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PMP Exercise Document Jan 2025 - 1737871690501

This document contains sample questions related to various aspects of Project Management, including project management frameworks, processes, integration, scope, schedule, and cost management. The questions cover topics such as organizational structures, project roles, budgeting, scheduling techniques, and change management. It serves as a practice exercise for individuals preparing for Project Management Professional (PMP) certification.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

35 views80 pages

PMP Exercise Document Jan 2025 - 1737871690501

Uploaded by

upendra thakur

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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PRACTICE EXERCISE

PMP Training
Sample Questions

Project Management Framework

1. Four project managers are having lunch together and discussing their projects. Most of the
time they are just complaining about how hard projects are to manage in their company.
Some complain about the stakeholders and the number of changes they cause. Others talk
about how hard it is to get people to cooperate and perform. One project manager wants to
focus on the advantages of the matrix type organization they all work in for their projects,
which of the following would he mention?
A. Improved project manager control over resources
B. More than one boss for project teams
C. Communications are easier
D. Reporting is easier

2. Two project managers have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that
their power as project managers is quite limited. One figure out that he is really a project
expediter and the other realizes he is really a project coordinator. How is a project expediter
different from a project coordinator?
A. The project expediter cannot make decisions.
B. The project expediter can make more decisions.
C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager.
D. The project expediter has some authority.

3. In a projectized organization the project team:

A. Report to many bosses.
B. Has no loyalty to the project.
C. Reports to the functional manager.
D. Will not always have a “home”.

4. A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get
enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process related work
and the project manager has very little authority to properly assign resources.
What form of organization must the project manager be working in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator

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Sample Questions

A. Simple
B. Open and accurate
C. Complex
D. Hard to automate

7. Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization?

A. The project manager
B. The functional, manager
C. The team
D. They all share power

8. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:

A. Temporary
B. Definite beginning and end
C. Interrelated activities
D. Repeats itself every month

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Sample Questions

Page 4 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Management Processes

1. In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?
A. Initiating
B. Before the project management process
C. Planning
D. Executing

2. The Project Charter is created in which project management process group?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Initiating

4. A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the:

A. Project manager
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Project management plan
D. Detailed risk assessment

5. The person who should be in control of the project during project management planning is
the:
A. Project manager
B. Team leader
C. Functional manager
D. Sponsor

6. Which of the following is NOT an input to the initiating process group?

A. Company processes
B. The company culture

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Sample Questions

C. Historical WBSs
D. Project scope statement

8. The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project
management process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring & controlling

Page 6 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Integration Management

1. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:

A. The personal careers of the team members.
B. Timely updates to the project plan.
C. Effective communications at key interface points
D. Product control.

2. You’re the project manager for an industrial design project. Your team members report to
you, and you’re responsible for creating the budget, building the schedule, and assigning the
tasks. When the project is complete, you release the team so they can work on other projects
for the company. What kind of organization do you work in?
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Projectized

4. When it comes to changes the project manager’s attention is BEST spent on:
A. Making changes
B. Tracking and recording changes
C. Informing the sponsor of changes
D. Preventing unnecessary changes

5. The sponsor’s role on a project is BEST described as:

A. Helping to plan activities
B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives
C. Identifying unnecessary project constraints
D. Helping to put the project management plan together.

Page 7 of 80
Sample Questions

6. All of the following are parts of an effective change control system EXCEPT?
A. Procedures
B. Standards of reports
C. Meetings
D. Lessons learned

7. A work authorization system can be used to:

A. Manage who does each activity
B. Manage what time and in what sequence work is done
C. Manage when each activity is done
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done

8. A project is plagued by changes to the charter, who has the primary responsibility to decide if
these changes are necessary?
A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. Sponsor
D. Stakeholders

9. Integration is done by the:

A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. Sponsor
D. Stakeholders

Page 8 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Scope Management

1. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows project staff to:

2. The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as effective aid for ______
communications.
A. Team
B. Project manager
C. Customer
D. Stakeholder

3. Which of the following is a KEY attribute of scope validation ?

A. More complete project scope management plan
B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system

4. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not
sure of what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents
contain detailed descriptions of work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
B. Activity List
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Project scope management plan

5. During what part of the project management process is the project scope statement created?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling

Page 9 of 80
Sample Questions

7. A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project.
Which of the following is the best method to achieve a realistic project management plan?
A. Sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager.
B. Functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project
manager.
C. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior
management
D. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team.

8. A new project manager is being mentored by a more experienced certified project

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Sample Questions

10. When should scope validation be done?

A. At the end of the project
B. At the beginning of the project
C. At the end of each phase of the project
D. During the planning processes

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Sample Questions

Project Schedule Management

2. A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an

example of a:
A. Discretionary dependency
B. External dependency
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Scope dependency

3. Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER by bar charts than network
diagrams?
A. Logical relationship
B. Critical paths
C. Resource trade-offs
D. Progress or status

4. If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 12days, and the pessimistic estimate is 18days,
what is the standard deviation of this activity?
A. 1
B. 1.3
C. 6
D. 3

5. A heuristic is best described as a:

A. Control tool
B. Scheduling method
C. Planning tool
D. Rule of thumb

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Sample Questions

7. Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to determine the longest
time the project will take?
A. WBS
B. Network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Project charter

8. You have just been assigned as the project manager for an ongoing project in your company.
You have discovered there is no Project Charter that describes the responsibilities and
authorities of the project manager. When you talked to your project sponsor about this issue
he told you that nobody in the company even knows what a Project Charter is or what
purpose it serves. He also told you that your company has executed numerous projects in the
past without ever using a Project Charter. However, he asked you to prepare one just in case
it is really a necessary project document. Where should you look for a Project Charter
template to update in order to meet your project requirements?
A. Project Business Case
B. Enterprise Environmental Factors
C. Project Statement of Work
D. Organizational Process Assets

9. What is the duration of a milestone?

A. Shorter than the duration of the longest activity
B. Shorter than the activity it represents
C. There is no duration
D. Same length as the activity it represents

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Sample Questions

Page 14 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Cost Management

1. One way to compute estimate at completion (EAC) is to take the budget at completion
(BAC) and:
A. Divide by SPI
B. Multiply by SPI
C. Multiply by CPI
D. Divide by CPI

2. Estimate at completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of:

A. Cost of work completed
B. Value of work performed
C. Anticipated total cost at project completion
D. What is will cost to finish the job

3. If earned value (EV) =350, actual cost (AC)=400, planned value (PV) =325. What is cost
variance (CV)?
A. 350
B. -75
C. 400
D. -50

4. Double declining balance is a form of:

A. Decelerated depreciation
B. Straight line depreciation
C. Accelerated depreciation
D. Life cycle costing

5. Analogous estimating:
A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques
B. Is used most frequently during the executing processes of the project
C. Uses top-down estimating techniques
D. Uses actual detailed historical costs

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Sample Questions

6. The cost of choosing one project and giving up another is called

A. Fixed cost
B. Sunk Cost
C. Net Present value (NPV)
D. Opportunity cost

7. The main focus of life cycle costing is to:

8. Cost performance measurement is BEST done through which of the following?

9. A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means:

A. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
B. When the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
C. The project is only progressing at 89 percent of that planned.
D. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.

10. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:

A. You are over budget
B. You are ahead of schedule
C. You are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
D. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned

Page 16 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Quality Management

1. When a product or service completely meets a customer’s requirements:

A. Quality is achieved.
B. The cost of quality is high.
C. The cost of quality is low.
D. The customer pays the minimum price.

2. You are working on a project with an SPI of.72 and a CPI of 1.1. Which of the following
BEST describes your project?
A. Your project is ahead of schedule and under budget
B. Your project is behind schedule and over budget
C. Your project is behind schedule and under budget
D. You project is ahead of schedule and over budget

3. Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?

A. Project engineer
B. Project manager
C. Quality manager
D. Team member

Page 17 of 80
Sample Questions

6. From the project perspective, quality attributes:

8. All the following are NOT examples of quality assurance EXCEPT?

A. Inspection
B. Process analysis
C. Pareto chart
D. Fishbone diagram

9. Pareto charts help the project manager:

A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.

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Sample Questions

C. Explore a desired future outcome.

D. Determine if a process is out of control.

10. A control chart helps the project manager:

A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.

Page 19 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Resource Management

1. The MOST common cause of conflict on a project are schedule, project priorities, and:
A. Personalities.
B. Resources.
C. Cost.
D. Management

2. What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says , ‘ I cannot deal
with this issue now!”
A. Problem solving.
B. Forcing.
C. Withdrawal
D. Compromising.

3. What does a resource histogram shows that a responsibility assignment matrix does not?
A. Time
B. Activity
C. Interrelationships
D. The person in charge of each activity.

4. You have just been assigned as project manager for a large telecommunications project. This
one year project is about halfway done. The project team consists of five sellers and 20 of
your company’s employees. You want to understand who is responsible for doing what on
the project. Where would you find such information?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Resource histogram
C. Bar Chat
D. Project organization chat

5. During project planning in matrix organization, the project manager determines that
additional human resources are needed. From whom would he request these resources?
A. Project manager
B. Functional manager
Page 20 of 80
Sample Questions

C. Team
D. Project sponsor

6. A project manager must publish a project schedule. Activities, start/end times and resources
are identified. What should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Distribute the project schedule according to the communication management plan.
B. Confirm the availability of the resource.
C. Refine the project management plan to reflect more accurate costing information.
D. Publish a bar chart illustrating the timeline.

7. During every project team meeting, the project manager asks each team member to describe
the work he or she is doing, and the project manager assigns new activities to team members.
The length of the meeting has increased because there are many different activities to assign.
This could be happening for all the following reasons. EXCEPT?
A. Lack of WBS
B. Lack of a responsibility assignment matrix
C. Lack of resource leveling
D. Lack of team involvement in project planning

8. You are project manager leading a cross-functional project team in a weak matrix
environment none of project team members report to you functionally and you not have the
ability to directly reward their performance. The project is difficult involving tight date
constraints and challenging Quality standards. Which of the following types of project
management power will likely be the MOST effective in this circumstance?
A. Referent
B. Expert
C. Penalty
D. Formal

Page 21 of 80
Sample Questions

D. Allocate some of the project schedule reseve.

10. A project manager has just found out that major subcontractor for project is consistently late
delivery work. The project team member responsible for this part of the project does not get
along with sub-contractor. To resolve the problem the project manager says, “You both will
have to give up something to solve this problem. What conflict resolution method is she
using?
A. Confrontation
B. Compromise
C. Smoothing
D. Communicating

Page 22 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Communication Management

1. Extensive use of __________ communication is most likely to aid solving complex

problems.
A. Verbal
B. Written
C. Formal
D. Nonverbal

3. The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that:

A. The project is displayed
B. Trust level is enhanced
C. Conflict occurs
D. Senior management is displeased

4. Communications are often enhanced when the sender _______ the receiver.
A. Speaks up to
B. Uses more physical movement when talking to
C. Talks slowly to
D. Shows concern for the perspective of

5. Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:

A. Defects are detected
B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract.
C. The project goes over-budget
D. The project is getting delayed, which results in changes to the critical path

Page 23 of 80
Sample Questions

7. Communication under a contract should tend towards:

A. Formal written communication
B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication

8. The project status report is an example of which form of communication?

A. Formal written communication
B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication

9. When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, nonverbal communication skills are of :

A. Little importance
B. Major importance
C. Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved
D. Important only to ensure you win the negotiation.

10. A large, one- year telecommunication project is about halfway done when you take the place
of the previous project manager. The project involves three different sellers and a project
team of 30 people. You would like to see the project’s communications requirements and
what technology is being used to aid in project communications. Where will you find this
information?
A. The project management plan
B. The information distribution plan
C. The bar chart
D. The communication management plan

Page 24 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Risk Management

1. Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:

A. The team rank the project risks
B. The project manager estimates the project
C. The team schedule the project
D. Management knows how other managers will act on the project.

2. All the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT?

A. Contract terms and conditions are created
B. The project management plan is changed
C. The communications management plan is changed
D. The project charter is changed

3. Purchasing insurance is BEST considered an example of risk:

A. Mitigation
B. Transfer
C. Acceptance
D. Avoidance

4. You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost of risks. You should evaluate on a :
A. Quantitative basis
B. Numerical basis
C. Qualitative basis
D. Econometric basis

5. An output of risk response planning is:

A. Residual risks
B. Risks identified
C. Prioritized list of risks
D. Impacts identified

6. Workarounds are determined during which risk management process?

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Sample Questions

A. Risk identification
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk monitoring and control

7. During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made?

A. Risk identification
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk monitoring and control

8. A project manager has just finished the risk response plan for a $ 387,000 engineering
project. Which of the following should be probably done NEXT?
A. Determine the overall risk rating of the project
B. Begin to analyze the risks that show up in the project drawings
C. Add work packages to the project work breakdown structure
D. Hold a project risk reassessment

9. A project manager asked various stakeholders to determine the probability and impact of a
number of risks. He then analyzed assumptions. He is about to move to the next step of risk
management. Based on this information, what has the project manager forgotten to do?
A. Evaluate trends in risk analysis
B. Identify triggers
C. Provide a standardized risk rating matrix
D. Create a fall back plan

10. A project manager has assembled the project team, identified 56 risks on the project,
determined what would trigger the risks, rated them on a risk rating matrix, tested their
assumptions and assessed the quality of the data used. The team is continuing to move
through the risk management process. What has the project manager forgotten to do?
A. Simulation
B. Risk mitigation
C. Overall risk ranking for the project
D. Involvement of other stakeholders

Page 26 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Procurement Management

1. Once signed a contract is legally binding unless:

A. One party is unable to perform
B. One party is unable to finance its part of the work.
C. It is in violation of applicable law.
D. It is declared null and void by either party’s legal counsel.

4. A project manager for the seller is told by her management that the project should do
whatever possible to be awarded incentive money. The primary objective of incentive clauses
in a contract is to:
A. Reduce costs for the buyer.
B. Help the seller control costs
C. Synchronize objectives
D. Reduce risk for the seller by shifting risk to the buyer.

Page 27 of 80
Sample Questions

7. The primary objective of contract negotiation is to:

A. Get the most from the other side.
B. Protect the relationship
C. Get the highest monetary return
D. Define objectives and stick to them.

8. A seller is working on a cost reimbursable (CR) contract when the buyer decides he would
like to expand the scope of services and change to a fixed price (FP) contract. All of the
following are the seller’s options EXCEPT?
A. Completing the original work on a cost reimbursable basis and then negotiating a fixed
price for the additional work
B. Completing the original work and rejecting the additional work
C. Negotiating a fixed price contract that includes all the work
D. Starting over with a new contract

9. Bidder conferences are part of:

A. Plan procurement management
B. Control procurements
C. Conduct procurements
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions

10. All of the following MUST be existing to have a contract EXCEPT?

A. Contract statement of work
B. Acceptance
C. Address of the seller
D. Buyers signatures

Page 28 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Stakeholder Management

1. Which of the following best describes a stakeholder?

A. People directly involved with the project or whose interests may be impacted by the
project or its outcomes.
B. A group of people or an individual impacted by the project’s outcomes or directly
involved with the project.
C. A group of people or an individual directly involved with the project or whose interests
may be impacted by the project or decisions made by its stakeholders during the course
of the project.
D. A group of people or an individual directly involved with the project or whose interests
may impact the project or its outcomes.

2. It is commonly held that stakeholders’ ability to influence a project is __________.

A. Usually high in the early stages of a project and diminishes as the project moves through
its life cycle.
B. Typically high in the early stages of a project and increases as the project moves through
its life cycle.
C. Typically high in the early stages of the execution phase of a project but decreases as the
product moves through its life cycle
D. Typically high in the later stages of a project but increases as the project moves through
its life cycle.

3. Understanding how human resource requirements will be met and how staffing management
will be addressed is useful information for the Project Manager in developing the
Stakeholder Management Plan. This information might be found in the ______________, a
key Input in the Plan Stakeholder Management process.
A. Project Management Plan
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Stakeholder Management Plan

4. During stakeholder analysis, PM and team may use different models to classify. The model
that helps to analyze the stakeholder’s ability to impose his or her will or power and
influence the need for immediate attention from the project team along with the legitimacy of
the stakeholder’s involvement is :
A. Power/Interest grid
B. RAM
C. Salience model
D. Stakeholder register.

Page 29 of 80
Sample Questions

5. Which of the following may not be a stakeholder to the project?

A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. Everybody in customer’s organization
D. Suppliers to the organization

6. Stakeholder management involves all of the following except:

A. Identifying stakeholders
B. Keeping all stakeholders happy
C. Analyzing stakeholder expectations
D. Managing stakeholder engagement

7. Which of the following should you be most concerned about, while doing stakeholder
analysis?
A. Their interest in the project
B. Their influence on the project
C. Both A&B
D. Neither A nor B

8. Which is the best way to manage stakeholders who are low on power and interest?
A. Monitor them
B. No need to worry about them
C. Treat all stakeholders equal
D. Keep them informed

9. Which of the following is the tool to assess the current and desired level of engagement of a
stakeholder on a project?
A. Stakeholder registers
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
D. Impact/power grid

10. Which of the following is an input to the plan stakeholder management process?
A. Stakeholder registers
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
D. Impact/power grid

Page 30 of 80
Sample Questions

PRACTICE EXERCISE
Answers

Page 31 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Management Framework

1. Four project managers are having lunch together and discussing their projects. Most of
the time they are just complaining about how hard projects are to manage in their
company. Some complain about the stakeholders and the number of changes they cause.
Others talk about how hard it is to get people to cooperate and perform. One project
manager wants to focus on the advantages of the matrix type organization they all work
in for their projects, which of the following would he mention?
A. Improved project manager control over resources
B. More than one boss for project teams
C. Communications are easier
D. Reporting is easier
Explanation: Remember that if the question doesn’t state what it is comparing to, it is
comparing to a functional organization.

3. In a projectized organization the project team:

A. Report to many bosses.
B. Has no loyalty to the project.
C. Reports to the functional manager
D. Will not always have a “home”
Explanation: The main drawback of the projectized organization is that at the end of the
project, the team is dispersed but they do not have a functional department (home) to which
to return.

4. A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get
enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process related work
and the project manager has little authority to properly assign resources.
What form of organization must the project manager be working in?
A. Functional
Page 32 of 80
Sample Questions

B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator
Explanation: In a functional organization, the project manager has the least support for the
project and has little authorized to assign resources. Choice C and D are forms of weak
matrix.

5. A project manager has very little project expenditure, but he has been assigned as the project
manager of a new project. Because he will be working in a matrix organization to complete
his project, he can expect communication to be:
A. Simple
B. Open and accurate
C. Complex
D. Hard to automate
Explanation: Because a project done in a matrix organization involves people from across
the organization, communications are more complex

6. A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that so many
people are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the
power to give direction to the team member?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager
C. The team
D. Tight matrix
Explanation: In a functional organization, the functional manager is the team member’s boss
and probably also the project manager’s boss

7. Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization?

A. The project manager
B. The functional, manager
C. The team
D. They all share power
Explanation: In a projectized organization, the entire company is organized by projects,
giving the project manager the most power

8. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:

A. Temporary
B. Definite beginning and end

Page 33 of 80
Sample Questions

C. Interrelated activities
D. Repeats itself every month
Explanation: Choice D implies that the whole project repeats every month. Generally, the
only things that might repeat in a project are some activities. The whole project does not
repeat

9. All of the following are parts of the team’s stakeholder management effort EXCEPT?
A. Giving stakeholder’s extras
B. Identifying stakeholders
C. Determining stakeholder needs
D. Managing stakeholders’ expectations
Explanation: Giving stakeholders extras is gold plating (see the quality chapter). This is not
effective stakeholder or quality management.

10. A manager and the head of engineering discuss a change to a major work package. After the
meeting the manager contacts you and tells you to complete the paper work to make the
change. This is an example of:
A. Management attention to scope management
B. Management planning
C. A project expediter position
D. A change control system
Explanation: This is an example of a project expediter position because you are evaluating
the change, looking for impacts, etc. You are implementing others requests. In this case, you
are acting as the project expediter and the manager is acting as the project manager.

Page 34 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Management Processes

1. In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?
A. Initiating
B. Before the project management process
C. Planning
D. Executing
Explanation: Notice the use of the word “detailed.” Such a budget is created during the
planning process group.

2. The Project Charter is created in which project management process group?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Explanation: The project charter is needed before planning and execution of the work can
begin.

3. The project team has just completed the initial project schedule and budget. The NEXT thing
to do is:
A. Begin risk identification
B. Begin iterations
C. Determine communication requirements
D. Create a bar (Gantt) charts
Explanation: Iterations (choice B) cannot begin until the risks are identified, qualified,
quantified & response developed. These then create the need to revise the WBS and other
parts of the project management plan. A bar chart (choice D) would have been done during
the creation of the schedule, so it cannot be the next thing. Communication requirements and
quality standard are needed before risks(especially risks relating to communication and
quality)can be determined (choice A)

4. A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the:

A. Project manager
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Project management plan
D. Detailed risk assessment

Page 35 of 80
Sample Questions

Explanation: In the project management process, the project budget (choice A), project
management plan (choice C) and detailed risk assessment (choice D) come after the
schedule. The only answer that could be an input is the WBS.

5. The person who should be in control of the project during project management planning is
the:
A. Project manager
B. Team leader
C. Functional manager
D. Sponsor
Explanation: The project manager should be named early in the project initiating if possible.

6. Which of the following is NOT an input to the initiating process group?

A. Company processes
B. The company culture
C. Historical WBSs
D. Project scope statement
Explanation: Notice the question asks which NOT an input to the initiation process group.
Did you read it correctly? The project scope statement (choice D) is an output of the planning
process group. Did you select choice A? Companies should have processes in place for hiring
resources, reporting and managing risks on project (to name only a few).Does yours?

7. The project sponsor has just provided the preliminary project scope statement. What is the
NEXT thing to do?
A. Begin to complete work packages
B. Complete scope verification
C. Start integrated change control
D. Start to create management plans
Explanation: The preliminary project scope statement is created during the initiating process
group. Therefore the question is asking what is done next in either the initiating process
group or the planning process group. For this type of question, you should look at the choice
that occurs closest to the process group you are in. Choice A is done during the executive
process group. Choice B and C are done during the monitoring and controlling process
group. Choice D is the best choice, as it is part of the planning process group.

8. The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project
management process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Planning

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C. Executing
D. Monitoring & controlling
Explanation: High-level project constraints are determined during the initiating process
group

9. The WBS and WBS dictionary are completed. The project team has begun working on
identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project manager, requesting that the responsibility
assignment matrix be issued. The project has a budget of $100,000 and is taking place in
three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk expected for project and the
projects similar to this one. What is the next thing to do?
A. Understanding the experience of the sponsor on similar projects
B. Create an activity list
C. Make sure the project scope is defined
D. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix
Explanation: Look at the order of planning the project the team has chosen. Though
understanding the sponsor (choice A) might sound like a good idea, the sponsor is a
stakeholder and understanding them is part of stakeholder analysis. That should have
occurred before the creation of a WBS. In planning the project scope is defined (choice C is
another name for finalize the project scope statement) and would come before creating a
WBS Choice D cannot be best as the team would be going in the wrong direction. Other
work, like creating a network diagram, should be completed before risk can effectively be
done. Only activity list (choice B) comes after the WBS and WBS dictionary.

10. A project manager does not have much time to spend planning before the mandatory start
date arrives. He therefore wants to move through planning as effectively as possible. Which
of the following would you recommend?
A. Start the WBS after you have a completed preliminary project scope statement
B. Create an activity list before creating a network diagram
C. Document all the known risks before you document the high-level assumption
D. Finalize the quality management plan before you determine quality metrics
Explanation: This question is asking, which of the choices is the most effective way to move
through the planning process? Choice A skips the important steps of finalizing the scope and
other activities. High level assumptions are determined during the initiating processes and all
the risks are documented during the planning processes, making choice C incorrect. Metrics
are part of the quality management plan, making choice D incorrect. Choice B is best, as the
activity list is created immediately before the network diagram.

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Project Integration Management

1. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:

A. The personal careers of the team members.
B. Timely updates to the project plan.
C. Effective communications at key interface points
D. Product control.
Explanation: This question is asking for the most important of the choices. Think about what
is involved in integration project management plan development, project management plan
execution and integrated change control. In order to integrate the project components into a
cohesive whole (integration), communication is key when one activity will interface with
another, one team member will interface with another, and any other form of interfacing.
Choices B and D are only parts of the monitoring and controlling process group, while
integration includes more than control. Choice A falls under project management plan
execution.

3. Which of the following describes the BEST use of historical records from previous projects?
A. Estimation life cycle costing and project planning
B. Risk management estimating and creating lessons learned
C. Project management planning estimating and creating a status report
D. Estimating risk management and project planning
Explanation: Historical records are not generally used for life cycle costing (Choice A)
lessons learned (Choice B) or creating status reports (Choice C).

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Explanation: Project managers should be proactive. The only proactive answer here is
preventing unnecessary changes.

5. The sponsor’s role on a project is BEST described as:

A. Helping to plan activities
B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives
C. Identifying unnecessary project constraints
D. Helping to put the project management plan together.
Explanation: Though the sponsor may help with some of the activities (Choice A) it is not
his exclusive duty. Some project constraints (Choice C) come from the sponsor, but they
should be considered necessary. The project management plan (Choice D) is created by the
team and approved by the sponsor and other management. Since the project objectives are
stated in the project charter and it is the sponsor who issues the project charter, choice B is
the correct answer.

6. All of the following are parts of an effective change control system EXCEPT?
A. Procedures
B. Standards of reports
C. Meetings
D. Lessons learned
Explanation: A change control system consists of the processes and procedures that allow
smooth evaluation and tracking of changes, lessons learned (Choice D) are reviews of the
processes and procedures to improve them they are not part of the system.

7. A work authorization system can be used to:

A. Manage who does each activity
B. Manage what time and in what sequence work is done
C. Manage when each activity is done
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done
Explanation: Who does each activity (Choices A & D) is managed with the schedule and
responsibility assignment matrixes. When each activity is done (Choice C) is managed with
the project schedule. A work authorization system is used to coordinate when and in what
order the work is performed so that work and people may properly interface with other work
and other people.

8. A project is plagued by changes to the charter, who has the primary responsibility to decide if
these changes are necessary?
A. Project manager
B. Project team

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C. Sponsor
D. Stakeholders
Explanation: The sponsor issues the project charter and so he should help the project
manage control changes to the charter. The primary responsibility lies with the sponsor.

9. Integration is done by the:

A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. Sponsor
D. Stakeholders
Explanation: Integration is a key responsibility of the project manager, so choice A is the
best answer.

10. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager’s role as an integrator?
A. Help team members become familiar with project
B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole
C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program
D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole.
Explanation: Integration refers to combining activities not team members (Choice D). Could
the project manager smash two team members together and create one big team member? (I
just wanted to see if you are still laughing about the PMP thing).

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Project Scope Management

1. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows project staff to:

A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements.
B. Provide project justification
C. Identify the levels at which individual elements are found.
D. Use it in project management software
Explanation: The numbering system allows you to quickly identify the level in the work
breakdown structure where the specific element is found. It also helps to locate the element
in the WBS dictionary

2. The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as effective aid for ______
communications.
A. Team
B. Project manager
C. Customer
D. Stakeholder
Explanation: The term stakeholder encompasses all the other choices. In this case, it is the
best answer since the WBS can be used (but does not need to be used) as a communication
tool for all stakeholders to “see” what is included in the project.

3. Which of the following is a KEY attribute of scope validation?

A. More complete project scope management plan
B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system
Explanation: The output of scope verification is customer acceptance of project deliverables.
The other choices all happen during project planning, well before the time that scope
verification takes place.

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Explanation: Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to, but they do
not contain detailed description of work packages. The preliminary project scope statement
(choice C) may contain project scope, but does not describe the work a team member is
assigned. The project scope management plan (choice D) describes how scope will be
planned, managed and controlled. It does not include a description of each work package.
The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of the work
package are in the WBS dictionary.

5. During what part of the project management process is the project scope statement created?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
Explanation: Did you say project initiating? I guess so you did not read the question. Tricky
I Know. Do you hate me yet? And you were worried about long wordy questions!

6. The program was planned years ago before there was a massive introduction of new
technology. While planning the next project to start in this program, the project manager has
expanded the project scope management plan because as a project becomes more complex,
the level of uncertainty in the scope:
A. Remains the same
B. Decreases
C. Decreases then increases
D. Increases
Explanation: Not all questions will be difficult. The level of uncertainty in scope increases
based on the scale of effort required to identify all the scope. For larger projects it is more
difficult to “catch” everything.

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8. A new project manager is being mentored by a more experienced certified project

management professional (PMP).The new project manager is finding it difficult to find
enough time to manage the project because the product and project scope are being
progressively elaborated. The PMP mentions that the basic tools for project management,
such as work breakdown structure, can be used during project executing to assist the project.
For which of the following can a work breakdown structure be used?
A. Communicating with the customer.
B. Showing calendar dates for each work package.
C. Showing the functional managers for each team member.
D. Showing the business need for the project.
Explanation: A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments (choices B and C).
Those are included on the bar chart and possibly in the communications management plan.
The business need (choice D) is shown in the project charter. Never thought that a WBS
could be shown to the customer? Made you think! Of course it could be used for that
purpose. In this situation, the product and project scope are fine tuned. It would save the
project manager time to effectively manage progressive elaboration if the WBS were used to
assist. The WBS helps ensure everyone understands the scope of the work.

9. During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is
beyond the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team needs
to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of:
A. Change management process
B. Scope management
C. Quality analysis
D. Scope decomposition
Explanation: The team member is suggesting an enhancement that is outside the project
charter. Scope management involves focusing on doing the work and only the work in the
project management plan that meets the needs of the project charter. The project manager is
performing scope management.

10. When should scope validation be done?

A. At the end of the project
B. At the beginning of the project
C. At the end of each phase of the project
D. During the planning processes
Explanation: It is product verification that occurs at the project (choice A). Scope
verification is done during the monitoring and controlling process group, so choices B and D
cannot be correct. The description of scope verification defines it as being done at the end of
each phase (the end of design, implementation) making choice C the best answer.

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Project Schedule Management

1. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project
duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of
scheduling flexibility. What techniques is she using?
A. Critical path method
B. Flowchart
C. Precedence diagramming
D. Work breakdown structure
Explanation: There are only two choices related to scheduling: A and C. Choice C, however
is diagramming technique that deals with the relationship between activities, not schedule
flexibility.

2. A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an

example of a:
A. Discretionary dependency
B. External dependency
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Scope dependency
Explanation: Since the dependency is required it could not be discretionary (choice A) and
therefore must be mandatory. No mention is made that the dependency comes from a source
outside the project, so external (choice B) is not correct. Scope dependency (choice D) is not
a defined term. The key word in this question is “requires”. The question defines the
mandatory dependency.

3. Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER by bar charts than network
diagrams?
A. Logical relationship
B. Critical paths
C. Resource trade-offs
D. Progress or status
Explanation: The bar chart (or Grant chart) is designed to show a relationship of activities to
time. This is best used when demonstrating progress or status as a factor of time.

4. If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 12days, and the pessimistic estimate is 18days,
what is the standard deviation of this activity?
A. 1
B. 1.3
C. 6

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D. 3
Explanation: The standard deviation is computed by (p-o)/6. Therefore, the answer is (18-
12)/6 = 6/6 = 1.

5. A heuristic is best described as a:

A. Control tool
B. Scheduling method
C. Planning tool
D. Rule of thumb
Explanation: A heuristic is a rule of thumb. Examples are cost per line of code, cost per
square foot of floor space, etc.

6. Lag means:
A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date
B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its
successor
C. Waiting time
D. The product of a forward and backward pass
Explanation: Total float and free float (choices A and B) are the time an activity can be
delayed without impacting the entire project or the next activity. CPM (Choice D) is a
schedule network analysis technique, not waiting time. Choice C is the correct answer.

7. Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to determine the longest
time the project will take?
A. WBS
B. Network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Project charter
Explanation: The bar chart (choice C) may show an end date, but it is not used to determine
dates and show progress. The project charter (choice D) may include any required end dates,
but not a logical determination of how long the project will take. The network diagram
(choice B) takes the work packages from the work breakdown structure (choice A) and adds
dependencies. The dependencies allow us to look at the various paths through the diagram.
The longest duration path is the critical path. Choice B is the best answer.

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past without ever using a Project Charter. However, he asked you to prepare one just in case
it is really a necessary project document. Where should you look for a Project Charter
template to update in order to meet your project requirements?
A. Project Business Case
B. Enterprise Environmental Factors
C. Project Statement of Work
D. Organizational Process Assets
Explanation: This is a tricky question. Usually templates for project documents are found in
the Organizational Process Assets. However, since your company has never developed a
Project Charter, you cannot find this template there. You can find templates for a Project
Charter on websites and in commercial databases, which are included in Enterprise
Environmental Factors.

9. What is the duration of a milestone?

A. Shorter than the duration of the longest activity
B. Shorter than the activity it represents
C. There is no duration
D. Same length as the activity it represents
Explanation: A milestone shows the completion of a series of activities or work packages.
Therefore it takes no time of its own. With this in mind choice C is the best answer.

10. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between standard deviation and
risk?
A. Nothing
B. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate
C. Standard deviation tells you how unsure the estimate is
D. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad.
Explanation: Choice A is not best, as the standard deviation tells you the amount of
uncertainty or risk involved in the estimate for the activity. An estimate can have a wide
range (choice B) and still be accurate if the item estimated includes risks. Choice D cannot be
the best answer since there is no such thing as a pad in project management. An estimate
might be inflated, but it is because of risks, not padding.

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Project Cost Management

1. One way to compute estimate at completion (EAC) is to take the budget at completion
(BAC) and:
A. Divide by SPI
B. Multiply by SPI
C. Multiply by CPI
D. Divide by CPI
Explanation: This question is asking for the formula for EAC, which is BAC/CPI. Notice
how you will have to remember the formulas to get the answers correct.

2. Estimate at completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of:

A. Cost of work completed
B. Value of work performed
C. Anticipated total cost at project completion
D. What is will cost to finish the job
Explanation: When you look at earned value, many of the terms have similar definitions.
This could get you into trouble. Since the EAC means the estimate to completion, choice C is
the best answer. Choice D is the definition of ETC, estimate to complete.

3. If earned value (EV) =350, actual cost (AC)=400, planned value (PV) =325. What is cost
variance (CV)?
A. 350
B. -75
C. 400
D. -50
Explanation: CV = EV - AC

4. Double declining balance is a form of:

A. Decelerated depreciation
B. Straight line depreciation
C. Accelerated depreciation
D. Life cycle costing
Explanation: We need to know that double declining balance is a form of depreciation. That
eliminates choice D. We also know that double declining balance is a form of accelerated
depreciation, eliminating choices A and B. therefore, C is the correct response.

5. Analogous estimating:

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A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques

B. Is used most frequently during the executing processes of the project
C. Uses top-down estimating techniques
D. Uses actual detailed historical costs
Explanation: Analogous estimating is used most frequently during the planning processes,
not the executing processes (choice B). You do not need to use historical costs (choice D) for
an analogous estimate. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

6. The cost of choosing one project and giving up another is called

A. Fixed cost
B. Sunk Cost
C. Net Present value (NPV)
D. Opportunity cost
Explanation: Choices A and B are types of costs and do not relate to “giving up another.”
Choice C is a way to determine today’s value of a future cash flow and does not deal with the
quoted phrase. The definition of opportunity cost includes the cost of choosing one project
and giving up another, and thus it is the best answer.

7. The main focus of life cycle costing is to:

A. Estimate installation costs
B. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance
C. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs
D. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions.
Explanation: Life cycle costing looks at operations and maintenance costs and balances
them with the project costs to try to reduce the cost across its entire life.

8. Cost performance measurement is BEST done through which of the following?

A. Asking for a present complete from each team member and reporting that in the monthly
progress report
B. Calculating earned value and using the indexes and other calculations to report past
performance and forecast future performance.
C. Using the 50/50 rule and making sure the life cycle cost is less than the project cost
D. Focusing on the amount expended last month and what will be expended the following
month
Explanation: Asking percent complete (choice A) is not a best practice since it is usually a
guess. Often the easiest work is done first on a project, throwing off any percentage
calculations of work remaining. If may be a good thing to use the 50/50 rule, as in choice C.
However, the 50/50 rule is not necessarily included in the progress report, and the second
part of the sentence is incorrect. The life cycle cost cannot be lower than the project cost as
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the life cycle cost includes the project cost. Choice D is often done by inexperienced project
managers who know of nothing else. Now only does it provide little information, but also it
cannot be used to predict the future. Choice B is the best answer since it looks at the past and
uses this information to estimate future costs.

9. A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means:

10. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:

A. You are over budget
B. You are ahead of schedule
C. You are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
D. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Explanation: Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results.
See the tricks under this topic in this book.

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Project Quality Management

1. When a product or service completely meets a customer’s requirements:

A. Quality is achieved.
B. The cost of quality is high.
C. The cost of quality is low.
D. The customer pays the minimum price.
Explanation: as a general rule, one cannot say that quality (as defined in the question) is
either of high or low cost (choices B and C)or that is provides the minimum price (choice D).
If does give the customer what the customer wanted, which may not be the lowest or highest
cost. Therefore, the best answer is A.

3. Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?

A. Project engineer
B. Project manager
C. Quality manager
D. Team member
Explanation: Though each person working on the project should check their own work as
part of any project, the project manager ultimately has the responsibility for quality on the
project as a whole.

4. A team is using a fishbone diagram to help determine what quality standards will be used on
the project. What part of the quality management process are they in?
A. Perform quality control
B. Perform quality assurance
C. Quality planning
D. Variable analysis
Explanation: The key phrase her is “will be used.” The team is looking to the future of what
quality will be on the project manager ultimately has the responsibility for quality on the
project as a whole.

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5. A manager notices that a project manager is holding a meeting with some of the team and
some stakeholders to discuss the quality of the project. The project schedule has been
compressed and the CPI is 1.1. They have worked hard on the project, the team has been
rewarded according to the reward system the project manager put in place and there is a
strong sense of team: The manager suggests that the project manager does not have enough
time to hold meetings about quality when the schedule is so compressed. Which of the
following BEST describes why the manager is wrong?
A. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness and
decreased cost risk.
B. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness and
increased cost risk.
C. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness and
increased cost risk.
D. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness and
decreased cost risk.
Explanation: Notice in this question that there is a lot of data not relevant to answering the
question? Expect these distracters to occur in almost every question on the exam. Quality
should produce a decrease rather than an increase in cost risk as a result of less rework, so
choices B and C can be eliminated. Quality should also provide increased cost effectiveness
due to less rework. This eliminates Choice D leaving the best answer, choice A.

6. From the project perspective, quality attributes:

A. Determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project.
B. Provide the basis for judging the project’s success or failure.
C. Are specific characteristics for which a product is designed and tested.
D. Are objective criteria that must be met.
Explanation: Quality attributes are the measurements that determine if the product is
acceptable. They are based on the characteristics of the product for the product for which
they were designed.

7. Quality is:
A. Meeting and exceeding the customer’s expectations.
B. Adding extras to make the customer happy.
C. The degree to which the project meets requirements.
D. Conformance to management’s objectives.
Explanation: Choices A and B cannot be the best, because there can be a cost impact (or
time, risk etc.) of exceeding expectations or adding extras. Since a project should meet
requirements, choice C is best.

8. All the following are NOT examples of quality assurance EXCEPT?

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A. Inspection
B. Process analysis
C. Pareto chart
D. Fishbone diagram
Explanation: Choice A is done as part of quality control. Choices C and D are done as part
of quality planning or control (depending on how they are used). This leaves only choice B,
which must be the best answer, as process analysis IS a part of quality assurance. Watch out
for “double-negative” questions like this on the exam!

9. Pareto charts help the project manager:

A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is out of control.
Explanation: Choices B and C relate to fish bone diagrams. Choice D relates to control
charts. Only choice A relates to Pareto charts.

10. A control chart helps the project manager:

A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.
Explanation: Choice A relates to Pareto charts. Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams.
Only choice D relates to control charts.

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Project Resource Management

1. The MOST common cause of conflict on a project are schedule, project priorities, and:
A. Personalities.
B. Resources.
C. Cost.
D. Management
Explanation: Know the top four sources (schedule, project priorities, resources and technical
opinions), so you can answer questions such as this one. Don’t be fooled because
“personalities” is on the list. It is last.

2. What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says , ‘ I cannot deal
with this issue now!”
A. Problem solving.
B. Forcing.
C. Withdrawal
D. Compromising.
Explanation: Delaying the issue is called withdrawal.

3. What does a resource histogram shows that a responsibility assignment matrix does not?
A. Time
B. Activity
C. Interrelationships
D. The person in charge of each activity.
Explanation: Time is shown on a schedule or bar chart. The responsibility assignment matrix
maps specific resources against the work packages from the WBS. On a resource Histogram,
the usage of resources is shown individually or by groups over time.

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pure form, a bar chart (choice C) shows only activity and calendar date. An organizational
chart (choice D) shows who reports to whom.

C. Penalty
D. Formal
Explanation: Reward and expert are the best sources of power. Reward is not listed as a
choice.

9. A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system
development work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager?
A. Consult with functional manager to determine project completion incentives for the team
member.
B. Obtain a new source more skilled in development work.
C. Arrange for the team member to get training.
D. Allocate some of the project schedule reserve.
Explanation: The job of the project manager includes providing or obtaining project-specific
training for team members. This kind of training is a direct cost of the project.

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Project Communication Management

1. Extensive use of __________ communication is most likely to aid solving complex

problems.
A. Verbal
B. Written
C. Formal
D. Nonverbal
Explanation: Written communication allows your words to be documented and they will go
to everyone in the same form. When there are complex problems, you want everyone in the
same thing.

2. The work breakdown structure can be an effective aid for communication in which
situation(s)?
A. Internal within the project team
B. Internal within the organization
C. External with the customer
D. Internal & external to the project
Explanation: The work breakdown structure allows communication vertically and
horizontally within the organization as well as outside the project.

3. The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that:

A. The project is displayed
B. Trust level is enhanced
C. Conflict occurs
D. Senior management is displeased
Explanation: The major result of communication blockers and mis-communication as a
whole is conflict.

4. Communications are often enhanced when the sender _______ the receiver.
A. Speaks up to
B. Uses more physical movement when talking to
C. Talks slowly to
D. Shows concern for the perspective of
Explanation: Understanding the receiver’s perspective allows you to direct the
communication to meet his needs

5. Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:

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A. Defects are detected

B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract.
C. The project goes over-budget
D. The project is getting delayed, which results in changes to the critical path
Explanation: Everything that we do is more formal in a contract environment than in other
project activities .Because choice B deals with contracts, it is the best answer.

6. A project manager has a problem with a team member’s performance. What is BEST form of
communication for addressing this problem?
A. Formal written communication
B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication
Explanation: The best choice is D. If informal verbal communication does not solve the
problem, choice A is the next best choice. This does not mean that you do not keep records of
the problem, but this Question is asking about communication between two parties

7. Communication under a contract should tend towards:

A. Formal written communication
B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication
Explanation: When we talk about contract, everything that we do is more formal than in
other project activities. Records are important, thus the need for written communication

8. The project status report is an example of which form of communication?

A. Formal written communication
B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication
Explanation: The project status needs to be known by many people. Therefore, it is best to
make this type of communication in writing so that it can be transmitted to many people. It is
also formal in that it is an official report of the project. Therefore, choice A is the best
answer.

9. When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, nonverbal communication skills are of :

A. Little importance
B. Major importance

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Sample Questions

C. Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved

D. Important only to ensure you win the negotiation.
Explanation: Nonverbal communication carries 55 percent of the message you send with as
much at stake hence nonverbal communication is of major importance

Page 59 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Risk Management

1. Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:

A. The team rank the project risks
B. The project manager estimates the project
C. The team schedule the project
D. Management knows how other managers will act on the project.
Explanation: If you know the tolerances of the stakeholders, you can determine how they
might react to different situations and risk events. You use this information to help assign
levels of risks on each work package or activity.

2. All the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT?

A. Contract terms and conditions are created
B. The project management plan is changed
C. The communications management plan is changed
D. The project charter is changed
Explanation: A change to the project charter is always not necessary. In fact, a change to the
charter is a fundamental change to the project and may require a major adjustment to all
aspects of the project management plan. There are many reasons the other choices could
happen as a result of risk. Since a contract can only be created after risks are known (a
contract is a tool transfer risks) it is common sense that choice A cannot be the exception.
The project management plan (choice B) could change to include a modified WBS and new
work packages related to mitigating risks. The communication management plan (choice C)
could change as way to address a risk. Choice D is the best answer.

3. Purchasing insurance is BEST considered an example of risk:

A. Mitigation
B. Transfer
C. Acceptance
D. Avoidance
Explanation: To mitigate risk (choice A) we either reduce the probability of the event
happening or reduce its impact. Many people think of using insurance as a way of decreasing
impact. However, mitigating risk is taking action before a risk event occurs. Buying
insurance is not such an action. Acceptance of risk (choice C) does not involve such action as
purchasing insurance. Avoidance of risk (choice D) means we change the way we will
execute the project so the risk is no longer a factor. Transference is passing the risk off to
another party.

4. You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost of risks. You should evaluate on a :
A. Quantitative basis

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B. Numerical basis
C. Qualitative basis
D. Econometric basis
Explanation: If you cannot determine an exact cost impact to the event, use qualitative
estimates such as Low, Medium, High, etc .

5. An output of risk response planning is:

A. Residual risks
B. Risks identified
C. Prioritized list of risks
D. Impacts identified
Explanation: Risks are identified (choice B) during risk identification and risk monitoring
and control. Prioritized risks (choice C) are documented during qualitative and quantitative
risk analysis. Impacts (choice D) are generally determined during quantitative risk analysis.
The best answer is A.

6. Workarounds are determined during which risk management process?

A. Risk identification
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk monitoring and control
Explanation: A workaround refers to determining how to handle a risk that occur but is not
included in the risk register. The project must be in risk monitoring and control if risks have
occurred.

7. During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made?

A. Risk identification
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk monitoring and control
Explanation: Transference is a risk response strategy

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Sample Questions

D. Hold a project risk reassessment

Explanation: This situation is occurring during project planning. Planning must be
completed before moving on. Determining the risk rating of the project (choice A) is done
during qualitative risk analysis, and should have already been done. Choice B is work that is
done during project executing. Project risk reassessment (choice D) occurs during risk
monitoring and control, the next step in the risk process after response planning. But the
question does not ask what is next management process, just what is next. Only choice C
comes after risk in project planning. Do you know the order of planning yet?

Page 62 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Procurement Management

1. Once signed a contract is legally binding unless:

A. One party is unable to perform
B. One party is unable to finance its part of the work.
C. It is in violation of applicable law.
D. It is declared null and void by either party’s legal counsel.
Explanation: Once signed, a contract is binding. Generally the inability to perform gets
financing or one party’s belief that the contract is null and void does not change the fact that
the contract is binding. If however both sides agree to terminate the contract, the contract,
can move into closure and it is considered completed.

2. With a clear contract statement of work, a seller completes work as specified, but the buyer is
not pleased with the results. The contract is considered to be:
A. Null and void
B. Incomplete
C. Complete
D. Waived
Explanation: If the seller completes the work specified in the contract statement of work, the
contract is considered complete. That does not mean the same thing as contract closed.
Contract closure must still occur. However, in this situation the contract work is completed.
Tricky!

3. All of the following statements concerning bid documentation are incorrect EXCEPT?
A. Well-designed bid documents can simplify comparison of responses.
B. Bid documentation must be rigorous with no flexibility to allow consideration of seller
suggestions.
C. In general, bid documents should not include evaluation criteria.
D. Well-designed bid documents do not include a contract statement of work.
Explanation: Often the seller is required to inform the buyer of anything that is missing or
unclear in the bid documents (Choice B). It is in the buyer’s best interest to discover missing
items, since it will save the buyer money and trouble to correct the problem early. Bid
documents must contain terms and conditions and evaluation criteria (Choice C) as well as
all the work that is to be done, including the contract statement of work (Choice D). This is
so the seller can price the project and know what is most important to the buyer. Choice A is
an important point for the real world and is the best answer.

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Sample Questions

A. Reduce costs for the buyer.

B. Help the seller control costs
C. Synchronize objectives
D. Reduce risk for the seller by shifting risk to the buyer.
Explanation: Incentives are meant to bring the objectives of the seller in line with those of
the buyer. That way both are progressing toward the same objective.

5. All the following statements about change control are incorrect EXCEPT?
A. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control
B. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project
C. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes
D. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of changes
Explanation: Since there can be changes in any form of contract, choice A is not the best
answer. There are always good ideas (changes) that can add benefit to the project so choice B
cannot be the best answer. In choice D the word “eliminate” implies that changes will not
occur. As that is not true, this cannot be the best answer.

6. A routine audit of a cost reimbursable contract determines that overcharges are being made.
If the contract does not specify corrective action, the buyer should:
A. Continue to make project payments
B. Halts payments until the problem is corrected
C. Void the contract and start legal action to recover overpayment
D. Change the contract to require more frequent audits
Explanation: Notice that choice B is really saying “halt ALL payments”. Halting all
payments would be a breach of contract on the buyer’s part. Choice C is too severe and
cannot be done unilaterally. Choice D does not solve the problem presented. A choice that
said “halt payments on the disputed amount” would probably be the best answer, but it is not
offered. Therefore, the best answer is A.

7. The primary objective of contract negotiation is to:

A. Get the most from the other side.
B. Protect the relationship
C. Get the highest monetary return
D. Define objectives and stick to them.
Explanation: As a project manager, you want to develop a relationship during negotiations
that will last throughout the project

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Sample Questions

9. Bidder conferences are part of:

A. Plan procurement management
B. Control procurements
C. Conduct procurements
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions
Explanation: Expect many questions on the exam that require you to know in what part of
the procurement process activities are done.

10. All of the following MUST be existing to have a contract EXCEPT?

A. Contract statement of work
B. Acceptance
C. Address of the seller
D. Buyers signatures
Explanation: Many people miss the fact that a contract includes a contract statement of work
(Choice A). to have a contract you must also have acceptance (Choice B) one set of
signatures is not enough. You must have sign-off (i.e. acceptance) from both parties, so
choice D is only partially correct. The address of the seller (Choice C) is not required, and
therefore is the exception.

Page 65 of 80
Sample Questions

Project Stakeholder Management

1. Which of the following best describes a stakeholder?

A. People directly involved with the project or whose interests may be impacted by the
project or its outcomes.
B. A group of people or an individual impacted by the project’s outcomes or directly
involved with the project.
C. A group of people or an individual directly involved with the project or whose
interests may be impacted by the project or decisions made by its stakeholders
during the course of the project.
D. A group of people or an individual directly involved with the project or whose interests
may impact the project or its outcomes.

2. It is commonly held that stakeholders’ ability to influence a project is __________.

A. Usually high in the early stages of a project and diminishes as the project moves
through its life cycle.
B. Typically high in the early stages of a project and increases as the project moves through
its life cycle.
C. Typically high in the early stages of the execution phase of a project but decreases as the
product moves through its life cycle
D. Typically high in the later stages of a project but increases as the project moves through
its life cycle.

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Sample Questions

Explanation: Salience model addresses stakeholder power, urgency and legitimate

involvement in a project. The power and interest grids assist in determining the level of
influence and interest a stakeholder may have on planning and outcome of the project.
Responsibility assignment matrix connects project stakeholders with work breakdown
structure components.

5. Which of the following may not be a stakeholder to the project?

A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. Everybody in customer’s organization
D. Suppliers to the organization

6. Stakeholder management involves all of the following except:

A. Identifying stakeholders
B. Keeping all stakeholders happy
C. Analyzing stakeholder expectations
D. Managing stakeholder engagement

7. Which of the following should you be most concerned about, while doing stakeholder
analysis?
A. Their interest in the project
B. Their influence on the project
C. Both A&B
D. Neither A nor B

8. Which is the best way to manage stakeholders who are low on power and interest?
A. Monitor them
B. No need to worry about them
C. Treat all stakeholders equal
D. Keep them informed

9. Which of the following is the tool to assess the current and desired level of engagement of a
stakeholder on a project?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
D. Impact/power grid

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Sample Questions

10. Which of the following is an input to the plan stakeholder management process?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
D. Impact/power grid

Page 68 of 80
Sample Questions

PMP Numerical

Page 69 of 80
Sample Questions

1. Construct a network diagram using the following information

Determine the following

- Critical Path & Its Duration
- Total float and Free Float on all nodes

2. A project activity has been determined to have the following potential durations:
- Optimistic completion time of 12 days,
- Pessimistic completion time of 25 days
- Most likely time of 15 days.

What is the estimated activity duration using the weighted average technique?
What is range of estimate at 68% & 95% Confidence Interval?

3. The project starts Monday morning and has a 7-day work week.
- Task A (1 day long) is the predecessor to B (5 days), and C (4 days) and D (2 days)
- Task C is the predecessor to E, with a start-start relationship
- Task E is three days long
- Tasks B and E are predecessors to F (2 days long).
- Task D is also a predecessor to F, but with a finish-finish relationship

The Early Finish for the project is the end of the day on a…
a. Sunday
b. Monday
c. Tuesday
d. Wednesday

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Sample Questions

5. There is a project to build a 5,000 square foot deck. The budget allows four crew hours for
each 100 sq. ft., at a cost of €100 per crew hour. The Planned Value to date is €10,000. The
work is 40% completed, at a cost of €9,000 to date.

What is the Earned Value (EV) & Cost Variance (CV)?

6. Kathy wants to develop a theme park. The volume of exotic plants needed for the theme park is
large. Hence Kathy had to decide whether to set up an internal nursery and grow them or buy from
outside. Since these are exotic plants some of them might not grow in the weather condition and
might need special treatment.
• Growing internally would cost $60K, considering one time set up cost. Buying from outside
would cost about $40K.
• For each decision the weather condition (which is uncertain, and therefore represents a
‘chance node’) is to be considered.
• Growing her own plants: If weather conditions are favorable(70% chance) Kathy would
make a turnover of $80K while she makes only 50k turnover if weather is unfavorable
• Buy Plants from outside : If weather conditions are favorable(70% chance), Kathy would
make a turnover of 60K, while she makes only 40k turnover if weather is unfavorable

- What is the EMV (Growing Own) & EMV(Buy Plants)

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Sample Questions

- Which option should Kathy pick up?

PMP Numerical
Response
1. Critical Path Method (CPM)

2. Solution
Tpert = 12 + 4*(15) + 25 = 16.16

Page 72 of 80
Sample Questions

6
S.D = (Tp – To) = 13/6 = 2.16
6

Lower Higher

68% Confidence
16.16 -2.16 = 14 16.16+2.16 =18.32
(1 Sigma)
95% Confidence 16.16+2 *(2.16)
16.16 -2 *(2.16) = 11.84
(2 sigma) =20.48

3. Solution

4. B

5. Work Done…. 5000 *.4 = 2000 sq. ft.

EV = 2000/100 * 4 *100 = 8000
CV =EV – AC = 8000 -9000 = -1000 (Over Budget)

6. Profit = 150,000 – 140,000 = 10,000

Page 73 of 80
Sample Questions

Vendor gets = 10,000 (Fees) = 20% (Saving) = 10,000 + 2000 =

12000
Total Price paid = 140,000 + 12,000 = 152,000

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Sample Questions

7. Solution

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Sample Questions

Space For Solving Numerical

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Sample Questions

Space For Solving Numerical

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Sample Questions

Space For Solving Numerical

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Sample Questions

Space For Solving Numerical

Page 79 of 80
Sample Questions

Space For Solving Numerical

Page 80 of 80

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