2nd PUC CS MCQs

II PUC Computer Science

MCQ types of Questions & Answers
I. Select the correct answer from the choices given.
( Repeated answers will not be considered)

Chapter 1: Configuration of a computer

1) Microprocessor is a
a) Main PCB in computer b) Processing Unit
c) Device used to connect other devices d) Controller of CPU
2) Motherboard is a
a) Main PCB in computer b) Processing Unit
c) Control Unit d) Port
3) Port is a
a) USB b) Controller c) Connector d) Plug and play device
4) Expansion of DDRRAM
a) Dual Data Rate Random Access Memory
b) Dual Data Rate Read Access Memory
c) Dual Data Read Random Access Memory
d) Double Data Rate Random Access Memory
5) Expansion of SDRAM is
a) Static Dual Random Access Memory
b) Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
c) Static Dynamic Random Access Memory
d) Synchronous Dual rate Random Access Memory
6) Chipset is:
a) Microprocessor & CPU b) Motherboard
c) North bridge & South bridge ICs d) East bridge & West bridge ICs
7) SMPS is
a) Switching Model Power System b) Switch Mode Power Supply
c) Soft Model Power Supply d) Secure Mode Power System
8) USB stands for
a) Universal Serial Bus b) United Service Bus
c) United Serial Bit d) Universal Serial Bit
9) PCI stands for
a) Peripheral Connection & Interface b) Peripheral Component Interconnect
c) Parallel Component Interconnect d) Parallel Connectors Interface
10) UPS stands for
a) Universal Power Supply b) Uninterrupted Power Supply
c) Universal Power Solution d) United Power Solution
11) Cache memory is
a) DRAM b) SRAM c) Secondary storage d) Registers

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12) Which among the following is the fastest memory in a computer

a) SDRAM b) Cache memory
c) Primary memory d) DDRRAM
13) Chipset includes
a) North bridge & South bridge ICs b) North bridge & East bridge ICs
c) East bridge & West bridge ICs d) East bridge & North bridge ICs
14) Register is
a) Temporary storage unit within CPU b) Fastest memory within RAM
c) Permanent storage unit within CPU d) Fastest memory within ROM
15) Types of Motherboard
a) XT, AT, ATx, BabyAT b) AT, XT, YT, ZT
c) AT, BT, ATX, BTX d) ATX, BTX, XT, ZT
16) Acronym VGA stands for
a) Video Graphics Adapter b) Video Graphics Array
c) Visual Graphics Array d) Virtual Graphics Adapter
17) Registers are
a) Main Memory b) DRAM
c) Cache memory d) Working memory of CPU
18) How many bits of data are transferred by serial port at a time?
a) 1 bit b) 64 bits c) 8 bits d) depends on the CPU
19) L1 cache resides in
a) RAM b) ROM c) Motherboard d) CPU
20) Expansion of one of the i/o slots “ISA” is
a) International Standard Adapter b) International System Architecture
c) Industry Standard Architecture d) International Slot Architecture
21) AGP stands for
a) Accelerated Graphics Port b) Adapter for Graphics Port
c) Architecture of Graphics Port d) Adapter for Graphics Parallel

22) Motherboard is a main PCB which

a) connects different components in a computer b) is a Processing Unit
c) is a Control Unit d) is a daughter board
23) The AGP slot of earlier motherboards are now a days replaced with
a) PCI – slot b) PCI –Express slot c) EISA slot d) FireWire
24) ATX stands for
a) Advanced Technology eXtended b) Automatic Transmission eXtended
b) Auto Transfer eXtended d) Automatic Technology eXtended
25) BIOS stands for
a) Base Input Output System b) Basic Input Output Source
c) Basic Input Output System d) Basic Input Output Security
26) Expansion of POST

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a) Power On Startup Technique b) Power On Self Test

c) Power On Switching Technique d) Power On Startup Technology
27) Expansion of CMOS
a) Complete Motherboard Oriented System
b) Complex Metal Oxide System
c) Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
d) Complete Motherboard Operating System

28) Parallel data transfer takes place in

a) USB b) Serial port c) SATA port d) Parallel port

29) IDE stands for

a) Integrated Drive Electronics b) International Digital Environment
c) International Drive Electronics d) Integrated Drive Enabled
30) Expansion of SCSI
a) Small Computer Small Interface
b) Small Computer Standard International
c) Small Computer System Integrated
d) Small Computer System Interface
31) Full form of MIDI
a) Musical Instrument Digital Interface
b) Master Instrument Digitally Integrated
c) Musical Instrument Data Interface
d) Musical Instrument Digitally Integrated
32) Take Odd man out
a) Address bus b) data bus c) Control bus d) carrier bus

33) SMPS
a) converts DC voltage to AC voltage
b) Provides uninterrupted power even when there is power failure
c) converts AC voltage to DC voltage
d) Small Motherboard Power Supply
34) SMPS
a) converts DC voltage to AC voltage b) converts AC voltage to DC voltage
c) converts DC voltage to DC voltage d) converts AC voltage to AC voltage
35) CMOS full form
a) Complete Memory Occupied System
b) Complete Memory Operating System
c) Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
d) Complete Metal Oriented System

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. b 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. b
11. b 12.b 13.a 14. a 15.a 16.b 17.d 18.a 19.d 20.c
21. a 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. c 28. d 29.a 30. d
31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. c

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Chapter 2 & 3: Boolean Algebra & Logic Gates

1) The other name of Boolean algebra is
a) Switching algebra b) Relational Algebra
c) Digital Algebra d) None of the above

2) Simplification of the Boolean expression (A’.B+A.B’+A.B) is

a) A’.B’ b) A.B
c) A’+B’ d) A+B

3) Which among the following is not a correct Boolean Postulate?

a) X+1=1 b) X. 1= X c) X + 0 = 0 d) X . 0 = 0

4) Which among the following is not a correct Boolean Postulate?

a) X.X=X b) X + X= X c) X.X’ = 0 d) X + X’ = 0

5) Which among the following is a correct Boolean Postulate?

a) X.0=X b) X + X= 2X c) X.X’ = 1 d) X + X’ = 1

6) (X’)’=X is an example for

a) Involution law b) Idempotence law
c) Complementarity law d) Absorption law

7) According to ………. Law, x.x=x

a) Involution law b) Idempotence law
c) Complementarity law d) Absorption law

8) x+x’=1 is an example for

a) Involution law b) Idempotence law
c) Complementarity law d) Absorption law

9) x + x.y=x is an example for

a) Commutative law b) Idempotence law
c) Complementarity law d) Absorption law

10) x.(y+z)=x.y+x.z is an example for

a) Involution law b) Distributive law
c) Complementarity law d) Absorption law

11) The expression for absorption law can be written as

a) A+AB=B b) A+AB=A c) A+B=B+A d) A+A'B=A

12) According to De-Morgan’s 1st theorem: (x+y)’ = ___

a) (x’+y’)’ b) x’.y’ c) (x.y)’ d) x.y

13) (x.y)’=x’+y’ is
a) De-Morgan’s 2nd theorem b) Absorption law
c) Complementarity law d) Distributive law

14) Example for Commutative law is:

a) x.y=y.x b) x.(y+z)=x.y+x.z
c) (x.y)’=x’+y’ d) x+x’.y=x+y

15) A.(A+B)=?
a) A b) 1 c) A.B d) A+B
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16) 1+A.B = ?
a) 0 b) 1 c) 1+A d) A.B

17) The simplified expression of x+y+1 is:

a) 1 b) x+y c) x.y d) x

18) The number of min-terms we can get from 2 Boolean variables are:
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
19) Number of min-terms possible from 4 Boolean variables are:
a) 1 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16

20) There can be __ min-terms from 3 variables

a) 1 b) 3 c) 6 d) 8

21) In a function F(x,y,z), following is an example of minterm

a) x.y’.z b) x.y c) x+y+z d) x.y+z

22) Following is an example of maxterm

a) x.y.z b) x’+y+z c) x’.y’.z’ d) x’+y.z

23) Product of all the literals either in normal or complemented form is called
a) Minterm b) Maxterm c) Involution law d) Duality Form

24) Sum of all the literals either in normal or complemented form is called
a) Minterm b) Maxterm c) Complementarity law d) Duality Form

25) Find the value of A,B,C,D that make minterm A.B'.C.D'

a) A=0, B=0, C=0, D=0 b) A=0, B=1, C=0, D=1
c) A=1, B=1, C=1, D=1 d) A=1, B=0, C=1, D=0
26) The min-term we get from Boolean values A=1, B=1, C=0, D=1 is ___
a) A.B.C.D b) A’B’.C’.D’ c) A.B.C’.D d) A’.B’.C.D’
27) The expression F(x,y,z)=xy+yz'+x'z is an example for ___ expression
a) SOP b) POS c) Canonical SOP d) Canonical POS
28) Applying De-Morgan's theorem to the expression: ((A+B').C)', we get
a) A'.B+C b) A'.B+C' c) A.B'+C’ d) A+B’.C’
29) Complement of the expression A'B+CD is
a) (A'+B).(C+D) b) (A’+B).(C'+D') c) (A.B')+(C'.D') d) (A+B’).(C’+D’)
30) Dual of the Boolean expression x+1=1 is
a) x+1=1 b) x.0=0 c) x’.0=0 d) x’+1=0
31) The dual of Boolean expression x.1=x is
a) x+1=1 b) x.0=0 c) x’+0=x’ d) x+0=x
̅ = 1 is
32) The dual of the Boolean expression: X + X
̅
a) X + X = 1 ̅ ̅
b) X + X = 0 c) X. X = 0 d) ̅
X+X=1
33) x+1=1 is an example for
a) Fallacy b) Tautology c) minterm d) maxterm
34) X.0=0 is an example for
a) Fallacy b) Tautology c) minterm d) maxterm
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35) Definition of tautology is

a) a Boolean expression whose output is always 1
b) a Boolean expression whose output is always 0
c) a Boolean expression whose output is always False
d) a Boolean expression whose output is 0 or 1

36) Definition of Fallacy is

a) a Boolean expression whose output is always 1
b) a Boolean expression whose output should not be 0
c) a Boolean expression whose output can be anything
d) a logical expression whose result is always False or 0.

37) The other name of NOT gate is

(a) Basic gate (b) Inverter gate (c) Negative gate (d) Derived gate

38) A logic gate is digital circuit which takes one or more inputs & produces ___
a) many outputs b) 2 outputs c) one output d) no output

39) Which of the following is not a basic gate?

(a) NOT gate (b) AND gate (c) NOR gate (d) OR gate

40) Which of the following is a basic gate?

(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate (c) XOR gate (d) NAND gate

41) Which of the following is a Derived gate?

(a) NOT gate (b) AND gate (c) OR gate (d) XOR gate
42) Which of the following is not a Derived gate?
(a) NOR gate (b) AND gate (c) NAND gate (d) XNOR gate

43) Which of the following is a Universal gate?

(a) AND gate (b) NOR gate (c) XOR gate (d) XNOR gate
44) Which of the following is a Universal gate?
(a) NAND gate (b) NOT gate (c) XOR gate (d) AND gate

45) The example for Basic gates are:

a) NOT, OR, AND b) NOT, NOR, NAND
c) XOR, XNOR d) OR, NOR, XOR

46) The output of ___ gate is 1, when all the inputs are 0.
a) OR b) AND c) NOR d) XOR
47) The output of ___ gate is 0, when both the inputs are 1.
a) OR b) AND c) NOR d) XNOR

48) ____ gate provides Output 1; only if Odd number of Inputs are 1
a) NOR b) AND c) XNOR d) XOR

49) ___ are Examples of Universal gates

a) OR, AND b) NAND, NOR c) NOR,OR d) AND, NAND
50) For which input combination, the output of XNOR gate is 1?
a) A=0, B=0 b) A=0, B=1 c) A=1, B=0 d) A'=0, B=0
51) The expression A'.B+A.B' shows ___ operation
a) NOR b) NAND c) XOR d) XNOR
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ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1) a. 2) d. 3) d 4) a 5) d 6) a 7) b 8) c 9) d 10) b
11) b 12) b 13) a 14) a 15) a 16) b 17) a 18) a 19) d 20) d
21) a 22) b 23) a 24) b 25) d 26) c 27) a 28) b 29) d 30) b
31) d 32) c 33) b 34) a 35) a 36) d 37) b 38) c 39) c 40) a
41) d 42) b 43) b 44) a 45) a 46) c 47) c 48) d 49) b 50) a
51) c

Chapter 4: DATA STRUCTURES

1) A particular way of organizing data is called
a) Data type b) Data structure c) Data d) Information

2) The data structures that can be manipulated directly by machine instructions is called
a) Non linear data structures b) Linear data structures
c) Primitive data structures d) Non primitive data structures

3) _____ is a collection of elements of same data type under same name.

a) tree b) graph c) structure d) array

4) Data structures that show the relationship of logical adjacency between elements is
a) Non linear data structures b) Linear data structures
c). Primitive data structures d) Non primitive data structures

5) Trees & graphs are example for

a) Non linear data structures b) Linear data structures
c) Primitive data structures d) Fundamental data structures

6) int, float are example for

a) Linear data structures b) Numerical data structures
c) Primitive data structures d) Non primitive data structures

7) Stacks & Queues are example for

a) Linear data structures b) Non linear data structures
c) Primitive data structures d) All of these
8) Example of Linear data structure
a) int, float b) array, stack
c) Linked list, tree d) array, tree

9) ____ is a LIFO data structure

a) stack b) queue c) Linked list d) graph

10) ____ works on the principle of FIFO.

a) stack b) queue c) Linked list d) graph

11) In binary search algorithm, searching starts from ___ position in an array.
a) first b) middle c) last d) any

12) For binary search algorithm, array elements should be in

a) Ascending order only b) Descending order only
c) Ascending or descending order d) unorder

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13) Generally, compared to linear search, Binary search is ____

a) faster b) slower
c) can’t predict d) taking same time as linear search

14) The different stack operations are

a) push b) pop c) both a) & b) d) none of these
15) The process of accessing each data item once to perform some operation is called
a) Traversing b) Searching c) Merging d) Sorting

16) An array in which two subscripts are used to access array elements is known as
a) Single dimensional array b) Two dimensional array
c) Three dimensional array d) Multi dimensional array
17) __ is an ordered collection of items where insertion of an item is done at the rear end and
deletion of an item is done at the front end.
a) Queue b) Stack c) Graph d) Tree

18) In a stack, both insertion & deletion of an item is done at the same end called ___
a) front b) rear c) top d) all of the above
19) One of the applications of stack data structure is
a) Conversion of infix to postfix expression b) Process scheduling
c) Adding elements from both the ends d) Managing Print server
20) One of the applications of Queue data structure is
a) Conversion of infix to postfix expression b) Process scheduling
c) Adding elements from both the ends. d) Recursive function call
21) From the following Identify the statement Which is not correct.
a) push() operation adds a new item to the stack.
b) enqueue() operation adds a new item to the Queue.
c) pop() operation removes the top item from the stack
d) peek() operation removes the first item from the Queue.

22) The process of combining 2 arrays to form a single array is called ___
a) Insertion b) Appending c) Merging d) Concatenation

23) Push() operation on stack

a) adds new item on top of the stack
b) adds new item at bottom of the stack
c) adds new item at middle of the stack
d) removes the first element from the stack

24) pop() operation

a) removes the bottom item from the stack b) removes the front element
c) removes the top item from the stack d) adds a new item at the rear end

25) Queue operation enqueue() ____

a) creates a queue b) appends a new queue to the existing queue
c) ends the queue d) adds a new item to the existing queue

26) The conditional statement: if (top = -1)

a) can be used to check whether stack is empty
b) can be used to check whether stack is full
c) is used to check stack overflow condition
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d) none of the above.

27) Which one of the following adds a new item on top of the stack
a) Add b) Push c) Append d) Enqueue

28) Which one of the following operations deletes an item from the Queue
a) Enqueue b) Dequeue c) delete d) remove

29) Specialized format for organizing and storing data is called

a) Data type b) structure c) variable d) Data structure

30) Base address of an array of integers is 9001. If the size of integer is 2 bytes, what is the
address of 5th element of the array.
a) 9001 b) 9005 c) 9006 d) 9009

31) We can find length of an array using ______

a) L=UB-LB+1 b) L=LB-UB+1 c) L=UB-LB d) L=LB-UB

32) The formula to calculate address of Ith element of an array A is______

a) loc(A[I])=base(I)+W(I-LB) b) loc(A[I])=base(A)+W(I-UB)
c) loc(A[I])=base(I)+W(I-UB) d) loc(A[I])=base(A)+W(I-LB)

33) for (I=N-1 down to Pos) is the loop used while

a) deleting an element from the array b) traversing
c) inserting an element in an array d) Sorting & Searching

34) The memory address of the element A[i][j] of order mxn in row major order is
a) Loc(A[i][j])=base(A)+W((i-LB)+m(j-LB))
b) Loc(A[i][j])=base(A)+W(n(j-LB)+(i-LB))
c) Loc(A[j][i])=base(A)+W(n(i-LB)+(j-LB))
d) Loc(A[i][j])=base(A)+W((i-LB)+n(j-LB))

35) The memory address of elements A[i][j] of order mxn in column major element is
a) Loc(A[i][j])=base(A)+W((i-LB)+n(j-LB))
b) Loc(A[i][j])=base(A)+W(m(j-LB)+(i-LB))
c) Loc(A[j][i])=base(A)+W(n(i-LB)+m(j-LB))
d) Loc(A[i][j])=base(A)+W((i-LB)+m(j-LB))

36) The base address of an array is address of ____

a) A[0] b) A[1] c) A[n-1] d)A[n]

37) In which operation stack is not modified

a) push(item) b) pop( ) c) peek( ) d)none

38) The Peek() operation

a) removes top item from stack b) returns the number of items in stack
c) test stack is empty or not d) returns top item from stack but does not remove

39) Push operation in stack: ____

a) First increases the top position and insert an element
b) first insert an element and then increases the top position
c) first decreases the top position and insert an element
d) first insert an element and decreases the top position

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40) Example for infix expression___

a) +xy b) x+y c) xy+ d) none
41) If an operator is in between two operands, it is called ______ expression
a) infix b) postfix c) prefix d) arithmetic
42) If an operator precedes two operands it is called as _______ expression
a) infix b) postfix c) prefix d) arithmetic
43) If an operator follows the two operands it is called as _____ expression
a) infix b) postfix c) prefix d) arithmetic
44) _______ is a tree which has at most two decedents
a) binary tree b) sub tree c) b+ tree d) full tree
45) The top most node in a tree is called ___ node.
a) Leaf b) parent c) child d) Root
46) ________ is a set of vertices and edges
a) Tree b) graph c) queue d) stack
47) Which node is farthest node from root node?
a) Child node b) top node c) leaf node d) middle node
48) A ___ is a data structure consisting of nodes organized as a hierarchy
a) Tree b) graph c) Queue d) stack
49) The linked list uses
a) static memory allocation b) dynamic memory allocation
c) infinite memory allocation d) compile time memory allocation
50) Linear collection of nodes is called ____
a) Queue b) Array c) Stack d) Linked list

51) Assertion (A) : An array is a collection of items of same data type, each item
is accessed using its index value.
Reason (R) : Elements in the array have to be accessed in sequential order.
a. A is true and R is false.
b. A is true and R is correct explanation.
c. A is false and R is true.
d. A is true and R is true.

52) Assertion (A) : A queue is a FIFO data structure.

Reason (R) : An ordered collection of items where insertion and deletion takes
place at the different end.
a. A is true and R is false.
b. A is true and R is correct explanation.
c. A is false and R is true.
d. A is true and R is not correct explanation.

53) Assertion (A) : A queue is a LIFO data structure.

Reason (R) : In a queue, the first inserted item has to be deleted first.
a. A is true and R is false.
b. A is false and R is true.
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c. A is true and R is correct explanation.

d. A is true and R is not correct explanation.

54) Assertion (A) : A Stack is a LIFO data structure.

Reason (R) : In a Stack, the first inserted item has to be deleted first.
a. A is true and R is false.
b. A is true and R is correct explanation.
c. A is false and R is true.
d. A is true and R is not correct explanation

55) Assertion (A) : A Stack is a LIFO data structure.

Reason (R) : In a Stack, the last inserted item has to be deleted first.
a. A is true and R is false.
b. A is true and R is correct explanation.
c. A is false and R is true.
d. A is true and R is not correct explanation

56) Assertion (A) : A Stack is a LIFO data structure.

Reason (R) : In a Stack, TOP is used to refer to the position of the Last inserted
item.
a. A is false and R is false.
b. A is false and R is true.
c. A is true and R is false.
d. A is true and R is true.

57) Assertion (A) : Stack is a LIFO data structure.

Reason (R) : A stack is an ordered collection of items where insertion and
deletion takes place at the different end.
a) A is true and R is false.
b) A is true and R is the correct explanation.
c) A is false and R is true.
d) A is true and R is not the correct explanation.

58) Assertion (A) : A tree is non-linear DS which represents hierarchical relationship

Reason (R) : In nonlinear DS each data item is connected to several other data
items.
a) A is true & R is false
b) A is False and R is the correct reason.
c) A is True and R is the correct reason.
d) Both A & B are false.

59) Assertion (A): In a Binary tree, each node has at most two children.
Reason ( R ): In a Binary tree, a node can have just one child, but it can’t have more than
two children.
a) A is true & R is false
b) A is True and R is the correct reason.
c) A is False and R is the correct reason.
d) Both A & B are false.

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60) Assertion (A): Linked list is a linear data structure which contains set of nodes.
Reason ( R ): In linked list the linear order is given by means of pointers.
a) A is true & R is false
b) A is False and R is true
c) Both A & B are true
d) Both A & B are false.

(100s of different Questions of this type can be asked. Be clear with the concept. Then, it will be
easy for you to answer)

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1) b. 2) c. 3) d 4) b 5) a 6) c 7) a 8) b 9) a 10) b
11) b 12) c 13) a 14) c 15) a 16) b 17) a 18) c 19) a 20) b
21) d 22) c 23) a 24) c 25) d 26) a 27) b 28) b 29) d 30) d
31) a 32) d 33) c 34) c 35) d 36) a 37) c 38) d 39) a 40) b
41) a 42) c 43) b 44) a 45) d 46) b 47) c 48) a 49) b 50) d
51) a 52) c 53) b 54) a 55) b 56) d 57) a 58) c 59) b 60) c

Chapter 7: Classes & Objects

1) Correct Syntax for declaring an object of a class CN is :
a) CN Obj ; b) CN::obj ;
c) CN: Obj d) CN.obj:

2) The different access specifiers used in C++ are

a) private, default, public b) private, protected, public
c) private, public, none d) None of the above
3) The default access specifier in C++ is
a) default b) public c) protected d) private
4) The class member access operators in C++ are
a)  and . b) :: and .
c) :: and : d) :: and 
5) Scope resolution operator can be used to
a) define member function within a class
b) define a derived class
c) define member function outside the class definition.
d) access the member function

6) Which of the following is not a member function?

a) Constructor b) Destructor c) Friend function d) Inline function

7) Protected data member of a class cannot be accessed by

a) the member function within the class they are declared b) the friend function
c) the member function of the derived class d) the main() function

8) To define a member function outside the class definition

a) :: operator is used b) : operator is used
c) . operator is used d) & operator is used

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9) If we define a member function inside a class definition

a) we have to use inline keyword to define it as inline function
b) the member function becomes an inline function by default
c) the member function becomes an external function
d) the member function becomes a friend function

10) If a member function has looping statements, the member function should be defined
a) inside the class definition b) inside a main() function
c) inside a derived class d) outside the class definition using :: operator

11) The syntax for defining a member function outside the class definition is ___
a) classname returntype :: memberfunction()
b) returntype classname :: memberfunction()
c) returntype classname : memberfunction()
d) classname returntype : memberfunction()
12) In C++, The operator used for invoking a member function is
a) :: operator b) : operator c) . operator d) & operator
13) The process of representing the essential features by hiding the background details is called
a) Polymorphism b) Inline function
c) Data abstraction d) Inheritance

14) Wrapping of related data and function into a single unit is called
a) Member function b) Inline function
c) Data abstraction d) Encapsulation

15) In C++, the scope of data is defined by

a) Class declaration b) Object declaration c) Access specifier d) function header

16) Find the odd man out

a) An object is an instance of a class
b) An object is a blue print of a class
c) Members of a class are accessed using dot(.) operator
d) Objects can be passed as function arguments.

17) Find the correct statement

a) Members of a structure are public by default
b) Members of a structure private by default
c) Members of a class are public by default
d) Members of a class are protected by default

18) class CN
{
int x;
public: int y;
void getdata()
{
cin >> x>>y;
}
};
void main()
{ CN Obj;

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cin >> Obj.x;

cin >> Obj.y;
}
In the above code segment:
a) cin >> Obj.x is correct b) cin >> Obj.y is correct
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct. d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.

19) Given the class definition:

class box
{
int length;
public: int width;
int area;
private: int height;
void getdata() ;
};

Select the correct option

public private
(a) width, getdata() length, height, area
(b) length, getdata() width, height, area
(c) width, area length, height, getdata()
(d) width, area, getdata() length, height

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. a 2.b 3.d 4.a 5.c 6.c 7.d 8.a 9.b 10.d
11.b 12.c 13.c 14.d 15. c 16. b 17.a 18. b 19. c

Chapter 8: Function Overloading

1) Function overloading is an example for
a) Polymorphism b) Inline function
c) Friend function d) Member function

2) Ways to overload a Function is __ (Function is overloading can be done )

a) By Having different number of parameters & different types of parameters
b) By Having same number of parameters & same type of parameters
c) Using default constructors
d) Using parameterized constructors that have same number of parameters & same type of
parameters.

3) A function which replaces the function calling statement with function body is called
a) Friend function b) Member function
c) Inline function d) Overloaded function

4) The correct syntax for defining an inline function is

a) returntype Fnname() { … }
b) inline returntype Fnname(){ … }
c) returntype inline Fnname(){ … }
d) None of the above

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5) Choose the correct answer

a) Inline function definition can contain looping statements.
b) Inline function should be defined before other function that call it.
c) Inline function can be defined anywhere in the program.
d) Inline function should be defined within main() function.

6) Choose the correct answer

a) A member function defined inside a class definition becomes inline function by default
b) To make a member function defined within a class as inline function, we have to use
inline keyword.
c) A member function defined outside the class definition becomes inline function by
default
d) None of the above statement is correct

7) ___ is executed faster than other functions

a) Friend function b) Member function
c) Recursive function d) Inline function

8) Within class definition, a Friend function should be declared in

a) Private section b) Public section
c) Protected section d) can be declared in any section

9) Friend function is a
a) Member function b) Non-Member function
c) Constructor d) None of the above

10) Syntax of friend function declaration

a) friend returntype frndFn();
b) returntype friend frndFn();
c) friend returntype clasName :: frndFn();
d) returntype friend clasName :: frndFn();

11) A friend function frndFn(CN Obj){ … } should be invoked using the statement
a) objNm frndFn(); b) objNm.frndFn();
c) frndFn(objNm); d) objNm.frndFn(objNm);

12) A friend function

a) can return a value b) cannot return any value
c) can return an object not a value d) cannot return an object

13) The advantage of using inline function is

a) Can return a value b) can return an object
c) Execute faster than other functions d) program size will be smaller

14) Polymorphism is implemented using

a) Friend function b) inline function
c) Function overloading d) Inheritance

15) Function overloading is an example for

a) Encapsulation b) Abstraction c) Inheritance d) Polymorphism

16) Inline function may not work for the reason

a) Inline keyword is used b) Does not have return type
b) Has looping construct. d) The function definition is simple

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17) Take the Odd one out

a) Friend function can access private members of the class.
b) Friend function cannot access the private members of the class.
c) Friend function is a non-member function.
d) Friend function has to be declared using the keyword friend.

18) i) Function overloading is Compile time polymorphism.

ii) Polymorphism is implemented through Function overloading & operator overloading
iii) The number & type of arguments should be same in the overloaded functions.
a) i) & ii) are correct b) i) & iii) are correct
c) ii) & iii) are correct d) all the statements are correct.

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. a 2.a 3.c 4.b 5.b 6.a 7.d 8.d 9.b 10.a
11.c 12. a 13.c 14. c 15.d 16. d 17. b 18. a

Chapter 9: Constructors & Destructors

1) Constructor is a
a) member function b) non-member function
c) friend function d) none of the above

2) Identify the incorrect statement

a) constructor is a member function which has the same name as the class name
b) constructor is a non-member function which has the same name as the class name
c) constructor can be defined outside the class definition
d) constructor can be overloaded

3) The operator used with destructor is ___

a) ~ b) :: c) & d) *

4) Identify the correct statement

a) Destructor can be overloaded.
b) Default Constructor can be overloaded
c) Parameterised Constructor can be overloaded
d) Copy constructor can be overloaded

5) With default constructor

a) The objects can be initialized with different values
b) Constructors can be overloaded
c) Copy constructor can be used
d) The objects are initialized with same value(s)

6) If we want different objects to be initialized with different values

a) Default constructor has to be used
b) Default constructor with default arguments have to be used
c) Parameterised constructor has to be used
d) Destructor has to be used

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7) Identify the correct statement

a) Constructor is automatically called when an object is created
b) Constructor can be invoked using dot (.) operator
c) Constructor can be invoked using arrow () operator
d) A constructor is called as like we call a friend function

8) The correct syntax for implicit way of invoking a Parameterised constructor is

(Note: clNm is the Class name, obj is the Object name, and val1, val2 are values)
a) clNm obj= clNm(val1,val2);
b) clNm obj(val1,val2);
c) clNm obj=(val1,val2);
d) obj.clNm(val1,val2);
9) The correct syntax for explicit way of invoking a Parameterised constructor is
(Note: clNm is the Class name, obj is the Object name, and arg1, arg2 are arguments)
a) clNm obj(arg1, arg2);
b) clNm obj= clNm(arg1, arg2);
c) clNm obj=( arg1, arg2);
d) obj.clNm(arg1, arg2);
10) A Constructor must be declared or defined in ___ section
a) Private b) protected c) Public d) anywhere inside class definition
11) The return type of a constructor should be
a) void b) int c) any data type d) no return type
12) A constructor AC() can be defined outside the class definition using
a) AC::AC() { … } b) void AC::AC() { … }
c) AC:: void AC() { … } d) AC::~AC() { … }

13) The maximum number of Destructors defined in a Class can be __

a) None b) 1 c) 2 d) Any number

14) Initialization of Object during declaration with assignment operator can be used for the
constructor with
a) Zero argument b) 1 argument c) 2 arguments d) any number of arguments
15) Identify the incorrect statement
a) Copy constructor is a parameterised constructor
b) Constructor can be overloaded
c) Destructor can be overloaded
d) Destructor is called automatically when an object is destroyed

16) Which is not a type of constructor

a) Copy constructor
b) Default constructor
c) Friend constructor
d) Parameterised constructor

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. a 2.b 3.a 4.c 5.d 6.c 7.a 8.b 9.b 10.c
11.d 12. a 13.b 14. b 15. c 16. c

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Chapter 10: Inheritance

1) An already existing class from which other class(es) can be defined is called
a) Base class b) Child class c) Derived class d) Sub class
2) A new class created from an already existing class is called
a) Base class b) Super class c) Derived class d) Default class
3) The process of a derived class acquires the properties of a base class is called
a) Polymorphism b) Inline function c) Data abstraction d) Inheritance
4) The operator used while defining a derived class is
a) :: operator b) : operator c) . operator d)  operator
5) Choose the correct answer from the following
a) Visibility mode tells which are all the base class members are accessible in the derived
class.
b) Visibility mode tells which are all the derived class members are accessible in the base
class.
c) Visibility mode tells which are all the data members of a class are accessible by the
member functions of the same class.
d) None of the above
6) Choose the correct answer from the following
a) Public members of a base class are not accessible by the derived class.
b) Protected members of a base class cannot be inherited.
c) Private members of a base class cannot be inherited.
d) Protected members of a class are not accessible by the member functions.
7) If a class is derived from multiple base classes, it is called
a) Multiple inheritance b) Multi-level inheritance
c) Hybrid inheritance d) Hierarchical inheritance
8) If multiple classes are derived from a base class, it is called
a) Multiple inheritance b) Multi-level inheritance
c) Hybrid inheritance d) Hierarchical inheritance
9) If a class is derived from another derived class, it is called
a) Multiple inheritance b) Multi-level inheritance
c) Hybrid inheritance d) Hierarchical inheritance
10) Combination of other types of inheritance is called
a) Combined inheritance b) Multi-level inheritance
c) Hybrid inheritance d) Hierarchical inheritance
11) Code reusability is an important advantage of
a) Polymorphism b) Inline function
c) Pointers d) Inheritance
12) class CN
{ private: int x;
protected: int y;
public: int z;
…
};

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class DC: public CN

{
void getdata()
{ cin >> x;
cin >> y;
cin >> z;
}
};
void main()
{ CN Obj;
cin >> Obj.x;
cin >> Obj.y;
cin >> Obj.z;
}
In the above code segment:
a) cin >> Obj.x is correct
b) cin >> Obj.y is correct
c) cin >> Obj.z is correct
d) Both (b) & (c) are correct.

13) Choose the correct statement.

a) Private member of a base class cannot be accessed in the derived class
b) Protected member of a base class cannot be accessed in the derived class
c) Public member of a base class cannot be accessed in the derived class
d) None of the above statements are correct

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. a 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.a 8.d 9.b 10.c
11. d 12. c 13.a

Chapter 11: Pointers

1) A pointer can be declared using the statement
a) datatype ptr; b) datatype *ptr;
c) datatype &ptr; d) datatype = *ptr;

2) Select the correct statement

a) A pointer is a variable which holds the address of another variable of same data type.
b) A pointer is a variable which holds the address of another variable of different data type.
c) A pointer is not a variable
d) A pointer is a memory
3) Choose the incorrect answer
a) Pointer helps in writing efficient programs
b) Pointer supports dynamic memory allocation
c) Pointer is used to access memory
d) Pointer divides memory

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4) Choose the correct answer

a) Static memory allocation is done at compile time
b) Dynamic memory allocation is done at compile time
c) Memory allocated during compile time can be changed
d) Static memory allocation is an efficient method of memory allocation

5) Choose the incorrect statement

a) Dynamic memory allocation is done at compile time
b) Dynamic memory allocation is done at run time
c) Memory allocated at run time can be changed
d) Dynamic memory allocation is an efficient method of memory allocation

6) Choose the correct answer from the following statements related to C++
a) We can add a pointer to another pointer, if both pointers point to the same array
b) We can subtract a pointer from another pointer, if both pointers point to the same array
c) We can multiply two pointers
d) We can divide a pointer from another pointer

7) Identify the wrong statement

a) We can compare 2 pointers, if both pointers point to the elements of same array.
b) We can assign a pointer to another pointer, if both pointers are of same type.
c) We can add 2 pointers, if both pointers point to the same array.
d) We can subtract a pointer from another pointer, if both pointers point to the same array

8) The & and * operators related to pointer are:

a) Address-of and direction operators
b) Value of and indirection operators
c) Value-of and Address-of operators
d) Address-of and indirection operators

9) The statement to initialize a pointer is

(Note: ptrVar is a pointer variable, var is a variable)
a) ptrVar = var; b) ptrVar = *var;
c) ptrVar = &var; d) ptrVar == var;

10) The new operator is used

a) To release the memory allocated
b) for static memory allocation
c) for dynamic memory allocation
d) for compile time memory allocation

11) The delete operator is used

e) To de-allocate the memory at runtime
f) for static memory allocation
g) for dynamic memory allocation
h) for compile time memory allocation

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. b 2.a 3.d 4.a 5.a 6.b 7.c 8.d 9.c 10.c

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Chapter 13: Database concepts

1) Processed data is called
a) Raw data b) Information
c) Database d) DBMS

2) Collection of logically related data is called

a) Processed data b) Data
c) Information d) Database

3) Conversion of data into information is called

a) Data conversion b) Data translation
c) Data processing d) Interpretation

4) Collection of rows and columns that contain useful data is called

a) Table b) Raw data
c) Information d) Processed data

5) RDBMS stands for

a) Rotational Data Base Management System
b) Relational Data Base Management System
c) Relational Data Base Maintenance System
d) Rational Data Base Management System

6) Identify the incorrect / wrong statement

a) Set of characters that represents specific data element is called an attribute in a table
b) Attributes are the properties that describe an entity
c) An attribute is also called a field in a table
d) An attribute is a row in a table.

7) In ___ model data is organized in table.

a) Hierarchical data model b) Network data model
c) Relational data model d) E-R diagram.

8) The types of data independence are:

a) Physical data independence & Logical data independence
b) Internal data independence & Hierarchical data independence
c) Logical data independence & user level data independence
d) Physical data independence & Hybrid data independence.

9) The types of relationship that exist between entities are

a) Binary relationship b) Ternary relationship
c) Recursive relationship d) all the above

10) Two entities participation in a relationship is called

a) Binary relationship b) Ternary relationship
c) Recursive relationship d) all the above

11) Expansion of ISAM is

a) Indexed Sequential Access Method
b) Interrupted Serial Access Method
c) Integrated Serial Access Module
d) Indexed Serial Access Module

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12) Which is not a correct data model

a) Hierarchical data model b) Network data model
c) Relational data model d) Entity data model

13) Identify the incorrect statement

a) Each column in a relation should have unique name
b) Each column values should be of same kind (or data type)
c) Each row in a relation should have unique values
d) The Sequence of rows and columns is significant

14) Manual data processing

a) Mainly uses computer for processing data
b) Has no time restrictions
c) Involves high speed data processing & more accuracy compared to EDP.
d) Mainly uses paper for processing data

15) Electronic data processing

a) Get bored of repetitive task
b) Has time restrictions
c) Uses more volume of paper than Manual data processing
d) Processes large volume of data

16) Which is not an advantage of DBMS?

a) Controlled redundancy b) Unauthorised access
c) Data sharing d) Providing Backup & recovery

17) In ___ user directly interacts with the database.

a) multi-tier architecture b) 1- tier architecture
c) 2- tier architecture d) 3- tier architecture

18) Which is not the responsibility of DBA

a) Designing the database b) Authorizing users to access the database
c) Creating users d) Taking care of backup & regular

19) Which is not the part of 3-tier DBMS architecture

a) Presentation tier b) Application tier
c) Database tier d) Storage tier

20) Which is not a part of 3- schema architecture

a) Network schema b) Internal schema
c) Conceptual schema d) External schema

21) In E-R diagram, Entity is represented using

a) Diamond b) Double ellipse
c) Ellipse d) Rectangle

22) In E-R diagram, Relationship is represented using

a) Diamond b) Double ellipse
c) Ellipse d) Rectangle

23) In E-R diagram, an attribute is represented using

a) Diamond b) Double ellipse
c) Ellipse d) Rectangle

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 2nd PUC CS MCQs

24) In E-R diagram, multi-valued attribute is represented using

a) Diamond b) Double ellipse
c) Ellipse d) Rectangle

25) In E-R diagram, Key attribute is represented using

a) Diamond b) Ellipse
c) Ellipse with underlying line d) Rectangle

Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate word/words from those given
in brackets. (Repeated answers will not be considered)
I. (alternate key, candidate key, super key, primary key, foreign key)
1) ___ is an attribute eligible to become primary key
2) ___ is an attribute which can uniquely identify records in a relation.
3) ____ is an attribute that is defined as a primary key in another table.
4) An attribute which is eligible to become primary key, but it is not selected as Primary
key is called an ____ .
5) ____ is a set of candidate keys.

II. (relationship, meta data, degree of relationship, domain, data warehouse)

1) A __ is a set of values an attribute is permitted take in a table.
2) ___ is a central repository of current and historical data used for creating reports.
3) A ___ is an association among 2 or more entities.
4) The ___ refers to the number of entities participating in a relation.
5) ___ is data about data.

III. (Data mining , Data independence, bottom-up approach, Attribute, Entity)

1) ___ is a real world object, that has existence & distinguishable from other objects
2) ___ is the property that describes an entity.
3) The ability to modify a schema definition at one level without affecting the schema
definition at another level is called ___.
4) ___ is discovery of knowledge from the large volume of data.
5) Generalization is a ___ in which two lower level entities are combined to form a higher
level entity.

IV. ( Physical data independence, Table, Hierarchical data model, Specialization , Data
mining)
1) ____ is extracting the information from the large volume of data.
2) ___ is a top-down approach in which one higher level entity may be broken down into 2
or more lower level entities.
3) The ability to modify the physical schema without having to change the conceptual
schema is called ____
4) ___ organizes data in a tree like structure.
5) A relation is a ___ that consists rows (records) and columns (attributes).

V. ( Data redundancy, DBMS, Graph, Relational data, Conceptual schema)

1) Network data model organizes data in the form of a ____
2) In ___ model, data is organized in table.
3) The ability to modify the ___ without having to change the external schema is called
Logical data independence
4) ___ cannot be eliminated but can be controlled using a database system
5) ____ is a software used for creating and managing the database.

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VI. (ISAM, Tuple, Data redundancy, View, Data integrity)

1) Validity & accuracy of data is referred as ___
2) ___ combines the best features of sequential & direct access.
3) Duplication of data is called ____
4) A record in a table is called ___
5) External level is called the ___ level in 3-schema architecture.

VII. (Diamond, Rectangle, Database, Tree , Table)

1) Hierarchical data model organizes data in a ____ like structure.
2) In Relational data model, data is organized in a ___
3) ___ is a collection of logically related data.
4) In E-R diagram, Relationship is represented using ___
5) In E-R diagram, ___ is used to represent an Entity.

(Study all the definitions & 1 mark questions given in the book properly.
Many different types of MCQs & Fill in the blank questions can be answered easily.
Also, the above questions can be reframed in many different ways.
If you are thorough/clear with the answers to the above questions, you can answer easily
other types also.)

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. b 2.d 3.c 4.a 5.b 6.d 7.c 8.a 9.d 10.a
11.a 12. d 13.c 14. b 15. d 16. d 17 .b 18. a 19. d 20 a
21. d 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. c

Fill in the blanks

I. 1) candidate key 2) primary key 3) foreign key 4) alternate key 5) super key

II. 1) domain 2) data warehouse 3) relationship 4) degree of relationship 5) meta data

III. 1) Entity 2) Attribute 3) Data independence 4) Data mining 5) bottom-up approach

IV. 1) Data mining 2) Specialization 3) Physical data independence

4) Hierarchical data model 5) Table
V. 1) Graph, 2) Relational data 3) Conceptual schema 4) Data redundancy 5) DBMS
VI. 1) Data integrity 2) ISAM 3) Data redundancy 4) Tuple 5) View
VII. 1) Tree 2) Table 3) Database 4) Diamond 5) Rectangle

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Chapter 14: SQL

1) Find the odd one out
a) ORACLE b) MYSQL c) DB2 d) C++
2) Expansion of SQL is
a) Standard Query Language b) Structured Query Language
c) Standard Question Language d) Structured enQuery Language

3) Each SQL statement should be terminated by a

a) Colon (:) b) Comma (,) c) Dot (.) d) Semicolon (;)

4) DDL stands for ______________

a) Dual Data Language b) Data Definition Language
c) Double Data Level d) Data Driven Language
5) DML stands for
a) Dual Data Manipulation Language b) Data Maintenance Language
c) Data Manipulation Language d) Data Management Language
6) CREATE is a __ command
a) DDL b) DML c) DQL d) TCL
7) DROP is a __ command
a) DCL b) DDL c) DML d) DQL
8) ALTER is an example for __
a) DCL command b) TCL command
c) DDL command d) DML command
9) DML commands are used to
a) Define the structure of a table b) Change the values of a table
c) Grant & Revoke permissions d) control the data transaction
10) The ORDER BY clause is used to
a) Group the records in a table b) sort the data in a table
c) Order new data from a table d) to enter new data in an order
11) Which of the following is a TCL command
a) GRANT b) COMMIT c) ALTER d) DESCRIBE
12) Identify the data type not supported in SQL
a) VARCHAR b) CHAR c) PICTURE d) DATE
13) Which is not a SQL logical operator
a) NOT b) NAND c) AND d) OR
14) Which of the following is not an AGGREGATE function in SQL
a) COUNT() b) SUM() c) AVERAGE() d) MAX()
15) Which of the following is not a DML command
a) INSERT INTO b) UPDATE c) DELETE d) ALTER
16) Which of the following is a DCL command
a) GRANT b) COMMIT c) ALTER d) DESCRIBE
17) The command used to view the structure of a table
a) SHOW b) DESC c) SELECT d) VIEW
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18) Choose the incorrect statement from the following

a) ALTER command is used to change the values stored in a record
b) DESC command is used to list the structure of a table
c) DUAL table is a dummy table.
d) SELECT DISTINCT command is used to eliminate the duplicate records while displaying
19) Choose the incorrect statement from the following
a) DUAL is a single row, single column table.
b) DUAL is a dummy table.
c) DUAL table can be used to perform some mathematical operations without using a table
d) DUAL is a table which can get data from 2 tables.
20) Identify the data type not supported in SQL
a) VARCHAR b) RAW c) IMAGE d) LONG
21) Take the odd man out
a) DCL command b) DDL command C) DLL command d) DML command
22) Identify which is not a type of SQL command.
a) CCL command b) DCL command C) DDL command d) TCL command
23) The correct Syntax of SELECT statement is
a) SELECT column(s) FROM table WHERE condition ORDER BY column;
b) SELECT column(s) WHERE condition FROM table ORDER BY column;
c) SELECT column(s) FROM table ORDER BY column WHERE condition;
d) SELECT column(s) FROM table IF condition ORDER BY column;
24) The correct Syntax of INSERT statement is
a) INSERT INTO tablename VALUES (value1,value2,…);
b) INSERT INTO TABLE tablename VALUES (value1,value2,…);
c) INSERT INTO tablename (value1,value2,…);
d) INSERT INTO TABLE tablename (value1,value2,…);

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. d 2.b 3.d 4.b 5.c 6.a 7.b 8.c 9.b 10.b
11.b 12. c 13.b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. d 20 c
21. c 22. a 23. a 24. a

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Chapter 15,16,17: Networking concepts

1) Expansion of ARPANET
a) Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
b) American Research Projects Agency Network
c) Advanced Remote Projects Agency Network
d) American Relational Projects Advanced Network
2) Expansion of LAN is
a) Large Area Network b) Logical Area Network
c) Local ARPA Network d) Local Area Network
3) Expansion of MAN is
a) Manual Area Network b) Metropolitan Area Network
c) Modern Area Network d) Medium Area Network
4) Find the Odd one out
a) Bus topology b) Train topology c) Tree topology d) Ring topology
5) Select the Odd one out
a) Bus topology b) Ring topology c) Star topology d) Circle topology
6) Pick the Odd one out
a) Co-axial b) Twisted pair c) Optical fiber d) Infrared
7) Find the Odd one out
a) Network switching b) Packet switching
c) Message switching d) Circuit switching
8) Select the Odd one out
a) Simplex b) Full simplex c) Half duplex d) Full duplex
9) Choose the Odd one out
a) Bridge b) Switch c) Gate d) Hub
10) Pick the Odd one out
a) Firewall b) Window c) Gateway d) Router
11) What does the acronym GSM stands for
a) Global System for Mobile communication
b) Global Software for Mobile communication
c) Global Software for Movement tracking
d) Gully System for Mobile tracking
12) Acronym SIM stands for
a) Subscriber Identity Module b) Server Identification Memory
c) Server Identification number d) Subscriber’s Identity Memory

13) GPRS stands for

a) Global Positioning Radar System b) Global Packet Radar Service
c) General Program Radio System d) General Packet Radio Service

14) Expansion of CDMA

a) Code Divided Multiple Area b) Code Division Multiple Access
c) Cellular Divided Multiple Area d) Cellular Division Metropolitan Area

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 2nd PUC CS MCQs

15) Find the odd one out

a) Radio wave b) TV wave c) Micro wave d) Satellite

16) Which of the following is not an Anti-Virus

c) McAfee b) Norton c) Router d) Quick Heal

17) Which of the following is not necessary for LAN?

a) NIC (Network Interface Card) b) Switch c) Cable d) Modem

18) Wi-Fi is
a) Wireless Fidelity b) Wired Fidelity c) Wired LAN d) Wireless Firewall

19) In UTP cable, UTP stands for

a) Universal Twisted Pair b) Unshielded Twisted Pair
b) Universal Transfer Protocol d) Universal Transmission Port

20) In STP cable, STP stands for

c) Universal Twisted Pair b) Shielded Twisted Pair
d) Universal Transfer Protocol d) Universal Transmission Port

21) Which of the following statement is wrong w.r.t Computer virus

a) Virus is a program which enters into a computer without the user’s knowledge.
b) Virus slows down normal working of a computer.
c) Virus can replicates itself.
d) Virus speeds up the working of a computer.

22) TCP/IP stands for

a) Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
b) Transferred Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
c) Transfer Carry Protocol / Intranet Protocol
d) Transaction Control Protocol / Intranet Protocol

23) Identify the Incorrect answer

a) TCP (Transfer Central Protocol) b) FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
c) HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) d) IP (Internet Protocol)

24) ______ is a small text information that a web server transmits to a web browser
so that a web server can keep track of the user’s activity on a specific web site.
a) SMS b) Hyper Text c) Cookies d) e-mail

25) ____ is a proficient programmer who tries to access other’s system with the intension of
misusing the information.
a) Hacker b) Cracker c) Database Administrator d) Web developer

26) ____ is a proficient programmer who tries to access other’s system with the intention to
study the loop holes of the security system & without the intension of misusing the
information.
a) Hacker b) Cracker c) Database Administrator d) Web programmer
27) A computer that can be used to work as a client & a server is known as ________
a) Client b) Server c) Dedicated server d) Non-dedicated server
28) A Network topology in which each computer is connected to the next computer,
with the last node connected to the first node is known as ___
a) Tree topology b) Star topology c) Ring topology d) Bus topology

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 2nd PUC CS MCQs

29) Web hosting is

a) Developing a Website. b) Making a website available to others.
c) Registering a website. d) Removing a website.

30) Which type of software is not freely available?

a) Shareware b) Proprietary c) OSS d) FLOSS
31) Which of the following is not the services of e-commerce?
a) Electronic Data transfer b) Manual Fund transfer
c) Digital cash d) Online trading
32) Acronym FLOSS stands for
a) Free Libre and Open Source Software b) Free Laws for Open Source Software
c) Free Liberty Output Software Source d) Freedom Level Open Software Source
33) Proprietary Software is
a) Neither open source nor freeware b) Open source but not freeware
c) Open source and freeware d) Either open source or freeware
34) W3C is
a) World Wide Web Construction b) Web of World Wide Consortium
c) World Wide Web Consortium d) World Wide Web Carrier
35) Expansion of IPR is
a) Intelligent Proof Resource b) Intellectual Property Resource
c) Internet Proprietary Rights d) Intellectual Property Rights
36) URL stands for
a) Universal Resource Language b) Uniform Rights Locator
c) Uniform Resource Locator d) Universal Resource Location
37) Which is not a part of URL
a) Protocol b) Name of the server c) Location of the file d) Browser used
38) Telnet is
a) An Internet utility to log on to a remote computer b) Protocol
c) A web browser d) A World Wide Web
39) Which of the following is not a valid HTML tag used while designing a form
a) <input type=”radio” … > b) <input type=”tv” … >
c) <input type=”checkbox” … > d) <input type=”submit” … >
40) The tag used to insert a picture in a webpage is
a) <img src=___ > b) <pic src=___>
c) <pic source=__> d) <image source=___ >

41) The tag not used within <table> tag is __

a) <td> b) <th> c) <tr> d) <tt>
42) Identify the incorrect statement
a) Web script is a group of commands embedded in a web page
b) Web scripts are executed by a Compiler.
c) The server side scripts are created by ASP, JSP, etc.
d) The Client side scripts are created by VB script, Java Script, etc.

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 2nd PUC CS MCQs

43) Client side scripts are executed by

a) Web browser b) Web server
c) Internet d) WWW
44) Identify the incorrect statement related to XML
a) XML tags are not case sensitive
b) In XML, we can define our own tags
c) All XML tags are container tags
d) Expansion of XML is eXtensible Markup Language
45) Which of the following is not a text formatting tag
a) <b> b) <h6> c) <li> d) <font>
46) In DHTML, D stands for
a) Derived b) Dedicated c) Design d) Dynamic

ANSWERS FOR MCQ

1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. a
12. a 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. a
23. a 24. c 25. b 26. a 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. a
34. c 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. a
45. c 46. d

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