Contact Number:

NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct

9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

4 The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s.

PHYSICS The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due
1 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to
cross the river along the shortest path, the angle at which
are x = 5t − 2t and y = 10t respectively, where x and
2

he should make his strokes with respect to the north is

y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the
given by:
particle at t = 2 s is:
1. 45 west of north
∘
2. 30 west of north
∘

1. 5^i m/s 2
2. −4^i m/s 2

3. 0 west of north
∘
4. 60 west of north
∘

3. ^
−8 j m/s
2
4. 0

5 A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional

2 The force F acting on a particle of mass m is
motion such that its velocity varies according to
indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The v(x) = βx where β and n are constants and x is the −2n

change in momentum of the particle over the time position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle
interval from 0 to 8 s is: as a function of x is given by:
1. −2nβ x 2. −2nβ x 2 −2n−1 2 −4n−1

3. −2β x
2 −2n+1
4. −2nβ x
2 −4n+1

6 A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined rough

surface AC (as shown in the figure) of coefficient of
friction μ. If g = 10 ms–1, the net force (in N) on the
block will be:

1. 24 N-s
2. 20 N-s
3. 12 N-s
4. 6 N-s

3 Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Gravitational constant (G) (i) [L
2
T
−2
] 1. 10√3
2. zero
(b) Gravitational potential energy (ii) −1 3 −2
[M L T ]
3. 10
(c) Gravitational potential (iii) [LT
−2
] 4. 20
(d) Gravitational intensity (iv) [M L
2
T
−2
]
7 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary
escalator in time t . On other days, if she remains
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1

stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator

1. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) takes her up in time t . The time taken by her to walk
2

2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) upon the moving escalator will be:
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) t1 t2 t1 t2
1. 2.
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) t2 − t1 t2 + t1

t1 + t2
3. t1 − t2 4.
2

Page: 1
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct
9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

8 The position-time (x t)- graph for positive 11 A ball is projected from point A with velocity 20

acceleration is: ms–1 at an angle 60 to the horizontal direction. At the

∘

highest point B of the path (as shown in figure), the

velocity v (in ms–1) of the ball will be:
1. 2.

3. 4.

1. 20 2. 10√3

3. zero 4. 10
9 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The
road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction 12 In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total
between the tyre of the car and the road is μ . The acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
s

maximum safe velocity on this road is: direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given
μ + tan θ s instant of time. The speed of the particle is:
1. √gR( )
1 − μs tan θ

g μs + tan θ
2. √ R
( )
1 − μs tan θ

g μs + tan θ
3. √ 2
( )
R 1 − μs tan θ

μs + tan θ
4. √gR 2
( )
1 − μs tan θ

10 Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants 1. 4.5 m/s

kP and k , such that k > k . They are stretched, first
Q P Q
2. 5.0 m/s
by the same amount (case a), then by the same force 3. 5.7 m/s
(case b). The work done by the springs W and W are 4. 6.2 m/s
P Q

related as, in case (a) and case (b), respectively:

13 If F = αt
2
− βt is the magnitude of the force
1. W = W ; W > W
P Q P Q
acting on a particle at an instant t then the time, at which
2. W = W ; W = W
P Q P Q the force becomes constant, is (where α and β are
3. WP > WQ ; WP < WQ constants):
4. WP < WQ ; WP < WQ
1.
β
2.
β

α 2α

2β
3. 4. zero
α

Page: 2
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct
9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

14 The angular acceleration of a body, moving along 17 A particle moves so that its position vector is given
the circumference of a circle, is: by, r→ = cos ωt x^ + sin ωt y ^, where ω is a constant.

1. along the axis of rotation Which of the following is true?

2. along the radius, away from centre 1. The velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r→.
3. along the radius towards the centre The velocity is perpendicular to r→ and acceleration is
2.
4. along the tangent to its position directed towards to origin.
The velocity is parallel to r→ and acceleration is
3.
15 A massless and inextensible string connects two directed away from the origin.
blocks A and B of masses 3m and m, respectively. The 4. The velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular
whole system is suspended by a massless spring, as to r→.
shown in the figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of
A and B immediately after the string is cut, are 18 A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal
respectively: surface (coefficient of friction = μ). A horizontal force is
applied to the body, but it does not move. The resultant
of normal reaction and the frictional force acting on the
object is given by F→ where:
1. |F→| = mg + μmg
2. |F→| = μmg
3. |F→| ≤ mg√1 + μ 2

4. |F→| = mg

19 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is

g
1. ,g 2. g, g ^ ^
2 i + 3j m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at the point B is:
3
g g g
3. , 4. g,
3 3 3

16 In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c and d are

measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows:
3 2
a b
P =
cd
Percentage error in P is:
1. 10% 1. ^ ^
−2 i + 3 j 2. ^ ^
2 i − 3j

2. 7% 3. ^ ^
2 i + 3j 4. ^ ^
−2 i − 3 j

3. 4%
4. 14%

Page: 3
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct 9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

20 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined 23 The position of a particle is given by;
wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The r→(t) = 4t^i + 2t ^j + 5k,
^
where t is in seconds and r in
2

wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The metres. Find the magnitude and direction of the velocity
relation between a and θ for the block to remain v(t), at t = 1 s, with respect to the x-axis.
stationary on the wedge is:
1. 4√2 ms , 45
−1 ∘

2. 4√2 ms , 60
−1 ∘

3. 3√2 ms , 30
−1 ∘

4. 3√2 ms , 45
−1 ∘

24 A particle has initial velocity ^ ^

(2 i + 3 j) and

acceleration ^ ^
(0. 3 i + 0. 2 j) . The magnitude of velocity
g
1. a = after 10 s will be: 1. 9√2 units
cosec θ
g 2. 5√2 units
2. a = 3. 5 units
sin θ

3. a = g cos θ 4. 9 units
4. a = g tan θ
25 The velocity (v) -time (t) plot of the motion of a
21 A rigid ball of mass strikes a rigid wall at ∘
M 60 body is shown below:
and gets reflected without loss of speed, as shown in the
figure. The value of the impulse imparted by the wall on
the ball will be:

The acceleration (a) -time (t) graph that best suits this
motion is:

1. 2.
1. Mv 2. 2M v

Mv Mv
3. 4.
2 3

22 The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely

3. 4.
falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second is:
1. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
2. 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
3. 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
4. 1 : 3 : 5 : 7

Page: 4
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct 9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

26 A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius below:

(0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The (a) (b) (c) (d)
maximum possible percentage error in the measurement 1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
of density will nearly be: 2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
1. 1.4% 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2. 1.2% 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. 1.3%
4. 1.6%
30 If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is equal
27 The area of a rectangular field (in m ) of length to the magnitude of the difference between the two
2

vectors, the angle between these vectors is?

55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value, 1. 90 ∘

for correct significant digits is: 2. 45 ∘

1. 14 × 10 2
2. 138 × 10 3. 180
1
∘

3. 1382 4. 1382.5 4. 0 ∘

28 A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a 31 Taking into account the significant figures, what is
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one the value of (9.99 m − 0.0099 m)?
revolution. If this particle were projected with the same 1. 9.98 m
speed at an angle θ to the horizontal, the maximum 2. 9.980 m
height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, 3. 9.9 m
θ is then given by: 4. 9.9801 m
1/2 1/2
2 2

1. 2. 32 Given below are two statements:

π R 2gT
−1 −1
θ = sin ( ) θ = sin ( )
2 2
gT π R

2
1/2 1/2
A standing bus suddenly accelerates. If
3. −1
gT
4. −1
2
π R
there was no friction between the feet of
θ = cos ( ) θ = cos ( )
Assertion (A):
a passenger and the floor of the bus, the
2 2
π R gT

passenger would move back.

29 When a body of mass m just begins to slide as In the absence of friction, the floor of
shown, match List-I with List-II: Reason (R): the bus would slip forward under the
List-I List-II feet of the passenger.
(a) Normal reaction (i) P
(b) Frictional force (f ) (ii) Q 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
s

2. (A) is False but (R) is True.

(c) Weight (mg) (iii) R
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
(d) mgsinθ (iv) S 3.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).

33 A screw gauge has the least count of 0.01 mm and

there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of
the screw gauge is:
1. 0.25 mm 2. 0.5 mm
Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. 1.0 mm 4. 0.01 mm

Page: 5
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct
9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

34 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same 1. 18 m/s and 22.4 m/s 2. 23 m/s and 22.4 m/s
time in a straight line and their positions are represented 3. 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s 4. 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s

by; x (t) = at + bt and x (t) = f t − t . At what time

p
2
Q
2

do the cars have the same velocity? 37 A block of mass m is moving with initial velocity u
1.
a−f
2.
a+f
towards a stationary spring of stiffness constant k
1+b 2(b−1)
attached to the wall as shown in the figure. Maximum
3.
a+f
4.
f −a
compression of the spring is:
2(b+1) 2(1+b)
(The friction between the block and the surface is
negligible).
35 In the diagram shown, the normal reaction force
between 2 kg and 1 kg blocks is:
(Consider the surface to be smooth and g = 10 ms–2 )

m m
1. u√
k
2. 4u√
k

m 1
3. 2u√
k
4. u√
k

m
2

38 The potential energy of a long spring when

stretched by 2 cm is U . If the spring is stretched by
8 cm, the potential energy stored in it will be:

1. 16U 2. 2U

3. 4U 4. 8U

1. 25 N
2. 39 N 39 The potential energy of a particle in a force field is
3. 6 N A B

4. 10 N U = − where A and B are positive constants and

2
r r

r is the distance of the particle from the centre of the

36 An object of mass g initially at rest is acted field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle
500

upon by a variable force whose x-component varies with is:

x in the manner shown. The velocities of the object at B B

the points x = 8 m and x = 12 m would have the 1. A

2.
2A
respective values of nearly: 2A A
3. 4.
B B

40 A particle moves with a velocity

ms
−1
^ ^ ^
(5 i − 3 j + 6k) horizontally under the action of a
constant force ^
N. The instantaneous
^ ^
(10 i + 10 j + 20k)

power supplied to the particle is:

1. 200 W 2. zero
3. 100 W 4. 140 W

Page: 6
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct 9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

41 A particle with total energy E is moving in a 45 A gravitational field is present in a region, and a
potential energy region U (x). The motion of the particle mass is shifted from A to B through different paths as
is restricted to the region where: shown. If W , W and W represent the work done by 1 2 3

1. U (x) < E the gravitational force along their respective paths, then:
2. U (x) = 0
3. U (x) ≤ E
4. U (x) > E

42 A uniform force of ^ ^
(3 i + j) newton acts on a
particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced
from the position (2^i + k)
^
metre to the position 1. W1 = W2 = W3 2. W1 > W2 > W3

3. W1 > W3 > W2 4. W1 < W2 < W3

^ ^ ^
(4 i + 3 j − k) metre. The work done by the force on the
particle is:
1. 6 J
2. 13 J
CHEMISTRY
3. 15 J 46 Which of the following series of transitions in the
4. 9 J spectrum of hydrogen atoms falls in the visible region?
1. Brackett series
43 The object A has half the kinetic energy as that of 2. Lyman series
the object B. The object B has half the mass as that of 3. Balmer series
the object A. The object A speeds up by 1 ms and 4. Paschen series
−1

then has the same kinetic energy as that of the object B.

The initial speed of the object A is: 47 The element expected to form the largest ion to
(Take √2 ≅ 1.4) achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is:
1. 0.5 ms
−1
1. Sodium(Na) 2. Oxygen(O)
2. 1 ms
−1
3. Fluorine(F) 4. Nitrogen(N)
3. 2.5 ms
−1

4. 4.8 ms
−1 48 A 1 M solution of a compound 'X' has a density of
1.25 g/mL. If the molar mass of compound X is 85 g,
44 Two particles of masses m and m move with what is the molality (m) of the solution?
1 2

initial velocities u and u respectively. On collision, 1.

1 2
0.705 m 2. 1.208 m
one of the particles gets excited to a higher level, after 3. 1.165 m 4. 0.858 m
absorbing energy E. If the final velocities of particles
are v and v , then we must have:
1 2
49 Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an
1. m u + m u − E = m v + m v
2
1 1
2
2 2
2
1 1
ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
2
2 2

configuration of (X) is 1s 2s 2p , the simplest formula 2 2 3

2. m u + m u = m v + m v
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2

for this compound is:

1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2
2 2 2 2

3. m u + m u − E = m v + m v 1. Mg X
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 3
2 2 2 2 2

4. m u + m u + E = m v + m v
1 2 2 1 2 2 12. MgX
2 2 1 2 2
2

3. Mg X
2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2

4. Mg X 3 2

Page: 7
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct 9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

50 The mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% 55 Match List-I with List-II:
pure limestone as per the equation given below is: List-II
heat List-I
(Corresponding
CaCO3 ( s) −−
−→ CaO(s) + CO2 ( g) (Quantities)
Values)
1. 1.32 g 2. 1.12 g
(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP (i) 0.2 mole
3. 1.76 g 4. 2.64 g
12.022 × 1022 molecules 23
(b) (ii) 12.044 × 10
51 Select the correct statements from the following: of H2O molecules
Atoms of all elements are composed of two (c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g
A:
fundamental particles. (d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP
B: The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10 −31
kg. .
(Given - Molar volume of a gas at STP - 22.4 L)
All the isotopes of a given element show same Choose the correct answer from the options given
C:
chemical properties. below:
Protons and electrons are collectively known as (a) (b) (c) (d)
D:
nucleons. 1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Dalton's atomic theory regarded the atom as an 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
E:
ultimate particle of matter. 3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
1. B, C and E only 2. A, B and C only
3. C, D and E only 4. A and E only 56 What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50
mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of
52 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same
5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na=
number of electrons. In which order do their radii 23, Cl = 35.5)
increase? 1. 28 g
1. Ar < K+ < Ca2+ 2. 3.5 g
2. Ca2+ < Ar < K+ 3. 7 g
2+ +
3. Ca < K < Ar 4. 14 g
4. K+ < Ar < Ca2+ For the second-period elements, the correct
57
53 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g 1. Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
of magnesium oxide. 2. Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
The percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the 3. Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
sample is: 4. Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(Atomic weight of Mg=24)
1. 75 2. 96 58 Calculate the energy corresponding to light of
3. 60 4. 84 wavelength 45 nm:
(Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js:
54 A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The 15
wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by 1. 6.67 x 10 J
the transmitter is: [speed of light, c = 3. 0 × 10 ms ]
8 −1 2. 6.67 x 1011 J
1. 2192 m 2. 21.92 cm 3. 4.42 x 10-15 J
3. 219.3 m 4. 219.2 m 4. 4.42 x 10-18 J

Page: 8
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct 9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

59 An organic compound contains 80 % (by wt.) 64 Incorrect statement among the following is:
carbon and the remaining percentage of hydrogen. The h

empirical formula of this compound is: 1. The uncertainty principle isΔx ⋅ Δp ≥

4π
[Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
1. CH3 2. CH4 2. stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
3. CH 4. CH2 symmetry, and a more balanced arrangement.
The energy of the 2s orbital is less than the energy of
3.
the 2p orbital in the case of hydrogen-like atoms.
60 The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in 3s
h
orbital are : De-Broglie's wavelength is given byλ = , where
1. 0 and 2, respectively 2. 1 and 0, respectively 4. mv
m= mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the
3. 3 and 0, respectively 4. 0 and 1, respectively particle.

61 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a 65 Isotope of an element contains 19.23% more
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and by neutrons as compared to protons. The correct element
how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16) along with its mass number is:
1. Mg, 0.16 g 2. O , 0.16 g
2 (Given Atomic number Fe : 26, Co : 27 )
3. Mg, 0.44 g 4. O , 0.28 g
2 1. Fe 56

2. Fe 57

62 Match Column I with Column II. 3. Co 57

Column-I Column-II 4. Co 60

(a) Copper (i) Non-metal

66 In which of the following options, the order of
(b) Fluorine (ii) Transition metal
arrangement does not agree with the variation of the
(c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid property indicated against it?
(d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid 1. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
I < Br < F < Cl (increasing negative electron gain
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2.
enthalpy)
1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 3. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 4. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ <F– (increasing ionic size)
3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 67 The number of water molecules are maximum in:
1. 18 molecules of water
63 Match List-I with List-II: 2. 1.8 g of water
List-I List-II 3. 18 g of water
(quantum number) (Orbital) 4. 18 moles of water
(A) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (I) 2s
(B) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (II) 3s 68 Arrange the following elements in increasing order
(C) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (III) 2p of electronegativity N, O, F, C, Si.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (IV) 3d
below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. Si < C < O < N < F
below: 2. O < F < N < C < Si
(A) (B) (C) (D) 3. F < O < N < C < Si
1. (III) (IV) (I) (II) 4. Si < C < N < O < F
2. (IV) (III) (I) (II)
3. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
4. (III) (IV) (II) (I)

Page: 9
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct 9667591930 /
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69 Which of the following pair is correctly matched? 73 According to the law of photochemical equivalence,
1. Basic oxides - In O , K O, SnO
2 3 2 2 the energy absorbed (in ergs/mole) is given as:
2. Neutral oxides - CO, NO , N O 2 2 (h = 6.62 × 10–27 ergs, c = 3 × 1010 cm s–1, NA = 6.02 ×
3. Acidic oxides - Mn O , SO , TeO
1023 mol–1)
2 7 2 3

4. Amphoteric oxides -BeO, Ga O , GeO 2 3 8 5

1. 1.196×10
2. 2.859×10

λ λ

70 In an experiment, it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M 3. 2.859×10

16

4. 1.196×10
16

solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of λ λ

AgNO3. Which of the following will be the formula of

74 The number of d -electrons in Fe2+ (atomic number
the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element
other than chlorine)? Z = 26) is different from the number of:
1. X2Cl2 1. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
2. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
2. XCl2 3. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
3. XCl4 4. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
4. X2Cl
75 Given below are two statements:
71 The formation of the oxide ion O2– (g), from the The value of wave function, Ψ depends
oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an Statement I: upon the coordinates of the electron in
endothermic step as shown below, the atom.
O(g)+e
− −
→ O ; Δ H =– 141 kJ mol
f
0
The probability of finding an electron at
−1

−
O (g)+e
−
→ O
2−
(g); Δ H = +780 kJ mol
Statement
0 II: a point within an atom is proportional to
−1
f
the orbital wave function.
Thus, the process of formation of O2– in the gas phase is
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
unfavorable even though O2– is isoelectronic with neon. answer from the options given below:
It is due to the fact that: 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
1.
achieving noble gas configuration.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
O – ion has a comparatively smaller size than the
2. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
oxygen atom.
3. Oxygen is more electronegative. 76 Match List-I with List-II:
Addition of electrons in oxygen results in a large size
4. List-I List-II
of the ion.
Elements Atomic radii (pm)
(a) Oxygen (O) (i) 88
72 4.74 g of an inorganic compound contains 0.39g of
(b) Carbon (C ) (ii) 74
K, 0.27 g of Al, 1.92 g of SO radicals and 2.16 g of 4
(c) Boron (B) (iii) 66
−1
water. If molar mass of the compound is 948 g mol ,
the molecular formula of the inorganic compound is: (d) Nitrogen ( N) (iv) 77
Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. KAl(SO ) ⋅ 12H O
4 2 2
below:
2. K Al (SO ) ⋅ 12H O
2 2 4 6 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 24H O
2 4 2 4 3 1. 2 (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 12H O
2 6 2 4 3 2. 2 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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77 Which ion is isoelectronic with Be²⁺? 82 Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the
1. H +
correct order in which the bond order is increasing in
2. Li +
them.
3. N a +
1. O2– < NO < C22– < He2+
4. M g 2+

2. C22– < He2+ < O2– < NO

78 The energy of electron in the ground state (n = 1) 3. He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–
for He ion is xJ , then that for an electron in n = 2 state 4. NO < O – < C 2– < He +
+

2 2 2
for Be ion in J is :
3+

1. −
x
2. −4x
83 A molecule that cannot exist is:
9

4
1. Li 2 2. C2

3. − x 4. −x 3. O 2 4. He2
9

79 The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 84 Which of the compounds given below will exhibit a
175
Lurespectively, are: linear structure?
71
1. NO2
1. 104, 71 and 71
2. 71, 71 and 104 2. HOCl
3. 175, 104 and 71 3. O3
4. 71, 104 and 71 4. N2O

80 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 85 The potential energy (y) curve for H2 formation as a
mL of its solution. The concentration of the solution is: function of internuclear distance (x) of the H atoms is
1. 0.01 M shown below.
2. 0.001 M
3. 0.1 M
4. 0.02 M

81 Match Column I (Molecule) with Column II (Bond

enthalpy) and mark the correct option:

Column-I Column-II
(Molecule) (Bond enthalpy) (kJ mol
−1
) The bond energy of H2 is:
( c − a )
A. HCl I. 435.8 1. (b – a) 2.
B. N 2 II. 498 2

( b − a )
C. H 2 III. 946.0 3. 4. (c – a)
D. O 2 IV. 431.0 2

1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 86 Which of the following is a polar molecule?

2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 1. SF4 2. SiF4
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 3. XeF4 4. BF3
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

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87 Match molecules in List I with the Corresponding

shape in List II:
BIOLOGY
List-I List-II 91 Examine the figure given below and select the right
(Molecules) (Shape) option giving all the four parts (A, B, C and D) correctly
(a) NH3 (i) Square pyramidal identified:
(b) ClF3 (ii) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) PCl5 (iii) Trigonal pyramidal
(d) BrF5 (iv) T-shape

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) A B C D
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 1. Antheridiophore Male thallus Globule Roots
Female Gemma
2. Archegoniophore Rhizoids
88 BF3 is a planar and an electron deficient compound. thallus cup
Hybridization and number of electrons around the Female
3. Archegoniophore Bud Foot
central atom, respectively are: thallus
1. sp2 and 6 4. Seta Sporophyte Protonema Rhizoids
2. sp2 and 8
3. sp3 and 4
92 Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime
moulds are included in the kingdom:
4. sp3 and 6
1. Protista 2. Fungi
89 During change of O to O ion, the electron adds in 3. Animalia 4. Monera
−
2 2

which one of the following orbitals?

1. π orbital 93 A student observed algae with chlorophyll 'a', 'd',
2. σ* orbital and phycoerythrin. It should belong to:
3. σ orbital 1. Phaeophyta 2. Rhodophyta
4. π* orbital 3. Chlorophyta 4. Bacillariophyta

90 Which of the following species contains three bond 94 Biosystematics aims at:
pairs and one lone pair around the central atom? The classification of organisms based on broad
1. H O 1.
2
morphological characters
2. BF 3
Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing
3. NH
−
2.
2 their relationships
4. PCl 3
The classification of organisms based on their
evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny
3.
on the totality of various parameters from all fields of
studies
Identification and arrangement of organisms on the
4.
basis of cytological characteristics

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95 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found 101 The asexual spores of deuteromycetes are:
inside vegetative part of: 1. Aplanospores
1. Cycas 2. Equisetum 2. Conidia
3. Psilotum 4. Pinus 3. Zoospores
4. Basidiospores
96 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
102 Which of the following statements about viruses is
1. Phylogeny 2. Ancestry
correct ?
3. Palaeontology 4. Ontogeny 1. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
2. Viruses possess their own metabolic system
97 The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the 3. Viruses are facultative parasites
production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, 4. Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics
include the:
1. Eubacteria 103 Match List-I with List-II:
2. Halophiles List-I List-II
3. Thermoacidophiles
(a) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss
4. Methanogens
(b) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyte
98 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial (c) Selaginella (iii) Alga
nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by 'Z': (d) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm
X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - Carolus
1. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Linnaeus
X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - R.H. below:
2. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Whittaker
X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - Carolus 1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
3. 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Linnaeus
X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - R.H. 3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4.
Whittaker 4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

99 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent 104 Select the correct combination of the statements
a significant step toward evolution of seed habit (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms:
because: Methanogens are archaebacteria that produce
(a)
Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like methane in marshy areas
1.
seeds. Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga that fixes
(b)
2. Female gametophyte lacks archegonia. atmospheric nitrogen
Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize
3. (c)
surrounded by seed coat. cellulose from glucose
Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive
4. (d)
retained on parent sporophyte. without oxygen
The correct statements are:
100 Which arrangement is in correct ascending order: 1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (b), (c) and (d)
1. Species < genus < order < family 3. (a), (b) and (d) 4. (b) and (c)
2. Genus < species < family < order
3. Order < family < genus < species
4. Species < genus < family < order

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105 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal 111 Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in
rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules humans are due to infection by__________________ .
of nomenclature? 1. Bacterium
When written by hand, the names are to be 2. Virus
1. 3. Viroid
underlined
2. Biological names can be written in any language 4. Prion
The first word in a biological name represents the
3.
genus name, and the second is a specific epithet 112 There exists a close association between the alga
4. The names are written in Latin and are italicized and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus:
1. Provides food for the alga
106 House fly belongs to _______ family. Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the
2.
alga
1. Cyprinidae 2. Hominidae
3. Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
3. Calliphoridae 4. Muscidae
4. Releases oxygen for the alga
107 The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans
113 Match List-I with List-II
in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are the ones categorized as List-I List-II
1. Cyanobacteria A. Microscopic angiosperm I. Salvinia
2. Archaebacteria B. Tallest gymnosperm II. Marchantia
3. Chemosynthetic autotrophs C. Thalloid bryophyte III. Sequoia
4. Heterotrophic bacteria D. Heterosporous pteridophyte IV. Wolffia
Choose the correct answer from the options given
108 Select the correctly written scientific name of below:
Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus: 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
1. Mangifera Indica 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. Mangifera indica Car. Linn. 3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. Mangifera indica Linn. 4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. Mangifera indica
114 Floridean starch has structure similar to:
109 Moss peat is used as a packing material for 1. Amylopectin and glycogen
sending flowers and live plants to distant places because: 2. Mannitol and algin
1. it is easily available 3. Laminarin and cellulose
2. it is hygroscopic 4. Starch and cellulose
3. it reduces transpiration
4. it serves as a disinfectant 115 Select the wrong statement.
1. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.
110 Which classes of algae possess pigment
2. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively?
‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of
1. Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae 3.
diatoms.
2. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3. Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae 4. Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
4. Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae

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116 Match List -I with List-II: 121 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In
List - I List - II which one of the options all the four parts A, B, C and D
a. Cedrus (i) Pteridophyte are correct –
b. Adiantum (ii) Gymnosperm
c. Sphagnum (iii) Liverwort
d. Marchantia (iv) Moss
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
a. b. c. d.
1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

117 Viroids differ from viruses in having

1. DNA molecules with protein coat Options:
2. DNA molecules without protein coat A B C D
3. RNA molecules with protein coat 1. Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres
4. RNA molecules without protein coat
2. Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres
118 In oogamy, fertilization involves: 3. Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath
A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile 4. Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar
1.
male gamete
A large non-motile female gamete and a small non- 122 Match List I with List II:
2. List I List II
motile male gamete
A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile Organisms Mode of Nutrition
3. A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic
male gamete
A small non-motile female gamete and a large motile B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic
4.
male gamete C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic
Switching between photosynthetic
D. Plasmodium IV.
119 Pick up the wrong statement. and heterotrophic mode
1. Cell wall is absent in Animalia.
Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes Choose the correct answer from the options given
2. below:
of nutrition
1. A-III, B-IV, C- II, D- I
3. Some fungi are edible
2. A-IV, B-II, C- I, D- III
4. Nuclear membrane is present in Monera. 3. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
4. A-IV, B-II, C- III, D- I
120 Choose the wrong statement:
Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical
1.
genetics
2. Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
3. Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
4. Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics

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123 Match List - I with List - II 129 Which one of the following structures is haploid in
List - I List - II its ploidy level?
(a) Puccinia (i) Parasitic fungus on mustard 1. Primary Endospore Nucleus
2. Microspore Mother cell
(b) Neurospora (ii) Dead substrates
3. Protonemal cell of a moss
(c) Saprophytes (iii) Wheat rust 4. Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot
(d) Albugo (iv) Biochemical and Genetic Work
Choose the correct answer from the option given below : 130 Which of the following statements is incorrect
(a) (b) (c) (d) about gymnosperms?
1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 1. They are heterosporous
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 2. Male and female gametophytes are free-living
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 3. Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
4. Their seeds are not covered
4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
131 Identify the fungi which do not belong to the group
124 Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without
of other fungi among the following:
fungal association. This is because:
1. Sac-fungi 2. Puffballs
1. its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination.
2. its embryo is immature. 3. Mushrooms 4. Bracket Fungi
3. it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.
4. it has very hard seed coat. 132 Select the wrong statement :
Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or
125 Which one of the following animals is correctly 1. behaviour
matched with its particular named taxonomic category? In Oomycetes, female gamete is smaller and motile,
2.
1. Tiger - tigris, the species while male gamete is larger and non-motile
2. Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and
3. Humans - Primata, the family 3.
anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
4. Housefly - Musca, an order Isogametes are similar in structure, function and
4.
behaviour
126 Which one of the following is considered
important in the development of seed habit? 133 Which one of the following matches is correct?
1. Dependent sporophyte 2. Heterospory
Sexual reproduction
3. Halplontic life cycle 4. Free-living gametophyte 1. Alternaria Deuteromycetes
absent
Reproduction by
127 Which of the following taxonomic category is less 2. Mucor
Conjugation
Ascomycetes
general in characters as compared to the taxonomic 3. Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes
category ‘Genus’?
4. Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes
1. Species 2. Division
3. Class 4. Family 134 Select the correct statement:
The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to
128 In ferns, Meiosis takes place at the time of: 1.
extremes of climate
1. Spore formation
Gymnosperms are both homosporous and
2. Spore germination 2.
heterosporous
3. Gamete formation
4. Antheridia and archegonia formation 3. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
4. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

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135 Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which C. Housefly

of the following group? D. Tapeworm
1. Fungi E. Earthworm
2. Animalia Choose the correct answer from the options given
3. Monera below:
4. Plantae 1. A, B and D only
2. C and D only
Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs of 3. B, D and E only
136
4. A, C and E only
cockroach:
List I List II 140 Which one of the following pairs of animals are
(a) Crop (i) grinding the food particles similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated
(b) Proventriculus (ii) secretion of digestive juice against them?
removal of nitrogenous 1. Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus– Viviparity
(c) Hepatic caecae (iii)
waste 2. Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart
Malpighian 3. Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
(d) (iv) storage of food
tubules Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded
Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. (poikilothermal)
below:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 141 Which of the following animals has three
1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) chambered heart?
2. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 1. Scoliodon 2. Hippocampus
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 3. Chelone 4. Pteropus
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
142 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
137 Which one of the following categories of animals, electric current is:
is correctly described with no single exception in it? 1. Pristis 2. Torpedo
All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered 3. Trygon 4. Scoliodon
1.
heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal).
All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an 143 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
2.
operculum on each side.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
3. All sponges are marine and have collared cells. All vertebrates are chordates but all
All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm Assertion (A): chordates are not vertebrates.
4.
for breathing. Notochord is replaced by vertebral
Reason (R):
column in the adult vertebrates.
138 Identify the phylum where the body cavity is not In the light of the above statements, choose the most
lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as appropriate answer from the options given below:
scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm : 1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
1. Cnidaria
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
2. Platyhelminthes 2.
(A).
3. Mollusca
4. Aschelminthes Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly
3.
explain (A).
139 Given below is a list of some sexually reproducing 4. (A) is True but (R) is False.
animals. Select the hermaphrodite animals from the list.
A. Cockroach
B. Leech

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144 Which of the following is/are present in female 148 Choose the correct statement about a muscular
cockroach? tissue:
A. Collateral gland Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and found in
B. Mushroom gland 1.
parallel bundles.
C. Spermatheca Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle cells to
D. Anal style 2.
contract as a unit.
E. Phallic gland
The walls of blood vessels are made up of columnar
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 3.
epithelium.
given below:
1. B and D only 4. Smooth muscles are multinucleated and involuntary
2. B and E only
3. A only 149 Given below are two statements:
4. A and C only In cockroaches, the forewings are transparent and
I:
prothoracic in origin.
145 Air bladder is found in: In cockroaches, the hind wings are opaque, leathery
II:
1. Osteichthyes 2. Aves and mesothoracic in origin.
3. Cyclostomata 4. Chondrichthyes In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
146 Match the following columns and select the correct 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
option.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Column I Column II 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
a. 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon
b. Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes 150 In the following diagram of alimentary canal of
c. Air bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes cockroach, identify the labels A, B, C and D
d. Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes respectively.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

147 Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(Cockroach) (Term Used)
A. Metamorphosis I. Ommatidia
B. Brain II. Paurometabolous A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D-
1.
C. Vision III. Spiracles Hepatic caeca
Supra oesophageal A-Oesophagus, B-Crop, C-salivary glands, D-
D. Respiration IV. 2.
ganglion Hepatic caeca
Choose the correct answer from the options given A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caeca, D-
3.
below: Malpighian tubules
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-Gizzard, B-Hepatic caeca, C-Malpighian tubules,
4.
2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II D- Cilia
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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151 The diagram given below shows the germs layer. 155 Which one of the following statements about all
The animals having structures shown in the figures A the four - Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin, Penguin - is
and B are respectively called correct?
Leech is a freshwater form while all others are
1.
marine.
Spongilla has special collar cells called choanocytes,
2.
not found in the remaining three.
3. All are bilaterally symmetrical.
Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three
4.
are poikilothermic.

156 Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias
Diploblastic, Triploblastic, B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon
1. 2. C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
Triploblastic Diploblastic
Diploblastic, Triploblastic, D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis
3. 4. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Diploblastic Triploblastic
below:
152 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of 1. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
2. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
1. Mollusca and chordata
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
2. Platyhelminthes and arthropoda
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
3. Echinodermata and annelida
4. Annelida and arthropoda
157 The Cockroach is:
153 Choose the correct statements : 1. Ammonotelic only
2. Uricotelic only
(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs 3. Ureotelic only
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones 4. Ureotelic and Uricotelic
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood cells
(d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats 158 Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
(e) Tendons attach one bone to another are exemplified by:
1. Platyhelminthes 2. Aschelminthes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 3. Annelida 4. Ctenophora
given below :
1. (a), (b) and (d) only 2. (b), (c) and (e) only 159 Excretion in cockroach is performed by all,
3. (a), (c) and (d) only 4. (a), (b) and (e) only EXCEPT :
1. Uricose glands
154 The animals with bilateral symmetry in the young 2. Malpighian tubules
stage and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult 3. Fat body
stage, belong to the phylum: 4. Hepatic caeca
1. Mollusca 2. Cnidaria
3. Echinodermata 4. Annelida

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160 Consider the following features: 163 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
(a) Organ system level of organization Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(b) Bilateral symmetry Members of subphylum vertebrate
(c) True coelomates with the segmentation of the body possess notochord during the embryonic
Select the correct option of animal groups that possess Assertion (A): period. The notochord is replaced by a
all the above characteristics. cartilaginous or bony vertebral column
1. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata in the adult.
2. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Chordata All chordates are vertebrates but not all
3. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca Reason (R):
vertebrates are chordates
4. Arthropoda, Mollusca, and Chordata In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
161 Given below are two statements: 1. (A) is True but (R) is False
I: Goblet cells are unicellular glands 2. (A) is False but (R) is True
II: Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 3. explanation of (A).
answer from the options given below: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False 4.
explanation of (A).
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False 164 Which of the following characteristic features
always hold true for the corresponding group of
162 Match List - I with List - II animals?
1. Viviparous (1) Mammalia
List-I List-II
Possess a mouth with an upper
(A) Columnar epithelium (I) Ducts of glands 2. (2) Chordata
and a lower jaw
Inner lining of stomach
(B) Ciliated epithelium (II) 3-chambered heart with one
and intestine 3. (3) Reptilia
incompletely divided ventricle
Inner lining of
(C) Squamous epithelium (III) 4. Cartilaginous - Endoskeleton (4) Chondrichthyes
bronchioles
(D) Cuboidal epithelium (IV) Endothelium In which of the following animals, the digestive
165
Choose the correct answer from the options given tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
below: 1. Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
2. Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
3. Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
1. III II I IV 4. Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
2. III II IV I
3. II III I IV 166 A unique vascular connection between the
4. II III IV I digestive tract and liver is called _______________ .
1. Hepato–pancreatic system
2. Hepatic portal system
3. Renal portal system
4. Hepato–cystic system

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 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct
9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

167 Which of the following group of animals have 173 Which of the following statements are true for the
three chambered heart? phylum-Chordata?
1. Bufo, Alligator, Struthio In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail
2. Chameleon, Hyla, Calotes (a)
and it is present throughout their life
3. Crocodilus, pavo, Clarias In Vertebrata, notochord is present during the
4. Exocoetus, Hemidactylus, Rana (b)
embryonic period only
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
168 What is common between parrot, platypus and
Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata,
kangaroo? (d)
Tunicata and Cephalochordata
1. toothless jaws 2. functional post-anal tail
3. ovoparity 4. homoiothermy 1. (c) and (a) 2. (a) and (b)
3. (b) and (c) 4. (d) and (c)
169 Which one of the following features are not true
for chordates? 174 From the following statements, select the wrong
(a) Heart is dorsal.
one:
(b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
(c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and single. 1. Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(d) Post-anal tail is present. Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each
2.
(e) Notochord is present. segment of the body
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option Animals belonging to the phylum Porifera are
3.
given below: exclusively marine
1. (e) only 2. (a), (d) and (c) only Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum
4.
3. (b) and (c) only 4. (a) and (c) only Cnidaria

170 Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of 175 Given below are two statements:
microvilli is found in : Amphibians and reptiles have a 3-chambered heart
1. Ducts of salivary glands I: with two atria and a single ventricle, and are
2. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron oviparous in nature
3. Eustachian tube Crocodiles possess a 4 chambered heart with two
4. Lining of intestine II: ventricles and two atria and are viviparous in
nature
171 Select the most appropriate option:
Statement The ground substance of bone is solid, 1. I is correct but II is incorrect.
I: pliable and resists compression. 2. I is incorrect but II is correct.
Statement The bone marrow of all bones is the site of 3. Both I and II are correct.
II: production of blood cells. 4. Both I and II are incorrect.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. 176 What will you look for to identity the sex of the
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct following? Select the correct match.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit of the
1.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect hind limb
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 2. Female cockroach – anal cerci
3. Male shark – claspers borne on pelvic fins
172 In contrast to Annelids, Platyhelminths show 4. Female Ascaris – sharply curved posterior end
1. Absence of body cavity
2. Presence of pseudocoelom
3. Radial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry

Page: 21
 Contact Number:
NEET Level Test - 180 Q 13-Oct
9667591930 /
(Bonus PYQ "Only Online" Test) 8527521718

177 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 180 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion In hemichordates, the body cavity is lined With the help of several ommatidia, a
(A): by mesoderm. Assertion (A): cockroach can perceive several images
In aschelminthes, the body cavity is not of an object, i.e., mosaic vision.
Reason (R):
lined by mesoderm Mosaic vision gives more sensitivity but
Reason (R):
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct less resolution.
answer from the options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct appropriate answer from the options given below:
1.
explanation of (A). 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).
178 The epithelial tissue has the following features:
A. Bear cilia on their free surface.
Fill OMR Sheet*
B. Provides a lining for some parts of body.
Compound epithelium is multi-layered, meant for *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
C.
limited role in secretion and absorption. where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
D. Located in the tip of the nose. filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
E. Exocrine glands possess epithelial tissue. for the questions in the test.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. B, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and E only CLICK HERE to get
4. C, D and E only
FREE ACCESS for 2
179 Which one of the following in birds, indicates their
reptilian ancestry? days of ANY
1. Scales on their hind limbs
2. Four chambered heart
NEETprep course
Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their
3.
digestive tract
4. Eggs with a calcareous shell

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