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GR 9 SA2 Science Sample Paper 2024-25

The document is a sample question paper for the academic session 2024-2025 for Grade IX Science, consisting of 39 questions divided into three sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. Each section contains a mix of multiple-choice, short answer, and long answer questions, covering various scientific concepts and principles. The paper is designed for a maximum of 80 marks and has a duration of 3 hours.

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Yashita Kansal
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
42 views10 pages

GR 9 SA2 Science Sample Paper 2024-25

The document is a sample question paper for the academic session 2024-2025 for Grade IX Science, consisting of 39 questions divided into three sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. Each section contains a mix of multiple-choice, short answer, and long answer questions, covering various scientific concepts and principles. The paper is designed for a maximum of 80 marks and has a duration of 3 hours.

Uploaded by

Yashita Kansal
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 10

ACADEMIC SESSION, 2024 – 2025

SAMPLE PAPER
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT 2
SUBJECT: SCIENCE
GRADE: IX Max. Marks: 80
Date: Duration: 3 hours
Name of the Student…………………………………………………………
This question paper contains (10) pages
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections – A, B and C. Attempt all
the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some
questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION A – PHYSICS
1. (1)
One joule is equivalent to
a) 105 dyne b) 10 7 erg c) 103 N/m2 d)1000watt
2. What does the slope of the velocity-time graph give? (1)
a. speed b. velocity c. acceleration d. displacement

3. The following question consists of two statements- Assertion (A) and (1)
Reason (R). Answer the question selecting the suitable option given
below.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false.

d. A is false but R is true.

Assertion (A): The distance which compression or a rarefaction travels


per unit of time gives its wavelength.
Reason (R): Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional to
each other.

4. a) Define power. Mention its SI unit. (2)


b) Obtain an expression in terms of force and velocity

OR

a) Define kinetic energy.


b) Find the kinetic energy of the ball just before hitting the ground.
Assume that initially, the ball was at a height of 10m, and its mass
was 2Kg.

Page 1 of 10
5. (2)
A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz, sitting at a distance of 450 m
from the source of the sound. What is the time interval between
successive compressions from the source?
6. (2)
Define buoyant force. Mention its unit
How is it related to the density of a liquid?
7. The velocity time graph of a ball of mass 20g moving along a straight line on (3)
a level ground is given below. How much force does the ground exert on the
ball to bring it to rest?

8. State the Newton’s universal law of gravitation and hence define (3)
gravitational constant
b) Derive the relation between g and G

9. The displacement-time graph of a sound wave is given below. If the speed (3)
of the sound wave is 300 ms–1 in a given medium, Find the wavelength of
the sound wave

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10. (5)

Calculate the i) acceleration ii) retardation and the total distance


travelled by the body.
b) A car covers the first half the distance between two places at 40 km/h
another half at 60 km/h, the average speed of car
OR
a) A train starting from rest attains a velocity of 72 km/h in 5
minutes. Assuming that the acceleration is uniform, find the
acceleration and the distance travelled by train for attaining this
velocity.

b) State the law of conservation of momentum.


A man weighing 50kg runs along the rails with a velocity of
18km/h and jumps into a car of mass 1 quintal standing on the
rails. Calculate the velocity with which the car will start
travelling along the rails.

11. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. (Internal (4)
choice is provided in one of the sub-parts)

When an object is allowed to fall from higher level to a lower level, it


gains speed due to gravitational pull, that is it gains kinetic energy.
Therefore, in possessing height, a boy has the ability to convert its
height into kinetic energy, that is it possesses potential energy. The
sum of this kinetic energy and potential energy is its mechanical
energy and it is a constant during a free fall. The magnitude of the
gravitational potential energy is equivalent to the amount of work done
by the body.

A) What is the potential energy of a stone of mass 5 kg placed at a


height of 2 m above the ground?

Page 3 of 10
B) When an arrow is shot from a bow, it has kinetic energy. From
where does it get this kinetic energy?
C) A body of mass 2 kg is thrown up vertically with a kinetic energy
of 490 J. If the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2, find the
height at which the KE of the body becomes half of the original
value.

OR

D) A body of mass 10 kg is released from a height 10 m from the


ground. After sometime its kinetic energy becomes 450 J. At
what height will the object be during this time?

SECTION B – CHEMISTRY
12. Which of the following statements is not true about an atom? (1)

(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently

(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed

(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature

(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel
or touch

13. Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by (1)
dissolving

(a) iodine in potassium iodide

(b) iodine in vaseline

(c) iodine in water

(d) iodine in alcohol

14. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of ‘forces of attraction’ (1)
between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct
arrangement?

(a) Water, air, wind

(b) Air, sugar, oil

(c) Oxygen, water, sugar

(d) Salt, juice, air

15. In a sample of ethyl ethanoate (CH3COOC2H5) the two oxygen atoms have (1)

the same number of electrons but different number of neutrons. Which of

the following is the correct reason for it?

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(a) One of the oxygen atoms has gained electrons

(b) One of the oxygen atoms has gained two neutrons

(c) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes

(d) The two oxygen atoms are isobars.

16. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P which (1)
contains both X and Y; X + Y → P
X and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical
reactions. Which of the following concerning the species X, Y and P are
correct?
(i) P is a compound

(ii) X and Y are compounds

(iii) X and Y are elements

(iv) P has a fixed composition

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii),

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

17. The property to flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements (1)
is correct?

(a) Only gases behave like fluids

(b) Gases and solids behave like fluids

(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids

(d) Only liquids are fluids

18. Elements with valency 1 are (1)

(a) always metals

(b) always metalloids

(c) either metals or non-metals

(d) always non-metals

19. The following question consists of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (1)
(R). Answer the question selecting the suitable option given below.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

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c. A is true but R is false.

d. A is false but R is true.

Assertion: When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution placed


in a dark place the path of the beam becomes visible.
Reason: Light gets scattered by the colloidal particles.

20. A solution contains 60g of sugar in 480g of water. Calculate the (2)
concentration of solution in terms of mass percentage of the solution.

OR

110 g of salt is present in 550 g of solution. Calculate the concentration of


solution.

21. Write the molecular formulae for the following compounds using criss-cross (3)
rule.

(a) Copper bromide

(b) Aluminium nitrate

(c) Calcium phosphate

22. What would you observe when - (3)

(a) a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 60°C is allowed to


cool to room temperature.

(b) an aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness.

(c) a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly.

23. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. (Internal choice is (4)
provided in one of the sub-parts)

Before the discovery of subatomic particles, John Dalton came up with


Dalton’s atomic theory where he suggested that atoms are indivisible
particles. It explained atoms cannot be broken down into further smaller
particles. However, the discovery of subatomic particles disapproved the
postulates proposed in Dalton Atomic Theory.
The discovery of subatomic particles led to the search how the subatomic
particles are arranged in an atom. J.J. Thomson was the first and one of the
many scientists who proposed models for the structure of an atom. J.J.
Thomson discovered negatively charged particles by cathode ray tube
experiment in the year 1897.

A) Who proposed the first model of an atom?


B) Name the part of an atom discovered by Rutherford α-particles
scattering experiment.
C) List the observations of Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment.

OR

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D) Illustrate Thomson’s atomic model.

24. a) Calculate the atomic mass of copper if copper-63 is 69.17% abundant and (5)
copper-65 is 30.83% abundant.

b) What information do you get from the following figures about the atomic
number, mass number and valency of atoms X, Y and Z? Give your answer in
a tabular form.

SECTION C – BIOLOGY
25. The site of detoxification in liver cells is - (1)
a) SER
b) Lysosome
c) Ribosome
d) RER
26. Animal husbandry is the scientific management of (1)
i) Animal breeding iii) culture of animals
ii) Animal livestock iv) rearing of animals

a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
27. The major function of the Golgi apparatus is (1)
a) Secretion
b) Detoxification
c) Fermentation
d) Translocation
28. A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the sideways (1)
conduction of water in the branches is
a) Collenchyma
b) Xylem parenchyma
c) Xylem vessels
d) Parenchyma

Page 7 of 10
29. Four students marked an onion epidermal cell which they had observed (1)
under a high-powered microscope as shown below. Identify the correctly
labelled diagram.

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
30. Lignified, narrow, elongated and dead cells are found in –
a) Parenchyma
b) Phloem
c) Collenchyma
d) Sclerenchyma
31. Which of the following are the three primary nutrients needed for plant
growth?
a) Calcium, sulphur and magnesium.
b) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
c) Zinc, boron and copper.
d) Calcium, zinc, copper.
32. The following question consists of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (1)
(R). Answer the question selecting the suitable option given below.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false.

d. A is false but R is true.

Assertion(A) : Epidermal cells on the aerial parts of the plant often secrete
waxy, water resistant layer on their outer surface.
Reason (R) : This aids in the protection against loss of water, mechanical
injury and invasion of fungi.

Page 8 of 10
33. Assertion (A): Crop rotation is the practice of growing two or more varieties of (1)
crops in the same region in sequential seasons.
Reason(R): Cauliflower and Chilli plants grown together in alternating rows
are examples of crop rotation.
34. Study the following diagram of simple permanent tissue and the answer the (2)
following questions:

a) Identity the tissue in diagram given above.


b) State two parts of a plant wherein this tissue can be identified?
c) How does the presence of this tissue in plants benefit it?

35. “Shorter the duration of the crop from sowing to harvesting, the more (2)
economical is the variety”. Justify the statement with 2 valid points.
36. Observe the diagram and answer the questions given below: (3)

a) Identify the cell organelle given below and the parts labelled X and Y.
b) State two unique properties of this organelle that sets it apart from
the others.
c) What is the energy currency of the cell? How does the structure of X
influence the currency generation?

37. What is organic farming? Describe the process and state 2 advantages of this. (3)
OR
What are the various irrigation methods employed in India? Describe in
details any 2 of these methods with their benefits.

Page 9 of 10
38. a) Epidermal tissues are found in all parts of the plant cell. How does the (5)
epidermal cell in roots differ from that of the leaves?

b) What are the different types of fisheries? Explain with examples

c) How do deficiency of nutrients affect crops?

39. Read the text carefully and answer the following questions : (Internal choice is (4)
provided in one of the sub-parts)

All around the world there is a practice of keeping or rearing, caring and
management of honey bees on a large scale for obtaining honey and wax. The
place where bees are raised is called an apiary. Bee-keeping requires low
investment and generates additional income for farmers along with traditional
agriculture.
Following are the honey bee varieties that are used for bee-keeping :

a) What is the scientific term used for rearing of bees? Why should bee
keeping be done in good pasturage?
b) How is bee keeping beneficial for the ecosystem?
c) In what way is this enterprise a positive boost to the farmer?
OR
d) What is the advantage of breeding exotic varieties over indigenous ones?

Page 10 of 10

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