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Sample Paper -01

The document outlines the Cumulative Examination for Class XI Chemistry conducted by Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Lucknow Region for the academic year 2023-24. It includes various sections with a total of 33 questions, covering multiple choice, very short answer, short answer, case-based, and long answer questions, all aimed at assessing students' understanding of chemistry concepts. The examination has a total mark of 70 and a duration of 3 hours, with specific instructions regarding the use of calculators and the compulsory nature of all questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views7 pages

Sample Paper -01

The document outlines the Cumulative Examination for Class XI Chemistry conducted by Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Lucknow Region for the academic year 2023-24. It includes various sections with a total of 33 questions, covering multiple choice, very short answer, short answer, case-based, and long answer questions, all aimed at assessing students' understanding of chemistry concepts. The examination has a total mark of 70 and a duration of 3 hours, with specific instructions regarding the use of calculators and the compulsory nature of all questions.

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© © All Rights Reserved
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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, LUCKNOW REGION

CUMULATIVE EXAMINATION (2023-24)


CLASS-XI
SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY (043)
MM: 70 Time: 03 Hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
• There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
• Section A consists of 16 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Section B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 mark each.
• Section C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Section D consists of 2 case based questions carrying 4 marks each.
• Section E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer. Each question
carries one mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L–1, what will be the molarity of
glucose in blood?
(i) 5 M
(ii) 50 M

(iii) 0.005 M
(iv) 0.5 M

2. What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in 500 g of water?
(i) 0.1 m
(ii) 1 M

(iii) 0.5 m
(iv) 1 m

3. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is __________.


(i) 3
(ii) 4
(iii) 2
(iv) 1

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4. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be __________.
(i) 2
(ii) 4
(iii) 9
(iv) 3
5. The first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:
(i) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(ii) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(iii) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(iv) Na > Mg > Al < Si
6. The correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain enthalpy) for
halogens is:
(i) F > Cl > Br > I
(ii) F < Cl < Br < I
(iii) F < Cl > Br > I
(iv) F < Cl < Br < I
7. Which of the following statements is not true?
(i) Elements of a group exhibit similar chemical behavior.
(ii) Elements of a group have same distribution of electrons.
(iii) The elements in a vertical column of periodic table constitute a group.
(iv) Elements of a group have same number of shells.
8. Which of the following is a d block element?
(i) Carbon
(ii) Chromium
(iii) Lithium
(iv) Strontium
9. Which molecule/ion out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons?
(i) N2+
(ii) O2
(iii) O22–
(iv) B2

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10. Geometry of BF3 is-
(i) square planar
(ii) trigonal planar
(iii) tetrahedral
(iv) linear
11. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from
the following.
(i) q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
(ii) q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
(iii) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
(iv) q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0
12. Which of the following is not correct?
(i) ΔG is zero for a reversible reaction
(ii) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(iii) ΔG is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(iv) ΔG is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason: The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.
Select the most appropriate answers from the options given below.
i. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
ii. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
iii. A is true but R is false.
iv. A is false but R is true.
14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: For l=2, the minimum value of principal quantum number is n=3.
Reason: The value of ‘l’ cannot be greater than ‘n’.
Select the most appropriate answers from the options given below.
i. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
ii. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
iii. A is true but R is false.
iv. A is false but R is true.

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15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: A carbon- carbon double bond has shorter bond length than carbon-carbon single
bond.
Reason: Bond length decreases with increase in number of bonds between the bonded atoms.
Select the most appropriate answers from the options given below.

i. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.


ii. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
iii. A is true but R is false.
iv. A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: The entropy of a purely crystalline substance approaches zero as the temperature
approaches absolute zero.
Reason: At absolute zero, there is perfect order in the crystal.
Select the most appropriate answers from the options given below.
i. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
ii. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
iii.A is true but R is false.
iv. A is false but R is true.
SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry two marks each.
17. Define molarity. How much NaOH will be required to prepare 0.2 M solution of NaOH in
250 ml of water?
18. Explain why the electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine.
19. Among the elements B, Al, C and Si,
(i) Which element has the highest first ionization enthalpy?
(ii) Which element has the most metallic character?
20. Differentiate between extensive and intensive properties.
OR
The enthalpy of atomization for the reaction CH4 (g)C(g) + 4H(g) is 1665 KJ/mol. What is the
bond energy of C-H bond?
21. One mole of acetone requires less heat to vaporize than 1 mole of water. Which of the two
liquids has a higher enthalpy of vaporization?

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OR
Derive the following relationship ΔH=ΔU+ΔngRT
SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are short answer type questions and carry 3 marks each.
22. Which reactant is in limiting reagent when 35.0g of hydrogen is reacted with 276g of oxygen
to form water?
23. Calculate the mass per cent of different elements present in sodium sulphate (Na 2SO4).
(Na=23g, S=32g, O=16g)
24. What are the frequency and wavelength of photon emitted during a transition from n=5 to
n=2 in hydrogen atom?
OR
(i) Draw the shapes of s, p, d, f orbitals.
(ii) Write down the valence shell electronic configuration of-
a) Cu (Atom no.=29) b) Cr3+ ion (Atom no.= 24)
25. (i) First ionization enthalpy of sodium is lower than that of magnesium but its second
ionization enthalpy is higher than that of magnesium. Explain.
(ii) Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy whereas oxygen has negative electron gain
enthalpy. Explain.
26. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. What will be the value of standard Gibb’s free
energy change? (R=8.314 JK-1mol-1, T= 300 K)
27. Predict the geometry and hybridization of the following molecules.
CH4, CO2, NH3
28. Use periodic table to answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the element with five electrons in the outer subshell.
(ii) Identify the element that would tend to lose two electrons.
(iii) Identify the element that would tend to gain two electrons.
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and
carries 4 (1+1+1+1) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
29. During chemical bonding, when the atoms come closer to each other, the attraction takes
place between them, and the potential energy of the system keeps on decreasing till a particular
distance at which the potential energy is minimum. If the atoms come closer, repulsion starts,
and again, the potential energy of the system begins to increase.
At equilibrium distance, the atoms keep on vibrating about their mean position. The equilibrium
distance between the centres of the nuclei of the two bonded atoms is called its bond length. It is
expressed in terms of an angstrom (A0) or picometer (pm). It is determined experimentally by x-
ray diffraction or electron diffraction method, or spectroscopic method. The bond length in

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chemical bonding is the sum of the ionic radii in an ionic compound. In a covalent compound, it
is the sum of its covalent radii. For a covalent molecule AB, the bond length is given by d
= ra + rb

Answer the following questions-


(i) Covalent bonds are directional bonds while ionic bonds are non-directional. Comment.
OR
Ethyne molecule is a linear molecule. Comment.

(ii) Give the relationship between bond length and bond order.
(iii) Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing ionic character giving reason.
N – H, F – H, C – H and O – H
(iv)Define Bond length with example?

30. The particle nature of light posed a dilemma for scientists. On the one hand, it could explain
the black body radiation and photoelectric effect satisfactorily but on the other hand, it was not
consistent with the known wave nature of light which could account for the phenomena of
interference and diffraction. The only way to resolve the dilemma was to accept the idea that
light possesses both particle and wave-like properties, i.e., light has dual behavior. Depending on
the experiment, we find that light behaves either as a wave or as a stream of particles. Whenever
radiation interacts with matter, it displays particle like properties in contrast to the wavelike
properties (interference and diffraction), which it exhibits when it propagates. This concept was
totally alien to the way the scientists thought about matter and radiation and it took them a long
time to become convinced of its validity.
Answer the following questions-

(i)As per the photoelectric effect which thoroughly propagated the particle nature of light, what
would happen if we increase the intensity of light falling on the metal surface?

(ii) Why is the wavelength of a large particle like tennis ball is not visible?

(iii) According to de Broglie, the matter should exhibit dual behaviour, that is, both particle and
wave like properties. However, a cricket ball of mass 100 g does not move like a wave when it is
thrown by a bowler at a speed of 100 km/h. Calculate the wavelength of the ball .
(iv)Explain why a cricket ball does not show wave nature?

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SECTION E
The following questions are long answer questions. All questions have an internal choice and
carry 5 marks each.
31. Mention the criteria for spontaneity of a reaction. Give the mathematical expression for
change in entropy of a reversible process. Find out in which of the following processes entropy
increases/decreases giving suitable reason-
(i) Temperature of a crystalline solid is raised from 0K to 110K
(ii) A liquid undergoes crystallization into solid.
(iii) Cl2(g) ---> 2Cl(g)
OR
(i) Define (a) Molar enthalpy of vaporization (b) Lattice enthalpy
(ii) What is standard enthalpy of formation? For a reaction- N 2 (g) + 3H2 ---> 2NH3 (g), ΔrHo=-
98 kJ/mol. Find out the standard enthalpy of formation of NH3.
32.(i) What are the important features of Bohr atomic model of atom? Explain in detail.
(ii)Find out the radius and Energy of Bohr second orbit of He +.
OR
(i) Using s, p, d, f notations, describe the orbitals associated with the following quantum
numbers (a) n=2, l=1 (b) n=4, l=0 (c) n=5, l=3 (d) n=3, l=2
(ii) Write following principles-(a) Aufbau’s principle (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
33. (i) Give reasons for the following:
(a) Why NH3 has more dipole moment than NF3.
(b) Water molecule has bent structure whereas carbon dioxide molecule is linear.
(ii) What is resonance energy? Show all the resonating structures of ozone.
(iii) Draw the Lewis dot structures of H2SO4 and PCl5.
OR
i. All the C-O bonds in carbonate ion (CO32-) ion are equal in length. Explain the statement
drawing all the resonating structures of carbonate ion.
ii. What is meant by the term average bond enthalpy? Why is there a difference in bond
enthalpy of O-H bond in ethanol (C2H5OH) and water?

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