4. The central decision-making organ of a confederation 12. One of the advantages of bicameral over unicameral
is made up of legislature is that it
A. technocrats appointed by the units A. is cheap to maintain
B. politicians elected from the confederal B. promotes social equality
constituencies C. takes less time for bills to be passed
C. politicians nominated by governments of D. prevents the passage of ill-considered bills
member states
D. representatives of pressure groups 13. The fundamental rights of citizens include rights to
A. free education, employment and freedom of
5. Which of the following is true of a parliamentary thought
system of government? B. life, speech and association
A. clear separation of government organs C. life, liberty and property
B. strict operation of bicamerals legislature D. association, property and social security
C. removal of government by impeachment
D. Adherence to majority rule 14. The manipulation of boundaries of constituencies in
order to win more seats is called
6. A major feature of authoritarianism is that government is A. devolution B. rigging
A. consensual B. personalized C. gerry-mandering D. delimitaion
C. centralized D. decentralized
15. One argument against a multi-party system is the
7. The central point of capitalism, as expounded by Karl A. encouragement of opposition and instability
Marx, is that B. banning of interest groups
A. capitalists’ profit is the surplus value C. inability to attract foreign assistance
obtained from workers labour D. high cost of conducting elections.
B. workers are inherently incapable of being
owners of their labour 16. Associational interest groups are organized to
C. capitalists shall always increase workers A. further the interests of members
earning capacity through wages B. specifically lobby the government
D. capitalists shall always readily consent to C. support the government
workers’ welfare demands D. achieve goals affecting other associations

8. A constitution that requires a plebiscite or a 17. Public opinion is view that is

referendum to be amended is A. held by the majority
A. rigid B. unwritten B. active in the public realm C. widely publicized
C. flexible D. written D. no longer a secret

18. The political neutrality of civil servants implies that they

9. An important function of a constitution is that it
A. are not allowed to join any organization or group
A. provides a framework for the study of
B. have no dealings with politicians
government
C. are not allowed to be involved in partisan politics
B. facilitates cross-fertilization of ideas of
D. are not allowed to vote
governmance
19. The idea of making the civil service permanent, 30. The equivalent of a commissioner at the local
neutral and anonymous is to government level is the
A. enhance efficiency in administration A. executive chairman B. secretary
B. ensure loyalty and support C. councilor D. supervisory councillor
C. prevent opposition to government
D. make civil servants a funtional elite. 31. The Independent National Electoral Commission has
the power to prepare and maintain the register of
20. The western zone of the Sokoto caliphate was A. political parties B. constituencies
administered from C. voters D. electoral candidates
A. Kebbi B. Ilorin
C. Bida D. Gwandu 32. The President of Nigeria is advised on the sover
eignty and territorial integrity of the country by the
21. Some pre-colonial Nigerian societies are described as, A. National Security Council
stateless because B. National Defence Council
A. they had no formal governmental institutions C. Council of State
B. they had no definite political boundaries D. Federal Executive Council
C. their population was too small
D. they were not independent 33. The Nigeria Youth Movement collapsed as a result of
A. its failure to win election
B. shortage of funds to run its affairs
22. The method used by the British to facilitates the C. the harassments of its leadership by
administration of Southern Nigeria was government D. the breakup of its leadership
A. persuasion B. dialogue
C. divide and rule D. trade concession 34. The first restructuring of the Nigeria Federation took
place with the
23. A major function of the Warrant chiefs was to A. creation of the Mid-West Region in 1963
A. prevent tribal wars B. abolition of federalism in 1966
B. supervise native courts and markets C. military counter-coup of 1966
C. stop ritual killings D. creation of state in 1967
D. take charge of local government
35. The land use decree of 1978 vested the ownership of
24. After 1945, the demand of African nationalists land in Nigeria in the
changed from reform to independence because A. local chiefs B. local governments
A. colonial rule became less opperessive C. state governments D. federal government
B. colonial rule was in disarray
C. the second world war boosted their morale 36. The main source of financing local government in
D. the second world war enhanced colonial rule Nigeria is
A. internal revenue generation
25. When Nigeria achieved independence in 1960, the B. statutory revenue allocation
Head of State was the C. special state grants D. grants-in-aid
A. President B. Prime minister
C. Governor-General D. Queen of England 37. The most remarkable legacy of the 1976 Local Govern
ment Reforming Nigeria was the introduction of
26. The central legislature of Nigeria became bicameral in A. the office of sole administrators
A. 1945 B. 1951 B. caretaker management commitees
C. 1959 D. 1963 C. uniformity in structure and functions
D. the third tier of government
27. Which of these constitution, recognized local
government as a third tier of government in Nigeria? 38. The Murtala/Obasanjo regime in Nigeria increased the
A. 1946 constitution B. 1960 constitution number of states from
C. 1963 constitution D. 1979 constitution A. 4 to 12 B. 12 to 19
C. 19 to 21 D. 30 to 36
28. Under the 1963 constitution, item not listed in the
exclusive and concurrent lists were within the 39. A major factor that influenced the formulation of
exclusive competence of the Nigeria foreign policy in the First Republic was
A. Executive B. Federal parliaments A. geographical location B. the colonial
C. Regional legislature D. Judiciary legacy C. economic consideration
D. the parliamentary system
29. Before Nigeria became a republic, the highest body 40. Nigeria departure from pro-west policy during the
charged with the administration of justice was the Murtala Muhammed regime was as a result of
A. Privy Council B. High Court A. the economic interests of the west in Nigeria
C. Supreme Court D. Court of Appeal B. Nigeria increased international influence
C. the growing trade between Nigeria and the East
D. Nigeria’s concern for decolonization in Africa
41. During the Civil War, the major power that expressed 47. Nigeria’s withdrawal from the Edinburgh Common
moral support for Biafra’s self-determination was wealth Games in July 1986 was in protest against British
A. France B. China A. support to UNITA rebels in Angola
C. the United States D. Great Britain B. supply of arms to Rhodesia
C. failure to impose sanctions on South Africa
42. The Barclays Bank and the British Petroleum Com D. negative utterances on Nigeria
pany in Nigeria were nationalized in the late 1970s for
transacting business with 48. The major demand of the Third world countries on the
A. France B. South Africa United Nations in the recent times is the
C. Portugal D. Libya A. expansion of the permanent membership of
the Security Council
43. South-South cooperation is a major policy plan on B. post of the Secretary-General of the organization
which Nigeria bases her relations with C. withdrawal of the veto power from the
A. developed countries Security council
B. countries of the southern hemisphere D. enforcement of resolutions on the superpowers
C. developing countries
D. member countries of OAU 49. Which of the following is the function of the Council
of Ministers of the O.A.U.?
44. Nigeria’s recongnition of the Popular Movement for A. Co-ordinating the general policy of the
the Liberation of Angola to lead the country was organization
made under B. Directing thefinances of the organization
A. General Yakubu Gowon C. Preparing the agenda of the organization’s
B. General Murtala Muhammed meetings
C. General Muhammadu Buhari D. Reviewing the functions and activities of
D. General Ibrahim Babangida other organs of the organization.

45. The first Nigeria permanent Representative to the 50 The Economic Community of West African States has
United Nation was made impressive progress in the area of
A. Alhaji Yusuf Maitama Sule A. free movement of persons and right of residence
B. General Joseph Garba B. increased trade among members
C. Professor Ibrahim Gambari C. Political integration of the region
D. Chief Simeon Adebo D. providing finanical aid to is members

46. In 1981, Nigeria participated in an Organization of

African Unity peace-keeping force to replace Libyan
force in
A. Somalia B. Chad
C. Ethiopia D. Zaire

Government 2002
1. Delegated legislation becomes unavoidable when 4. Communism is a system which recognizes
A. legislators cannot reach a consensus A. class stratification
B. issues under consideration are personal B. the existence of the state
C. issues under consideration are technical C. the existence of the individual
D. legislators have to proceed on a recess D. the ability of the individual

2. One major disadvantage of public opinion is that 5. The delineation of constituencies is a major duty of the
A. the critics of government policies are always A. national assembly B. political parties
harassed B. a vocal minority C. boundary commission
claims to represent the majority D. electoral commission
C. gossip and rumours thrive
D. leaders are unnecessarilly criticized 6. The structure of the civil service is based on
A. lateral organization B. merit system
3. Citizenship in a modern state expresses the status of a C. patronage system
person who possesses D. hierarchical organization
A. full political rights B. some religious rights
C. social rights only D. exclusive economics rights 7. A common feature of a multi-party system is that
government is formed by
A. the major political parties 18. A law passed by the legislature and assented to by
B. all the registered political parties the executive is
C. a coalition of political parties A. an act B. a presidential proclamation
D. the party with the highest votes. C. a decree D. a legislative order

8. To qualify for absorption into the administrative cadre 19. One of the features of a sovereign state is that it
of the civil service in Nigeria, an applicant must be A. has the capacity to defend itself from
A. knowledgeable in civil service rules external aggression
B. holder of a first university degree B. has a large number of soldiers
C. specifically trained in public administration C. practices the presidential system of government
D. a senior civil servant D. is not indebted to other countries

9. The final interpretation of the provisions of a federal 20. A major way of maintaining confidence in the electoral
constitution is vested in the process is by ensuring that
A. head of state B. council of state A. electoral officers are regularly trained
C. highest legislative body B. elections are conducted in a free and fair
D. highest court of the land. atmosphere
C. unlimited franchise is observed
10. A major issue that distinguishes pressure groups from D. elections are conducted as and when due.
political parties is
A. membership drive B. the objective 21. The principle of checks and balances reinforces
C. the voting pattern D. ideology separation of power in order to
A. protect the powers of the executive
11. Proportional representation is a system of allocating B. make the legislature more powerful
seats in the legislature based on C. prevent an unconstitutional change of
A. gender participation in politics government
B. an area’s involvement in politics D. prevent the emergence of dictatorship
C. contribution to the national economy
D. total votes in an election 22. Legislative control of public corporation in Nigeria is
effected through
12. The application of the principle of separation of A. the dissolution of their managements
powers seems impracticable because power is B. the reorganization of their boards
A. delegated B. centralized C. acts of the National Assembly
C. fused D. separated D. bye-laws.
13. One major factor that differentiates the presidential
from the parliamentary system is 23. The Ibadan Conference of 1950 was convened to
A. separation of powers B. judicial discuss the provision of the
independence C. passage of bills A. Macpherson Constitution
D. party system B. Clifford Constitution
C. Lyttelton Constitution
14. A major consequence of proportional representation D. Richards Constitution
is that it
A. reduces the chances of political instability 24. The fees collected by local governments at motor
B. favours the developements of a two-party parks represent
system A. levies B. fines
C. discourages voting along ethnic lines C. income tax D. user charge
D. encourages the proliferation of parties
25. The first Nigerian constitution to provide for the
15. Oligarchy is a form of government which fundamental objectives and derivative principles of
A. enhances the interest of the ruling few state policy was the
B. enhances the electoral chances of the majority A. 1979 Constitution B. 1989 Constitution
C. disregards the views of the minority C. 1999 Constitution D. 1960 Constitution
D. protects the interest of the common people
26. Under the 1999 Constitution of Nigeria, the power to
16. The absence of the rule of law is government will create local government is vested in the
bring about A. state assembly B. office of the
A. human rights abuse B. treasonable deputy governor C. presidency
offences C. corrupt practices D. national assembly
D. political apathy
27. The body set up to review the revenue allocation
17. Centralization of power is the basic feature of formula in 1980 was the
A. federalism B.a confederation
C. a presidential system D. a unitary A. Udoji Commission B. Okigbo Commission
government C. Dina Commission D. Adebo Commission
28. In pre-colonial Igbo society, decisions on public 37 The main legislative body in Nigeria between 1966
issues were reached mainly through and 1975 was the
A. the oracles B. consensus A Supreme Military Council
C. imposition D. majority votes B. Armed Forces Ruling Council
C. Provisional Ruling Council
29. The main duty of the Local Government Service D. National Security Council
Commission is to
A. supervise and manage the affairs of the local 38. Nigeria formally became a federation in
governments A. 1960 B. 1963
B. create job opportunities at the local level C. 1914 D. 1946
C. handle request for the creation of more local
governments. 39. The United Nations charter is an instrument that
D. conduct elections into local councils. A. sets out the rights and obligations of member
states
30. The constitution that introduced restricted franchise B. provides for funding of member states
into Nigeria politics was the C. facilitates the resolution of disputes among
A. Independence Constitution member state
B. Lyttelton Constitution D. determines the admission of member states.
C. Richard Constitution
D. Clifford Constitution 40. The most active organ of the Economic Community of
West African states is the
31. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by A. Tribunal of the Community
A. General Murtala Muhammed B. Technical and Specialized Community
B. General Olusegun Obasanjo C. Authority of Heads of States and Government
C. Major-General Aguyi Ironsi D. Council of Ministers.
D. General Yakubu Gowon
41. The group of states that conceived the idea of the
32. The leading agent in the expansion of British influ United Nation Organization included
ence in Northern Nigeria in the 1890s was the A. the USSR, Italy, the UK and China
A. British Consul in Calabar B. Italy, the UK ,France and Japan
B. Royal West African Frontier Force C. the USA, the USSR, the UK and China
C. British Consul in Lagos D. France, the USA, Canada and Japan
D. Royal Nigeria Company.
42 The action of the Commonwealth of Nation’s is felt
33. The two military coups that toppled Civilian regimes most in the area of
in Nigeria were those of A. diplomatic cooperation B. economic cooperation
A. January 1996 and December 1983 C. cultural cooperation D. military cooperation
B. July 1966 and August 1985
C. January 1966 and July 1975 43. The greatest criticism of the Security Council of the
D. February 1966 and December 1983. UNO is that
A. has no standing army
34. The main function of the Code of Conduct Bureau is to B. is not representative enough
A. ensure accountability in government business C. undermines the General Assembly
B. give the judiciary more power to discipline e D. has exclusive veto power.
rring judge
C. protect public officers from the press 44. Which of the following is a founding member of OPEC?
D. give the police more powers to make arrests. A. Nigeria B. Indonesia
C. Venezuela D. Algeria
35. The emirate system of administration can be likened to a
A. confederal system of government 45. Professor Ibrahim Gambari is the Special Assistant to
B. unitary system of government the United Nation Secretary General on
C. federal system of government A. African affairs
D. constitutional monarchy B. political and social matters
C. the Economic Commission of Africa
36. The abolition of the state ministries of local govern D. security matters
ment in 1989 entails that local governments
A. are equal to the states 46. Who among the following served as Secretary
B. have more control over their funds General of OPEC?
C. no longer have anything to do with state A. Jibril Aminu B. Aret Adams
governments C. Dan Etete D. Rilwanu Lukman
D. are no longer subordinate to state governments.
47. Nigeria’s active role in the liberation of some coun
tries in Southern Africa earned her
A. Chairmanship of the Eminent persons 49. Nigeria’s membership of the ECOWAS is informed by
B. Membership of SADC her desire to
C. Giant of Africa A. develop a market in the sub-region
D. the status of the frontline state. B. form sub-regional high command
C. become a sub-regional power
48. Which of these internatinal agencies is Nigeria a D. promote economic integration
member of?
A. London Club 50. An attribute that Nigeria shares with most non-
B. The Infrastructural Development Fund aligned countries is
C. The Paris Club A. her large population
D. The International Monetary Fund. B. the state of her economy
C. her heterogeneous population
D. her large size.

Government 2003
1. One of the duties of the legislature is to 8. A collegial executive is a government in which power
A. exercise oversight is vested in a
B. implements laws A. committee B. monarch
C. promulgate decrees C. parliament D. president
D. adjudicate disputes
9. A common feature of government is
2. The best form of government for a heterogeneous A. the making of public policy
society is a B. the separation of powers
A. quasi-federal system C. the independence of the judiciary
B. confederal system D. a written constitution.
C. unitary system
D. federal system 10. A meeting of the legislature is usually brought to an
end with
3. Removal by impeachment applies to the position of a A. a prorogation B. a dissolution
A. chief judge B. president C. suspension D. an adjourment
C. prime minister D. cabinet minister
11. The civil service embraces all workers in
4. Government by the wealthy is known as A. public and private companies
A. oligarchy B. aristocracy B. all private corporations
C. plutocracy D. democracy C. public corporations
D. government ministers
5. The independence of the judiciary can be undermined
through the 12. The citizenship of a country could be acquired through
A. payment of the salaries of judicial officers by A. registration and arbitration
government. B. presidential proclamation
B. appointment of the minister of justice as the C. birth and naturalization
Attorney-General D. parliamentary legislation
C. politicization of the appointments of judges
D. confirmation of the appointment of judges 13. What distinguishes a political party from other social
by the legislature institution is the desire to
A. promote the interest of party members
6. The unrestrained power of the state over its B. influence the internatinal community on local
citizens is underlined by issues
A. self-determination B. patriotism C. influence government policies in certain
C. sovereignty D. nationalism directions
D. win elections and form a government
7. In a parliamentary system, the functions of the head
of state and the head of government are vested in 14. Capitalism is a system of economic organization based on
A. the ministerial council A. very fair distribution of the means of
B. an individual C. the inner cabinet production B. a mixed economy
D. two different individuals. that takes all interest into consideration
C. trading among people who own and control
their items of trade.
D. individual ownership of the means of production
15. Socialism is a mode of production based on 25. The expenditure of public funds by the executive in
A. national ownership of the means of production Nigeria is controlled by the
B. mixed ownership of the means of production. A. president B. ministry of finance
C. state ownership of the means of production C. judiciary D. legislature.
D. collective ownership of the means of production
26 The 1979 Constitution established the
16. Constitutional disputes in states with written consti A. Federal Civil Defence Corps
tutions are resolved by the B. National Human Right Commission
A. legislature B. ombudsman C. Federal Road Safety Commission
C. electorate D. judiciary D. National Population Commission

17. Election as a political proces is significant because it 27. The Eastern and Western regions of Nigeria achieved
A. facilitates constitutional change of government the status of self government in
B. is associated with campaigns for public office A. 1959 B. 1950
C. facilitates the recall process C. 1955 D. 1957
D. enables citizens to vote
28. The Arthur Richards Constitution was designed to last for
18. Public opinion becomes politically relevant when it A. six years B. twelve year
A. aggregates view and interests C. five years D. nine years
B. is in support of government
C. influences the decision of government 29. The 1976 reforms have been most beneficial to the
D. criticizes people in power A. Nigeria Police B. civil service
C. federal government D. local government
19. The operation of the rule of law is undermined by the
A. conspiracy by the two house of the legislature to 30. A problem of Nigerian federalism that was resolved by
impeach the president the Supreme Court between federal government and
B. inability of the press to discharge its the littoral states centred on resources.
responsibilities A. maximization B. control
C. unfriendly attitude of pressuregoups C. derivation D. generation
D. existence of administrative tribunals and
special immunities 31. One of the reasons advanced for the overthrow of the
Gowon Regime was its failure to
20. Associations whose main interest is to influence A. promote some officers of the armed forces
public policies without having to capture power are B. honour the promise to hand over power
A. political parties B. communal groups C. create new state D. try politicians in
C. pressure groups D. trade unions detention

21. One of the legacies of pre-colonial Nigeria destroyed 32. In the first republic, politics in the Northern region
by the British was the was dominated by the
A. peace and harmony in the land A. NPC B. NCNC
B. nation’s farmland C. NEPU D. UMBC
C. education of the local people
D. indigenous cultures of the people 33. The Bureau for Public Enterprises is charge with the
responsibility for
22. The smooth operation of the civil service in Nigeria is A. eradicating poverty
mostly hampered by B. generating opportunities
A. debt burden and redundancy C. providing employment opportunites
B. poor infrastructure D. privatization and commercialization.
C. inadequate training of personnel
D. corruption and inefficeincy. 34. The military head of state during the Third Republic was
A. General Ibrahim Babangida
23. The type of government operated in Nigeria between B. General Murtala Muhammed
October 1st 1979 and December 31st 1983 is called C. General Sani Abacha
A. presidential system of government D. General Olusegun Obasanjo
B. collegial system of government
C. unitary system of government 35. The most important challlenge facing the Fourth
D. parliamentary system of government Republic is
A. the need to develop Nigeria
B. how to develop Nigeria’s social institution
24. In the pre-colonial Igbo society, the maintenance of C. how to deal with the military
peace and order was the function of the D. the successful conduct of the 2003 elections
A. assembly of ezes B. age-grades
C. assembly of title holders D. clan elders
36. Financial allocation to local government by the federal 43. Nigeria’s relations with Britain were at a very low ebb
or the state government to supplement the cost of a under the
project is called. A. Buhari Regime B. Gowon Regime
A. revenue allocation B. matching grant C. Shagari Regime D. Babangida Regime
C. statutory allocation D. reimbursement
44. The ECOWAS Treaty was reviewed in 1991 to
37. Nigeria’s influence in OPEC is determined by the A. accommodate the interest of France
A. sizes of her refineries B. mobilize ECOMOG
B. accessibility of her oil fields C. accommodate extra sub-regional interest
C. low sulpur content of her crude D. make it responsive to new challenges
D. volume of her oil reserve
45. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is in
38. The activities of Nigeria in the international commu A. Paris B. The Hague
nity are primarily influenced by C. London D. Washington DC.
A. military power B. diplomacy
C. propaganda D. national interest 46. The independent African countries that signed the
OAU Charter on May 25, 1963 were
39. The dispute between Nigeria and Cameroon is over A. Morocco and Angola B. Togo and Sierra
A. trade B. exploration rights Leone C. Chad and the Gambia
C. fishing rights D. territory D. Togo and Morocco

40. Nigeria’s high standing in the UN General Assembly 47. The tenure of the President of the UN Security Council
is underscored by her is
A. financial contribution B. military strength . A. two years B. one year
C. one month D. six months
C successes in UN elective offices
D. contribution to global peace 48. The majority of the OPEC members are from
A. Asia B. Latin America
41 Nigeria’s Non-Alignment policy is constrained by her C. the Middle East D. Africa
A. membership of the UNO
B. Afrocentric posture 49. The non-British colony which is a member of the
C. members of ECOWAS Commonwealth is
D. strong ties with Western powers A. Guinea-Bissau B. Mozambique
C. Rwanda D. Eritrea
42. The main constraint on Nigeria Francophone West 50. The major problem of the ECOWAS is lack of
African cooperation is A. a common Customs Union
A. ideological differences B. cultural differ B. a ideology C. uniform ideology
ences C. poor road network D. commitment by members.
D. economic dependence.

Government 2004
1. In a democracy, sovereign authority is exercised by the B. dismiss any judge who has breached the
A. people B. executive judicial code of conduct
C. electorate D. legislature. C. enable the judge to try and decide cases
without bias
2. The agent through which the state undertakes D. determine a fixed salary for judges.
political socialization is the
A. school B. family 5. In a unitary system of government, power is concen
C. peer group D. pressure group trated at the centre
A. without devolution B. with devolution
3. Unicameral legislature is a common feature of C. with residual functions
A. presidentialism B. parliamentarism D. without residual functions
C. unitarism D. federalism
6. In a confederation, the constituency that a member of
4. Independence of the judiciary is pertinent because it legislature represents is a
accords the judiciary the power to A. senatorial district B. parliamentary constitu
A. determine a fixed term of office for the judges ency C. nation-state D. region
7. In a constitutional monarchy, the authority to remove 20. A major influence on the formulation of public opinion is
the head of state is exercised by the A. public journals B. peer groups
A. legislature B. head of goverment C. the family D. the mass media
C. cabinet D. prime minister
21. The highes grade in the civil service is know as the
8. In a parliamentary system of government, a vote of no A. technical cadre B. administrative cadre
confidence leads to the resignation of C. executive cadre D. clerical cadre
A. the entire cabinet
B. an individual minister 22. The pre-colonial Yoruba political system as a whole
C. the entire parliament can best be described as a
D. the prime miniser A. confederation of monarchies and chiefdoms
B. federation of chiefdoms and localities
9. In a presidential system of government, the president C. highly contralized kingdom
checks the legislature through D. confederation of chiefdoms and localities
A. executive order B. executive review
C. exercise of power D. legislative order 23. The major motivation of British colonization of Nigeria
was to
10. The economic basis of feudalism is A. spread religion
A. capital B. agriculture B. satisfy British economic interests
C. slavery D. trade. C. westernize Nigerians
D. protect Nigeria from external attack
11. The creation of a classless society is the ultimate aim of
A. communism B. capitalism 24. The Native Authority system was most effective and
C. socialism D. fascism successful in
A. Western Nigeria
12. One of the sources of a constitution is B. Mid-Western Nigeria
A. constitutional law B. common law C. Northern Nigeria
C. corporate law D. statutory law D. Eastren Nigeria.

13. The fundamental assumption on which the idea of the 25. The process of nationalism was accelerated by
rule of law is based is A. rapid economic development
A. rationality of human beings B. the coming of Christian missionaries
B. equality of human beings C. the signing of the Atlantic Charter
C. love for social justice D. improvement in warfare tactics
D. supremacy of the constitution
26. A common feature of the earlier political parties in
14. The principle of separation of power was made Nigeria was that they
popular by A. started as socio-cultural organizations
A. John Locke B. Baron de Montesquieu B. were formed by the government
C. Thomas Hobbes D. Niccolo C. were non-elitist in nature
Machiavelli D. were backed by the colonialists.

15. Delegated legislation refers to the laws made by 27. Under the 1999 Constitution, the power to declare war
A. the legislature B. military governments is vested in the
C. civilian governments D. non-legisla A. legislature B. executive
tive bodies C. National Council of States
D. National Security Council
16. Law made by state governments are known as
A. edicts B. acts 28. A distinguishing feature of the 1979 Constitution was the
C. decrees D. bye-laws A. departure from the parliamentary to the
presidential system
17. The law of libel limits a citizen’s right freedom of B. preservation and entrenchment of republi
A. association B. movement canism
C. worship D. expression C. introduction of unicameralism into Nigeria
18. The first franchise in the history of the democratic D. introduction of a federal structure.
process is
A. female franchise B. male franchise 29. The two chambers of elected national representative
C. universal franchise D. property franchise in Nigeria are called
A. the parliament B. the senate
19. An interest group that admits members and conducts C. House of Assembly
its affairs according to stated rules is described as D. the National Assembly
A. institutinal B. organizational
C. associational D. non-associational
30. Judicial administration in respect of national code of 39. Nigeria’s support for the South-South Cooperation is
conduct lies with the based on her desire to
A. Judicial Service Commission A. promote economic understanding in the
B. Code of Conduct Tribunal Third World
C. Public Complaints Commission B. counter the political and military domination by
D. Code of Conduct Bureau major powers
C. assert her leadership role in Africa
31. In the Second Republic, the ruling National Party of D. promote her non-aligned policy
Nigeria formed an alliance with the
A. Unity Party of Nigeria B. Nigeria People’s Party 40. Nigeria’s relation with black political communities
C. Great Nigeria People’s Party outside Africa is built on
D. Nigeria Advance Party A. economic considerations
B. shared political aspirations
32. The relationship between the tiers of government in C. perceived cultural affinities
Nigeria can be described as one of D. expectations of political support from them
A. independent co-existence
B. coordinate and independent jurisdiction 41. The one-time president of the United Nations General
C. voluntary subordination Assembly was
D. superior-subordinate co-existence A. Maitama Sule B. Joseph Garba
C. Ibrahim Gambari D. Arthur Mbanefo
33. The 1976 Local Government Reforms in Nigeria
transformed the relationship between states 42. The leaders who spearheaded the transformation of
and local government into one of the Organization of African Unity into the African
A. master and servant Union are from
B. partnership and cooperation A. South Africa, Libya and Zambia
C. equality D. subordination B. Nigeria, Libya and South Africa
C. Nigeria Liberia and Kenya
34. Government-owned companies operating in the D. Algeria, Libya and Morocco
economic sector are referred to as
A. public utilities B. public enterprises 43. The countries in which Nigeria participated in the
C. public investments D. public services. ECOMOG peace-keeping operations were
A. Liberia and Guinea
35. The difference between commercialized and privatized B. Sierra Leone and Coted’Ivoire
companies is that in the former C. Senegal and Coted’Ivoire
A. private ownership is dominant D. Liberia and Sierra Leone
B. public ownership is dominant
C. government subsidizes costs 44. The permanent member of the Security Council of the
D. profit motive is recessive United Nations are
A. Britain, Japan, Australia, Germay and the
36. The body responsible for running the personnel United State
affairs of senior local government staff in B. Germany, France, Poland, Hungary and China
Nigeria is the C. the United States, Russia, France, Britain and
A. Local Government Council China
B. State Civil Service Commission D. the United States, Russia,
C. Senior Staff Commission France, Britain and Japan
D. Local Government Service Commission
45. A specialized agency of the United Nations Organiza
37. The immediate cause of the January 15 1996 military tion is the
coup in Nigeria was the A. World Health Organization
A. Kano Riots B. Tiv Riots B. General Assembly
C. election crisis in the Western Region C. International Court of Justice
D. crisis over the population census. D. International Olympic Committee

38. Nigeria demonstrated her commitment to the policy of 46. With the admission of Asian and African countries to
non-alignment during the regime of the Commonwealth, the Queen of
A. Muhammadu Buhari England bcame the
B. Johnson Aguiyi-Ironsi A. head of state of these countries
C. Murtala Muhammed B. head of government of these countries
D. Ibrahim Babangida C. patron of the Commonwealth
D. chairperson of the Commonwealth
47. A major problem of the defunct Organization of Africa 49. The current Executive Secretary of the ECOWAS is
Unity was A. Lansans Kouyate
A. ideological differences B. Abubakar Qattara
B. Language barrier C. Mohammed Ibn Chambers
C. inadequate resources D. Abbas Bundu
D. cultural diversity
50. The responsibility for admitting new members to the
48. The Lagos Treaty of May 28th 1975 led to the OPEC rests with the
formation of the A. Board of Governors B. Conference
A. Economic Commission for Africa C. Secretariat D. Summit.
B. Economic Community of West African States
C. Lagos Plan of Action
D. African Economic Summit
Principles of
Accounts
1 9 94- 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions
Principles of Accounts 1994
1. The term ‘accounting period’ is used to refer to the A. Error of commission B. Error of reversal of
A. time span during which taxes are paid to the entries. C. Error of principle. D. Compensation er-
Inland Revenue Board ror.
B. Budget period, usually one year, relied on by
the accountant 9. The use of the folio in the ledger is for
C. time span, usually one year covered by A. Referencing purposes
financial statement B. Particulars of the transaction
D. period within which debtors are expected to C. the account titles
settle accounts. D. Only credit items.

The gross profit margin would be 47. The expenditure on a good or service which is consumed
A. 33.33% B. 25.00% either immediately or within a current accounting period
C. 20.00% D. 14.28% is called

Use the information below to answer questions 45 and A. fixed expenditure B. capital expenditure
46 C. annual expenditure D. recurrent expenditure

Principles of Account 1995

Principles of Accounts 1997

Direct material N5,000 35. Accumulated fund on 1st January 1993 is

Principles of Account 1998

Liabilities N Assets N A. N7,200 B. N98,800

Principles of Accounts 1999

Principles of Accounts 2000

A joint cost N72 million incurred by the two depart

24. Given: N Determine the club’s excess of income over expenditure

16. The closing stock for this company is Use the information below to answer questions 24 and 25.
A. N72,000 B. N45,000 C. N42,500 D. N31,250 Receipts and Payments Account [Extract]

17. In a departmental accounting system, which of the fol- N N

31. A company has two departments X AND Y. Y 39. Given: =N=

Use the information below to answer questions 47 and 48.

35. How are credit sales by a department treated? 44. Debentures can be redeemed out of
A. the same was as normal debtors’ transactions A. existing share capital reserve
B. in a different way from normal debtors’ transac- B. existing general reserve
tions C. proceeds from new issue of shares
C. as an addition to the sales manager’s account D. withholding tax
D. as an addition to the production manager’s account
Use the information below to answer questions 45 and 46
36. Discounts granted to branch customers are treated as a Given: Share capital Issued
debit to branch N
A. stock account and a credit to branch debtors’ ac- 600,000 10% preference shares of N0.50 each -
count 600,000 ordinary shares of N1 each 500,000
B. discount account and a credit to branch bank ac- Capital reserves 250,000
count Revenue reserves 207,000
C. stock account and a credit to branch bank account Long-term liabilities 400,000
D. discount account and a credit to branch debtors’ 1,357,000
account
45. What is the value of the authorized share capital?
37. Transfers from the head office to branches are best carried A. N500,000 B. N600,000
out at C. N750,000 D. N1,200,000
A. cost price B. selling price
C. cost plus mark-up D. market price 46. The value of the owner’s equity is
A. N400,000 B. N900,000
38. On dissolution, the final distribution of cash to partners is B. N957,000 D. N1,357,000
based on
47. Share premium is an example of
A. partnership agreement B. articles of association
A. revenue reserves B. capital reserves
C. goodwill D. capital balances
C. general reserves D. loan capital
Use the information below to answer questions 39 and 40 48. According to the provisions of the 1999 constitution,
all revenue generated by the Federal Government must
Jumoke and Kunle have a original investment of N25,000 and be paid into the
N15,000 respectively in a partnership. The articles of partner- A. Consolidated revenue fund,
B. Federation account
C. revenue mobilization allocation and fiscal 50. The statement of assets and liabilities in the public
commission’s account, sector can be described as the
D. equalization fund A. income and expenditure account of government
B. appropriation account of government
49. The budget statement presented to the legislature by C. balance sheet of government
the Chief Executive is called D. funds flow statement of government
A. an appropriation act, B. a budget bill
C. an appropriation bill D. a budget proposal
Commerce
1 994 - 2 0 2 3
JAMB
Questions
Commerce 1994
1. Commerce is defined as the study of how 9. Use the data below to answer questions 9 and 10.
A. man utilizes the resources in his physical MBV Enterprises
environment Balance Sheet as at 31st December, 1992
B. man produces, distributes and consumes his
goods and services
Liabilities N Assets N N
C. man buys, sells and distributes goods and
Capital Fixed Assets
services
Balance as at Fittings 9,200
D. raw materials are changed into finished goods.
Jan. 1,1992 60,000 Vehicles 7, 500 16,700
2. The type of activity which turns processed raw Add Net Profit 5,250
materials into consumer and industrial goods is 65, 250
described as Less Drawings 6, 600
A. extractive B. manufacturing 58,650
C. constructive D. processing Current Assets
Stock in hand 8,800
3. The production process that combines two or more raw Debtors 15,500
materials into one end product is Current Liabilities Cash at Bank 21,000
A. conditioning B. blending Creditors 9,730 Cash in hand 6,380 51,680
C. merging D. synthesis. 68,380 68,380
4. A demonstration of social responsibility by a business
is the payment of 9. What is the circulating capital of the sole proprietor?
A. taxes to government A. N27, 380 B. N34, 980
B. dividends to shareholders C. N36, 180 D. N51, 680
C. interest on loans
D. premium for insurance. 10 What is the working capital as at December 31, 1992?
A. N65, 250 B. N60, 000
5. A distinguishing characteristic of a limited liability C. N48, 650 D. N41, 950
company is that it
A. is a collection of many sole proprietors 11. A company earned a total revenue of N108 million with
B. is a multiple partnership a total cost of N91 million in 1991. If it paid 45% tax on
C. can sue and be sued its gross profit for that year, determine its net profit.
D. has limited resources. A. N24.65 million. B. N17.00 million.
C. N9.35 million. D. N7.65 million.
6. Which of the following takes place when firms
producing at different stages in the same industry 12. What are fixtures and fittings in a balance sheet?
combine? A. Liquid capital B. Current assets
A. Conglomeration B. Vertical integration C. Fixed assets D. Working capital
C. Horizontal integration D. Cartel.
13. Government impose import duties for the following
7. Which of the following groups is paid first when a firm reasons EXCEPT
liquidates? A. to raise revenue for other services
A. Perference shareholders. B. to act as as a retaliatory measure against other
B. Debenture holders governments
C. Ordinary shareholders. C. to discourage the redistribution of income at home
D. Cummulative preference shareholders. D. to protect home industries from external competition.
8. Compulsory dissolution of a business can arise from 14. Sole enterprise may flourish best in
A. an agreement by the owners A. a mining business B. a retailing business
B. a declaration by a court of law C. an oil exploration business
C. the termination of its life D. a car assembly business
D. an unfavourable economic climate.
15. The use of coin-operated machines to sell goods is a
form of
A. personal selling B. retailing
C. wholesaling D. mail-order selling.

16. What is the major function of the wholesaler?

A. Buying from small-scale producers and selling
to exporters.
B. Buying in bulk and selling in small quantities A. Nigrian Deposit Insurance Corporation
C. Granting of credit facilities to retailers B. Nigeria Economist Reconstruction Fund
D. Providing information to manufacturers on C. Nigerian Industrial Development Bank
market situation. D. Nigerian Export-Import Bank.
17. The rate at which a country’s exports exchange for its 27. Which of the following is both direct and indirect credit
imports is called enterprises?
A. balance of payments B. balance of trade A. Co-operative and thrifts society.
C. terms of payment D. terms of trade. B. Retail co-operative society.
C. Consumer co-operative society.
18. The different between the total payments for imports and D. Wholesaler co-operative society.
the receipts from exports within a given period is referred
to as 28. The business in the stock exchange is characterized
A. balance of payments B. balance of trade essentially by
C. comparative cost advantage D. comparative advantage A. dealing. B. brokerage
C. speculations D. transactions.
19. A pro forma invoice is NOT required when
A. quoting for the supply of goods 29. The Second-Tier Securities Market is
B. goods are sent on approval A. an apendage to the Nigerian Stock Exchange
C. dealing regularly with a customer B. a member of the Nigeria Stock Exchange
D. final prices are uncertain. C. meant for the shares of the quoted private companies
D. a regulating arm of the Nigeria Stock Exchange
20. Which of the following statements is TRUE about sea
transport? 30. The elements of the marketing mix are
A. All ships have specific routes to ply. A. product, promotion, place and price.
B. All ships must be insured at every journey B. personal selling, advertising and research.
C. All ships are insured separately from the crew C. promotion, production, place and price.
D. All ships normally arrive at their destination with D. procurement, price, product and place.
goods.
31. Which of the following items has the shortest effect on
21. The postal organization which preceded in Nigerian Postal the consumer?
Service is A. Fashion. B. Innovation.C. Fad D. Attribute.
A. Post and Telecommunications
B. Post and Telephone 32. Which of the following is a form of sales promotion?
C. Post and Teleprinter D. Post and Telegraph. A. Advertising on radio. B. Offering free samples.
C. Distributing printed materials.
22. Goods discharged from ships on which import duties have D. Advertising on Television.
not been paid are kept in the
A. ordinary warehouse B. public warehouse 33. One advantage of personal selling over all other elements
C. private warehouse D. bonded warehouse. of promotion is that
A. it can provide instant feedback
23. A sole proprietor insured his goods worth N200,000 for B. it is very cheap in terms of cost per contract
half the value.There was a fire incident in which goods C. it does not need to use mass media
valued at N80, 000 were destroyed. The value of D. sales people are well trained.
compensation expected from the insurer is
A. N40,000 B. N80,000 34. Which of the following must be present in an agency by
C. N100,000 D. N200,000 agreement?
A. Intentions. B. Will.
24. One of the effects of the devaluation of the Naira is that C. Consent. D. Authority.
the
A. goods that can be imported with the Naira have become 35. An agreement to sell is distinguishable from a sale because
cheaper in the former, the transfer of goods is
B. value of other currencies relative to the Naira have A. not anticipated. B. not discussed.
become cheaper C. deferred. D. immediate.
C. goods that can be exported from Nigeria have become 36. Mr. Amusa says to Mr Bello ‘I will sell you this hat for
costlier N30’. And Mr Bello replied ‘I will pay N29’. The contract
D. imports that can be bought with the Naira have become is
costlier. A. an offer and acceptance B. an implied contract.
25. Drawing two parallel lines across a cheque means that is C. a complete simple contract.
has to be paid into the account of the D. an offer but no acceptance.
A. payee B. drawer 37. Nationalization of an industry means that its ownership
C. drawee D. payer. becomes that of
26. The financial institution established to boost Nigeria’s A. government. B. shareholders.
trade with the rest of the world is called C. taxpayers. D. indigenes.
38. The Comprehensive Import Supervision Scheme was set 44. The harmonious relationship among the various units in
up by the federal government in order to an organization is ensured through
A. reverse Nigeria’s unfavourable balance. A. co-ordination B. motivation
B. promote fair trade between Nigeria and other countries. C. planning. D. leadership.
C. counteract all fraudulent business deals of Nigerians
with other nationals. 45. The principle of span of control stipulats that
D. ensure that imports into Nigeria are of the correct A. an employee should report to only one superior
quality, value and quantity. B. managers must demand accountability from their
subordinates
39. Which of the following has powers to order withdrawal of C. resources have to be economized within the various
a particular food item from circulation? divisions
A. Standards Organisation of Nigeria. D. the number of employees reporting to one superior
B. Federal High Courts in Nigeria. should be kept to a workable maximum.
C. Food and Drugs Department of the Federal Ministry of
Health. 46. Which of the following makes other functions of business
D. Local government health inspectors. its appendages?
A. Production. B. Marketing.
40. Which of the following maxims negates the principle of C. Finance. D. Personnel.
collective bargaining?
A. Individual employees have weak bargaining base. 47. The use of computers in modern banking industry is a
B. Individual employees attain strength when they come reflection of
together in a union. A. competitive development B. scientific development
C. Only members of the union can benefit from C. economic development
agreements negotiated by the union. D. technological development
D. Collective bargaining covers the vast majority of
employees, whether union members or not. 48. When an oil exploring and mining company builds a health
centre in one of the communities where it operates, such
41. NACCIMA stands for a company is
A. Nigerian-American Centre for Culture Industries, A. currying favour from local people
Mines and Arts B. finding a way to spend excess profits
B. Nigerian Association for Culture, Civics, Industries, C. fulfilling part of its social responsibility
Minerals and Arts D. investing its idle funds.
C. National Agency for Culture, Civilization, Investments,
Manufacturing and Agriculture 49 The West African Clearing House became legally
D. Nigerian Association of Chambers of Commerce, operational on
Industries, Mines and Agriculture. A. 1st July, 1976 B. 25th June, 1975
C. 14th March, 1975 D. 3rd May,1974
42. For the establisment of a powerful consumers’ association
in Nigeria to exist, there must be 50. The Lake Chad Basin Commission was founded to enable
A. financial and moral support from the public. member states.
B. honest and committed leadership.
C. allocation of goods from the producers. A. expand the volume of water in the Lake for fishing
D. freedom from external influence. activity
B. increase navigational activities on the lake
43. Which of the following is the most important business C. dam the lake for electricity and agricultural purposes.
resources? D. co-ordinate their efforts in managing the use of the
A. Money. B. Management lake’s resources.
C. Materials D. Manpower.

Commerce 1995
1. What are the factors with which commercial undertak
2. The development of commercial activities in Nigeria was
ings can be distinguished?
facilitated largely by
I Size of the undertakings.II Profits generated. A. a good transport system
III Forms of ownership.IV Location of the undertak B. the indigenization decree
ings. C. a convenient medium of exchange.
D. a high level of production.
A. I and II only. B. I and III only.
C. II and III only. D. III and IV only.
C. bank overdrafts D. discount houses.
3. In which of the following sets of occupations can an
14. Factoring is a trade debt term used when the agent buys
industrial worker be found?
all the trade debts of the
A. Extraction, commerce and construction A. importers B. exporters
B. Manufacturing, extraction and banking. C. nations D. customers
C. Construction, quarrying and insurance.
15. The financial index which compares current assets directly
D. Manufacturing, extraction and construction.
with current liabilities is known as current
A. turnover B. capital
4. Construction activities include the building of houses and
C. ratio D. balance
roads as well as
A. bricklaying B. shoemaking 16. Rights issue means the
C. blacksmithing D. car assembling. A. issue of shares to the directors of a company on
favourable terms
5. If a partnership deed is silent on how profits are to be
B. issue of shares by a company only to the founders of
shared, partners share profits
the company
A. in the ratio of the value of business secured by each
C. right of shareholders to vote on any issue
partner for the partnership
D. issue of shares to shareholders on favourable terms.
B. in the ratio of partners’ capital contributions
C. in an equal proportion, irrespective of partners’ capital 17. Profit that is expressed as a percentage of the cost of
contributions goods sold is referred to as
D. according to duties performed by each partner. A. margin B. mark-up
C. gain percent D. gross profit.
6. Which of the following information is contained in the
Articles of Association of a limited liability company? 18. Given: N
A. Rights and obligations of directors Opening stock 40,000
B. Objectives of the company. Purchases 115,000
C. Amount of share capital. Closing stock 60,000
D. Limitation of liability of shareholders. Sales 250,000
7. The merger of two companies producing the same type of What is the cost of goods sold?
products is an example of A. N155,000 B. N95,000
A. vertical integration B. horizontal integration C. N50,000 D. N30,000
C. lateral merger D. an acquisition.
19. In the channel of distribution, which of the following sets
8. One of the implications of the incorporation of a company is entirely made up of middlemen?
is that A. Wholesalers, retailers and agents.
B. Manufacturers, consumers and retailers.
A. it is more difficult for the company to raise loans
C. Wholesalers, agent and consumers.
B. the company can sue but cannot be sued
D. Retailers, manufacturers and wholesalers.
C. the company’s property becomes distinguished from
that of its member 20. Goods imported into a country for the purpose of re-
D. its members become liable for all the debts of the exporting attracts a rebate known as
company. A. customs draw back B. export royalty
C. incentive D. export rebate.
9. The main advantage of a sole trader is the freedom to
A. employ anyone he likes 21. Most foreign trade transactions are paid for through the
B. seek advice from any source C. take quick decisions use of
D. plough all the profits back into the business. A. Central Bank cheques
B. bank drafts drawn by commercial banks on their
10. In the case of voluntary liquidation of a business, the foreign branches
receiver is appointed by the C. irrevocable and confirmed letters of credit
A. creditors B. debtors D. letters of credit authenticated by the embassies of the
C. directors D. shareholders. respective countries.
11. When a company uses more of loans than equity to finance 22. RRF as a scheme introduced by the Central Bank of Nigeria
its business, the company is said to be means
A. bankrupt B. solvent A. Recording and Rediscounting Facility
C. highly geared D. in a strong liquid position. B. Refinancing and Recording Facility
12. The nominal value of a share as specified in the C. Refinancing and Rediscounting Facility
Memoradium of Association and the share certificate is D. Refinancing and Reinvesting Facility.
the 23. Which of the following gives the correct order in which
A. disconted value B. stock value the listed documents are used?
C. face value D. par value A. Debit note, order, delivery note, invoice and state
13. A public limited company can raise long-term loans ment
through B. Order, delivery note, invoice, debit note and state
A. the capital market B. the money market ment
C. Statement, order, invoice, delivery note and state exchange market?
ment
A. Providing long-term loans to large scale enterprises.
D. Invoice, order, statement, debit note and delivery
B. Encouraging people to buy shares and thereby
note.
providing capital for investment.
24. Freight note is a document C. Providing means of assessing the value of a firms’
A. used by government to transport goods from one assets.
country to another D. Enabling firms to wind-up quickly in times of difficulties.
B. issued by a shipping company giving details of
35. The marketing approach by which a firm caries out a
charges
detailed analysis of itself, the consumers and its
C. used for payment for imported goods.
competitors is known as
D. given by an importer to pay for goods at a future
A. market analysis B. marketing mix analysis
period.
C. marketing opportunities analysis D. market survey.
25. An invoice of N600 is marked 5% 1 month, 212% 3 months’
36. The breaking down of a market into separate and
and ‘1% 5 months’. If a customer pays in the second
identifiable elements each with its own special product
month of purchase, how much will he remit to the seller?
requirements is known as market
A. N570. 00 B. N585. 00
A. differentiation B. Segmentation
C. N594. 00 D. N600.00
C. penetration D. identification.
26. Spot market goods are those which are available for
37. Taking a new product to a particular part of a country to
A. immediate delivery B. short-term delivery
test the reaction of consumers to the product is referred
C. long-term delivery D. end of year delivery
to as
27. The main advantage of road transport is that it is A. sales promotion B. sampling
A. convenient and flexible B. cheap and direct C. merchandizing D. advertising.
C. common and fast D. safe and available.
38. A manufacturer can make his product distinguishable from
28. The practice by which an insurance company accepts a those of other competitors by
very large riskand later shares it with other insurance A. providing catalogues for his wholesalers
companies are called B. aggressive sales promotion
A. subrogation B. contribution C. branding and packaging the product
C. re-insurance D. indemnity. D. selling the product at a much lower price.
29. The insurance policy which provides full cover against 39. Which of the following are forms of sales promotion?
all risks at sea is known as A. Advertising, personal selling and publicity.
A. Policy with Particular Average B. Advertising, market skimming and publicity.
B. Policy Free of Particular Average C. Personal selling, packaging and publicity.
C. Marine Freight Insurance D. Advertising, packaging and publicity.
D. Marine Voyage Policy Insurance.
40. A disadvantage of personal selling is that it
30. Berne Union is also known as
A. increases a company’s operating costs.
A. International Credit Union
B. decreases a company’s operating costs.
B. International Documentary Credit Union
C. increases a company’s number of customers
C. International Union of Credit and Investment Insurers
D. reduces a company’s area of patronage.
D. Export Credit Guarantee Scheme.
41. Chinyere agreed to make a dress for Halima with September
31. Which of the following sets of items was used for
20, 1995 as the delivery date. If the dress was not ready on
exchange in Nigeria before money was introduced?
that date, Halima could
A. Cowries, iron rods, brass rods and copper wires.
A. sue Chinyere for damages
B. Iron rods, copper rods, manilla and cowries.
B. sue Chinyere for specific performance
C. Cowries, manilla, brass rods and copper wires.
C. seize another gown from Chinyere’s shop
D. Copper wires, brass wires, cowries, and iron rods.
D. regard the contract between them as terminated.
32. A major liability of a commercial bank arises from
42. Consumer sovereignty means that the consumer is
A. customers’ deposits B. loans and advances
A. a citizen B. always independent
C. overdrafts D. staff allowances.
C. always wrong D. always right.
33. A bank statement is a document
43. When an industry or company is nationalized, the state
A. ordering a bank to pay on demand a stated sum of
becomes
money
A. the majority shareholder
B. containing records of receipts, payments and balance
B. the minority shareholder C. the only shareholder
on an account
D. an equal shareholder with other individuals.
C. used for paying money into a bank account
D. used for regular withdrawal of moeny from a savings
44. The Federal Government made efforts at rendering
account.
public enterprises more efficient and profit-oriented
34. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stock
through the process of C. reduces friction among employees in the process of
A. privatization B. commercialization achieving the organization’s objectives
C. indigenizationD. nationalization D. helps to eliminate industrial disharmony.
45. Which of the following organizations represents those 48. The direct authority of a superior over his surbordinate is
who engage labour in Nigeria? known as
A. Nigerian Labour Congress A. staff authority B. line authority
B. Nigerian Employers Consultative Association. C. line and staff authority D. lateral authority
C. Manufacturers Association of Nigeria.
49. A firm’s organisational structure would change if
D. Nigerian Union of Local Government Employees.
A. one of the major partners dies
46. The practice of assessing employees for payment or B. there is excessive competition
advancement according to their observed achievement C. there is seasonal variation in demand
is called D. the scope of business operation changes.
A. employee ranking B. merit rating
50. The secretariat of the Niger Basin Commission is located
C. job grading D. employee evaluation.
at
47. Motivation is an essential element in management
A. Ouagadougou, Burkina Faso
because it
B. Abuja, Nigeria
A. leads to the improvement of staff welfare
C. Niamey, Niger
B. encourages individuals to work towards achieving
D. Bamako, Mali
the organisation’s objectives

Commerce 1997
1. Which of the following are the components of and discharge my social responsibilities.What of you?
commerce? MUSA: I am in business to minimize cost, provide
I Trading and advertising products at low prices and as you said, discharge my
II Warehousing and transportation social responsibilities. What of you, Okon and Kalu?
III Packaging and branding OKON:I am in business to cater for the need of the
IV Insurance and banking. consumers at all costs.
KALU:I am in business to make profit, provide quality
A. I and II B. I and III
products at reasonable prices and establish a
C. I, II and IV D. II, III and IV
good reputation for myself.
2. A royal charter was granted to the Royal Niger Company
7. The businessman that may end up not discharging his
to do business in Nigeria in
social responsibility is
A. December, 1888 B. May, 1887
A. Musa B. Okon
C. July, 1886 D. August, 1885.
C. Taiwo D. Kalu
3. Transportation, retailing and wholesaling industries rely
8. The business with the best objectives is
heavily on
A. Okon B. Taiwo
A. banking B. insurance
C. Kalu D. Musa
C. manufacturing D. railway.
9. The business organization in which shareholders have
4. An example of indirect service is rendered by equal votes is
A. civil servants B. family doctors A. sole proprietorship B. partnership
C. household servants D. entertainers. C. co-operative D. limited liability company.
5. The objectives of a business are determined by the 10. The major objective of corporate mergers is to
A. workers B. government A. minimize the effects of taxation
C. society D. promoters. B. increase financial advantage
C. facilitate profit maximization
6. Partnerships are most suitable where
D. enhance economies of scale.
A. the partners are family friends
B. professional are involved 11. When it becomes necessary to liquidate a company, the
C. members can easily raise enough capital first step to be taken is the appointment of
D. government regulations are favourable. A. a receiver B. an auditor
C. an accountant D. a liquidator.
Use the conversation below to answer questions 7 and 8.
MUSA: Taiwo, why you are in business? 12. In which of the following circumstances is a court order
TAIWO: To optimize profit, provide quality products
NOT necessary for the winding up of a company? C. collect duties in ships D. load and unload ships
A. Suspension of business for one year.
25. A close indent is an instruction to an agent to
B. Special resolution of members.
A. order goods from a particular manufacturer
C. Reduction in the number of members below the legal
B. order goods from any manufacturer
minimum.
C. sell goods to any firm
D. Inability to pay its debts.
D. sell goods to a certain firm.
13. One type of investment that has a variable income is
26. The basic distinction between cash discount and trade
A. debentures B. preferred shares
discount is that while trade discount is
C. government bonds D. ordinary shares.
A. for a period of 30 days, cash discount is for a period of
14. A term which indicate that a share is temporarily 3 months
suspended is B. given by a wholesaler, cash discount is given by a
A. ex-dividend B. cum-dividend bank
C. bond D. stock. C. a reduction in the cataloque price of an article, cash
discount is a reduction in the invoice value
15. Leasing is the right to use assets for an agreed period in
D. a reduction in value of sales, cash discount is a
return for
reduction in price of goods.
A. profit B. interest
C. wages D. rents. 27. The cost that arises from failure to load or unload a ship at
the port within a stipulated period is known as
16. The form of business financing which involves pledging
A. excess charges B. demurrage charges
of a specific asset is
C. premium charges D. trade charges.
A. debenture B. mortgage
C. loan D. bond. 28. The mode of transportation that is noted for ontime
dependability and low cost per unit on goods carried is
17. The total amount that a company is allowed to raise
A. pipeline B. air
according to its memoradum of association is known as
C. rail D. road.
A. issued capital B. authorized capital
C. called-up capital D. paid-up capital 29. A person who undertakes any risk in insurance business
is known as
18. A public limited liability company having a nominal capital
A. a broker B. an underwriter
made up of 200 000 ordinary shares of 50k each decided to
C. an insurer D. an actuary.
issue 50% of it to the public
What is the authorized capital? 30. The main purpose of insurance is to
A. encourage business to survive and grow
A. N40 000 B. N50 000
B. ensure that facilities are available for operations
C. N100 000 D. N200 000
C. accept risks and extend credits to policy holders
19. The turnover of a firm may be affected by D. spread individual losses over all covered participants.
A. the demand for its product
31. Bank giro is a system where
B. the cost of its goods sold
A. Commercial banks can give loans to all customers
C. its closing stock D. its net assets.
B. a central bank opens accounts for commercial banks
20. The cost of transporting goods to customers is called C. a customer uses a cheque to pay several bills
A. carriage inward B. carriage forward D. a customer closes his account by writing a cheque.
C. carriage paid D. carriage outward.
32. Commercial banks are referred to as departmental stores
21. The main aim of selling directly to consumers by of banking because they
manufacturers is to A. have many branches B. have many customers
A. discourage the activities of middlemen C. are found in the cities D. offer many types of services.
B. make contact with consumers
33. A market where new shares are traded is known as
C. eliminate transportation cost
A. primary market B. stock exchange
D. maximize the profit margin.
C. secondary market D. money market.
22. In foreign trade, document of title is known as
34. When a firm speaks of stock appreciation, it refers to
A. bill of lading, B. bill at sight
A. changes in the value of its stock resulting from price
C. certificate of origin D. declaration form.
movements
23. Excise duties are paid on goods that are B. increase in the price of its shares quoted on the stock
A. imported into the country exchange
B. manufactured within the country C. an unexpected increase in the demand for its stocks
C. exported to other countries D. the value of its stocks in the stock exchange.
D. kept in bonded warehouses. 35. The process of creating more market for a product is
called
24. Stevedores as a term in foreign trade means men who A. advertising B. marketing
A. inspect goods in shipsB. import goods by ships C. promotion D. consumerism.
36. When a vendor supplies newspapers from house to
house and across the streets, the element of marketing 43. The least of the advantages of indigenization is that
mix involved is A. the standard of living of the indigenes is improved
A. product B. price B. the economy is controlled by the nationals
C. promotion D. place C. entrepreneural skill is developed
D. foreigners’ domination is avoided.
37. The main advantage of using cinema as an advertising
medium is that it is 44. The main objective of a trade association can best be
A. cheap B. accurate described as promoting and protecting
C. accessible D. informative. A. the products B. common interest
C. the market D. customer’s interest.
38. When old customers stick to the old place to buy goods
and services, it is known as 45. The management function of evaluating whether
A. goodwill B. personal factor objectives are being achieved is
C. window shopping D. patronage. A. planning B. directing
C. organizing D. controlling.
39. The most important piece of legislation governing
business and commercial activities in Nigeria currently is 46. In a business organization, the annual operation plan or
the budget is a form of
A. Companies Decree, 1968 A. casual plan B. medium-term plan
B. Trade Dispute Decree, 1976 C. long-term plan D. short-term plan.
C. Companies and Allied Matters Decree, 1990
47. A key advantage of delegation is that
D. Banks and Other Financial Institutions Decree, 1991.
A. workers are prepared for higher responsibilities
40. One of the criteria for differentiating consumer markets B. the manager has less work to do
from industrial ones is the C. the manager spends less time on planning
A. type of demand B. type of supply D. the organizing grows larger in size.
C. nature of the services rendered
48. Social responsibility of business requires enterprises to
D. price of the goods.
A. hold annual social parties for the public
41. The over-riding objective of the food and drug act in B. draw their workers only from the immediate
Nigeria is to prevent the environment
A. importation of food and drugs that can be locally C. address themselves to issues relating to the society.
manufactured D. set up social welfare centres in their areas of operation.
B. consumption of food and drugs not tested by the
49. The existing system of governance and the administrative
ministries of health
sub-divisions of a country which affect the operations of
C. adulteration of food and drugs sold in the country
business in the country is described as
D. manufacturers of food and drugs from charging
A. economic environment B. legal environment
excessive prices.
C. political environment D. social environment.
42. The activities of consumers association in Nigeria have
50 Sudden technological changes can have the effect of
not been effective because
making
A. the consumers are too many
A. a company’s management style ineffective
B. the government is not favourably disposed towards
B. a company’s product obsolete
consumerism
C. the control mechanism difficult to implement
C. there is poor enlightenment about consumer rights
D. the motivational factors in the company difficult to
D. the consumers have no medium for expressing their
monitor.
feelings.

Commerce 1998
3. Extractive industries may also be denominated as
1. Which of the following contributed least to the evolution
A. direct industries B. servicing industries
of commercial activities in Nigeria?
C. primary industries D. indirect industries.
A. Development of banks
B. Development of transportation. 4. The primary objective of a business organization is to
C. Development of traders’ unions. A. cater for the needs of its owners
D. Development of currencies. B. work towards making returns
C. assist the government to serve the citizens
2. One of the factors which critically determines the choice
D. improve the standard of living of its proprietors.
of occupation is
A. training B. skill 5. Services which are of absolute monopoly can best be
C. aptitude D. interest. provided by
A. private companies B. limited liability Use the information below to answer questions 13 and 14
companies C. public companies SONU Enterprises
D. public enterprises. Balances Sheet as at 31/3/98
N N
6. One advantage the co-operative society has over the
Capital 6,000.00 Plant/Machinery 2,300.00
ordinary company is that the
Net profit 2,000.00 Motor van 2,000.00
A. latter pays tax while the former does not
Drawings (137.50) Stock 1,250.00
B. former attracts more capital than the latter
Creditors 1,000.00 Debtors 480.00
C. membership of the former is usually more than that of
Accruals 187.50 Bank 3,000.00
the latter
Cash 20.00
D. former, unlike the latter, has limited liabilities.
9,050.00 9,050.00
Use the information below to answer questions 7 and 8
13. What is the current ratio?
Mr Obi is a manager of Obi Agricultural Venture. He makes A. 4:1 B. 4.5:1 C. 5:1 D. 25.5:1
all the decisions and takes all profits from the business.
14 What is the acid ratio?
He had agreed with Alhaji Musa (a farmer) to pool their
A. 2.95:1 B. 4.25:1 C. 4.75:1 D. 5.55:1
resources together and expand their business. They
invites Mr. Abayomi (a cotton grower) to join them. Mr 15. The form of capital which is easily transferred into the
Abayomi agreed on the condition that his liability in the form desired is known as
new firm will be limited to his investment in it. They thus A. working capital B. liquid capital
registered Obi, Musa & Abayomi Agricultural Ventures. C. circulating capital D. capital employed.
7. It can be deduced from the above that Obi 16. If a firm’s turnover is N15,000 and the cost of goods sold
AgriculturalVentures is a is N10,000, what is the percentage of gross profit on sales?
A. sole proprietorship B. general partnership A. 23.3% B. 33.3% C. 50.0% D. 66.6%
C. limited partnership D. joint venture.
17. A machine which enables sales without the physical
presence of a sales attendant is a
8. Which of the statements below is true of Mr Abayomi?
A. computer machine B. vending machine
A. He can assign his shares to another without consent
C. telex machine D. fax machine
of other partners
B. He cannot take part in the management of the business.
18. What document is required when a country imposes and
C. His actions as a limited partner can bind the firm.
valorem import duties on goods?
D. His death will authomatically dissolve the partnership.
A. A mail transfer B. A shipping note
C. A bill of lading D. A consular invoice.
9. A source of capital to private limited companies is shares
issued to 19. Entrepot trade is said to have taken place when goods are
A. the public B. selected persons A. held at the port pending payment of custom duty
C. members of the Board of Directors B. sold in the ship under special regulation
D. Dedicated members of staff. C. imported and then re-exported
D. kept for further processing before sales.
10. Which of the following is an example of a conglomerate?
A. National Electric Power Authority 20. When a price is quoted at F.O.B.it means that the price
B. United Africa Company Nigeria Plc A. excludes loading charges incurred in bringing the
C. The Nigerian Railway Corporation. goods to the dock
D. First Bank Nigeria Plc. B. excludes all necessary shipping charges payable for
insurance
11. Which of the following statements is true of preferred
C. includes all charges payable on shipping a consignment
stockholders?
to the port of destination
A. They have no voting rights at annual general meetings
D. includes charges payable for loading goods onto the
B. They have first claim to company assets before
ship.
creditors
C. They have first claim to company assets after all debts 21. Emeka ordered goods for his retail shop. The manufacturer
have been settled. sells the goods at retail price of N500 but would give it to
D. They share dividends equally with common Emeka at N400. What kind of discount did he get?
stockholders. A. Cash discount B. Trade discount
C. Quantity discount D. Seasonal discount
12. A provision in the charter of a company which gives
holders of common stock the first option to purchase 22. Nigerian Postal Services (NIPOST) facilitates commerce
additional issues of the firms’ common stock is the in all the following ways except through
A. cash on delivery service B. recorded delivery
A. pre emptive right B. shareholders right
service C. express service D. free on board service.
C. ex-dividend right D. oversubscription right.
23. The document with which a manufacturing enterprise
releases stock of raw materials to the factory for
production is called
A. stock release form B. goods received note
32. The oral presentation in a conversation with one or
C. store issues voucher D. materials release note.
more prospective buyers for all purpose of making sales
24. The two main categories under which marine losses is
fall into are A. branding of goods B. personal selling
A. particular loss and average loss C. packaging D. publicity.
B. actual loss and general loss
33. Personnel activities that promote the general image of an
C. total loss and partial loss
organisation are part of
D. voyage policy loss and time policy loss.
A. advertising B. sales promotion
25. Insurance companies operate on the principle of indemnity. C. public relations D. business correspondence.
This means that an insured person or firm collects
34. An agent must not make any secret profits in the
A. only half of the loss suffered
performance of his duties but can only be rewarded by
B. double the value of the loss suffered
his principal through
C. the total sum of the premiums paid prior to the loss
A. remuneration and indemnity
D. damage claims equal to the loss suffered.
B. payment of commission and salary
26. The most important difference between community banks C. granting of business concessions
and peoples’ bank is that the D. forwarding of business links.
A. latter is owned solely by government while the former
35. Sabo and Gambo entered into a contract for the sale of
are not
two baskets of tomatoes belonging to Gambo before the
B. former cater for rural dwellers while the latter caters for
date pf delivery and without any default by Gambo, the
both rural and urban dwellers
tomatoes were stolen.This is an example of termination of
C. former are service oriented while the latter is profit
contract by
oriented
A. breach B. performance
D. latter advances loans to the public while the former
C. fault D. frustration.
advance loans to rural dwellers only.
36. A minor is not permitted to enter into a valid contract
27. The assets, liabilities and general management of a
because he
distressed bank may be taken over by
A. cannot pay the consideration
A. International Bank for Reconstruction and
B. is too young to interprete the law
Development
C. is young in the eye of the law
B. Nigerian Industrial Development Bank
D. may not be able to write the contract.
C. Nigerian Deposit Insurance Corporation
D. Nigerian Bank for Commerce and Industry. 37. A person who is cheated in a business transaction can
28. The type of securities that the stock exchange deals with seek legal remedy
are A. even if the agreement is verbal and the amount involved
A. warrants, currency notes, money orders and postal is large
orders B. only if the business is a sole proprietorship whose
B. cheques, bank drafts, warrants and promissory notes owner is known
C. bonds ivory, treasury bills, debentures and warrants C. regardless of the form of business organization
D. stocks, shares, bonds and warrants. D. only if the transaction is docmented in contract.
29. I. Companies must be registered as private limited liability
38. The most essential element of a product is the
companies
A. price B. utility
II. Companies must have less than 100 shareholders.
C. design D. colour
III. No shareholder may have more than 75% of issued
share capital. 39. Which of the following is a disadvantage of
What of the above are reqirements for admission into the nationalization?
second-tier securities market? A. It promotes poor economic planning
A. I and II only B. I and III only B. The cost of services is not determined by market forces.
C. I, II and III D. II and III only. C. It may lead to rationalization or resources
D. The development of local skills and technologies is
30. An underlying principles in the marketing of goods is
retarded.
that firms should
A. train their personnel B. be consumer oriented 40. An example of a consumer protection agency is the
C. advertise the goods D. sell through outlets. A. Nigerian Bar Association
B. Nigerian Medical Association
31. Product X was introduced into the market at N4.00 with
C. Federal Environmental Protection
its cost of production at N3.90 while competing
D. Manufacturers Association of Nigeria.
products are selling at N4.50. What pricing policy are
producers of X adopting? 41. The body that organizes, promotes and participates in
A. Market skimming B. Market penetration local and foreign trade fairs is the
C. Product live promotion
A. Ministry of Commercial and Tourism
D. Above the market pricing.
B. Ministry of Finance C. Chambers of Commerce
D. Export Promotion Council. 46.
EXTERNAL INTERNAL EXTERNAL
42. The Continental West African Conference is a ENVIRONMENT ENVIRONMENT ENVIRONMENT
A. group of aWest African countries trading in the
same products Which of the following sequences can best fit into the
B. conference to foster unity among the West African structure above?
countries A. People control ideas
C. group of shipping lines operating on the same West B. Material production ideas
African route C. Finance marketing product.
D. trust with shareholders from all West African D. Materia production product.
countries.
47. When a business enterprises provides free service to its
43. The main function of thrift, credit and loans environment, the services is said to be a
co-operative societies is to A. civic responsibility B. philanthropic
A. educate their members C. consideration D. social responsibility.
B. collect money from their members
C. disburse money to their members 48. Inventory control is an aspect of
D. raise investment finance among their members. A. operations research B. materials management
C. the organizing functions D. span of control.
44. Management is described as
A. getting things done through people 49. The reduction of import duties among the member
B. implementation of business decisions countries of ECOWAS is an example of
C. the number of levels in an organization A. preference duties B. preferential treatment
D. the people in authority in an organization C. preference tariffs D. preferential excise

45. Under normal circumstance, a business enterprise can 50. In a common market, member countries agree basically to
be ideally structured A. place bans on other countries’ products
A. by products, function or territories B. wage war against other countries
B. around the personalities in the enterprise C. establish common barriers against countries outside
C. on the rulling of the management the market
D. on the basis of an order from stockholders. D. negotiate with countries outside the market for
favourable terms of trade

Commerce 1999
1. The conversion of raw materials into finished products one else without permission from other shareholders
creates B. their annual accounts are made avaible to the
A. marginal utility B. place utility corporate affairs commission
C. form utility D. time utility C. shares can be offrred for sale on the stock exchange
2. Commerce makes it possible for man to live in a D. Shares can be offered for sales through an issuing
A. complex and organized society house.
B. society characterized by subsistency 6. The primary motive behind an individual engaging in
C. society characterized by dependency production is to
D. simple and organized society. A. fully engage all the factors of production
Use the information below to answer questions 3 and 4. B. make available goods and services
C. meet projected profits.
Aboki Plc became insolvent and decided to wind up to D. meet basic human needs.
meet the legitimate claims of its creditors. Babalawee
was called in to manage the dissolution. 7. Musa obtains wool from his sheep, spins and transforms
it into cloth which he sells to consumers. This is a form of
3. After paying the debts of Aboki Plc, the balance goes to A. vertical integration B. horizontal integration
A. Aboki Plc B. Babalawee C. forward integration D. backward integration.
C. shareholders D. creditors.
8. A company has an authorized capital of 40 million at N1
4. Babalawee is a per share, out of which 32 million shares have been
A. a claimant B. a manager issued and fully paid-up.The remaining 8 million shares
C. an assessor D. a receiver. have
A. been issued but have not been paid up
5. A common requirement for public and private limited B. been applied for but not issued
companies in Nigeria is that C. not been paid-up D. not yet been issued.
A. a shareholder cannot transfer his shares to some
9. An abridged version of a company’s income statement payment for goods purchased
for 1993 contains the following information: A. can refuse to pay on due date since it is only a
promise.
N(million)
B. is bound to redeem the not for cash on due date
Turnover 286.5
C. is not bound to renew the note before payment
Cost of goods sold 147.5
D. can return the goods purchased and refuse to pay.
Overhead and other expenses 85.5
Taxes due for the year 26.9
17. Kamaldeen is a seller in a hire-purchase agreement with
What was the company’s profit before taxes for 1993? Emeka. By law, Kamaldeen cannot recover the hire
A. N26.9 million B. N53.5 million purchased goods. This is an instance of a restriction on
C. N139.2 million D. N286.5 million
A. Emeka’s right to terminate the agreement
10. A business whose owners enjoy loan facilities on the B. Kamaldeen’s right to re-hire the goods
basis of personal goodwill is a C. Emeka’s right to breach the agreement
A. commercial bank B. thrift society D. Kamaldeen’s right to terminate the agreement.
C. co-operative society D. community bank
18. The main documents sent to an importer of goods by the
11. Which of the following is not a veritable source of funds exporter are
to a public limited liability company? A. invoice, consular invoice, certificate of origin, freight
A. Government financial grants note, indent and insurance policy.
B. Advances and loans from banks. B. indent, bill of lading, certificate of origin, invoice and
C. Internally generated funds. bill of exchange
D. Funds from the sale of shares. C. certificate of origin, bill of exchange, invoice, insurance
policy, indent and bill of lading
Use the document below to answer questions 12 and 13.
D. bill of lading, invoice, insurance policy, consular
N200,000.00 Liverpool, U.K, June 2, 1995 invoice, certificate of origin and bill of exchange.
Three months after date, pay to or to the order of 19. The document that indicates instant payment of cash for
Mr. Okon Etim Esin goods whenever they are delivered is
A. credit note B. proforma invoice
Two hundared thousand ............................................Naira
C. debit note D. statement of account.
Payable at First Bank, Plc.
20. Which of the following documents permits an importer to
Lagos Imo Edit Enoh inspect his goods before the arrival of the bill of lading?
No 5Due Sept., 2 1995 Liverpool. A. Bill of sight B. Import invoice
C. Consular invoice D. Bill of exchange
12. Okon Etim Esin is the
A. debtor B. creditor C. exporter D. importer 21. The overriding advantage of home trade over foreign trade
is
13. The document represents a A. accessibility of seller to buyer
A. bill of exchange B. cheque B. absence of many documents
C. money order D. promissory note C. ease in language of transaction
14. The term 5 Net 7’ on an invoice means that D. ease in form of payment.
A. 5% discount will be allowed on the price charged if 22. A distinction between Comprehensive Insurance and
payment is made within seven days Third Party Insurance is that the latter covers damages
B. 5% discount will be allowed on the price charged if A. caused by the insured vehicle
payment is made after seven days B. to the insured vehicle
C. 5% surcharge will be made unless payment is made C. caused by the other vehicle
within seven days D. to the driver of the insured vehicle.
D. 5% discount will be allowed on the price charged only
if the goods are bought within seven days. 23. The rate at which a central bank discounts first class bills
is called the
15. Kabir receives two quotations. Ade quotes N100 less A. fixed rate B. bill rate
20% trade discount, while Benson quotes N100 less 30% C. bank rate D. interest rate
trade discount and 10% cash discount. If Kabir wants to
take advantage of trade and cash discount, then 24. The principle of subrogation states that
A. an insured person should be indemnified to the
A. the materials should be supplied by Ade tune of the amount insured
B. the materials should be supplied by both of them B. an insurance company can stand in place of the
C. the materials should be supplied by Benson insured in dealing with third party
D. Benson should be asked to reduce his trade C. only a person who likely to suffer loss should take
discount. out an insurance cover

16 A company which issues a promissory note in lieu of

D. there must be a close connection between the actual A. seller B. profit
loss suffered and risk insured. C. product D. buyer.
25. Tolu purchased goods from Yemisi and is to pay 36. Adigun displays goods of different makes on shelves
custom duties before collection. The goods are likely to in his supermarket. This is an exmple of
be collected from A. invitation to treat B. offer to sell
A. a manufacturer’s warehouse C. offer to purchase D. invitation to sell.
B. a bonded warehouse C. an importer’s warehouse
37. The process of bringing a company under exclusive state
D. a wholesaler’s warehouse.
ownership and control is known as
26. The three major functional units which the modern A. nationalization B. commercialization
computer has are C. indigenization D. privatization.
A. the input, the processor and the output units
38. Q acting as the agent of P, lawfully and reasonably incurs
B. the black box, output and input units
the amount of N350 as expenses. If Q comes to P for
C. BASIC, COBOL and output units.
payment, this is an instance of P’s duty to
D. BASIC, the processor and PASCAL.
A. remunerate Q B. repay Q
27. I foreign investment. II Long-term lending III. Short-
C. indemnify Q D. settle Q
term lending IV. Foreign exchange reserve V. Short-term
borrowing. Which combination of the above include 39. In a hire purchase agreement between Argungu Ltd and
capital account in international trade? Maikudi, Argungun Ltd inserted the provision that it can
A. I, III and IV B. II, III and IV enter Maikudi’s premises at any time and remove the hired
C. II and V D. I and II vehicle for any breach.This provision is
A. lawful to both B. unlawful to both
28. The elimination of faults in a computer program is called
C. beneficial to both D. detrimental to both.
A. console B. debug C. dump D. loop.
29. Aliyu bought 100 share at the stock market through a 40. In every simple contract, the price which is paid to
stockbroker. He was told the price of each share was N3 purchase a promise is called
cum. div . This means that Aliyu A. offeree B. acceptance
A. is entitled always to a cummulative dividend on the C. consideration D. representation
shares
41. One major disadvantage of a cartel is that it
B. is entitled to the next dividend accruing from the
A. maximizes productive efficiency
shares
B. brings the merging firms under control
C. will not be entitled to the next dividend due to the
C. maximizes profits from operation
shares
D. eliminates competition and waste.
D. still owes N3 on the shares which will be subtracted
from the dividends. 42. Staff position in an organization borders on
A. authority B. advice
30. The forum for the selling and buying of securities of small
C. responsibility D. control.
and medium companies is called
A. Second Tier Foreign Exchange Market 43. The line function in a typical manufacturing enterprise is
B. Foreign Exchange Market normally performed by the
C. Securities and Exchange Commission A. public relations department
D. Secon Tier Security Market. B. estate or properties department
C. marketing department
31. A wholesale dealer in securities is known as
D. legal department.
A. A stockbroker B. speculator
C. jobber D. stag 44. I Money and machine II. Materials and money. III
Market and I Man IV. Materials and Man.
32. Modern business philosophy emphasizes
Which combination of the above are basic requirements
A. quality products B. customer satisfaction
as business resources?
C. sales volume D. public relations.
A. I and II B. II and III
33. The main role of advertising is to C. I and IV D. II and IV.
A. convince prospective buyers to buy
45. Under what management function would the motivation
B. show the actual shape, form and colour of the products
of employees fall?
C. inform people where to obtain goods and service.
A. Staffing B. Controlling
D. capture the attention of people.
C. Organizing D. Directing.
34. The concept of limiting the types, sizes and other
46. The main thrust of government policy of evolving good
characteristics of a product line without
business environment in Nigeria is the need
sacrificing utility or durability is called
A. to attract local and foreign investors
A. simplification B. standardization
B. for more export commodities
C. specialization D. satisfiying.
C. for consumer oriented products
35. The focal point of all marketing efforts is the D. to have viable local markets.
47. Which of these sets of external environmental factors
affect a business operation? 49. Which of the following group of countries are members
A. Competition, industry and product of the Niger Basin Commission?
B. Competition, labour and political A. The Republic of Guinea, Burkina Faso and Nigeria
C. Political, cultural and labour B. Ghana, Liberia and the Republic of Benin.
D. Economic, social and legal. C. Mali, Liberia and Nigeria.
48. The right of the public to protection against question D. Ghana, Burkina Faso and Chad.
able products and marketing practices is 50. The proposed monetary integration within ECOWAS
A. an economic aspect of the business sub- region has the overriding benefit of
B. a social responsibility of the business A. improved exchange B. enhanced trade
C. a legal aspect of the business C. enhanced development D. improved relations.
D. a political aspect of the business.

Commerce 2000
Amina Enterprises
1. Government policies relating to the establishment and Balance Sheet as at 30/3/99
operations of businessess are targeted at Liabilities N Assets N
Share capital 400,000 Land 200,000
A. even spread of facilities and employment Reserve fund 200,000 Buildings 150, 000
B. the general improvement of the economy Creditors 110,000 Machinery 200,000
C. increasing the profits of business owners Bills payable 50,000 Implements 20,000
D. Diversification and expansion of businesses. Undistributed
Profits 45,000 Office fittings 5,000
2. The share capital value that forms part of the balance Wages due 5,000 Raw materials 100,000
sheet total is the Finished goods 50,000
Debtors 20,000
A. issued share capital Bills receivable 15,000
B. called-up capital share capital Cash at bank 45,000
C. authorised share capital Cash at hand 5,000
D. paid-up share capital
6. What is the total fixed capital?
3. Bank overdraft as a short term source of fund is A. N675,000 B. N575,000
C. N570,000 D. N550,000
A. a current liability
B. granted to a newly opened account 7. Determine the circulating capital
C. repayable after more than a year A. N250,000 B. N245,000
D. an overdrawn account C. N235,000 D. N225,000

4. The measure of independence available to the individual 8. The term PLC implies that the shares are availble
buisness units that come together is the main difference A. publicly on the stock exhange
between B. privately on the stock exchnage
C. to the public at the comapny
A. vertical and horizontal integration D. publicly in commercial banks
B. merges and acquisitions
C. trust and cartel 9. The application of division of labour should generally
D. consortium and amalgamation bring about
A. increase in the variety of goods and services
5. The major factors that facilitate merchadising are B. increase in the quantity of goods and services
C. cheapness of goods and services
A. communication, advertising and banking D. cost effiiciency in the production of goods and
B. Trading. Warehousing and production services
C. Banking, insurance and transportation
D. Management, insurance and advertising
10. On liquidation of a public limited liability company, the
Use the information below to answer questions 6 and 7 residual owners are the
A. Creditors B. debenture holders
C. preference shareholders
D. ordinary share holders
11. Prodcution involves 20. The current trends in retailing competion in Nigeria
A. changing the form of goods, moving and are
making them available as needed A. self service, after sales service and
B. making goods available where and when branding strategies
needed B. branding, enterprising and differentiation
C. the manufacturing of goods and provisions of of goods and services
services C. advertising and sales promotion strategies
D. the assembling of all necessary parts to D. after sales services and sales promotion
produce a finished product strategies

12. Which of these is both merit and demerit in partnership? 21. The main factors militating against the rapid
A. The bearing of risk growth of trade in Nigeria are
B. Its unlimited nature A. Inadequate transportation network and huge
C. The number of partners capital outlay
D. The withdrawal of a major partner B. Lack of good transportation network and
insecurity of investments
13. A printer that burns the print images onto the C. Lack of motivation and government
photosensitive drum is called attitude towards trade
A. dot matrix printer B. laser printer D. Huge capital outlay and government
C. daisy wheel printer D. thermal printer attitude to trade

14. The insurance principle that requires full disclosure of 22. Mr. Olatunde took up a fire insurance on a property
information on the insured is known as valued at N1000 and the amount insured is N800. The
A. indemnify B. Caveat emptor property caught fire causing a loss of N400. If the
C. Subrogation D. uberimae fidei insurance was taken with the clause “with average’
what is the amount to be paid by the insurance company
15. A bank form used to transfer money from personal A. N560 B. N460
to creditor’s account is called C. N420 D. N320
A. credit transfer form B. debit transfer form
C. customer transfer form 23. The Central Bank differs from commercial banks
D. bank transfer form becasue it
A. renders services to customers
16. A console is a device used in B. carries out foreign exchange transactions
A. moving an indicator on the screen C. issues currencies
B. forming charcters by hearing sensitive ribbon D. discounts bills
C. holding magnetic tape reel
D. communicating between operator and 24. Tourists with no fixed address in a town may
program receive their letters from the post office through a
A. post restante B. recorded delivery
17. The fucntion of a merchant wholesaler is to C. parcel post D. postmaster
A. buy in bulk, store and sell to retailers as
desired 25. An invoice can be described as a
B. bring buyers and sellers together A. contractual agreemnt for the sale of goods
C. Possess title to the good store and sell to B. receipts containing necessary information
retailers about the goods
D. find markets for producers C. document specifying quantity, description,
prices and total value of purchases
18. The computer using linear integrated circuit D. letter specifying the contractul sales of goods
technology coupled with quantification of data between two parties.
in terms of length and distance is known as
A. digital computer B. hybrid computer 26. Product
C. mainframe computer
D. Analogue computer Price Customer Promotion

19. Ocean liners are subdivided into Place

A. cargo liners and tramp liners The chart above represents the
B. coastal liners and cargo liners A. marketing mix relationship
C. passenger liners and cargo liners B. product mix
D. passenger liners and tramp liners C. promotion mix relationship
D. advertising mix relationship

27. The role of public relations is principally to

A. sustain good relationship
B. advertise a firm’s product A. a decree B. a treaty
C. carry out publicity D. create good image C. an act D. a constitution
28. The pratice whereby soft drink manufacturers give away 37. The composite functions of management are
caps, bags and other items when consumers buy their a. planning, supervising, communication and
product is a form of directing
A. Marketing Strategy B. publicity b. coordinating, supervising, staffing and
C. Sales promotion D. Advertising communicating
c. planning, controlling, organising and
29. A group of specialized functions of marketing is directing
A. buying, selling, advertising and packaging d. directing, supervising, motivating and
B. buying, selling, storing and information controlling.
C. buying, selling labelling and promotion
D. buying, selling, skimming and pricing 38. The three components of staffing are
30. The major condition for obtaining loan in thrift a. recruitment, interview and appointment
credit and loans cooperative societies is b. recruitment, selection and placement
A. provision of collateral security c. recruitment, test and placement
B. a high level of eductaion d. recruitment, procurement and appointment
C. an approved project plan
D. possession of a large business. 39. The primary objective of a trade association is to
A. exchange information and negotiate as a pres
31. The type of advertising that seeks to persuade sure group
consumers to buy a particular product is B. establish easy link with government
A. informative advertising C. undertake research work on behalf of members
B. mass and sopecific advertising D. Operates as a group against other groups
C. Persuasive advertising
D. competitive advertising 40. One of the functions of the Niger Basin Commission is to
A. ensure eqaul treatment of African Nations
32. The most important advantage of personal selling B. map out regulations that will guide all
is that it forms of navigation
A. allows sellers to perceive buyer’s needs C. foster close co-operation among West
B. takes place easily on the highways African nations
C. allows sellers to sell their goods quickly D. guaranteed freedom of navigation for all
D. takes place without the permission of West African nations
governemnt
41. The legal aspect of business is designed to
33. The stock exchange helps to provide capital for
industrial projects becasue it
A. protect infact industries from collapse
A. determnines value of shares, stocks and
B. safeguard consumers from undue business
other securities
practices
B. assists companies to change their securi
C. protect business organisation and consumers
ties into cash
D. encourage free exchange among businesses
C. assists goverment in implementing its
monetary policies
42. General Manager
D. renders agency servcives to organisations
and governments
Marketing Personnel Production Financial Secretary
34. A form of money that has gone out of use is
A. commodity money B. bank money Foreman Foreman
C. paper money D. foreign money

35. A shortcoming of the second-tier foreign exchange Work ers Work ers
Work ers
market in Nigeria is that it
A. serves as a mechanism for evaluation an The organisational structure above represents
unrealistic exchange rate of the naira a. line and functional structure
B. contribute to flooding the market with b. functional structure
foreign essential commondities c. line and staff structured
C. contributes to destablizing national re d. line structure
source 43. An aspect of the law which allows an exclusive
D. creates unhealthy competition amongst right for a limited number of years is a
users of foreign exchnage A. patent B. trade mark
C. ratification D. copyright
36. The instument establishing the Economic Community of
West African state in 1975 is 44. The basis elements of a valid contract are
A. offer, acceptance, consideration and witness
B. offer, acceptance, capacity, legality and consider 48. A bus driver operating between Lagos and Jos
ation pledged the owner’s credit in Benin in order to have the
C. offer, acceptance, intention, capacity and legality engine repaired and the bill sent to the owner. This is a
D. offer, intention, acceptance and legality case of
A. agency by necessity B. del credere agency
45. In an organisation, civic consideration arises from C. agency by ratifictaion D. agency by estsoppel
A. its social negative impacts on the community
B. its operations within the environment 49. A chamber of commerce is any association made
C. the profit derived from the environemnt up of
D. the fact that it is registered in that locality A. merchants B. manufacturers
C. entrepreneurs D. importers
46. The main difference between nationalization and
indigenization in terms of 50. The first known legislation to protect consumer
A. efficiency B. profit right in Nigeria is the
C. Technology D. shareholding A. Usualy laws B. Sale of goods act.
47. After registration, a certificate of trading is usually C. Hire purchase act D. Food and drugs act.
issued to
A. Partnership B. Private
C. Public company D. Sole proprietorship

Commerce 2001
1. The pivot on which the wheel of commerce rotates is 7. A form of ownership which exploits the strengths
A. tarriff B. trade of one partners to remedy the weaknesses of the other
C. taxation D. price is a
A. joint partnership B. cooperative
2. A distinguishing characteristics of labour is that it is C. corporation D. joint venture.
A. constant B. expensive
C. mobile D. cheap 8. At the collapse of a business enterprises, the person
appointed to dispose of the assets is called
3. Land as a factor of production does not vary in A. a broker B. an auctioneer
A. quantity B. nature C. a liquidator D. an auditor
C. quality D. cost.
9. Entrusting the management of a comapny to the courts
4. Whhich of the following services does a lawyer to enable the settlement of the company’s
render? oblilgations is an indication of
A. industrial services B. direct A. distress B. closure
services, C. indirect services C. bankrupcy D. liquidation
D. commercial services
10. The financial instrument for borrowing in which
5. The partner that only contributes part of the capital collateral is usually more than the amount borrowed is
used in the formation and running of a business is known A. trust certificate B. detachable warrant
as C. mortgage bond D. convertible securities
A. a passive partner B. an active partner
C. a dormant partner D. a nominal partner

6. One major advantage of a credit and thrift cooperatives

is that
A. it can approach governemnt for a loan
B. it encourages saving habits
C. there are no legal restrictions
D. each member has a vote during meetings,
11. I. Personal saving nations
II. Retained Earnings
III Acrued Taxes 19. The major procedures in the purchase and sale of
goods are enquiry
Which of the items above constitute internal sources of A. quotation, order and invoice
financing for companies B. placement order and invoice
C. bargain, order and invoice
A. I & II B. I & III D. order, sale and invoice.
C. II & III D. I, II & III Use the information below to answer questions 20 and 12

12. The difference between total current assets and total Mr. Awala is a retailer of a single product. He sells at the standard
current liabilities of a business is known as price. He gives a trade discount of 5%, quantity discount of 3%
A. quick ratio B. liquidity ratiio for a volume above 1000 units and a cash discount of 2/10 net 30.
C. working capital D. circulating capital The existing selling price of the product is N100 per unit. Mr.
Bacus purchased 1,500 units of the product on credit and promised
Use the balance sheet below to answer questions 13 and 14. to pay Mr. Awala in cash in the first 10 days after purchase.

20. The trade discount receivebale by Mr. Bacus is:

Mama Trading Company A. N4,500 B. N7,500
N N C. N10,500 D. N12,000
Liabilities Aseets
Capital 140 Fixed 1000 21. If Mr. Bacus fulfil his promise, he will be entitled to
Opening capital 350 Current a cash discount of
Add Net profit 80 Debt 200 A. N2,760 B. N3,000
Curent liabilities 800 Bank 70 C. N6,500 D. N9,500
Cash 50
1,370 1,370 22. Bank Giro is a method of settling debt from a:
A. customer to a bank B. bank to a customer
13. The capital employed is C. customer to another D. bank to another
A. N1,000 B. N1,370
C. N140 D. N50 23. Warehousing is a productive function because it
increases the
14. The capital owned is A. quantity of goods B. utility of goods
A. N2,740 B. N1,350 C. quality of goods D. price of goods
C. N1,150 D. N570
24. A factor neccessary for siting a warehouse is nearness
15. One of the reasons why wholesaling must continue nearness to:
is that A. raw materials B. labour
A. the tax paid by wholesalers on their profit C. Capital. D. consumers.
enhances national revenue
B. by creating artificial scarcity, the wholesaler is 25. Pooling of risk in insurance means that
enhancing competion in the economy, A. compenstaions are paid out of a common fund
C. the wholesaler provides technical advice to the B. two people can pool their risks to be insured
retailer C. two insurance companies can buy two policies
D. the gap between manufacturers and retailer is D. insurance companies should encourage taking
reduced by wholesalers risks
16. A merchant wholesaler is referred to as: 26. The indemnification of Ama by his insurance
A. del-credere agent B. a broker, cecompany after a fire disaster means that he:
C. rack jobber D. a factor A. has been guaranteed by the insurance company
B. will be cleared of any fault by the insurance
17. A proforma invoice is sent to inform a buyer company
about the : C. has been by the insurance company
A. quantity of goods B. prices of goods, D. will be covered to the limit of the amount in
C. designation of goods D. quality of goods the policy

18. The balance of payments of countries is 27. The major difference between insurance and assurance is
A. a record of imports and exports that while insurance
B. a systematic record of transactions among A. takes care of the uncertainty, assurance takes
countries at a given time care of risks
C. the current and the capital accounts and their B. takes care of risks, assurance takes care of
payments uncertainty
D. the trade relationships and payments among
C. hinges on possibilities, assurance is based on 36. The activities aimed at finding out customers’ need
possibilities and satisfaction can be described as
D. is about indemnity, assurance is about life in A. socio-marketing
the future B. macro-marketing,
C. micro-marketing
28. A documenatry bill will normally be acompanied by D. conceptual marketing.
A. sales invoice, bill of lading and insurance
certificate 37. The most effective type of advertising for branded
B. clean bill, bill of lading and insurance cerificate product is
C. bill of lading, consular invoice and A. direct advertising B. indirect advertising
insurance certificate C. informative advertising D. competitive advetising.
D. consular invoice, FOB certificate and bill of
lading. Use the information below to answer questions 38 and 39
Comapnies I, II, III and IV produce and sell electronic videos. C
29. Which of the following best describes the classifi company I sells its video for N14,000 each and offers advice on
cation of computers how to fix and operate them. Company II sells at N14,000 and its
A. mini -computer,speed and size representatives go to install at no additional cost. Company III
B. micro-computer cost and liabilities sells at N15,000 and offers credit sales at N15,500 per video
C. mini-computer, microcomputer and work station, while Company IV sells at N15,000 each.
D. A mini-computer, hybrid and digital
38. Which of these companies are more engaged in
30. The temporary working area of the central procession public relations activities?
unit is called the A. I & II B. I & III
A. C-D ROM B. C-D RAM C. II & IV D. III & IV
C. ROM D. RAM.
39. Which of these companies offer after sales services?
31. The significance of money to modern economic A. IV B. III C. II D. I
systems is that it
A. is used as a means of payment Use the information below to answer questions 40 and 41
B. promotes specialization and exchange
C. measures value and promotes exchange. D. causes Musa rented a room to Adamu for N1,500 and N1,000 part-
inflation and deflation in the economy payment was made. Adamu brought Audu and Jacob his friends
to stay in the room. The two friends later pay the balance of
32. One major charcteristic of credit unions and thrift N500 to Musa
societies is that
A. the legal processes involved in their formation 40. Who are parties to the contract of renting the room.
are rigid. A. Musa and Jacob B. Musa and Audu
B. membership is compulsory to peoplein the same C. Adamu and Musa D. Audu and Jacob.
line of business
C. the contribution of every member depends on the 41. Who is the offeree in this contract?
member’s ability. A. Musa B. Audu
D. a minimum of ten people in the same line of C. Adamu D. Jacob
business can form the union.
42. The maximum number of shareholders in a public
33. The Nigerian Stock Exchange publishes a daily liability comapny is
official list that gives full information on the A. 20 B. 50
A method of transactions agreed to by members, C. 100 D. Unlimited
B. number of participating members in a day
43. One way by which government reduces the
C. changes in the prices and earning of securities
repatriation of capital is through
D. changes in the official rules set by the market.
A. nationalization B. divestiture
34. The main factors that determines the value of a stock on C. indigenization D. naturalization.
the Stock exchangea re dividend and
44. One of the major functions of a chamber of
A. the psychology of the market
commerce is to:
B. capital gain
a. promote and protect trade, industry and agriculture
C. capital appreciation
b. advise members on regulations of other countries
D. warrantpayment.
C. settle disputes that arise out of trade
35. One of the main objectives of the second-tier D. publish books and periodicals desired by members
securities market in Nigeria is to
45. Departmentalization is an aspect of
A. achieve a realistic exchnage rate for the Naira
A. planning B. organising
B. eliminate currency dealing in the black market
C. directing D. controlling.
C. assist companies to raise capital
D. attract investment flow. 46. A functional organisational structure is where:
A. staff performing the same fucntions are C. community responsibility
grouped together D. responsibility to customers.
B. departments performing similar functions are
49. One of the obstacles to achieving the objectives of
gouped together.
ECOWAS is
C. activities of similar nature are grouped
A. lack of common currency B. colonial linkages,
together
C. sovereignty of states D. language differences.
D. the staff performing similar functions are
grouped together 50. One of the main objectives of establishing theNiger
River Basin Commission was to :
47. In the line type of organizational structure
A. embark on a comprehensive survey of the
A. the lines of authority are vertical
available water resources
B. there is the application of division of labour
B. carry out research for the development of fresh
C. specialization is carried to a maximum degree
water fisheries,
D. The llines of authority are horizontally.
C. develop infrastructure to facilitate economic
activties
48. Proper disposal of waste by business firms is one way
D. promote trade among member-states to
of discharging their
improve standard of living.
A. responsibility to government
11. Awarding scholarships and sponsoring sports by
B. environmental responsibility.
a business organization are example of

Commerce 2002
1. The most important factor that delayed the development C. input for further production
of commerce in Nigeria was D. service that provide satisfaction
A. the inefficient means of communication
B. that there were few entrepreneurs 6. The agency that currently oversee the privatization
C. the unavailabity of infrastructural facilities and commercialization processes in Nigeria is the A.
D. that there were few developed markets securities and exchange commission
B. technical committee on privatization and
2. Secondary production has to do with changing the commercialization
A. shape of raw materials through C. Nigeria stock exchange D. bureau of public
construction operation enterprises
B. physical form of raw materials into finished
goods 7. Okeze contracted to sell TV sets to Ojo, unknown to
C. utility of raw material by an engineering them, the sets were stolen in transit. This contract my
process be terminated on the grounds of
D. nature of raw materials through A. bankruptcy B. frustration
manufacturing C. fraudulence D. breach of contract
3. The major responsibility of an entrepreneur is 8. Which of the following countries are member of the
A. employing all factors of production in the lake Chad Basin Commission?
business A. Nigeria B. Benin and Nigeria
B. coordinating and determining the C. Chad and Benin
proportion of what to produce D. Nigeria and Mali
C. planning and organizing all activities in the
business 9. A core investor in the current phase of privatization in
D. directing and controlling all the affairs of Nigeria is one who
the business A. can afford to buy most of the shares of the
enterprises
4. Which of the following best describe the scope of B. will be at the core of the enterprises
commerce? C. can mobilize foreign currency equivalent
A. All forms of commercial exchanges and the to the value of the enterprises
manufacturing industry D. has the technical know-how of the
B. buying and selling and the construction enterprises.
industry
C. all occupational exchanges relating to 10. The agency in Nigeria which ensure that products
industries and commercial activities conform to government quality specification is the A.
D. buying and selling as well as the extraction standard organization of Nigeria
of natural resources. B. Nigeria consumer’s association
C. manufactures association of Nigeria
5. Capital as a factor of production can be used as D. Nigeria chamber of commerce
A. money that is regarded as asset
B. goods that are useful in business
A. advertising strategy A. cover note B. testimonial
B. economic responsibility C. time policy D. proposal form
C. marketing strategy
D. social responsibility 22. The bulls and bears in the Stock Exchange market
help to minimize
12. The commercialization of public enterprises is A. the number of shares and bonds sold
aimed at B. price increases of securities
A. increasing efficiency and making the C. flunctuations in the prices of securities
enterprises self-sufficient D. the elasticity of the prices of securities
B. advertising and promoting the goods and
services of the enterprise 23. Debentures differ from shares in that
C. increased assistance and patronage of the A. they are secured on the company’s assets
enterprises by the public B. ownership is open to the public
D. selling the goods and services of the C. they form part of the capital of the business
enterprises D. rewards are usually paid out of profit.

13. An author is exclusive right to his published and 24. The Stock Exchange is a market where
unpublished works is known as A. long-term securities are sold
A. authors right B. constitutional right B. all types of securities are sold
C. patent right D. copyright C. short term securities are sold
D. medium-term securities are sold
14. Under an endowment policy, the money handed
over to the insured at the expiration of the stipulated 25. A retail cooperative society aims at
time or at death is the A. hoarding manufactured goods
A. indemnity B. surrender value B. cutting off the profits of middlemen
C. lump sum benefit D. insurance premium C. lending money to member at low interests
D. encouraging members to save money
15. The machine used for sending telex message is
known as a 26. A bill of exchange already accepted can be
A. radar B. fax machine discounted by the holder in
C. Dictaphone D. teleprinter A. the Central Bank B. at least two banks
C. his bank D. any bank
16. Which of these insurance principles requires a close
connection between the actual loss suffered and 27. The document issued by the seller which gives
the risk insured? details of the goods he sells is known as
A. Indemnity B. proximate cause A. catalogue B. tender
C. contribution D. subrogation C. price list D. invoice

17. The unit through which the results of a processed 28. Given: I Retail, II export, III Transport, IV import, V
data are displayed is the Insurance, VI banking and finance insurance VII
A. logic unit B. display unit wholesale VIII communication.
C. control unit D. output unit Which of the above are aids to trade?
A. I, II, III and VIII B. III, V, VI and VIII
18. Which of the following is used to inform the C. I, II, III and VI D. II, V, VI and VII
addressee that a registered parcel is ready for
collection? 29. The organizational structure that relates the
A. Express label B. counterfoil positions of specialists to the line managers is
C. telegram D. Slip called
A. line structure
19. The type of computer commonly found in offices B. staff structure
is C. line and staff structure
A. laptop B. desktop D. .functional structure
C. the hybrid computer
D. the main frame computer 30. A wholesaler who possesses the title to the goods
he sell is known as
20. The mode of transporting crude oil to the ports for A. a merchant wholesaler
export purposes is by A. tanker B. rail C. road D. B. a multiple wholesaler
pipeline C. a general wholesaler
D. an agent wholesaler
21. The temporary insurance certificate issued to the
insured before drawing up a policy is a 31. An important principle of a good organizational
structure is
A. ideal standard B. span of control
C. clarity of mission B. inscribed securities
D. adequacy of resources C. bearer securities
D. registered securities
32. A company that is registered with the Corporate
Affairs Commission only without being enlisted 42. In product pricing, which of these elements needs
on the stock exchange is a more consideration that others?
A. public liability company A. the demand for the product
B. joint ventures company B. the demography of the buyers of the
C. limited company product
D. registered company C. the economic conditions in the market
D. the cost of producing the product.
33. A contract for the sale of goods involves the
A. producer, the seller and the buyer of goods 43. The principal objectives of the Central Bank of
B. offering of goods to customers Nigeria can be classified broadly into
C. transfer of title to goods for money A. banker’s bank, lender of last resort and
D. exchange of goods issuance of currency
B service, currency management and
34. The total of the share capital which a company financial intermediation
would be allowed to issue is know as C. banking services, foreign exchange
A. called-up capital B. paid up capital operations and open market operations
C. nominal capital D. issued capital D. service monetary policy and
developmental functions.
35. The process of mobilizing, engaging and
maintaining workers to work for an organization is 44. The letters E and OE stands for
referred to as A. errors of exception
A. staffing B. selection B. errors and omissions excepted
C. recruitment D. employment C. estimated and order error
D. end of error
36. Recognized members of the Stock Exchange who
buy and sell securities on their own behalf are 45. An important issue for consideration in the product
known as element of the marketing mix is the
A. bull B. jobbers A. adequate promotion of the product
C. broker D. stagers B. channel of distribution of the product
C. price of the product
37. Which of the following involves foreign trade? D. planning and development of the product
A. Supermarkets B. chain stores
C. departmental stores D. commodity market 46. A group of companies is a collection of
A. subsidiaries and their holding company
38. Which of the following is a function of employers’ B. firms
association? C. associates and their holding company
A. Undertaking research on behalf of employees D. industries
B. promotion of thrift in workers
C. promotion of workers welfare 47. Which of the following is an example of trade
D. dissemination of information through associations?
sponsored journals A. European Union
B. National Marketing Unity
39. Which of the following industries is normally C. Organization of African Unity
located near the source of its raw materials? D. National Farmer’s Council
A. Footwear B. cement factory
C. textile industry D. automobile assembly 48. Which of the following determines the quality of
the goods that a retailer sells?
40. One of the most important functions of marketing A. The mode of contract of sales
is B. the type of manufacturer
A. encouraging research activities to meet C. the regulations regarding sales in the area D.
needs the location of his shop
B. creating classes of merchants among
businessman 49. An advantage of hire purchase to the
C. the extension of markets for businesses consumer is the
D. providing finances to businesses A. economics of scale in production

41. Securities on which the buyers are not issued with

certificates are called
A. authorized securities
B. possession of goods before payment B. receive their dividends after other
C. increase in turnover and profits share holders
D. low interest rate chargeable C. receive their dividends before other
shareholders.
50. The founders shares are usually referred D. Are not entitled to any dividends.
to as deferred shares because the holders
A. are entitled to cumulative dividends

Commerce 2003
1. An example of service rendering trade association is 7. What was the amount paid by Ojo?
A. Nigerian Bar Association A. N382,500 B. N425,000
B. Association of Nigerian Miners C. N363,375 D. N61,625
C. Cocoa Farmers Association
D. Manufacturers Association of Nigerian 8. How much was the trade discount?
A. N42,500 B. N27,500
2. An obstacle to international trade is C. N22,500 D. N20,000
A. Trade imbalance between countries
B. Availability of local market 9. The basic function of the Nigerian Ports Authority is to
C. Quantity and quality of labour A. Ensure that the right calibre of personnel is
D. Cost of finance employed at the ports
B. Coordinate and regulate the activities of shipping
lines
3. The right of ownership with respect to goods or property C. Facilitate and control the movement of goods and
is services into and out of the country
A. right of occupancy B. proxy D. Coordinate the activities of all the seaports in the
C. title country
D. certificate of occupancy
10. The concept that refers to the sale, transfer or exchange
4. The main motive of chambers of commerce and trade of goods and services is
association is to A. Industry B. Trade
A. assist the government in achieving its C. Tariff D. Marketing
objectives
B. protect the interest of consumers 11. A guarantee given by one person or party to another in
C. maximize profit which the integrity of the person is assured is
D. protect and promote the interests of members A. Fidelity B. Term assurance
C. Subrogation D. Indemnity.
5. A pattern that shows the kinds of participants involved
in the production distribution and ultimate use of a 12. A firm that adapts itself to delivering the desired
product is referred to as satisfaction more and effectively and efficiently than
A. selection B. strategy its competitors is said to be practicing.
C. structure D. synergy A. Price concept B. Distribution
concept
6. Goods that are manufactured or acquired by the seller C. Product concept D. Marketing
after the contract of sale are concept
A. Specialty goods B. Future goods
C. Specific goods D. General goods 13. The payment made periodically in respect of an
insurance policy entered into is known as
Use the information below to answer question 7 and 8 A. Bond B. Commission
C. Premium D. Surrender value
Ojo purchased the following items from Sani at the specified
14. An example of service rendered by NIPOST is
prices on credit; 200 cartons of mild at N1000 per carton, 150
A. Electronic mail B. Telephone
bags of sugar at N500 per bag, 50 bags of rice at N3000 per
C. Mail D. Delivery
bag. Sani allowed 10% trade discount and 50% cash discount
if payment is made within the agreed period. Ojo paid within the 15. The focal point of marketing is
agreed period. A. The competitor E. The buyer
F. Profit-making G. Sales
16. The type of marine insurance which covers either damage 27. The location of a business is mostly influenced by
or loss to the vessel and such as caused by it to other A. Market outlet
vessels is B. Management decision
A. Bull insurance B. Time insurance C. Capital D. Environment
C. Freight insurance D. Cargo insurance
28. The evolution of commerce in Nigeria is traceable to
17. The management function that makes the difference in the
intensity of behaviour is A. Period of barter economy as human needs became
A. Coordinating B. Controlling limitless
C. Motivation D. Planning B. Desire by human beings to satisfy their needs
through the services of other people in the society
18. One of the function of seaports is the provision of C. Development of human civilization and the desire
A. Berthing and landing facilities to meet their needs
B. Loading and offloading facilities D. Primitive stage of existence of human beings.
C. Control room for relaying radio messages
D. Ware houses for storage of cargo. 29. One of the requirements necessary for setting up a
business is
19. The process of dividing task into jobs and departments A. Registration B. Advertisement
and of delegating authority is know as C. Knowledge of the business
A. Staffing B. Leading D. Documentation
C. Directing D. Organizing
30. The assembling of products into usable form is known
20. Communication process involves the transmission of a as
message over a selected channel to the A. Construction B. Manufacturing
A. Receiver B. Audience C. Formation D. Creation
C. Sender D. Encoder 31. The government’s policy thrust on the business
environment is to
21. Stimulation of demand is a kind of communication in A. Promote exports B. Attract investors
marketing which connotes C. Be self-sufficient D. Increase production
A. Personal selling B. Sales promotion
C. Advertising D. Merchandising 32. Social responsibility is the ability of an organization to
A. Tackle the socio-economic problem of its
22. A functional structure is an organizational structure in community
which B. Meet the needs of its community
A. Abstract rules are applied C. Contribute to sustaining and developing its
B. Equity prevails community
C. A Specialist enforces his directives D. Operate without disrupting the very essence of
D. There is no hierarchy the environment

23. Entrepreneurship mainly involves 33. The act of a person employing another to enter into a
A. Risk-taking B. Initiating contract on his behalf is known as
C. Skilled manpower A. Business B. Sale of goods
D. Knowledge C. Bilateral agreement D. Agency

24. In the event of the liquidation of a company, the first to 34. The ECOBANK is the initiative of
be settled are: A. Some well-meeting Nigerian shareholders
A. Debenture holders B. The federal government of Nigeria
B. Members of the board C. West African states to foster trade
C. Preference shareholders D. The lagos state government to enhance
D. Ordinary shareholders capital mobilization.

25. The business organization established mainly for the 35. Privatization is concerned with
purpose of carrying out specific assignments for a A. Capital ownership between the public and the
specific duration is a government
A. Joint venture B. Cooperative society B. The dilution of ownership among the public
C. Partnership D. Company C. The individual ownership of companies
D. Government ownership of companies
26. Which of these factors of production is relatively fixed in
supply? 36. Electronic computers differ from human beings in that
A. Capital B. Entrepreneur they process data and minimize errors in a
C. Human resources D. Natural resources
A. Faster and more accurate manner 44. The body charged with the responsibility to register
B. More organized manner shares for subscription on the stock market in Nigeria
C. Faster but less accurate manner is the
D. Slower but more accurate manner A. Securities and exchange commission
B. Nigerian stock-exchange
37. A major benefit derivable from the privatization and C. Nigerian deposit insurance corporation
commercialization of public enterprises in Nigeria is D. Central bank of Nigeria
A. Increase in wages
B. Employment generation 45. An essential factor for evaluating the different sources
C. Information technology of funds for a business is the.
D. Revenue generation A. Decree establishing the business
B. Ownership structure of the business
38. The device which interprets and carries out the
C. Size and the type of the bank
instructions presented to it by the computer program
D. Burden of cost and repayment
is known as
A. Software B. Micro-processor
Liabilities N Assets N
C. Mouse D. Hard-disk
Paid-up capital 200,000 Buildings 50,000
39. The market structure, business conditions and financial Retained earnings 50,000 Plant &
systems in Nigeria constitute the Creditors 50,000 Machinery 35,000
A. Economic environment Bills payable 50,000 Debtors 50,000
B. Political environment Dividends payable 70,000 Fixtures 20,000
C. Cultural environment Stocks 145,000
D. Technological environment Banks 120,000
420,000 420,000
40. The protection of consumers against exploitation by
manufacturers is to ensure
46. What is the owner’s equity?
A. That there are varieties of products
A. N250,000 B. N300.000
B. That the right quality of goods and services
C. N420,000 D.
is sold
N200,000.
C. Increase in production capacity
D. Increase in the level of consumer awareness
47. Find the current ratio
41. The most widely used computer language that focuses A. 1.53:1 B. 1.85:1
on solving science-oriented problems is C. 0.87:1 D. 0.50:1
A. FORTRAN B. BASIC
C. ADA D. COBOL 48. Money can simply be referred to as a
42. Banks are engaged in the business of buying and A. Medium of exchange
selling of B. Means for the settlement of debts
A. Bills of exchange C. Durable asset for doing business
B. Investment of credit D. Standard of value
C. Intangible products
D. Land 49. A type of long-term loan granted to companies with fixed
interest as well as with redeemable and irredeemable
43. A source of short-term finance to companies is
features is referred to as
A. Share capital B. Debentures
A. A debenture B. A bond
C. Retained earnings D.
C. A term loan D. An overdraft
Corporate tax
50. Public debt management is one of the function of a
A. Merchant bank B. Central bank
C. Commercial bank D. Development bank.

Commerce 2004
1. Ships that sail across the ocean and operate on 3. The program that makes up the operating system in a
scheduled timetables are computer is
A. ferries B. ocean liners A. microprogram B. system flowchart
C. tramp steamers D. coastal liners. C. system software D. syntax.

2. Non-insurable risks include 4. When an organization studies a market that is

A. gambling B. damage to property underserved by others and creates a product or service
C. death D. marine problems. for the segment, it is engaged in
A. market integration B. market positioning
C. market orchestration 15. In Nigeria, the body that ensures that its members
D. product differentiation. operate according to their professional ethics is the
A. SON B. NPF
5. Coverage against unexpected events is called C. MAN D. NAFDAC.
A. insurance B. assurance
C. warranty ," D. reinsurance. 16. A transporter who had to sell some perishable goods
without the prior authority of the owner becomes an
6. An insured risk which occurs accidentally as a result of agent by
defects in a ship is A. conduct B. necessity
A. a voyage policy B. a total loss C. ratification D. estoppel.
C. an emergency D. a particular average.
17. Poor sewage disposal, oil spill and indiscriminate refuse
7. Communication enhances business activities by dumping all lead to
A. facilitating interaction between producers and A. land pollution B. water pollution
consumers C. land and water pollution D. air and water pollution.
B. facilitating interaction among media houses
C. ensuring the movement of goods from the 18. One of the advantages of commercialization is that it
producer to the consumer A. encourages entrepreneurship
D. keeping the goods safe until they are needed. B. increases the salaries of workers
C. motivates government to establish more businesses
8. In business, the computer is very important especially D. gives workers on-the-job training.
in
A. fmancial management B. marketing management 19. A common element in all contracts is
C. educational management D. information management. A. offer B. consideration
C. acceptance D. agreement.
9. What is the most important use of promotion in
marketing? 20. Sources of finance to a business include personal
A. Persuasion. B. Conviction. savings, shares, debentures and
C. Information. D. Education. A. loans from IMF B. bank overdrafts
C. central bank loans D. money from political parties.
10. The current highest decision-making body on
privatization and commercialization of public enterprises 21. Charges for loans paid by commercial banks to the
in Nigeria is the Central Bank of Nigeria are called
A. National Council on Privatization A. bank rates B. credit charges
B. Securities and Exchange Commission C. interest rates D. bank charges.
C. Nigeria Investment Promotion Commission
22. In the primary market, new shares are issued through
D. Bureau of Public Enterprises.
A. personal selling, publicity and advertising
B. a prospectus, an offer for sale and a bill of exchange
11. The members of the Niger Basin Commission include
C. advertising, a prospectus and a bill of exchange
A. Guinea, Ghana and Niger Republic
D. a prospectus, an offer for sale and placing.
B. Burkina Faso, Guinea and Nigeria
C. The Gambia, Benin Republic and Chad Republic
23. The instruments of credit include
D. Nigeria, the Gambia and Cameroun.
A. billboards and postal stamps
B. payment vouchers and statement of account
12. Business environment refers to all elements that are
C. bills of exchange and promissory notes
A. outside an organization but relevant to its
D. bills of exchange and salary vouchers.
operations
B. inside an organization but irrelevant to its
24. The shares of a company listed on the stock exchange
operations
for sale are referred to as
C. internal to an organization and relevant to its
A. registered shares B. deferred shares
operations
C. issued shares D. quoted shares.
D. external to an organization but indirectly related
to its operations. 25. What is the role of the capital market in the privatization
exercise in Nigeria?
13. Consumer rights include the right to A. Selling the shares and stocks of the companies
A. credit B. free samples of a product to be privatized.
C. redress D. a share of profits. B. Encouraging private companies to participate in
the exercise.
14. One important requirement for the membership of the C. Negotiating with individuals who want to buy
ECOWAS is public companies.
A. integrity B. independence D. Advertising for government.
C. landmass D. population.
26. In international trade, documentary credit is also known as B. facilitating exhnages among individuals and
A. credit note B. letters of credit firms
C. bankers' drafts D. letter of hypothecation. C. assistaing trade through banking and
insurance
27. A specialized institution in Nigeria that deals"in capital D. enhancing business relationships
investments in the form of stocks, shares, bonds and
debentures is the 37. The acronym PLC is used to identify a
A. Securities and Exchange Commission A. comapny limited by shares
B. commodity market B. private company limited by shares
C. Nigerian Stock Exchange C. public company limited by shares
D. Central Bank of Nigeria. D. company limited by guarantee

28. A group of assets which a business acquires with the 38. Commerce includes all the occupations concerned with
intention of reselling them are referred to as A. sales B. production
A. current assets B. investment assets C. marketing D. distribution
C. fixed assets D. intangible assets.
39. Factors of production can be described as the
29. Authorized share capital is also known as A. resources required for the provision of goods
A. called-up share capital B. paid-up share capital and services
C. registered share capital D. issued share capital. B. skills involved in deciding and directing the flow
of goods
30. An action taken by a company outside its object clause C. monetary tools employed by government to
is regarded as ensure stable production
A. ultra vires B. a trespass D. elements involved in the process of formulating
C. uberrima fides D. caveat emptor. policies on production

31. The strategy adopted by a flrIn that ceases to operate 40. Flucntuations in the supply of goods may be eliminated
at one or more locations because of inactivity is if the distribution system maintains
A. rejuvenation B. focus A. modern technology B. a team of retailers
C. diversification D. consolidation. C. warehouse services D. sufficient midlemen

32. A written partnership contract is known as 41. Loan schemes by thrift ocieties are
A. an invoice B. a deed A. mortage schemes B. conventional schemes
C. a prospectus D. a proposal. C. mutual schemes D. unconventional schemes

33. The merger of a textile mill, a cement company and a 42. An internal demand for goods to be purchased or
tannery is referred to as drawn from stock is
A. conglomerate merger B. horizontal merger A. a quotation B. a requisition
C. lateral merger D. vertical merger. C. a tender D. an order

Use the diagram below to answer questions 34 and 35. 43. The term 4 net 7 on an invoice means that
Occupation A. 4% surcharge will be made unless payment is
made within seven days
B. 4% discount will be allowed on the price charged
i Services only if the goods are bought within seven days
ii
C. 4% discount will be allowed on the price charged
if payment is made after seven days
iv v Public vi D. 4% discount will be allowed on the price charge
Extraction Trade
if payment is made within seven days.
iii
44. An order sent by an importer to an overseas supplier
34. As the branches indicate, iv is stating the details of goods reqired is known as
A. commerce B. exchange A. export invoice B. ship’s manifest
C. finance D. construction C. an indent D. bill of lading

35. What does v represent? 45. Organising trade fairs in Nigeria is the responsibility of
A. Aids to trade B. Advertising A. National Directorate of Employment
C. Manufacturing D. Industry B. Federal Ministry of Commerce
C. Trade Association
36. The most important of computer is D. Chamnbers of Commerce
A. helping people to improve thier profits
A. industrial policy and harmony
46. International trade takes place as a result of B. budget and budgetary control
A. niformity in costs of production C. budget and industrial policy
B. inequitable distcribution of natural resources D. environmental protection policy
C. parity in the level of industrialization
D. similarities in climatic conditions 49. Discounts offered by firms to midlemen for bulk
purchases are
47. The use of vending machines in retailing is hindered in A. trade discounts B. sales bonanza
a developing economy owing to C. cash discounts D. seasonal discounts
A. industrial policy and harmony
B. low level of education 50. Goods are of merchantable quality if they
C. ineffective communication system A. conform to description
D. lack of steady power supply B. are of equal weight
C. are of the same quality
48. Manufcturers’ Association of Nigeria contributes to D. conform to buyers’ purpose
development by advising the government on

Chemistry - Jamb Questions
0% (1)
Chemistry - Jamb Questions
70 pages
Jamb 2025 Complete Question
50% (2)
Jamb 2025 Complete Question
44 pages
Jamb Chemistry 2021 Key Points
100% (1)
Jamb Chemistry 2021 Key Points
15 pages
Post Utme Past Questions and Answers General
100% (1)
Post Utme Past Questions and Answers General
123 pages
JAMB Physics Past Questions
No ratings yet
JAMB Physics Past Questions
726 pages
Yabatech Post UTME Past Questions 02
100% (1)
Yabatech Post UTME Past Questions 02
55 pages
Jamb Chemistry Past Questions
83% (6)
Jamb Chemistry Past Questions
84 pages
2024 JAMB Mathematics Past Questions
0% (1)
2024 JAMB Mathematics Past Questions
25 pages
Jamb Use of English Past Questions
50% (2)
Jamb Use of English Past Questions
168 pages
Jamb Mat Questions 1 5
No ratings yet
Jamb Mat Questions 1 5
46 pages
Jamb Geography Past Questions Answers
100% (3)
Jamb Geography Past Questions Answers
140 pages
Bowen University Past Questions
100% (1)
Bowen University Past Questions
39 pages
JAMB C.R.K Past Questions Collection
100% (3)
JAMB C.R.K Past Questions Collection
79 pages
Key Topics for JAMB Physics Exam
100% (2)
Key Topics for JAMB Physics Exam
20 pages
JAMB English Language Past Questions and Answers 2010 - 2018
78% (9)
JAMB English Language Past Questions and Answers 2010 - 2018
84 pages
Jamb Past Question MATHEMATICS 1
No ratings yet
Jamb Past Question MATHEMATICS 1
44 pages
Jamb Accounts Past Questions
100% (3)
Jamb Accounts Past Questions
96 pages
Jamb 2025 Physics CompilJAMB Ation
100% (1)
Jamb 2025 Physics CompilJAMB Ation
35 pages
Ui Post Utme Past Questions (Arts. Law. Sos. MGT)
100% (4)
Ui Post Utme Past Questions (Arts. Law. Sos. MGT)
94 pages
UNN Post-UTME Past Questions Guide
No ratings yet
UNN Post-UTME Past Questions Guide
47 pages
Jamb Past Questions
0% (1)
Jamb Past Questions
81 pages
JAMB Literature Past Questions PDF
No ratings yet
JAMB Literature Past Questions PDF
93 pages
Jamb Chemistry Most Repeated Questions and Well Detailed Answers
0% (2)
Jamb Chemistry Most Repeated Questions and Well Detailed Answers
25 pages
Biology Key Points and Likely Jamb 2021 Biology Questions
No ratings yet
Biology Key Points and Likely Jamb 2021 Biology Questions
13 pages
Jupeb Maths Obj
No ratings yet
Jupeb Maths Obj
37 pages
2010 JAMB Government Past Questions
No ratings yet
2010 JAMB Government Past Questions
79 pages
Edsu Post Utme Past Questions and Answers
100% (4)
Edsu Post Utme Past Questions and Answers
57 pages
Jamb Physics Syllabus
100% (2)
Jamb Physics Syllabus
2 pages
General Post UTME Past Questions and Answers
0% (1)
General Post UTME Past Questions and Answers
120 pages
Yabatech Post Utme Past Question
100% (3)
Yabatech Post Utme Past Question
25 pages
Ui Post Utme Past Questions and Answers: For More Education Updates Check Us On: Facebook: Twitter
No ratings yet
Ui Post Utme Past Questions and Answers: For More Education Updates Check Us On: Facebook: Twitter
8 pages
Jamb 2021 Use of English Questions and Answers
100% (1)
Jamb 2021 Use of English Questions and Answers
7 pages
Yabatech Post Utme Past Questions and Answers
100% (1)
Yabatech Post Utme Past Questions and Answers
26 pages
Oau-Post Utme Past Questions
100% (2)
Oau-Post Utme Past Questions
93 pages
OAU Aptitude Test
No ratings yet
OAU Aptitude Test
11 pages
RSUST Post UTME Past Questions
No ratings yet
RSUST Post UTME Past Questions
30 pages
BUK Post UTME Past Questions PDF
100% (3)
BUK Post UTME Past Questions PDF
41 pages
Imsu Free Past Question and Answer
67% (3)
Imsu Free Past Question and Answer
8 pages
UNN Past Questions (MED)
100% (2)
UNN Past Questions (MED)
250 pages
JAMB Syllabus For Chemistry 2025 - 2026 PDF Download - JAMB 2025
No ratings yet
JAMB Syllabus For Chemistry 2025 - 2026 PDF Download - JAMB 2025
19 pages
JAMB Recommended Books For Chemistry 1
100% (2)
JAMB Recommended Books For Chemistry 1
1 page
CU Post UTME Past Question
100% (13)
CU Post UTME Past Question
87 pages
JAMB 2025 Novel - Lekki Headmaster Questions, Answers and Explan
100% (1)
JAMB 2025 Novel - Lekki Headmaster Questions, Answers and Explan
20 pages
2018 JAMB Mathematics Past Questions
100% (1)
2018 JAMB Mathematics Past Questions
2 pages
Jamb Past Question PHYSICS 1
100% (2)
Jamb Past Question PHYSICS 1
67 pages
UI Post-UTME Past Questions & Guide
No ratings yet
UI Post-UTME Past Questions & Guide
119 pages
OAU Post UTME Past Question and Answer
86% (28)
OAU Post UTME Past Question and Answer
17 pages
Chemistry JAMB Questions and Answers 2023
75% (8)
Chemistry JAMB Questions and Answers 2023
5 pages
Unilorin Post Utme Past Questions PDF
100% (4)
Unilorin Post Utme Past Questions PDF
293 pages
JAMB English Past Questions 2015
100% (1)
JAMB English Past Questions 2015
160 pages
Chemistry NECO 2020
100% (2)
Chemistry NECO 2020
17 pages
Jamb Biology Past Questions
100% (2)
Jamb Biology Past Questions
82 pages
AFE BABALOLA UNIVERSITY Post UTME Past Questions and Answers - (Engineering) - Environmental - Sciences (Updated Copy)
100% (1)
AFE BABALOLA UNIVERSITY Post UTME Past Questions and Answers - (Engineering) - Environmental - Sciences (Updated Copy)
13 pages
JAMB Chemistry Questions 1983-2004
No ratings yet
JAMB Chemistry Questions 1983-2004
70 pages
Chemistry JAMB Questions (1983-2004)
No ratings yet
Chemistry JAMB Questions (1983-2004)
71 pages
JAMB Chemistry Questions 1983-2004
No ratings yet
JAMB Chemistry Questions 1983-2004
70 pages
Chemistry: Jamb Questions
No ratings yet
Chemistry: Jamb Questions
76 pages
JAMB Chemistry Past Questions 1983 2004
No ratings yet
JAMB Chemistry Past Questions 1983 2004
77 pages
JAMB Chemistry Past Question 1983 2004
No ratings yet
JAMB Chemistry Past Question 1983 2004
119 pages
JAMB Chemistry Past Question 1983 2004 (1) 091231
No ratings yet
JAMB Chemistry Past Question 1983 2004 (1) 091231
72 pages
Lamlad's Mathematics
No ratings yet
Lamlad's Mathematics
292 pages
New School Chemistry
No ratings yet
New School Chemistry
616 pages
Jamb Series Remix Physics
No ratings yet
Jamb Series Remix Physics
150 pages
Lamlard Biology
No ratings yet
Lamlard Biology
211 pages
Economics Past Questions
No ratings yet
Economics Past Questions
118 pages
JUPEB 2025 Government
No ratings yet
JUPEB 2025 Government
21 pages
Kifwalinka Yabase Result Slip
No ratings yet
Kifwalinka Yabase Result Slip
1 page
College Biology PDF Madeazy
No ratings yet
College Biology PDF Madeazy
718 pages
JUPEB 2024 Literature in English
No ratings yet
JUPEB 2024 Literature in English
21 pages
Accounting Past Questions
No ratings yet
Accounting Past Questions
220 pages
College Biology PDF Madeazy
No ratings yet
College Biology PDF Madeazy
718 pages
Oluyede Omotoyosi Oyedele Result Slip
No ratings yet
Oluyede Omotoyosi Oyedele Result Slip
1 page
English Past Questions
No ratings yet
English Past Questions
143 pages
UI Post Utme Past Questions
No ratings yet
UI Post Utme Past Questions
104 pages
Online Version
No ratings yet
Online Version
1 page
Jupeb 2025 Questions
75% (4)
Jupeb 2025 Questions
20 pages
Slipsprinting - Jamb.gov - NG ShowReport
No ratings yet
Slipsprinting - Jamb.gov - NG ShowReport
1 page
Emenike Bright Ayomikun
No ratings yet
Emenike Bright Ayomikun
1 page
202551932920EA Akinyoola
No ratings yet
202551932920EA Akinyoola
1 page
JUPEB - Results3
No ratings yet
JUPEB - Results3
1 page
202551417381AF Amagwula
No ratings yet
202551417381AF Amagwula
1 page
202551607107EF Adisa
No ratings yet
202551607107EF Adisa
1 page
How To Pass Post Utme Easily
No ratings yet
How To Pass Post Utme Easily
7 pages
Nigeria Current Affairs Quiz Questions 2025
75% (28)
Nigeria Current Affairs Quiz Questions 2025
28 pages
DELSU Post UTME Past Questions
No ratings yet
DELSU Post UTME Past Questions
204 pages
UNILORIN Post UTME Past Questions Answers All Faculties
100% (1)
UNILORIN Post UTME Past Questions Answers All Faculties
450 pages
Uniben Post Utme Past Quesitons and Answer
No ratings yet
Uniben Post Utme Past Quesitons and Answer
64 pages
OOU Post UTME Past Question
No ratings yet
OOU Post UTME Past Question
205 pages
Unilag Past Questions and Answers
No ratings yet
Unilag Past Questions and Answers
152 pages
Type of Fire Extinguisher
No ratings yet
Type of Fire Extinguisher
3 pages
Experiment - 5 - Creep Test
No ratings yet
Experiment - 5 - Creep Test
9 pages
Cooling System Diagram
No ratings yet
Cooling System Diagram
5 pages
Aniline Production From Phenol
No ratings yet
Aniline Production From Phenol
107 pages
Electrochemistry for Students
No ratings yet
Electrochemistry for Students
26 pages
Nomenclatura Y Formulación Química Ejercicios Resueltos: Oxoácidos
No ratings yet
Nomenclatura Y Formulación Química Ejercicios Resueltos: Oxoácidos
2 pages
Agilent Degasser Troubleshooting Tipsand Servicespage
No ratings yet
Agilent Degasser Troubleshooting Tipsand Servicespage
3 pages
SCH 301 Exam Supplementary
No ratings yet
SCH 301 Exam Supplementary
2 pages
Email ID and Address of 17 Category Industry
No ratings yet
Email ID and Address of 17 Category Industry
7 pages
Rhodium Plating Techniques at Zlatarna Celje
No ratings yet
Rhodium Plating Techniques at Zlatarna Celje
5 pages
Leuprorelin Injection BP
No ratings yet
Leuprorelin Injection BP
4 pages
Jasmina 2017 Preparation of Nanoemulsions by Hig
No ratings yet
Jasmina 2017 Preparation of Nanoemulsions by Hig
6 pages
Chapter 4-ppt - PDF/ Instrumentation
No ratings yet
Chapter 4-ppt - PDF/ Instrumentation
46 pages
Acid-Base Definitions & Reactions
No ratings yet
Acid-Base Definitions & Reactions
3 pages
Fresh Air Handling Units - (Community Name) : SR# Location/Building Fahu No. Type of Filter
No ratings yet
Fresh Air Handling Units - (Community Name) : SR# Location/Building Fahu No. Type of Filter
3 pages
Protek 2025
No ratings yet
Protek 2025
2 pages
TDS - Robb. Wall Putty-2020
No ratings yet
TDS - Robb. Wall Putty-2020
3 pages
Pharmacognosy SAS5
No ratings yet
Pharmacognosy SAS5
13 pages
Product Description: Amplitex Art. No. 5040 Flax Balanced Weave (0°/90°) 300 GSM
No ratings yet
Product Description: Amplitex Art. No. 5040 Flax Balanced Weave (0°/90°) 300 GSM
2 pages
Automotive MDS Report: RAPTOR BMPR FRT PLT RH
No ratings yet
Automotive MDS Report: RAPTOR BMPR FRT PLT RH
4 pages
3.steel Tank Structure Painting Procedure Rev03
No ratings yet
3.steel Tank Structure Painting Procedure Rev03
4 pages
5.1 Biological Molecules 1b Igcse 9 1 Edexcel Biology
No ratings yet
5.1 Biological Molecules 1b Igcse 9 1 Edexcel Biology
13 pages
PPT2
No ratings yet
PPT2
12 pages
Tecan Steroid Panel
No ratings yet
Tecan Steroid Panel
38 pages
Die-Materials classEDIT
100% (1)
Die-Materials classEDIT
45 pages
EPC40R
No ratings yet
EPC40R
1 page
1.570 ATP 2023-24 GR 12 Tech Sci Final
No ratings yet
1.570 ATP 2023-24 GR 12 Tech Sci Final
7 pages
Fire Extinguisher (Unique)
No ratings yet
Fire Extinguisher (Unique)
1 page
Ramacharitham
No ratings yet
Ramacharitham
5 pages
Class 11 Biology: Breathing & Gases
No ratings yet
Class 11 Biology: Breathing & Gases
5 pages

Jamb 2025 Questions and Past Questions All Subjects

Uploaded by

Jamb 2025 Questions and Past Questions All Subjects

Uploaded by

The subjects are in this order

2. The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is 8. Compound W is

3. The flame used by welders in cotton metals is 9. The molecular formula of X is

7. The three-dimensional shape of methane is

Question 8-10 are based on the following

24. Crude petroleum pollutant usually seen on some Nigeria

47. The equilibrium reaction between copper (1) chloride

23. Which off the following statements is NOT true of

E. H H O H 49. The I.U.P.A. C name for the compound

8. 3.0 g of a mixture of potassium carbonate and potassium

2. Which of the following conducts electricity?

3. An organic compound contains 72% carbon 12%

37. An organic compound decolorized acidified KMnC4

38. Solid sodium hydroxide on exposure to air absorbs a

39. Which of the following is the functional group of

5. How much of magnesium is required to react with

6. 200cm3 of oxygen diffuse through a porous plug in 50

9. Which of the following group of physical properties

17. Which of these represents a redox reaction?

*HOW TO SCORE 300 IN JAMB 2025 VIA READING, PAST QUESTIONS,

*FOUR WAYS TO PASS JAMB 2025 BY JUST ONCE ASSURANCE

(SECTION ONE AND TWO)

THIS PART OF MY POST IS FOR THOSE WHO DON'T HAVE MONEY TO

What do I advise Candidates to do?

IF YOU NEED JAMB 2014-2024 CBT PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

YOUR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CANNOT BE GOTTEN A DAY

SO WHEN CAN WE GET YOUR OWN QUESTIONS? FOUR HOURS TO

PART TWO : (DIRECT ANSWER PACKAGE)

This is another Helping Package : The already written exam.

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS:

HOW DOES THIS WORK?

ANSWER: WITH YOUR REGISTRATION DETAILS, ON THE EXAM DAY WE

NOW YOU'RE ASKING IF WE INDEED WRITE THE EXAM FOR YOU IN

HAVE YOU EVER WITNESSED A SITUATION WHEREBY THE SYSTEM

THEN CLEARLY NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE, CCTV CAMERAS WON'T BE A

THIS GROUP OF SUBSCRIBERS, WE'RE TOTALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR

(for more details on these contact us for better explanation)

HOW TO USE OUR JAMB ASSISTANCE PACKAGES

*A)* Questions and Answers

How to easily Cram the questions and answers , WRITE IT OUT In a

Stay Calm, Relaxed, and Sharp.

*B)* DIRECT ANSWER

IF YOU PAID For the 300 and Above.

The questions answered incorrectly are usually flagged(red mark), if

PURCHASE OUR 2025 ASSISTANCE PACKAGES THAT Will Help you

For Guaranteed JAMB EXAMINATION ASSISTANCE / EXPO/RUNS

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a

LOCATION Is Really Not A Problem

To check our claims view these below:

Facebook page one : www.facebook.com/realadmissionassurance

36. The iron (111) oxide impurity in bauxite can be removed

38. A white solid suspected to be lead trioxonirate (V), zinc

39. Which of the following compounds would give lilac

40. How will a metal X, which reacts explosively with air

20. If 24.83 cm3 of 0.15 M NaOH is tritrated to its end TempoC 25 35 45

7, An increase in temperature causes an increase in the

14. An eruption polluted an environment with a gas

16. The ion that may be assumed to have negligible

19. Which of the following in aqueous solution neutralize

20. What volume of a 0.1 M H3PO will be required to

39. Given the reactions

40. Crude copper can be purified by the electrolysis of

It can be deduced from the vapour of pressure curves

4. 20.00 cm3 of a solution containing 0.53 g of

11. Four elements P,Q,R and S have atomic numbers of 4,

18. Using 50cm3 of 1 M potassium hydroxide and 100cm3

19. A solution of calcium bromide contains 20 g dm3

A. I, II, III B. II and III

The above graph shows a typical heating curve from

30. Which of the following represents the balanced

31. The catalyst used in the contact process for the

38. A metal is extracted for, its ore by the electrolysis of tits

39. Mortar is NOT used for under-water construction

7. Equal volumes of CO, SO2 NO2 and H2S, were released

33. In the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia,

47. Alkanoic acids have low volatility compared with

A) Questions and Answers

B) DIRECT ANSWER