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SS Practice Paper AIATS-01A Advanced P-2 C 2020-07!14!2020 Q

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test No. 1A (Paper-2) for students studying in XII. It includes details on marking answers, sections of the test, types of questions, and scoring criteria. Additionally, it provides a QR code for accessing video solutions for the test paper.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
210 views29 pages

SS Practice Paper AIATS-01A Advanced P-2 C 2020-07!14!2020 Q

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test No. 1A (Paper-2) for students studying in XII. It includes details on marking answers, sections of the test, types of questions, and scoring criteria. Additionally, it provides a QR code for accessing video solutions for the test paper.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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16-06-2019 C

JEE (Advanced)-2020
TEST No. 1A (Paper-2)
(XII Studying Students)

1. Read each question carefully. (ii) Section-1: This section contains 6 multiple choice questions which
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate have one or more correct answer(s). Each question carries
circle in the answer sheet. +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer. Partial
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
+1 mark is given for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the (iii) Section-2: This section contains 8 questions. The answers to each of
examination hall. the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99 (both
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test inclusive) without being given any option. Each question carries
paper contains all pages and no page is missing. +3 marks for correct answer and there is no negative mark for wrong
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should answer.
check that Roll No., centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and (iv) Section-3: This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each
marked correctly. question has two matching lists : (List-I and List-II).
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer In general, four options are given representing matching of elements
sheet is to be returned to the invigilator. from List-I and List-II. Only ONE of these four options corresponds to
10. Pattern of the questions are as under: a correct matching. For each question, choose the option
(i) The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and corresponding to the correct matching. Each question carries +3
Mathematics). Each part has three sections. marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
QR Code

To get quick video solutions of this Test Paper, follow the steps below:
1. Scan QR Code.
2. Don't have QR reader? Download Aakash i-Tutor app from or and scan QR Code.
Note: Quick video solutions will be available from 17th June 2019 (2:00 PM Onwards)

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

[Based on JEE (Advanced)-2018 Actual Pattern]


Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

Time : 3 Hrs MM: 180

PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.

1. Four points charges are located at the corners of a square ABCD of side length a as shown in figure. Then

q2
(A) The interaction energy of the system is ( 2 + 1)
0a
q2  1 
(B) The interaction energy of the system is 1+
0a  
2 2
q2
(C) Work required to remove particle at A slowly to large distance is – (2 + 2 )
20 a
q2  1 
(D) Work required to remove particle at A slowly to large distance is –  1+ 
20 a  2 2
2. Three identical point charges each of charge Q are arranged at the three vertices of a regular tetrahedron of
side length a. Then
3Q
(A) Electric field at the fourth vertex is
20a 2

6Q
(B) Electric field at the fourth vertex is
40 a 2
3Q
(C) The potential at the fourth vertex is
40a
3Q
(D) The potential at the fourth vertex is
40a

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

3. In the circuit shown in figure:

(A) Charge on 2μF capacitor is 16 μC


(B) Charge on 3μF capacitor is 36 μC
(C) Potential difference between points A and B, VA – VB, is –4 V
(D) Potential difference between points A and B, VA – VB, is –6 V
4. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. If r is distance from the centre of sphere, then
(A) Electric potential inside sphere is directly proportional to r
(B) Electric field inside sphere is directly proportional to r
(C) Electric potential outside sphere is inversely proportional to r
(D) Electric potential at the centre is 50% more than that on the surface of sphere
5. In the arrangement shown in figure: (All capacitors are initially uncharged)

(A) Potential difference across A and B is 5 V (B) Potential difference across A and C is 2 V
(C) Potential difference across C and D is 1 V (D) Charge flown through the battery is 8 μC
6. A thin non-conducting ring of radius R has a linear charge density, λ = λ0 cosθ as shown in figure. Then

0 0
(A) Electric field at the centre C is (B) Electric field at centre C is
20 R 40 R
0
(C) Electric potential at centre C is zero (D) Electric potential at centre C is
40

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

SECTION - 2
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

7. There is an infinitely long straight wire carrying charge with linear density  = 2 μC/m. Calculate the potential
difference between two points A and B, which are at distances 5 m and 10 m respectively from the wire,
(in kV) to the nearest integer.
8. The electric potential inside a charged sphere is given as V = –4ar2 + 3b, where r is distance from the centre of
sphere, a and b are constants. Then, the volume charge distribution inside sphere is given by  = na0 . Find
the value of n.
9. Two free positive charges 4q and q are at distance ‘l’ apart. Find the magnitude of charge (in C) needed to
achieve the state of equilibrium of the entire system of three charges. q = 81 C

10. A metallic sphere of radius R is given charge Q. The electrostatic force exerted by one half of the sphere on
Q2
the other half is given by F = . Find the value of n.
n 0 R 2

11. Two identical parallel plate capacitors, each charged with 10 μC, are connected in parallel. At t = 0, the distance
between the plates of first capacitor begins to increase uniformly as d1 = d0 + vt, and the distance between the plates
of the second capacitor begins to decrease uniformly as d2 = d0 – vt, where d0 = 1 cm and v = 10 m/s. Find the
current in the connecting wire (in mA) at t = 0.
12. Two capacitors C1 = 1 μF and C2 = 2 μF are connected in series as shown in figure. Their breakdown voltages
are 12 kV and 8 kV respectively. Find maximum safe voltage (in kV) which can be applied across points A and
B.

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

13. In the arrangement shown in figure, find the potential difference (in volts) across A and B.

14. A ring of radius 20 cm is uniformly charged with 12 C . A particle of mass 10 g and charge –1 μC is released
from rest on the axis of ring at large distance from the ring. If the ring is fixed then find the maximum acceleration
(in m/s2) attained by the particle.

SECTION - 3
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has two matching lists : (List-I and List-II).
In general, four options are given representing matching of elements from List-I and List-II. Only ONE of these
four options corresponds to a correct matching. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the
correct matching.

15. List-I contains the value of electric flux due to charge distribution and the surfaces indicated in List-II. Match the
entries of List-I with those of List-II.
List-I List-II
Q
P. 1. Charge Q is just inside a cube along body diagonal.
60
The flux through a face containing corner nearest to
charge, is
7Q
Q. 2. Charge Q is just inside a cube along body diagonal.
240
The flux through a face containing farthest corner
from charge, is
Q
R. 3. Charge Q is at centre of a cube and flux through any
40
one face
(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

Q
S. 4. Charge Q is at (0, 0, a) and flux through infinite stripe
240
in xy plane between –a ≤ y ≤ a
5. Charge Q is at centre of a regular tetrahedron and flux
through any one face
(A) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 4 (B) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 1
(C) P → 4; Q → 5; R → 3; S → 2 (D) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4, 5; S → 2
16. List-I contains the properties of charge configuration given in List-II. Match the entries of List-I with those of List-II.
List-I List-II
P. Electric field is uniform 1. Inside a uniformly charged shell
Q. Electric potential is constant 2. Inside a spherical cavity carved inside a uniformly
charged non-conducting sphere. Centre of cavity
does not coincide with centre of solid sphere.
R. Electric field is zero 3. Inside a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere
S. Electric field intensity varies linearly with r 4. Near uniformly charged large plate on either side
5. Inside uniformly charged long hollow cylinder
(A) P → 1, 5; Q → 5; R → 1; S → 4 (B) P → 1, 2, 4, 5; Q → 1, 5; R → 1, 5; S → 3
(C) P → 1, 4; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 4 (D) P → 2, 4; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 4
17. Four identical capacitors are connected as shown in figure. Now a dielectric slab is inserted in
capacitor-4. Then select the correct match.

List-I List-II
P. Capacitor-1 1. Force between plates increases
Q. Capacitor-2 2. Force between plates decreases
R. Capacitor-3 3. Voltage across plates increases
S. Capacitor-4 4. Voltage across plates decreases
5. Charge stored increases
(A) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 3, 5; R → 2, 4; S → 2, 4, 5 (B) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 3, 5; S → 1, 3, 5
(C) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 3, 5; S → 1, 4, 5 (D) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 3; R → 2, 4, 5; S → 2, 3, 5

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

18. List-I contains four parallel-plate capacitors each having plate area A (square shaped) and separation d and
filled with dielectrics as indicated in figure. List-II contains equivalent capacitance across the parallel plates.
Select the correct match:

List-I List-II

8 0 A
P. 1.
5d

190 A
Q. 2.
12d

20 A
R. 3.
d

3 0 A
S. 4.
d

4 0 A
5.
3d

(A) P → 4; Q → 5; R → 3; S → 1

(B) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 1

(C) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 2

(D) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION – 1
One of More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
19. Select the correct statements regarding the hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell
(A) In the fuel cell, hydrogen and oxygen are separately bubbled through porous carbon electrodes into
concentrated aqueous sodium hydroxide solution
(B) Catalysts like finely divided Pd or Pt metal are incorporated into the electrodes to increase the rate of
electrode reaction
(C) The reaction at anode is 2H2 + 4OH–  4H2O + 4e–
(D) The reaction at cathode is O2 + 2H2O + 4e– 4OH–
20. Consider the following cell

Cell I : Pt | H2 | H || H | H2 | Pt [P1 = 3P2]


P1 0.1 M 0.01 M P2

Cell II : Ag | Ag || Ag | Ag [C2  C1]


C1 C2

Cell III : Pt | H2 | H || H | H2 | Pt [C2 > C1]


1atm C1 C2 1atm

Cell IV : Pt | H2 | H || H | H2 | Pt [P1  3P2 ]


P1 0.1 M 1M P2

Identify the cell(s) which is(are) spontaneous.


(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) II and IV (D) III and IV
21. 0.1 M solution of monobasic acid HX has 3.444 atm osmotic pressure at 27°C. The hydrolysis constant of NaX
 atm L 
and dissociation constant of HX are respectively, R  0.082 and pK w  14 
 mol K 
(A) 3.75 × 10–6 and 0.0267
(B) 3.75 × 10–13 and 0.0067
(C) 3.75 × 10–13 and 0.0267
(D) 3.75 × 10–6 and 0.0067

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

22. Consider the two liquids P and Q that form an ideal solution. If temperature of solution is fixed at temperature
T which is above the freezing points of P and Q. A graph is plotted between system’s vapour pressure (VP)
against, xP or xPv

nP ⎯→ Number of moles of P in liquid state


nQ ⎯→ Number of moles of Q in liquid state
nPv ⎯→ Number of moles of P in vapour state
v
nQ ⎯→ Number of moles of Q in vapour state
xPv and xP ⎯→ Mole fraction of P in vapour and liquid state respectively
v
xQ and xQ ⎯→ Mole fraction of Q in vapour and liquid state respectively
xP and xQ are overall mole fraction of P and Q respectively
Select the correct statement(s)
xPv xP
(A) v

xQ xQ
(B) Boiling point of Q is more than boiling point of P
(C) For a closed system xP is fixed although nP and nPv may vary
(D) Curve-1 is obtained when xP is plotted on the x-axis
23. An ionic solid XY having structure like NaCl in which Y– form the lattice while X+ is present in the voids of the
lattice. Which of the following operation(s) does not affect the electrical neutrality of system.
(A) All atoms along one body diagonal plane are removed
(B) All atoms along one of the rectangular plane are removed
(C) All atoms along one body diagonal are removed
(D) Atoms along one facial diagonal are removed
24. Diamond is the allotrope of carbon that has different crystal structure than graphite. Select the correct
statement(s) about these structures.
(A) Packing fraction of diamond is less than 40%
(B) In diamond, there is ABAB type packing while graphite has ABCABC type packing
(C) In diamond, there is ABCABC type packing while graphite may have ABAB type packing
(D) Effective number of atoms in one unit cell of diamond is eight

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

SECTION - 2
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

25. Equimolar mixture of A and B form an ideal solution at 300 K. The vapour of this solution is condensed in 2 nd
container and temperature is maintained at 300 K. The vapour of 2nd container is condensed into 3rd container
and temperature is maintained at 300 K. If total vapour pressure of solution in 3rd container is x mm Hg, the
x
value of is
9

[p°A and p°B at 300 K are 100 mm Hg and 200 mm Hg respectively.]

26. A binary solution of A and B is ideal. If total vapour pressure of this solution is represented as

PS (in mm Hg) = 100 – 50 XB

Here PS  Total pressure

XB  Mole fraction of B in liquid state

This solution is passed through different distillation stages and at a particular stage it is found that the mole

4
fraction of A in vapour phase is . The total vapour pressure of solution at this stage of distillation is (in mm Hg)
7

27. 500 mL of 6% (w/V) urea solution is mixed with 500 mL of 18% (w/V) glucose solution and final volume of
mixture becomes 2 L after addition of water. The osmotic pressure of final 2 L solution at 27°C is 5yR. The
value of y is [R → universal gas constant].

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

28. An aqueous solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed using direct current. The electrodes are inert and time
dependence of current is represented as

The mass (in mg) of Ag (108 g/mol) deposited at cathode is [Given F = 96000 C]
29. 1 M solution of monobasic acid HX has molar conductivity x Scm2 mol–1 while molar conductivity of H+ and X–
at infinite dilution is 300 Scm2 mol–1 and 100 Scm2 mol–1 respectively. The 1 M HX solution contains 0.15 M
H+. If this 1 M solution is filled in a conductivity cell of cell constant 0.1 cm–1 the conductance is found to be
Y ohm–1. The value of 10Y is
30. Consider the following electrochemical cell
Pt | H2 | H+ || Ag+ | Ag
(1 atm ) pH = x 10−2 M

2.303 RT
E = 0.8 V, = 0.06
Ag+ / Ag F
Ecell = 1.1 V
The value of 4x is
31. A non-volatile solute P is present in 500 mL solution and molarity is found to be 1 M. A sample of 5 mL of this
solution is taken in another container and further 0.4 g of P is added and volume is increased by adding water
such that final volume becomes 10 L. If molarity of diluted solution is 10–3 M, the molar mass of solute P (in
g/mol) is
32. A solid compound AClx is used for the preparation of A. Molten AClx is electrolysed and 177.5 g of Cl2 is
produced. The amount of A (in g) produced at cathode is Y. Atomic mass of A is 30 amu and efficiency of
process is 100%. Find the value of 6x [assume A+x reduces only to A(s) and Y = 30 g]
SECTION - 3
Matching List Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has two matching lists : (List-I and List-II).
In general, four options are given representing matching of elements from List-I and List-II. Only ONE of these four
options correspond to a correct matching. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct
matching.

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

33. List-I contain different solution while List-II contain different product or characteristics of electrolysis.
(Assume no volume change due to electrolysis)
List-I List-II
P. Aq AgNO3 and graphite electrodes are used 1. O2 is produced at anode
Q. Aq AgNO3 and silver electrodes are used 2. H2 is produced at cathode
R. Aq CuSO4 and graphite electrodes are used 3. Concentration of Ag+ in solution remains the same
S. Aq CuSO4 and copper electrodes are used 4. Concentration of Cu2+ in solution does not change
with time
5. pH of solution changes with time
(A) P → 1, 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 5; S → 4 (B) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 3, 5; S → 4
(C) P → 2, 4; Q → 5; R → 1, 2, 3; S → 3 (D) P → 2, 4; Q → 5; R → 1, 4, 3; S → 2
34. List-I contains different cells while List-II contains property related to cell that is given in List-I.
List-I List-II
P. Leclanche cell 1. Primary cell
Q. Mercury cell 2. Secondary cell
R. Lead storage cell 3. At cathode, +4 oxidation state is changed to +3
oxidation state
S. Nickel-cadmium cell 4. Overall cell reaction does not involve any ion
5. During the discharging, oxidation number of metal
changes from zero to +2 at anode
(A) P → 1, 3; Q → 2, 4; R → 2, 5; S → 1, 3 (B) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 1, 4, 5; R → 2, 5; S → 2, 4, 5
(C) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 4; R → 1, 5; S → 3, 4 (D) P → 2, 3; Q → 2, 4; R → 1, 5; S → 1, 4
35. List-I contains different solutions while List-II contains various properties of the solution (R → universal gas
constant, assume m = M, use Kf = 1.86 K/m; Kb = 0.52 K/m)
List-I List-II
P. 10% (w/v) aq urea 1. Osmotic pressure at 27°C is 500 R
Q. 5.85% (w/v) aq NaCl ( = 100%) 2. Tf = 1.86°C
R. 18% (w/v) aq glucose 3. Tb = 0.208°C
S. 1.64% (w/v) aq Na3PO4 ( = 100%) 4. Osmotic pressure at 27°C is more than 520 R
5. Osmotic pressure at 27°C is less than 490 R
(A) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2, 5; S → 3, 5 (B) P → 1; Q → 2, 5; R → 2, 4; S → 3, 5
(C) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 2, 5; S → 3, 4 (D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1, 3; S → 1, 3

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

36. List-I contains different type of cubic crystal while List-II contains information about these lattice.
List-I List-II
P. Fe3O4 1. Only 25% octahedral voids are occupied
Q. CaF2 2. Only 50% octahedral voids are occupied
R. BaTiO3 3. Only 12.5% tetrahedral voids are occupied
S. MgAl2O4 4. Co-ordination number of divalent metal ion is 8 with
respect to anion only
5. Co-ordination number of divalent metal ion is 6
(A) P → 1, 3; Q → 5; R → 1, 5; S → 3, 5 (B) P → 1, 4, 5; Q → 5; R → 1, 3, 5; S → 2
(C) P → 2, 3, 5; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2, 3 (D) P → 1, 3, 5; Q → 4, 5; R → 3, 4; S → 3

PART - III : MATHEMATICS


SECTION - 1
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
37. Let f : R → R, g : R → R and h : R → R be three continuous functions such that g(f(x)) = x and h(g(g(x))) = x,
if f(x) = x3 + 5x + 3 then
(A) Number of real roots of h(x) = 0 is 1 (B) One of the divisor of h(1) is 37
(C) One of the divisor of h(0) is 9 (D) h(1).h(0) = 1665

38. The domain of f ( x ) = sec−1 x + cosec−1 x + 9 − x 2 + ln x is [α, β]. Let another function

(
g ( x ) = log3 1 + 26 cos (  x ) ) where x  2 , 2  is defined then

(A) Sum of all integral values in the range of g(x) is 7


(B) Sum of all integral values in the domain of f(x) is 4
( )
(C) cosec −1 cosec3 + sec −1 ( sec 5 ) = 9 − 26

(D) sec −1 ( sec (  2 + 2 ) ) + cos−1 ( cos ( 5 ) ) = 5

sin x
39. Let a function f ( x ) = , where {.} represents fractional part function then
1 + x + − x
 1
(A) Range of f(x) is 0,  (B) The fundamental period of f(x) is 1
 2
x
(C) The number of real solutions of f ( x ) = is 10 (D) The number of real solutions of 5f(x) = x is 10
10

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

3 7
40. Let f ( x ) = + x − and g(x) is the inverse of f(x) then
2 4

( )
(A) cosec −1 cosec ( ( f −1og −1 ) (17 ) ) = 5 − 17

x x
(B) g(4) is the fundamental period of h ( x ) = sin + cos
16 16

 x 
(C) g(4) is the fundamental period of p ( x ) = 3cos   − 2
 4 

(D) The graphs of f(x) and g(x) intersect each other on the line y = x at two distinct points

41. If a polynomial function f : R – 0 → R satisfies the relation


 3 3 3   f (x) 
log3 ( f ( x ) ) = log3  3 + + + + ....   log4  1 +   x  R − 0 and f(4) = 257 then
 4 16 64   1
 f   
  x

(A) f(5) – f(2) = 609 (B) Range of f(x) is [1, )


(C) f(x) is a many-one function (D) f(x) is an onto function
42. f(x) and g(x) are linear functions such that, for all x, f(g(x)) and g(f(x)) are identity functions. If f(0) = 7 and g(3) = –2, then

(A) f(5) = 17 (B) g(135) = 64


(C) Fundamental period of cos(f(x)) is 2 (D) Fundamental period of sin(g(x)) is 4

SECTION - 2
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging from 00
to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples-
If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09
in OMR respectively.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

3
43. The minimum value of (sin–1x)3 + (cos–1x)3 is equal to m then is equal to
m

  ax   bx 
44. In triangle ABC, C = and sin−1 x = sin−1   + sin−1   , where, a, b, c are sides of the triangle. If the total
2  c   c 
number of different values of x is n, then nn is equal to

( )
45. The domain of the function f ( x ) = log3 − (log4 x ) + 5 (log4 x ) − 6 is (a, b) then (a + b) is equal to
2

46. The number of integral values of x for which


(3   
 
 tan−1 x  )
− 9 ( x 2 − x − 56 )
 0, is
x ! − ( x − 1)!

n
sin2 x n
47. For all n  N , let fn ( x ) =  and g n ( x ) =  fr ( x ) . If fundamental period of
k =1 x   2k + 1   r =1
cos2   − cos2   x
2  2  
f2019 ( x )
is T, then [5T], (where [ . ] represents greatest integer function) is equal to
g 2019
(x)

 1− 4x 2 − 2 3x    3 + 1  1  
48. Let f ( x ) = tan−1   then the value of sec 5  f  +f    is equal to
    4 2   2 2 
 3 − 12 x 2
+ 2 x 

49. Let ‘f’ be a function satisfying f(23 – x) = f(23 + x)  x  R . If f(x) intersects x-axis only at the points (, f()),
(, f()) and (, f()), then ( +  + ) is equal to

 1  2  −1  3   ( −1 ) m
50. If tan−1   + tan−1   + tan   = , then the value of sin  − 2tan x is , where m and n are natural
2  3x  4 2 n
numbers, coprime to each other, then (n + m) is

SECTION - 3
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has two matching lists : (List-I and List-II).
In general, four options are given representing matching of elements from List-I and List-II. Only ONE of these
four options corresponds to a correct matching. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the
correct matching.
(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

51. In List-I, the functions are given and in List-II their types are mentioned.
List-I List-II
2x
P. f : 0,  ) → 0,  ) , f ( x ) = 1. One-one, onto
1+ x

1
Q. f : ( – ,0 )  ( 0,  ) → R, f ( x ) = x − 2. One-one, into
x

1
R. f : ( – ,0 )  ( 0,  ) → R, f ( x ) = x + 3. Onto, many one
x

S. f : R → R, f ( x ) = 5x − sin x 4. Many one, into

Then the correct matching is


(A) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
(B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 4
(C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(D) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
52. In List-I some equations are given and in List-II, the number of real solutions of the equations in List-I is given.
List-I List-II
2
−12
P. 2x = e x ln 4 1. 0
Q. x2 – 2 = [sinx], where [ . ] denotes greatest 2. 1
integer function
R. [sin–1x] = x – [x], where [ . ] denotes 3. 2
greatest integer function
S. sin(πx) = |ln|x|| 4. 4
5. 6
Then the correct matching is
(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 5
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 5
(C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 1; S → 5
(D) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 2

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C)

53. In List-I, functions and in List-II, their fundamental periods are given.
List-I List-II
 x    x     x  
P. sin    cos    tan   , (where [ . ] 1. π
 9   6   3 
represents the greatest integer function)

Q. cos(sinx) + cos(cosx) 2.
2
R. sin(|sinx| – |cosx|) 3. 2π
1  cos2 x
S. 2 sin x  1  4. 18
1  sin 4 x
5. 36
Then the correct matching is
(A) P 5; Q 2; R 1; S 1 (B) P 5; Q 1; R 1; S 5
(C) P 4; Q 3; R 1; S 5 (D) P 5; Q 1; R 3; S 3
54. In List-I, different functions are given and in List-II, the absolute difference between the maximum and the
minimum values of these functions are given.
List-I List-II
1  1 x 1
P. f x  sin x  tan1 x   2 1. 4
 x  2x  5

Q. g  x   sin1 3 x  2 , (where


7
2.
4
[.] represents the greatest integer function)
 x 2  4 x 3 
R. h  x   5 3.
2
S. p(x) = cot-1(sgn(x)) + sin–1 [x], (where [.] 4. 
represents the greatest integer function)
5. 2
Then the correct matching is
(A) P 5; Q 4; R 3; S 1 (B) P 1; Q 3; R 5; S 3
(C) P 2; Q 1; R 3; S 5 (D) P 2; Q 4; R 1; S 3



(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020


TEST - 1A (Paper-2) - Code-C
Test Date : 16/06/2019

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. (B, D) 19. (A, B, C, D) 37. (A, B, C)

2. (B, C) 20. (B, C, D) 38. (C, D)

3. (A, C) 21. (C) 39. (B, C)

4. (B, C, D) 22. (A, B, C, D) 40. (A, B, C)

5. (B, C, D) 23. (A, B) 41. (A, C)

6. (B, C) 24. (A, C, D) 42. (A, B, D)

7. (25) 25. (20) 43. (32)

8. (24) 26. (70) 44. (27)

9. (36) 27. (30) 45. (80)

10. (32) 28. (45) 46. (06)

11. (10) 29. (06) 47. (15)

12. (18) 30. (28) 48. (32)

13. (13) 31. (80) 49. (69)

14. (30) 32. (30) 50. (49)

15. (D) 33. (A) 51. (C)

16. (B) 34. (B) 52. (B)

17. (C) 35. (A) 53. (A)

18. (D) 36. (C) 54. (D)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions)

PART - I (PHYSICS) 4. Answer (B, C, D)


1. Answer (B, D) Hint : Use the expression of field and potential.
Solution :
Kq1q2
Hint : U = KQ ( 2
r V= 3
3R − r 2 ) for r < R
Solution : 2R
3  KQ 
 q2  q2 VC =    50% more than VS
Usys = 4    + 2 2 R 
 4 a 
 0  40 ( 2a )
KQ
and, V = for r > R
WA = –(VA – V) × q r
2. Answer (B, C) KQ
and, E = r for r < R
Hint : Net field is vertically up. R3
Solution : 5. Answer (B, C, D)
Hint : Use Kirchhoff's laws.
Solution :
2 8
CAB = + 2 = F
3 3
8
1
8
 Ceq = 3 = F
8
+ 1 11
3
8
E=
Q  Qbat =  11 = 8 C
11
40 a 2
∴ VAB = 11 – 8 × 1 = 3 V
Q 2
 Enet = 3  ( E cos  ) = 3    VAC =
2
 3 = 2 V, VCD = 1 V
40 a 2 3 3
6Q 6. Answer (B, C)
=
40 a 2
Hint : E x =  dE x , E y =  dE y
Q Solution :
And, V = 3 
40 a 
0 cos  ( Rd  ) 0
3. Answer (A, C)
Ex = −  40R 2
 cos   2 =
4 0 R
=0
Hint : Charge = Ceq × V
Ey = 0
Solution :
 2 4 
2
0 cos  ( Rd  )
Q1 = 12  
2+4
 = 16 C VC =  40R
=0
0
 63  7. Answer (25)
Q2 = 12    = 24 C
6+3

16 Hint : E =
VA = 12 − =4V 20 r
2
Solution :
24
VB = 12 − =8V VB 10
6 
 VA − VB = 4 − 8 = −4 V
  dv = −  20 r
dr
VA 5

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

 10. Answer (32)


 (VA − VB ) = 2  ln ( 2 )
Hint : Use concept of electrostatic pressure.
0
–6 Solution :
= 2 × 10 × 2 × 9 × 109 × 0.69
Charge gets uniformly distributed over the sphere
≃25 × 103 V
Q
8. Answer (24)  =
4R 2
Qin
Hint :  E  ds = 0 Electrostatic pressure, P =
2
20
Solution :
2 ( 2 )
 Force =  R
20
2
 Q  1
=    R 2
 4R 2  20
∵ V = –4ar2 + 3b
−dv Q2
 E= = 8ar =
dr 320 R 2
Now, ϕ = EA ∴ n = 32
⇒ dϕ = dEA + EdA 11. Answer (10)
∵ dE = 8adr, dA = 8𝜋rdr Hint : Charge flows from one capacitor to the
other.
  4r 2dr
 = 8adr  4r 2 + 8ar  8rdr  Solution :
0
 A  A
( 32 + 64 ) a0  r 2dr C1 = 0 ,C = 0
d0 + vt 2 d0 − vt
 = 
4r 2dr
q1 + q2 = 20 C = Qtotal
⇒ ρ = 24a0 
C1
∴ n = 24  q1 =  (Qtotal )
C1 + C2
9. Answer (36)
d0 − vt
Hint : All charges must experience zero forces. =  (Qtotal )
2d0
Solution :
−dq1 v
i= =  (Qtotal )
dt 2d 0

Q should be –ve 10  20  10−6


=
Force on ‘q’ 2  10–2
4q 2 Qq 4q Q = 10 mA
 =  = 12. Answer (18)
40 l 2 40 x 2 l2 x2
Hint : Use Kirchhoff's laws.
Force on ‘Q’ Solution :
4qQ qQ 4 1 C2
 =  = V1 =  VAB  12
( l – x ) 40
2
40 x 2
(l – x ) 2
x2 C1 + C2
l 12  3
 2x = l – x  x=  VAB 
3 2
4q  l 2 4q ⇒ VAB  18 kV …(i)
 Q=  Q=
l 92 9 C1
and, V2 =  VAB  8
 Q = 36 C C1 + C2

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions)

83 For stripe


 VAB 
1 90  Q  Q
4 =  =
⇒ VAB  24 kV …(ii) 360  0  40
From (i) and (ii)
16. Answer (B)
(VAB) = 18 kV
13. Answer (13) Hint : Electric field is uniform inside cavity.
Hint : Use Kirchhoff's laws. Solution :
Solution : E  r for charged solid sphere
30  5 − 10  2
VAB = = 13 V E = constant inside cavity
( 2 + 3 + 5)
14. Answer (30) E = 0 inside shells
R V = constant inside shells
Hint : E is maximum at x =
2 17. Answer (C)
Solution : Hint : Equivalent capacitance increases.
R Solution :
Q
2 Q2 3
Emax = = So, Q1 increases ⇒ F1 increases ⇒ V1 increases
3
40 R 2  9
 R2 2 V2 decreases as V1 + V2 = Vbattery
40   R 2 + 
 2  ⇒ Q2 decreases
q Q  2 3 ⇒ F2 decreases
∴ amax =
40 R 9  m
2
Similarly, for 3 and 4
18. Answer (D)
10−6  12  10−6  2 3  9  109
= Hint : Use combination methods.
4  10−2  9  10  10−3
= 30 m/s2 Solution :
15. Answer (D) ( K + 1) 0 A 20 A
CA = =
Hint : Use Gauss's theorem. 2d d
Solution :
2K 0 A 4 A
CB = = 0
( K + 1) d 3d

CC =
( K1 + K2 ) 0 A = 30 A
2d d

CD =
( K1 + K 2 + 2K1K 2 ) 0 A = 190 A
( K1 + 1)( K 2 + 1) d 12d

PART - II (CHEMISTRY)
Q  1 Q
1 =   = 19. Answer (A, B, C, D)
60  4  240
Hint : In fuel cell, NaOH is used as electrolyte.
1 Q Q 
2 =  – 3
3  0 240  Solution:
Reaction
1  7Q  7Q
=  = 2H2 + 4OH– ⎯→ 4H2O
3  80  240
Cathode :
Anode : O2 + 2H2O ⎯→ 4OH–
For tetrahedron,
1 Q  Q Catalyst increase the rate of electrode reaction by
3 =    = providing surface to the electrode.
4   0  4 0

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

20. Answer (B, C, D) PP


Hint : For spontaneous cell 1
PQ
Ecell must be greater than zero.
Solution: xPv xPv
 v
 v
For cell – I xQ xQ
Pt, H2 | H+ || H+ | H2 23. Answer (A, B)
P1 0.1 0.01 P2
Hint : The operation which divide the crystal in
0.059 ( 0.1)2 P2 exactly two equal part have electrically neutral
Ecell = − log crystal.
2 ( 0.01)2 P1
Solution:
0.059 102 P2 One body diagonal plane contain 4 corner, 2 face
Ecell = − log
2 P1 centre, one body centre particle and 2 edge
centre.
102 P2 P1
1 so,  102 24. Answer (A, C, D)
P1 P2
Hint : Diamond  ABCABC
P1 < 102 P2 Graphite  ABAB or ABCABC
So cell I is non-spontaneous. Solution:
Cells II, III and IV are spontaneous. Structure of diamond : carbon form C·C·P lattice
21. Answer (C) while other carbon is present at 50% of
Hint :  = iCRT tetrahedral void.
Kw So total carbon atom in diamond
Kh = 4 + 4  8.
Ka
25. Answer (20)
C2
Ka = Hint :
C (1 −  )
Solution:
 = iCRT
 3.444 = i × 0.1 × 0.082 × 300
i = 1.4
 = i – 1 = 0.4
HX + H2O H3O+ + X−

0.1( 0.4 )
2
C2
Ka = = = 0.0266
(1 −  ) 0.6
10−14
Kh = = 3.75  10−13
0.0266 Solution:
22. Answer (A, B, C, D) PS = yA pA + yB pB
Hint : In a closed system overall mole fraction is
remain constant but nv and n may vary. pA = 100, pB = 200
Solution: 100  0.5 1
yA = =
From the graph pPo  pQ
o
100  0.5 + 200  0.5 3
2
So P is more volatile than Q, so boiling point of Q yB =
is more than boiling point of P. 3
1
xPv PP ·xPv  100
= yA = 3 =
1
v
xQ PQ ·xQ
v
1 2
 100 +  200 5
3 3

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions)

4 29. Answer (06)


yB =
5 Hint : (  )Hx = 400
1 4
PS = 100  + 200  C = [H+] = 1 ×  = 0.15
5 5
 180 mm Hg  = 0.15
26. Answer (70) Solution:
Hint : PS = 100 – 50 XB m
= 0.15
If xB = 1, PS  P°B = 50 mm Hg.  m

XB = 0, PS  P°A = 100 mm Hg. m = 0.15 × 400 = 60


Solution: 1000  K
m =
PA X A C
yA =
PB + ( PA − PB ) XA  K = 6 × 10–2
 

4
=
100 x A K = G 
7 50 + 50x A A

200 + 200 xA = 700xA 6 × 10–2 = G × 10–1


G = 0.6 ohm–1
500 xA = 200
30. Answer (28)
xA = 2/5
Hint : x = 7
27. Answer (30)
Hint : Solution:
500 mL of 6% (w/V) urea  30 g urea H+ 
E = Ecell − 0.06 log
500 mL of 18% (w/V) glucose  90 glucose 10−2 
Mole of urea = 0.5 pH = 7, x = 7, so 4x = 28
Mole of glucose = 0.5
31. Answer (80)
Solution:
n
Total mole = 1 Hint : M =
V
Toatal volume = 2
 = Ctotal R T Solution:
For initial solution
= 0.5 × R x 300  150 R
150 = 5y nsolute
1=
y = 30 0.5
28. Answer (45) nsolute = 0.5 mol
Hint : Cathode reaction : 0.5
Mole of solute in 5 mL = = 5 × 10–3
Ag+ + 1e– ⎯→ Ag 100
Solution: Let molar mass of P is x so moles of P is added
Total charge
0.4
1 1 
Q = 5 4 + 5 4 + 5 4 x
2 2
0.4
 40 C 5  10−3 +
−3 x
96000 C produce = 108 g 10 =
10
108  40
40 C produce = = 0.045 0.4
96000 10 −2 = 5  10 −3 +
x
Mass (in mg) = 45 mg
x = 80 g

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

32. Answer (30)  = i × 1.666 × R × 300 = 500 R


w E
Hint : 1 = 1 5.85% (w/v)  58.5 g NaCl in 1000 mL
w 2 E2
So, M = 1 molar, m = 1 m
Solution:
1 i=2
Anode Cl− ⎯⎯→ Cl2 + 1 e −
2
 = i × 2 × R × 300 600 R
177.5
Moles of Cl2 produced = = 2.5 36. Answer (C)
71
5 mol of change is given so anode Hint : Fe3O4 - Inverse spinel
A+x + xe ⎯→ A(s)
Solution:
x mol e– produce ⎯→ 30 g
30  5 BaTiO3 – Perovskite structure
5 m produce ⎯→ = 30
x MgAl2O4 – Spinel structure
x=5
CaF2 - Ca2+ in CCP, F– are located at tetrahedral
33. Answer (A)
voids.
Hint : Active electrode participate only in
oxidation reaction. PART - III (MATHEMATICS)
Solution:
List-I (Electrolysis) List-II (Product) 37. Answer (A, B, C)
P. Aq AgNO3 using Cathode → Ag Hint :
inert electrode Anode → O2
h(x) = f(f(x))
Q. Aq AgNO3 using Cathode → Ag
Ag electrode Anode → Ag+ Solution :
Cathode → Cu
g (f ( x )) = x
R. Aq CuSO4 using
…(i)
inert electrode Anode → O2
S. Aq CuSO3 using Cathode → Cu and h(g(g(x))) = x
inert electrode Anode → Cu2+ Replace x by f(x) : h(g(g(f(x)))) = f(x)
34. Answer (B)
Hint : Primary cell Secondary cell h(g(x)) = f(x)
Leclanche cell Lead storage again by replacing x by f(x); we get:
battery
Mercury cell Ni-Cd battery h(x) = f(f(x))
Solution:
∴ h(1) = f(f(1)) = f(9)
In Leclanche cell, at cathode Mn reduced +4 to +3
Mercury cell : Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l) = 777
35. Answer (A)
and h(0) = f(f(0)) = f(3) = 27 + 15 + 3
Hint :  = i CRT
Tb = i m Kb = 45
Tf = i m Kf ∵ f(x) is increasing function hence only one root.
Solution:
∴ f(f(x)) = h(x) = 0 has only one real root.
10% (w/v)  100 g of urea in 1 L
100 38. Answer (C, D)
So, m = 60  1.666 M Hint :
1
∴ Domain of f(x) = [α, β] = [1, 3]

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions)
Solution : Solution :

(f–1og–1) (17) = 17
f ( x ) = sec −1 x + cosec −1x + 9 − x 2 + ln x
∴ cosec–1(cosec17) = 5π – 17
∴ Domain of f(x) = [α, β] = [1, 3]
and g(4) = 8
∴ Sum of all integral values in domain of f(x) is 6
x x
Also period of h ( x ) = sin + cos is 8
And integral values in range of g(x) are 0,1, 2, 3 16 16

∴ Sum of integral values of f(x) = 3 + 4 = 7 But fundamental period of P(x) is also 8

Now cosec–1(cosec27) + sec–1(sec1) Also f(x) and g(x) intersect each other only once.

= 9 – 27 + 1 = 9 – 26 41. Answer (A, C)

Hint :
and sec–1(sec10) + cos–1(cos(15))

= 4π – 10 + 15 – 4π = 5  f ( x ) = 1 xn; n  N

39. Answer (B, C) Solution :

Hint : 3 3 3 3
3+ + + + .... = =4
4 16 64 1
1−
1, if x  R − I
x + − x =  4
 0, if x  I
f (x)
 f ( x ) = 1+
Solution :  1
f 
x
1, if x  R − I
x + − x = 
 1  1
 0, if x  I  f (x) f   − f (x) − f   +1= 1
x x
∴ Domain of f(x) is R.
 ( f ( x ) − 1)  f  1  − 1 = 1
 1
Range of f(x) is 0, 
 x 
 2
 f ( x ) = 1  x n, n  N
The graph of f(x) is
f ( 4 ) = 257  f ( x ) = 1 + x 4

 f ( 5 ) − f (2) = 54 − 24 = 609

and range of f(x) is [1, ∞)

and f(x) is many-one, into function.

x 42. Answer (A, B, D)


∴ The number of real solutions of f ( x ) = is
10 Hint :
10 and number of solution of 5f(x) = x is 5.
∵ f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x
40. Answer (A, B, C) Solution :
Hint : Let f(x) = a1x + b1 and g(x) = c1x + d1
–1 –1
(f og ) (17) = 17 ∵ f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

∴ a1c1 = 1 and a1d1 + b1 = 0 = b1c1 + d1  c 4 = a2c 2 + b2c 2 − 2a2 b2 x 2 +


Given that f(0) = 7 and g(3) = –2
x −7 2ab c 4 − c 2a2 x 2 − c 2b2 x 2 + a2b2 x 4
∴ f(x) = 2x + 7 and g ( x ) =
2
∴ f(5) = 17, g(135) = 64 and period of sin(g(x)) is 4π  abx 2 = c 4 − c 2 ( a 2 + b 2 ) x 2 + a 2 b 2 x 4

43. Answer (32)


∴ x = 1, –1
Hint :
∴ nn = 33 = 27
  2  
2

y=  + 3  sin−1 x –   45. Answer (80)
2 16  4 
Hint :
Solution :
∴ x ∈ (42, 43)
Let y = ( sin−1x ) + ( cos−1x )
3 3

Solution :
 −1   −1  
( sin x + cos x ) − 3sin x  − sin x 
2
−1 −1
= Here x > 0 and – (log4x)2 + 5(log4x) – 6 > 0
2 2 
∴ (log4x – 3) (2 – log4x) > 0
  2  
2

y =  + 3  sin−1 x –   ∴ x ∈ (42, 43)
2 16  4 
∴ a = 16, b = 64
3
 y =m
32 ∴ a + b = 80

3 46. Answer (06)


 = 32
m
Hint :
44. Answer (27)

− 9  0 and x ! − ( x − 1)!  0
−1
Hint : 3 tan x

∵ a2 + b2 = c2 and |x| ≤ 1
Solution :
Solution :

− 9  0 and x ! − ( x − 1)!  0
−1
∵ a2 + b2 = c2 and |x| ≤ 1 3 tan x

Also,
∴ x2 – x – 56 < 0
a2 x 2 b2 x 2 (x – 8) (x + 7) < 0
2
+ 2
= x2  1
c c
∴ x ∈ (–7, 8) ∵𝑥>1
 c 2 − b2 x 2 bx c 2 − a2 x 2 
−1 −1  ax 
 sin x = sin  + ⇒ x = 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
 c c2 c c2 

ax bx 47. Answer (15)


 x= 2
c 2 − b2 x 2 + 2
c 2 − a2 x 2
c c Hint :

 x = 0 or c 2 = a c 2 − b 2 x 2 + b c 2 − a 2 x 2 fn(x) = sin x  ( cot x − cot ( n + 1) x )

9/11
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions)
Solution :  1   
and f  = −
n
sin2 x 2 2 4 3
fn ( x ) =  x  ( 2n + 1) x 
n =1
cos2 − cos2     3 + 1  1  5
2  2   sec 5  f  +f    = sec  3  = 32
  4 2   2 2 
fn(x) = sin x  ( cot x − cot ( n + 1) x )
49. Answer (69)
sin ( nx )
= Hint :
sin ( n + 1) x
f(23) = 0
∴ gn (x) = f1(x) . f2(x). f3(x)….fn(x)
Solution :
sin x sin2 x sin ( nx )
=  .....
sin2 x sin3 x sin ( ( n + 1) x ) α = 23

sin x
β = 23 – α, γ = 23 + α
=
sin ( n + 1) x So, α + β + γ = 69
fn ( x ) sin ( nx ) 50. Answer (49)
 =
gn ( x ) sin x
Hint :
f2019 ( x ) sin ( 2019 x )  1 3   2 
 = tan−1   + tan−1   = − tan−1  
g2019 ( x ) sin x 2 4 2  3x 

Whose period = T =  Solution :

∴ [5T] = [5] = 15  1 3   2 


tan−1   + tan−1   = − tan−1  
2 4 2  3x 
48. Answer (32)
 3x 
Hint : tan−1 ( 2) = tan−1  , x  0
 2 
 1 
 −1− 3  4
2
 x=
f ( x ) = tan−1  4 x  3
 1 
 1+ 3 2
−1
 4x    4 
Now sin (  − 2tan−1 x ) = sin  − 2tan−1  
  3 
Solution :

 1 − 4x 2 − 2 3x     8  
f ( x ) = tan−1     −1
   
  = sin  −   + tan  3   
 3 − 12x + 2x 
2
 
  1 − 16   
   9   
 1 
 2
−1− 3 
f ( x ) = tan−1  4 x    24  
  = sin  tan–1   
1   7 
 1+ 3 2
−1
 4x 
  24  
= sin  sin–1   
   25  
− 1  − tan−1 ( 3 ) 
1
= tan−1  2
 4x 
24
=
 3 + 1    25
 f = − =−
 4 2  12 3 4
∴ m + n = 24 + 25 = 49

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Test - 1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) (Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

51. Answer (C) and f(x) = cos(sinx) + G(cosx)


Hint : 
Then fundamental period of f(x) is
Draw graph. 2
Solution : For function g(x) = sin(|sinx| – |cosx|)
From graph of each of the given in the given The period of |sinx| – (cosx) is π
domain we can find that Hence period of g(x) is π

2x 1 − cos 2 x
f (x) = is one-one into function and the period of 2 sin x + 1 + is
1+ x 1 + sin4 x
equal to 
1
f ( x ) = x − is onto but many one function 54. Answer (D)
x
Hint :
1 ( −1
sin x + tan−1 x ) +
1 1
f (x) = x + is many one into function f (x) =
x  (  4 
x + 1) +  
 x + 1
and f(x) = 5x – sinx is bijective function
Solution :
52. Answer (B) 1 ( −1
sin x + tan−1 x ) +
1
f (x) =
Hint :  (  4 
x + 1) +  
 x + 1
By use of graph of different function and their
 3 
respective point of intersection we get different x   −1, 1  f ( x )  − ,1
number of real solution.  4 
∴ Absolute difference between maximum and
Solution :  3 7
minimum value = 1 −  −  =
By use of graph of different function and their  4 4
respective point of intersection we get different and g(x) = sin–1([3x] –2) + cos–1([3x] – 1)
number of real solution. 1 −  3x  − 2  1and − 1  (3x ) − 1  1
53. Answer (A) ∴ x ∈ [0, 1)
Hint : ∴ Range of g(x) = {0}

For h ( x ) = 5 − x + 4 x −3
2

Then period of f(x) = LCM of (18, 12, 3)


∴ Maximum and minimum values are 1 and 5
= 36
P(x) = cot–1(sgn(x)) + sin–1([x])
Solution : 3
then maximum value of P(x) = P(1) =
4
  x     x     x  
f ( x ) = sin   + cos   + tan   
 9   6   3  and minimum value of P(x) = P(–1) =
4
Then period of f(x) = LCM of (18, 12, 3) 
∴ Their difference =
= 36 2



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